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Test Booklet Code A Test Booklet Sr. No.:

__________________________________________________________________________________

TEST PAPER
Marks: 100 Time: 60 minutes

ROLL NO.: _______________________ NAME: _______________________

SIGNATURE: _______________________ DATE / TIME: _______________________

INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES o m

i
. c
Before attempting the paper carefully read out all the Instructions & Examples given

ii
i a
on Side 1 of Answer Sheet (OMR Sheet) supplied separately.
At the start of the examination, please ensure that all pages of your Test booklet are

e d
properly printed; your Test booklet is not damaged in any manner and contains 100
questions. In case of any discrepancy the candidate should immediately report the

entertained at the later stage.

y P
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An OMR Answer Sheet is being provided separately along with this Test booklet.

u
Please fill up all relevant entries like Roll Number, Test Booklet Code etc. in the

S t
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E
Make sure to fill the correct Test booklet code on Side 2 of the OMR Answer Sheet. If
the space for the Booklet Code is left blank or more than one booklet code is indicated
therein, it will be deemed to be an incorrect booklet code & Answer Sheet will not be
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consequences arising out of any error or omission in writing the test booklet code.
v This Test Booklet consists of 06 pages containing 100 questions. Against each
question four alternative choices (1), (2), (3), (4) are given, out of which one is correct.
Indicate your choice of answer by darkening the suitable circle with BLACK/BLUE
pen in the OMR Answer Sheet supplied to you separately. Use of Pencil is strictly
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incorrect response.
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negative marking. The total time allocated is 60 minutes.
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Test Booklet Code - A PH(Civil) Page 1 of 6

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Q.
Question
No.
1 The geologic cycle for formation of soil is
(1) Transportation – Deposition - Weathering (2) Weathering - Transportation – Deposition
(3) Transportation – Weathering - Deposition (4) None of the these
2 The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of the given soil mass is called
(1) Voids Ratio (2) Specific gravity (3) Porosity (4) Water content
3 The ratio of Volume of water to the volume of voids in the soil mass
(1) Voids Ratio (2) Water content (3) Porosity (4) Degree of Saturation
4 Pycnometer is used to determine
(1) Dry density (2) Specific gravity (3) Voids Ratio (4) Water content
5 According to ISI soil classification the silt size varies between
(1) 0.005 to 0.05 (2) 0.002 to 0.075 (3) 0.002 to 0.02 (4) 0.002 to 0.06
6 The maximum water content at which a reduction in water content does not cause a
reduction in the volume of the soil mass is called
(1) Shrinkage limit (2) Plastic limit (3) Liquid Limit (4) Plasticity index
7 A soil having the co-efficient of permeability as 1 mm/sec can be designated as

8
(1) clay (2) Silt (3) sand
Which soil is expected to have least bearing capacity?
(1) Laminated rocks (2) Compact dry medium sand
(4) Gravel

o m
9
(3) Loose fine sand (4) Black Cotton soil

. c
The ratio of settlement at any time „t‟ to the final settlement is known as
(1) Coefficient of consolidation
a
(2) Degree of consolidation

di
(3) Consolidation Index (4) consolidation of undisturbed soil
10 For saturated clays the shear strength in terms of unconfined compressive strength
shall be

11
(1) 0.5qu (2) qu

P e
(3) 2 qu
If the void ratio of soil sample is 1.08, the porosity is
(4) 1.5 qu

12
(1) 48.1% (2) 50.5%

d y (3) 55% (4) 52%

In plate load test the size of the pit is generally not less than

t u
(1) 3 times the size of the plate
(3) 5 times the size of plate
(2) 4 times the size of the plate
(4) none of the above
13
S
Which of the following is not a field test

E
(1) Vane shear test
(3) Standard Penetration Test
(2) Triaxial test
(4) Plate load test
14 In standard penetration test on fine sand or silty sand below the water table the value
of N is corrected if it comes out more than
(1) 20 (2) 15 (3) 25 (4) 10
15 The law which states that, “Within elastic limit the strain produced is proportional to
the stress producing it is known as
(1) Stress Law (2) Poisson’s law (3) strain law (4) Hooke’s Law
16 Which of the following is a determinate structure?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

17 Which of the following represents a support providing restraint against both

horizontal and vertical direction but not rotation

(1) (2) (3) (4)

18 A body is said to be in equilibrium if
(1) it moves horizontally (2) it moves vertically
(3) it rotates about its CG (4) none of these

Test Booklet Code - A PH(Civil) Page 2 of 6

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19 A cantilever of span L has moment acting at free end. The shear force at free end will
be
(1) M/L (2) ML (3) Zero (4) M/2L
20 The moment of Inertia of a rectangular section having width of 4 cm & a depth of 6
cm would be
(1) 12 (2) 32 (3) 72 (4) 24
21 The centre of area of a triangle is at the point where three
(1) medians of the triangle meet
(2) perpendicular bisectors of the sides of the triangle meet
(3) Bisectors of the angle of the triangle meet
(4) None of these
22 The bending moment at a section in a beam is maximum where shearing force is
(1) Constant (2) changes sign passing through zero (3) negative (4) maximum
23 A T-section is used as a simply supported beam with uniform loading. The maximum
bending stresses for a given load will occur at the
(1) Top of the section (2) C. G. Of the section
(3) Mid-point of the depth of section (4) Bottom of the section
24 The shear stress distribution over a rectangular cross section of a beam is
(1) Straight line (2) Circular (3) Parabolic (4) Elliptical
25
m
In earth retaining structures like retaining walls the factor of safety against
overturning is
o
26
(1) 2 (2) 1.5 (3) 3
The buckling load will be maximum for a column, if
.
(1) one end of the column is clamped and the other end is free
c
(4) 2.5

(2) both ends of the column are clamped

a
di
(3) both ends of the column are hinged
(4) one end of the column is hinged and the other end is free
27 The weight of a cement bag is
(1) 45 kg (2) 50 kg
P e(3) 100 kg (4) 90 kg
28

29
y
Slump test for concrete is carried out to determine
(1) Strength
d
(2) Durability (3) Water content
For the construction of RCC slabs, columns, beams etc the minimum recommended
(4) Workability

grade of concrete mix is

(1) M 10
t u
(2) M15 (3) M20 (4) M25
30

E S
For main objective of compaction of concrete is
(1) To eliminate air voids
(2) To achieve maximum density
(3) To provide proper contact between concrete and reinforcing materials
(4) All of the these
31 As specified by ISI, Cement concrete attains the full strength in
(1) 7 days (2) 14 days (3) 28 days (4) 60 days
32 The pH value of water used in mixing of ingredients of concrete should be
(1) more than 6 (2) Less than 6 (3) any value (4) None of these
33 For determination of characteristic strength of concrete the size of cubes
recommended in mm is
(1) 70.5x70.5x70.5 (2) 150x150x150 (3) 200x200x200 (4) 100x100x100
34 In IS method of mix design the accepted proportion of low results is
(1) 1 in 5 (2) 1 in 10 (3) 1 in 15 (4) 1 in 20
2
35 The modules of elasticity of M-25 grade concrete (in N/mm ) as per IS: 456-2000 is
assumed as
(1) 36,000 (2) 30,000 (3) 28,500 (4) 25,000
36 The minimum cement content recommended by IS: 456 for Reinforced cement
concrete with normal weight 20 mm size aggregates subjected to moderate exposure
3
in Kg/m
(1) 300 (2) 320 (3) 340 (4) 360
37 Plain cement concrete has very high
(1) Flexural strength (2) Compressive Strength (3) Tensile strength (4) Shear strength
38 The maximum percentage of steel in a RCC beam is
(1) 1 % (2) 2 % (3) 3 % (4) 4 %

Test Booklet Code - A PH(Civil) Page 3 of 6

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39 The maximum spacing of the vertical stirrups to resist shear in beam, in terms of
effective depth “d” is restricted to
(1) d (2) 0.5 d (3) 0.75 d (4) 3d
40 The development length in tension in HYSD bars when used with M20 grade of
concrete is
(1) 68 times the nominal dia. of bar (2) 51 times the nominal dia. of bar
(3) 46 times the nominal dia. of bar (4) 78 times the nominal dia. of bar
41 The load carrying capacity of column designed by working stress method is 500 kN.
The collapse load of the column is
(1) 500.0 kN (2) 662.50 kN (3) 750.0 kN (4) 1100.0 kN
42 The maximum shear stress in a rectangular beam is
(1) 1.25 times the average (2) 1.50 times the average
(3) 1.75 times the average (4) 2.0 times the average
o
43 The anchorage value of a 45 bend in reinforcing bar embedded cin concrete is
assumed to be
(1) 2 times the diameter of bar (2) 4 times the diameter of bar
(3) 8 times the diameter of bar (4) 16 times the diameter of bar
44 In a two way slab, main reinforcement is provided along
(1) width of the slab (2) length of the slab

45
(3) Diagonal of the slab (4) length and width of the slab

o m
The effective depth of R.C.C beam is taken from topmost compressive fiber to the
(1) top of the tensile steel reinforcement
(3) center of gravity of the tensile steel
. c
(2) bottom of the tensile steel reinforcement
(4) bottom of the beam
46
a
As per IS: 456-2000 recommendations the thickness of footing edge on soils should
not be less than

di
(1) 100 mm (2) 120 mm (3) 150 mm (4) 200 mm
47 The net upward soil pressure below the footing is uniform only if

P e
(1) Resultant of loads lie within middle third of the width
(2) Resultant of loads passes through the centroid of footing

48
y
(3) Resultant of loads passes through inner third point of the width

d
(4) Resultant of loads passes through outer third point of the width
One meter length of 10 mm diameter mild steel rod will weigh approximately

49
(1) 0.2 to 0.25 kg
t u
(2) 0.3 to 0.35 kg (3) 0.4 to 0.45 kg
Design of RCC Cantilever beams, is based on resultant forces at
(4) 0.6 to 0.65 kg

50
(1) Fixed End

E S (2) Free End (3) Mid span

Welded connections are preferred to riveted connections because
(1) they are economical
(4) mid-span and fixed support

(2) of the ease of connection

(3) the loss of member strength is smaller (4) they reduce the secondary stresses
51 Channel-section purlins are subjected to
(1) uniaxial bending (2) biaxial bending
(3) axial forces and by axial bending (4) all the these
52 The thickness of gusset plate should not be less than
(1) 6 mm (2) 8 mm (3) 12 mm (4) 16 mm
53 The slenderness ratio of the lacing bars should not exceed
(1) 100 (2) 120 (3) 145 (4) 180
54 The maximum pitch of any two adjacent rivets in terms of thickness of plate “t” is
limited to
(1) 24t (2) 32t (3) 36t (4) 40t
55 Minimum permissible size of weld is
(1) 3 mm (2) 5 mm (3) 6 mm (4) 8 mm
56 Maximum deflection in a simply supported beam should not exceed
(1) L/250 (2) L/325 (3) L/425 (4) L/235
57 The distance between C.G. of compression flange and C.G. of tension flange of a
plate girder is known as
(1) Overall depth (2) Clear depth
(3) Effective depth (4) Neutral axis depth
58 In plate girder the shear is primarily resisted by
(1) Tension Flange (2) Web Plate
(3) Compression flange (4) stiffeners

Test Booklet Code - A PH(Civil) Page 4 of 6

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59 If W and L are total superimposed load and the span of the plate girder in meter, the
approximate self weight of the girder is taken as
(1) WL/100 (2) WL/200 (3) WL/300 (4) WL/400
60 The most effective way to improve the moment capacity of a beam is
(1) increase the tension steel in excess of that required for a balanced section
(2) increase the width of beam
(3) provide compression reinforced section
(4) increase effective depth of beam
61 For one cubic meter of brick masonry, the number of bricks required are
(1) 400 (2) 450 (3) 500 (4) 550
62 The weight of a standard brick should be
(1) 1000 g (2) 1500 g (3) 2500 g (4) 3000 g
st
63 Water absorption for 1 class bricks should not be more than
(1) 12 % (2) 15 % (3) 20 % (4) 25 %
64 Efflorescence of bricks is due to
(1) Soluble salts present in clay for making bricks (2) High porosity of bricks
(3) High silt content in brick earth (4) Excessive burning of bricks
65 Which of the following is unstratified
(1) Sandstone (2) Limestone (3) Shale (4) Granite
66 The age of trees can be predicted by
(1) Length of medulary rays
o m
(2) Counting number of rings

67
(3) By measuring the diameter of pith
Plywood is specified by
. c
(4) By the thickness of the bark

68
(1) weight (2) volume (3) thickness
a (4) number of layers
If p is the standard consistency of the cement, the amount of water used in

di
conducting initial setting time test on cement is
(1) 0.65p (2) 0.85p (3) 0.6p (4) 0.8p
69
(1) soundness (2) strength e
Before testing setting time of cement one should test for

P(3) fineness (4) consistency

70
(1) viscosity y
Coal tar pitch is classified on the basis of

d
(2) Softening point (3) Specific Gravity (4) Ductility
71
than
t
(1) 1000 square kilometers
u
The effect of curvature of earth is neglected in case the area to be surveyed is less

(2) 800 square kilometers

72
E S
(3) 260 square kilometers (4) 460 square kilometers
The horizontal angle which a line makes with the true meridian through one of the
extremities of the line is known as
(1) Angle bearing (2) Inclined bearing (3) Magnetic bearing (4) True bearing
o
73 If quadrantal bearing of a place is N 5 42‟ W, the corresponding whole circle bearing
would be
o o o o
(1) 354 18’ (2) 174 18’ (3) 185 42’ (4) 275 42’
74 In a theodolite a condition arising when the image formed by the objective is not in
the plane of cross hairs, is known as
(1) Parallax (2) Out of sight (3) Transiting (4) Centering
75 In a closed traverse by included angles, the sum of measured interior angles, when
the number of sides of the traverse is n, should be
o o
(1) 360 (2) (2n-4) right angles (3) n(n-4) right angles (4) 180
76 A closed contour line with one or more higher altitude contours inside it represents
(1) A hill (2) A depression (3) A cliff (4) A cave
77 In plain table survey the method used for locating the plane table stations, is
(1) Traversing (2) Resection (3) Radiation (4) 1 or 2 of these
78 If the contour lines are equally spaced, they indicate
(1) Steep slope (2) depression (3) Plain ground (4) Uniform slope
79 Tachometric survey is particularly adopted where
(1) Obstacles, steep and broken ground, deep ravines etc. exist
(2) Too many curves at the border exist
(3) Measurement of bodies of water are involved
(4) Limitations of space exist

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80 In plane table survey, the plotting of inaccessible points can be conveniently done by
(1) Method of interpolation (2) Method of radiation
(3) Method of intersection (4) Method of traversing
81 Water having pH more than 7 is
(1) acidic (2) alkaline (3) neutral (4) none of these
82 The bacteria which survive in the absence of oxygen are called
(1) anaerobic (2) aerobic (3) facultative (4) E-coli
83 Which source of water among the following is not a subsurface source
(1) springs (2) wells (3) storage reservoirs (4) infiltration galleries
84 Cleaning of rapid sand filters is done by
(1) scraping and removal of sand (2) back washing (3) any of 1 & 2 (4) none of these
85 Disinfection of water helps in
(1) removing turbidity (2) removing hardness
(3) killing pathogenic bacteria (4) complete sterilization
86 The suitable layout for a water supply distribution system, for a city of roads of
rectangular road pattern, is
(1) dead end system (2) grid iron system (3) ring system (4) radial system
87 A sewer which receives the discharge from a number of independent houses is,
called

88
(1) house sewer (2) intercepting sewer (3) lateral sewer
The most suitable section of a sewer in a combined sewerage system is
o m (4) outfall sewer

89
(1) rectangular (2) circular (3) egg shaped
The detention period in a septic tank is of the order of
. c(4) parabolic

(1) 2-4 hours (2) 4-8 hours

a
(3) 12-36 hours (4) 2-4 days

di
90 The secondary treatment of sewage is caused by
(1) bacteria (2) algae (3) coagulants (4) nitrogen
91 A Newtonian fluid is defined as the fluid which
(1) is compressible and non-viscous
(3) is highly viscous
P e(2) obeys Newton’s law of viscosity
(4) is compressible and non-viscous
92
y
The resultant hydrostatic force acts through a point known as

d
(1) centre of gravity (2) centre of buoyancy (3) centre of pressure (4) none of the these
93

t u
The metacentric height of a floating body is
(1) the distance between metacentre and centre of buoyancy
(2) the distance between centre of buoyancy and centre of gravity

94
S
(3) the distance between metacentre and centre of gravity

E
(4) distance between top of body and metacentre
The flow rate through a circular pipe is measured by
(1) Pitot-tube (2) V-notch (3) Ogee weir (4) Venture-meter
95 Each term in Bernoulli‟s equation is some kind of energy
(1) Per unit weight (2) Per unit volume (3) Per unit area (4) None of these
96 Hydraulic grade line represents the sum of
(1) Pressure head and kinetic head (2) Kinetic head and datum head
(3) Pressure head, kinetic head and datum head (4) Pressure head and datum head
97 When the pipes are connected in series, the total rate of flow
(1) Is equal to the sum of rate of flow in each pipe
(2) Is equal to the reciprocal of the sum of the rate of flow in each pipe
(3) Is same as flowing through each pipe
(4) None of these
98 The discharge through a trapezoidal section is maximum when
(1) Half of top width = sloping side (2) Top width = half of sloping side
(3) Top width = 1.5 X sloping side (4) Top width = sloping side
99 Specific speed of turbine is defined as the speed of the turbine which
(1) Produces unit power at unit speed (2) Produces unit power at unit discharge
(3) Delivers unit discharge at unit head (4) Delivers unit discharge at unit head
100 A pump is defined as a device which converts
(1) Hydraulic energy into mechanical energy (2) Mechanical energy into hydraulic energy
(3) Kinetic energy into mechanical energy (4) Mechanical energy into kinetic energy

Test Booklet Code - A PH(Civil) Page 6 of 6

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