1.

The discharge through a V-notch varies

(a) Proportional to head (H)

(b) Inversely proportional to angle 𝜃

(c) Proportional to H5/2

(d) Inversely proportional to tan 𝜃 /2

Solution:

A V notch weir is also called the triangular notch or weir. The discharge over a
triangular notch or weir is given by the equation.

8 𝜃
Q= 𝐶𝑑 tan 2𝑔 𝐻5/2
15 2

Where Q=discharge of fluid,

𝐶𝑑 = 𝑐𝑜𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑐𝑕𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒

2.Two pipe systems are said to be equivalent when

(a) They carry same discharge

(b) They are satisfying Bernoulli's theory

(c) Both have same head loss and discharge values

(d) They are of same length and having same head loss

Solution:

The equivalent length method (L/D ratio) allows describing the pressure drop
through the pipe due to friction loss corresponding to flow rate i.e. if in the two
pipe of the system having same flow rate and same friction loss then these systems
of the pipe is said to be equivalent.

Or, an equivalent pipe is defined as the pipe of uniform diameter having loss of
head and discharge equal to the loss of head and discharge of a compound pipe
consisting of several pipes of different lengths and diameters.

There are two combinations of equivalent pipe system:

Pipes connected in series

Pipes connected in parallel

3. The length of a pipe is 1000 m and its diameter is 20 cm. If the diameter of an
equivalent pipe is 40 cm, then its length is :

(a) 4000 m

(b) 32000 m

(c) 20000 m

(d) 8000 m

Solution:

L1 = 1000m = 1 km

D1 = 20cm = 0.02 km, D2 = 40 cm = 0.04 km, L2=?

According to Dupit’s Equation

𝐿1 𝐿2
=
𝐷15 𝐷25

1000 𝐿2
=
205 0.045

𝐿2 =32 km=32000 m

4.Darcy-weisbach equation to calculate the head loss due to friction for flow
through pipes is applicable when the flow through the pipe can be :

(a) Laminar only

(b) Turbulent only

(c) Both laminar and turbulent

(d) Subcritical flow

Solution:

The pressure loss (or major loss) in a pipe, tube or duct can be calculated with the
Darcy-Weisbach equation

Head loss (hf) = (4flV2)/2dg

5.If H is the head over the crest of a rectangular weir, the discharge varies as:

(a) H

(b) H0.5

(c) H1.5

(d) H2.5

Solution:

Weir is a physical structure of masonry constructed across the channel width to

calculate the discharge of the channel section.
For rectangular weir:
The discharge through a rectangular notch weir is
2
Q= 𝐶𝑑 L 2𝑔 𝐻3/2
3

So the discharge is directly proportional to H3/2

6. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided -

(a) At the inlet

(b) At the outlet

(c) At the summit

(d) At any point between the inlet and outlet

Solution:

The highest point of the syphon is called the summit. The interruption such as
cavitation in the flow is caused by the pressure difference. Thus, an air vessel is
provided at the summit in order to avoid this interruption in the flow and to get
continuous flow.

7. If two pumps identical in all respects and each capable of delivering a discharge
'Q' against a head H are connected in parallel, the resulting discharge is

(a) 2Q against a head 2H

(b) 2Q against a head H

(c) Q against a head 2H

(d) Q against a head h

Ans. (b): For parallel connection of pumps -

Htotal= H₁= H₂ = constant

and Qtotal = Q1 + Q₂ +Q3 +...........

Qtotal = nQ

Where, n = number of pumps

Q = discharge per identical pump

if n = 2

Then,

for two pump

Qtotal = 2 Q and Htotal = H

8. Net positive suction head is

(a) pressure head + kinetic head

(b) pressure head + vapour pressure + kinetic head

(c) pressure head - vapour pressure + kinetic head

(d) pressure head - vapour pressure - kinetic head

Ans. (c): The net positive suction head (NPSH) is a term used in fluid mechanics
and engineering to describe the amount of energy that a fluid possesses as it enters
a pump, taking into account any losses due to friction, acceleration, or other
factors. Specifically, NPSH is defined as the difference between the absolute
pressure at the pump suction and the vapor pressure of the liquid being pumped,
expressed in terms of the height of a column of liquid.

In other words, NPSH is a measure of the pressure available to push liquid into the
pump relative to the pressure at which the liquid may start to vaporize. It is a
critical factor in determining the performance and efficiency of a pump, as
insufficient NPSH can result in cavitation, which can cause damage to the pump
and reduce its overall effectiveness.

pressure head - vapour pressure + kinetic head

9 Which of the following pumps is preferred for If a high head is to be developed,

the impellers are flood control and irrigation applications?

(a) Centrifugal pump

(b) Mixed flow pump
(c) Axial flow pump
(d) Reciprocating pump
Ans. (c) Axial flow pump or propeller pump is preferred for flood control and
irrigation application because it pumps low head and high discharge.
The axial pump is a pump in which fluid flows axially to the rotation of the
propeller. In axial flow, the fluid flows parallel to the axis of rotation, as in turbine.
Axial flow pump contains a propeller or centrifugal impeller reciprocal pump is in
the casing

10.The pressure of a liquid measured with the help of a piezometer tube is :

(a) Atmospheric pressure

(b) Gauge pressure

(c) Absolute pressure

(d) Vacuum pressure

Explanation:

Pressure measuring devices are called gauges, and the pressure measured with the
gauges are called gauge pressure

Atmospheric pressure, just like the terminology, it is the pressure created by the
atmosphere, this mostly influences the open channel flow

Absolute pressure is pressure that is related to the zero pressure in the empty. It
establishes a relation between atmospheric pressure and gauge pressure

Pabsolute = Patmospheric + Pgauge (if gauge pressure is positive)

Pabsolute = Patmospheric - Pgauge (if gauge pressure is negative)

Vacuum pressure is also called as negative pressure or suction pressure, this is the
pressure that is measured below the atmospheric pressure

Fig: Pressure Gauge

11.What is the main difference between the Otto and Diesel cycles?

A) Compression ratio
B) Temperature at the end of the compression process

C) Type of fuel used

D) Number of strokes in the cycle

Answer: B) Temperature at the end of the compression process

Explanation: The main difference between the Otto and Diesel cycles is the
temperature at the end of the compression process. In the Otto cycle, the air-fuel
mixture is compressed to a lower temperature, whereas in the Diesel cycle, the air
is compressed to a higher temperature, resulting in spontaneous combustion of the
fuel. This difference in temperature and combustion process leads to differences in
efficiency, power output, and emissions.

12. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Joule cycle?

A) It is an ideal cycle for a diesel engine.

B) It is an ideal cycle for a gas turbine engine.

C) It is a combination of isochoric and isobaric processes.

D) It is a combination of adiabatic and isobaric processes.

Answer: B) It is an ideal cycle for a gas turbine engine.

Explanation: The Joule cycle is an ideal cycle for a gas turbine engine that consists
of two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes. It is also known
as the Brayton cycle and is used in gas turbine engines for power generation and
propulsion.
13. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Second law of
thermodynamics?

A) It states that energy cannot be created or destroyed.

B) It states that the entropy of a system always increases or remains constant.

C) It states that the temperature of a system always increases during a

thermodynamic process.

D) It states that the work done by a system is equal to the heat absorbed by the
system.

Answer: B) It states that the entropy of a system always increases or remains

constant.

Explanation: The Second law of thermodynamics states that the total entropy of an
isolated system always increases over time, or remains constant if the system is in
a reversible process. Entropy is a measure of the disorder or randomness of the
system, and the law implies that all natural processes lead to an increase in the total
disorder of the universe.

14. What is a P-V diagram used for in engine analysis?

a) To determine the valve timing

b) To measure the engine power output

c) To analyze the combustion process

d) To calculate the engine efficiency

Answer: c) To analyze the combustion process

Explanation: A P-V diagram (pressure-volume diagram) is a graphical

representation of the pressure and volume changes that occur during one complete
engine cycle. It is used to analyze the combustion process and determine factors
such as the heat release rate, peak pressure, and indicated power output.

15. What is the function of the camshaft in an engine?

a) To control the flow of fuel and air

b) To ignite the fuel-air mixture

c) To open and close the engine valves

d) To convert the linear motion of the piston into rotational motion

Answer: c) To open and close the engine valves

Explanation: The camshaft is responsible for opening and closing the intake and
exhaust valves in the engine. It is driven by the crankshaft and uses a series of
lobes to push on the valve stems and open the valves at the correct time.

16. What is the heat balance sheet used for in IC engine testing?

a) To measure the frictional power of an engine

b) To measure the brake power of an engine

c) To determine the fuel consumption of an engine

d) To determine the mechanical efficiency of an engine

Answer: c) To determine the fuel consumption of an engine

Explanation: The heat balance sheet is a method used to determine the fuel
consumption of an engine. In this method, the heat supplied to the engine, the heat
rejected through the cooling system and exhaust, and the heat carried away by the
lubricating oil are all measured and accounted for. The difference between the heat
supplied and the heat

17. Which of the following represents the relationship between indicated thermal
efficiency, brake thermal efficiency, and mechanical efficiency?

a) Indicated thermal efficiency = brake thermal efficiency + mechanical efficiency

b) Brake thermal efficiency = indicated thermal efficiency + mechanical efficiency

c) Mechanical efficiency = indicated thermal efficiency - brake thermal efficiency

d) Indicated thermal efficiency = brake thermal efficiency - mechanical efficiency

Answer: d) Indicated thermal efficiency = brake thermal efficiency - mechanical

efficiency

Explanation: Indicated thermal efficiency is the ratio of the indicated power to the
energy input from the fuel, while brake thermal efficiency is the ratio of the brake
power to the energy input from the fuel. Mechanical efficiency is the ratio of the
brake power to the indicated power. The relationship between these efficiencies is
given by the equation, Indicated thermal efficiency = Brake thermal efficiency -
Mechanical efficiency.

18. Which of the following modes of heat transfer occurs through a medium
without any movement of the medium?

a) Conduction

b) Convection

c) Radiation

d) Both a and c

Answer: (a) Conduction

Explanation: Conduction is the transfer of heat through a medium by the transfer of
energy from one molecule to another, without any bulk motion of the medium
itself. This can occur in solids, liquids, and gases, and is most effective in solids
where the molecules are tightly packed.

19. Which of the following materials has the highest thermal conductivity?

a) Air

b) Water

c) Copper

d) Glass

Answer: (c) Copper

Explanation: Thermal conductivity is a measure of how well a material can

conduct heat. Copper has the highest thermal conductivity of any common metal,
with a value of approximately 400 W/mK at room temperature. This is why copper
is often used in heat sinks and other applications where efficient heat transfer is
important.

20.

1.Cooling a metal bar in air is an example of natural convection

2 Sunlight is a form of thermal radiation

Of the above statements

(a) 1 is wrong and 2 is correct

(b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 is wrong and 1 is correct

(d) 1 and 2 are wrong

Natural convection occurs when a fluid (such as air or water) is heated or cooled
and then moves due to the resulting density differences. This type of convection is
driven purely by buoyancy forces and does not require any external energy input.
Cooling a metal bar in air is an example of natural convection because the cooler,
denser air near the surface of the bar sinks and is replaced by warmer air from
above, creating a natural flow.

Thermal radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, such as

infrared radiation. Sunlight is a form of thermal radiation because it contains a
wide range of wavelengths, including those in the infrared portion of the spectrum.
Cooking on a stove, touching a hot metal surface, and blowing air over a hot drink
are all examples of heat transfer by conduction or convection, rather than radiation.

21. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is the stress induced when
the same load is applied gradually.

(a) equal to

(b) one-half

(c) twice
(d) four times

Ans:(c)

(1)Gradually applied load

σ gradual =W/A

(2)Suddenly Applied load

σ sudden =2W/A

σ sudden =2 σ gradual

(3)Impact load

σ impact =W/A[1 +√(1+2h/δ)

22. A solid metal bar of uniform diameter D and length L is hung vertically. If p is
density and E is the Young's Modulus, then the total elongation due to self weight
is

(a) pLg/2E

(b) pL^2g/2E

(c) pEg/212

(d) pL^2g/E
The correct answer is (d) pL^2g/E.

The elongation of a solid metal bar due to its self-weight can be calculated using
the formula:

ΔL = (pALg)/AE

where ΔL is the elongation, p is the density of the material, A is the cross-sectional

area of the bar, L is the length of the bar, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and E
is the Young's Modulus of the material.

Since the bar has a uniform diameter, its cross-sectional area can be given as:

A = πD^2/4

Substituting this into the formula for ΔL, we get:

ΔL = (pπD^2Lg)/4AE

Since the length of the bar is much greater than its diameter (i.e., L >> D), we can
assume that the bar has a negligible change in diameter due to its self-weight.
Therefore, we can take the Young's Modulus of the material to be constant
throughout the length of the bar.

Using the formula for the Young's Modulus of the material, E = stress/strain, we
can rewrite the formula for ΔL as:

ΔL = (pπD^2Lg)/(4stress)

where stress is the stress in the bar due to its self-weight.

The stress in the bar due to its self-weight can be calculated as:

stress = pALg

Substituting this into the formula for ΔL, we get:

ΔL = (pLg)/(4E)

Multiplying both sides by L, we get:

ΔL = (pL^2g)/4E
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) pL^2g/E.

23. The relation between modulus of elasticity & bulk modulus (k) is

(a) E=3k(1-2*Poisson's ratio)

(b) E= 3k(1 + Poisson's ratio)

(c) E= 3k(1+2 Poisson's ratio)

(d) E=3k(1-Poisson's ratio)

Ans. (a): The relation between modulus of elastic (E) & bulk modulus (k)

E=3K (1-2µ)

E=2G(1+μ)

E=9KG/(3K+G)

μ=(3K-2G)/(6K+2G)

μ=Poisson’s ratio
24. The deformation of a bar under its own weight as compared to that when
subjected to a direct axial load equal to its own weight will be

(a) half

(b) double

(c) one fourth

(d) the same

Ans. (a): Deflection due to load P

𝑃𝐿
𝛿1 =
𝐴𝐸

Deflection due to self load

𝑃𝐿
𝛿2 =
2𝐴𝐸

𝑃𝐿
𝛿1 𝐴𝐸 1
= 𝑃𝐿 =
𝛿2 2
2𝐴𝐸

25. Which of the following materials is most elastic.

(a) rubber

(b) brass
(c) plastic

(d) steel

Ans. (d): Elasticity is the property of solid materials to return to their original
shape and size after the forces deforming them have been removed. Steel is more
elastic than any other thing because steel comes back to its original shapes faster
than rubber when the deforming forces are removed.

26. A simply supported beam of length / carries a uniformly distributed load of 𝑤

per unit length. Ii will have maximum bending moment at midpoint of beam and
the value will be:

𝑤 𝑙2
(a)
2
𝑤 𝑙2
(b)
4
𝑤 𝑙2
(c)
6
𝑤 𝑙2
(d)
8
𝑤 𝑙2
(c)
16

Ans. (d): We know that

 𝑤𝑙
RA = RB =
2

Taking a section x − X from a point A at a distance x. Then taking moment at

𝑥=𝑥

𝑥
𝑀𝑠⋅𝑥 = 𝑅𝐴 𝑥 − 𝑤𝑥 ⋅
2
𝑤𝑙 𝑥2
𝑀𝑠⋅𝑥 = 𝑥−𝑤
2 2

For max. bending moment

𝑑𝑀1−𝑠
=0
𝑑𝑥
𝑤𝑙 𝑥
− 2𝑤 = 0
2 2
𝑤𝑙
= 𝑤𝑥
2

1
𝑥=
2

𝑙
At 𝑥 = [at mid] bending moment will be max. so
2

𝑤𝑙 𝑙 𝑤 × 𝑙 2
𝑀𝑥=1 = × −
2 2 2 4×2
𝑤𝑙 2 𝑤𝑙 2
𝑀1 = −
2 4 8
2
𝑤𝑙
M𝑀2 =
8
27. Bending moment at any point on a beam subjected to transverse loading will be
equal to

(a) Algebraic sum of moments of forces and moments of reactions on one side of
the section (point)
(b) Algebraic sum of moments of forces and moments of reaction on both sides of
the section (point)
(c) Algebraic sum of moments of forces on both sides of the section (point)
(d) Algebraic sum of moments of reaction of both sides of the section (point)

Ans. (a) : Bending moment at any point on a beam subjected to transverse loading
will be equal to algebraic sum of moments of forces and moments of reactions on
one side of the section (point).

28. The part of a member is said to be in pure bending if

(a) no bending moment exists in that part

(b) no shear force and no bending moment ex in that part
(c) shear force and bending moment are maximum
(d) No shear force exists in that part

Ans. (d) : The part of a member is said to be in pure bending if no shear force
exists.
29. In a cantilever beam subjected to a point load at its free end has maximum
bending moment

(a) fixed end of the beam

(b) at a distance of 0.6 × length of the beam
(c) free end of the beam
(d) mid span of the beam

Ans.(a): fixed end of the beam

30.

1.Shear force at any point of the beam is the algebraic sum of forces on either side
of the point

2.Bending moment at any point of the beam is the algebraic sum of moment of
forces on either side of the point.

Of the above statements

(a) 1 is wrong and 2 is correct

(b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 is wrong and 1 is correct

(d) 1 and 2 are wrong

Shear force at any point of the beam is the algebraic sum of forces on either side of
the point

Bending moment at any point of the beam is the algebraic sum of moment of
forces on either side of the point.

31.Which of the following bearing is preferred for oscillating conditions?

(a) Double row roller bearing

(b) Tapered roller bearing

(c) Needle roller bearing

(d) Angular contact single row ball bearing

Needle roller bearing

These bearings are used when heavy loads are to be carried with an oscillatory
motion.

32. In a full journal bearing, the angle of contact of the bearing with journal is__

(a) 3600
(b) 2700

(c) 1800

(d) 1200

When the angle of contact of the bearing with the journal is 360°, then the bearing
is called a full journal bearing

33.Teflon is used for bearings because of __

(a) Better heat dissipation

(b) Low coefficient of friction

(c) Smaller space consideration

(d) All of these

Teflon has low coefficient of friction.

It is dimensionally stable because it does not absorb moisture. It is chemically

inert. Teflon is self-lubricating.

34.The piston pin bearings in heavy duty diesel engines are __

(a) Needle roller bearings

(b) Tapered roller bearings

(c) Spherical roller bearings

(d) Cylindrical roller bearings

Needle roller bearing

These bearings are used when heavy loads are to be carried with an oscillatory
motion. For example, piston pin bearing in heavy-duty diesel engines where the
reversal of motions tends to keep the roller in correct alignment.

35.What is the coefficient of fluctuation of speed?

(a) The ratio of the maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed
(b) The ratio of the mean speed to the maximum fluctuation of speed
(c) The ratio of the mean speed to the minimum fluctuation of speed
(d) The ratio of the minimum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed
Answer: (a) The coefficient of fluctuation of speed is the ratio of the maximum
fluctuation of speed to the mean speed. Therefore, the correct answer is (a)

36.Which of the following terms refers to the speed at which the governor is
operating when the controlling force is equal to the resisting force?
(a) Height
(b) Mean equilibrium speed
(c) Maximum equilibrium speed
(d) Minimum equilibrium speed
Answer: (b) Mean equilibrium speed refers to the speed at which the governor is
operating when the controlling force is equal to the resisting force. Therefore, the
correct answer is (b).

37.Which of the following is NOT a type of governor?

(a) Watt governor
(b) Porter governor
(c) Proell governor
(d) All of the above are types of governors

Answer: (d) All of the above are types of governors. Therefore, the correct answer
is (d).

38.Which of the following is an advantage of a planetary gear train?

a) High efficiency
b) Low noise
c) Large gear reduction in a small space
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: A planetary gear train offers several advantages, including high

efficiency, low noise, and the ability to achieve a large gear reduction in a small
space. It is commonly used in automotive transmissions and other applications
where space is limited.

39.The gear train in which the input and output shafts are at an angle to each other
is known as:
a) Spur gear train
b) Helical gear train
c) Bevel gear train
d) Worm gear train
Answer: c) Bevel gear train
Explanation: A bevel gear train is a type of gear train in which the input and output
shafts are at an angle to each other. It consists of two bevel gears with intersecting
shafts that mesh together to transmit torque and rotation between the shafts. Bevel
gear trains are commonly used in applications such as automotive differentials and
power tools.

40.Gears with involute profile have become popular in comparison to those with
cycloidal profiles because:
1 They are interchangeable
2 They are insensitive to Centre-distance variation
3 Involute rack cutter is straight-sided
4 They occupy lesser space
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Ans. (b): Gear with involute profile have become popular because of
● They are insensitive to Centre-distance variation.
● Involutes rack cutter is straight sided.

41.The size of flywheel used in single cylinder 4-stroke engine compared to a

flywheel of the single cylinder 2-stroke engine of same capacity is:

A. Large B. Smaller C. Same D. None of theabove

In general, the flywheel used in a single cylinder 4-stroke engine is usually larger
than the flywheel used in a single cylinder 2-stroke engine of the same capacity.
This is because the 4-stroke engine has a different firing cycle than the 2-stroke
engine, which affects the way that the engine runs and the torque it produces.

In a 4-stroke engine, there is a power stroke every two revolutions of the

crankshaft, while in a 2-stroke engine, there is a power stroke every revolution of
the crankshaft. This means that a 2-stroke engine produces power more frequently
and is generally smoother running than a 4-stroke engine.

42.For proper fixing in to the engine cylinder, the outer surface of which liner need
to be accurately finished:
A. Wet liner
B. Dry liner
C. Wet liner and dry liner
D. None of the above
For proper fixing into the engine cylinder, the outer surface of a dry liner needs to
be accurately finished. Dry liners are a type of cylinder liner that are not press-
fitted into the engine block, but instead are installed in a cylinder bore that is
machined to a precise size and finish

43.The space between the piston and cylinder wall is called:

A. Piston clearance
B. End clearance
C. Lip clearance
D. None of the above
The space between the piston and cylinder wall is called Piston clearance

44.Valve train clearance is known as

A. Valve lift B. Valve overlap

C. Guide clearance D. Valve lash

Valve lash is the clearance between the valve stem and the rocker arm or cam
follower in an internal combustion engine. This clearance is necessary to allow for
thermal expansion of the valve and its components, as well as to ensure that the
valve fully closes during the compression and combustion phases of the engine
cycle. If the valve lash is too tight, the valve may not fully close, which can cause
loss of power and other engine performance issues. If the valve lash is too loose,
the valve may make noise and can cause excessive wear to the valve train
components.

45.What materials is plating on bore of aluminum alloy cylinder blocks to obtain a

wear resistant surface?

A. Chromium B. Sulphur C. Silicon D. Alumina

To obtain a wear-resistant surface on the bore of aluminum alloy cylinder blocks, a
commonly used method is to apply a coating of hard, wear-resistant material
through a process called cylinder bore plating. The material used for plating is
typically a type of electroplated or thermal sprayed material that is applied to the
cylinder bore surface to increase its wear resistance.

Among the options given, the material commonly used for plating the bore of
aluminum alloy cylinder blocks is chromium (Option A). Chromium is a hard and
wear-resistant metal that is often used as a coating material for engine components,
including cylinder bores and piston rings. The chromium plating is typically
applied in a thin layer using an electroplating process, which involves depositing
the chromium onto the surface of the cylinder bore using an electric current.

46.The power utilized to propel the vehicle is known as:

A. FHP B. BHP C. DHP D. IHP

Delivered Horsepower” is the power delivered to the propeller, which includes the
losses due to the gearbox, the bearings and the stern tube seal. The delivered
horsepower is usually 95%-98% of the Brake Horsepower, depending on the
propulsion system.
47.Splines and keys in mechanical assemblies:

A. Fasten studs into place B. Locks nuts to bolts

C. Locks gears to shafts D. Used as set screen

48.To further smoothen out the flow of power engines have:

A. Counterweights B. flywheels

C. Crankpins D. Crank webs

flywheels are commonly used in power engines to help smooth out their power
delivery and reduce vibration. A flywheel is essentially a heavy, rotating disc that
is attached to the engine's crankshaft. As the engine produces power, the flywheel
stores some of that energy as rotational momentum. Then, as the engine goes
through its power cycle and produces less power, the flywheel releases some of
that stored energy to help maintain a more consistent rotational speed and reduce
vibration.

In addition to helping smooth out power delivery and reduce vibration, flywheels
can also provide additional benefits such as helping to maintain consistent
generator output in power plants or providing an energy storage mechanism in
hybrid or electric vehicles.

49.How many times in minute the inlet valve of a four stroke engine working at
1000RPM open and close?

A. 500 B. 1000 C. 1500 D. 2000

For every two revolutions one cycle is completed in a four stroke engine. If speed
is 1000 rpm then number of complete cycles per minute is 500.

50.

1.The carbon deposits on the cylinder head is removed with scraper brush
2.valve rotators are used for rotating the valves on its own axis

Of the above statements

(a) 1 is wrong and 2 is correct

(b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 is wrong and 1 is correct

(d) 1 and 2 are wrong

The carbon deposits on the cylinder head is removed with scraper brush

valve rotators are used for rotating the valves on its own axis

51.Which type of brake system uses a hydraulic booster to increase the force
applied by the driver on the brake pedal?
(a) Drum brake system

(b) Disc brake system

(c) Servo brake system

(d) Pneumatic brake system

Answer: (c) Servo brake system

Explanation: Servo brake systems, also known as power brakes, use a hydraulic
booster to increase the force applied by the driver on the brake pedal. When the
driver presses the brake pedal, it actuates a piston in the master cylinder, which in
turn, activates the hydraulic booster. The hydraulic booster uses the pressure
differential between the vacuum created by the engine and atmospheric pressure to
increase the force applied by the driver on the brake pedal.

52.Which type of brake system is commonly used in modern cars?

(a) Mechanical brake system

(b) Hydraulic brake system

(c) Pneumatic brake system

(d) Servo brake system

Answer: (b) Hydraulic brake system

Explanation: Hydraulic brake systems are commonly used in modern cars. They
use hydraulic fluid to transmit the force from the brake pedal to the brake
mechanism. When the brake pedal is pressed, it pushes a piston in the master
cylinder, which sends hydraulic fluid through the brake lines to the wheel cylinders
or brake calipers, which then apply the brakes.

53.Which type of brake system is commonly used in heavy vehicles such as buses
and trucks?

(a) Disc brake system

(b) Hydraulic brake system

(c) Pneumatic brake system

(d) Servo brake system

Answer: (c) Pneumatic brake system

Explanation: Pneumatic brake systems are commonly used in heavy vehicles such
as buses and trucks. They use compressed air as the power source to actuate the
brake mechanism. When the driver presses the brake pedal, the compressed air is
released, and it activates the braking mechanism.

54.The type of car in which the driver's cabin is separated from the rear
compartment by using a window is called:

A. sedan B. coupe

C. limousine D. station wagon

The limousine body style usually has a partition separating the driver from the rear
passenger compartment. This partition includes a usually openable glass section so
passengers may see the road. Communication with the driver is possible either by
opening the window in the partition or by using an intercom system.

55.What is the purpose of a steering column in a vehicle's steering system?

a) To connect the steering wheel to the steering gear box

b) To support the weight of the vehicle's front end

c) To improve the vehicle's ride comfort

d) To provide power assistance to the steering system

Answer: a) The steering column connects the steering wheel to the steering gear
box and allows the driver to control the direction of the vehicle. It also houses the
ignition switch, turn signal switch, and other controls.

56.Which of the following is not a type of steering gear box?

a) Worm and roller

b) Worm and sector

c) Recirculating ball

d) Cylindrical

Answer: d) Cylindrical is not a type of steering gear box. The other options are all
common types of steering gear boxes used in vehicles.
57.Which of the following suspension systems is commonly used in two-wheelers?

a) MacPherson strut suspension

b) Double wishbone suspension

c) Telescopic fork suspension

d) Multi-link suspension

Answer: c) Telescopic fork suspension is commonly used in two-wheelers. It

consists of two fork tubes that slide up and down on the front wheel axle and are
supported by a spring and shock absorber.

58.What is the difference between a dead axle and a live axle?

(a) A dead axle supports the weight of the vehicle, while a live axle does not.

(b) A dead axle rotates with the wheels, while a live axle does not.

(c) A dead axle is rigidly connected to the vehicle frame, while a live axle is not.

(d) A dead axle provides power to the wheels, while a live axle does not.

Answer: (c) A dead axle is rigidly connected to the vehicle frame, while a live axle
is not.

Explanation: A dead axle is rigidly connected to the vehicle frame and does not
rotate with the wheels. A live axle is not rigidly connected to the vehicle frame and
rotates with the wheels.
59.What is a subframe in a vehicle?

(a) A frame that connects the wheels to the vehicle body

(b) A smaller frame that supports a specific component of the vehicle

(c) A frame that provides structural support for the engine and transmission

(d) A frame that provides a foundation for the suspension system

Answer: (b) A smaller frame that supports a specific component of the vehicle.

Explanation: A subframe is a smaller frame that supports a specific component of

the vehicle, such as the engine, transmission, or suspension. It is typically bolted
onto the main vehicle frame.

60.

1.Ladder frame &Monocoque frame is a type of frame construction

2.The primary function of a vehicle frame is to provide a comfortable ride to

passengers

Of the above statements

(a) 1 is wrong and 2 is correct

(b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 is wrong and 1 is correct

(d) 1 and 2 are wrong

The primary function of a vehicle frame is to support the engine and transmission.

Ladder frame &Monocoque frame is a type of frame construction

61............indicates eight wheel locations of which four are for driving wheels:

A. 6x4 B. 8x4

C. 4x2 D. 6x2

For example, 6 x 4 drive chassis vehicle:

• It consists of 6 wheels out of which 4 are the driving wheel.

62.. .......changes torque and transmits it from the propeller shaft through the
differential to drive axle shafts:

A. Final drive B. Flywheel

C. Clutch D. Gear box

63.In………. the spring itself acts as release levers:

A. Centrifugal clutch B. Cone clutch

C. Diaphragm clutch D. Single plate clutch

64.The four arms of the spider which connect the two yokes of the universal joint
are called:

A. Trunnion B. Bearing

C. Cage D. Pinion
65.To field windings of a starter motor are connected:

A. In parallel B. In series

C. Series and parallel D. None of the above

B. In series.

The field windings of a starter motor are typically connected in series to increase
the magnetic field strength and provide the necessary torque to start the engine.
When the windings are connected in series, the current flowing through both
windings is the same, and the voltage is divided between them. This increases the
overall resistance of the circuit, resulting in a stronger magnetic field.

66.Contact breaker points in system are made of:

A. Steel B. Bakelite

C. Alumina D. Tungsten

D. Tungsten.
Contact breaker points in a system, such as in an ignition system of an internal
combustion engine, are typically made of tungsten. Tungsten is a high melting
point metal with excellent resistance to wear and erosion. It is also a good
conductor of electricity, making it an ideal material for contact points that need to
handle high current and voltage.

Steel and Bakelite are not suitable for contact breaker points as they are not good
conductors of electricity, and they are prone to wear and erosion. Alumina is a
ceramic material that has excellent electrical insulation properties, but it is not
commonly used for contact points due to its low thermal conductivity and
relatively high cost.

67.For checking spark plug electrode gap you should used:

A. Micrometer B. Feeler gauge

C. Vernier calliper D. Plate gauge

Feeler gauge.

To check the spark plug electrode gap, a feeler gauge is typically used. A feeler
gauge is a thin strip of metal with precise thickness markings. The gauge is placed
between the center and ground electrodes of the spark plug to measure the gap
distance. The correct gap measurement for a specific engine can be found in the
engine manufacturer's specifications.

Micrometers are used to measure the outside diameter of a cylindrical object, such
as the bore of an engine cylinder. Vernier calipers are used to measure the inside
and outside dimensions of an object with high accuracy. Plate gauges are used to
check the flatness of a surface. None of these tools are suitable for measuring the
spark plug electrode gap.

68.Firing order of a four-cylinder petrol engine is:

A. 1-2-3-4 B. 4-3-2-1

C. 3-4-2-1 D. 1-3-4-2

The firing order of a four-cylinder petrol engine depends on its design and can
vary. However, the most common firing order for a four-cylinder engine is:

1-3-4-2

This means that the first cylinder to fire is cylinder number 1, followed by cylinder
number 3, cylinder number 4, and finally cylinder number 2. The firing order is
important to ensure that the engine runs smoothly and efficiently.

69.Which is not a part of magneto-ignition system?

A. Condenser B. Battery
C. Circuit breaker D. Induction coil

B. Battery.

A magneto-ignition system is a self-contained system that generates electrical

energy to produce a spark for the ignition of the air-fuel mixture in an internal
combustion engine. The system consists of several components, including:

A. Condenser: A device that stores electrical energy and prevents arcing at the
contact points of the breaker.

B. Circuit breaker: A mechanical switch that interrupts the flow of current from the
magneto to the ignition coil.

C. Induction coil: A device that amplifies the voltage from the magneto to produce
a high voltage spark at the spark plug.

A battery is not a part of a magneto-ignition system because a magneto generates

its own electrical energy without the need for an external power source. In contrast,
a battery ignition system requires an external battery to provide the electrical
energy needed for ignition.

70.

1.The amount of voltage required to produce spark in SI engine is termed as

threshold voltage
2.The function of ignition coil is to step up the battery voltage

Of the above statements

(a) 1 is wrong and 2 is correct

(b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 is wrong and 1 is correct

(d) 1 and 2 are wrong

The amount of voltage required to produce spark in SI engine is termed as Break

down voltage

The function of ignition coil is to step up the battery voltage

71.Spark plug gap ranges from:

A. 5mm-10mm B. 0.5mm-1mm

C. 1mm-5mm D. 0.5mm-3mm

B. 0.5mm-1mm.
The spark plug gap is the distance between the center and ground electrodes of the
spark plug. The gap size is important for proper ignition of the air-fuel mixture in
the engine. The recommended gap size can vary depending on the engine and the
spark plug manufacturer, but the typical range for a spark plug gap is 0.5mm to
1mm (or 0.020 inch to 0.040 inch).

Option A (5mm-10mm) and Option C (1mm-5mm) are not typical ranges for spark
plug gaps and are too wide for most engines. Option D (0.5mm-3mm) is too wide
for most engines and could result in poor engine performance or misfires.

72.What is the width of a national highway in India?

A. 4.5 meters

B. 7 meters

C. 10 meters

D. 45 meters

Explanation: The correct answer is D. 45 meters. As per the Indian Road Congress
(IRC), the minimum width of a national highway in India is 45 meters, which
includes the carriageway, median, and shoulders.

73.Which of the following is not a functional wing of the transport department in

India?

A. Enforcement

B. Registration
C. Intelligence

D. Operations

Explanation: The correct answer is C. Intelligence. The functional wings of the

transport department in India include Enforcement, Registration, Operations, and
Engineering.

74.What is the purpose of a condenser in a magneto-ignition system?

A. To generate electrical energy

B. To store electrical energy

C. To prevent arcing at the contact points of the breaker

D. To amplify the voltage from the magneto

Explanation: The correct answer is C. To prevent arcing at the contact points of the
breaker. A condenser is a device that stores electrical energy and prevents arcing at
the contact points of the breaker in a magneto-ignition system. It helps to ensure
that the ignition timing is accurate and the engine runs smoothly. The magneto
generates its own electrical energy, so option A is incorrect. Option B describes the
function of a battery, which is not part of a magneto-ignition system. Option D
describes the function of an induction coil in a magneto-ignition system.

75.What is the purpose of a catalytic converter in a vehicle?

A) To reduce the amount of carbon monoxide in the exhaust

B) To increase the fuel efficiency of the engine

C) To improve the engine's power output

D) To reduce the amount of nitrogen oxide (NOx) in the exhaust

Answer: D) To reduce the amount of nitrogen oxide (NOx) in the exhaust.

Explanation: A catalytic converter is an emission control device that is used in

vehicles to reduce the amount of harmful pollutants that are released into the
atmosphere. It works by converting harmful pollutants in the exhaust gases into
less harmful substances. One of the main pollutants that catalytic converters are
designed to reduce is nitrogen oxide (NOx), which is a major contributor to air
pollution and can have negative effects on human health and the environment.

Option A is incorrect because although catalytic converters do reduce the amount

of carbon monoxide in the exhaust, this is not their primary purpose. Option B is
incorrect because catalytic converters do not increase fuel efficiency directly,
although they can help to reduce fuel consumption by improving engine
performance. Option C is also incorrect because catalytic converters do not directly
affect the engine's power output.

76.Which of the following is a method used to reduce the amount of unburned fuel
and oil that is released into the atmosphere?

A. Blow-by control system

B. Catalytic converter

C. Afterburner

D. EGR
Answer: A. Blow-by control system.

Explanation: A blow-by control system is a method used to reduce the amount of

unburned fuel and oil that is released into the atmosphere. This system helps to
reduce pollution by capturing and returning these gases to the engine.

77.Which of the following is a source of pollution from vehicles that can be

controlled through proper engine maintenance?

A. Brake and tire wear

B. Exhaust emissions

C. Evaporative emissions

D. Diesel smoke

Answer: D. Diesel smoke.

Explanation: Diesel smoke is a source of pollution that can be controlled through

proper engine maintenance. Regular maintenance, such as changing the air filter
and fuel filter, can help to reduce the amount of smoke produced by a diesel
engine.

78.Which of the following is a method used to control NOx emissions from diesel
engines?

A. Afterburner

B. EGR
C. ECR

D. PCV system

Answer: B. EGR.

Explanation: EGR (exhaust gas recirculation) is a method used to control NOx

emissions from diesel engines. This involves recirculating some of the exhaust
gases back into the engine to reduce the production of NOx.

79

1. Adaptive noise control system systems help in improving the driving

experience by reducing outside noise
2. Electronic stability controlpreventing skidding of vehicles during sudden
braking

Of the above statements

(a) 1 is wrong and 2 is correct

(b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 is wrong and 1 is correct

(d) 1 and 2 are wrong

1Adaptive noise control system systems help in improving the driving

experience by reducing outside noise

Electronic stability control preventing skidding of vehicles during sudden

braking
80.Which of the following systems adjusts the speed of a vehicle to match the
speed of the vehicle in front of it?

a) Cruise control

b) Parking distance control

c) ABS

d) Adaptive cruise control

Answer: d) Adaptive cruise control

Explanation: Adaptive cruise control is a technology that adjusts the speed of a

vehicle to match the speed of the vehicle in front of it. It uses radar or camera
sensors to detect the distance between vehicles and adjusts the speed
accordingly. This system can help reduce driver fatigue on long highway drives
and improve safety.

81.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the
minimum distance that should be maintained by a driver when following
another vehicle?

a) 5 meters

b) 10 meters

c) 15 meters

d) 20 meters

Answer: b) 10 meters
Explanation: As per Rule 90 of the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations,
2017, the minimum distance that should be maintained by a driver when
following another vehicle is 10 meters.

82.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the
minimum width of the driver's seat in a motor vehicle?

a) 40 cm

b) 45 cm

c) 50 cm

d) 55 cm

Answer: b) 45 cm

Explanation: According to Rule 121 of the Motor Vehicles (Driving)

Regulations, 2017, the minimum width of the driver's seat in a motor vehicle is
45 cm.

83.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the
maximum permissible weight for a goods carriage?

a) 2000 kg

b) 5000 kg

c) 7500 kg

d) 10000 kg

Answer: c) 7500 kg
Explanation: According to Rule 93 of the Motor Vehicles (Driving)
Regulations, 2017, the maximum permissible weight for a goods carriage is
7500 kg.

84.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the
minimum height of the letters and numerals used for the registration mark of a
motor vehicle?

a) 50 mm

b) 60 mm

c) 70 mm

d) 80 mm

Answer: c) 70 mm

Explanation: According to Rule 50 of the Motor Vehicles (Driving)

Regulations, 2017, the letters and numerals used for the registration mark of a
motor vehicle should be in capital letters and of a minimum height of 70 mm.

85.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the
minimum age for obtaining a license to drive a motorcycle with an engine
capacity of 50cc or below?

a) 16 years

b) 18 years

c) 20 years

d) 21 years

Answer: a) 16 years
Explanation: According to Rule 30 of the Motor Vehicles (Driving)
Regulations, 2017, the minimum age for obtaining a license to drive a
motorcycle with an engine capacity of 50cc or below is 16 years.

86.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the
minimum distance that a driver should maintain when overtaking a vehicle?

a) 1 meter

b) 1.5 meters

c) 2 meters

d) 2.5 meters

Answer: b) 1.5 meters

Explanation: As per Rule 91 of the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations,

2017, the minimum distance that a driver should maintain when overtaking a
vehicle is 1.5 meters.

87.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the
maximum permissible length of a trailer or semi-trailer used for goods
transport?

a) 12 meters

b) 15 meters

c) 18 meters

d) 20 meters

Answer: c) 18 meters
Explanation: According to Rule 94 of the Motor Vehicles (Driving)
Regulations, 2017, the maximum permissible length of a trailer or semi-trailer
used for goods transport is 18 meters.

88.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the
maximum permissible weight of a three-wheeled motor vehicle?

a) 400 kg

b) 500 kg

c) 600 kg

d) 700 kg

Answer: c) 600 kg

Explanation: According to Rule 96 of the Motor Vehicles (Driving)

Regulations, 2017, the maximum permissible weight of a three-wheeled motor
vehicle is 600 kg.

89.

1.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, the maximum
permissible length of a goods vehicleis18 meters

2.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, the maximum
permissible width of a motor vehicle, including its load is 3.5 m

Of the above statements

(a) 1 is wrong and 2 is correct

(b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 is wrong and 1 is correct

(d) 1 and 2 are wrong

As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, the maximum

permissible length of a goods vehicle is 18 meters

Explanation: As per Rule 91 of the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations,

2017, the maximum permissible width of a motor vehicle, including its load, is
3.5 meters.

90.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the
minimum distance that a driver should maintain from the vehicle in front?

a) One car length

b) Two car lengths

c) Three car lengths

d) Four car lengths

Answer: b) Two car lengths

Explanation: According to Rule 91 of the Motor Vehicles (Driving)

Regulations, 2017, a driver should maintain a distance of at least two car
lengths from the vehicle in front.

91.What is the maximum amount of compensation payable to the victim of a hit

and run accident under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?

a) Rs. 50,000

b) Rs. 75,000
c) Rs. 1,00,000

d) Rs. 2,00,000

Answer: b) Rs. 75,000

Explanation: Section 161A of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 provides for the
payment of compensation to the victim of a hit and run accident by the State
Government. The maximum amount of compensation payable is Rs. 75,000.

92.What is the penalty for driving a vehicle without a valid driving license
under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?

a) Imprisonment for a term up to 3 months and/or fine up to Rs. 5,000

b) Imprisonment for a term up to 6 months and/or fine up to Rs. 10,000

c) Imprisonment for a term up to 1 year and/or fine up to Rs. 25,000

d) Imprisonment for a term up to 2 years and/or fine up to Rs. 50,000

Answer: b) Imprisonment for a term up to 6 months and/or fine up to Rs.

10,000

Explanation: As per Section 181 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, driving a
vehicle without a valid driving license is a punishable offense. The penalty for
this offense is imprisonment for a term up to 6 months and/or fine up to Rs.
10,000.
93.What is the maximum permissible length of a goods carriage under the
Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?

a) 10 meters

b) 12 meters

c) 14 meters

d) 16 meters

Answer: c) 14 meters

Explanation: As per Section 113 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the
maximum permissible length of a goods carriage is 14 meters.

94.What is the penalty for driving a motor vehicle without a valid fitness
certificate under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?

a) Fine up to Rs. 500

b) Fine up to Rs. 1,000

c) Fine up to Rs. 2,000

d) Fine up to Rs. 5,000

Answer: d) Fine up to Rs. 5,000

Explanation: As per Section 190 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, driving a
motor vehicle without a valid fitness certificate is an offense. The penalty for
this offense is a fine up to Rs. 5,000.
95.What is the minimum distance that a driver of a motor vehicle must maintain
from an emergency vehicle under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?

a) 50 meters

b) 75 meters

c) 100 meters

d) 150 meters

Answer: b) 75 meters

Explanation: As per Rule 108 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, the
driver of a motor vehicle must maintain a distance of at least 75 meters from an
emergency vehicle.

96.What is the penalty for driving a motor vehicle under the influence of
alcohol or drugs under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?

a) Imprisonment for a term up to 1 year and/or fine up to Rs. 5,000

b) Imprisonment for a term up to 2 years and/or fine up to Rs. 10,000

c) Imprisonment for a term up to 3 years and/or fine up to Rs. 15,000

d) Imprisonment for a term up to 5 years and/or fine up to Rs. 20,000

Answer: b) Imprisonment for a term up to 2 years and/or fine up to Rs. 10,000

Explanation: As per Section 185 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, driving a
motor vehicle under the influence of alcohol or drugs is a punishable offense.
The penalty for this offense is imprisonment for a term up to 2 years and/or fine
up to Rs. 10,000.

97.The green tax under the Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976 is levied
on:

a) All vehicles that are registered in Kerala

b) Vehicles that are more than 15 years old

c) Vehicles that emit high levels of pollutants

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: The green tax under the Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act,
1976 is levied on all vehicles that are registered in Kerala, vehicles that are
more than 15 years old, and vehicles that emit high levels of pollutants. The
purpose of this tax is to encourage the use of more environmentally friendly
vehicles and to discourage the use of vehicles that contribute to pollution.

98.Which of the following vehicles are exempt from road tax under the Kerala
Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976?

a) Ambulances

b) Fire engines

c) Vehicles owned by the armed forces

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: The Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976 provides

exemptions from road tax for certain types of vehicles, including ambulances,
fire engines, and vehicles owned by the armed forces.

99.The Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976 was enacted to:

a) Regulate the registration of motor vehicles in Kerala

b) Provide for the taxation of motor vehicles in Kerala

c) Establish rules for the operation of motor vehicles in Kerala

d) None of the above

Answer: b) Provide for the taxation of motor vehicles in Kerala

Explanation: The Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976 was enacted
primarily to provide for the taxation of motor vehicles in Kerala. It sets out the
various taxes that are levied on motor vehicles in the state, including road tax,
green tax, and fitness fee.

100.

1.Kerala State Road Transport Corporation is responsible for the administration

of the Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976?

2.The green tax under the Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976 is a tax
that is levied on motor vehicles based on their environmental impact
Of the above statements

(a) 1 is wrong and 2 is correct

(b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 is wrong and 1 is correct

(d) 1 and 2 are wrong

Kerala State Transport Department is responsible for the administration of the

Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976

The Kerala State Transport Department is responsible for the administration of

the Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976. The department is responsible
for implementing the provisions of the Act, including the collection of taxes and
the enforcement of penalties for non-compliance.

The green tax under the Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976 is a tax that
is levied on motor vehicles based on their environmental impact. However, the
green tax is waived for electric vehicles as they do not contribute to air
pollution and are considered to be more environmentally friendly.