Q1: A soft ferromagnetic material is placed in an external magnetic field.

The magnetic
domains :
(A) may increase or decrease in size and change its orientation.

(B) increase in size but no change in orientation.

(C) have no relation with external magnetic field.

(D) decrease in size and changes orientation.

Q1: A soft ferromagnetic material is placed in an external magnetic field. The magnetic
domains :
(A) may increase or decrease in size and change its orientation.

(B) increase in size but no change in orientation.

(C) have no relation with external magnetic field.

(D) decrease in size and changes orientation.

Solution:

Soft ferromagnetic materials are materials which can be easily magnetised and

demagnetised by external magnetic field. When external field is applied, the domains

experiences a net torque hence change its orientation.

Hence option (a) is correct

Q2: A particle is projected with velocity v0 along x-axis. A damping force is acting on the
particle which is proportional to the square of the distance from the origin. i.e. ma = –αx2. The
distance at which the particle stops :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q2: A particle is projected with velocity v0 along x-axis. A damping force is acting on the
particle which is proportional to the square of the distance from the origin. i.e. ma = –αx2. The
distance at which the particle stops :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Q3: A circular hole of radius is cut out of a circular disc of radius ‘a’ as shown in figure.
The centre of mass of the remaining circular portion with respect to point ‘O’ will be:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q3: A circular hole of radius is cut out of a circular disc of radius ‘a’ as shown in figure.
The centre of mass of the remaining circular portion with respect to point ‘O’ will be:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Let σ be the uniform mass density of disc then

Q4: Match List - I with List - II.

List – I List - II
(a) Source of microwave frequency (i) Radioactive decay of nucleus
(b) Source of infrared frequency (ii) Magnetron
(c) Source of Gamma Rays (iii) Inner shell electrons
(d) Source of X-rays (iv) Vibration of atoms and molecules
(v) LASER
(vi) RC circuit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

(B) (a) – (vi), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (v)

(C) (a) – (vi), (b) – (v), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

(D) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (vi), (d) – (iii)

Q4: Match List - I with List - II.

List – I List - II
(a) Source of microwave frequency (i) Radioactive decay of nucleus
(b) Source of infrared frequency (ii) Magnetron
(c) Source of Gamma Rays (iii) Inner shell electrons
(d) Source of X-rays (iv) Vibration of atoms and molecules
(v) LASER
(vi) RC circuit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

(B) (a) – (vi), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (v)

(C) (a) – (vi), (b) – (v), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

(D) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (vi), (d) – (iii)

Solution:

(a) Source of microwave frequency is magnetron.

(b) Source of infrared frequency is vibration of atoms and molecules

(c) Source of Gamma rays is radioactive decay of nucleus

(d) Source of X- rays inner shell electron transition.

Q5: Two electrons each are fixed at a distance ‘2d’. A third charge proton placed at the
midpoint is displaced slightly by a distance perpendicular to the line joining the
two fixed charges. Proton will execute simple harmonic motion having angular frequency : (m
= mass of charged particle)
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q5: Two electrons each are fixed at a distance ‘2d’. A third charge proton placed at the
midpoint is displaced slightly by a distance perpendicular to the line joining the
two fixed charges. Proton will execute simple harmonic motion having angular frequency : (m
= mass of charged particle)
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Comparing with equation of SHM

Q6: In the given figure, a body of mass M is held between two massless springs, on a smooth
inclined plane. The free ends of the springs are attached to firm supports. If each spring has
spring constant k, the frequency of oscillation of given body is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q6: In the given figure, a body of mass M is held between two massless springs, on a smooth
inclined plane. The free ends of the springs are attached to firm supports. If each spring has
spring constant k, the frequency of oscillation of given body is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:
Q7: The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is . Measured value of ‘L’ is
1.0 m from meter scale having a minimum division of 1 mm and time of one complete
oscillation is 1.95 s measured from stopwatch of 0.01s resolution. The percentage error in the
determination of ‘g’ will be:
(A) 1.03%

(B) 1.33%

(C) 1.13%

(D) 1.30%
Q7: The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is . Measured value of ‘L’ is
1.0 m from meter scale having a minimum division of 1 mm and time of one complete
oscillation is 1.95 s measured from stopwatch of 0.01s resolution. The percentage error in the
determination of ‘g’ will be:
(A) 1.03%

(B) 1.33%

(C) 1.13%

(D) 1.30%

Solution:

Q8: The de Broglie wavelength of a proton and α-particle are equal. The ratio of their
velocities is
(A) 4:2

(B) 4:3

(C) 1:4

(D) 4:1
Q8: The de Broglie wavelength of a proton and α-particle are equal. The ratio of their
velocities is
(A) 4:2

(B) 4:3

(C) 1:4

(D) 4:1

Solution:
Q9: Given below are two statements

Statement I : PN junction diodes can be used to function as transistors, simply by connecting

two diodes, back to back, which act as the base terminal.
Statement II : In the study of transistor the amplification factor β indicates ratio of the collector
current to the base current.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q9: Given below are two statements

Statement I : PN junction diodes can be used to function as transistors, simply by connecting

two diodes, back to back, which act as the base terminal.
Statement II : In the study of transistor the amplification factor β indicates ratio of the collector
current to the base current.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Solution:

Back to back diode will not make a transistor.

Q10: An X-ray tube is operated at 1.24 million volt. The shortest wavelength of the produced
photon will he
(A) 10–3 nm

(B) 10–2 nm

(C) 10–4 nm

(D) 10–1 nm
Q10: An X-ray tube is operated at 1.24 million volt. The shortest wavelength of the produced
photon will he
(A) 10–3 nm

(B) 10–2 nm

(C) 10–4 nm

(D) 10–1 nm

Solution:
Q11: A body weighs 49 N on a spring balance at the north pole. What will be its weight
recorded on the same weighing machine, if it is shifted to the equator ?

[use ms–2 and radius of earth, R = 6400 km.]

(A) 49.17 N

(B) 48.83 N

(C) 49 N

(D) 49.83 N
Q11: A body weighs 49 N on a spring balance at the north pole. What will be its weight
recorded on the same weighing machine, if it is shifted to the equator ?

[use ms–2 and radius of earth, R = 6400 km.]

(A) 49.17 N

(B) 48.83 N

(C) 49 N

(D) 49.83 N

Solution:

Weight at pole = mg = 49 N

At equator due to rotation

Option (b) is correct.

Q12: Which of the following equations represents a travelling wave?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q12: Which of the following equations represents a travelling wave?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

y = F (x, t)

For travelling wave y should be linear function of x and t and they must exist as

y = sin( 15x -2T)→linear function in x and t.

So, option (a) is correct.

Q13: According to Bohr atom model, in which of the following transitions will the frequency be
maximum ?
(A) n = 3 to n = 2

(B) n = 2 to n = 1

(C) n = 5 to n = 4

(D) n = 4 to n = 3
Q13: According to Bohr atom model, in which of the following transitions will the frequency be
maximum ?
(A) n = 3 to n = 2

(B) n = 2 to n = 1

(C) n = 5 to n = 4

(D) n = 4 to n = 3

Solution:

It is maximum if n1 = 1 and n2 = 2

n = 5……………………………………….-0.55 eV

n = 4………………………………………-0.850 eV

n =3……………………………………….-1.511 eV

n =2……………………………………….-3.4 eV

n =1………………………………………-13.6 eV

Option (b) is correct.

Q14: On the basis of kinetic theory of gases, the gas exerts pressure because its molecules :
(A) continuously lose their energy till it reaches wall.

(B) are attracted by the walls of container

(C) continuously stick to the walls of container.

(D) suffer change in momentum when impinge on the walls of container.

Q14: On the basis of kinetic theory of gases, the gas exerts pressure because its molecules :
(A) continuously lose their energy till it reaches wall.

(B) are attracted by the walls of container

(C) continuously stick to the walls of container.

(D) suffer change in momentum when impinge on the walls of container.

Solution:

From the assumption of KTG, the molecules of gas collide with the walls and suffers momentum change which results in force
on the wall and hence pressure.

Hence option (d) is correct.

Q15:

The logic circuit shown above is equivalent to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q15:

The logic circuit shown above is equivalent to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Truth table of the given gate:

A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 0
1 1 0

Truth table of option (a)

A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 0
1 1 1

Truth table of option (b)

A B C
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 1
1 1 1

Truth table of option (c)

A B C
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

Truth table of option (d)

A B C
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 0
1 1 0

Since option (a) has same truth table, hence answer is option (a).
Q16: When a particle executes SHM, the nature of graphical representation of velocity as a
function of displacement
(A) parabolic

(B) straight line

(C) circular

(D) elliptical
Q16: When a particle executes SHM, the nature of graphical representation of velocity as a
function of displacement
(A) parabolic

(B) straight line

(C) circular

(D) elliptical

Solution:

For a particle executing SHM,

Equation of ellipse between v and x

Hence option (d).

Q17: If one mole of an ideal gas at (P1, V1) is allowed to expand reversibly and isothermally
(A to B) its pressure is reduced to one-half of the original pressure (see figure). This is
followed by a constant volume cooling till its pressure is reduced to one-fourth of the initial
value (B → C). Then it is restored to state by a reversible adiabatic compression (C to A). The
net workdone by the gas is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C) RT ln 2

(D) 0
Q17: If one mole of an ideal gas at (P1, V1) is allowed to expand reversibly and isothermally
(A to B) its pressure is reduced to one-half of the original pressure (see figure). This is
followed by a constant volume cooling till its pressure is reduced to one-fourth of the initial
value (B → C). Then it is restored to state by a reversible adiabatic compression (C to A). The
net workdone by the gas is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C) RT ln 2

(D) 0
Solution:

A – B = isothermal process

Q18: Figure shows a circuit that contains four identical resistors with resistance R = 2.0 Ω ,
two identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH and an ideal battery, with emf E = 9 V. The
current 'i' just after the switch ‘S’ is closed will be:

(A) 3.0 A

(B) 9A

(C) 3.37 A

(D) 2.25 A
Q18: Figure shows a circuit that contains four identical resistors with resistance R = 2.0 Ω ,
two identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH and an ideal battery, with emf E = 9 V. The
current 'i' just after the switch ‘S’ is closed will be:

(A) 3.0 A

(B) 9A

(C) 3.37 A

(D) 2.25 A
Solution:

Just after the switch is closed, inductor will behave like infinite resistance (open circuit) so the circuit will look like

Option (d) is correct

Q19: Zener breakdown occurs in a p - n junction having p and n both :
(A) lightly doped and have wide depletion layer.

(B) heavily doped and have wide depletion layer.

(C) lightly doped and have narrow depletion layer.

(D) heavily doped and have narrow depletion layer.

Q19: Zener breakdown occurs in a p - n junction having p and n both :
(A) lightly doped and have wide depletion layer.

(B) heavily doped and have wide depletion layer.

(C) lightly doped and have narrow depletion layer.

(D) heavily doped and have narrow depletion layer.

Solution:

Zener diode is heavily doped and have narrow depletion layer.

Q20: If the source of light used in a Young’s double slit experiment is changed from red to
violet:
(A) the fringes will become brighter.

(B) the intensity of minima will increase.

(C) the central bright fringe will become a dark fringe.

(D) consecutive fringe lines will come closer.

Q20: If the source of light used in a Young’s double slit experiment is changed from red to
violet:
(A) the fringes will become brighter.

(B) the intensity of minima will increase.

(C) the central bright fringe will become a dark fringe.

(D) consecutive fringe lines will come closer.

Solution:

Fringe pattern will shrink.

Q21: A point charge of +12 µC is at a distance 6 cm vertically above the centre of a square of
side 12 cm as shown in figure. The magnitude of the electric flux through the square will be
_______ × 103 Nm2/C.

 
Q21: A point charge of +12 µC is at a distance 6 cm vertically above the centre of a square of
side 12 cm as shown in figure. The magnitude of the electric flux through the square will be
_______ × 103 Nm2/C.

226.00

Solution:

From symmetry

Q22: A cylindrical wire of radius 0.5 mm and conductivity 5 × 107 S/m is subjected to an
electric field of 10 mV/m. The expected value of current in the wire will be x3π mA. The value
of x is ____
Q22: A cylindrical wire of radius 0.5 mm and conductivity 5 × 107 S/m is subjected to an
electric field of 10 mV/m. The expected value of current in the wire will be x3π mA. The value
of x is ____
5.00

Solution:

Conductivity

Radius r = 0.5 mm = 5×10-4 m

Q23: A uniform metallic wire is elongated by 0.04 m when subjected to a linear force F. The
elongation, if its length and diameter is doubled and subjected to the same force will be ____
cm.
Q23: A uniform metallic wire is elongated by 0.04 m when subjected to a linear force F. The
elongation, if its length and diameter is doubled and subjected to the same force will be ____
cm.
2.00
Solution:

Q24: A uniform thin bar of mass 6 kg and length 2.4 m is bent to make an equilateral
hexagon. The moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass and
perpendicular to the plane of hexagon is …× 10–1 kg m2.
Q24: A uniform thin bar of mass 6 kg and length 2.4 m is bent to make an equilateral
hexagon. The moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass and
perpendicular to the plane of hexagon is …× 10–1 kg m2.
8.00
Solution:

m = mass of one side of hexagon = 1 kg

Q25: An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3 GHz enters a dielectric medium of relative

electric permittivity 2.25 from vacuum. The wavelength of this wave in that medium will be
____ × 10–2 cm.
Q25: An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3 GHz enters a dielectric medium of relative
electric permittivity 2.25 from vacuum. The wavelength of this wave in that medium will be
____ × 10–2 cm.
667.00

Solution:

in vacuum

Where refractive index

Assuming non- magnetic material

Q26: A signal of 0.1 kW is transmitted in a cable. The attenuation of cable is –5 dB per km

and cable length is 20 km. The power received at receiver is 10–x W. The value of x is ____.

[Gain in dB = 10log10 ]
Q26: A signal of 0.1 kW is transmitted in a cable. The attenuation of cable is –5 dB per km
and cable length is 20 km. The power received at receiver is 10–x W. The value of x is ____.

[Gain in dB = 10log10 ]
8.00

Solution:

Sound level decreases by 5dB every km so sound level decreased in 20 km = 100 dB

Q27: The root mean square speed of molecules of a given mass of a gas at 27° C and 1
atmosphere pressure is 200 ms–1. The root mean square speed of molecules of the gas at
127° C and 2 atmosphere pressure is ms–1. The value of x will be
Q27: The root mean square speed of molecules of a given mass of a gas at 27° C and 1
atmosphere pressure is 200 ms–1. The root mean square speed of molecules of the gas at
127° C and 2 atmosphere pressure is ms–1. The value of x will be
400.00

Solution:
Q28: A series LCR circuit is designed to resonate at an angular frequency rad/s.
The circuit draws 16 W power from 120 V source at resonance. The value of resistance 'R' in
the circuit is…..Ω .
Q28: A series LCR circuit is designed to resonate at an angular frequency rad/s.
The circuit draws 16 W power from 120 V source at resonance. The value of resistance 'R' in
the circuit is…..Ω .
900.00

Solution:

At resonance

Q29: Two solids A and B of mass 1 kg and 2 kg respectively are moving with equal linear
momentum. The ratio of then kinetic energies (KE)A : (KE)B will be so the value of A will be
Q29: Two solids A and B of mass 1 kg and 2 kg respectively are moving with equal linear
momentum. The ratio of then kinetic energies (KE)A : (KE)B will be so the value of A will be
2.00

Solution:

Kinetic energy

Q30: Two cars are approaching each other at an equal speed of 7.2 km/hr. When they see
each other, both blow horn having frequency of 676 Hz. The beat frequency heard by each
driver will be _____ Hz [Velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.]
Q30: Two cars are approaching each other at an equal speed of 7.2 km/hr. When they see
each other, both blow horn having frequency of 676 Hz. The beat frequency heard by each
driver will be _____ Hz [Velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.]
8.00

Solution:

Frequency of sound heard by car -1, which comes by reflection from car-2

Frequency of sound coming directly from car -2

Q31: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R.

Assertion A: Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the Universe, but it is not the most
abundant gas

Reason R: Hydrogen is the lightest element.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(C) A is false but R is true

(D) A is true but R is false

Q31: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R.

Assertion A: Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the Universe, but it is not the most
abundant gas

Reason R: Hydrogen is the lightest element.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(C) A is false but R is true

(D) A is true but R is false

Solution:

The most abundant gas in the troposphere is nitrogen.

Q32: Match List - I with List – II.

List – I (Metal) List-II (Ores)

(a) Aluminium (i) Siderite
(b) Iron (ii) Calamine
(c) Copper (iii) Kaolinite
(d) Zinc (iv) Malachite

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (a) – (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) – (iii)

(B) (a) – (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) – (ii)

(C) (a) – (i); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv); (d) – (ii)

(D) (a) – (iv); (b) - (iv); (c) - (ii); (d) – (i)

Q32: Match List - I with List – II.

List – I (Metal) List-II (Ores)

(a) Aluminium (i) Siderite
(b) Iron (ii) Calamine
(c) Copper (iii) Kaolinite
(d) Zinc (iv) Malachite

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (a) – (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) – (iii)

(B) (a) – (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) – (ii)

(C) (a) – (i); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv); (d) – (ii)

(D) (a) – (iv); (b) - (iv); (c) - (ii); (d) – (i)

Solution:

Siderite =

Malachite =

Calamine =

Kaolinite =
Q33: According to Bohr’s atomic theory

(A) Kinetic energy of electron is

(B) The product of velocity (v) of electron and principal quantum number (n), ‘vn’
(C) Frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit is .

(D) Coulombic force of attraction on the electron is .

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(A) (A) only

(B) (C) only

(C) (A), (C) and (D) only

(D) (A) and (D) only

Q33: According to Bohr’s atomic theory

(A) Kinetic energy of electron is

(B) The product of velocity (v) of electron and principal quantum number (n), ‘vn’
(C) Frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit is .

(D) Coulombic force of attraction on the electron is .

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(A) (A) only

(B) (C) only

(C) (A), (C) and (D) only

(D) (A) and (D) only

Solution:

(i)

So,

(ii)

So,

(iii) Frequency

So,

(iv) Force (F)

So,
Q34:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q34:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:
Q35: Most suitable salt which can be used for efficient clotting of blood will be
(A) FeSO4

(B) NaHCO3

(C) Mg(HCO3)2

(D) FeCl3
Q35: Most suitable salt which can be used for efficient clotting of blood will be
(A) FeSO4

(B) NaHCO3

(C) Mg(HCO3)2

(D) FeCl3

Solution:

Blood is a negative sol. According to Hardy-Schulz’s rule the cation with high charge has high coagulation power. Hence
can be used for clotting blood.
Q36: Match List - I and List - II.

List - I List-II
(a) Valium (i) Antifertility drug
(b) Morphine (ii) Pernicious anaemia
(c) Norethindrone (iii) Analgesic
(d) Vitamin B12 (iv) Tranquilizer
(A) (a) – (i); (b) – (iii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (ii)

(B) (a) – (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iv)

(C) (a) – (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) – (i); (d) – (ii)

(D) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (iii); (d) – (i)

Q36: Match List - I and List - II.

List - I List-II
(a) Valium (i) Antifertility drug
(b) Morphine (ii) Pernicious anaemia
(c) Norethindrone (iii) Analgesic
(d) Vitamin B12 (iv) Tranquilizer
(A) (a) – (i); (b) – (iii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (ii)

(B) (a) – (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iv)

(C) (a) – (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) – (i); (d) – (ii)

(D) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (iii); (d) – (i)

Solution:

Valium – Tranquilizer

Morphine – Analgesic

Norethindrone - Antifertility drug

Vitamin B12 - Pernicious anaemia

Q37:

Which of the following reagent is suitable for the preparation of the product in the above
reaction ?
(A) Red P + Cl2

(B) NaBH4

(C)
NH2–NH2/C2H5

(D) Ni/H2
Q37:

Which of the following reagent is suitable for the preparation of the product in the above
reaction ?
(A) Red P + Cl2

(B) NaBH4

(C)
NH2–NH2/C2H5

(D) Ni/H2

Solution:
Q38: In polymer Buna-S : ‘S’ stands for :
(A) Strength

(B) Sulphur

(C) Sulphonation

(D) Styrene
Q38: In polymer Buna-S : ‘S’ stands for :
(A) Strength

(B) Sulphur

(C) Sulphonation

(D) Styrene

Solution:

Buna – S is an addition polymer of 1, 3 – Butadiene and styrene.

So, ‘S’ stands for styrene

Q39: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The value of the parameter "Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)" is important
for survival of aquatic life.

Statement II : The optimum value of BOD is 6.5 ppm.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below
(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q39: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The value of the parameter "Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)" is important
for survival of aquatic life.

Statement II : The optimum value of BOD is 6.5 ppm.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below
(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Solution:

Clean water would have BOD value of less than 5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have a BOD value of 17 ppm or
more.
Q40: The correct order of the following compounds showing increasing tendency towards
nucleophilic substitution reaction is

(A) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)

(B) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)

(C) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)

(D) (iv) < (i) < (iii) < (ii)

Q40: The correct order of the following compounds showing increasing tendency towards
nucleophilic substitution reaction is

(A) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)

(B) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)

(C) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)

(D) (iv) < (i) < (iii) < (ii)

Solution:

Electron withdrawing group increases rate of aromatic nucleophilic substitution reaction.

Q41: Which one of the following carbonyl compounds cannot be prepared by addition of water
on an alkyne in the presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4 ?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q41: Which one of the following carbonyl compounds cannot be prepared by addition of water
on an alkyne in the presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4 ?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

gives Markovnikov’s addition product with any alkyne which will gives ketone as a product. Hence
will not be produced.
Q42: The incorrect statement among the following is:
(A) Red colour of ruby is due to the presence of Co3+

(B) If the t2g and eg orbitals of an octahedral compound are completely filled, it is predicted to be colourless.

(C) Secondary valency of a coordination complex is equal to the coordination number

(D) Removal of water from [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3 on heating renders it colourless.

Q42: The incorrect statement among the following is:

(A) Red colour of ruby is due to the presence of Co3+

(B) If the t2g and eg orbitals of an octahedral compound are completely filled, it is predicted to be colourless.

(C) Secondary valency of a coordination complex is equal to the coordination number

(D) Removal of water from [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3 on heating renders it colourless.

Solution:

Red colour of Ruby is due to not due to

Q43: The correct set from the following in which both pairs are in correct order of melting point
is
(A) LiF > LiCl ; NaCl > MgO

(B) LiCl > LiF ; NaCl > MgO

(C) LiCl > LiF ; MgO > NaCl

(D) LiF > LiCI ; MgO > NaCI

Q43: The correct set from the following in which both pairs are in correct order of melting point
is
(A) LiF > LiCl ; NaCl > MgO

(B) LiCl > LiF ; NaCl > MgO

(C) LiCl > LiF ; MgO > NaCl

(D) LiF > LiCI ; MgO > NaCI

Solution:

Lattice energy

                             

Lattice energy melting point

Lattice energy : LiF > LiCl

Lattice energy : MgO > NaCl

M.Pt. of LiF = 845oC

M.Pt. of LiCl = 605oC

M.Pt. of NaCl = 801oC

M.Pt. of MgO = 2852oC

Q44: The diazonium salt of which of the following compounds will form a coloured dye on
reaction with β-Naphthol in NaOH ?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q44: The diazonium salt of which of the following compounds will form a coloured dye on
reaction with β-Naphthol in NaOH ?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Only aromatic primary amines will give Azo dye test.

Q45: Match List – I and List – II.

List I List II
(a) (i) Br2/NaOH

(b) (ii) H2/Pd–BaSO4

(c) (iii) Zn(Hg)/Conc. HCl

(d) (iv) Cl2/Red P, H2O

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Q45: Match List – I and List – II.

List I List II
(a) (i) Br2/NaOH

(b) (ii) H2/Pd–BaSO4

(c) (iii) Zn(Hg)/Conc. HCl

(d) (iv) Cl2/Red P, H2O

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Solution:

(A)

Rosenmund reaction

(B)

Clemmensen reaction

(C)

HVZ reaction

(D)

Hoffmann bromamide reaction

Q46: Match List - I with List - II

List – I (Salt) List - II (Flame colour wavelength)

(a) LiCI (i) 455.5 nm
(b) NaCI (ii) 670.8 nm
(c) RbCI (iii) 780.0 nm
(d) CsCI (iv) 589.2 nm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(B) (a)-(iv), (d)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(D) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Q46: Match List - I with List - II

List – I (Salt) List - II (Flame colour wavelength)

(a) LiCI (i) 455.5 nm
(b) NaCI (ii) 670.8 nm
(c) RbCI (iii) 780.0 nm
(d) CsCI (iv) 589.2 nm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(B) (a)-(iv), (d)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(D) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Solution:

The alkali metals and their salts impart characteristic colour to an oxidizing flame. This is because the heat from the flame
excites the outermost orbital electron to a higher energy level. When the excited electron comes back to the ground state,
there is emission of radiation in the visible region as given below

Metal Li Na K Rb Cs
Colour Crimson red Yellow Violet Red violet Blue
670.8 589.2 766.5 780.0 455.5
Q47: Which one of the following compounds is non-aromatic?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q47: Which one of the following compounds is non-aromatic?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

contains atom. So it is non-planar & hence non aromatic.

All other options follow Huckel’s rule i.e. electrons. So all are aromatic compounds.
Q48: The correct shape and I-I-I bond angles respectively in ion are :
(A) Distorted trigonal planar 135° and 90°

(B) T-shaped; 180° and 90°

(C) Trigonal planar; 120°

(D) Linear; 180°

Q48: The correct shape and I-I-I bond angles respectively in ion are :
(A) Distorted trigonal planar 135° and 90°

(B) T-shaped; 180° and 90°

(C) Trigonal planar; 120°

(D) Linear; 180°

Solution:
Q49: The calculated magnetic moments (spin only value) for species
and respectively:
(A) 4.90, 0 and 1.73 BM

(B) 5.82, 0 and 0 BM

(C) 5.92, 4.90 and 0 BM

(D) 4.90, 0 and 2.83 BM

Q49: The calculated magnetic moments (spin only value) for species
and respectively:
(A) 4.90, 0 and 1.73 BM

(B) 5.82, 0 and 0 BM

(C) 5.92, 4.90 and 0 BM

(D) 4.90, 0 and 2.83 BM

Solution:

Complex

Q50:
Which is the correct order of the following elements with respect to their density?

(A) Cr < Zn < Co < Cu < Fe

(B) Zn < Cu < Co < Fe < Cr

(C) Zn < Cr < Fe < Co < Cu

(D) Cr < Fe < Co < Cu < Zn

Q50:
Which is the correct order of the following elements with respect to their density?

(A) Cr < Zn < Co < Cu < Fe

(B) Zn < Cu < Co < Fe < Cr

(C) Zn < Cr < Fe < Co < Cu

(D) Cr < Fe < Co < Cu < Zn

Solution:

According to NCERT data, the densities (in g cm–3) are:

Zn = 7.1

Cr = 7.19

Fe = 7.8

Co = 8.7

Cu = 8.9
Q51: Among the following allotropic forms of sulphur, the number of allotropic forms, which
will show paramagnetism is

(A) α-sulphur

(B) β-sulphur

(C) S2-form
Q51: Among the following allotropic forms of sulphur, the number of allotropic forms, which
will show paramagnetism is

(A) α-sulphur

(B) β-sulphur

(C) S2-form
1.00

Solution:

In S2, molecules have 2 unpaired electrons similar to O2 according to MOT.

Q52: The total number of amines among the following which can be synthesized by Gabriel
synthesis is

Q52: The total number of amines among the following which can be synthesized by Gabriel
synthesis is

3.00

Solution:

Only primary aliphatic amines can be formed by Gabriel-phthalimide reaction.

Q53: The magnitude of the change in oxidising power of the couple is x ×
10–4V, if theH+ 10–4
concentration is decreased from 1 M to M at 25°C. (Assume
concentration of and Mn to be same on change in H+ concentration). The value of
2+

x is (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

Q53: The magnitude of the change in oxidising power of the couple is x ×
–4 + –4
10 V, if the H concentration is decreased from 1 M to 10 M at 25°C. (Assume
concentration of and Mn2+ to be same on change in H+ concentration). The value of
x is (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
3776.00

Solution:

So, magnitude of change in electrode potential

Q54: The volume occupied by 4.75 g of acetylene gas at 50 °C and 740 mmHg pressure is
____ L (Rounded off to the nearest integer) [Given R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1]
Q54: The volume occupied by 4.75 g of acetylene gas at 50 °C and 740 mmHg pressure is
____ L (Rounded off to the nearest integer) [Given R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1]
5.00

Solution:

PV = nRT

V = 4.97 lit

So Ans. = 5
Q55: The formula of a gaseous hydrocarbon which requires 6 times of its own volume of O2
for complete oxidation and produces 4 times its own volume of CO2 is CxHy. The value of y is
____.
Q55: The formula of a gaseous hydrocarbon which requires 6 times of its own volume of O2
for complete oxidation and produces 4 times its own volume of CO2 is CxHy. The value of y is
____.
8.00

Solution:

The balanced reaction is as follows:

CxHy + [x +  ] O2 → xCO2 +  H2O

Let, a litre of CxHy be used

a[x + ] = 6a.....(1)

ax = 4a .....(2)

∴ x = 4 and y = 8

Hence, the gas is C4H8

Q56: 1.86 g of aniline completely reacts to form acetanilide. 10% of the product is lost during
purification. Amount of acetanilide obtained after purification (in g) is ____ × 10–2.
Q56: 1.86 g of aniline completely reacts to form acetanilide. 10% of the product is lost during
purification. Amount of acetanilide obtained after purification (in g) is ____ × 10–2.
243.00

Solution:

Molar mass = 93 Molar mass = 135

93 g aniline produce 135 g acetanilide

1.86 g aniline produces

At 90% yield of reaction it produces

Q57: Sucrose hydrolyses in acid solution into glucose and fructose following first order rate
law with a half-life of 3.33 h at 25 °C. After 9 h, the fraction of sucrose remaining is f. The
value of is _____ × 10–2. (Rounded off to nearest integer) [Assume: ln 10 = 2.303,
ln 2 = 0.693]
Q57: Sucrose hydrolyses in acid solution into glucose and fructose following first order rate
law with a half-life of 3.33 h at 25 °C. After 9 h, the fraction of sucrose remaining is f. The
value of is _____ × 10–2. (Rounded off to nearest integer) [Assume: ln 10 = 2.303,
ln 2 = 0.693]
81.00

Solution:
Q58: The solubility product of PbI2 is 8.0 × 10–9. The solubility of lead iodide in 0.1 molar
solution of lead nitrate is x × 10–6 mol/L. The value of x is _____. (Rounded off to the nearest
integer)

[Given ]
Q58: The solubility product of PbI2 is 8.0 × 10–9. The solubility of lead iodide in 0.1 molar
solution of lead nitrate is x × 10–6 mol/L. The value of x is _____. (Rounded off to the nearest
integer)

[Given ]
141.00

Solution:
Q59: Assuming ideal behaviour, the magnitude of log K for the following reaction at 25° C is
. The value of x is ____ (Integer answer)

[Given:
Q59: Assuming ideal behaviour, the magnitude of log K for the following reaction at 25° C is
. The value of x is ____ (Integer answer)

[Given:

855.00

Solution:

So Ans. 855
Q60: C6H6 freezes at 5.5°C. The temperature at which a solution of 10 g of C4H10 in 200 g of
C6H6 freeze is ____°C. (The molal freezing point depression constant of C6H6, is 5.12° C/m)
Q60: C6H6 freezes at 5.5°C. The temperature at which a solution of 10 g of C4H10 in 200 g of
C6H6 freeze is ____°C. (The molal freezing point depression constant of C6H6, is 5.12° C/m)
1.00

Solution:
Q61: Let be a differentiable function defined on [0,2] such that for

all and Then the value of is

(A) 2(1 – e2)

(B) 1 – e2

(C) 2(1 + e2)

(D) 1 + e2
Q61: Let be a differentiable function defined on [0,2] such that for

all and Then the value of is

(A) 2(1 – e2)

(B) 1 – e2

(C) 2(1 + e2)

(D) 1 + e2

Solution:

On integrating both side

Put x = 0

Q62: A possible value of is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q62: A possible value of is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Let

Q63: For which of the following curves, the line is the tangent at the point

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q63: For which of the following curves, the line is the tangent at the point

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Tangent to at point is

Q64: The value of the integral where [x] denotes the greatest integer

less than or equal to x, is

(A) –5

(B)

(C) –4

(D)
Q64: The value of the integral where [x] denotes the greatest integer

less than or equal to x, is

(A) –5

(B)

(C) –4

(D)

Solution:

Q65: Let a,b,c be in arithmetic progression. Let the centroid of the triangle with vertices
be . If are the roots of the equation
the value of is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q65: Let a,b,c be in arithmetic progression. Let the centroid of the triangle with vertices
be . If are the roots of the equation
the value of is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

solving,

Quadratic Equation is

The value of
Q66: Let f be a twice differentiable function defined on R such that f(0) = 1, f′(0) = 2 and

for all If for all then the value of

lies in the interval

(A) (0,3)

(B) (9,12)

(C) (3,6)

(D) (6,9)
Q66: Let f be a twice differentiable function defined on R such that f(0) = 1, f′(0) = 2 and

for all If for all then the value of

lies in the interval

(A) (0,3)

(B) (9,12)

(C) (3,6)

(D) (6,9)

Solution:

Given

Let

Now

As

As

Q67: For the system of linear equations:

consider the following statements :

(A) The system has unique solution if

(B) The system has unique solution if k = –2.

(C) The system has unique solution if k = 2.

(D) The system has no-solution if k = 2.

(E) The system has infinite number of solutions if k ≠ –2.

Which of the following statements are correct ?

(A) (B) and (E) only

(B) (A) and (E) only

(C) (A) and (D) only

(D) (C) and (D) only

Q67: For the system of linear equations:

consider the following statements :

(A) The system has unique solution if

(B) The system has unique solution if k = –2.

(C) The system has unique solution if k = 2.

(D) The system has no-solution if k = 2.

(E) The system has infinite number of solutions if k ≠ –2.

Which of the following statements are correct ?

(A) (B) and (E) only

(B) (A) and (E) only

(C) (A) and (D) only

(D) (C) and (D) only

Solution:

For unique solution

For no solution,

At

So system has infinite solution.

Q68: Let be defined as

Let Then A is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q68: Let be defined as

Let Then A is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Hence, is monotonically increasing is

Q69: The negation of the statement

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q69: The negation of the statement

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Q70: The area of the region: is

(A) square units

(B) square units

(C) square units

(D) square units

Q70: The area of the region: is
(A) square units

(B) square units

(C) square units

(D) square units

Solution:

Required area

Q71: Let A and B be 3 × 3 real matrices such that A is symmetric matrix and B is skew-
symmetric matrix. Then the system of linear equations , where
is a 3 × 1 column matrix of unknown variables and O is a 3 × 1 null matrix, has
(A) a unique solution

(B) exactly two solutions

(C) no solution

(D) infinitely many solutions

Q71: Let A and B be 3 × 3 real matrices such that A is symmetric matrix and B is skew-
symmetric matrix. Then the system of linear equations , where
is a 3 × 1 column matrix of unknown variables and O is a 3 × 1 null matrix, has
(A) a unique solution

(B) exactly two solutions

(C) no solution

(D) infinitely many solutions

Solution:

Let

is skew – symmetric matrix

Hence has infinite solutions

Q72: If P Is a point on the parabola y = x2 + 4 which is closest to the straight line y = 4x – 1,

then the co-ordinates of P are
(A) (3,13)

(B) (2,8)

(C) (–2,8)

(D) (1,5)
Q72: If P Is a point on the parabola y = x2 + 4 which is closest to the straight line y = 4x – 1,
then the co-ordinates of P are
(A) (3,13)

(B) (2,8)

(C) (–2,8)

(D) (1,5)

Solution:

Point will be

Q73: For the statements p and q, consider the following compound statements :

(a)

(b)
Then which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) (a) and (b) both are tautologies.

(B) (b) is a tautology but not (a).

(C) (a) is a tautology but not (b).

(D) (a) and (b) both are not tautologies.

Q73: For the statements p and q, consider the following compound statements :

(a)

(b)
Then which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) (a) and (b) both are tautologies.

(B) (b) is a tautology but not (a).

(C) (a) is a tautology but not (b).

(D) (a) and (b) both are not tautologies.

Solution:

Truth table

p q (a) (b)
TTF F T T F F T T
TFF T T F F F T T
FTT F T T F T T T
FFT T F T T F T T

Q74: Let . If the mirror image of the point P(a, 6, 9) with respect to the line
is , then is equal to
(A) 88

(B) 84

(C) 90

(D) 86
Q74: Let . If the mirror image of the point P(a, 6, 9) with respect to the line
is , then is equal to
(A) 88

(B) 84

(C) 90

(D) 86

Solution:

Mid – point of and is lies on the line

So

Q75: The vector equation of the plane passing through the intersection of the planes
, and the point (1, 0, 2) is:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q75: The vector equation of the plane passing through the intersection of the planes
, and the point (1, 0, 2) is:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Plane passing through intersection of plane is

This plane passes through so we get

Hence, equation of plane is

Q76: The angle of elevation of a jet plane from a point A on the ground is 60°. After a flight of
20 seconds at the speed of 432 km/hour, the angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the jet
plane is flying at a constant height, then its height is :
(A) m

(B) m

(C) m

(D) m
Q76: The angle of elevation of a jet plane from a point A on the ground is 60°. After a flight of
20 seconds at the speed of 432 km/hour, the angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the jet
plane is flying at a constant height, then its height is :
(A) m

(B) m

(C) m

(D) m

Solution:

Distance meter

Q77: The probability that two randomly selected subsets of the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} have exactly
two elements in their intersection, is :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q77: The probability that two randomly selected subsets of the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} have exactly
two elements in their intersection, is :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Required probability

Q78: If is a positive integer, then the sum of the series

is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q78: If is a positive integer, then the sum of the series

is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Q79: If a curve passes through the point (1,2) and satisfies then

for what value of b, ?

(A) 10

(B) 5

(C) 31/5

(D) 62/5
Q79: If a curve passes through the point (1,2) and satisfies then

for what value of b, ?

(A) 10

(B) 5

(C) 31/5

(D) 62/5

Solution:

Passes through we get

Also,

Q80: If the curve passes through the point (1, 2) and the
tangent line to this curve at origin is y = x, then the possible values of a, b, c are :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q80: If the curve passes through the point (1, 2) and the
tangent line to this curve at origin is y = x, then the possible values of a, b, c are :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Q81: If and then the value of

the expression is _____.

Q81: If and then the value of

the expression is _____.

2.00

Solution:

(i) + (ii)

Q82: Let a point P be such that its distance from the point (5, 0) is thrice the distance of P
from the point (–5, 0). If the locus of the point P is a circle of radius r, then 4r2 is equal to
_____.
(Round off the answer to nearest integer)
Q82: Let a point P be such that its distance from the point (5, 0) is thrice the distance of P
from the point (–5, 0). If the locus of the point P is a circle of radius r, then 4r2 is equal to
_____.
(Round off the answer to nearest integer)

56.00

Solution:

Internal point which divides in the ratio 3 : 1 is

And external point which divides in the ratio 3 : 1 is

Q83: If the area of the triangle formed by the positive x-axis, the normal and the tangent to the
circle (x – 2)2 + (y – 3)2 = 25 at the point (5, 7) is A, then 24A is equal to
Q83: If the area of the triangle formed by the positive x-axis, the normal and the tangent to the
circle (x – 2)2 + (y – 3)2 = 25 at the point (5, 7) is A, then 24A is equal to
1225.00

Solution:

Equation of normal at P

Equation of tangent at P

Hence,

(In the question positive x – axis is given which do not from any triangle for required area)

Q84: Let and be the greatest integral

part of Then is equal to _____.

Q84: Let and be the greatest integral

part of Then is equal to _____.

310.00

Solution:

Now

Then

Q85: The number of the real roots of the equation is

Q85: The number of the real roots of the equation is
2.00

Solution:

(i)

For
For both not possible

(ii)

both possible for

Q86: If the variance of 10 natural numbers 1, 1, 1, .... , 1, k is less than 10, then the maximum
possible value of k is ____.
Q86: If the variance of 10 natural numbers 1, 1, 1, .... , 1, k is less than 10, then the maximum
possible value of k is ____.
11.00

Solution:

Maximum integral value of

Q87: Let λ be an integer. If the shortest distance between the lines

and is then the value of is ____.
Q87: Let λ be an integer. If the shortest distance between the lines
and is then the value of is ____.
1.00

Solution:

and

As integer, so

Q88: The students S1, S2,....,S10 are to be divided into 3 groups. A, B and C such that each
group has at least one student and the group C has at most 3 students. Then the total
number of possibilities of forming such groups is ____.
Q88: The students S1, S2,....,S10 are to be divided into 3 groups. A, B and C such that each
group has at least one student and the group C has at most 3 students. Then the total
number of possibilities of forming such groups is ____.
31650.00

Solution:

A B C
1 8 1
2 7 1

6 1 3

Ways to distribute in groups

Q89: The sum of first four terms of a geometric progression (G.P.) is and the sum of their
respective reciprocals is . If the product of first three terms of the G.P. is 1, and the third
term is α, then 2α is ____.
Q89: The sum of first four terms of a geometric progression (G.P.) is and the sum of their
respective reciprocals is . If the product of first three terms of the G.P. is 1, and the third
term is α, then 2α is ____.
3.00

Solution:

Let terms be

Q90: For integers n and r, let

The value of k for which the sum

is maximum, is equal to ____.

Q90: For integers n and r, let

The value of k for which the sum

is maximum, is equal to ____.

12.00

Solution:

Now

                          Compare coefficient of both side

Similarly,

Now

This is maximum for