Q1: A bar magnet of length 14 cm is placed in the magnetic meridian with its north pole

pointing towards the geographic north pole. A neutral point is obtained at a distance of 18 cm
from the center of the magnet. If BH=0.4G, the magnetic moment of the magnet is (1G = 10-
4T)

(A) 28.80 J T-1

(B) 2.880 J T-1

(C) 2.880 × 103 J T-1

(D) 2.880 × 102 J T-1

Q1: A bar magnet of length 14 cm is placed in the magnetic meridian with its north pole
pointing towards the geographic north pole. A neutral point is obtained at a distance of 18 cm
from the center of the magnet. If BH=0.4G, the magnetic moment of the magnet is (1G = 10-
4T)

(A) 28.80 J T-1

(B) 2.880 J T-1

(C) 2.880 × 103 J T-1

(D) 2.880 × 102 J T-1

Solution:

Q2: For an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the relation between average
energy densities due to electric (Ue) and magnetic (Um) fields is
(A) Ue < Um

(B) Ue = Um

(C) Ue > Um

(D) Ue ≠ Um
Q2: For an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the relation between average
energy densities due to electric (Ue) and magnetic (Um) fields is
(A) Ue < Um

(B) Ue = Um

(C) Ue > Um

(D) Ue ≠ Um

Solution:

In EMW, Average energy density due to electric and magnetic fields is same.
Q3: A conducting bar of length L is free to slide on two parallel conducting rails as shown in
the figure.

Two resistors R1 and R2 are connected across the ends of the rails. There is a uniform
magnetic field pointing into the page. An external agent pulls the bar to the left at a
constant speed .

The correct statement about the directions of induced currents I1 and I2 flowing through R1
and R2 respectively is:
(A) I1 is in clockwise direction and I2 is in anticlockwise direction

(B) I1 is in anticlockwise direction and I2 is in clockwise direction

(C) Both I1 and I2 are in anticlockwise direction

(D) Both I1 and I2 are in clockwise direction
Q3: A conducting bar of length L is free to slide on two parallel conducting rails as shown in
the figure.

Two resistors R1 and R2 are connected across the ends of the rails. There is a uniform
magnetic field pointing into the page. An external agent pulls the bar to the left at a
constant speed .

The correct statement about the directions of induced currents I1 and I2 flowing through R1
and R2 respectively is:
(A) I1 is in clockwise direction and I2 is in anticlockwise direction

(B) I1 is in anticlockwise direction and I2 is in clockwise direction

(C) Both I1 and I2 are in anticlockwise direction

(D) Both I1 and I2 are in clockwise direction

Solution:

When bar slides, area of loop 1 decreases and that of loop 2 increases. Magnetic flux decreases in 1 and increases in 2.
Therefore induced emf and current resist this change. As a result B should increase in 1 and decrease in 2. So  should be
clockwise and  anticlockwise.
Q4: In thermodynamics, heat and work are
(A) Point functions

(B) Extensive thermodynamic state variables

(C) Path functions

(D) Intensive thermodynamic state variables

Q4: In thermodynamics, heat and work are
(A) Point functions

(B) Extensive thermodynamic state variables

(C) Path functions

(D) Intensive thermodynamic state variables

Solution:

Heat and work are treated as path functions in thermodynamics.

Since work done by gas depends on type of process i.e. path and depends just on initial and final states, so i.e. heat,
also has to depend on process is path.
Q5: Time period of a simple pendulum is T inside a lift when the lift is stationary. If the lift
moves upwards with an acceleration g/2, the time period of pendulum will be
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q5: Time period of a simple pendulum is T inside a lift when the lift is stationary. If the lift
moves upwards with an acceleration g/2, the time period of pendulum will be
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

When lift is stationary

When lift is moving upwards

Pseudo force acts downwards

New time period

Q6: One main scale division of a Vernier callipers is ‘a’cm and nth division of the Vernier scale
coincide with (n – 1)th division of the main scale. The least count of the callipers in mm is:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q6: One main scale division of a Vernier callipers is ‘a’cm and nth division of the Vernier scale
coincide with (n – 1)th division of the main scale. The least count of the callipers in mm is:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:
Q7: The angle of deviation through a prism is minimum when

(A) Incident ray and emergent ray are symmetric to the prism

(B) The refracted ray inside the prism becomes parallel to its base

(C) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the angle of emergence

(D) When angle of emergence is double the angle of incidence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Only statements (A) and (B) are true

(B) Statements (A), (B) and (C) are true

(C) Only statement (D) is true

(D) Statements (B) and (C) are true

Q7: The angle of deviation through a prism is minimum when

(A) Incident ray and emergent ray are symmetric to the prism

(B) The refracted ray inside the prism becomes parallel to its base

(C) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the angle of emergence

(D) When angle of emergence is double the angle of incidence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Only statements (A) and (B) are true

(B) Statements (A), (B) and (C) are true

(C) Only statement (D) is true

(D) Statements (B) and (C) are true

Solution:

Deviation is minimum in a prism when:

and ray inside the prism is parallel to base of prism

Q8: An RC circuit as shown in the figure is driven by a AC source generating a square wave.
The output wave pattern monitored by CRO would look close to:

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)
Q8: An RC circuit as shown in the figure is driven by a AC source generating a square wave.
The output wave pattern monitored by CRO would look close to:

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

Solution:

For Charging graph

Discharging graph
Q9: The volume V of an enclosure contains a mixture of three gases, 16g of oxygen, 28g of
nitrogen and 44g of carbon dioxide at absolute temperature T. consider R as universal gas
constant. The pressure of the mixture of gases is:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q9: The volume V of an enclosure contains a mixture of three gases, 16g of oxygen, 28g of
nitrogen and 44g of carbon dioxide at absolute temperature T. consider R as universal gas
constant. The pressure of the mixture of gases is:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Q10: The maximum and minimum distances of a comet from the Sun are 1.6 × 1012m and 8.0
× 1010m respectively. If the speed of the comet at the nearest point is 6 × 104ms-1, the speed
at the farthest point is
(A) 6.0 × 103 m/s

(B) 3.0 × 103 m/s

(C) 4.5 × 103 m/s

(D) 1.5 × 103 m/s

Q10: The maximum and minimum distances of a comet from the Sun are 1.6 × 1012m and 8.0
× 1010m respectively. If the speed of the comet at the nearest point is 6 × 104ms-1, the speed
at the farthest point is
(A) 6.0 × 103 m/s

(B) 3.0 × 103 m/s

(C) 4.5 × 103 m/s

(D) 1.5 × 103 m/s

Solution:

By angular momentum conservation

Q11: For changing the capacitance of a given parallel plate capacitor, a dielectric material of
dielectric constant K is used, which has the same area as the plates of the capacitor. The
thickness of the dielectric slab is , where ‘d’ is the separation between the plates of parallel
plate capacitor. The new capacitance ( ) in terms of original capacitance (C0) is given by the
following relation.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q11: For changing the capacitance of a given parallel plate capacitor, a dielectric material of
dielectric constant K is used, which has the same area as the plates of the capacitor. The
thickness of the dielectric slab is , where ‘d’ is the separation between the plates of parallel
plate capacitor. The new capacitance ( ) in terms of original capacitance (C0) is given by the
following relation.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

i.e.,

Q12: Four equal masses, m each are placed at the corners of a square of length (l) as shown
in the figure. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through A and
parallel to DB would be:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q12: Four equal masses, m each are placed at the corners of a square of length (l) as shown
in the figure. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through A and
parallel to DB would be:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Moment of inertia of point mass = mass (Perpendicular distance from axis)

Moment of Inertia

Q13: A conducting wire of length ‘l’, area of cross-section A and electric resistivity is
connected between the terminals of a battery. A potential difference V is developed between
its ends, causing an electric current.

If the length of the wire of the same material is doubled and the area of cross-section is
halved, the resultant current would be:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q13: A conducting wire of length ‘l’, area of cross-section A and electric resistivity is
connected between the terminals of a battery. A potential difference V is developed between
its ends, causing an electric current.

If the length of the wire of the same material is doubled and the area of cross-section is
halved, the resultant current would be:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

As per the question

Resistance =

Current
Q14: A 25m long antenna is mounted on an antenna tower. The height of the antenna tower
is 75m. The wavelength (in meter) of the signal transmitted by this antenna would be
(A) 300

(B) 200

(C) 100

(D) 400
Q14: A 25m long antenna is mounted on an antenna tower. The height of the antenna tower
is 75m. The wavelength (in meter) of the signal transmitted by this antenna would be
(A) 300

(B) 200

(C) 100

(D) 400

Solution:

Length of Antena = 25 m =

Q15: A block of 200g mass moves with a uniform speed in a horizontal circular groove, with
vertical side walls of radius 20cm. If the block takes 40s to complete one round, the normal
force by the side walls of the groove is:
(A) 6.28 × 10-3 N

(B) 9.859 × 10-4 N

(C) 9.859 × 10-2 N

(D) 0.0314 N
Q15: A block of 200g mass moves with a uniform speed in a horizontal circular groove, with
vertical side walls of radius 20cm. If the block takes 40s to complete one round, the normal
force by the side walls of the groove is:
(A) 6.28 × 10-3 N

(B) 9.859 × 10-4 N

(C) 9.859 × 10-2 N

(D) 0.0314 N

Solution:

N=m …….(1)

Given m = 0.2 kg, T = 40 S, R =0.2 m

Put values in equation (1)

Q16: A block of mass m slides along a floor while a force of magnitude F is applied to it at an
angle as shown in figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction is . Then, the block’s
acceleration ‘a’ is given by:

(g is acceleration due to gravity)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q16: A block of mass m slides along a floor while a force of magnitude F is applied to it at an
angle as shown in figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction is . Then, the block’s
acceleration ‘a’ is given by:

(g is acceleration due to gravity)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Q17: The velocity-displacement graph describing the motion of a bicycle is shown in the
figure.

The acceleration-displacement graph of the bicycle’s motion is best described by

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q17: The velocity-displacement graph describing the motion of a bicycle is shown in the
figure.

The acceleration-displacement graph of the bicycle’s motion is best described by

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution:

For

V =mx + C

Straight line till x = 200

For x > 200

v = constant

Hence most appropriate option will be (1), otherwise it would be BONUS.

Q18: The stopping potential in the context of photoelectric effect depends on the following
property of incident electromagnetic radiation:
(A) Intensity

(B) Amplitude

(C) Frequency

(D) Phase
Q18: The stopping potential in the context of photoelectric effect depends on the following
property of incident electromagnetic radiation:
(A) Intensity

(B) Amplitude

(C) Frequency

(D) Phase

Solution:

Stopping potential changes linearly with frequency of incident radiation.

Q19: The pressure acting on a submarine is 3 × 105 Pa at a certain depth. If the depth is
doubled, the percentage increase in the pressure acting on the submarine would be:

(Assume that atmospheric pressure is 1 × 105 Pa density of water is 103 kg m-3, g = 10 ms-2)
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q19: The pressure acting on a submarine is 3 × 105 Pa at a certain depth. If the depth is
doubled, the percentage increase in the pressure acting on the submarine would be:

(Assume that atmospheric pressure is 1 × 105 Pa density of water is 103 kg m-3, g = 10 ms-2)
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Q20: A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 500 MHz is travelling in vacuum along y-
direction. At a particular point in space and time, . The value of electric
field at this point is:

(speed of light = 3 × 108ms-1)

are unit vectors along x, y and z direction.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q20: A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 500 MHz is travelling in vacuum along y-
direction. At a particular point in space and time, . The value of electric
field at this point is:

(speed of light = 3 × 108ms-1)

are unit vectors along x, y and z direction.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

EM wave is travelling towards +

Q21: Consider a 20 kg uniform circular disk of radius 0.2 m. It is pin supported at its center
and is at rest initially. The disk is acted upon by a constant force F = 20N through a massless
string wrapped around its periphery as shown in the figure.

Suppose the disk makes n number of revolutions to attain an angular speed of 50 rad s-1.

The value of n, to the nearest integer, is ___________.

[Given: In one complete revolution, the disk rotates by 6.28 rad]

Q21: Consider a 20 kg uniform circular disk of radius 0.2 m. It is pin supported at its center
and is at rest initially. The disk is acted upon by a constant force F = 20N through a massless
string wrapped around its periphery as shown in the figure.

Suppose the disk makes n number of revolutions to attain an angular speed of 50 rad s-1.

The value of n, to the nearest integer, is ___________.

[Given: In one complete revolution, the disk rotates by 6.28 rad]

20.00
Solution:

No. of revolution revolution.

Q22: Consider a frame that is made up of two thin massless rods AB and AC as shown in the
figure. A vertical force of magnitude 100N is applied at point A of the frame.

Suppose the force is resolved parallel to the arms AB and AC of the frame.

The magnitude of the resolved component along the arm AC is xN.

The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ___________.

[Given: sin(35o) = 0.573, cos(35o) = 0.819

sin(110o) = 0.939, cos(110o) = -0.342]

Q22: Consider a frame that is made up of two thin massless rods AB and AC as shown in the
figure. A vertical force of magnitude 100N is applied at point A of the frame.

Suppose the force is resolved parallel to the arms AB and AC of the frame.

The magnitude of the resolved component along the arm AC is xN.

The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ___________.

[Given: sin(35o) = 0.573, cos(35o) = 0.819

sin(110o) = 0.939, cos(110o) = -0.342]

82.00
Solution:

Component along AC

Q23: A ball of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity along X-axis, hits another ball
of mass 20 kg which is at rest. After collision, the first ball comes to rest and the second one
disintegrates into two equal pieces. One of the pieces starts moving along Y-axis at a speed
of 10m/s. The second piece starts moving at a speed of 20 m/s at an angle (degree) with
respect to the X-axis.

The configuration of pieces after collision is shown in the figure.

The value of to the nearest integer is ________.

Q23: A ball of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity along X-axis, hits another ball
of mass 20 kg which is at rest. After collision, the first ball comes to rest and the second one
disintegrates into two equal pieces. One of the pieces starts moving along Y-axis at a speed
of 10m/s. The second piece starts moving at a speed of 20 m/s at an angle (degree) with
respect to the X-axis.

The configuration of pieces after collision is shown in the figure.

The value of to the nearest integer is ________.

30.00

Solution:

Before Collision

After Collision

From conservation of momentum along x axis;

Q24: The first three spectral lines of H-atom in the Balmer series are given
considering the Bohr atomic model, the wave lengths of first and third spectral lines are
related by a factor of approximately ‘x’ × 10-1.

The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ________.

Q24: The first three spectral lines of H-atom in the Balmer series are given
considering the Bohr atomic model, the wave lengths of first and third spectral lines are
related by a factor of approximately ‘x’ × 10-1.

The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ________.

15.00

Solution:

For 1st line

…..(i)

For 3rd line

….(ii)

(ii)/(i)

Q25: A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 250V is applied to a series LCR circuit, in which
, L = 24 mH and C = 60 μF. The value of power dissipated at resonant condition is ‘x’
kW.The value of x to the nearest integer is _________.
Q25: A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 250V is applied to a series LCR circuit, in which
, L = 24 mH and C = 60 μF. The value of power dissipated at resonant condition is ‘x’
kW.The value of x to the nearest integer is _________.
4.00

Solution:

At resonance power (P)

Q26: In the logic circuit shown in the figure, if input A and B are 0 to 1 respectively, the output
at Y would be ‘x’.The value of x is ________.

Q26: In the logic circuit shown in the figure, if input A and B are 0 to 1 respectively, the output
at Y would be ‘x’.The value of x is ________.

0.00

Solution:
Q27: The value of power dissipate across the zener diode (Vz = 15V) connected in the circuit
as shown in the figure is x × 10-1watt.

The value of x, to the nearest integer, is __________.

Q27: The value of power dissipate across the zener diode (Vz = 15V) connected in the circuit
as shown in the figure is x × 10-1watt.

The value of x, to the nearest integer, is __________.

5.00
Solution:

Power through zener diode

Q28: In the figure given, the electric current flowing through the resistor is ‘x’ mA.

The value of x to the nearest integer is _________.

Q28: In the figure given, the electric current flowing through the resistor is ‘x’ mA.

The value of x to the nearest integer is _________.

3.00
Solution:

Q29: The resistance , where and . The

percentage error in R is ‘x’ %.The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is ________.
Q29: The resistance , where and . The
percentage error in R is ‘x’ %.The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is ________.
5.00

Solution:

Q30: A fringe width of 6 mm was produced for two slits separated by 1 mm apart. The screen
is placed 10 m away. The wavelength of light used is ‘x’ nm.The value of ‘x’ to the nearest
integer is ________.
Q30: A fringe width of 6 mm was produced for two slits separated by 1 mm apart. The screen
is placed 10 m away. The wavelength of light used is ‘x’ nm.The value of ‘x’ to the nearest
integer is ________.
600.00

Solution:

Q31: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Both CaCl2∙6H2O and MgCl2∙6H2O undergo dehydration on heating.

Statement II: BeO is amphoteric whereas the oxides of other elements in the same group are
acidic.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) Statement I is false but statement II is true

(B) Both statement I and statement II is true

(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false

(D) Both statement I and statement II are false

Q31: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Both CaCl2∙6H2O and MgCl2∙6H2O undergo dehydration on heating.

Statement II: BeO is amphoteric whereas the oxides of other elements in the same group are
acidic.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) Statement I is false but statement II is true

(B) Both statement I and statement II is true

(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false

(D) Both statement I and statement II are false

Solution:

CaCl2∙6H2O CaCl2 + 6H2O

MgCl2∙6H2O → MgCl(OH) + H2O

Among alkaline earth metal BeO is amphoteric & rest are basic oxide
Q32: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Eo value for Ce4+/Ce3+ is + 1.74 V.

Statement II: Ce is more stable in Ce4+ state than Ce3+ state.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
(A) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(B) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(C) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(D) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

Q32: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Eo value for Ce4+/Ce3+ is + 1.74 V.

Statement II: Ce is more stable in Ce4+ state than Ce3+ state.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
(A) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(B) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(C) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(D) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

Solution:

Ce4+ is good oxidising agent as Ce3+ is more stable

Ce–4 + e– → Ce3+ Eo = 1 .74 volt

Q33: The products “A” and “B” formed in above reactions are:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q33: The products “A” and “B” formed in above reactions are:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:
Q34: A group 15 element, which is a metal and forms a hydride with strongest reducing power
among group 15 hydrides. The element is:
(A) As

(B) Sb

(C) Bi

(D) P
Q34: A group 15 element, which is a metal and forms a hydride with strongest reducing power
among group 15 hydrides. The element is:
(A) As

(B) Sb

(C) Bi

(D) P

Solution:

BiH3 is strongest reducing agent among the hydrides of 15 group elements as Bi - H bond dissociation energy is very less.
Q35: In the below chemical reaction, intermediate “X” and reagent/condition “A” are:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q35: In the below chemical reaction, intermediate “X” and reagent/condition “A” are:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:
Q36: Which among the following pairs of Vitamins is stored in our body relatively for longer
duration?
(A) Thiamine and Vitamin A

(B) Thiamine and Ascorbic acid

(C) Ascorbic acid and Vitamin D

(D) Vitamin A and Vitamin D

Q36: Which among the following pairs of Vitamins is stored in our body relatively for longer
duration?
(A) Thiamine and Vitamin A

(B) Thiamine and Ascorbic acid

(C) Ascorbic acid and Vitamin D

(D) Vitamin A and Vitamin D

Solution:

Vitamin A & D are stored in our body for long duration

Q37: The functions of antihistamine are
(A) Antiallergic and Analgesic

(B) Antiallergic and antidepressant

(C) Antacid and antiallergic

(D) Analgesic and antacid

Q37: The functions of antihistamine are
(A) Antiallergic and Analgesic

(B) Antiallergic and antidepressant

(C) Antacid and antiallergic

(D) Analgesic and antacid

Solution:

Antihistamines are medicines often used to relieve symptoms of allergies, such as hay fever, hives, conjunctivitis & reactions
to insert bites or stings
Q38: In chromatography technique, the purification of compound is independent of
(A) Length of the column or TLC plate

(B) Solubility of the compound

(C) Mobility or flow of solvent system

(D) Physical state of the pure compound

Q38: In chromatography technique, the purification of compound is independent of
(A) Length of the column or TLC plate

(B) Solubility of the compound

(C) Mobility or flow of solvent system

(D) Physical state of the pure compound

Solution:

In Chromatography, for purification, there will be no need of the physical state of pure compound.
Q39: Among the following, the aromatic compounds are:

Choose the correct answer from the following options

(A) (A) and (B) only

(B) (B) and (C) only

(C) (A), (B) and (C) only

(D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Q39: Among the following, the aromatic compounds are:

Choose the correct answer from the following options

(A) (A) and (B) only

(B) (B) and (C) only

(C) (A), (B) and (C) only

(D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Solution:

6 π electron

6 π electron
Q40: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R:

Assertion A: The H – O – H bond angle in water molecule is 104.5o.

Reason R: The lone pair – lone pair repulsion of electrons is higher than the bond pair – bond
pair repulsion.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(B) A is true but R is false

(C) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(D) A is false but R is true

Q40: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R:

Assertion A: The H – O – H bond angle in water molecule is 104.5o.

Reason R: The lone pair – lone pair repulsion of electrons is higher than the bond pair – bond
pair repulsion.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(B) A is true but R is false

(C) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(D) A is false but R is true

Solution:

in water O atom is sp3 hybridised with 2 B.P & 2 L.P

Q41: Assertion A: Enol form of acetone [CH3COCH3] exists in < 0.1% quantity. However, the
enol form of acetyl acetone [CH3COCH2OCCH3] exists in approximately 15% quantity.

Reason R: Enol form of acetyl acetone is stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonding,

which is not possible in enol form of acetone.

Choose the correct statement:

(A) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

Q41: Assertion A: Enol form of acetone [CH3COCH3] exists in < 0.1% quantity. However, the
enol form of acetyl acetone [CH3COCH2OCCH3] exists in approximately 15% quantity.

Reason R: Enol form of acetyl acetone is stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonding,

which is not possible in enol form of acetone.

Choose the correct statement:

(A) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

Solution:

stable due to intramolecular H-bonding

Q42: Match List –I with List – II

List IIndustrial process List IIApplication

A Haber’s process (i) HNO3 synthesis
B Ostwald’s process (ii) Aluminium extraction
C Contact process (iii) NH3 synthesis
D Hall-Heroult process (iv) H2SO4 synthesis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)

(B) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)

(C) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii)

(D) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)

Q42: Match List –I with List – II

List IIndustrial process List IIApplication

A Haber’s process (i) HNO3 synthesis
B Ostwald’s process (ii) Aluminium extraction
C Contact process (iii) NH3 synthesis
D Hall-Heroult process (iv) H2SO4 synthesis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)

(B) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)

(C) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii)

(D) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)

Solution:

Habber's process is used for NH3 manufacture

N2 + 3H2 2NH3

Ostwald's process is used for perperational HNO3 by catalytic oxidation of NB

Contact process is used for preparation of H2SO4 using N2O5 catalyst

Hall herowlt process is used for Al exhactium.

Q43: Which of the following reaction DOES NOT involve Hoffmann bromamide degradation?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q43: Which of the following reaction DOES NOT involve Hoffmann bromamide degradation?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:


Q44: Which of the following is Lindlar catalyst?

(A) Zinc chloride and HCl

(B) Partially deactivated palladised charcoal

(C) Cold dilute solution of KMnO4

(D) Sodium and Liquid NH4

Q44: Which of the following is Lindlar catalyst?
(A) Zinc chloride and HCl

(B) Partially deactivated palladised charcoal

(C) Cold dilute solution of KMnO4

(D) Sodium and Liquid NH4

Solution:

Lindlar's catalyst ⇒ Pd/CaCO3 + (CH3COO)2 Pb + quinolene

Q45: The product “P” in the above reaction is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q45: The product “P” in the above reaction is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:
Q46: Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R:

Assertion A: Size of Bk3+ ion is less than Np3+ ion.

Reason R: The above is a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(B) A is true but R is false

(C) A is false but R is true

(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q46: Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R:

Assertion A: Size of Bk3+ ion is less than Np3+ ion.

Reason R: The above is a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(B) A is true but R is false

(C) A is false but R is true

(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Solution:
3+ 3+
93Np 97BK as atomic No. increase ionic size dec. (lanthanide/Actinide) contraction.
Q47: The process that involves the removal of sulphur from the ores is
(A) Roasting

(B) Refining

(C) Smelting

(D) Leaching
Q47: The process that involves the removal of sulphur from the ores is
(A) Roasting

(B) Refining

(C) Smelting

(D) Leaching

Solution:

Roasting removes S as SO2

S + O2 → SO2
Q48: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: H2O2 can act as both oxidising and reducing agent in basic medium.

Statement II: In the hydrogen economy, the energy is transmitted in the form of dihydrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both statement I and statement II are true

(B) Statement I is false but statement II is true

(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false

(D) Both statement I and statement II are false

Q48: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: H2O2 can act as both oxidising and reducing agent in basic medium.

Statement II: In the hydrogen economy, the energy is transmitted in the form of dihydrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both statement I and statement II are true

(B) Statement I is false but statement II is true

(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false

(D) Both statement I and statement II are false

Solution:

H2O2 can act as oxidising & reducing agent in both acidic & basic medium
Q49: Match List-I with List-II

List IName of oxo acid List IIOxidation state of ‘P’

A Hypophosphorous acid (i) + 5
B Orthophosphoric acid (ii) + 4
C Hypophosphoric acid (iii) + 3
D Orthophosphorous acid (iv) + 2
(v) + 1

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A – (iv), b – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)

(B) A – (iv), b – (v), C – (ii), D – (iii)

(C) A – (v), b – (iv), C – (ii), D – (iii)

(D) A – (v), b – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)

Q49: Match List-I with List-II

List IName of oxo acid List IIOxidation state of ‘P’

A Hypophosphorous acid (i) + 5
B Orthophosphoric acid (ii) + 4
C Hypophosphoric acid (iii) + 3
D Orthophosphorous acid (iv) + 2
(v) + 1

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A – (iv), b – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)

(B) A – (iv), b – (v), C – (ii), D – (iii)

(C) A – (v), b – (iv), C – (ii), D – (iii)

(D) A – (v), b – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)

Solution:

Hypophosphorous acid ⇒ +1(O.S of phosphorus)

Orthophosphoric acid ⇒ +5
(O.S of phosphorus)

Hypophosphoric acid ⇒ +4
 (O.S of phosphorus)

Orthophosphorous acid ⇒+3 

(O.S of phosphorus)
Q50: The type of pollution that gets increased during the day time and in the presence of O3
is
(A) Acid rain

(B) Reducing smog

(C) Global warming

(D) Oxidising smog

Q50: The type of pollution that gets increased during the day time and in the presence of O3
is
(A) Acid rain

(B) Reducing smog

(C) Global warming

(D) Oxidising smog

Solution:

NO + O2 → NO2

NO + O3 → NO2 + O2

NO2 NO + [O]
O + O2 ⇌ O3

CH4 + O2 CH2 = O + H2O

Vehicle

Exhaust
Q51:

If the above equation is balanced with integer coefficients, the value of c is ________.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Q51:

If the above equation is balanced with integer coefficients, the value of c is ________.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer).

16.00

Solution:
Q52: A 6.50 molal solution of KOH (aq.) has a density of 1.89 g cm-3. The molarity of the
solution is _______ mol dm-3. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Atomic masses: K : 39.0 u; O : 16.0 u; H : 1.0 u]

Q52: A 6.50 molal solution of KOH (aq.) has a density of 1.89 g cm-3. The molarity of the
solution is _______ mol dm-3. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Atomic masses: K : 39.0 u; O : 16.0 u; H : 1.0 u]

9.00

Solution:

12285 – 364M = 1000 M

1364 M = 12285

M=9
Q53: Complete combustion of 750 g of an organic compound provides 420 g of CO2 and 210
g of H2O. The percentage composition of carbon and hydrogen in organic compound is 15.3
and _______ respectively. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Q53: Complete combustion of 750 g of an organic compound provides 420 g of CO2 and 210
g of H2O. The percentage composition of carbon and hydrogen in organic compound is 15.3
and _______ respectively. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
3.00

Solution:

Liebeig method:

% of H-element =

Q54: Two salts A2X and MX have the same value of solubility product of 4.0 × 10-12. The ratio
of their molar solubilities i.e. _______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Q54: Two salts A2X and MX have the same value of solubility product of 4.0 × 10-12. The ratio
of their molar solubilities i.e. _______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
50.00

Solution:

AX2(s) ⇌ A2+(aq) + 2X–(aq)

Solubility:

(x) , (x), (x)

⇒ Ksp = 4 × 10–12 = [A2+] [x–]2 = 4x3

⇒ x = 10–4 =

+ –
Bx(s) ⇌ B (aq) + x (aq)

Solubility:

(y) , (y), (y)

⇒ Ksp = 4 × 10–12 = [B–] [x–] = y2

⇒ y = 2 × 10–6 = SBX

Q55: For the reaction at .

If we start the reaction in a closed container at 495 K with 22 millimoles of A, the amount of B
in the equilibrium mixture is ______ millimole. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[R = 8.314 J mol-1K-1; In 10 = 2.303]

Q55: For the reaction at .

If we start the reaction in a closed container at 495 K with 22 millimoles of A, the amount of B
in the equilibrium mixture is ______ millimole. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[R = 8.314 J mol-1K-1; In 10 = 2.303]

20.00

Solution:

∆ Go = – RT In Keq

– 9.478 x 103 = –495 x 8 .314 ln Keq

In Keq = 2.303 = ln 10

So, Keq = 10

Now,

A(g) ⇌ B(g)

t = 0

22, 0

t = t

22–x, x

x = 20

So, millimoles of B = 20
Q56: A certain element crystallises in a bcc lattice of unit cell edge length . If the same
element under the same conditions crystallises in the fcc lattice, the edge length of the unit

cell will be _______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Assume each lattice point has a single atom]

[Assume ]
Q56: A certain element crystallises in a bcc lattice of unit cell edge length . If the same
element under the same conditions crystallises in the fcc lattice, the edge length of the unit

cell will be _______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Assume each lattice point has a single atom]

[Assume ]
33.00

Solution:

For BCC unit cell,

For fcc unit cell

Q57: The decomposition of formic acid on gold surface follows first order kinetics. If the rate
constant at 300 K is 1.0 × 10-3s-1 and the activation energy Ea = 11.488 kJ mol-1, the rate
constant at 200 K is ______ × 10-5s-1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

(Given: R = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1)

Q57: The decomposition of formic acid on gold surface follows first order kinetics. If the rate
constant at 300 K is 1.0 × 10-3s-1 and the activation energy Ea = 11.488 kJ mol-1, the rate
constant at 200 K is ______ × 10-5s-1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

(Given: R = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1)

10.00

Solution:

⇒ K1 = 10–4 So, × 10–5 = 10–4 ⇒ = 10

(Given: R = 8.314 J Mol–1 K–1)

Q58: The equivalents of ethylene diamine required to replace the neutral ligands from the
coordination sphere of the trans-complex of CoCl3∙4NH3 is _______. (Round off to the
Nearest Integer).
Q58: The equivalents of ethylene diamine required to replace the neutral ligands from the
coordination sphere of the trans-complex of CoCl3∙4NH3 is _______. (Round off to the
Nearest Integer).
2.00

Solution:
Q59: AB2 is 10% dissociated in water to A2+ and B-. The boiling point of a 10.0 molal aqueous
solution of AB2 is _______ oC. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given: Molal elevation constant of water Kb = 0.5 K kg mol-1 boiling point of pure water =
100oC]
Q59: AB2 is 10% dissociated in water to A2+ and B-. The boiling point of a 10.0 molal aqueous
solution of AB2 is _______ oC. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given: Molal elevation constant of water Kb = 0.5 K kg mol-1 boiling point of pure water =
100oC]
106.00

Solution:

∆ Tb = iKbm

[AB2 ⇌ A2+ + 2B–]

i = 1.2

∆ Tb = 1.2 × 0.5 × 10 = 6

(Tb)solution = 106oC
Q60: When light of wavelength 248 nm falls on a metal of threshold energy 3.0 eV, the de-
Broglie wavelength of emitted electrons is _______Å.

[Use:

me = 9.1 × 10-31kg; c = 3.0 × 108 ms-1; 1eV = 1.6 × 10-19J)

Q60: When light of wavelength 248 nm falls on a metal of threshold energy 3.0 eV, the de-
Broglie wavelength of emitted electrons is _______Å.

[Use:

me = 9.1 × 10-31kg; c = 3.0 × 108 ms-1; 1eV = 1.6 × 10-19J)

8.68

Solution:

λ = 248 × 10–9 m

w0 = 3 × 1.6 × 10–19 J

E = w0 + K.E.

= W0 + K.E.

K.E = –3 × 1.6 × 10–19

= 3.2 × 10–19J

λ = 8.68 × 10–10 = 8.68 Å

Q61: Let P be plane containing the line, . If plane P
divides the line segment AB joining points and in ratio
then the value of k is equal to
(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 1.5

(D) 2
Q61: Let P be plane containing the line, . If plane P
divides the line segment AB joining points and in ratio
then the value of k is equal to
(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 1.5

(D) 2
Solution:

Point is

The equation of the line is

and

Plane

It also satisfy point

Solving (1) and (2)

Plane is

It will satisfy point

Q62: Which of the following Boolean expressions is a tautology?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q62: Which of the following Boolean expressions is a tautology?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

TTT T T T
FTF T T T
TFF T F T
FFF F T T

Q63: The locus of the midpoints of the chord of the circle which is tangent to
the hyperbola is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q63: The locus of the midpoints of the chord of the circle which is tangent to
the hyperbola is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Tangent of hyperbola

Which is a chord of circle with mid-point

So equation of chord

By and

and

Locus is
Q64: The number of elements in the set is equal to
(A) 1

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 4
Q64: The number of elements in the set is equal to
(A) 1

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 4
Solution:

Case I

but

Case II

no solution

Case III

only

Q65: If the three normals drawn to the parabola pass through the point
, then ‘ ’ must be greater than
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 1
Q65: If the three normals drawn to the parabola pass through the point
, then ‘ ’ must be greater than
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 1

Solution:

Let the equation of the normal is

Here

It passing through then

Q66: Let the functions and be defined as:

and

Then, the number of points in where is NOT differentiable is equal to

(A) 0

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 1
Q66: Let the functions and be defined as:

and

Then, the number of points in where is NOT differentiable is equal to

(A) 0

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 1

Solution:

is discontinuous at then non-differentiable at

At

Number of points of non-differentiability

Q67: Let . Then, the system of linear equations

has:

(A) A unique solution

(B) Exactly two solutions

(C) Infinitely many solutions

(D) No solution
Q67: Let . Then, the system of linear equations

has:

(A) A unique solution

(B) Exactly two solutions

(C) Infinitely many solutions

(D) No solution
Solution:

And

no solution
Q68: The number of roots of the equation,

In the interval is equal to

(A) 8

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 4
Q68: The number of roots of the equation,

In the interval is equal to

(A) 8

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 4
Solution:

In the interval

Number of solutions = 4
Q69: A pack of cards has one card missing. Two cards are drawn randomly and are found to
be spades. The probability that the missing card is not a spade, is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q69: A pack of cards has one card missing. Two cards are drawn randomly and are found to
be spades. The probability that the missing card is not a spade, is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Event of selecting 2 spades

Non spade is missing

Spade is missing

Q70: Let . Then is equal to:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q70: Let . Then is equal to:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Q71: Let a complex number , satisfy . Then, the largest

value of is equal to _______.

(A) 7

(B) 6

(C) 5

(D) 8
Q71: Let a complex number , satisfy . Then, the largest

value of is equal to _______.

(A) 7

(B) 6

(C) 5

(D) 8

Solution:

Q72: Let denote greatest integer less than or equal to . If for ,

, then is equal to:

(A)

(B)

(C) 1

(D) 2
Q72: Let denote greatest integer less than or equal to . If for ,

, then is equal to:

(A)

(B)

(C) 1

(D) 2
Solution:

Put

Put

Solving and

Q73: If is the solution of the differential equation,

, then the maximum value of the function over R is
equal to:
(A) 8

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q73: If is the solution of the differential equation,
, then the maximum value of the function over R is
equal to:
(A) 8

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Q74: Consider three observations and such that . If the standard deviation
of is , then which of the following is true?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q74: Consider three observations and such that . If the standard deviation
of is , then which of the following is true?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

For

Q75: If for and

, then the value of is equal to
(A) 20

(B) 9

(C) 6

(D) 12
Q75: If for and
, then the value of is equal to
(A) 20

(B) 9

(C) 6

(D) 12

Solution:

And

(squaring)

(using equation (1))

Q76: If is the number of irrational terms in the expansion of , then

is divisible by
(A) 8

(B) 26

(C) 7

(D) 30
Q76: If is the number of irrational terms in the expansion of , then
is divisible by
(A) 8

(B) 26

(C) 7

(D) 30
Solution:

For rational terms

              

              

              

is always divisible by 4 for all value of

Total terms = 61

Irrational terms = 53

52 is divisible by 26
Q77: If for , the feet of perpendiculars from the points and
on the plane are points and D
respectively, then the length of line segment CD is equal to
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q77: If for , the feet of perpendiculars from the points and
on the plane are points and D
respectively, then the length of line segment CD is equal to
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

C lies on plane

From (1) and (2)

From (2)

Let

So plane:

Q78: Let a vector be obtained by rotating the vector by an angle

about the origin in counter clockwise direction in the first quadrant. Then the area of triangle
having vertices and (0, 0) is equal to
(A) 1

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q78: Let a vector be obtained by rotating the vector by an angle
about the origin in counter clockwise direction in the first quadrant. Then the area of triangle
having vertices and (0, 0) is equal to
(A) 1

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

          

           sq.unit
Q79: The range of for which the function
has
critical points is:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q79: The range of for which the function
has
critical points is:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

We have,

If does not have critical points, then does not have any solution in .

Now,

and

Thus, has solution in , If

Q80: Let the position vectors of two points P and Q be and ,

respectively. Let R and S be two points such that the direction ratios of lines PR and QS are
and , respectively. Let lines PR and QS intersect at T. If the vector
is perpendicular to both and and the length of vector is units, then the
modulus of a position vector of A is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q80: Let the position vectors of two points P and Q be and ,
respectively. Let R and S be two points such that the direction ratios of lines PR and QS are
and , respectively. Let lines PR and QS intersect at T. If the vector
is perpendicular to both and and the length of vector is units, then the
modulus of a position vector of A is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Dr’s of normal to the plane containing P, T and Q will be proportional to

For point,

And

So point

Or

Q81: If the normal to the curve at a point is parallel

to the line , then the value of is equal to ________.

Q81: If the normal to the curve at a point is parallel

to the line , then the value of is equal to ________.

406.00

Solution:

At point

Given

Also lies on the curve

Q82: The total number of matrices A having entries from the set such that
the sum of all the diagonal entries of is 9, is equal to _______.
Q82: The total number of matrices A having entries from the set such that
the sum of all the diagonal entries of is 9, is equal to _______.
766.00

Solution:

All 1

One 3, rest = 0

Two 2, one 1 and rest 0

One 2, five1, rest 0

Q83: Consider an arithmetic series and a geometric series having four initial terms from the
set {11, 8, 21, 16, 26, 32, 4}. If the last terms of these series are the maximum possible four
digit numbers, then the number of common terms in these two series is equal to ______.
Q83: Consider an arithmetic series and a geometric series having four initial terms from the
set {11, 8, 21, 16, 26, 32, 4}. If the last terms of these series are the maximum possible four
digit numbers, then the number of common terms in these two series is equal to ______.
3.00

Solution:

So common terms are

Q84: Let be defined as .

Then, is equal to ______.

Q84: Let be defined as .

Then, is equal to ______.

1.00

Solution:

Replacing

Equation

Q85: Let the curve be the solution of the differential equation, . If

the numerical value of area bounded by the curve and x-axis is , then the
value of is equal to ________.
Q85: Let the curve be the solution of the differential equation, . If
the numerical value of area bounded by the curve and x-axis is , then the
value of is equal to ________.
2.00
Solution:

Here,

Area of shaded region = Area of rectangle

Difference of root

For

and

Area of shaded region

                                     

Hence,
Q86: Let be a continuous function such that for all

. If and , then the value of is equal to

________.
Q86: Let be a continuous function such that for all

. If and , then the value of is equal to

________.
16.00

Solution:

By and

is period with

Q87: Let z and be two complex numbers such that and

has minimum value. Then, the minimum value of for which is real, is equal
to ________.
Q87: Let z and be two complex numbers such that and

has minimum value. Then, the minimum value of for which is real, is equal
to ________.
4.00
Solution:

Given,

Also,

Let

For minimum

For

which is real

Minimum value of is 4
Q88: Let ABCD be a square of side of unit length. Let a circle centered at A with unit
radius is drawn. Another circle which touches and the lines AD and AB are tangent to
it, is also drawn. Let a tangent line from the point C to the circle meet the side AB at E. If
the length of EB is , where are integers, then is equal to _______.
Q88: Let ABCD be a square of side of unit length. Let a circle centered at A with unit
radius is drawn. Another circle which touches and the lines AD and AB are tangent to
it, is also drawn. Let a tangent line from the point C to the circle meet the side AB at E. If
the length of EB is , where are integers, then is equal to _______.
1.00
Solution:

Here or

Equation of circle

Equation of

It is tangent to circle

Put

On solving

Taking greater slope of CE as

Put

Q89: If , then is equal to ______.

Q89: If , then is equal to ______.
4.00

Solution:

Q90: Let and where

, and be the identity matrix of order 3. If the determinant of the matrix

is , then the value of is equal to ________.
Q90: Let and where

, and be the identity matrix of order 3. If the determinant of the matrix

is , then the value of is equal to ________.
36.00
Solution:

Let