F IN AL T EST

PAPER-1
PAPER CODE : A
Class : XII & XIII

Time : 3 hour
Max. Marks : 297
INSTRUCTIONS

1. The question paper contains 99 questions and 24 pages. Each question carry 3 marks and all of them are
compulsory. There is NEGATIVE marking. 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
Please ensure that the Question Paper you have received contains all the QUESTIONS and
Pages. If you found some mistake like missing questions or pages then contact immediately to
the Invigilator.

2. Indicate the correct answer(s) for each question by filling appropriate bubble(s) in your OMR sheet.

3. Use only HB pencil for darkening the bubble(s).

4. Use of Calculator, Log Table, Slide Rule and Mobile is not allowed.

5. For example if only 'B' choice is correct then, the correct method for filling the bubble is
A B C D

For example if only 'B & D' choices are correct then, the correct method for filling the bubbles is
A B C D

The answer of the question in any other manner (such as putting , cross , or partial shading etc.)
will be treated as wrong.

USEFUL DATA
Atomic Mass: Al = 27, Mg = 24, Cu = 63.5, Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5, O = 16, H = 1, P = 31, Ag = 108, N = 14,
Li = 7, I = 127, Cr = 52, K=39, S = 32, Na = 23, C = 12, Br = 80, B = 11, Fe = 56, Ca = 40, Zn = 65.4,
Ba = 137,Co = 59, Hg = 200, Pb = 207, He = 4, F=19, Ar = 40
 PART-A

Select the correct alternative. (Only one is correct) [99 × 3 = 297]

There is NEGATIVE marking. 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.

Q.1 Two identical heaters are coated with paint. In 1st case e1 = 1.0 and in 2nd case e2 = 0.5. Both are kept
in identical chambers which are in similar surroundings. If the heaters are switched on, in steady state 1st
heater has temperature T1 on surface and 1 of its chamber. 2nd heater has temperature T2 on surface
and 2 of its chamber.
(A) 1 = 2; T1 < T2 (B) 1 > 2; T1 = T2 (C) 1 = 2; T1 > T2 (D) 1 < 2; T1 = T2

Q.2 In an optical bench experiment to measure the focal length of a concave mirror, random error in focal
length will be
(A) minimum when u = f and maximum when u = 
(B) minimum when u =  and maximum when u = f
(C) minimum when u = 0 and maximum when u = 2f
(D) minimum when u = 2f and maximum when u = 0

Q.3 One digital watch 'A' was showing 1:12:32 and an old clock 'B', not having seconds hand was showing
1:10, at the moment actual time was 1:10:15
(A) A is more precise but less accurate than B (B) A is less precise but more accurate than B
(C) A is both more accurate and precise (D) B is both more accurate and precise

Q.4 When beats are produced by two progressive waves of nearly the same frequency, which one of the
following is correct?
(A) the amplitude of vibrations at any point changes simple harmonically with a frequency equal to the
difference in frequencies of the two waves
(B) the particles vibrate simple harmonically, with the frequency equal to the difference in the component
frequencies
(C) the frequency of beats depends on the position, where the observer is
(D) the frequency of beats changes as the time progresses

ROUGH WORK
Q.5 Microwaves of wavelength  = 5 cm and intensity I0 are split and
recombined by the metallic mirror system as shown in the figure. The
intensity of the microwave at the detector P is minimum if x is
(A) 0.88 cm (B) 3.54 cm
(C) 3.02 cm (D) 6.04 cm

Q.6 What is the ratio of the acceleration of the ground state electron in a singly ionized helium atom and
doubly ionized lithium atom?
(A) 2/3 (B) 4/9 (C) 8/27 (D) 1

Q.7 The mass number of a nucleus is

(A) always more than its atomic number
(B) always less than its atomic number
(C) Sometimes less than its atomic number
(D) Sometimes equal to and sometimes more than its atomic number

6.4 106
Q.8 y(x, t) = For a wave motion the disturbance along y direction is represented by
1.6 103  ( x  vt ) 2
the above equation. Here all the parameters are in SI units. If y decreases from its maximum value to
one half of the maximum value in 2 × 10–3 s, what is the wave velocity?
(A) 20 m/s (B) 4 m/s (C) 4 × 10–3 m/s (D) 20 × 10 –3 m/s

Q.9 Which of the following statement is correct is connection with hydrogen spectrum
(A) The longest wavelength is the Balmer series is longer than the longest wavelength in Lyman series
(B) The shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is shorter than the shortest wavelength in the Lyman
series
(C) The longest wavelength in both Balmer Lyman series are equal
(D) The longest wavelength in Balmer series is shorter than the longest wavelength in the Lyman series.

ROUGH WORK
Q.10 Imagine that a current is flowing around this test paper in the anticlockwise direction. If an external
magnetic field is in +ve x direction, which edge of the paper would be lifted under the influence of the
torque of the magnetic field?
(A) Top edge (B) bottom edge (C) left edge (D) right edge
Q.11 If an electric dipole is rotating about its center with a uniform angular velocity in the anticlockwise
direction in a uniform magnetic field which is in the direction of the angular velocity,
(A) net force as well as torque on the dipole is zero
(B) net force as well as torque on the dipole is non zero
(C) net force on the dipole is zero but the net torque on the dipole is non zero
(D) net force on the dipole is not zero but the net torque on the dipole is zero
Q.12 The figure below shows the forces that three charged particles exert on each other. Which of the four
situations shown can be correct.

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) all of the above (B) none of the above (C) II, III (D) II, III & IV
Q.13 A diverging lens of focal length 10 cm is placed 10 cm in front of a plane mirror as shown in the figure.
Light from a very far away source falls on the lens. The final image is at a distance

(A) 20 cm behind the mirror (B) 7.5 cm in front of the mirror

(C) 7.5 cm behind the mirror (D) 2.5 cm in front of the mirror

ROUGH WORK
Q.14 A mixture of 4 gm helium and 28 gm of nitrogen is enclosed in a vessel of constant volume at 300 K. The
quantity of heat absorbed by the mixture to increase root mean velocity of its molecules by 50% is (R is
universal gas constant)
(A) 1500 R (B) 450 R (C) 750 R (D) 3000 R

Q.15 An open cubical vessel is standing on an inclined plane, angle 45°, as seen in figure. Its walls are thin and
it is kept from sliding down by a small wedge (C). The vessel is filled to its half with mercury and an iron
sphere is floating on the surface from point A in the direction of point B. When does the vessel tip over ?
(A) When the sphere is at A
(B) When the sphere is at B
(C) When the sphere is at mid point of A and B
(D) In all the positions of the sphere, the probability of tipping is equal

Q.16 Pull down in the middle a heavy chain, fixed at both ends, in such a way that it forms a triangle. Does the
centre of mass takes up a higher or lower position?

(A) Centre of mass comes down (B) Centre of mass goes up

(C) Centre of mass remains stationary (D) Cannot be predicted

Q.17 A car follows a truck on a perfectly straight road, both vehicles traveling at 72 km/h speed. What
minimal following distance should be observed by the car in order to avoid flying stones from the rear
wheels of the truck?
(A) 20 m (B) 10 m (C) 40 m (D) 5 m

ROUGH WORK
Q.18 Figure shows P vs V curve for various processes performed on an ideal gas. All the processes are
polytropic (PVm = constant). For 1, m = –1; for 2, m = 0.5; for 3, m = 1; for 4, m = 1.25 and for 5,
m = .
(A) Molar heat capacity (C) for process 2, C < C p
Cp  Cv
(B) Molar heat capacity for process (1) is
2
(C) Molar heat capacity for process 5 is C > C v
(D) Any polytropic process that lies between 3 & 4 will have positive heat capacity
Q.19 What is fraction of molecule below an altitude h in atmosphere? Assume uniform gravitational field,
isothermal conditions, mass of a molecule m, Boltzman constant k, temperature T.
(A) f = e ( mgh / kT ) (B) f = e –( mgh / kT ) (C) f = 1 – e –( mgh / kT ) (D) f = 1 – e ( mgh / kT )

Q.20

(W) (X) (Y) (Z)

Figure shows four hollow metal spheres each with internal radius a and external radius b. Match each
charge distribution with the corresponding E - field graph.

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) W – II; X – I; Y – III; Z – IV (B) W – III; X – I; Y – II; Z – IV

(C) W – I; X – II; Y – III; Z – IV (D) W – II; X – III; Y – I; Z – IV
ROUGH WORK
 Comprehension (Q.21 to Q.23)
Two particles of mass m each are rotating parallel to xz plane in circle of radius R as shown.

Consider the situation when the particles are at (R, R, 0) and (–R, –R, 0) answer following questions
Q.21 The angular velocity vector of the system of two particles and the total angular momentum of system
about origin make an angle of
(A) 45° (B) 90° (C) 0° (D) 180°

Q.22 What is y-component of the total angular momentum of the system about origin
(A) zero (B) 2mvR (C) mvR (D) mvR/2

Q.23 Choose the correct statement

(A) The y-component of the total torque acting on the system is non-zero
(B) Net force acting on system is non zero
(C) Net torque on the system rotates parallel to xz plane
(D) Total torque acting on the system is zero

Q.24 A coil of inductance L = 0.2 H and of resistance R = 62.8  is connected to the mains alternating
voltage of frequency 50 Hz. What can be the capacitance of the capacitor connected in series with the
coil if the useful power has to remain unchanged?
(A) 10 C (B) 50 C (C) 25 C (D) 100 C

ROUGH WORK
Q.25 A neutral particle at rest in a magnetic field decays into two charged particles of different mass. The
energy released goes into their kinetic energy. Then what can be the path of the two particles. Neglect
any interaction between the two charges.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.26 A spherical soap bubble is blown such that its radius increases at a constant rate. Which of following
curves represents power required to increase surface energy of the bubble versus radius of drop.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

ROUGH WORK
Q.27 A light, rigid sheet of triangular shape has a curved portion cut from it as shown in figure. It floats on the
surface of water. Some soap solution is dropped over dotted region. Surface tension of water and soap
film are T1 & T2 respectively. T1 = 1.5T2. Mark correct option.

(A) The frame experiences a net force F = (T1 – T2)R in y < 0 direction
(B) The frame experiences force F = (T1 – T2)R in y > 0 direction
(C) The frame experiences force (T1 – T2)(2–)R in y > 0 direction
(D) Resultant force on wire frame is zero

Q.28 A string of length 3L is fixed at both ends. It resonates with a tuning fork in third harmonic. At time t = 0,
a string element at position of antinode is at half its positive amplitude and moving towards mean position.
Displacement of a string element at L/2 is given by
A0  11  3A 0  5 
(A) sin  t   (B) sin  t  
2  6  2  6 

 5  A0  5 
(C) A 0 sin  t   (D) sin  t  
 6  2  6 

Q.29 A projectile is to be projected towards enemy territory at the same horizontal level. The initial velocity of
the projectile is known to be 100 ± 1 m/s. Initial angle of the projectile is known to be projected
45°  1°. What is the possible range of the projectile?
(A) 990 m  R  1010 m (B) 980 m  R  1020 m
(C) 970 m  R  1030 m (D) 930 m  R  970 m

ROUGH WORK
Q.30 A very long wire carrying current I is fixed along x-axis. Another parallel finite wire carrying a current in
the opposite direction is kept at a distance d above the wire in xy plane. The second wire is free to move
parallel to itself. The options available for its small displacements are in
(i) +ve x direction (ii) +ve y direction (iii) +ve z direction
Taking gravity in negative y direction, the nature of equilibrium of second wire is
(A) stable for movement in x direction, unstable for movement in y direction, neutral for movement in z
direction
(B) stable for movement in y direction, unstable for movement in z direction, neutral for movement in x
direction
(C) stable for movement in z direction, unstable for movement in y direction, neutral for movement in x
direction
(D) stable for movement in y direction, unstable for movement in x direction, neutral for movement in z
direction

Q.31 A sphere of brass released in a long liquid column attains a terminal speed v 0. If the terminal speed
attained by the sphere of marble of the same radius and released in the same liquid is nv0, then the value
of n will be.
Given: The specific gravities of brass, marble and the liquid are 8.5, 2.5 and 0.8 respectively.
5 17 11 17
(A) (B) (C) (D)
17 77 31 5

Q.32 A simple pendulum of length 1 m is allowed to oscillate with amplitude 2°. It collides
elastically with a wall inclined at 1° to the vertical. Its time period will be (use g = 2)
(A) 2/3 sec (B) 4/3 sec
(C) 2 sec (D) none

Q.33 A spherical asteroid having the same density as that of earth is floating in free space. A small pebble is
revolving around the asteroid under the influence of gravity near the surface of the asteroid. What is the
approximate time period of the asteroid?
(A) 24 h (B) 365 days (C) 10 min (D) 1 hr 24 min

ROUGH WORK
Q.34 20 ml of 0.05 M solution of the conjugate acid of an -amino acid methionine (H2A+) is taken. The pka
of –COOH group in methionine is 2.8 and pkb of basic group is 4.8. Pick out only incorrect statement
among the following. [Use log 2 = 0.3]
(A) pH of original amino acid solution was ~ 2.05
(B) pH of solution was ~ 2.8 when 10 ml 0.05 M NaOH solution is added to original solution
(C) pH of solution is ~ 6 when 20 ml 0.05 M NaOH solution is added to original solution
(D) pH of solution is 3.8 when 20 ml 0.05 M NaOH solution is added to original solution

Q.35 Which of the following compound(s) will give blue colour when it is converted into Lassaigne's extract
and FeSO4 is added followed by FeCl3.

(I) (II) (III) CH3–NMe2 (IV) NH2–NH2

(A) III only (B) II & III (C) II, III & IV (D) I, II, III & IV

Q.36 ZnO shows yellow colour on Heating due to

(A) d–d transition (B) C–T spectra
(C) Higher polarisation caused by Zn2+ ion (D) F– centres

Q.37 The decomposition of N2O5 in chloroform was followed by measuring the volume of O2 gas evolved :
2N2O5 (CCl4) 2N2O4 (CCl4) + O2(g). The maximum volume of O2 gas obtained was 100 cm3. In
500 minutes, 90 cm3 of O2 were evolved. The first order rate constant (in min –1) for the rate of
disappearance of N2O5 is
2.303 2.303 100 2.303 90 100
(A) (B) log (C) log (D)
500 500 90 500 100 10  500

ROUGH WORK
Q.38 What will be the order of rotation barriers about C–N bond among these compounds ?

(I) CH3–CH2–NH2 (II) (III)

(A) I > II > III (B) I < II < III (C) II > III > I (D) III > I > II

Q.39 Complex compound [Cr(NCS)(NH3)5] [ZnCl4] will be

(A) Colourless & diamagnetic
(B) Green coloured & diamagnetic
(C) Green coloured & shows coordination isomerism
(D) Diamagnetic & shows linkage isomerism

Q.40 The vapour pressure of pure perflourocyclohexane (C6F12) are given by the following equations:
1890
Solid C6F12 : log10 p(mm Hg) = 8.68 –
T
1530
Liquid C6F12 : log10 p(mm Hg) = 7.60 –
T
The molar enthalpy of fusion of solid C6F12 is approximately
(A) 1658 cal (B) 360 cal (C) 3420 cal (D) 720 cal

Q.41 + HNO3 + H2SO4  Product.

Product is:

(A) (B) (C) (D) Both B & C

ROUGH WORK
Q.42 Which of the following is correct.
(A) F2 has higher dissociation energy than Cl2
(B) F has higher electron affinity than Cl
(C) HF is stronger acid than HCl
(D) Boiling point increases down the group in halogens


Q.43 N H 3 – CH(R)– CO2H has its Ka1 = 10–7. The isoelectric point of the -amino acid occur at pH = 8.2
hence pKa2 of the conjugate acid of -amino acid is equal to
(A) 9.4 (B) 1.2 (C) 7.6 (D) 2.4

Q.44 The product of I– with MnO 4 in alkaline medium is

(A) I2 (B) IO3 (C) IO– (D) IO 4

Q.45 Which of the following will racemize in presence of acid or base impurities in aqueous medium.

CH 3 H
| |
(A) Me  C  C  Ph (B) Me  C  CH 2  C  CH 3
|| | || |
O Cl O D

H
|
(C) (D) Ph  C  C  CH 2  CH 3
|| |
O CH 3

ROUGH WORK
Q.46 (X) + K2CO3 + Air Heat  (Y)
(Y) + Cl2  (Z) Pink
Which of the following is correct?
(A) X = black, MnO2 , Y = Blue, K2CrO4, Z = KMnO4
(B) X = green, Cr2O3, Y = Yellow, K2CrO4 , Z = K2Cr2O7
(C) X = black, MnO2 Y = green , K2MnO4, Z = KMnO4
(D) X = black, Bi2O3, Y = colourless KBiO2, Z = KBiO3

Q.47 Write correct order of stability

(A) I > II > III > IV (B) III > II > I > IV (C) III > I > II > IV (D) III > II > IV > I

Q.48 The structure of diborane (B2H6) contains

(A) Four (2C–2e–) bonds and two (2C–3e–) bonds
(B) Two (2C–2e–) bonds and two (3C–2e–) bonds
(C) Four (2C–2e–) bonds and four (3C– 2e–) bonds
(D) None

Q.49 This question consist of two statements each, printed as assertion and reason, while answering this
question you are required to choose any one of the following responses.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but the reason is true.
Assertion : Me MgBr give CH4 with acetone.
Reason :  – H of carbonyl compounds are active (acidic).

ROUGH WORK
Q.50 Nitrogen dioxide can not be obtained from
(A) Cu(NO3)2 (B) Hg(NO3)2 (C) NaNO3 (D) AgNO3

Q.51 PhCHO & HCHO will behave differently with which of the following reagents
(A) Tollen's Reagent (B) Fehling Solution (C)Schiff's reagent (D) NaBH4

Q.52 The oxide does not have coordinate bond is

(A) N2O (B) NO (C) N2O5 (D) NO2

Q.53 & are:

(A) chain isomers (B) positional isomers (C) conformers (D) enantiomers

Q.54 FeSO4 is a very good absorber for NO, the new compound formed by this process is found to contain
number of unpaired electrons
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 6

Q.55 Most stable form of ethylene glycol is:

(A) anti (B) gauche (C) fully eclipsed (D) partially eclipsed

Q.56 The formation of PH 4 is difficult compared to NH 4 because

(A) lone pair of phosphorus is optically inert
(B) lone pair of phosphorus resides at almost pure p-orbital
(C) lone pair of phosphorus resides at sp3 orbital
(D) lone pair of phosphorus resides at almost pure s-orbital

Q.57 Which of the following heptanols are chiral 1-heptanol, 2-heptanol, 3-heptanol, 4-heptanol.
(A) All are chiral (B) 2-heptanol and 3-heptanol
(C) 2-heptanol, 3-heptanol & 4-heptanol (D) 3-heptanol and 4-heptanol

ROUGH WORK
Q.58 What products are formed during, the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl?
(I) Cl2 (g) (II) NaOH (aq) (III) H2 (g)
(A) I only (B) I & II only (C) I & III only (D) I, II & III

Q.59 Predict the major product P in following reaction:

NaNO
 
2  P
HCl

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.60 The product Octalone is obtained by Michael addition followed by aldol condensation of reactants R
and S in presence of a base. S gives positive iodoform test.

B ,
R + S 

Octalone
R and S are respectively:

(A) + CH3–CH=O (B) + CH 2  CH  C  H

||
O

(C) + CH 2  CH  C  CH 3 (D) + CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 3
|| ||
O O

ROUGH WORK
 Question No. 61 & 62 (2 questions)

Q.61 Step C (refining) involved in purification of Pb metal

(A) Distillation (B) Bessemerization
(C) Cupelation (D) Electrolytic refining

Q.62 Which of the following metals are obtained by auto reduction method:
Pb, Mn, Cu, Cr, Fe, Al.
(A) Cu, Fe (B) Cu, Pb, Mn (C) Mn, Cr, Pb (D) Pb, Cu

Q.63 This compound on ozonolysis gives which of the following compounds

O
||
(I) (II) OHC  C  C  CH 2  C  CHO
|| ||
O O

O
||
(III) CHO (IV) OHC  C  C  CH 2  CH  O
| ||
CHO O
(A) I, II, III & IV (B) I, III, IV (C) I, II, III (D) I, II, IV

ROUGH WORK
 CH ONa
Q.64 In the reaction; 3 ; the product is
CH 3OH

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.65 The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:

O  C  CH 2  CH  CHO
| |
OH HC  O
(A) 3,3-diformyl propanoic acid (B) 3-formyl-4-oxo-butanoic acid
(C) 3,3-dioxo propanoic acid (D) 3,3-dicarbaldehyde propanoic acid

HBr
Q.66 CH 2=CH–CH2–CH2–CCH ( Product is
1eq )
(A) BrCH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CCH (B) CH2=CH–CH2–CH2–CH = CH–Br
(C) CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH 2  C  CH 2 (D) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 2  C  CH
| |
Br Br

ROUGH WORK
Q.67 Let f (x) = ax7 + bx3 + cx – 5, where a, b and c are constants. If f (–7) = 7, then f (7) equals
(A) –17 (B) –7 (C) 14 (D) 21

     
Q.68 For f (x) = sin cos 2 x   , then the f '   
  2   4
(A) – cos 1 (B) 1 (C) – 2 (D) 0

Q.69 If x and y are real numbers such that x2 + y2 = 8, The maximum possible value of x – y, is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 2 2

Q.70 A plane passes through the point P(4, 0, 0) and Q(0, 0, 4) and is parallel to the y-axis. The distance of
the plane from the origin is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 2 2

Q.71 Let f (x) be continuous and differentiable function for all reals.
f (h )
f (x + y) = f (x) – 3xy + f (y). If Lim = 7, then the value of f ' (x) is
h 0 h
(A) – 3x (B) 7 (C) – 3x + 7 (D) 2 f (x) + 7

Q.72 For b> a >1, the area enclosed by the curve y = ln x, y axis and the straight lines y = ln a and y = ln b is
(A) b – a (B) b(ln b – 1) – a(ln a – 1)
(C) (ln a)(b – a) (D) (ln b)(ln a)
n
 1  cos 30 1  cos 30 
Q.73 The set of positive values of n for which  i  is real, is

 2 2 
(A) 4, 8, 12,  (B) 6, 12, 18,  (C) 8, 16, 24,  (D) 12, 24, 36, 

ROUGH WORK
Q.74 Points A and B are selected on the graph of x2 + 2y = 0 so that the triangle ABO is equilateral. The length
of the side of the triangle is ('O' is the origin)
4 4
(A) 4 3 (B) (C) (D) 2 3
3 3
Q.75 If f (x) is continuous and differentiable over [–2, 5] and – 4  f ' (x)  3 for all x in (–2, 5) then the
greatest possible value of f (5) – f (–2) is
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 15 (D) 21

x5 x4
Q.76 The graph of f (x) = – + 5 has
20 12
(A) no relative extrema, one point of inflection.
(B) two relative maxima, one relative minimum, two points of inflection.
(C) one relative maximum, one relative minimum, one point of inflection.
(D) one relative maximum, one relative minimum, two point of inflection.

1 A A
Q.77 Minimum value of  cot  3 tan  where A  (0, 180°) occurs when A equals
2 2 2
(A) 60° (B) 90° (C) 120° (D) 150°
Q.78 Let k be an integer and p is a prime such that the quadratic equation x2 + kx + p = 0 has two distinct
positive integer solutions. The value of (k + p) equals
(A) – 1 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 6

x 2 y2
Q.79 Consider the particle travelling clockwise on the elliptical path  = 1. The particle leaves the
100 25
orbit at the point (–8, 3) and travels in a straight line tangent to the ellipse. At what point will the particle
cross the y-axis?
 25   25   7
(A)  0,  (B)  0,   (C) (0, 9) (D)  0, 
 3   3   3
ROUGH WORK
Q.80 The solution of the differential equation, ex(x + 1)dx + (yey – xex)dy = 0 with initial condition f (0) = 0,
is
(A) xex + 2y2ey = 0 (B) 2xex + y2ey = 0 (C) xex – 2y2ey = 0 (D) 2xex – y2ey = 0

Q.81 The value of the expression, cos 35° + cos 125° + 2 sin 185°(sin 130° + sin140°) when simplified is
(A) positive and greater than (1/2) (B) negative and less than (– 1/2)
(C) 1/2 (D) zero

4 x 2 1
Q.82 f (x) = 5 . How many of the following are true?
1
I The domain of f is | x | 
2
II The range of f (x) is y  1
III The graph of f (x) is symmetric about the y-axis.
IV f (x) has no critical points.
V The graph of f (x) never decreases.
(A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four

 1 tan x  T –1
Q.83 If A =  tan x 1  then let us define a function f (x) = det. (A A ) then which of the following can

not be the value of f f f f ...........f ( x )  is (n  2)
       
n times

(A) f n(x) (B) 1 (C) f n – 1(x) (D) n f (x)

Q.84 The equations of L1 and L2 are y = mx and y = nx, respectively. Suppose L1 makes twice as large of an
angle with the horizontal (measured counterclockwise from the positive x-axis) as does L2 and that L1
has 4 times the slope of L2. If L1 is not horizontal, then the value of the product (mn) equals
2 2
(A) (B) – (C) 2 (D) –2
2 2

ROUGH WORK
Q.85 Three balls marked 1, 2 and 3 are placed in an urn. One ball is drawn, its number is recorded, then the
ball is returned to the urn. This process is repeated and then repeated once more, and each ball is equally
likely to be drawn on each occasion. If the sum of the numbers recorded is 6, the probability that the ball
numbered 2 was drawn at all the three occassions, is
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
27 7 6 3

 2 x  2007 
Q.86 Number of integral values of x the inequality log10    0 holds true, is
 x 1 
(A) 1004 (B) 1005 (C) 2007 (D) 2008
5
Q.87 Let f be a one-to-one continuous function such that f (2) = 3 and f (5) = 7. Given  f ( x) dx = 17, then
7 2
1
the value of the definite integral f ( x ) dx equals
3
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13

Q.88 Two rays with common end point 'O' forms a 30° angle. Point A lies on one ray, point B on the other ray
and AB = 1. The maximum possible length of OB is
4 3 1
(A) 3 (B) (C) 2 (D)
3 2

Q.89 Suppose that the quadratic function f (x) = ax2 + bx + c is non-negative on the interval [–1, 1]. Then the
area under the graph of f over the interval [–1, 1] and the x-axis is given by the formula
 1 1
(A) A = f (–1) + f (1) (B) A = f     f  
 2 2
1 1
(C) A = [ f ( 1)  2 f (0)  f (1)] (D) A = [ f ( 1)  4 f (0)  f (1)]
2 3
ROUGH WORK
 x 2 y2
Q.90 Let F1, F2 are the foci of the hyperbola  = 1 and F3, F4 are the foci of its conjugate hyperbola.
16 9
If eH and eC are their eccentricities respectively then the statement which holds true is
(A) Their equations of the asymptotes are different.
(B) eH > eC
(C) Area of the quadrilateral formed by their foci is 50 sq. units.
(D) Their auxillary circles will have the same equation.

Q.91 Consider the two functions f (x) = x2 + 2bx + 1 and g(x) = 2a(x + b), where the variable x and the
constants a and b are real numbers. Each such pair of the constants a and b may be considered as a point
(a, b) in an ab – plane. Let S be the set of such points (a, b) for which the graphs of y = f (x) and
y = g (x) do not intersect (in the xy – plane.). The area of S is
(A) 1 (B)  (C) 4 (D) 4
a11 a12 a13
Q.92 Let 0 = a 21 a 22 a 23 and let 1 denote the determinant formed by the cofactors of elements of
a 32 a 32 a 33
0 and 2 denote the determinant formed by the cofactor at 1 and so on n denotes the determinant
formed by the cofactors at n – 1 then the determinant value of n is
n 2
(A) 20n (B) 20 (C) n0 (D) 20

Q.93 The polynomial P(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c has the property that the mean of its zeroes, the product of its
zeroes, and the sum of its coefficients are all equal. If the y-intercept of the graph of y = P(x) is 2, then the
value of b is
(A) – 11 (B) – 9 (C) 1 (D) 5
2006
Q.94 If  k C10 simplifies to nCp where p is prime then (n + p) has the value equal to
k 10
(A) 2017 (B) 2018 (C) 2019 (D) 2020

ROUGH WORK
Q.95 The number of three elements sets of positive integers {a, b, c} such that a × b × c = 2310, is
(A) 40 (B) 30 (C) 25 (D) 15

/ 2 / 2
 2   
Q.96 Let u =  cos  sin 2 x  dx and v =
 3 
 cos  sin x  dx , then the relation between u and v is
3 
0 0
(A) 2u = v (B) 2u = 3v (C) u = v (D) u = 2v

Q.97 In the figure given, two circles with centres C1 and C2 are 35 units apart, i.e. C1C2 = 35. The radii of the
circles with centres C1 and C2 are 12 and 9 respectively. If P is the intersection of C1C2 and a common
internal tangent to the circles, then l(C1P) equals
(A) 18 (B) 20
(C) 12 (D) 15

2007
Q.98 Let Z =  ki k , then Re(Z) + Im(Z) equals (where i = 1 )
k 1
(A) 0 (B) 2007 (C) – 2008 (D) 3012

Q.99 Position vectors of the four angular points of a tetrahedron ABCD are A(3, – 2, 1); B(3, 1, 5); C(4, 0, 3)
and D(1, 0, 0). Acute angle between the plane faces ADC and ABC is
5 2 5 3
(A) tan–1   (B) cos–1   (C) cosec–1   (D) cot–1  
2 5 2 2

ROUGH WORK