Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Sample Questions of
English & Logical Reasoning
with Detailed Solutions
1
Grammar
Q. 1 Find out uncountable nouns in the following questions:
Little knowledge is always dangerous and we must strive to reach the depth.
Option 1:
Little
Option 2:
Knowledge
Option 3:
Dangerous
Option 4:
depth
Option 5:
Always
Correct Answer:
Knowledge
Solution:
Knowledge cannot be pluralized with an ‘s’ or ‘es’. Thus, it qualifies to be uncountable noun
The love that I feel for you is true despite the ever-transient conditions.
Option 1:
Love
Option 2:
that
Option 3:
The
Option 4:
True
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Option 5:
Feel
Correct Answer:
Love
Solution:
Love is an abstract noun, hence cannot be counted.
His father was deeply concerned about his safety and thus, he censured him for having been
nonchalant.
Option 1:
censured
Option 2:
Safety
Option 3:
About
Option 4:
Father
Option 5:
Nonchalant
Correct Answer:
Safety
Solution:
Safety is another noun which cannot be counted. It is an abstract noun.
To make it better, we need significant research which is pertaining to the present problem.
Option 1:
we
Option 2:
Need
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Option 3:
Research
Option 4:
Significant
Option 5:
Make
Correct Answer:
Research
Solution:
Research cannot be counted. It is not tangible. Thus, it is uncountable.
Two sacks of rice was the price he fixed for an evidently arduous task.
Option 1:
arduous
Option 2:
Found
Option 3:
Rice
Option 4:
Fixed
Option 5:
Sacks
Correct Answer:
Rice
Solution:
It is impossible to count rice. Therefore, option 4 is the best choice
Although he never understood himself. I kept trying to convince him that he was better than
me.
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Option 1:
Although he never understood himself
Option 2:
I kept trying to convince
Option 3:
better than me
Option 4:
No error
Option 5:
him that he was
Correct Answer:
better than me
Solution:
Than is a conjunction, not a preposition. Hence, than must be followed by the subjective pronoun. ‘Better
than I am’ is better.
I won’t let him take it.The bat is mine, not only the bat, it’s sticker is also mine.
Option 1:
I won’t let him take it
Option 2:
not only the bat
Option 3:
it’s sticker is also mine
Option 4:
No error
Option 5:
the bat is mine
Correct Answer:
it’s sticker is also mine
Solution:
The possessive pronoun for it is its.
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Q. 8 Find errors of pronoun.
It is a well-known fact that one must not reveal their secrets to people who do not care.
Option 1:
that one must not reveal
Option 2:
their secrets to people
Option 3:
who do not care
Option 4:
No error
Option 5:
It is a well-known fact
Correct Answer:
their secrets to people
Solution:
One is a singular subject. Thus, the usage of ‘their’ is wrong here.
The man who you met was always going to do it with utmost ease.
Option 1:
The man who you
Option 2:
going to do it
Option 3:
with utmost ease
Option 4:
No error
Option 5:
met was always
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Correct Answer:
The man who you
Solution:
The man is the object here. Thus, the correct pronoun is ‘whom’.
The teacher was aware of their ability, therefore, she asked him to monitor the class during
the break.
Option 1:
The teacher was aware of their ability
Option 2:
therefore, she asked him
Option 3:
No error
Option 4:
during the break
Option 5:
to monitor the class
Correct Answer:
The teacher was aware of their ability
Solution:
Since the rest of the sentence is about one person, the correct pronoun is ‘his’ instead of ‘their’.
A few metres beyond that village was seen two men along with a few bulls and Indian
drivers
Option 1:
A few metres beyond
Option 2:
that village was seen two men
Option 3:
a few bulls and Indian drivers
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Option 4:
No error
Option 5:
along with
Correct Answer:
that village was seen two men
Solution:
Men are two, hence, were to be used instead of was.
It is popularly known that the higher class have no consideration for the poverty-stricken
and the tyrannized.
Option 1:
No error
Option 2:
the higher class have no
Option 3:
consideration for the poverty-stricken
Option 4:
and the tyrannized
Option 5:
It is popularly known that
Correct Answer:
the higher class have no
Solution:
Higher class is considered as a singular subject. Thus, has should replace have.
Amit as well as some of his enemies have fallen in love with chemistry, which is the most
convoluted subject.
Option 1:
No error
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Option 2:
have fallen in love with chemistry, which
Option 3:
is the most convoluted subject
Option 4:
Amit as well as
Option 5:
some of his enemies
Correct Answer:
have fallen in love with chemistry, which
Solution:
With as well as, the farther subject rule is applied. Thus, the verb has to agree with Amit, which is
singular. The correction thus, is ‘has fallen’.
More than one successful student of this college have interacted with the most sought after
celebrities found in the nation.
Option 1:
More than one successful student of this college
Option 2:
have interacted with
Option 3:
found in the nation
Option 4:
No error
Option 5:
the most sought after celebrities
Correct Answer:
have interacted with
Solution:
One is singular, thus, have needs to be changed into has.
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Q. 15 Find out the part which contains an error of subject-verb agreement:
More than one documentary on moral values and knowledge by this director have been
banned by the censor board.
Option 1:
More than one documentary on moral values
Option 2:
have been banned
Option 3:
No error
Option 4:
and knowledge by this director
Option 5:
by the censor board
Correct Answer:
have been banned
Solution:
The subject (one) is singular. Thus, has should be written
Many a man along with some colleagues are speaking with the owner of the shop to ensure
better parking.
Option 1:
some colleagues are
Option 2:
No error
Option 3:
the shop to ensure better parking
Option 4:
Many a man along with
Option 5:
speaking with the owner of
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Correct Answer:
some colleagues are
Solution:
Man is singular, thus, the verb ‘are’ should be replaced with ‘is’.
Many a student of this school are supposed to be promoted to the next standard on the
basis of good performance.
Option 1:
No error
Option 2:
are supposed to be promoted
Option 3:
on the basis of good performance
Option 4:
to be promoted to the next standard
Option 5:
Many a student of this school
Correct Answer:
are supposed to be promoted
Solution:
Student is singular, thus, the verb ‘are’ should be replaced with ‘is’.
The boss of the company as well as his employees are planning to take an action against the
people who pelted stones.
Option 1:
his employees are planning
Option 2:
to take an action against
Option 3:
No error
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Option 4:
The boss of the company as well as
Option 5:
the people who pelted stones
Correct Answer:
his employees are planning
Solution:
With as well as, the farther subject rule is applied. Thus, the verb has to agree with boss, which is
singular. The correction thus, is ‘is’.
Although I told you that the beautiful couple is on the brink of getting separated yet you
should not have disclosed it to her.
Option 1:
Although I told you that
Option 2:
is on the brink of getting separated
Option 3:
No error
Option 4:
the beautiful couple
Option 5:
yet you should not have disclosed it to her
Correct Answer:
is on the brink of getting separated
Solution:
When they are separating, the couple are considered plural, thus, ‘are’ is to be written.
The criminal along with his henchmen are coming tomorrow to create trouble in the
peaceful city.
Option 1:
No error
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Option 2:
henchmen are coming tomorrow
Option 3:
in the peaceful city
Option 4:
to create trouble
Option 5:
The criminal along with his
Correct Answer:
henchmen are coming tomorrow
Solution:
Criminal is a singular subject. Hence, are is to be replaced with ‘is’
Option 1:
I was studying
Option 2:
I have been studying
Option 3:
I had been studying
Option 4:
I would have been studying
Option 5:
I will be studying
Correct Answer:
I have been studying
Solution:
Have been is the correct tense as the activity is still going on.
When I returned to my hometown five years ago, I noticed that a lot of changes ______
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Option 1:
had taken place
Option 2:
have taken place
Option 3:
have been taking place
Option 4:
are taken place
Option 5:
were taken place
Correct Answer:
had taken place
Solution:
Since the sentence is in the past tense, had forms the correct expression. ‘Were taken place’ is
idiomatically wrong.
I am happy about the fact the house is not available any longer. It ______ to a school teacher.
Option 1:
would be sold
Option 2:
is sold
Option 3:
has been sold
Option 4:
was being sold
Option 5:
will be sold
Correct Answer:
has been sold
Solution:
Since the sentence depicts an action taken place in the recent past, present perfect tense is required to
be used.
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Q. 24 Find out the correct form of tense.
Employees who fought the adverse conditions narrated that the situation ______ under
control after forty minutes.
Option 1:
was brought
Option 2:
has been brought
Option 3:
is brought
Option 4:
had been brought
Option 5:
can be brought
Correct Answer:
was brought
Solution:
The sentence is in past tense. Was brought thus, is idiomatically the best choice.
Option 1:
will be killing
Option 2:
will kill
Option 3:
could be killing
Option 4:
shall be killing
Option 5:
would be killing
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Correct Answer:
will kill
Solution:
In accordance with the context, we need the simple future tense. ‘Will be killing’ will change the meaning
and create ambiguity.
Option 1:
has not played well
Option 2:
would play well
Option 3:
had not played well
Option 4:
None of these
Option 5:
has played well
Correct Answer:
had not played well
Solution:
Since the sentence in the past tense (see told), the correct tense is past. Thus, option c is the best choice
Fear and anxiety are___ forms of will which are sometimes harmful.
Option 1:
unique
Option 2:
perverse
Option 3:
diverse
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Option 4:
accepted
Option 5:
different
Correct Answer:
perverse
Solution:
Perverse here is used in contrary to the accepted or expected standard or practice.
In contrast, the socialization theory contends that men and women, experience work
differently because men see work as more _____to their lives
Option 1:
desperate
Option 2:
majestic
Option 3:
central
Option 4:
opposite
Option 5:
needy
Correct Answer:
central
Solution:
They pivot their lives around work.
These _______explanations, which carry different opposite ideas apart, today business
appears to be undergoing a feminization of leadership.
Option 1:
contradictory
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Option 2:
corresponding
Option 3:
theoretical
Option 4:
analogical
Option 5:
discriminating
Correct Answer:
contradictory
Solution:
The explanations highlight contrary ideas.
Option 1:
brutal
Option 2:
kind
Option 3:
crazy
Option 4:
palpable
Option 5:
gregarious
Correct Answer:
brutal
Solution:
Brutal people kill others.
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Option 1:
perilous
Option 2:
considerate
Option 3:
tyrannical
Option 4:
naive
Option 5:
precarious
Correct Answer:
tyrannical
Solution:
Ironically is the key. Contrast is highlighted by tyrannical.
Option 1:
On
Option 2:
in
Option 3:
off
Option 4:
into
Option 5:
at
Correct Answer:
On
Solution:
For public transport, we use on.
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Q. 33 Find out the correct prepositions.
Option 1:
in
Option 2:
at
Option 3:
into
Option 4:
to
Option 5:
on
Correct Answer:
at
Solution:
To specify, we use at.
Option 1:
with
Option 2:
to
Option 3:
on
Option 4:
in
Option 5:
at
Correct Answer:
to
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Solution:
During one way communication, we use speak to. This is expected to be one way communication.
Option 1:
with
Option 2:
at
Option 3:
on
Option 4:
up
Option 5:
to
Correct Answer:
with
Solution:
During two way communication, we use 'with'.
Option 1:
to
Option 2:
with
Option 3:
from
Option 4:
on
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Option 5:
in
Correct Answer:
to
Solution:
Inherent takes to
Option 1:
in
Option 2:
on
Option 3:
about
Option 4:
with
Option 5:
into
Correct Answer:
in
Solution:
When it is a generalized concept, we use in with interfere.
Option 1:
of
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Option 2:
from
Option 3:
off
Option 4:
up
Option 5:
with
Correct Answer:
from
Solution:
When the form of the original component is altered, we use from.
Amit asked me, "Did you see the movie the last evening?"
Option 1:
Amit asked me whether I would see the movie earlier evening.
Option 2:
Amit asked me did I see the movie.
Option 3:
Amit asked me whether I had seen the movie the last evening.
Option 4:
Amit asked me whether I saw the movie earlier evening.
Option 5:
Amit asked me whether I had seen the movie.
Correct Answer:
Amit asked me whether I had seen the movie the last evening.
Solution:
While changing the speech, from direct to indirect, we remove the quotation marks and use a
conjunction or a verb. Idiomatically and grammatically, only the last sentence is appropriate.
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Q. 40 Change the speech.
Option 1:
He told Amit that Sheena will leave for Delhi tomorrow.
Option 2:
He told Amit that Sheena left for Delhi the next day.
Option 3:
He told Amit that Sheena would leave for Delhi the next day.
Option 4:
He told Amit that Sheena would have left for Delhi tomorrow.
Option 5:
He told Amit that Sheena would be leaving for Delhi tomorrow.
Correct Answer:
He told Amit that Sheena would leave for Delhi the next day.
Solution:
While changing the speech, from direct to indirect, we remove the quotation marks and use a
conjunction or a verb. Here, the verb is told. Idiomatically and grammatically, only the last sentence is
appropriate.
The man said, "All the boys are playing in the street."
Option 1:
The man told us that all the boys had been playing in the street.
Option 2:
The man told us that all the boys were playing in the street.
Option 3:
The man told us that all the boys have been playing in the street.
Option 4:
The man told us that all the boys in the street are playing.
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Option 5:
The man told us that all the boys play in the street.
Correct Answer:
The man told us that all the boys were playing in the street.
Solution:
While changing the speech, from direct to indirect, we remove the quotation marks and use a
conjunction or a verb. Here, the old man has told. A is incomplete without since or for, C and D are
idiomatically inappropriate.
Option 1:
She apologized for I did not write.
Option 2:
She apologized she is sorry, she could not write.
Option 3:
She apologized and added that she was sorry, she had not written.
Option 4:
She apologized she is sorry, she did not write.
Option 5:
She apologized she is sorry, she has not written.
Correct Answer:
She apologized and added that she was sorry, she had not written.
Solution:
grammatically and idiomatically correct option is 4.
Alright, yes, "I was wrong and you were right", he said.
Option 1:
He admitted that he was wrong and I have been right.
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Option 2:
He admitted that I was wrong and he was right.
Option 3:
He admitted that he had been wrong and I had been right.
Option 4:
He admitted that I was wrong and you were right.
Option 5:
He admitted that he has been wrong and I have been right.
Correct Answer:
He admitted that he had been wrong and I had been right.
Solution:
Appropriate and gramattically right.
Option 1:
Nirmal told us that my father given me a purse the previous day.
Option 2:
Nirmal told us that his father had given him a purse the previous day.
Option 3:
Nirmal told us that his father has given him a purse yesterday.
Option 4:
Nirmal told us that his father has given him a purse the previous day.
Option 5:
Nirmal told us that his father had given him a purse yesterday.
Correct Answer:
Nirmal told us that his father had given him a purse the previous day.
Solution:
Rest of the options change the meaning and grammatically wrong.
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Option 1:
Bala's mother asked Bala if he would lock the door.
Option 2:
Bala's mother asked Bala if he can lock the door.
Option 3:
Bala’s mother said lock the door.
Option 4:
Bala's mother told Bala that he need not lock the door.
Option 5:
Bala's mother asked Bala if he had locked the door.
Correct Answer:
Bala's mother asked Bala if he would lock the door.
Solution:
Rest of the options change the meaning.
You must ___ your sweater; otherwise, you will catch cold.
Option 1:
Put on
Option 2:
Wear
Option 3:
Put out
Option 4:
Put off
Option 5:
Put up
Correct Answer:
Put on
Solution:
Wear is wrong. The word means to carry something. Hence, put on is the best choice.
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Q. 47 Complete the following phrasal verb from the given choices:
Option 1:
Off
Option 2:
Of
Option 3:
to
Option 4:
In
Option 5:
With
Correct Answer:
Of
Solution:
Deprive of is the idiomatically correct choice
Option 1:
Why are we abused?
Option 2:
Why he abuses us?
Option 3:
Why are we abused by him?
Option 4:
Why is he abusing us?
Option 5:
Why an abuse is done by him?
Correct Answer:
Why are we abused by him?
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Solution:
“Why are we abused by him?” is the best choice. The subject changes into the object successfully.
Option 1:
She shall be badly censured
Option 2:
She will be badly censured by her
Option 3:
She will get censured
Option 4:
She will censure her
Option 5:
She will be censured
Correct Answer:
She will be badly censured by her
Solution:
The subject and the object swap roles in “She will be badly censured by her”. Hence, it is the correct.
Option 1:
Chicken is eaten by me
Option 2:
Daily I eat chicken
Option 3:
Chicken is daily eaten by me
Option 4:
I eat chicken
Option 5:
I ate chicken daily
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Correct Answer:
Chicken is daily eaten by me
Solution:
“Chicken is daily eaten by me” is the best answer. Rest of the options have interchanged the subject and
object.
Reading Comprehension
DIRECTIONS for question 1-10 : Read the passage and answer
the question based on it.
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Q. 1 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions:
Modern technology has made it possible to transplant organs like heart, kidney, cornea,
lung and liver from one human being to another, to save or enhance the quality of life of
patients who suffer organ damage. What could be more altruistic than the gift of life? Once
you are dead, your body need not go waste. The dead body is the shell of a living image of
God. Rather than deepen our pain at the time of a loved one’s death, this ultimate act of
generosity to donate organs may actually soften our loss and uplift us.Most important
among the 613 Commandments in the Old Testament is to “love your neighbour as yourself”
(Leviticus 19:18). The Jews were commanded to demonstrate love for God as well as for their
fellowmen. Being willing to donate an organ from our own bodies would be a great example
of selfless sacrifice for another. The Torah does not specifically address the issue of organ
donation. Such a procedure was unknown in Biblical times.At one time, organ donation and
transplantation, were prohibited by Jewish laws and tradition because such procedures
were still in the experimental stage and meant risking lives. Today, that is not the case.
Accordingly, Rabbis and scholars across the spectrum of Jewish life have updated their views
on this. Organ donation from a dead body to a needy patient, is seen as an act of saving life,
‘pikkuah nefesh’. Organ donation from a living donor is fine, too, so long as it will not
significantly risk the donor’s life; then it is a ‘mitzvah kiyumit’, praiseworthy. One of the most
compelling arguments for organ donation is the love, mercy and compassion involved in
such an act. Saving a life is a fundamental imperative in Judaism.Tzedakah, charity, is an
attribute of God himself. Prophets Isaiah and Ezekiel considered charity as an indispensable
requirement in life. The Hebrew word, ‘Tzedakah,’ means righteousness/justice. Charity to
donate organs is greater than all sacrifices.The Talmud Tractate Yoma 65b reminds us to
remember the commandment “You shall live by them, you shall not die because of them”
(Leviticus 19:16). This means that we should not stand idly by our neighbour who is
suffering. This principle overrides Jewish objections to any unnecessary interference with the
body after death and the requirement for immediate burial. On the contrary, the body is
sewn up quickly and the funeral can occur without much delay. As Mishnah Sanhedrin 4:6
says, “Whoever saves one life, it is as if he saved the entire world.”I appeal to all religious and
spiritual leaders as well as all interfaith organisations and NGOs to unitedly come together
and make today, August 1, the start of The Times Organ Donation Campaign, a grand
success by creating awareness among followers, colleagues and students in schools and
colleges by communicating their own willingness to donate their organs.Let us declare
together, that ‘‘I would like to help someone to live even after my death.’’ Let us remember a
favourite bumper sticker that reads as follows: “Don’t take your organs to heaven, because
heaven knows we need them here”. Organ donation needs to be seen as a true mitzvah, a
commandment, a ‘must’. Go on, pledge your organs; help save lives.
Option 1:
Organ donation and transplantation are not prohibited by Jewish laws and tradition.
Option 2:
It is possible to donate organs from one human being to another.
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Option 3:
love, mercy and compassion is necessary for this act.
Option 4:
what would be more generous act than the gift of life
Option 5:
being willing to donate an organ from our own bodies would be a great example of sacrifice for
another.
Correct Answer:
Organ donation and transplantation are not prohibited by Jewish laws and tradition.
Solution:
Refer to (At one time, organ donation and transplantation, were prohibited by Jewish laws and tradition
because such procedures were still in the experimental stage and meant risking lives)
Q. 2 Which of the following most accurately express the main idea of the purpose?
Option 1:
Jewish had not upgraded their view of donation
Option 2:
The act of generosity soften our loss and uplift us.
Option 3:
The Jews were commanded to demonstrate love for God as well as their fellowmen
Option 4:
We should not stand idly by our neighbour who is suffering
Option 5:
We can help someone to live even after our death.
Correct Answer:
We can help someone to live even after our death.
Solution:
Refer to (Let us declare together, that ‘‘I would like to help someone to live even after my death.’’ Let us
remember a favourite bumper sticker that reads as follows: “Don’t take your organs to heaven, because
heaven knows we need them here)
Q. 3 Why the organ donation and transplantation were prohibited in Jewish laws?
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Option 1:
because this type of procedures was not mentioned in biblical.
Option 2:
because it was risky for the receiver's life
Option 3:
because the procedure was not completed and was under the experimental stage
Option 4:
because the Jewish had not upgraded their views.
Option 5:
because love, mercy was not in people's heart for this altruistic act.
Correct Answer:
because the procedure was not completed and was under the experimental stage
Solution:
Refer to (At one time, organ donation and transplantation, were prohibited by Jewish laws and tradition
because such procedures were still in the experimental stage and meant risking lives)
Option 1:
success of the time organ donation
Option 2:
awareness among the followers
Option 3:
followers own willingness to donate their organs
Option 4:
option a and b
Option 5:
option b and d.
Correct Answer:
option b and d.
Solution:
Refer to (the start of The Times Organ Donation Campaign, a grand success by creating awareness
among followers, colleagues and students in schools and colleges by communicating their own
willingness to donate their organs. )
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Q. 5 According to the passage what Mishnah Sanhedrin says in 4:6?
Option 1:
don't take your organs to heaven, because heaven knows we need them here
Option 2:
help someone to live even after the death
Option 3:
what could be more altruistic than the gift of life
Option 4:
whoever saves one life, it is as if he saved the entire world.
Option 5:
go on, pledge your organs; help save lives
Correct Answer:
whoever saves one life, it is as if he saved the entire world.
Solution:
Refer to (This principle overrides Jewish objections to any unnecessary interference with the body after
death and the requirement for immediate burial. On the contrary, the body is sewn up quickly and the
funeral can occur without much delay. As Mishnah Sanhedrin 4:6 says, “Whoever saves one life, it is as if
he saved the entire world.” )
Q. 6 Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.generosity
Option 1:
tonic
Option 2:
vehemence
Option 3:
ravish
Option 4:
sordid
Option 5:
magnanimity
Correct Answer:
magnanimity
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Solution:
generosity means the quality of being kind and generous
Q. 7 Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.altruistic
Option 1:
Avaricious
Option 2:
thrifty
Option 3:
Philanthropic
Option 4:
stingy
Option 5:
sordid
Correct Answer:
Philanthropic
Solution:
philanthropic, which means generous or benevolent.
Q. 8 Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.PROHIBITED
Option 1:
Legitimate
Option 2:
legal
Option 3:
logical
Option 4:
interdict
Option 5:
accredited
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Correct Answer:
interdict
Solution:
Interdict,which means an authoritative prohibition
Q. 9 Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.indispensable
Option 1:
requisite
Option 2:
imperative
Option 3:
trivial
Option 4:
crucial
Option 5:
cardinal
Correct Answer:
trivial
Solution:
Trival,which means of little value or importance.
Q. 10 Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.ATTRIBUTE
Option 1:
Defer
Option 2:
stigmatize
Option 3:
impute
Option 4:
discredit
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Option 5:
insinuate
Correct Answer:
discredit
Solution:
Discredit,which means to cause someone to lose people's respect or trust.
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Q. 11 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions:
How many really suffer as a result of labor market problems? This is one of the most critical
yet contentious social policy questions. In many ways, our social statistics exaggerate the
degree of hardship. Unemployment does not have the same dire consequences today as it
did in the 1930’s when most of the unemployed were primary breadwinners, when income
and earnings were usually much closer to the margin of subsistence, and when there were
no countervailing social programs for those failing in the labor market. Increasing affluence,
the rise of families with more than one wage earner, the growing predominance of
secondary earners among the unemployed, and improved social welfare protection have
unquestionably mitigated the consequences of joblessness. Earnings and income data also
overstate the dimensions of hardship. Among the millions with hourly earnings at or below
the minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority are from multiple-earner, relatively
affluent families. Most of those counted by the poverty statistics are elderly or handicapped
or have family responsibilities which keep them out of the labor force, so the poverty
statistics are by no means an accurate indicator of labor market pathologies.Yet there are
also many ways our social statistics underestimate the degree of labor-market-related
hardship. The unemployment counts exclude the millions of fully employed workers whose
wages are so low that their families remain in poverty. Low wages and repeated or
prolonged unemployment frequently interact to undermine the capacity for self-support.
Since the number experiencing joblessness at some time during the year is several times the
number unemployed in any month, those who suffer as a result of forced idleness can equal
or exceed average annual unemployment, even though only a minority of the jobless in any
month really suffer. For every person counted in the monthly unemployment tallies, there is
another working part-time because of the inability to find full-time work, or else outside the
labor force but wanting a job. Finally, income transfers in our country have always focused
on the elderly, disabled, and dependent, neglecting the needs of the working poor, so that
the dramatic expansion of cash and in-kind transfers does not necessarily mean that those
failing in the labor market are adequately protected.As a result of such contradictory
evidence, it is uncertain whether those suffering seriously as a result of labor market
problems number in the hundreds of thousands or the tens of millions, and, hence, whether
high levels of joblessness can be tolerated or must be countered by job creation and
economic stimulus. There is only one area of agreement in this debate—that the existing
poverty, employment, and earnings statistics are inadequate for one their primary
applications, measuring the consequences of labor market problems.
What is the impact on poverty statistics of not including the millions of fully employed
workers with extremely low wages?
Option 1:
Earnings and income data overstate the dimensions of hardship
Option 2:
People earn very less that they can’t even survive still they are not counted as poor’s which provides
inadequate data
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Option 3:
Low wages and repeated or prolonged unemployment frequently interact to undermine the capacity
for self-support
Option 4:
Among the millions with hourly earnings at or below the minimum wage level, the overwhelming
majority are from multiple-earner, relatively affluent families
Option 5:
Option a and d
Correct Answer:
People earn very less that they can’t even survive still they are not counted as poor’s which provides
inadequate data
Solution:
as mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage.
Option 1:
Because contradictory evidences are found
Option 2:
Because it is not certain whether all issues are as a result of labor market
Option 3:
the poverty statistics are by no means an accurate indicator of labor market pathologies
Option 4:
The unemployment counts exclude the millions of fully employed workers whose wages are so low
that their families remain in poverty.
Option 5:
Because the existing poverty, employment, and earnings statistics are inadequate for one their
primary applications
Correct Answer:
Because the existing poverty, employment, and earnings statistics are inadequate for one their
primary applications
Solution:
as it is mentioned in the last of the passage
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Option 1:
Unemployment did not have the same consequences as we have today.
Option 2:
Poverty statistics are based on only elderly or handicapped
Option 3:
There were no countervailing social programs for labors those were failing in the market
Option 4:
Unemployed were primary breadwinners, when income and earnings were usually much closer to the
margin of subsistence,
Option 5:
Option a b and d
Correct Answer:
There were no countervailing social programs for labors those were failing in the market
Solution:
as it is mentioned in the third line of the first passage.
Option 1:
The unemployment counts exclude the millions of fully employed workers whose wages are so low
that their families remain in poverty
Option 2:
It is uncertain whether those suffering seriously as a result of labor market problems number in the
hundreds of thousands or the tens of millions
Option 3:
Earnings and income data shows insufficient information
Option 4:
Both a & b
Option 5:
All a , b & c
Correct Answer:
Both a & b
Solution:
According to the passage Both A and B are true.
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Q. 15 What is the reason why people are taking part time job?
Option 1:
Because every person counted in the monthly unemployment tallies.
Option 2:
Low wages and repeated or prolonged unemployment.
Option 3:
option a and b
Option 4:
Because people are suffering as a result of labour market.
Option 5:
Reason of part-time is, the inability to find full-time work.
Correct Answer:
Reason of part-time is, the inability to find full-time work.
Solution:
Reason of part time job is inability to find full-time work, as it is mentioned in the fifth line of the second
paragraph of the passage.
Option 1:
Among the millions with hourly earnings at or below the minimum wage level, the overwhelming
majority are from multiple-earner, relatively affluent families.
Option 2:
There are also many ways our social statistics underestimate the degree of labour-market-related
hardship.
Option 3:
There is another working part-time because of the inability to find full-time work, or else outside the
labour force but wanting a job.
Option 4:
According to the data analysis, unemployment have the same dire consequences today as it was in
the 1930’s.
Option 5:
The unemployment counts exclude the millions of fully employed workers whose wages are so low
that their families remain in poverty
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Correct Answer:
According to the data analysis, unemployment have the same dire consequences today as it was in
the 1930’s.
Solution:
As it is not mentioned in this passage
Q. 17 Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.COUNTERVAILING
Option 1:
Validate
Option 2:
Equilibrate
Option 3:
Against
Option 4:
Ingenious
Option 5:
Comparable
Correct Answer:
Equilibrate
Solution:
Equilibrate,which means to bring into or keep in balance.
Q. 18 Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.MITIGATED
Option 1:
intensify
Option 2:
Aggravated
Option 3:
Encourage
Option 4:
Agitated
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Option 5:
Alleviated
Correct Answer:
Alleviated
Solution:
Alleviate,which means to make less severe.
Q. 19 Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.PROLONGED
Option 1:
perpetuate
Option 2:
Continue
Option 3:
Abbreviate
Option 4:
Lengthen
Option 5:
Hold
Correct Answer:
Abbreviate
Solution:
Abbreviate,which means cut shorten an activity.
Q. 20 Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.INADEQUATE
Option 1:
sterile
Option 2:
Abundant
Option 3:
Deficient
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Option 4:
Sparse
Option 5:
Scanty
Correct Answer:
Abundant
Solution:
abundant,which means plentiful or large in number.
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Q. 21 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions:
As people age, their cells become less efficient and less able to replace damaged
components. At the same time their tissues stiffen. For example, the lungs and the heart
muscle expand less successfully, the blood vessels become increasingly rigid, and the
ligament sand tendons tighten.Few investigators would attribute such manifold effects to a
single cause. Nevertheless, researchers have discovered that a process long known to
discolor and toughen foods may a lso contribute to age-related impairment of both cells and
tissues. That process is non-enzymatic g.lycosylation, whereby glucose becomes attached to
proteins without the aid of enzymes. When enzymes attach glucose to proteins (enzymatic
glycosylation), they do so at a specific site on a specific protein molecule for a specific
purpose. In contrast, the non-enzymatic process adds glucose haphazardly to any of several
sites along any available peptide chain within a protein molecule.This non-enzymatic
glycosylation of certain proteins has been understood by food chemists for decades,
although few biologists recognized until recently that the same steps could take place in the
body. Non-enzymatic glycosylation begins when an aldehyde group (CHO) of glucose and an
amino group (NH2) of a protein are attracted to each other. The molecules combine,
forming what is called a Schiff base within the protein. This combination is unstable and
quickly rearranges itself into a stabler , but still reversible, substance known as an Amadori
product.If a given protein persists in the body for months or years, some of its Amadori
products slowly dehydrate and rearrange themselves yet again, into new glucose-derived
structures. These can combine with various kinds of molecules to form irreversible
structures named advanced glycosylation end products (AGE’s). Most AGE’s are yellowish
brown and fluorescent and have specific spectrographic properties. More important for the
body, many are also able to cross-link adjacent proteins, particularly ones that give structure
to tissues and organs. Although no one has yet satisfactorily described the origin of all such
bridges between proteins, many investigators agree that extensive cross-linking of proteins
probably contributes to the stiffening and loss of elasticity characteristic of aging tissues.In
an attempt to link this process with the development of cataracts (the browning and
clouding of the lens of the eye as people age), researchers studied the effect of glucose on
solutions of purified crystallin, the major protein in the lens of the eye. Glucose-free
solutions remained clear, but solutions with glucose caused the proteins to form clusters,
suggesting that the molecules had become cross-linked. The clusters diffracted light, making
the solution opaque. The researchers also discovered that the pigmented cross-links in
human cataracts have the brownish color and fluorescence characteristic of AGE’s. These
data propound that non-enzymatic glycosylation of lens crystallin’s may contribute to
cataract formation.
According to the passage, which of the following statements is true of the process that
discolors and toughens foods?
Option 1:
It takes place more slowly than glycosylation in the human body.
Option 2:
It requires a higher ratio of glucose to protein than glycosylation requires in the human body.
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Option 3:
It does not require the aid of enzymes to attach glucose to protein.
Option 4:
It proceeds more quickly when the food proteins have a molecular structure similar to that of
crystallin proteins.
Option 5:
Its effectiveness depends heavily on the amount of environmental moisture.
Correct Answer:
It does not require the aid of enzymes to attach glucose to protein.
Solution:
Refer to (Few investigators would attribute such manifold effects to a single cause. Nevertheless,
researchers have discovered that a process long known to discolor and toughen foods may also
contribute to age-related impairment of both cells and tissues. That process is non-enzymatic
glycosylation, whereby glucose becomes attached to proteins without the aid of enzymes)
Option 1:
Amino groups combine with aldehyde groups to form Schiff bases.
Option 2:
muscle expand less successfully
Option 3:
Glucose attachment impairs and stiffens tissues.
Option 4:
Glucose is attached to proteins for specific purposes.
Option 5:
slowly dehydrate and rearrange themselves
Correct Answer:
Glucose attachment impairs and stiffens tissues.
Solution:
According to the passage, Glucose attachment impairs and stiffens tissues are characteristic of enzymatic
glycosylation of proteins.
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Option 1:
The amount of time that the proteins in the tissue have persisted in the body
Option 2:
The researchers also discovered that the pigmented cross-links in human cataracts have the
brownish color and fluorescence characteristic of AGE’s
Option 3:
AGE’s are reddish brown have specific spectrographic properties
Option 4:
Only 2 & 3
Option 5:
all 1, 2 & 3
Correct Answer:
Only 2 & 3
Solution:
According to the passage ,Only 2 and 3
Q. 24 According to the passage, which of the following statements is true of Amadori products in
proteins?
Option 1:
They are more plentiful in a dehydrated environment.
Option 2:
The color and spectrographic properties of structures within the tissue
Option 3:
They are composed entirely of glucose molecules
Option 4:
They are derived from Schiff bases.
Option 5:
They are derived from AGE’s.
Correct Answer:
They are derived from Schiff bases.
Solution:
According to the passage, option (d) is the correct choice.
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Q. 25 The passage suggests that which of the following would be LEAST important in determining
whether non-enzymatic glycosylation is likely to have taken place in the proteins of a
particular tissue?
Option 1:
The likelihood that the tissue has been exposed to free glucose
Option 2:
The color and spectrographic properties of structures within the tissue
Option 3:
Between proteins, many investigators agree that extensive cross-linking of proteins
Option 4:
The number of amino groups within the proteins in the tissue
Option 5:
They are created through enzymatic glycosylation.
Correct Answer:
The number of amino groups within the proteins in the tissue
Solution:
According to the passage, “The number of amino groups within the proteins in the tissue” is the correct
choice.
Q. 26 Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.manifold
Option 1:
taciturn
Option 2:
alacrity
Option 3:
impart
Option 4:
numerous
Option 5:
agitate
Correct Answer:
numerous
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Solution:
manifold means many and various
Q. 27 Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.adjacent
Option 1:
pursue
Option 2:
impede
Option 3:
adamant
Option 4:
detest
Option 5:
adjoining
Correct Answer:
adjoining
Solution:
adjacent means next to or adjoining something else.
Q. 28 Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.propound
Option 1:
propose
Option 2:
glide
Option 3:
revoke
Option 4:
malice
Option 5:
dwindle
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Correct Answer:
propose
Solution:
propound means to put forward (an idea or theory) for consideration by others
Q. 29 Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.persists
Option 1:
stupor
Option 2:
discontinue
Option 3:
trivial
Option 4:
pique
Option 5:
patchy
Correct Answer:
discontinue
Solution:
persist means to continue in an opinion or course of action in spite of difficulty or opposition.
Q. 30 Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.elasticity
Option 1:
overt
Option 2:
lousy
Option 3:
wrath
Option 4:
mollify
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Option 5:
rigidity
Correct Answer:
rigidity
Solution:
elasticity means the ability of an object or material to resume its normal shape after being stretched or
compressed
Our world will getting ever more connected, not just through the internet, we can fly to
pretty much any country we can. On the map today . the advent of the internet has helped
democratize how travel and tourist services and rendered to people, even on their mobile
devices Travelling requires a lot of back- end and front-end services to be performed. the
Hospitality dependent on a vast number Of skilled operators to make travel and
accommodations smooth. the travel and tourism industry make up 9.8% Of global GDP and
it's still growing. responsible for one out of every 11 jobs worldwide, the industry is the
world's largest employer according to the World Tourism Organisation UNWTO. with cutting
edge Technologies such as the internet, artificial intelligence, machine learning and easy
available capital from private firms and local government I like, hundreds of small and
medium businesses are chopping up in the hospitality industry. as a result the dire need for
skilled manpower is clearly established. Skills are in great demand and will be so for
foreseeable future . in the travel and tourism industry, the impact of globalisation and
automation is clearly felt. automation can replace back end services provider, But is
Sophisticated to replace services providers at airport, hotels, casinos and Cruise ships? can
we Imagine I'm massive Cruise ship sailing from South Africa to Mauritius caring about 1,000
passengers all served by robots and automated interfaces? Not quite as more services are
replaced by automation, the need for properly skilled workforce to travellers is at its zenith
today. the basic skill set required to become successful in the hospitality industry are a)
intelligent communication and b) a penchant and willingness to serve customers with
passion. the irony is that communication can be drilled in to anybody, but The passion to
work in the industry ( on ship, world class hotels, unique vacation homes, hand on cruise
ship and Casino) should be developed from within. there are a number of reputed and
proven Institute around the country who train uncertified hundreds and thousands of
youngsters to the job ready in the hospitality industry. certain Institutions remain keen to
the ebbs and flow of demand and adequately alter their training curriculum to give the best
possible education to their students interesting.
One word substitution for one who enlarge or vary its range of products or field of
operation?
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Option 1:
identical
Option 2:
Individual
Option 3:
diversified
Option 4:
confused
Option 5:
unchanging
Correct Answer:
diversified
Solution:
Diversified, which means to engage in varied operations
Option 1:
communication can be drilled in to anybody
Option 2:
passion to work in this industry should be developed from within
Option 3:
Passion is must for everyone
Option 4:
the basic skills are required to become successful
Option 5:
passion to work in this industry can be drilled
Correct Answer:
passion to work in this industry should be developed from within
Solution:
passion to work in this industry should be developed from within
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Option 1:
travel and tourism industry
Option 2:
rising demand of travel and tourism industry
Option 3:
The advent of internet
Option 4:
the impact of automation
Option 5:
need of passionate workforce
Correct Answer:
rising demand of travel and tourism industry
Solution:
rising demand of travel and tourism industry, as it is clear from the whole passage.
Option 1:
hotel and motel
Option 2:
Airports
Option 3:
back and service providers
Option 4:
casinos and Cruise ship
Option 5:
all of these
Correct Answer:
all of these
Solution:
According to the passage, all the option given above 1,2, 3 & 4 are true.
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Option 1:
a lot of back and front-end services
Option 2:
Basic skills to serve travellers
Option 3:
properly skilled workforce to serve customers with passion
Option 4:
unique accommodation for travellers
Option 5:
capital from private firms
Correct Answer:
properly skilled workforce to serve customers with passion
Solution:
Refer to, “the Hospitality dependent on a vast number Of skilled operators to make travel and
accommodations smooth.”
Q. 36 How the advent off the internet help the, travel and tourism industry?
Option 1:
our world is getting more connected with the help of internet
Option 2:
business are cropping up in the hospitality industry
Option 3:
with the help of the internet, services are provided to the people on their mobiles
Option 4:
Option A & B
Option 5:
Option A & D
Correct Answer:
with the help of the internet, services are provided to the people on their mobiles
Solution:
According to the passage ‘the with the help of the internet services are provided to the people on their
mobiles’ is the correct option.
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Q. 37 Synonym of the word RENDER
Option 1:
Conceal
Option 2:
Keep
Option 3:
Obscure
Option 4:
Impart
Option 5:
Sacrifice
Correct Answer:
Impart
Solution:
Impart means to give or provide a service, a help etc.
Option 1:
Minor
Option 2:
Serious
Option 3:
Incantation
Option 4:
Negligible
Option 5:
Stable
Correct Answer:
Serious
Solution:
Serious means demanding or characterized by careful consideration or application.
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Q. 39 Antonym of the word FORSEEABLE
Option 1:
Certain
Option 2:
Prepared
Option 3:
Expected
Option 4:
Unpredictable
Option 5:
Calculable
Correct Answer:
Unpredictable
Solution:
Unpredictable means cannot be predicted.
Option 1:
Climax
Option 2:
Apogee
Option 3:
Apex
Option 4:
Nadir
Option 5:
Culmination
Correct Answer:
Nadir
Solution:
Nadir means the lowest point in a situation.
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DIRECTIONS for question 41-50 : Read the passage and
answer the question based on it.
Q. 41 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words
are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions:
The financial analysis of small firms presents some unique problems that are related to risks
and to depth and quality of management. We examine here some of those problems from
the standpoint of a bank loan officer, one of the most frequent users of ratio analysis. When
examining a small - business credit prospect, a banker is essentially making a prediction
about the ability of the company to repay its debt if the bank extends credit. In making this
prediction, the banker will especially be concerned about indicators of liquidity and about
continuing prospects for profitability. The banker will elect to do business with a new
customer if it appears that loans will be paid off on a timely basis and that the company will
remain in business and therefore be a customer of the bank for years to come. Thus, both
short-run and long - run viability are of interest to the banker. On the other hand, the
banker’s perceptions about the business are important to the owner-manager, because the
bank may become a crucial source of funds as the firm’s needs increase in the future. The
first problem the banker is likely to encounter is that, unlike the bank’s bigger customers,
the small firm may not have audited financial statements. Furthermore, the statements that
are available may have been produced on an irregular basis (for example, in some months
or quarters but not in others). If the firm is young, it may have historical financial statements
for only one year, or perhaps it has none at all. Also, the banker will probably require that
periodic financial statements be produced by a prestigious accounting firm, not by the
owner’s brother-in-law. The quality of its financial data may therefore be a problem for a
small business that is attempting to establish a banking relationship. This may keep the firm
from getting credit even though it is really on solid financial ground. Therefore, it is in the
owner’s interest to make sure that the firm’s financial data are credible, even if it is more
expensive to do so. Furthermore, if the banker is uncomfortable with the data, the firm’s
management should also be uncomfortable: Because many managerial decisions depend on
the number in the firm’s accounting statements, those numbers should be as accurate as
possible. For a given set of financial ratios, a small firm may be riskier than a larger one.
Often small firms produce a single product or else rely heavily on a single customer, or both.
For example, several years ago a company called Yard Man, Inc., manufactured and sold
lawn equipment. Most of Yard Man’s sales were to Sears, so most of Yard Man’s revenues
and profits were due to the Sears account. When Sears decided to drop Yard Man as a
supplier, the company was left without its most important customer. Yard Man is no longer
in business. Because large firms typically have a broad customer base, they are not as
susceptible to a loss of such a large portion of their business. A similar danger applies to a
single - product company. Just as the loss of a key customer can be calamitous for a small
business, so can a shift in the tides of consumer interest in a particular fad. For example,
Coleco manufactured and sold the extremely popular Cabbage patch dolls. The phenomenal
popularity of the dolls was a great boom for Coleco, but the public is fickle. One can never
predict when such a fad will die out, leaving the company with a great deal of capacity to
make a product that no one will buy and with a large amount of overvalued inventory.
Exactly this situation hit Coleco, and it was forced into bankruptcy in 1988. The extension of
credit to a small company, and especially a small owner-managed company, often involves
yet another risk that is less of a problem for larger firms - namely, dependence on the
leadership of a single key individual whose unexpected death could cause the company to
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fail. Similarly, if the company is family owned and managed, there is typically one key
decision maker, although perhaps several other family members are involved in helping to
manage the company. In the case of the family business, the loss of the top person may not
wipe out the company, but it may create the equally serious problem of who will assume the
leadership role. The loss of a key family member is often a highly emotional event, and it is
not at all unusual for it to be followed by an ugly and prolonged struggle for control of the
business. It is in the family’s interest, and certainly in the creditors’ interests, to see that a
plan of management succession is clearly specified before trouble arises. If no good plan
can be worked out, perhaps the firm should be forced to carry “key person insurance,”
payable to the bank and used to retire the loan in the event of the key person’s death. In
summary, to determine the credit-worthiness of a small firm, the financial analyst must look
beyond the basic financial ratios and analyze the viability of the firm’s products, customers,
management, and market. It is not an easy task, but it must be done. Ratio analysis is only
the starting point.
Option 1:
Ratio Analysis–An Index Of Credit–Worthiness
Option 2:
Risks And Problems In Small Business
Option 3:
The Importance Of Financial Data
Option 4:
Product And Customer Management
Option 5:
Importance of small business
Correct Answer:
Risks And Problems In Small Business
Solution:
The passage talks about small businesses, Financial data, ratio analysis and risks involved in small
business .
Option 1:
If no good plan can be worked out, perhaps the firm should be forced to carry “key person
insurance,” payable to the bank and used to retire the loan in the event of the key person’s death
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Option 2:
In making this prediction, the banker will especially be concerned about indicators of liquidity and
about continuing prospects for profitability
Option 3:
bank’s perceptions about the business are important to the owner-manager.
Option 4:
the quality of the financial data is not a problem for small business attempting to seek a banking
relationship
Option 5:
Exactly this situation hit Coleco, and it was forced into bankruptcy in 1988
Correct Answer:
the quality of the financial data is not a problem for small business attempting to seek a banking
relationship
Solution:
Option (4) finds no place in the passage, as the fourth paragraph disaproves it.
Q. 43 The problem relating to the small firm, from the viewpoint of a banker, as made out by the
passage, is:
Option 1:
the outlet market for the products manufactured
Option 2:
the quality of its financial data, posing a question on the firm’s credibility
Option 3:
those problems from the standpoint of a bank loan officer
Option 4:
The loss of a key family member is often a highly emotional event
Option 5:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
the quality of its financial data, posing a question on the firm’s credibility
Solution:
According to the passage , The lack of adequate financial data, necessary for the bank to work out the
feasibility of the scheme, viability of the unit and repayment ability will create a serious problem.
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Q. 44 The author avers that for a given set of financial ratios, small firms carry more risk than large
ones as:
Option 1:
there is no scope for outperforming in competition, due to lack of upgradation and improvement.
Option 2:
loss of workers would severely affect the working of small firms than large ones
Option 3:
small firms produce a single product or rely heavily on a single customer.
Option 4:
both 1 and 2
Option 5:
none of these
Correct Answer:
small firms produce a single product or rely heavily on a single customer.
Solution:
According to the passage, the idea that for a given set of financial ratios, the risk faced by a small firm is
larger than that faced by a bigger firm
Q. 45 How did the author resolve this situation; ‘it is uncomfortable with the data, the firm’s
management should also be uncomfortable’.
Option 1:
As many managerial decisions depend on the number in the firm’s accounting statements, those
numbers should be as accurate as possible
Option 2:
predicts about the ability of the firm to repay its debt if the bank extends credit
Option 3:
the company is heavily dependent on the leadership of a single key individual whose decision is the
final word and is irrevocable.
Option 4:
the deliberations during the Banker’s meet to discuss the problem of financing
Option 5:
both 1 & 2
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Correct Answer:
As many managerial decisions depend on the number in the firm’s accounting statements, those
numbers should be as accurate as possible
Solution:
Refer to (Furthermore, if the banker ‘it is uncomfortable with the data, the firm’s management should
also be uncomfortable’: Because many managerial decisions depend on the number in the firm’s
accounting statements, those numbers should be as accurate as possible. For a given set of financial
ratios, a small firm may be riskier than a larger one)
Q. 46 Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.prolonged
Option 1:
abound
Option 2:
slaken
Option 3:
agitate
Option 4:
lengthy
Option 5:
diffident
Correct Answer:
lengthy
Solution:
prolonged means to continue for a long time or longer than usual
Q. 47 Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.calamitous
Option 1:
remnant
Option 2:
inept
Option 3:
garrulous
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Option 4:
disastrous
Option 5:
colossal
Correct Answer:
disastrous
Solution:
calamitous means causing great damage
Q. 48 Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.crucial
Option 1:
critical
Option 2:
quash
Option 3:
overt
Option 4:
manifold
Option 5:
austere
Correct Answer:
critical
Solution:
crucial mean something decisive or critical, especially in the success or failure of something.
Q. 49 Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.prestigious
Option 1:
relay
Option 2:
revoke
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Option 3:
arrangement
Option 4:
timid
Option 5:
disreputable
Correct Answer:
disreputable
Solution:
prestigious means inspiring respect and admiration.
Q. 50 Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in passage.credible
Option 1:
Detrimental
Option 2:
untrustworthy
Option 3:
Immoral
Option 4:
Godly
Option 5:
Virtuous
Correct Answer:
untrustworthy
Solution:
credible means able to be believed or convinced.
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Logical Reasoning
Directions for 1 to 5: These questions are based on the pie chart given below.
Constituents of Sun Rays received in 1 minute
1. If the human body can withstand a maximum of 9720 units of IR rays, when exposed
to the sun continuously, then what is the maximum time (in minutes) that any person could
stand in the sun without crossing the threshold limit of IR rays?
A] 19 B] 23 C] 27 D] 29
Option C
Total sunray received in 1 min = 3600
So IR rays received is 10%
10 % of IR = 360
Total energy received = 9720
Limit time= 9720/360 = 27 minutes
2. The amount of Beta rays in 10 minutes of sun rays is how many times the amount of
IR rays in 3 minutes of sun rays?
A] 1.33 B] 1.44 C] 1.66 D] 1.55
Option C
Amount of beta ray received in 1 min = 5 % of 3600 = 180 unit
Beta ray received in 10 minutes = 10 x 80 = 1800 unit
IR received in 1 minute = 10 % of 3600 = 360 unit
IR received in 3 minute = 3 x 360 = 1080 unit
So amount of beta rays to IR rays = 1800/ 1080
= 1.66
3. How many minutes of exposure to the sun in a day would be enough to ensure that
the body receives enough amount of Vitamin D, given that the body requires 40 units of
Vitamin D every day and that 30 units of Beta rays generate in 1 unit of Vitamin D?
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A] B] C] D]
Option D
1 unit vitamin D = 30 units of beta ray
So 40 units of vitamin D = 40 x 30 = 1200 unit
Since in 1 unit 180 unit of beta ray is received
So for 1200 unit = 1200/180 = 6 2/3
4. The amount of Alpha rays received in 2 minutes is how many more/less than the amount
of radio saves received in 4 minutes?
A] 1200 units less B] 1320 units more
C] 1440 units less D] 1600 units more
Option C
Amount of alpha rays received in 1 min = 10 % of 3600 = 360
So in 2 units = 7200
Amount of radio waves received in 1 min = 15 % of 3600 = 540
So in 4 min= 2160
Difference = 2160 – 720 = 1440
5. If presently the ozone layer in the atmosphere reflects away 60% of the sun's rays
then what would the amount of gamma rays received in one minute be, if the ozone layer
were to completely disappear?
A] 100 units B] 200 units C]300 units D] 450 units
Option D
In atmosphere with ozone, gamma rays = 5% of 3600 = 180
60% of the rays = 180 units
If ozone layer were to disappear we would receive 100 % of rays
Hence amount of gamma rays = 100 x80/ 40 = 450 units
Directions for 6 to 10: These questions are based on the line graph below.
(in Rs. lakhs)
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6. For which of the following cars is the manufacturing cost as a percentage of
advertising cost the least?
A] Xing B] City C] Lancer D] Zen
Option D
By seeing the value of the manufacturing cost as a % of advertising cost . we will find
that the correct answer is ZEN
7. In a certain year, 30, 000 "City" cars are produced, and are sold at Rs. 9.3 lacs/car. If
2% of the total profit is given as a bonus to the 2,040 engineers, the amount received by
each engineer as a bonus is (in Rs.)
A] 5, 000 B] 50, 000 C] 5 lacs D] None of these
Option B
Profit = 3000 x (9.3 – 7.6) = 51 Cr.
Now 2 % of 51 Cr. = 1.02 Cr.
Bonus per engineer = 1.02/2040 = 50,000
9. The company that manufactures Zen produces 500 Zen cars per day while the company
that manufactures City produces 600 City per day. They sell them at Rs. 6 lacs/car and Rs. 8.4
lacs/car respectively. The profit made by the former is approximately what percentage of
that of the latter?
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A] 100% B] 156% C] 250% D] None of these
Option B
10. The ratio of the manufacturing cost to the total cost is the least for
A] Optra B] Zen C] City D] Lancer
Option B
Ratio of manufacturing cost to total cost is least for Zen = 3/3+1.5= 0.66
Directions for 11 to 15: These questions are based on the line graph given below which
represents the Earnings Per Share (EPS) of three companies STC, TSC and MIE for the
years 1991-1992 to 1995-1996.
(EPS in Rs.)
11. If TSC has 15, 000 shares in 1994-1995 and 31, 000 shares in 1995-1996, then find
the approximate percentage change in profit available for shareholders from 1994-1995 to
1995-1996.
A] 35% B] 59.6% C] 44.1% D] 61%
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Option C
Profit available for shareholder TSC in 1994 – 1995 = 15000 x 33 = 495000
Profit available for shareholder TSC in 1995 – 1996 = 31000 x 23 = 713000
Percentage change = (713000 – 495000) / 495000 x 100 = 44.0444.1 %
44.04 %
So approximate 44.01
12. If the number of shares of TSC in 1993-1994 is the same as in 1994-1995, then which
of the following is true.
A] Ratio of EPS for both these years is the same as that of the profit available from
shareholders.
B] Profit available for shareholders for these two years is the same.
C] Ratio of EPS for these two years in half that of the profit available for the share
holders.
D] Both (1) and (2)
Option A
By seeing the option we conclude that the ratio of EPS of both three years is the same as
that of the profit available from share holder .
13. If TSC, STC and MIE have 10, 000, 25, 000 and 15, 000 shares respectively in 1991-
1992, then which company has the maximum profit available for shareholders in that year?
A] TSC B] STC C] MIE D]
STC and TSC
Option B
Profit for TSC = 10000 x 25 = 250000
Profit for STC = 25000 x 49 = 735000
Profit for MTC = 15000 x 49 = 735000
14. If TSC and STC have Rs. 6 lacs each as profit available for shareholders in 92-93,
then the ratio of the number of shares of STC and TSC is
A] 1 : 1 B] 4 : 5 C] 5 : 4 D] 20 :
12
Option B
Since number of share = profit/EPS
So ratio of STC and TSC share = 6/50 x 40/6 = 4:5
15. If STC has to pay 10% of the profit available for share-holders as tax in the year
1993-1994, then the tax payable for 12, 000 shares is
A] Rs. 62, 200 B] Rs. 55, 200 C] Rs. 60, 000 D] Rs. 50, 000
Option B
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Profit for STC for year 1993- 1994 = 12000 x 46 = 552000
So TAX to be paid = 10 % of 552000 = 55200
Directions for 16 to 20: Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.
Expenditures of a Company (in Lakh Rupees) per Annum Over the given Years.
Item of Expenditure
Year Taxe
Salary Fuel and Transport Bonus Interest on Loans
s
16. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during
this period?
A] Rs. 32.43 lakhs B] Rs. 33.72 lakhs
C] Rs. 34.18 lakhs D] Rs. 36.66 lakhs
Option D
Average amount of interest paid by company during the given period =
{23.4 + 32.5 +41.6 + 36.4 + 49.4}/5 = 36.66 lac
17. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately
what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?
A] 0.1% B] 0.5% C] 1% D] 1.25%
Option C
Required % = (3.00 + 2.52 + 3.84 + 41.6 + 36.4 + 49.4 ) / (288 + 342 + 324 + 336 + 420 )
x 100 % = 17 / 1710 X 100 = 1 % approx
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18. Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the
total expenditure in 2002?
A] 62% B] 66% C] 69%
D] 71%
Option C
Required % = (288 +98 + 3.00 + 23.4 + 83 )/ 420 + 142 + 3.96 + 49.4 + 98 ) x 100 =
69.45 % == 69 % approx
19. The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2000 is?
A] Rs. 544.44 lakhs B] Rs. 501.11 lakhs
C] Rs. 446.46 lakhs D] Rs. 478.87 lakhs
Option A
Total expenditure of the company during the year 2000
= 324 + 101 + 3.83 + 41.6 +74 = 544.44 lakhs
20. The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total
expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately?
A] 4:7 B] 10:13 C] 15:18 D] 5:8
Option B
10/13
10 : 13
Year
M 5200 720 8500 980 7400 850 6800 775 9500 1125
N 7500 840 9200 1050 8450 920 9200 980 8800 1020
P 6400 780 8800 1020 7800 890 8750 1010 9750 1250
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Q 8100 950 9500 1240 8700 980 9700 1200 8950 995
R 7800 870 7600 940 9800 1350 7600 945 7990 885
21. Total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1997 is
approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates qualified from all the
states together in 1998?
A] 72% B] 77% C] 80% D]
83%
Option C
Required ratio = ( 720+840+780+950+870)/(980+1050+1020+1240+940)
= 79.95 == 80 % approx
22. What are the average candidates who appeared from State Q during the given years?
A] 8700 B] 8760 C] 8990 D] 8920
Option C
Required average = (8100 + 9500 + 8700+8950+9700) / 5 = 8990
23. In which of the given years the number of candidates appeared from State P has
maximum percentage of qualified candidates?
A] 1997 B] 1998 C] 1999 D]
2001
Option D
The % of candidate qualified to candidate appeared from the state P during the years are
For 1997 = (780/6400) x 100 = 12.9 %
For 1998 = (1020/8800) x 100 = 11.59%
For 1999 = (890/7800) x 100 = 11.41%
For 2000 = (1010/8750) x 100 = 11.54 %
For 2001 = (1250/9750) x 100 = 12.83%
Maximum percentage s for the year 2001
24. What is the percentage of candidates qualified from State N for all the years together,
over the candidates appeared from State N during all the years together?
A] 12.36% B] 12.16% C] 11.47% D] 11.15%
Option D
Required % = {840+1050+920+980+1020}/{7500+9200+8450+9200+8800}x 100
= 11.15 %
25. The percentage of total number of qualified candidates to the total number of
appeared candidates among all the five states in 1999 is?
A] 11.49% B] 11.84% C] 12.21% D] 12.57%
Option B
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Required ratio = {850+920+980+890+1350}/ {7400+8450+7800+8700+9800} x 100 =
11.84 %
The table shows the ratio of male to female users among these mobile phone users.
Company Male :
Name Female
L.G. 5:3
Nokia 5:4
Reliance 1:1
Spice 2:1
Micromax 4:5
Motorola 5:7
Samsung 3:2
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= 2.52 Cr.
Female Nokia mobile users 4/9 x 2.52 = 1.12 Cr.
27. What is the difference between the total male and female mobile users?
A] 2.136 crores B] 1.326 crores
C] 0.854 crores D] 1.46 crore
E] None of these
Option E
Nokia mobile user = 2.52
Female = 1.12 ,male = 1.14
LG mobile users = 20 % of 12 Cr. = 2.4 Cr.
Female = 3/8 x 2.4 = .9 Cr. , Male = 1.92 Cr.
Female = .96 Cr and ,male = 0.96 Cr
Spice mobile users = 3% of 12 Cr = .36
Female = 1/3 of 0.36
= 0.12
Male = .24’
Micromax mobile users = 10 % of 12 % = 1.2
Female = 5/9 of 1.2 Cr = 0.66 and male = 0.53
28. Number of females L.G. users is what percentage of the number of male L.G. users?
A] 90% B] 80% C] 65% D] 60% E] None of these
Option D
29. What is the ratio of the total number of male Spice users and the total number of female
Reliance users?
A] 1:2 B] 1:3 C] 1:4 D] 2:3 E] None of these
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Option C
Male spice users = 0.24 Cr
Female reliance = 0.96 Cr
Required ratio = .24/.96 = ¼ = 1:4
30. Number of male Motorola users is how much percentage less than that of the number
of female Micromax users?
A] 50% B] 123.33% C] 60%
D] 55% E] None of these
Option D
Male Motorola users = 0.30 Cr
Female = micromax users = 0.66 Cr
Required % ={ ( 0.66 – 0.30)/0.66}x 100 = 55 %
For the questions from 31 - 50, using the data given in statements and choose the option
A] if Statement (i) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (ii) alone is not sufficient.
B] if Statement (ii) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (i) alone is not sufficient.
C] if BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE
is sufficient.
D] if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E] if Statements (i) and (ii) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
31. If we assume a constant reading rate , can Ravi finish the book in 6 hrs?
Statements:
(i) Ravi reads 54 pages an hour.
(ii) In 2 hours, he read half the book.
Option B is correct
32. How many yards of cloth must Mrs Roy buy to make 3 identical dresses?
Statements:
(i) She needs 3 yards of cloth to make one such dress.
(ii) Usually she averages 4 yards of cloth per dress.
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Option A is correct
33. Does L = M ?
Statements:
(i) M/L = 1
(ii) LM = MM
Option A is correct
Option E is correct
37. If the first day of the month is Thursday, how many days are there in the month ?
Statements:
(i) The fourth Sunday happened to be on 25th.
(ii) The last day of the month was the fifth Saturday of the month.
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Option B is correct
40. In a certain code, '13' means 'stop smoking' and '59' means 'injurious habit'. What do '9'
and '5' mean respectively in that code?
Statements:
(i) '157' means 'stop bad habit'.
(ii) '839' means 'smoking is injurious'.
Option D is correct
41. Manoj, Prabhakar, Akash and Kamal are four friends. Who among them is the heaviest?
Statements:
(i) Prabhakar is heavier than Manoj and Kamal but lighter than Akash.
(ii) Manoj is lighter than Prabhakar and Akash but heavier than Kamal.
Option A is correct
42. Vinod's and Javed's salaries are in the proportion of 4 : 3 respectively. What is Vinod's
salary?
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Statements:
(i) Javed's salary is 75% that of Vinod's salary.
(ii) Javed's salary is Rs 4500.
Option B is correct
44. If a hockey team gains 2 points for a win, 1 point for a tie, and no point for a loss, how
many points does a team have now?
Statements:
(i) The team has won 13 more games than it had tied.
(ii) The team has played 52 games.
Option E is correct
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Option D is correct
49. Who is to the immediate right of P among 5 persons P, Q, R, S and T facing North?
Statements:
(i) R is third to the left of Q and P is second to the right of R.
(ii) Q is to the immediate left of T who is second to the right of P.
Option D is correct
50. On which date of the month was Anjali born in February 2004?
Statements:
(i) Anjali was born on an even date of the month.
(ii) Anjali's birth date was a prime number.
Option E is correct
Directions for 51 to 75: Given two statements, verify the conclusions and mark the answer as
given below.
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Mark A… if only conclusion I follow
Mark B… If only conclusion II follows
Mark C … If either conclusion I or II follows
Mark D … If neither of the two conclusions follows
Mark E … If both conclusions follow
51. Statements:
I. All hunters are punters II. Some punters are tigers
Conclusions:
I. Some hunters are tigers II Some punters are hunters
Option B is correct
52. Statements:
I. All boxes are pens II. All pens are dogs
Conclusions:
I. All boxes are dogs II. Some dogs are pens
Option E is correct
53. Statements:
I. Some boys are girls II. All girls are cute
Conclusions:
I. Some boys are cute II. All boys are cute
Option C is correct
54. Statements:
I. All books are pens II. All pens are pencils
Conclusions:
I. All books are pencils II. Some pens are pencils
Option E is correct
55. Statements:
I. Some singers are rockers II. All rockers are dancers
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VITEEE Mock Test Series
Conclusions:
I. Some rockers are dancers II. No singer are dancers
Option A is correct
56. Statements:
I. No bars are coins II. All coins are books
Conclusions:
I. All coins are books II. Some books are not bars
Option E is correct
57. Statements:
I. Some copies are desks II. No desks are pen
Conclusions:
I. Some copies are pen II. Some copies are not pen
Option C is correct
58. Statements:
I. All boxes are pens II. No dogs are pens
Conclusions:
I. No boxes are dogs II. Some pen are boxes
Option E is correct
59. Statements:
I. Some cars are trucks II. Some trucks are buses
Conclusions:
I,. Some cars are trucks II. Some cars are not trucks
Option C is correct
60. Statements:
I. All locks are keys II. No key is a spoon
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VITEEE Mock Test Series
Conclusions:
I. No lock is spoon. II. No spoon is a lock
Option A is correct
61. Statements:
I. All prisoners are men II. No men is educated
Conclusions:
I. All prisoners are uneducated II. Some men are prisoners
Option E is correct
62. Statements:
I. All flowers are candles II. All lanterns are candles
Conclusions:
I. Some flowers are lanterns II. Some lanterns are not flowers
Option D is correct
63. Statements:
I. All planets are moons II. All moons are stars
Conclusions:
I. All moons are planets II. All planets are stars
Option D is correct
64. Statements:
I. All coins are crows II. Some crows are pens
Conclusions:
I. No pen is coin II. Some coins are pens
Option D is correct
65. Statements:
I. All apples are oranges II. Some oranges are papayas
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VITEEE Mock Test Series
Conclusions:
I, Some apples are papayas II. Some papayas are apples
Option D is correct
66. Statements:
I. Some dogs are bulls II. No tigers are dogs
Conclusions:
I. No dogs are tiger II. Some bulls are tiger
Option D is correct
67. Statements:
I. Some bottles are pencils II. Some pencils are glasses
Conclusions:
I. No glass is bottle II. Some bottles are glasses
Option D is correct
68. Statements:
I. All fans are chairs II. No tables are fans
Conclusions:
I. No tables are chairs II. Some tables are chairs
Option D is correct
69. Statements:
I. All grasses are trees II. No tree is a shrub
Conclusions:
I. No grasses are shrubs II. Some shrubs are glasses
Option A is correct
70. Statements:
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VITEEE Mock Test Series
I. Some boys are thieves II. All thieves are dacoits
Conclusions:
I. Some boys are dacoits II. All dacoits are thieves
Option A is correct
71. Statements:
I. All women are mothers II. All mothers are sisters
Conclusions:
I. All womens are sisters II. Some women are not sisters
Option A is correct
72. Statements:
I. All plays are stories II. Some poems are plays
Conclusions:
I. Some poems are stories II. All stories are poems
Option A is correct
73. Statements:
I. Some boxes are pens II. All dogs are pens
Conclusions:
I. Some boxes are pens II. Some pens are boxes
III. Some pens are dogs IV. All pens are dogs
A] 1,2 & 3 follow B] 2,3 & 4 follows
C] 1,3 & 4 follows D] 1,2 & 4 follows
Option A is correct
74. Statements:
I. All classes are books II. All pens are books
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VITEEE Mock Test Series
Conclusions:
I Some classes are pens II. Some pens are books
III. Some pens are classes IV. Some classes are books
A] Only 1 follow B] Only 2 follow
C] 1 & 2 follow D] 2 & 4 follow
Option D is correct
75. Statements:
I. Some barbers are painters II. No painter are watches
Conclusions:
I. Some barbers are not watches II. Some barbers are watches
III. Some watches are not barbers IV. Some watches are barbers
A] 1 & 3 follow B] Either 1 or 2 & 3 follow
C] Only 1 follow D] Either 3 or 4 & 1 follow
Option B is correct
76. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock, when the clock shows 3 hours 25
minutes?
A] B] 46°
C] D]
Option D is correct
77. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock, when the time is 2 hours 35 minutes?
A] B]
C] D]
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VITEEE Mock Test Series
Option C is correct
78. At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined at 20 minutes past 7?
A] 80° B] 90° C] 100° D] 120°
Option C is correct
79. The time on the watch is 4:30. If the minute hand points towards the south, the hour hand
will point towards
A] South-East B] East
C] West D] North-West
Option A is correct
80. At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined at 4 hours 20 minutes?
A] 5° B] 10° C] 20° D] 25°
Option B is correct
82. How many degrees will the minute-hand movie, in the same time, in which the hour-hand
moves 10°?
A] 40° B] 80° C] 120° D] 160°
Option C is correct
83. A boy observes the reflection of a wall clock in a mirror: The time observed by the boy in
the mirror is 4 hours 20 minutes. What is the actual time shown on the clock?
A] 7 hours 15 minutes B] 7 hours 50 minutes
C] 7 hours 40 minutes D] 7 hours 35 minutes
Option C is correct
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VITEEE Mock Test Series
84. How many degrees will the minute-hand move, in the same time in which the second
hand moves 300°?
A] 6° B] 5° C] 4° D] 10°
Option B is correct
85. If the time in clock is 7 hours 15 minutes, then what time does it show on the mirror?
A] 4 hours 50 minutes B] 4 hours 40 minutes
C] 4 hours 35 minutes D] 4 hours 45 minutes
Option D is correct
86. An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the
hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?
A] 144º B] 150º C] 168º D] 180º
Option D is correct
A] 180° B]
C] 195° D]
Option D is correct
88. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through:
89. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?
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VITEEE Mock Test Series
A] B]
C] D]
Option C is correct
90. At 3:40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of:
A] 120° B] 125° C] 130° D] 135°
Option C is correct
91. If 22nd April, 1982 was Thursday, then what day of the week was 3rd November, 1982?
A] Monday B] Wednesday
C] Friday D] Sunday
Option B is correct
92. If 30th June, 1989 was a Friday, then what day of the week was 17th September, 1993?
A] Monday B] Wednesday
C] Friday D] Sunday
Option C is correct
93. If 26th February, 2014 is on Wednesday, then what day of the week is on 14th July, 2017?
A] Friday B] Saturday
C] Wednesday D] Sunday
Option A is correct
94. If 10th April, 1963 was Wednesday, then what day of the week was 23rd August, 1959?
A] Sunday B] Monday
C] Friday D] Tuesday
Option A is correct
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VITEEE Mock Test Series
95. If 4th August, 1996 was a Sunday, then what day of the week was 12th April, 1992?
A] Friday B] Saturday
C] Monday D] Sunday
Option D is correct
96. If 1st January, 2012 is on Sunday, then what day of the week is 1st January, 2016?
A] Friday B] Sunday
C] Wednesday D] Saturday
Option A is correct
97. If 31st January, 2012 is on Sunday, then what day of the week was 30th July, 1993?
A] Monday B] Sunday
C] Friday D] Wednesday
Option C is correct
98. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?
A] Sunday B] Saturday
C] Friday D] Wednesday
Option C is correct
99. What was the day of the week on 28th May, 2006?
A] Thursday B] Friday
C] Saturday D] Sunday
Option D is correct
100. What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998?
A] Monday B] Tuesday
C] Wednesday D] Thursday
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VITEEE Mock Test Series
Option C is correct
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VITEEE Mock Test Series