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JEE (Main) - N : 2023 : Major Test-2_(27-Mar-22)

[Created Date: 20-Mar-2021] [ Total Questions: 90 Test Time: 180 Minutes M.M: 300]
Instructions

1. The question paper contains 3 Subjects and 90 questions


Subject 1 (Physics) contains 30 questions
Subject 2 (Chemistry) contains 30 questions
Subject 3 (Mathematics) contains 30 questions
2. Each Subject is divided further in two Sections. SEC-A and SEC-B.
SEC-A contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which only one is correct.
SEC-B contains 10 questions. Candidates have to attempt any 5 questions out of 10. The answer to
each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For SEC-B, the answer should be rounded off to the nearest
Integer.
3. Marking Scheme :
For each question in SEC-A, you will be awarded 4 marks if you choose the correct answer. For
incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
For each question in SEC-B, you will be awarded 4 marks if you choose the correct answer. For
incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
4. The total duration of the test is 3 hours.
5. This is a time-bound All India Online Open Test. Please read the test instructions until the Start or Begin
button gets enabled at 09:00 AM.
6. You can finish and submit the test anytime before 12:00 NOON otherwise it will be automatically
submitted at 12:00 NOON.
7. Time lost by you (for whatever reason) between the start and end time of the test will not be compensated
(and duly deducted from the available time duration).
8. No calculating device or reference material is allowed during the test.
Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe =


54, Ce = 58.
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, P
= 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca = 40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Ce = 140, Cu = 63.5,
Ne = 20, K = 39, Mn = 55.

• Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1


• Coulomb's law constant
• Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2
• Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
• Stefan–Boltzmann constant σ = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2–K–4
• Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
• Permeability of vacuum μ0 = 4π × 10–7 NA–2
• Permittivity of vacuum
• Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s

Physics
SEC-A

This section contains TWENTY questions.


Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, select the alphabet corresponding to the correct option provided below the
questions.
Marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
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Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.

1. What should be the velocity of a body thrown vertically upwards from the surface of earth (mass
M and radius R) so that it may reach at a height of 7R :-
1)

2)

3)

4)

Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution:
ΔU = U h – U R =
for h = 7R

∴ ΔU =
If the particle is launched with initial velocity v from the surface of earth, then
Loss in its KE = Gain in its PE

2. An open pipe is in resonance in its 2nd harmonic with a tuning fork of frequency f . Now it is
1
closed at one end. If the frequency of the tuning fork is increased slowly from f1, then again a
resonance is obtained with a frequency f2. If in this case the pipe vibrates in nth harmonic :-
1)
n = 3, f2 = f1
2)
n = 3, f2 = f1
3)
n = 5, f2 = f1
4)
n = 5, f2 = f1
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:
f1 =
f2 > f1

⇒ f2 =

3.

The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to move along the x-axis is given by V(x) =
. The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2J. Then the maximum speed (in m/s) is :
1)

2)

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3)

4) 2
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:

x(x2–1) = 0
x = 0 ,1, –1

3x2 –1

x = 0, –ve

x = ±1, +ve
∴ U min when x = 1
∴ U min = ¼ – ½ = –¼J
TE = U min + K max
2 = –¼ + K max ⇒ K max = 9/4 J

×1.v2 =

v2 = vmax = m/s

4. The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass vessel is 153 × 10–6/°C and in a steel
vessel is 144 × 10–6/°C. If α for steel is 12 × 10–6/°C, then α that of glass is :-
1) 9 × 10–6/°C
2) 6 × 10–6/°C
3) 36 × 10–6/°C
4) 27 × 10–6/°C
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: γreal = γapp. + γvessel
So (γapp. + γvessel)γass = (γapp. + γvessel)steel
⇒ 153 × 10–6 + (γvessel)glass = (144 × 10–6 + γvessel)steel
Further, (γvessel)steel = 3a = 3 × (12 × 10–6) = 36 × 10–6/°C
⇒ 153 × 10–6 + (γvessel)glass = 144 × 10–6 + 36 × 10–6
⇒ (γvessel)glass = 3a = 27 × 10–6/°C
⇒ a = 9 × 10–6/°C

5. Which of the substance A, B or C has the highest specific heat ? The temperature vs time graph is
shown :-

1) A
2) B
3) C
4) All have equal specific heat
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
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Solution: Substances having more specific heat take longer time to get heated to a higher
temperature and longer time to get cooled.

If we draw a line parallel to the time axis then it cuts the given graphs at three different points.
corresponding points on the times axis shows that
tC > tB > tA ⇒ C C > C B > C A

6. At what temperature, the mean kinetic energy of O2 will be the same for H 2 molecules at –73°C :-
1) 127°C
2) 257°C
3) –73°C
4) –173°C
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Mean kinetic energy of molecule depends upon temperature only. For O 2 it is same as that of
H 2 at the same temperature of –73°C.

7.
If is perpendicular to and is perpendicular to . Then is :-
1) 0
2)
3) 1
4)

Ans: 2 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution:
As per given =0
a2 + abcosθ = 0 .....(i)

=0
2abcosθ + b2 = 0 .....(ii)
from equation (i) & (ii)
–2a2 + b2 = 0

8. If energy E, length L and time T are taken as fundamental quantities. The dimensional formula of
gravitational constant is :-
1) [F L6 E–2]
2) [F L5 T–1]
3) [E2 FL6 T3]
4) [E3 F–1 L6 T5]
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: [E] = [M1 L2 T–2]
[M] = [E L–2 T2]

∵ F=

or G = = FL2 M–2

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= [F L2] [E L–2 T+2]–2
= [F L6 E–2]

9. The centre of mass of a body :-


1) Lies always at the geometrical centre
2) Lies always inside the body
3) Lies always outside the body
4) Lies within or outside the body
Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Lies within or outside the body

10. A pan with set of weights is attached with a light spring. When disturbed, the mass-spring system
oscillates with a time period of 0.6 s. When some additional weights are added then time period is
0.7 s. The extension caused by the additional weights is approximately given by :
1) 1.38 cm
2) 3.5 cm
3) 1.75 cm
4) 2.45 cm
Ans: 2 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:
2π = 0.6 ... (i)

and 2π = 0.7 ...(ii)


Dividing (ii) by (i),

We get

⇒ m' =

Also

Desired extension =

= = 3.5 cm

11. The moment of inertia of a door of mass m, length and width about its longer side is :-
1)

2)

3)

4) None of these
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: IAB = Icm + mr2

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12. A light rod of length 2m suspended form the ceiling horizontally be means of two vertical wires of
equal length. A weight W is hung from a light rod as shown in figure. The rod hung by means of a
steel wire of cross-sectional area A 1 = 0.1 cm2 and brass wire of cross-sectional area A 2 = 0.2 cm2.
To have equal stress in both wires, T1/T2 =

1) 1/3
2) 1/4
3) 4/3
4) 1/2
Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Equal stress

13. The mass and length of a wire are M and L respectively. The density of the material of the wire is d.
On applying the force F on the wire, the increase in length is l, then the Young's modulus of the
material of the wire will be :-
1)

2)

3)

4)

Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution:
Y=
As M = volume × density = A × L × d

∴A=

14. Internal energy of one mole of an ideal gas depends on :-


1) Temperature alone
2) Pressure alone
3) Volume alone
4) Pressure and temperature both
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

15. A pendulum clock keeps correct time at 0°C. The thermal coefficient of linear expansion of the
material of the pendulum is α. If the temperature rises to t°C, then the clock loses per day by :-
1) αt
2)

3) αt × 86400
4)

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Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

16. A vessel contains a mixture of nitrogen of mass 7 gm and carbon dioxide of mass 11 gm at
temperature 300 K and pressure 1 atmosphere. the density of the mixture is :-
1) 1.46 × 103 gm/cm3
2) 1.86 gm/cm3
3) 2.46 × 103 gm/cm3
4) 2.86 gm/cm3
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

17. Two gases A and B are contained in the same vessel which is at temperature T. The number of
molecules of gas A is N and mass of each molecule is m. The number of molecules of gas B is 2N
and mass of its each molecule is 2m. If mean square velocity of molecules of gas B is v2 and mean
square velocity of x component of velocity of molecules of gas A is then /v2 is :-
1) 1 : 3
2) 3 : 1
3) 3 : 2
4) 2 : 3
Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

18. At a constant pressure, of the following graphs the one which represents the variation of the
density ρ of ideal gas with the absolute temperature T is :-
1)

2)

3)

4)

Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution: Not Provided

19. If two monoatomic ideal gases of number of moles µ1 and µ2 and absolute temperatures T1 and T2
respectively are mixed and there is no loss of energy due to chemical and physical reactions,
then the temperature of the mixture is :-
1)

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2)

3)

4)

Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution: Not Provided

20. The equations of motion of a projectile are x = 36t and 2y = 96t – 9.8 t2. Angle of projection is :-
1)

2)

3)

4)

Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution:
x = u cosθ t y = u sinθ t – gt2

x = 36 t y=
u cosθ = 36

u sinθ =

∴ tan θ =

∴ sin θ =

SEC-B

This section has TEN questions.


Candidates have to attempt any 5 questions out of 10.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off
to the second decimal place).
For each question, type the correct integer in the space provided below the question using
provided number keys.
Marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If the correct integer is typed in the provided space.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the alphabets are selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.

21. A motor cycle starts from rest and accelerates along a straight path at 2 m/s2. At the starting point
of the motor cycle there is a stationary electric siren. How far has the motor cycle goes when the
driver hears the frequency of the siren at 94% of its value when the motor cycle was at rest
? (Speed of sound = 330 ms–1) :- (in m)
Ans: 98 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:
n' = n

8/26
⇒ S = 98 meter

22. Three identical blocks A, B and C are placed on a fixed horizontal surface which is perfectly
smooth. The block B and C are at rest while the block A is approaching towards B with a uniform
velocity of 10 m/s. The coefficient of restitution for all the collisions is 0.5. The block C just after
the collision moves with the speed of :(in m/s)

Ans: 6 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution:

A&B :

10 = v1 + v2 ....(1)

e= = 0.5 ⇒ v2–v1 = 5 ....(2)


∴ v2 = 7.5 m/s
B&C :

7.5 = v3 + v4 ...(1)

e= = 0.5
v4 – v3 = 3.75 ...(2)
2v4 = 11.25 ⇒ v4 = 5.6 m/s

23. A force of 0.5 N is applied on the upper block as shown in figure. The coefficient of static friction
between the two blocks is 0.1 and that between the lower block and the surface is zero. The work
done by the lower block on the upper block for a displacement of 3 m of the upper block is –xJ. x
=?

Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution:

0.5 = 3a ⇒ a = 5/30
f = 2a = 2(5/30)= 1/3N
fmax = 0.1 × 10 = 10N
∴ f = 1/3 N will act
work done by lower block
= –f(s)
= –1/3(3) = –1 Joule

24. A faulty thermometer has its lower fixed point marked as –10°C and upper fixed point marked as
110°. If the temperature of the body shown in this scale is 62°, the temperature shown on the
Celsius scale is :-
Ans: 60 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:

⇒ (C = 60°C)

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25. A carnot engine whose low temperature reservoir is at 7°C has an efficiency of 50%. It is desired to
increase the efficiency to 70%. By how many degrees should the temperature of the high
temperature reservoir be increased :- (in K)
Ans: 373 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

26. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards from the surface of earh is 11 km/s. If
the body is projected at an angle of 45º with the vertical, the escape velocity will be :- (in km/s)
Ans: 11 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Escape velocity of body from earth surface does not depend on angle of projection. So it will
remain same 11 km/s.

27. When a system is taken from thermodynamic state i to f along the path iaf (see figure), it is found
that the heat Q absorbed by the system is 50 cal and work W done by the system is equal to 20
cal. Along the path ibf Q = 36 cal. What is W along the path ibf ? (in cal)

Ans: 6 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution: Not Provided

28. A pendulum clock keeps correct time at 20°C. The correction to be made during summer per day
where the average temperature is 40°C will be : (Take coefficient of linear expansion of the
material of pendulum = 10–5/°C) :- (in sec)
Ans: 9 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

29. A catapult consists of two parallel rubber strings, each of length 10 cm and cross-sectional
area 10 mm2 when stretched by 5 cm, it can throw a stone of mass 100 g to a vertical height of 25
m. then young's modulus of rubber is 10x N/m2. Find the value of x.
Ans: 9 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

30. A piece of ice (heat capacity = 2100 J kg–1 °C –1 and latent heat = 3.36 × 105 J kg–1) of mass m
grams is at –5°C at atmospheric pressure. It is given 420 J of heat so that the ice starts melting.
Finally when the ice-water mixture is in equilibrium, it is found that 1 g of ice has melted.
Assuming there is no other heat exchange in the process, the value of m is :- (in g)
Ans: 8 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: 420 J = msΔT + m'L

m × × 5 +1 × 80 = cal
m=8g

Chemistry
SEC-A

This section contains TWENTY questions.


Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, select the alphabet corresponding to the correct option provided below the
questions.
Marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
10/26
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.

31. 0.41 g of the silver salt of a dibasic organic acid left a residue to 0.216 g of silver on ignition.
Calculate the molecular mass of the acid.
1) 410 gm/mol
2) 196 g/mol
3) 216 gm/mol
4) 108 g/mol
Ans: 2 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:

32. In reaction A + 2B ⇌ 2C + D, initial concentration of B was 1.5 times of A, but at equilibrium the
concentrations of A and B became equal. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is :
1) 4
2) 6
3) 12
4) 8
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:

1 – n = 1.5 – 2n
n = 0.5
Kc = 4

33. Given :
C + 2S → CS2 ; ΔH° = +117 kJ mol–1
C + O2 → CO2 ; ΔH° = –393 kJ mol–1
S + O2 → SO2 ; ΔH° = –297 kJ mol–1
The value of heat of combustion of CS2 in
kJ mol–1 is :-
1) –1104
2) +1104
3) + 807
4) – 807
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

34. Half of the formic acid solution is neutralised on addition of a KOH solution to it.
If K a (HCOOH) = 2 × 10–4 then pH of the solution is :-
(log 2 = 0.3010)
1) 3.6990
2) 10.3010
3) 3.85
4) 4.3010
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
11/26
Solution: Not Provided

35. Match List-I (Compounds) with List-II (Oxidation states of nitrogen) and select answer using the
codes given below the lists :-
List-I List-II

(a) NaN 3 (1) +5

(b) N 2H 2 (2) +2

(c) NO (3) –1/3

(d) N 2O5 (4) –1


Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 3 1 2

1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

36. At relatively high pressure, van der waal's equation of reduces to :-


1) PV = RT
2) PV = RT + a/v
3) PV = RT + Pb
4) PV = RT – a/V2
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

37. The correct structure of 6-amino-4-hydroxycyclohex-2-ene-1-sulphonic acid is :-


1)

2)

3)

4)

Ans: 2 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1

12/26
Solution: Not Provided

38. Which one of the following is a Z isomer ?


1)

2)

3)

4)

Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution:

H.P. : Higher priority according to CIP rule

39. Which of the following compound show geometrical isomerism?


1) 3 - Methyl but - 1 - ene
2) 2 - Phenyl - but - 1 - ene
3) 2 - Methyl but - 2 - ene
4) 2 - Phenyl but - 2 - ene
Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

40. In which of the following pairs of carbanion the first one is more stable than second :-
1)

2)

3)

4)

Ans: 2 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution:

41. The most stable carbocation is :-


1)

2)
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3)

4)

Ans: 2 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution:

42. 1–Bromo–3–chloro cyclobutane on reaction with 2–equivalent of sodium in ether gives -


1)

2)

3)

4)

Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution: Not Provided

43.

The alkene formed as a major product in the above elimination reaction is-
1)

2)
3)

4)

Ans: 2 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution: Not Provided

44. Total no. of vacant orbitals in valence shell of sulphur when it undergoes formation of SF4 :-
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

14/26
45. Temporary hardness of water due to presence of :-
1) CaCO3
2) MgCO3
3) Ca(HCO3)2
4) CaSO4
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

46. Number of B–O–B linkage in borax


1) 4
2) 5
3) 6
4) 7
Ans: 2 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

47. The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species is :-
1) K + > Ca2+ > Cl– > S2–
2) Ca2+ > K + > S2– > Cl–
3) Cl– > S2– > Ca2+ > K +
4) S2– > Cl– > K + > Ca2+
Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:
Size ∝ ∝
S–2 > Cl– > K + > Ca+2

48. The ionic radius of Cr is minimum is which of the following compounds :-


1) K 2CrO4
2) CrF3
3) CrO2
4) CrCl3
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:
+ve charge

49. Which of the following order is not correct ?


1) SF2 > SF4 > SF6 (ionic character)
2) AlF3 < Al2O3 < AIN (covalent character)
3) CaCl2 < SnCl2 < CdCl2 (covalent character)
4) ZnCl2 < CdCl2 < HgCl2 (ionic character)
Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

50. On controlled hydrolysis and condensation R 3SiCl yields :-


1) R 3SiOH
2)
3) R 3Si–O–SiR 3
4)
15/26
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: R 3SiCl + H 2O → R 3SiOH


R 3Si–O–SiR 3

SEC-B

This section has TEN questions.


Candidates have to attempt any 5 questions out of 10.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off
to the second decimal place).
For each question, type the correct integer in the space provided below the question using
provided number keys.
Marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If the correct integer is typed in the provided space.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the alphabets are selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.

51. What volume (in litre) of 0.1 M H 2O2 solution will be required to completely reduce 1 litre of 0.1 M
KMnO4 in acidic medium.
(Give your answer by adding 0.5)
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

52. What is the pK b of a weak base whose 0.1M solution has pH = 9.5
Ans: 8 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

53. The heat of vaporization of a liquid at 500 K and 1 atm pressure is 10 Kcal/mol. What will be the
change in internal energy (ΔU) of 3 moles of the liquid at the same temperature and pressure ?
Ans: 27 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

54. 4 moles of PCl5 are heated at constant temperature in closed container. If degree of dissociation
for PCl5 is 0.5 calculate total number of moles at equilibrium :-
Ans: 6 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

55. How many of the following compounds is/are aromatic?

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Ans: 6 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

56. Consider the following compound and write number of enolizable H-atom.

Ans: 10 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution: Not Provided

57. How many geometrical isomers are possible for the given compound.

Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution: Not Provided

58. In SiO2 one Si attached with x oxygen atoms and one oxygen attached with y silicon atoms find
(x+y)
Ans: 6 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:

59. Select the amphoteric oxides.


ZnO, Al2O3, BeO, CaO, Na2O2
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

60. Write the no. of electrons possible with


n = 5, ℓ = 3, s = –½.
Ans: 7 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: 5f s = –½
17/26
Mathematics
SEC-A

This section contains TWENTY questions.


Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, select the alphabet corresponding to the correct option provided below the
questions.
Marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.

61.
If λ be the perimeter of the ΔABC, then is equal to :-
1) λ
2) 2λ
3) λ/2
4) None of these
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:

62.
If b + c = 3a, then cot cot is equal to :-
1) 3 2) 1 3) 4 4) 2
Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:
We have, cot cot

[∵ b + c = 3a ⇒ a + b + c = 4a
∴ 2s = 4a; s = 2a]

63. If a flag-staff of 6 metres high placed on the top of a tower throws a shadow of metres along
the ground then the angle (in degrees) that the sun makes with the ground is :-
1) 60°
2) 30°
3) 45°
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4) None of these
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Let OP be the tower of height, say hm, and PQ the flag-staff of height 6m.
Let the sun make an angle θ with the ground and let OA and AB = m be the shadows of
the tower & the flag-staff respectively.
Let OA = x
In ΔOAP, tan θ = h/x
and in ΔOBQ,

tan θ =

∴ h/x =
⇒ hx + = xh + 6x
⇒ = 6x

⇒ tan θ = h/x = =
⇒ θ = 60°

64.
The general solution of equation 2cot = (1 + cotθ)2 is :
1)
nπ + (–1)n , n∈Z
2)
nπ +(–1)n , n∈Z
3)
nπ + (–1)n , n∈Z
4) None of these
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:
= (1 + cotθ)2

= (1 + cotθ)2

=
2 + 2cosθ = cosecθ + 2cosθ

sinθ =

⇒ θ = nπ + (–1)n , n∈Z

65. If sin6θ + sin4θ + sin2θ = 0, then θ is equal to [n∈Z] :


1)

2)

3)

4) None of these
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

66. The sum of 0.2 + 0.004 + 0.00006 + 0.0000008 + … is


1)

2)

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3)

4) None of these
Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:

Sum =

Clearly, S1 is an arithmetic-geometric series with a = 1,

d = 1 and

67.
If a(b – c) x2 + b(c – a) x + c(a – b) = 0 has equal roots then =
1)

2) a + c
3)
+c
4)
a+
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:
Here sum of coeff.' s = 0

so roots of equation are 1,

which are equal


⇒ ab – ac = ca – bc
⇒ b(a + c) = 2ca

68.

The value of the expression is equal to


1) 56C 3
2) 56C 4
3) 55C 4
4) 55C 3

Ans: 2 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution:

50C 55 54 53 52 51 50
4 + C3 + C3 + C3 + C3 + C3 + C3
= (50C 4 + 50C 3) + 51C 3 + 52C 3 + 53C 3 + 54C 3 + 55C 3

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= 51C 4 + 51C 3 + 52C 3 + 53C 3 + 54C 3 + 55C 3
(∵ nC r + nC r–1 = n+1C r)
= 56C 4

69. The number of words which can be formed from letters of the word 'INSTITUTION' in which first
two letters are 'N', are :-
1)

2)

3)

4)

Ans: 2 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution:
................. =

70. A bag contains 5 brown socks and 4 white Socks. A man selects two socks one by one from the
bag without replacement. The probability that the selected socks will be of the same colour is :-
1)

2)

3)

4)

Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution: Required probability =
Brown Brown or White White
I (II) (I) (II)

71. A relation R is defined from {2,3,4,5} to {3,6,7,10} by xRy ⇔ x is relatively prime to y then domain of
R is :-
1) {2,3,5}
2) {3,5}
3) {2,3,4}
4) {2,3,4,5}
Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: The relation R is
{(2,3)(2,7)(3,7)(3,10)(4,3)(4,7)(5,3)(5,6)(5,7)}.
The domain is {2,3,4,5}

72.
is equal to –
1) loge 9
2) loge 3
3) 0
4) 1
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Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:

= (loge 3)2
= loge 9

73.
is :-
1)

2)

3)

4)

Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


Solution:

74. The domain of the function, f(x) = log0.2 log0.5 log0.25 x is


1) (1, ∞)
2)

3)

4) R
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: log0.5 log0.25 x > 0 & log0.25 x > 0 & x > 0
⇒ log0.25 x < 1 & x < 1 & x > 0
x > 0.25 & x < 1 & x > 0

75.
The range of is :
1)

2)
3)

4)

Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1


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Solution: If |b| ≤ |c|, then range = [–∞, min] ∪ [max. ∞)

76. The reflection of A(3, 4) in the line x – 2y + 10 = 0 is the point B. The reflection of B in line x – y + 1 =
0 is the point C, then the circumcenter of the triangle ABC is-
1) (5, 6)
2) (8, 9)
3) (7, 8)
4) None of these
Ans: 2 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:

Circumcenter is the point of intersection of the perpendicular bisectors of the sides.

77. The equation of a straight line passing through (3,2) and cutting an intercept of 2 units between
the lines 3x + 4y = 11 and 3x + 4y = 1 is :-
1) 2x + y – 8 = 0
2) 3y – 4x + 6 = 0
3) 3x + 4y – 17 = 0
4) 2x – y – 4 = 0
Ans: 2 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:
Distance between the given parallel lines
∴ Required line is perpendicular to the given lines and passes through (3,2).
∴ The required equation is 3y – 4x + 6 = 0

78. Vertex of the parabola y2 + 2y + x = 0 lies in the quadrant :-


1) First
2) Second
3) Third
4) None of these
Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Given parabola can be written as (y + 1)2 = –(x – 1). Hence vertex is (1, –1), which lies in IV
quadrant.

79. If lines y = x + 3 cuts the circle x2 + y2 = a2 in two points A and B, then equation of circle with AB as
diameter is-
1) x2 + y2 + 3x – 3y – a2 + 9 = 0
2) x2 + y2 + 3x – 3y + a2 + 9 = 0
3) x2 + y2 – 3x + 3y – a2 + 9 = 0
4) None of these
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: The equation of circle passing through the point of intersection of circle and line can be
written as
x2 + y2 – a2 + λ(x – y + 3) = 0

The centre of this circle is , which lies on the line y = x + 3 the circle.


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⇒ λ=3
Thus equation of the required circle is
(x2 + y2 – a2) + 3(x – y + 3) = 0
x2 + y2 + 3x – 3y – a2 + 9 = 0

80. The area of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents at the end points of latus rectum to the ellipse

is :-
1)
sq. units
2) 9 sq. units
3)
sq. units
4) 27 sq. units
Ans: 4 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

SEC-B

This section has TEN questions.


Candidates have to attempt any 5 questions out of 10.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off
to the second decimal place).
For each question, type the correct integer in the space provided below the question using
provided number keys.
Marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If the correct integer is typed in the provided space.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the alphabets are selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.

81. A house of height 100 metres subtends a right angle at the window of an opposite house. If the
height of the window be 64 metres, then the distance between the two houses is
Ans: 48 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:
Also
or
m

82.
is equal to :-
Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

83. If Sum of first ten terms of

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is then m is equal to?
Ans: 101 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:
terms


⇒ 5m = 505
⇒ m = 101

84. Find the number of terms in expansion of (1 – 2x + x2)30is.


Ans: 61 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

85. The number of words can be formed from all the letter of the word 'Monday' in which first letter is a
vowel are
Ans: 240 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:

86. If set A has 8 different elements then total number of proper subset of set A is :-
Ans: 255 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: ⇒ 28 – 1 = 256 – 1 = 255

87. Number of integers lying in the range of is


Ans: 1 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Domain is 1 ≤ x ≤ 5
ƒ(1) = 2

ƒ(5) = 2

y = 2 are integers

88. If PSQ is the focal chord of the parabola y2 = 8x such that SP = 6. Then the length SQ is :-
Ans: 3 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution:


⇒ SQ = 3

89.
A point P on the ellipse has the eccentric angle . The sum of the distance of P from
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the two foci is :-
Ans: 10 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

90. A normal to the hyperbola x2 – 4y2 = 4 has equal intercepts on positive x and y axes. If this normal

touches the ellipse , then 3(a2 + b2) is equal to -


Ans: 25 Marks: 4 Negative Marks: 1
Solution: Not Provided

This Test is present in following package(s): JEE Adv - Nurture-2021

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