_______________________

Name:
_
Science, stage 4
_______________________
Class:
_

_______________________
Date:
_

Time: 82 minutes

Marks: 113 marks

Comments:

Page 1 of 53
 Q1.
The diagram shows a strawberry plant. Four organs of the plant are labelled A to D.

          Write the names of organs A to D in the correct spaces in the table.
Write the function or job of each organ next to its name.

          Only choose functions from the list below.

          to attract insects for pollination

            to attract birds for pollination
       to attract animals for seed dispersal
                        to take up water
                         to absorb light
          to protect the plant from animals
 
letter name of organ function

A    

B    

C    

Page 2 of 53
 D    

4 marks

Q2.
The table gives information about solutions of three different salts in water.

(a)     Which two solutions when mixed together could form a neutral solution?

........................................... and ............................................

1 mark

(b)     Sodium hydrogensulphate solution behaves like an acid.

(i)      Magnesium is added to a solution of sodium hydrogensulphate.

What would you expect to see forming on the magnesium?

............................................................................................................
1 mark

(ii)     Sodium carbonate is added to a solution of sodium hydrogensulphate.

What gas would you expect to be formed?

............................................................................................................
1 mark

(c)     The formula for a different carbonate compound is K2CO3.

Give the names of the three elements which make up this compound.

1. ............................................................

2. ............................................................

3. ............................................................
1 mark
Maximum 4 marks

Q3.
The diagram shows a cyclist at different positions as he cycles over a humpback bridge.

Page 3 of 53
  

(a)     (i)      Where does the cyclist have the most kinetic energy?
Tick the correct box.

 
1 mark

(ii)     Where does the cyclist have the most potential energy?
Tick the correct box.

 
1 mark

(iii)     Where does the cyclist have the least potential energy?
Tick the correct box.

 
1 mark

(b)     The cyclist used some energy to cycle over the bridge.  Where was this energy
transferred to by the time the cyclist reached position D?

....................................................................................................................
1 mark
Maximum 4 marks

Q4.
Andrew put his rabbit’s cage on the grass.

Page 4 of 53
  

          A week later, the grass under the cage had turned yellow.

(a)     Give one reason why the grass had turned yellow.

......................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................
1 mark

(b)     Andrew wanted to test why the grass had turned yellow. He put two sheets of
plastic just above another patch of grass. One sheet was black and the other
sheet was clear.

          A week later, the grass under the black sheet was yellow. The grass under the clear
sheet was green.

(i)      Explain why he used the clear plastic sheet as well as the black sheet.

............................................................................................................

............................................................................................................
1 mark

(ii)     Andrew left the black sheet there for several more weeks.
What happened to the grass under it?

............................................................................................................

............................................................................................................
1 mark

(c)     Tick the boxes by two things which both rabbits and grass plants can do.

they eat                                           

Page 5 of 53
 they grow                                        

they move from place to place       

they reproduce                                

they breathe in and out                   

2 marks
Maximum 5 marks

Q5.
The diagram shows a family tree in which some members of the family had a hereditary
disease. The disease is caused by a dominant allele.

(a)     In the questions below, use G to represent the dominant allele for the disease, and
g to represent the normal allele.

(i)      Give the genotype of the grandmother, person 2.

.............................................................................................................
1 mark

(ii)     Explain how you arrived at your answer.

.............................................................................................................

Page 6 of 53
 .............................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................
2 marks

(b)     (i)      Give the genotype of person 5.

.............................................................................................................
1 mark

(ii)     Explain how you arrived at your answer.

.............................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................
1 mark

(c)     Person 10 died soon after birth. What is the possibility that he would have
developed the disease if he had survived?

......................................................................................................................
1 mark

(d)     Harmful alleles like allele G arise because of mutation.

(i)      Explain what is meant by mutation.

.............................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................
1 mark

(ii)     State one cause of mutation.

.............................................................................................................
1 mark
Maximum 8 marks

Q6.
The diagrams represent the way 'atoms' are arranged in six chemical substances.
Each 'atom' is represented by a circle.
The 'atoms' are labelled with their chemical symbols.

Page 7 of 53
  

(a)     (i)      Which diagrams represent the structures of chemical elements?

Write the numbers.

.............................................................................................................
1 mark

(ii)     Explain how you made your decision.

.............................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................
1 mark

(b)     Give the formulae of two of the compounds represented in the diagrams.

1. .................................................................................................................

2. .................................................................................................................
2 marks

(c)     Give the name of substance 6.

......................................................................................................................
1 mark

Page 8 of 53
 (d)     Give the names of the chemical elements whose atoms can be represented by the
following symbols.

C  ......................................................................................................................

Cl  ......................................................................................................................

Cu  .....................................................................................................................
3 marks
Maximum 8 marks

Q7.
The diagram shows four different layers of sedimentary rock in a cliff.

(a)     Which layer of , A, B, C or D, is probably the oldest?

......................................................................................................................
1 mark

(b)     Igneous rock is formed when magma cools.

Choose from the following words to complete the sentences below.

gas             liquid              metal              solid

(i)      Igneous rock is a  ...............................................................................

1 mark

(ii)     Magma is a  ........................................................................................

1 mark

(c)     Rocks are put into groups according to the way they are formed. The groups are
igneous, metamorphic and sedimentary.

(i)      To which group does sandstone belong?

............................................................................................................
1 mark

(ii)     In which group are fossils never found?

............................................................................................................
1 mark
Maximum 5 marks

Page 9 of 53
Q8.
The diagram shows the Sun and the orbits of the five inner planets.
The distances (but not the sizes of the Sun and Jupiter) are to scale.

(a)     On the diagram, draw a dot to show the Earth’s position when Earth and Jupiter
are moving parallel to each other and in the same direction.
Label the dot E.
1 mark

(b)     As Jupiter moves in its orbit, it appears to move across the pattern of stars in the
background.
When Jupiter and the Earth are moving parallel to each other, Jupiter appears to
move backwards across the pattern of stars. Explain why.

……….………………………………………………………………………………

……….………………………………………………………………………………
1 mark

(c)     The light from the Sun takes about 8.3 minutes to reach the Earth.
Using the diagram above, estimate how long it takes for light to travel from Jupiter
to the Earth when they are the shortest possible distance apart. Show your working.

Page 10 of 53
 ……….………………………………………………………………………………

……….………………………………………………………………………………

……….………………………………………………………………………………
2 marks
Maximum 4 marks

Q9.
A team of geologists drilled a deep hole in a search for oil. The table shows the main
layers of rock they drilled through.
 
order of layers rock origin

layer 1 (top layer) sandstone river sand

layer 2 coal swamp

layer 3 sandstone sand from a delta

layer 4 basalt lava flow

layer 5 sandstone sand on a beach

layer 6 salt evaporation of sea water

layer 7 sandstone sand on a beach

layer 8 conglomerate pebbles on a beach

layer 9 (bottom layer) schist formed within the Earth’s

crust

(a)     The schist was formed by a process of crystallisation. Give the names of two other
rocks in the table which were also formed by crystallisation.

………………………… and ………………………

1 mark

(b)     A piece of coal is a sample of a sedimentary rock. It can also be described as a

fossil.
Explain why it can be thought of as both.

……….………………………………………………………………………………

……….………………………………………………………………………………
2 marks

(c)     The basalt was formed from lava and not from an intrusion of magma into the
sandstone.

(i)      What effect did the lava have on:

layer 3 ……….………………………………………………………………

Page 11 of 53
 layer 5 ……….………………………………………………………………
1 mark

(ii)     If layer 4 had been formed as an intrusion, what effect would it have had on
rock layers 3 and 5?

…………………………………………………………………………………
1 mark
Maximum 5 marks

Q10.
The diagrams show two plant cells.

not to scale

(a)     In which part of a plant would these cells be found?

cell X …………………………
1 mark

cell Y …………………………
1 mark

(b)     Give the name of part B.

……………………………………
1 mark

(c)     (i)      Give the letter which labels the nucleus.

……………
1 mark

(ii)     What is the function of the nucleus?

…………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………
1 mark

(d)     (i)      How can you tell from the diagram that photosynthesis cannot take place
in cell Y?

Page 12 of 53
 …………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………
1 mark

(ii)     Which process takes place in both cell X and cell Y?

Tick the correct box.

egestion                

fertilisation            

pollination             

respiration            
1 mark
Maximum 7 marks

Q11.
The card shows the amounts of fat and fibre in some types of food and drink from a café.

Page 13 of 53
  

(a)     From the card above, choose a meal consisting of a burger, a drink and some
potato, to give:

(i)      the least fat;

1 mark

(ii)     the most fibre.

1 mark

          Write your answers in the table below.

 
Food and drink meal with the least fat meal with the most fibre

type of burger    

  the drinks do not

type of drink
contain fibre

Page 14 of 53
 type of potato    

(b)     Draw a line from each nutrient to the main reason why it is needed.
Draw only four lines.

              nutrient                                        main reason why the nutrient is needed

                                                      •    to keep the intestine working properly

          calcium        •           •    for healthy teeth and bones

          fibre                   •           •    for insulation

          protein               •           •    to provide energy
          sugar                 •           •    for growth and repair
4 marks
Maximum 6 marks

Q12.
The drawings show a weightlifter. The stages in weightlifting are labelled A, B, C, D and E.

(a)     (i)      Complete the sentences below.

         As the weights were lifted up, energy was transferred from

         the man to the weights. This energy had been stored as

         ……………………… energy in the ………………………… of

the man’s arms.

2 marks

(ii)     How was energy stored in the weights at stage C?

         Tick the correct box.

Page 15 of 53
 as chemical energy as elastic energy
   

as gravitational potential
as kinetic energy energy
   
1 mark

(b)     Complete the sentences below.

(i)      In stage D, as the weights were falling, the energy was transferred

         from …………………………… energy to…………………………… energy.

1 mark

(ii)     In stage E, as the weights hit the floor, the energy was transferred

         from …………………………… energy to …………………………… energy.

1 mark
Maximum 5 marks

Q13.
Almost 200 years ago, an important investigation into plant growth was carried out.

          George Sinclair, the Duke of Bedford’s head gardener, planted seeds in 242 plots of land,
each four feet square.

          Charles Darwin concluded from this investigation:

        If a plot of ground is sown with one species of grass and a

similar plot is sown with several different species of grass, the
second plot will produce a greater number of plants and a
greater mass of plant material.
(a)     Give one feature of the plots that was controlled in Sinclair’s investigation.

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................
1 mark

(b)     Why did Sinclair use many plots rather than just two?

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................
1 mark

(c)     What two factors are named in Darwin’s conclusion as the measurable outcomes in
the investigation?
(These are the dependent variables.)

1. .................................................................................................................

2. .................................................................................................................

Page 16 of 53
 1 mark

(d)     Which one factor was changed in Sinclair’s investigation?

(This is called the independent variable.)

.....................................................................................................................
1 mark

(e)     The soil in each plot was tested.

          Suggest one reason why these soil tests were helpful to the interpretation of the
results of the investigation.

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................
1 mark

(f)      Give one reason why several different species of grass in a plot produced a greater
mass of plant material than a single species in a plot.

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................
1 mark
maximum 6 marks

Q14.

              ‘Wilting roses are a thing of the past.’

          Scientists at the University of Leeds have found a way to modify the genes of flowering
plants.
They claim that flowers from modified plants remain fresh in a vase of water for up to six
months longer than flowers from unmodified plants.

Page 17 of 53
  

          Plan an investigation you could carry out in the school laboratory to test the claim that
flowers from modified plants last for much longer than flowers from unmodified plants.

          You will be provided with flowers from modified plants and from unmodified plants.

          In your plan give:

•        the one factor you will change as you carry out your investigation;
(This is the independent variable.)
•        the factor you will measure;
(This is the dependent variable.)
•        one of the factors you should control to ensure a fair test;
•        the time scale for the investigation.

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................

Page 18 of 53
 .....................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................
maximum 4 marks

Q15.
Part of the reactivity series of metals is shown below.
 
most reactive potassium

  sodium

  magnesium

  aluminium

  iron

  lead

least reactive copper

(a)     Dan added a piece of magnesium to a solution of copper sulphate.

A displacement reaction took place.

          The word equation for the reaction is shown below.

magnesium + copper sulphate → magnesium sulphate + copper

          Why is this called a displacement reaction?

......................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................
1 mark

(b)     Look at each pair of chemicals in the table below.

          Use the reactivity series to predict whether a displacement reaction would take
place.
Write yes or no in the second column and give the reason for your decision.
 
Does a displacement
pairs of chemicals reaction take place? reason
yes or no

iron + sodium chloride    

magnesium + lead nitrate    

Page 19 of 53
 2 marks

(c)     Dan wanted to find out where zinc should be placed in the reactivity series.

(i)      What tests should Dan do to find the correct position of zinc in the reactivity
series?

.............................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................
1 mark

(ii)     How would Dan use his test results to decide where to put zinc in the
reactivity series?

.............................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................
1 mark
maximum 5 marks
 

Q16.
Table 1 below shows the colour of universal indicator in acidic, neutral and alkaline
solutions.
 
acidic neutral alkaline
 

colour of dark
red orange yellow green blue purple
indicator blue

                                               table 1

          Ramy tested different liquids with the indicator solution.

His results are shown in table 2 below.
 
colour of indicator
liquid
solution

Milk green

lemonade orange

water green

fruit juice red

washing-up liquid blue

Page 20 of 53
                                                table 2

(a)     Use Ramy’s results to answer the following questions.

(i)      Give the name of one acidic liquid in table 2.

.............................................................................................................
1 mark

(ii)     Give the name of one neutral liquid in table 2.

.............................................................................................................
1 mark

(b)     Ramy dissolved some bicarbonate of soda in distilled water.

This produced an alkaline solution.

(i)      Ramy added the indicator to the alkaline solution.

         Suggest what colour the indicator became.

Use table 1 to help you.

................................................................
1 mark

(ii)     Ramy added lemon juice to the solution of bicarbonate of soda.

                         

         How could he tell that a gas was produced?

.............................................................................................................
1 mark

(c)     Ramy mixed an acid with an alkali and tested the mixture with the indicator
solution.
The indicator solution turned green.

          What is the name of the reaction between an acid and an alkali?
Tick the correct box.

                          condensation      

                          crystallisation      

Page 21 of 53
                           evaporation         

                          neutralisation      
1 mark
maximum 5 marks

Q17.
(a)     Sita made a model of three parts of the solar system, the Sun, Earth and Moon.
She used a marble, a torch and a tennis ball.

          Draw a line from each part of the solar system to the object she used.

          Draw only three lines.

 
2 marks

(b)     The table below shows the order of some of the planets in our solar system.

          Complete the table to show the positions of the Earth, Neptune and the Sun.
 

  Mercury Venus   Mars Jupiter Saturn Uranus  

Page 22 of 53
 2 marks

(c)     The diagram shows a satellite in orbit around the Earth.

 
                                                                    not to scale

(i)      Give one use of a satellite.

...................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................

(ii)     Which force keeps the satellite in orbit around the Earth?
Tick the correct box.

gravity                        friction                           

air resistance            magnetism                     

2 marks
maximum 6 marks

Q18.
The drawing shows a toy shark. Magnets X and Y make the shark ‘float’
above the plastic base.

Page 23 of 53
  

(a)     On magnet X, write the letters N and S to label the poles of the magnet.
1 mark

(b)     (i)      Choose a word from the list below to complete the sentence.

                   attract             cancel            repel

         The toy shark ‘floats’ because the magnets ....................................... each
other.
1 mark

(ii)     Sophie pressed down on the tail of the shark with her finger.

         What happened to the shark when she removed her finger?

.............................................................................................................
1 mark

(c)     Sophie added weights to the toy shark and measured the distance between the
two magnets.
Her results are shown below.
 
weight added to distance between
the toy shark (N) the magnets (mm)
0.1 6

0.2 4

0.3 3

          Complete the sentence below.

          As the weight on the toy shark increased, the distance between the magnets
.......................................
1 mark

(d)     Sophie turned the magnet in the plastic base the other way up.

          What happened to the shark?

Page 24 of 53
 ......................................................................................................................
1 mark
maximum 5 marks

Q19.
The drawing below shows a space buggy on the surface of Mars.

(a)     The distance between Earth and Mars is 192 000 000 km.

It took a spacecraft 200 days to take the buggy from Earth to Mars.

Calculate the speed at which the spacecraft travelled.

Give the unit.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
2 marks

(b)     The weight of the buggy was 105 N on Earth and 40 N on Mars.

Why was the weight of the buggy less on Mars than on Earth?

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
1 mark

(c)     The buggy uses solar panels to generate electrical energy.

The solar panels generate less electrical energy on Mars than on Earth.

Give a reason why.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
1 mark

(d)     The weight of the buggy was 40 N on Mars.

When the buggy landed on Mars it rested on an area of 0.025 m2.

Page 25 of 53
           Calculate the pressure exerted by the buggy on the surface of Mars.

Give the unit.

.........................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................
2 marks
maximum 6 marks

Q20.
An alloy is a mixture of elements.
The table shows the mass of each element present in 100 g of five different alloys,
bronze, solder, steel, stainless steel and brass.
 
  mass of each element in 100 g of alloy
alloy lead tin copper zinc carbon iron chromium nickel
(g) (g) (g) (g) (g) (g) (g) (g)
bronze   4 95 1        

solder 62 38            

steel         1 99    
stainless           70 20 10
steel
brass     67 33        

(a)     Which alloy in the table above contains an element which is a non-metal?

.............................................................
1 mark

(b)     Which two alloys in the table contain only two metals?

........................................................ and .........................................................

1 mark

(c)     Another alloy called nichrome contains only the elements chromium and nickel.
100 g of nichrome contains 20 g of chromium.

          How much nickel does it contain?

          ……… g
1 mark

(d)     Before 1992, two-pence coins were made of bronze.

Steel rusts but bronze does not rust.

(i)      Why does bronze not rust?

Use information in the table above to help you.

...............................................................................................................

...............................................................................................................

Page 26 of 53
 1 mark

(ii)     Rusting requires water and a gas from the air.

Give the name of this gas.

.............................................................
1 mark
maximum 5 marks

Q21.
The drawings show six objects made from different materials.

not to scale

(a)     Fill the gaps in the sentences below.

          The objects are made from materials that are all types of ...........................
1 mark

          All the materials are good conductors of electricity and ...............................
1 mark

(b)     From the drawings above give one object that could rust.

......................................................................................................................
1 mark

(c)     The drawing below shows part of an electric cable and a plug.

(i)      What material could be put around the wires to insulate them?

Page 27 of 53
 .............................................................................................................
1 mark

(ii)     Why is this insulating material needed?

.............................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................
1 mark

(d)     Which pair of objects is attracted to a magnet?

Tick the correct box.

 
1 mark
maximum 6 marks

Page 28 of 53
Mark schemes

Q1.
Both the name and function must be correct for the mark to be awarded
only words from the list may be accepted as correct functions.

letter      name of organ                    function

A            flower or petal                     to attract insects for pollination

1

B            leaf                                     to absorb light

1

C            root                                     to take up water

1

D            fruit or strawberry               to attract animals for seed dispersal

1
accept plurals for the names of the organs
[4]

Q2.
(a)     ammonium chloride and sodium sulphite
answers may be in either order
both are required for the mark
accept ‘sulphate’ for sulphite
accept ‘4 and 10’
1 (L7)

(b)     (i)      bubbles

accept ‘hydrogen’ or ‘gas’ or ‘fizzing’
do not accept ‘a reaction’
1 (L7)

(ii)     carbon dioxide or CO2

1 (L7)

(c)     potassium    carbon    oxygen

answers may be in any order
all three are required for the mark
1 (L7)
[4]

Q3.
(a)     (i)      C  
if more than one box is ticked, award no mark
1 (L5)

(ii)     B  
if more than one box is ticked, award no mark
1 (L5)

Page 29 of 53
 (iii)     D  
if more than one box is ticked, award no mark
1 (L5)

(b)     any one from

•    the brakes or wheels or tyres

•    the surroundings

•    the air

•    the ground

accept ‘lost as heat’ or ‘soles of shoes’
do not accept ‘the bike’ or ‘the cyclist’
1 (L5)
[4]

Q4.
(a)     not enough light
accept ‘no light’ or ‘not enough Sun’ or ‘no chlorophyll’
do not accept ‘not enough water’ or ‘urine from the hutch’
1 (L3)

(b)     the answer must show an understanding of the need for a fair test

(i)      any one from

•    as a control or comparison

•    to make it a fair test

•    to see if the grass is affected by light

accept ‘to show the effect of the Sun’
1 (L3)

(ii)     it will die

accept ‘goes brown’ or ‘rots’
do not accept ‘loses its colour’
1 (L3)

(c)     they grow  

1 (L3)

          they reproduce  

if more than two boxes are ticked deduct
one for each incorrectly ticked box
minimum mark zero
1 (L3)
[5]

Q5.
(a)     (i)      Gg
accept ‘she was heterozygous’

Page 30 of 53
 1

(ii)     any one from

•    two of her children or (6) and (9) were normal

or inherited a recessive gene or g from her
accept ‘some of her children were normal and
some were affected’ for both marks

•    if she were GG, all her children would have the disease
1

any one from

•    some of her children or (4) and (5) were affected

or inherited a dominant gene or G from her

•    she was affected so she had a dominant gene or G

accept ‘she was affected’

•    if she were gg, none of her children would have the disease
accept a Punnett Square or a genetic diagram, for one mark,
as part of the explanation:
 
either or

 
1

(b)     (i)      Gg
accept ‘he was heterozygous’
1

(ii)     he must have inherited a dominant gene

or G from his mother and a recessive gene or g from his father
accept ‘he must have got g from his father ‘a mark may be
awarded for a Punnett square or a genetic diagram as above
1

(c)     50% or ½ or 0.5

accept ‘1:1’ or ‘evens’
1

(d)     (i)      any one from

•    a change in a gene or chromosome

accept ‘damage to a gene’

•    a change in the base sequence of DNA

Page 31 of 53
 accept ‘a change in the DNA or the genetic information’
or ‘wrong base added to DNA’
accept ‘development of a new characteristic’
1

(ii)     any one from

•    X rays

•    radiation

•    UV light
accept ‘sunlight’
accept a named mutagenic chemical such as ‘benzene’
or ‘cigarette tar’
accept ‘incorrect replication of DNA’
1
[8]

Q6.
(a)     (i)      1
accept ‘C’

3
accept ‘O’

5
accept ‘S’
answers may be in any order
all three answers are required for the mark
1 (L7)

(ii)     they contain only one type of atom or symbol or letter

1 (L7)

(b)     any two from

•    CO2
accept ‘O2 C’

•    CH4
accept ‘H4C’

•    NaCl
accept ‘Cl Na’ or ‘Na18Cl18’
do not accept names of compounds
2 (L7)

(c)     sodium chloride or salt

do not accept ‘NaCl’
1 (L7)

(d)     carbon

Page 32 of 53
 1 (L7)

          chlorine
do not accept ‘chloride’
1 (L7)

          copper
answers must be in the correct order
1 (L7)
[8]

Q7.
(a)     D
1 (L3)

(b)     (i)      solid

1 (L3)

(ii)     liquid
1 (L3)

(c)     (i)      sedimentary

1 (L4)

(ii)     igneous
1 (L4)
[5]

Q8.
(a)     dot in line with Jupiter and the Sun on the 3rd circle out, between
the Sun and Jupiter
both the correct circle and the correct position of the dot on
the circle are required for the mark the label E is not
required
1

(b)     because the Earth is travelling faster than Jupiter

accept ‘because the Earth is travelling faster’
or ‘the Earth is overtaking’
accept ‘because Jupiter takes longer to orbit’
do not accept ‘because the stars are very far away’
1

(c)     ratio of distances = 6.3 : 1.5

1

35 minutes
accept 6.2 – 6.4 and 1.4 – 1.6
accept a time between 30 and 40 minutes

accept ‘ ’ for one mark 1.5 the unit is required for the

mark
accept the correct time for both marks even if no working is
shown

Page 33 of 53
 1
[4]

Q9.
(a)     basalt and salt
answers may be in either order
both rocks are required for the mark
1

(b)     it is sedimentary because it is made from deposits

do not accept ‘sedimentary because it has layers’
1

•    it is made from fossilised organic material

accept ‘it is made from the remains of living things’
or ‘it is made from dead plants and animals’
1

(c)     (i)      layer 3 was not affected and layer 5 was baked or metamorphosed
the effect on both layers is required
accept ‘only the part of layer 5 next to the lava is affected’
or ‘the basalt would be on top of metamorphic rock’
1

(ii)     both layers would have been baked or metamorphosed

accept ‘both layers would be changed’
or ’the basalt would be surrounded by metamorphic rock’
1
[5]

Q10.
(a)     the leaf
answers must be in the correct order
accept ‘a green part’
accept ‘stem’ or other named green part
1 (L5)

root
accept ‘root hair’
1 (L6)

(b)     cell wall

1 (L6)

(c)     (i)      A
1 (L6)

(ii)     to control the cell

accept ‘contains genetic information’
or ’controls the production of enzymes’
1 (L6)

(d)     (i)      any one from

Page 34 of 53
 it has no chloroplasts or no chlorophyll
1 (L6)

(ii)     respiration
if more than one box is ticked, award no mark
1 (L6)
[7]

Q11.
(a)
meal with the meal with the
food and drink
least fat most fibre

single burger double burger

type of burger
accept ‘single’ accept ‘double’

cola or the drinks do not

type of drink
orange juice contain fibre

type of potato baked potato baked potato

award one mark for each correct column

2 (L3)

(b)

           
if more than four lines are drawn, deduct one mark for each
incorrectly drawn line minimum mark zero
4 (L3)
[6]

Q12.
(a)     (i)      chemical
1 (L6)

muscles
1 (L6)

(ii)     as gravitational potential energy

if more than one box is ticked, award no mark
1 (L6)

(b)     (i)      potential or stored to kinetic

Page 35 of 53
 both parts are required for the mark
accept ‘movement’ for kinetic
1 (L6)

(ii)     kinetic to thermal or sound or elastic

both parts are required for the mark
accept ‘heat’ for thermal energy
accept ‘movement’ for kinetic
1 (L6)
[5]

Q13.
(a)     the size or area or dimensions of the plots
accept ‘the amount of land’
1 (L6)

(b)     any one from

•    to increase the reliability of the results

accept ‘to make the results more accurate’

•    to be more certain of his results

accept ‘some of the plots could be unusual or different’
‘to find an average’ is insufficient
1 (L7)

(c)     the number of plants or grasses and the mass of plants or grass
both answers are required for the mark
‘amount of plants’ is insufficient
1 (L7)

(d)     any one from

•    the number of species of grass different species

accept ‘species’

•    type of plant or seed or grass

1 (L7)

(e)     any one from

•    his analysis would allow the effects of soil differences to

be controlled or explained
accept ‘to make sure or so it would be fair’

•    to provide evidence of any difference between soils

accept ‘to check whether soils had an effect on growth’

•    the analysis would provide more evidence

•    to check whether soils were the same or different

1 (L7)

(f)      any one from

Page 36 of 53
 •    different species have different requirements so they are not
competing for the same resources

•    competition might stimulate more vigorous growth

•    one species may be better adapted to the plot or conditions

•    you would get continuous growth throughout the year

1 (L7)
[6]

Q14.
Markers should read through the whole answer before marking this question.

modified and unmodified plants

accept ‘type of plant’
‘(flowers from) different plants’ is insufficient
1 (L7)

the number of days or weeks or months the flowers stayed fresh

accept ‘how long they stayed fresh’
1 (L7)

any one from

•    modified and unmodified plants should be the same variety

•    conditions under which flowers are kept should be the same

•    modified and unmodified plants should be the same starting age
accept ‘amount of sunlight should be the same’
accept ‘amount of water should be the same’
accept ‘nutrients added should be the same’
1 (L7)

A suitable time span (which will allow comparison) for example

‘until they have all wilted’
or
‘until all ordinary plants have wilted’
award a mark for answers of 2 weeks or more
1 (L7)
[4]

Q15.
(a)     •    magnesium displaces copper from the copper sulphate
accept ‘magnesium has taken the sulphate’

•    copper is replaced by magnesium

accept ‘copper and magnesium change places’
1 (L6)

(b)
pairs of Does a displacement reason
chemicals reaction take place?

Page 37 of 53
 Yes or no

iron is below sodium (in the

iron +
reactivity series) or sodium is
sodium no
above iron (in the
chloride
reactivity series)

magnesium is above lead (in the

magnesium
reactivity series) or lead is below
+ lead yes
magnesium (in the reactivity
nitrate
series)

accept ‘iron is less reactive’ or the converse

accept ‘magnesium is more reactive’ or the converse
both the answer and the correct reason are required
for each mark
2 (L7)

(c)     (i)      any one from

•    add zinc to a solution of a salt of each of the other metals

accept ‘add zinc to copper chloride and if it reacts add
it to a solution of a salt of the next metal up and so on’

•    add each of the other metals to a solution of a zinc salt

accept ‘add the other metals to zinc chloride’
accept any named zinc salt
1 (L7)

(ii)     any one from

•    place zinc between the metal in the salt which does react
and the metal in the salt which does not react
accept ‘whatever zinc displaced should be below zinc’

•    place zinc between the metal which does react and the
metal which does not react
accept ‘put zinc below all the metals that react’
parts (c)(i) and(c)(ii) should be marked together
do not accept ‘test the other metals with zinc to
see if they react’
1 (L7)
[5]

Q16.
(a)     (i)      any one from

•    lemonade

•    fruit juice

accept ‘fruit or juice’
1 (L3)

(ii)     any one from

Page 38 of 53
 •    milk

•    water
1 (L3)

(b)     (i)      any one from

•    blue

•    dark blue

•    purple
1 (L3)

(ii)     any one from

•    it bubbled
accept ‘it fizzed’

•    bubbles were formed

accept ‘bubbles’
accept ‘effervescence’
1 (L3)

(c)     neutralisation
if more than one box is ticked, award no mark
1 (L4)
[5]

Q17.
(a)     •

 
if all three lines are correct, award two marks
if one or two lines are correct, award one mark
if more than one line is drawn from any part of the
solar system, award no credit for that part
2 (L3)

(b)     •

Page 39 of 53
 
Sun Mercury Venus Earth Mars Jupiter Saturn Uranus Neptune

award one mark for the Sun in the correct position

award one mark for both Earth and Neptune in the
correct positions
2 (L3)

(c)     (i)      any one from

•    weather forecasting

accept ‘weather’

•    communications
accept ‘phone’ or ‘fax’

•    telescopes

•    global positioning system

accept ‘GPS’

•    TV

•    spying
accept ‘taking photographs’

•    internet
1 (L4)

(ii)     •    gravity  

if more than one box is ticked, award no mark
1 (L4)
[6]

Q18.
(a)

           
both poles are required for the mark S
1 (L4)

(b)     (i)      repel

1 (L4)

(ii)     it moved upwards or returned to its original position

accept ‘it would move up and down’
1 (L4)

(c)     decreased
accept ‘got smaller’; accept ‘moved closer’
1 (L4)

Page 40 of 53
 (d)     any one from

•    it was attracted to the base

accept ‘the magnets are attracting’
accept ‘the N and S poles attract’

•    it moved down

accept ‘it would not float’

•    it sank
accept ‘it would stick to the base’
1 (L4)
[5]

Q19.
(a)     •    960.000

accept
1 (L7)

•    km/day or kilometres per day or km day–1

accept ’40.000 km/hr’ for two marks

accept ’11.1 km/s’ for two marks
accept ’11.111 m/s’ for two marks
accept ‘d’ for ‘day’ and ‘h’ for ‘hour’
do not accept ‘km pday’
1

(b)     •    gravity on Mars is less

accept ‘gravity is greater on Earth’
1 (L6)

(c)     any one from

•    Mars is further from the Sun

accept ‘the Sun is closer to the earth’

•    less light reaches Mars

accept ‘the light rays have spread out more’
‘Mars is further away’ is insufficient
do not accept ‘less heat reaches Mars’
1 (L7)

(d)     •      1600

accept ‘40/0.025’
1 (L7)

•    N/m2 or Pa or Nm–2

accept ‘pascals’
do not accept lower case ‘n’
1

Page 41 of 53
 [6]

Q20.
(a)     steel
do not accept ‘stainless steel’
do not accept ‘carbon’
1 (L5)

(b)     •    brass

•    solder
answers may be in either order
both answers are required for the mark
1 (L5)

(c)     80
accept ‘100 – 20’
1 (L5)

(d)     (i)      it does not contain iron

accept ‘it does not contain steel’
accept ‘only iron rusts’ or ‘only steel rusts’
accept ‘it is made of tin, copper and zinc’
1 (L6)

(ii)     oxygen
accept ‘O2’
1 (L6)
[5]

Q21.
(a)     metal
1 (L3)

any one from

•    heat

•    thermal energy

1 (L3)

(b)     any one from

•    nail
accept ‘iron’

•    paper-clip
accept ‘steel’ or ‘clip’
1 (L4)

(c)     (i)      any one from

•    plastic
accept a named plastic

Page 42 of 53
 •    rubber

•    PVC
1 (L3)

(ii)     any one from

•    to stop you getting a shock

accept ‘to stop you being electrocuted’
‘to insulate them’ is insufficient as it is
given in the question
accept ‘to make it safe’

•    so the wires do not touch

accept ‘to prevent them short circuiting’
accept ‘it does not conduct electricity’
1 (L4)

(d)     iron nail and steel paper-clip

if more than one box is ticked, award no mark
1 (L3)
[6]

Page 43 of 53
Examiner reports

Q1.
Most pupils gained some of the marks available in this question. However, many pupils
ignored the wording of the question and gave alternative functions or wrote several
functions in the same answer box. Some pupils identified all of the organs correctly but did
not write them in the correct answer box. Some pupils identified one or more organs
incorrectly, but knew the functions of their chosen alternatives.

Q2.
The revised National Curriculum Order for science is more explicit than earlier Orders
about the chemistry that should be taught at Key Stage 3.  A number of questions in the
1996 tests assessed pupils’ knowledge about chemical reactions.  Pupils’ responses
showed that many were not familiar with reactions between acids and metals, acids and
carbonates or with displacement reactions between metals and solutions of salts of other
metals.  Many did not know the tests for the three gases hydrogen, carbon dioxide and
oxygen.  This lack of familiarity with fundamental chemical reactions was also evident in
the difficulty pupils had in completing or producing word equations, in recognising symbols
for common elements or recognising the formula of the compound copper sulphate.

Q3.
No specific comment made.

Q4.
Explanations were often insufficiently clear.  For example, in a question about testing what
causes grass to turn yellow when it is covered over, one-third of pupils were unable to
explain why it was necessary to test the effect of covering grass with both clear and black
sheeting.  The first two answers below illustrate how some pupils were unable to express
their ideas with clarity while the second two show how others provided satisfactory
explanations. Few pupils, however, gave explanations which focused on the need to
control for the effect of covering the grass with plastic.

___________________________________________________________________

So sunlight passes through it

because he wanted to see if the clear plastic works the same as the black.

he used the clear plastic sheet to let the sun in and the black to see if it would grow with no
sun

He used clear so their would be light and the black so their is no light.

___________________________________________________________________

Q6.
Almost half  the pupils could recognise chemical elements from diagrams showing the
structures of substances. Most who selected the correct substances could also  explain
their choice. About 70% of pupils who reached level 7 overall determined the chemical

Page 44 of 53
 formulae of compounds such as sodium chloride from these diagrams, and a similar
proportion of those who took the tier 5–7 test could name the elements represented by C
and Cu. However, Cl proved more difficult, chloride being the most common incorrect
answer.

Q7.
Questions on Earth science have been poorly answered in previous year’s tests. In 1998
pupils’ responses showed improved understanding. However, this question was less
demanding than in previous years. Pupils were able to identify the oldest rock in the
diagram. However, they may have confused cementation and metamorphism because a
significant number identified sandstone as a metamorphic rock. Pupils generally
encounter fossils in the context of their formation in sedimentary rocks. However, when
asked in which rock are fossils never found, almost half chose metamorphic rather than
igneous rocks.

Q8.
No specific comment made

Q9.
No specific comment made

Q10.
Many pupils taking the lower tier omitted some or all parts of this question. In part (a) most
pupils at levels 3 and 4 were unable to identify the leaf cell and the root cell although they
were told in the question that the diagrams showed plant cells.

Pupils at level 3 were not able to identify the cell wall in part (b) but pupils at all other
levels did very well on this. A higher proportion of pupils at level 3 identified the nucleus in
part (c)(i). Many pupils at levels 3, 4 and 5 could not state the function of the nucleus in
part (c)(ii). Some pupils in both tiers described the nucleus simply as the ‘brain’ of the cell.
This analogy was inappropriate as an answer. In part (d) more than half the pupils at
levels 3, 4 and 5 did not identify respiration as the process which takes place in both leaf
and root cells. Fertilisation was frequently chosen as the answer.

          Facility values

  Tier 3 – 6 Tier 5 – 7

Item Omit (%) Facility Omit (%) Facility

(a)       1 28 0.41 3 0.88

           2 29 0.19 4 0.64

(b) 33 0.43 4 0.81

(c)(i) 19 0.60 0 0.92

(c)(ii) 40 0.23 4 0.62

(d)(i) 41 0.16 4 0.72

Page 45 of 53
 (d)(ii) 15 0.29 0 0.62

Facility values by level

  Tier 3-6 Tier 5-7

Item Level 3 Level 4 Level 5 Level 6 Level 5 Level 6 Level 7

(a)        1 0.08 0.29 0.61 0.84 0.75 0.89 0.97

            2 0.05 0.10 0.28 0.57 0.39 0.62 0.88

(b) 0.22 0.46 0.65 0.79 0.71 0.82 0.89

(c)(i) 0.31 0.53 0.81 0.95 0.91 0.96 0.99

(c)(ii) 0.01 0.10 0.31 0.59 0.44 0.72 0.94

(d)(i) 0.01 0.05 0.21 0.53 0.42 0.76 0.97

(d)(ii) 0.13 0.29 0.41 0.55 0.55 0.67 0.83

Q11.
Most pupils used the data in the table to identify correctly meals with least fat and most
fibre in part (a). In part (b) 87% of pupils knew that calcium is needed for healthy teeth and
bones. A common error in this part was to select ‘sugar’ as being needed ‘for insulation’.

Facility values
 
Item Omit (%) Facility

(a)   (i)  2 0.85

(a)   (ii) 3 0.72

(b)   1 2 0.87

       2 3 0.51

       3 2 0.53

       4 4 0.57

Facility values by level

  Tier 3-6

Item Level 3 Level 4 Level 5 Level 6

(a)   (i) 0.55 0.80 0.90 0.96

(a)   (ii) 0.39 0.67 0.86 0.93

Page 46 of 53
 (b)   1 0.64 0.77 0.88 0.95

        2 0.27 0.39 0.61 0.82

        3 0.30 0.48 0.67 0.85

        4 0.32 0.49 0.73 0.89

Q12.
Pupils’ responses to this question revealed a lack of knowledge and understanding of
energy and energy transfer. Approximately a third of pupils in the lower tier omitted all the
requiring knowledge about energy. In part (a)(i) few pupils, including those at level 7, were
able to state that the energy had been stored in the muscles as chemical energy. Many
pupils suggested it had been stored as gravitational energy. Pupils did better in part (a)(ii)
where they were able to select the correct energy form (gravitational potential energy)
from a list. Very few pupils, including those gaining level 7, were able to identify the
energy changes in (b)(ii).

Facility values
 
  Tier 3 – 6 Tier 5 – 7

Item Omit (%) Facility Omit (%) Facility

(a)   (i)  1 32 0.09 2 0.30

            2 30 0.40 3 0.80

       (ii) 16 0.49 1 0.66

(b)   (i) 28 0.12 1 0.44

       (ii) 35 0.02 3 0.13

Facility values by level

  Tier 3-6 Tier 5-7

Item Level 3 Level 4 Level 5 Level 6 Level 5 Level 6 Level 7

(a)   (i)  1 0.04 0.03 0.11 0.11 0.11 0.28 0.55

            2 0.09 0.27 0.51 0.69 0.62 0.78 0.89

       (ii) 0.44 0.55 0.58 0.62 0.57 0.67 0.90

(b)   (i) 0.02 0.08 0.16 0.41 0.23 0.42 0.79

       (ii) 0.02 0.03 0.02 0.05 0.05 0.09 0.35

Q13.
Sc1/Sc2     6 marks      Facility: 0.45

Page 47 of 53
 Part (a) discriminated well between Levels 5 and 6, with 23% and 65% respectively
gaining the mark. Most pupils at the target level at above could identify a controlled
variable from the information in the question.

Again, part (b) discriminated fairly well between Levels 5 and 6. Most of those giving a
correct response referred to reliability, certainty or accuracy of the investigation. Incorrect
answers often made reference to fair testing.

Part (c) discriminated between all levels, with the facility at the target level being very
good. Very similar numbers gave each of the two correct answers.

The percentages giving the correct independent variable for part (d) increased from 21%
at Level 5 to 53% at Level 6 and 77% at Level 7.

Part (e) was well answered by many pupils, 56% overall gaining the mark, usually by
referring to differences in soil.

Part (f) proved difficult for most pupils, even at the target level. Most of those gaining the
mark said that different species would have different requirements, although at the higher
Levels some pupils also suggested that the presence of different species would stimulate
growth.

          Facilities by tier and level achieved

  5-7

Item 5 6 7

a .25 .59 .84

b .28 .47 .70

c .20 .48 .83

d .30 .52 .81

e .35 .52 .78

f .03 .08 .31

Q14.
Sc1        4 marks     Facility: 0.60

Around 60% of pupils were able to gain a mark through suggesting an appropriate
independent variable, ranging from 34% at Level 5 to 82% at Level 7.

The percentage of pupils successfully identifying the dependent variable ranged from 19%
at Level 5 to 79% at Level 7. Again most of those not gaining a mark did not attempt to
give a dependent variable, including over half of Level 5 pupils and 40% at Level 6. Many
pupils at all levels merely repeated the stem by suggesting that the dependent variable
was how long the flowers lasted. This was not creditworthy.

Page 48 of 53
 Most pupils were able to suggest an appropriate factor to control, the most popular being
the amount of water used. The amount of sunlight was also a fairly common answer.

The percentage of pupils identifying a suitable timescale for the investigation increased
from 38% at Level 5 to 64% at Level 6 and 82% at Level 7, with most correct responses
being a length of time greater than two weeks.

          Facilities by tier and level achieved

  5-7

Item 5 6 7

1 .37 .62 .82

2 .33 .57 .74

3 .50 .72 .85

4 .37 .64 .79

Q15.
The majority of pupils at Levels 6 and 7 gained the mark in part (a). Most of these gave an
answer specifically relating to the reaction shown, for example the magnesium displaces
the copper from the copper sulphate, with few pupils giving an more general answer, for
example the most reactive displaces the least reactive.

In part (b), around a quarter of those at Level 5 but nearly all at Level 7 were able to
predict whether a reaction would take place between the given reagents and give a
correct reason for their prediction.

Part (c)(i) proved difficult for pupils at all levels, with only a quarter of Level 7 pupils being
awarded the mark. The majority of pupils gave an answer that was inaccurate or not
detailed enough to be awarded the mark, for example react zinc with the other metals.

About 60% of pupils at Level 7 were able to explain how to use the results of their tests to
position zinc in the reactivity series in part (c)(ii). However, only about a quarter of those at
Level 6 could do this.

Q16.
At all levels most pupils answered part (a)(i) correctly, with most pupils answering correctly
at Level 3 choosing lemonade, and most pupils answering correctly at Level 6 choosing
fruit juice. The most frequently given incorrect answer was washing up liquid.

At all levels most pupils answered part (a)(ii) correctly, with pupils at all levels choosing
water more frequently than the answer milk.

At Level 4 and above most pupils answered part (b)(i) correctly, with 50% of Level 3 pupils
choosing a correct colour for the indicator. The most frequently given incorrect answer
was green, given by roughly 10% of pupils at each level.

In part (b)(ii), most pupils at all levels could explain how the diagram showed a gas was
produced.

Page 49 of 53
 The majority of pupils at Level 4 and above correctly chose neutralisation in part (c). At
Level 3 neutralisation was chosen most frequently, but roughly a quarter of pupils gave
each of the answers crystallisation and evaporation. Few pupils at any level chose the
answer condensation.

Q17.
Facility values
 
  Tier 3-6

  L3 L4 L5 L6

a1 0.74 0.94 0.99 1.00

a2 0.84 0.93 0.97 0.98

b1 0.69 0.88 0.92 0.95

b2 0.32 0.64 0.90 0.98

ci 0.47 0.81 0.94 0.98

cii 0.43 0.63 0.84 0.94

Q18.
Part (a) proved quite difficult for Level 3 pupils, only half of whom labelled both poles
correctly.

Part (b)(i) was answered correctly by the majority of Level 5 and Level 6 pupils. Roughly a
third of Level 4 pupils and roughly half of Level 3 pupils gave the answer attract. Very few
pupils at any level gave the answer cancel.

Part (b)(ii) was answered well by pupils at all levels, with 70% of pupils giving the answer
the shark moved up or it returned to its original position, and 5% of pupils giving the
answer the shark moved up and down.

Part (c) proved to be the easiest part of the question for pupils at Levels 5 and 6. Nearly
80% of pupils gave the correct answer decreased.

Part (d) was answered well by pupils at all levels, with 80% of pupils giving an answer that
was awarded the mark. Roughly 15% of Level 3 pupils and roughly 5% of Level 4 pupils
gave the answer it turned around.

Q19.
Facility values
 
  Tier 5-7

  L5 L6 L7

a1 0.28 0.54 0.79

Page 50 of 53
 a2 0.07 0.28 0.71

b 0.39 0.60 0.81

c 0.36 0.67 0.84

d1 0.13 0.22 0.50

d2 0.04 0.12 0.41

Q20.
In part (a) almost 90% of pupils at level 7 correctly identified steel as the alloy containing a
non-metal. Over 60% of pupils at level 6 also gained the mark. At level 5, about 40% of
pupils at level 5 incorrectly selected another alloy from the table, and about 20% chose an
element rather than an alloy. Some pupils chose stainless steel from the table, possibly
because they did not recognise either chromium or nickel as a metal.

For part (b) pupils were required to select two alloys that contained only two metals.
Pupils at levels 6 and 7 managed this well, with about 70% and 90%, respectively, gaining
the mark for brass and solder. Below level 6 the success rate decreased steadily with the
most common incorrect answer being steel.

In part (c) pupils were required to calculate that the alloy nichrome contained 80 g of
nickel. Nearly all pupils at levels 6 and 7, and most pupils at level 5 were awarded the
mark; the most common incorrect answer being 10 g.

Part (di) was the most difficult part of this question with only about a third of pupils at level
7 gaining the mark. Many answers at all levels were not specific enough to be awarded
the mark. A common insufficient answer was that bronze contained mostly copper. Other
incorrect answers referred to the action of zinc (it stops the metal rusting) or stated that
the metals in bronze do not react with oxygen.

In part (dii) pupils were required to recall that oxygen is required for rusting. Almost 90% of
pupils at level 7, more than 60% at level 6 and about 40% at level 5 gained the mark. The
most common incorrect answer was carbon dioxide, given by about a third of pupils at
level 5.

Facility values
 
  Tier 3-6 Tier5-7

  L3 L4 L5 L6 L5 L6 L7

a .04 .10 .31 .55 .42 .60 .80

b .04 .16 .37 .60 .43 .65 .84

c .04 .24 .59 .90 .70 .90 .99

di .07 .15 .18 .34 .17 .25 .38

dii .10 .23 .41 .63 .35 .60 .87

Page 51 of 53
Q21.
Part (a) proved difficult for Level 3 pupils, but was generally answered correctly by pupils
at Level 4 and above. More than 80% of all pupils correctly gave the answer metals in the
first blank space, and roughly 65% of pupils correctly gave the answer heat/thermal
energy in the second blank space. Roughly 5% of pupils – mostly pupils at Level 3 or 4 –
gave the incorrect answer magnet/magnetism in the second blank space.

Part (b) was answered well by pupils at all levels, with 70% of pupils at Level 3 being
awarded the mark. The most frequently given answer was iron nail, which was given by
roughly 80% of pupils. The answer steel paper-clip was given by less than 5% of pupils.
The incorrect answers copper bracelet and aluminium can were each given by between
5% and 10% of pupils. The incorrect answers silver earrings and gold ring were given by
very few pupils.

Part (c)(i) discriminated strongly, with less than 40% of pupils at Level 3, but virtually all
the pupils at Level 6 being awarded the mark. 40% of all pupils answered plastic or
named a suitable plastic and 30% of all pupils answered rubber. Roughly 5% of pupils –
mostly at Level 3 – gave the generic answer insulator.

Part (c)(ii) was answered less well than previous parts, with 55% of pupils giving the
correct answer shock and less than 5% of pupils giving the correct answer to stop the
wires touching. Roughly 5% of pupils at all levels gave the generic answer to insulate
them.

Part (d) was answered well by pupils at all levels, with 70% of pupils at Level 3 being
awarded the mark. Over 80% of pupils chose iron nail and steel paper-clip; the most
frequently chosen incorrect answer was steel paper-clip and aluminium can, chosen by
more than 10% of all pupils.

Page 52 of 53
Notes

Q4.
General characteristics of living things not in NC 2014

Q5.
Details of alleles, genotypes etc. not specifically mentioned in KS3 in NC 2014

Q7.
Fossils, and geological sequencing of rocks not in KS3 in NC 2014

Q8.
Simple solar system model and orbits not in NC 2014

Q9.
Fossils not in NC 2014

Q10.
Specialised cells not specifically mentioned in KS3 in NC 2014

Q17.
Simple solar system model and satellites not in NC 2014

Q20.
Rusting of iron/steel not specifically mentioned in KS3 in NC 2014

Q21.
Rusting of iron/steel not specifically mentioned in KS3 in NC 2014

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