Midterm 1 (Test 1-10)

Name, Surname
Introduction in Infectious Diseases
1. Infection is composed of the following factors:

a. Pathogen and host
b. Only pathogen
c. Pathogen, host and environment
2. The pathogenicity of pathogen is related to:

a. Invasiveness
b. virulent
c. Number of pathogen
d. Mutation (variability)
e. All of the above
3. Please describe what Infectivity is:

a. Ability of agent to cause infection
b. Severity of the disease after infection occurs.
c. Measured by case fatality rate or proportion of clinical cases that develop
severe
disease.
d. Ability of an organism to produce an immune response that provides protection
against reinfection with the same or similar agent
e. All of the above
4. Please describe what Immunogenicity is:

c. Measured by case fatality rate or proportion of clinical cases that develop severe
disease.
e. All of the above
5. Please describe what Virulence is:

c. Measured by case fatality rate or proportion of clinical cases that develop severe
disease.
e. All of the above
6. Which of the following is bacterial infection:

a. Diptheria
b. Influenza
c. HIV/AIDS
d. Herpes
e. Hepatitis A,B,C, D, E, F and G.
f. Measles.
7. Which of the following is viral infection:

a. Influenza
b. Tuberculosis
c. Scarlet Fever
d. Tetanus
e. Gonorrhea
f. Diptheria
g. Streptococcal Infections
8. How infectious diseases are transmitted:
a. Through the air

b. Through contaminated food or water
c. Through body fluids
d. By direct contact with contaminated objects
e. By animal vectors such as insects, birds, bats, etc.
f. All of the above
9. What is endemic infectious disease
a. The occurrence in an area of a disease or illness in excess of what may be expected

on the basis of past experience for a given population
b. A worldwide epidemic affecting an exceptionally high proportion of the global
population.
c. The constant presence of a disease or infectious agent within a given geographic
area.
10. What is epidemic
a. A worldwide epidemic affecting an exceptionally high proportion of the global

population.
b. The occurrence in an area of a disease or illness in excess of what may be expected
area.
11. What is pandemic infectious disease
a. A worldwide epidemic affecting an exceptionally high proportion of the global

population.
b. The occurrence in an area of a disease or illness in excess of what may be expected
area.
12. What is passive immunization
a. Methods of acquisition include natural maternal antibodies, antitoxins, and immune

globulins
b. Methods of acquisition include natural infection, vaccines and toxoids
c. Relatively permanent
d. All of the above
13. What is active immunization
a. Methods of acquisition include natural maternal antibodies, antitoxins, and immune

globulins
b. Protection transferred from another person or animal
c. Methods of acquisition include natural infection, vaccines and toxoids
d. All of the above
14. Which cells produce antibodies
a. B lymphocytes
b. T lymphocytes
c. Macrophages
d. All of the above
15. Which of the following modes of transmission is especially associated with areas
with poor sanitation?
a. Direct contact transmission

b. Indirect contact transmission
c. Food and waterborne transmission
d. Airborne transmission
16. During the incubation period:
a. the number of pathogens in an infected host has not yet reached the disease
threshold.
b. the number of pathogens in an infected host is above the disease threshold.
c. the number of pathogens in an infected host was previously above, but has now
dropped below the disease threshold.
d. the number of pathogens in an infected host may be above or below the disease
threshold, but during this period, the overall number of pathogens is constant.
17. If Gram-negative bacteria cause an infection of the blood, killing these bacteria rapidly
with an antibiotic might result in:
a. the release of exotoxin.

b. the release of peptidoglycan from the cell walls of these bacteria.
c. the release of tissue degrading enzymes by the bacteria.
d. the release of lipopolysaccharide by the bacteria.
18. What is the definition of Commensalism:
a) Both organisms benefit from living together

b) One organism benefits, the other is not affected
c) One organism benefits, the other is harmed
d) None of the above
19. What is the definition of Mutualism:

20. What is the definition of Parasitism:

21. What is Sporadic Disease:
a) When infections occur only occasionally

b) Many people acquire disease in short time period.
c) Worldwide epidemics
d) Percentage of population that contracts a disease in a given time period.
22. What is the disease incidence:
a) Percentage of population that has the disease during given time period.
b) Percentage of population that contracts a disease in a given time period (new cases).
c) Many people acquire disease in short time period.
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
23. What is the disease prevalence:
a) Percentage of population that has the disease during given time period.
b) Percentage of population that contracts a disease in a given time period (new
cases).
c) Many people acquire disease in short time period.
d) All of the above
24. Provide definition to elimination:
a) reduction to zero of cases in a defined geographic area

b) Absence of a disease is achieved and its absence can be sustained without ongoing
interventions
c) Both answers are correct
25. Provide definition to eradication:

a) reduction to zero of cases in a defined geographic area
b) Absence of a disease is achieved and its absence can be sustained without ongoing
interventions
c) Both answers are correct
26. What is a latent infectious disease:
a) Intermediate between acute and chronic.

b) Develops more slowly, and reactions are less severe.
c) Develops rapidly, but lasts a short time.
d) Causative agent remains inactive for a time, but then becomes active and produces
disease symptoms.
27. What is an acute infectious disease:

disease symptoms.
28. What is a chronic infectious disease:

disease symptoms.
29. Which of the following is correct for local Infection
a) Microbes are limited to small area of body

b) Microbes are spread throughout body by blood or lymph.
c) None of the above
30. What is incubation period:

a) Early, mild symptoms of disease
b)Time between initial infection and appearance of signs and symptoms
c) Signs and symptoms subside. Patient is vulnerable to secondary infections
d)Recovery. Body returns to predisease state.
31. What is Prodromal period:
a) Early, mild symptoms of disease

b) Time between initial infection and appearance of signs and symptoms
d) Recovery. Body returns to predisease state.
32. What is illness period:
a) Disease is most acute. Overt signs and symptoms. Patient immune system
actively fights off infection. If not successful may die at this stage.
b) Early, mild symptoms of disease
33. Which does not belong to non-specific immunity:
a) Complement,
b) Lysozyme,
c) Fibronectin,
d) Cytokines
e) Ext. barriers: skin , mucosa & their Secretion
f) Phagocytosis
g) Antibodies
34. Treatment and Prophylaxis of Bacterial Infections include:
a) INHIBITION OF CELL-WALL SYNTHESIS

b) INHIBITION OF PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
c) INHIBITION OF BACTERIAL METABOLISM
d) INHIBITION OF NUCLEIC ACID SYNTHESIS OR ACTIVITY
e) ALL OF THE ABOVE
35. Which laboratory method is a serology test:
a) microscopy
b) culture
c) staining
d) ELISA
36. Which of the following is correct for passive immunity:
a) Transfer of antibody produced by one human or other animal to another

b) Temporary protection (weeks – months)
c) Transplacental most important source in infancy
d) All of the above
37. What is an Active Immunity:
a) Protection produced by the person's own immune system and it is usually

permanent
b) Protection transferred from another person or animal
c) Temporary protection that diminishes with time
38. Active immunity produced by:
a) Vaccine
b) Antibiotics
c) Antibodies
d) All of the above
39. Live vaccines should not be administered to:
a) Healthy adults
b) Severely immunosuppressed persons
c) All of the above
40. Nucleic acid tests are used for:
a) to detect, and sometimes to quantify, specific pathogens in clinical specimens

b) to culture the pathogens
c) All of the above
Name, Surname
Tests on Influenza
1. Provide definition to Pandemic Influenza:
a) applies to the typical strains of influenza that cause worldwide disease in humans
annually
b) influenza viruses that predominantly affect birds; traditionally, these influenza
strains rarely infect humans
c) a novel influenza virus causing severe worldwide disease in humans.
2. Influenza virus proteins:
a) Genome has 5 segments, which encode 15 proteins

b) Genome has 9 segments, which encode 10 proteins
c) Genome has 8 segments, which encode 10 proteins
d) Genome has 11 segments, which encode 24 proteins
3. What is the function of Hemagglutinin:
a) hemagglutinin facilitates attachment of the virus to cell receptor

b) cleaves receptors, allowing viral release
c) helps virus for uncoating and entry to the nucleus
4. What is the function of Neuraminidase:
a) hemagglutinin facilitates attachment of the virus to cell receptor

b) cleaves receptors, allowing viral release
c) helps virus for uncoating and entry to the nucleus
5. Give the definition to Antigenic “drift”
a) editing mechanisms (RNA polymerase) allow for minor changes in the virus to occur
constantly
b) genetic re-assortment - Exchange of genes between avian and human influenza virus
that co-infects a human or pig creates a new strain, with the worst of human and
avian characteristics
c) All of the above
6. Give the definition to Antigenic “shift”

a) editing mechanisms (RNA polymerase) allow for minor changes in the virus to occur
constantly
b) genetic re-assortment - Exchange of genes between avian and human influenza virus
that co-infects a human or pig creates a new strain, with the worst of human and
avian characteristics
c) All of the above
7. Antigenic drifts can frequently occur with which of the following types of influenza viruses:
a) Influenza A
b) Influenza B
c) Influenza C
d) All of the above
8. What increases the possibility of antigenic shift in influenza virus?
a) The presence of neutralizing antibodies to influenza

b) The presence of herd immunity
c) The annual flu shot
d) Aerosol transmission of influenza
e) The simultaneous infection of one individual with two different strains of
influenza
Ans e
9. What is the classical clinical presentation of seasonal influenza
a) Abrupt onset of fever, headache, myalgias, and fatigue.

b) Respiratory symptoms of sore throat and non-productive cough
c) Symptoms usually last 2-5 days
d) All of the above
10. Which groups of population have increased risk of complications of Influenza:
a. Chronic cardiac or respiratory conditions

b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Elderly
d. Chronic renal disease
e. Immunosuppresion
f. Pregnancy
g. Children under one year of age
h. All of the above
11. Reye’s syndrome in Influenza infected persons is related to:
a) Aspirin
b) Steroids
c) Acyclovir
d) Interferon
e) Oseltamivir
12. The most common complication of seasonal influenza is:
a) Bacterial pneumonia
b) Death
c) Meningitis
d) Reye syndrome
13. Which family does influenza virus belong
a) Orthomyxoviridae
b) Flaviviridae
c) Pramixoviridae
d) Salmonella
14. Influenza virus has following proteins except
a) Nucleocapsid
b) Hemaglutinnin
c) Neuraminidase
d) Matrix (M1 and M2)
e) Necrotoxin
15. Which medications belong to M2 inhibitors:
a) Amantadine
b) Interferon
c) Oseltamivir
d) Zanamavir
e) All of the above
16. Zanamavir is:
a) Neuraminidase inhibitors
b) M2 inhibitor
c) All of the above
17. Clinical manifestation of adenoviral infection is:
a) respiratory illness
b) gastroenteritis
c) conjunctivitis
d) All of the above
18. Rhinovirus is a species of the
a) Picornaviridae family
b) Orthomyxoviridae family
c) Flaviviridae family
d) Pramixoviridae family
19. What is the clinical presentation of rinoviral infection?

a) Sneezing, Nasal Obstruction, Sore throat
b) Diarrhea, cough, vomiting
c) maculo-papular rash with high fever
d) Jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly
20. What is antiviral mediation for adenoviral infection?
a) Ribavirin
b) oseltamivir
c) Acyclovir
d) No specific treatment
COVID-19
Name
1. To which group of viruses the SARS-CoV-2 belongs?

2. Alpha coronavirus
3. Beta coronavirus
4. Gamma coronavirus
5. Delta coronavirus
2. Which one is correct?

1. First cases of COVID-19 were diagnosed in 2019 in Wuhan, China
2. COVID-19 transmission occurs by droplets and contact.
3. The majority of cases are infected through close contact with symptomatic patients.
4. People can be infected by aerosol while staying indoors for long periods of time.
5. All of above mentioned

1. SARS-CoV-2 uses the transmembrane ACE-2 receptor to invade the body.
2. SARS-CoV-2 uses CD4 receptor to invade the target cell.
3. COVID-19 rarely can be transmitted by blood.

1. SARS-CoV-2 survives for several days in the environment (max. 9 days). It survives for
30 minutes at 56C and 5 minutes at 70C.
2. The virus is sensitive to ultraviolet rays and high temperatures. Inactivated by universal
disinfectants (sodium hypochlorite, 75% ethanol, etc.).
3. Intermediate reservoir for SARS-CoV-2 is pangolin.
5. Which is NOT correct?

1. The incubation period for COVID-19, is, on average 5–6 days, but can be up to 14 days.
2. The incubation period for COVID-19, can be up to 28 days.
3. some infected persons can be contagious, from 1–3 days before symptom onset.
4. COVID-19 can be manifested as asymptomatic, mild, moderate and severe. Severe
infection – severe atypical pneumonia, ARDS, Sepsis and septic shock

1. Mild / moderate cases of COVID-19 occurs in about 80% of cases;
2. In 15% cases the disease is severe, and in 5% - very severe (critical).
3. Completely asymptomatic infection is very rare.
4. Most of COVID-19 patients have a poor prognosis.
7. Severe COVID-19 is characterized with: Severe atypical pneumonia, acute respiratory distress
syndrome, sepsis and septic shock.
 True
 False
8. Prognosis of COVID-19 is worse in old patients with comorbidities.

 True
 False
9. During COVID-19 induced pneumonia there is ground-glass opacities

 True
 False
10. Gold standard for laboratory diagnostic of COVID-19 is detection of RNA SARS-CoV-2 by
real-time PCR
 True
 False

1. Treatment tactics for patients with COVID-19 depend on the severity of the disease.
2. In severe cases, therapeutic measures include the maintenance / restoration of vital
organ functions.
3. Close monitoring of patients with SARI is necessary in terms of deterioration of
clinical signs (rapidly progressive respiratory failure and sepsis).

1. The use of dexamethasone is recommended in hospitalized patients with severe
respiratory complications COVID-19 who are on mechanical ventilation or require
oxygen supply.
2. The use of dexamethasone is recommended for all COVID-19 patients
3. Administration of corticosteroids to patients with sepsis is recommended if adequate
infusion and vasopressor therapy fail to stabilize hemodynamic parameters.

1. Based on the results of a recent systematic review recommended by WHO, the US CDC,
and the US FDA, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are safe for patients with
COVID-19 and may be prescribed as symptomatic therapy.
2. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs should not be used categorically in Patients with
COVID-19

1. The development of coagulopathy in patients with COVID-19, especially an increase in
D-dimer, is associated with a higher risk of thromboembolic complications and
mortality.
2. Timely initiation of anticoagulation therapy is of great importance in terms of survival of
patients with COVID-19.
3. Anticoagulation drugs should not be used categorically in Patients with COVID-19
15. Which is correct?

1. "Cytokine storm" is a physiological reaction of the body, during which the immune
system releases uncontrolled and excessive proinflammatory cytokines (IL-6)
system releases Interferon Gamma
system releases Tumor Necrosis Factor

 During COVID-19 Sudden release of excessive amounts of cytokines can lead to
polyorgan failure and even death.
 During COVID-19 , one of the most effective in the treatment of "cytokine storm" is a
specific monoclonal antibody against the IL-6 receptor, the drug tocilizumab (Actemra).
 During COVID-19 , one of the most effective in the treatment of "cytokine storm" is a
Pegilated Interferon alfa (Pegasys)

1. One of the most innovative approaches in the treatment of COVID-19 is to reduce the
amount of cytokines by plasmapheresis and /or extracorporeal "blood cleansing" using a
variety of filters and sorbents.
2. On April 9, 2020, the US FDA issued a permit to the so-called extracorporeal "blood
purification" method.
3. Plasmapheresis and / or extracorporeal "blood purification" using a variety of filters and
sorbents is permeated only for critically ill patients with COVID-19 over the age of 18
placed in the intensive care unit.
4. Plasmapheresis and / or extracorporeal "blood purification" using a variety of filters and
sorbents is permeated for all patients with COVID-19 over the age of 18.

1. U.S. FDA approved Remdesivir for the treatment of hospitalized COVID-19 patients.
2. For COVID-19 patients treatment is possible with a combination of 2 antiviral drugs.
3. It is not recommended to prescribe three or more antiviral drugs at the same time.
4. All patients with COVID-19 need antiviral treatment

1. All patients with COVID-19 need hospitalization
2. Patients with moderate to severe COVID-19 require hospitalization. However, in some
cases, at the discretion of the doctor, their treatment can be carried out at home.
3. Patients should be treated symptomatically, including in patients with fever - given
antipyretics.
4. Patients should be alerted to the possibility of disease exacerbation and aggravation
symptoms.
5. Patients should contact the clinic immediately upon the onset of these symptoms

1. Critically ill patients with COVID-19 should be placed in the intensive care unit as soon
as possible.
2. Therapeutic measures for critically ill patients include management of severe
complications: severe pneumonia, ARDS, cytokine release syndrome
3. Antibiotics should be used for all patients with COVID-19
4. Isolation of the patient with COVID-19 is essential to prevent transmission of the
infection.
Name, Surname
Salmonellosis
1. Which of the following correctly describes bacteria of the genus Salmonella:
a) Bacteria of the genus Salmonella are poorly adapted for growth in humans and cause a wide
spectrum of disease.
b) Bacteria of the genus Salmonella are highly adapted for growth in only animals and cause a
wide spectrum of disease.
c) Bacteria of the genus Salmonella are highly adapted for growth in both humans and
animals and cause a wide spectrum of disease.
2. Typhoid is also known as:

a) Pneumonic fever
b) Hepatic fever
c) Vesical fever
d) Enteric fever
3. In which organs can non-typhoidal Salmonella colonize:
a) Central nervous system

b) Blood stream
c) gastrointestinal tract
d) lymphoreticular system
e) All of the above
4. Typhoid fever is caused by:
a) Salmonella paratyphi
b) Salmonella typhi
c) E coli
d) Shigella
5. Salmonellae are:
a) gram positive, non-spore forming, facultatively anaerobic bacilli.

b) gram negative, spore forming, aerobic bacilli.
c) gram negative, non-spore forming, facultatively anaerobic bacilli.
6. Choose correct answer:
a) enteric fever is local disease

b) enteric fever is systematic disease
c) enteric fever is a disease with a very high lethality rate
7. Which geographical areas are endemic for typhoid fever:
a) North America
b) South America and Africa
c) West Europe
d) East Europe
8. The average incubation period of enteric fever is:
a) 50-100 days
b) 1 week
c) 25-30 days
d) 10-14 days
9. Rash element during enteric fever is:
a) Maculo-papula
b) Vesicula
c) Petechia
d) Rose-spot
10. What are specific complications of enteric fever
a) Heart failure
b) Gastroinestinal bleeding
c) paresis
d) Intestinal perforation
e) Gastroinestinal bleeding and Intestinal perforation
11. During enteric fever gastroinestinal bleeding and intestinal perforation is most
commonly occur:
a) In prodromal period
b) in the second week of illness
c) in the third and fourth weeks of illness
12. Most commonly non-typhoidal salmonellosis are caused by:
a) S. Bovis
b) S. typhi
c) S. typhimurium or S. enteritidis.
d) All of the above
13. The incidence of nontyphoidal salmonellosis (NTS) is highest during:
a) the dry season in tropical climates and during the colder months in temperate
climates
b) the rainy season in tropical climates and during the colder months in temperate
climates
c) the rainy season in tropical climates and during the warmer months in
temperate climates
14. Which of the following groups of population are at high risk of morbidity and mortality
associated with NTS:
a) elderly
b) infants
c) immunocompromised individuals
d) all of the above
15. What is transmission mode for NTS:
a) airborne
b) parenteral
c) sexual
d) food borne
16. Which is correct for NTS diarrhea:
a) Diarrhea resolves within 10-14 days and fever within 72 h.

b) Diarrhea resolves within 3–7 days and fever within 5 days.
c) Diarrhea resolves within 3–7 days and fever within 72 h.
17. What proportion of patients with NTS gastroenteritis develop bacteriemia:
a) More than 10% of patients

b) Up to 40% of patients
c) Up to 8% of patients
18. NTS meningitis most commonly develops among:
a) pregnant women
b) elderly persons
c) infants
d) all of the above
e)
19. NTS can cause infections of the following organs:
a) Urinary and genital tract

b) Bone, joint, and soft tissue
c) Central nervous system
d) lungs
e) All of the above
20. Antibiotics should not be used routinely to treat uncomplicated NTS gastroenteritis, due
to:
a) high rate of resistance

b) low effectivness
c) increased rates of relapse, prolonged gastrointestinal carriage and adverse drug
reactions.
Name, Surname
Shigellosis, Escherichiosis
1. Which is correct definition of shigellosis:
a) a clinical syndrome of fever, rare passage of small, non-bloody, mucopurulent stools

b) a clinical syndrome of fever, frequent passage of small, non-bloody, mucopurulent stools
c) a clinical syndrome of fever, frequent passage of small, bloody, mucopurulent stools
2. Which serovar of shigella is most common in developing countries:
a) Shigella sonnei
b) Shigella flexneri
c) Shigella boydii
d) Shigella dysenteriae
3. Which serovar of shigella produces a more serious disease than the other species:
a) Shigella sonnei
b) Shigella flexneri
c) Shigella boydii
d) Shigella dysenteriae
4. In which settings Shigella epidemics have often occurred throughout the history:
a) among soldier in campaigning armies

b) groups of pilgrimages
c) refugees in camps
d) all of the above
5. What is the incubation period of Shigellosis:

a) 6-10 days
b) 1-4 days
c) 2 weeks
6. Which treatment is needed for Shigellosis:
a) Antibiotic treatment
b) Rehydration and nutrition
c) Non-specific, symptom-based therapy
d) Treatment of complications
e) All of the above
7. Microscopic examination of stool in dysentery or inflammatory diarrhea shows::

a) fecal polymorphonuclear leukocytes
b) no fecal leukocytes
c) presence of enterotoxin
d) mild or no increase in fecal lactoferrin
8. ___________________ is recommended as first-line treatment of shigellosis.

a) Loperamide
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Erythromycin
d) Cefotaxime
9. Shigella causes:
a) Abdominal pain (Intestinal cramps) and bloody diarrhea
b) Abdominal pain without diarrhea
c) Watery diarrhea without fever and abdominal pain
d) "Rice-water" stools
10. Which serovar of shigella produces Shiga Toxin?

a) Shigella flexneri
b) Shigella boydii
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) Shigella sonnei
11. The most common complications of Shigellosis are, EXCEPT:
a) Toxic megacolon
b) Intestinal perforations
c) Rectal prolapse
d) Guillain-Barre Syndrome
12. The “gold standard” for the diagnosis of Shigella infection is:
a) The isolation and identification of the pathogen from fecal material
b) Mouse neutralization test
c) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISAs)
d) Electrochemiluminescent (ECL) test
13. Which serovar of shigella is associated with postinfectious immunologic complication known
as reactive arthritis (Reiter’s syndrome)?
a) Shigella flexneri
b) Shigella boydii
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) Shigella sonnei
14. The most common complication of Shigellosis is:

a) Neuropsychiatric symptoms
b) Toxic megacolon
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Liver failure
15. Which of the following E. coli strains produces Shiga toxin?

a) EPEC Enteropathogenic E. coli
b) ETECEnterotoxigenic Escherichia col
c) EHEC Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
d) EAEC Enteroaggregative Escherichia coli
16. In what part of the body is E. coli included in the normal microbiota?
a) Ear
b) Nasooropharynx
c) Large intestine
d) Gall bladder
17. What types of E. coli are associated with watery diarrhea?

a) ETEC
a) EIEC
b) EAEC
c) EHEC
18. What is the reservoir for Escherichia coli O157:H7?
a) Humans
b) Cattle
c) Soil
d) Wild rodents
e) Ameba
19. Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea EXCEPT:
a) Shigella Body
b) Vibrio cholerae
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Escherichia coli
20. A 25 year old student presents complaining of severe diarrhoea with blood and mucus, after
having eaten a hamburger. Which of the following food poisoning bacteria can cause acute
renal failure? Please select one of the following:
a) E.coli O157:H7
b) Salmonella paratyphi
c) Campylobacter jejuni
d) Both E.coli O157:H7 and Campylobacter jejuni
Name, Surname
Amebiais, Campylobacteriosis, Cl.Difficile
1. Inflammatory diarrhea caused by

a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Vibrio cholera
c. Clostridia botulinum
d. Rotavirus

a. Entamoeba histolytica is an anaerobic, Gram- positive bacillus;
b. Entamoeba histolytica exists in two forms – a cyst and a trophozoit;
c. Entamoeba histolitica forms spores;
d. All of the above
3. Choose correct answer for Amebiasis:

a. Humans are the principal reservoir of infection;
b. Transmission route is fecal-oral;
c. Amebiasis is most common in the tropics, subtropics and other areas with crowded
living conditions and poor sanitation.
d. All of the above
4. At risk of severe amebiasis are:

a. Immunocompromised persons
b. People with hypertonic disease
c. Adolescents
d. None of them
5. The most common type of amebic infection is

a. Symptomatic amebic colitis;
b. Asymptomatic cyst passage;
c. Amebic liver abscess;
d. Fulminant intestinal infection
6. Typical complication of amebiasis is:

a. Chronic diarrhea
b. Megacolon
c. Intestinal perforation
d. All of the above
7. Medication for Amebiasis treatment is:

a. Trimethoprim / Sulfamethoxazole
b. Tinidazole
c. Fluconazole
d. Itraconazole
8. Campylobacter is:
a. Anaerobic, Gram- positive, spore- forming, toxin-producing bacillus;
b. Motile, curved gram-negative rod;
c. Protozoa
d. None of them

a. Campylobacteriosis is the zoonotic infection
b. Campylobacters are common commensals in the GI tract of many food animals and
household pets.
c. The main transmission route is fecal-oral with ingestion of raw of undercooked food
products.
d. All of the above
10. The most common complication of Campylobacteriosis is:

a. Liver failure
b. Guillain-Barre syndrome
c. Rays syndrome
d. Hypovolemia
11. The average incubation period of Campylobacteriosis is:

a. 2-4 days
b. 2-4 weeks
c. 2-4 months
d. None of them
12. Clinical manifestation is Campylobacteriosis is :

a. Watery diarrhea without fever;
b. Diarrhea with blood, mucus and leukocytes containing stools;
c. Fever, cramping, abdominal pain;
d. Correct answer is b and c;
e. Correct answer is a and b.
13. Choose incorrect answer:

a. Most cases of campylobacteriosis are self-limited;
b. Erythromycin or ciprofloxacin may be prescribed in severe dysenteric disease;
c. Infective organisms may be excreted in the stool for 3 weeks after resolution of diarrhea;
d. There is an effective vaccine
14. Choose incorrect answer

a. Cl. difficile is the frequent cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea;
b. Patients with C. difficile carriage are a reservoir for environmental contamination;
c. Prompt initiation of specific therapy for Cl.difficile is not recommended;
d. C. difficile is highly transmissible via fomites.
15. Risk factor for of Cl. difficile infection is:

a. Eating home-canned vegetables;
b. Antibiotic treatment
c. Ingestion of water contaminated with spores of Cl. difficile.
d. All of the above.
16. Clinical manifestation of Cl. difficile infection is:

a. Asymptomatic
b. Diarrhea or pseudomembranous colitis
c. Fulminant colitis
d. All of the above
17. Treatment of non-severe Cl. difficile infection:

a. Metronidazole (500mg tds PO for 10 days)
b. Vancomycin (125mg qds PO for 10– 14 days).
c. Doxycycline (100mg every 12 hours PO 30 days)
d. Ceftriaxone (1 gr every 12 hours i/v 7 days)
18. Treatment of severe Cl. difficile infection:

a. Metronidazole (500mg tds PO for 10 days);
b. Vancomycin (125mg qds PO for 10– 14 days);
c. Doxycycline (100mg every 12 hours PO 30 days);
d. Ceftriaxone (1 gr every 12 hours i/v 7 days)
19. Acute Diarrhea is:

a. An episode of diarrhea of < 14 days in duration.
b. An episode of diarrhea > 14 days in duration.
c. Diarrhea that lasts for >30 days duration.
d. None of them.
20. Choose incorrect answer - Clinical manifestation of Yersiniosis is:

a. Mesenteric adenitis;
b. Terminal ileitis;
c. Colitis
d. Septicemia
Name, Surname
Cholera
1. Why is the infectious dose of Vibrio cholerae so high?

a) Because the organism has no virulence factors.
b) Because the organisms must invade all the cells at the mucosa of the duodenum and jejunum.
c) Because most are killed by the acidic environment in the stomach.
d) Because the organism is not spread person-to-person.
e) Because most are killed by lysozyme in saliva.
2. Cholera toxin increases the activity of what enzyme in human intestinal cells?
a) DNase
b) Coagulase
c) adenylate cyclase
d) cGMP
3. Cholera is caused by a:
a) Bacterium
b) Virus
c) Fungus
d) Protozoa
4. The most characteristic symptom of cholera is:

a) High fever
b) Watery diarrhea
c) Headache
d) Persistent cough
5. Cholera is spread through:

a) Bite of female Anopheles mosquito
b) Bite of female Culex mosquito
c) Through contaminated water
d) Through the cough droplets from an infected person
6. Signs of dehydration include:
a) Dry skin
b) High blood pressure
c) Raised fontanelles in children
d) All of the above
7. The stool of a cholera patient resembles:

a) Anchovy sauce
b) Rice water
c) Apple jelly
8. People at risk of developing cholera include:

a) People with normal immunity
b) People with blood group O
c) Young adults
9. Short incubation period, "rice-water" stools, and copious watery diarrhea are the hallmark of
infection by this organism, which kills up to half of untreated patients.
a) Clostridium difficile
b) Vibrio cholera
c) Yersinia entercolitica
d) Cryptosporidium
10. Cholera is caused by a bacteria known as:

a) Clostridium botulinum
b) AscarisLumbricoides
c) Vibrio Cholera
d) SalomonellaTyphi
11. Rice water stools are characteristic of diarrhea caused by:

a) S. aureus
b) E. coli
c) V. cholera
d) C. Botulinum
12. Cholera toxin:

a) Increases the levels of intracellular cylic GMP
b) Acts through the opoid receptors
c) Causes continued activation of adenylatecyclase
d) lnhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase
13. Viral gastroenteritis can be caused by the:

a) Influenza virus
b) Rotavirus
c) Herpes Zoster
d) Parvovirus
14. Etiological agents for viral gastroenteritis are:

a) Norovirusis
b) Rotaviruses
c) Astroviruses
d) All of the above
15. Choose incorrect answer for viral gastroenteritis:

a) Reservoir of infection is Human
b) Asymptomatic infection is common.
c) Diagnostic tests are used primarily for the purpose of identifying the cause of an outbreak,
rather than an individual case.
d) There is the special antiviral treatment
16. The most common type of Giardia infection is:

a) Asymptomatic carriage
b) Fulminant diarrhea
c) Malabsorption
d) All of the above
17. Choose correct answer for Giardiasis:

a) Metronidazole is the first line regimen;
b) One sample is enough for diagnosis of Giardiasis
c) Most common type of Giardia infection is fulminant diarrhea
d) There is not specific anti-parasitic treatment.
18. The most common clinical course of cryptosporidiosis in immunocompromised patients is:
a) Asymptomatic carriage
b) Profuse and chronic diarrhea with severe dehydration, weight loss and wasting;
c) Bloody diarrhea with abdominal pain, cramps, tenesmus.
d) None of the above.
19. There is vaccination against:

a) Norovirus
b) Rotavirus
c) Astrovirus
d) Rinovirus
20. Non-inflammatory diarrhea characterized with:

a) Proximal small bowel location
b) Watery diarrhea
c) Negative lactoferrin test
d) All of the above
Infectious Mononucleosis
1. Which is the correct answer? Human herpesvirus HHV-4 causes:
1. Burkitt’s lymphoma
2. Hodgkin’s disease
3. B cell lymphoma.
4. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
5. Oral hairy leukoplakia
6. All of the above
2. Which is the correct answer? Which disease is caused by HHV-4

1. Infectious Mononucleosis
2. Genital herpes
3. Retinitis
4. Sarcoma Kaposi's
5. Meningoencephalitis
3. Which is the correct answer?

1. There is some risk between EBV infection and the development of dermatomyositis
2. There is some risk between EBV infection and the development of systemic lupus erythematosus
3. There is some risk between EBV infection and the development of rheumatoid arthritis
4. There is some risk between EBV infection and the development of multiple sclerosis
5. All of the above mentioned
4. Which is not correct answer?

1. Infectious mononucleosis is a disease most often found in teenagers.
2. > 90% of adults are infected with Ebstein-Barr virus and have anti-viral antibodies.
3. The Epstein-Barr virus is predominantly sexually transmitted.

1. The Ebstein-Barr virus is characterized by outbreaks (epidemics and etc.)
2. Ebstein Barr virus is characterized by high contagiousness
3. EBV is spread by contact with oral secretions (via saliva)
6. Which is not correct ?

1. EBV can be transmitted by bone marrow transplantation.
2. The incidence of infectious mononucleosis is high in the age group of 15-19 years.
3. Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by the presence of heterophile antibodies in the blood.
4. All answers are correct

1. Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by: fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy, atypical
lymphocytosis.
2. The site of invasion of the Ebstein Barr virus is the epithelium of the oropharynx and the
salivary glands.
3. The Epstein-Barr virus enters the body from the digestive tract.

1. During infectious mononucleosis, the virus replicates in hepatocytes.
2. During infectious mononucleosis, the virus replicates in neuronsი
3. During infectious mononucleosis, the virus replicates in B lymphocytes

1. The Epstein-Barr virus invades target cells via CD21.
2. The incubation period for IM in adults is approximately 4-6 weeks
3. During IM, in young children, the prodromal period is shorter than in adults.
4. Infectious mononucleosis is much easier in immunocompromised patients.
5. Infectious mononucleosis is much milder in immunocompromised patients.
10. What type of rash can develop during infectious mononucleosis

1. Vesicular rash
2. Petechial rash
3. Spotted rash
4. Urticarial rash
5. None of above

1. The liver is not damaged during infectious mononucleosis
2. Thrombocytopenia may be present in the blood during infectious mononucleosis
3. The number of eosinophils increases in the blood during infectious mononucleosis.
4. Anemia is typical for infectious mononucleosis
12. Diagnostically valuable during infectious mononucleosis is:

1. Detection of heterophile antibodies
2. Detection atypical lymphocytes.
3. Detection of IgM antibody to VCA
4. All of the above

1. Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by high lethality
2. One of the complications of infectious mononucleosis is upper airway obstruction
3. There is no chance of developing fulminant hepatitis during mononucleosis

1. Oral hairy leukoplakia mainly develops in the elderly
2. Oral hairy leukoplakia mainly develops in children
3. Oral hairy leukoplakia is an early manifestation of HIV infection
15. . Which is the correct answer?

1. There is no antiviral treatment for infectious mononucleosis
2. Valacyclovir is used to treat infectious mononucleosis
3. Interferon group drugs are used to treat infectious mononucleosis

1. Corticosteroids are used in severe course of infectious mononucleosis
2. Symptomatic treatment is used to treat infectious mononucleosis
3. During infectious Mononucleosis supportive care involves resting and drinking plenty of fluids.
4. All of the above
17. Which formulation is incorrect for infectious mononucleosis

1. Cellular immunity is more important than humoral immunity in controlling EBV
infection.
2. If T cell immunity is compromised, EBV-infected B cells may begin to proliferate and it
is a step toward neoplastic transformation
3. Humoral immunity is more important than Cellular immunity in controlling EBV
infection
18. Choose correct answer. During infectious mononucleosis:

1. Lymphadenopathy and pharyngitis are most prominent during the first 2 weeks of the
illness
2. splenomegaly is more prominent during the second and third weeks
3. Fever is usually low-grade and is most common in the first 2 weeks of the illness
4. All of the above are correct
19. Which answer is NOT correct for infectious mononucelosis:

1. During Infectious Mononucleosis Pharyngitis, can be accompanied by enlargement of
the tonsils with an exudate
2. Lymphadenopathy most often affects the posterior cervical nodes but may be
generalized.
3. Pharyngitis and lymphadenopathy are not present during infectious mononucelosis
20. Which of the following is not a complication of infectious mononucleosis:

1. Splenic rupture,
2. CNS complications (meningitis, encephalitis)
3. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
4. Fulminant hepatitis
5. pneumonia with pleural effusion,
6. severe diarrhea
Chickenpox
1. Which is correct answer?
1. Chickenpox is caused by HHV-3
2. Chickenpox is a highly contagious disease
3. Chickenpox is a benign disease of children
4. Chickenpox is a primary infection caused by the varicella zoster virus
2. It is typical for chickenpox

1. Vesicular rash
2. Erythematous rash
3. Spotted rash
4. Petechiae rash

1. During chickenpox, the virus infects dorsal root ganglia where it remains latent and establishes
lifelong residence (latent infection).
2. In case of recurrence of chickenpox, the disease is mild
3. Varicella-zoster virus genetic material represented by ribonucleic acid
4. Chickenpox is a disease of high lethality
4. Which is NOT correct answer?

1. Immunity is not strong after recovery from chickenpox
2. In temperate countries, chickenpox is more common in late winter and early spring.
3. Chickenpox cases are more common in children aged 5-9 years.
4. The incubation period of chickenpox ranges from 10 to 21 days
1. Prodromal symptoms during chickenpox are: nausea, loss of appetite, muscle pain, headache
2. During chickenpox, the symptoms start suddenly
3. Prodrom during chickenpox is shorter in children than in adults
4. Children with chickenpox may have no prodromal symptoms at all and the disease may start
directy with rash
8. Which is NOT correct answer?

6. The rash during chickenpox is characterized by pleomorphism
7. Chickenpox is characterized by a rash on the scalp at the beginning
8. During chickenpox, rash may be in the mouth, nose, ear, vagina and rectum
9. Chickenpox occurs in immunocompromised and immunocompetent individuals with
equal severity.
9. Which is correct answer? When is patient with Chickenpox infectious?

1. Patients are infectious ~ 48 h before onset of the vesicular rash, during the period of vesicle
formation (which generally lasts 4–5 days), and until all vesicles are crusted.
2. The patient is contagious one week before the onset of the rash and during the rash period.
3. The patient is contagious only during the rash period
10. Which is correct answer? Complication of chickenpox is:

1. Bacterial superinfection of the skin
2. Encephalitis
3. Virus-induced pneumonia
4. bleeding diatheses

1. Antiviral medication is not prescribed for chickenpox in children
2. Antiviral treatment is necessary in adults with chickenpox
3. Antiviral treatment should be started 24-48 hours after the onset of symptoms
12. What is used to prevent chickenpox?

1. Vaccine
2. Immunoglobulin
3. Antiviral medications
4. All of the above
13. . Which is correct about the chickenpox vaccine?

1. Chickenpox vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine
2. Genetically engineered vaccine
3. Contains a killed virus
14. Which is NOT correct about chickenpox immunoglobulin?

1. Used in individuals who do not have immunity, have a high risk of chickenpox
complications, and have had exposure.
2. Immunoglobulin should be used no later than 96 hours after exposure
3. Immunoglobulin should be used for a maximum of 7 days after exposure
Herpes Zoster
1. Which is not correct regarding herpes zoster
1. Shingles is the result of latent VZV virus reactivation
2. Herpes zoster is manifested by vesicular rash of dermatome localization
3. Herpes zoster is characterized by severe neuralgia
4. Shingles is most common in people aged 20-30 years
2. Which is NOT correct regarding herpes zoster

1. Shingles is not characterized by seasonality.
2. The disease is not found in the form of epidemics..
3. There is a strong association with aging.
4. Recurrent (recurrent) herpes zoster is common

1. All people who have had chickenpox are latently infected with VZV.
2. Subclinical reactivation of VZV during latency occurs permanently, but specific cellular
immunity ensures virus elimination.
3. Large-scale reactivation of latent VZV and clinical manifestations of the disease occur in
quantitative and functional deficiency of virus-specific cellular immunity
4. . Which is NOT correct regarding herpes zoster

1. Shingles usually ends in recovery
2. In both normal and immunocompromised hosts, the most debilitating complication
of herpes zoster is postherpetic neuralgia
3. Cases of recurrence of the disease are not found in immunocompetent individuals
4. Recurrent herpes zoster may occur in immunocompromised individuals
6. Which is correct regarding herpes zoster

1. Infection from patients with herpes zoster is transmitted to seronegative individuals, with
subsequent development of chickenpox.
2. Infection from patients with herpes zoster is transmitted to seronegative individuals, with
subsequent development of herpes zoster.
3. Shingles is more severe in young people than in older people.
5. Which is correct regarding herpes zoster
1. In herpes zoster, the rash develops on one side of the body (unilaterally) and does not
cross the midline.
2. The sensation of pain during herpes zoster often precedes the rash.
3. In a few patients, characteristic localization of pain to a dermatome with serologic
evidence of herpes zoster has been reported in the absence of skin lesions.
4. Dermatomes from T3 to L3 are most often affected during herpes zoster.

1. In Ramsey Hunt syndrome, varicella zoster virus spreads from the facial nerve to the
vestibulocochlear nerve.
2. In Ramsay-Hunt syndrome, the varicella zoster virus spreads from the facial nerve to the optic
nerve.
3. During Ramsay-Hunt syndrome, the patient may develop rotational dizziness.
8. Which is NOT correct ? Complication of herpes Zoster is:
1. Meningoencephalitis
2. Granulomatous angiitis
3. Transverse myelitis with motor paralysis
4. Postherpetic neuralgia
5. Hepatitis
9. Which is NOT correct ? Antiviral drug for Herpes Zoster is:

1. Acyclovir
2. Valacyclovir
3. Famciclovir
4. Sofosbuvir
Measles and Rubella

Ebeneza Cheriyan
1. Which is NOT correct for Measles?
1. Measles belongs to the Paramyxoviridae family.

2. measles virus is considered to be an antigenically monotypic virus
3. viral surface hemagglutinin and membrane fusion protein are responsible for host cell binding
and invasion.
4. Measles virus typically have high mutation rates,
1. There are no latent or persistent measles virus infections

2. In temperate climates, annual measles outbreaks typically occur in the late winter and early
spring.
3. Measles transmission is common among household contacts, school-age children, and health care
workers
4. Latent measles virus infections is common
3. Which is correct? Measles Virus is communicable (transmissible)
1. Persons with measles are infectious 3-5 days before the rash and remains communicable up to
days after the appearance of rash
2. During the prodromal period
3. During first week after the virus infects human
4. Only during the rash period
4. Which of the following is correct for Measles:

1. Lifelong Immunity is produced after recovery from Measles
2. Chronic forms of disease are frequent
3. Disease is spread though fecal-oral route
4. Currently there is no vaccine against Measles
5. Measles infect only children

1. The Measles is an airborne disease.
2. The virus spreads easily through the coughs and sneezes.
3. It may also be spread through contact with saliva or nasal secretion.
4. The virus can be spread through blood transfusions

1. Incubation period of Measles is 8-10 days after exposed to the virus.
2. Prodromal period lasts 2-4 days and is marked by fever (39-40 C), malaise, cough, coryza,
conjunctivitis and pharyngitis
3. Koplik’s spots develops during the rash period
4. Koplik’s spots develops on the buccal mucosa
7. What type of rash occurs with measles?

1. Erythematous maculopapular rash
2. Vesicular rash
3. Petechial rash
4. Urticarial rash
5. Spotted rash
8. Which of the following is used for prophylaxis of Measles?

1. Live Attenuated vaccine
2. Inactivated/Killed vaccine
3. Genetically engineered vaccine
4. There is no vaccine for Measles.
9. Which is NOT correct? During Measles a differential diagnosis should be made

1. With rubella,
2. With Kawasaki disease,
3. With infectious mononucleosis,
4. With scarlet fever,
5. With viral hepatitis

1. Vitamin A is effective for the treatment of measles
2. One of the methods for measles prophylaxis is passive immunization by specific Measles
immunoglobulin
3. Administration of immunoglobulin within 72 h of exposure usually prevents measles infection.
4. There is no prophylactic vaccine against measles
11. Which is not a complication of measles

1. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)
2. bacterial infections: Otitis media and bronchopneumonia
3. Central nervous system complications: encephalomyelitis
4. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
5. Fulminant hepatitis
12. Which family Rubella virus belongs to:

1. Paramyxoviridae;
2. Picornaviridae;
3. Reoviridae;
4. Herpesviridae.
5. Togaviridae
13. Which is NOT correct for Rubella?

1. Rubella can cause miscarriage or serious births defects in an developing baby
2. During Rubella disease is often so mild that half of people not realizing that they are sick
3. Rubella is highly contagious viral infection
4. There is no vaccine for Rubella.

1. Friedrich Hoffmann made the first clinical description of rubella in 1740
2. Rubella virus is a member of the Togaviridae family
3. Rubella virus is enveloped and has a single-stranded DNA
4. Humans are the only known reservoir for Rubella virus
5. The envelope of Rubella virus has spike-like projections containing two glycoproteins, E1
and E2.

1. Rubella is more severe in children than in adults
2. 2 forms of rubella exists: Acquired rubella and Congenital rubella
3. The most serious consequence of rubella can develop when a woman becomes infected
during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester.
16. Rubella virus during pregnancy can cause:
1. miscarriage (Spontaneous abortion
2. fetal death
3. premature delivery
4. live birth with congenital defects.
17. Classical triad of congenital rubella includes:
1. Cataract, cardiac abnormalities, deafness

2. Cataract, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly
3. Cataract, pneumonia, hydrocephaly
4. Cataract, jaundice, diarrhea
18. Which of the following is correct for Rubella?
1. Rash begins on the face and spreads to the trunk and then the arms and legs
2. Rash firstly appears on trunk and then spreads to different places
3. Rash healing starts from lower limbs
4. None of the above are correct
19. Which of the following is correct for Rubella?
1. No specific therapy is available for rubella virus infection.

2. Various antiviral drugs are used for the treatment of Rubella
3. Only specific immunoglobulin is used for the treatment of Rubella
4. Antibiotics are used for the treatment of Rubella

1. The Rubella tends to peak during the spring in countries with temperate climates
2. Routine rubella vaccination programs does not exist
3. Rubella virus is spread from person to person via respiratory droplets.
4. Rubella virus replicates in lymphoid tissue and spreads via lymphatic system leading to
viraemia and systemic infection.

Midterm 1 (Test 1-10)

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Midterm 1 (Test 1-10)

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Name, Surname

Introduction in Infectious Diseases

1. Infection is composed of the following factors:

2. The pathogenicity of pathogen is related to:

3. Please describe what Infectivity is:

4. Please describe what Immunogenicity is:

5. Please describe what Virulence is:

6. Which of the following is bacterial infection:

7. Which of the following is viral infection:

8. How infectious diseases are transmitted:

a. Through the air

9. What is endemic infectious disease

a. The occurrence in an area of a disease or illness in excess of what may be expected

10. What is epidemic

a. A worldwide epidemic affecting an exceptionally high proportion of the global

11. What is pandemic infectious disease

a. A worldwide epidemic affecting an exceptionally high proportion of the global

a. Methods of acquisition include natural maternal antibodies, antitoxins, and immune

a. Methods of acquisition include natural maternal antibodies, antitoxins, and immune

a. Direct contact transmission

16. During the incubation period:

a. the release of exotoxin.

18. What is the definition of Commensalism:

a) Both organisms benefit from living together

19. What is the definition of Mutualism:

a) Both organisms benefit from living together

20. What is the definition of Parasitism:

a) Both organisms benefit from living together

21. What is Sporadic Disease:

a) When infections occur only occasionally

22. What is the disease incidence:

23. What is the disease prevalence:

24. Provide definition to elimination:

a) reduction to zero of cases in a defined geographic area

25. Provide definition to eradication:

26. What is a latent infectious disease:

a) Intermediate between acute and chronic.

27. What is an acute infectious disease:

a) Intermediate between acute and chronic.

28. What is a chronic infectious disease:

a) Intermediate between acute and chronic.

29. Which of the following is correct for local Infection

a) Microbes are limited to small area of body

30. What is incubation period:

31. What is Prodromal period:

a) Early, mild symptoms of disease

32. What is illness period:

33. Which does not belong to non-specific immunity:

34. Treatment and Prophylaxis of Bacterial Infections include:

a) INHIBITION OF CELL-WALL SYNTHESIS

35. Which laboratory method is a serology test:

36. Which of the following is correct for passive immunity:

a) Transfer of antibody produced by one human or other animal to another

37. What is an Active Immunity:

a) Protection produced by the person's own immune system and it is usually

38. Active immunity produced by:

39. Live vaccines should not be administered to:

40. Nucleic acid tests are used for:

a) to detect, and sometimes to quantify, specific pathogens in clinical specimens

2. Influenza virus proteins:

a) Genome has 5 segments, which encode 15 proteins

3. What is the function of Hemagglutinin:

a) hemagglutinin facilitates attachment of the virus to cell receptor

4. What is the function of Neuraminidase: