[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “OBSTETRICS” Questions

1. A 25-year-old woman attends for her A. Corpus luteum cyst

pregnancy dating scan. She is unsure of B. Dermoid cyst
the date of her last menstrual period. The C. Endometrioma
following fetal measurements are D. Fimbrial cyst
obtained:
• Crown–rump length 86 mm 6. Transvaginal ultrasound report: single
• Biparietal diameter 18 mm intrauterine gestational sac, fetus present
• Head circumference 100 mm with crown–rump length 8 mm, fetal
• Femur length 12 mm heart beat absent what is the diagnosis?
• Abdominal circumference 67 mm A. Missed abortion
Which of these measurements should be B. Septic abortion
used to date the pregnancy? C. Complete abortion
A. Abdominal circumference D. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
B. Biparietal diameter
C. Crown–rump length 7. The serum BhCG of a symptomless
D. Femur length woman with a pregnancy of unknown
location (PUL) has dropped by more than
2. With regard to the routine anomaly scan 50% after 48 hours.
in pregnancy, what threshold of nuchal What is the next step you advise?
fold measurement should trigger a A. Ask her to submit a urine pregnancy
referral to a fetal medicine specialist? test after 14 days if she stays
A. 6 mm asymptomatic.
B. 7 mm B. Discharge her home.
C. 8 mm C. Repeat the BhCG after another 48
D. 3 mm hours.
D. Request a cancer antigen (CA-125)
3. What is the optimum method of screening blood test.
for chromosomal abnormality in a
monochorionic twin pregnancy at 13 8. Patient age 31year old g3p2l2 diagnosed
weeks of gestation? by ectopic pregnancy in left tube with size
A. Amniocentesis of the mass of 4cm and positive FHR.
B. Combined screening test Patient has mild lower abdominal pain,
C. Non-invasive prenatal testing what is the management?
D. Quadruple test A. Serial bhCG monitoring
B. Left salphingectomy
4. From which gestational age is cell-free C. Left salphingotomy
fetal DNA present in reliably measurable D. Inj. methotrexate im
levels for aneuploidy screening?
A. 8 weeks 9. A twenty years old woman has been
B. 10 weeks brought to casualty with BP 70/40 mm Hg,
C. 12 weeks pulse rate 120/min. and a positive urine
D. D.14 WEEKS pregnancy test. She should be managed
by:
5. A woman is found to have an adnexal cyst A. Immediate laparotomy
at her 20-week anomaly scan. What is the B. Laparoscopy
most common type of adnexal cystic C. Culdocentesis
lesion diagnosed at this gestation? D. Resuscitation and medical
management

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10. All of the following are features of ovarian
pregnancy except?
A. Fetal sac must occupy position of
ovary
B. The fallopian tube on the affected side
must be intact
C. The ovary must be connected to pelvic
wall by IP ligament
D. Ovarian tissue must be in sac wall
11. A couple who have three consecutive
miscarriages have come to see you. For
advice after having a thrombophilia
screen. The result showed that she was
positive to one of the antiphospholipid
antibodies. Which of the following is an
antiphospholipid antibody?
A. Anti-B2-glycoprotein-1 antibody
B. Anti-B1-glycoprotein-1 antibody
C. Anti-B2-glycoprotein-2 antibody
D. Anti-B2-glycoprotein-3 antibody
12. A women with 20 weeks pregnancy
presents bleeding per vaginum. On
speculum examination, os is open but no
products have come out. The diagnosis is?
A. Missed abortion
B. Incomplete abortion
C. Inevitable abortion
D. Complete abortion
13. A lady presented with 7 weeks
amenorrhea presented with slight vaginal
spotting, CRL was 6 mm with well-formed
gestational sac with calculated GA of 5, 6
weeks on TVS. Next line of management?
A. Wait for another 1 week and repeat TVS
B. Surgical or medical evacuation
C. Wait for another 4 weeks
D. Serum hCG levels
14. Mc karyotype for partial mole?
A. 69 xyy
B. 69 xxy
C. 69 xxx
D. 46 xx
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15. The treatment of choice for hydatiform
mole with a uterine size of 28 weeks is:
A. Suction evacuation
B. Intra–amniotic saline followed by
oxytocin
C. Evacuation by misoprostol and
mifepristone
D. Methotrexate administration
16. Which of the following endocrinological
condition may be associated with
hydatidiform mole?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Diabetes
D. Hyperprolactinemia
17. Most common cause of abortion:
A. Ovofetal factor
B. Maternal hypoxia
C. Uterine fibroid
D. Cervical incompetence
18. A 28-year-old woman presents to the
labour ward with a premature rupture of
membranes at 24 weeks of gestation.
Abdominal examination reveals an
absence of contractions and a speculum
examination reveals a 2 cm dilated
posterior cervix?
A. Abdominal cerclage
B. Cerclage for women with cervical
trauma
C. Cervical cerclage contraindicated
D. Cervical cerclage plus progesterone
vaginal pessaries
19. A 34-year-old woman at 7 weeks of
gestation is sent to the early pregnancy
assessment unit by her general
practitioner. Her ultrasound scan
confirms a missed miscarriage. She has
multiple large fibroids.?
A. Mifepristone
B. Suction and evacuation
C
. Misoprostol followed by mifepristone
D. Mifepristone followed by misoprostol
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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “OBSTETRICS” Questions

20. Identify: long history of secondary infertility. She

had a spontaneous vaginal delivery at
term 8 years ago, and started trying to
conceive again soon after. She was
investigated a year ago and found to have
polycystic ovarian syndrome and was
therefore commenced on clomifene
citrate. This was her third cycle, her last
menstrual period started 45 days ago and
she had a positive pregnancy test 4 days
ago?
A. Karman Cannula
B. Manual Vaccum AspirationSyringe
C. Menstrual RegulationSyringe
D. Hegars Dilator

21. In a case of recurrent spontaneous

abortion, following investigation is
unwanted:
A. Hysteroscopy
B. Testing antiphospholipid antibodies
C. Testing for TORCH infections
D. Thyroid function tests A. Ectopic Pregnancy
B. Complete Mole
22. A 28 years old female with a history of 8 C. Partial Mole
weeks amenorrhoea complains of vaginal D. Dichorionic Diamniotic Twins
bleeding and lower abdominal pain. On
USG examination there is gestational sac 25. Identify the anomaly based on the image
with absent fetal parts. The diagnosis is: below:
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Incarcerated abortion
C. Threatened abortion
D. Corpus luteum cyst

23. Most valuable diagnostic test in a case of

suspected ectopic pregnancy:
A. Serial b-hCG levels
B. Transvaginal USG
C. Prosgesterone measurement
D. Culdocentesis
A. Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
24. A 40-year-old woman presents with left B. Monochorionic diamnioticpregnancy
iliac fossa pain in pregnancy. The pain is C. Monochorionic monoamniotic
intermittent and cramping. She has had pregnancy
difficulty sleeping because of the pain, but D. Dichorionic diamnioticpregnancy
has not taken any analgesia, as she is
afraid that this may affect the baby. There
is no vaginal bleeding. The woman has a

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26. Placenta succenturiata may have all 29. What is the diagnosis?

A. True gest sac

1. Preterm delivery B. Pseudo sac
2. PPH C. Double decidual sign
3. Missing lobe D. Ectopic pregnancy
4. Sepsis and subinvolution
Select the correct answer from the given 30. Identify structure 8
below code:
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 3,1,4

27. A pregnant woman is found to have

excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid.
Such polyhydramnios is likely to be
associated with all of the following A. Decidua capsularis
conditions except: B. Decidua parietalis
A. Twinning C. Decidua vera
B. Microencephaly D. Chorionfrondosum
C. Oesophageal atresia
D. Bilateral renal agenesis 31. What is the diagnosis of following?

28. What are maternal physiological changes

in pregnancy:
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Increased tidal volume
C. Increased vital capacity
D. Decreased plasma protein
concentration

A. Circumvallete placenta
B. Circummarginate placenta
C. VASA PREVIA
D. Velamentous placenta

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32. A 32 year old had blood pressure of 150
/100 at 32 weeks of gestation, there is
headache or blurring of vision, proteinuria
of 1 + seen. Her bp before pregnancy is
110/70 mmhg. What is the diagnosis?
A. Chronic HTN
B. Mild preeclampsia
C. Severe preeclampsia
D. Gest HTN
33. Which trophoblast do not take part
trophoblast invasion?
1. Synctiotrophoblast
2. Intervillous cytotrophoblast
3. Extravillous cytotrophoblast
4. Interstitial cytotrophobplast
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 3,4
D. 1,4
34. In PIH an impending sign of eclampsia
A. Visual disturbance
B. Wt. gain of 2 lb per week
C. Severe proteinuria
D. Pedal edema
35. A gravida 2 patient with previous LSCS
comes at 37 weeks, has BP= 150/100 mm
of hg. And on pervaginal examination,
cervix is 50% effaced station-3, os is closed
and pelvis is adequate. Protein uria is +1,
Most appropriate step at the moment
would be:
A. Antihypertensive regime and wait for
spontaneous labor
B. Wait and watch
C. Induce labour
D. Caesarean section
36. A female of 36 weeks gestation presents
with hypertension, blurring of vision and
headache. Her blood pressure reading
was 180/120 mm Hg and 174/110 mm Hg
after 20 minutes. How will you manage
the patient?
A. Mgso4 iv
B. Terminate the pregnancy
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C. Steriods
D. Admit oral antihypertensives and
follow up in outpatientdepartment.
37. At 35 weeks a patient has presented with
severe preeclampsia doppler done shows
as follows what is the management?
A. Terminate the pregnancy
B. Steroids and talk to pediatrician
C. Continue till 37 weeks
D. Admit and monitor bp and doppler
38. What is the dose of mgso4 loading dose?
A. 8ml mgso4+12 ml ns
B. 12ml mgso4+8 ml ns
C. 8mg mgso 4
D. 20 mg mgso4
39. A mid aged women came to OPD with a 32
weeks pregnancy. She already had 2 first
trimester abortion and she has a 3-year-
old female twins who were born at the
end of 8 month of gestation. Which of the
following is her accurate representation?
G=gravid, P = paraa.
A. G4 P3 2+I+1+1
B. G5 P3 2+1+1+1
C. G4P1 0+1+2+2
D. G5 P1 0+1+2+2
40. A 39-year-old para 0 who is 12+2 by last
menstrual period attends for dating scan.
She is keen to have screening for
aneuploidy. T e CRL is found to be 89 mm.
What would be the best management
with regard to dating the pregnancy and
screening for Down syndrome?
A. Date the pregnancy using biparietal
diameter and arrange quadruple test
for Down syndrome screening
B. Date the pregnancy using CRL, measure
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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “OBSTETRICS” Questions

the nuchal translucency and use the

combined test to screen for Down,
Edward’s and Patau’s syndromes
C. Date the pregnancy using head
circumference and arrange quadruple
testfor Down syndrome screening
D. Date the pregnancy using head
circumference, measure nuchal
translucency and use the combined test
to screen for Down, Edward’s and
Patau’s syndromes

41. When is the following sign elicited?

A. Administer progesterone
B. Apply Fothergill stitch
C. Apply McDonalds Stitch
D. Wait and watch

43. What is the presentation?

A. 16 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 18 weeks
D. 12 weeks

42. A gravida 3 female with h/o two prior 2nd

trimester abortions associated with h/o A. Complete breech
painless cervical dilatation, comes to you B. Extended breech
with Level II USG which shows the below C. Face presentation
findings. Most appropriate management? D. Frank breech

44. What is the engaging diameter of the

following presentation?

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “OBSTETRICS” Questions

B. Assisted breech delivery

C. External cephalic version
D. Watchful expectancy

47. Identify the maneouvre?

A. Suboccipitobregmatic diameter
B. Occipitofrontal A. Modified MSV
C. Submentobregmatic B. Wigard martin method
D. Mentovertical C. Burn marshall technique
D. Modified prague method
45. What is the following manoeuvre?
48. What will be the mode of delivery for the
following position?

A. Ritzens method
B. Brandt anrew method
C. Pinnards method A. Face to pubis delivery
D. Prague method B. Delivery of fetal head by flexion
C. Delivery of fetal head by extension
46. A 25-year old G2P1A0 with history of D. LSCS
previous vaginal delivery of a term, live
baby comes with full term pregnancy with 49. You are asked to review a patient in the
breech presentation. What is the best first stage of labour as the midwife is
option? concerned about her progress. This is her
A. Cesarean section first pregnancy.

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She has dilated from 4cm to 6cm in 4 53. A 40-year-old multiparous woman
hours. At your initial assessment she is presents to the labour ward with a history
6cm dilated with membranes intact. You of premature rupture of membranes
review her again 2 hours later and the (PROM) at 29 weeks of gestation. She
cervix is now 6.5cm dilated with complains of regular uterine contractions
membranes intact. What is the most coming every 3 minutes. Speculum
appropriate management? examination confirms a rupture of
A. Advise caesarian section membranes and her cervix appears to be
B. Advise amniotomy 3 cm dilated. Clinically, there are no signs
C. Administer oxytocin of chorioamnionitis?
D. Review after 1 hour A. Antenatal corticosteroids
B. Antenatal glucocorticoids and
50. A 31- weeks pregnant women, on antibiotics
examination pallor present. Hb is 8 gm/dl. C. Antenatal corticosteroids plus
What should be the management? antibiotics plus inpatient monitoringfor
A. Carbonyl iron tablet 48–72 hours with tocolysis
B. Ferrous sulphate D. Emergency cervical cerclage
C. Inj. Iron sucrose
D. Blood transfusion 54. A woman comes with obstructed labor
and is grossly dehydrated. Investigations
51. A 36 weeks pregnant diabetic female with reveal fetal demise. What will be the
NST non-reactive. What should be done management?
next? A. Craniotomy
A. Induction of labour B. Decapitation
B. CS C. Cesarean section
C. Do NST after 1hr D. Forceps extraction
D. Proceed to biophysical profile
55. A 34-year-old primigravida is admitted in
52. Identify the cause? spontaneous labour at 39 weeks’
gestation. Clinical examination suggests
an average size fetus in a cephalic
presentation; the cervix is 2 cm dilated
and the membranes are absent. Epidural
block is sited and an oxytocin infusion is
commenced because contractions
become infrequent. After a further 9
hours she is found to be fully dilated, and
an ARM is performed. One hour later,
vaginal examination is repeated; the
presenting part is at the level of the ischial
spines +2, and the position is left
occipitotransverse. The presenting part is
not palpable per abdomen.
A. Low forceps
A. Gestational diabetes B. Outlet forceps
B. Diabetes before pregnancy C
. Encourage maternal effort
C. Valproate medication D. Ventouse extraction
D. ACE inhibitor medication

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56. A 20-year-old primigravida is admitted to
the labour ward in advanced labour
following a pregnancy of unknown
gestation. She is extremely distressed.
Clinical examination reveals a uterine size
compatible with approximately 34 weeks’
gestation. On vaginal examination her
cervix is 9 cm dilated; the fetus is
presenting by the vertex in direct
occipitoposterior position, and the
presenting part is the level of the spines.
Continuous fetal monitoring is
satisfactory. What is the management?
A. Wait and watch
B. LSCS
C. Ventouse delivery
D. Forceps delivery
57. The patient above, two hours later full
cervical dilatation is confirmed, the
presenting part has rotated to DOA
position and descended below the ischial
spines (station 0+2). None of the
presenting part is palpable per abdomen.
Progress in the second stage is slow, and
two hours later she remains undelivered.?
A. Forceps delivery
B. Ventouse delivery
C. LCSC
D. Encourage maternal efforts
58. Complication of diabetes in pregnancy
includes all except:
A. Macrosomia
B. Hyperglycemia in newborn
C. IUGR
D. Caudal regression
59. A G2 P1+0+0 diabetic mother present at
32 weeks pregnancy, there is history of
full term fetal demise in last pregnancy.
Her vitals are stable, sugar is controlled on
medication and fetus is stable. Which
among the following will be the most
appropriate management?
A. To induce at 39 weeks
B. To induce at 40 weeks
C. Cesarean section at 39 weeks
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D. To wait for spontaneous delivery
60. Maximum strain of parturient heart
occurs during:
A. At term
B. Immediate postpartum
C. Ist trimester
D. IInd trimester
61. Anemia mukth Bharath recommendation
for FE and folic acid supplementation is?
A. 60 mg of elemental iron for 100 days
+250 micro gram folic acid
B. 60 mg of elemental iron for 180 days
+400 micro gram of folic acid
C. 60 mg of elemental iron for 180 days
+500 micro gram of folic acid
D. 100 mg of elemental iron for 100 days
+500 micro gram folic acid
62. A prosthetic heart valve patient switch to
heparin at which time of pregnancy?
A. 28 weeks
B. 32 weeks
C. 36 weeks
D. Postpartum
63. A p 2 l2 poorly compensated cardiac
patient has delivered 1 day back. What
will be the advice be given?
A. Undergo sterilisation
B. Vasectomy for husband
C. Cut insertion
D. Barrier contraception
64. In a patient with heart disease, all of the
following are to be done except?
A. IV methergine after delivery
B. IV furosemide
C. Cut short second stage of labour
D. Prophylactic antibiotic
65. A 25-year-old woman is seen in the
antenatal clinic at 7 weeks of gestation.
She is seen regularly in the congenital
heart disease clinic because of
Eisenmenger’s syndrome secondary to a
ventriculoseptal defect. What would be
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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022] “OBSTETRICS” Questions

the most appropriate advice in terms of A. Allis forceps

management? B. Artery forceps
A. Bed rest and home oxygen therapy C. Babcocks
B. Commence oral labetalol D. Ovum forceps
C. Commence oral sildenafil
D. Termination of pregnancy 70. A lady with 37 weeks pregnancy,
presented with bleeding per vagina.
66. A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with Investigation shows severe degree of
intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy and placenta previa. The treatment is:
Which drug should be considered? A. Immediate CS
A. Urseodeoxycholic acid B. Blood transfusion
B. Cholestyramine C. Conservative
C. Dexamethasone D. Medical induction of labour
D. Rifampicin
71. Commonly used grading for abruption
67. Which grade of placenta previa? placenta:
A. Page
B. Johnson
C. Macafee
D. Apt

72. A patient presents at 32 weeks with pain

abdomen since 3 hours associated with
decreased fetal movements, USG shows
the following, FHR recording shows 90
A. Type 1 bpm, what is the management?
B. Type 2
C. Type3
D. type 4

68. Placenta previa is characterized by all

except:
A. Painless bleeding
B. Causeless bleeding
C. Recurrent bleeding
D. Presents after first trimmest
A. Immediate LSCS
69. What is the diagnosis? B. Immediate induction of labour
C. Steriods for lung maturity
D. Wait and watch

73. What is the indication of the following

cerclage operation?

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propofol followed bymaintenance with

"flurane" group of drugs.
D. Sedation and epidural analgesia

76. A couple are referred to the recurrent

miscarriage clinic following their third
recurrent miscarriage before 10 weeks of
gestation. The woman is aged 36 and the
man is aged 45. The couple have no
history of medical problems. Screening
has indicated the presence of anti-
phospholipid antibodies in the woman.
She has no history of thromboembolism.
A. TVS showing cervix less than 2.5 cm Treatment?
B. Rescue cerclage A. LMWH
C. Previous three second trimester B. LMWH + ASPIRIN THROUGH OUT
abortions PREGNANCY
D. Cervix less than 3 cm C. Aspirin
D. Warfarin
74. Identify the manoeuvre?
77. Which is last to disappear in BPP?
A. Fetal Breathing
B. Fetal Tone
C. NST
D. Fetal Movement

78. Oxytocin challenge test for assessing

foetal well-being is contraindicated in all
EXCEPT:
A. Placenta previa
.B Previous two LSCS
C. Breech
A. Leopold fourth manoeuvre D. Premature labour
B. Pawliks grip
C. Leopolds first manoeuvre 79. A female in labour is having occipito
D. Leopolds second manoeuvre posterior position. Cervix is fully dilated,
forceps applied in occipitoposterior
75. A pregnant woman with placenta previa position direction and tried to rotate,
started to bleed as she went into labor. which type of pelvis head cannot be
Her blood pressure was 80/50 mm Hg. A rotated?
lower segment cesarean section was A. Anthropoid pelvis
planned because of acute shock. What B. Platypelloid pelvis
type of anesthesia will you plan for this C. Gynecoid pelvis
patient? D. None of the above
A. General anesthesia with IV induction by
ketamine 80. A primigravida woman at 40 week
B. Spinal anesthesia up to L4 level gestat1on underwent NST for fetal
C. General anesthesia with IV induction by wellbeing. The NST strip is shown above.

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She is adviced: A. 1A,2B,3C,4D

A. To repeat NST in 6 hours B. 1c,2B,3D,4A
B. To get admitted for Induction of C. 1D,2C,3B,4A
labor D. 1B,2A,3D,4C
C. Follow up in OPD after one week and
report earlier if any complaints 85. Where anti d not given?
D. To get admitted for caesarean section A. MTP At 63 Days
B. Amniocentesis At 20 Weeks
81. Risk factors for early onset neonatal GBS C. Manual Removal of Placenta
include all except: D. Intrauterine Transfusion At 28 Weeks
A. Positive prenatal culture for GBS this
pregnancy 86. A 24 year old patient sustains a perineal
B. Preterm birth of less than 37 weeks of tear during delivery. On examination
gestation there is a 30% thickness tear of the
C. PROM for longer than 18 hours external anal sphincter. The internal anal
D. Intrapartum maternal vaginal discharge sphincter appears to be intact. What
grade of tear is this?
82. Highest risk of varicella zoster virus A. 2
transmission is at? B. 3a
A. 1-12 weeks C. 3b
B. 13-20 weeks D. 3c
C. 20-28 weeks
D. Last 5 days of delivery 87. A 10 weeks pregnant women presents to
you with following USG, what is the
83. A pregnant lady acquires chicken pox 3 further plan?
days prior to delivery. She delivers by
normal vaginal route. Which of the
following is true:
A. Both mother and baby are safe
B. Give antiviral treatment to mother
before delivery
C. Give antiviral treatment to baby
D. Baby will develop neonatal varicella
syndrome

84. Match the following

Column A column B
1. Pinnards A. Second A. CVS
maneuver stage of B. Amniocentesis
labour C. MTP
2. MC roberts B. Shoulder D. Anomaly Scan At 20 Weeks
maneuver dystocia
3. Brandts C. Arrested 88. Active management of 3rd stage of labour
Andrew lower limb includes the following except:
method A. Injection oxytocin 10 IU intramuscularly
4. Ritgens D. AMTSL B. Controlled cord traction
maneuver C. Uterine massage

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D. Injection oxytocin 10 IU intravenously

89. Home delivery 2 weeks back and now

presents with complete perineal tear,
management?
A. Immediate repair
B. Repair 3 weeks post delivery
C. Repair 6 weeks post delivery
D. Repair 3 months post delivery

90. Patient was in labour for 6 hrs, failure to

progress patient was posted for lscs. Post
op patient had a severe vomiting and
abdominal distention, no fever. BP was A. Laparoscopic hysterctomy
normal, absent bowel sounds, diagnosis? B. Vaginal hysterectomy
A. Paralytic ileus C. LSCS
B. Intestinal injury D. Cerclage
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Meconium peritonitis 93. All are risk factors of preeclampsia except
A. Diabetes in pregnancy
91. What does the image show? B. Hydatidiform mole
C. Primipara
D. Hypothyroidism in pregnancy

94. A 19-year-old woman presents at 13

weeks’ gestation with vaginal bleeding
and a smelly watery discharge. She feels
generally unwell and has had fevers for
the last 48 h. She initially thought she had
gastroenteritis as she had reduced
appetite, abdominal pain, vomited and
A. Intrauterine death had loose stools. All her booking bloods
B. Congenital heart defect were normal and the 11 week ‘nuchal’
C. Congenital diaphrammatic hernia scan was reassuring. She had a previous
D. Infanticide normal vaginal delivery at 38 weeks’
gestation. She has no significant
92. The following instrument is used in which gynaecological or general medical history.
operation? Examination
On examination the temperature is
38.1°C, pulse 96/min and blood pressure
110/68mmHg. She looks flushed and her
peripheries are warm. Chest and cardiac
examination are normal. She is tender
over the uterus, which feels
approximately 14 weeks’ size. There is no
guarding or rebound. On speculum
examination the cervical os is closed but

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[TEST AND DISCUSSION - 2022]
an offensive blood- stained discharge is
seen. Bimanual examination reveals a
very tender and hot uterus that also feels
‘boggy’. No adnexal masses are palpable
but bilateral adnexal tenderness is
evident.
Transvaginal ultrasound report: single
intrauterine gestational sac, fetus present
with crown–rump length 42.7 mm, fetal
heart beat absent what is the diagnosis?
A. Missed abortion
B. Septic abortion
C. Complete abortion
D. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
95. A 27 year old patient has ongoing bleeding
postpartum. Uterine atony is the
suspected cause. Pharmacological
measures have failed to control the
bleeding
A. No treatment required
B. Oxytocin 10 IU by IM injection
C. Balloon tamponade
D. Hysterectomy
96. Which vaccine is contraindicated in
pregnancy:
A. Chicken pox
B. Rabies
C. Tet toxoid
D. Hepatitis B
97. A 25-year-old women whose antenatal
period was uncomplicated is in labour.
She has a single foetus in cephalic
presentation. The head is not engaged.
The foetal heart rate is 130 beats per
minute. The cervical dilatation is 5 cm, the
membranes are absent and the pelvis is
adequate. It is decided to perform a
caesarean section immediately. Which
one of the following findings is the most
likely cause for this decision?
A. Approximation of the suture lines
B. Palpation of the anterior fontanelle and
the sagittal suture
C. Palpation of the eyes, nose and mouth
D. Palpation of the frontal bones and the
DBMCI, Ph: 9810150067, E-mail: studentsupport@dbmi.edu.in, Visit us at: www.dbmci.com
“OBSTETRICS” Questions
supraorbital ridges
98. Anesthesia of choice for Pre-eclampsia
patients during delivery is?
A. Epidural +Spinal
B. GA
C. Epidural
D. Spinal
99. What is meant by Superfecundation?
A. Fertilization of two or more ova in one
intercourse
B. Fertilization of two or more ova in
different intercourses in same
menstrual cycle
C. Fertilization of ova and then it's division
D. Fertilization of second ovum first being
implanted
100. A healthy 35 year old primigravida is
referred to the antenatal clinic because
the fetus is thought to be small for dates
at 38 weeks gestation. She had a dating
scan at 9 weeks and a normal anomaly
scan at 22 weeks.
Ultrasound scan shows a cephalic
presentation, abdominal and head
circumferences below the 3rd centile with
reduced amniotic fluid volume and
reduced umbilical artery end-diastolic
frequencies. There are good fetal
movements and the CTG is normal. The
cervix is 2cm long, posterior and closed,
how will you manage?
A. Daily day assessment unit visits
B. Biophysical profile
C. Fetal stress test
D. Induction of labour
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