PREBOARD Nursing Practice 2

100 ITEMS

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1. The following signs for placental separation are the following EXCEPT:
a. The uterus rises
b. A sudden gush of blood
c. The uterus becomes round in shape
d. Cord gets longer and the fundus of the uterus is going far from the navel

2. When the cervix is dilated for about 0-3 cm and contractions are weak, less than 2 to 10 minutes.
What stage of labor is this?
a. first stage c. second stage
b. third stage d. fourth stage

3. This normal change in the delivering mother is characterized by mild mood disturbances, marked by
emotional instability. This is especially true to first time mothers.
a. Postpartum depression
b. Postpartum blues
c. Postpartum psychosis
d. None of the above

4. The following are signs or puerperal sepsis EXCEPT:

a. Fever on any two of the first 10 days post partum
b. Absence of pelvic pain and abdominal tenderness
c. Abnormal lochia with foul smell odor
d. all of the above

5. Possible puerperal sepsis of the genital tract occurs during which of the following for the first time?
a. during rupture of the bag of water
b. during the placental separation
c. during the cervical effacement
d. during the crowning

6. The following BUT one are the noticeable signs of pre eclampsia that needs prompt interventions:
a. Severe headache
b. Epigastric Pain
c. Blurring of Vision
d. None of these

7. During a postpartum period where there is profuse bleeding, urgent action must be taken by the
nurse. The following are the most important procedures EXCEPT:
a. Compression of the aorta
b. Bimanual Compression of the uterus
c. B only
d. except C

8. Which is TRUE of Oxytoxin?

a. Sustained (tonic) uterine contraction
b. Onset 6-7 minutes
c. Common side effects are hypertension and vomiting
d. Rythmic uterine contractions

9. It is a first –line contraceptive method for postpartum women. One will benefit the baby and the
other for contraception.
a. Combined estrogen-progesterone contraceptive
b. Lactational Amenorrhea Method
c. Barrier Method
d. Female sterilization

10. Julian decided to use a contraceptive method, she delivered her first born baby Carlisle 1 ½ month
ago. She breastfeeds her baby. When asking the nurse for the first choice of contraception regarding her
situation what will be the best response by the midwife?
a. “You can use Progestin only pills since this will not affect a woman’s milk supply.”
b. “Well, combined oral contraceptive will be favorable since this contains estrogen.”
c. “I suggest Condom since this can be used immediately and definitely will not interfere with
breastfeeding. Safe to use any time after birth.”
d. “You can’t use any contraceptive at this time, you need at least 2 months for that.”

11. Which program broadens content on women’s health and safe motherhood?
a. Reproductive health
b. Family planning program of the Philippines
c. Maternal and child health nursing
d. Maternity programs

12. It is a method by identifying the fertile and infertile days of the menstrual cycle as determined
through a combination of observations made on the cervical mucus, basal body temperature recording
and other signs of ovulation:
a. Two day method
b. Sympto-thermal method
c. Standard days method
d. Lactating Amenorrhea Method

13. The nursing goal during delivery is:

a. Safety of the mother and child
b. Prevention of complications for both mother and child
c. Safe and efficient delivery
d. all of the above

14. Breastfeeding is started 30 minutes after normal delivery for:

a. uterine contraction b. bonding c. financial reason d. contraception

15. A lactating mother is scheduled for an out-of-town seminar and she asked the nurse for an advice
how she can continue her breastfeeding. The BEST response is:
a. “Don’t you worry, you can always bottle-feed your baby in your absence.”
b. “You can do milk banking by saving enough milk and put it in the freezer for storage”
c. “Bring the baby with you to insure that the baby is well cared for”
d. none of the above

16. Which of the following women should be considered as special targets for family planning?
a. Those who have two children or more
b. Those with medical condition such as anemia
c. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years
d. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months

17. Freedom of choice is one of the policies of the Family Planning Program of the Philippines. Which of
the following illustrates this principle?
a. Information dissemination about the need for family planning
b. Support of research and development in family planning methods
c. Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods
d. Encouragement of couples to take family planning as a joint responsibility

18. During prenatal consultation, a client asked you if she can have her delivery at home. After history
taking and physical examination, you advised her against a home delivery. Which of the following finding
disqualifies her for a home delivery?
a. Her OB score is G5P3
b. She has some palmar pallor
c. Her blood pressure is 130/80
d. Her baby is in cephalic presentation

19. You are in the client’s house to attend a delivery. Which of the following will you do first?
a. Set up a sterile area
b. Put on a clean gown and apron
c. Cleanse the client’s vulva with soap and water
d. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor and contractions

20. In preparing for a primigravida for breastfeeding, which of the following will you do first?
a. Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lessen blood loss after delivery
b. Instruct her to wash her nipples before and after each breastfeeding
c. Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her nipples are erect
d. Tell her that lactation begins within a day after delivery

21. In a mother’s class you discuss proper breastfeeding technique. Which of these is a sign that the
baby has “latched on” the breast properly?
a. The baby takes shallow, rapid sucks
b. The mother does not feel nipple pain
c. The baby’s mouth is only partly open
d. Only the mother’s nipple is inside the baby’s mouth

22. In the postpartum home visit, the nurse should do the following, EXCEPT:
I. Do cord inspection
II. Palpate the fundus and the fetal heart beat
III. Bathe the baby
IV. Discuss the benefits of family planning
a. I and II b. II and IV c. I and III d. All except II

23. All of the following are activities of the nurse during pre-consultation conference
I. Urine examination
II. Taking the BP and weight
III. Leopold’s maneuver
IV. Write the findings on the client’s record
V. Explain the needed care
a. I,II and III c. III,IV and V
b. I, II and IV d. I, III and V

24. The APGAR score assesses the baby’s color, heartbeat, reflexes, muscle tone and breathing. In
breathing, how many breaths cycle per minute when the midwife considers it as very rapid breathing?
a. less than 30 per minute
b. more than 60 per minute
c. less than 60 per minute
d. more than 30 minute

25. During the initial assessment of the new born the nurse found out that the baby is breathing
inadequate and the baby’s appearance and color is blue. What is the immediate responsibility of the
nurse?
a. Dry and wrap the baby and the baby stays with the mother
b. Dry and wrap the baby and clear the airway
c. Refer to the doctor
d. A and B
26. The initial assessment shows Pink, Heart Rate >120 bpm and breathing regularly the priority action
is:
a. Ask for help
b. Dry and wrap the baby and let the baby stay with the mother
c. Dry and wrap the baby and clear the airway
d. Dry and wrap the baby and refer to the doctor

27. Which of the following is NOT true of colostrum?

a. It has powerful antibodies.
b. It will fight against infections.
c. It makes the baby strong.
d. It promotes mother-baby bonding.

28. Marieta complains of cracked nipples, the nurse implemented her interventions however she
wrongly intervened when she said to the mother:
a. to continue breastfeeding
b. to air dry her nipples, leaving a little breast milk on the nipple after nursing
c. to wash her nipple with water and soap
d. to position the baby so that the areola is completely in the baby’s mouth

29. Mavericks handles a case of postpartal mother and family focusing on home care. He needs to
schedule a first visit to OB client Leila on:
a. within 1 week after discharge
b. within 24 hours after discharge
c. within 1 hour after discharge
d. within 1 month after discharge

30. If you were Maverick, which of the following actions would alert you that a new mother is entering a
postpartal taking-hold phase?
a. She sleeps as if exhausted from the effort of labor
b. She urges the baby to stay awake so that she can breast feed him on her
c. She says that she has not selected a name for the baby as yet
d. She tells you she was in lot pain all during labor

Situation 7: Knowledge of the concepts and processes of CHN is important

31. The concern of the CH nurse is not only those who go to the center but also those who do not. What
is the reason for this?
A. determine the reasons why people do not go to the center
B. identify health needs of people who do not come
C. define the needs and problems of those who come
D. ensure that CH services are comprehensive

32. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Cognizant of the devolution of health services, decision-making on health affairs should be made by
the office of the mayor at the municipal level.
B. Given a community, the nurse can uplift the situation by herself.
C. Health and illness have the same meanings in a homogenous community.
D. While health is a responsibility of the health department, it is as much responsibility of the people
themselves.

33. To facilitate implementation of a CHN project, the following are to be considered EXCEPT
A. clear tasks and responsibilities
B. limited involvement of community members
C. specific objectives with measurable output
D. available materials and supplies

34. When promoting the health of the individual, family and community, the first step to take by the CH
nurse is
A. establish a registry of families C. do a health assessment
B. conduct a community census D. organize the community

35. The nurse makes a continuous appraisal of the care she provides for the community in relation to
the objectives of care and the response of the community. This process is called community health
A. assessment B. diagnosis C. participation D. evaluation

Situation 8: The Health Situation of the Philippines

36. The basis of poor health situation in the country is
A. poverty C. low priority on health
B. lack of government support D. graft and corruption

37. If infant mortality rate is high, emphasis should be given to

A. communicable disease control C. maternal and child health
B. nutrition program D. immunization program

38. The following contribute to poor health situation of the majority

1 - high cost of health services 3 - crisis-oriented concept of health
2 - low priority for health 4 - backward economy
A. 1 only B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. all of these

39. The following statements describe the health human resources EXCEPT
A. Every year, there is a marked increase in number of health professionals.
B. Despite of the increase in number of health providers, there is still an enormous need in the
countryside.
C. The growing number of health professionals contributes to their low salaries and lack of benefits.
D. Migration to other countries is solely an economic issue.

40. Despite of the preventive nature of the diseases comprising morbidity and mortality patterns,
hospitals has been developed and maintained as primary venues of health services because
1 - diseases are far advanced and require hospitalization
2 - not all diseases can be prevented at the community level
3 - hospitals are infrastructures that project development
4 - hospital practice is rooted from colonial-oriented health science education
A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Situation 9: Health promotion

41. The goal of health promotion is
A. identify and minimize risk factors C. popularization of healthy habits
B. rehabilitation of sick individuals D. increase in wellness level

42. Which of the following pertains to health promotion?

A. health protection manifesting avoidance behavior
B. specific to a particular health problem
C. approach activities to enhance health capabilities
D. shorten the duration of the disease process

43. Individual wellness refers to

A. the person's ability to abide by community norms
B. person's maintenance of healthy lifestyle
C. the person ability to adapt to his external environment
D. the individuals formation of health beliefs and habits

44. In health promotion, community wellness is ensured through the promotion of

A. healthy lifestyles C. healthy behavior and beliefs
B. healthy environment D. healthy norms

45. Nutrition as an important method of health promotion is ensured through

A. growth monitoring C. taking vitamins
B. balanced diet D. micro-nutrient supplementation

Situation 10: Disease Prevention

46. The best time for disease prevention is during this phase of disease process
A. asymptomatic B. prepathogenic C. symptomatic D. pathogenic

47. Primary level disease prevention methods are applied during this phase
A. asymptomatic B. prepathogenic C. symptomatic D. pathogenic

48. Secondary level disease prevention methods are applied in this phase
A. asymptomatic B. prepathogenic C. symptomatic D. pathogenic

49. Tertiary level disease prevention is applied in this phase

A. asymptomatic B. prepathogenic C. symptomatic D. pathogenic
50. A particular disease is far advanced if it is at this phase
A. asymptomatic B. prepathogenic C. symptomatic D. pathogenic

Situation 11: Activities in health promotion and disease prevention

51. Establishing youth clubs and mothers' organization in the community is
A. primary level disease prevention C. tertiary level disease prevention
B. secondary level disease prevention D. health promotion

52. Assistance in physical therapy of a trauma patient

A. primary level disease prevention C. tertiary level disease prevention
B. secondary level disease prevention D. health promotion

53. Conducting clinics in prisons to determine extent of infectious diseases is

A. primary level disease prevention C. tertiary level disease prevention
B. secondary level disease prevention D. health promotion

54. Giving lectures on sex education to high school students is

A. primary level disease prevention C. tertiary level disease prevention
B. secondary level disease prevention D. health promotion

55. Identifying sick individuals in the community for prompt treatment is

A. primary level disease prevention C. tertiary level disease prevention
B. secondary level disease prevention D. health promotion

Situation 12: In CHN practice, people's participation is essential.

56. Community participation is made possible through
A. conducting consultation meetings with key leaders of the community
B. full participation of nurses in decision-making
C. provision of comprehensive and understandable information
D. shared leadership in the community at the onset of the program

57. To effectively provide nursing care to the community, the CH nurse must first
A. understand community's culture C. identify community leaders
B. assess community beliefs D. review existing records in health

58. The minimum level of genuine people's participation is

A. consultation B. shared leadership C. self-reliance D. placation

59. In addressing the health problems of the community, CH nurse ensures

A. people identify and prioritize their own problems
B. each health team member provides her/his share in health care
C. people act as recipients of services
D. DOH programs are being carried out
60. People's participation is made possible through
A. primary health care C. community development
B. multi-disciplinary approach D. community organizing

Situation 13: In CHN, the nurse utilizes community organizing (CO) .

61. The goal of CO is
A. community participation C. people's organization
B. community development D. people's awareness

62. Preliminary social investigation utilizes

A. primary data sources C. registries and records
B. interviews and observation D. focus group discussions

63. Upon entry to the community, the nurse can start the following EXCEPT
A. deepening social investigation C. small-group formation
B. community integration D. social preparation

64. Manageable units of the community to facilitate service delivery and people's participation is called
A. spot map B. small group C. core-group D. organizing group

65. The basic reasons why community organizers need to phase out from the community is to enable
A. nurse to open CO work in other depressed communities
B. people to exercise self-reliance
C. the people's organization to expand their coverage
D. people to test their unity and strength

Situation 14: The primary health care (PHC) approach

66. The following statements pertaining to PHC are correct EXCEPT
A. ultimate goal is self-reliance C. responds to immediate health problems
B. alternative health system D. utilizes appropriate technology

67. PHC is effective when CH nurses

A. are models of health C. initiate mass actions
B. lead people in community mobilizations D. trust people's capabilities

68. The goal of PHC according to the Department of Health is

A. health for all by the year 2000
B. health for all in 2000 and health in the hands of the people by 2020
C. health for all by 2000 and beyond
D. provide equity and quality health care in partnership with people
69. For common coughs and colds, these medicinal plants can be used EXCEPT
A. lagundi B. sambong C. bayabas D. luya

70. Niog-niogan is best for

A. coughs and colds B. diarrhea C. ascariasis D. asthma

Situation 15: There are different levels of clientele in CHN.

71. An instrument for gathering subjective data from the individual is
A. nursing history C. use of laboratory exam findings
B. physical assessment D. process recording

72. The exact opposite of the current problematic situation is stated as a

A. plan B. goal C. objective D. evaluation

73. In the assessment phase of the family health nursing process, an indicator for problem prioritization
of family health problem is
A. nature of the problem C. modifiability
B. preventive potential D. salience

74. By its nature, which of the following problems will be given LEAST priority?
A. unemployment B. scabies C. poor home environment D. ascariasis

75. Which of the following indicators are used for determining the family's value on prevention?
1 - updated immunization schedule 3 - compliance behavior
2 - family's concept of prevention 4 - eating habits
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Situation 16: The Population Group

76. The constant presence of en etiologic factor and a disease in a particular area is called
A. sporadic B. endemic C. epidemic D. pandemic

77. To establish new cases of a disease by studying those exposed not exposed to a risk factor, the nurse
must conduct this study
A. Case control B. cross-sectional C. prospective D. experimental

78. The primary aim of occupational health nursing is

A. reduction of hazards in the work area
B. maintenance of a healthy work environment
C. promotion of optimum health and prevention of diseases and injuries
D. industrial peace among workers and management

79. Workers may be exposed to different hazards of work like biological hazards exemplified by
A. stress, tenure, salary C. heat, cold, humidity
B. dust, fumes, chemicals D. fungi, virus, bacteria
80. To weed out drug users in the school, the nurse sets up a drug watch committee. This is an activity
under what component of school health nursing?
A. school health services C. healthful school living
B. school health instruction D. school-community linkage

Situation 17: Community Diagnosis

81. The most common method for community diagnosis that accounts for the bulk of data is
A. census B. records review C. interview D. sample survey

82. The following are steps in processing the data

1 – data analysis 3 – data presentation
2 – data collection 4 – data collation
A. 2, 4, 1 and 3 B. 2, 3, 4 and 1 C. 2, 4, 3 and 1 D. 2, 3, 1 and 4

83. Major factors affecting population include the following EXCEPT

A. births B. deaths C. migration D. morbidity

84. A population pyramid with triangular shape and broad base indicates the following EXCEPT
A. high death rates B. poverty C. young population D. more females

85. The sampling method used for a reliable community diagnosis is

A. simple random B. multi-stage C. cluster D. systematic random

Situation 18: Vital Statistics

86. The crude birth rate of X Community is 30.5. This means
A. 30.5 births in every 1000 population
B. 31 births in every 1000 population
C. 30 births in every 1000 population
D. 30 births in 1000 population of women 15 to 44 years old

87. Infant mortality rate refers to deaths in every 1000 births belonging to
A. 0 – 28 days B. 0 – 1 month C. 0 – 1 week D. 0 – 12 months

88. There were 20 cases of measles in a community and 5 died. What is the case fatality rate of measles?
A. 0.025 B. 2.5 C. 25% D. 250

89. The relative importance of a cause of death is computed as

A. case fatality rate C. proportionate mortality rate
B. cause-of-death rate D. incidence rate

90. In estimating the rank of a cause as a common illness, the nurse makes use of
A. incidence rate B. prevalence rate C. Swaroop’s index D. attack rate
Situation 19: FP, EPI
91. The following statements refer to the family planning program EXCEPT
A. The policy program advocates partnership, participation and promotion of health.
B. The main aim of the program is birth control.
C. The program is anchored on safe motherhood and child survival.
D. Females may decide independently on choice of contraceptive method.

92. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Effectiveness or sterility will come after 25 to 40 days after vasectomy.
B. Multiparous women have high fertility post-IUD removal.
C. Pills are advisable to those who have occasional sex.
D. Condoms can be reused.

93. Life-long immunity for tetanus is achieved by a woman after

A. 3 pregnancies C. 3 booster doses
B. 2 doses during pregnancy D. fourth tetanus toxoid

94. DPT is given at

A. 0.05 ml. ID B. 0.5 ml IM C. 0.5 ml SQ D. 0.1 ml ID

95. Which of the following is a normal reaction to BCG vaccination?

A. deep abscess C. glandular enlargement
B. indolent ulceration D. Koch’s phenomenon

Situation 20: Nutrition, CARI, CDD

96. The following statements are true regarding kwashiorkor EXCEPT
A. food is the only cure
B. child is apathetic and does not want to eat
C. characterized by skin sores, edema, and moon-facie
D. usually starts when the child is less than one year old

97. The recipients of targeted food assistance program are

A. general public C. pregnant women
B. children D. children and pregnant women

98. Belen is one month old and has pneumonia. The intervention should be
A. tepid sponge bath C. refer immediately
B. provide antibiotics and see after 2 days D. assess for other signs

99. The initial sign of dehydration in diarrhea is

A. weight loss B. positive skin fold test C. comatose D. thirst

100. Ana is 1 year old and with 5 bouts of diarrhea in a day. What should be given at every bout?
A. ½ cup of rice water B. 1 glass oresol C. antibiotic D. IV fluids