Medical: Entrance Exams - 2022

21-02-2021 B
MEDICAL
Entrance Exams - 2022
TEST No. 5
(XI Studying Students – TYM)
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Test No. 5
Mechanical properties of solids and fluids, Thermal properties of

matter, Thermodynamics, Kinetic theory
Hydrogen, S-block elements (Alkali and Alkaline earth metals) and

some P-block elements (Group 13 & 14)
Mineral nutrition, Photosynthesis in higher plants, Neural control and

coordination - II (Sense organs), Chemical coordination and integration
Test-5 (Code–B) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
MM : 720 Time : 3 Hrs

TEST - 5
[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct option :
1. A submarine is floating at a depth of 1000 m in an 5. An application of Bernoulli’s equation for fluid flow
ocean. The force on window having dimensions is found in
20 cm x 20 cm, of submarine is (density of sea (1) Hydraulic press
3 −3
water = 1.03 x 10 kg m and ignore atmospheric (2) Capillary rise
pressure) (3) Magnus effect
(1) 6.3 x 106 N (4) Viscosity meter
5
(2) 4.12 x 10 N 6. A cylindrical vessel of 96 cm height is filled upto
5
(3) 2 x 10 N brim. If it has 4 holes 1, 2, 3, 4 which are
(4) 7.2 x 105 N respectively at height 20 cm, 30 cm, 43 cm, and
2. Two syringes of different cross sections filled with 70 cm respectively from bottom horizontal floor.
water are connected with tightly fitted rubber tube The water falling at longer horizontal distance from
filled with water. Diameter of smaller piston is 2 cm the vessel, comes from
and that of larger 6 cm. What will be the force (1) Hole number 4 (2) Hole number 2
exerted on the larger piston when a force of 10 N (3) Hole number 3 (4) Hole number 1
is applied to smaller piston ? 7. If a barometer carries water instead of mercury,
(1) 40 N (2) 30 N the height of column for a pressure equivalent to
(3) 90 N (4) 110 N 75 cm of mercury will be
3. The flow of blood in a larger artery of an (1) 90 cm (2) 900 cm
anesthetized dog is diverted through venturimeter. (3) 750 cm (4) 1020 cm
The wider part of the meter has a cross-sectional 8. Select the correct statement on the basis of the
area 8 mm2 and narrow part has an area of 4 given graph
mm2, the pressure drop in artery is 24 Pa. The
speed of body in artery is (ρblood = 1.06 x 103
kg m s−3 )
(1) 0.123 m/s (2) 0.234 m/s
(3) 0.345 m/s (4) 0.456 m/s
(1) Young’s modulus of A is greater but it is less
4. Two bodies of volume V and 2V are equalized on
ductile
a balance. The larger body is then immersed in oil
(2) Young’s modulus of A is greater and it is more
of density 0.9 g cm−3. What must be density of
ductile
liquid in which smaller body is simultaneously
(3) Young’s modulus of A is less and it is less
immersed so as not to disturb the equilibrium
ductile
balance ?
(4) Young’s modulus of A is less but it is more
(1) 1.8 g cm−3 (2) 1.35 g cm−3
ductile
(2) 0.5 g cm−3 (4) 1.1 g cm−3
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
1 / 16
9. A cube at temperature 0°C is compressed equally 14. Find the wrong statement among the following
from all sides by an external pressure P. By what (1) Surface tension of liquid is independent of
amount should its temperature be raised to bring it area of surface
back to size it had, before external pressure was (2) Water with detergent dissolved should have
applied ? (Bulk modulus of cube is β and small angle of contact
coefficient of linear expansion is α ? (3) Centre of a spinning cricket ball in air does not
P 3β follow parabolic trajectory
(1) (2)
βα α
(4) For a fluid in steady flow, increase of fluid
P 2P
(3) (4) speed at a constriction follows conservation of
3βα 3βα
momentum law
10. A glass tube of fine bore of radius 5 x 10−4 m is
15. The correct graph of coefficient of volume
dipped in large tank of water with surface tension,
expansion (αv ) of copper as a function of
0.073 N m −1 . The angle of contact of liquid with
temperature is
walls of glass tube is 0°. The height of liquid rise in
(1) (2)
glass tube is approximately
(1) 2.98 cm (2) 1.75 cm
(3) 6.28 cm (4) 3.50 cm
11. The ratio of shear stress to the strain rate in fluid is
(3) (4)
called
(1) Surface tension
(2) Energy density
(3) Velocity head
16. Coefficient of volume expansion of constant
(4) Coefficient of viscosity
pressure for an ideal gas at 300 K is
12. In a test experiment on model airplane in a wind
(1) 1.5 x 10−3 K −1
tunnel, the flow of air speed on the upper and
(2) 3.3 x 10−3 K −1
lower surfaces of the wing are 70 m/s and 63 m/s
(3) 2.7 x 10−5 K −1
respectively. What will be lift on wing of area 4m2?
(4) 3.3 x 10−5 K −1
(ρair = 1.3 kg m−3)
17. A black smith fixes iron ring on rim of wooden
(1) 2.42 kN (2) 1.73 kN
wheel of a horse cart. The diameter of rim and iron
(3) 5.84 kN (4) 3.72 kN
ring are 3.453 m and 3.441 m respectively at 0°C.
13. A fluid is flowing through tube. At junction it is
To what temperature should the ring be heated so
divided into two cross-section with area A/3 and A
as to fit on the rim of wheel ? (αFe = 1.20 x 10−5
as shown in the figure. The speed of liquid in
K −1 )
narrow cross-section (u) will be
(1) 290.6°C (2) 260.5°C
(3) 330.4°C (4) 435.6°C
18. When 150 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 300 g of
water at 50°C. The resulting temperature of
mixture is (ignore heat loss to surrounding)
(1) 3 m/s (2) 4 m/s (1) 4.2°C (2) 9.7°C
(3) 6 m/s (4) 18 m/s (3) 6.7°C (4) 32.6°C
2 / 16
19. We have noticed that some cooking pots have 24. A graph plotted between read on Fahrenheit scale
copper coating on bottom. This is due to and that on Celsius scale, are shown below. The
(1) Low thermal conductivity of water correct graph is
(2) Copper retains heat than cooking pot (1) (2)
(3) Copper promotes distribution of heat over
bottom of pot for uniform cooking
(4) Cooper is not easily blackened
20. Three identical rods are joined together as shown (3) (4)
in the figure. The temperature of the junction O is
25. In a pressure cooker, cooking is fast because

(1) More steam will be available in cooker at
100°C
(2) The boiling point of water is raised inside
(1) 30°C (2) 60°C pressure cooker
(3) 50°C (4) 40°C (3) The boiling point of water is lowered inside
21. A tungsten lamp is at 3000 K and its surface area pressure cooker
2 (4) Specific heat of pressure cooker is low
is 0.3 cm . The emissivity found experimentally for
7
tungsten lamp is 0.4. The rate at which heat is 26. 5 moles of hydrogen (γ = 5) initially at STP are
radiated from lamp is proportional to
compressed adiabatically so that its temperature
(1) 30004 (2) 32734
becomes 400°C. The increase in the internal
(3) 27304 (4) 27274
energy of the gas (in kilo-joules) is (R = 8.30
22. A rod of length 2 m is pivoted at one end A and
J/mol-K)
freely rotated in horizontal plane at an angular
(1) 21.55 (2) 41.50
velocity of 6 rad/s, about vertical axis passing point
(3) 65.55 (4) 80.55
A. Suddenly temperature of system is increased
27. When ideal gas is compressed isothermally, then
by 200°C. The percentage change in its angular
its pressure increases because
speed is nearly [α = 3 x 10−4 (K)−1 ]
(1) Molecular energy increases
(1) 18.6 % (2) 41 % (2) Its potential energy increases
(3) 12 % (4) 36 % (3) Its kinetic energy increases and molecules
23. A small ball is immersed in water. It weighs w1 at move apart
0°C. Water is heated to 50°C and now it weighs (4) Number of collision per unit area with
w2. The coefficient of cubical expansion of ball container walls increases
material is less than water than on comparing 28. A gas is contained in a metallic cylinder fitted with
weights, a piston. The piston is suddenly moved in, to
(1) w2 > w1 compress the gas and is maintained at position.
(2) w2 < w1 After compression as the time passes the pressure
(3) w1 = w2 of gas in the cylinder
(4) More information is required
3 / 16
(1) Decreases 32. A flask contains Argon and Chlorine in the ratio
(2) Increases 2 : 1 by mass. The temperature of mixture is 27°C.
(3) Remains constant The ratio of average translational kinetic energy
(4) May increase or decrease depends on gas per molecule of two gases is
atomicity (1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
29. Pressure versus temperature graph for a given (3) 1 : 1 (3) 3 : 1
sample of an ideal gas is as shown. Density of gas 33. Polyatomic molecule has 3 translational, 3
at A is ρ. Then density of gas at B will be rotational degrees of freedom. The molar specific
Cp
heat ratio (γ = ) for this gas is
Cv
7 7
(1) (2)
5 6
4 3
(3) (4)
3 2
34. Average speed of an air molecule is 485 m/s and
1
(1) ρ
4 number of density of air molecules is 2.7 x 1025
(2)
4
ρ m−3. If molecule of air has spherical shape of
3
diameter 2 x 10−10 m. The average distance
1
(3) ρ between two successive collisions of air molecules
2
(4) 2ρ is nearly
30. Two containers of equal volumes contain gas at (1) 3 x 10−6 m
pressure P1 and P2 and absolute temperature T1 (2) 2.1 x 10−7 m
and T2 respectively. On joining the vessels, the (3) 3 x 10−7 m
gas reaches a common pressure P and a common (4) 5 x 10−9 m
P 35. In a thermodynamic system, internal energy
temperature T. The ratio is
T
decreases by 300 J when it is doing 350 J of work.
1 P1 P2
(1) [ +T ] What net heat is taken by system in the process ?
2 T1 2
(1) 150 J (2) 650 J
P1 T2 +P2 T1
(2) (3) 100 J (4) 50 J
T1 + T2
P2 T2 +P1 T1 36. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken
(3)
T1 + T2 round the cyclic process as shown in the figure.
2P1 P2
(4) How much heat is rejected by the gas in path CA ?
(T1 + T2 )
31. A pan is filled with hot liquid which cools from 94°C
to 86°C in 2 minutes, the room temperature was
20°C. Assuming Newton’s cooling law is valid, how
long will it take to cool from 86°C to 74°C ?
(1) 2.5 minute
(2) 3.5 minute P0 V0 3
(1) (2) PV
2 2 0 0
(3) 4.5 minute
5 7
(4) 2 minute (3) PV (4) PV
2 0 0 2 0 0
4 / 16
37. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken through the 41. A gas obeys a law PV 2 = constant, in addition to
process ABC as shown in the figure. The gas equation PV = μRT. If temperature of the gas
temperature at point A is 300 K, then temperature is doubled, what will be percentage change in
of point C will be volume ?
(1) Decrease by 50 %
(3) Increase by 100 %
42. If the degree of freedom of a gas molecule be f.ten
Cp
the ratio of two specific heats is given by
(1) 600 K (2) 900 K Cv
(3) 1200 K (4) 700 K 2

(1) +1
f
38. A sample of ideal gas with γ = 1.5 is compressed
2
from volume of 1600 cc to 400 cc adiabatically. If (2) 1 -
f
5
initial pressure of the gas is 1.5 x 10 Pa. How 1
(3) 1 +
f
much internal energy is lost by the gas ?
1
(1) 240 J (2) 640 J (4) 1 -
f
(3) 370 J (4) 480 J
43. In accordance with kirchhoff’s law for a black body
39. A mass of an ideal gas undergoes a reversible
radiation, which one is wrong ?
isothermal compression. Its molecules compared
(1) Bad absorber is a bad emitter
with initial state, will have same
(2) Bad reflector is a good emitter
(A) Root mean square speed (3) Bad emitter is a good absorber
(B) Mean momentum (4) Bad reflector is a good absorber
(C) Mean kinetic energy
44. When an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at
(1) A, B, C are correct
constant pressure, the fraction of heat energy
(2) A and C are correct
supplied which increases internal energy of the
(3) B and C are correct
gas is
(4) Only A is correct 3
(1)
40. Four curves represent the relation between 5
3
pressure P and volume V of an ideal gas. One of (2)
4
the curve represents isothermal expansion and
3
another represents the adiabatic expansion. Which (3)
7
curve is representing adiabatic expansion ? 2
(4)
5
45. A freezer has coefficient of performance 9. When
200 kcal of work is done on freezer, what mass of
water at 0°C is converted into ice cubes at 0°C ?
(Lf = 80 kcal/g).
(1) 3.6 kg (2) 9.6 kg
(1) Curve AB (2) Curve AD
(3) 22.5 kg (4) 32.5 kg
(3) Curve AC (4) Curve AE
5 / 16
[CHEMISTRY]
46. Species which is manufactured by electrolytic A B C D

enrichment of normal water is (1) (R) (Q) (S) (P)
(1) H2 O2 (2) H2 (2) (S) (P) (Q) (R)
(3) D2O (4) O2 (3) (S) (Q) (R) (P)
47. Mole of KMnO4 required to oxidise one mole of (4) (R) (Q) (P) (S)
H2 O2 in acidic medium is 52. Element with highest density among the following
1 3 is
(1) (2)
5 5
(1) Li (2) Na
2 4
(3) (4) (3) K (4) Cs
5 5
48. Select the method which is not used to remove 53. Sodium on combustion with excess of air mainly
permanent hardness gives
(1) Boiling (1) Na 2O (2) Na 2O2
(2) Ion-exchange method (3) Na 3N (4) NaO2
(3) Calgon’s method 54. The compound which has the highest melting point
(4) Washing soda method among the following is
49. Percentage strength of 56 volume H2 O2 solution is (1) NaF (2) NaCl
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) NaBr (4) NaI
(3) 7 (4) 17 55. Least basic oxide among the following is
50. Select the incorrect statement among the following (1) BeO (2) MgO
(1) At very low temperature, ice crystallizes in (3) CaO (4) SrO
cubic form 56. Correct formula of tricalcium silicate is
(2) Reaction of water with sodium is an example (1) (CaSiO2 )3
of redox reaction (2) (CaSiO3 )3
(3) Strong hydrating tendency of water is due to (3) Ca 3SiO5
its high dielectric constant (4) Ca 3SiO4

(4) In gas phase, water has trigonal planar 57. Species which is least likely to exist is
structure (1) [Be(OH)4 ]2− (2) BeF6 4−
51. Match the following hydrides given in column (I) (3) AlF6 3− (4) [Al(OH)4 ]−
with their characteristics given in column (II) 58. The colour of solution of potassium in liquid
Column I Column II ammonia
A. LaH2.87 (P) Non volatile and non (1) Blue (2) Green
conducting solid (3) Yellow (4) Red
B. FeH2 (Q) Does not exist 59. Paramagnetic compound among the following is
C. KH (R) Doest not hold law of (1) Na 2O2 (2) Li2O
constant composition (3) KO2 (4) Na 2O
D. H2O (S) Behave as Lewis 60. Compound used as anti-knocking agent in petrol is
base (1) PbO2 (2) CaO
(3) PbEt 4 (4) CaCl2
6 / 16
61. The melting and boiling points of alkali metals are 67. Incorrect statement among the following is
low due to (1) Carbonate part of sodium carbonate on
(1) Low hydration enthalpy hydrolysis forms alkaline solution
(2) Weak metallic bonding (2) Crystals of pure sodium chloride separate out
(3) High ionization enthalpy by saturating aqueous solution of NaCl, MgCl2
(4) High electron affinity and CaCl2 by HCl(g)
62. Product of hydrolysis of Na2 O2 and KO2 (3) Electrolysis of brine using mercury cathode
respectively are deposits sodium on it
(1) (NaOH + H2 O2) and (KOH + H2 ) (4) Crystals of sodium hydroxide are not
(2) (Na2 O + H2 O2) and (KOH + H2 O2) deliquescent in nature
(3) (NaOH + H2 O2) and (KOH + H2 O2+ O2 ) 68. Select the reactions which indicate correct
(4) (NaO3 + H2 O2) and (KOH + H2 O2+ O2 ) products.
600−800 K
63. Select the incorrect statement among the following (a) BeO + C + Cl2 ↔ BeCl2 + CO
(1) Alkali metals are normally kept in kerosene oil (b) 2BeCl2 + LiAlH4 → 2BeH2 + LiCl + AlCl3
(2) Lithium has most negative E0 value among 473 K
(c) 2(CaSO4 .2H2O) → ∆ 2(CaSO4 ).H2O + 3H2O
alkali metals
(d) Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → Ca(OCl)2 + 2HCl
(3) Alkali metal hydrides are ionic solids with high
(1) (a) and (b) only
melting points
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) Alkali metals react slowly with halogens to
(3) (a) and (c) only
form predominantly covalent halides
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
64. Thermally least stable carbonate among the
69. Identify the incorrect statement among the
following is
following
(1) CaCO3 (2) BaCO3
(1) Second major component of Portland cement
(3) MgCO3 (4) SrCO3
is SiO2
65. Correct order of solubility of alkaline earth metal
(2) Castner-kellner cell is used for the preparation
hydroxides is
of NaCl
(1) Be(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2 > Sr(OH)2 >
(3) About 99% body calcium is present in bones
Ba(OH)2
and teeth
(2) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 <
(4) Potassium ions participate in the metabolic
Ba(OH)2
oxidation of glucose to produce ATP
(3) Be(OH)2 > Ba(OH)2 > Sr(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2 >
70. Which of the following alkali metal ions has the
Mg(OH)2
highest mobility in aqueous solution ?
(4) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 <
(1) Li+ (2) K +
Sr(OH)2
(3) Na+ (4) Rb+
66. Reaction which is not involved in solvay process of
71. Identify the incorrect match.
preparation of washing soda is
(1) Washing soda – Na 2CO3 ∙10H2O
(1) 2NH3 + CO2 + H2 O → (NH4 )2CO3
(2) Dead burnt sulphur – CaSO4
(2) NH4 HCO3 + NaCl → NH4Cl + NaHCO3
(3) Caustic soda – Ca(OH)2
∆
(3) 2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
(4) Quick lime – CaO
(4) 2NH3 + 2H2O + CaCl2 → 2NH4 Cl + Ca(OH)2
7 / 16
72. Due to inert pair effect, the most stable oxidation 81. Number of 3c – 2c e− bonds in diborane is
state of lead is (Atomic number of Pb = 82) (1) 2 (2) 4
(1) – 2 (2) + 2 (3) 3 (4) 6
(3) – 4 (4) + 4 82. Select the species which does not exist.
73. Ion which has the largest size among the following (1) [Sn(OH)6 ]− (2) SF6−
is (3) SiBr66− (4) GeCl2−
6
(1) Al3+ (2) Ga3+ 83. Incorrect statement about fullerenes (C60) is
(3) In3+ (4) Tl3+ (1) It is prepared by heating of graphite in an
74. Element of boron family with highest melting point electric arc in the presence of helium gas
is (2) It contains all carbon atoms of sp2
(1) B (2) Al hybridization
(3) Ga (4) Tl (3) Each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds
75. Producer gas among the following is with other three carbon atoms
(1) CO2 + H2 (2) CO + H2 (4) It is non-aromatic in nature
(3) CO + N2 (4) CO2 + N2 84. Select the reaction(s) in which carbon is oxidized
76. In which of the following species, central atom is (a) C(s) + O2 (g) →
having incomplete octet ? Conc. H2 SO4
(b) HCOOH →
373 K
(1) B2 H6 (2) CH4 473−1273 K
(c) C(s) + H2O(g) →
(3) BF4− (4) AlCl−
4
1273 K
77. Number of sp3 hybridised boron atoms in borax is (d) C(s) + O2 (g) + N2 (g) →
(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) (a) and (b) only
(3) 3 (4) Zero (2) (a) and (c) only
78. Identify A and B in the following reaction (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
100℃ Red hot (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
H3BO3 → A→ B
85. Select the correct statement(s) for CO2 (g) among
(1) A : HBO2 , B : B2 O3
the following.
(2) A : B2 O3, B : H2 B4 O7
(1) It is used in carbonated soft drinks
(3) A : HBO2 , B : H2 B4O7
(2) It is a green house gas
(4) A : HBO2 , B : B(OH)3
(3) It is an acidic oxide
79. Reaction which shows incorrect product is
(4) All of these
(1) BF3 + NaH → B2 H6 + NaF
86. Silica on reaction with NaOH and HF respectively
(2) B2 H6 + LiAlH4 → B + H2O
gives
(3) B2 H6 + CO → BH3 ∙ CO
(1) Na 2SiO4 and Na2SiF6
(4) BF3 + LiAlH4 → B2 H6 + LiF + AlF3
(2) Na 2O and Na 2SiF6
80. Correct order of first ionization energy is
(3) Si(OH)4 and SiF4
(1) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb
(4) Na 2SiO3 and SiF4
(2) C > Pb > Si > Ge > Sn
87. Hydrolysis product of which of the following is
(3) Si > C > Pb > Ge > Sn
used for blocking the polymeric chain of silicones?
(4) C > Si > Ge > Pb > Sn
(1) (CH3 )3SiCl (2) (CH3 )2 SiCl2
(3) (Ph)2 SiCl2 (4) (CH3)SiCl3
8 / 16
88. Select the incorrect statement in the following. 89. Which among the following is strongest Lewis
(1) Silicones have high dielectric strength acid?
(2) Silicones are used in surgical and cosmetic (1) BI3 (2) BBr3
implants (3) BCl3 (4) BF3
(3) Silicones are good electrical conductors 90. Basic structural unit of chain silicates is
(4) Tin on reaction with steam produces H2(g) as (1) SiO4−
4 (2) Si2 O6−
7
one of the products (3) SiO2−

3 (4) Si2 O2−
5
[BIOLOGY]
91. Which one of the following is not a micronutrient ? 97. Nitrate present in the soil can be reduced to
(1) Zinc (2) Boron gaseous nitrogen by A and this process is
(3) Sulphur (4) Chlorine called B .
92. Magnesium - (1) A – Nitrile reductase, B – Nitrification
(1) Is required for synthesis of Auxin (2) A – Pseudomonas, B – Nitrification
(2) Helps in maintaining turgidity of the cells (3) A – Nitrile reductase, B – Ammonification
(3) Is a constituent of the ring structure of the (4) A – Thiobacillus, B – Denitrification
chlorophyll 98. Number of ATP molecules required to fix 1
(4) Deficiency causes grey spots in oats molecule of N2 is
93. The function of leg-haemoglobin in the root (1) 8 (2) 16
nodules of legumes is (3) 32 (4) 4
(1) Inhibition of nitrogenase activity 99. Select the incorrect statement about amides.
(2) Scavenging of oxygen (1) These store excess nitrogen
(3) Providing oxygen to nitrogenase (2) These are organic compound derived from
(4) Nodule differentiation amino acids
94. Which of the following is not caused by the (3) Glutamic acid is important amide for plants
deficiency of mineral elements ? (4) Asparagine has two nitrogen atoms
(1) Necrosis 100. The first stable product of biological fixation of
(2) Inhibition of cell division atmospheric nitrogen is
(3) Inhibition of Ca translocation to shoot apex (1) NO−
2
(4) Chlorosis (2) NH4+
95. Select the incorrect match. (3) NH3
(1) Ca – Cell wall synthesis (4) NO−
3
(2) B – Translocation of carbohydrates 101. Deficiency symptoms of _______ first appear in
(3) Mn – Splitting of water younger tissues. Select the correct option to fill in
(4) Zn – Constituent of methionine the blank.
96. Symbiotic and autotrphic nitrogen fixer in non- (1) N
legumes is (2) P
(1) Rhizobium (2) Anabaena (3) Ca
(3) Frankia (4) Azotobacter (4) K
9 / 16
102. Select the incorrect statement about hydroponics. 108. Deficiency of which of the following minerals
(1) Avoids problem of weeding cause chlorosis as well as inhibition of cell
(2) Controls soil borne pathogens division?
(3) Useful in areas having thin, infertile and dry (1) N, K, S, Mo
soil (2) Fe, Cu, Co
(4) Cost of setting up a hydroponic system is too (3) Ca, Cu, B
low (4) Mo, Cl, Ni, Fe
103. Nitrogen is a constituent of all except 109. _________ is the activator for both RuBisCO and
(1) Amino acids (2) Chlorophyll PEPcase.
(3) Nucleic acids (4) Fatty acids (1) Mg 2+ (2) Zn2+
104. The enzyme which is required to fix atmospheric (3) Ca2+ (4) Mn2+
nitrogen 110. Select the odd one w.r.t nitrate reductase.
(1) Functions under aerobic conditions (1) It contains molybdenum
(2) Catalyses conversion of NH3 → NO3− (2) Nitrate is reduced to nitrite by this enzyme
(3) Is made up of Mo-Fe protein (3) Helps in nitrate assimilation
(4) Is found in all eukaryotes (4) Helps in nitrite reduction into ammonia
105. Which of the following amino acid is main amino 111. A described first action spectrum of
acid and gives rise to other amino acids by photosynthesis by using B .
transamination ? Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks A
(1) Tyrosine and B.
(2) α-ketoglutaric acid (1) A – Joseph Priestley, B – Hydrilla
(3) Glutamic acid (2) A – Julius Von Sachs, B – Hydrilla
(4) Methionine (3) A – T.W Engelmann, B – Cladophora
106. Read the following statements and choose the (4) A – Cornelius van Neil, B – Cladophora
correct option. 112. Photosystem I differs from phototsystem II
Statement-A : Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are (1) As the former liberates O2
chemoautotrophic bacteria (2) In being present on stroma lamellae
Statement-B : Phosphorous is a constituent of cell (3) In having reaction centre
membranes, certain nucleic acids and all proteins (4) In synthesizing ATP
(1) Only statement A is correct 113. Select the true statement about light reaction.
(2) Only statement B is correct (1) Related to synthesis of reducing power.
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (2) There is conversion of CO2 to carbohydrates
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Deals with oxidative phosphorylation
107. Those elements without which plants cannot (4) Directly associated with synthesis of sugars
complete their life cycle, are called 114. The plants which have kranz anatomy
(1) Beneficial elements (1) Fix CO2 in mesophyll cells only
(2) Critical elements (2) Show photorespiration
(3) Essential elements (3) Have PEP as primary CO2 acceptor
(4) Micro elements (4) Perform calvin cycle in mesophyll cells
10 / 16
115. Which of the following processes is present in all which can be grown in CO2
plants ? enriched atmosphere for higher
(1) C4 cycle yield
(2) Calvin cycle (1) Only statement A is correct
(3) Photorespiration (2) Only statement B is correct
(4) CAM pathway (3) Both statements A and B are correct
116. Cyclic photophosphorylation is named so because (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Only PS II is involved 122. Select the function of accessory pigments.
(2) This process takes place in stroma lamellae (1) Act as primary photosynthetic pigment if
(3) There is cyclic flow of electrons within the chlorophyll-a is absent
photosystem (2) Trap a wider range of wavelength of light
(4) There is no use of external ATP for the flow of (3) Protect chlorophyll-b only
electrons (4) Absorb only longer wavelength of light
117. Cyclic photophosphorylation operates under all of spectrum
the following conditions, except 123. The C4 plants show CO2 stauration
(1) Absence of reaction centre P700 (1) At about 360 μl/L
(2) Low light intensity (2) Beyond 550 μl/L
(3) Poor CO2 availability (3) At 450 μl/L
(4) Anaerobic conditions (4) Beyond 450 μl/L
118. How many molecules of ATP are required to 124. The number of carbon atoms in first CO2 acceptor
synthesize one molecule of glucose through Calvin molecules of calvin cycle and Hatch and slack
cycle ? cycle respectively are
(1) 18 ATP (2) 12 ATP (1) 3 and 4 (2) 4 and 5
(3) 30 ATP (4) 6 ATP (3) 5 and 3 (4) 3 and 5
119. Select the odd one w.r.t bundle sheath cells. 125. C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than
(1) No intercellular spaces C3 plants because
(2) Have few number of chloroplast (1) RuBisCO shows only its oxygenase activity
(3) Grana are absent in the chloroplast (2) Presence of strong CO2 fixing enzyme
(4) Thick wall of the cells PEPcase
120. In tomato, C3 cycle (3) Photorespiration is absent
(1) Occurs in mesophyll cells of the leaves (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Has OAA as first stable compound 126. Dimorphic chloroplasts are seen in
(3) Is faster process of CO2 fixation as compared (1) Tomato (2) Sugarcane
to C4 pathway (3) Pea (4) Mango
(4) Requires 2 ATP to fix one CO2 molecule 127. Select the odd one w.r.t cell organelles involved in
121. Read the following statements and select the photorespiration.
correct option. (1) Peroxisome
Statement-A : Light saturation for CO2 fixation (2) Mitochondria
occurs at 10% of full sunlight. (3) Chloroplast
Statement-B : Tomato is a greenhouse crop (4) Lysosome
11 / 16
128. Which of the following is not a product of non- 132. During splitting of water the protons accumulate
cyclic photophosphorylation ? (1) In the intermembrane space of chloroplast
(1) NADPH (2) O2 (2) Outside the chloroplast i.e in the cytoplasm of
(3) ATP (4) NADH the cell
129. Study the pathway given below (3) In the lumen of the thylakoid
(4) In stroma of the chloroplast
133. In maize plants when CO2 is combined with PEP,
the first stable product is
(1) PGA
(2) OAA
(3) Pyruvic acid
(4) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
134. Select the odd one w.r.t steps of calvin cycle.
(1) Carboxylation
(2) Transportation of C3 acid to bundle sheath
cells
(3) Reduction of 3-PGA
(4) Regeneration of RuBP
135. For photosynthesis, the optimum temperature for
C3 plants is
(1) 30 - 35°C
(2) 40 - 45°C
In which of the following options correct words for (3) 20 - 25°C
all A, B and C are given ? (4) 45 – 50°C
(1) A – C3 acid, B – C4 acid, C – Fixation 136. The sensory organs detect all types of changes in
(2) A – C4 acid, B – Fixation, C – C3 the environment and send appropriate signals to a
(3) A – C4 acid, B – Decarboxylation, C – C3 part of neural system where all the inputs are
(4) A – C3 acid, B – C4 acid, C – Decarboxylation processed and analysed. This part of neural
130. All of the following are requirements of system is
chemiosmosis, except (1) PNS (2) CNS
(1) Thylakoid membrane (3) SNS (4) ANS
(2) Proton pump 137. Choose the correct statement.
(3) ATP synthase (1) The point on the retina, at which optic nerve
(4) More protons in stroma than lumen leaves the eyeball is called the fovea
131. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so (2) The vitreous humour is present between the
because lens and the retina
(1) It occurs in dark only (3) Unlike the cones, the rods operate only in the
(2) It does not require light energy directly bright light
(3) It cannot occur during day time (4) Cornea acts like the ‘diaphragm’ of camera by
(4) It does not use reducing power altering the diameter of pupil
12 / 16
138. The receptors that are stimulated by touch and 145. Choose the odd one w.r.t deficiency diseases of
pressure are hormones.
(1) Olfactory receptors (1) Addison’s disease
(2) Gustato-receptors (2) Pituitary dwarfism
(3) Meissner’s corpuscles (3) Diabetes mellitus
(4) Organ of corti (4) Grave’s disease
139. Sensory information about motion, equilibrium and 146. All of the following hormones influence the cellular
spatial orientation is provided by the activities by interaction of hormone-receptor
(1) Cochlea complex with the genome except
(2) Tectorial membrane (1) Glucocorticoids
(3) Vestibular apparatus (2) Testosterone
(4) Ear ossicles (3) Estradiol
140. Choose the incorrectly matched pair. (4) Oxytocin
(1) Retina – contain photoreceptor cells 147. In testes, Androgens are secreted by
(2) Retinal of Rhodopsin – Derivative of vitamin A (1) Cells of sertoli
(3) Bowmann’s glands – Present in olfactory (2) Seminiferous tubules
epithelium (3) Interstitial cells
(4) Reissner’s membrane – Discriminates different (4) Spermatozoa
pitches of sound 148. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct
141. Choose a correct set of glands which pour their option
secretions only into blood/lymph. ANF : Atrial walls :: _______ : JG cells
(1) Thyroid and adrenal (1) Cholecystokinin (2) Erythropoietin
(2) Ovary and pancreas (3) GIP (4) T3 and T4
(3) Testes and pancreas 149. Insulin is a hormone whereas glucagon is
(4) Thymus and ovary b hormone. Choose the option that correctly
142. Which of the following gland is a lobular structure fills the blanks a and b.
located between lungs behind sternum on the (1) a – Hypoglycemic, b – Hyperglycemic
ventral side of aorta ? (2) a – Hypocalcemic, b – Hypercalcemic
(1) Thymus (2) Tonsil (3) a – Hyperglycemic, b – Hypoglycemic
(3) Thalamus (4) Thyroid (4) a – Hypercalcemic, b – Hypocalcemic
143. When calcium level in the blood decreases, the 150. Stunted growth, mental retardation and low IQ in
X is released from endocrine glands in order growing baby is associated with deficiency of
to increase the calcium level in the blood. hormone during pregnancy, this hormone is
Hormone ‘X’ is (1) TCT (2) Thyroxine
(1) Calcitonin (2) Parathormone (3) MSH (4) Vasopressin
(3) Insulin (4) Thyroxine 151. Hormones of fight or flight are called
144. The hormone which regulates sleep-wake cycle or (1) Thymosins
diurnal rhythm of our body is secreted by (2) Mineralocorticoids
(1) Thyroid gland (2) Pineal gland (3) Androgenic steroids
(3) Pancreas (4) Adrenal medulla (4) Catecholamines
13 / 16
152. Loss of glucose and harmful ketone bodies 157. Which of the following element is essential for the
through urine are associated with normal rate of hormone synthesis in the thyroid
(1) Cretinism gland ?
(2) Acromegaly (1) Calcium (2) Magnesium
(3) Diabetes insipidus (3) Sodium (4) Iodine
(4) Diabetes mellitus 158. Cell mediated immunity is majorly developed
153. Select the correct role/function of estrogen. under the influence of
(1) Development of growing ovarian follicles (1) Glucagon (2) Adrenaline
(2) High pitch of voice in females (3) Anti-diuretic hormone (4) Thymosins
(3) Formation of corpus luteum from ruptured 159. In Islet of Langerhans of pancreas, glucagon is
graafian follicle produced by
(4) Mammary gland development (1) α- cells (2) β-cells
154. Which part of pituitary gland secretes trophic (3) PP-cells (4) δ-cells
hormones ? 160. The correct order of layers of adrenal cortex from
(1) Pars intermedia outer to inner side is
(2) Pars nervosa (1) Zona reticularis → Zona fasciculata → Zona
(3) Pars distalis glomerulosa
(4) Posterior pituitary (2) Zona fasciculata → Zona glomerulosa → Zona
155. Select a pair of releasing hormone and inhibiting reticularis
hormone produced by hypothalamus. (3) Zona glomerulosa → Zona fasciculate → Zona
(1) GnRH and somatostatin fasciculata
(2) MSH and CRH (4) Zona glomerulosa → Zona reticularis → Zona
(3) TRH and FSH fasciculata
(4) PRL and MSH 161. Cells which are mainly acted upon by insulin are
156. Select the correct matching of a hormone, its (1) RBCs and WBCs
source and function (2) Hepatocytes and Adipocytes
Hormone Source Function (3) Leydig cells
(1) ADH Posterior Water (4) Follicular cells of thyroid
Pituitary conservation 162. How many hormones given in the box below are
in body peptide in nature ?
(2) Oxytocin Hypothalamus Vigorous
PTH, Thyroxine, Glucagon, Insulin
contraction of
uterus during (1) Four (2) Three
child birth (3) Two (4) One
(3) MSH Hypothalamus Regulates 163. Hormones are
pigmentation (1) Required in large amounts to be effective
of the skin (2) Intercellular messengers
(4) Estrogen Corpus leutum Induce (3) Secreted by exocrine part of glands
abortion (4) Active only after puberty
14 / 16
164. Anatomical and physiological connection between 171. Secretin acts on the A part of pancreas and
the CNS and endocrine system is represented by stimulates the release of water and B .
(1) Thyroid (2) Parathyroid Choose the option which correctly fill the above
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Thymus blanks A and B respectively.
165. The growth of mammary glands and formation of (1) Endocrine, HCO−
3
milk in them is stimulated by (2) Exocrine, HCO−

3
(1) Growth hormone (2) Prolactin (3) Endocrine, H+

(3) Oxytocin (4) ADH (4) Exocrine, H+
166. Target gland for ACTH is 172. Read the following statements a, b and c and
(1) Gonads select the options which contains all the correct
(2) Uterus statement(s).
(3) Adrenal gland a. Light induces dissociation of the retinal from
(4) Melanocytes in skin opsin resulting in changes in the structure of the
167. Bony cavity called sella-tursica houses opsin.
(1) Pineal gland (2) Pituitary gland b. The cochlear branch of auditory nerve transmits
(3) Testes (4) Adrenal gland the neural impulses for hearing.
168. Match the following and select the correct option. c. Static equilibrium of body is associated with
Column I Column II middle ear.
a. Thymus (i) Anterior part of the (1) a only (2) b only
kidney (3) a and b (4) a, b and c
b. Adrenal (ii) Lobular gland located 173. Read the statements A and B and choose the
on the ventral side of correct option.
aorta A. Sense organs are transducers and they
c. Pineal (iii) Dorsal side of transform the energy of a stimulus to the energy
forebrain of nerve impulses.
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) B. Sense organs, do not interpret the stimulus, it is
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) done by brain.
169. Enlargement of hormone-releasing gland, (1) Only statement A is correct
protrusion of the eyeballs and weight loss are (2) Both statements are correct
associated with (3) Only statement B is correct
(1) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland (4) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland 174. Rhodopsin deficiency can be overcome by taking
(3) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B
(4) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D
170. Which of the following hormone is also a 175. The hormone synthesised by the hypothalamus
neurotransmitter ? and released into the hypophyseal portal
(1) Calcitonin circulation to ensure production of hormones by
(2) Melatonin the pituitary gland is
(3) Epinephrin (1) ADH (2) LH
(4) Luteinizing hormone (3) GnRH (4) FSH
15 / 16
176. Select the option which correctly identifies 178. Choose the option which contains only incorrect
hormone ‘X’ and molecule(s) ‘Y’ in the given statements.
diagram of mechanism of hormone action. (a) Insulin is not given orally because digestive
enzymes break it down before it could exert its
function.
(b) Thyroxine shows calorigenic effect.
(c) The hormones produced during emotional
stress is oxytocin.
(d) Adrenaline does not influence the
carbohydrate metabolism.
(1) a and c (2) c and d
(3) b and d (4) b and c
179. What is correct to say about the hormone action in
humans ?
(1) In the absence of receptors, the hormone will
not produce their effects on target
tissues/organ
(1) X – Estrogen, Y - IP3 (2) Receptor of thyroxine is a membrane bound
(2) X – FSH, Y – cAMP protein
(3) X – Cortisol, Y – Ca++ (3) Erythropoietin activates bone marrow cells to
(4) X – Progesterone, Y – cAMP suppress RBC formation
177. Development of male pattern secondary sexual (4) The gonadotrophic hormones are secreted by
characters like facial hair growth and low pitch of adrenal cortex
voice in women occur in disorder 180. In the event of encountering an emergency
(1) Adrenal virilism situation of life or death, the emergency hormones
(2) Gynaecomastia do not
(3) Conn’s syndrome (1) Increase heart and breathing rate
(4) Addison’s disease (2) Breakdown lipids and proteins
(3) Stimulate the process of glycogenesis
(4) Cause dilation of pupil
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Edition: 2020-21

Medical: Entrance Exams - 2022

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Medical: Entrance Exams - 2022

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21-02-2021 B

Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate

(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

Mechanical properties of solids and fluids, Thermal properties of

Hydrogen, S-block elements (Alkali and Alkaline earth metals) and

Mineral nutrition, Photosynthesis in higher plants, Neural control and

MM : 720 Time : 3 Hrs

25. In a pressure cooker, cooking is fast because

(3) 1200 K (4) 700 K 2

46. Species which is manufactured by electrolytic A B C D

permanent hardness gives

(1) Boiling (1) Na 2O (2) Na 2O2

(2) Ion-exchange method (3) Na 3N (4) NaO2

(4) Washing soda method among the following is

49. Percentage strength of 56 volume H2 O2 solution is (1) NaF (2) NaCl

(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) NaBr (4) NaI

(3) 7 (4) 17 55. Least basic oxide among the following is

cubic form 56. Correct formula of tricalcium silicate is

(2) Reaction of water with sodium is an example (1) (CaSiO2 )3

of redox reaction (2) (CaSiO3 )3

(3) Strong hydrating tendency of water is due to (3) Ca 3SiO5

its high dielectric constant (4) Ca 3SiO4

(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) (a) and (b) only

(3) 3 (4) Zero (2) (a) and (c) only

one of the products (3) SiO2−

milk in them is stimulated by (2) Exocrine, HCO−

(1) Growth hormone (2) Prolactin (3) Endocrine, H+

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