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02/03/2021 DLMK-2,

DLML-2 &
DLM M-2
CODE-A

(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

North & North West Delhi | Lucknow Campuses


Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456
MM : 360 Time : 90 Min.
Fortnightly Test Series-8
(for NEET)

Topics covered :

Physics : Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of Fluids, Thermal Properties
of Matter

Chemistry : Hydrogen, The s-Block Elements, The p-Block Elements (Group 13 & 14), Organic Chemistry :
Some Basic Principles & Techniques (Nomenclature)
Botany : Transport in Plants, Mineral Nutrition

Zoology : Animal Kingdom

Instructions :

(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :


1. In the Young’s experiment, if the length of wire of 2. Which of the following relation is correct about
a given material become double and radius become Bulk modulus B of different substances?
half then the value of Young’s modulus become
(1) Bsolid < Bliquid < Bgas
(1) 4 times
(2) Bsolid < Bliquid > Bgas
(2) 2 times
(3) Bsolid > Bliquid > Bgas
(3) Half
(4) Remains same (4) Bgas > Bsolid > Bliquid

(1)
3. Two equal and opposite forces acts on a rod of 8. Water is flowing with speed v m/s in a pipe of
cross-sectional area A m2. If cross-section area is
uniform cross-sectional area 5 3 m2, as shown in
A
the figure. The shearing stress on section AB is reduced to m2, then speed of flow becomes
2
B (1) v m/s (2) v/2 m/s
(3) 2v m/s (4) 4v m/s
10 N  = 30° 10 N 9. A diver is 100 m below the surface of water. The
A
approximate pressure experienced by the diver is
(Take Patm = 105 Pa)
(1) 0.10 N/m2 (2) 5 N/m2
(1) 2  105 Pa (2) 9  105 Pa
(3) 10 N/m2 (4) 0.5 N/m2 (3) 11  105 Pa (4) 105 Pa
4. An open U-tube containing two liquids one is water 10. Water rises to a height of 1 cm in a capillary tube.
and other is oil as shown in figure. If the density If the tube is tilted  from the vertical, the water
of water is 1000 kg/m3 then the density of oil is rise in the tube to a length of 2 cm. The value of
approximately  is
 
(1) rad (2) rad
x xx B 4 3
x xx  
D x xx (3) rad (4) rad
x xx Oil 6
6m x xx 2
4m x xx 11. The breaking stress of a wire depends on
x xx
C x xx A (1) Material of wire (2) Length of wire
(3) Radius of wire (4) Both (2) and (3)
Water 12. A barometer kept in an elevator moving downward
with constant velocity reads 76 cm. The air
pressure in the elevator is
(1) 333 kg/m3 (2) 667 kg/m3 (1) 76 cm (2) > 76 cm
(3) 500 kg/m3 (4) 750 kg/m3 (3) < 76 cm (4) Zero
5. A boy sits in a bus holding a hydrogen filled 13. If an air bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to
balloon by a string. If the bus accelerates forward the top, its radius [temperature is constant].
then the balloon moves in (1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Remain same
a (4) May be increases or decreases
14. If a liquid rises in a capillary tube, then angle of
contact may be
 2
(1) rad (2) rad
(1) Forward direction 2 3
(2) Backward direction 3 
(3) rad (4) rad
(3) Does not move 4 3
15. The correct relation is (where symbols have their
(4) May be in forward or backward
usual meanings)
6. A steel wire of 2 m in length is stretched through
2 mm. If the cross-sectional area is 0.5 mm2 then BS
(1) Y  (2) Y = 2B [1 + ]
the energy density of wire is BS
(Take Ysteel = 2  1011 N/m2) B S
(3)   (4) Y = 2S [1 + ]
(1) 2.5  104 J/m3 (2) 105 J/m3 B S
(3) 2.5  105 J/m3 (4) 104 J/m3 16. A cylinder of volume 5  10–3 m3 is completely
immersed in water. The buoyant force acting on the
7. Dimensional formula of surface tension is cylinder is (take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) [MLT–2] (2) [ML0T–2] (1) 60 N (2) 25 N
(3) [ML2T–2] (4) [MLT2] (3) Zero (4) 50 N
(2)
17. With the rise in temperature, the viscosity of liquid 21. Value of acceleration due to gravity for earth (g)
(1) Increases decreases with increases in

(2) Decreases (1) Height from earth’s surface


(3) May be increases or decreases (2) Depth from earth’s surface
(4) Does not change (3) Density of earth keeping radius constant
18. Eight small droplets each of radius r falling through (4) Both (1) and (2)
air with terminal velocity v coalesce to form a
single large drop of radius R. The new terminal 22. Binding energy of a satellite revolving around a
velocity of bigger drop is plant is

(1) 3v (2) 4v (1) Positive


(3) 2v (4) v (2) Negative
19. A rectangular vessel when full of water takes 5 (3) Zero
minutes to be emptied through an orifice in its
(4) May be positive or negative
bottom. How much time it will take to be emptied
when vessel is filled one fourth with water? 23. If ratio of escape speeds from the surface’s of two
(1) 5 minute (2) 2.5 minute planets is 2 : 3 then ratio of orbital speeds near
their respectives surfaces is
(3) 1.5 minute (4) 3.5 minute
(1) 1 : 2
20. A cup of tea cools from 71°C to 69°C in two
minutes. How much time will it take to cool from (2) 2 : 3
41°C to 39ºC, if the temperature of surroundings is (3) 3 : 2
30ºC? (Assume Newton’s law of cooling is
applicable) (4) 2 : 1

(1) 2 minutes (2) 4 minutes


(3) 6 minutes (4) 8 minutes

CHEMISTRY

24. Hydrogen resembles alkali metals in all the given 27. Water gas is a mixture of
properties except (1) CO + N2
(1) It has one electron in its outermost shell (2) CO + H2
(2) It has a strong tendency to lose one electron (3) CO2 + N2
to form unipositive ion
(4) CO2 + H2
(3) If forms stable oxides like H2O and sulphides
28. Hydrogen with purity (> 99.95%) is obtained by the
like H2S
electrolysis of warm aqueous solutions of X
(4) It has very high ionisation energy between nickel electrodes. X is
25. Consider the following reactions (1) Ba(OH)2 (2) NaOH
100 C (3) Molten NaCl (4) Al(OH)3
H3BO3   A + H2O
29. Radioactive isotope(s) of hydrogen is/are
160 C
A   B + H2O 1 2
(1) 1H (2) 1H
Compound B is (3) 3
1H (4) All of these
(1) H2B4O7 (2) B(OH)4 30. Permanent hardness of water cannot be removed
by
(3) HBO2 (4) B2O3
(1) Ion exchange method
26. The percentage of ortho and para hydrogen in
ordinary dihydrogen respectively are (2) Calgon’s method
(1) 90%, 10% (2) 75%, 25% (3) Clark’s method

(3) 50%, 50% (4) 30%, 70% (4) Synthetic resins method

(3)
31. The strength of a solution of 10 volume H2O2 is 38. The element having maximum ionisation enthalpy
is
(1) 303.57 g/L
(1) Ca (2) Sr
(2) 30.36 g/L
(3) Ba (4) Be
(3) 91 g/L
39. The neutral oxide is
(4) 68 g/L
32. The pair of elements that do not show diagonal (1) CO2
relationship is (2) B2O3
(1) Li and Mg (3) CO
(2) Be and Al (4) CaO
(3) B and Si 40. The total number of (3c – 2e–) and (2c – 2e–)
(4) Si and N bonds respectively in diborane are

33. Alkali metals are never found in free state in nature (1) 2, 4
because (2) 4, 4
(1) They are highly reactive (3) 2, 2
(2) They have high electronegativities (4) 4, 2
(3) Their atomic size is very small 41. The general oxidation state of boron family
(4) All of these elements is

34. The alkali metal ion having the maximum hydration (1) –2
energy is (2) +2
(1) Li+ (3) +3
(2) Na+ (4) –1
(3) Cs+ 42. The correct order of thermal stability of the halides
(4) K+ of group-14 elements is
35. Alkali metals are generally soft because they have (1) CX4 > GeX4 > SnX4 > SiX4
weak (2) CX4 > SiX4 > GeX4 > SnX4
(1) Ionic bond (2) Covalent bond (3) SiX4 > SnX4 > GeX4 > CX4
(3) Metallic bond (4) van der Waals bond (4) SnX4 > GeX4 > SiX4 > CX4
36. Find the incorrect match
43. CH 2  CH  CH  CH 2 is called
Metals Flame colour
(1) Butadiene
(1) Li Crimson red (2) Buta-1, 2-diene
(2) K Green (3) Buta-1, 4-diene
(4) Buta-1, 3-diene
(3) Cs Blue
44. The IUPAC name of CH3C(CH3)2CH2CH=CH2 is
(4) Rb Red violet (1) 2, 2-Dimethyl-pent-4-ene
37. Alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia and give (2) 4, 4-Dimethyl-pent-1-ene
deep blue colour solution which is conducting in (3) 1,1,1 - Trimethyl-but-3-ene
nature. The blue colour of the solution is due to (4) 4, 4, 4-Trimethyl-but-1-ene
(1) Ammoniated cation 45. IUPAC name of CH2 = CHCN is
(2) Ammoniated electrons (1) Ethenenitrile
(2) Vinyl cyanide
(3) Ammonia
(3) Cyanoethene
(4) Metal (4) 2-Propenenitrile

(4)
BOTANY

46. Long distance transport of substances occurs by 52. In the given figure, values of w and s of two
(1) Simple diffusion only chambers (A and B) are given.
(2) Xylem and phloem A B

(3) Active transport only


(4) Cytoplasmic streaming only  w = –12  w = –10

47. A. Diffusion in solids is more common than, Solution of which chamber has lower solute
diffusion of solids. potential and water potential respectively?
B. Diffusion rate is affected by temperature and (1) A & B
pressure.
(2) A & A
(1) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) B & B
(2) Only A is incorrect
(4) B & A
(3) Only B is incorrect
53. Osmotic pressure (OP) of a flaccid cell is
(4) Both A and B are correct
(1) Equal to TP
48. Complete the given statements by choosing the
suitable option for A and B. (2) Equal to DPD
(3) Zero
(i) Porins form A pores in outer membrane
(4) All except (2)
of plastids.
54. A special type of diffusion in which water is
(ii) Transport proteins which allow diffusion of two
absorbed by solid substances without making a
different molecules in B directions are solution is known as
called antiporters. (1) Endosmosis
A B (2) Deplasmolysis
(1) Small Same (3) Imbibition
(2) Huge Same (4) Simple diffusion
(3) Small Opposite 55. Select the incorrect feature regarding apoplastic
(4) Huge Opposite pathway.
49. Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion are similar (1) Offers least resistance
to each other as both (2) Occurs through intercellular spaces
a. Have no requirement of ATP
(3) Faster than symplastic pathway
b. Response to protein inhibitors
(4) Affected by metabolic status of cell
c. Have requirement of transport proteins
56. Read the following statements and mark them as
(1) Only a and c (2) Only a True (T) or False (F).
(3) Only b and c (4) Only a and b A. Transport of water and minerals via xylary
50. Which of the given has maximum water potential elements is symplastic pathway.
at standard temperature and in absence of any B. Soil with high salt concentration is considered
pressure? as physiologically dry soil.
(1) Sugar solution (2) Pure water C. The movement of a molecule across a typical
(3) NaCl solution (4) Both (1) and (3) plant cell (about 50 m) takes approximately
minimum 25 seconds by diffusion.
51. The membrane which acts as both semi and
selectively permeable membrane is A B C
(1) Cellulosic cell wall (1) F T T
(2) Plasmalemma (2) F T F
(3) Suberised cell wall (3) T T T
(4) Parchment membrane (4) T T F
(5)
57. Which of the following is incorrect for nitrogenase? 63. Select incorrect match w.r.t activator element
(1) Requires high input of energy (1) Mg - RuBisCo
(2) Occurs exclusively in prokaryotes (2) Zn - Alcohol dehydrogenase
(3) Causes nitrogen reduction (3) Mo - Nitrite reductase
(4) Works under aerobic condition (4) Fe - Catalase
58. Brown leaf spots surrounded by chlorotic veins are 64. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t symbiotic nitrogen
characterised by fixation
(1) Deficiency of Mn (1) Root hairs curl by the action of nod factors
(2) Deficiency of Mo secreted by bacteria
(3) Toxicity of Mn (2) Rapid division of corticall cells is due to secretion
(4) Toxicity of Mg of auxins and cytokinins
(3) Small component of nitrogenase has Fe-Mo
59. Which of the following is the limiting nutrient for both
moiety in which Mo act as an electron acceptor
natural and agricultural ecosystem?
(4) Reducing agents are required
(1) C
65. The deficiency symptoms of which of the following
(2) N
nutrients are visible first in the senescent leaves?
(3) B
(1) Nitrogen, potassium and calsium
(4) K (2) Boron, calsium and magnesium
60. An element pl aying important role in cell (3) Potassium, nitrogen and magnesium
differentiation and carbohydrate translocation is
(4) Sulphur, boron and potassium
(1) B
66. Select incorrect statement w.r.t nitrogenase
(2) Zn
(1) Synthesized by nif gene of bacteria
(3) Cl
(2) It is oxygen sensitive enzyme
(4) Mn
(3) It is made up of two unequal subunits
61. An elememt playing important role in protein
(4) Manganese is a component of this enzyme
synthesis and not a constituent of the ring structure
of chlorophyll is 67. A + B + NADPH  C + H2O + NADP

(1) K The above given reaction is of reductive amination of


nitrogen metabolism, what will be appropiate
(2) Mg
substrate and product at the place of A, B, and C
(3) N respectively?
(4) Both (2) & (3) (1) Alfaketoglutaric acid, NH4 and glutamine
62. Find the correct match (2) Aspartic acid, NH4 and apparagine
a. Involved in redox reactions(i) (3) Alfaketoglutaric acid, NH4 and Glutamate
b. Component of Fd (ii) (4) Alfaketoglutaric acid, N2 and glutamic acid
c. Accumulates in older leaves(iii) 68. Select correct option w.r.t most important amides
(i) (ii) (iii) found in plants
(1) K Cl Fe (1) Glutamic acid, aspartic acid
(2) Zn Fe S (2) Asparagine, glutamine
(3) Cu S Ca (3) Uric acid and urea
(4) k S N (4) alfa- ketoglutaric acid and glutamic acid

(6)
ZOOLOGY
69. Which one is not a character of Coelenterata? 77. Cartilaginous endoskeleton possessing fishes have
to swim constantly to avoid sinking due to
(1) Choanocytes
(1) Absence of air bladder
(2) Cnidocytes
(2) Persistent notochord
(3) Nematocysts
(3) Lack of capacity to regulate their body
(4) Diploblastic nature temperature
70. Which of the following feature is not present in (4) Absence of streamlined body
Annelida?
78. Pelvic claspers are absent in
(1) Metameric segmentation
(1) Pristis (2) Carcharodon
(2) Triploblasty (3) Scoliodon (4) Pterophyllum
(3) Compound eyes 79. W hich of the following animal is a limbless
(4) Sexual reproduction amphibian?
71. A cnidarian which exhibits alternation of generation (1) Bufo (2) Ichthyophis
between asexual and sexual forms is (3) Hyla (4) Salamandra
(1) Physalia (2) Hydra 80. Select the mismatched pair.
(3) Adamsia (4) Aurelia (1) Chameleon – Tree lizard

72. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular in (2) Calotes – Wall lizard
(3) Chelone – Turtle
(1) Meandrina (2) Taenia
(4) Testudo – Tortoise
(3) Hirudinaria (4) Laccifer
81. Given below are the examples of birds
73. Eight external rows of ciliated comb plates are
possessed by Corvus, Columba, Struthio, Pavo, Aptenodytes,
(1) Ctenoplana (2) Gorgonia Neophron
(3) Ancylostoma (4) Pheretima How many of them are flightless and flying birds
respectively?
74. Among the following, high capacity of regeneration
(1) 2, 4 (2) 4, 2
is exhibited by
(3) 3, 3 (4) 1, 5
(1) Planaria
82. In which one of the following sets of animals do all
(2) Wuchereria belong to viviparous mammals?
(3) Hirudinaria (1) Aptenodytes, Delphinus
(4) Apis (2) Canis, Ornithorhynchus
75. Body surf ace is distinctly marked out into (3) Panthera, Pteropus
metameres, presence of closed circulatory system (4) Calotes, Camelus
and organ-system level of organisation are the
characteristics of phylum 83. Match column I and column II.
Column I Column II
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Coelenterata
a. Urochordata (i) Saccoglossus
(3) Annelida (4) Aschelminthes
b. Cephalochordata (ii) Ascidia
76. Select the group of animals belonging to the same
phylum. c. Hemichordata (iii) Petromyzon
d. Cyclostomata (iv) Branchiostoma
(1) Tapeworm, Roundworm, Hookworm
Choose the correct option
(2) Earthworm, Filarial worm, Hookworm
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) Silkworm, earthworm, Hookworm
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(4) Roundworm, Hookworm, Filarial worm

(7)
84. Chordates can be distinguished from non-chordates (1) Poikilothermy
by observing all of these features, except
(2) Cartilaginous endoskeleton in adult
(1) Presence of notochord
(3) Cornified skin
(2) Presence of post-anal tail
(4) Epidermal scales
(3) Presence of coelom
88. Which amongst the following can be described as
(4) Position of heart
a monogenetic parasite?
85. Common feature shared by the two classes under
(1) Trichinella (2) Ascaris
Pisces i.e., chondrichthyes and osteichthyes is
presence of (3) Dracunculus (4) Wuchereria

(1) Streamlined body 89 The zooids in Physalia which helps in performing the
functions of reproduction are known as
(2) Placoid scales
(1) Gastrozooids
(3) Air bladder (2) Dactylozooids
(4) Terminal mouth (3) Gonozooids
86. In amphibians, alimentary canal, urinary and (4) Autozooids
reproductive tracts open into a common chamber 90. Which of the following can’t be included as a character
which opens to the exterior called of Hydra?
(1) Operculum (1) Body of Hydra has no segmentation
(2) Cloaca (2) Mesogloea of Hydra is secreted by both
ectoderm and endoderm
(3) Air bladder
(3) Hydra normally possesses single ovary in oral
(4) Scutes region
87. Feature shared by fishes, amphibians and reptiles (4) Fertilization in Hydra is external
is presence of

  

(8)
DLMK-2,
02/03/2021 DLML-2 &
DLM M-2
CODE-A

(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

North & North West Delhi | Lucknow Campuses


Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456
MM : 360 Time : 90 Min.
Fortnightly Test Series-8
(for NEET)

1. (4) 19. (2) 37. (2) 55. (4) 73. (1)

2. (3) 20. (4) 38. (4) 56. (2) 74. (1)

3. (4) 21. (4) 39. (3) 57. (4) 75. (3)

4. (2) 22. (1) 40. (1) 58. (3) 76. (4)

5. (1) 23. (2) 41. (3) 59. (2) 77. (1)

6. (2) 24. (4) 42. (2) 60. (1) 78. (4)

7. (2) 25. (1) 43. (4) 61. (1) 79. (2)

8. (3) 26. (2) 44. (2) 62. (3) 80. (2)

9. (3) 27. (2) 45. (4) 63. (3) 81. (1)

10. (2) 28. (1) 46. (2) 64. (3) 82. (3)

11. (1) 29. (3) 47. (4) 65. (3) 83. (2)

12. (1) 30. (3) 48. (4) 66. (4) 84. (3)

13. (2) 31. (2) 49. (2) 67. (1) 85. (1)

14. (4) 32. (4) 50. (2) 68. (2) 86. (2)

15. (4) 33. (1) 51. (2) 69. (1) 87. (1)

16. (4) 34. (1) 52. (2) 70. (3) 88 (2)

17. (2) 35. (3) 53. (2) 71. (1) 89. (2)

18. (2) 36. (2) 54. (3) 72. (1) 90 (2)

(9)

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