


Instructions: -
 This booklet contains 25 Pages ENGLISH
 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
 Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
 This Paper is Based on New NEET Pattern. Having Section A and Section B.
 You have to solve all questions from Section A.
 Solve any 10 Questions from Physics and Chemistry Portion from Section B.
 Solve 20 Questions from Biology (Botany & Zoology) Portion of Section B.

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TEST NO. 17 Date : 02-04-23
1. उत्तर पत्र इस परीक्षा पु स्तिका के अं दर रखा है जब आपको परीक्षा पु स्तिका 1. The Answer sheet is inside this test Booklet. When you are
खोलने को कहा जाए, तो उत्तर पत्र ननकाल कर ध्यानपू र्वक पृष्ठ -1 एर्ं directed to open the test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and

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पृ ष्ठ -2 पर केर्ल नीले/काले बॉल पॉइं ट पेन से नर्र्रण भरें
fill in the particulars on Side-I and Side 2 carefully with blue/black
ball point pen only.
2. परीक्षा की अर्नि 3:20 घं टे हैं एर्ं परीक्षा पु स्तिका में भौनतकी, रसायनशास्त्र 2. The test is of 3:20 hours duration and the test Booklet contains
एर्ं जीर्नर्ज्ञान (र्नस्पनत नर्ज्ञान एर्ं प्रानणनर्ज्ञान नर्षयो से 200 बहुनर्कल्पीय

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200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct
प्रश्न हैं (4 नर्कल्पों में से एक सही उत्तर हैं । ) प्रत्येक नर्षय में 50 प्रश्न हैं answer) from Physics, Chemistry and biology (Botany & Zoology).
नजनको ननम्न र्णाव नुसार दो अनुभागों (A तथा (2) में नर्भानजत नकया गया हैं : 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and

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(a ) अनु भाग A के प्रत्येक नर्षय में 35 (पैं तीस) (प्रश्न संख्या 1 से 35, 51 से (2) as per details given below:
(1) Section- A shall consist of 35 (thirty-five) Questions in each
85, 101 से 135 एर्ं 151 से 185 ) प्रश्न हैं । सभी राशन अननर्ायव हैं ।
subject (Questions Nos-1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
(b ) अनु भाग B के प्रत्येक नर्षय में 15 (पं द्रह ) (प्रश्न संख्या 36 से 50, 86 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
से 100 , 136 से 150 एर्ं 186 से 200 ) प्रश्न है । अनुभाग B से
@ (2) Section - B shall consist of 15 (fifteen) questions in each
परीक्षानथव यों को प्रत्येक नर्षय से 15 (पं द्रह ) में से कोई 10 (दस ) प्रश्न subject (Question Nos-36 to 50, 86 to 100 136 to 150 and
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करने होंगे। 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any
परीक्षानथव यों की सुझाब हैं नक प्रश्नो के उत्तर दे ने के पू र्व अनुभाग बी में प्रत्येक
10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point pen only for writing particulars on this
नर्षय के सभी 15 प्रश्नो की पढ़े । यनद कोई परीक्षाथी 10 प्रश्न से अनिक प्रश्नो
70

page/marking responses
का उत्तर दे ता हैं तो उसके दर्ारा उत्तररत प्रथम 10 प्रश्नो का ही मूल्ां कन 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose
नकया जाएगा। in the test booklet only
3. इस पृ ष्ठ पर नर्र्रण अं नकत करने एर्ं उत्तर पत्र पर ननशान लगाने के नलए 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the
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केर्ल नीले /काले बॉल पॉइं ट पे न का प्रयोग करें । Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall.
the candidates are allowed to take away this Test booklet with
4. रफ कायव इस परीक्षा पु स्तिका में ननिाव ररत स्थान पर ही करे ।
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them.
5. परीक्षा संपन्न होने पर, परीक्षाथी कक्ष /हॉल छोड़ने से पू र्व उत्तर पत्र कक्ष 6. The CODE for this Booklet is QQ. Makes sure that the CODE
ननरीक्षक को अर्श्य सौंपे दें । परीक्षाथी अपने साथ इस परीक्षा पु स्तिका को printed on side 2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this
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ले जा सकते है । Test booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should

6. इस पु स्तिका का संकेत हैं QQ। यह सु नननित कर लें की इस परीक्षा पु स्तिका immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement
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का संकेत , उत्तर पत्र के पृ ष्ठ -२ पर छपे संकेत से नमलता है । अगर यह नभन्न of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not
हो, तो परीक्षाथी दू सरी परीक्षा और उत्तर पत्र ले ने के नलए ननरक्षक को तुरंत
folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. do
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अर्गत कराए। not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
7. परीक्षाथी सुनननित करें नक इस उत्तर पत्र को मोड़ा न जाए एर्ं उस पर कोई space in the test Booklet/answer Sheet.
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अन्य ननशान न लगाएं । परीक्षाथी अपना अनुक्रमां क परीक्षा पु स्तिका /उत्तर 8. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer
पत्र में ननिाव ररत स्थान नक अनतररक्त अन्यत्र ना नलखें। Sheet.
8. उत्तर पत्र पर नकसी प्रकार नक संसोिन हे तु व्हाइट फ्लू इक नक प्रयोग की
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अनुमनत नहीं है ।
In Case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
Name of the Candidate (In Capitals) :_______________________________________________________________
Roll Number : in figures : ______________________________________________________________
: in words : _____________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : ______________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : _________________________Invigilator’s Signature : _______________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of
Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________________________

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BOTANY
SECTION -A
1. An isolated metabolic reaction outside the (4) Chlorella - Unicellular alga
body of an organism, performed in a test 6. Select one of the following pairs of important
tube is? features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas
(1) Either living or nonliving. and Pinus and showing affinities with
(2) Neither living nor non-living. angiosperms.
(3) Always living. (1) Perianth and two integuments

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(4) Always non-living. (2) Embryo development and apical
2. "Properties of tissues are not present in the meristem
constituent cells but arise as a result of (3) Absence of resin duct and leaf venation

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interactions among the constituent cells. (4) Presence of vessel elements and absence
Similarly, the properties of cellular organelles of archegonia

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are not present in the molecular constituents 7. Which of the following is an extra whorl of a
flower-

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of the organelle but arise as a result of
interactions among the molecular (1) Calyx (2) Corolla
components comprising the organelle."This @ (3) Epicalyx (4) Androecium
paragraph is about: 8. The coconut water and the edible part of
(1) Convergent properties coconut are equivalent to -
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(2) Divergent properties (1) Endocarp (2) Mesocarp.

(3) Emergent properties (3) Embryo (4) Endosperm.
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(4) Retrogressive properties 9. If a viral disease has attacked a plant,

3. The name of club fungi is given to pathogen-free plants can be obtained from
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basidiomycetes due to the presence of this plant through tissue culture by cutting
cells from
(1) Club-shaped basidia.
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(1) Pith
(2) Sac-shaped basidia.
(2) Apical part
(3) Hymenium of basidia.
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(3) Intercalary part

(4) Water droplet mechanism for dehiscence (4) All of these.
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of basidiospores. 10. Which among the following cannot be a

4. Which one of the following is a saprophytic feature of a given diagram?
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protist?
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(1) Desmid
(2) Slime mould
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(3) Euglena
(4) Gonyaulax
5. Select the mismatched pair from given
below (1) It is a long cylindrical tube like structure
(1) Chlamydomonas–Non-flagellated alga (2) Having lignified walls
(2) Volvox – Colonial algae (3) Having large central cavity
(3) Laminaria – Flattened leaf like thallus (4) Having protoplasm
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11. Which of the following contain protoplasm?
(1) Sclereids
(2) Phloem fiber of secondary phloem
(3) Dicot stem hypodermis
(4) Tracheid of angiosperm
12. Which of the following is not true about
functions of the mesosome?
(1) They help in cell wall formation
(2) They do not take part in DNA replication
and distribution to daughter cells.
(3) They aid in respiration.’
(4) They assist in secretion processes.
13. Which of the following statements are true
w.r.t cell wall?
(1) In algae, the cell wall is made up of
cellulose, galactans and mannans.
(2) In plants, the cell wall is made up of
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cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins.
(3) The middle lamellae layer is formed of
calcium carbonate.
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(4) The cell wall and middle lamellae may be
transversed by plasmodesmata that
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connects the cytoplasm of neighbouring
cells.
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(1) Only (3), (4)
(2) Only (1), (2)
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(3) Only (1), (2), (3)
(4) Only (1), (2), (4)
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14. What will happen in an enzymatic reaction,
when the concentration of substrate is
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increased?
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(1) Enzyme is partially saturated
(2) Reaction reaches Vmax
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(3) Substrate molecules are saturated
(4) All of the above
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15. Glycosidic bond of nucleoside form between
(1) 1st carbon of ribose sugar and 9th
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member of purine.
(2) 5th carbon of ribose sugar and 9th
member of purine.
(3) 1st carbon of ribose sugar and 1st
member of purine.
(4) 5th carbon of ribose sugar and 1st
member of purine.
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16. Identify the wrong statement about meiosis
(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(2) Four haploid cells are formed
(3) At the end of meiosis the number of
chromosomes are reduced to half
(4) Two cycle of DNA replication occurs
17. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Transport of molecules in phloem can be
bidirectional.
(2) Movement of minerals in xylem is
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unidirectional.
(3) Unloading of sucrose at the sink does not
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involve the utilization of ATP.
(4) Elements most easily mobilized in plants
from one region to another are: phosphorus
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nitrogen and potassium.
18. Some beneficial elements other than
essential elements are required by higher
plants-
(1) Cobalt (2) Selenium
(3) Silicon (4) All
19. Which of the following with respect to early
experiments of photosynthesis is wrongly
matched?
(1) Joseph Priestly - Showed that plants
restore the air which is removed by candle
and animal
(2) Jan Ingenhousz - Showed that sunlight is
essential for photosynthesis.
(3) Julius von Sachs - Proved that plants
produce glucose when they grow.
(4) T. W. Engelmann - Showed that the green
substance is located within special bodies in
plants.
20. How many protons are pumped by one
reduced NAD from matrix to outer chamber
of mitochondria?
(1) 4 (2) 10
(3) 3 (4) 2
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21. Which of the following pair of plant (4) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked
hormones is responsible for seed disease like haemophilia.
germination and apical dominance 26. Match the column I with column II and select
respectively? the correct answer from the codes given
(1) ABA and GAs (2) Auxins and GAs below:
(3) GAs and IAA (4) Ethylene and ABA
22. Cell of ……zone attain maximum size in
terms of wall thickening and protoplasmic
modification
(1) Meristematic (2) Elongation (1) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a

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(3) Maturation (4) None of the above (2) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
23. Which one of the following statements is (3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
wrong?

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(4) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
(1) Pollen grains in some plants remain
viable for months. 27. What is true for the given image in the

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(2) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin. question?

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(3) When pollen is shed at two-celled state,
double fertilization does not take place.
(4) Vegetative cell is larger than the @
generative cell.
24. Gene A, B and C located on the same
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chromosome. Test cross show frequency

between A and B is 28% and A and C is 12%.
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Find the gene sequence in the chromosome.

(1) ABC (1) Semiconservative DNA replication
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(2) BCA (2) Both strands of DNA act as a template for

(3) CAB DNAreplication
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(4) Cannot predict as data is insufficient. (3) Every New DNA has an old strand & a
new strand
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25. Study the pedigree chart given below. What

(4) All of these
does it show?
28. Select the incorrect statement with respect
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to the packaging of DNA helix

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(1) The negatively charged DNA is wrapped

around the positively charged histone
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octamer
(2) Histones are rich in the basic amino acids
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(1) Inheritance of a sex linked inborn error of
metabolism like phenylketonuria.
(2) Inheritance of a condition like
phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive
trait.
(3) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not
possible.
(3) The packaging of chromatin at higher
level requires non-histone chromosomal
proteins
(4) The chromatin that is more densely
packed and stains light are called as
heterochromatin

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29. What would be the base sequence of RNA
transcript obtained from the given DNA
segment?
5' - GCATTCGGCTAGTAAC - 3' Coding strand
of DNA
3' - CGTAAGCCGATCATTG - 5' Non-coding
strand of DNA
(1) 5' - GCAUUCGGCUAGUAAC - 3'
(2) 5' - CGUAAGCCGAUCAUUG - 3'
(3) 5' GCATTCGGCTAGTAAC
(4) 3' - CGTAAGCCGATCATTG - 5'
32. Flocs' refer to?
(1) Masses of bacteria associated with fungal
filaments to form mesh-like structure
(2) Primary sludge formed in the ETP
(3) The remaining part of the sludge
(4) Biogases' formed from the fermentation
of organicwastes
33. In case of single huge banyan tree and 200
parthenium plants ….can be meaningful
measure of population size

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(1) Percent cover (2) Total number
30. A technique of micropropagation is (3) Biomass (4) 1 and 3
(1) Multiple shoot production 34. What is common between Azospirillum,

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(2) Multiple shoot production and somatic
Azotobacter & Rhizobium?
embryogenesis
(3) Growth of microorganisms on culture (1) Symbiotic association with plants

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medium (2) Free living nitrogen fixing ability
(3) Association with Leguminosae family

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(4) Somatic embryogenesis.
(4) All are diazotrophs
31. Androgenic haploids are produced in anther@ 35. Minimal requirement for plant species is
cultures by (1) Soil microbes to breakdown organic
matter in soil
(1) Tapetum
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(2) Animals for pollination

(2) Anther wall
(3) Microbes to return inorganic nutrients
(3) Connectives
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for absorption
(4) Young pollen grains
(4) All of the above
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BOTANY
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(SECTION -B)
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36. Calculating intrinsic rate of natural increase 38. In the grass-deer-tiger food chain, grass
requires biomass is one tonne. The tiger biomass shall
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(1) Birth rate be

(2) Death rate (1) 100 kgs
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(3) Population density (2) 10 kgs

(4) 1 and 2 (3) 200 kgs
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(4) 1 kg
37. Choose the area which will take minimum
39. The figure given below is a diagrammatic
time for succession.
representation of response of organisms to
(1) Newly Cooled lava
abiotic factors. What do A, B and C represent
(2) Newly created pond
respectively?
(3) Abandoned farmland
(4) Bare rock

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42. All of the following is true except
(1) Diatoms have left behind large amounts
of cell wall deposit in their habitat
(2) As embedded with silica in cell wall,
diatoms are indestructible
(3) Diatomaceous earth is seen due to
presence of silica in their cell wall
(4) They are actively swimming animals

43. Which of the following is a character of

Rhodophyceae?

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A B C (1) Major pigments are chlorophyll-a and
(1) Conformer Regulator Partial chlorophyll-b
regulator (2) Commonly called brown algae

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(2) Regulator Partial Conformer (3) Stored food materials are mannitol and
regulator laminarin

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(3) Partial Regulator Conformer (4) Flagellum is absent
regulator 44. Underground stem cannot be distinguished

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(4) Regulator Conformer Partial from root on the basis of –
regulator (1) Nodes and internode
@ (2) Presence of scaly leaves
40. Which of the following is the (3) Axillary and terminal buds
wrong statement? (4) Presence of vessels
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(1) Seed of hybrid plant loses hybrid vigour. 45. Select the incorrect statement about
(2) Polyembryony is a type of apomixis. apoplastic system
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(3) Embryonic development sequence in (1) Is independent of pressure gradient

maize and mango is proembryo > globular > (2) Doesn’t provide any barrier to water
heart shaped > mature embryo.
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movement
(4) During artificial hybridization, (3) Water movement is through mass flow
emasculation prevents contamination of the
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(4) Is independent on concentration

stigma from unwanted pollen of other plants gradients
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of the same species. 46. Which of the following is an incorrect match?

41. Match the column I with column II and select (1) Essential elements - Total 19
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the correct answer from the codes given (2) Mg2+ - Activates PEP carboxylase and
below: RUBP carboxylase
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(3) Zn2+ - Activates alcohol dehydrogenase

(4) Ca2+ - Mitotic spindle
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47. The graph given below shows the effect of

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potassium cyanide on the rate of

photosynthesis of Chlorella at different light
intensities. Which one of the following can be
(1) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c deduced from the graph?
(2) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
(3) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
(4) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

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(2) PS II, PS I, Cyclic
(3) PS II, PSI, non-cyclic
(4) PS I, PS II, Cyclic

49. Which is correct for a gametophyte in

angiosperm?

(1) Potassium cyanide appears to inhibit the

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light (Hill) reaction.
(2) Potassium cyanide appears to absorb
more light at high light intensities. (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

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(3) Potassium cyanide appears to inhibit 50. Statement I - Number of ovules in an ovary
photosynthesis equally at high and low light of wheat, paddy and mango is one.
Statement II- There are many ovules in an

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intensities.
(4) Potassium cyanide appears to have no ovary of papaya , watermelon and orchid.

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inhibiting effect on photosynthesis at low (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
intensities. correct
@ (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
48. ______ is located in the non-appressed part is correct
of grana thylakoids whereas ____ is present (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
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in the appressed part of grana thylakoids. incorrect

………Phosphorylation is performed in (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
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collaboration of both them. incorrect

(1) PS I, PS II, Non-cyclic
ZOOLOGY
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SECTION -A
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51. All of the following is true about Annelida 53. Epithelium present in cornea, oesophagus,
except urethra and vagina is
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(1) Reproduction by asexual means (1) Glandular

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(2) Include blood sucking leech (2) Ciliated

(3) Nephridia helps in excretion (3) Stratified columnar
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(4) Parapodia in Nereis (4) Stratified squamous

52. All of the following are true except 54. Match the following.
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(1) Aschelminthes present with scattered

mesodermal pouches
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(2) Absence of mesoderm is characteristic of

coelenterate
(3) Closed type of circulatory system is seen
in arthropods
(4) Radial symmetry is seen in (1) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
Echinodermata (2) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(3) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(4) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

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55. If for some reason, the parietal cells of the
gastric epithelium become partially non-
functional, what is likely to happen?
(1) The pancreatic enzymes and especially
the trypsin and lipase will not work
efficiently.
(2) The pH of the stomach will fall abruptly.
(3) Pepsin will be more effective.
(4) Proteins will not be adequately
hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and
peptones.
(4) 40 and 0.3 mm Hg.
61. Identify the wrong statement related to
embryonic development at various months
of pregnancy:
(1) In human beings, after one month of
pregnancy, the embryo’s heart is formed.
(2) The first movements of the fetus are
usually observed during the fifth month.
(3) The appearance of hair on the head is
normally observed in the third month.
(4) By the end of the second month of

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56. Match Column -I with Column-II and choose pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and
the correct option digits
62. The very first hormone which is primarily

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responsible for spermatogenesis at the age
of puberty

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(1) GnRh
(2) LH
(1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

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(3) FSH
(2) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(4) Estrogen
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 @ 63. Mode of action of Condoms is –
(4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(1) Increase sperm phagocytosis.
57. Dental formula shows (2) Decrease sperm motility.
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(1) Structure of teeth (3) Prevent the ejaculated semen from
(2) Monophyodont or diphyodont condition entering the female reproductive tract.
(3) Number and type of teeth in both jaws
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(4) Inhibit ovulation.

(4) Number and type of teeth in one half of 64. All of the following is true except
both jaws. (1) Those who are better fit in an
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58. Ratio of oxyhaemoglobin and haemoglobin environment leave more progeny

in blood is based upon (2) Better fitted will survive more and are
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(1) Oxygen tension selected in nature

(2) Carbon -dioxide tension.
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(3) Darwin measured natural selection in

(3) Carbonate tension. terms of reproductive fitness
(4) Bicarbonate tension.
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(4) Variations are not important in evolution

59. Blue copper protein complex contained in by natural selection
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some molluscs in their plasma for oxygen 65. Australoid, Caucasoid, Mongoloids and
transport is Negroids are races of man evolved from
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(1) Haemocyanin (1) True man (Homo sapiens)

(2) Chlorocruorions (2) Early true man (Homo erectus)
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(3) Bilirubin (3) Modern man

(4) Haemoglobin. (4) Handyman (Homo habilis)
60. In human beings, the partial pressure of 66. The birth weight of most babies varies
carbon dioxide in the inspired and expired between 3-4 Kg, while babies who are either
air is respectively much smaller or much larger suffer a high
(1) 0.3 and 40 mm Hg rate of mortality. It explains
(2) 0.3 and 32 mm Hg (1) Directional selection
(3) 40 and 46 m Hg (2) Disruptive selection

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8
 .
(3) Stabilizing selection 72. Release of phosphates and nitrates in water
(4) Chance event bodies (i.e., in rivers and lakes) leads to
67. Advantages of using a selectable marker for (1) Algal bloom
cloning a vector are: (2) Reduced algal growth
(A) It helps in identifying and eliminating (3) Biomagnification
non-transformants. (4) Increased growth of decomposers
(B) It selectively permits the growth of 73. One greenhouse gas contributes 14% to
transformants. total global warming and another
(C) It controls the copy number of the linked contributes 6%. These are respectively
DNA. identified as
(D) It helps in linking the alien DNA with the (1) NO2 and CO2

om
vector. (2) CFC and N2O
(1) Only (A) (3) Methane and CO2
(2) Only (A), (B) (4) Methane and CFCs

l.c
(3) Only (B), (C) 74. According to the size of air pollutants, range
(4) Only (A), (D) and types of chemical the below-shown

ai
device is best used to control which of the
68. Match Column-I with Column-II and select following pollutants?

gm
the correct option.
@
65

(1) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

70

(2) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (1) Large particulates

(3) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (2) Charged particulate matter
at

(4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (3) Dissolved gasses

69. In the grass-deer-tiger food chain, grass (4) Fine particles
ja

biomass is one tonne. The tiger biomass 75. Eco-san toilets are not associated with
shall be which of the following?
et

(1) 100 kgs (1) Are working in Sri Lanka and Kerala
(2) 10 kgs (2) Composting method for recycling of
je

(3) 200 kgs human excreta

(4) 1 kg
m

(3) Recycled material forms natural fertilizer

70. The relation between species richness and (4) Enhance the need for chemical fertilizers
ra

area is correctly depicted by 76. What will happen if the blood becomes
(1) log S = log C - Z log A acidic?
pa

(2) log S = Z log A (1) Association of O2 and Hb will increase

(3) log S = log C + Z log A (2) Rate of formation of RBC will increase
(4) log S = log C (3) Association of O2 and Hb will decrease
71. Which pair of geographical areas shows (4) Neither O2 association with Hb nor
maximum diversity in our country? number of RBC will increase
(1) Sundarbans and Renn of Kutch
(2) Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats
(3) Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats
(4) Kerala and Punjab.
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9
 .
77. Mark the correct statement. 82. All of the following is true about man and
(1) 80% of humans have Rh antigen on the cheetah except
surface. (1) They have similar pattern of bone of
(2) 60% of humans have Rh antigen on the forelimb
surface. (2) Forelimb perform different functions
(3) 50% of humans have Rh antigen on the (3) Upper limb have similar anatomical
surface. structure
(4) 20% of humans have Rh antigen on the (4) Upper limb adapted for same function
surface. 83. Hardy-Weinberg's principle of 'zero
78. Diameter of pupil is regulated by muscle evolution' is based on?
fiber of (1) Genetic equilibrium

om
(1) Ciliary body (2) Random mating
(2) Sclera (3) No migrations
(3) Choroid (4) All of the above

l.c
(4) Iris 84. Those species whose populations have been
79. The transport of which neurotransmitters is seriously depleted and whose ultimate

ai
interfered with by cocaine? security is not assured are known as
(1) Dopamine (1) Threatened species

gm
(2) Acetylcholine (2) Endangered species
(3) Serotonin (3) Vulnerable species
(4) GABA @ (4) Rare species.
80. The anterior lobe of pituitary affects? 85. You are a doctor in a village healthcare
(1) Protein metabolism center & recently people bring a person who
65

(2) Fat metabolism is panicked due to snakebite. Which type of

(3) Carbohydrate metabolism treatment is best for him?
70

(4) All of the above (1) Injectable antibiotics to cure wound

81. Which one of the following pairs of organs (2) Injectable purified snake venom
at

includes only the endocrine glands? (3) Injectable preformed antibodies against
(1) Thymus and Testes snake venom
ja

(2) Adrenal and Ovary (4) Magical practices by snake-charmer

(3) Parathyroid and Adrenal available in nearby village
et

(4) Pancreas and parathyroid

ZOOLOGY
je

SECTION -B
m

86. A linear DNA molecule undergoes digestion (1) Remove proteins such as histones.
ra

(gel electrophoresis) having 6 restriction (2) Precipitate DNA.

sites. How many DNA fragments will be (3) Break open the cell and release DNA.
pa

(4) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes.

generated?
88. How many varieties of rice have been
(1) 5
(2) 6 estimated to be present in India?
(3) 7 (1) 2200
(4) 8 (2) 20000
87. During the process of isolation of DNA, (3) 2,00,000
(4) 20,00,000
chilled ethanol is added to

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10
 .
89. Pseudomonas putida cleans
(1) Oils spills
(2) Sewage
(3) Hides
(4) None of the above.
90. DDT residues are rapidly passed through
food chain as DDT is
(1) Water soluble
(2) Moderately toxic
(3) Liposoluble
(4) Nontoxic to aquatic animals.
91. Assertion: Auditory ossicles are small bones
present in the cavity of the inner ear.
Reason: Auditory ossicles maintain the
balance of air present between two sides of
the eardrum.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
gm
Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
@ (3) Only B and D
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
65
(3) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
70
92. In mammalian eye the fovea is the center of
the visual field where
at
(1) More rods than cones are found
(2) High density of cones occur but has no
ja
rods
(3) The optic nerve leaves the eye
et
(4) Only rods are present.
je
93. Choose the correct match of structure with
its component
m
(1) F actin — it is polymer of G actin with
meromyosin
ra
(2) Troponin — it is pentamer of 5 sub units
(3) Tropomyosin — it is made up of three
pa
filaments run close with myosin
(4) Myosin — thick polymerised protein of
monomeric protein meromyosin
94. According to sliding filament theory what is
true for the myofilaments?
(1) The thin filament is primary filament as it
slide over thick filament
11 | MOCK TEST # 17 (ENGLISH) 2022-23
(2) The thick filament is secondary filament
as it causes the thin filament to slide over
(3) Both the filaments slide past each other.
(4) Contraction of muscle fibre takes place
by the sliding of the thin filament over the
thick filament.
95. What is correct about the female
reproductive system in cockroaches?
(A) Two ovaries lying laterally in the 2 and 6
abdominal segments.
om
(B) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6
segment which opens into the
genital chamber
l.c
(C) Females produce 9–10 ootheca each
containing 14—16 eggs
(D) The nymph grows by moulting about 13
ai
times to reach the adult form
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only C and D
(4) All the statements are correct
96. What is correct about anatomical positioning
of Kidneys inside the human body?
(1) Kidneys are said to be retroperitoneal
organs.
(2) They are located between the levels of
the last thoracic and third lumbar vertebrae.
(3) They are partially protected by the 11
and 12 pairs of ribs.
(4) The right kidney is slightly lower than the
left.
(1) A and C are correct
(2) B and D are correct
(3) A and D are correct
(4) All of the statements are correct
regarding the positioning of kidney
97. What is the characteristic role of hPL
hormone during the pregnancy?
(1) It deactivates the estrogen receptor on
the placenta
(2) It acts as an antagonist to progesterone
action.
(3) Its action is similar to hCG.
11
 .
(4) It modulates maternal metabolism to
meet the energy requirements of the
developing fetus.
98. Assertion: Generally a woman does not
conceive during lactation period.
Reason: The hormone prolactin initiates and
maintains lactation in a woman.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of
99. Which of the following statements about
morula in humans is correct?
(1) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA
than an uncleaved zygote
(2) It has almost equal quantity of the
cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much
more DNA
(3) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less
DNA than in an uncleaved zygote.
(4) It has more or less equal quantity of
cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote

om
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but 100. Which of the following statements is
Reason is not the correct explanation of incorrect about metagenesis?

l.c
Assertion. (1) Alteration of asexual and sexual phases in
(3) If Assertion is false but Reason is true. the life cycle of obelia is called metagenesis

ai
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false. (2) Metagenesis is similar to alteration of
generations as found in plants

gm
(3) Both medusa and polyp are diploid
(4) Medusa is the sexual phase and polyp is
@ the asexual phase.
65
70
at
ja
et
je
m
ra
pa

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12
 .
PHYSICS
SECTION - A

101. Work done by a frictional force is 106. Suppose the gravitational force varies
(1) Negative inversely as the nth power of distance.
(2) Positive Then the time period of a planet in
circular orbit of radius R around the sun
(3) Zero
will be proportional to
(4) All of the above 𝑛+1 𝑛−1
(1) 𝑅 ( )
(2) 𝑅 ( )

om
2 2
𝑛−2
( )
102. A metallic meter stick moves with a (3) 𝑅 𝑛 (4) 𝑅 2

velocity of 2 m/sec in a direction

l.c
perpendicular to its length and 107. A wheel of radius 1m rolls forward half

ai
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic a revolution on a horizontal ground.
field of magnitude 0.2 T. The emf The magnitude of the displacement of

gm
induced between the ends of the stick the point of the wheel initially in
(1) 0.2 V (2) 0.4 V @ contact with the ground is, on making
(3) 0.5 V (4) 0.6 V half revolution
103. In a common base amplifier the phase (1) 𝜋 (2) 2𝜋
65

difference between the input signal (3) √2𝜋 (4) √𝜋 2 + 4

70

voltage and the output voltage is

(1) 0 (2) 𝜋/4 108. A coil of inductive reactance 31 Ω has a
at

(3) 𝜋/2 (4) 𝜋 resistance of 8 Ω. It is placed in series

with a condenser of capacitive
ja

104. A pipe open at both ends has reactance 25 Ω. the combination is

et

fundamental frequency 𝑓 in air. The connected to an AC source of 110 volt.

pipe is dipped vertically in water so that The power factor of the circuit is
je

half of it is in water. The fundamental (1) 0.80 (2) 0.33

m

frequency of the air column is now (3) 0.56 (4) 0.64

3𝑓
(2) 2𝑓
ra

(1) 4
(3) 𝑓 (4) 2
𝑓 109. A radioactive material has a half-life of
pa

10 days. What fraction of the material

105. A simple pendulum has time period T.
would remain after 30 days
The bob is given negative charge and
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.25
surface below it is given positive
(3) 0.125 (4) 0.33
charge. The new time period will be
(1) < T (2)> T
(3) = T (4)∞

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13
 .
2𝑉 3𝑉
110. When the wave of hydrogen atom (1) 𝑅 (2) 𝑅
comes from infinity into the first orbit 𝑉 𝑉
(3) 𝑅 (4) 2𝑅
then the value of wave number is
(1) 109700 𝑐𝑚−1
(2) 1097 𝑐𝑚−1 114. The current flowing through a wire
(3) 109 𝑐𝑚−1 depends on time as 𝐼 = 3𝑡 2 + 2𝑡 + 5.
(4) 10 𝑐𝑚−1 The charge flowing through the cross
section of the wire in time from t = 0 to
t = 2 sec is ?
111. In a young’s double slit experiment (slit

om
distance d) monochromatic light of (1) 22 C (2) 20 C
wavelength 𝜆 is used and the figure (3) 18 C (4) 5 C

l.c
pattern observed at a distance L from
the slits. The angular position of the 115. A boy standing at the top of a tower of

ai
bright fringes are 20m height drops a stone. Assuming g =
1 10 𝑚𝑠 −2, the velocity with which it hits

gm
𝑁𝜆 (𝑛+ )𝜆
(1) sin−1 ( 𝑑 ) (2) sin −1
( 2
) the ground is
𝑑
1 (1) 10.0 m/s (2) 20.0 m/s
𝑁𝜆 (𝑛+ )𝜆
(3) sin−1 ( 𝐿 ) (4) sin−1 ( 2
@
)
𝐿
(3) 40.0 m/s (4) 5.0 m/s
65

112. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in 116. Ten electrons are equally spaced and
70

contact with a concave lens of focal fixed around a circle of radius R.

length 25 cm. The power of Relative to V = 0 at infinity, the
at

combination is electrostatic potential V and the

electric field E at the centre C are
ja

(1) −1.5 𝐷 (2) −6.5 𝐷

(3) +6.5 𝐷 (4) + 6.67 𝐷 (1) 𝑉 ≠ 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐸⃗ ≠ 0
et

(2) 𝑉 ≠ 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐸⃗ = 0
je

113. Five equal resistance each of resistance

(3) 𝑉 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐸⃗ = 0
R are connected as shown in the figure.
m

(4) 𝑉 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐸⃗ ≠ 0
A battery of V volts is connected
ra

between A and B. The current flowing

117. Which of the following groups of forces
in AFCEB will be
pa

could be in equilibrium?
(1) 3N, 4N, 5N
(2) 4N, 5N, 10N
(3) 30N, 40N, 80N
(4) 1 N, 3 N, 5 N

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 .
118. A rectangular loop sides 20 cm and 10
cm carries a current of 5.0 A. A uniform 124. Relationship between P, V and E for a
magnetic field of magnitude 2 T exists gas is
3 2
parallel to the longer side of the loop. (1) 𝑃 = 2 𝐸𝑉 (2) 𝑉 = 3 𝐸𝑃
3 2
The torque acting on the loop is (3) 𝑃𝑉 = 2 𝐸 (4) 𝑃𝑉 = 3 𝐸
(1) 0.2 Nm (2) 0.3 Nm
(3) 2 Nm (4) 3 Nm 125. In an isochoric process if 𝑇1 =
27℃ 𝑎𝑚𝑑 𝑇2 = 127℃ then 𝑃1 /𝑃2 will
119. At the magnetic poles of the earth, a be equal to

om
compass needle will be (1) 9/59 (2) 2/3
(1) Vertical (3) 3 /4 (4) 1/2

l.c
(2) Bent slightly
(3) Horizontal 126. A cylindrical wire is twisted with an

ai
(4) Inclined at 45° to the horizontal angle 𝜃, what is torsion produced in it?
Notation are usual.

gm
120. Energy required for the electron (1) 𝐶 ⁄𝜃 (2) 𝐶𝜃
excitation in 𝐿𝑖 ++ from the first to the (3) 𝐶 ⁄𝜃 2 (4) 𝐶𝜃 3⁄2
@
third Bohr orbit is
65

(1) 12.1 eV (2) 36.3 eV 127. The unit of electric field intensity is
(3) 108.8 eV (4) 122.4 eV (1) newton/coulomb
70

(2) joule/coulomb
121. Momentum of photon of wavelength 𝜆 (3) volt-meter
at

is (4) newton/meter
ℎ 128. A body of mass 5 kg moving with a
ja

(1) 𝜆 (2) Zero

ℎ𝜆 ℎ𝜆 velocity 10 m/s collides with another
et

(3) 𝑐 2 (4) 𝑐 body of the mass 20 kg at, rest and

je

comes to rest. The velocity of the

122. The pressure on a swimmer 20 m below second body due to collision is
m

the surface of water at sea level is (1) 2.5 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(1) 1.0 atm (2) 2.0 atm
ra

(3) 7.5 m/s (4) 10 m/s

(3) 2.5 atm (4) 3.0 atm 129. Doubly ionized helium atoms and
pa

123. The ratio of thermal conductivity of two hydrogen ions are accelerated form
rods of different material is 5:4 . The rest through the same potential drop.
two rods of same area of cross- section The ratio of the final velocities of the
and same thermal resistance will have helium and the hydrogen ion is
the lengths in the ratio (1) 1/2 (2) 2
(1) 4:5 (2) 9:1 (3) 1⁄√2 (4) √2
(3) 1:9 (4) 5:4
15 | MOCK TEST # 17 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

15
 .

130. A circular loop of radius a, carrying a 133. A boy of mass 40 kg moves on a 10 m

current I, is placed in two-dimensional
magnetic field. The center of the loop
coincides with the center of the field
(see figure). The strength of the
magnetic field at the periphery of the
loop is B. The magnetic force acting on
loop is.
long, 60 kg railroad car on the smooth
horizontal floor. Now the boy moves
with speed 5 m/s. If the boy starts from
middle of the car and reaches to one
end of the car, find the distance
traveled by the car.
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m

om
(3) 3 m (4) 4 m

l.c
134. Escape velocity of a body when
projected from the earth’s surface is

ai
11.2 𝑘𝑚 𝑠 −1 . If it is projected at an

gm
angle of 50∘ from the horizontal, the
escape velocity will be
(1) 2 π B i a (2) 4 π B i a @ (1) 11.6 𝑘𝑚 𝑠 −1
(3) π B i a (4) B i a (2) 12.8 𝑘𝑚 𝑠 −1
65

(3) 11.2 𝑘𝑚 𝑠 −1
131. If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1% (4) 16.2 𝑘𝑚 𝑠 −1
70

longer, its resistance will

(1) Increase by 0.05% 135. If 𝑟1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑟2 are the radii of the atomic
at

(2) Increase by 0.2 % nuclei of mass numbers 64 and 125

(3) Decrease by 0.2% respectively, then the ratio (𝑟1 / 𝑟2 ) is
ja

(4) Decrease by 0.05% 64 64

et

(1) 125 (2) √125

132. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with 5 4
je

(3) 4 (4) 5
a velocity 720 km/h at a height of 2000
m

m. When it is vertically at a point A on

ra

the ground, a bomb is released from it.

The bomb strikes the ground at point B.
pa

The distance AB is
(1) 1 km (2) 2 km
(3) 3 km (4) 4 km

16 | MOCK TEST # 17 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

16
 .
PHYSICS
SECTION – B

136. A ball is thrown upwards at an angle of
60o to the horizontal. It falls on the
ground at a distance of 90 m. If the ball
is thrown with the same initial velocity
at an angle 30o, it will fall on the ground
at a distance of
140. An ideal coil of 10 henry is joined in
series with a resistance of 5 ohm and a
battery of 5 volt. 2 second after joining,
the current flowing in ampere in the
circuit will be
(1) 𝑒 −1 (2) (1 − 𝑒 −1 )

om
(1) 30 m (2) 60 m (3) (1 − 𝑒) (4) e
(3) 90 m (4) 120 m

l.c
141. The operation of a nuclear reactor is
137. The resistance of a wire of iron is 10 said to be critical, I the multiplication

ai
ohm and temperature coefficient of factor (k) has a value
resistivity is 5 × 10−3 /℃. At 20℃ it (1) 1 (2) 1.5

gm
carries 30 mA of current. Keeping (3) 2.1 (4) 2.5
constant potential difference between @
its ends, the temperature of the wire is 142. Which one of the following nuclear
65
raised to 120℃. The current in mA that reactions is a source of energy in the
flows in the wire now is sun
70

(1) 20 (2) 45 (1) 49𝐵𝑒 + 42𝐻𝑒 → 126𝐶 + 10𝑛

(3) 2 (4) 60 (2) 32𝐻𝑒 + 32𝐻𝑒 → 42𝐻𝑒 + 11𝐻 + 11𝐻
at

(3) 144 92 235

56𝐵𝑎 + 56𝐾𝑟 → 92𝑈 + 0𝑛
1

138. Two plane mirrors are inclined at 70°. (4) 56 112 167 1
26𝐹𝑒 + 48𝐶𝑎 → 74𝑊 + 0𝑛
ja

A ray incident on one mirror at angle 𝜃,

et

after reflection falls on the second 143. A point mass m is placed inside a
mirror and is reflected from the parallel spherical shell of radius R and mass M.
je

to the first mirror,𝜃 is at a distance R/2 from the centre of the

m

(1) 50° (2) 45° shell. The gravitation force exerted by

(3) 30° (4) 55°
ra

the shell on the point mass is

𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝐺𝑀𝑚
139. If the tension and diameter of a (1) (2) −
pa

𝑅2 𝑅2
𝐺𝑀𝑚
sonometer wire of fundamental (3) Zero (4) 4 𝑅2
frequency n are doubled and density is
halved, then its fundamental frequency
will become
𝑛
(1) 4 (2) √2𝑛
𝑛
(3) n (4)
√2
17 | MOCK TEST # 17 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

17
 .
144. Find magnitude and direction of
magnetic field at point O in the
following cases:
146. The latent heat of vaporization of water
is 2240 J/g. If the work done in the
process of expansion of 1 g is 168 J,
then increase in internal energy is
(1) 2408 J (2) 2240 J
(3) 2072 J (4) 1904 J

147. A body with mass 1 kg moves in one

direction in the presence of a force

om
0𝜇 𝑖 1 1 which is described by the potential
(1) 4𝑅 (𝑅 + 𝑅 ) ,⊙
1 2 energy graph. If the body is released
𝜇0 𝑖 1 1

l.c
(2) ( − 𝑅 ) ,⊙ from rest at x = 2 m, then its speed
4 𝑅1 2
𝜇0 𝑖 1 1 when it crosses x = 5 m is (Neglect
(3) 2𝑅 (𝑅 + 𝑅 ) ,⊙

ai
1 2 dissipative forces)
𝜇0 𝑖 1 1
(4) (𝑅 − 𝑅 ) ,⊙

gm
𝑅 1 2

145. A small conducting sphere of radius r is

@
lying concentrically inside a bigger
65

hollow conducting sphere of radius R.

The bigger and smaller spheres are
70

charged with Q and q (Q > q) and are

(1) 2√2 𝑚𝑠 −1 (2) 1 𝑚𝑠 −1
insulated from each other. The
(3) 2 𝑚𝑠 −1 (4) 3 𝑚𝑠 −1
at

potential difference between the

ja

spheres will be
148. Adding detergents to water helps in
1 𝑞 𝑄
(1) 4𝜋𝜀 (𝑟 − 𝑅 )
et

0
removing dirty greasy stains. This is
(2)
1 𝑄
( + 𝑟)
𝑞 because
je

4𝜋𝜀0 𝑅
i. It increases the oil –water surface
1 𝑞 𝑞
m

(3) 4𝜋𝜀 (𝑟 − 𝑅) tension

0
1 𝑞 𝑄 ii. It decreases the oil water surface
ra

(4) 4𝜋𝜀 (𝑅 − 𝑟 )
0
tension
pa

iii. It increases the viscosity of the

solution
iv. Dirty is held suspended surrounded
by detergent molecules
(1) 2 and 4 (2) 1 only
(3) 3 and 4 (4) 4 only

18 | MOCK TEST # 17 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

18
 .
149. A transistor is operated in common- 150. Given below are symbols for some logic
emitter configuration at 𝑉𝑐 = 2𝑉 such gates, The XOR gate and NOR gate
that a change in the base current from respectively are.
100 𝜇𝐴 𝑡𝑜 200 𝜇𝐴 produces a change
in the collector current from 5 mA to 10
mA. The current gain is
(1) (2)
(1)100 (2) 150
(3)50 (4) 75
(3) (4)

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(1) 1 & 2 (2) 2 & 3
(3) 3 & 4 (4) 1 & 4

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CHEMISTRY

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SECTION –A
151. Statement I: Oxidation number of (1) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv)

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chromium in CrO5 is +6. (2) (A) → (iii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iv), (D) → (ii)
Statement II: Oxidation number of each @ (3) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iv)
oxygen atom in CrO5 is – 1.5. (4) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (ii)
(1) Only statement I is true 154. An incorrect statement with respect to SN1
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(2) Only statement II is true and SN2 mechanisms for alkyl halide is
(3) Both statements are true (1) a strong nucleophile in an aprotic
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(4) Both statements are wrong solvent increases the rate or favours SN2
reaction.
at

152. A flask contains 12 g of a gas of relative (2) competing reaction for SN2 reaction is
molecular mass 120 at a pressure of 100 rearrangement
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atm was evacuated by means of a pump (3) SN1 reactions can be catalysed by some
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until the pressure was 0.01 atm. Which of Lewis acids

the following is the best estimate of the (4) a weak nucleophile and a protic solvent
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number of molecules left in the flask? increases the rate of SN1 reaction.
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(NA = 6 × 1023 mol-1)

(1) 6 × 1019 (2) 6 × 1018 155. Statement I: In Fe2+, there are 24 electrons
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(3) 6 × 1017 (4) 6 × 1013 and 30 neutrons and thus, ionic mass is 56.
Statement II: Ionic mass = neutron +
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153. Match the column I with column II and proton and proton = electrons in neutral
mark the appropriate choice. species.
Column I Column II Which statement(s) is/are correct?
A. C2H2 i sp3d2 hybridisation (1) Both I and II
B. SF6 ii sp3d3 hybridisation (2) Only I
C. SO2 iii sp hybridisation (3) Only II
D. IF7 iv. sp2 hybridisation (4) None of these
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156. Consider the following statements:
1. Cs+ is highly hydrated than the other
alkali metal ions.
2. Among the alkali metals Li, Na, K and Rb,
lithium has the highest melting point.
3. Among the alkali metals only lithium
forms a stable nitride by direct
combination.
Of these statements
(1) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
159. When 0.1 mol [CoCl3 (NH3)5] is treated with
excess of AgNO3, 0.2 mol of AgCl is
obtained. The conductivity of solution will
correspond to
(1) 1 : 3 electrolyte (2) 1 : 2 electrolyte
(3) 1 : 1 electrolyte (4) 3 : 1 electrolyte
160. Assertion (A): Most of the synthetic
polymers are non – biodegradable.
Reason (R): Polymerisation always induces

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(2) 1 and 2 are correct toxic effect in environment.
(3) 1 and 3 are correct (1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct

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(4) 2 and 3 are correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the

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157. Match the terms given in Column I with the correct explanation of A.
compounds given in Column II. (3) A is correct but R is incorrect

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Column I Column II (4) Both A and R are incorrect.
A. Acid rain 1. CHCl2CHF2 @
B. Photochemical 2. CO 161. Statement I: Equivalent conductance
smog
increases with dilution for an electrolyte
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C. Combination with 3. SO2
haemoglobin solution.
D. Depletion of ozone 4. NO2 Statement II: The number of ions in one
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layer litre of weak electrolyte increases with

5. Unsaturated dilution.
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hydrocarbons
Consider the following statements.
(1) A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3
(1) Both statement I and II are correct
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(2) A – 3, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1
(2) Only statement I is correct
(3) A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1
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(3) Only statement II is correct

(4) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
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158. A compound contains two types of atoms,

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162. Consider the following statements.

X and Y. Its crystal structure is a cubic
Statement I: Nickel can be purified by
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lattice with X atoms at the corners of the

Mond’s process.
unit cells and Y-atoms at the body centres.
Statement II: Ni(CO)4 is a volatile
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The simplest formula is

compound which decomposes at 460 K to
(1) X2Y (2) XY
give pure Ni.
(3) XY2 (4) XY3
(1) Both statements I and II are true
(2) Only statements I is true
(3) Only statement II is true
(4) Neither statements I nor statement II is
true
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163. Salicylic acid is subjected to bromination 167. A complex of iron and cyanide ions is 100%
using Br2 water, product formed is ionised at 1 m (molal). If its elevation in
boiling point is 2.08 K. (Kb = 0.52 K mol-1 kg)
then the complex is
(1) K3[Fe(CN)6] (2) Fe(CN)2
(2) K4[Fe(CN)6] (4) Fe(CN)4

168. Match the types of colloidal systems given

in Column I with the name given in
Columns II

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Column I Column II
A. Solid in liquid 1. Foam
164. Laughing gas is prepared by heating

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B. Liquid in solid 2. Sol
(1) NH4Cl + NaNO3 (2) NH4Cl
C. Liquid in liquid 3. Gel
(3) (NH4)2SO2 (4) NH4NO2

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D. Gas in liquid 4. Emulsion
Choose the correct match.

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165. According to Arrhenius equation rate
constant k is equal to A e−Ea/RT. Which of A B C D
the following options represents the graph
@ (1) 2 3 4 1
1
of ln k vs T ? (2) 3 1 2 4
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(3) 4 3 1 2
(4) 3 4 2 1
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169. Assertion (A): Alkali metals are soft and

have low melting and boiling points
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Reason (R): This is because interatomic

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bonds are weak.

(1) Both A and R are not true
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(2) A is true but R is not the correct

explanation of A
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(3) A is true but R is false

166. Consider the following statements.
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(4) Both A and R are true and R is the

Statement I: Aldehydes and ketones, both
correct explanation of A
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react with Tollen’s reagent to form silver

mirror.
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170. In the complete combustion of C2H6, 54

Statement II: Both, aldehydes and ketones
g of H2O is formed and 370 kcal of heat
contain a carbonyl group.
is evolved. Hence, heat of combustion of
(1) Both statements I and II are true
C2H6 is
(2) Only statements I is true
(1) 370 kcal mol-1
(3) Only statement II is true
(2) – 370 kcal mol-1
(4) Neither statements I nor statement II is
(3) – 6.61 kcal mol-1
true
(4) 6.61 kcal mol-1
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171. Which of the following electronic 175. The correct increasing order of rate of
transitions requires for the greatest reaction towards nucleophilic substitution
quantity of energy to be absorbed by a is,
hydrogen atom?
(1) n = 1 to n = 2 (2) n = 2 to n = 4
(3) n = 3 to n = 6 (4) n = 1 to n = ∞
(1) (i) < (ii) < (iii) (2) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
172. Match the species given in Column I with (3) (i) < (iii) < (ii) (4) (iii) < (i) < (ii)
the properties mentioned in Column II
Column I Column II 176. Consider the following statements.

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A. BF4− 1. Oxidation state of Statement I: Penicillin (G) is an
central atom is +4 antihistamine
Statement II: Penicillin (G) is effective

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B. AlCl3 2. Strong oxidising
agent against gram positive as well as gram

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C. SnO 3. Lewis acid negative bacteria.
D. PbO2 4. Can be further (1) Both statements I and II are correct

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oxidised (2) Only statements I is correct
5. Tetrahedral shape (3) Only statements II is correct
(1) A – 1, B – 2, C – 4, D – 3 (4) Neither statement I nor statement II is
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(2) A – 2, B – 3, C – 1, D – 5 false
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(3) A – 5, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1 & 2
(4) A – 3, B – 4, C – 5, D – 1 & 2 177. In the following sequence of reactions,
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173. In terms of polar character, which one of

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the following order is correct?

(1) NH3 < H2O < HF < H2S The compound C formed would be
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(2) H2S < NH3 < H2O < HF (1) 1, 1 – dimethyl ethanol
(3) H2O < NH3 < H2S < HF
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(2) 1 – butanol
(4) HF < H2O < NH3 < H2S (3) 2 – butanol
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(4) 2 – methyl, propan – 2 – ol

174. Consider the following statements.
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Statement I: Addition of H2O/H+ to 3, 3 – 178. Consider the following statements.

dimethyl 1 – butene forms Statement I: Chromium can be used a
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2, 3 – dimethyl – 2 – butanol as major protective and non – corrosive plating on

other metals.
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product.
Statement II: 3° carbocation is formed by
1,2 – methyl shift.
(1) Only statements I is true
(2) Only statements II is true
(3) Both statements I and II are true
(4) Neither statement I nor statement II is
false
22 | MOCK TEST # 17 (ENGLISH) 2022-23
Statement II: Due to atmospheric
oxidation, a chemically inert layer of Cr2O3
is formed.
(1) Both statements I and II are true
(2) Only statements I is true
(3) Only statement II is true
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

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179. The decomposition of N2O into N2 and O in 183. The most stable carbocation, among the
the presence of gaseous argon follows following is
second order kinetics with k = (5.0 ×
1011 L mol−1 s −1 )e−29000(K)/T Hence, Ea
(energy of activation) is
(1) 5.0 × 1011 kcal
(2) 29000 kcal
(3) 58 kcal
(4) – 29000 cal
184. Consider the following statements.

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Statement I: Phenol is more acid than
180. An example of water soluble vitamin is
carboxylic acid.
(1) vitamin A (2) vitamin B
Statement II: Phenol is also called carbolic

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(3) vitamin E (4) vitamin D
acid.
(1) Both statements I and II are true

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181. Select the correct statement(s).
(2) Only statements I is true
(1) Temporary hardness is due to dissolved

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(3) Only statement II is true
bicarbonates of Ca2+ and Mg2+
(4) Both statements are incorrect.
(2) Permanent hardness is due to dissolved
@
sulphates and chlorides of Ca2+ and
185. Assertion: Coordination number of Fe and
Mg2+
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Co in [Fe(C2O4)3]3- and [Co(en)3]3+ is 6.
(3) Hardness can be removed by Calgon’s
Reason: C2O42- and en (ethane – 1, 2 –
method
70

diamine) are didentate ligands.

(4) All of the above statements are correct
(1) If both assertion and reason are true
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and reason is the correct explanation of

182. For the following gaseous equilibria X, Y
assertion.
and Z at 300 K
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(2) If both assertion and reason are true but

X : 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3
reason is not the correct explanation of
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Y : PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2

assertion.
Z : 2HI ⇌ H2 + I2
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(3) If assertion is true but reason is false

Ratio of Kp and KC in the increasing order is
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
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(1) X = Y = Z (2) X < Y < Z

(3) X < Z < Y (4) Z < Y < X
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION -B
186. Consider the following statements. 190. Consider the following statements.
Statement I: Bakelite is a thermosetting Statement I: 𝛽 − glycosidic linkage is
polymer. present in maltose.
Statement II: Bakelite can be melted again Statement II: Maltose is composed of two
and again without any change. glucose units in which C – 1 of one glucose
(1) Both statements I and II are true unit is linked to C – 4 of another glucose

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(2) Only statements I is true unit.
(3) Only statement II is true (1) Both statements I and II are true
(4) Neither statement I nor statement II is (2) Only statements I is true

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true. (3) Only statement II is true
(4) Neither statement I nor statement II is

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187. Which of the following is not true about the true.

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ionic solids?
(1) Bigger ions form the close packed 191. Select the correct statement(s).
structure. @ (1) Ethers are weakly polar compounds
(2) Smaller ions occupy either the (2) Ethers have lower boiling points than
65
tetrahedral or the octahedral voids the isomeric alcohols.
depending upon their size. (3) Dipole moment of ether is the sum of
70

(3) Occupation of all the voids is not the two polar C – O bonds with a
necessary substantial contribution from the two
(4) The fraction of octahedral or lone pairs of electrons
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tetrahedral voids occupied depends (4) All of the above statements are correct
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upon the radii of the ions occupying the

voids. 192. Assertion: The second substituent may
et

enter the mono – substituted benzene ring

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188. If a steady current of 15.0 A is passed at either ortho, para or at meta position.
through an aqueous solution of CuSO4, how Reason: The position of the incoming
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many minutes will it take to deposit 0.250 group is determined by the nature of the
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mol of Cu at the cathode, assuming 100 % group present in monosubstituted

efficiency? benzene ring.
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(1) 3.217 × 103 (2) 1.613 × 103 (1) If both assertion and reason are true
(3) 53.62 (4) 0.893 and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
189. In which of the following group of species (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
central atom is sp3 d – hybridised reason is not the correct explanation of
(1) PCl5, BrF3, XeF2 (2) PCl− +
6 , PCl4 , XeF2 assertion.
(3) XeF2, XeO3, XeOF4 (4) PCl5, PCl3, XeO3 (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
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193. Consider the following statements. For which the value of equilibrium constant
Statement I: A liquid crystallises into a solid [𝐻𝐶𝑂3− ]
is 3.8 × 10−7 and pH = 6.0. The [𝐶𝑂2 ]
and is accompanied by decrease in
ratio is
entropy.
(1) 3.8 (2) 0.38
Statement II: In crystals, molecules
(3) 13.8 (4) 1.38
organise in an ordered manner.
Choose the correct option
197. On the basis of VB theory, the formation of
(1) Only statements I is true
H2 molecule from two H – atoms involve.
(2) Only statement II is true
(1) the overlap of vacant 1s orbitals of the
(3) Both statements are correct

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two H – atoms
(4) Both statements are incorrect (2) the lowering of potential energy of the
system as the two H – atoms come near

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194. Consider the following reaction, to each other
2CH3CHO + O2 → 2CH3COOH (3) Stabilization of the molecule when the
nuclei are brought still closer to each

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In a laboratory test, 20 g of CH3CHO and 10
other from the equilibrium internuclear
g of O2 were put into a reaction vessel.

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distance.
CH3COOH produced in reaction is (4) the maximum energy of the system at
(1) 27.27 g (2) 30.23 g @ the equilibrium internuclear distance.
(3) 28.20 g (4) 25.26 g
198. Select the correct statement(s).
65

195. Assertion: In hydrogen and hydrogen like (1) Si uses all of its valence electrons in a sp3
species orbital energy depends only on the – hybridisation and crystallises in a fcc
70

quantum number n whereas in multi – structure similar to diamond

electron atoms it depends on quantum (2) Diamond is an electrical insulator,
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numbers n and l. graphite is an electrical conductor but

Reason: The principal quantum number silicon is a semiconductor
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determines the size and the energy of the (3) Most common silica is quartz
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orbital. (4) All of the above are correct statements

(1) If both assertion and reason are true
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and reason is the correct explanation of 199. At low pressures, the van der Waals’
m

assertion. a
equation is written as [p + V2 ] V = RT.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
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The compressibility factor is then equal to

reason is not the correct explanation of a RTV
assertion. (1) (1 − RTV) (2) (1 − )
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a
a RTV
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false (3) (1 + RTV) (4) (1 + )
a
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
200. Amongst the following, the strongest base
196. On dissolving CO2 in water the following
in aqueous medium is ...........
equilibrium is established
(1) CH3NH2 (2) NCCH2NH2
CO2 + 2H2O ⇌ H3O+ + HCO3-
(3) (CH3)2NH (4) C6H5NHCH3

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ORDER OF MOCK TEST FLOW

We have just launched our new feature in which you can check your Offline Mock Test result
immediately. This feature is available only on Biomentors Android Mobile App (version : 15.3.4)
and Tablet App (version 1.3.4) If you are using an older version you can update it through play
store.

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You have to just follow the below steps to get your result.
Step - 1 : Log in into the app and go to the home page of the app. On every Sunday you will see

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one option on the home page as Offline Mock Test as shown in image 1.1. You can
click on the Offline Mock Tests button or you can also select the Offline Mock Tests

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option from the side menu -> Tests -> Offline Mock Tests as shown in image 1.2.

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Step - 2 : You will see the list of latest and previous Offline Mock Tests. Every Sunday at 12:00
PM offline mock test papers will be available. Here you will see the same offline mock
test in 3 types. 1 in English only, 1 in Hindi and 1 in both English and Hindi as shown
in image 2.1. You can download the offline mock test paper using this blue color
download icon as shown in image 2.2. You can take print out of this paper and we
have also attached the OMR sheet to fill your answers with the paper.

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Step - 3 : You have to fill the OMR sheet in the pattern of NEET exam (Section A : 35 questions
compulsory and Section B : 10 questions compulsory). Do not fill more than 10
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Step - 4 : Once you fill your hard copy of the OMR sheet you can click on the Check Result
button as shown in image 4.1. Once you click on that button you will be redirected to
the upload OMR sheet image page as shown in image 4.2. You can upload your filled
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copy of the OMR sheet as shown in image 4.4. App will allow max 35 bubbles to be
filled in Section A of every subject and max 10 bubbles for Section B. Once you fill
bubbles for any question it won’t allow you to change so you have to be very careful

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while filling bubbles in the APP it will help to improve your accuracy. Finally after
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Once you click on the submit button APP will show your result immediately as shown
in image 4.6. You can now close this page and go back to the list of offline mock tests

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page.

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button. So if you have already submitted that test it will show you the direct result as
shown in image 5.1 or it will redirect you to the uploaded OMR sheet page as shown
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view your uploaded hard copy of the OMR sheet by clicking on View OMR sheet
option as shown in image 5.4.

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Image 5.1 Image 5.2

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Steps - 6 : Topper list and Answer sheet for the Offline Mock Tests will be generated on the next
day at 12:00 AM as shown in image 6.1 and 6.2 respectively. If you have submitted
your OMR sheet on the same day of the test your name can be present based on your
Marks. You can also submit an OMR sheet after the test day but in that case your
result won’t be counted for the toppers.

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Image 6.1 Image 6.2

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