


Instructions: -
 This booklet contains 28 Pages ENGLISH
 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
 Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
 This Paper is Based on New NEET Pattern. Having Section A and Section B.
 You have to solve all questions from Section A.
 Solve any 10 Questions from Physics and Chemistry Portion from Section B.
 Solve 20 Questions from Biology (Botany & Zoology) Portion of Section B.

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TEST NO. 18 Date : 09-04-23
1. उत्तर पत्र इस परीक्षा पु स्तिका के अं दर रखा है जब आपको परीक्षा पु स्तिका 1. The Answer sheet is inside this test Booklet. When you are
खोलने को कहा जाए, तो उत्तर पत्र ननकाल कर ध्यानपू र्वक पृष्ठ -1 एर्ं directed to open the test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and

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पृ ष्ठ -2 पर केर्ल नीले/काले बॉल पॉइं ट पेन से नर्र्रण भरें
fill in the particulars on Side-I and Side 2 carefully with blue/black
ball point pen only.
2. परीक्षा की अर्नि 3:20 घं टे हैं एर्ं परीक्षा पु स्तिका में भौनतकी, रसायनशास्त्र 2. The test is of 3:20 hours duration and the test Booklet contains
एर्ं जीर्नर्ज्ञान (र्नस्पनत नर्ज्ञान एर्ं प्रानणनर्ज्ञान नर्षयो से 200 बहुनर्कल्पीय

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200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct
प्रश्न हैं (4 नर्कल्पों में से एक सही उत्तर हैं । ) प्रत्येक नर्षय में 50 प्रश्न हैं answer) from Physics, Chemistry and biology (Botany & Zoology).
नजनको ननम्न र्णाव नुसार दो अनुभागों (A तथा (2) में नर्भानजत नकया गया हैं : 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and

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(a ) अनु भाग A के प्रत्येक नर्षय में 35 (पैं तीस) (प्रश्न संख्या 1 से 35, 51 से (2) as per details given below:
(1) Section- A shall consist of 35 (thirty-five) Questions in each
85, 101 से 135 एर्ं 151 से 185 ) प्रश्न हैं । सभी राशन अननर्ायव हैं ।
subject (Questions Nos-1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
(b ) अनु भाग B के प्रत्येक नर्षय में 15 (पं द्रह ) (प्रश्न संख्या 36 से 50, 86 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
से 100 , 136 से 150 एर्ं 186 से 200 ) प्रश्न है । अनुभाग B से
@ (2) Section - B shall consist of 15 (fifteen) questions in each
परीक्षानथव यों को प्रत्येक नर्षय से 15 (पं द्रह ) में से कोई 10 (दस ) प्रश्न subject (Question Nos-36 to 50, 86 to 100 136 to 150 and
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करने होंगे। 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any
परीक्षानथव यों की सुझाब हैं नक प्रश्नो के उत्तर दे ने के पू र्व अनुभाग बी में प्रत्येक
10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point pen only for writing particulars on this
नर्षय के सभी 15 प्रश्नो की पढ़े । यनद कोई परीक्षाथी 10 प्रश्न से अनिक प्रश्नो
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page/marking responses
का उत्तर दे ता हैं तो उसके दर्ारा उत्तररत प्रथम 10 प्रश्नो का ही मूल्ां कन 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose
नकया जाएगा। in the test booklet only
3. इस पृ ष्ठ पर नर्र्रण अं नकत करने एर्ं उत्तर पत्र पर ननशान लगाने के नलए 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the
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केर्ल नीले /काले बॉल पॉइं ट पे न का प्रयोग करें । Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall.
the candidates are allowed to take away this Test booklet with
4. रफ कायव इस परीक्षा पु स्तिका में ननिाव ररत स्थान पर ही करे ।
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them.
5. परीक्षा संपन्न होने पर, परीक्षाथी कक्ष /हॉल छोड़ने से पू र्व उत्तर पत्र कक्ष 6. The CODE for this Booklet is QQ. Makes sure that the CODE
ननरीक्षक को अर्श्य सौंपे दें । परीक्षाथी अपने साथ इस परीक्षा पु स्तिका को printed on side 2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this
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ले जा सकते है । Test booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should

6. इस पु स्तिका का संकेत हैं QQ। यह सु नननित कर लें की इस परीक्षा पु स्तिका immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement
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का संकेत , उत्तर पत्र के पृ ष्ठ -२ पर छपे संकेत से नमलता है । अगर यह नभन्न of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not
हो, तो परीक्षाथी दू सरी परीक्षा और उत्तर पत्र ले ने के नलए ननरक्षक को तुरंत
folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. do
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अर्गत कराए। not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
7. परीक्षाथी सुनननित करें नक इस उत्तर पत्र को मोड़ा न जाए एर्ं उस पर कोई space in the test Booklet/answer Sheet.
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अन्य ननशान न लगाएं । परीक्षाथी अपना अनुक्रमां क परीक्षा पु स्तिका /उत्तर 8. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer
पत्र में ननिाव ररत स्थान नक अनतररक्त अन्यत्र ना नलखें। Sheet.
8. उत्तर पत्र पर नकसी प्रकार नक संसोिन हे तु व्हाइट फ्लू इक नक प्रयोग की
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अनुमनत नहीं है ।
In Case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
Name of the Candidate (In Capitals) :_______________________________________________________________
Roll Number : in figures : ______________________________________________________________
: in words : _____________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : ______________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : _________________________Invigilator’s Signature : _______________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of
Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________________________

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BOTANY
SECTION -A
1. Match column I with column II and select the
correct answer from the codes given below:

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(1) 1-e, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

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(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-e, 4-a
(3) 1-b, 2-c, 3-e, 4-f

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(4) 1-e, 2-d, 3-b, 4-f
2. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic

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hierarchical arrangement in ascending order
(1) a-Dictyota, b-Polysiphonia, c-Porphyra, d-
of the following-
Fucus, e-Laminaria
(1) Spermatophyta, Sapindales,
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(2) a-Porphyra, b-Dictyota, c-Laminaria, d-
Dicotyledons, Anacardiaceae, Mangifera
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Fucus, e-Polysiphonia
(2) Mangifera, Dicotyledons, Anacardiaceae,
(3) a-Dictyota, b-Polysiphonia, c-Porphyra, d-
Spermatophyta, Sapindales
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Laminaria, e-Fucus
(3) Mangifera, Anacardiaceae, Sapindales,
(4) a-Laminaria, b-Polysiphonia, c-Porphyra,
Dicotyledons, Spermatophyta
d-Dictyota, e-Fucus
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(4) Dicotyledons, Anacardiaceae, Sapindales,

5. During the study of taxonomy, one of the
Spermatophyta, Mangifera.
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students is doing these processes like

3. Beijerink study on virus and his finding
Labelling, poisoning, collection, drying, and
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"contagium vivum fluidum" was associated

pressing. He is preparing
with?
(1) Key
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(1) Bacteriophage
(2) Monograph
(2) Lambda phage
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(3) Herbarium
(3) TMV
(4) Flora
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(4) AIDS
6. Pinus leaf shows?
4. In the diagrams given below, different algae
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(1) Sunken stomata & thick cuticle

have been labelled as (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e).
(2) The hypodermis is the main
These algae are, respectively, identified as:
strengthening tissue of the leaf
(3) No differentiation is seen in mesophyll as
palisade & spongy parenchyma
(4) All of the above

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7. How many of the following contain 11. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words
tricarepllary, syncarpous superior ovary with from the given options:
axile placentation flowers? (1) In bacterial cells, glycocalyx could be a
Pea, Gulmohar, Bean, Cassia, Mustard, loose sheath called ___(i)___ or thick and
Datura, Chilli, Sesbania, Lupin, Muliathi, aloe, tough called, the ___(ii)____.
tulip and aspergus (2) The ___(iii)____ in bacterium determines
(1) Six the shape of the cell.
(2) Three (3) ___(iv)____ are small bristle like fibres
(3) Four sprouting out of the cell that help in
(4) Eight attaching the bacteria to rock in streams.

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8. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram? (1) (i) mesosome, (ii) lamellae, (iii) cell wall,
(iv) Basal body
(2) (i) slime layer, (ii) capsule, (iii) plasma

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membrane, (iv) Pili
(3) (i) capsule, (ii) tubules, (iii) cell wall, (iv)

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Basal body
(4) (i) slime layer, (ii) capsule, (iii) cell wall,

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(iv) Fimbriae
@ 12. Find the wrong statement-
1. Primary wall gradually diminishes as the
(1) A-Seed coat, B-Micropyle, C-Raphe cell matures.
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(2) A-Seed coat, B-Hilum, C-Micropyle 2. Plants cell wall composition can be
(3) A-Hilum, B-Seed coat, C-Micropyle hemicellulose, cellulose, pectin and protein.
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(4) A-Micropyle, B-Seed coat, C-Hilum 3. Cell wall do not allow cell-to-cell
9. Which of the following is true for the interaction.
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endarch type of primary xylem? 4. Secondary wall is formed on the inner side
(1) Protoxylem lies towards the periphery of of cell wall.
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the organ. (1) All are right

(2) All are wrong
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(2) Metaxylem lies towards the periphery of

the organ. (3) Two statements are wrong.
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(3) Metaxylem lies towards the pith of the (4) One statement is wrong.
organ. 13. Select the correct statement
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(4) Protophloem lies towards the pith of the (1) Cell cycle events are under genetic
control
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organ.
10. Select the incorrect statement regarding the (2) DNA synthesis occurs only during one
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secondary meristems- specific stage in the cell cycle

(1) Develop from permanent tissues by
dedifferentiation
(2) Cells possess dense cytoplasm
(3) Give birth to primary permanent tissues
(4) Add growth in width
(3) Replicated chromosomes are distributed
to daughter nuclei by complex series of
events during division
(4) All of the above

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14. Identify the diagram and name the phase of 17. Match the column for the elements with its
meiosis carefully associated functions/roles; choose the
correct option among given below?

(1) Telophase-I
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5

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(2) Anaphase-I
(2) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2, E-5
(3) Metaphase-I
(3) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-5, E-1
(4) Prophase-I

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(4) A-2, B-3, C-5, D-1, E-4
15. Properties of water that provide high tensile
strength (i.e., ability to resist in thin tubes)
18. Which of the following pair of bacteria is

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are?
involved in the two-step conversion of NH3

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(1) Cohesion
into nitrate?
(2) Adhesion
(1) Azotobacter and Nitrosomonas
(3) Surface tension
(2) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
(4) All of these
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(3) Azotobacter and Achromobacter
16. Find the direction of movement of water in
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(4) Pseudomonas and Nitrobacter
the adjacent plant cells shown below:
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19. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less

limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because
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(1) Four carbon acids are the primary initial

CO2 fixation products
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(2) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated

via PEP carboxylase
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(3) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle

sheath cells
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(4) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity

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for CO2
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20. Law of independent assortment is always

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true or applicable if two genes are located

(1) a on-
(2) b (1) Same homologous chromosome.
(3) c (2) Different chromosomes.
(4) d (3) Same locus of different chromosomes.
(4) Different locus of same chromosome.

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21. In the given pedigree, what the shaded 24. In hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and
symbols indicate basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are?
(1) n = 7 and x = 21
(2) n = 21 and x = 21
(3) n = 21 and x = 14
(4) n = 21 and x = 7
25. In a plant breeding programme, the entire
(1) Dominant collection (of plants/ seeds) having all the
(2) Recessive diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is
(3) Codominant called?

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(4) Sex linked recessive (1) Germplasm collection
22. Read these statements carefully & identify (2) Selection of superior recombinants
(3) Cross-hybridization among the selected

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the wrong one:
(1) mRNA (messenger RNA), tRNA (transfer parents
(4) Evaluation and selection of parents

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RNA), and rRNA (ribosomal RNA). All three
are needed to synthesise a protein in a cell. 26. Match the column I with column II and select

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(2) The mRNA provides the template, tRNA the correct answer from the codes given
brings amino acids and reads the genetic below:
code, and rRNAs play structural and catalytic
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roles during translation.
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(3) There is a single RNA-dependent RNA
polymerase that catalyses the transcription
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of all types of RNA in bacteria.

(4) RNA polymerase binds to the operator
and initiates transcription (Initiation). It uses
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(1) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

nucleotide triphosphates as substrate. (2) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(1) (1) & (2)
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(3) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

(2) (3) & (4) (4) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
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(3) (1) & (3)

27. The below diagram represent a typical
(4) (2) & (4)
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biogas plant. Select the correct option for A,

23. (A) Centrifugation
B and C refers to
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(B) Infection
(C) Blending
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What is the correct sequence of these

processes in the Hershey & Chase
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experiment?
(1) (A) (B) (C)
(2) (C) (B) (A)
(3) (B) (A) (C)
(4) (B) (C) (A)

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(1) A-Sludge, B-Dung + water, C- CH4 + CO2
(2) A-Dung + water, B-Sludge, C- CH4 + CO2
(3) A-Sludge, B- CH4 and CO2 , C-Dung +
water
(4) A- CH4 + CO2 , B-Dung + water, C-Sludge
28. Identify the correct response of organisms
to abiotic factors:
(1) Higher plants reduce their metabolic
activity and go into a state of 'dormancy'.
(2) Plants unable to maintain a constant
internal environment.
(3) In summer, humans sweat profusely,
while in winter, we shiver to maintain a
constant body temperature of 370 𝐶.
(4) A person moving from Delhi to Shimla for
the duration of summer.
(1) 1-Conform, 2-Suspend, 3-Migrate, 4-
gm
Regulate
(2) 1-Suspend, 2-Conform, 3-Regulate, 4- @
Migrate
(3) 1-Suspend, 2-Conform, 3-Partial
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Regulation, 4- Migrate
(4) 1-Regulate, 2-Partial regulation, 3-
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Conform, 4- Migrate
29. Given below are two statements:
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Statement I: Temperature, water, light and
soil leads to variations in the physical and
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chemical conditions of different habitats.
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Statement II: Over a period of time, the
organism had through natural selection,
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evolved adaptations to optimize its survival
and reproduction in its habitat.
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In the light of the given statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
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below:
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(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
6 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23
30. Increased variability in an ecosystem process
such as pest and disease cycle, a decline in
plant production, lowered resistant to
drought and environmental changes
indicates-
(1) Over exploitation
(2) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(3) Alien species invasion
(4) Loss of biodiversity
31. Assertion: In Basidiomycetes, basidiospores
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are produced endogenously in the basidium.
Reason: In Ascomycetes, ascospores are
produced exogenously in ascus.
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(1) If assertion and Reason both are correct
and Reason is the correct explanation of the
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Assertion.
(2) If assertion and Reason both are correct
and Reason is not the correct explanation for
assertion.
(3) If assertion is correct but Reason is
wrong.
(4) If assertion and Reason both are wrong
32. Find the wrong statement-
(1) Archaebacteria and eubacteria differ in
cell wall composition.
(2) Pelicle make the euglenoid body flexible.
(3) Fruiting body in slime mold is visible
during unfavourable conditions
(4) Viriods have low molecular weight
nucleoprotein.
33. Following character is true for algae-
1. Simple
2. Thalloid
3. Autotrophic
4. Largely terrestrial
5. Mostly diplontic life cycle
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Five
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34. Find the right statement
(1) Nucellus protected with integument is
called ovule.
(2) Cycus bears palmately compound leaf.
(3) Prothallus require cool, damp and shady
place to grow in bryophytes
(4) Budding in secondary protonema
produce leaf sporophyte in moss
BOTANY
(SECTION -B)
36. Correct position of floral parts over thalamus
in mustard plant is:
(1) Gynoecium occupies the highest position,
while the other parts are situated below it.
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(2) Margin of the thalamus grows upward,
enclosing the ovary completely, and other @
parts arise below the ovary.
(3) Gynoecium is present in the center and
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other parts cover it partially.
(4) Gynoecium is situated in the center, and
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other parts of the flower are located at the
rim of the thalamus, at the same level.
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37. Which of the following holds true for a dicot
stem?
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(1) Casparian stripes are present radial and
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tangential walls of endodermal cells.
(2) Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral
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and open.
(3) Stem hairs are unicellular and always
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unbranched.
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(4) Pith is absent.
38. A conjoint and open vascular bundle will be
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observed in the transverse section of-
(1) Monocot root (2) Monocot stem
(3) Dicot root (4) Dicot stem
39. Bacterial flagellum is composed of -
(1) Basal body and filament
(2) Hook and filament
(3) Basal body, hook and filament
(4) Basal body, fimbriae and filament
7 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23
35. The distinct features of Fabaceae is-
(1) Zygomorphic, diadelphous and
monocarpellary
(2) Actinomorphic, monadelphous &
monocarpellary
(3) Zygomorphic, monoadelphous &
pentacarpellary
(4) Zygomorphic, polyadelphous and
tricarpellary
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40. Completion of prophase is marked by-
(1) Compact mitotic chromosome
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(2) Assembly of mitotic spindle
(3) Movement of centrioles
(4) All of the above
41. Assertion: Translocation of sugar from
source to sink is defined as the pressure flow
hypothesis.
Reason: Translocation of the solute is
facilitated through living phloem sieve tube
cells.
(1) If assertion and Reason both are correct
and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If assertion and Reason both are correct
and Reason is not the correct explanation for
assertion.
(3) If assertion is correct but Reason is
wrong.
(4) If assertion and Reason both are wrong.
42. Which of the statements is not true for the
C4 pathway?
(1) Overcomes loss due to photorespiration
(2) The CO2 acceptor is a C3 compound
(3) Not inhibited by high O2 concentration
(4) Required less energy than the C3
pathways for production of glucose
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43. The correct sequence of flow of electrons in 47. Match the items in column I with column II
the light reaction is and choose the correct answer:
(1) PSII, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSI,
ferredoxin
(2) PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSII,
ferredoxin
(3) PSI, ferredoxin, PSII,plastoquinone, FNR
(4) PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSII, (1) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - E, 4 - D, 5 - A
(2) 1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - B, 4 - D, 5 - E
ferredoxin
(3) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A, 4 - D, 5 - E
44. Column I contains names of some enzymes (4) 1 - B, 2 - D, 3 - E, 4 - A, 5 – C

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and Column II contains reactions. Match 48. Which of the following is incorrect for wind
them correctly and choose the option given pollinated plants?
below?

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(1) Well exposed stamens and stigma
(2) Many ovules in each ovary
(3) Flowers are small and not brightly

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coloured

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(4) Pollen grains are light and non-sticky
49. Statement I-In absence of glucose, lactose is
transported into the cell through action of
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permease.
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Statement II -There is a very low level of
expression of lac operon is present in the cell
(1) i - b; ii - c; iii - d; iv – a
70

all time.
(2) i - a; ii - d; iii - b; iv – c
(1) statement is correct while statement II is
(3) i - c; ii - b; iii - a; iv – d
incorrect
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(4) i - d; ii - b, iii - a; iv – c
(2) statement II is correct while statement I
is incorrect
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45. Plant growth and development is under the

(3) Both statements are correct
control of both intrinsic and extrinsic factors.
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(4) Both statements are incorrect

Following is intercellular intrinsic factor: 50. How many of the following are associated
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(1) Plant growth regulator (PGR) with autosomes?

(2) Light Down’s syndrome, Hemophilia, sickle cell
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(3) Water
anemia, Turner syndrome Thalassemia and
(4) Transpiration pull
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Myotonic dystrophy
46. Open differentiation results in-
(1) 5
(1) Differentiation of daughter cells into the
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(2) 4
same type of cells.
(3) 3
(2) All cells of meristematic tissue
(4) All
differentiated into permanent tissue.
(3) Daughter cells of meristem differentiate
into different structures at maturity.
(4) Indeterminate growth in plants

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8
 .
ZOOLOGY
SECTION -A
51. Characteristic common between Flatworms 56. Which of the following are uricotelic
and Roundworms is? animals?
(1) Both have three germ layers during (1) Rohu and frog
development (2) Lizard and crow
(2) Both have true coelom (3) Camel and frog
(3) Both have pseudo coelom (4) Earthworm and eagle
(4) Both are always have parasitic mode of 57. Match the column I with column II and

om
life select the correct answer from the codes
52. Which of the following statements is /are given below:
wrong?

l.c
(1) Clarias is a marine animal
(2) Trygon is a jawless fish

ai
(3) Lamprey has notochord only in its larval

gm
tail
(1) 1-c, 2-a, 3-e, 4-b, 5-d
(4) All of the above
(2) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-e, 5-c
53. Which of the following is mismatched? @ (3) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-e, 5-a
(1) Bowman's capsule - Glomerular filtration (4) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d, 5-e
(2) PCT - Absorption of Na+ and K+ 58. Each testicular lobule contains
65

(3) DCT - Absorption of glucose (1) 250 Compartment

(4) None of these (2) 25 Sertoli and male germ cell
70

54. Movement in a small intestine is result of (3) 1-3 Seminiferous tubule

....... layer (4) 250 Seminiferous tubule
at

(1) Serosa 59. Select the correct sequence regarding

ja

(2) Muscularis mammary gland

(3) Submucosa (1) Mammary duct - ampulla-lactiferous
et

(4) Mucosa duct- nipple

55. Tick mark the incorrect statement. (2) Lactiferous duct-ampulla- mammary
je

duct-nipple
(1) Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood
(3) Ampulla-mammary duct-lactiferous duct
m

delivers approximately 4 mL of CO2 to the – nipple

alveoli.
ra

(4) Ampulla- lactiferous duct- mammary

(2) Carbonic anhydrase is present in very duct-nipple
pa

high concentration in RBC. 60. A sexually transmitted disease having

(3) High pCO2 in tissues shifted the oxygen
dissociation curve to right
(4) 97% of CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as
carboxyhemoglobin.
symptoms of the development of cancer on
the genitals; it is caused by the infection of?
(1) Neisseria gonorrhoea
(2) Treponema palladium
(3) Hepatitis B virus
(4) Human immunodeficiency virus

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9
 .
61. The test which is misused for sex
identification of an unborn baby is?
(1) Clotting test
(2) Amniocentesis
(3) Erythroblastosis
(4) Angiogram
62. …...concluded that existing living forms
share similarities to varying degrees not only
among themselves but also with life forms
that existed millions years ago
66. This property of pathogens helps them to
enter a host body.
(1) Adaptability in host environment
(2) Know Way to survive in that particular
organ
(3) Resist various digestive enzymes
(4) All of the above
67. Colostrum
(1) Can be synthesised by the new born
baby.

om
(2) Is a natural source of antibodies that is
(1) Oparin and Haldane
(2) Abbe Lemaitre secreted from the breast for the first few
(3) Charles Darwin days after birth.

l.c
(4) HMS beagle (3) Contains primarily fat.
63. On the basis of Miller's experiment, one can (4) Is an enzyme involved in stimulating

ai
say that? lactation.

gm
(1) Organic compounds have carbon, 68. Which of the following criterion are
hydrogen and oxygen considered for engineering a vector:
(2) Organic compounds can be synthesized
(1) Easy linking of foreign DNA
in the laboratory
@
(3) Life originated in the form of amino acids (2) Active disease causing virus
65

(4) Complex organic molecules were first (3) Selection of recombinants from non-
formed on primitive earth recombinants
70

64. On the basis of which statement, we can say, (4) Both (1) and (3)
Organic evolution has not taken place? 69. Advantages of using a selectable marker for
at

(1) If individuals in a population did not show cloning a vector are:

genetic variations (A) It helps in identifying and eliminating
ja

(2) If individuals did not inherit characters non-transformants.

acquired during their life to their offsprings (B) It selectively permits the growth of
et

(3) If somatic variations did not inherit transformants.

(4) If somatic variations were not transferred (C) It controls the copy number of the linked
je

to genetic variations DNA.

(D) It helps in linking the alien DNA with the
m

65. ....can be obtained from cannabis sativa

vector
plant
ra

(1) Only (A)

I. Marijuana
(2) Only (A), (B)
pa

II. Hashish
(3) Only (B), (C)
III. Charas
(4) Only (A), (D)
IV. Ganja
70. First artificial recombinant DNA molecule
(1) Four of the above
was created with
(2) Three of the above
(1) Linking of gene encoding antibiotic
(3) Two of the above resistance with native plasmid of Salmonella
(4) One of the above typhimurium.

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10
 .
(2) Linking of gene encoding fertility factor
with a native plasmid of E.coli
(3) Linking of gene encoding b-galactosidase
with a native plasmid of Agrobacterium
tumerfaciens
(4) Linking of gene encoding lactase with a
native plasmid of E. coli.
71. Choose the incorrect match
(1) Gene therapy - treatment for ADA
deficiency
(4) X' Fungi; 'Y' Angiosperms
76. Select the correct statement/statements
w.r.t pH in the alimentary canal:
(1) The optimum pH for hydrolysing starch
into maltose by salivary amylase is 6.8.
(2) The hydrochloric acid provides the acidic
pH 1.8 optimal for trypsin.
(3) The small intestine has a pH of 7.8
(alkaline medium) for enzymatic activities.
(4) Every gastric juice does not require acidic
conditions for its activity.

om
(2) cryIAc gene - Controls corn borer
(1) Only (1) and (2)
(3) Dolly - Non-transgenic sheep
(2) Only (2) and (3)
(4) Rosie - Transgenic cow

l.c
(3) Only (1), (2) and (4)
72. Match Column-I with Column-II and select
(4) Only (1) and (3)
the correct option.

ai
77. Match the column I with column II and select
the correct answer from the codes given

gm
below:
@ Column I Column II

1 Collecting a Major site of

(1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
65
tubule reabsorption and
(2) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 selective selection
(3) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
70

2 Kidney b JGA formed by cellular

(4) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 interstitium modifications
73. Which one of the following is not associated
at

3 Proximal c The region where

with biodiversity hotspots? convoluted electrolytes and urea
(1) Less interspecific competition
ja

tubule (PCT) are retained by

(2) Species richness counter current
mechanism
et

(3) Endemism
(4) Accelerated species loss. 4 Loop of Henle d Concentrates the
je

glomerular filtrate
74. Red Data Book' or IUCN Red List provides about four times, i.e.,
m

data on- from 300 mOsmol-1

to 1200 mOsmol-1
(1) Biota of Red Sea
ra

(2) Effect of red light or photosynthesis e Primarily helps to

(3) Red pigmented plants maintain osmolar
pa

gradient
(4) Threatened species.
75. If the given diagram shows the global
biodiversity of plants; then which option (1) 1-d, 2-c, 3-e, 4-a
correctly represents 'X' & 'Y'? (2) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-e
(1) X' Fungi; 'Y' Algae (3) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
(2) X' Angiosperms; 'Y' Mosses (4) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(3) X' Ferns; 'Y' Algae
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11
 .
78. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: All vertebrates possess a
muscular chambered heart.
Statement II: All reptiles (with no exception)
and amphibians have a three chambered
heart with two atria and a single ventricle.
In the light of the given statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
gm
79. Given below are two statements: one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is @
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The interstitial fluid does not
65
contain larger proteins and most of the
formed elements present in the blood
70
vessel.
Reason (R): As the blood passes through the
at
capillaries in tissues, some water along with
many small water soluble substances move
ja
out into the spaces between the cells of
et
tissues and large proteins and blood cells
don't move out due to their large size.
je
In the light of the given statements, choose
m
the correct answer from the options given
below:
ra
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
pa
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
80. Which of the following statements are
incorrect regarding regulation of kidney
function?
12 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23
(1) Aldosterone is released by the adrenal
medulla.
(2) Heart has no role in regulating the
functioning of the kidneys.
(3) Changes in ionic concentration in the
body activates the osmoreceptors.
(4) An excessive loss of body fluid from the
body stimulates the hypothalamus to release
vasopressin from the adenohypophysis.
(1) Only (1) and (2)
om
(2) Only (1) and (4)
(3) Only (1), (2) and (4)
l.c
(4) Only (2), (3) and (4)
ai
81. Consider the following statements about
'Myosin':
(1) It lacks binding sites for ATP.
(2) The head of myosin is called light
meromyosin (LMM).
(3) The head and short arm project outwards
at regular distance and angle from each
other from the surface of a polymerized
myosin filament and is known as cross arm.
(4) Tropomyosin runs close to the heavy
meromyosin (HMM) throughout its length.
Which of the above given statements are
false?
(1) Only (1), (2) and (4)
(2) Only (1) and (4)
(3) Only (2) and (3)
(4) Only (1), (3) and (4)
82. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The signals for parturition
originate from the fully developed foetus
and the placenta which induce mild uterine
contractions called foetal ejection reflex.
Statement II: Parturition is induced only by
neural mechanisms.
In the light of the given statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
12
 .
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
83. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Polymerase Chain Reaction
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
84. Mark the incorrect statement–
(1) Steroid and thyroid hormones are lipid
soluble
(2) Lipid soluble hormones bind to

om
(PCR) is routinely used to detect HIV in intracellular receptors
suspected AIDS patients and mutations in (3) The action of lipid soluble hormones are

l.c
genes in suspected cancer patients. faster and for shorter duration
Statement II: Polymerase Chain Reaction (4) cAMP is considered as secondary

ai
(PCR) can detect the concentration of messenger
pathogen only when it is very high in the 85. Protein coated water soluble fat droplets

gm
body and when the symptoms of the disease called chylomicrons are formed
are visible. @ (1) Inside the lumen of intestine
In the light of the given statements, choose (2) Inside intestinal cells
the correct answer from the options given (3) Within lacteals
65

below: (4) Within blood capillaries

(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
70

is correct
ZOOLOGY
at

SECTION - B
ja

86. Which of the following characters is not

et

correct w.r.t. Ctenophora? (1) Chromophil Secretion of saliva which

cells contains mucus and
(a) Shows bioluminescence
je

proteolytic enzymes.
(b) Absence of cnidoblast
m

(c) Eight rows of comb plates (2) Chloragogen Analogous to

(d) Freshwater habitat cells vertebrates liver as it
ra

(1) a & c synthesises urea

pa

(2) a & b (3) Typhlosole Enlarged dorsal villi that

(3) Only a increases the surface
(4) Only d area for absorption
87. Find the wrongly matched pair w.r.t. the
(4) Lateral Heart Present in 10 and 11
structure and its function in earthworm segments

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13
 .
88. Assertion: The muscle fibres of SA node
possess the lowest rhythmicity among all
cardiac muscle fibres.
Reason: Due to this fact, it can initiate
excitatory waves at the lowest rate.
(1) If assertion and Reason both are correct
and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If assertion and Reason both are correct
and Reason is not the correct explanation for
assertion.
(3) If assertion is correct but Reason is
wrong.
(4) If assertion and Reason both are wrong
89. Doctor uses a stethoscope to hear the sound
gm
produced during each cardiac cycle. The
second heart sound is heard when–
(1) AV nodes receive signals from the SA @ donar Henrietta Lacks who died of cervical
node.
(2) AV valve open up
65
(3) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing
of blood from atria
70
(4) Semilunar valves close down after the
blood flows into vessels from ventricles.
at
90. Assertion: The plant cells are treated with the
ja
enzymes – cellulase and pectinase but not the
et
animal cells.
Reason: These enzymes help in removing
je
the cell wall of plant cells made up of
cellulose and pectin.
m
(1) If assertion and Reason both are correct
ra
and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
pa
(2) If assertion and Reason both are correct
and Reason is not the correct explanation for
assertion.
(3) If assertion is correct but Reason is
wrong.
(4) If assertion and Reason both are wrong
14 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23
91. Assertion: A crop expressing a cry gene is
usually resistant to a group of insects
Reason: Cry protein produced from the gene
of Bacillus thuringiensis is toxic to larvae of
certain insects.
(1) If assertion and Reason both are correct
and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If assertion and Reason both are correct
and Reason is not the correct explanation for
om
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is correct but Reason is
wrong.
l.c
(4) If assertion and Reason both are wrong
92. Statement 1: HeLa cells are cancer cells
ai
capable of propagating outside a living
system.
Statement 2: These are named after their
cancer
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
93. Assertion: Coacervates are believed to be the
precursors of life
Reason : Coacervates were self duplicating
aggregates of proteins surrounded by lipid
molecules.
(1) If assertion and Reason both are correct
and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If assertion and Reason both are correct
and Reason is not the correct explanation for
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is correct but Reason is
wrong.
(4) If assertion and Reason both are wrong
14
 .
94. Statement 1: Conditional reflex is not lost
with time.
Statement 2: Conditioned reflex is inborn.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
95. Statement 1: The bile does not contain any
enzymes but still very important digestive
juice.
Statement 2: It aids in emulsification and in
absorption of fats following their digestion
gm
by lipase activation.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct
@
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
65
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
70
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
at
96. Which of the following are wrong
statements?
ja
(1) Human body removes urea near about
25-30 gm/ day.
et
(2) In the human body lungs , liver, and skin
also act as excretory organs.
je
(3) Sebum contain sterols,hydrocarbons and
m
waxes as secondary metabolite
(4) During hemodialysis, nitrogenous waste is
ra
removed on the principle of concentration
gradient as dialysing solutions differ in
pa
nitrogen waste concentration.
97. The contraceptive ‘ SAHELI’
(1) Is an IUD
(2) Increases the concentration of estrogen
and prevents ovulation in females
(3) Blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus
preventing the eggs from getting implanted
15 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23
(4) Is a postcoital contraceptive.
98. The transparent lens in human eye adjust the
focal length for near and distant vision in its
place by—
(1) Smooth muscles attached to the iris
(2) Ligaments attached to iris
(3) Ligaments attached to the ciliary body
(4) Smooth muscles attached to ciliary body
99. Statement I: Visceral nervous system is the
part of peripheral nervous system have
om
Afferent and efferent fibers.
Statement II: This system involves whole
complex of nerves, fibres , ganglia and
l.c
plexus to travel the impulse from CNS to
viscera only
ai
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
is correct
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
100. Select the correct set of statements.
a. Life originated on other planets is
transferred to Earth as Greek thinkers
thought.
b. Oparin and Haldane created primitive
earth conditions in the laboratory and
proposed that the first form of life could
have come from pre-existing non living
organic molecules.
c. Louis Pasture demonstrated that life
could not evolve from non-living organic
molecules.
d. Fossil evidence shows that certain life
forms are restricted to certain geological
time periods.
(1) (a) (b) (c )
(2) (a) (d)
(3) (a) (b) (d)
(4) All are correct
15
 .

PHYSICS
SECTION - A

101. A square current carrying loop is
suspended in uniform magnetic field acting
in the plane of the loop. If the force on one
arm of the loop is 𝐹⃗ , the net force on the
remaining three arms of the loop is
105. A vessel containing 5 liters of a gas at 0.8 m
pressure is connected to an evacuated
vessel of volume 3 liters. The resultant
pressure inside will be (assuming whole
system to be isolated)

om
(1) 𝐹⃗ (2) 3 𝐹⃗ (1) 4/3 m (2) 0.5 m
(3) 2.0 m (4) 3/4 m
(3) −𝐹⃗ (4) −3𝐹⃗

l.c
106. For a gas at a temperature T the root-mean

ai
102. A glass tube of length 1.0 m is completely -square velocity 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠 the most probable
filled with water. A vibrating turning fork of speed 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 , and the average speed 𝑣𝑎𝑣

gm
frequency 500 𝐻𝑧 is kept over the mouth obey the relationship
of the tube and the water is drained out @ (1) 𝑣𝑎𝑣 > 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠 > 𝑣𝑚𝑝
slowly at the bottom of the tube. If velocity (2) 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠 > 𝑣𝑎𝑣 > 𝑣𝑚𝑝
of sound in air is 330 𝑚𝑠 −1then the total (3) 𝑣𝑚𝑝 > 𝑣𝑎𝑣 > 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠
65

number of resonances that occur will be (4) 𝑣𝑚𝑝 > 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠 > 𝑣𝑎𝑣
(1) 2 (2) 3
70

(3) 1 (4) 5 107. Identify the incorrect statement out of the

following.
at

103. A film projector magnifies a 100 𝑐𝑚2 film (1)A body can have zero velocity and still be
ja

strip on a screen. If the linear magnification accelerated

is 4, the area of magnified film on the (2)A body can have a constant velocity and
et

screen is still have varying speed

(1)1600 𝑐𝑚2 (2) 400 𝑐𝑚2 (3)A body can have a constant speed and
je

(3)800 𝑐𝑚2 (4) 200 𝑐𝑚2 still have varying velocity

m

(4)The direction of the velocity of a body

can change when its acceleration is
ra

104. A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from

a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm constant.
pa

wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is

observed on a screen 2 m away. The 108. A charge q is located at the centre of a
distance between the first dark fringes on cube. The electric flux through any face is
either side of the central bright fringe is 4𝜋𝑞 𝜋𝑞
(1) 6(4𝜋𝜀 (2) 6(4𝜋𝜀
(1) 1.2 mm (2)1.2 cm 0) 0)
𝑞 2𝜋𝑞
(3) 2.4 cm (4) 2.4 mm (3) (4)
6(4𝜋𝜀0 ) 6(4𝜋𝜀0 )

16 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

16
 .
109. Find the potential difference (in volts) on 8 113. In a transformer, the number of turns in
µF capacitor. the primary and secondary coils are 1000
and 3000 respectively. If the primary is
connected across 80 V AC, the potential
difference across each turn of the
secondary will be
(1) 240 V (2) 0.24 V
(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 0.8 V (4) 0.08 V
(3) 20 (4) 30
114. For a satellite escape velocity is 11 km/s. If

om
110. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart the satellite is launched at an angle of 600
C as shown. The coefficient of static friction with the vertical, then escape velocity will

l.c
between the block and the cart is μ. The be
acceleration a of the cart that will prevent (1) 11 km/s (2) 11√3 𝑘𝑚/𝑠

ai
the block from falling satisfies 11
(3) 𝑘𝑚/𝑠 (4) 33 km/s
√3

gm
115. A torque of 2 × 10−4 𝑁 − 𝑚 is required to
hold a magnet at right angles to the
@
magnetic meridian. The torque required to
65
hold it at 30° to the magnetic meridian in
(1) a < g/μ (2) a > mg/ μ N-m is
(3) a < g/μm (4) a ≥ g/μ
70

(1) 0.5 × 10−4 (2) 1 × 10−4

111. The rate of radiation of a black body at 0℃ (3) 4 × 10−4 (4) 8 × 10−4
at

is E J/s. The rate of radiation of this black

116. A wire when connected to 220 V mains
ja

body at 273℃ will be

(1) 16 E (2) 8 E supply has power dissipation 𝑃1 . Now the
et

(3) 4 E (4) E wire is cut into two equal pieces which are
connected in parallel to the same supply.
je

112. A lead bullet of 10 g travelling at 300 m/s Power dissipation in this case is 𝑃2 . Then
m

strikes against a block of wood and comes 𝑃2 : 𝑃1 is

to rest. Assuming 50% of heat is absorbed (1) 1 (2) 4
ra

by the bullet, the increase in its (3) 2 (4) 3

pa

temperature is (specific heat of lead =

150𝐽/𝑘𝑔, 𝐾) 117. An inductor of 2 Henry and a resistance of
(1) 100°𝐶 (2) 125°𝐶 10 ohms are connected in series with a
(3) 150°𝐶 (4) 200°𝐶 battery of 5 volts. The initial rate of change
of current is
(1) 0.5 amp/sec (2) 2.0 amp/sec
(3) 2.5 amp/sec (4) 0.25 amp/sec

17 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

17
 .

118. An electrons jumps from 5th orbit to 4th

123. A moving coil galvanometer has a
orbit of hydrogen atom. Taking the
resistance of 900 Ω. In order to send only
Rydberg constant as 107 per metre what
10% of the main current through this
will be the frequency of radiation emitted
galvanometer, the resistance of the
(1) 6.75 × 1012 𝐻𝑧
required shunt is
(2) 6.75 × 1014 𝐻𝑧
(1) 0.9 Ω (2) 100 Ω
(3) 6.75 × 1013 𝐻𝑧
(3) 405 Ω (4) 90 Ω
(4) 𝑛𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑠𝑒

om
124. Magnetic energy per unit volume is
119. A radioactive element 23890𝑋 decays
222
represented by
into 83𝑌 . The number of 𝛽 − particles 𝐵2 𝐵2

l.c
emitted are (1) 2𝜇 (2) 2𝜇2
0 0
(1) 4 (2) 6 2𝐵2 𝐵2
(3) 𝜇 (4) 𝜇

ai
0 0
(3) 2 (4) 1

gm
125. The equation describing the motion of a
120. Angle of prism is A and its one surface is
simple harmonic oscillator along the 𝑥 axis
silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of
is given as : 𝑥 = 𝐴 cos(𝜔𝑡 + 𝜙). If at time
incidence 2A on first surface return back
@
𝑡 = 0, the oscillator is at 𝑥 = 0 and moving
through the same path after suffering
65

in the negative 𝑥 direction, then the phase

reflection at second silvered surface.
angle 𝜙 is
Refractive index of the material of prism is
70

(1) 𝜋⁄2 (2) −𝜋⁄2

(1) 2 sin 𝐴 (2) 2 cos 𝐴
1 (3) 𝜋 (4) 0
(3) 2 cos 𝐴 (4) tan A
at

126. A p-n photodiode is made of a material

ja

121. A person standing on the floor of an with band gap of 2 eV. The minimum
elevator drops a coin. The coin reaches the
et

frequency of the radiation that can be

floor of the elevator in a time 𝑡1 if the absorbed by the material is nearly.
je

elevator is stationary and in time 𝑡2 if it is (1) 1 × 1014 𝐻𝑧 (2) 20 × 1014 𝐻𝑧

moving uniformly. Then (3) 10 × 1014 𝐻𝑧 (4) 5 × 1014 𝐻𝑧
m

(1) 𝑡1 = 𝑡2 (2) 𝑡1 < 𝑡2

ra

(3) 𝑡1 > 𝑡2 (4) 𝑡1 < 𝑡2 𝑜𝑟 𝑡1 > 𝑡2 127. The resonance frequency of the tank circuit
10
of an oscillator when 𝐿 = 𝑚𝐻 and 𝐶 =
pa

122. One coolie takes 1 minute to raise a 𝜋2

0.04𝜇𝐹 are connected in parallel is
suitcase through a height of 2m but the
(1) 250 𝑘𝐻𝑧 (2) 25 𝑘𝐻𝑧
second coolie takes 30s to raise the same
(3) 2.5 𝑘𝐻𝑧 (4) 25 𝑀𝐻𝑧
suitcase to the same height. The powers of
two coolies are in ratio if
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 1

18 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

18
 .
128. The collector supply voltage in CE transistor
amplifier is 10 V. The base current is 10
𝜇𝐴 in the absence of the signal voltage and
the voltage between the collector and the
emitter is 4𝑉 . The current gain (𝛽) of a
transistor is 200 then the value of the load
resistance 𝑅𝐿
(1) 1 𝐾Ω (2) 2 𝐾Ω
(3) 3 𝐾Ω (4) 4 𝐾Ω
132. Which of the following statement is
correct?
(1) Photocurrent increases with intensity of
light
(2) Photocurrent is proportional to the
applied voltage
(3) Current in photocell increases with
increasing frequency
(4) Stopping potential increases with
increases of intensity of incident light

om
129. The masses of two planets are in the ratio
1 : 2. Their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2. The 133. When a mass M is attached to the spring of

l.c
acceleration due to gravity on the planets force constant k, then the spring stretches
are in the ratio by 𝑙. If the mass oscillates with amplitude 𝑙.

ai
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 What will be maximum potential energy
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 5 : 3 stored in the spring

gm
𝑘𝑙
(1) 2
(2) 2𝑘𝑙 2
130. A uniform rod of mass m, length L, are of 𝑀𝑔𝑙
(3) (4) 𝑀𝑔𝑙
cross-section A and young modulus Y hangs
@ 2

from the ceiling. Its elongation under its 134. A solenoid has an inductance of 60 henry
65

own weight will be and a resistance of 30 ohms. If it is

𝑚𝑔𝐿
(1) Zero (2) connected to a 100 volt battery. How long
70

2𝐴𝑌
𝑚𝑔𝐿 2𝑚𝑔𝐿 will it take for the current to reach 63.2%
(3) 𝐴𝑌
(4) 𝐴𝑌
of its final value
at

(1) 1 seconds (2) 2 seconds

131. When light of wavelength 300 nm
ja

(3) e seconds (4) 2e seconds

(nanometer) falls on a photoelectric
et

emitter, photoelectrons are liberated. For 135. Assertion: A man rowing a boat upstream
another emitter, however, light of 600 nm is at rest with respect to the bank. He is
je

wavelength is sufficient for creating doing no external work

photoemission. What is the ratio of the
m

Reason: Work done by a constant force,

work function of the two emitter? 𝑊 = 𝐹𝑠 cos 𝜃
ra

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 1. Assertion and reason both correct;
pa

reason is correct explanation of

assertion
2. Assertion and reason both correct;
reason is not a correct explanation of
assertion
3. Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
4. Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

19 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

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 .

PHYSICS
SECTION – B
136. A particle having mass m and charge q is (1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
released from the origin in a region in (2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
which electric field and magnetic field are (3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
given by 𝐵 = −𝐵0 𝑗 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐸 = 𝐸0 𝑘. The (4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
speed of the particle as a function of its z-
139. Two nucleons are at a separation of 1 ×
coordinate

om
10−15 𝑚. The nuclear force between them
2𝑞𝐸0 𝑧 𝑞𝐸0 𝑧
(1) √ 𝑚
(2) √ 𝑚
is 𝐹1 if both are neutrons, 𝐹2 if both are
protons and 𝐹3 if one is a proton and other

l.c
0𝑞𝐸 𝑧 4𝑞𝐸0 𝑧
(3) √ 2𝑚 (4) √ 𝑚 is a neutron. In such a case
(1) 𝐹2 > 𝐹1 > 𝐹3 (2) 𝐹1 = 𝐹2 = 𝐹3

ai
137. Assertion: The apparent weight of a (3) 𝐹1 = 𝐹2 > 𝐹3 (4) 𝐹1 = 𝐹3 > 𝐹2

gm
floating body is zero
Reason: The weight of the block acting 140. The frequencies of X-rays, 𝛾 − 𝑟𝑎𝑦𝑠 and
vertically downwards is balanced by the ultraviolet rays are respectively a, b and c.
@
buoyant force acting on the block upwards Then
65
(1) a < b, b < c (2) a < b, b > c
1. Assertion and reason both correct; (3) a > b, b > c (4) a > b, b < c
reason is correct explanation of
70

assertion 141. Match List-I with List-II

2. Assertion and reason both correct;
at

reason is not a correct explanation of List-I List-II

ja

assertion Gravitational [L2T-2]

(a) (i)
3. Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect constant (G)
et

4. Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct Gravitational [M-1L3T-

(b) (ii) 2
potential energy ]
je

138. Match List-I with List-II Gravitational [LT-2]

(c) (iii)
m

List-I List-I potential

(Electromagneti (Wavelen Gravitational [ML2T-2]
ra

(d) (iv)
c waves) gth) intensity
pa

(a) Am radio waves -10

(i) 10 m Choose the correct answer from the
(b) Microwaves (ii) 102 m options given below
Infrared (1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(c) (iii) 10-10 m
radiations (2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(d) X-rays (iv) 10-4 m (3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
Choose the correct answer from the (4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
options given below

20 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

20
 .
142. If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom between plates of capacitor, the quantities
of diamagnetic material, paramagnetic that decreases
material and ferromagnetic material are (1) C, Q (2) C, V
denoted by 𝜇𝑑 , 𝜇𝑝 and 𝜇𝑓 respectively, (3) V, U (4) Q, U
then
(1) 𝜇𝑑 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜇𝑝 ≠ 0 146. An ideal coil of 10 Henry is joined in series
(2) 𝜇𝑑 ≠ 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜇𝑝 = 0 with resistance of 5 Ohm and a Battery of
5 Volt. 2 second after joining, the current
(3) 𝜇𝑝 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜇𝑓 ≠ 0
flowing in ampere in the circuit will be
(4) 𝜇𝑑 ≠ 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜇𝑓 ≠ 0 (1) 𝑒 −1 (2) (1 − 𝑒 −1 )

om
(3) (1 − 𝑒) (4) e
143. Two similar springs P and Q have spring
constants 𝐾𝑝 and 𝐾𝑄 , such that 𝐾𝑃 > 𝐾𝑄 . 147. A and B are two points on a uniform ring of

l.c
They are stretched, first by the same resistance R. The 𝐴𝐶𝐵 = 90°, where C is
amount (case a,) then by the same force the center of the ring. The equivalent

ai
(case b). The work done by the springs 𝑊𝑃
resistance between A and B is
and 𝑊𝑄 are related as, in case (a) and case
(1) 3R/4 (2) 3R/8

gm
(b), respectively
(1) 𝑊𝑃 = 𝑊𝑄 ; 𝑊𝑃 = 𝑊𝑄 (3) 3R/16 (4) 3R/32
(2) 𝑊𝑃 > 𝑊𝑄 ; 𝑊𝑄 > 𝑊𝑃 @
(3) 𝑊𝑃 < 𝑊𝑄 ; 𝑊𝑄 < 𝑊𝑃 148. As per Bohr model, the minimum energy
(4) 𝑊𝑃 = 𝑊𝑄 ; 𝑊𝑃 > 𝑊𝑄 (in 𝑒𝑉 ) required to remove an electron
65

from the ground state of doubly ionized 𝐿𝑖

atom (𝑍 = 3) is
144. Assertion: The center of mass of a two
70

(1) 1.51 (2) 13.6

particle system lies on the line joining the
(3) 40.8 (4) 122.4
two particle, being closer to the heavier
at

particle
Reason: Product of mass of particle and its 149. In the arrangement shown, the pulleys are
ja

distance from centre of mass is numerically fixed and ideal, the strings are light, 𝑚1 >
equal to product of mass of other particle 𝑚2 and S is a spring balance which is itself
et

and its distance from centre of mass. massless. The reading of S (in units of
mass ) is
je

1. Assertion and reason both correct;

reason is correct explanation of
m

assertion
2. Assertion and reason both correct;
ra

reason is not a correct explanation of

assertion
pa

3. Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 1

4. Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct (1) 𝑚1 − 𝑚2 (2) 2 (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )
𝑚 𝑚 2𝑚1 𝑚2
(3) 𝑚 1+𝑚2 (4) 𝑚
1 2 1 +𝑚2
145. C, Q, V and U are capacitance, charge,
potential difference and energy stored in 150. Dimension of R is
an isolated parallel plate capacitor
(1) 𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −1 (2) 𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −3 𝐴−2
respectively. Now a dielectric slab is placed (3) 𝑀𝐿−1 𝑇 −2 (4) None of these

21 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

21
 .
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
151. Statement I: Permanent hardness of water 156. Consider the following statements.
is removed by treatment with washing
soda.
Statement II: Washing soda reacts with
soluble magnesium and calcium sulphate
to form insoluble carbonates.
(1) Only statement I is correct
(2) Only statement II is correct
I. An ideal solution is one in which both
components obey Raoult’s law.
II. A colligative property is a property that
depends on the number of solute
particles, not their chemical identity;
they arise from the effect of a solute on
the entropy of solution.

om
(3) Both statements are correct III. An azeotrope is a mixture that vaporises
(4) Both statements are incorrect and condenses without a change of
composition.

l.c
152. In an atom, an electron is moving with a Select the correct statement(s) and mark
speed of 600 m/s with an accuracy of the correct option.
0.005%. Certainity with which the position (1) Both I and II (2) Both I and III

ai
of the electron can be located is (3) Both II and III (4) I, II and III

gm
(h = 6.6 × 10-34 kg m2 s-1, mass of electron
em = 9.1 × 10-31 kg). 157. Consider the following statements.
(1) 1.52 × 10-4 m (2) 5.10 × 10-3 m @ Statement I: Cannizzaro reaction converts
(3) 1.92 × 10-3 m (4) 3.84 × 10-3 m HCHO into HCOONa and CH3OH.
Statement II: It is a proton – hydride
65

153. Pentan – 2 – one and pentan – 3 – one are transfer reaction.

(1) position isomers (1) Both statements I and II are correct
70

(2) metamers (2) Only statement I is correct

(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) Only statement II is correct
(4) None of these (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
at

154. Molecules whose mirror image is non – 158. The increasing order of covalent character
ja

superimposable over them are known as is represented by

et

chiral. Which of the following molecules is (1) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI
chiral in nature? (2) LiI < LiBr < LiCl < LiF
je

(1) 2 – bromobutane (3) LiBr < LiCl < LiI < LiF
(2) 1 – bromobutane (4) LiI < LiCl < LiBr < LiF
m

(3) 2 – bromopropane
(4) 2 – bromopropane – 2 – ol
ra

155. Main process for extracting nickel in the

pa

pure form uses which one of the following?

(1) Vapour phase refining
(2) Zone refining
(3) Electrolysis
(4) Solvent extraction

22 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

22
 .
159. Match the terms in Column I with the terms 162. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2
in Column II in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in
Column I Column II excess and how much?
(Atomic weight, Mg = 24, O = 16)
A. Ionic product 1. Electron pair
(1) Mg, 0.16 g (2) O2, 0.16 g
of water acceptor
(3) Mg, 0.44 g (4) O2, 0.28 g
B. Buffer 2. Electron pair
solution donor
163. Caprolactum is the monomer of
C. Lewis acid 3. Resists changes
(1) melamine (2) Dacron
in pH by addition
(3) nylon – 6 (4) All of these
of an acid.
D. Lewis base 4. Dissociation of

om
164. The manganate and permanganate ions
water
are tetrahedral, due to
molecules.
(1) there is no π – bonding

l.c
A B C D (2) The π – bonding involves overlap of p –
(1) 4 3 1 2 orbitals of oxygen with p – orbitals of
(2) 3 4 2 1

ai
manganese
(3) 3 4 1 2 (3) the π – bonding involves overlap of d –

gm
(4) 4 3 2 1 orbitals of oxygen with d – orbitals of
manganese
160. Statement I: The decomposition of @ (4) the π – bonding involves overlap of p –
hydrogen peroxide to form water and orbitals of oxygen with d – orbitals of
oxygen is an example of disproportionation manganese.
65

reaction.
Statement II: The oxygen of peroxide is 165. Ether is a good solvent for Grignard
70

in – 1 oxidation state and it is converted to reagent. Which property makes it a good

zero oxidation state in O2 and – 2 oxidation solvent?
state in H2O.
at

(1) It acts as a base towards acidic

(1) Only statement I is true magnesium
(2) Only statement II is true
ja

(2) It makes H – bonding with Grignard

(3) Both statements are true reagent
(4) Both statements are wrong
et

(3) It acts as an acid towards basic

magnesium
je

161. The process of ‘eutrophication’ is due to (4) It is an electron rich species

(1) increase in concentration of radioactive
m

substances in water 166. For the reaction, A(g) → B (g) + C (g) rate
(2) increases in concentration of 𝑑[𝐴]
ra

insecticides in water law is - 𝑑𝑡 = 𝑘 [𝐴]

(3) increase in concentration of fluoride ion At the start pressure is 100 mm and after
pa

in water 10 min, pressure is 120 mm. Hence, rate

(4) the reduction in concentration of the constant (min-1) is
2.303 6 2.303
dissolved oxygen in water due to (1) 10 log 5 (2) 10 log 5
phosphate pollutant in water. 2.303 5 2.303 5
(3) log (4) log
10 4 10 6

23 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

23
 .
167. Electrode potential for Mg electrode varies 169. Statement I: Aluminium trimethyl is a
according to the equation. dimer having structure similar to AlCl3.
⊖ 0.0591 1 Statement II: There is three – centre two –
EMg2+ /Mg = EMg 2+ /Mg − log 2+
2 [Mg ]
electron bonding in Al – Cl – Al bridge.
The graph of EMg2+/Mg vs log [Mg 2+ ] is
(1) Only statement I is correct
(1) (2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

170. Calculate the temperature at which

∆G = - 5.2 kJ/mol,

om
∆H = 145.6 kJ/mol and ∆S = 216 J/K mol for
a chemical reaction.
(2) (1) 698.1℃ (2) 698.1 K

l.c
(3) 130 K (4) 130℃

ai
171. Electronic configuration of some elements
is given in Column I and their electron gain

gm
enthalpies are given in Column II. Match
the electronic configuration with electron
@ gain enthalpy.
(3)
Column I Column II
(Electronic (Electron gain
65

configuration) enthalpy/kJ/mol-1)
A. 1s2 2s2, 2p6 1. – 53
70

2 2 6 1
B. 1s 2s , 2p 3s 2. – 328
C. 1s2 2s2, 2p5 3. – 141
at

2 2 4
(4) D. 1s 2s , 2p 4. + 48
Codes:
ja

A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
et

(2) 4 1 2 3
(3) 4 2 1 3
je

(4) 4 3 1 2
m

172. Which of the following statement is

168. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the structure of alkene?
ra

incorrect? (1) Double bond between two carbon

(1) Enzyme holds the substrate in its active atoms consists of one strong 𝜎 – bond.
pa

site. (2) One 𝜋 -bond is formed by lateral

(2) Enzyme provide the functional groups
that will attack the substrate and carry
out chemical reaction.
(3) Drugs when bind to the active site then
these sites are called allosteric site.
(4) All statements are incorrect.
overlapping of two 2p – orbitals
(3) Due to presence of 𝜋- bond, alkenes are
stable
(4) Alkenes easily attached to an
electrophile due to the presence of 𝜋 −
bond.

24 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

24
 .
173. Lithium shows similarities to magnesium in
its chemical behaviour because of
(1) similar size, greater electronegativity
and similar polarising power.
(2) similar size, same electronegativity and
lower polarising power
(3) similar size, same electronegativity and
similar high polarising power.
(4) None of the above
177. Consider the following statements.
Statement I: SO2 is a bleaching agent.
Statement II: Nascent oxygen causes
bleaching action in SO2.
Choose the correct option.
(1) Only statement I is true
(2) Only statement II is true
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) None of above statements are correct

174. Which of the following statements about 178. Statement I: Graphite is a good conductor

om
glucose is/are correct? of electricity however diamond belongs to
(1) It is an aldohexose the category of insulator.
(2) It is dextrorotatory Statement II: Graphite is soft in nature on

l.c
(3) It is found in our blood as a source of the other hand diamond is very hard and
energy brittle.

ai
(4) All of the above (1) Only statement I is true
(2) Only statement II is true

gm
175. Consider the following statements. (3) Both statements I and II are true.
Statement I: Ni (CO)4 is diamagnetic (4) Neither statement I nor statement II is
complex. @ true.
Statement II: All the electrons in the
complex are paired. 179. Which of the assumption of the kinetic
65

(1) Both statements I and II are correct molecular theory best explains Dalton’s
(2) Only statement I is correct law of partial pressure?
70

(3) Only statement II is correct (1) Gas molecules move at random with no
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect attractive forces between them
at

(2) The velocity of gas molecules is

176. Match the following Column I with Column proportional to their kelvin
ja

II. temperature.
Column I Column II (3) The amount of space occupied by a gas
et

(Colloids) (Classification) is much greater than the space

A. Rain cloud 1. Sol occupied by the actual gas molecules.
je

B. Milk of 2. Aerosol (4) Collisions with the walls of the

magnesia container or with other molecules are
m

C. Soap suds 3. Gel elastic.

ra

D. Butter 4. Foam
Choose the correct match.
pa

A B C D
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 3 4 1 2
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 3 4 2 1

25 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23

25
 .
180. Consider the following statements
Statement I: Basicity of (I)CH3CH2NH2,
(II) NH3 and (III) C6H5NH2 is in order.
I > II > III
Statement II: Electron – donating groups
(such as alkyl group) increase the basicity
of amines and electron – withdrawing
groups (such as aryl group) decrease the
basicity of amines.
(1) Both statements I and II are correct
(2) Only statement I is correct
(3) Only statement II is correct
(4) Neither statement I nor statement II is
correct
181. The strength of bonds by overlapping
atomic orbitals are in order
(1) s – s < s – p < p – p
gm
(2) s – s < p – p < s – p
(3) s – p < s – s < p – p
(4) p – p < s – s < s – p @ and reason is the correct explanation of
182. When Al2O3 is electrolysed, aluminium is
65
produced at one electrode and oxygen gas
at the other electrode. For a given quantity
70
of electricity, ratio of number of moles of
aluminium to the number of moles of
at
oxygen gas is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
ja
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 4 : 3
et
183. Assertion: Tetrahedral complexes having
two different types of unidentate ligands
je
coordinated with central metal ion will
show geometrical isomerism.
m
CHEMISTRY
ra
SECTION -B
186. Consider the following statements
pa
Statement I: In presence of enzyme,
substrate molecule can be attacked by the
reagent effectively.
Statement II: Active sites of enzymes hold
the substrate molecule in a suitable
position.
Consider the following statements:
(1) Both statements I and II are true
26 | MOCK TEST # 18 (ENGLISH) 2022-23
Reason: Geometrical isomerism arises in
homoleptic complexes due to different
possible geometric arrangement of the
ligands.
(1)If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
om
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
l.c
184. Assertion: Fluorine combines with sulphur
to form SF6 but no other halogen forms
ai
hexahalide with sulphur.
Reason: The reactivity of halogens
increases as the atomic number increases.
(1)If both assertion and reason are true
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
185. Which of the following represents Wurtz –
Fittig reaction
(1) C6H5I + 2Na + CH3I → C6H5CH3 + 2NaI
(2) 2C6H5I + 2Na → C6H5 C6H5 + 2NaI
(3) 2CH3CH2I + 2Na → CH3CH2CH2CH3 + 2NaI
(4) CH3Br + AgF → CH3F + AgBr
(2) Only statement I is true
(3) Only statement II is true
(4) Neither statement I nor statement II is
true.
26
 .
187. Match the items given in Column I with the (1) If both assertion and reason are true
type of solutions given in Column II. and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
Column I Column II
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
A. Soda water 1. A solution of gas
reason is not the correct explanation of
in solid
assertion.
B. Sugar 2. A solution of gas
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
solution in gas
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
C. German 3. A solution of solid
silver in liquid 190. Assertion: Cu2+ ions get reduced more
D. Air 4. A solution of solid easily than H+ ions.

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in solid Reason: Standard electrode potential of
E. Hydrogen 5. A solution of gas copper is 0.34 V.
gas is in liquid (1) If both assertion and reason are true

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palladium and reason is the correct explanation of
6. A solution of assertion.
liquid in solid

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(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
Codes reason is not the correct explanation of

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A B C D E assertion.
(1) 3 5 1 4 2 (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(2) 5 3 4 2 1
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(3) 2 4 3 1 5 191. Which of the following sets of quantum
(4) 5 2 3 4 1 numbers represents the highest energy of
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an atom?
188. Which of the following statements is (1) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2
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incorrect about the collision theory of (2) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2

chemical reaction? (3) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
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(1) It considers reacting molecules or (4) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2

atoms to be hard spheres and ignores
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their structural features. 192. The heat of formation of CO2 is – 95 kcal.

(2) Number of effective collisions The amount of carbon which on burning
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determines the rate of reaction will evolve 1000 kcal is

(3) Collision of atoms or molecules (1) 12.63 g (2) 17.95 g
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possessing sufficient threshold energy (3) 126.3 g (4) 179.5 g

results into the product formation
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(4) Molecules should collide with sufficient 193. Select the correct statement(s).
threshold energy and proper (1) In graphite, only three electrons (out of
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orientation for the collision to be four) are involved in 𝜎 – bonding.

(2) 𝜋 - bonding electrons in graphite are
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effective.
delocalised over the whole structure
189. Assertion: Isocyanide test can be used to (3) Conduction of electricity in graphite is
distinguish between secondary and tertiary due to mobile electrons
amines. (4) All of the above are correct statements.
Reason: Tertiary amines on heating with
chloroform and alc. KOH form foul smelling
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194. Consider the following statements. 197. Match the intermediates given in Column I
Statement I: 1 – butyne is converted to with their probable structure in Column II.
butan – 2 – one by hydration using Column I Column II
H2SO4/Hg2+. A. Free radical I. Trigonal planar
Statement II: Hydroboration – oxidation B. Carbocation II. Pyramidal
converts terminal alkynes into aldehydes. C. Carbanion III. Linear
(1) Only statement I is true A B C
(2) Only statement II is true (1) I II III
(3) Both statements I and II are true (2) I I II
(4) Neither statement I nor statement II are (3) I I III
true. (4) II II I

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195. The shape of IF7 molecule is 198. Which of the following methods is adopted
(1) pentagonal bipyramidal for the synthesis of (CH3)3C – CO2H?
CN− H3 O+

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(2) trigonal pyramidal
(1) (CH3)3C – Br → →
(3) tetrahedral Mg⁄ether CO2 H3 O+
(4) square planar (2) (CH3)3C – Br → → →

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(3) Both (1) and (2)
196. Statement I: For the reaction,

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(4) None of the above
A + B ⇌ C; KC = 2
If we start with 1 mole each of A, B and C in 199. Statement I: NaCl reacts with concentrated
5 L flask, then at equilibrium, molar H2SO4 to give colourless fumes with
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concentration of A and B increases and that pungent smell. But on adding MnO2 the
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of C decreases. fumes become greenish yellow.
Statements II: Reaction quotient Q > KC Statement II: MnO2 oxidises HCl to chlorine
with given quantity of A, B and C, hence gas which is greenish yellow.
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reaction is reversed. (1) Both statements I and II are correct

(1) Only statement I is true (2) Only statements I is correct
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(2) Only statement II is true (3) Only statement II is correct

(3) Both statements are true (4) Both statements are incorrect.
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(4) Both statements are wrong

200. Consider the following statements.
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Statement I: Phenol forms 2, 4, 6 –

tribromo phenol on treatment with Br2 in
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carbon disulphide at 273 K.

Statement II: Bromine polarises in carbon
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disulphide.
(1) Both statements I and II are correct
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(2) Only statement I is correct

(3) Only statement II is correct
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(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

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ORDER OF MOCK TEST FLOW

We have just launched our new feature in which you can check your Offline Mock Test result
immediately. This feature is available only on Biomentors Android Mobile App (version : 15.3.4)
and Tablet App (version 1.3.4) If you are using an older version you can update it through play
store.

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You have to just follow the below steps to get your result.
Step - 1 : Log in into the app and go to the home page of the app. On every Sunday you will see

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one option on the home page as Offline Mock Test as shown in image 1.1. You can
click on the Offline Mock Tests button or you can also select the Offline Mock Tests

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option from the side menu -> Tests -> Offline Mock Tests as shown in image 1.2.

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Image 1.1 Image 1.2

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Step - 2 : You will see the list of latest and previous Offline Mock Tests. Every Sunday at 12:00
PM offline mock test papers will be available. Here you will see the same offline mock
test in 3 types. 1 in English only, 1 in Hindi and 1 in both English and Hindi as shown
in image 2.1. You can download the offline mock test paper using this blue color
download icon as shown in image 2.2. You can take print out of this paper and we
have also attached the OMR sheet to fill your answers with the paper.

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Image 2.1 Image 2.2

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Step - 3 : You have to fill the OMR sheet in the pattern of NEET exam (Section A : 35 questions
compulsory and Section B : 10 questions compulsory). Do not fill more than 10
bubbles in the OMR sheet as shown in image 3.1. Biomentors suggest that you give
the exam the same as NEET exam time which is 2:00 PM - 5:00 PM which will give you
the same experience of the NEET exam.

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Image 3.1

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Step - 4 : Once you fill your hard copy of the OMR sheet you can click on the Check Result
button as shown in image 4.1. Once you click on that button you will be redirected to
the upload OMR sheet image page as shown in image 4.2. You can upload your filled
OMR sheet through camera or gallery. Make sure the image is properly attached and
clearly visible. Now after successful upload of the image you will see the bubble
options as shown in image 4.3. You have to fill the exact same bubbles as your hard
copy of the OMR sheet as shown in image 4.4. App will allow max 35 bubbles to be
filled in Section A of every subject and max 10 bubbles for Section B. Once you fill
bubbles for any question it won’t allow you to change so you have to be very careful

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while filling bubbles in the APP it will help to improve your accuracy. Finally after
filling all needed bubbles you can click on the submit button as shown in image 4.5.

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Once you click on the submit button APP will show your result immediately as shown
in image 4.6. You can now close this page and go back to the list of offline mock tests

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page.

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Image 4.1 Image 4.2

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Image 4.5 Image 4.6

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Step - 5 : You can see your result again for the same given test by clicking on the Check Result
button. So if you have already submitted that test it will show you the direct result as
shown in image 5.1 or it will redirect you to the uploaded OMR sheet page as shown
in image 4.2. You can review your result by clicking on the Review button as shown
in 5.2. Once you click on the review button it will redirect you to the review page as
shown in image 5.3. It will highlight your correct and incorrect answers. You can also
view your uploaded hard copy of the OMR sheet by clicking on View OMR sheet
option as shown in image 5.4.

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Image 5.1 Image 5.2

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Image 5.3 Image 5.4

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Steps - 6 : Topper list and Answer sheet for the Offline Mock Tests will be generated on the next
day at 12:00 AM as shown in image 6.1 and 6.2 respectively. If you have submitted
your OMR sheet on the same day of the test your name can be present based on your
Marks. You can also submit an OMR sheet after the test day but in that case your
result won’t be counted for the toppers.

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Image 6.1 Image 6.2

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