23/04/2023 Code-B

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 240 Practice Test-01B_CF+OYM(P1)-2024 Time : 60 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Electric Charges & Fields: Introduction, Electric charges, Conductors and insulators, Charging by induction,
Basic properties of electric charges, Coulomb’s law, Force between multiple charges, Electric Field, Electric field due to
system of charges
Chemistry : The Solid State: General characteristics of solid-state, Amorphous and crystalline solids. Classification of
crystalline solids : Molecular, ionic, metallic and covalent solids, Crystal lattices and unit cells : Primitive and centered unit
cells, Number of atoms in simple cubic, body centered and face centered cubic unit cell, Close packed structures in 2D and
3D ccp and hcp arrangements, Formula of a compound and number of voids filled, Locating tetrahedral and octahedral
voids
Botany : Reproduction in Organisms
Zoology : Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction-I : Sex organs, Male reproductive system: Testes, epididymis,
Vas deferens, penis, accessory glands of male reproductive system, seminal plasma and semen.

General Instructions :
Instructions:
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on Answer
sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

1. The tyre of aeroplane is made of conducting 2. A bob of a simple pendulum has mass 2 g
rubber because and a charge of 8 μC. It is at rest in a uniform
(1) It will help to prevent slipping of tyre horizontal electric field of intensity 1000 V/m
during
landing at equilibrium. The angle that the pendulum
makes with horizontal is
(2) It retards aeroplane once it is landed by
increasing friction force (1) tan−1 [5]
(3) It will transfer charge to the earth which (2) tan
−1
[3]
develops
during landing due to friction
(3) −1 3
(4) It helps in providing stability during tan [
2
]

taking off
(4) −1 5
tan [ ]
2

3. A negatively charged particle A is placed

exactly between line joining two fixed
particles B and C having equal charge. If B
have negative charge and C have positive
charge then 
(1) A will move towards B
(2) A will move towards C
(3) A will remain in equilibrium
(4) Can’t say

1
Practice Test-01B_CF+OYM(P1)-2024

4. Force between two point charges kept at a 9. A system contains five charges +1 C, +2 C, –
fixed separation is F. If distance between 3 C, +4 C and –5 C. The net charge on the
point charges is made 1.5 times of initial system is
value then new force of attraction/repulsion (1) +1 C
acting between them becomes
(2) –2 C
(1) 3 F
2 (3) 2 C
(2) 9
F (4) –1 C
4

(3) 4
F
9
10. A charge Q is placed at each of two opposite
(4) 2
F corners of a square. A charge q is placed at
3
each of the other two corners of the square.
If the resultant force on Q is zero then,
–
5. The minimum electrostatic force between (1) Q = −√2q
two charged particles placed at a distance of –
(2) Q = 2√2q
3 cm is
–
(1) 2.56 × 10–25 N (3) Q = √2q
–
(2) 1.28 × 10–25 N (4) Q = −2√2q

(3) 2.56 × 10–30 N

(4) 1.28 × 10–30 N 11. Smallest unit of charge is
(1) frankline
(2) faraday
6. A positive point charge 20 μC is located at
(3) coulomb
ˆ ˆ
the pointr 0⃗  = (2 i + 3 j )m   where  ˆ
i   and 
(4) emu
ˆ
j are the unit vectors along the x-axis and y-
axis respectively. Electric field at a point 12. If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight
having position vector  (1) Remain precisely constant
ˆ ˆ
r ⃗ = (8 i − 5 j ) m  will be (2) Increases slightly
(1) ˆ ˆ
(3) Decreases slightly
360(3 i − 4 j )
(4) May increase slightly or may decrease
(2) ˆ ˆ
180(3 i − 4 j ) slightly
(3) ˆ ˆ
450(6 i − 8 j )
13. A point charge is kept at the centre of a
(4) ˆ ˆ
360(6 i − 8 j ) conducting shell. The surface charge density
is
7. An infinite number of charges each ‘q’ are
placed on the x-axis at distances of
1,2,4,8...meter from the origin. If the charges
are alternately positive and negative, the
intensity of electric field at origin is
(1) q
πε0

(2) q
(1) Maximum at point A
4πε0

(2) Maximum at point B

(3) q

5πε0 (3) Maximum at point C

(4) q
(4) Same at points A, B, C and D
2πε0

8. When a piece of polythene is rubbed with

wool, a charge of – 1.6 × 10–7 C is
developed on polythene. The amount of
mass, which is transferred to polythene is
(1) 9.1 x10-19 kg
(2) 9.1 x10-16 kg
(3) 9.1 x10-31 kg
(4) 9.1 x10-11 kg

2
Practice Test-01B_CF+OYM(P1)-2024

14. Electric field due to point charge depends on

distance r as
(1) r2
(2) r 
(3) 1

3
r

(4) 1

2
r

15. Consider the following statements

Statement I : Electric charge on any object
is always quantised.
Statement II : There is no analogous law on
quantization of mass.
Choose the correct statement(s).
(1) Statement I only
(2) Statement II only
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

3
Practice Test-01B_CF+OYM(P1)-2024

CHEMISTRY

16. In CCP lattice, the ratio of tetrahedral voids 23. Coordination number of atom present in an
to octahedral voids is octahedral void is
(1) 1 : 1 (1) 3
(2) 2 : 1 (2) 4
(3) 1 : 2 (3) 8
(4) 3 : 2 (4) 6

17. In which of the following crystal system all 24. A solid is made up of 2 elements A and B.
four variations are possible? Atoms B form CCP lattice and atoms A are
(1) Cubic present in the all tetrahedral sites. The
formula of the compound is
(2) Hexagonal
(1) AB2
(3) Orthorhombic
(2) AB
(4) Triclinic
(3) A2 B

18. In a cubic solid made by two elements P and (4) A2 B3

Q, atoms of Q are at the corners of cube and
atoms of P are present at body centre. The 25. Identify the crystal system having edge
formula of the compound is lengths a = b = c and inter-axial angles α = β
(1) P2 Q = γ ≠ 90°
(2) PQ2 (1) Rhombohedral
(3) P2 Q3 (2) Tetragonal
(4) PQ (3) Triclinic
(4) Monoclinic
19. The decreasing order of number of atoms
present per unit cell is 26. Which of the following is a covalent solid?
(1) FCC > BCC > SC (1) SO2
(2) BCC > SC > FCC (2) NaCl
(3) SC > BCC > FCC (3) Ag
(4) SC > FCC > BCC (4) SiO2­

20. A compound is formed by cation P and 27. Among the seven crystal systems, how many
anion Q. The anions form fcc lattice and the systems have body-centred unit cell as a
cations occupy all octahedral voids. The possible variation?
formula of the compound is
(1) 3
(1) PQ
(2) 4
(2) P2 Q
(3) 5
(3) PQ2
(4) 6
(4) P2 Q3
28. Number of tetrahedral voids present in a fcc
21. In face centred cubic unit cell, an atom at the unit cell is
face centres is shared by (1) 8
(1) 4 unit cells (2) 4
(2) 2 units cells (3) 2
(3) One unit cell (4) 6
(4) 6 unit cells

22. The Lattice having AAA… type pattern is

(1) Simple Cubic
(2) Face centred cubic
(3) Body centred cubic
(4) End centred cubic

4
Practice Test-01B_CF+OYM(P1)-2024

29. Contribution of an atom present at edge

centred in a unit cell is
(1) 1
3

(2) 1

(3) 1

(4) 1

30. Incorrect statement about crystalline solids

is 
(1) They have definite geometrical shape
(2) They melt at a sharp and characteristic
temperature
(3) They are isotropic in nature
(4) They are true solids

5
Practice Test-01B_CF+OYM(P1)-2024

BOTANY

31. Organisms exhibiting external fertilisation   38. Strobilanthus kunthiana (Neelakuranji)

(1) Are mostly seed plants flowers once in every
(2) Show synchrony in release of gametes (1) 10 years
(3) Produce small number of male (2) 12 years
gametes (3) 14 years
(4) Does not require water as medium for (4) 15 years
fertilisation
39. Which term is used to describe
32. In which of the given plants, male and morphologically and genetically similar
female sex organs are not found on same individuals?
plant body? (1) Clone
(1) Sweet potato (2) Hybrid 
(2) Most of the species of Chara (3) Offsprings
(3) Marchantia (4) Monoecious 
(4) Pea
40. Events in sexual reproduction are
33. All of the following are monoecious plants, A – Embryogenesis
except B – Syngamy
(1) Cucurbits C – Gametogenesis
The sequential order of their occurrence in
(2) Papaya
an organism is
(3) Coconut
(1) A →  B →  C
(4) Maize
(2) C → A → B
(3) C → B → A
34. Select the incorrect match. (4) B → C → A
(1) Yeast : Buds
(2) Penicillium : Conidia
41. Zygotes are always
(3) Paramecium : Binary fission (1) Diploid 
(4) Amoeba : Zoospores
(2) Motile
(3) Thick walled 
35. Select the odd one w.r.t internal fertilization (4) Naked
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Gymnosperms
42. Fruit wall that develops from ovary wall is
(3) Pteridophytes known as 
(4) Majority of Algae (1) Mesocarp
(2) Pericarp
36. Which of the given plant groups does not (3) Scutellum
use water as the medium of gamete (4) Aleurone layer
transfer?
(1) Algae
43. Fragmentation is a type of asexual
(2) Bryophytes
reproduction commonly observed in 
(3) Pteridophytes (1) Spirogyra
(4) Flowering plants (2) Planaria
(3) Chlamydomonas
37. No natural death is seen in all of the given (4) Paramoecium
organisms, except
(1) Amoeba
(2) Penicillium
(3) Paramoecium
(4) Euglena

6
Practice Test-01B_CF+OYM(P1)-2024

44. All of the following are polycarpic plants,

except
(1) Mango
(2) Marigold
(3) Apple
(4) Orange

45. The most vital event of sexual reproduction

is 
(1) Gamete formation
(2) Zygote differentiation
(3) Fusion of gametes
(4) Transfer of gametes

7
Practice Test-01B_CF+OYM(P1)-2024

ZOOLOGY

46. Complete the analogy w.r.t. chromosome 52. Among the following, the first and last step in
number in meiocytes human embryonic development,
Human : 46 : : House fly : _____ respectively are
(1) 23 (1) Syngamy, implantation
(2) 12 (2) Cell differentiation, cleavage
(3) 8 (3) Cleavage, organogenesis
(4) 380 (4) Gamete transfer, syngamy

47. Female gamete undergoes development to 53. The vital link that ensures continuity of
form new organisms without fertilization in species between organisms of one
a. Rotifers generation to the next generation is 
b. Honey bees (1) Sperm
c. Turkey
(2) Ova
Select the correct option.
(1) Only a (3) Zygote
(2) Only b (4) Embryo
(3) a and b only
(4) a, b and c 54. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. life span. 
(1) Crocodile - 180 years
(2) Crow - 15 years
48. Which of the following animal does
not show  menstrual cycle?  (3) Parrot - 140 years
(1) Monkey (4) Tortoise - 100  to 150 years
(2) Tiger
(3) Apes 55. Seminal plasma is a rich source of fructose
(4) Humans for the sperms. Fructose is released into
seminal plasma mainly by
(1) Seminal vesicles
49. As compared to asexual reproduction,
(2) Prostate gland
sexual reproduction is 
(1) Simple and fast process (3) Bulbourethral glands
(2) Complex and fast process (4) Prepucial glands
(3) Elaborate, complex and slow process
(4) Simple and leads to overcrowding 56. Opening of urethra through the human penis
to outside is called
(1) Glans penis
50. The organisms which are considered as
(2) Fore skin
immortal is/are
(3) Urethral meatus
(1) Amoeba only
(4) Ureter
(2) All unicellular organisms
(3) Aphis
(4) Periplaneta 57. In human males, the testes are situated in
scrotal sacs outside the body because it
(1) Provides a higher temperature to the
51. Animal which reproduces by gemmule developing sperms
formation is 
(2) Helps provide more space to visceral
(1) Hydra organs
(2) Obelia (3) Provides a lower temperature to the
(3) Spongilla developing sperms
(4) Paramoecium (4) Helps provide nourishment to sperms

58. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from

(1) Epididymis to urethra
(2) Testicular lobules to rete testis
(3) Rete testis to epididymis
(4) Vas deferens to epididymis

8
Practice Test-01B_CF+OYM(P1)-2024

59. The function of Leydig cells is to 

(1) Produce androgens
(2) Provide nutrition to developing sperms
(3) Lubricate penis
(4) Provide immunity to testes

60. Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal

vesicle and opens into urethra as 
(1) Epididymis 
(2) Ureter
(3) Ejaculatory duct 
(4) Urethral meatus