CAT – 2019 GEOLOGY

019
2
S T
E
N 19
1.
T
The fragmental volcanic products ejected through the vent are termed as
N
(A) Scoriae O
O 20
(B) Bomb SI
(C) Tephra IS
M
M
(D) Lapelli
D
A

M ST
N
2.
O
The deepest oceanic trench is
M Atacama trench
M
O
(A)

CO (C)
E
(B) Mariana trench

C T
Guatemala trench
AT (D) Aleutian trench
S
CU
3.
AT N 9
Flat-topped hills or small mountains formed by stream action are called
1
(A)
S IO
Plateau 2 0
U S T
(B) Stream terraces
(C) Mesas
S
C IS E
(D) Cuestas
T
N
O
M
4. The Pangea existed up to the
S I
IS
(A) Silurian period
(B)
(C)
D Late Permian period
M
End of Carboniferous period

5.
A
(D)

O
N
A
D
Devonian period

The plain formed due to coalescence of series of alluvial fans in the piedmont zone is
known as
M
M
(A)
(B)
Pediplain
Pediment
C O
(C)
(D)
Bajada
Hamada
AT
S
CU
 6. In the solar system which planet has the lowest density?

(A) Saturn
019
(B) Mars 2
(C)
(D)
Jupiter
Mercury S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
7.
I
The concept of sea-floor spreading was originally conceived by
S
(A) Carey IS
M
M
(B) Wegener
D
(C) Deitz
A

M ST
(D)
N
Hess
O
M
M
O
8. The most dominant factor causing plate motion is

SAT
CO (A)
C T
(B) Slab-pull E
Asthenospheric convection

T
(C) Underplating
CU
N
(D) Bridge-push

9. A
S IO 0
The mean density of earth’s mantle is
2
19

U S T
(A) 2.7 g/cm3
(B) 3.0 g/cm3
S
C IS E
(C) 4.5 g/cm3
(D) 5.4 g/cm3 T
N
O
10.
M S I
Conservative plate boundary is represented by

IS
(A)

D Transform fault
M
A
(B) Normal fault
(C) D
Reverse fault
(D) A
Growth fault
N
O
11.
M
Elements which readily form ions with an outermost 8-electron shell are mostly:
M
(A)
(B)
Chalcophile
Atmophile
C O
(C)
(D)
Siderophile
Lithophile
AT
S
CU
 12. The term “hurricane” is given to tropical cyclones in

(A) Australia
019
(B) The Bay of Bengal 2
(C)
(D)
The North Pacific Ocean
The North Atlantic Ocean S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
13.
I
The evidence of devitrification is
S
(A) Spherulitic IS
M
M
(B) Corona structure
D figure
(C)
A
Percussion

M ST
(D)
N
Orbicular structure
O
M
M
O
14. The pH of a solution is the

SAT
CO (A)
C T E
Negative Log of the H ions concentration
(B) Negative Log of the reciprocal of its H ions concentration

T
(C) Log of its H ions concentration
CU
N
(D) H ions concentration of the solution

15. A
S IO 0 19
Sulphurous hot springs (solfataras) are associated with
2
U S T
(A) Bijawer group
(B) Kolhan group
S
C IS E
(C) Gwalior group
(D) Kaladgi group T
N
O
16.
M S I
A region where evapotranspiration exceeds rainfall is probably

IS
(A)

D a desert
M
A
(B) a rain forest
(C) a swamp D
(D) A
heavily forested
N
O
17. The ‘hodograph’ of a reflected wave is
M
M
(A)
(B)
rectilinear
hyperbolic
C O
(C)
(D)
curvilinear
parabolic
AT
S
CU
 18. Shear fractures are developed under

(A) Compression
019
(B) Couples 2
(C)
(D)
Tension
All of the above S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
19.
I
A drainage pattern that develops upon a rock of uniform resistance and is not structurally
S
IS
controlled is called

M
M
(A) Dendritic pattern
D
(B) A
Trellis pattern

M ST
(C) N
Rectangular pattern
(D) O
Barbed drainage pattern
M

S
20.

AT
M
(A)
O
C T E
CO“Electrum” is a natural alloy of
Zinc and Silver

CU
T
(B) Zinc and Gold

N
(C) Gold and Silver

A 9
(D) Silver and Copper
1
21.
S IO 2 0
Very small ridges and depressions on the surface of joints are described as

(A)
(B)
(C)
U
C IS S
Feather joints
Plumose markings
Slickensides T E ST
(D) Striations N
O
M IS
S I
D
22. The structure consisting of a series of parallel columns in deformed rocks is called

M
A D
(A) Foliation
(B)
(C)
Lineation
Mullions A
(D) Boudins N
O
M
M
C O
AT
S
CU
 23. The fold which has two hinges is

(A) Chevron fold

019
(B) Box fold 2
(C)
(D)
Fan fold
Isoclinal fold S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
24.
I
The amount of dip is maximum in a direction at ____________ angles to the stike of the
S
IS
bedding planes

M
M
(A) 0
D
(B) 45 A

M ST
(C) N
90
(D) O
180
M

S
25.

AT
M
(A)
O
C T E
COThe Caledonian folds formed around
320 million years ago

CU
T
(B) 240 million years ago

N
(C) 130 million years ago

A 9
(D) 70 million years ago
1
26.
S IO 2 0
____________ is a narrow coastal sandy formation which connects main land and an

(A)
(B)
U S
offshore island.

C ISSpit
Hook T E ST
(C) Sand bar N
O
M I
(D) Tombolo
S
IS
27.
D M
Ophitic texture is commonly seen in

A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Trachyte

N
A
D
Lamprophyres

O
Andesite
Dolerite
M
M
28. O
Myrmekite structure is produced by
C
the intergrowth of

(A) Quartz and plagioclase

A
(B) Quartz and orthoclase
T
S
(C) Plagioclase and orthoclase

C U
(D) Orthoclase and albite
 29. A rock behaves as an elastic solid

(A) Below its ultimate strength

019
(B) Below its yield strength 2
(C)
(D)
Above its ultimate strength
Above its yield strength S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
30.
I
The line joining points of equal height in a map is known as
S
(A) Contour IS
M
M
(B) Isobar
D
(C)
A
Isotherm

M ST
(D)
N
Isochrones
O
M
M
O
31. The species Homo Sapiens appeared around

SAT
CO (A)
C T E
300 thousand years ago
(B) 500 thousand years ago

T
(C) 4 million years ago
CU
N
(D) 6 million years ago

32. A
S IO 0 19
When mouth and anus are centrally placed at the opposite poles of the test, the forms are
known as 2
(B)
(C)
U
C IS
(A)
S
Regular echinoids
Irregular echinoids
Crinoids T E ST
(D) Both (A) and (B) N
O
M IS
S I
D
33. _____________ is NOT a living fossil

M
A D
(A) Nucula
(B)
(C)
Nautilus
A
Nummulites
(D) LingulaN
O
M
M
C O
AT
S
CU
 34. The skeleton of an entire coral colony is described as

(A) Collumella
019
(B) Rhabdosome 2
(C)
(D)
Corallite
Corallum S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
35.
I
Ceratitic suture is prevalent in the forms found in
S
(A) S
Permian to ITriassic
M
M
(B) Cretaceous
D
(C)
A
Permian

M ST
(D)
N
Triassic
O
M
M
O
36. Which of these Trilobites was blind?

SAT
CO (A)
(B) Olenus
C T
Olenellus
E
T
(C) Agnostus
CU
N
(D) Asaphus

37. A
S IO 0 19
The successive whorls in the shell of gastropod lie on mutual contact along a line called
2
U S T
(A) Spire
(B) Suture
S
C IS E
(C) Umblicus
(D) Septa T
N
O
38.
M S I
The first flowering plant originated during

IS
(A)

D Cretaceous period
M
A
(B) Cambrian period
(C) D
Silurian period
(D) A
Devonian period
N
O
39.
M
Ordovician period is known for the origin of
M
(A)
(B)
first land plant fossil
first mammal
C O
(C)
(D)
first amphibian
first fish
AT
S
CU
 40. Stromatolites are due to

(A) Green bacteria

019
(B) Blue-green algae 2
(C)
(D)
Fungi
Blue-green ostracods S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
41.
I
Which was the warmest epoch of the Cenozoic?
S
(A) Eocene IS
M
M
(B) Miocene
D
(C)
A
Paleocene

M ST
(D)
N
Oligocene
O
M
M
O
42. The Lower and Upper Gondwana are characterized respectively by

SAT
CO (A)
C T E
Ptilophylluam and Nilgonia
(B) Ptilophylluam and Glossopteris

T
(C) Glossopteris and Ptilophyllum
CU
N
(D) Glossopteris and Gangamopteris

43. A
S IO
“Old red sandstone” facies is of
2 0 19

U S T
(A) Muddy deep water facies
(B) Shallow marine facies
S
C IS E
(C) Fluviatile and Lacustrine deposits
(D) None of the above T
N
O
44.
M S I
Daonella shale and Daonella limestone are included in ____________ stage.

IS
(A)

D Bunter
M
A
(B) Noric
(C) D
Muschelkalk
(D) Ladinic A
N
O
45.
M
The rock of Permian age in the Salt Range is represented by

Productus limestone series M

(A)
(B) Fenestella shale series
C O
None of the above T
(C) Zewan beds

SA
(D)

CU
 46. The famous Panna diamond field of India is associated with

(A) Rewa group

019
(B) Semri group 2
(C)
(D)
Bhander group
Kaimur group S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
47.
I
Which of the following coal field is responsible for about 40% of the total Indian
S
IS
production?

M
M
(A) Jharia coal field
D
(B) A
Ranigand coal field

M ST
(C) N
Singrauli coal field
(D) O
Mohpani coal field
M

S
48.

AT
M
(A)
O
C T
Estuarine E
COThe facies of the Triassic system of rocks in India is

CU
T
(B) Lacustrine

N
(C) Terrestrial

A 9
(D) Marine
1
49.
S IO
The Neogene period includes 2 0
(A)
(B)
(C)
U
C IS S ST
Paleocene, Eocene and Oligocene

T E
Oligocene, Miocene and Pliocene
Miocene and Pliocene
(D) N
Paleocene and Eocene
O
M IS
S I
D
50. The Cryptozoic Eon is designated as

M
A D
(A) The age of hidden life
(B)
(C) A
The age of no life
The age of modern life
(D) N
The age of well displayed life
O
M
51.
M
The upper limit of troposphere is called

(A) Mesopause
C O
(B)
(C)
Tropopause
Stratosphere AT
(D) Stratopause S
CU
 52. Thunderstorms originate from

(A) Cirro-cumulus clouds

019
(B) Cirro-stratus clouds 2
(C)
(D)
Cumulonimbus cloud
Alto-cumulus cloud S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
53.
I
Ocean currents are generated due to
S
(A) IS
Salinity difference
M difference
M
(B) Temperature
DensityDdifference
(C)
A

M ST
(D)
N
All of the above
O
M
M
O
54. Which of the following has the highest compressive strength?

SAT
CO (A)
C T
Granite
(B) Sandstone E
T
(C) Marble
CU
N
(D) Quartzite

55. A
S IO 0 19
“Hodographs” are ____________ in the seismic studies of the subsurface geology
2
U S T
(A) Velocity – density curves
(B) Time – density curves
S
C IS E
(C) Time – distance curves
(D) T
Velocity – distance curves
N
O
56.
M S I
Which of the following varieties of mica is lithium mica?

IS
(A)

D Lepidolite
M
A
(B) Biotite
(C) Muscovite D
(D) A
Phlogopite
N
O
57. Realgar has the composition of
M
M
(A)
(B)
CuS
NiS
C O
(C)
(D)
AsS
HgS
AT
S
CU
 58. In cyclosilicates, the ratio of Si:O is

(A) 1:3
019
(B) 2:5 2
(C)
(D)
1:2
2:3 S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
59.
I
Which of the following is a mineraloid?
S
(A) ChalcedonyIS
M
M
(B) Opal
Chert D
(C)
A

M ST
(D)
N
Quartz
O
M
M
O
60. Which of the following mineral has the highest Refractive Index?

SAT
CO (A) Rutile

C T
(B) Hematite E
T
(C) Zircon
CU
N
(D) Cassiterite

61. A
S IO 0 19
The reflective index (RI) of Canada balsam is
2
U S T
(A) 1.45
(B) 1.65
S
C IS E
(C) 1.54
(D) 1.50 T
N
O
62.
M S I
Loess is an eolian deposit of

IS
(A)

D Silt and clay

M
A
(B) Sand and gravel
(C) D
Gravel and silt
(D) A
Sand and clay
N
O
63.
M
The primary gold lodes are reported from ____________ region.
M
(A)
(B)
Wayanad
Pathanamthitta
C O
(C)
(D)
Idukki
AT
Thiruvananthapuram
S
CU
 64. Hardness in water is typically caused by the presence of

(A) Suspended matter

019
(B) Total dissolved solids 2
(C)
(D)
Carbonate and bicarbonate
Calcium and magnesium ions S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
65.
I
The glacier will retreat when
S
(A) AccumulationIS is greater than ablation
AblationM

M
(B) is greater than accumulation
D is equal to ablation
(C)
A
Accumulation

M ST
(D)
N
None of the above
O
M
M
O
66. The rocks of Wayanad schist belt are equivalent to __________ group of Karnataka

SAT
CO (A) Sargur

C T
(B) Chitradurga E
T
(C) Bababudan
CU
N
(D) Kolar

67. A
S IO 0 19
The general strike of Bavali lineament is
2
U S T
(A) WNW-ESE
(B) ENE-WSW
S
C IS E
(C) NE-SW
(D) NW-SE T
N
O
68.
M
Carbonatite is

IS
S I
(A)

D Sedimentary rock
M
A
(B) Metamorphic rock
(C) D
Extrusive igneous rock
(D) A
Intrusive igneous rock
N
O
69.
M
The sedimentary layer having thickness < 1 cm is called
M
(A)
(B)
Lamina
Stratum
C O
(C)
(D)
Bed
Both (A) and (C)
AT
S
CU
 70. A paleosol is

(A) A red tropical soil

019
(B) A black nutrient rich soil 2
(C)
(D) A transported soil S T
An ancient soil which is now buried
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
71. Clay minerals are
SI
(A) IS
Phyllosilicates
M
M
(B) Tectosilicates
D
(C)
A
Cyclosilicates

M ST
(D)
N
Neosilicates
O
M
M
O
72. Sediments having the size range of 64-256 mm are called

SAT
CO (A)
C T
Cobbles
(B) Pebbles E
T
(C) Boulders
CU
N
(D) Granules

73. A
S IO 0 19
The granulite facies is characterized by
2
U S T
(A) Low pressure-high temperature
(B)
S
High pressure-low temperature

C IS E
(C) Low pressure-low temperature
(D) T
High pressure-high temperature
N
O
74.
M S I
Which is the most dominant metamorphic rock found at mid-oceanic ridges?

IS
(A)

D Greenstone
M
A
(B) Hornfels
(C) Eclogite D
(D) A
Blueschist
N
O
75. Water gives almost nil reflectance in
M
M
(A)
(B)
Visible regions
Ultra violet regions
C O
(C)
(D)
Infrared regions
Both (A) and (B)
AT
S
CU
 76. Geostationary satellites are located at an altitude of about

(A) 36,000 km
019
(B) 10,000 km 2
(C)
(D)
20,000 km
45,000 km S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
77.
I
A carbonate reservoir rock having 10-15% porosity, is said to have
S
(A) IS
Very good porosity
M
M
(B) Poor porosity
D
(C)
A
Good porosity

M ST
(D)
N
Fair porosity
O
M
M
O
78. The “anticlinal” traps are classified as _____________ type of petroleum reservoir.

SAT
CO (A)
C T
Concave traps
(B) Convex traps E
T
(C) Non-concave traps
CU
N
(D) Non-convex traps

79. A
S IO 0 19
A crystal form consisting of only one face is
2
U S T
(A) Pedion
(B) Sphenoid
S
C IS E
(C) Dome
(D) Basal pinacoid T
N
O
80.
M S I
Variation in the habit of a mineral refers to changes in the

IS
(A)

D Symmetry elements
M
A
(B) Crystal class
(C) D
Crystal form
(D) A
Crystal system
N
O
81.
M
Which of the following combinations is incorrect?
M
(A)
O
Optical twins ---------- Quartz

---------- CCalcite
(B) Cyclic twins ---------- Aragonite
(C)
(D)
Glide twins
A T Pyrite
Tartan twins ----------
S
C U
 82. Digboi oil field is associated with

(A) Surma series

019
(B) Tipam series 2
(C)
(D)
Barail series
Jainta series S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
83. Leucite shows
SI
(A) IS
Star-like inclusions
M
M
(B) Curved inclusions
RadialD
(C)
A inclusions

M ST
(D)
N
Straight inclusions
O
M
M
O
84. The magnifying power of a microscope

SAT
CO (A)
C T E
Increases with the tube length
(B) Decreases with the tube length

T
(C) Increases with the focal length
CU
N
(D) None of the above

85. A
S IO 0 19
Lines joining points of equal limb dip in successive layers through the fold profile are
known as 2
(B)
(C)
U
C IS
(A)
S
Agonic lines
Isohyetes
Dip isogons T E ST
(D) Contour lines N
O
M IS
S I
D
86. Which of the following can be classified as an ‘alkaline rock’?

M
A D
(A) Hornblende-granite
(B)
(C) A
Riebeckite-granite
Hornblende-syenite
(D) N
Biotite-granite
O
M
87.
M
Which of the following minerals does NOT exhibit needle-like crystals?

(A) Wavellite
C O
(B)
(C)
Sillimanite
Tourmaline AT
(D) Rutile S
CU
 88. The plagioclase feldspar that is commonly seen in Archean anorthosites is

(A) Albite
019
(B) Bytownite 2
(C)
(D)
Oligoclase
Labradorite S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
89.
I
Graywackes typically exhibit
S
(A) IS
Graded bedding
TorrentialMbedding

M
(B)
Flaser D
(C)
A bedding

M ST
(D)
N
Herringbone cross-bedding
O
M
M
O
90. Arkose is derived from the disintegration of

SAT
CO (A) Gabbro
(B) Granite
C T E
T
(C) Ultrabasic rocks
CU
N
(D) Marble

91. A
S IO
Bog iron ore is of
2 0 19

U S T
(A) Organic origin
(B) Biochemical origin
S
C IS E
(C) Chemical origin
(D) Biological origin T
N
O
92.
M S I
Which of the following rocks are complete unfoliated?

IS
(A)

D Hornfelses
M
A
(B) Slates
(C) Phyllites D
(D) Schists A
N
O
93.
M
When the strike of the fault is parallel to the strike of the rock beds, the fault is called
M
(A)
(B)
Strike fault
Strike slip fault
C O
(C)
(D)
Dip slip fault
Diagonal fault
AT
S
CU
 94. Tourmalinization is the combined effect of

(A) Water and flourine

019
(B) Water, carbondioxide and chlorine 2
(C)
(D)
Water, boron and fluorine
S T
Water. carbondioxide and hydrogen
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
95.
I
The Karewa Formation in the Kashmir valley is renowned for its ___________ deposits.
S
(A) Gypsum IS
M
M
(B) Barytes
D
(C) Ochre
A

M ST
(D)
N
Lignite
O
M
M
O
96. The disseminated or “porphyry” copper deposits are of

SAT
CO (A)
C T E
Epithermal origin
(B) Mesothermal origin

T
(C) Hypothermal origin
CU
N
(D) Telethermal origin

97. A
S IO 0 19
The giant oil field of ‘Ankaleshwar’ was discovered in the year
2
U S T
(A) 1960
(B) 1956
S
C IS E
(C) 1958
(D) 1963 T
N
O
98.
M S I
An influent stream is one which

IS
(A)

D flows into a parent stream

M
A
(B) receives discharges from the groundwater
(C) D
recharges the groundwater
(D) A
flows parallel to consequent stream
N
O
99. The symbol of Macro dome is
M
M
(A)
(B)
0kl
h0l
C O
(C)
(D)
hkl
hk0
AT
S
CU
 100. ____________ is the mineral that is NOT crystallized in the Orthorhombic system

(A) Sulphur
019
(B) Staurolite 2
(C)
(D)
Augite
Andalusite S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
101.
I
The cleavages in twinned crystals are
S
(A) IS
In same directions
M directions
M
(B) In different
D direction of the twin plane
(C)
A
In oblique

M ST
(D)
N
Parallel to the twin plane
O
M
M
O
102. Transparent and red colour gem variety of zircon is known as

SAT
CO (A)
C T
Hyacinth
(B) Monazite E
T
(C) Jargoon
CU
N
(D) Zirconite

103. A
S IO 0
The cleavage angles in amphiboles are
2
19

U S T
(A) 70 and 110
(B) 54 and 126
S
C IS E
(C) 67 and 113
(D) 56 and 124 T
N
O
104.
M S I
Rutile is specifically characterized by

IS
(A)

D its genticulate twinning

M
A
(B) its brown-red colour
(C) D
its hardness
(D) A
its acicular form
N
O
105.
M
_____________ systems are optically uniaxial

Hexagonal and Monoclinic M

Monoclinic and TetragonalO
(A)
(B)
C
(C)
(D)
A T
Hexagonal and Tetragonal
Cubic and Orthorhombic
S
C U
 106. The Bertrand lens is used to

(A) determine the interference colour

019
(B) determine the optic sign 2
(C)
(D) S
magnify the interference figures
T
analyse the plane of vibration of light
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
107.
I
Nepheline is distinguished from quartz by its
S
(A) ISonly
Positive sign
NegativeM

M
(B) sign and lower birefringence
D sign and higher birefringence
(C)
A
Negative

M ST
(D)
N
Higher birefringence only
O
M
M
O
108. In a binary eutectic system, the solubility line shows

SAT
CO (A)
C T E
the concentration of components in the liquid
(B) the temperature in the liquid

T
(C) the pressure in the liquid
CU
N
(D) Both (A) and (B)

109. A
S IO 0 19
Which of the following volcanic rocks contains the lowest percentage of silica?
2
U S T
(A) Basalt
(B) Andesite
S
C IS E
(C) Trachyte
(D) Rhyolite T
N
O
110.
M S I
The formation of pillow lava indicates a

IS
(A)

D continental eruption
M
A
(B) free eruption
(C) D
sub-marine eruption
(D) A
None of the above
N
O
111. Radiolarian and Diatomaceous oozes are
M
M
(A)
(B)
Phosphatic deposits
Siliceous deposits
C O
(C)
(D)
AT
Calcareous deposits
Carbonaceous deposits
S
CU
 112. Guano deposits are formed by accumulation of the

(A) excreta of birds

019
(B) aragonite shells 2
(C)
(D)
calcareous shells
bones of sea – birds S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
113.
I
Retrograde metamorphism is also known as
S
(A) DiapthoresisIS
AdditiveM

M
(B) metamorphism
D metamorphism
(C)
A
Injective

M ST
(D)
N
None of the above
O
M
M
O
114. The Chitradurga schist belt is an example of the

SAT
CO (A)
C T E
Epidote amphibolites facies
(B) Green schist facies

T
(C) Amphibolite schist
CU
N
(D) Granulite facies

115. A
S IO 0 19
An assemblage of high temperature ore and gangue minerals in contact metasomatism is
called as 2
(B)
(C)
U
C IS
(A)
S
Gondite
Bar deposits
Skarn T E ST
(D) Gossan N
O
M IS
S I
D
116. Most of the bauxite deposits of central and western India have been formed from

M
A D
(A) Granite
(B)
(C)
Syenite
A
Nepheline syenite
(D) Basalt N
O
M
117.
M
Placer deposits at the foot of a slope are known as

(A) Alluvial placers

C O
(B)
(C) Eluvial placersAT
Colluvial placers

(D) S
Eolian placers

CU
 118. Exploration of chromite is generally done by

(A) Seismic method

019
(B) Resistivity method 2
(C)
(D)
Gravity method
Magnetic method S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
S I
119. Which type of clayISis used as a drilling mud?
M
(A) China D clay
A earth
M
M ST
(B) Fuller’s
(C) O N
Bentonite clay
M Fire clay
(D)

SA
O
M
O E
120.C Wolframite is an ore of
T
C T
T
(A) Vanadium
CU
N
(B) Cobalt

A
(C) Antimony

19
S IO
(D) Tungsten

2 0
U S T
121. Which type of unconformity is more effective as stratigraphic oil-traps?
S
C IS E
(A) Non-conformity
(B) Disconformity T
(C)
N
Angular unconformity
O
M I
(D) None of the above
S
IS
122.

D
The position of Graphite in India is
M
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A Essential
Critical
N
Strategic
O
A
D
None of the above
M
MBode’s law?
123.
O
Which planet is an exceptional case of
C
(A) Neptune
(B) Mars
A T
(C) Uranus S
(D) Saturn
C U
 124. 19
The upper mantle is ___________ in composition
0
2
(A)
(B)
Felsic
Ultramafic S T
E
N 19
(C) Granitic T
(D) Basic N
O
O 20
SI
IS are called as
125. The water loving colloids
M
D
(A) Hydrophobic
A
M
M ST
(B) Hydrophilic
(C) O N
Dispersion
M Emulsions
(D)

SA
O
M
O E
126.C Which method is used for dating relatively recent geological event?
T
C T
T
(A) K-Ar method
CU
N
(B) U-Pb method

A
(C) Carbon-14 method

19
S IO
(D) Rb-Sr method

2 0
U S T
127. Humidity is usually measured by
S
C IS E
(A) Psychrometer
(B) Rain gauge T
(C) Radiometer
N
O
M I
(D) Pyranometer
S
IS
128.

D
Clay is an example of
M
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A Aquifer
Aquitard
N
Aquiclude
O
Aquifuse
A
D

M
Groundwater flow map is also knownM
129.
C O as

(A) Isopatch map

(B) Isocontour map
A T
S
(C) Potentiometric map
(D) Hydraulic mapU
C
 130. The building stones can be dressed very easily

(A) just after quarrying

019
(B) after seasoning 2
(C)
(D)
after some months of quarrying
any time S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
131.
I
Slicken sides are a type of
S
(A) Foliation IS
M
M
(B) Bedding
D
(C)
A
Lineation

M ST
(D)
N
Fault plane
O
M
M
O
132. The famous sun temple at Konark is made of

SAT
CO (A)
C T
Granites
(B) Gneisses E
T
(C) Sandstones
CU
N
(D) Khondalites

133. A
S IO 0
Generally aerial photographs are taken
2
19

U S T
(A) horizontally
(B) vertically
S
C IS E
(C) at an angle of 45
(D) at an angle of 60 T
N
O
134.
M S I
Which one has the shortest wavelength?

IS
(A)

D X-rays
M
A
(B) Ultraviolet rays
(C) D
Visible radiations
(D) A
Gamma rays
N
O
135. Drift mining is generally employed
M
for the underground mining M
(A)
(B) for coal mining
C O
in the exploitation of T
(C) in the exploitation of placers
(D)
S A copper ore

C U
 136. Water trapped in the sediments at the time of their deposition is known as

(A) Connate water

019
(B) Juvenile water 2
(C)
(D)
Mine water
Meteoric water S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
137.
I
The prolongation of the posterior marginal area of the Pygidium in Trilobites is called
S
(A) Glabella IS
M
M
(B) Facial suture
D
(C)
A
Caudal spine

M ST
(D)
N
Doublure
O
M
M
O
138. Which of the following has richest fossils among the Siwaliks?

SAT
CO (A) Nagri

C T
(B) Dhokpathan E
T
(C) Kamlial
CU
N
(D) Chinji

139. A
S IO 0 19
____________ rocks are most suitable for the formation of replacement deposits
2
U S T
(A) Limestones
(B) Sandstones
S
C IS E
(C) Quartzites
(D) Granites T
N
O
140.
M S I
The valves of the inarticulates are __________ in shape

IS
(A)

D Biconvex
M
A
(B) Biconcave
(C) Conical D
(D) Circular A
N
O
141.
M
In the Gondwanaland, India was NOT adjacent to
M
(A)
(B)
Africa
Australia
C O
(C)
(D)
Antarctica
South America
AT
S
CU
 142. The space between the dunes is known as

(A) Oasis
019
(B) Gassis 2
(C)
(D)
Col
Wadies S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
143.
I
The organ by which most Brachiopods attach themselves to the substratum is known as
S
(A) Pedicle IS
M
M
(B) Brachidia
D
(C)
A
Lopophore

M ST
(D)
N
Pallium
O
M
M
O
144. Sandstones consisting of 60% quartz and 30-34% feldspar are called

SAT
CO (A) Arkose

C T
(B) Graywacke E
T
(C) Grit
CU
N
(D) Free stone

145. A
S IO
Young’s modulus is obtained by
2 0 19

U S T
(A) Stress
(B)
S
Ratio of stress to strain

C IS E
(C) Strain
(D) T
Ratio of transverse strain to longitudinal strain
N
O
146.
M S I
Daonella limestones and Daonella shales belong to

IS
(A)

D Lower Triassic
M
A
(B) Middle Triassic
(C) D
Upper Triassic
(D) A
None of the above
N
O
147. Eohippus is also known as
M
M
(A)
(B)
Pliocene horse
Cretaceous horse
C O
(C)
(D)
Eocene horse
Miocene horse
AT
S
CU
 148. Trace fossils are known as

(A) Organic fossils

019
(B) Ichnofossils 2
(C)
(D)
Ripple fossils
None of the above S T
E
N 19
T
N
O
O 20
149.
I
The path finder element of gold is
S
(A) As IS
M
M
(B) Se
D
(C) Mo
A

M ST
(D)
N
SO4
O
M
M
O
150. How many faces does the Ditetragonal pyramidal form have?

SAT
CO (A) 8
(B) 16
C T E
T
(C) 24
CU
N
(D) 32

A
S IO 2 0 19

U
C IS S T E ST
N
O
M IS
S I
D M
A O
N
A
D

M
M
C O
AT
S
CU
 FOOD SCIENCE 9 - ANSWER KEY
1
20 CODE: 618
TEST
QN. NO. KEY QN. NO. KEY QN. NO. T KEY QN. NO. KEY QN. NO. KEY
E S

N 19
1 B 26 D 51 T C 76 A 101 C
2 A 27 B N
O52 C 77 B 102 A

O 20
3 C 28 C I
S 53 B 78 A 103 A
4 A 29 A IS 54 D 79 D 104 A
M
5 C 30 A AD 55
M C 80 A 105 B

M ST
6 C 31 DN 56 C 81 C 106 A
O
7 A 32 MC 57 B 82 C 107 A
8
9
10
B
B
C
33
34 T
S
35A
CO
M B
D
D
O
C TE
58
59
60
B
B
A
83
84
85
A
D
C
108
109
110
C
C
D
11
12
A
A
U
C 36
37
C
D
AT N
61
62
A
B
86
87
19
D
A
111
112
C
B
13 B 38 A
S I O 63 B 88
2 0 B 113 C

U S
14 B 39 B 64 C 89 B 114 D
15 D 40 B 65 C ST90 C 115 A
16
17
A
D
41
42 C IS
A
D
66
67
D
D
O
N
T E 91
92
B
D
116
117
B
D
18 A 43
M
A 68
IS
S IA 93 A 118 A

D
19 A 44 A 69 C 94 A 119 B
20 B 45 D 70 M C 95 C 120 D
21
22
23
A
A
B
46
47
48
A C
B
D O
N
A
71
72
73
D D
B
B
96
97
98
A
C
D
121
122
123
B
A
A
M
24 B 49 D 74
M D 99 C 124 D

CO
25 D 50 B 75 D 100 C 125 B

AT
S
CU
 019
2
QN. NO. KEY
S T
TE
N 19
126 C
127 A N
O
O 20
128 A SI
129 D IS
M
130 B A
D
M
M ST
131 C N
O
132 B M
133
134
135
A
A
C SA
T
CO
M
O
C TE
136
137
A
C
CU
AT N 19
138 A
S I O 2 0
U S
139 B
140 C ST
141
142
C
A C IS O
N
T E
143 B
M IS
S I
D
144 A
145 C M
146
147
148
A
A
A
A O
N
A
D

M
149 B
M
CO
150 D

AT
S
CU