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Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2023 – Abhyaas Test – 4039

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
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2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE
IN THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rd of the allotted marks will
be deducted.

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to fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. Consider the following differences between 3. Under ‘local content requirement’, certain
payment aggregator and payment gateway: components should be domestically
manufactured. It falls under which of the
1. Payment aggregator allows merchants to
following agreements of the World Trade
offer various payment options to their Organisation?
customers whereas a payment gateway (a) Agreement on Trade-Related Investment
Measures (TRIMS)
provides the underlying technology for
(b) General Agreement on Trade-In Services
fund transfer. (GATS)
2. While a payment aggregator is an (c) Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of
Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
intermediary, the payment gateway is the
(d) Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade
interface where the payment aggregator (TBT)
processes the transactions.
3. Unlike payment gateways, payment 4. With reference to the recent RBI guidelines on
locker management, consider the following
aggregators deal with both online and
statements:
offline transactions. 1. Banks are allowed to obtain a term deposit
Which of the statements given above is/are at the time of allotment of locker to a
consumer.
correct?
2. In case of theft/fraud, banks are liable to
(a) 1 and 2 only pay ten times the prevailing annual rent of
(b) 2 only the safe deposit locker.
3. Banks cannot offer insurance products to
(c) 1 and 3 only
customers for insuring locker contents.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
2. Consider the following developments/events:
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Fall in international commodity prices (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Unseasonal rains and excessive heat (d) 1 and 2 only
3. Reduction in excise and customs duties
5. Which of the following are characteristics of a
4. Tight monetary policy by the Reserve
liquidity trap?
Bank of India 1. High interest rates
How many of the developments/events given 2. Low inflation
3. Low investment and consumption
above are unlikely to increase retail inflation
4. High propensity to hold money in cash
in India? Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) Only one development/event below.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) Only two developments/events
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Only three developments/events (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All four developments/events (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
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6. India’s agricultural exports are poised to scale 9. Goods Trade Barometer, recently seen in the
a new peak in the financial year 2022-23. In news has been developed by:
this context, which of the following (a) World Trade Organization
commodities were the major contributors to (b) World Economic Forum
growth in India's agri-exports during April- (c) World Bank
December 2022? (d) United Nations Conference on Trade and
1. Rice Development
2. Sugar
3. Cotton
10. If a person converts ₹ 50,000 from his savings
4. Vegetable oils
account into fixed deposit for one year in a
Select the correct answer using the code given
commercial bank, then
below.
(a) there will be an increase in M4 and
(a) 1 and 2 only
decrease in M2.
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) there will be an increase in M2 but no
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only effect on M4.
(c) there will be a decrease in M1 but no
7. International Monetary Fund (IMF) lends to effect on M3.
member countries under which of the (d) there will be a decrease in M4 and
following circumstances? increase in M1.
1. Nations facing balance of payment
problems 11. With reference to the Indian Constitution,
2. Member countries requesting funding for which of the following provisions were a part
specific projects of the preamble at the time of the
3. Countries facing financial crises due to commencement of the constitution?
insolvent financial institutions 1. Resolution by the people of India to make
Select the correct answer using the code given India into a 'Sovereign Secular Democratic
below.
Republic'
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. Provision to secure the liberty of worship
(b) 2 only
to all its citizens
(c) 1 and 3 only
3. Assurance of the unity and integrity of the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
nation
4. Provision to secure social, economic and
8. Which one of the following is mandated to
check Goods and Services Tax (GST) related political justice
profiteering by businesses in India? Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) National Anti-profiteering Authority below.
(NAA) (a) 2 and 4 only
(b) Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Competition Commission of India (CCI) (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Quality Council of India (QCI) (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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12. Which of the following are the methods of
voting in the Lok Sabha?
1. Voice Vote
2. Secret Ballot
3. Recording of votes by the distribution of
slips
4. Physical count of members in their places
instead of a formal division
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. In the context of women in Indian Polity,
consider the following statements:
1. The seventeenth (current) Lok Sabha
attained the feat of having more than 100
female members for the first time.
2. So far, there have been fewer than 15
female judges in the Supreme Court.
3. No woman has ever served as the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) None
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14.
In the context of Indian states, what is
common to the four states marked in the map
given above?
(a) These are the only four states that come
under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian
Constitution.
(b) These are the only four states with Inner
Line Permit in place.
(c) These are the only four northeastern states
where AFSPA is in place.
(d) These are the only four northeastern states
which were union territories before
attaining statehood.
15. Which of the following statements best
describes the doctrine of sovereign immunity?
(a) It refers to the right of a state to be not
bound by international laws.
(b) It refers to the philosophy that a state or
the sovereign cannot commit any legal
wrong and thus cannot be sued.
(c) It refers to the legal commitment that a
state would neither invade another state
nor allow any state to invade it.
(d) It refers to the practice that the sovereign
head of a state cannot be removed from
office before the completion of his/her
tenure.
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16. The Parliament came up with the 24th 19. With reference to the provisions of the
Amendment (1971) that explicitly stated that
Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006,
Article 368 could be used to curtail even
fundamental rights. In this context, which of consider the following statements:
the following Supreme Court cases led to the 1. As per the Act, all child marriages
enactment of the 24th Constitutional
solemnized between two minor children
Amendment Act?
(a) Golaknath case are considered null and void.
(b) Kesavananda Bharati case 2. As per the Act, any male person below the
(c) Shankari Prasad case
age of 21 years is a child.
(d) Minerva Mills case
3. The custody of any child born of a
17. Recently, the Rajya Sabha passed a bill to
marriage invalidated by the Act would by
extend ST (Scheduled Tribe) status to the
Gonds. In this context, arrange the following default go to the mother of the child.
steps for the inclusion of any community in Which of the statements given above is/are
the Scheduled Tribe category in the correct
correct?
sequence.
1. Approval of Registrar General of India (a) 2 only
2. Recommendations coming from the (b) 1, 2 and 3
respective states
3. Approval of the National Commission for (c) 1 and 3 only
Scheduled Tribes (d) 2 and 3 only
4. Approval of the Cabinet
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. 20. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 3-4-1-2 the powers and functions of Rajya Sabha:
(b) 2-1-3-4
1. It can authorize the Parliament to make a
(c) 2-1-4-3
(d) 4-3-2-1 law on a subject enumerated in the State
List.
18. Consider the following statements regarding
the review petition in Supreme Court: 2. Only the Rajya Sabha has the power to
1. Only parties to a case can seek a review of initiate a resolution for the removal of the
the judgment.
Vice-President.
2. A petitioner can seek review on grounds
of discovery of new and important matter Which of the statements given above is/are
or evidence not produced earlier. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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21. Consider the following pairs: 23. Which of the following international principles

Places/Regions in Related to are associated with water sharing?

the news 1. Harmon doctrine
1. Batken : Kyrgyzstan-Tajikistan 2. Campione rules
conflict
3. Helsinki rules
2. Odesa : World Heritage Site in
4. Berlin rules
Russia
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Kamchatka : Active volcano in
below.
Peninsula Southeast Asia
(a) 1 and 3 only
How many pairs given above are correctly
(b) 2 and 4 only
matched?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) Only three pairs

(d) None of the pairs 24. The geomagnetic field of the earth interacts

with the solar wind, which shapes the earth’s

22. Consider the following statements:
1. The UAE consists of seven emirates.
2. The Federal Supreme Council is the
UAE’s highest authority,
legislative and executive powers.
3. UAE was the third largest producer of
crude oil in the world in the year 2021.
4. The Indian expatriate community in UAE
magnetosphere. In this context, which of the
following statements is not correct?
(a) Magnetopause is the area where the
holding
pressure exerted by the solar wind is
balanced by the earth’s magnetic field.
(b) Van allen belts, part of the earth's
magnetosphere, are denser and stronger

constitutes less than 20% of the country’s near the equator in comparison to the

population. poles.
Which of the statements given above are (c) Geomagnetic storms occur when a coronal
correct? mass ejection erupts from the sun.
(a) 3 and 4 only
(d) The size of the magnetosphere on the sun-
(b) 2 and 3 only
facing side of the earth is larger than the
(c) 1 and 2 only
other side (facing away from the sun).
(d) 1 and 4 only
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25. Consider the following statements regarding 27. Arrange the following nuclear power plants in

the International Date Line (IDL): India from north to south.

1. Kakrapar
1. It passes through the mid-Atlantic ocean.
2. Kudankulam
2. It has no legal international status and 3. Kalpakkam
countries can choose the dates they 4. Kaiga
5. Tarapur
observe.
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. A person crossing IDL from east to west
below.
gains a day. (a) 1-4-5-3-2
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 1-5-4-2-3
(c) 1-4-5-2-3
correct?
(d) 1-5-4-3-2
(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 only 28. A plane flying over Eastern India at the

(c) 1 and 2 only beginning of May faces heavy turbulence and

uneven landing. Which of the following best
(d) 2 only
explains the cause of this incident?
(a) Easterly jet streams flowing over the
26. Consider the following statements with Indian subcontinent
(b) Westerly jet streams flowing over the
reference to mango production in India:
Indian subcontinent
1. The Northern Indian varieties are usually
(c) Effect of the local norwesters flowing in
late bearing compared to Southern Indian the region
varieties. (d) Retreating of monsoon over the Bay of
Bengal
2. Uttar Pradesh ranked first in mango

production in India in the financial year 29. Consider the following pairs:
2021-22. Rivers Flows into
3. Suvarnarekha is a commercial variety of 1. Nile : Red Sea

mango from Maharashtra. 2. Amazon : Atlantic Ocean

3. Yangtze : South China Sea
Which of the statements given above are
4. Danube : Black Sea
correct?
How many pairs given above are correctly
(a) 1 and 2 only matched?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Only three pairs
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All the four pairs
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30. Consider the following statements about 33. The East India Company used various tactics
tropical cyclones: in the early 18th century to gain access to
1. Their energy depends on the temperature,
various trade privileges in India. In this
humidity and density differences of the air
masses. context, consider the following statements
2. During strong El Niño years, strong regarding Farrukh Siyar’s Farman of 1717:
cyclones occur in the eastern Pacific ocean 1. It allowed East India Company tax-free
regions.
monopoly trade in Bengal, Bihar, and
3. Low vertical wind shear inhibits the
development of towering cumulonimbus Orissa.
clouds and the cyclonic vortex. 2. It allowed the company to buy villages in
Which of the statements given above is/are Bengal.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 2 only
correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
31. With reference to administrative changes
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
introduced by the Government of India Act of
1858, consider the following statements:
1. It replaced the Board of Control with the 34. National institutions such as the Kashi
office of the British High Commissioner Vidyapeeth, the Bihar Vidyapeeth, and the
for India.
Jamia Millia Islamia were set up during the
2. As per the provisions of the act, the
Viceroy of India was made answerable course of
only to the Secretary of State. (a) Swadeshi Movement
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Non-Cooperation Movement
correct?
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(a) 1 only
(d) Home Rule Movement
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 35. Shyamji Krishna Varma established India
House in London to
32. The ‘Case of Nand Kumar’ during the reign of
(a) protest against the Komagata Maru
Warren Hastings raised concerns regarding
which of the following issues? incident.
1. Practice of Sati (b) highlight emigration of Indians to western
2. Religious conversion countries due to British exploitative
3. English rule of law
policies.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. (c) promote nationalist views among the
(a) 1 only Indian students in Britain.
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) protest against the discrimination done by
(c) 3 only
Britishers in the Indian army.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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36. Gautama Buddha was the noble prince of a 37. With reference to Indian history, consider the
Sakya clan. After attaining enlightenment, for following bhakti saints/philosophers:
the next 45 years, Buddha traveled endlessly 1. Tulsidas
around the country, preaching his Dharma, and 2. Kabir Das
3. Vallabhacharya
spreading his Sangha. In this context, identify
Which of the above bhakti saints/philosophers
the following sites of Buddha's visit in the
was/were contemporaries of the Mughal
sequential order given below.
emperor Akbar?
1. He came to the village of Uruvela on the
(a) 1 only
banks of the river Nairanjana (now, the (b) 2 and 3 only
Phalgu river). Here, he devoted himself to (c) 3 only
severe penance and meditation, and (d) 1, 2 and 3
withstood many trials and tribulations.
2. He propagated here, the important tenets 38. With reference to Kautilya's Arthashastra,
of his Dharma - the Four Noble Truths, the consider the following statements:
Eight-Fold path, and the Middle Way. The 1. It advocated strict control of gambling.
Triple Gem concept of Buddhism 2. It advocated state production of alcohol.
3. It prohibited prostitution.
originated here (Buddha, Dharma, Sangha)
Which of the statements given above is/are
as well as the celebrated mantra ‘Buddham
correct?
Sharanam, Gachami.’
(a) 1 only
3. From this site, Buddha preached his
(b) 1 and 2 only
sermons from the striking-looking (c) 2 and 3 only
Gridhakuta Hill or Vulture Peak, which (d) 1, 2 and 3
had a unique rock formation, like a
vulture’s beak. It was also the first capital 39. Consider the following statements regarding
of Magadha. the Mauryan Empire:
4. At this site, there is Angulimala Stupa, 1. The use of iron tools during the Mauryan
built in memory of the killer- dacoit period was restricted to the upper classes
Angulimala, notorious for wearing a only.
2. Burnt bricks were used during the
necklace of human fingers around his
Mauryan Period.
neck. When he met the Buddha, the
3. There were a few villages in the empire
latter’s serene words changed him, and he
which were exempted from taxation and
became an ardent disciple.
were called Ayudhiya.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
below. correct?
(a) Sarnath-Bodhgaya-Sravasti-Rajgir (a) 1 only
(b) Sravasti-Rajgir-Bodhgaya-Sarnath (b) 2 only
(c) Bodhgaya-Rajgir-Sravasti-Sarnath (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Bodhgaya-Sarnath-Rajgir-Sravasti (d) None

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40. Who among the following patronized Jainism? 43. The fleshy part of onion and garlic, used as
1. Pradyota food, is a modification of which of the
2. Udayin following parts of the plant?
3. Kharavela (a) Leaf
4. Amoghavarsha (b) Stem
5. Ajatashatru
(c) Root
Select the correct answer using the code given
(d) Flower
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
44. Recently in COP 19 CITES "Jeypore Hill
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
Gecko" is included in Appendix II of CITES.
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 In this context, consider the following
statements regarding "Jeypore Hill Gecko":
41. Which of the following statements best 1. It is a rare reptile which is endemic to
describes edge species? India.
(a) They are those species that thrive in 2. It is listed as endangered under the
habitats that are located on the edges of International Union for Conservation of
two different ecosystems. Nature (IUCN)’s Red List of Threatened
(b) They are those species which have the Species.
ability to survive in harsh conditions and
Which of the statements given above is/are
can be used for space travel.
correct?
(c) They are those species that have high
(a) 1 only
resistance to invasive species.
(b) 2 only
(d) They are those species that had distinct
(c) Both 1 and 2
evolutionary characteristics but are now
extinct. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. Consider the following statements regarding 45. Consider the following statements:
forests in India: 1. While CNG is obtained by compressing
1. Forest cover in India is defined the same natural gas under high pressure, LNG is
as that by the United Nations. natural gas reduced to a liquid state
2. All recorded forest area in India is either (liquefaction) through intense cooling.
classified as reserved or protected. 2. LNG emits about twice as much
3. Very dense forests in India are those with greenhouse gas as ordinary natural gas.
a canopy density above 70 percent.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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46. Global Environment Facility (GEF) provides a 48. Arrange the following states in decreasing
financial mechanism for which of the order of the number of national parks they

following conventions? have.

1. Madhya Pradesh
1. Convention on Biological Diversity
2. Maharashtra
(CBD)
3. Gujarat
2. United Nations Framework Convention on
4. Tamil Nadu
Climate Change (UNFCCC)
5. Assam
3. United Nations Convention to Combat
Select the correct answer using the code given
Desertification (UNCCD) below.
4. Stockholm Convention on Persistent (a) 1-2-5-3-4
Organic Pollutants (POPs) (b) 4-5-3-2-1
5. Minamata Convention on Mercury (c) 1-2-3-4-5

Select the correct answer using the code given (d) 1-5-2-4-3

below.
49. Recently, which of the following states has
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
declared the 'Blue Duke' butterfly as a state
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
butterfly?
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) Odisha
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Sikkim
47. Projects in which of the following areas (d) Kerala
qualify as 'green projects' under the sovereign
green bonds framework? 50. Consider the following statements with regard

1. clean transportation to lake effect snow:

2. water and waste management 1. It is common across the Great Lakes

region during winter.
3. green building
2. It is influenced by the differences between
4. landfill projects
the amount of heat and moisture at the
5. direct waste incineration
lake surface and in the air.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are
below. correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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51. Consider the following statements with 54. With reference to the oxygen saturation of the
reference to fuel cells: blood, consider the following statements:
1. A hydrogen fuel cell produces only water 1. A pulse oximeter is a small clip-like
and heat as by-products.
device that uses light beams to estimate
2. Fuel cells do not need to recharge as long
the oxygen saturation of the blood.
as there is a constant source of fuel and
oxygen. 2. According to the WHO, saturation of less

Which of the statements given above is/are than 95% is a clinical emergency.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2

52. Which of the following are the possible (d) Neither 1 nor 2

advantages of Raman Spectroscopy?

1. It can be used for analyzing metals or
alloys.
2. Water cannot interfere with this technique.
3. It involves transmission using optical
fibers over long distances for remote
analysis.
4. This technique does not need sensitive and
55. Consider the following statements with respect
to Intellectual Property Rights:
1. Copyright protection arises automatically
giving the holder the exclusive right to
control reproduction or adaptation.
2. A Design protects the form of outward

highly optimized instrumentation for appearance or aesthetic style of an object.

detection. 3. A Trademark is a distinctive sign which is
Select the correct answer using the code given used to distinguish the products or services
below. of one business from others.
(a) 2 and 3 only
4. A Patent gives the holder an exclusive
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
right to prevent others from selling,
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only making, and using the patented invention
for a certain period.
53. In the context of narcoanalysis test, ‘truth Which of the statements given above are
serum’, a substance injected into a person's correct?
body, is chemically known as: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Sodium benzoate
(b) 1 and 4 only
(b) Sodium pentothal
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Erythropoietin (EPO)
(d) Benzodiazepines (d) 2 and 3 only

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56. Consider the following statements with respect 59. Consider the following statements with regard
to polio: to Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and
1. There have been no new cases of wild Ribonucleic acid (RNA):
polio in the last decade in India. 1. RNA mutation rate is higher than the
2. Humans are the only known natural hosts
DNA mutation rate.
of the poliovirus.
2. In eukaryotes, DNA replication takes
3. It cannot be cured but only prevented
place in the nucleus while RNA
through immunization.
replication takes place in the cytoplasm.
Which of the statements given above are
correct? 3. DNA viruses are unstable while RNA
(a) 1 and 2 only viruses are stable.
(b) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
(c) 2 and 3 only correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
57. Consider the following statements with regard (c) 1 and 3 only
to the Base Editing Technology:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Using this technique, the molecular
structure of just one base in a genetic code
60. Concave mirrors are not ideally used in which
can be altered.
2. It makes it possible for one donor to of the following?
supply T-cells to multiple recipients. (a) Optical instruments such as
Which of the statements given above is/are ophthalmoscope
correct? (b) Producing heat in the solar furnace
(a) 1 only (c) Headlights of cars
(b) 2 only (d) Side mirrors of cars
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. Consider the following statements regarding
Dhrupad music:
58. Which of the following phenomena involve
1. It emphasizes maintaining the purity of the
the principle of total internal reflection?
ragas and the swaras.
1. Optical fiber cable
2. Mirage in a desert 2. Its compositions are addressed to Hindu
3. Sparkling of the diamond gods.
4. The blue color of the sky 3. Tansen, the legendary Dhrupad composer,
5. Sun looks reddish at the time of sunrise was a court musician of Akbar.
and sunset Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code given correct?
below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) None
(d) 3, 4 and 5 only
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62. In the context of the rich sculptural tradition of 65. Consider the following statements:
India, the magnificent sculpture panel 1. Satavahanas were the first to use the
depicting 'Ravana shaking mount Kailasa' can image of Goddess Lakshmi on their coins.
2. Muhammad Ghori issued coins depicting
be found at
the Hindu Goddess Lakshmi after
(a) Elephanta caves
defeating Prithviraj Chauhan in the Battle
(b) Sittanavasal caves of Tarain.
(c) Mammallapuram temple complex 3. Vijayanagara kings issued coins devoid of
(d) Ellora caves any religious images.
Which of the statements given above is/are
63. Wild boar (varaha avatar) have been presented correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
in various forms by different dynasties
(b) 2 only
throughout Indian history. Which of the
(c) 1 and 3 only
following dynasties depicted wild boar as their
(d) 1, 2 and 3
royal emblem?
1. Vijayanagara dynasty 66. With reference to the Jain pilgrimage site
2. Western Ganga dynasty 'Sammed Shikharji', consider the following
3. Rashtrakuta dynasty statements:
4. Western Chalukya dynasty 1. It is situated amid the Aravalli hills in
Rajasthan.
Select the correct answer using the code given
2. It is the place where the first Jain
below.
Tirthankara Rishabhnatha attained
(a) 1 and 2 only moksha.
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. It is one of the ‘Svetambara Pancha Tirth’
(c) 1 and 4 only or the five principal pilgrimage shrines of
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only the Svetambara sect of Jainism.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
64. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 only
Book Author
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Sangeet Ratnakara : Sarangadeva (c) 3 only
2. Chaturdandi Prakasika : Venkatamakhin (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Abhinaya Darpana : Nandikesvara
67. Under the nij system of Indigo plantation
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
during the British colonial rule, Indigo was
matched?
cultivated on lands directly controlled by
(a) 1 only (a) planters
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) peasants
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) village communities
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) zamindars

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68. Hindustani Seva Dal was established by Indian 71. With reference to the Hindu Succession Act,
National Congress (INC) with the task of 1956 in India, consider the following
managing sanitation and instilling military
statements:
training into Congress workers. In this context,
1. It is based on the Mitakshara school of
who among the following was the first
president of this organization? Hindu law.

(a) Sarojini Naidu 2. It is applicable to everyone who is not a

(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru Muslim and Christian by religion.
(c) Vinoba Bhave 3. It does not allow parity in matters of share
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
in the paternal property to the scheduled
tribe women in comparison with male
69. Consider the following statements with
reference to pattachitra painting: counterparts.
1. This painting is closely related to temple Which of the statements given above are
traditions in Puri, Odisha. correct?
2. It is predominantly icon painting. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. A floral border is a must around the
(b) 2 and 3 only
paintings.
(c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 72. Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma
(c) 1, 2 and 3
Bhushan, and Padma Shri are the four
(d) 2 and 3 only
important civilian awards in India. In this

70. Consider the following statements with regard context, which of the following Indian

to the ‘New India Literacy Programme’ of the personalities has/have been awarded all four
Ministry of Education (MoE): important civilian awards?
1. The beneficiaries under the scheme will be 1. Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
non-literates of a minimum age of 25
2. Satyajit Ray
years and above.
3. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
2. Only teachers of government schools will
participate as volunteers under the 4. Bhupen Hazarika
programme for teaching. Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are below.
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1 and 3 only
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73. Consider the following statements on Punchhi 76. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution extends
Commission: to which of the following?
1. It was the first-ever commission to look (a) Religious minorities only
into the problems in center-state relations.
(b) Linguistic minorities only
2. It recommended that Articles 355 and 356
(c) A section of citizens with distinct
be amended to curb their misuse by the
language, culture and script
Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are not (d) Religious or linguistic minorities
correct?
(a) 1 only 77. With reference to the declaration of state
(b) 2 only capitals in India, consider the following
(c) Both 1 and 2 statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. As stated in the Indian Constitution, the
state government alone is empowered to
74. Which of the following changes were made
change the capital of the state.
through the First Amendment to the
2. Presently, no state in India has more than
Constitution?
1. Role of the state in the advancement of one official capital of the state.
socially and educationally backward 3. A state in India can have separate capitals
classes was inserted under Article 15. for legislative, judicial, and administrative
2. The Ninth Schedule was added. functions.
3. Citizenship was made a criterion for Which of the statements given above is/are
appointment as a high court judge.
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 and 2 only
below.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
78. Consider the following military bases of India:
75. Which of the following categories of voters Military base Country
can cast their votes only using postal ballots?
1. Duqm : Oman
1. Members of the armed forces
2. Farkhor : Tajikistan
2. Voters under preventive detention
3. Government employees posted outside 3. Assumption island : Mauritius
India and their spouses 4. Agalega Island : Seychelles
4. Government officers on poll duty How many pairs given above are correctly
Select the correct answer using the code given matched?
below.
(a) Only one pair
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) Only two pairs
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Only three pairs
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) All the four pairs
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79. Biohydrogen can be generated from 82. Consider the following statements with
microalgae using which of the following reference to the International Treaty on Plant
processes? Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
1. Photofermentation (ITPGRFA):
2. Dark fermentation
1. It is a legally binding agreement adopted
3. Biophotolysis
under the aegis of the Food and
Select the correct answer using the code given
Agriculture Organization (FAO).
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. India is a party to the treaty.

(b) 2 and 3 only 3. It provides the international legal

(c) 1 and 3 only framework for the establishment of the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Svalbard Global Seed Vault in Norway.
Which of the statements given above is/are
80. Consider the following statements related to correct?
carbon stock:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Carbon stock refers to the amount of
(b) 2 only
carbon stored in forests in the form of
(c) 1 and 3 only
biomass, soil, deadwood, and litter.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. In India, carbon stock is estimated by the
Forest Survey of India through the Indian
State of Forest Reports. 83. Consider the following statements regarding
3. Among the Indian states, Madhya Pradesh United Nations Environment Assembly:
has the maximum carbon stock in forests. 1. It was founded as a result of the UN
Which of the statements given above are Conference on the Human Environment
correct? (Stockholm Conference) in 1972.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. The Assembly meets biennially to set
(b) 1 and 3 only
priorities for global environmental
(c) 2 and 3 only
policies.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The Assembly is the world’s highest-level

81. Which of the following is responsible for decision-making body on the environment,
registering new varieties of indigenous breeds with a universal membership of all 193
of animals in India? Member States.
(a) ICAR-National Bureau of Animal Genetic Which of the statements given above are
Resources (NBAGR) correct?
(b) National Dairy Development Board (a) 1 and 2 only
(NDDB)
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Department of Animal Husbandry and
(c) 1 and 3 only
Dairying (DAHD)
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
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84. The Green Status of Species is a new global 87. With reference to Indian physiography, which
standard of measurement created to help show of the following statements is correct?
how a species is functioning within the
(a) The Central Highlands are bounded to the
ecological system it lives, and how much it has
west by the Satpura range.
recovered thanks to conservation action. It is
an initiative of (b) The northern part of the Indian desert is
(a) United Nations Environment Programme sloping towards Sindh and the southern
(UNEP) towards the Rann of Kachchh.
(b) International Union for Conservation of
(c) The Bhima fault is located in the north
Nature (IUCN)
eastern part of the Peninsular plateau.
(c) World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
(d) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate (d) In Arunachal Himalayas, the general
Change (IPCC) direction of the mountain range is from
southeast to northwest.
85. In the context of persistent organic pollutants,
Dechlorane Plus, Medium chain chlorinated
88. Which of the following statements is correct
paraffins are
(a) flame retardants regarding North-East India?
(b) pesticides (a) It is home to the endangered Lion-tailed
(c) fertilizers Macaque.
(d) food preservatives
(b) It is a part of the Sundaland Biodiversity
hotspot.
86. Recently, at the COP15 to the UN Convention
on Biological Diversity, '' (GBF) was adopted. (c) It hosts four of the total Ramsar wetlands
In this context, which of the following goals in India.
were adopted as part of the GBF to be attained (d) Shipki La, Nathu La and Bum La passes
by 2030?
are situated in Northeastern Himalayas.
1. Restore 30% degraded ecosystems
globally
2. Reduce excess nutrients lost to the 89. Consider the following pairs:
environment by at least 50% Lake Type/Formed due to
3. Reduce risk from pesticides by at least 1. Lonar lake : Meteorite Impact
50%
2. Wular lake : Tectonic lake
4. Reduce the rate of introduction and
establishment of invasive alien species by 3. Panchmuli lake : Artificial lake
at least 50% 4. Kodaikanal lake : Glacial lake
5. Secure the safe, legal and sustainable use
How many pairs given above are correctly
and trade of wild species
Select the correct answer using the code given matched?
below. (a) Only one pair
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) Only two pairs
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only (c) Only three pairs
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All the four pairs
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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90. Which of the countries given below has signed 92. Consider the following statements regarding
the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Social Progress Index (SPI):
Agreement (CEPA) with India? 1. SPI is a comprehensive tool to assess
1. Japan country's social progress across basic
2. Sri Lanka human needs.
3. Singapore
2. SPI is prepared and released by NITI
4. UAE
Aayog.
5. USA
Which of the statements given above is/are not
6. South Korea
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 only
below.
(b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1, 4 and 6 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
93. Consider the following statements with respect

91. Consider the following statements regarding to the International Cooperation Scheme in the

anti-dumping duty: MSME sector:

1. The duty is aimed at creating a level- 1. It is an ongoing scheme which was
playing field for domestic producers vis-a- introduced in the ninth five year plan.
vis foreign producers. 2. It provides financial assistance on
2. The use of anti-dumping measures as an reimbursement basis only to private start-
instrument of fair competition is permitted ups for boosting their exports.
by the WTO.
3. No state or central government
3. In India, investigations related to anti-
organization can avail benefits from this
dumping are undertaken by the Directorate
scheme.
General of Trade Remedies (DGTR).
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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94. Which of the following is/are the likely 97. Consider the following statements regarding
benefits of Capital Account Convertibility for Critical Information Infrastructure (CII) under
the Indian economy?
the Information Technology (IT) Act of
1. Increase in savings and investments in the
2000:
economy
2. Decline in the cost of borrowing for 1. The Act defines CII as a computer
domestic companies resource which, if damaged, will debilitate
3. Decline in exchange rate volatility of national security, economy, public health
domestic currency
or safety.
Select the correct answer using the code given
2. The Parliament has the power to declare
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only any data, database, IT network or
(b) 2 only communications infrastructure as CII.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. Computer Emergency Response Team -
(d) 1, 2 and 3
India (CERT-IN) under Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology is
95. Which of the following necessarily implies an
increase in the economic production of a the nodal agency for protecting the
country which is experiencing growth in nation’s CII.
population? Which of the statements given above are not
1. Positive growth rate of nominal GDP correct?
2. Increase in real Gross Domestic Product
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Increase in per capita income in real terms
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) 2 and 3 only
below. (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
98. With reference to Blue bonds, consider the
(d) 3 only
following statements:
96. Which of the following best describes 'foreign 1. It is a debt-instrument which is used to
direct product rule (FDPR)', recently seen in raise capital for marine and ocean-based
the news? projects.
(a) It is a rule mandating compulsory display
2. The world's first sovereign blue bond was
of country of origin.
(b) It is a provision used to control trading of recently issued by India.
USA technologies. Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) It is a provision under the WTO that correct?
mandates fair and equal treatment of (a) 1 only
goods from all countries.
(b) 2 only
(d) It is a trade barrier used by developed
countries against the agricultural exports (c) Both 1 and 2
from low income countries. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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99. With reference to petrol/diesel pricing and
taxation in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Public sector Oil Marketing Companies
(OMCs) revise the retail prices of petrol
and diesel in India on a weekly basis.
2. Central government taxes the production
of petroleum products while state
governments tax their sale.
3. Basic Excise Duty imposed by centre on
petrol and diesel is shared with states.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

100. Consider the following statements with respect

to the Atal Jyoti Yojana (AJAY):
1. It aims to install solar LED lights in rural,
semi-urban and urban areas.
2. The scheme is presently executed in five
states of the country.
3. It is implemented by Energy Efficiency
Services Limited.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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