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1. When acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:

Both (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.

Both (H+) and (OH) ions increases

(H+) increases and (OH-) decreases

(H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.

Weak acid + weak base in water


2. Buffer of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?
Strong acid + strong base in water.

Weak acid + strong base in water.

Strong acid + weak base in water.

It has a definite PH.


3. Which among the following is not a property of buffer solution?
PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.

PH remains constant on keeping for a long time

It does not has a definite PH

Unsaturated
4. If ionic product < solubility product then the solution is:
Just saturated.

Super saturated

None of these

HCl < HBr < HI < HF


5. Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength?
HF < HBr < HCl < HI

HI < HCl < HBr < HF

HF < HCl < HI < HBr.

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6. Lewis acid is one that:

Accepts an electron pair

Donates a proton

Accepts a proton

Donates an electron pair

7. Which of the following act as Bronsted acid?

HSO3-

HCO3-

Both a and b

None

8. If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:

Weak electrolyte

Strong electrolyte

Strong base

None of these.

9. 10-4 M HCl solution at 298 K is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution will:

Lie between 8 and 9

Remain unchanged

Lie between 6 and 7

Equal to 7

10. The conjugate base of methyl alcohol is:

Hydroxyl ion

Methyl radical

Hydronium ion

Methoxide ion

11. Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?

Equimolar solutions

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Equinormal solution

Both a and b

None of these

12. Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:

Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised

It has low molecular weight

Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.

It does not dissociates completely

13. Aqueous solution of potassium chlorate is:

Amphoteric

Neutral

Alkaline

Acidic

14. NH3 and H20 can act as:

Lewis acid and Bronsted base

Lewis base and Bronsted acid

Lewis and Bronsted base

Lewis and Bronsted acid.

15. What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of HOCl (ka = 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

7.0

3.2

7.3

4.5

16. Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:

It is basic in nature

It is acidic in nature

Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base

Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.

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17. Molarity of a solution is expressed as:

The number of moles of a solute present in one litre of the solution

The number of moles of a solute present in 1000 gm of the solvent

The number of gram equivalent of solute present in one litre of solution

The ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute

18. Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

Osmotic pressure

Elevation of boiling point

Freezing point

Depression in freezing point.

19. The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in it

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

20. The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

Amount of solute

Nature of solute.

Amount of solvent

Nature of solvent

21. Which among the following is true? i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point decreases. ii. When
vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point increases. iii. When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boil

I & iii

I & iv.

Ii & iii

Ii & iv

22. Vapour pressure decreases with:

Increase in concentration of the solution.

Decrease in solute particles in the solution

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Decrease in boiling point.

Increase in freezing point.

23. Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon number of solute of particles present in
the solution. ii. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-el

Ii

Both i & ii

None of the above

24. Addition of common salt in water causes

Increase in M.P of solution

Increase in B.P of solution

Decrease in B.P of solution

Decrease in both M.P & B.P

25. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

Open System

Closed System

Isolated System

Adiabatic System

26. What is the Isothermal process?

A process during which the temperature T = const

A process during which the pressure P = const

A process during which the specific volume v = const

A process during which the heat Q = 0

27. Sol consists of:

Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;

Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;

Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;

Liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid

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28. Colloidal solutions are not purified by

Dialysis

Electrodialysis

Ultrafiltration

Electrophoresis

29. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

The colloidal particles have positive charge

The colloidal particles have negative charge

The colloidal particles are solvated

There are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

30. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

NaCl solution

Starch solution

Urea solution

FeCl3 solution

31. Enthalpy is expressed by following

H = U + pV

∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3

H = G + TS

Qp = ∆H

32. What is the Monomolecular reaction?

Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

33. What is theDimolecular Reaction?

Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.

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Conjugate reactions.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

34. Emulsifiers are generally

Soap

Synthetic detergents

Lyophilic sols

All of the above

35. The sky looks blue due to

Dispersion effect

Reflection

Transmission

Scattering

36. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

Suspension

Emulsion

Sugar solution

Gold sol

37. What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?

Butane

Butene

Benzene

Butyne

38. Molarity is expressed as

Grams/litre

Litres/mole

Moles/litre

Moles/1000 gm

39. Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

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HCOOCH3;

CH3CH2COOH;

CH3CH2OH;

CH3COOCH3

40. Which compound is a member of the alkene series?

Benzene;

Toluene;

Acetylene;

Ethane

41. Mass fraction is expressed in:

Mol / kg.

Percentage

Mol / l.

G / ml.

42. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?

The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.

The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

43. The molal concentration is:

The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.

The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

44. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid

98

32

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49

45. “Activation energy” term is introduced by

Coordination theory

Theory of valent bonds

Theory of active collisions

Theory of electrolytic dissociation

46. Which molecular formula represents pentene?

C4H8;

C4H10;

C5H10;

C5H12.

47. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?

Hexane

Sodium carbonate

Ethanol

Potassium chloride

48. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

-COOH;

-OR;

-CHO;

#NAME?

49. Which compound can have isomers?

C2H4;

C2H2;

C2H6;

C4H8.

50. Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

CH4;

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C2H6;

C3H8;

C4H10.

51. Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

C2H4;

C2H6;

C3H8;

C4H10.

52. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called

Hypotonic

Isoosmotic

Saturated

Isotonic

53. CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as

A carbohydrate;

An ester;

An alcohol;

An organic acid.

54. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the

Nature of solute and solvent

Rate at which the gas dissolves

Temperature

Pressure

55. The first member of the ketone family is:

Methanone

Ethanone

Propanone

Butanone

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56. Acetic acid is weak because

It is unstable

It is an organic aliphatic acid

It is slightly ionized

None of these

57. What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?

Hydration

Hydrolysis

Esterification

Polymerisation

58. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

Carbon monoxide and water

Carbon and water

Carbon dioxide and water

Carbon monoxide and hydrogen

59. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis

CH3COOK

NaNO3

KCl

K2SO4

60. Acetylene has a total of:

One σ bond, two π bond

Two σ bond, four π bond

Three σ bond, two π bond

One σ bond, four π bond

61. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

CH3CH2CH3

CH3C≡CH

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CH2CH=CH2

CH2=CH-CH=CH2

62. The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

60o

120o

90o

180o

63. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:

Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;

Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;

Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;

Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

64. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _______ ions are called acids.

Hydroxide(OH -)

Hydrogen(H +)

Ammoniumcation(NH+4)

(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

65. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?

PH<7

PH> 7

PH ~7

PH = 7

66. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride

Acidic

Basic

Neutral

None of theam

67. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

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Butane

2-butanol

1-butanol

Butanoic acid

68. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate

Acidic

Basic

Neutrald

None of theam

69. Galactose and Glucose are-

Epimers

Isomers

Anomers

Ketose- Aldose isomers

70. What does the following equation represent? α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose

Stereo isomerism

Mutarotation

Optical isomerism

Epimerization

71. A stronger base:

Is also a stronger acid;

Is also a stronger electrolyte;

Tastes sour;

Yields fewer OH- ions in solution;

72. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

1×10-11 M;

1×10-9 M;

1×10-7 M;

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1×10-5 M;

73. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

H+] equals zero;

[OH-] equals [H+];

H+] is less than [OH-];

H+] is greater than [OH-

74. Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

Chlorous acid

Acetic acid;

Perchloricacid;

Hypochlorous acid

75. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF;

2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2;

2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2

K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

76. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:

H2S

SO3

H2O2

F2

77. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :

O3

KMnO4

H2O2

K2Cr2O7

78. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide

Coordination

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Ionic

Hydrogen

Glycoside

79. Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms

C5 and N1

C1 and N9

C3 and N9

C1 and N1

80. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is

-2

-1

-4

81. How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides

01-10

10-100

100-200

More than 100

82. How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose

83. Sucrose is

Monose

Unreducing disaccharide

Amine acid

Reducing disaccharide

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84. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

Loses 1 electron;

Loses 1 proton;

Gains 1 electron;

Gains 1 proton

85. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is called:

Neutralization;

Esterification;

Electrolysis;

Hydrolysis

86. Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

Hypervitaminosis

Hypovitaminosis

Avitaminosis

Acidosis

87. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine;

Essential

Non-essential

Semi- essential

None of them

88. Choose biogenic macroelement

Cu

Br

As

89. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine

Aliphatic

Aromatic

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Heterocyclic

Complex

90. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:

10-7% - 10-12%

10-9%

10-3– 10-5 %

10-2%

91. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

12 carbons

14 carbons

16 carbons

18 carbons

92. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

Has no chiral carbon

Has a sulphur containing R group

Cannot form a peptide bond

Is an essential amino acid

93. Dentantness of porfyrin

94. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of

Rate of reaction

Donor-acceptor interaction

Protons number

Electrostatic model

95. Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate

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[(en)3Co]SO4

[Co(en)3SO4]

[SO4(en)3]Co

[Co(en)3]SO4

96. Disperse systems consists of:

Dispersion medium, dispersed phase

Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols

Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions

Sol, gel

97. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

Natural gas

Gas from oil droplets

Smog

Colored glass

98. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

Positive

Negative

Without charge

Zero

99. Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties

Md

Test System1

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1. When acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:

Both (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.

Both (H+) and (OH) ions increases

(H+) increases and (OH-) decreases

(H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.

Weak acid + weak base in water


2. Buffer of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?
Strong acid + strong base in water.

Weak acid + strong base in water.

Strong acid + weak base in water.

AgCl
3. Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?
BaSO4

CH3COOAg

None of these

Solubility product
4. The concentration of a sparingly soluble salt in its saturated solution at a given temperature is known as:
Solubility

Hydrolysis

Degree of hydrolysis

HCl < HBr < HI < HF


5. Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength?
HF < HBr < HCl < HI

HI < HCl < HBr < HF

HF < HCl < HI < HBr.

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6. Lewis acid is one that:

Accepts an electron pair

Donates a proton

Accepts a proton

Donates an electron pair

7. If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:

Weak electrolyte

Strong electrolyte

Strong base

None of these.

8. NH4Cl and aq.NH3 will precipitate.

Cu2+

Fe3+

Na+

K+

9. Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?

Equimolar solutions

Equinormal solution

Both a and b

None of these

10. The ionisation of a weak electrolyte increases when the concentration of the solution is decreased. This relation is given by:

Ostwald’s law

Arrhenius equation

Nernst’s equation.

Law of mass action.

11. Basicity of an acid is defined as number of replicable:

OH groups in its molecule

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H atom in its molecule

Non-metal cations in its molecule

Non-metal anions in its molecule

12. What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of HOCl (ka = 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

7.0

3.2

7.3

4.5

13. In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.

Weak acid and strong base

Weak acid and weak base

Strong acid and strong base

Strong acid and weak base

14. Addition of a salt of weak acid and strong base to water would cause:

Increase in pH.

PH remains same.

Decrease in pH

None of these.

15. Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

Osmotic pressure

Elevation of boiling point

Freezing point

Depression in freezing point.

16. Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

Camphor

Petrol

Acetone

Acetanilide

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17. Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

Obeys Raoult’s law.

Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero

There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.

Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

18. The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in it

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

19. The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

Amount of solute

Nature of solute.

Amount of solvent

Nature of solvent

20. The unit of Cryoscopic constant is:

Kelvin kg mol-1

Kelvin kg-1 mol-1

Kelvin kg mol+1

Kelvin kg+1 mol+1

21. When osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:

Equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute.

Equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.

Non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute

Non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute

22. If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:

I =1

I >1

I=0
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I <1

23. Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon number of solute of particles present in
the solution. ii. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-el

Ii

Both i & ii

None of the above

24. Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

An increase in melting point of the liquid

A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.

A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid

No change in the boiling point of the liquid.

25. The basic formula for Entropy;

Q=∆U+A

H=U+pV

∆U = U(final) – U(initial)

S = KlnW

26. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components

Internal energy

Enthalpy

Entropy;

Exothermic process

27. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:

Surface tension;

Surface energy;

Internal energy;

Heat of dissolution.

28. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:


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Coarse dispersed;

Colloidal;

Molecular;

True solution.

29. Milk is a colloid in which

A liquid is dispersed in liquid

A solid is dispersed in liquid

A gas is dispersed in liquid

Some sugar is dispersed in water

30. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

Smoke

Ink

Blood

Air

31. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

Heterogeneous, homogeneous

Open, Closed, Isolated

Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

Exothermic reactions

32. What are the units of energy?

Volta

Pascal

Liter

Joule

33. Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Qp

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34. Butter is a colloid formed when

Fat is dispersed in water

Fat globules are dispersed in water

Water is dispersed in fat

None of the above

35. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

A sol

A gel

An emulsion

A foam

36. A material that dissolves is called?

Reversible reactions

Irreversible reactions

Soluble

Insoluble

37. Which of these reactions are monomolecular

2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl

2HI → H2 + I2

I2 → I • + I •

38. Emulsifiers are generally

Soap

Synthetic detergents

Lyophilic sols

All of the above

39. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

Dialysis
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Brownian movement

Electro-osmosis

Tyndall effect

40. Which compounds are isomers?

1-propanol and 2-propanol

Methanoic acid and ethanoic acid

Methanol and methanal

Ethane and ethanol

41. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

Water

Oxygen

Carbon dioxide

Sulfur dioxide

42. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

Ethane

Ethene

Ethyne

Ethanol

43. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

0x1

0.4

44. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?

0.5 N

1.0 N

2.0 N

3.0 N

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45. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?

Methanol;

Methane;

Methyl methanoate;

Methanoic acid.

46. Molar concentration is expressed in:

Mol / kg.

Percentage

Mol / l.

G / ml.

47. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?

Hexane

Sodium carbonate

Ethanol

Potassium chloride

48. Most salt become soluble in water as the

Pressure is increased.

Temperature is increased.

Temperature is decreased.

Pressure is decreased.

49. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.

Percent by mass

Molarity

Molality

Mole fraction

50. Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

CCl4;

C3H5(OH)3;

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C6H6;

C6H12O6.

51. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van der Waals forces between the
molecules

Decreases;

Increases;

Remains the same;

Decreases then increases.

52. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:

A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a solution of a weak
electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;

A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a truesolution to a colloidal
solution;

A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a pure water to a solution;

A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a dilute solution into a more
concentrated one.

53. The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of compounds that are

Molecular;

Ionic;

Polar;

Atomic.

54. How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

13

55. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called

Hypotonic

Isoosmotic

Saturated

Isotonic
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56. As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms

Decreases;

Increases;

Remains the same;

Decreases then increases

57. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

П =ST/C

П = CT/S

П = SC/T

П / C = ST

58. Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

An alcohol with an ether

A carboxylic acid with a ketone

A carboxylic acid with an alcohol

A ketone with an aldehyde

59. Classify this reaction: CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

Chlorination

Oxidation

Hydration

Elimination

60. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2% ionized weak acid is (ionic product
of water = 1x10-14).

0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively

1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively

2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively

3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

61. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

8
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-8

Between 7 and 8

Between 6 and 7

62. FeCl3 solution is

Acidic

Basic

Neutral

Amphoteric

63. Esters are _____ _.

Made from alcohols and non-organic acids

Used to make perfumes and flavorings

Poisonous

Foul-smelling compounds

64. What are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

Ethyl methanoate and water

CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

Methyl ethanoate and water

CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

65. What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

Concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm

Concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

66. In propene there are

Eight σ bond, one π bond

Seven σ bond, two π bond

Six σ bond, three π bond

Nine σ bond

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67. Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded to oxygen.

Most have distinctive odors.

They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.

They are polar.

68. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:

High heat capacity;

High polarity of molecules;

Lowfreezingpoint;

Low water ionization constant.

69. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:

0.01M

0.001M;

0.1 M;

1.0M.

70. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _______ ions are called acids.

Hydroxide(OH -)

Hydrogen(H +)

Ammoniumcation(NH+4)

(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

71. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide

13

72. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around one carbon atom are called-

Optical isomers

Stereo isomers

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Anomers

Epimers

73. A stronger base:

Is also a stronger acid;

Is also a stronger electrolyte;

Tastes sour;

Yields fewer OH- ions in solution;

74. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

Donate a proton;

Yield H+ ions;

Donate an electron pair;

Acceptor of protons.

75. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?

OH- and H2O;

HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-;

HCl and Cl-;

NH3 and NH4+;

76. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :

O3

KMnO4

H2O2

K2Cr2O7

77. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in

Acidic medium

Neutral medium

Basic medium

Any medium

78. Monomeric link of protein

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Sugar rest

Isoprene

Amine acid rest

Ethylene

79. Element accepting electrons is called

Product

Oxidant

Reactant

Reductant

80. In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at

Anode

Cathode

Both A & B

The surface of the electrolyte solution

81. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is called:

Neutralization;

Esterification;

Electrolysis;

Hydrolysis

82. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

In molecule of cytochrome b

In molecule of vitamin B12

In molecule of catalase

In molecule of vitamin B6

83. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine

Essential

Non-essential

Semi- essential

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None of them

84. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine

Aliphatic

Aromatic

Heterocyclic

Complex

85. The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

Iodine number

Octane number

Saponification number

Melting point

86. The coordination number is:

The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion

The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion

The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom

The number of positively charged particles in the complex

87. Number of hem sections in mioglobin

88. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

C,H,O,P,S

N,C,H,O,I

N,S,C,H,O

C,H,O,S,I

89. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

Optical activity

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Hydrogen bonding

Resonance

Delocalization

90. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

Sulphur-sulphur linkages

Peptide bonding

Hydrogen bonding

Glycosidic bonds

91. Monosaccharides are classified according to

The number of carbon atoms in the molecule

Whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

Their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes

All of the above

92. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex

Cationic

Anionic

Trigonal

Neutral

93. Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate

[(en)3Co]SO4

[Co(en)3SO4]

[SO4(en)3]Co

[Co(en)3]SO4

94. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of

Rate of reaction

Donor-acceptor interaction

Protons number

Electrostatic model

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95. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

Its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal

It is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone

It is oprtically active

It shows mutarotation

96. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:

Medical products

Colored glass

Pumice

Fog

97. Colloidal solutions include:

Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols

Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic

Sol, gel

Saline solution in water

98. Optical property typical to coarse systems

Reflection

Absorption

Scattering

Diffusion

99. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:

Colloids;

Gas mixtures;

Saturated solutions;

Alloys.

Test System1

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; correct answer incorrect answer skipped question

1. When acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:

Both (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.

Both (H+) and (OH) ions increases

(H+) increases and (OH-) decreases

(H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.

2. Buffer of a +single
Weak acid weak salt
baseisinprepared
water by dissolving?

Strong acid + strong base in water.

Weak acid + strong base in water.

Strong acid + weak base in water.

3. Which
It has aamong the
definite following is not a property of buffer solution?
PH.

PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.

PH remains constant on keeping for a long time

It does not has a definite PH

4. Which
AgCl is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?

BaSO4

CH3COOAg

None of these

5. The concentration
Solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt in its saturated solution at a given temperature is known as:

Solubility

Hydrolysis

Degree of hydrolysis

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6. If ionic product < solubility product then the solution is:

Unsaturated

Just saturated.

Super saturated

None of these

7. Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength?

HCl < HBr < HI < HF

HF < HBr < HCl < HI

HI < HCl < HBr < HF

HF < HCl < HI < HBr.

8. Lewis acid is one that:

Accepts an electron pair

Donates a proton

Accepts a proton

Donates an electron pair

9. If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:

Weak electrolyte

Strong electrolyte

Strong base

None of these.

10. NH4Cl and aq.NH3 will precipitate.

Cu2+

Fe3+

Na+

K+

11. The ionisation of a weak electrolyte increases when the concentration of the solution is decreased. This relation is given by:

Ostwald’s law

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Arrhenius equation

Nernst’s equation.

Law of mass action.

12. Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:

Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised

It has low molecular weight

Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.

It does not dissociates completely

13. Precipitation of salt occurs if:

Ionic product = solubility product

Ionic product > solubility product

Ionic product < solubility product

None of these

14. What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of HOCl (ka = 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

7.0

3.2

7.3

4.5

15. Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:

It is basic in nature

It is acidic in nature

Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base

Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.

16. Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

Camphor

Petrol

Acetone

Acetanilide

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17. Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

Obeys Raoult’s law.

Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero

There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.

Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

18. The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in it

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

19. The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

Amount of solute

Nature of solute.

Amount of solvent

Nature of solvent

20. Which among the following is true? i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point decreases. ii. When
vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point increases. iii. When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boil

I & iii

I & iv.

Ii & iii

Ii & iv

21. Vapour pressure decreases with:

Increase in concentration of the solution.

Decrease in solute particles in the solution

Decrease in boiling point.

Increase in freezing point.

22. Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:

Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids

Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquids.

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Force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids

Force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.

23. Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

An increase in melting point of the liquid

A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.

A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid

No change in the boiling point of the liquid.

24. Which of the following pair of liquids are immiscible?

Acetone + water

Benzene + water.

Ethanol + water

Acetic acid + water

25. If the solvent boils at a temperature T1 and the solution at a temperature T2 , then the elevation of boiling point is given by:

T1 + T2

T1 – T2

T2 – T1.

None of the above

26. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

Open System

Closed System

Isolated System

Adiabatic System

27. Internal energy is called?

Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components

Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

28. Enthalpy is called?


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Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components

Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

29. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:

Coalescing of particles;

Sedimentation of particles;

Destruction of particles;

Subdivision of particles.

30. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:

Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;

Precipitate and water;

Mixture of gases;

Atoms and ions.

31. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

Liquid;

Solid;

Gas;

All answers are right

32. Colloids can be purified by

Peptization

Coagulation

Dialysis

Bredic arc method

33. Maximum coagulation power is in

Na+

Ba2+

Al3+

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Sn4+

34. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the particles?

Dialysis

Electrophoresis

Sedimentation

Ultrafiltration

35. What is the exothermic process?

Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components

Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

36. A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

Gel

Homogeneous solution

Sol

Aerosol

37. The equilibrium constant for the reaction? 2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):

Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2];

Kc = [CO2] / [CO];

Kc = 1 / [CO2];

Kc = [CO] / [CO2]

38. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is

K= [O2]

K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]

K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]

K= [NaNO3 ]

39. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

Molecular colloid
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Associated colloid

Macromolecular colloid

Lyophillic colloid

40. Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms

Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms

41. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

0x1

0.4

42. The general formula for the alkyne series is

CnHn;

CnH2n;

CnH2n+2;

CnH2n-2.

43. Which compound is a member of the alkene series?

Benzene;

Toluene;

Acetylene;

Ethane

44. Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

CH3COOH;

CH3CH2OH;

CH3CH2COOH;

CH3CH2CH2OH

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45. Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order, has 1 more carbon atom and how
many more hydrogen atoms?

46. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is

Molality

Percentage

Concentration

Molarity

47. Which molecular formula represents pentene?

C4H8;

C4H10;

C5H10;

C5H12.

48. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?

Alcohol

Water

Sugar

Kerosene

49. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is

Percent by mass

Molality

Molarity

Mole fraction

50. Solutions are:

Isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;

Homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;


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Homogeneous systems which contain at least two components

Heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

51. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:

The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents;

The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;

The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure solvents;

The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.

52. Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

CH4;

C2H6;

C3H8;

C4H10.

53. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:

TT= MRT;

Tf = Kf Cm;

Tb = KbCm;

Tf =iKf Cm.

54. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called

Cryometry

Osmometry

PH-metry

Ebuliometry

55. Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

Benzene;

Propyne;

Methane;

Ethanol.

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56. Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

Propanol;

Glycerol;

Butanol;

Pentanol.

57. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

Benzene;

Propene;

Pentene;

Butene.

58. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

Aldehydes;

Esters;

Polymers;

Ketones.

59. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through a
semipermeable membrane is known as :

Active Transport

Diffusion

Phagocytosis

Osmosis

60. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration against the concentration
gradient is known as :

Active Transport

Diffusion

Osmosis

Phagocytosis

61. Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

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Al(OH)3;

C3H5(OH)3;

Ca(OH)2;

C2H4(OH)2.

62. Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

Benzene;

Propene;

Toluene;

Butadiene

63. What are alcohols not used in?

Wine

Vinegar

Plastics

Methylated spirits

64. Vinegar tastes sour because of ___ _.

Ethanoic acid

Ethanol

Butanoic acid

Ethyl ethanoate

65. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound

3-ethylpentanal

4-methylpentanal

3- methyl- 2- pentanal

2-methylpentanal

66. Give name to positively charged particles:

Radicals;

Molecules;

Anions;

Cations.
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67. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will be?

PH<7

PH> 7

PH ~7

PH = 7

68. Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

A silver wire dissolves.

A brick-red precipitate forms.

The light blue color of the reagent disappears.

A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

69. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride

Acidic

Basic

Neutrald

None of theam

70. Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.

A red precipitate forms from a blue solution

A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless

A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

71. What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

Gold

Copper

Lead

Silver

72. Invert sugar is-

Starch

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Glucose

Fructose

Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

73. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

Sucrose

Lactose

Maltose

Trehalose

74. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

H+] equals zero;

[OH-] equals [H+];

H+] is less than [OH-];

H+] is greater than [OH-

75. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

A pH of 2 is three times as strong;

A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;

A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

76. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

KOH is potassium hydroxide;

H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;

HI is hydroiodic acid;

HClO2 is chloric acid

77. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

1.5 m NaCl;

1.5 m AgCl;

2.0 m C6H12O6;

2.0 m CaCl2

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78. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:

H2S

SO3

H2O2

F2

79. Choose peptide bond

-CO-NH-

–S-S-

H2N–CH2–

-C-C-

80. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O

X=4 y=6

X=8 y=3

X=8 y=6

X=3 y=8

81. Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms

C5 and N1

C1 and N9

C3 and N9

C1 and N1

82. Gliconic acids are produced under action of

Mild oxidant

Strongreductant

Mildreductant

Strong oxidant

83. In what case there is an oxidation process:

KMnO4→MnO2;

HNO2→NO2;

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Cl2O→HCl;

P→H3PO4.

84. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine:

Essential

Non-essential

Semi- essential

None of them

85. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

Loses 1 electron;

Loses 1 proton;

Gains 1 electron;

Gains 1 proton

86. Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

Enzyme catalase

Enzyme superoxide dismutase

Cytochrome P450

Glutathione peroxidase

87. Six major biogenic elements :

Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions on which life depends.

Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities

Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table

88. A zwitterions has which of the following properties

No net charge

A high melting point

Soluble in water

All of these

89. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric field is known as its:

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Isoelectric point

Dipole moment

Iodine number

Wave length

90. Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps

2 and more

Always without steps

91. A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its formula.

[Cl(H2O)4Cr2]

[Cr(H2O)4Cl2]

[ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]

[CrCl2(H2O)4]

92. The principal sugar in blood is

Fructose

Glucose

Sucrose

Galactose

93. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex

Cationic

Anionic

Trigonal

Neutral

94. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements

Doesn’t change

Increases

Decreases

None of them
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95. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

Its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal

It is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone

It is oprtically active

It shows mutarotation

96. Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?

It is also called table sugar

It may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol

It reduces Fehling’s solution

It does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

97. Gels are:

Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.

Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.

Blood, lymph.

Blood, jelly, marmalade.

98. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:

Medical products

Colored glass

Pumice

Fog

99. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:

Soil

Moist soil

Rocks

Fog

100. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

Cream, milk

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Foam

Pastes

Chocolate

Test System1

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1. When acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:

Both (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.

Both (H+) and (OH) ions increases

(H+) increases and (OH-) decreases

(H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.


Weak acid + weak base in water

Strong acid + strong base in water.


2. Buffer of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?

Weak acid + strong base in water.

Strong acid + weak base in water.


It has a definite PH.

PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.


3. Which among the following is not a property of buffer solution?

PH remains constant on keeping for a long time

It does not has a definite PH


AgCl

BaSO4
4. Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?

CH3COOAg

None of these
Solubility product

Solubility
5. The concentration of a sparingly soluble salt in its saturated solution at a given temperature is known as:

Hydrolysis

Degree of hydrolysis

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6. Lewis acid is one that:

Accepts an electron pair

Donates a proton

Accepts a proton

Donates an electron pair

7. HCO3- acts as:

Acid

Base

Both acid and base

None of these

8. Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?

Equimolar solutions

Equinormal solution

Both a and b

None of these

9. Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:

Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised

It has low molecular weight

Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.

It does not dissociates completely

10. Addition of HCl will suppress the ionisation of:

Benzoic acid

Carbonic acid

Nitric acid

Both a and b

11. NH3 and H20 can act as:

Lewis acid and Bronsted base

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Lewis base and Bronsted acid

Lewis and Bronsted base

Lewis and Bronsted acid.

12. What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of HOCl (ka = 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

7.0

3.2

7.3

4.5

13. A buffer solution is one that contains:

A weak acid and its conjugate base

Strong base and its conjugate acid

Strong acid and its conjugate base

None of these

14. In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.

Weak acid and strong base

Weak acid and weak base

Strong acid and strong base

Strong acid and weak base

15. Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:

It is basic in nature

It is acidic in nature

Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base

Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.

16. Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

Camphor

Petrol

Acetone

Acetanilide

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17. The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in it

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

18. The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

Amount of solute

Nature of solute.

Amount of solvent

Nature of solvent

19. When osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:

Equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute.

Equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.

Non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute

Non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute

20. Which among the following is true? i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point decreases. ii. When
vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point increases. iii. When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boil

I & iii

I & iv.

Ii & iii

Ii & iv

21. Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:

Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids

Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquids.

Force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids

Force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.

22. If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:

I =1

I >1

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I =0

I <1

23. Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon number of solute of particles present in
the solution. ii. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-el

Ii

Both i & ii

None of the above

24. Addition of common salt in water causes

Increase in M.P of solution

Increase in B.P of solution

Decrease in B.P of solution

Decrease in both M.P & B.P

25. Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

An increase in melting point of the liquid

A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.

A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid

No change in the boiling point of the liquid.

26. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

Internal energy

Enthalpy

Entropy

Exothermic process

27. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

Liquid;

Solid;

Gas;

All answers are right

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28. Which one of the following is not a colloid

Milk

Blood

Ice cream

Urea solution

29. An aerosol is a colloidal system of

A liquid dispersed in a solid

A liquid dispersed in a gas

A gas dispersed in air

None of the above

30. Which of the following is an emulsifier?

Soap

Water

Oil

NaCl

31. Suspensions are

Visible to naked eye

Not visible by any means

Invisible under electron microscope

Invisible through microscope

32. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

Light scattered by colloidal particles

Size of the particle

Shape of the particle

Relative size

33. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+

Cl- , SO42- , PO43-

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Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+

PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

34. Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

Accumulates in the surface of the other substance

Goes into the body of the other substance

Remains close to the other substance

Forms chemical bonds with other substences.

35. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

Smoke

Ink

Blood

Air

36. Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Qp

37. Irreversible reactions are called?

A change that can go forwards or backwards

A change that cannot go back,

Reactions proceeding in parallel

Process of substance dissolution

38. Which of these reactions are monomolecular

2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl

2HI → H2 + I2

I2 → I • + I •

39. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is

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K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]

K = [CO2 ]

K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]

K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

40. The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

Stability

Molecular weight

Equivalent weight

Active mass

41. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease

Colloidal S

Colloidal antimony

Colloidal gold

Colloidal silver

42________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary liquid induced by an
external field.

Colloidal suspension

Emulsion

Sedimentation potential

Electrophoresis

43. Which compounds are isomers?

1-propanol and 2-propanol

Methanoic acid and ethanoic acid

Methanol and methanal

Ethane and ethanol

44. In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a regular

Pyramid

Tetrahedron

Square
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Rectangle

45. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

0x1

0.4

46. Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different

Percentage compositions;

Molecular masses;

Molecular formulas;

Structural formulas.

47. Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

2N

4N

N/2

N/4

48. Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

An esterification reaction;

A neutralization reaction;

A saponification reaction;

A fermentation reaction.

49. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?

The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.

The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

50. A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

Propanol;
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Butanol;

Pentanol;

Glycerol

51. The structure of an alkene contains

Only single bonds;

A double bond;

Two double bonds;

A triple bond.

52. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:

2.0×10-2osmol;

1.0×10-1osmol;

3.0×10-2osmol;

5.0×10-3osmol.

53. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

Glycerol;

Ethylene glycol;

Propene;

Propanoic acid.

54. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

An ideal solution

Non-ideal solution

Suspension

Emulsion

55. The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

Ethylpropanoate

Propylethanoate

Propethanoate

None of the above

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56. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

Acidic

Basic

Neutral

Amphoteric

57. What is true about carboxylic acids?

Carboxylic acids are strong acids

Carboxylic acids can react with metals

Alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids

Carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

58. Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

Ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane

Ethanol contains a hydroxyl group

Ethanol is used as a fuel

Ethanol is a solvent

59. Acetylene has a total of:

One σ bond, two π bond

Two σ bond, four π bond

Three σ bond, two π bond

One σ bond, four π bond

60. In propene there are

Eight σ bond, one π bond

Seven σ bond, two π bond

Six σ bond, three π bond

Nine σ bond

61. Which of the following is a planar molecule?

Formaldehyde

Acetone
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Formic acid

Acetic acid

62. What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

180o

120o

109.5o

115.5o

63. Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

Ethyl alcohol

Formaldehyde

Diethyl ether

1,3-butadien

64. All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

Its systematic name is propanone.

Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone

Its common name is acetone.

Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

65. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into

Oxides, acid, base, salt

Oxides, base

Alkalis, salt, oxides

Ampholytes, Alkalis

66. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _______ ions are called acids.

Hydroxide(OH -)

Hydrogen(H +)

Ammoniumcation(NH+4)

(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

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67. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

Pentanal

3-pentanone

2-pentanone

Pentanoic acid

68. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride

Acidic

Basic

Neutrald

None of theam

69. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

Butane

2-butanol

1-butanol

Butanoic acid

70. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?

Galactose

Lactose

Maltose

Sucrose

71. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is

Oxide

Ether

Salt

Alcohol

72. Which one of the following is a weak acid?

HNO3

HI
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HBr

HNO2

73. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

Donate a proton;

Yield H+ ions;

Donate an electron pair;

Acceptor of protons.

74. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:

H–C=O

C – OH

O=C–O–C

None

75. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

A pH of 2 is three times as strong;

A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;

A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

76. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O

X=2 y=4 z=10

X=2 y=6 z=5

X=2 y=3 z=8

X=2 y=3 z=10

77. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to

Dilution

Number of ions

Current density

Volume of the solution

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78. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in

Acidic medium

Neutral medium

Basic medium

Any medium

79. Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins

Coordination

Hydrofobic

Glycoside

Metallic

80. Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by

Oxidation

Reduction

Esterification

Transamination

81. Point out the correct statements:

A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;

A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;

High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;

Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

82. Point out the coekcient before the reducing agent in the following equation:K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O

14

83. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:

Accepts electrons;

Donates electrons;
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Increases its oxidation number;

Decreases its concentration

84. Saponified lipids are

Mono-component

Three-component

Without any component

Poly-component

85. Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consistsfromzinc consists from zinc and copper electrodes dipped into their salt
solutions:

Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;

Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;

Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;

Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

86. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

In molecule of cytochrome b

In molecule of vitamin B12

In molecule of catalase

In molecule of vitamin B6

87. The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

Vitamin D

Vitamin B1

Vitamin K

Thiamine

88. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine

Essential

Non-essential

Semi- essential

None of them

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89. Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

90. Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

Vanaspati ghee

Margarine

Both of these

None of these

91. Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

Fats

Waxes

Soaps

Oils

92. Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements

Does’tchang

Increases

Decreasis

None

93. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

Amino acids

Hydroxyl acids

Fatty acids

Alcohols

94. Dentantness of porfyrin

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4

95. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride

[Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl

[(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl

[(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl

[Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

96. Donor of electrons in coordination compound

Central ion

Outer sphere ions

Ligands

None

97. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:

Medical products

Colored glass

Pumice

Fog

98. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:

Soil

Moist soil

Rocks

Fog

99. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:

Cosmetic products

Porous chocolate

Some alloys

Fog

100. Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties

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Test System1

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1. Buffer of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?

Weak acid + weak base in water

Strong acid + strong base in water.

Weak acid + strong base in water.

Strong acid + weak base in water.


It has a definite PH.

PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.


2. Which among the following is not a property of buffer solution?

PH remains constant on keeping for a long time

It does not has a definite PH


AgCl

BaSO4
3. Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?

CH3COOAg

None of these
Unsaturated

Just saturated.
4. If ionic product < solubility product then the solution is:

Super saturated

None of these
Accepts an electron pair

Donates a proton
5. Lewis acid is one that:

Accepts a proton

Donates an electron pair

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6. If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:

Weak electrolyte

Strong electrolyte

Strong base

None of these.

7. 10-4 M HCl solution at 298 K is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution will:

Lie between 8 and 9

Remain unchanged

Lie between 6 and 7

Equal to 7

8. Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?

Equimolar solutions

Equinormal solution

Both a and b

None of these

9. The ionisation of a weak electrolyte increases when the concentration of the solution is decreased. This relation is given by:

Ostwald’s law

Arrhenius equation

Nernst’s equation.

Law of mass action.

10. Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:

Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised

It has low molecular weight

Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.

It does not dissociates completely

11. What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of HOCl (ka = 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

7.0

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3.2

7.3

4.5

12. A buffer solution is one that contains:

A weak acid and its conjugate base

Strong base and its conjugate acid

Strong acid and its conjugate base

None of these

13. In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.

Weak acid and strong base

Weak acid and weak base

Strong acid and strong base

Strong acid and weak base

14. Addition of a salt of weak acid and strong base to water would cause:

Increase in pH.

PH remains same.

Decrease in pH

None of these.

15. Among the following which is a strong electrolyte and thus the best conductor of electricity?

Sulphuric acid

Acetic acid

Boric acid

Phosphoric acids

16. Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

Osmotic pressure

Elevation of boiling point

Freezing point

Depression in freezing point.

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17. Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

Camphor

Petrol

Acetone

Acetanilide

18. Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

Obeys Raoult’s law.

Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero

There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.

Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

19. The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in it

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

20. The unit of Cryoscopic constant is:

Kelvin kg mol-1

Kelvin kg-1 mol-1

Kelvin kg mol+1

Kelvin kg+1 mol+1

21. Vapour pressure decreases with:

Increase in concentration of the solution.

Decrease in solute particles in the solution

Decrease in boiling point.

Increase in freezing point.

22. Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon number of solute of particles present in
the solution. ii. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-el

Ii

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Both i & ii

None of the above

23. Addition of common salt in water causes

Increase in M.P of solution

Increase in B.P of solution

Decrease in B.P of solution

Decrease in both M.P & B.P

24. Which of the following pair of liquids are immiscible?

Acetone + water

Benzene + water.

Ethanol + water

Acetic acid + water

25. If the solvent boils at a temperature T1 and the solution at a temperature T2 , then the elevation of boiling point is given by:

T1 + T2

T1 – T2

T2 – T1.

None of the above

26. Sol consists of:

Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;

Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;

Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;

Liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid

27. Lyophobic colloids are

Reversible colloids

Irreversible colloids

Protective colloids

Gum proteins

28. Which one of the following is not represented by sols?


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Absorption

Tyndall effect

Flocculation

Paramagnetism

29. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?

Heterogeneous, homogeneous

Open, Closed, Isolated

Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

Endothermic reactions

30. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

Heterogeneous, homogeneous

Open, Closed, Isolated

Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

Exothermic reactions

31. Spontaneous process occurs only

Without external energy

At constant temperature

In forward direction

With external energy help

32. What is the Monomolecular reaction?

Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

33. A material that dissolves is called?

Reversible reactions

Irreversible reactions

Soluble

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Insoluble

34. The equilibrium constant for the reaction? 2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):

Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2];

Kc = [CO2] / [CO];

Kc = 1 / [CO2];

Kc = [CO] / [CO2]

35. The rate constant of a reactions depends on

Temperature

Initial concentration of the reactants

Time of reaction

Extent of reaction

36. The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

Stability

Molecular weight

Equivalent weight

Active mass

37. The blue color of water in the sea is due to

Refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water

Reflection of blue sky by sea water

Scattering of blue light by water molecules

Absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

38________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary liquid induced by an
external field.

Colloidal suspension

Emulsion

Sedimentation potential

Electrophoresis

39. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion medium is classified as
________________
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Solid sol

Gel

Emulsion

Sol

40. Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

Slower because organic particles are ions

Slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

Faster because organic particles are ions

Faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

41. Which polymers occur naturally?

Starch and nylon

Starch and cellulose

Protein and nylon

Protein and plastic

42. What is the solution?

A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent

Component of a solution present in the lesser amount

Component of a solution present in the greater amount

Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

43. Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

An esterification reaction;

A neutralization reaction;

A saponification reaction;

A fermentation reaction.

44. Mass fraction is called?

The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.

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The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

45. A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

Propanol;

Butanol;

Pentanol;

Glycerol

46. Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

Organic acids;

Esters;

Alkynes;

Alkanes.

47. Which of the following is not a property of solution?

It has a definite composition.

It has a homogeneous composition.

It is consist of a single phase.

It can be physically separated into its components.

48. In dilution of solution,

A solute is added to the solution.

)solvent is added to the solution

The amount of moles increases.

Volume of solution decreases.

49. The isomers of propanol differ in

The number of carbon atoms;

The arrangement of the carbon atoms;

Molecular mass;

The position of functional group.

50. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:

Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;

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Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;

Boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile solutes;

Boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

51. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:

To increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;

To add some electrolytes into a solution;

To add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;

To increase temperature.

52. Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

Benzene;

Propyne;

Methane;

Ethanol.

53. Which compound is most likely to react by addition?

CH4;

C3H6;

C4H10;

C5H12.

54. Which involves the colligative properties?

Heating of solvent.

Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature

Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.

Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

55. As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the number of double bonds per
molecule

Decreases;

Increases;

Remains the same;

Decreases then increases.


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56. In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

Water;

Carbon dioxide;

An acid;

A base.

57. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

Glycerol;

Ethylene glycol;

Propene;

Propanoic acid.

58. What is the formula for pentanol?

C5H12;

C5H11OH;

C4H10;

C4H9OH.

59. Colligative properties of the solution depend on

Nature of solute

Nature of solvent

Number of particles present in the solution

Number of moles of solvent only

60. Polymers are

Molecules made of monomers

Molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule

Macromolecules

All of the above

61. What are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

Ethyl methanoate and water

CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen


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Methyl ethanoate and water

CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

62. What is true about carboxylic acids?

Carboxylic acids are strong acids

Carboxylic acids can react with metals

Alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids

Carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

63. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis

CH3COOK

NaNO3

KCl

K2SO4

64. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is:

CH4

H2N-CH2-NH2

H3C-OH

(CH3)3COH

65. Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

C-C < C=C < C≡C

C-C > C≡C > C=C

C≡C > C-C > C=C

C≡C < C=C< C-C

66. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

Isobutyl acetone

2- methyl – 4- butanone

4 –methyl – 2- butanone.

4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

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67. About buffer solution which in incorrect?

It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base

It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid

It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base

All of the above

68. Give name to positively charged particles:

Radicals;

Molecules;

Anions;

Cations.

69. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

CH3-CO-CH3

CH3-CHO

CH3-CH2-OH

CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

70. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

An aldehyde

A hemiacetal

A carboxylic acid

None, ketones don't oxidize

71. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate

Acidic

Basic

Neutral

None of theam

72. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in

Aerobic respiration

Anaerobic respiration

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Transpiration

Photosynthesis

73. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining

Concentration of acid

PH of solution

Concentration of water molecules

Both A and B

74. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

Insulin

Dextrin

Cellulose

Glycogen

75. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:

H–C=O

C – OH

O=C–O–C

None

76. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given temperature is classified as:

Unsaturated;

Supersaturated;

Saturated

Dilute

77. Monomeric link of protein

Sugar rest

Isoprene

Amine acid rest

Ethylene

78. Point out the coekcient before the reducing agent in the following equation:K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O

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14

79. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

Mn(OH)2;

MnO42-;

MnO2;

Mn2+.

80. In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

Cr;

Ni2+;

Cr3+;

Ni

81. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine

Aliphatic

Aromatic

Heterocyclic

Complex

82. Determine type of α-amine acid – serine;

Essential

Non-essential

Semi- essential

None of them

83. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine

Essential

Non-essential

Semi- essential

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None of them

84. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine:

Neutral

Acidic

Basic

Slightly Polar

85. Six major biogenic elements :

Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions on which life depends.

Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities

Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table

86. Soap is

A mixture of salts of fatty acids

A salt of glycerol

A mixture of ethers

A mixture of aromatic ethers

87. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:

10-7% - 10-12%

10-9%

10-3– 10-5 %

10-2%

88. Fats and oils are

Monoesters of glycerol

Diesters of glycerol

Triesters of glycerol

Diesters of glycol

89. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:

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-1

-3

90. A zwitterions has which of the following properties

No net charge

A high melting point

Soluble in water

All of these

91. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

Carbonyl compounds

Amino acids

Phenols

Heterocyclic compounds

92. Particles playing role of ligands are

Positive ions

Chelates

Negative ions

Complex ions

93. Monosaccharides are classified according to

The number of carbon atoms in the molecule

Whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

Their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes

All of the above

94. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements

Doesn’t change

Increases

Decreases

None of them

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95. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?

Tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride

Chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)

Tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)

Tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

96. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?

Linear;

Tetrahedral;

Octahedral;

Trigonal

97. Dentatness of ligand is

Number of central ions

Charge of central ion

Number of bonds of ligand with central ion

Ion’s total number

98. Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

Glucose

Fructose

Lactose

None of the above

99. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate

NaCl

Сa3(PO4)2

CaCl2

FeCl3

100. Powder is

L/s

L/l

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S/l

S/g

Test System1

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1. Thermodynamics studies

General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.

Energy changes during chemical transformations.

The rate of chemical reactions.

Thermal conductivity,
Chemical Convection,
processes that Radiation
cause electrons to move.

Heterogeneous, homogeneous
2. Thermodynamic processes may be:
Open, Closed, Isolated

A process during
Isochoric, which
Isobaric, the temperature
Isothermal, AdiabaticT = const

A process during which the pressure P = const


3. What is the Isothermal process?
A process during which the specific volume v = const

A process
processduring
duringwhich
whichthe temperature
the heat Q = 0 T = const

A process during which the pressure P = const


4. What is the Isobaric process?
A process during which the specific volume v = const

A process
processduring
duringwhich
whichthe temperature
the heat Q = 0 T = const

A process during which the pressure P = const


5. What is the adiabaticprocess?
A process during which the specific volume v = const

A process during which the heat Q = 0

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6. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?

Isothermal process

Isobaric process

Isochoric (or isometric) process

Adiabaticprocess

7. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?

Isothermal process

Isobaric process

Isochoric (or isometric) process

Adiabaticprocess

8. The basic formula for Entropy;

Q=∆U+A

H=U+pV

∆U = U(final) – U(initial)

S = KlnW

9. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:

Osmosis;

Diffusion;

Brownian motion;

Coagulation .

10. Fog and smoke are:

Aerosols;

Emulsions;

Gels;

Foams

11. The heat transfer are divided into

Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation

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Heterogeneous, homogeneous

Open, Closed, Isolated

Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

12. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:

Coalescing of particles;

Sedimentation of particles;

Destruction of particles;

Subdivision of particles.

13. What is the thermal conductivity?

The material to conduct heat.

Heat is transferred from one place to another.

The radiation transmitted even void (sun).

None of them.

14. Chromatography is:

The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;

A type of disperse systems;

A continuous phase;

The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

15. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:

Fog;

Dust;

Smoke;

Steam.

16. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:

Color;

Transparence;

Size of particles;

Odor.

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17. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

Liquid;

Solid;

Gas;

All answers are right

18. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?

On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a liquid;

On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;

On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;

On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

19. Coagulation is:

Chaotic movement of particles;

Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;

Destruction of the native protein structure;

The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby separate from the continuous phase.

20. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

Suspension> colloidal > true solution

True solution > suspension > colloidal

Suspension> colloidal = true solution

None of the above

21. Which one of the following is not a colloid

Milk

Blood

Ice cream

Urea solution

22. Which of the following is a homogeneous system

Muddy water

Bread

Concrete
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A solution of sugar in water

23. Lyophobic colloids are

Reversible colloids

Irreversible colloids

Protective colloids

Gum proteins

24. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+

Cl- , SO42- , PO43-

Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+

PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

25. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

NaCl solution

Starch solution

Urea solution

FeCl3 solution

26. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

Linear

Curved

Zigzag

Uncertain

27. Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known as

Electrolysis

Electrophoresis

Electrodyalysis

None of the above

28. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

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Smoke

Ink

Blood

Air

29. Milk is

Fat dispersed in milk

Fat dispersed in water

Water dispersed in fat

Water dispersed in oil

30. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

Solid is dispersed in liquid

Liquid is dispersed in a solid

Gas is dispersed in a solid

Solid is dispersed in a solid

31. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

Heterogeneous, homogeneous

Open, Closed, Isolated

Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

Exothermic reactions

32. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:

∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6

ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)

ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

Q= ΔU+ W

33. What is the heterogeneous system?

System consisting of three phases is called

Heat is transferred from one place to another.

Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

System consisting of one phase is called


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34. Internal energy is ……

Energy of system at constant pressure

Gibbs energy

Energy of system at constant volume

Measure of systems randomness

35. Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Qp

36. Butter is a colloid formed when

Fat is dispersed in water

Fat globules are dispersed in water

Water is dispersed in fat

None of the above

37. Which of the following is not a colloid?

Chlorophyll

Smoke

Ruby glass

Milk

38. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?

Monomolecular

Dimolecular

Trimolecular

Radical reaction

39. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

Monomolecular

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Dimolecular

Radical reaction

Trimolecular

40. What is the Monomolecular reaction?

Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

41. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

Reactions proceeding simultaneously.

42. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

A sol

A gel

An emulsion

A foam

43. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

Catalyst

Inhibitor

Enzymes

Indicator

44. Irreversible reactions are called?

A change that can go forwards or backwards

A change that cannot go back,

Reactions proceeding in parallel

Process of substance dissolution

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45. A material that dissolves is called?

Reversible reactions

Irreversible reactions

Soluble

Insoluble

46. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?

Reversible reactions

Irreversible reactions

Soluble

Insoluble

47. Which of these reactions are monomolecula

2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

Cl2 → 2Cl

2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl

2HI → H2 + I2

48. Which of these reactions are dimolecular

C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

2HI → H2 + I2

N2O4 → 2NO2

O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

49. Which of these reactions are dimolecular.

N2O4 → 2NO2

O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20

C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

50. Which of these reactions are dimolecula

N2O4 → 2NO2

O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

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C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

51. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is

K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]

K = [CO2 ]

K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]

K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

52. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the

Concentration of the reactant

Concentration of the product

Time

Temperature

53. A catalyst is a substance which

Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product

Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction

Shortens the time to reach equilibrium

Supplies energy to the reaction

54. Butter is

Emulsion

Aerosol

Suspension

None

55. The law of mass action was enunciated by

Guldberg and Waage

Bodenstein

Berthlot

Graham

56. Which one of an example of gel?

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Soap

Fog

Cheese

Milk

57. As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the rate of the reaction:

Increases

Decreases;

Remains the same;

Approaches zero

58. Tyndall effect will be observed in

Solution

Precipitate

Sol

Vapour

59. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

Dialysis

Brownian movement

Electro-osmosis

Tyndall effect

60. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles abruptly collected into spherical
structures called _________

Ball

Sphere of ions

Micelles

Dirt particle

61. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

Coagulation

Electrolysis

Diffusion

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Peptisation

62. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion medium is classified as
________________

Solid sol

Gel

Emulsion

Sol

63. Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

Slower because organic particles are ions

Slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

Faster because organic particles are ions

Faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

64. Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms

Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms

65. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

Water

Oxygen

Carbon dioxide

Sulfur dioxide

66. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

Ethane

Ethene

Ethyne

Ethanol

67. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

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1N

10 N

1.7 N

0.83 N

68. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

0x1

0.4

69. Which compound is an organic acid?

CH3OH

CH3OCH3

CH3COOH

CH3COOCH3

70. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

4g

1g

2g

10 g

71. The molarity of pure water is

55.6

50

100

18

72. C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ___ reaction.

Addition;

Substitution;

Saponification;

Esterification
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73. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

10

18

100

74. The general formula for the alkyne series is

CnHn;

CnH2n;

CnH2n+2;

CnH2n-2.

75. Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

0.1 M

0.5 M

0.01 M

1.0 M

76. What is the solution?

A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent

Component of a solution present in the lesser amount

Component of a solution present in the greater amount

Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

77. Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

C2H4;

C3H6;

C4H8;

C5H10

78. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

Solution

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Solute

Solvent

Concentration

79. Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

An esterification reaction;

A neutralization reaction;

A saponification reaction;

A fermentation reaction.

80. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?

The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.

The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

81. Find volume concentration

Mass percent

Normality

Molality

Mass fraction

82. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature

Vant Hoff

Mendeleev

Arrhenius

Lomonosov

83. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid

98

32.6

49

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84. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is

Molality

Percentage

Concentration

Molarity

85. Which molecular formula represents pentene?

C4H8;

C4H10;

C5H10;

C5H12.

86. A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

Propanol;

Butanol;

Pentanol;

Glycerol

87. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?

Alcohol

Water

Sugar

Kerosene

88. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is

Concentrated.

Dilute.

Unsaturated.

Saturated.

89. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?

Increasing the temperature

Increasing the pressure

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Increasing the volume

Decreasing the pressure

90. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?

Vaporization and condensation

Dissolution and crystallization

Oxidation and reduction

Dissociation and reduction

91. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution containing

342 g sucrose in 658 g of water

342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution

342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water

342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution

92. Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and formic acid. This type of reaction is
called

Fermentation;

Esterification;

Saponification;

Polymerization.

93. Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

Greater solubility in water;

More rapid reaction rates;

A tendency to form ions more readily;

Lower melting points.

94. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is

Percent by mass

Molality

Molarity

Mole fraction

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95. Which is the formula of an alcohol?

Ba(OH)2;

HCHO;

CH3COOH;

C5H11OH.

96. Solubility of solids depends upon:

Temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents;

Pressure;

Heat of solution;

All answers are right.

97. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:

Liquid, transparent, colored;

Solid, liquid, turbid;

Gaseous, liquid, solid;

Liquid, turbid, colored.

98. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the solution is defined as:

The Henry’s law;

The Sechenov equation;

The Ostvald’s dilution law;

The Paul’s principle.

99. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

Polymerization;

Substitution;

Addition;

Esterification.

100. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:

0.01M sucrose;
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0.01 M sodium phosphate;

0.01 М potassium chloride;

0.01 M sodium carbonate.

Test System1

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1. Thermodynamics studies

General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.

Energy changes during chemical transformations.

The rate of chemical reactions.

Thermal conductivity,
Chemical Convection,
processes that Radiation
cause electrons to move.

Heterogeneous, homogeneous
2. Thermodynamic processes may be:
Open, Closed, Isolated

A process during
Isochoric, which
Isobaric, the temperature
Isothermal, AdiabaticT = const

A process during which the pressure P = const


3. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?
A process during which the specific volume v = const

Isothermal
A process
process during which the heat Q = 0

Isobaric process
4. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?
Isochoric (or isometric) process

Adiabaticprocess
Isothermal process

Isobaric process
5. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?
Isochoric (or isometric) process

Adiabaticprocess

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6. The heat transfer are divided into

Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation

Heterogeneous, homogeneous

Open, Closed, Isolated

Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

7. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:

Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;

Precipitate and water;

Mixture of gases;

Atoms and ions.

8. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:

N2;

H2O;

CO2;

O2.

9. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:

Color;

Transparence;

Size of particles;

Odor.

10. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?

On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a liquid;

On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;

On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;

On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

11. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

Suspension> colloidal > true solution

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True solution > suspension > colloidal

Suspension> colloidal = true solution

None of the above

12. Which of the following is a homogeneous system

Muddy water

Bread

Concrete

A solution of sugar in water

13. Lyophobic colloids are

Reversible colloids

Irreversible colloids

Protective colloids

Gum proteins

14. Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

Condensation

Dialysis

Diffusion through animal membrane

Addition of an electrolyte

15. Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

Lyophilic sol

Associated colloid

Hydrophobic sol

Emulsion

16. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

High concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained

Coagulation is reversible

Viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water

The charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or even zero

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17. What is the homogeneous system?

System consisting of three phases is called

Heat is transferred from one place to another.

Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

System consisting of one phase is called

18. Find state parametre

19. Chemical kinetics studies –

Energy changes during chemical transformations.

The rate of chemical reactions.

General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.

Of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

20. Butter is a colloid formed when

Fat is dispersed in water

Fat globules are dispersed in water

Water is dispersed in fat

None of the above

21. Which of the following is not a colloid?

Chlorophyll

Smoke

Ruby glass

Milk

22. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?

Monomolecular

Dimolecular

Trimolecular
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Radical reaction

23. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

Monomolecular

Dimolecular

Radical reaction

Trimolecular

24. What is theDimolecular Reaction?

Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.

Conjugate reactions.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

25. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?2NO + O2→2NO2

Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]

Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2

Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]

Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

26. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is

K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]

K = [CO2 ]

K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]

K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

27. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium is termed as

Aerosol

Gel

Emulsion

Foam

28. As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the rate of the reaction:

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Increases

Decreases;

Remains the same;

Approaches zero

29. Tyndall effect will be observed in

Solution

Precipitate

Sol

Vapour

30. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

Scattering of light

Reflection of light

Absorption of light

Presence of electrically charged particles

31. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles abruptly collected into spherical
structures called _________

Ball

Sphere of ions

Micelles

Dirt particle

32. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion medium is classified as
________________

Solid sol

Gel

Emulsion

Sol

33. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison to those shown by true solutions of
same concentration because of colloidal particles ____________

Exhibit enormous surface area

Remain suspended in the dispersion medium

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Form lyophilic colloids

Are comparatively less in number

34. Normality is expressed as

Moles/litre

Gm equivalents/litre

Moles/1000 gm

Gram/litre

35. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?

0.5 N

1.0 N

2.0 N

3.0 N

36. Which compound is an organic acid?

CH3OH

CH3OCH3

CH3COOH

CH3COOCH3

37. The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has the same

Empirical formula;

General formula;

Structural formula;

Molecular formula.

38. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?

Methanol;

Methane;

Methyl methanoate;

Methanoic acid.

39. Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is


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0.1 M

0.5 M

0.01 M

1.0 M

40. Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

HCOOCH3;

CH3CH2COOH;

CH3CH2OH;

CH3COOCH3

41. The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

A polymer;

A soap;

An ester;

An alcohol.

42. Mass fraction is called?

The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.

The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

43. The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

An acid;

An alcohol;

An ester;

A hydrocarbon

44. Molal concentration is expressed in:

Mol / kg.

Percentage

Mol / l.

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G / ml.

45. Which of the following is not a solution?

Zinc

Sterling silver

Brass

Stainless steel

46. The isomers of propanol differ in

The number of carbon atoms;

The arrangement of the carbon atoms;

Molecular mass;

The position of functional group.

47. Solutions are:

Isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;

Homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;

Homogeneous systems which contain at least two components

Heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

48. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:

Liquid, transparent, colored;

Solid, liquid, turbid;

Gaseous, liquid, solid;

Liquid, turbid, colored.

49. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:

Hemolysis;

Plasmolysis;

Swelling;

Precipitation.

50. Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

C3H8;

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C3H7OH;

CH3COOH;

CH3COOCH3.

51. Functional Group of Aldehyde:

C – CO - C

C – CH = O

C –X

O = C – OH

52. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate and sodium chloride would
include all of the following except:

Cl-;

2Na+;

CaCO3d

All of the substances above

53. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in

Acidic medium

Neutral medium

Basic medium

Any medium

54. Which of the following is an insulator?

Graphite

Aluminium

Diamond

Silicon

55. Choose peptide bond

-CO-NH-

–S-S-

H2N–CH2–

-C-C-
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56. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

Oxidation

Reduction

Esterification

Transamination

57. Glicaric acids are produced under action of

Mild oxidant

Strong reductant

Mildreductant

Strong oxidant

58. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide

Coordination

Ionic

Hydrogen

Glycoside

59. Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis

Alcohols, carboxylicacids

Carboxylicacids

Alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.

Alcohols

60. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine

Aliphatic

Aromatic

Heterocyclic

Complex

61. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in

Acidic medium

Neutral medium
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Basic medium

Any medium

62. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is

-2

-1

-4

63. In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at

Anode

Cathode

Both A & B

The surface of the electrolyte solution

64. How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose

65. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:

-2

-4

66. Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by

Oxidation

Reduction

Esterification

Transamination

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67. In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation number

Intermolecular

Double exchange

Intramolecular

Disproportion

68. Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms:

C5 and N1

C1 and N9

C3 and N9

C1 and N1

69. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:

The interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;

The heat energy associated with chemical reactions;

The scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;

The study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in terms of the principles,
practices and concepts of physics.

70. Point out the correct statements:

A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;

A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;

High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;

Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

71. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3

Monoterpene

Diterpene

Triterpene

Sesquiterpene

72. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4

Monoterpene

Diterpene
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Triterpene

Sesquiterpene

73. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis

Alcohols, carboxylic acids

Carboxylic acids

Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.

Alcohols

74. Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine

Neutral

Acidic

Basic

Slightly Polar

75. Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine

Essential

Non-essential

Semi- essential

None of them

76. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is called:

Neutralization;

Esterification;

Electrolysis;

Hydrolysis

77. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

In molecule of cytochrome b

In molecule of vitamin B12

In molecule of catalase

In molecule of vitamin B6

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78. Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

Enzyme catalase

Enzyme superoxide dismutase

Cytochrome P450

Glutathione peroxidase

79. The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

Vitamin D

Vitamin B1

Vitamin K

Thiamine

80. KMnO4 solutions are used for

Antibacterial

Antifungal

Both of the above

Antioxidant

81. Choose biogenic microelement

Cu

Ca

Mg

82. Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

83. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

More unsaturation
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Higher melting points

A glycerol backbone

Longer fatty acids

84. Zwitterion is

An ion that is positively charged in solution

An ion that is negatively charged in solution

A compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid

A carbohydrate with an electrical charge

85. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:

86. The coordination number is:

The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion

The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion

The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom

The number of positively charged particles in the complex

87. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

Peptide linkage

Ester linkage

Ether linkage

α,β-Linkage

88. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

Primary structure

Secondary structure

Tertiary structure

Quaternary structure

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89. Monosaccharides are classified according to

The number of carbon atoms in the molecule

Whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

Their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes

All of the above

90. Which is a disaccharide?

Glucose

Maltose

Fructose

Cellulose

91. The principal sugar in blood is

Fructose

Glucose

Sucrose

Galactose

92. Disperse systems consists of:

Dispersion medium, dispersed phase

Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols

Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions

Sol, gel

93. Common table sugar is

Glucose

Sucrose

Fructose

Maltose

94. What is the suspension?

It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.

It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually immiscible liquid.

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It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.

It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

95. Starch

Is a trisaccharide

Is also called amylose

Is also called amylopectin

Is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin

96. Colloidal solutions include:

Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols

Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic

Sol, gel

Saline solution in water

97. Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing

Condensation

Change of solvent

Red-ox reaction

Peptization

98. Powder is

L/s

L/l

S/l

S/g

99. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =

None

Cl-

SO4 2-

Ba2+

100. Optical property typical to coarse systems

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Reflection

Absorption

Scattering

Diffusion

Test System1

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1. When acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:

Both (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.

Both (H+) and (OH) ions increases

(H+) increases and (OH-) decreases

AgCl decreases and (OH-) increases.


(H+)

BaSO4
2. Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?
CH3COOAg

Weak of
None electrolyte
these

Strong electrolyte
3. If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:
Strong base

None
Cu2+ of these.

Fe3+
4. NH4Cl and aq.NH3 will precipitate.
Na+

K+
Hydroxyl ion

Methyl radical
5. The conjugate base of methyl alcohol is:
Hydronium ion

Methoxide ion

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6. Precipitation of salt occurs if:

Ionic product = solubility product

Ionic product > solubility product

Ionic product < solubility product

None of these

7. Addition of HCl will suppress the ionisation of:

Benzoic acid

Carbonic acid

Nitric acid

Both a and b

8. NH3 and H20 can act as:

Lewis acid and Bronsted base

Lewis base and Bronsted acid

Lewis and Bronsted base

Lewis and Bronsted acid.

9. What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of HOCl (ka = 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

7.0

3.2

7.3

4.5

10. In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.

Weak acid and strong base

Weak acid and weak base

Strong acid and strong base

Strong acid and weak base

11. Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:

It is basic in nature

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It is acidic in nature

Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base

Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.

12. Addition of a salt of weak acid and strong base to water would cause:

Increase in pH.

PH remains same.

Decrease in pH

None of these.

13. Molarity of a solution is expressed as:

The number of moles of a solute present in one litre of the solution

The number of moles of a solute present in 1000 gm of the solvent

The number of gram equivalent of solute present in one litre of solution

The ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute

14. Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

Osmotic pressure

Elevation of boiling point

Freezing point

Depression in freezing point.

15. Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

Obeys Raoult’s law.

Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero

There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.

Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

16. The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in it

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.

Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

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17. The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

Amount of solute

Nature of solute.

Amount of solvent

Nature of solvent

18. Vant Hoff’s eqution for solution is:

PV = n / RT

P = Vn / RT

PV = nRT

P = VnR / T

19. When osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:

Equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute.

Equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.

Non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute

Non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute

20. Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:

Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids

Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquids.

Force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids

Force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.

21. If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:

I =1

I >1

I =0

I <1

22. Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon number of solute of particles present in
the solution. ii. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-el

Ii

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Both i & ii

None of the above

23. Addition of common salt in water causes

Increase in M.P of solution

Increase in B.P of solution

Decrease in B.P of solution

Decrease in both M.P & B.P

24. Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

An increase in melting point of the liquid

A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.

A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid

No change in the boiling point of the liquid.

25. Coarse disperse system is:

Solution;

Suspension;

Sol;

Gel.

26. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

High concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained

Coagulation is reversible

Viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water

The charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or even zero

27. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

Colloidal S

Colloidal antimony

Colloidal gold

Colloidal platinum

28. As2S3 sol is


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Positive colloid

Negative colloid

Neutral colloid

None of the above

29. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

Solid is dispersed in liquid

Liquid is dispersed in a solid

Gas is dispersed in a solid

Solid is dispersed in a solid

30. What is the homogeneous system?

System consisting of three phases is called

Heat is transferred from one place to another.

Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

System consisting of one phase is called

31. Internal energy is ……

Energy of system at constant pressure

Gibbs energy

Energy of system at constant volume

Measure of systems randomness

32. Enthalpy is expressed by following

H = U + pV

∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3

H = G + TS

Qp = ∆H

33. As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the rate of the reaction:

Increases

Decreases;

Remains the same;

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Approaches zero

34. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

The number of moles of the reactants and products;

The potential energies of the reactants and products;

The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;

The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.

35. The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

Dialysis

Addition of electrolytes

Diffusion through animal membrane

Condensation

36. Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?

Minerals

Vitamins

Proteins

Starch

37. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration

Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration

Aqueous solution of odium chloride

Aqueous solution of sugar

38. Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in

1000 gm of the solvent

Onelitre of the solution

One litre of the solvent

22.4 litres of the solution

39. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

2.04 N
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0.49 N

0.98 N

0.35 N

40. The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is ?

0.46 N

0.23 N

2.3 N

4.6 N

41. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

C3H7COCH3;

CH3COOC2H5;

C2H5OC2H5;

CH3COOH.

42. Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is an example of _____ reaction.

Substitution;

Addition;

Polymerization;

Fermentation.

43. Mass fraction is called?

The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.

The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

44. Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order, has 1 more carbon atom and how
many more hydrogen atoms?

4
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45. Find volume concentration

Mass percent

Normality

Molality

Mass fraction

46. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is

Molality

Percentage

Concentration

Molarity

47. A 40% alcohol contains

40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.

40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.

60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.

60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

48. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

Polymerization;

Substitution;

Addition;

Esterification.

49. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:

Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;

Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;

Boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile solutes;

Boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

50. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

Benzene;

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Propene;

Pentene;

Butene.

51. Which of the following is a true statement?

Ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an oxidizing agent

Aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an oxidizing agent

Ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol

Organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

52. What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

PCl3 and an alcohol

HCl and an alcohol

HCl and an alcohol, under reflux

Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

53. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

Acidic impurities

Ionization

Hydrolysis

Dissociation

54. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

Neutral

Weakly acidic

Strongly acidic

Alkaline

55. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

Carbon monoxide and water

Carbon and water

Carbon dioxide and water

Carbon monoxide and hydrogen

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56. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

(NH4)2SO4

Ba(NO3)2

CrCl3

CuSO4

57. Which of the following is a buffer?

NaOH + CH3COONa

NaOH + Na2SO4

K2SO4 + H2SO4

NH4OH + NH4Cl

58. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:

Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;

Ionic strength;

Concentration of a gas in a solution;

Ion product for water.

59. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:

Electrons donor;

Electrons acceptors;

Protons donors;

Protons acceptors.

60. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.

Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.

The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .

Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

61. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

Pentanal

3-pentanone

2-pentanone
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Pentanoic acid

62. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

An aldehyde

A hemiacetal

A carboxylic acid

None, ketones don't oxidize

63. Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is

High

Low

Same

Constant

64. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

The glucose residue is the β anomer.

The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.

C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

The compound is in its furanose form

65. Functional Group of Amine:

C – NR – R’

O = C – OH

H–C=O

C – OH

66. Functional Group of Nitrile:

- C≡N

O = C – OH

C – NR – R’

HOC – NR – R’

67. Which of the following is an insulator?

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Graphite

Aluminium

Diamond

Silicon

68. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O

X=4 y=6

X=8 y=3

X=8 y=6

X=3 y=8

69. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

Oxidation

Reduction

Esterification

Transamination

70. Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of

Transamination

Oxidation

Reduction

Decarboxylation

71. In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed

Intermolecular

Double exchange

Counter disproportion

Disproportion

72. Element loosing electrons is called

Product

Oxidant

Reactant

Reductant
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73. In what case there is an oxidation process:

KMnO4→MnO2;

HNO2→NO2;

Cl2O→HCl;

P→H3PO4.

74. Point out the coekcient before the reducing agent in the following equation:K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O

14

75. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

Loses 1 electron;

Loses 1 proton;

Gains 1 electron;

Gains 1 proton

76. In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

Cr;

Ni2+;

Cr3+;

Ni

77. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine

Aliphatic

Aromatic

Heterocyclic

Complex

78. Choose biogenic microelement

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Zn

79. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:

Carbonion

Zwitterions

Carbonium ions

Free radicals

80. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

Has no chiral carbon

Has a sulphur containing R group

Cannot form a peptide bond

Is an essential amino acid

81. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

Ammonia and carbon dioxide

Urea and uric acid

A mixture of amino acids

Glycogen and a fatty acid

82. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is

Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon

Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)

Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)

Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

83. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex

Cationic

Anionic

Trigonal

Neutral

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84. Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate

[(en)3Co]SO4

[Co(en)3SO4]

[SO4(en)3]Co

[Co(en)3]SO4

85. Glucose cannot be classified as

A hexose

An oligosaccharide

An aldose

A monosaccharide

86. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:

Cosmetic products

Porous chocolate

Some alloys

Fog

87. Find optical property

Diffusion

Osmosis

Electroosmosis

Absorption

88. Aerosol is

L/s

L/l

S/l

S/g

89. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:

Colloids;

Gas mixtures;

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Saturated solutions;

Alloys.

Test System1

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1. Thermodynamics studies

General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.

Energy changes during chemical transformations.

The rate of chemical reactions.

Emergence
Chemical of dregs;that
processes decreasing of osmotic
cause electrons topressure;
move. changing of electrical conductance and viscosity;

Process of particles integration;


2. Stability of a disperse system is:
Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;

The material
Constancy to conduct
in time heat. and main properties.
of its state

Heat is transferred from one place to another.


3. What is the thermal conductivity?
The radiation transmitted even void (sun).

None
On theofcrushing
them. of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a liquid;

On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;


4. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;

Negatively
On charged; from a precipitation using peptizator.
the sol obtaining

Positively charged;
5. A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:
Electro neutral;

Negatively and positively charged.

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6. Milk is a colloid in which

A liquid is dispersed in liquid

A solid is dispersed in liquid

A gas is dispersed in liquid

Some sugar is dispersed in water

7. Which of the following is an emulsifier?

Soap

Water

Oil

NaCl

8. Lyophobic colloids are

Reversible colloids

Irreversible colloids

Protective colloids

Gum proteins

9. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

Linear

Curved

Zigzag

Uncertain

10. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the particles?

Dialysis

Electrophoresis

Sedimentation

Ultrafiltration

11. What is the endothermic process?

Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components

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Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

12. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?

Heterogeneous, homogeneous

Open, Closed, Isolated

Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

Endothermic reactions

13. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law

∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6

ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)

Q= ΔU+ W

ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

14. System consisting of one phase is called

Heterogeneous

Homogeneous

Isolated

Open

15. Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Qp

16. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?

Monomolecular

Dimolecular

Trimolecular

Radical reaction

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17. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

Monomolecular

Dimolecular

Radical reaction

Trimolecular

18. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

Reactions proceeding simultaneously.

19. Enzymes isais a substance that …

Increase the rate of reaction

Decrease the rate of reaction

Biological catalyst of reaction

No effect on the reaction rate

20. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

A sol

A gel

An emulsion

A foam

21. Reversible reactions are called?

A change that can go forwards or backwards

A change that cannot go back,

Process of substance dissolution

Reactions proceeding in parallel

22. Which of these reactions are monomolecular

2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl

2HI → H2 + I2
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I2 → I • + I •

23. Which of these reactions are dimolecular.

N2O4 → 2NO2

O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20

C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

24. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?2NO + O2→2NO2

Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]

Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2

Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]

Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

25. Butter is

Emulsion

Aerosol

Suspension

None

26. Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called

Aerosol

Cannot be prepared

Gas aerosol

Gasosol

27. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration

Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration

Aqueous solution of odium chloride

Aqueous solution of sugar

28. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison to those shown by true solutions of
same concentration because of colloidal particles ____________
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Exhibit enormous surface area

Remain suspended in the dispersion medium

Form lyophilic colloids

Are comparatively less in number

29. Which element is present in all organic compounds?

Carbon

Nitrogen

Oxygen

Phosphorous

30. Which compounds are isomers?

1-propanol and 2-propanol

Methanoic acid and ethanoic acid

Methanol and methanal

Ethane and ethanol

31. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

An addition reaction

A substitution reaction

A saponification reaction

An esterification reaction

32. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

2.04 N

0.49 N

0.98 N

0.35 N

33. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

10

18

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100

34. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

C3H7COCH3;

CH3COOC2H5;

C2H5OC2H5;

CH3COOH.

35. Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

C2H6;

C3H6;

C4H6;

C6H6.

36. A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

Carbon dioxide;

Water;

Glycerol;

Ethanol.

37. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature

Vant Hoff

Mendeleev

Arrhenius

Lomonosov

38. “Activation energy” term is introduced by

Coordination theory

Theory of valent bonds

Theory of active collisions

Theory of electrolytic dissociation

39. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is

Molality
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Percentage

Concentration

Molarity

40. A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

Propanol;

Butanol;

Pentanol;

Glycerol

41. Which of the following is not a solution?

Zinc

Sterling silver

Brass

Stainless steel

42. Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

C2H2;

C2H4;

C3H6;

C3H8.

43. Which formula represents an acid?

CH3COOCH3;

CH3OH;

CH3COOH;

CH3CH2CH3.

44. Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and formic acid. This type of reaction is
called

Fermentation;

Esterification;

Saponification;

Polymerization.
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45. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.

Percent by mass

Molarity

Molality

Mole fraction

46. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is

Percent by mass

Molality

Molarity

Mole fraction

47. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

-COOH;

-OR;

-CHO;

#NAME?

48. The isomers of propanol differ in

The number of carbon atoms;

The arrangement of the carbon atoms;

Molecular mass;

The position of functional group.

49. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number of solute particles and not their nature. They are:

Vapor pressure lowering;

Density;

Viscosity;

Diffusion.

50. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

Polymerization;

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Substitution;

Addition;

Esterification.

51. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?

OH- and H2O;

HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-;

HCl and Cl-;

NH3 and NH4+;

52. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF;

2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2;

2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2

K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

53. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given temperature is classified as:

Unsaturated;

Supersaturated;

Saturated

Dilute

54. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

1.5 m NaCl;

1.5 m AgCl;

2.0 m C6H12O6;

2.0 m CaCl2

55. Functional Group of Amine:

C – NR – R’

O = C – OH

H–C=O

C – OH

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56. Functional Group of Amide:

O = C – OH

C – NR – R’

H–C=O

HOC – NR – R’

57. Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in

H2SO3

SO2

H2SO4

H2S

58. Functional Group of Nitrile:

- C≡N

O = C – OH

C – NR – R’

HOC – NR – R’

59. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:

H2S

SO3

H2O2

F2

60. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :

O3

KMnO4

H2O2

K2Cr2O7

61. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O

X=2 y=4 z=10

X=2 y=6 z=5

X=2 y=3 z=8


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X=2 y=3 z=10

62. The strongest reducing agent is

HNO2

H2S

H2SO3

SnCl2

63. Which of the following is an insulator?

Graphite

Aluminium

Diamond

Silicon

64. Choose peptide bond

-CO-NH-

–S-S-

H2N–CH2–

-C-C-

65. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

Oxidation

Reduction

Esterification

Transamination

66. Components of nucleotide

Protein

Amine acid rest

OH

Thymine

67. Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called

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Transamination

Oxidation

Reduction

Decarboxylation

68. Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides

Glycozides

Acids

Polyols

Salts

69. Point out the coekcient before the reducing agent in the following equation:K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O

14

70. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

Fe2O3 + HCl;

FeCl3+H2S;

Fe+ HCl;

SO3+NaOH.

71. RNA contains

Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine

Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine

Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine

Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

72. Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine

Neutral

Acidic

Basic

Slightly Polar
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73. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

It allows ion migration;

It allows neutron migration;

It allows electron migration;

It prevents ion migration;

74. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine

Essential

Non-essential

Semi- essential

None of them

75. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine

Aliphatic

Aromatic

Heterocyclic

Complex

76. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

More unsaturation

Higher melting points

A glycerol backbone

Longer fatty acids

77. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

12 carbons

14 carbons

16 carbons

18 carbons

78. Zwitterion is

An ion that is positively charged in solution

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An ion that is negatively charged in solution

A compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid

A carbohydrate with an electrical charge

79. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:

80. The coordination number is:

The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion

The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion

The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom

The number of positively charged particles in the complex

81. Glycine is

NH2CH2COOH

NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2

NO2 CH2CH2 COOH

Br CH2 COOH

82. Ethylenediamine would be called

Dentate

Bidentate

Tridentate

Tetradentate

83. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

Has no chiral carbon

Has a sulphur containing R group

Cannot form a peptide bond

Is an essential amino acid

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84. Name the following coordination compound: [Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3

Triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride

Triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride

Triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

Amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

85. Which of the following are bidentate ligands? (1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide (2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2- (3)
chloride, Cl- (6) en

1, 4, 5

1, 5, 6

1, 6

2, 3, 4, 5

86. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?

1+

2+

3+

87. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?

-2

88. Donor of electrons in coordination compound

Central ion

Outer sphere ions

Ligands

None

89. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of

Rate of reaction

Donor-acceptor interaction
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Protons number

Electrostatic model

90. Disperse systems consists of:

Dispersion medium, dispersed phase

Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols

Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions

Sol, gel

91. Glucose cannot be classified as

A hexose

An oligosaccharide

An aldose

A monosaccharide

92. What is the aerosol?

It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.

It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually immiscible liquid.

It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.

It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

93. Gels are:

Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.

Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.

Blood, lymph.

Blood, jelly, marmalade.

94. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:

Medical products

Colored glass

Pumice

Fog

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95. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:

Soil

Moist soil

Rocks

Fog

96. Colloid particles have sizes of

Greater than 10 -3 cm

10 -5 - 10 -3 m

10 -7 - 10 -5 m

Less than 10 -7 m

97. Optical property typical to colloid systems

Reflection

Absorption

Scattering

Diffusion

98. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

Positive

Negative

Without charge

Zero

99. Optical property typical to coarse systems

Reflection

Absorption

Scattering

Diffusion

100. Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one

Absorption
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Osmosis

Brownian movement

Diffusion

Test System1

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Question
23. 23 (1/24)
24. 24
Which of the following solutions of H2SO4 is more concentrated?

Options
1 Molar solution
1 molal solution
1 normal solution
All have same concentration

Which of the following unit of concertration is independent of temperature?

Options
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction
All

Which of the following is an example of liquid in gas solution.

Options
Opals
PrevDust particles in smoke
SkipPaints
NextFog

The molal boiling point constant is the ration of the elevation of boiling point to

Options
Molarity
Molality
More fraction of solvent
Mole fraction of solute

Which has the minimum freezing point?

Options
One MolalNaCI
One molal KCI solution
One molal CaCI2
One molal urea solution

Which of the following is not a colligative property?

Options
Lowering of vapour pressure
Freezing point
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of polling point

When common salt is dissolved in water?

Options
Boiling point of water decrease
Boiling point of water increase
Boiling point of water remains same
None of the above

Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two compounds is called

Options
Solution
Compound
Radical
Ion

The component of solution which is in smaller amount is called

Options
Solvent
Solute
Phase
Ion

Solution with maximum concentration of solute at given temperature is called

Options
Super saturated solution
Unsaturated solution
Saturated solution
Dilute solution

Number of moles in 1 kg of solvent is called

Options
Normality
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction

58.5g of ofNaCl per 1 dm3 of solution of NaCl in water the concentration of solution will be

Options
0.1 M
1m
1M
0.1 N

If the volume of solution is equal to sum of volumes of its all components then the solution

Options
Will be an ideal solution
Will be non-ideal solution
Will show deviations from Raoults law
Both b & c

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is

Options
Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
Directly proportional to the mole fraction of solute
Both b & c

Concentration of solute molecule when they are in equilibrium with solid substance at particular
temperature is called

Options
Saturated solution
Solubility
Unsaturated solution
Super saturated solution

The determination of correct molecular weight from Raoults law is applicable to

Options
A volatile solute in dilute solution
A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solution
A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solute
Non volatile solute in a dilute solution

The compounds in which water molecules are added are called

Options
Hydrated ions
Double salts
Hydrates
Complexes

Hydration is a process in which

Options
Molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
Ions are surrounded by solvent molecules
Both ions and molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
Both ions and molecules are surrounded by water molecules

Solution of Na2SO4 will be

Options
Basic
Acidic
Neutral
Cannot be predicted without data

1 molar solution of glucose in water contains weight of glucose

Options
180g/dm3
170g/dm3
190g/dm3
195g/dm3

Water of crystallization can be removed by

Options
Drying
Heating
Evaporation
All of the above

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to molality if the solution is

Options
Concentrated
Dilute
Saturated solution
All of the above

Which one of the following salt does not hydrolyzed

Options
Na2SO4
AlCl3
CuSO4
NH4Cl
The molar concentration is called?

Options
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution
The mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
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Question
23. 23 (1/101)
24. 24
Which
25. 25change is oxidation?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Gain
28 of electrons
29.Gain
29 of hydrogen
30.Loss
30 of oxygen
31.Loss
31 of electrons
32. 32
33. 33change is reduction?
Which
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.A 36
decrease in oxidation state
37. 37
Gain of oxygen
38. 38
39.Loss
39 of electrons
40.Loss
40 of hydrogen
41. 41
What
42. 42is the oxidation state of chromium in the CrO3-2
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.+345
46.-346
Prev
47. 47
Skip+6
48. 48
Next-6
49. 49
50. 50
Magnesium displace lead ions from solution lead(II) sulfate. Which statement about this reaction
51. 51
is true?
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Lead
54 (II) ions are oxidized.
55. 55
56.Magnesium
atoms are oxidised.
56
57.Lead
57 (II) ions lose electrons.
58.Magnesium
58 atoms gain electrons .
59. 59
Which
60. 60one of the following substance is reducing agent?
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.Argon
63
64.Oxygen
64
65. 65
66.Carbon
66 dioxide
67.Carbon
67 monoxide
68. 68
Which
69. 69compound, when added to aqueous iron(II) sulphate, takes part in a redox reaction?
70. 70
Options
71. 71
72.Ammonia
72
73.Barium
73 chloride
74.Acidified
74 potassium manganate (VII)
75.Sodium
75 hydroxide
76. 76
77. 77 potassium dichromate (VI) can be used to detect the presence of ethanol vapour in the
Acidified
78. 78of a person who consumed alcohol. A color change from orange to green is absolved if
breach
79. 79 is present. This shows that ethanol is
ethanol
80. 80
81. 81
Options
82.An82alkali
83. 83
An indicator
84. 84
85.An85oxidizing agent
86.A 86
reducing agent
87. 87
Which
88. 88of the following bases has the highest pKa value
89. 89
Options
90. 90
91.NaOH
91
92.NaNO3
92
93.KNO3
93
94.KCl
94
95. 95
96. 96
What is the oxidation state of sulphur in SO3-2
97. 97
98. 98
Options
99.-499
100. 100
+2
101. 101
+4
+6

In which reaction is the first substance acting as a reducing agent?

Options
Chlorine + iron(II) chloride ---> iron(III) chloride
Copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ---> copper + water
Hydrochloric acid + magnesium oxide ---> magnesium chloride + water
Carbon monoxide + zinc oxide ---> zinc + carbon dioxide

Hydrogen peroxide, H2O2 reacts with silver oxide according to the following equation/ Ag2O(s) +
H2O2(l) = 2Ag(s) + H2O(l) + O2(g) in this reaction hydrogen peroxide behaves as
Options
A catalyst
A dehydrating agent
An oxidising agent
A reducing agent

What is the oxidation number of an iron atom in Fe2O3?

Options
+6
+3
-3
-2

What is the oxidation of xenon in XeF6?

Options
-6
-1
+6
-7

What is the oxidation number of an As atom in AsO4-3(aq)?

Options
+5
+9
+1
-7

Which represents an oxidation reaction?

Options
NaNO3 + KCl -> NaCl + KNO3
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
Cl2 + 2e--> 2 Cl-
K -> K+ + e-

Which represents a reduction reaction?

Options
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
Cl2 + 2 e--> 2 Cl-
K -> K+ + e-

In the electrolysis of water, which reaction occurs at the cathode?

Options
2 H2(g) + O2(g)  2 H2O(g)
2 02-(aq)  O2(g) + 4 e-
2 H2O(l)  4 H+(aq) + 2 02-(aq)
2 H+(aq) + 2 e- H2(g)

Which process / equation pair occurs at the cathode when iron hinges are plated with copper?

Options
Reduction, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
Reduction, Cu2+ + 2 e- Cu(s)
Oxidation, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
Oxidation, Cu2+ (aq) + 2 e- Cu(s)

Balance the following oxidation-reduction equation: Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq)  Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)

Options
Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq)    Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
2Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq)    2Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
2Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq)    2Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)
Sn2+(aq) + 2Ce4+(aq)    Sn4+(aq) + 2Ce3+(aq)

The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is __.

Options
+1
-1
+2
-2

Which of the following statements about corrosion are NOT true?

Options
A car rusts because steel reacts with water and oxygen in the air.
When iron rusts electrons are lost from the metal.
Plating metal speeds up the oxidation process.
Adding zinc metal strips to iron metals prevents corrosion.

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, __________ is oxidized. (acidic solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the oxidizing agent. (acidic
solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the reducing agent. (acidic
solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, the coefficient of water is ________. (acidic
solution)

Options
0
2
4
8

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is oxidized. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is reduced. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, _________ is the reducing agent. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, the coefficient of water is ________. (basic
solution)

Options
1
4
3
6

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31 (acidic solution), __________ is oxidized.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the oxidizing agent.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), the coefficient of water is
________.

Options
5
4
3
2

In the balanced reaction Cr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2 (basic solution) __________ is oxidized.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+22 (basic solution), _________ is the oxidizing
agent.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), the coefficient of water is
________.

Options
1
2
3
0

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3 (acidic solution), __________ is oxidized.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the oxidizing agent.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), the coefficient of water is

Options
0
1
2
3

Which one of these reactions is heterogeneous?

Options
CaO(s) + CO2(g) = CaCO3
KOH(sol) + HNO3(sol) = KNO3(sol) + H2O(l)
H2 + N2 = NH3
NH3 + O2 = N2 + H2O(g)

Which one of these reactions is homogeneous?

Options
K(s) + H2O(l) = KOH(sol) + H2(g)
N2(g) + H2(g) = NH3(g)
BaCl2(sol) + H2SO4(sol) =BaSO4(s) + 2HC1 (sol);
Fe + H2SO4 = FeSO4 + H2;

Find an endothermic reaction:

Options
N2 + Н2 = NH3- ΔH
SO2 + O2+ ΔH= SO3
С + О2 = СО2- ΔH
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

Which one of these reactions is redox reaction?

Options
Аl + Сl2= АlСl3
ВаСО3 = ВаО + СО2
Ba(NO3)2 + K2SO4= BaSO4 + KNO3
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2

Find irreversible reaction:

Options
H2 + N2 = NH3
NaOH + HCl = NaCl + H2O
SO2 + O2 = SO3
N2O4 = NO2

Number of reaction products always greater than number of reactants if it is:

Options
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
Reaction of substitution
Reaction of direct combination

Number of reaction products always less than number of reactants if it is:

Options
Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
Reaction of direct combination
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of substitution

Redox reactions in inorganic chemistry are always:

Options
Reactions of decomposition
Reactions of exchange (metathesis)
Reactions of substitution
Reactions of direct combination

Redox reactions are cannot be:

Options
Reactions of substitution
Reactions of exchange
Reactions of decomposition
Reactions of direct combination
Reaction, that goes without changes in oxidation numbers of atoms in compound, is:

Options
Reaction of exchange
Reaction of direct combination
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of substitution

The exchange reaction goes between:

Options
Simple and complex substances
Two simple substances
Two complex substances;
It can be both pair of simple and pair of complex substances

The products of decomposition reaction are:

Options
Only simple substances
Only complex substances
Both: and simple substances, and complex substances
Simple substance and complex substance.

Find redox reaction of substitution:

Options
СаСO3 = СаO + СО2
Н2O2= Н2O + O2
Cu + O2 = CuO
NaHCO3 = Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

Find redox reaction of direct combination:

Options
SO2 + O2 = SO3
NO2 + Н2O= HNO3 + NO
Н2O2= Н2O + O2
SO2 + NaOH = NaHSO3

At the same time reaction CANNOT be:

Options
Reaction of exchange and redox reaction
Redox reaction and decomposition
Substitution and redox
Direct combination and redox

Reactions, that can be homogeneous, are:


Options
Only exchange reactions
Only direct combination reactions
Only decomposition reactions
Every single one of them and substitution reactions.

Choose most common requirement for reaction to be homogeneous:

Options
Products are in one phase
Reactants are in one phase
Reactants and product are both in same phase
Reactants and product are both in gaseous state

Find heterogeneous reactions:

Options
CaO(s) + CO2(s) = CaCO3(s)
CO(g) + O2(g) = CO2(g)
NO2(g) + H2O(l) + O2(g) = HNO3(l
SO3(l) + H2O(l) = H2SO4(l)

Find redox decomposition reaction:

Options
Cu(NO3)2(s) = CuO(s) + NO2(g) + O2(g)
SO3(g) = SO2(g) + O2(g)
NH4NO3(g) = N2O(g) + H2O
Cu + O2 = CuO

Choose the heterogeneous redox reaction:

Options
Na(s) + H2O(l) = NaOH(sol) + H2(g)
NO2(g) + CO(g) = N2(g) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + N2O(g) = N2(g) + H2O(g)
SO3(g) = SO2(g) + O2(g)

There are reactions for SO2 obtaining:

Options
FeS2(s) + O2(g) = Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g)
NaHSO3(sol) + HCl(sol) = NaCl(sol) + H2O(l) + SO3(g)
S(s) + O2(g) = SO2(g)
Fe2(SO4)3(s) = Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + O2(g)

Among them redox reactions are:

Options
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 3, 4

Choose half-reaction for reduction process:

Options
С0 – 4e = С+4
N+5 + 2e = N+3
H2 – 2e = 2H+1
2S-1 – 10e = 2S+4

Choose half-reaction for reduction process:

Options
H02 – 2e = 2H+1
O20 + 4e = 2O-2
N-3 -5e = N+2
2O-1 – 2e = O20

Find half-reaction, where atoms of nitrogen are acting as reduction agents:

Options
H02 + 2e = 2H-1
H02 – 2e = 2H+1
N+5 + 2e = N+3
N-3 -5e = N+2

Find half-reaction, where atoms of sulfur are acting as oxidation agents:

Options
S0 – 4e = S+4
S+6 + 8e = S-2
2S-1 – 10e = 2S+4
S+4 + 4e = S0

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of sulfur changes from -1 to +4:

Options
H2SO4 + Cu = CuSO4 + SO2 + H2O
FeS2 + O2 = Fe2O3 + SO2
H2S + O2 = SO2 + H2O
KHS + HCl = KCl + H2S

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of nitrogen changes from -3 to 0:

Options
NH3 + O2 = NO + H2O
NO2 + H2O + O2 = HNO3
NH4NO2 = N2 +H2O
NH4NO3 = N2O + H2O

Choose reaction where oxidation number of carbon atom is increasing:

Options
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 = CaCO3 + H2O
CaO + CO2 = CaCO3
CO + Fe2O3 = Fe + CO2
CO2 + Mg = Mg + C

Choose reaction where oxidation number of chlorine atom is increasing:

Options
Cl2 + Fe = FeCl3
KClO3 = KCl + O2
Cl2 + KI = KCl + I2
KCl + F2 = KF + Cl2

Which one is oxidation process?

Options
Cl2 → 2 ClO-
NO2- → NO
Cr2O72- → 2CrO42-
SO32-→ H2S

Which one is oxidation process?

Options
HPO42- → H2PO4-
SO32-→ H2S
MnO4- → MnO42-
Cr2O72- → 2Cr3+

Sulfur is reduction agent in reaction with:

Options
Cu
Cl
P
H2

Phosphorus is oxidation agent when reacts with:

Options
Ca
S
O2
Cl

Oxidation properties of halogens increasing from left to right in line:

Options
I2, F2, Cl2
I2, Cl2, F2
Br2, F2, Cl2
F2, Cl2, I2

Which substance in redox reaction maintains only reduction properties?

Options
Nitrogen
Sulfur
Sodium
Phosphorus

Strongest oxidation agent, among simple substances is:

Options
Oxygen
Fluorine
Nitrogen
Aurum

Oxidation properties of substances increasing from left to right in line:

Options
C, S, O2
O2, S, C
Si, F2, I2
P, O2,S

Coefficient “2” before SO2 should be placed in redox reaction:

Options
Ag + HNO3 = Ag2SO4 + SO2 + H2O
Cu + H2SO4 = CuSO4 + SO2 + H2O
SO2 + H2S = S + H2O
SO2 + O2 = SO3

In redox reactions, Ag + HNO3 = AgNO3 + NO + H2O Cu + HNO3 = Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O NO2 + O2
+ H2O = HNO3 Mg + HNO3 = Mg(NO3)2 + NH4NO3 + H2O coefficient “4” before HNO3 should be
placed

Options
2,3,4
1,2,3
1,2,4
1,3,4

In process S+6→S-2, sulfur atoms are:

Options
Lose their electrons, oxidize
Receive electrons, oxidize
Lose their electrons, reduce
Receive electrons, reduce

In process N-3→N+2, sulfur atoms are:

Options
Lose their electrons, oxidize
Lose their electrons, reduce
Receive electrons, oxidize
Receive electrons, reduce

For process S-2→S+4 corresponds reaction:

Options
2NaOH + SO2 = Na2SO3 + H2O
2H2S + O2 = 2H2O + 2S
2H2S + 3O2 = 2H2O + 2SO2
Cu + 2H2SO4 = CuSO4 + 2SO2 + 2H2O

Process PbS→PbSO4 corresponds to:

Options
S+4 – 2e = S+6
S-2 – 8e = S+6
S0 + 2e = S-2
S0 + 4e = S-4

Which process reflects by 2O-1 – 2e = O20?

Options
H2O = H2 + O2
CuS + O2 = CuO + SO2
H2O2 + PbS = H2O + PbSO4
H2O2 + KMnO4 + H2SO4 = O2 + MnSO4 + K2SO4 + H2O

Which pair of half-reactions correct for Cl2 + KOH = KCl + KClO3 + H2O?

Options
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 3e = Cl+3
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 7e = Cl+7
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 5e = Cl+5
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 + 5e = Cl+5
Under oxidation, oxidation number of atom is

Options
Will decrease
Will increase
Stay same
Can increase and decrease

Process of reduction occurs when:

Options
Neutral atoms transforms into cations
Neutral atoms transforms into anions
Positive charge of simple ion increases
Negative charge of simple ion increases

Find reaction where oxidation agent receives 5 electrons.

Options
MnO2 + 4H+ = Mn2+ + 4H2O
MnO4 + 8H+ = Mn2+ + 4H2O
N2 + 4OH- = 2NO + 2H2O
N2 + 4 H2O = 2NH2OH + 2OH-

Under reduction, oxidation number of atom is

Options
Willincrease
Will decrease
Stay same
Can increase and decrease

Process of oxidation occurs when:

Options
Neutral atoms transforms into cations
Neutral atoms transforms into anions
Positive charge of simple ion decreases
Negative charge of simple ion

Find reaction where water is oxidation agent:

Options
Cl2 + H2O = HCl + HClO3
Ca + H2O = Ca(OH)2 + H2
CaC2 + H2O = Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
NO2 + H2O + O2 = HNO3

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of nitrogen changes from 0 to -2:


Options
N2 + 4H2O = N2H4 + 4OH-
N2 + 4H2O = 2NH2OH + 2OH-
N2 + 6H+ = 2NH3
N2 + 8H+ = 2NH4+

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of chlorine changes from 0 to +7:

Options
HCl + 2H2O = ClO2 + 5H+
Cl2 + 6H2O = 2ClO3- + 12H+
Cl2 + 8H2O = 2ClO4- + 16H+
2HCl + H2O = Cl2O + 4H+

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of chromium changes from +6 to 0:

Options
CrO42- + 4H+ = CrO2- + 2H2O
CrO42- + 4H2O = Cr(OH)3 + 5OH-
Cr2O72- + 14H+ = 2Cr3+ + 7H2O
Cr2O42- + 8H+ = Cr + 4H2O

Find reaction where hydrogen peroxide is reduction agent:

Options
H2O2 + 2H+ = 2H2O
H2O2 = O2 + 2H+
PbS + H2O2 = PbSO4 + H2O
Na2SO3 + H2O2 = Na2SO4 + H2O

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of phosphorus changes from +3 to 0:

Options
H3PO3 + 2H+ = H3PO2 + H2O
H3PO4 + 4H+ = H3PO2 + 2H2O
5НСlО3 + 6Р = 6Н3РО4 + 5НСl
PO43- + 2H2O = HPO32- + 2OH-
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Question
23. 23 (1/58)
24. 24
In25.
which
25 of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.H3PO4
28 and H2SO4
29.HCl
29 and HNO3
30.H2CO3
30 and HBr
31.HC2H3O2
31
and HI
32. 32
In33. 33 of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair weak acids?
which
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.H2SO4
36 and HC2H3O2
37. 37
HNO3 and H2C4H4O6
38. 38
39.HC2H3O2
39 and H3C6H5O7
40.H3PO4
40 and H2SiO3
41. 41
Which
42. 42of the following is produced in the first step of the dissociation of the acid H3PO4?
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.H3PO3
45
46. 46
PrevH2PO4–
47. 47
SkipHPO42–
48. 48
NextPO43–
49. 49
50. ionization
Acid 50 constants give information about
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.The
53 strengths of acids.
54. 54
55.The
55 number of nonacidic hydrogens present in acids.
56.Whether
56 acids are polyprotic.
57.Whether
57 acids can neutralize bases
58. 58
In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

Options
H2SO4 and BaSO4
NaCl and NaOH
NH4Cl and KCl
HNO3 and KOH

In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base will react
in a molar ratio of

Options
One to one
One to three.
Three to one
Three to three.

A solution with a pH of 12.0 is

Options
Strongly acidic.
Weakly acidic
Weakly basic
Strongly basic

The pH of a solution for which [OH–] = 1.0 x 10–6 is

Options
1.00
8.00
6.00
–6.00

Which of the following does not describe an acidic solution?

Options
The pH is less than 7.0
The [OH–] is greater than 1.0 x 10–7
The [H3O+] is greater than the [OH–]
The [OH–] is 6.0 x 10–10

In which of the following pairs of salts will both members of the pair hydrolyze in water to give
solutions that are basic?

Options
NaCl and NaCN
NH4Cl and NH4NO3
KC2H3O2 and KCN
NaNO3 and Na2SO4

If the pH of a solution of a salt is 5.0, the salt must be one which could be formed from the
neutralization of

Options
A strong acid and a strong base.
A weak acid and a strong base.
A strong acid and a weak base.
HCl and NaOH.

If a solution is buffered at a pH of 8.0, then the addition of a small amount of acid will cause the
solution to have a pH of approximately

Options
6.0.
7.0.
8.0.
9.0.

A buffer solution could be prepared from

Options
NaCl and HCl
NaOH and HCl
KC2H3O2 and HC2H3O2.
NaCN and KCN

In which of the following pairings of compounds are both members of the pair strong
electrolytes?

Options
NaOH and NaCl
NH3 and HCl
KOH and H2CO3
NaCN and HCN

In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?

Options
HNO3 and HNO2
H2SO4 and H2SO3
HCl and HClO4
No correct response

Which of the following statements about weak acids is correct?

Options
Weak acids always contain C atoms
The percentage dissociation for weak acids is usually in the range of 40-60%.
Weak acid molecules readily lose their acidic hydrogen atoms.
No correct response

In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base will react
in a molar ratio of
Options
One to one
One to one
Three to one
Three to three

Which of the following equations represents an acid-base neutralization reaction?

Options
H2SO4 + Zn ZnSO4 + H2
HNO3 + KOH KNO3 + H2O
Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaOH
No correct response

In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

Options
NaCl and NaOH
KNO3 and K2SO4
H3PO4 and (NH4)3PO4
More than one correct response

Which of the following pairings of pH and hydronium ion concentration is correct?

Options
PH = 2.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 102
PH = 7.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 10–7
PH = 9.0; [H3O+] = 9 x 10–9
No correct response

Which of the following is a correct statement for a solution with a pH of 8.00?

Options
The hydroxide ion concentration is greater than the hydronium ion concentration
The hydronium ion concentration is 8.0 M
The hydroxide ion concentration is 1.0 x 10–8 M
No correct response

In which of the following salts would both the positive ion and the negative ion hydrolyze when
the salt is dissolved in water?

Options
NaCl
NaCN
NH4Cl
No correct response

The pH of a buffered solution

Options
Always equals 7.0.
May be acidic or basic depending on the buffer present.
Changes drastically when a small amount of acid is added
No correct response

Which of the following statements concerning electrolytes is correct?

Options
All strong acids are strong electrolytes
Some salts are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes.
Some molecular substances are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes
More than one correct response

Conjugate base of H3PO4

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Conjugate acid of HPO42–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Will form a buffer with PO43–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Reacts with H3O+ to form HPO42–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Diprotic weak acid

Options
HCl
HClO4
H2SiO3
H2SO4

Monoprotic strong acid

Options
HCl
HC2H3O2
H2C3H2O2
H2SO4

Acid which completely dissociates in solution to produce negative ions with a charge of one

Options
HCl
HC2H3O2
H2C3H2O2
H2SO4

Salt whose dissociation produces equal amounts of two ions

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance which reacts with H2SO4 to produce K2SO4

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance produced when HNO3 neutralizes NaOH

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance which reacts with NaOH to produce Na3PO4

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Salt whose dissociation produces more positive ions than negative ions

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

PH = 2.30

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

PH = 7.00

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

[H3O+] = 2.0 x 10–8 M

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

[OH–] = 3.0 x 10–-6 M

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaCl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaCN solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaOH solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NH4Cl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous HCl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Inorganic compounds divided in to:

Options
Simple, complex substances
Metals, nonmetals
Acid, base, salt, oxide
Metal, acid, simple substance

What is the oxides?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues.
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

What is the bases?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

What is the salts?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues

What is the acids?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen.
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

Complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them oxygen are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl group (OH) are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues are called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid residues are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Basic formula oxides?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula bases?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula salts?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula acids?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy
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Question (1/16)

Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the given….

Options
Protein
Lipids
Carbohydrate
Vitamins

In carbohydrates a special functional groups are present in the given following:

Options
Alcohol & Carboxyl groups
Aldehyde & Ketone groups
Hydroxyl groups & Hydrogen groups
Carboxyl groups & Others

Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of …

Options
L-type
PrevD-type
SkipDL-types
NextNone of the above

Simplest carbohydrate is ….

Options
Dihydroxy acetone
Glycerldehyde
Glucose
Gulose

Examples of Epimers….

Options
Glucose &Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
A&c
Fermentation is the degradation of complex organic substances into simpler ones by the activity
of living cells through the agency of ….

Options
Acid
Alkali
Oxidizing substances
Enzymes (Zymase)

The end product of hydrolysis of “Starch” by amylase is …

Options
Soluble starch
Glucose
Dextrins
Maltose

Structure or shape of something is known as its

Options
Structure
Morphology
Conformation
Shape

Glucose is a monosaccharide and is a

Options
Hexose
Pentose
Furanose
Sucrose

What is the relationship between glucose, mannose and galactose?

Options
They are isomers
They are epimers
They are ketoses
No relationship exists

What best describes amylose?

Options
Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

What best describes amylopectin?


Options
Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

What is the storage form of carbohydrate in animals?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch

Where is glycogen stored?

Options
In the kidney and liver
In the stomach and kidney
In the muscle and liver
In the muscle and stomach

What is the major constituent of plant cell wall?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch

What forms the exoskeleton of anthropods?

Options
Agarose
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch
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Question (1/313)
30. 30
31. 31
Thermodynamics studies
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.General
34 laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
35.Energy
35 changes during chemical transformations.
36.The
36 rate of chemical reactions.
37.Chemical
37 processes that cause electrons to move.
38. 38
By39. 39
interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:
40. 40
Options
41. 41
42.Thermal
42 conductivity, Convection, Radiation
43.Heterogeneous,
43 homogeneous
44.Open,
44 Closed, Isolated
45.Isochoric,
45 Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
46. 46
What
47. 47is the Open System?
48. 48
Options
49. 49
50.Matter
50 and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
51.Energy
51 but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
52.Neither
52 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
53.Homogeneous
53 in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
54. 54
What
55. 55is the Closed System?
56. 56
Options
57. 57
Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
58. 58
Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
59. 59
PrevEnergy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
60. 60
Skip
61.Neither
61 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
Next
62. 62
What is the Isolated System?
63. 63
64. 64
Options
65.Matter
65 and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
66. 66
Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
67. 67
Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
68. 68
Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
69. 69
70. 70
Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
71. 71
72. 72
Options
73.Open
73 System
74.Closed
74 System
75.Isolated
75 System
76.Adiabatic
76 System
77. 77
Energy
78. 78but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
79. 79
Options
80. 80
81.Open
81 System
82.Closed
82 System
83.Isolated
83 System
84.Adiabatic
84 System
85. 85
Neither
86. 86 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
Open System
89. 89
90.Closed
90 System
91.Isolated
91 System
92.Adiabatic
92 System
93. 93
Thermodynamic processes may be:
94. 94
95. 95
Options
96. 96
Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
97. 97
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
98. 98
Open, Closed, Isolated
99. 99
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
100. 100
101. 101
What is the Isothermal process?
102. 102
103. 103
Options
104.A 104
process during which the temperature T = const
105.A 105
process during which the pressure P = const
106.A 106
process during which the specific volume v = const
107. 107
A process during which the heat Q = 0
108. 108
109. 109
What is the Isobaric process?
110. 110
Options
111. 111
112.A 112
process during which the temperature T = const
113.A 113
process during which the pressure P = const
114.A 114
process during which the specific volume v = const
115.A 115
process during which the heat Q = 0
116. 116
What
117. 117
is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?
118. 118
Options
119. 119
120.A 120
process during which the temperature T = const
121.A 121
process during which the pressure P = const
122.A 122
process during which the specific volume v = const
123.A 123
process during which the heat Q = 0
124. 124
What
125. 125
is the adiabaticprocess?
126. 126
Options
127. 127
128.A 128
process during which the temperature T = const
129.A 129
process during which the pressure P = const
130.A 130
process during which the specific volume v = const
131.A 131
process during which the heat Q = 0
132. 132
A133.
process
133 during which the temperature T = const is called?
134. 134
Options
135. 135
Isothermal process
136. 136
137.Isobaric
137 process
138.Isochoric
138 (or isometric) process
139.Adiabaticprocess
139
140. 140
A process during which the pressure P = const is called?
141. 141
142. 142
Options
143. 143
Isothermal process
144. 144
Isobaric process
145. 145
146.Isochoric
146 (or isometric) process
147.Adiabaticprocess
147
148. 148
A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?
149. 149
150. 150
Options
151.Isothermal
151 process
152. 152
Isobaric process
153. 153
Isochoric (or isometric) process
154. 154
Adiabaticprocess
155. 155
156.basic
The 156 formula for Entropy;
157. 157
Options
158. 158
159.Q=∆U+A
159
160.H=U+pV
160
161.∆U161
= U(final) – U(initial)
162.S 162
= KlnW
163. 163
164. 164movement of colloidal particles is:
Chaotic
165. 165
Options
166. 166
167.Osmosis;
167
168.Diffusion;
168
169.Brownian
169 motion;
170.Coagulation
170 .
171. 171
Find
172. the
172 formula of Internal energy.
173. 173
Options
174. 174
175.Q=∆U+A
175
176.H=U+pV
176
177.∆U177
= U(final) – U(initial)
178. 178
∆S = S(initial) - S(final)
179. 179
180. 180energy is called?
Internal
181. 181
Options
182. 182
183.Sum
183of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
184.Heat
184 flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
185.Reactions
185 accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
186.The
186rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
187. 187
Colloidal
188. 188 dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:
189. 189
Options
190. 190
191.Aerosol;
191
192.Emulsion;
192
193.Sol;
193
194.Foam
194
195. 195
Sum
196. of
196all potential and kinetic energies of all components
197. 197
Options
198. 198
Internal energy
199. 199
Enthalpy
200. 200
201.Entropy;
201
Exothermic
202. 202 process
203. 203
Fog and smoke are:
204. 204
205. 205
Options
206. 206
Aerosols;
207. 207
Emulsions;
208. 208
Gels;
209. 209
Foams
210. 210
211. 211 is called?
Enthalpy
212. 212
213. 213
Options
214.Sum
214of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
215.Heat
215 flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
216. 216
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
217. 217
The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
218. 218
219.consists
Sol 219 of:
220. 220
Options
221. 221
222.Liquid
222 droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
223.Solid
223 particles dispersed throughout a gas;
224.Solid
224 particles dispersed in a liquid;
225.Liquid
225 droplets dispersed throughout another liquid
226. 226
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
227. 227
228. 228
Options
229. 229
Internal energy
230. 230
231.Enthalpy
231
Entropy
232. 232
233.Exothermic
233 process
234. 234
Stability of a disperse system is:
235. 235
236. 236
Options
237. 237
Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and
238. 238
viscosity;
239. 239
Process of particles integration;
240. 240
Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
241. 241
242.Constancy
242 in time of its state and main properties.
243. 243
The heat transfer are divided into
244. 244
245. 245
Options
246.Thermal
246 conductivity, Convection, Radiation
247. 247
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
248. 248
Open, Closed, Isolated
249. 249
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
250. 250
251. 251 stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:
Aggregate
252. 252
Options
253. 253
254.Coalescing
254 of particles;
255.Sedimentation
255 of particles;
256.Destruction
256 of particles;
257. 257
Subdivision of particles.
258. 258
259. 259
What is the thermal conductivity?
260. 260
Options
261. 261
262.The
262material to conduct heat.
263.Heat
263 is transferred from one place to another.
264.The
264radiation transmitted even void (sun).
265.None
265 of them.
266. 266
What is the convection?
267. 267
268. 268
Options
269. 269
270.The
270material to conduct heat.
271.Heat
271 is transferred from one place to another.
272.The
272radiation transmitted even void (sun).
273.None
273 of them.
274. 274
The
275.structure
275 of ironic hydroxide sol:
276. 276
Options
277. 277
278.{m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
278
279.{m[BaSO4]
279 n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
280.{m[BaSO4]
280 n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
281.{m[Au]
281 n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.
282. 282
What is the radiation?
283. 283
284. 284
Options
285. 285
The material to conduct heat.
286. 286
287.Heat
287 is transferred from one place to another.
288.The
288radiation transmitted even void (sun).
289.None
289 of them.
290. 290
According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
291. 291
292. 292
Options
293. 293
Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
294. 294
Precipitate and water;
295. 295
Mixture of gases;
296. 296
297.Atoms
297 and ions.
298. 298
Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?
299. 299
300. 300
Options
301.Julius
301 Robert von Mayer
302.Rudolf
302 Clausius
303. 303
Mendeleev
304. 304
Gibbs
305. 305
306. 306 phase of sparkling drinks is:
Disperse
307. 307
Options
308. 308
309.N2;
309
310.H2O;
310
311.CO2;
311
312. 312
O2.
313. 313
Aerosol is:

Options
Powder;
Dust cloud;
Hairspray;
All answers are right.

Biological gel is:

Options
Cartilage;
Air;
Clouds;
River water

The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:

Options
These are heterogeneous systems;
Particles are visible with the naked eye;
They are easily besieged;
All answers are right.

Coarse disperse system is:

Options
Solution;
Suspension;
Sol;
Gel.

Chromatography is:

Options
The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
A type of disperse systems;
A continuous phase;
The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:

Options
Surface tension;
Surface energy;
Internal energy;
Heat of dissolution.

Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:

Options
Fog;
Dust;
Smoke;
Steam.

Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:

Options
Color;
Transparence;
Size of particles;
Odor.

Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

Options
Liquid;
Solid;
Gas;
All answers are right

What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?

Options
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a
liquid;
On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

Options
Coarse dispersed;
Colloidal;
Molecular;
True solution.

Coagulation is:

Options
Chaotic movement of particles;
Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;
Destruction of the native protein structure;
The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby
separate from the continuous phase.

Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

Options
Viscosity, flowability;
Opalescence, light absorption;
Diffusion, Brownian motion;
Dissolution, swelling.

Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

Options
Opalescence;
Light absorption;
Electrodialysis;
Electrophoresis and electroosmosis
A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

Options
Negatively charged;
Positively charged;
Electro neutral;
Negatively and positively charged.

Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

Options
Diameter
Particle size
Radius
Solubility

The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

Options
Suspension> colloidal > true solution
True solution > suspension > colloidal
Suspension> colloidal = true solution
None of the above

Colloids can be purified by

Options
Peptization
Coagulation
Dialysis
Bredic arc method

Which is a natural colloid?

Options
Sodium chloride
Urea
Cane sugar
Blood

Which one of the following is not a colloid

Options
Milk
Blood
Ice cream
Urea solution

Milk is a colloid in which

Options
A liquid is dispersed in liquid
A solid is dispersed in liquid
A gas is dispersed in liquid
Some sugar is dispersed in water

An aerosol is a colloidal system of

Options
A liquid dispersed in a solid
A liquid dispersed in a gas
A gas dispersed in air
None of the above

Which of the following is a homogeneous system

Options
Muddy water
Bread
Concrete
A solution of sugar in water

Which of the following is an emulsifier?

Options
Soap
Water
Oil
NaCl

Lyophobic colloids are

Options
Reversible colloids
Irreversible colloids
Protective colloids
Gum proteins

Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

Options
Condensation
Dialysis
Diffusion through animal membrane
Addition of an electrolyte

Colloidal solutions are not purified by

Options
Dialysis
Electrodialysis
Ultrafiltration
Electrophoresis

Suspensions are

Options
Visible to naked eye
Not visible by any means
Invisible under electron microscope
Invisible through microscope

Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

Options
Gelatin
Sulphur
Gold
Carbon

Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

Options
Lyophilic sol
Associated colloid
Hydrophobic sol
Emulsion

The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

Options
Charge on their particles
A layer of medium of dispersion on their particles
The smaller size of their particles
The large size of their particles

Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

Options
The colloidal particles have positive charge
The colloidal particles have negative charge
The colloidal particles are solvated
There are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

Options
High concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained
Coagulation is reversible
Viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water
The charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive,
negative, or even zero
When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

Options
Light scattered by colloidal particles
Size of the particle
Shape of the particle
Relative size

Light scattering takes place in

Options
Solution of electrolyte
Colloidal solutions
Electrodialysis
Electroplating

Maximum coagulation power is in

Options
Na+
Ba2+
Al3+
Sn4+

The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

Options
Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+
Cl- , SO42- , PO43-
Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+
PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

Options
NaCl solution
Starch solution
Urea solution
FeCl3 solution

Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

Options
Linear
Curved
Zigzag
Uncertain

The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

Options
Photolysis
Dialysis
Pyrolysis
Peptisation

Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known as

Options
Electrolysis
Electrophoresis
Electrodyalysis
None of the above

Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the particles?

Options
Dialysis
Electrophoresis
Sedimentation
Ultrafiltration

Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

Options
Absorption
Tyndall effect
Flocculation
Paramagnetism

Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

Options
Accumulates in the surface of the other substance
Goes into the body of the other substance
Remains close to the other substance
Forms chemical bonds with other substences.

Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

Options
Colloidal S
Colloidal antimony
Colloidal gold
Colloidal platinum

As2S3 sol is

Options
Positive colloid
Negative colloid
Neutral colloid
None of the above

Which of the following is a colloid?

Options
Sugar solution
Urea solution
Silicic acid
NaCl solution

Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

Options
Smoke
Ink
Blood
Air

Milk is

Options
Fat dispersed in milk
Fat dispersed in water
Water dispersed in fat
Water dispersed in oil

Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

Options
Solid is dispersed in liquid
Liquid is dispersed in a solid
Gas is dispersed in a solid
Solid is dispersed in a solid

What is the endothermic process?

Options
Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

What is the exothermic process?

Options
Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


Options
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
Open, Closed, Isolated
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
Endothermic reactions

Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

Options
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
Open, Closed, Isolated
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
Exothermic reactions

Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Q= ΔU+ W

Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
Q= ΔU+ W
ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Q= ΔU+ W

System consisting of three phases is called

Options
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Isolated
Open

System consisting of one phase is called

Options
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Isolated
Open

What is the heterogeneous system?

Options
System consisting of three phases is called
Heat is transferred from one place to another.
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
System consisting of one phase is called

What is the homogeneous system?

Options
System consisting of three phases is called
Heat is transferred from one place to another.
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
System consisting of one phase is called

What are the units of energy?

Options
Volta
Pascal
Liter
Joule

Spontaneous process occurs only

Options
Without external energy
At constant temperature
In forward direction
With external energy help

Internal energy is ……

Options
Energy of system at constant pressure
Gibbs energy
Energy of system at constant volume
Measure of systems randomness

Enthalpy is expressed by following

Options
H = U + pV
∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
H = G + TS
Qp = ∆H
Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Options
A
G
Qp
H

Find state parametre

Options
Q
G
T
H

Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Options
Q
G
Qp
S

Find state parameter

Options
Q
G
V
H

For spontaneous processes

Options
∆H ≥ 0
∆S ≤ 0
∆G ≥ 0
∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics studies –

Options
Energy changes during chemical transformations.
The rate of chemical reactions.
General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
Of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

Butter is a colloid formed when

Options
Fat is dispersed in water
Fat globules are dispersed in water
Water is dispersed in fat
None of the above

Which of the following is not a colloid?

Options
Chlorophyll
Smoke
Ruby glass
Milk

Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?

Options
Monomolecular
Dimolecular
Trimolecular
Radical reaction

Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

Options
Muddy water
Bread
Concrete
A solution of sugar in water

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

Options
Monomolecular
Radical reaction
Dimolecular
Trimolecular

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

Options
Monomolecular
Dimolecular
Radical reaction
Trimolecular

What is the Monomolecular reaction?

Options
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

What is theDimolecular Reaction?

Options
Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Conjugate reactions.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

What is theTrimolecular reaction?

Options
Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
Reactions proceeding simultaneously.

A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

Options
Gel
Homogeneous solution
Sol
Aerosol

Enzymes isais a substance that …

Options
Increase the rate of reaction
Decrease the rate of reaction
Biological catalyst of reaction
No effect on the reaction rate

If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

Options
A sol
A gel
An emulsion
A foam

A substance that increases the reaction rate-

Options
Catalyst
Indicator
Inhibitor
Reducing agents.

A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as


Options
Foam
Sol
Aerosol
Emulsion

A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

Options
Catalyst
Inhibitor
Enzymes
Indicator

Reversible reactions are called?

Options
A change that can go forwards or backwards
A change that cannot go back,
Process of substance dissolution
Reactions proceeding in parallel

Irreversible reactions are called?

Options
A change that can go forwards or backwards
A change that cannot go back,
Reactions proceeding in parallel
Process of substance dissolution

The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

The reactions that cannot go back is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

A material that dissolves is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

Which of these reactions are monomolecular

Options
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
I2 → I • + I •

Which of these reactions are monomolecula

Options
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
Cl2 → 2Cl
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2

Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

Options
CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

Which of these reactions are dimolecular

Options
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
2HI → H2 + I2
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

Which of these reactions are dimolecular.

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
Which of these reactions are dimolecula

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
N2O4 → 2NO2

Emulsifiers are generally

Options
Soap
Synthetic detergents
Lyophilic sols
All of the above

The equilibrium constant for the reaction? 2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):

Options
Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2];
Kc = [CO2] / [CO];
Kc = 1 / [CO2];
Kc = [CO] / [CO2]

What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?2NO + O2→2NO2

Options
Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction? N2 +3H2 =
2NH3

Options
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is

Options
K= [O2]
K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
K= [NaNO3 ]

Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is

Options
K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
K = [CO2 ]
K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?

Options
Backward
Forward
Won’t shifted
Towards reactants

The rate constant of a reactions depends on

Options
Temperature
Initial concentration of the reactants
Time of reaction
Extent of reaction

The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the

Options
Concentration of the reactant
Concentration of the product
Time
Temperature

A catalyst is a substance which

Options
Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
Supplies energy to the reaction

The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

Options
Stability
Molecular weight
Equivalent weight
Active mass

In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

Options
Same
Different
One side more
Not definite

Butter is

Options
Emulsion
Aerosol
Suspension
None

A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

Options
Unequal
Constant
Equal
Increased

The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium is
termed as

Options
Aerosol
Gel
Emulsion
Foam

The law of mass action was enunciated by

Options
Guldberg and Waage
Bodenstein
Berthlot
Graham

Which one of an example of gel?

Options
Soap
Fog
Cheese
Milk
According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction will
N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

Options
Increase the yield of NO
Decrease by yield of NO
Not effect on the yield of NO
Not help the reaction to proceed

Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called

Options
Aerosol
Cannot be prepared
Gas aerosol
Gasosol

Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g) Why is the reaction slower when a single
piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the same mass is used?

Options
The powdered zinc is more concentrated;
The single piece of zinc is more reactive;
The powdered zinc requires less activation energy;
The powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

Options
Increases
Decreases;
Remains the same;
Approaches zero

Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

Options
The number of moles of the reactants and products;
The potential energies of the reactants and products;
The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;
The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.

When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is called

Options
Smoke
Clouds
Jellies
Emulsions
Milk is an example of

Options
Pure solution
Emulsion
Gel
Suspension

The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

Options
Electro-osmosis
Brownian movement
Cataphoresis
Dialysis

Tyndall effect will be observed in

Options
Solution
Precipitate
Sol
Vapour

Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

Options
Scattering of light
Reflection of light
Absorption of light
Presence of electrically charged particles

The Brownian motion is due to

Options
Temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase
Attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles
Impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles
Convective currents

The sky looks blue due to

Options
Dispersion effect
Reflection
Transmission
Scattering

The blue color of water in the sea is due to

Options
Refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water
Reflection of blue sky by sea water
Scattering of blue light by water molecules
Absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

Which colloid is used in treating eye disease

Options
Colloidal S
Colloidal antimony
Colloidal gold
Colloidal silver

Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

Options
Dialysis
Brownian movement
Electro-osmosis
Tyndall effect

In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

Options
Suspension
Emulsion
Sugar solution
Gold sol

Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

Options
Milk
Gum
Fog
Blood

Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

Options
Suspension
Emulsion
Gel
Rtue solution

The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

Options
Dialysis
Addition of electrolytes
Diffusion through animal membrane
Condensation

As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles abruptly
collected into spherical structures called _________

Options
Ball
Sphere of ions
Micelles
Dirt particle

_________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary
liquid induced by an external field.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?

Options
Minerals
Vitamins
Proteins
Starch

At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

Options
Molecular colloid
Associated colloid
Macromolecular colloid
Lyophillic colloid

Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

Options
Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration
Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
Aqueous solution of odium chloride
Aqueous solution of sugar

Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

Options
By addition of oppositely charged sol
By addition of an electrolyte
By addition of lyophilic sol
By boiling
Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

Options
Coagulation
Electrolysis
Diffusion
Peptisation

Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+

Options
Na2S
Na3PO4
Na2SO4
NaCl

A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

Options
Solid sol
Gel
Emulsion
Sol

The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison to those
shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles ____________

Options
Exhibit enormous surface area
Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
Form lyophilic colloids
Are comparatively less in number

Which element is present in all organic compounds?

Options
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Phosphorous

Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

Options
Low melting point
High melting point
Soluble in polar solvents
Insoluble in nonpolar solvents

Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is
Options
Slower because organic particles are ions
Slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds
Faster because organic particles are ions
Faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

Which compounds are isomers?

Options
1-propanol and 2-propanol
Methanoic acid and ethanoic acid
Methanol and methanal
Ethane and ethanol

Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

Options
Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.
Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.
Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms
Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms

Which polymers occur naturally?

Options
Starch and nylon
Starch and cellulose
Protein and nylon
Protein and plastic

What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?

Options
Butane
Butene
Benzene
Butyne

In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a regular

Options
Pyramid
Tetrahedron
Square
Rectangle

In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per molecule?

Options
C2H2 and C2H6
C2H2 and C3H6
C4H8 and C2H4
C6H6 andC7H8

A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

Options
Decrease;
Increase
Remain the same;
Approach zero

Which compound contain an alcohol group?

Options
Acetone
Methanale
Methanol
Dimethyl ether

In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

Options
Make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;
Add a catalyst;
Cool the reaction down;
Use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

Options
Water
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
Sulfur dioxide

Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) +
Cl-(aq)

Options
II only;
III only;
I and II only;
II and III only

Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
Ethane
Ethene
Ethyne
Ethanol
Molarity is expressed as

Options
Grams/litre
Litres/mole
Moles/litre
Moles/1000 gm

Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in

Options
1000 gm of the solvent
Onelitre of the solution
One litre of the solvent
22.4 litres of the solution

What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

Options
An addition reaction
A substitution reaction
A saponification reaction
An esterification reaction

Normality is expressed as

Options
Moles/litre
Gm equivalents/litre
Moles/1000 gm
Gram/litre

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

Options
1
2
3
4

The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

Options
1N
10 N
1.7 N
0.83 N

Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

Options
Acids
Alcohols
Esters
Ethers

Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

Options
1N
0x1N
4N
None

Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

Options
2-methylpropane
2-methylbutane
Propane
Butane

The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

Options
0x1
1
4
0.4

Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

Options
2.04 N
0.49 N
0.98 N
0.35 N

What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

Options
Ketone
Protein
Ester
Acid

What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?

Options
0.5 N
1.0 N
2.0 N
3.0 N

During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

Options
Boiling points
Melting points
Triple points
Saturation points

Which compound is an organic acid?

Options
CH3OH
CH3OCH3
CH3COOH
CH3COOCH3

Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different

Options
Percentage compositions;
Molecular masses;
Molecular formulas;
Structural formulas.

Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

Options
2N
4N
N/2
N/4

Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one additional carbon
atom and

Options
One hydrogen atom;
Two hydrogen atoms;
Three hydrogen atoms;
Four hydrogen atoms.

The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is ?

Options
0.46 N
0.23 N
2.3 N
4.6 N
The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has the same

Options
Empirical formula;
General formula;
Structural formula;
Molecular formula.

The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

Options
4g
1g
2g
10 g

What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?

Options
Methanol;
Methane;
Methyl methanoate;
Methanoic acid.

Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

Options
0.05 M
0.2 M
0.1 M
0.4 M

A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

Options
Toluene;
Benzene;
Butene;
Pentene.

The molarity of pure water is

Options
55.6
50
100
18

C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

Options
Addition;
Substitution;
Saponification;
Esterification.

The number of moles in 180 g of water is

Options
1
10
18
100

The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

Options
C3H7COCH3;
CH3COOC2H5;
C2H5OC2H5;
CH3COOH.

The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

Options
1
2
3
1.5

What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

Options
1
2
3
4

Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

Options
C2H6;
C3H6;
C4H6;
C6H6.

A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

Options
Carbon dioxide;
Water;
Glycerol;
Ethanol.

The general formula for the alkyne series is

Options
CnHn;
CnH2n;
CnH2n+2;
CnH2n-2.

Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

Options
0.1 M
0.5 M
0.01 M
1.0 M

Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

Options
Acetylene;
Ethylene;
Toluene;
Propene

What is the solution?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

Options
HCOOCH3;
CH3CH2COOH;
CH3CH2OH;
CH3COOCH3

What is the solute?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which compound is a member of the alkene series?


Options
Benzene;
Toluene;
Acetylene;
Ethane

What is the solvent?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

Options
Single covalent;
Double covalent;
Triple covalent;
Coordinate covalent

What is the concentration?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

Options
C2H4;
C3H6;
C4H8;
C5H10

A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

Options
An esterification reaction;
A neutralization reaction;
A saponification reaction;
A fermentation reaction.

Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is an
example of _______ reaction.

Options
Substitution;
Addition;
Polymerization;
Fermentation.

In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

Options
11
10
3
8

Which compound is an ester?

Options
CH3COOH;
CH3CHO;
CH3COOCH3;
CH3COCH3.

The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

Options
A polymer;
A soap;
An ester;
An alcohol.

Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures are called

Options
Isomers;
Isotopes;
Allotropes;
Homologs.
Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

Options
Structural formula;
Molecular formula
Number of carbon atoms;
Number of hydrogen atoms.

Mass fraction is called?

Options
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

Options
CH3COOH;
CH3CH2OH;
CH3CH2COOH;
CH3CH2CH2OH

Mass fraction is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

Options
An acid;
An alcohol;
An ester;
A hydrocarbon

Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order, has 1
more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

Options
1
2
3
4

Molar concentration is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The molar concentration of equivalent is called?

Options
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The molal concentration is:

Options
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

Molal concentration is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

Find volume concentration

Options
Mass percent
Normality
Molality
Mass fraction

Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature

Options
Vant Hoff
Mendeleev
Arrhenius
Lomonosov

Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid

Options
98
2
32
49

Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid

Options
98
2
32.6
49

Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide

Options
98
37
32
49

“Activation energy” term is introduced by

Options
Coordination theory
Theory of valent bonds
Theory of active collisions
Theory of electrolytic dissociation
When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

Options
Diluted solution
Saturated solution
Concentrated solution
Unsaturated solution

Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

Options
High concentration
Low concentration
High temeprature
Low temeprature

One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by a/an

Options
Base
Acid
Salt
Suspension

Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is

Options
Molality
Percentage
Concentration
Molarity

A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a

Options
Colloid.
Suspension
Solution.
Compound.

Which molecular formula represents pentene?

Options
C4H8;
C4H10;
C5H10;
C5H12.

The dissolving medium in the solution is the

Options
Solute
Solution.
Solvent.
Mixture.

A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

Options
Propanol;
Butanol;
Pentanol;
Glycerol

Which of the following is not a solution?

Options
Zinc
Sterling silver
Brass
Stainless steel

Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

Options
Organic acids;
Esters;
Alkynes;
Alkanes.

What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?

Options
Alcohol
Water
Sugar
Kerosene

Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

Options
C2H2;
C2H4;
C3H6;
C3H8.

Which of these solutions is in solid phase?

Options
Tincture of iodine
Aerosol
Air-iodine solution
Dental amalgam

Which of the following is not a property of solution?

Options
It has a definite composition.
It has a homogeneous composition.
It is consist of a single phase.
It can be physically separated into its components.

A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is

Options
Concentrated.
Dilute.
Unsaturated.
Saturated.

Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?

Options
Increasing the temperature
Increasing the pressure
Increasing the volume
Decreasing the pressure

What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?

Options
Vaporization and condensation
Dissolution and crystallization
Oxidation and reduction
Dissociation and reduction

Which formula represents an acid?

Options
CH3COOCH3;
CH3OH;
CH3COOH;
CH3CH2CH3.

Which solutions has concentration of 1M?  The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g.  A solution
containing

Options
342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution
Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and formic
acid. This type of reaction is called

Options
Fermentation;
Esterification;
Saponification;
Polymerization.

Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent.  Which solute will dissolve in it?

Options
Hexane
Sodium carbonate
Ethanol
Potassium chloride

Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

Options
C3H6;
C2H6;
C2H2;
C6H6.

Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

Options
Tetrahedral;
Planar triangular;
Linear;
Bent.

Most salt become soluble in water as the

Options
Pressure is increased.
Temperature is increased.
Temperature is decreased.
Pressure is decreased.

It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.

Options
Percent by mass
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction

Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

Options
Greater solubility in water;
More rapid reaction rates;
A tendency to form ions more readily;
Lower melting points.

The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is

Options
Percent by mass
Molality
Molarity
Mole fraction

Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

Options
-COOH;
-OR;
-CHO;
#NAME?

It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.

Options
Molarity
Normality
Dilution
Molality

In dilution of solution,

Options
A solute is added to the solution.
)solvent is added to the solution
The amount of moles increases.
Volume of solution decreases.

C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

Options
Substitution;
Addition;
Polymerization;
Esterification.

A 40% alcohol contains

Options
40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

The isomers of propanol differ in

Options
The number of carbon atoms;
The arrangement of the carbon atoms;
Molecular mass;
The position of functional group.

Solutions are:

Options
Isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
Homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
Homogeneous systems which contain at least two components
Heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

Which is the formula of an alcohol?

Options
Ba(OH)2;
HCHO;
CH3COOH;
C5H11OH.

Solubility of solids depends upon:

Options
Temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents;
Pressure;
Heat of solution;
All answers are right.

C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

Options
A carbohydrate;
An ester;
An organic acid;
An alcohol.

In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:

Options
Liquid, transparent, colored;
Solid, liquid, turbid;
Gaseous, liquid, solid;
Liquid, turbid, colored.
Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number of solute particles and not
their nature. They are:

Options
Vapor pressure lowering;
Density;
Viscosity;
Diffusion.

Which compound can have isomers?

Options
C2H4;
C2H2;
C2H6;
C4H8.

The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the
solution is defined as:

Options
The Henry’s law;
The Sechenov equation;
The Ostvald’s dilution law;
The Paul’s principle.

C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

Options
Polymerization;
Substitution;
Addition;
Esterification.

An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:

Options
Hemolysis;
Plasmolysis;
Swelling;
Precipitation.

Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:

Options
0.01M sucrose;
0.01 M sodium phosphate;
0.01 М potassium chloride;
0.01 M sodium carbonate.

Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?


Options
CCl2F2;
C2H2;
C2H5OH;
C2H5OC2H5.

The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:

Options
Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure
solvents;
Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure
solvents;
Boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile
solutes;
Boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile
solutes.

Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

Options
C3H8;
C3H7OH;
CH3COOH;
CH3COOCH3.
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Question (1/12)

What is the concentration of OH– in a solution with a H+ concentration of 1.3×10-4 M?

Options
7.7×10-10 M
7.7×10-9 M
7.7×10-11 M
7.7×10-12 M

Identify the triprotic acid from the following

Options
Carbonic acid
Bicarbonate
Glycine
Phosphoric acid

Which of the following acids has the lowest pKa value?

Options
Acetic acid
PrevSulphuric acid
SkipDil.HCl
NextOxalic acid

The degree of ionization does not depend on?

Options
Temperature
Current
Nature of solvent
Concentration

Aqueous solution of the detergents are

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Amphoteric

What makes water a liquid at room temperature?

Options
Hydrogen bonds between water molecules
Covalent bonding
Noncovalent interactions
Van der Waals forces of attraction

ΔG is negative for which of the following processes?

Options
Melting of ice and evaporation of water
Oxidation of nitrogen
Oxidation of gold
Burning of chlorine

ΔH is positive for which of the following processes?

Options
Oxidation of nitrogen
Melting of ice and evaporation of water
Oxidation of gold
Burning of chlorine

What is the factor that is responsible for salts like NaCl to dissolve in water easily?

Options
Decrease in entropy
Increase in entropy
Increase in enthalpy
Decrease in enthalpy

Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

Options
Oceans
Freshwater habitats
0.45% sodium chloride
Red blood cells placed in fresh water

Which of the following is a hypotonic solution?

Options
10% dextrose in water
0.45% sodium chloride
5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
Oceans

Which of the following is an isotonic solution?

Options
0.9% sodium chloride
0.45% sodium chloride
Oceans
10% dextrose in water
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Question
23. 23 (1/50)
24. 24
Why
25. pure
25 water is very weak electrolyte?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.It28
ionizes to a large extent
29.It29
ionizes to very small extent
30.It30
does not ionizes at all
31.It31
ionizes completely
32. 32
33. 33molecule is a highly polar solvent due to:
Water
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Presence
36 of two lone pair of electrons
37. 37
Presence of three lone pair of electrons
38. 38
39.Absence
39 of lone pair of electrons
40.None
40 of these
41. 41
When
42. 42acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Both
45 (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.
46.Both
Prev 46 (H+) and (OH) ions increases
47. 47
Skip(H+) increases and (OH-) decreases
48. 48
Next(H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.
49. 49
50. 50of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?
Buffer

Options
Weak acid + weak base in water
Strong acid + strong base in water.
Weak acid + strong base in water.
Strong acid + weak base in water.

Which among the following is not a property of buffer solution?

Options
It has a definite PH.
PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.
PH remains constant on keeping for a long time
It does not has a definite PH

Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?

Options
AgCl
BaSO4
CH3COOAg
None of these

The concentration of a sparingly soluble salt in its saturated solution at a given temperature is
known as:

Options
Solubility product
Solubility
Hydrolysis
Degree of hydrolysis

If ionic product < solubility product then the solution is:

Options
Unsaturated
Just saturated.
Super saturated
None of these

Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength?

Options
HCl < HBr < HI < HF
HF < HBr < HCl < HI
HI < HCl < HBr < HF
HF < HCl < HI < HBr.

Lewis acid is one that:

Options
Accepts an electron pair
Donates a proton
Accepts a proton
Donates an electron pair

HCO3- acts as:

Options
Acid
Base
Both acid and base
None of these

Which of the following act as Bronsted acid?

Options
HSO3-
HCO3-
Both a and b
None

An acid is one that donates a proton. This theory was given by:

Options
Lewis
Lowery – Bronsted
Arrhenius
Ostwald

If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:

Options
Weak electrolyte
Strong electrolyte
Strong base
None of these.

NH4Cl and aq.NH3 will precipitate.

Options
Cu2+
Fe3+
Na+
K+

10-4 M HCl solution at 298 K is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution will:

Options
Lie between 8 and 9
Remain unchanged
Lie between 6 and 7
Equal to 7

The conjugate base of methyl alcohol is:

Options
Hydroxyl ion
Methyl radical
Hydronium ion
Methoxide ion

Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?

Options
Equimolar solutions
Equinormal solution
Both a and b
None of these

The ionisation of a weak electrolyte increases when the concentration of the solution is decreased.
This relation is given by:

Options
Ostwald’s law
Arrhenius equation
Nernst’s equation.
Law of mass action.

Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:

Options
Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised
It has low molecular weight
Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.
It does not dissociates completely

Aqueous solution of potassium chlorate is:

Options
Amphoteric
Neutral
Alkaline
Acidic

Precipitation of salt occurs if:

Options
Ionic product = solubility product
Ionic product > solubility product
Ionic product < solubility product
None of these

Addition of HCl will suppress the ionisation of:

Options
Benzoic acid
Carbonic acid
Nitric acid
Both a and b
Basicity of an acid is defined as number of replicable:

Options
OH groups in its molecule
H atom in its molecule
Non-metal cations in its molecule
Non-metal anions in its molecule

NH3 and H20 can act as:

Options
Lewis acid and Bronsted base
Lewis base and Bronsted acid
Lewis and Bronsted base
Lewis and Bronsted acid.

What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of HOCl (ka
= 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

Options
7.0
3.2
7.3
4.5

A buffer solution is one that contains:

Options
A weak acid and its conjugate base
Strong base and its conjugate acid
Strong acid and its conjugate base
None of these

In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.

Options
Weak acid and strong base
Weak acid and weak base
Strong acid and strong base
Strong acid and weak base

Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:

Options
It is basic in nature
It is acidic in nature
Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base
Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.

Addition of a salt of weak acid and strong base to water would cause:
Options
Increase in pH.
PH remains same.
Decrease in pH
None of these.

Among the following which is a strong electrolyte and thus the best conductor of electricity?

Options
Sulphuric acid
Acetic acid
Boric acid
Phosphoric acids

Molarity of a solution is expressed as:

Options
The number of moles of a solute present in one litre of the solution
The number of moles of a solute present in 1000 gm of the solvent
The number of gram equivalent of solute present in one litre of solution
The ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute

Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

Options
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of boiling point
Freezing point
Depression in freezing point.

Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

Options
Camphor
Petrol
Acetone
Acetanilide

Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

Options
Obeys Raoult’s law.
Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero
There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.
Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

Options
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in
it
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

Options
Amount of solute
Nature of solute.
Amount of solvent
Nature of solvent

The unit of Cryoscopic constant is:

Options
Kelvin kg mol-1
Kelvin kg-1 mol-1
Kelvin kg mol+1
Kelvin kg+1 mol+1

Vant Hoff’s eqution for solution is:

Options
PV = n / RT
P = Vn / RT
PV = nRT
P = VnR / T

When osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:

Options
Equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute.
Equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.
Non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute
Non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute

Which among the following is true? i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling
point decreases.  ii. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point increases.  iii.
When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point decreases.  iv. When vapour
pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point increases.

Options
I & iii
I & iv.
Ii & iii
Ii & iv

Vapour pressure decreases with:


Options
Increase in concentration of the solution.
Decrease in solute particles in the solution
Decrease in boiling point.
Increase in freezing point.

Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:

Options
Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between
individual liquids
Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between
individual liquids.
Force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids
Force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.

If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:

Options
I=1
I>1
I=0
I<1

Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon number of
solute of particles present in the solution.  ii. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is
equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-electrolyte solute.

Options
I
Ii
Both i & ii
None of the above

Addition of common salt in water causes

Options
Increase in M.P of solution
Increase in B.P of solution
Decrease in B.P of solution
Decrease in both M.P & B.P

The value of Vant Hoff factor (i) = 2 is for:

Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Calcium chloride
Sodium chloride
Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

Options
An increase in melting point of the liquid
A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.
A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid
No change in the boiling point of the liquid.

Which of the following pair of liquids are immiscible?

Options
Acetone + water
Benzene + water.
Ethanol + water
Acetic acid + water

If the solvent boils at a temperature T1 and the solution at a temperature T2 , then the elevation of
boiling point is given by:

Options
T1 + T2
T1 – T2
T2 – T1.
None of the above
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Question
23. 23 (1/119)
24. 24
The
25.unit
25 of temperature in S.I. units is
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Centigrade
28
29.Celsius
29
30.Farhenheit
30
31.Kelvin
31
32. 32
33.unit
The 33 of mass in S.I. units is
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Kilogram
36
37. 37
Gram
38. 38
39.Tonne
39
40.Quintal
40
41. 41
The
42.unit
42 of time in S.I. units is
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Second
45
46. 46
PrevMinute
47. 47
SkipHour
48. 48
NextDay
49. 49
50.unit
The 50 of length in S.I. units is
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Meter
53
54. 54
55.Centimeter
55
Kilometer
56. 56
57.Millimeter
57
58. 58
The
59.unit
59 of energy in S.I. units is
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Watt
62
63.Joule
63
64.Joule/s
64
65. 65
66.Joule/m
66
67. 67
General gas equation is
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
PV=nRT
71. 71
72.PV=mRT
72
73.PV=C
73
74.PV=KiRT
74
75. 75
An76.
open76 system is one in which
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Mass
79 does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
80.Neither
80 mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
81. 81
Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
82. 82
83.Mass
83 crosses the boundary but not the energy
84. 84
An isolated system is one in which
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
88.Mas
88 does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
89.Neither
89 mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
90.Both
90 energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
91.Mass
91 crosses the boundary but not the energy
92. 92
93. 93of the following quantities is not the property of the system
Which
94. 94
Options
95. 95
96.Pressure
96
97.Temperature
97
98. 98
Specific volume
99. 99
100.Heat
100
101. 101
Mixture
102. 102of ice and water from a
103. 103
Options
104. 104
105.Closed
105 system
106.Open
106 system
107.Isolated
107 system
108.Heterogeneous
108 system
109. 109
If110.
∆H 110
value is less than zero than reaction will be
111. 111
Options
112. 112
113.Exothermic
113
114.Endothermic
114
115. 115
116.May
116or may not be Exothormic or Endothermic
117.None
117 of these
118. 118
119. 119
Which is true for a spontaneous endothermic process?

Options
∆H<0
∆G<0
∆S<0
∆G>0

A reaction has values of ∆H and ∆S which are both positive. The reaction

Options
Is spontaneous
Spontaneity is temperature dependent
Has an increasing free energy
Is non-spontaneous

Whenever a system undergoes either a change in state or an energy or mass transfer at a steady
state, it is said to undergo

Options
A change of state
A steady state transfer
A process
A thermodynamic change

A law which is applicable only to ideal vapours and liquids, that equates the equilibrium partial
pressures of a solution component in the coexisting phases, is known as

Options
Henry's law
Joule's law
Fick's law
Roult's law

An open system

Options
Is a specified region where transfers of energy and/or mass take place
Cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings
Is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries
Has a mass transfer across its boundaries, and the mass within the system is not necessarily

A system consisting of more than one phase is known as

Options
Open system
Isolated system
Closed system
Heterogeneous system

Second law of theromodynamics defines

Options
Heat
Enthalpy
Internal energy
Entropy

The internal energy of a substance depends on

Options
Temperature
Volume
Pressure
Entropy

At critical point the enthalpy of vaporisation is

Options
Only dependent on temperature
Zero
Maximum
Minimum

For a reversible adiabatic process the change in entropy is

Options
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinite

For any reversible process, the change in entropy of the system and surroundings is

Options
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinite

For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

Options
Positive
Negative
Infinite
Zero

In an isothermal process

Options
Temperature increases gradually
Volume remains constant
Change in internal energy is zero
Pressure remains constant

Which of the following is incorrect?

Options
The pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressure of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
The entropy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the entropies of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
The internal energy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum f the internal energies of the
indicudual components taken each at the temperature and the volume of the mixture
None of the above

If the ∆H° for the reaction, 2 Mg (s) + 2 Cl2 (g) → 2 MgCl2 (s), is -1283.6 kJ, what is the standard
enthalpy of formation of magnesium chloride?

Options
0 kJ/mol
-320.9 kJ/mol
-641.8 kJ/mol
1283.6 kJ/mol

Which of the following compounds will not undergo an acid-base (neutralization) reaction with
HClO4?

Options
NaOH
Sr(OH)2
NH3
H2SO4

The reaction below reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel. C6H12O6(s) = 2 C2H5OH(l) + 2
CO2(g), ∆Ho = −72 kJ Which of the following actions causes an increase in the value of Kc? (i)
adding some CO2(g) (ii) transferring the reaction mixture to a vessel of larger volume (iii)
increasing the temperature

Options
(i) only
(ii) only
(iii) only
None of the above
What is the coefficient of O2 when the following equation is balanced? C10H8(s) + x O2(g) → y
CO2(g) + z H2O(l)

Options
1
6
7
12

Natural oils, such as vegetable oil, are converted into solid, edible fats by a process called

Options
Fusion
Hydrogenation
Crystallization
Saponification

Which of the following is the strongest acid in water?

Options
HBr
HOBrO2
HF
HI

The heat of combustion of C(s) is −394 kJ/mol and that of CO(g) is −111 kJ/mol. What is the enthalpy
change for the reaction below? CO(g) → C(s) + ½ O2(g)

Options
505 kJ
283 kJ
111 kJ
−283 kJ

How are the boiling and freezing points of water affected by the addition of a soluble salt?

Options
The freezing and boiling points are both lowered.
The freezing and boiling points are both raised.
The freezing is lowered and the boiling point is raised.
The freezing is raised and the boiling point is lowered.

In which ionic compound does the cation have the same number of electrons as the anion?

Options
LiF
NaCl
CaO
MgF2
Which of the following compounds displays only covalent bonding?

Options
NH4OH
Li2O
HOCN
NaNO3

When temperature is increased, the rate of a reaction also increases. This observation is best
explained by

Options
An increase in the frequency of molecular collisions
A decrease in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
An increase in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
An increase in the fraction of molecules that have enough energy to react

For a given substance, which of the following phase transitions is the most exothermic?

Options
Solid → liquid
Gas → solid
Liquid → gas
Solid → gas

The following reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel at 200o C. CO(g) + 3 H2(g) →
CH4(g) + H2O(g), ΔHo = −206 kJ Which of the following actions causes the reaction to proceed from
left to right in order to restore equilibrium?

Options
Increasing the volume of the container, holding temperature constant
Adding some CH4 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
Adding some H2 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
Increasing the temperature, holding the pressure constant

In which of the following compounds does oxygen have the highest oxidation state?

Options
CsO2
H2O
O2
OF2

What is the formula of the stable compound formed by magnesium and nitrogen?

Options
MgN
Mg2N
Mg3N2
Mg2N3
Which of the following bonds is most polar?

Options
B−O
B-F
C-O
C=O

When the following equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients, what is
the coefficient of O2? NH3 + O2 → NO + H2O

Options
2
3
4
5

Which of the statements concerning the structure of benzene is false?

Options
The double bonds oscillate rapidly back and forth between adjacent pairs of carbon atoms.
The H-C-C angles are 120o
The carbon atoms form a flat hexagonal ring.
The oxidation state of carbon is −1.

Of the following compounds, which one contains nitrogen in an oxidation state of +5?

Options
NO2F
N2O3
NH4Cl
Mg3N2

To which process does the term sublimation refer?

Options
Solid to liquid
Liquid to solid
Solid to gas
Gas to solid

Each of two identical containers holds one mole of CH4gas and one mole SO2 gas, all at the same
temperature. Which of following statements is true?

Options
The SO2 gas has a higher pressure.
The CH4 gas has a greater density.
The SO2 molecules move, on average, faster than the CH4 molecules.
Deviations from ideal gas behaviour are smaller for the CH4 gas.
Which of the following has the same number of electrons as a water molecule?

Options
H2S
BH3
OH−
BeH2

What is the formula of magnesium sulfate?

Options
MgS
MgS2
Mg3S2
MgSO4

Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?

Options
HF
HCl
HBr
HI

Which of the following is a product of the reaction between H2SO4(aq) and NaOH(aq)?

Options
H2(g)
H+(aq)
H2O(l)
O2(g)

Which of the following species is not linear?

Options
O3
HCN
C2H2
NNO

Which of the following compounds has the greatest ionic character?

Options
IBr
CsF
HI
HF

What is the oxidation state of Cr in Li2CrO4?


Options
−6
−2
0
+6

Which of the following statements about H2SO3, a diprotic acid, is true?

Options
There is just one lone pair on the sulfur atom
It is a strong acid.
The hydrogen atoms are bonded directly to the sulfur atom
The oxidation state of sulfur is +6.

Which statement is not correct for the reaction below? 2 NO(g) ↔ N2(g) + O2(g)

Options
At equilibrium, the forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates
Reaction to the left or to the right occurs spontaneously until the equilibrium state is reached.
Reducing the volume of the system has no effect on the equilibrium amounts of NO, N2 and O2
The equilibrium value of [N2 ] [O2 ] / [NO]2 is the same at all temperatures

Which of the following is an ionic compound?

Options
HOCN
NH4NO2
CH3NH2
SiO2

Select the correct ending to make the following a true statement. A catalyst ...

Options
Lowers the energy of the products
Induces an alternate reaction pathway with a higher activation energy
Increases the frequency of collisions between molecules
Is not consumed by the overall reaction although it may be temporarily changed

How many electrons are needed to fill the 4f subshell of an atom?

Options
Two
Six
Ten
Fourteen

Which of the following bonds is the most polar?

Options
H−O
C−N
H−C
O−N

Which of the following have three unpaired electrons in their ground electronic states?

Options
The third period atoms (Na to Ar)
The group 3 atoms (B to Tl)
The group 15 atoms (N to Bi)
N3− and P3−

Which of the following statements concerning the nitrate ion, NO3−, is incorrect?

Options
The ONO bond angles are all 120o.
One of the nitrogen-oxygen bonds is shorter than the other two nitrogen-oxygen bonds.
The nitrogen atom has a formal charge of +1.
It is nonpolar.

Electronegativity is a measure of

Options
The magnitude of the charge of an electron
The energy released when an electron is added to an atom
The energy required to remove an electron from an atom
The ability of an atom to draw electron density towards itself

Which of the following is the weakest acid in water?

Options
H2S
H2Se
H2Te
HBr

Which of the following is always true of a spontaneous process?

Options
The process is exothermic
The process does not involve any work
The entropy of the system increases
The internal energy of the system decreasis

The equation ΔH= ΔU+PΔ V is applicable

Options
Always
Only for constant pressure processes
Only for constant temperature processes
Only for constant volume processes

What occurs as two atoms of fluorine combine to become a molecule of fluorine?

Options
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed.
A bond is formed as energy is released
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed
A bond is broken as energy is released

To break a chemical bond, energy must be

Options
Absorbed
Destroyed
Produced
Released

As two chlorine atoms combine to form a molecule, energy is

Options
Absorbed
Released
Created
Destroyed

As energy is released during the formation of a bond, the stability of the chemical system
generally will

Options
Decrease
Increase
Remain the same
Absorbed

Which element has an atom with the greatest tendency to attract electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
Carbon
Chlorine
Silicon
Sulfur

Which term indicates how strongly an atom attracts the electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
Alkalinity
Atomic mass
Electronegativity
Activation energy

Which formula represents a substance with the greatest degree of ionic bonding?

Options
PBr3
MgBr2
NH3
CO

An ionic compound is formed when there is a reaction between the elements

Options
Strontium and chlorine
Hydrogen and chlorine
Nitrogen and oxygen
Sulfur and oxygen

Which type of bond is formed when electrons are transferred from one atom to another?

Options
Covalent
Ionic
Hydrogen
Metallic

Which compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds?

Options
CaCO3
PCl3
MgF2
CH2O

Which of the following solids has the highest melting point?

Options
H2O(s)
Na2O(s)
SO2(s)
CO2(s)

What is the total number of electron pairs shared between the two atoms in an O2 molecule?

Options
1
2
6
4
A molecular compound is formed when a chemical reaction occurs between atoms of

Options
Chlorine and sodium
Chlorine and yttrium
Oxygen and hydrogen
Oxygen and magnesium

Which characteristic is a property of molecular substances?

Options
Good heat conductivity
Good electrical conductivity
Low melting point
High melting point

Magnesium nitrate contains chemical bonds that are

Options
Covalent, only
Ionic, only
Both covalent and ionic
Neither covalent nor ionic

A solid substance is an excellent conductor of electricity. The chemical bonds in this substance are
most likely

Options
Ionic, because the valence electrons are shared between atoms
Ionic, because the valence electrons are mobile
Metallic, because the valence electrons are stationary
Metallic, because the valence electrons are mobile

Which substance contains metallic bonds?

Options
Hg(l )
H2O( l)
NaCl(s)
C6H12O6(s)

Silicon dioxide (SiO2) and diamonds are best described as

Options
Molecular substances with coordinate covalent bonding
Molecular substances with ionic bonding
Network solids with covalent bonding
Network solids with ionic bonding

Which compound has hydrogen bonding between its molecules?


Options
CH4
CaH2
KH
NH3

Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule?

Options
CH4
HCl
H2O
NH3

Which statement explains why a molecule of CH4 is nonpolar?

Options
The bonds between the atoms in a CH4 molecule are polar
The bonds between the atoms in a CH4 molecule are ionic
The geometric shape of a CH4 molecule distributes the charges symmetrically.
The geometric shape of a CH4 molecule distributes the charges asymmetrically

Hydrogen bonding is a type of

Options
Strong covalent bond
Weak ionic bond
Strong intermolecular force
Weak intermolecular force

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: Cl2 → Cl + Cl What occurs during this
reaction?

Options
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed
A bond is broken as energy is released
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed
A bond is formed as energy is released

Which statement describes what occurs as two atoms of bromine combine to become a molecule
of bromine?

Options
Energy is absorbed as a bond is formed
Energy is absorbed as a bond is broken
Energy is released as a bond is formed
Energy is released as a bond is broken

Which of these elements has an atom with the most stable outer electron configuration?
Options
Ne
Cl
Ca
Na

When a sodium atom reacts with a chlorine atom to form a compound, the electron configurations
of the ions forming the compound are the same as those in which noble gas atoms?

Options
Krypton and neon
Krypton and argon
Neon and helium
Neon and argon

Which element has an atom with the greatest attraction for electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
As
Bi
N
P

Based on electronegativity values, which type of elements tends to have the greatest attraction for
electrons in a bond?

Options
Metals
Metalloids
Nonmetals
Noble gases

Which bond is least polar?

Options
As–Cl
Bi–Cl
P–Cl
N–Cl

Which formula represents an ionic compound?

Options
H2
CH4
CH3OH
NH4 Cl

Which type of bond results when one or more valence electrons are transferred from one atom to
another?
Options
A hydrogen bond
An ionic bond
A nonpolar covalent bond
A polar covalent bond

Based on bond type, which compound has the highest melting point?

Options
CH3OH
C6H14
CaCl2
CCl4

The environment in which a system is studied is

Options
State function
Phase
Surrounding
State

Unit of heat in SI system is

Options
J
KCaL
Cal
Kg

Total energy of a system is

Options
P.E + K.E
P.E + heat energy
K.E + heat energy
P.E + mechanical energ

CuSO4 + Zn ZnSO4+Cu is

Options
Spontaneous reaction
Non-spontaneous reaction
Endothermic
Exothermic

State function the macroscopic property of system depends upon

Options
Path of reaction
Initial state
Initial and final state
Final state

When enthalpy formation of reactants is higher than product then reaction will be

Options
Endothermic
Spontaneous
Non-spontaneous
Exothermic

Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by

Options
Calorimeter
Manometer
Barometer
Manometer

Enthalpy of combustion for food fuel and other compounds can be measured accurately by

Options
Calorimeter
Bomb calorimeter
Thermometer
Manometerv

Most of thermodynamic parameters are

Options
System
Surrounding
Phase
State functions

Change in enthalpy (H) of a system can be calculated by following relationship

Options
∆H=∆E+P∆V
∆H=∆E-PV
∆H=∆E-q
∆H=∆E+q

Two fundamental ways to transfer energy are

Options
Pressure and temperature
Pressure and volume
Heat and work
Heat and volume

Which of the following processes has always ∆H = -ve

Options
Formation of compoun
Combustion
Dissolution of ionic compound
Dilution of a solution

A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?

Options
Isothermal process
Isobaric process
Isochoric (or isometric) process
Adiabatic process

Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?

Options
Julius Robert von Mayer
Rudolf Clausius
Vant Hoff
Gibbs

Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:

Options
Q=∆U+W
H=U+pV
∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
S = KlnW

Choose thermochemical reactions:

Options
2H2(g) + O2(g) = H2O(g)
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g) -180,8kJ
PbS + H2O2 = PbSO4 + H2O
Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 = BaSO4 + 2NaOH

Enthalpy of reaction depends on: 1.Physical state of substances 2.Chemical quantity of substances
3.Temperature 4.Nature of substances

Options
1,2,3
2,3,4
1,2,3,4
1,3,4

From reaction: CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g) – 157 kJ, find enthalpy of reaction, if m(CaCO3) = 1 kg.

Options
+1570
-1570
+785
-785

If ΔG>0, then process:

Options
Spontaneous
Nonspontaneous
Exothermic
Endothermic

If ΔG<0, then process:

Options
Spontaneous
Nonspontaneous
Exothermic
Endothermic

If ∆H>0, then process…

Options
Endothermic
Exothermic
Exergonic
Endergonic

If ∆H<0, then process…

Options
Endothermic
Exergonic
Exothermic
Endergonic
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As25.
compared
25 to its parent alkane, an alkyl radical contains
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27. 27
28.One
28 less carbon
29.One
29 less hydrogen
30.One
30 more carbon
31.One
31 more hydrogen
32. 32
33. of
Rate 33reaction of organic compounds is slow due to
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36.Ionic
36 bonding in them
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Amphoteric nature
38. 38
39.Covalent
39 bonding
40.Coordinate
40 covalent bonding
41. 41
In42.
naming
42 alkane stem tells about the
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44. 44
45.Number
45 of hydrogen atoms
46.Number
Prev 46 of oxygen atoms
47. 47
SkipNumber of carbon atoms
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NextNumber of bonds
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Self-linking ability of carbon is called
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53.Catenation
53
54. 54
55.Sublimation
55
Hydrogenation
56. 56
57.Carbonation
57
58. 58
Almost
59. 5995% of compounds are of carbon because it can form
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61. 61
62.Single
62 bonds
63.Double
63 bonds
64.Triple
64 bonds
65. 65
66.Multiple
66 bonds
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Only one benzene ring is present in compounds of
68. 68
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70. 70
Aryl
71. 71
72.Acryl
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73.Carboxylic
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74.Ketone
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75. 75
Substances
76. 76 which are basis of human life on earth are
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79.Atom
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Matter
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83.Organic
83 compounds
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For complex molecules, a chemist usually represents a molecule by
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87. 87
88.Molecular
formula
88
89.Skeletal
89 formula
90.Structural
90 formula
91.B 91
and c
92. 92
93. optical
Two 93 isomers are formed from carbon atoms to create bond
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95. 95
96.4 96
atoms
97.2 97
atoms
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1 atom
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100.3 100
atoms
101. 101
Element
102. 102that is backbone of organic molecules is
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105.Carbon
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106.Hydrogen
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107.Oxygen
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108.All
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of them
109. 109
110. 110chemistry is the study of
Organic
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113.Any
113compound from any living thing.
114.Carbon-containing
114 compounds that were formed by living things.
115. 115
116.Any
116compound with carbon as the principal element.
117.Noneoftheabove.
117
118. 118
119. 119can form many different compounds because it can
Carbon
120. 120
121. 121
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122.Make
122 a molecule in the shape of a cube, tetrahedron, or cylinder.
123. 123
Combine with other carbon atoms in addition to other elements
124. 124
125.Combine
125 with more metals than other elements.
126.Combine
126 with more nonmetals than other elements.
127. 127
A hydrocarbon is an organic compound consisting of

Options
Water and carbon.
Any number of elements as long as they include carbon and hydrogen.
Carbon and hydrogen.
Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

A hydrocarbon with two double covalent bonds between carbon atoms is a (an)

Options
Alkane.
Alkene.
Alkyne.
Aromatic hydrocarbon.

Organic compounds called isomers have

Options
The same molecular formulas but different physical structures.
Different molecular formulas with the same physical structures.
Different molecular formulas with the same chemical properties.
Noneoftheabove.

The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of octane is

Options
1
2
4
8

Organic compounds called aromatic hydrocarbons are compounds that

Options
Have a wonderful odor.
Are based on the benzene rings structure.
Occur in nature with all carbons bonds saturated
Occur in nature with all carbon bonds unsaturated.

A gasoline mixture of hydrocarbons that burns very rapidly has

Options
A low octane number.
A high octane number.
Many branched chains.
Smaller hydrocarbon molecules.

An organic molecule with a general formula of ROH is a (an)

Options
Ether.
Alcohol.
Organic acid.
Ester.

An organic molecule with a general formula of RCOOH is a (an)

Options
Ester.
Organic acid.
Ketone.
Aldehyde.

The characteristic odor and taste of fruit such as bananas, oranges, and pineapples comes from
certain

Options
Ketones.
Ethers.
Aldehydes.
Esters.

The human body breaks down starches to

Options
Monosaccharides.
Simple sugars.
Glucose.
Any of the above.

The direct reserve source of energy in the muscles of a human is

Options
Glycol.
Glycerol.
Glycogen.
Dextrose.
All proteins are made up of a side chain and

Options
Alpha-amino acid.
Amine.
A nitrogen atom.
Peptide.

Fats and oils are esters formed from three fatty acids and glycerol into a (an)

Options
Alpha-amino acid.
Polysaccharide.
Triglyceride.
Disaccharide.

Which of the following is a polymer?

Options
Cellulose
Polyethylene
Wool
All are polymers

Which of the following is not true about benzene?

Options
It is a dark brown liquid in its natural state.
It does not mix with water.
It has a strong odor.
It can be used as a solvent.

An alkane with 3 carbon atoms would have how many hydrogen atoms in the molecule?

Options
4
6
8
10

The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for

Options
A reactive atom.
A separate functional group.
Any hydrocarbon group.
The right side of the molecule.

When wine "goes bad," the ethanol is converted into


Options
CH3COOH.
CH3 OCH3.
CH3CH2OH.
CH3OH.

Which of the following compounds cannot exist?

Options
C2H3
C2H4
C3H8
C4H10

Assuming straight-chain compounds, which of the following will have the highest boiling point?

Options
C3H8
C7H16
C11H24
They all have the same boiling point

Fractional distillation

Options
Is a basic process used in petroleum refining.
Involves heating crude oil and condensing the vapors at different temperatures.
When applied to crude oil can produce such products as gasoline, kerosene, and lubricating oil
stock.
All of the above are true.

Which of the following molecules has the highest carbon to hydrogen ratio?

Options
Ethane
Ethane
Methane
Acetylene

Supporting the idea that the origin of life was the result of natural processes is the fact that

Options
Amino acids and other complex organic molecules have been found in meteorites and comets.
In the laboratory amino acids, fatty acids, nitrogen bases, and other compounds can be formed
under simulated early Earth conditions.
The early Earth had oceans full of chemicals that may have been interacting to form organic
compounds.
All of the above are true.

Which of the following underlined atoms is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond acceptor?
Options
Amide nitrogen (RNHCOR')
Aniline nitrogen (ArNH2)
Amine nitrogen (RNH2)
Carboxylate oxygen (RCO 2-)

Which of the following underlined protons is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond donor?

Options
Alcohol (ROH)
Amine (RNH2)
Phenol (ArOH)
Ammonium ion (RNH3+)

Which of the following functional groups is most likely to participate in a dipole-dipole


interaction?

Options
Aromatic ring
Ketone
Alcohol
Alkene

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Octane
Heptane
Pentane
Hexane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Butane
Heptane
Pentane
Decane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethilhexane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2-bromo-2-methylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylpenthane
2-chloro-3-methylhexane
2,3-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
2,3-dimethylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethylbutane
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
3-methylpentane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
3-methylpentane
2-chloro-3-methylhexane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:


Options
Cis-1-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
Trans- ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,2-dichloro-3-methylpenten
Trans- 4-ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,3-dimethyl-2-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methilpenthen
Trans- 4-chloro-6-methil-3-heptahe
3,3-dimethil-2-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
Trans- 4-chloro-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

Name the following compounds:


Options
5-methil-3-heptyne
4- pentyne
3-methil-2-hexyne
3-methyle-4-heptene

Name the following compounds:

Options
4-methil-3-heptyne
1- pentyne
3-methil-2-hexyne
4-chloro-1-butyne

Name the following compounds:

Options
5-methil-3-heptyne
4- pentyne
4-methil-2-hexyne
2-ethyl-3-pentyne

Name the following alcohols.

Options
4-methil-4-pentanol
2-butanol
1-propanol
2-methil-2-propanol

Name the following alcohols

Options
4-methil-2-pentanol
2-butanol
1-propanol
2-methil-2-propanol

Name the following aldehydes.

Options
Ethanol
Methanal
2-methylpropanal
Butanal

Name the following aldehydes.

Options
Butanal
2-methylpropanal
Methanol
Ethanol

Special name the following ketones.

Options
Acetone
Ethyl methyl ketone
Diethyl ketone
Proryl ketone

Special name the following ketones.

Options
Diethyl ketone
Acetone
Ethyl methyl ketone
Propyl ketone
Choose the following KETONES.

Options
2-butanon
3-pentanon
3-butanon
2-pentanon

Choose the following KETONES.

Options
3-pentanon
2-pentanon
3-butanon
2-butanon

Choose the following KETONES.

Options
3-pentanon
2-pentanon
4-pentanon
4-pentanon

Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
C2H2 ;
C2 H4 ;
C3 H6 ;
C3 H8 .

Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
C2H2;
C2H4;
C5H8;
C5H12.
CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with
thischaracteristic?

Options
Acetylene;
Benzene;
Propane;
Toluene.

A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

Options
Structural formula;
Number of carbon atoms;
Molecular formula
Number of hydrogen atoms.

The compound C2H2belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula

Options
CnHn;
CnH2n;
CnH2n-2;
CnH2n+2.

The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

Options
Less than
Greater than
The same as
Greater than or equal to

Two molecules that are isomers:

Options
Must contain the same functional groups
Often differ in the number of unsaturated bonds they possess
Have the same molecular formulas
Often have different masses

In which of the following kinds of organic compounds does a carbon atom bond ONLY to
hydrogen and other carbon atoms?

Options
Carbohydrates
Hydrocarbons
Fatty acids
Lipids
Glycogen is best defined as a:

Options
Storage form of lipids
Polymer of glucose
Storage form of glycerol
Polymer of lactose

Most biologically important atoms attempt to possess _____ electrons in their outermost energy
level

Options
N2
2
8
10

Which molecule does NOT have a polar covalent bond?

Options
H2O
H-Br
H-H
H-F

What chemical family does H2C=C=CH2 belong to?

Options
Alkane
Ether
Alkene
Alkyne

In the induced-fit model of enzyme action, a _______ must bind to the enzyme's______ for the
enzyme to perform its function.

Options
Catalyst; activation energy
Product; catalytic site
Product; active site
Substrate; active site

Which one of the following applies to a basic solution?

Options
High OH-
Low OH-
High H+
H+ = OH-
Which one of the four classes of biologically important molecules does CELLULOSE belong to?

Options
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Lipids

Amino acids are joined during a(n) __________ reaction and a(n) __________bond/linkage is formed.

Options
Hydrolysis; peptide
Condensation; amide
Neutralization; ether
Oxidation; ester

With respect to proteins, the primary structure refers to the:

Options
Helix or pleated sheet pattern of a polypeptide
Complex 3-dimensional folding pattern of a polypeptide
Interaction of more than one polypeptide chain
Ordered sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

With respect to proteins, the quaternary structure refers to the:

Options
Helix or pleated sheet pattern of a polypeptide
Complex 3-dimensional folding pattern of a polypeptide
Interaction of more than one polypeptide chain
Ordered sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

Complete the equation: glucose + fructose

Options
Maltose
Lactose
Sucrose
Cellulose

Which molecule would provide the most glucose upon hydrolysis?

Options
Galactose
Lactose
Starch
Amino acid

An athlete is tested at an Olympic event and STEROIDS are found in the bloodstream. Which class
of biologically important molecules are steroids related to?
Options
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Proteins
Lipids

Glucose + galactose produces:

Options
Lactose
Cellulose
Maltose
Sucrose

If the H from the OH group in CH3-OH is removed and replaced with a METHYL group, what
family will the molecule then belong to?

Options
Ether
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester

Which of the following is CORRECT for an exergonic reaction?

Options
More activation energy is needed than for an endergonic reaction
Less activation energy is needed than for an endergonic reaction
Products have more energy than reactants
Products have less energy than reactants

Hydrolysis is best described as the:

Options
Heating of a compound in order to drive off excess water and concentrate its volume
Breaking of a long-chain compound into subunits by adding water
Linking of two or more molecules by the removal of one or more water molecules
Constant removal of hydrogen atoms from the surface of a carbohydrate

Unlike triglycerides, phospholipid molecules:

Options
Have 1 lipid tail
Have 4 lipid tails
Have 2 lipid tails
Have 3 lipid tails

Which one of the following would convert a liquid fat to a solid fat:

Options
Add heat
Add hydrogen (hydrogenation)
Add carbon
Unsaturate it

Enzymes:

Options
Increase the rate of a chemical reaction
Are always stored in active form
Are always stored in active form
Raise activation energy

The exoskeleton of many insects is made of chitin which is a modified form of:

Options
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Protein
Nucleic acid

Electrons are shared unequally in a(n) _________ bond.

Options
Non polar covalent
Hydrogen
Ionic
Polar covalent

Myoglobin is an oxygen-carrying molecule in muscle. It consists of just one polypeptide chain.


Myoglobin lacks:

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

During the formation of the peptide bond which of the following takes place?

Options
Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Peptide bond is a

Options
Covalent bond
Ionic bond
Metallic bond
Hydrogen bond

A tripeptide has

Options
3 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds

The factor which does not affect pKa value of an amino acid is

Options
The loss of charge in the α-carboxyl and α-amino groups
The interactions with other peptide R groups
Other environmental factors
Molecular weight

The average molecular weight of an amino acid residue in a protein is about

Options
128
118
110
120

Which of the following is not the classified form of conjugated proteins?

Options
Lipoproteins
Glycoproteins
Metalloproteins
Complete proteins

Which part of the amino acid gives it uniqueness?

Options
Amino group
Carboxyl group
Side chain
None

Which of the following information is responsible to specify the three-dimensional shape of a


protein?
Options
The protein’s peptide bond
The protein’s amino acid sequence
The protein’s interaction with other polypeptides
The protein’s interaction with molecular chaperons

Unfolding of a protein can be termed as

Options
Renaturation
Denaturation
Oxidation
Reduction

What are the following is not a factor responsible for denaturation of proteins?

Options
PH change
Organic solvents
Heat
Charge

Which of the following structures is a 20:2 (Δ4,9) fatty acid?

Options
CH3(CH2)9CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)2COOH
CH3(CH2)2CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)9COOH
CH3(CH2)10CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CHCH2COOH
CH3CH2CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)10COOH

Which of the following is a characteristic of both triacylglycerols and glycerophospholipids?

Options
Both contain carboxyl groups and are amphipathic
Both contain fatty acids and are saponifiable
Both contain glycerol and ether bonds.
Both can be negatively charged at cellular pH.

Which is a characteristic of all the fatty acid components in this lipid?

Options
They all contain an unbranched carbon chain.
They all contain unconjugated cis double bonds.
They all are joined to glycerol through an ester bond.
They all are hydrophilic because they contain oxygen.

Based on its structural similarity to other lipids, this lipid most likely functions as

Options
A membrane component.
An energy storage molecule.
A sex hormone.
A vitamin required for vision. The structure of an animal cell membrane is analyzed.

Which would be a property of all the major types of lipids in this membrane?

Options
They would be saponifiable in base and hydrolyzed in acid.
They would have polar heads and non-polar tails.
They would be composed of five-carbon units.
They would be joined to each other through covalent bonds.

A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the
other side is called a(n)

Options
Nonpolar molecule.
Charged molecule.
Polar molecule.
Ion.

Which of the following is not a large biomolecule?

Options
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Ice
Nucleic acid

All of the following are examples of lipids except

Options
Oil.
Steroids.
Starch.
Candle wax.

Which molecules are most closely related to lipids?

Options
Amino acids
Fatty acids
Nucleotides
Sugars

The building blocks of most biomolecules contain the element

Options
Carbon.
Calcium.
Nitrogen.
Sodium.

Which of the following molecules are classified as carbohydrates?

Options
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Fats
Sugars

Polysaccharides are

Options
Carbohydrates.
Proteins.
Lipids
Nucleic acids.

Which of the following is a carbohydrate?

Options
ATP
Steroid
Wax
Sucrose

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to proteins?

Options
Amino acids
Monosaccharides
Nucleotides
Sugars

Long chains of amino acids are found in

Options
Carbohydrates.
Lipids.
Proteins.
Sugars.

The two types of nucleic acids are

Options
RNA and ATP.
DNA and RNA. .
DNA and ATP.
Nucleotides and ATP

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?

Options
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Fats
Sugars

Which of the following is not part of a nucleotide in a DNA molecule?

Options
Three phosphate groups
A base
A sugar
A phosphate group

The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)

Options
Active site.
Polar molecule.
Inactive site.
Substrate.

Ionic bonds form between particles that have

Options
Opposite charges.
No charges.
The same charge.
Neutral charges.

Attractions between water molecules are called

Options
Covalent bonds.
Polar bonds.
Ionic bonds.
Hydrogen bonds.
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Number of dative bonds to central metal ion is its


Options
Oxidation number
Compound number
Co-ordination number
Dative number

Ions which are produced from ligands are

Options
Cation
Anion
Complex ion
Allofthem

Different ions will split up by different compounds to given of

Options
Same colored complexes
PrevDifferent colored complexes
SkipSame density complexes
NextSame temperature complexes

Ligands which can form two coordinate bonds from each ion or molecule to transition metal ion
are known as

Options
Ligands ions
Dentate ligands
Monodentate ligands
Bidentate ligands

Due to ligands' action of splitting color of transition metal compound, this change occurs at

Options
S-orbital
D-orbital
P-orbital
F-orbital
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23. 23 (1/102)
24. 24
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25. 25 expression of the Mass fraction
26. 26
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Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration
44. 44
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Options
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Prev
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Skip
48. 48
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Mathematical
62. 62 expression of the molar concentration equivalent
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80. 80 expression of the Molal concentration
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98. 98of the following species is formed in the second step of the ionization of the triprotic acid
Which
99. 99
H3PO4?
100. 100
101. 101
Options
102. 102

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 3, 3-dimethylpentane

Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 3-ethyl-2-methylhexane

Options

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 1, 2-dichloro-3-methylheptane


Options

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 2,3-dimethylpentane

Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 4-methyl-4-ethyldecane

Options

Draw the structures for the following compounds: 2-chloro-3-methyl-2-butene

Options
Draw the structures for the following compounds: trans-3,4-dimethyl-2-penten

Options

Draw the structures for the following compounds: cis-3,4,6-trimethyl-3-heptene

Options
Draw the following alkynes.4-chloro-2-pentyne

Options

Draw the following alkynes. 3-propyl-1-hexyne

Options
Draw the following alkynes.1,4-dibromo-2-pentyne

Options

Draw the following alcohols. 4-methil-2-pentanol

Options
Draw the following alcohols. 2-methil-2-propanol

Options

Find the following aldehydes. 2-methylpropanal

Options
Special name the following ketones.

Options
Ethyl methyl ketone
Diethyl ketone
Acetone
Propyl ketone

Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol
1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol
2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
1-chloro-1-methylpropan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for


Options
3-chlorobutan-3-ol
2-chlorobutan-3-ol
3-chlorobutan-2-ol
2-chlorobutan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Propan-2-ol
Butan-2-ol
Propanol
Butanol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Ethoxyethane
Methoxyethane
Ethoxybuthane
Methoxymethane

Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

Options
Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

Options

Choose correct units for rate of chemical reaction:

Options
Mol/1*sec
Sec/mol*l
L/mol*sec
Mol/j*l

For 5 seconds molar concentration of substance A changed from 3,15mol/l to 3,00 mol/l. Find
average rate of reaction for A.

Options
0,01mol/l*sec
0,02mol/l*sec
0,03mol/l*sec
0,04mol/l*sec

For certain reaction, reaction rate is 0,0012 mol/l*sec. In mol/l*min rate of this reaction will be:

Options
2*10⁻⁵
4*10⁻⁵
0,072
0,036

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes under constant pressure, is
0,03 mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 2,0mol/l. Find time of reaction, if final concentration of
A is 0,8mol/l

Options
10
20
30
40

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,04mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 1,6mol/l. Find time of reaction, if A completely expends.
Options
40
30
20
10

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,04mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of AB is 1,8mol/l. Find time of reaction, when AB concentration
will be 2,2mol/l.

Options
40
30
20
10

Choose the following aldehydes. ethanal

Options

Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

Options
Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

Options

Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

Options
Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol
2-methoxy-1-methylpropane
1-methoxy-2-methylpropane
2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

Options
Which is the correct name for

Options
1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol
2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Butanol
Propanol
Propan-1-ol
Butan-1-ol

Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

Options
Which is the correct name for

Options
1-chlorobutan-3-ol
1-chlorobutan-2-ol
4-chlorobutan-2-ol
2-chlorobutan-3-ol

Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
3-chlorobutan-1-ol
3-chloropropan-1-ol
1-chloropropan-3-ol
1-chlorobutan-3-ol

Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

Options

Which molecule is formaldehyde?

Options

Which molecule is 2- butanone?

Options
Which molecule is propanal?

Options

Which molecule is acetone?

Options

Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

Options
Ethyl methyl acetone
Methyl propyl ketone
3-hexanone
Propyl methyl ketone

Which molecule is a ketone?

Options
Which molecule is an aldehyde?

Options

What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

Options
4-heptanone
2- methyl -3- hexanone
3-heptanone
Isopropyl n-propyl ketone

An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

Options
Weakly acidic
Weakly basic
Strongly acidic
Neither acidic nor basic

Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

Options
Functional Group of Aromatic compounds:

Options

Nail polish remover contains ?

Options
Benzene
Acetic acid
Acetone
Petroleum ether

The isotope atoms differ in ?

Options
Number of protons
Atomic number
Number of electrons
Atomic weight

Which is also called Stranger Gas ?

Options
Xenon
Neon
Argon
Nitrous oxide

The chemical used as a fixer in photography is ?

Options
Sodium thio sulphate
Sodium sulphate
Borax
Ammonium sulphate

Water drops are spherical because of ?

Options
Viscosity
Density
Polarity
Surface tension

Xide of Nitrogen used in medicine as anaesthetic is ?

Options
Nitrogen pentoxide
Nitrous oxide
Nitric oxide
Nitrogen dioxide

Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen?

Options
Cadmium
Lithium
Potassium
Sodium

The most electronegative element among the following is

Options
Sodium
Bromine
Fluorine
Oxygen

The metal used to recover copper from a solution of copper sulphate is ?

Options
Na
Ag
Hg
Fe

The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called ?

Options
Roasting
Calcinations
Smelting
Froth floatation

Which of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog ?

Options
Nitrogen oxides
Hydrocarbons
Methane
Ozone
The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is ?

Options
Ethane
Ethylene
Carbon dioxide
Acetylene

The main chemical constituent of clay is ?

Options
Aluminium silicate
Zeolites
Aluminium borosilicate
Silicon oxide

Sugars are converted in the liver into

Options
Glycogen
Vitamin
Monosaccharide
None of above

Which of the following gases is the most toxic?

Options
Carbon dioxide
Sulphur dioxide
Carbon monoxide
Acetic acid

Which of the following elements behave chemically both as a metal and a non metal?

Options
Boron
Carbon
Argon
Mercury

How many different oxides are formed by nitrogen ?

Options
Two
Three
Four
Five

The major component used in preparation of different types of glasses is :


Options
Sodium borate
Sodium silicate
Silica
Calcium silicate

What is metallurgy ?

Options
Process of extracting metal in pure form from its ore.
Process of creating alloys of metals.
Process of making metals live long.
None of above.

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,02mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 1,2mol/l. Find concentration of A after 10 seconds.

Options
0.4 mol/l
0.6 mol/l
0.8 mol/l
1.0 mol/l

Which have maximum number of isotopes ?

Options
Bromine
Aluminium
Polonium
Carbon

Which prefix is often used with scientific terms to indicate that something is the same, equal or
constant

Options
Iso
Mega
Meta
Quasi

Select the one which is not a mixture

Options
Air
Gasoline
LPG
Distilled water

Which one of the following best defines the word “allotropes”?


Options
Different structural forms of an element
A pair of substances that differ by H+
Elements that possess properties intermediate between those of metals and non-metals
Atoms of a given atomic number that have a specific number of neutrons

What is the formula of the compound formed between magnesium and oxygen?

Options
MgO
Mg2O2
Mg2O3
MgO2

Which one of the following statements concerning elements in the Periodic Table is correct?

Options
Elements of the same group all have the same number of electrons in the outermost occupied
electron shell.
Elements of Group 16 occur as cations in ionic compounds.
Oxides of elements in Groups 16 and 17 are basic.
The halogens (Group 17) are all gases at room temperature.

Which one of the following substances will form strong hydrogen bonds?

Options
HCOOH
CH3CN
CCl4
SiH4

Which one of the following statements regarding a catalyst is not correct?

Options
An enzyme is a catalyst that only binds certain substrates.
An enzyme is a protein that is a highly efficient catalyst for one or more chemical reactions in
a living system.
Catalysts increase the rate of a reaction by altering the mechanism, thereby increasing the
activation energy.
An enzyme is a catalyst

What happens when a catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium?

Options
The reaction follows an alternative pathway of lower activation energy.
The heat of reaction decreases.
The potential energy of the reactants decreases.
The potential energy of the products decreases.
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Question
23. 23 (1/27)
24. 24
Number
25. 25 of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
1
2
3
4

Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?

Options
1
2
3
4

Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?

Options
Does not have a double stranded structure
PrevThymine is present
SkipDoes not obey Chargaff’s rule
NextThe sugar contained in RNA is a ribose

Which of the following is the general formula for an alcohol?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is the general formula for a phenol (alcohol on a benzene ring)?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is a general formula for ether?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is a general formula for an amine?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

What class of compound has the following general formula: Ar—C(=O)—H?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—R’?

Options
Aldehyde
Alkene
Carboxylic acid
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—OH?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—O—R’?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—NH2?

Options
Aldehyde
Amide
Amine
Carboxylic acid

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–OH?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: C6H5–OH?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–NH2?

Options
Organic halide
Amine
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–H?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–CH2–CH3?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–OH?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–NH2?

Options
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is methanol?

Options
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Alcohol

What class of compound is butanal?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is methyl propanoate?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
What class of compound is butanone?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is ethanamide?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Amide
Ester

What class of compound is dopamine?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Amine

How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are there in the allene molecule, H2CCCH2?

Options
Six σ bonds and two π bonds
Two σ bonds and six π bonds
Four σ bonds and four π bonds
Eight σ bonds and no π bonds
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Question
23. 23 (1/128)
24. 24
Lipids
25. 25provide insulation against cold and hot weather to exoskeleton of insects in form of
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Cutin
28
29.Waxes
29
30.Cholesterol
30
31.Oil
31
32. 32
33. 33 number of carbon atoms in chain results in higher
Greater
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Melting
36 point
37. 37
Boiling point
38. 38
39.Freezing
39 oint
40.Stability
40
41. 41
Derivatives
42. 42 of phosphatidic acid, which are composed of glycerol, fatty acids and phosphoric acids
are known
43. 43 as
44. 44
Options
45. 45
46.Phospholipids
Prev 46
47. 47
SkipAcylghycerols
48. 48
NextTriglycerides
49. 49
Esters
50. 50
In51. 51 diet, all cholesterol comes from
human
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Animal
54 products
55. 55
56.Vegetable
products
56
57.Both
57 A and B
58.None
58 of these
59. 59
Condensed
60. 60 structural formula of Palmitic acid is
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
63
64.CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
64
65. 65
66.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
66
67.CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
67
68. 68
Condensed
69. 69 structural formula of Caproic acid is
70. 70
Options
71. 71
72.CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
72
73.CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
73
74.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
74
75.CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
75
76. 76
77. 77 state of fat at room temperature is
Physical
78. 78
79. 79
Options
80.Solid
80
81. 81
Liquid
82. 82
83.Gas
83
Plasma
84. 84
85. 85
Which
86. 86of following protects our heart and kidneys from injury?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
89.Skin
89
90.Muscles
90
91.Lubricants
91
92.Fat
92
93. 93
94. 94of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone insulin?
Which
95. 95
96. 96
Options
97.Mn++
97
98. 98
Mg++
99. 99
100.Ca++
100
101.Zn++
101
102. 102
Oxidation
103. 103 of which substance in the body yields the most calories
104. 104
Options
105. 105
106.Glucose
106
107.Glycogen
107
108.Protein
108
109. 109
Lipids
110. 110
111. is
Milk 111deficient in which vitamins?
112. 112
113. 113
Options
114.Vitamin
114 C
115. 115
116.Vitamin
116 A
117.Vitamin
117 B2
118. 118
119.Vitamin
119 K
120. 120
Milk is deficient of which mineral?
121. 121
122. 122
Options
123. 123
Phosphorus
124. 124
125.Sodium
125
126.Iron
126
127.Potassium
127
128. 128
Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?

Options
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Cytoplasm
Golgi apparatus

Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

Options
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Entoplasmic reticulum

The average pH of Urine is

Options
7.0
6.0
8.0
0.0

The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of

Options
Diffusion
Effusion
Affusion
Coagulation

The key enzyme in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis is

Options
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
AMP activated proteinkinase
Proteinphosphatase
None of these

Arachidonate has 20 carbon atoms with

Options
3 doublebonds
2 doublebonds
4 doublebonds
8 doublebonds

Fatty acid synthesis takes place in

Options
Mitochondria
Cellmembrane
Cytosol
Endoplasmicreticulum

Atherosclerosis can cause blood

Options
Thinning
Clotting
Thickening
Noneofthese

Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with

Options
2 double bonds
3 double bonds
One double bond
None of these

How many ATPs are formed during complete oxidation of palmitate?

Options
35
96
129
131

Humans are unable to digest

Options
Starch
Complex carbohydrates
Denatured proteins
Cellulose

Saliva contains all of the following except

Options
Hormones
Amylase
Bacteria-killingenzymes
Antibodies

Storage polysaccharide made by animals is

Options
Amylopectin
Glycogen
Cellulose
Collagen

The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is

Options
Ribose
Galactose
Mannose
Maltose

Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to

Options
Phosphoenolpyruvate
AcetylCoA
Lactate
Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate

Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

Options
Amylose
Cellobiose
Lactose
Noneofthese

Which substance is an electrolyte?

Options
CH3OH
C6H12O6
H2O
KOH
Which compound has both ionic and covalent bonding?

Options
CaCO3
CH2C12
CH3OH
C6H12O6

Which element is composed of molecules that each contain a multiple covalent bond?

Options
Chlorine
Fluorine
Hydrogen
Nitrogen

As a bond between a hydrogen atom and a sulfur atom is formed, electrons are

Options
Shared to form an ionic bond
Shared to form a covalent bond
Transferred to form an ionic bond
Transferred to form a covalent bond

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that a carbon atom can form?

Options
1
3
2
4

Which type of bond is found between atoms of solid cobalt?

Options
Nonpolar covalent
Polar covalent
Metallic
Ionic

Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule containing polar covalent bonds?

Options
H2O
CCl4
NH3
H2

Which formula represents a polar molecule?


Options
H2
H2O
CO2
CCL4

Two hydrogen atoms form a hydrogen molecule when

Options
One atom loses a valence electron to the other atom
One atom shares four electrons with the other atom
The two atoms collide and both atoms gain energy
The two atoms collide with sufficient energy to form a bond

Which statement describes a chemical change?

Options
Alcohol evaporates.
Water vapor forms snowflakes.
Table salt (NaCl) is crushed into powder.
Glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen produce CO2 and H2O.

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) + energy Which
statement describes the energy changes in this reaction?

Options
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, only.
Energy is released as bonds are broken, only.
Energy is absorbed as bonds are broken, and energy is released as bonds are formed.
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, and energy is released as bonds are broken.

What occurs in order to break the bond in a Cl2 molecule?

Options
Energy is absorbed.
Energy is released.
The molecule creates energy.
The molecule destroys energy.

Which atom has the least attraction for the electrons in a bond between that atom and an atom of
hydrogen?

Options
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Fluorine

Which compound has the least ionic character?


Options
KCl
CaCl2
AlCl3
CCl4

Which kind of compound generally results when nonmetal atoms chemically combine with metal
atoms?

Options
Hydrogen
Ionic
Covalent
Metallic

As sodium reacts with fluorine to form the compound NaF, each sodium atom will

Options
Gain 1 electron
Gain 2 electrons
Lose 1 electron
Lose 2 electrons

Which formula correctly represents the compound calcium hydroxide?

Options
CaOH
Ca2OH
CaOH2
Ca(OH)2

A substance has a high melting point and conducts electricity in the liquid phase. This substance is

Options
Ne
Hg
NaCl
SiC

A substance that does not conduct electricity as a solid but does conduct electricity when melted is
most likely classified as

Options
An ionic compound
A molecular compound
A metal
A nonmetal

Which formula represents a molecular solid?


Options
NaCl(s)
C6H12O6(s)
Cu(s)
KF(s)

What occurs when a coordinate covalent bond is formed between nitrogen and hydrogen in the
ammonium ion, NH4 + ?

Options
Hydrogen provides a pair of electrons to be shared with nitrogen.
Nitrogen provides a pair of electrons to be shared with hydrogen.
Hydrogen transfers a pair of electrons to nitrogen.
Nitrogen transfers a pair of electrons to hydrogen.

Which type of bond would be formed when a hydrogen ion (H+ ) reacts with an ammonia
molecule (NH3)?

Options
A coordinate covalent bond
A nonpolar covalent bond
A metallic bond
An ionic bond

Which element has a crystalline lattice composed of positive ions through which electrons flow
freely?

Options
Bromine
Calcium
Carbon
Sulfur

The high electrical conductivity of metals is primarily due to

Options
High ionization energies
Filled energy levels
Mobile electrons
High electronegativities

Which is an example of a network solid?

Options
SiC(s)
CO2(s)
AgNO3(s)
Ag(s)

Which compound is a network solid?


Options
SiO2
Na2O
H2O
CO2

Which compound is a poor conductor of heat and electricity and has a high melting point?

Options
SiO2
CO2
H2O
N2O

Which combination of atoms can form a polar covalent bond?

Options
H and Br
H and H
N and N
Na and Br

Which type of bond is formed between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom in CH3OH?

Options
Ionic
Electrovalent
Polar covalent
Nonpolar covalent

In a nonpolar covalent bond, electrons are

Options
Shared equally by two atoms
Shared unequally by two atoms
Transferred from one atom to another
Located in a mobile "sea" shared by many atoms

Which substance is correctly paired with its type of bonding?

Options
NaBr–nonpolar covalent
HCl–nonpolar covalent
NH3–polar covalent
Br2–polar covalent

Hexane (C6H14) and water do not form a solution. Which statement explains this phenomenon?

Options
Hexane is polar and water is nonpolar.
Hexane is ionic and water is polar.
Hexane is nonpolar and water is polar.
Hexane is nonpolar and water is ionic.

Which formula represents a polar molecule?

Options
Br2
CO2
CH4
NH3

Which of the following is the correct formula for propene?

Options
C4H10
C3H8
C4H8
C3H6

Which of these is the formula for an alkyne?

Options
C15H30
C10H18
C20H42
C30H64

Which of the following compounds has only single bonds?

Options
Octene
C3H4
C7H16
Decyne

Which of these is the formula for an alkene?

Options
C13H26
C19H36
C50H102
C14H30

Which of the following compounds does NOT exist?

Options
Acetylene
Methene
Nonyne
Cyclopentane

Acetylene is best described as

Options
The simplest alkyne.
An alkene with two carbon atoms.
An alkyne containing only one carbon atom.
More than one of the above

The formula for butane is

Options
C3H8
C4H10
C4H8
C3H10

Which of these is NOT an isomer of 2-heptene?

Options
1-heptene
Cycloheptane
3-heptene
2-heptyne

Ethanol is sometimes called

Options
Ethyl alcohol
Isopropyl alcohol
Butanol
Ethane

Which of these alcohols is incorrectly matched with its name?

Options
C7H15OH - heptanol
C10H21OH - decanol
C8H15OH - octanol
C9H19OH - nonyl alcohol

The general formula of monosaccharides is

Options
CnH2nOn
C2nH2On
CnH2O2n
CnH2nO2n

The general formula of polysaccharides is

Options
(C6H10O5)n
(C6H12O5)n
(C6H10O6)n
(C6H10O6)n

The aldose sugar is

Options
Glycerose
Ribulose
Erythrulose
Dihydoxyacetone

A triose sugar is

Options
Glycerose
Ribose
Erythrose
Fructose

A pentose sugar is

Options
Dihydroxyacetone
Ribulose
Erythrose
Glucose

The pentose sugar present mainly in the heart muscle is

Options
Lyxose
Ribose
Arabinose
Xylose

Vitamin C is required for the production and maintenance of:

Options
Collagen
Hormone
Ascorbic Acid
Red Blood Cells
Vitamin C deficiency is leads to:

Options
Scurvy
Cold
Cancer
Rickets

Which of the following is a function of Vitamin A in the body?

Options
Vision, bone and body growth
Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin
Normal cell development and reproduction
All of the above

Common food sources of Vitamin A are:

Options
Milk, eggs, butter, cheese, cream, and liver
White sugar, honey, and sugar cane
Broccoli, apricots, cantaloupe, carrots, sweet potato, spinach
Both A and C

Vitamin B-12 deficiency caused by lack of intrinsic factor is called:

Options
Pernicious anemia
Poor circulation of the red blood cells
Beri Beri
None of the above

What groups of people need additional Vitamin K?

Options
Premature newborns
People who do not have enough bile to absorb fat
Both A and B
None of the above answers

The vitamin Folate works together with to produce new red blood cells.

Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin B-12
None of the above

Which of the following is not a water soluble vitamin?


Options
Tocopherol
Pyridoxine
Pantothenic acid
Niacin

Which of the following is not a Fat-soluble vitamin?

Options
Calciferol
Retinoids
Tocopherol
Ascorbic acid

Which of the following Vitamin is also called as Pyridoxine?

Options
Vitamin B5
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B2

Which of the following is not included in fat soluble vitamins?

Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Vitamin B

How many types of vitamins are there?

Options
Two
Three
Four
Five

Which of the following statements is true about a peptide bond (RCONHR')?

Options
It is non planar.
It is capable of forming a hydrogen bond.
The cis configuration is favoured over the trans configuration.
Single bond rotation is permitted between nitrogen and the carbonyl

Which of the following statements is untrue about protein secondary structure?

Options
The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta turns are examples of protein secondary
structure.
The ability of peptide bonds to form intramolecular hydrogen bonds is important to secondary
structure
The steric influence of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.
The hydrophilic/hydrophobic character of amino acid residues is important to secondary
structure.

Identify which of the following terms refers to the arrangement of different protein subunits in a
multiprotein complex.

Options
Primarystructure
Secondarystructure
Tertiarystructure
Quaternarystructure

Identify which of the following terms refers to the overall three dimensional shape of a protein.

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving the residue
of the amino acid serine.

Options
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals interactions
None of the above

Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving the residue
of the amino acid valine.

Options
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals interactions
None of the above

What type of ring structure is present in structures A and B?


Options
Quinoline
Purine
Naphthalene
Pyrimidine

What type of structures are the compounds (i) - (iv)?

Options
Nucleic acids
Nucleotides
Nucleosides
Deoxyriboses

On which of the following molecules would you find a codon?

Options
Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
Small nuclear RNA

On which of the following molecules would you find an anticodon?

Options
Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
Small nuclear RNA

The amino acid that has hydrocarbon branch chain is:

Options
Lysine
Cysteine
Glutamic acid
Valine

Which of the following substances can give diesters:

Options
Lysine
Serine
Glycine
Alanine

Serine is:

Options
A monoamino–monocarboxylic aromatic acid
A monoamino–dicarboxylic acid
A diamino–monocarboxylic acid
A hydroxylated amino acid

In phosphorproteins, the phosphoric acid is bound to hydroxyl groups by bonds of type:

Options
Ether
Ionic
Carbonyl
Ester

The number of water molecules, eliminated when a molecule of heptapeptide is formed, is:

Options
5
6
7
8

The following substance contains 3 oxygen atoms in the molecule:

Options
Glycine
Valine
Lysine
Cysteine

Regarding pH, the following statement is true:

Options
When mixing an acid and a base, the mixture that results has the pH = 14.
The sum of pH values of substances in a solution is always equal to 14.
The add of small quantities of acid or base to a buffer solution does not change significantly its
pH.
The solution of a weak acid has high values of pH.

Regarding pH, the following statement is true:

Options
It is a parameter characterizing the strength of an acid or a base.
It is a characteristic of each acid or base.
It is a measure of the concentration of H in an aqueous solution.
It has different values if the substance is solid or gaseous.

Acids are chemical species able to:

Options
Give molecules
Give atoms
Give protons
Give molecular hydrogen

The formic acid has the following characteristic chemical property, unlike the other saturated
carboxylic acids:

Options
Is the weakest acid
Has reducing character
Has oxidant character
Sublimates easily

With Tollens reagent, aldehydes suffer a reaction of:

Options
Oxidation
Hydrogenation
Reduction
Condensation

What can result by the reduction of a ketone?

Options
A primary alcohol
A secondary alcohol
A carboxylic acid
A compound with a mixed function alcohol – ketone

What can result by the reduction of an aldehyde?

Options
A primary alcohol
A secondary alcohol
A carboxylic acid
A compound with a mixed function alcohol – aldehyde

Which of the following compounds reacts with an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide?

Options
Methane
Propanol
Phenol
Benzene

Which of the following is a branched chain hydrocarbon?

Options
Ethene
2-methyl-2-butene
2-butene
2-pentene

The linear alkanes cannot participate to reactions of:

Options
Addition
Dehydrogenation
Oxidation
Substitution

Which of the following substances: (I) naphthalene, (II) ethanol, (III) triolein, (IV) glucose, (V)
amylopectin, (VI) glutamic acid, does not dissolve in water?

Options
I, III, VI
I, III, V
II, IV, IV
I, IV

The separating process of the components of a mixture, based on the differences between the
boiling points of the components, is possible by:

Options
Extraction
Distillation
Sublimation
Crystallization

The separation process of a solid component of a mixture, based on its property to pass through
heating direct from the solid phase into the gaseous phase, without melting, is called:

Options
Crystallization
Decantation
Sublimation
Distillation

Which of the following substances presents only primary carbon atoms in its structure?

Options
Methane
Acetylene
Ethane
Propane

How many secondary carbon atoms contain the following hydrocarbon chain? СН3-СН2- СН2-
СН2- СН3

Options
N=5
N=3
N=0
N=2

The combustion of a hydrocarbon will produce mandatory:

Options
SO2
CO2
CO
SO3

Which one of the following will exhibit highest osmotic pressure at 25°C?

Options
KCl
Glucose.
Urea.
Calcium chloride.

Unit of molarity is:

Options
Kg / litre.
Mol / litre.
Gm / litre.
None of these.

Two solutions C and D are separated by a semi-permeable membrane. If liquid flows from D to C
then.

Options
Both have same concentration.
D is less concentrated than C.
D is more concentrated than C.
None of these.

When sugar is added to water, what is the change observed in boiling and freezing points of
water?

Options
Both boiling point and freezing point decreases.
Both boiling point and freezing point increases.
Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases.
Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases.

When a solute is dissolved in water it shows:

Options
Decrease in freezing point of water.
Decrease in boiling point of water.
Increase in vapour pressure of water.
All of the above.

The boiling point of Benzene, Ethanol, Octane and Pentane are 80°C, 78°C, 126°C and 36°C
respectively. Which of the following will show highest vapour pressure at room temperature.

Options
Benzene.
Octane.
Pentane.
Entahol.

Molecular weight of non-volatile and soluble solute can be determined by:

Options
Elevation of boiling point.
Depression in freezing point.
Lowering of vapour pressure.
Osmotic pressure.
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Which can act as buffer?

Options
NH4 Cl + HCl
CH3 COOH + H2 CO3
40ml of 0.1M NaCN + 20ml of 0.1M HCN
NaCl + NaOH

NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is

Options
Not a buffer solution with pH < 7
Not a buffer solution with pH > 7
A buffer solution with pH < 7
A buffer solution with pH > 7

For an acid buffer solution the pH is 3. The pH can be increased by

Options
Increasing the concentration of salt
PrevIncreasing the concentration of acid
SkipDecreasing the concentration of salt
NextIndependent of concentration of acid & salt

Which of the following does not react with water?

Options
Barium
Calcium
Beryllium
Strontium

Which among the following statements is true about the following chemical reaction? 3Fe(s) + 4H2
O → Fe3 O4 (s) + 4H2

Options
Iron metal is getting reduced
Water is acting as a reducing agent
Water is acting as an oxidizing agent
Water is getting oxidized

Identify the products formed in the following reaction CH3 COOCH3 + H2 O → A + B

Options
CH3 COOH and CH3 OH
CH3 COOOH and CH4
CO2 and C2 H6
No reaction
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21. 21 (1/25)
22. 22
How
23. might
23 solid sodium carbonate be obtained from sodium carbonate solution?
24. 24
Options
25. 25
Centrifugation
Filtration
Evaporation
It cannot be extracted

What is the best description of blood?

Options
Sol
Foam
Solution
Aerosol

A suspension is formed from uniform particles of solid, of diameter 10 Mm, suspended in a


solvent. What is the best description of this system?
Prev
Options
Skip
Monodisperse and coarse
Next
Monodisperse and colloidal
Polydisperse and coarse
Polydisperse and colloidal

Which one of the following dispersions does not have liquid continuous phase?

Options
Nanosuspension
Microemulsion
Gel
Foam

Which one of the following systems has the smallest sized domains in its dispersed phase?

Options
Nanoemulsion
Coarse suspension
Coarse emulsion
Microemulsion

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the change in domain structure as more oil
is added to a water-in-oil emulsion?

Options
Bicontinuous, spherical, cylinder-like
Spherical, cylinder-like, bicontinuous
Spherical, bicontinuous, cylinder-like
Cylinder-like, spherical, bicontinuous

Which method for the production of dispersions involves the formation of particles from
materials dissolved in true solutions?

Options
Bottom-up
Top-down
Milling
High pressure homogenization

The scattering of light by coarse and colloidal dispersed systems is known as?

Options
Contrast matching
DLVO theory
Tyndall effect
Creaming

Which of the following is not a mechanism for the separation of a physically unstable suspension
of magnesium hydroxide in water?

Options
Flocculation
Aggregation
Ostwald ripening
Hydrolysis

In the DLVO theory of colloids, normal thermal motion may be sufficient to overcome the energy
barrier that leads to irreversible particle aggregation. The name of this energy barrier is which
one of the following?

Options
Primary maximum
Secondary maximum
Primary minimum
Secondary minimum

One of following substances that belongs to colloid system is....


Options
Milk
Mineral water
Vinegar
Salty water

Dispersed phase and dispersing medium of smoke are..

Options
Solid in liquid
Liquid in solid
Solid in gas
Gas in solid

Margarine is a colloid system of...

Options
Foam
Emulsion
Aerosol
Solid emulsion

Light scattering in colloid system is known as..

Options
Brownian Motion
Tyndall Effect
Coagulation
Electrophoresis

These following things are colloid properties, except...

Options
Composed of 2 phase
Stable
Homogeneous
Can be filtered

An _________ is a sol with the continuous phase a gas. Fog is an _________ of water droplets.

Options
Aerosol
Emulsion
Agglomerate
Electrophoresis

An _________ is a sol in which the suspended particles are liquid droplets and the continuous phase
is also a liquid. The 2 phases are immiscible, otherwise a solution would form.

Options
Aerosol
Emulsion
Agglomerate
Electrophoresis

A _________ is a sol of solid particles scattered in a liquid. Foam is a colloidal system in which gas
bubbles dispersed in a liquid or solid.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Streaming potential
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles with
each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.

Options
Magnitude
Shape
Surface
Size

Is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary liquid
induced by an external field.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Is the charged field generated by charged particles moving in a stationary liquid.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Is the generation of an electric field by locomotion of the liquid along stationary charged surfaces.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Streaming potential
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Emulsion is:
Options
Butter;
River ooze;
Stained glass;
Textile fabrics.

Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

Options
Prevent making of a colloid
Stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization
Stabilize the mixture
Enrich the aroma

Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

Options
Liquid dispersed in gas
Gas dispersed in gas
Solid dispersed in gas
Solid dispersed in liquid
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Question
23. 23 (1/46)
24. 24
Amount
25. 25 of amino acid residues in proteins ranges from
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.50-2000
28
29.2000-4000
29
30.4000-6000
30
31.7000-10,000
31
32. 32
33. 33
Polar amino acids are usually found
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.On36surface of proteins
37. 37
Inside core of proteins
38. 38
39.At39sides of proteins
40.Can
40 be present anywhere in proteins
41. 41
Sulfur
42. 42atom of cysteine is involved in formation of
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Sulfide
45 group
46.Sulfhydryl
Prev 46 group
SkipSulfite group
NextSulphates

Number of amino acids that have hydrophobic side chains are

Options
7
8
9
10

Bond formed between two amino acid molecules is

Options
Peptide bond
Sulfur linkage
Ionic bond
Coordinate covalent bond

A mutation has changed an isoleucine residue of a protein to Glutamic acid, which statement best
describes its location in a hydrophilic exterior

Options
On the surface since it is hydrophilic in nature
In side the core of the protein since it is hydrophobic in nature
Any where inside or outside
Inside the core of protein since it has a polar but uncharged side chain

Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of

Options
Hemoglobin
Myoglobin
Insulin
Collagen 3- Some proteins contain

Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the physiological pH ?

Options
Valine
Leucine
Isoleucine
None of the followings

Mother of a mal nourished child has been instructed to include a complete protein in diet for her
child, which out of the followings proteins should be recommended?

Options
Pulses
Wheat
Soy Protein
Milk

All of the below mentioned amino acids can participate in hydrogen bonding except one

Options
Serine
Cysteine
Threonine
Valine

Which out of the followings is not a fibrous protein?

Options
Carbonic anhydrase
Collagen
Fibrinogen
Keratin

Which one of the following amino acids may be considered a hydrophobic amino acid at
physiological p H of 7.4

Options
Isoleucine
Arginine
Aspartic acid
Threonine

Which of the characteristics below apply to amino acid Glycine?

Options
Optically inactive
Hydrophilic, basic and charged
Hydrophobic
Hydrophilic, acidic and charged

Which of the amino acids below is the uncharged derivative of an acidic amino acid?

Options
Cystine
Tyrosine
Glutamine
Serine

Choose the correct category for milk protein casein out of the followings

Options
Nucleoprotein
Phosphoprotein
Lipoprotein
Glycoprotein

Which of the following statements about amino acids is correct?

Options
Amino acids are classified according to the structures and properties of their side chains.
Amino acids are uncharged at neutral pH.
Amino acids in proteins are mainly in the D-configuration.
Twenty four amino acids are commonly used in protein synthesis.

Which type of bonding is responsible for the secondary structure of proteins?

Options
Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues.
Hydrogen bonding between the C=O and N-H groups of peptide bonds.
Peptide bonds between amino acids.
Salt bridges between charged side chains of amino acids

Which term below best defines the 'quaternary structure' of a protein?

Options
The arrangement of two or more polypeptide subunits into a single functional complex
The folding of the polypeptide backbone in three-dimensional space.
The interaction of amino acid side chains.
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

Which of the following most accurately describes how secondary structures in proteins are
stabilised?

Options
Through ionic bonds operating between oppositely charged amino acid side chains.
Through covalent bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.
Through hydrogen bonds between different amino acid side chains.
Through hydrogen bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.

Which amino acid can form disulphide bonds?

Options
Glycine.
Proline.
Glutamate.
Cysteine.

Which of the following statements is false?

Options
Primary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
Secondary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
Three dimensional structure of a protein determines the function of a protein
Amino acid sequence is absolutely invariant for a particular protein

Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?

Options
Frederick Sanger
Mendel
Watson and Francis Crick
Anton van Leeuwenhoek

Tertiary conformation of proteins is maintained by 3 types of bonds namely ionic, hydrogen and

Options
Sulfide
Disulfide
Covalent
Peptide

Hemoglobin is a

Options
Monomer
Dimer
Trimer
Tetramer

Native state of a protein can be disrupted by

Options
Temperature
PH
Removal of water
Presence of hydrophilic surfaces

Identify the wrong statement

Options
Hemoglobin is a globular protein
Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein
Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water
Collagen is a fibrous protein

1In 3° structure of proteins, folding and shaping is done by

Options
Hydrophobic interactions
Polar interactions
Hydrogen bonding
None of the mentioned

β-pleated sheets are the examples of

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the same
chain is

Options
Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure

A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side is

Options
Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure

Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups

Options
Phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan
Glycine, alanine, leucine
Lysine, arginine, histidine
Serine, threonine, cysteine

The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are

Options
Aspartate and glutamate
Arginine and histidine
Cysteine and methionine
Proline and valine

Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid?

Options
Serine
Threonine
Lysine
Histidine

Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

Options
Cysteine
Asparagine
Glutamine
Phenylalanine

Which of the following is an imino acid?

Options
Alanine
Glycine
Proline
Serine

Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is

Options
1
2
3
4

Which of the following are an example of epimers?

Options
Glucose & Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
A&c

Fructose and Glucose can be distinguished by

Options
Selwinoff’s reagent
Benedict’s reagent
Fehling’s reagent
Barfoed’s reagent

Which of the following is an example of monosaccharide?

Options
Galactose
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose

Which of the following is an example of disaccharide?

Options
Glucose
Fructose
Galactose
Maltose

In maltose, between which of the following carbons there is a linkage?

Options
C1, C2
C2, C3
C1, C4
C2, C4
Which of the following carbohydrates is a triose?

Options
Glucose
Ribose
Ribulose
Glyceraldehyde

Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following sugar units?

Options
Glucose and fructose
Glucose and galactose
Glucose and sucrose
Glucose and ribose

In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants?

Options
Glycogen
Starch
Dextrin
Cellulose

In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in liver?

Options
Glycogen
Starch
Dextrin
Cellulose

Which of the following are the storage polysaccharides?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Glucose
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22. 22
Question
23. 23 (1/87)
24. 24
The
25.addition
25 of a catalyst to the reaction system
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Increases
28 the rate of forward reaction only
29.Increases
29 the rate of reverse reaction
30.Increases
30 the rate of forward but decreases the rate of backward reaction
31.Increases
31
the rate of forward as well as backward reaction equally
32. 32
On33. 33
increasing the temperature the rate of reaction increases mainly because
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.The
36 activation energy of the reaction increases
37. 37
Concentration of the reacting molecules increases
38. 38
39.Collision
39 frequency increases
40.None
40 of these
41. 41
The
42.value
42 of activation energy is primarily determined by
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Temperature
45
46. 46
PrevEffective collision
47. 47
SkipConcentration of reactants
48. 48
NextChemical nature of reactants and products
49. 49
50. of
Sum 50exponents of molar concentration is called
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Order
53 of reaction
54. 54
55.Molecularity
55
56. 56 of reaction
Rate
57.Average
57 of reaction
58. 58
In59.
rate59expression the concentration of reactants is negative. It shows
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Concentration
62 of reactant does not change
63.Concentration
63 of product increases
64.Concentration
64
of reactant decreases
65. 65
66.Concentration
66 of reactant increases
67. 67
Unit of rate of reaction is
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
Moles dm-3 sec-1
71. 71
72.Moles
72 sec-1
73.Moles
73 dm-3
74.Mol-1
74 dm-3 sec-1
75. 75
Rate
76. of
76disappearance of reactant is equal to
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Rate
79 of reaction
80.Energy
80 released during reaction
81. 81
Rate of formation of product
82. 82
83.A 83
and b
84. 84
Radiations are absorbed in
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
Spectrophotometer method
Optical relation method
Dilatometric method
Refractometric method

Activated complex is formed due to

Options
Pressure
Ineffective collisions
Effective collision
Temperature

Energy required to form transition state is called

Options
Ea
V
P.E
K.E

Which of the following will have very high rate of reaction?

Options
Double decomposition reaction
Ionic reactions
Neutralization reaction
All of above

Greater the concentration of reactant

Options
Greater will be dx/dt
Dx/dt will be moderate
Lesser will be dx/dt
Any of above

Anything which increases rate of reaction without being involved in the reaction

Options
Promoter
Inhibitor
Catalyst
All of the above

The substances that reduces the effectiveness of a catalyst are called

Options
Promoters
Inhibitors
Poisoning catalysts
Pro-catalysts

When catalysts and reactants are in more than one phase it is

Options
Homogeneous catalysis
Heterogeneous catalysis
Catalysis
Ea

Each catalyst has

Options
Specificity
Its own Ea
Special structure
All of above

Biocatalytical proteins are

Options
Enzymes
Lipids
Substrate
Any of above

A catalyst can not effect

Options
Products
Chemical equilibrium
Reactants
Both a & b

An enzyme has its specificity due to

Options
Substrate
Temperature
Structure
Pressure

When the reaction completes in more than one steps rate of reaction will be determined by

Options
Fast step
Slowest step
All steps
Molecularity of the reaction

Energy of activation for backward reaction is less than forward reaction for ________ reaction

Options
Endothermic
Exothermic
Moderate
Fast

Which statement is incorrect about catalyst

Options
It is used in smaller amount
Decrease activation energy
Specific in action
It affects specific rate constant

Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

Options
2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
Cl2 → 2Cl
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
2HI → H2 + I2
HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


Options
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
2HI → H2 + I2
L2 → 2Cl

Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

Options
The point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;
The point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;
The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;
The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous solutions:

Options
Solubility product constant (Ksp);
Acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
Molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
Molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) shifted to reactants, if:

Options
Temperature will be increased
Pressure will be decreased
Concentration of ammonia will be decreased
Concentration of hydrogen will be increased.

Rate of decomposition of H2O2 will increase if:

Options
Temperature will be increased
Inhibitor will be added
Solvent will be added
Temperature will be decreased

Rate of chemical reaction between gases with increase of pressure, in common:

Options
Increase
Decrease
Remain the same
All of this is possible

For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, increasing of chemical rate of forward reaction is
IMPOSSIBLE if we’ll increase:

Options
Temperature
Pressure
Concentration of hydrogen
Concentration of ammonia

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH shifted to product, if we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Decrease temperature
Decrease concentration of nitrogen

Which factor will effect on shifting of chemical equilibrium for reaction Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) = 3Fe(s)
+ 4H2O(g):

Options
Adding catalyst to system
Changing of pressure
Changing of Fe3O4 concentration
Increasing of hydrogen concentration

Rate of chemical reaction Mg with acetic acid will NOT increase, if we’ll:

Options
Use Mg powder
Increase temperature
Decrease temperature
Add HI to system, as catalyst

For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H process, increasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

Options
Shifting of equilibrium to reactants
Increasing reaction rate for forward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction
Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction

For N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH process, decreasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

Options
Shifting of equilibrium to reactants
Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for forward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction

For reaction 2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2- ΔH shifting equilibrium to product is impossible, if we’ll:

Options
Decrease temperature
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Increase concentration of oxygen

Pressure changing will NOT effect for reaction:

Options
FeO(s) + CO(g) = Fe(s) + CO2(g
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
2CO(g) + O2(g) = 2CO2(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

Decreasing of pressure shifts equilibrium to products in case:

Options
FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)
CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

Increasing of concentration of reactants shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
Fe(s) + H2O(g) = FeO(s) + H2(g)
H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI

Increasing of temperature shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
2NH3(g) = N2(g) +3H2(g)+ ΔH
2H2(g) + O2 = 2H2O – H
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Decrease pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase concentration of CO2
Increase pressure

For reaction C(s) + 2N2O(g) = 2N2(g) + CO2(g)- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is possible, due
these factors:

Options
Increasing of pressure; decreasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; increasing N2O concentration
Increasing of pressure; decreasing CO2 concentration
Increasing of pressure; decreasing N2O concentration

With the highest rate of chemical reaction, next oxidation reaction will go:

Options
Cu on air in standard conditions
Cu on pure O2 with temperature elevation
Mg on air in normal temperature
Mg on pure O2 with temperature elevation

To increase product’s yield of reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, one should:

Options
Decrease pressure
Add catalyst
Increase concentration of hydrogen
Increase temperature

For reaction SO2 + O2 = SO3 – H, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, due these factors:

Options
Increasing of pressure; Increasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; Decreasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; Increasing of temperature
Increasing of pressure; Decreasing of temperature

For reaction SO32-(sol) + H2O = HSO3- (sol)+ OH-(sol)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is
impossible, if we’ll:

Options
Add an acid
Add a water
Add an alkali
Increase temperature

Decreasing of volume will NOT shift equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3(sol)
H2SO3(sol) = H2O(l) + SO2(g)
2NH3(g) = N2(g) + 3H2(g)

Increasing of volume will shift equilibrium to products in case:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)
2C(s) + O2(g) = 2CO(g)
H2SO3(sol) = H2O(l) + SO2(g)
BaO(s) +CO2(g) = BaCO3(g)

If temperature is increased, then:

Options
Rate of exothermic as well as endothermic reactions is increases.
Rate of exothermic reactions is increases but decreases for endothermic reactions
Rate of endothermic reactions is increases but decreases for exothermic reactions
Rate of exothermic as well as endothermic reactions is decreases.

For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Decrease pressure
Increase H2CO3 concentration

Changing of concentration of A will NOT effecton rate of reaction:

Options
A(g) + B(g) = AB(g)
2A(g) + B(g) = A2B(g)
2A(s) + 2B(g) = 2AB(s)
A(g) + 2B(g) = AB2(g)

Rate of homogeneous exothermic reaction of ammonia synthesis CANNOT be increased, if we’ll

Options
Increase temperature
Use catalyst
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature

Choose the main reason of reaction rate elevation though temperature increase.

Options
Number of molecular collisions is increased
Activation energy is increased
Activation energy is decreased
Number of active molecules is increased

Addition of catalyst increases reaction rate due to:

Options
Activation energy is increased
Activation energy is decreased
Number of active molecules is decreased
Enthalpy of reaction is increased
Addition of catalyst increases reaction rate of:

Options
Only straight reaction
Only backward reaction
Both types: straight and backward reactions
For homogeneous reactions

When system moves to equilibrium…

Options
Rates of forward and backward reactions are increases.
Rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward decreases
Rate of backward reaction increases and rate forward of decreases
Rates of forward and backward reactions are decreases

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g), if temperature is increased, shifts to reactants.


Why?

Options
Because rate of backward reaction increases and rate forward of decreases
Rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward decreases
Rates of forward and backward reactions are increases, but in greater degree increases for
backward reaction
Rates of forward and backward reactions are decreases, but in greater degree decreases for
forward reaction

For reaction HNO2 + H2O = H3O+ + NO2 + ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease temperature
Increase temperature
Add to system some acid
Increase pressure

For reaction CO(g) + 2H2(g) = CH3OH(l)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease pressure
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Increase CO concentration

Increasing of pressure and decreasing of temperature separately will NOT shift equilibrium in
same direction:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H
2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2 – H
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H

Increasing of temperature and decreasing of pressure separately will shift equilibrium in same
direction:

Options
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl – H
2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2 – H
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl + ΔH

Industrial synthesis of sulfur oxide (VI) SO2 + O2 = SO3 – H is carried out at high temperaturein
order to:

Options
Shift equilibrium to right
Shift equilibrium to left
Increase rate of reaction
Decrease activation energy of process

For reaction 2HgO(s)= 2Hg(s) + O2(g)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Increase temperature
Increase pressure
Increase O2 concentration
Decrease temperature

For reaction FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)- ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if
we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase concentration of FeO
Increase concentration of H2O

Find correct statement:

Options
The higher activation energy of reaction, the higher reaction rate
The lower activation energy of reaction, the higher reaction rate
Reaction rate doesn’t depend on activation energy of reaction
Enthalpy of reaction depends on number of steps of reaction

How reaction rate changes for reaction Mg + 2HCl = MgCl2 + H2, if piece of Mg (1 g) will break into
1000 same blocs?

Options
Remain the same
Increase 10 times
Increase 100 times
Increase 1000 times

For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g), shifting equilibrium to products is impossible, if we’ll add
to system:

Options
Ammonia
HCl
N2
H2

For one-step reaction rate equation is v=kc(A2) That reaction is…

Options
B2(g) + A2(g) = 2AB
2B2(g) + A2 = 2B2A(g)
B(s) + A2(g) = BA2(g)
2BA2(g) + A2(g) = 2BA2(g)

Reaction rate of forward reaction A2(g) + 3B2(g) = 2AB3(g), that was found from concentration
changes of A, is 0,01mol/l*sec. Calculate reaction rate from concentrations of B2 and AB3:

Options
0,02 and 0,01
0,03 and -0,02
0,03 and 0,02
0,02 and 0,04

How many times rate of reaction A2(g) + B2(g) = 2AB(l) changes, if concentration of A2 increases
for 3 times.

Options
3
6
9
12

For reaction 2A2(g) + B2(g) = 2A2B(g), if concentration of A2 decreases for 3 times, how reaction
rate will change?

Options
Increase for 3 times
Decrease for 3 times
Increase for 9 times
Decrease for 9 times

How many times pressure should be increased, if we want speed up reaction A(g) + 2B(g) =
2AB2(g) for 125 times?
Options
5
25
100
125

For reaction A + B = AB, if pressureincreases for 4 times, how reaction rate will change?

Options
Remain the same
Increases for 8 times
Increases for 4 times
Increases for 16 times

Increasing concentration of A for 2 times will lead to reaction rate increasing for 4 times, in
reaction…

Options
A2(g) + B2(g) = 2AB(g)
A2(g) + B(s) = BA2(s)
2A2(g) = B(g)
2A2(s) = B(g) + 2C(g)

224.Volume of exuded H2, in reaction between Fe and H2SO4(sol), if piece of Fe (10g) will break in
125 cubes, increases for:

Options
2 times
5 times
15 times
125 times

Solvents can be…

Options
Liquid
Gaseous
Solid
Every one of these types

Solutions, in difference with pure substances…

Options
Homogeneous
Instable
Have constant composition
Can be colored or colorless

If in solution, in certain conditions, can be added an extra quantity of solute, then this solution
cannot be…
Options
Concentrated
Diluted
Saturated
Unsaturated

After addition an extra quantity of solute to solution, it did not dissolve. Then we can say, that
solution:

Options
Diluted
Concentrated
Saturated
Unsaturated

On solubility of solid substances in liquids doesn’t affect:

Options
Temperature
Nature of solute
Nature of solvent
Stirring

For reaction 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2 (g) - ΔH, shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease pressure
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase CO concentration
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26. 26
Question
27. 27 (1/285)
28. 28
Which
29. 29of the following statements is true?
30. 30
Options
31. 31
32.NaCl
32 is a neutral salt;
33.KOH
33 is an acid;
34.HCl
34 and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.
35.NaBr
35 is basic salt.
36. 36
37. 37
Functional Group of Ether:
38. 38
39. 39
Options
40.H40–C=O
41. 41
C–O–C
42. 42
43.C 43
–C
44.C 44
–X
45. 45
Which
46. 46pairing is not a set of conjugates?
47. 47
Options
48. 48
49.OH-
49 and H2O;
50.HC2H3O2
50 and C2H3O2-;
51.HCl
51 and Cl-;
52.NH3
52 and NH4+;
53. 53
54. 54
Functional
Prev Group of Aldehyde:
55. 55
Skip
56. 56
Options
Next
57.C 57
– CO - C
58. 58
C – CH = O
59. 59
60.C 60
–X
61.O61
= C – OH
62. 62
Which
63. 63reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?
64. 64
Options
65. 65
66.HF
66+ LiOH → H2O + LiF;
67.2HCl
67 + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2;
68. 68
2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2
69. 69
70.K2O
70 + H2O → 2KOH;
71. 71
Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?
72. 72
73. 73
Options
74. 74
75.KOH
75 is potassium hydroxide;
76.H2SO3
76 is sulfurous acid;
77.HI77is hydroiodic acid;
78.HClO2
78 is chloric acid
79. 79
80. 80salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?
Which
81. 81
Options
82. 82
83.AgCl;
83
84.PbBr2;
84
85. 85
Ca3(PO4)2;
86. 86
87.Na2CO3
87
88. 88
A 89.
solution
89 of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:
90. 90
91. 91
Options
92. 92
93.Unsaturated;
93
94.Supersaturated;
94
95.Saturated
95
96.Dilute
96
97. 97
98.net
The 98 ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate and
99.
sodium 99 chloride would include all of the following except:
100. 100
Options
101. 101
102.Cl-;
102
103.2Na+;
103
104. 104
CaCO3d
105. 105
106.All
106of the substances above
107. 107
Functional
108. 108 Group of Ketone:
109. 109
Options
110. 110
111.C-CO-C
111
112.C 112
–X
113.C 113
– OH
114.#NAME?
114
115. 115
Which
116. 116solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?
117. 117
Options
118. 118
119.1.5
119
m NaCl;
120.1.5
120
m AgCl;
121. 121
2.0 m C6H12O6;
122. 122
123.2.0 m CaCl2
123
124. 124
Functional Group of Amine:
125. 125
126. 126
Options
127. 127
128.C 128
– NR – R’
129.O129
= C – OH
130.H130
–C=O
131.C 131
– OH
132. 132
133. 133
Which equation is correctly balanced?
134. 134
Options
135. 135
136.Na136
+ Cl2 → 2NaCl;
137.CH4
137+ 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;
138. 138
2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;
139. 139
140.H2SO4
140 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;
141. 141
Functional
142. 142 Group of Amide:
143. 143
Options
144. 144
145.O145
= C – OH
146.C 146
– NR – R’
147.H147
–C=O
148.HOC
148– NR – R’
149. 149
150. 150has lowest oxidation number in
Sulphur
151. 151
Options
152. 152
153.H2SO3
153
154.SO2
154
155. 155
156.H2SO4
156
H2S
157. 157
158. 158
Functional
159. 159 Group of Nitrile:
160. 160
Options
161. 161
162.- C≡N
162
163.O163
= C – OH
164.C 164
– NR – R’
165.HOC
165– NR – R’
166. 166
167. 167
Amino acides are building blocks of:
168. 168
Options
169. 169
170.Ketones
170
171. 171
Aldehydes
172. 172
173.Proteins
173
Ethers
174. 174
175. 175
Which
176. 176of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
177. 177
Options
178. 178
179.H2S
179
180.SO3
180
181.H2O2
181
182.F2182
183. 183
184. 184 are composed of:
Proteins
185. 185
186. 186
Options
187.20187
different amino acids
188. 188
15 different amino acids
189. 189
190.15190
different aldehydes
191.17191
different ethers
192. 192
Which
193. 193of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
194. 194
Options
195. 195
196.O3196
197.KMnO4
197
198.H2O2
198
199.K2Cr2O7
199
200. 200
201.
In the201
redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
202. 202
203. 203
Options
204.X=2
204y=4 z=10
205. 205
X=2 y=6 z=5
206. 206
207.X=2
207y=3 z=8
208.X=2
208y=3 z=10
209. 209
Reduction
210. 210 involves
211. 211
Options
212. 212
213.Loss
213of electrons
214.Gain
214 of electrons
215.Increase
215 in the valency of positive part
216. 216
Decrease in the valency of negative part
217. 217
218. 218 type of α-amine acid - triptophane
Determine
219. 219
220. 220
Options
221.Essential
221
222.Non-essential
222
223. 223
Semi- essential
224. 224
225.None
225 of these
226. 226
Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine
227. 227
228. 228
Options
229. 229
Aliphatic
230. 230
231.Aromatic
231
232.Heterocyclic
232
233.Complex
233
234. 234
The
235.strongest
235 reducing agent is
236. 236
Options
237. 237
238.HNO2
238
239.H2S
239
240. 240
H2SO3
241. 241
242.SnCl2
242
243. 243
Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of sugar rest
244. 244
245. 245
Options
246. 246
247.C1247
248.C2248
249.C3249
250.C4250
251. 251
252. 252 acid exists in form of cation in
α-Amine
253. 253
Options
254. 254
255.Acidic
255 medium
256.Neutral
256 medium
257. 257
Basic medium
258. 258
259.Any
259medium
260. 260
An electrolyte
261. 261 is one
262. 262
Options
263. 263
264.Which
264 conducts electric current
265.Which
265 is capable of ionization by passing electric current
266.Which
266 dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
267.None
267 of the above
268. 268
269. 269 acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in
α-Amine
270. 270
Options
271. 271
272.Acidic
272 medium
273.Neutral
273 medium
274. 274
275.Basic
275 medium
276.Any
276medium
277. 277
278. 278
Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to
279. 279
280. 280
Options
281.Dilution
281
282. 282
Number of ions
283. 283
284.Current
284 density
285.Volume
285 of the solution

How many α-amine acidrests are in polypeptide

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:

Options
-1/3
-1
+1
-3

Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides

Options
Coordination
Ionic
Hydrogen
Hydrofobic

Which of the following is an insulator?

Options
Graphite
Aluminium
Diamond
Silicon

Choose peptide bond

Options
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
-C-C-

In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O

Options
X=4 y=6
X=8 y=3
X=8 y=6
X=3 y=8

Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O

Options
10
8
5
2

Lactose is

Options
Monose
Unreducing disaccharide
Amine acid
Reducing disaccharide

Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

Options
F2
Cl2
Br2
I2

Oxidation involves

Options
Loss of electrons
Gain of electrons
Increase in the valency of negative part
Decrease in the valency of positive part

Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

Options
Oxidation
Reduction
Esterification
Transamination
Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of

Options
Aldose
Pyranose
Fructose
Furanose

Glicaric acids are produced under action of

Options
Mild oxidant
Strong reductant
Mildreductant
Strong oxidant

Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide

Options
Coordination
Ionic
Hydrogen
Glycoside

Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms

Options
C5 and N1
C1 and N9
C3 and N9
C1 and N1

Components of nucleotide

Options
Protein
Amine acid rest
OH
Thymine

Monomeric link of protein

Options
Sugar rest
Isoprene
Amine acid rest
Ethylene

Unsaponified lipids are


Options
Mono-component
Di-component
Three-component
Poly-component

DNA contains

Options
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis

Options
Alcohols, carboxylicacids
Carboxylicacids
Alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

Determine type of α-amine acid - valine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of

Options
Transamination
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation

α-amine acid exists in form of anion in

Options
Acidic medium
Neutral medium
Basic medium
Any medium

How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is

Options
-2
-1
0
-4

The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:

Options
SO2
CaO
Al2O3
CrO3

In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers

Options
Intermolecular
Intramolecular
Disproportion
None of them

Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?

Options
CH3COONa
C2H5OH
NaCl
KOH

Element accepting electrons is called

Options
Product
Oxidant
Reactant
Reductant

One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:

Options
F
Cl
He
Na

The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:

Options
-3 to +5
-1 to +1
-3 to -5
-5 to +1

Strong electrolytes are those which

Options
Dissolve readily in water
Conduct electricity
Dissociate into ions at high dilution
Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

Which of the following conducts electricity?

Options
Crystal NaCl
Diamond
Molten KBr
Sulphur

How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at

Options
Anode
Cathode
Both A & B
The surface of the electrolyte solution

Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins

Options
Coordination
Hydrofobic
Glycoside
Metallic

Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Choose disulphide bond

Options
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
–C-C-

Oxidation Number of Halogens are:

Options
-1
-2
4
0
How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose

Options
1
2
3
4

Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:

Options
1
-2
-4
0

Sucrose is

Options
Monose
Unreducing disaccharide
Amine acid
Reducing disaccharide

Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by

Options
Oxidation
Reduction
Esterification
Transamination

Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


Options
Transamination
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation

In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation number

Options
Intermolecular
Double exchange
Intramolecular
Disproportion

In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed

Options
Intermolecular
Double exchange
Counter disproportion
Disproportion

Gliconic acids are produced under action of

Options
Mild oxidant
Strongreductant
Mildreductant
Strong oxidant

Element loosing electrons is called

Options
Product
Oxidant
Reactant
Reductant

Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides

Options
Glycozides
Acids
Polyols
Salts

Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms:

Options
C5 and N1
C1 and N9
C3 and N9
C1 and N1

Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:

Options
The interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
The heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
The scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
The study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems
in terms of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

Components of nucleoside

Options
Phosphate group
Carbonyl group
Thymine
Sugar rest

In what case there is an oxidation process:

Options
KMnO4→MnO2;
HNO2→NO2;
Cl2O→HCl;
P→H3PO4.

Monomeric link of terpene

Options
Sugar rest
Isoprene
Amine acid res
Ethylene

Point out the correct statements:

Options
A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl →
CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O

Options
1
6
14
3

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

Options
Mn(OH)2;
MnO42-;
MnO2;
Mn2+.

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

Options
Fe2O3 + HCl;
FeCl3+H2S;
Fe+ HCl;
SO3+NaOH.

Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction: KMnO4 + H2O2
+H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

Options
2
5
10
3

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:

Options
Accepts electrons;
Donates electrons;
Increases its oxidation number;
Decreases its concentration

Saponified lipids are

Options
Mono-component
Three-component
Without any component
Poly-component

Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consistsfromzinc consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:

Options
Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

Options
1+;
2+;
0;
1-;

RNA contains

Options
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?

Options
HCl;
KClO3;
HClO2;
KClO4

Simple lipids form under hydrolysis

Options
Alcohols, carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids
Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

Options
Al;
Fe3+
Fe3+Al3+;
Al3+ Fe3+;

Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine:

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

Options
Loses 1 electron;
Loses 1 proton;
Gains 1 electron;
Gains 1 proton

Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

Options
Cr;
Ni2+;
Cr3+;
Ni

Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

Options
2
3
5
10

Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

Options
It allows ion migration;
It allows neutron migration;
It allows electron migration;
It prevents ion migration;

Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

Options
Br2;
Cl2;
F2;
I2

Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is called:

Options
Neutralization;
Esterification;
Electrolysis;
Hydrolysis

Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

Options
In molecule of cytochrome b
In molecule of vitamin B12
In molecule of catalase
In molecule of vitamin B6

Determine type of α-amine acid - serine:

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

Options
Enzyme catalase
Enzyme superoxide dismutase
Cytochrome P450
Glutathione peroxidase

Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

Options
Hypervitaminosis
Hypovitaminosis
Avitaminosis
Acidosis

Determine type of α-amine acid – serine;

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Vitamin A deficiency can cause:

Options
Xeroftalmia
Increased blood coagulation
Growth acceleration
Anemia

The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin B1
Vitamin K
Thiamine

Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

ZnO is used as

Options
Protective
Astringent
Both (a) & (b)
Antidote

Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

Options
Oxidation
Halogenation
Protein precipitate
All of the above

Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine;

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Hydrogen peroxide is used as

Options
Antiseptic
Acidifying agent
Protective
Antioxidant

Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

KMnO4 solutions are used for

Options
Antibacterial
Antifungal
Both of the above
Antioxidant

Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these elements:

Options
C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;
H, P, S, C, O, N;
O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;
H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

Choose biogenic macroelement

Options
Cu
P
Br
As

Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar
Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Choose biogenic microelement

Options
Cu
S
Ca
Mg

Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

Options
Rayon
Insulin
Gun cotton
Paper

Complex lipids form under hydrolysis


Options
Alcohols, carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids
Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -3 cm
10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
Less than 10 -7 cm

Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

Options
1
2
3
4

Six major biogenic elements :

Options
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table

Fatty acids are

Options
Unsaturated dicarboxylic acids
Long-chain alkanoic acids
Aromatic carboxylic acids
Aromatic dicarboxylic acids

Five minor biogenic elements:

Options
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called


Options
Proteins
Terpenes
Carbohydrates
Soaps

Trace elements:

Options
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

Soap is

Options
A mixture of salts of fatty acids
A salt of glycerol
A mixture of ethers
A mixture of aromatic ethers

Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:

Options
10-7% - 10-12%
10-9%
10-3– 10-5 %
10-2%

Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:

Options
10-2%
10-3– 10-5 %
10-9%
10-7% - 10-12

Fats and oils are

Options
Monoesters of glycerol
Diesters of glycerol
Triesters of glycerol
Diesters of glycol

Choose biogenic microelement

Options
O
S
N
Zn

Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

Options
More unsaturation
Higher melting points
A glycerol backbone
Longer fatty acids

Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

Options
12 carbons
14 carbons
16 carbons
18 carbons

Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

Options
Hydrogenation
Saponification
Hydrolysis
Oxidation of double bonds

Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:

Options
1
3
-1
-3

Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

Options
Vanaspati ghee
Margarine
Both of these
None of these

Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

Options
Saponification
Fermentation
Diazotization
Rancidification

Saponification of a fat

Options
Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps
Produces glycerol and soap
Is used in the production of detergents
Is used in the production of lactic acid

Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

Options
Fats
Waxes
Soaps
Oils

The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

Options
Iodine number
Octane number
Saponification number
Melting point

Zwitterion is

Options
An ion that is positively charged in solution
An ion that is negatively charged in solution
A compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid
A carbohydrate with an electrical charge

A coordination compound consists of

Options
A metal ion and counterions
Ligands bound to counterions
A complex ion and counterions
A metal ion bound to one or more ligands

The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:

Options
0
4
3
6

A zwitterions has which of the following properties

Options
No net charge
A high melting point
Soluble in water
All of these

Name the following coordination compound: K4[Fe(CN)6]

Options
Name the following coordination compound: K4[Fe(CN)6]
Potassium cyanoferrate(II)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)

An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:

Options
Carbonion
Zwitterions
Carbonium ions
Free radicals

The coordination number is:

Options
The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
The number of positively charged particles in the complex

Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

Options
Carbonyl compounds
Amino acids
Phenols
Heterocyclic compounds

Number of hem sections in mioglobin

Options
1
2
3
4

The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric field is
known as its:

Options
Isoelectric point
Dipole moment
Iodine number
Wave length

Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2

Options
Cationic
Anionic
Monodentate
Neutral

The isoelectric point of a protein is

Options
The pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface
The pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges
The electric charge number under isothermal conditions
None of these

Glycine is

Options
NH2CH2COOH
NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2
NO2 CH2CH2 COOH
Br CH2 COOH

Ethylenediamine would be called

Options
Dentate
Bidentate
Tridentate
Tetradentate

Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

Options
Has no chiral carbon
Has a sulphur containing R group
Cannot form a peptide bond
Is an essential amino acid
Proteins are

Options
Polyamides
Polymers of ethylene
α-Aminocarboxylic acids
Polymers of propylene

The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

Options
C,H,O,P,S
N,C,H,O,I
N,S,C,H,O
C,H,O,S,I

Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

Options
Peptide linkage
Ester linkage
Ether linkage
α,β-Linkage

Name the following coordination compound: [Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3

Options
Triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
Triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
Triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
Amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

Which of the following are bidentate ligands? (1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide (2) ammonia,
NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2- (3) chloride, Cl- (6) en

Options
1, 4, 5
1, 5, 6
1, 6
2, 3, 4, 5

The primary structure of a protein refers to:


Options
Whether the protein is fibrous or globular
The amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain
The orientation of the amino acid side chains in space
The presence or absence of an α-helix

The α-helix is a common form of

Options
Primary structure
Tertiary structure
Secondary structure
None of these

What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?

Options
0
1+
2+
3+

Number of hem sections in hemoglobin

Options
1
2
3
4

The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

Options
Optical activity
Hydrogen bonding
Resonance
Delocalization

Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound

Options
Central ion
Ligands
Outer sphere ions
All constituents

Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements

Options
Does’tchang
Increases
Decreasis
None

The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

Options
Sulphur-sulphur linkages
Peptide bonding
Hydrogen bonding
Glycosidic bonds

Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps

Options
0
1
2 and more
Always without steps

Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

Options
Amino acids
Hydroxyl acids
Fatty acids
Alcohols

Dentantness of porfyrin

Options
2
3
4
5

Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

Options
Ammonia and carbon dioxide
Urea and uric acid
A mixture of amino acids
Glycogen and a fatty acid

Nynhydring test is given by

Options
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Alkanes
Alkenes

Particles playing role of ligands are

Options
Positive ions
Chelates
Negative ions
Complex ions

Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

Options
Ninhydrin test
Biuret test
Xanthoproteic tes
Tollens test

A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is called

Options
Xanthoproteic test
Ninhydring test
Biuret test
Million’s test

A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its formula.

Options
[Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
[Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
[ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
[CrCl2(H2O)4]

What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?

Options
1
3
-2
0

A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

Options
A protein
An amino acid
A monosaccharide
Pyridine

Monosaccharides are classified according to

Options
The number of carbon atoms in the molecule
Whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group
Their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes
All of the above

Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?

Options
Carbonyl;
Nitro;
Acetate;
Oxalate.

Which is a monosaccharide?

Options
Sucrose
Maltose
Galactose
Cellulose

Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride

Options
[Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
[(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
[(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
[Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

Which is a disaccharide?

Options
Glucose
Maltose
Fructose
Cellulose

Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

Options
Ribose
Fructose
Sucrose
Glucose
The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

Options
Indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light
Indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate
Indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group
Indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?

Options
Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?

Options
Tetraamminecopper(II)
Coppertetraammine (II)
Tetraammine(II)copper
Tetra(II)amminecopper

The principal sugar in blood is

Options
Fructose
Glucose
Sucrose
Galactose

Ligand «en» is an example of:

Options
Bidentate ligand;
Monodentate ligand;
Tridentate ligand;
Hexadentate ligand.

The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is

Options
Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


Options
Cationic
Anionic
Trigonal
Neutral

Donor of electrons in coordination compound

Options
Central ion
Outer sphere ions
Ligands
None

Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements

Options
Doesn’t change
Increases
Decreases
None of them

Coordination number of iron in hem

Options
2
3
5
6

Dentatness of EDTA

Options
2
3
4
6

With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability

Options
Increases
Doesn’t change
Decreases
None of them

Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of

Options
Rate of reaction
Donor-acceptor interaction
Protons number
Electrostatic model

Particles playing role of central ion are

Options
Positive ions
Neutral molecules
Negative ions
Complex ions

Find ligand of weak field

Options
OH-
Au
CN-
Fe2+

What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?

Options
Hexaaquacobalt(II)
Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
Cobalthexaaqua(II)

Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)

Options
K3[Fe(CN)6]
Fe [K2(CN)6]
(CN)6[Fe K2]
[FeK2(CN)6

What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?

Options
Tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
Chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
Tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
Tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate

Options
[(en)3Co]SO4
[Co(en)3SO4]
[SO4(en)3]Co
[Co(en)3]SO4

What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?

Options
Linear;
Tetrahedral;
Octahedral;
Trigonal

Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of

Options
Rate of reaction
Donor-acceptor interaction
Protons number
Electrostatic model

Find ligand of strong field

Options
OH-
Au
Cl-
NH3

Dentatness of ligand is

Options
Number of central ions
Charge of central ion
Number of bonds of ligand with central ion
Ion’s total number

Disperse systems consists of:

Options
Dispersion medium, dispersed phase
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
Sol, gel

Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

Options
Dispersion medium, dispersed phase
Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Sol, gel

Glucose cannot be classified as

Options
A hexose
An oligosaccharide
An aldose
A monosaccharide

What is a disperse system?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Coarse systems include

Options
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
Sol, gel
Gel, suspensions.

Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

Options
It is a reducing sugar
It is a disaccharide
It has a pyranose form
It is a polyalcohol

Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

Options
Its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal
It is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone
It is oprtically active
It shows mutarotation

What is the Emulsion?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Common table sugar is

Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Fructose
Maltose

Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

Options
Glucose
Fructose
Lactose
None of the above

Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?

Options
It is also called table sugar
It may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol
It reduces Fehling’s solution
It does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

What is the suspension?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

Options
Lactose
Sucrose
Maltose
Fructose

What is the aerosol?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Sols are:

Options
Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
Blood, lymph.
Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
Blood, jelly, marmalade.

Starch

Options
Is a trisaccharide
Is also called amylose
Is also called amylopectin
Is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin

Gels are:

Options
Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
Blood, lymph.
Blood, jelly, marmalade.

Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:

Options
Medical products
Colored glass
Pumice
Fog

Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:

Options
Soil
Moist soil
Rocks
Fog

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

Options
Natural gas
Gas from oil droplets
Smog
Colored glass

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:

Options
Natural gas
Aerosols
Dust storms
Pearl

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

Options
Fizzy drinks, foam
Body fluids
Pastes,mortar
Smog

Colloidal solutions include:

Options
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
Sol, gel
Saline solution in water

Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:

Options
Cosmetic products
Porous chocolate
Some alloys
Fog

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

Options
Dust in the air
Aerosol
Fog
Does not exist

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:

Options
Sols
Emulsion oil
Fizzy drinks
Fog

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

Options
Cream, milk
Foam
Pastes
Chocolate

Colloid particles have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -3 cm
10 -5 - 10 -3 m
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -7 m

Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =

Options
Negative
Positive
Without charge
Zero

Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

Options
Ba2+
H+
SO4 2-
H+

Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing

Options
Condensation
Change of solvent
Red-ox reaction
Peptization

Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate

Options
NaCl
Сa3(PO4)2
CaCl2
FeCl3

Optical property typical to colloid systems

Options
Reflection
Absorption
Scattering
Diffusion

Find optical property

Options
Diffusion
Osmosis
Electroosmosis
Absorption

Powder is

Options
L/s
L/l
S/l
S/g

Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties

Options
μ
η
φ
ξ

Particles of coarse systems have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -5 m
10 -9 - 10 -7 m
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -9 m

Particles of true solutions have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -5 m
10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -7 m
Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

Options
Positive
Negative
Without charge
Zero

Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =

Options
None
Cl-
SO4 2-
Ba2+

Choose condensation method of colloids producing

Options
Coagulation
Change of solvent
Red-ox reaction
Peptization

Optical property typical to coarse systems

Options
Reflection
Absorption
Scattering
Diffusion

Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one

Options
Absorption
Osmosis
Brownian movement
Diffusion

Aerosol is

Options
L/s
L/l
S/l
S/g

Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties


Options
μ
η
Md
λ

Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:

Options
Suspensions;
Electrolytes;
Molecular solutions;
Alloys

Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:

Options
Colloids;
Gas mixtures;
Saturated solutions;
Alloys.

The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:

Options
Coagulation;
Tyndall effect;
Peptization;
Dialysis
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6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
Question
23. 23 (1/328)
24. 24
Solutions
25. 25 which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity
26. 26 or osmolality. These concentration units express:
27. 27
Options
28. 28
29.Concentrationofwater;
29
30.Concentration
30 of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
31.Concentration
31 of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
32.Concentration
32
of electrolytes.
33. 33
34. 34organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?
Which
35. 35
36. 36
Options
37.CCl4;
37
38. 38
C3H5(OH)3;
39. 39
40.C6H6;
40
41.C6H12O6.
41
42. 42
Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:
43. 43
44. 44
Options
45. 45
46.3 46
Prev
% sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
47. 47
Skip0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
48. 48
Next0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
49. 49
20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.
50. 50
51.structure
The 51 of an alkene contains
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Only
54 single bonds;
55. 55
56.A 56
double bond;
57.Two
57 double bonds;
58.A 58
triple bond.
59. 59
Define
60. 60the Raoult’scryoscopic law:
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.Freezing
63 points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure
64. 64
solvents;
65.Freezing
65
points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
66. 66
solvents;
67. 67
68.Freezing
68 points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
69.Freezing
69 points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.
70. 70
The
71.first
71 Raoult’s Law is defined as:
72. 72
Options
73. 73
74.The
74 vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
75. 75
76.The
76 decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
77.The
77 vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of
pure 78
78. solvents;
79.The
79 vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure
80. 80
solvents.
81. 81
As82.
the82members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van der
Waals83forces between the molecules
83.
84. 84
85. 85
Options
86.Decreases;
86
87. 87
Increases;
88. 88
89.Remains
89 the same;
90.Decreases
90 then increases.
91. 91
In92.
order
92 to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:
93. 93
Options
94. 94
95.To95increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
96.To96add some electrolytes into a solution;
97.To97add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
98.To98increase temperature.
99. 99
100. 100
Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?
101. 101
102. 102
Options
103.CH4;
103
104. 104
C2H6;
105. 105
106.C3H8;
106
107.C4H10.
107
108. 108
What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?
109. 109
110. 110
Options
111. 111
112.6 112
113.2 113
114.8 114
115. 115
116.4 116
117. 117
118. 118is a spontaneous process defined as:
Osmosis
119. 119
Options
120. 120
121.A 121
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
122. 122
from a solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
123.A 123
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
124. 124
from a truesolution to a colloidal solution;
125. 125
A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane
126. 126
from a pure water to a solution;
127. 127
128.A 128
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
from a
129. 129dilute solution into a more concentrated one.
130. 130
In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?
131. 131
132. 132
Options
133. 133
134.CH3COOH;
134
C3H5(OH)3;
135. 135
136.CH3CH2OH;
136
137.CH3OH.
137
138. 138
A139. 139 in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used commercially
process
140.
to 140 the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is called
increase
141. 141
Options
142. 142
143.Polymerization;
143
144.Hydrogenation;
144
145. 145
Esterification;
146. 146
147.Cracking.
147
148. 148
Organic
149. 149compounds must contain
150. 150
Options
151. 151
152.Oxygen;
152
Nitrogen;
153. 153
154.Hydrogen;
154
155.Carbon.
155
156. 156
157.angle
The 157 formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an organic
158. 158 is a(an)
compound
159. 159
Options
160. 160
161.Dihedral
161 angle;
162.Right
162 angle;
163. 163
164.Tetrahedral
164 angle;
165.Acute
165 angle.
166. 166
A167.
specific
167 arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an organic
molecule
168. 168 is known as a(an)
Options
169. 169
170.Carboxyl
170 group;
171. 171
Functional group;
172. 172
173.Group;
173
174. 174 group.
Alkyl
175. 175
The
176.ability
176 of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of compounds that
are
177. 177
178. 178
Options
179. 179
180.Molecular;
180
181.Ionic;
181
182.Polar;
182
183.Atomic.
183
184. 184
185. many
How 185 carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?
186. 186
187. 187
Options
188.5 188
189. 189
8
190. 190
191.6 191
192.13192
193. 193
The
194.series
194 of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two adjacent
carbon
195. 195atoms is known as the
196. 196
Options
197. 197
198.Alkanes;
198
199.Alkenes;
199
200.Alkynes;
200
201.Benzenes.
201
202. 202
203. 203 reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated hydrocarbons
Addition
204. 204unsaturated hydrocarbons
because
205. 205
206. 206
Options
207.Contain
207 multiple bonds;
208. 208
Have a greater molecular mass;
209. 209
210.Have
210 tetrahedral bonds;
211.Contain
211 more atoms.
212. 212
A213.
dihydroxy
213 alcohol that is made from ethane is
214. 214
Options
215. 215
216.Ethanol;
216
217.Glycerol;
217
218.Ethylene
218 glycol;
219. 219
Ethane.
220. 220
A221.
long 221
chain protein is an example of a(an)
Options
222. 222
223.Fat;
223
224. 224
Polymer;
225. 225
226.Isomer;
226
Monomer.
227. 227
228. 228
Which
229. 229represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
230. 230
Options
231. 231
232.C2H4;
232
233.C2H6;
233
234.C3H8;
234
235.C4H10.
235
236. 236
237. many
How 237 double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?
238. 238
239. 239
Options
240.1 240
241. 241
2
242. 242
243.3 243
244.4 244
245. 245
Cryoscopy
246. 246 and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:
247. 247
Options
248. 248
249.Density;
249
250.Viscosity;
250
251.Molar
251 mass;
252.Osmotic
252 pressure.
253. 253
254.osmolarity
The 254 of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:
255. 255
256. 256
Options
257.2.0×10-2osmol;
257
258. 258
1.0×10-1osmol;
259. 259
260.3.0×10-2osmol;
260
261.5.0×10-3osmol.
261
262. 262
Osmolarity
263. 263 is:
264. 264
Options
265. 265
266.The
266molarity of particles in a solution;
267.The
267amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
268.Mass
268 percentage concentration;
269. 269
The concentration in parts per thousand.
270. 270
271. 271
Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?
272. 272
273. 273
Options
274.Butane;
274
275.Propane;
275
276.1-chlorobutane;
276
277. 277
278.1-chloropropane.
278
279. 279
Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:
280. 280
281. 281
Options
282. 282
TT= MRT;
283. 283
284.Tf284
= Kf Cm;
285.Tb285
= KbCm;
286.Tf286
=iKf Cm.
287. 287
A288.
fermentation
288 reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both can produce
289. 289
Options
290. 290
291.An291
ester;
292.An292
alcohol;
293. 293
An acid;
294. 294
295.A 295
soap.
296. 296
Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:
297. 297
298. 298
Options
299. 299
300.740-780
300 kPa;
301.140-240
301 kPa;
302.840-980
302 kPa;
303.60-70
303 kPa.
304. 304
305. 305 properties of solutions depend upon:
Colligative
306. 306
Options
307. 307
308.The
308number of the solute particles;
309.The
309chemical structure of solute;
310. 310
Catalysts;
311. 311
312.PH scale.
312
313. 313
Which
314. 314is a saturated hydrocarbon?
315. 315
Options
316. 316
317.C3H8;
317
318.C6H6;
318
319.C2H5OH;
319
320.C2H4O2.
320
321. 321
322. 322
Boiling point of solution with concentration rise
323. 323
Options
324. 324
325.Increases
325
326.Remains
326 same
327. 327
328.Decreases
328
No effect

Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution

Options
Increases
Remains same
Decreases
None of them

Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise

Options
Increases
Remains same
Decreases
Increases then decreases

For spontaneous processes?

Options
∆H ≥ 0
∆S ≤ 0
∆G ≥ 0
∆H≤ 0

Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on

Options
Concentration
Nature of solvent
Temperature
Nature of solute

Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional to

Options
Temperature
Molar fraction of solute
Molar fraction of solvent
Mixing rate

Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Hypertonic

Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry
Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Propane;
Propyne.

CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as

Options
A carbohydrate;
An ester;
An alcohol;
An organic acid.

Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

Options
Benzene;
Propyne;
Methane;
Ethanol.

As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling points

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases.

As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the ratio of carbon
atoms to hydrogen atoms

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases

The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the

Options
Nature of solute and solvent
Rate at which the gas dissolves
Temperature
Pressure

Which compound is most likely to react by addition?


Options
CH4;
C3H6;
C4H10;
C5H12.

Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

Options
Propanol;
Glycerol;
Butanol;
Pentanol.

Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Pentene;
Butene.

Which involves the colligative properties?

Options
Heating of solvent.
Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature
Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

Options
Alkene;
Alkane;
Alkyne;
Alkadiene.

Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

Options
Aldehydes;
Esters;
Polymers;
Ketones.

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration
is known as :

Options
Osmosis
Diffusion
Active Transport
Phagocytosis

The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

Options
Primary alcohol;
Secondary alcohol;
Tertiary alcohol;
Dihydroxy alcohol.

What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

Options
10
8
6
4

Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

Options
Butane;
Ethane;
Pentane;
Propane.

Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

Options
C5H8;
C5H10;
C5H12;
C5H14.

The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :

Options
Active Transport
Diffusion
Phagocytosis
Osmosis

The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

Options
Ionic;
Coordinate covalent;
Covalent;
Hydrogen.

The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
against the concentration gradient is known as :

Options
Active Transport
Diffusion
Osmosis
Phagocytosis

As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the number
of double bonds per molecule

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases.

In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

Options
Water;
Carbon dioxide;
An acid;
A base.

Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

Options
C2H5OH;
C2H4(OH)2;
C3H5(OH)3;
C3H6(OH)2.

In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound formed is

Options
An ester;
A ketone;
An acid;
An ether.

Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon

Options
Ethene;
Ethane;
Ethylene;
Ethyne.

Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

Options
Al(OH)3;
C3H5(OH)3;
Ca(OH)2;
C2H4(OH)2.

The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

Options
Glycerol;
Ethylene glycol;
Propene;
Propanoic acid.

Which organic compound is a ketone?

Options
CH3OH;
CH3COCH3;
CH3COOH;
CH3COOCH3.

Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

Options
Butane;
Ethane;
Methane;
Propane.

Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

Options
Oxidation;
Cracking;
Haber;
Contact.

Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular forces have

Options
Low melting points;
Low vapor pressure;
High conductivity in solution;
High boiling points.

What is the formula for pentanol?

Options
C5H12;
C5H11OH;
C4H10;
C4H9OH.

Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Toluene;
Butadiene

Colligative properties of the solution depend on

Options
Nature of solute
Nature of solvent
Number of particles present in the solution
Number of moles of solvent only

Which compound contains a triple bond?

Options
CH4;
C2H2;
C3H6;
C4H10.

Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

Options
Substitution;
Oxidation;
Addition polymerization;
Condensation, polymerization.

Which one is a colligative property?

Options
Boiling point
Vapour pressure
Osmotic pressure
Freezing point

In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling points by

Options
The contact process;
The Haber process;
Fractional distillation;
Cracking.

Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

Options
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of b.p.
Vapour pressure
Depression of f.p.

Which is not a colligative property?

Options
Freezing point
Lowering of vapour pressure
Depression of freezing point
Elevation of boiling point

Organic acids are composed of a

Options
C = O group at the end of the chain
COO– group
C = O and COH group on the same carbon
C = O and COH group on different carbons

Which of the following is a true statement?

Options
Ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
Aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
Ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol
Organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

Which of the following is a colligative property?

Options
Surface tension
Viscosity
Osmotic pressure
Boiling point

The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

Options
Solute molecules to the solvent molecules
Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law was
given by

Options
Raoult
Ostwald
Van’t Hoff
Lewis

According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

Options
Moles of solute
Mole fraction of solvent
Moles of solvent
Mole fraction of solute

A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

Options
An ideal solution
Non-ideal solution
Suspension
Emulsion

When common salt is dissolved in water

Options
M. p. of the solution increases
B. p. of the solution increases
B. p. of the solution decreases
Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

Options
Molecular wt. of solute
Molecular wt. of solvent
Molality of solute
None of these
When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then phenomenon
taking place is called

Options
Osmosis
Diffusion
Cataphoresis
Plasmolysis

The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

Options
П =ST/C
П = CT/S
П = SC/T
П / C = ST

Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

Options
An alcohol with an ether
A carboxylic acid with a ketone
A carboxylic acid with an alcohol
A ketone with an aldehyde

If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in 100mL water,
which of the following is true about solution A and B ?

Options
Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
None of them.

The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

Options
Ethylpropanoate
Propylethanoate
Propethanoate
None of the above

What happens during osmosis?

Options
Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.
Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.
Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.
Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.
Which of the following is classified as an ether?

Options
CH3CHOHCH3
CH2(OH)CH2CH3
CH2COCH3
CH3OCH3

According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

Options
The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.
The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.
The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increases.

Polymers are

Options
Molecules made of monomers
Molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule
Macromolecules
All of the above

In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?

Options
1000C
Boiling point
Melting point
Freezing point

Classify this reaction: CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

Options
Chlorination
Oxidation
Hydration
Elimination

A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

Options
Electrolyte
Nonelectrolyte
Polar substance
Nonpolar substance

The first member of the ketone family is:


Options
Methanone
Ethanone
Propanone
Butanone

A substance that vaporizes easily is known as

Options
Volatile
Nonvolatile
Electrolyte
Nonelectrolyte

Acetic acid is weak because

Options
It is unstable
It is an organic aliphatic acid
It is slightly ionized
None of these

Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

Options
Concentrated sulfuric acid
Dilute sulfuric acid
Water
None

At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw at
this temperature will be

Options
1x10-6
1x10-12
1x10-14
1x10-5

How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

Options
The rotate at different rates
They have different colours
They have different melting/boiling points
They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

Options
1.8 x 10-7
0.8 x 10-9
3.6 x 10-7
3.6 x 10-9

What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

Options
PCl3 and an alcohol
HCl and an alcohol
HCl and an alcohol, under reflux
Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

Options
A carboxylic acid
A carboxylate salt
Water
Does not react

The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2% ionized
weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

Options
0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively
1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

Options
10-Dec
10-Feb
10-Apr
Oct-13

The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

Options
Oct-13
1013
6.023 x 107
6.0233 x 1010

PH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

Options
10
7
1
14

Name this molecule:

Options
1,2-dimethylbutane
3,4-dimethylbutane
Hexane
3-methylpentane

The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

Options
8
-8
Between 7 and 8
Between 6 and 7

What are alcohols not used in?

Options
Wine
Vinegar
Plastics
Methylated spirits

Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

Options
8
1 x 10-7
7
1

An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Amphoteric

What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?


Options
Hydration
Hydrolysis
Esterification
Polymerisation

The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

Options
Acidic impurities
Ionization
Hydrolysis
Dissociation

What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

Options
CnH2n+1OH
CnH2nOH
CnH2n+2OH
CnH2n+1COOH

FeCl3 solution is

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Amphoteric

Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

Options
Ethanoic acid
Ethanol
Butanoic acid
Ethyl ethanoate

Which is true about ethanoic acid?

Options
It has a higher boiling point than ethanol
It dissociates completely in water
It dimerises in water
It reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

Options
Neutral
Weakly acidic
Strongly acidic
Alkaline

An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

Options
An acidic reaction
A neutral reaction
A basic reaction
Both acidic and basic reaction

Esters are ________.

Options
Made from alcohols and non-organic acids
Used to make perfumes and flavorings
Poisonous
Foul-smelling compounds

An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

Options
Faintly acidic
Fairly acidic
Faintly alkaline
Almost neutral

What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

Options
Carbon monoxide and water
Carbon and water
Carbon dioxide and water
Carbon monoxide and hydrogen

Which one of the following is acid salt?

Options
Na2S
Na2SO3
NaHSO3
Na2SO4

What are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

Options
Ethyl methanoate and water
CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen
Methyl ethanoate and water
CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

Options
Na2SO4
BiOCl
Pb(OH)Cl
Na2HPO4

What is true about carboxylic acids?

Options
Carboxylic acids are strong acids
Carboxylic acids can react with metals
Alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

Which one is not an acid salt?

Options
Na2H2PO4
NaH2PO2
NaH2PO3
None of the above

Esterification is a __________.

Options
Condensation reaction
Irreversible reaction
Addition reaction
Neutralization reaction

Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?

Options
NaCl
NH4Cl
KCl
Na2SO4

Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

Options
Ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane
Ethanol contains a hydroxyl group
Ethanol is used as a fuel
Ethanol is a solvent

Which one will not be hydrolysed?

Options
Potassium nitrate
Potassium cyanide
Potassium succinate
Potassium carbonate

What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

Options
Concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm
Concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis

Options
CH3COOK
NaNO3
KCl
K2SO4

In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

Options
2 bond
3 bond
4 bond
5 bond

Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

Options
(NH4)2SO4
Ba(NO3)2
CrCl3
CuSO4

Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

Options
One σ bond, one π bond
Two π bond, one π bond
One σ bond, two π bond
Two σ bond, two π bond
Acetylene has a total of:

Options
One σ bond, two π bond
Two σ bond, four π bond
Three σ bond, two π bond
One σ bond, four π bond

The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

Options
A strong acid and strong base
A strong acid and weak base
A weak acid and weak base
A weak acid and strong base

Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

Options
KNO3
NaOH
FeCl3
NaCN

In propene there are

Options
Eight σ bond, one π bond
Seven σ bond, two π bond
Six σ bond, three π bond
Nine σ bond

In propyne there are

Options
Six σ bond, two π bond
Seven σ bond, one π bond
Six σ bond, one π bond
Eight σ bond

1-Buten -3-yne has

Options
Six σ bond, four π bond
Seven σ bond, three π bond
Eight σ bond, two π bond
Nine σ bond, one π bond

Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is
Options
CH3CH2CH3
CH3C≡CH
CH2CH=CH2
CH2=CH-CH=CH2

Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is:

Options
CH4
H2N-CH2-NH2
H3C-OH
(CH3)3COH

When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

Options
2 other atoms
4 other atoms
3 other atoms
5 other atoms

Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

Options
C6H6
H2N-CH2-NH2
CH2=CH-CH=CH2
CH3CH=C=CH2

Which of the following is a planar molecule?

Options
Formaldehyde
Acetone
Formic acid
Acetic acid

What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

Options
180o
120o
109.5o
115.5o

The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

Options
60o
109.28o
120o
118.28o

The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

Options
60o
120o
90o
180o

What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

Options
1.20 Ǻ
1.35 Ǻ
1.54 Ǻ
1.68 Ǻ

The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

Options
Triple, duble, single
Single, duble, triple
Single, triple, duble
Duble, triple, single.

Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

Options
C-C < C=C < C≡C
C-C > C≡C > C=C
C≡C > C-C > C=C
C≡C < C=C< C-C

Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

Options
CH2 = CH2
CH3CH3
HC ≡ CH
CHCI3

The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

Options
CH2 = CH2
CH3CH3
HC ≡ CH
CHCI3

Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

Options
Ethyl alcohol
Formaldehyde
Diethyl ether
1,3-butadien

Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

Options
Cis-1,2-dichloroetylene
O- dichlorobenzene
Trans-1,2- dichloroetylene
P- dichlorobenzene

Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

Options
CI2
CO2
CCI4
CHCI3

Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

Options
Carbon tetrachloride
Chloromethane
Dichloromethane
Chloroform

Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

Options
CH3CI
CH3Br
CH3F
CH3I

Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

Options
ClCH2CHClCOOH
CH3CHClCHClCOOH
CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH
C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

Options
Ketone
Aldehyde
Amine
Ester

Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the same
carbon atom?

Options
Ester
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid

Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the same
carbon atom?

Options
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other compounds is
that in aldehydes and ketones

Options
The carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other
carbonyl compounds.
The polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.
The molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.
The carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

The carbonyl group is

Options
Found only in aldehydes and ketones.
Produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.
A functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.
A general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true except

Options
The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.
The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.
Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.
In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

The IUPAC name for acetone is

Options
2-propanone.
Dimethyl ketone
1-propanone.
3-propanal.

The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

Options
3-propanal.
2-propanone.
Acetone.
1-propanone.

Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid solution?

Options
NH4Cl
Al2(SO4)3
AgNO3
NaCN

The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

Options
3- methyl 1 butanone.
2-methylbutanal.
3-methylbutanal
Isopentanal

A buffer solution changes its pH

Options
Increase in pH
Decrease in pH
No change in pH
No change in electrical conductivity

The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

Options
Isobutyl acetone
2- methyl – 4- butanone
4 –methyl – 2- butanone.
4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

About buffer solution which in incorrect?

Options
It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base
It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
All of the above

Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

Options
3-octanone
2-butanone
3- methyl -3-pentanone all are correct
3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

Options
Strong acid and its salt of a weak base
Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

Which is a buffer solution?

Options
CH3COOH + CH3COONa
CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
CH3COOH + NH4Cl
NaOH + NaCl

Which of the following is a buffer?

Options
NaOH + CH3COONa
NaOH + Na2SO4
K2SO4 + H2SO4
NH4OH + NH4Cl

Which is not a buffer solution?

Options
NH4Cl + NH4OH
CH3COOH + CH3COONa
CH3COONa
Borax + Boric acid

Which of the following names does not fit a real compound

Options
3-ethylpentanal
4-methylpentanal
3- methyl- 2- pentanal
2-methylpentanal

PH of blood is

Options
Less than 6
Greater than 7 and less than 8
Greater than 8 and less than 9
Greater than 10

Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

Options
They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded
to oxygen.
Most have distinctive odors.
They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.
They are polar.

Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

Options
Acetic acid + Sodium acetate
Boric acid + Borax
Citric acid + Sodium citrate
All

All of the following are properties of acetone except

Options
Flammable.
Intoxicating.
Solvent for organic substances.
Nutrient.

Give name to positively charged particles:

Options
Radicals;
Molecules;
Anions;
Cations.
Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

Options
Flavoring
Preservative
Hormone
Solvent

What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?

Options
NaNO2;
NaHCO3;
Na2CO3;
KMnO4

Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

Options
CH3-CO-CH3
CH3-CHO
CH3-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:

Options
High heat capacity;
High polarity of molecules;
Lowfreezingpoint;
Low water ionization constant.

Which compound has the highest boiling point?

Options
CH3-CHO
CH3-CH2-CHO
CH3-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

Weak electrolytes are characterized by:

Options
Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
Ionic strength;
Concentration of a gas in a solution;
Ion product for water.

Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:


Options
0.01M
0.001M;
0.1 M;
1.0M.

Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:

Options
Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
Atmospheric pressure;
Boiling point;
Vapor pressure.

According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:

Options
Electrons donors;
Electrons acceptor
Protons donors;
Protons acceptors.

Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:

Options
KCl/HCl;
NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
KHSO4/H2SO4;
NH3 /NH4Cl.

Strong electrolytes are characterized by:

Options
Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
Ionization constant of water;
Acid ionization constant;
All answers are right.

Which compound has the lowest boiling point

Options
CH3-CH2-CHO
CH3-CH2-CH3
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

Options
H2.
Lactic acid.
NADH.
Pyruvic acid.

All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

Options
It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.
Its systematic name is ethanal.
Its common name is acetaldehyde.
Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:

Options
Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

Options
Its systematic name is propanone.
Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone
Its common name is acetone.
Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:

Options
Electrons donor;
Electrons acceptors;
Protons donors;
Protons acceptors.

The acid-base state of blood is determined of:

Options
PH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
POHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
PH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
Concentration of H+ and OH-.

Complex substances or compound classes are divided into

Options
Oxides, acid, base, salt
Oxides, base
Alkalis, salt, oxides
Ampholytes, Alkalis

Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.

Options
Hydroxide(OH -)
Hydrogen(H +)
Ammoniumcation(NH+4)
Hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is methyl ethyl
ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound are ____ .

Options
2-butanone;
2-propanone;
3-butanone;
3-butanone;

Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.

Options
Hydroxide(OH -)
Hydrogen(H +)
Ammoniumcation(NH+4)
(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

Tollens' reagent is used to

Options
Distinguish amines from aldehydes.
Reduce aldehydes.
Distinguish aldehydes from ketones.
Reduce ketones.

The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

Options
Primary alcohol.
Secondary alcohol.
Carboxylic acid.
Ketone.

The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

Oxidation of a ketone produces

Options
An aldehyde
A carboxylic acid
A primary alcohol
No reaction

The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

Options
Oxidation of ketones produces esters.
Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +.
Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?

Options
PH<7
PH>7
PH ~7
PH = 7

All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

Options
The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.
Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.
The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .
Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

Options
Pentanal
3-pentanone
2-pentanone
Pentanoic acid

Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

Options
A silver wire dissolves.
A brick-red precipitate forms.
The light blue color of the reagent disappears.
A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

Options
A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.
A red precipitate forms from a blue solution
A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless
A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

Options
Butane
2-butanol
1-butanol
Butanoic acid

What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?

Options
Butanoic acid
Butanal
2-butanol
No reaction

Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride

Options
Acidicb
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

Options
An aldehyde
A hemiacetal
A carboxylic acid
None, ketones don't oxidize

Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

Options
Gold
Copper
Lead
Silver

Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

Options
Tertiary alcohol.
Carboxylic acid
Secondary alcohol.
Primary alcohol.

Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

Options
Carboxylic acid.
Secondary alcohol
Aldehyde.
Tertiary alcohol.

Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the product of reduction of butanal?

Options
Butanoic acid
Butane
2-butanol
1-butanol

Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of them

What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

Options
Butanal
1-butanol
2-butanol
Butanoic acid

Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of them

What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

Options
3-methyl –2- pentanal
2- methyl -3-pentanol
3-methyl – 2-pentanol
3- methyl –2- pentene

Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?

Options
Galactose
Lactose
Maltose
Sucrose

Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

Options
CH3OH
C6H1206
C12H22O11
C6H12O5
Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

Options
Glucose and Glucose
Glucose and Galactose
Glucose and Fructose
Fructose and Galactose

PH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of

Options
Acid (H+-)
Conjugate base (-OH-)
Salt
Both A and Bswer D

PH can be kept constant with help of

Options
Saturated solution
Unsaturated solution
Buffer solution
Super saturated solution

In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

Options
Starch
Glycogen
Dextrins
Cellulose

Buffers present in blood contain


Options
HCO3-
Hemoglobin
H2PO4-
All of them

All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

Options
Glycogen
Inulin
Starch
Cellulose

Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings

Options
Sucrose
Ribulose
Fructose
Ribose

Choose the keto triose-

Options
Glyceraldehyde
Erythrose
Dihydroxyacetone
Arabinose

Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in

Options
Aerobic respiration
Anaerobic respiration
Transpiration
Photosynthesis

One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is

Options
Carbolic anhydrase
Carbonic anhydrase
Carbolic hydrase
Carbonic hydrase

A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

Options
Xylose
Lyxose
Xylulose
Aldose

Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer? acetic
acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

Options
Hydrochloric acid only
Sodium chloride or potassium acetate
Acetic acid only
Acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

Options
Epimers
Keto- Aldose Isomers
Anomers
Optical isomers

When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is

Options
Oxide
Ether
Salt
Alcohol

All tests are negative for sucrose except-

Options
Benedict
Seliwanoff
Barfoed
Osazone

When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are

Options
Salt
Water
Carbon dioxide
All of above

Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

Options
4
12
8
16

Salt among following is

Options
HCl
KCl
HNO3
H3PO4

Galactose and Glucose are-

Options
Epimers
Isomers
Anomers
Ketose- Aldose isomers

Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called

Options
Neutralization
Hydrogenation
Halogenation
Sublimation

The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around one carbon
atom are called-

Options
Optical isomers
Stereo isomers
Anomers
Epimers

Basic formula for monobasic acid is

Options
AH
HA
Ha
AH

Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is

Options
High
Low
Same
Constant

What does the following equation represent?    α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→  +19οβ- D glucose

Options
Stereo isomerism
Mutarotation
Optical isomerism
Epimerization

Value of Ka can be calculated by determining

Options
Concentration of acid
PH of solution
Concentration of water molecules
Both A and B

The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

Options
Glucose
Xylose
Lyxose
Fructose

Dulcitol is a -

Options
Sugar acid
Amino sugar
Deoxysugars
Sugar alcohol

Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

Options
Arabinose
Erythrose
Trehalose
Ribulose

A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

Options
Starch
Dextrin
Glycogen
Cellulose
PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing?

Options
Concentration of acid
Value of Ka
Water potential
Both A and B

Invert sugar is-

Options
Starch
Glucose
Fructose
Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

Ka is called

Options
Acid dissociation constant
Base dissociation constant
Avogadro constant
Salt dissociation constant

The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

Options
Hyaluronic acid
Cellulose
Chitin
Chondrosamine

Which one of the following is a weak acid?

Options
HNO3
HI
HBr
HNO2

Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

Options
Insulin
Dextrin
Cellulose
Glycogen

Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
Options
MgCl2
Ba(NO3)2
LiClO4
CsBr

A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

Options
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
Trehalose

Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?

Options
H2O
KF
HF
HNO2

The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

Options
Glucopyranose
Glucoside
Glucofuranose
Glucosamine

Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?

Options
HClO
CH3COOH
HF
HCN

A stronger base:

Options
Is also a stronger acid;
Is also a stronger electrolyte;
Tastes sour;
Yields fewer OH- ions in solution;

Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

Options
Benedict
Molisch
Seliwanoff
Osazone

Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?

Options
C3 H7O2N
C13H26O2
C6H12O6
C20H40O2

When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

Options
Water and a salt
An acid and a base;
A salt and hydrogen gas;
A nonmetal oxid

Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

Options
Ribose
Fructose
Glucose
Glyceraldehyde

A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution then
turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

Options
HCl;
H2CO3;
KOH;
CH3CH2OH;

Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

Options
1×10-11 M;
1×10-9 M;
1×10-7 M;
1×10-5 M;

Which of following is an anomeric pair?

Options
D-glucose and L-glucose
α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose
D-glucose and D-fructose
α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H+ ions. This
substance is:

Options
KOH;
CH4
H2SO4;
NH3

Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

Options
Glucuronate
Gluconate
Glucose
Muramic acid

Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

Options
H+] equals zero;
[OH-] equals [H+];
H+] is less than [OH-];
H+] is greater than [OH-

From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

Options
The glucose residue is the β anomer.
The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.
C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.
The compound is in its furanose form

According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

Options
Donate a proton;
Yield H+ ions;
Donate an electron pair;
Acceptor of protons.

The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

Options
A purine nucleotide
A pyrimidine nucleotide.
Adenosine
AMP

What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 40.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

Options
100.0 mL;
80.0 mL;
40.0 mL;
20.0 mL

Functional Group of Alkane:

Options
None
C–X
C=C
C – OH

As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

Options
Increase;
Decrease;
Remain the same;
Approach zero

Functional Group of Cycloalkane:

Options
H–C=O
C – OH
O=C–O–C
None

Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

Options
1
7
10
14

Functional Group of Alkyl halide:

Options
None
C–X
C=C
C – OH
The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

Options
A single replacement;
A neutralization reaction;
The process of hydrolysis;
A synthesis reaction;

How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

Options
A pH of 2 is three times as strong;
A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;
A pH of 2 is three times as weak;
A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

Functional Group of Alkyne:

Options
H–C=O
#NAME?
#NAME?
C≡C

Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

Options
Chlorous acid
Acetic acid;
Perchloricacid;
Hypochlorous acid

Functional Group of Alcohol:

Options
C – OH
H–C=O
C–X
C–X
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25. 25 who first isolated nuclei of pus cells was
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Options
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28
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29
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30
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31
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33. is
NAD 33an abbreviation for
34. 34
Options
NicotineAbusiveDepartment
NicotineAvoidDirections
Nicotinamideadeninedinucleotide
Nicotinamidedinucleotide

Phosphoric acid can be joined with OH group of a pentose sugar with help of

Options
Phosphodiesterbond
PrevIonicbond
SkipCovalentbond
NextEsterlinkage

RNA is synthesized from DNA by process of

Options
Translation
Transcription
Transgenic
Duplication

According to Erwin Chargoff analysis, ratio of adenine and thiamine is

Options
Equal
Unequal
Less
More

Nucleic acids

Options
Are also called nucleotides
Do not contain purine
Are polymers
Do not contain uracil

Which of the following will not be found in DNA?

Options
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine
Guanine

A nucleotide is composed of

Options
An acid, a base, and a sugar
A base, a sugar, and a phosphate
A base, and sugar
An acid, a sugar, and a phosphate

Oligonucleotides are formed from 2 to 10

Options
Strands
Hydrogen bonds
Nucleosides
Nucleotides

The variable portion of DNA is the sequence of _

Options
Phosphoric acids
Sugars
Bases
Phosphates

Which pair is a complementary base pair?

Options
C-G
A-G
A-C
G-G

Gene expression is activation of a gene to produce a specific __________ .

Options
Protein
TRNA
Amino acid
DNA

To which of the following does thymine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

Options
Adenine
Thymine
Cytosine
Guanine

What term is used to describe the process by which DNA is copied to produce two daughter DNA
molecules?

Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription

What term is used to describe the process by which a segment of DNA is copied to produce a
molecule of messenger RNA?

Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription

What term is used to describe the process by which proteins are synthesised from a genetic code?

Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription

To which of the following does guanine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

Options
Adenine
Thymine
Cytosine
Guanine

The sugar in RNA is __________ , the sugar in DNA is __________

Options
Deoxyribose, ribose
Ribose, deoxyribose
Ribose, phosphate
Ribose, uracil

Nucleoside is a pyrimidine or purine base

Options
Covalently bonded to a sugar
Ionically bonded to a sugar
Hydrogen bonded to a sugar
None of the above

In gel electrophoresis,what fragments will move most quickly through a gel?

Options
Large fragments
Small fragments
Large genome
Noneofthese

Which pyrimidine base contains an amino group at carbon 4?

Options
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine

The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA

Options
Connect the sugar to the base
Can be hydrolyzed by OH- ion
Stabilize Watson-Crick H-bonds
Are free to rotate over about 180°

Nucleic acids can be analyzed experimentally by their

Options
Molecular weight
Absorption of visible light
Absorption of uv light
None of these

A purine with an amine (NH2) group on the 6th carbon is

Options
Adenine
Cytosine
Thymine
Guanine

Which of the following is found on RNA but not DNA?

Options
Uracil
Deoxyribose
Phosphate
Adenine

Which of the following is a purine?

Options
Cytosine
Adenine
Thymine
Uracil

Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following

Options
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine

Which of the following are not the components of RNA?

Options
Thymine
Adenine
Guanine
Cytosine

Which of the following statements is true?

Options
Sugar component of a nucleotide is ribose
Sugar component of a nucleotide is deoxyribose
The bases in nucleotides are attached to a pentose sugar moiety by a glycosidic linkage
The sugar molecule of the nucleotide is in L-configuration
What is the composition of nucleoside?

Options
A sugar + a phosphate
A base + a sugar
A base + a phosphate
A base + a sugar + phosphate

What is the composition of nucleotide?

Options
A sugar + a phosphate
A base + a sugar
A base + a phosphate
A base + a sugar + phosphate

Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by

Options
Phosphodiester bond
Peptide bond
Ionic bond
Covalent bond

The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is

Options
Pentose
Hexose
Tetrose
Triose

Building blocks of nucleic acids are

Options
Nucleotides
Nucleosides
Amino acids
Histones
Amino acids
1. Amount of amino acid residues in proteins ranges from

a) 50-2000
b) 2000-4000
c) 4000-6000
d) 7000-10,000

2. Identify the wrong statement

a) Hemoglobin is a globular protein


b) Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein
c) Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water
d) Collagen is a fibrous protein

3. Which amino acid can form disulphide bonds?

a) Glycine.
b) Proline.
c) Glutamate.
d) Cysteine.

4. Which of the following is an example of monosaccharide?

a) Galactose
b) Sucrose
c) Lactose
d) Maltose

5. Which one of the following amino acids may be considered a hydrophobic amino acid at
physiological p H of 7.4

a) Isoleucine
b) Arginine
c) Aspartic acid
d) Threonine

6. Which of the following is an imino acid?

a) Alanine
b) Glycine
c) Proline

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Serine

7. Which of the following carbohydrates is a triose?

a) Glucose
b) Ribose
c) Ribulose
d) Glyceraldehyde

8. Tertiary conformation of proteins is maintained by 3 types of bonds namely ionic,


hydrogen and

a) Sulfide
b) Disulfide
c) Covalent
d) Peptide

9. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Primary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
b) Secondary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three
dimensional structure
c) Three dimensional structure of a protein determines the function of a protein
d) Amino acid sequence is absolutely invariant for a particular protein

10. Native state of a protein can be disrupted by

a) Temperature
b) PH
c) Removal of water
d) Presence of hydrophilic surfaces

11. β-pleated sheets are the examples of

a) Primary structure
b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure
d) Quaternary structure

12. Sulfur atom of cysteine is involved in formation of

a) Sulfide group
b) Sulfhydryl group
c) Sulfite group
d) Sulphates

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
13. The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are

a) Aspartate and glutamate


b) Arginine and histidine
c) Cysteine and methionine
d) Proline and valine

14. Choose the correct category for milk protein casein out of the followings

a) Nucleoprotein
b) Phosphoprotein
c) Lipoprotein
d) Glycoprotein

15. Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following sugar units?

a) Glucose and fructose


b) Glucose and galactose
c) Glucose and sucrose
d) Glucose and ribose

16. Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the
physiological pH ?

a) Valine
b) Leucine
c) Isoleucine
d) None of the followings

17. Number of amino acids that have hydrophobic side chains are

a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10

18. Which out of the followings is not a fibrous protein?

a) Carbonic anhydrase
b) Collagen
c) Fibrinogen
d) Keratin

19. Which of the following most accurately describes how secondary structures in proteins
are stabilised?

a) Through ionic bonds operating between oppositely charged amino acid side chains.

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
b) Through covalent bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.
c) Through hydrogen bonds between different amino acid side chains.
d) Through hydrogen bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.

20. Which of the characteristics below apply to amino acid Glycine?

a) Optically inactive
b) Hydrophilic, basic and charged
c) Hydrophobic
d) Hydrophilic, acidic and charged

21. Which of the following is an example of disaccharide?

a) Glucose
b) Fructose
c) Galactose
d) Maltose

22. Which term below best defines the 'quaternary structure' of a protein?

a) The arrangement of two or more polypeptide subunits into a single functional


complex
b) The folding of the polypeptide backbone in three-dimensional space.
c) The interaction of amino acid side chains.
d) The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

23. In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in liver?

a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose

24. Mother of a mal nourished child has been instructed to include a complete protein in
diet for her child, which out of the followings proteins should be recommended?

a) Pulses
b) Wheat
c) Soy Protein
d) Milk

25. Hemoglobin is a

a) Monomer
b) Dimer
c) Trimer
d) Tetramer

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
26. Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of

a) Hemoglobin
b) Myoglobin
c) Insulin
d) Collagen 3- Some proteins contain

27. 1In 3° structure of proteins, folding and shaping is done by

a) Hydrophobic interactions
b) Polar interactions
c) Hydrogen bonding
d) None of the mentioned

28. Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid?

a) Serine
b) Threonine
c) Lysine
d) Histidine

29. In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants?

a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose

30. In maltose, between which of the following carbons there is a linkage?

a) C1, C2
b) C2, C3
c) C1, C4
d) C2, C4

31. Fructose and Glucose can be distinguished by

a) Selwinoff’s reagent
b) Benedict’s reagent
c) Fehling’s reagent
d) Barfoed’s reagent

32. Which of the following are the storage polysaccharides?

a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Glucose

33. Bond formed between two amino acid molecules is

a) Peptide bond
b) Sulfur linkage
c) Ionic bond
d) Coordinate covalent bond

34. Which type of bonding is responsible for the secondary structure of proteins?

a) Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues.


b) Hydrogen bonding between the C=O and N-H groups of peptide bonds.
c) Peptide bonds between amino acids.
d) Salt bridges between charged side chains of amino acids

35. A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the
same chain is

a) Primary structure
b) α-helix
c) β-pleated sheets
d) Tertiary structure

36. Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

37. Which of the following are an example of epimers?

a) Glucose & Galactose


b) Glucose & Ribose
c) Mannose & Glucose
d) A&c

38. Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups

a) Phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan


b) Glycine, alanine, leucine
c) Lysine, arginine, histidine
d) Serine, threonine, cysteine

39. Polar amino acids are usually found

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) On surface of proteins
b) Inside core of proteins
c) At sides of proteins
d) Can be present anywhere in proteins

40. A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side
is

a) Primary structure
b) α-helix
c) β-pleated sheets
d) Tertiary structure

41. All of the below mentioned amino acids can participate in hydrogen bonding except
one

a) Serine
b) Cysteine
c) Threonine
d) Valine

42. Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?

a) Frederick Sanger
b) Mendel
c) Watson and Francis Crick
d) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

43. Which of the amino acids below is the uncharged derivative of an acidic amino acid?

a) Cystine
b) Tyrosine
c) Glutamine
d) Serine

44. A mutation has changed an isoleucine residue of a protein to Glutamic acid, which
statement best describes its location in a hydrophilic exterior

a) On the surface since it is hydrophilic in nature


b) In side the core of the protein since it is hydrophobic in nature
c) Any where inside or outside
d) Inside the core of protein since it has a polar but uncharged side chain

45. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

a) Cysteine
b) Asparagine

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Group#18
c) Glutamine
d) Phenylalanine

46. Which of the following statements about amino acids is correct?

a) Amino acids are classified according to the structures and properties of their side
chains.
b) Amino acids are uncharged at neutral pH.
c) Amino acids in proteins are mainly in the D-configuration.
d) Twenty four amino acids are commonly used in protein synthesis.

Buffer systems
1. For an acid buffer solution the pH is 3. The pH can be increased by

a) Increasing the concentration of salt


b) Increasing the concentration of acid
c) Decreasing the concentration of salt
d) Independent of concentration of acid & salt

2. Which of the following does not react with water?

a) Barium
b) Calcium
c) Beryllium
d) Strontium

3. NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is

a) Not a buffer solution with pH < 7


b) Not a buffer solution with pH > 7
c) A buffer solution with pH < 7
d) A buffer solution with pH > 7

4. Which among the following statements is true about the following chemical reaction?
3Fe(s) + 4H2 O → Fe3 O4 (s) + 4H2

a) Iron metal is getting reduced


b) Water is acting as a reducing agent
c) Water is acting as an oxidizing agent
d) Water is getting oxidized

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
5. Identify the products formed in the following reaction CH3 COOCH3 + H2 O → A + B

a) CH3 COOH and CH3 OH


b) CH3 COOOH and CH4
c) CO2 and C2 H6
d) No reaction

6. Which can act as buffer?

a) NH4 Cl + HCl
b) CH3 COOH + H2 CO3
c) 40ml of 0.1M NaCN + 20ml of 0.1M HCN
d) NaCl + NaOH

Carbohydrates
1. What is the storage form of carbohydrate in animals?

a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Starch

2. Where is glycogen stored?

a) In the kidney and liver


b) In the stomach and kidney
c) In the muscle and liver
d) In the muscle and stomach

3. In carbohydrates a special functional groups are present in the given following:

a) Alcohol & Carboxyl groups


b) Aldehyde & Ketone groups
c) Hydroxyl groups & Hydrogen groups
d) Carboxyl groups & Others

4. What best describes amylopectin?

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Group#18
a) Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
b) Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
c) Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
d) Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

5. What is the relationship between glucose, mannose and galactose?

a) They are isomers


b) They are epimers
c) They are ketoses
d) No relationship exists

6. Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the given….

a) Protein
b) Lipids
c) Carbohydrate
d) Vitamins

7. The end product of hydrolysis of “Starch” by amylase is …

a) Soluble starch
b) Glucose
c) Dextrins
d) Maltose

8. Fermentation is the degradation of complex organic substances into simpler ones by the
activity of living cells through the agency of ….

a) Acid
b) Alkali
c) Oxidizing substances
d) Enzymes (Zymase)

9. Glucose is a monosaccharide and is a

a) Hexose
b) Pentose
c) Furanose
d) Sucrose

10. Simplest carbohydrate is ….

a) Dihydroxy acetone
b) Glycerldehyde
c) Glucose
d) Gulose

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Group#18
11. What best describes amylose?

a) Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages


b) Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
c) Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
d) Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

12. Examples of Epimers….

a) Glucose &Galactose
b) Glucose & Ribose
c) Mannose & Glucose
d) A&c

13. Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of …

a) L-type
b) D-type
c) DL-types
d) None of the above

14. Structure or shape of something is known as its

a) Structure
b) Morphology
c) Conformation
d) Shape

15. What is the major constituent of plant cell wall?

a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Starch

16. What forms the exoskeleton of anthropods?

a) Agarose
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Starch

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
Chemical kinetics
1. Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) shifted to reactants, if:

a) Temperature will be increased


b) Pressure will be decreased
c) Concentration of ammonia will be decreased
d) Concentration of hydrogen will be increased.

2. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20


b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

3. Energy of activation for backward reaction is less than forward reaction for ________
reaction

a) Endothermic
b) Exothermic
c) Moderate
d) Fast

4. Rate of decomposition of H2O2 will increase if:

a) Temperature will be increased


b) Inhibitor will be added
c) Solvent will be added
d) Temperature will be decreased

5. With the highest rate of chemical reaction, next oxidation reaction will go:

a) Cu on air in standard conditions


b) Cu on pure O2 with temperature elevation
c) Mg on air in normal temperature
d) Mg on pure O2 with temperature elevation

6. For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, increasing of chemical rate of forward


reaction is IMPOSSIBLE if we’ll increase:

a) Temperature
b) Pressure

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Group#18
c) Concentration of hydrogen
d) Concentration of ammonia

7. The addition of a catalyst to the reaction system

a) Increases the rate of forward reaction only


b) Increases the rate of reverse reaction
c) Increases the rate of forward but decreases the rate of backward reaction
d) Increases the rate of forward as well as backward reaction equally

8. The substances that reduces the effectiveness of a catalyst are called

a) Promoters
b) Inhibitors
c) Poisoning catalysts
d) Pro-catalysts

9. When catalysts and reactants are in more than one phase it is

a) Homogeneous catalysis
b) Heterogeneous catalysis
c) Catalysis
d) Ea

10. For N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH process, decreasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

a) Shifting of equilibrium to reactants


b) Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction
c) Decreasing reaction rate for forward reaction
d) Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction

11. Greater the concentration of reactant

a) Greater will be dx/dt


b) Dx/dt will be moderate
c) Lesser will be dx/dt
d) Any of above

12. Increasing of concentration of reactants shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

a) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)


b) H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
c) Fe(s) + H2O(g) = FeO(s) + H2(g)
d) H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI

13. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) The point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;
b) The point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;
c) The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;
d) The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

14. To increase product’s yield of reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, one should:

a) Decrease pressure
b) Add catalyst
c) Increase concentration of hydrogen
d) Increase temperature

15. Activated complex is formed due to

a) Pressure
b) Ineffective collisions
c) Effective collision
d) Temperature

16. For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible,
if we’ll:

a) Decrease pressure
b) Decrease temperature
c) Increase concentration of CO2
d) Increase pressure

17. Sum of exponents of molar concentration is called

a) Order of reaction
b) Molecularity
c) Rate of reaction
d) Average of reaction

18. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

19. Each catalyst has

a) Specificity
b) Its own Ea
c) Special structure
d) All of above

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
20. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:

a) Solubility product constant (Ksp);


b) Acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) Molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) Molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

21. Which of the following will have very high rate of reaction?

a) Double decomposition reaction


b) Ionic reactions
c) Neutralization reaction
d) All of above

22. Increasing of temperature shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

a) N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH


b) 2NH3(g) = N2(g) +3H2(g)+ ΔH
c) 2H2(g) + O2 = 2H2O – H
d) СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

23. Rate of disappearance of reactant is equal to

a) Rate of reaction
b) Energy released during reaction
c) Rate of formation of product
d) A and b

24. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

25. A catalyst can not effect

a) Products
b) Chemical equilibrium
c) Reactants
d) Both a & b

26. On increasing the temperature the rate of reaction increases mainly because

a) The activation energy of the reaction increases


b) Concentration of the reacting molecules increases

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Group#18
c) Collision frequency increases
d) None of these

27. Unit of rate of reaction is

a) Moles dm-3 sec-1


b) Moles sec-1
c) Moles dm-3
d) Mol-1 dm-3 sec-1

28. The value of activation energy is primarily determined by

a) Temperature
b) Effective collision
c) Concentration of reactants
d) Chemical nature of reactants and products

29. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

30. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

31. Which factor will effect on shifting of chemical equilibrium for reaction Fe3O4(s) +
4H2(g) = 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g):

a) Adding catalyst to system


b) Changing of pressure
c) Changing of Fe3O4 concentration
d) Increasing of hydrogen concentration

32. Radiations are absorbed in

a) Spectrophotometer method
b) Optical relation method
c) Dilatometric method
d) Refractometric method

33. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

34. Rate of chemical reaction Mg with acetic acid will NOT increase, if we’ll:

a) Use Mg powder
b) Increase temperature
c) Decrease temperature
d) Add HI to system, as catalyst

35. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

36. When the reaction completes in more than one steps rate of reaction will be determined
by

a) Fast step
b) Slowest step
c) All steps
d) Molecularity of the reaction

37. In rate expression the concentration of reactants is negative. It shows

a) Concentration of reactant does not change


b) Concentration of product increases
c) Concentration of reactant decreases
d) Concentration of reactant increases

38. Equilibrium of process N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH shifted to product, if we’ll:

a) Increase pressure
b) Increase temperature
c) Decrease temperature
d) Decrease concentration of nitrogen

39. Biocatalytical proteins are

a) Enzymes
b) Lipids
c) Substrate
d) Any of above

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
40. Which statement is incorrect about catalyst

a) It is used in smaller amount


b) Decrease activation energy
c) Specific in action
d) It affects specific rate constant

41. Pressure changing will NOT effect for reaction:

a) FeO(s) + CO(g) = Fe(s) + CO2(g


b) H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
c) 2CO(g) + O2(g) = 2CO2(g)
d) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

42. Decreasing of pressure shifts equilibrium to products in case:

a) FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)


b) CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
c) H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
d) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

43. Rate of chemical reaction between gases with increase of pressure, in common:

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain the same
d) All of this is possible

44. For reaction C(s) + 2N2O(g) = 2N2(g) + CO2(g)- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is
possible, due these factors:

a) Increasing of pressure; decreasing of temperature


b) Decreasing of pressure; increasing N2O concentration
c) Increasing of pressure; decreasing CO2 concentration
d) Increasing of pressure; decreasing N2O concentration

45. Anything which increases rate of reaction without being involved in the reaction

a) Promoter
b) Inhibitor
c) Catalyst
d) All of the above

46. Energy required to form transition state is called

a) Ea
b) V

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Group#18
c) P.E
d) K.E

47. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O


b) 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) L2 → 2Cl

48. For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H process, increasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

a) Shifting of equilibrium to reactants


b) Increasing reaction rate for forward reaction
c) Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction
d) Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction

49. For reaction 2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2- ΔH shifting equilibrium to product is impossible, if


we’ll:

a) Decrease temperature
b) Increase pressure
c) Increase temperature
d) Increase concentration of oxygen

50. An enzyme has its specificity due to

a) Substrate
b) Temperature
c) Structure
d) Pressure

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
Colloids
1. Which method for the production of dispersions involves the formation of particles from
materials dissolved in true solutions?

a) Bottom-up
b) Top-down
c) Milling
d) High pressure homogenization

2. Is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary
liquid induced by an external field.

a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

3. Emulsion is:

a) Butter;
b) River ooze;
c) Stained glass;
d) Textile fabrics.

4. A suspension is formed from uniform particles of solid, of diameter 10 Mm, suspended


in a solvent. What is the best description of this system?

a) Monodisperse and coarse


b) Monodisperse and colloidal
c) Polydisperse and coarse
d) Polydisperse and colloidal

5. These following things are colloid properties, except...

a) Composed of 2 phase
b) Stable
c) Homogeneous
d) Can be filtered

6. Which one of the following systems has the smallest sized domains in its dispersed
phase?

a) Nanoemulsion

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Group#18
b) Coarse suspension
c) Coarse emulsion
d) Microemulsion

7. The scattering of light by coarse and colloidal dispersed systems is known as?

a) Contrast matching
b) DLVO theory
c) Tyndall effect
d) Creaming

8. An _________ is a sol with the continuous phase a gas. Fog is an _________ of water
droplets.

a) Aerosol
b) Emulsion
c) Agglomerate
d) Electrophoresis

9. Which one of the following dispersions does not have liquid continuous phase?

a) Nanosuspension
b) Microemulsion
c) Gel
d) Foam

10. How might solid sodium carbonate be obtained from sodium carbonate solution?

a) Centrifugation
b) Filtration
c) Evaporation
d) It cannot be extracted

11. Margarine is a colloid system of...

a) Foam
b) Emulsion
c) Aerosol
d) Solid emulsion

12. An _________ is a sol in which the suspended particles are liquid droplets and the
continuous phase is also a liquid. The 2 phases are immiscible, otherwise a solution would
form.

a) Aerosol
b) Emulsion
c) Agglomerate

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Group#18
d) Electrophoresis

13. Is the charged field generated by charged particles moving in a stationary liquid.

a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

14. A _________ is a sol of solid particles scattered in a liquid. Foam is a colloidal system
in which gas bubbles dispersed in a liquid or solid.

a) Colloidal suspension
b) Streaming potential
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

15. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the
particles with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.

a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) Surface
d) Size

16. One of following substances that belongs to colloid system is....

a) Milk
b) Mineral water
c) Vinegar
d) Salty water

17. Light scattering in colloid system is known as..

a) Brownian Motion
b) Tyndall Effect
c) Coagulation
d) Electrophoresis

18. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

a) Prevent making of a colloid


b) Stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization
c) Stabilize the mixture
d) Enrich the aroma

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
19. In the DLVO theory of colloids, normal thermal motion may be sufficient to overcome
the energy barrier that leads to irreversible particle aggregation. The name of this energy
barrier is which one of the following?

a) Primary maximum
b) Secondary maximum
c) Primary minimum
d) Secondary minimum

20. What is the best description of blood?

a) Sol
b) Foam
c) Solution
d) Aerosol

21. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

a) Liquid dispersed in gas


b) Gas dispersed in gas
c) Solid dispersed in gas
d) Solid dispersed in liquid

22. Dispersed phase and dispersing medium of smoke are..

a) Solid in liquid
b) Liquid in solid
c) Solid in gas
d) Gas in solid

23. Which of the following sequences correctly describes the change in domain structure
as more oil is added to a water-in-oil emulsion?

a) Bicontinuous, spherical, cylinder-like


b) Spherical, cylinder-like, bicontinuous
c) Spherical, bicontinuous, cylinder-like
d) Cylinder-like, spherical, bicontinuous

24. Is the generation of an electric field by locomotion of the liquid along stationary
charged surfaces.

a) Colloidal suspension
b) Streaming potential
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
25. Which of the following is not a mechanism for the separation of a physically unstable
suspension of magnesium hydroxide in water?

a) Flocculation
b) Aggregation
c) Ostwald ripening
d) Hydrolysis

Complex compounds
1. Ligands which can form two coordinate bonds from each ion or molecule to transition
metal ion are known as

a) Ligands ions
b) Dentate ligands
c) Monodentate ligands
d) Bidentate ligands

2. Number of dative bonds to central metal ion is its

a) Oxidation number
b) Compound number
c) Co-ordination number
d) Dative number

3. Due to ligands' action of splitting color of transition metal compound, this change
occurs at

a) S-orbital
b) D-orbital
c) P-orbital
d) F-orbital

4. Ions which are produced from ligands are

a) Cation
b) Anion
c) Complex ion
d) Allofthem

5. Different ions will split up by different compounds to given of

a) Same colored complexes


b) Different colored complexes

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Group#18
c) Same density complexes
d) Same temperature complexes

Electrochemistry redox
reaction
Which process / equation pair occurs at the cathode when iron hinges are plated with
copper?

a) Reduction, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-


b) Reduction, Cu2+ + 2 e- Cu(s)
c) Oxidation, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
d) Oxidation, Cu2+ (aq) + 2 e- Cu(s)

2. In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the oxidizing agent.
(acidic solution)

a) Sn
b) Sn+2
c) MnO41
d) Mn

3. Number of reaction products always greater than number of reactants if it is:

a) Reaction of decomposition
b) Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
c) Reaction of substitution
d) Reaction of direct combination

4. What is the oxidation number of an As atom in AsO4-3(aq)?

a) +5
b) +9
c) +1
d) -7

5. In which reaction is the first substance acting as a reducing agent?

a) Chlorine + iron(II) chloride ---> iron(III) chloride


b) Copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ---> copper + water
c) Hydrochloric acid + magnesium oxide ---> magnesium chloride + water

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Carbon monoxide + zinc oxide ---> zinc + carbon dioxide

6. In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), __________ is


reduced.

a) N
b) NO21
c) Cr+6
d) Cr

7. Find an endothermic reaction:

a) N2 + Н2 = NH3- ΔH
b) SO2 + O2+ ΔH= SO3
c) С + О2 = СО2- ΔH
d) СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

8. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3 (acidic solution), __________ is


oxidized.

a) O
b) Ce
c) H2O2
d) Ce+4

9. In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, the coefficient of water is
________. (acidic solution)

a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

10. Which represents a reduction reaction?

a) AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3


b) AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
c) Cl2 + 2 e--> 2 Cl-
d) K -> K+ + e-

11. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31 (acidic solution), __________ is
oxidized.

a) H5IO6
b) N
c) I
d) NO

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
12. What is the oxidation number of an iron atom in Fe2O3?

a) +6
b) +3
c) -3
d) -2

13. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the
reducing agent.

a) O
b) Ce
c) H2O2
d) Ce+4

14. What is the oxidation of xenon in XeF6?

a) -6
b) -1
c) +6
d) -7

15. In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), _________ is the
reducing agent.

a) N
b) NO21
c) Cr+6
d) Cr

16. Which change is reduction?

a) A decrease in oxidation state


b) Gain of oxygen
c) Loss of electrons
d) Loss of hydrogen

17. What is the oxidation state of sulphur in SO3-2

a) -4
b) +2
c) +4
d) +6

18. Balance the following oxidation-reduction equation: Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq) Sn4+(aq) +


Ce3+(aq)

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq) Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
b) 2Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq) 2Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
c) 2Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq) 2Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)
d) Sn2+(aq) + 2Ce4+(aq) Sn4+(aq) + 2Ce3+(aq)

19. Magnesium displace lead ions from solution lead(II) sulfate. Which statement about this
reaction is true?

a) Lead (II) ions are oxidized.


b) Magnesium atoms are oxidised.
c) Lead (II) ions lose electrons.
d) Magnesium atoms gain electrons .

20. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), __________ is


reduced.

a) H5IO6
b) N
c) I
d) NO

21. In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the reducing agent.
(acidic solution)

a) Sn
b) Sn+2
c) MnO41
d) Mn

22. Hydrogen peroxide, H2O2 reacts with silver oxide according to the following equation/
Ag2O(s) + H2O2(l) = 2Ag(s) + H2O(l) + O2(g) in this reaction hydrogen peroxide behaves as

a) A catalyst
b) A dehydrating agent
c) An oxidising agent
d) A reducing agent

23. In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, the coefficient of water is ________.
(basic solution)

a) 1
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6

24. In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is reduced. (basic
solution)

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) F
b) CO2
c) F2
d) C

25. Which one of these reactions is heterogeneous?

a) CaO(s) + CO2(g) = CaCO3


b) KOH(sol) + HNO3(sol) = KNO3(sol) + H2O(l)
c) H2 + N2 = NH3
d) NH3 + O2 = N2 + H2O(g)

26. Which represents an oxidation reaction?

a) NaNO3 + KCl -> NaCl + KNO3


b) AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
c) Cl2 + 2e--> 2 Cl-
d) K -> K+ + e-

27. In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, _________ is the reducing agent.
(basic solution)

a) F
b) CO2
c) F2
d) C

28. What is the oxidation state of chromium in the CrO3-2

a) +3
b) -3
c) +6
d) -6

29. Which one of these reactions is redox reaction?

a) Аl + Сl2= АlСl3
b) ВаСО3 = ВаО + СО2
c) Ba(NO3)2 + K2SO4= BaSO4 + KNO3
d) СаСО3 = СаО + СО2

30. In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+22 (basic solution), _________ is the
oxidizing agent.

a) N
b) NO21
c) Cr+6

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Cr

31. Acidified potassium dichromate (VI) can be used to detect the presence of ethanol
vapour in the breach of a person who consumed alcohol. A color change from orange to
green is absolved if ethanol is present. This shows that ethanol is

a) An alkali
b) An indicator
c) An oxidizing agent
d) A reducing agent

32. In the electrolysis of water, which reaction occurs at the cathode?

a) 2 H2(g) + O2(g) 2 H2O(g)


b) 2 02-(aq) O2(g) + 4 e-
c) 2 H2O(l) 4 H+(aq) + 2 02-(aq)
d) 2 H+(aq) + 2 e- H2(g)

33. Which change is oxidation?

a) Gain of electrons
b) Gain of hydrogen
c) Loss of oxygen
d) Loss of electrons

34. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the
oxidizing agent.

a) H5IO6
b) N
c) I
d) NO

35. In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), the coefficient of
water is ________.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0

36. Which compound, when added to aqueous iron(II) sulphate, takes part in a redox
reaction?

a) Ammonia
b) Barium chloride
c) Acidified potassium manganate (VII)

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Sodium hydroxide

37. Find irreversible reaction:

a) H2 + N2 = NH3
b) NaOH + HCl = NaCl + H2O
c) SO2 + O2 = SO3
d) N2O4 = NO2

38. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), __________ is


reduced.

a) O
b) Ce
c) H2O2
d) Ce+4

39. Which one of these reactions is homogeneous?

a) K(s) + H2O(l) = KOH(sol) + H2(g)


b) N2(g) + H2(g) = NH3(g)
c) BaCl2(sol) + H2SO4(sol) =BaSO4(s) + 2HC1 (sol);
d) Fe + H2SO4 = FeSO4 + H2;

40. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the
reducing agent.

a) H5IO6
b) N
c) I
d) NO

41. Which of the following statements about corrosion are NOT true?

a) A car rusts because steel reacts with water and oxygen in the air.
b) When iron rusts electrons are lost from the metal.
c) Plating metal speeds up the oxidation process.
d) Adding zinc metal strips to iron metals prevents corrosion.

42. In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, __________ is oxidized. (acidic
solution)

a) Sn
b) Sn+2
c) MnO41
d) Mn

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
43. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), the coefficient of
water is ________.

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

44. In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is oxidized. (basic
solution)

a) F
b) CO2
c) F2
d) C

45. The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is __.

a) +1
b) -1
c) +2
d) -2

46. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), the coefficient of
water is

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

47. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the
oxidizing agent.

a) O
b) Ce
c) H2O2
d) Ce+4

48. Which of the following bases has the highest pKa value

a) NaOH
b) NaNO3
c) KNO3
d) KCl

49. Which one of the following substance is reducing agent?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Argon
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Carbon monoxide

50. In the balanced reaction Cr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2 (basic solution) __________ is
oxidized.

a) N
b) NO21
c) Cr+6
d) Cr

Hydrolysis
Salt whose dissociation produces equal amounts of two ions

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

2. Conjugate base of H3PO4

a) H3PO4
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

3. Reacts with H3O+ to form HPO42–

a) H3PO4
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

4. A solution with a pH of 12.0 is

a) Strongly acidic.
b) Weakly acidic
c) Weakly basic
d) Strongly basic

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
5. In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base
will react in a molar ratio of

a) One to one
b) One to one
c) Three to one
d) Three to three

6. A buffer solution could be prepared from

a) NaCl and HCl


b) NaOH and HCl
c) KC2H3O2 and HC2H3O2.
d) NaCN and KCN

7. What is the acids?

a) They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of
them oxygen.
b) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
c) They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid
residues
d) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

8. In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

a) H2SO4 and BaSO4


b) NaCl and NaOH
c) NH4Cl and KCl
d) HNO3 and KOH

9. Salt whose dissociation produces more positive ions than negative ions

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

10. PH = 7.00

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
11. Substance produced when HNO3 neutralizes NaOH

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

12. [H3O+] = 2.0 x 10–8 M

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

13. The pH of a buffered solution

a) Always equals 7.0.


b) May be acidic or basic depending on the buffer present.
c) Changes drastically when a small amount of acid is added
d) No correct response

14. What is the bases?

a) They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of
them oxygen
b) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and
hydroxyl group (OH)
c) They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
d) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

15. Substance which reacts with H2SO4 to produce K2SO4

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

16. Aqueous NH4Cl solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

17. What is the oxides?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one
of them oxygen
b) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
c) They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues.
d) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

18. In which of the following pairs of salts will both members of the pair hydrolyze in water
to give solutions that are basic?

a) NaCl and NaCN


b) NH4Cl and NH4NO3
c) KC2H3O2 and KCN
d) NaNO3 and Na2SO4

19. Monoprotic strong acid

a) HCl
b) HC2H3O2
c) H2C3H2O2
d) H2SO4

20. In which of the following pairings of compounds are both members of the pair strong
electrolytes?

a) NaOH and NaCl


b) NH3 and HCl
c) KOH and H2CO3
d) NaCN and HCN

21. Aqueous NaCl solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

22. PH = 2.30

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

23. Which of the following pairings of pH and hydronium ion concentration is correct?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) PH = 2.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 102
b) PH = 7.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 10–7
c) PH = 9.0; [H3O+] = 9 x 10–9
d) No correct response

24. Acid ionization constants give information about

a) The strengths of acids.


b) The number of nonacidic hydrogens present in acids.
c) Whether acids are polyprotic.
d) Whether acids can neutralize bases

25. In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

a) NaCl and NaOH


b) KNO3 and K2SO4
c) H3PO4 and (NH4)3PO4
d) More than one correct response

26. Which of the following statements about weak acids is correct?

a) Weak acids always contain C atoms


b) The percentage dissociation for weak acids is usually in the range of 40-60%.
c) Weak acid molecules readily lose their acidic hydrogen atoms.
d) No correct response

27. Acid which completely dissociates in solution to produce negative ions with a charge
of one

a) HCl
b) HC2H3O2
c) H2C3H2O2
d) H2SO4

28. In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?

a) HNO3 and HNO2


b) H2SO4 and H2SO3
c) HCl and HClO4
d) No correct response

29. Aqueous NaCN solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
30. In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base
will react in a molar ratio of

a) One to one
b) One to three.
c) Three to one
d) Three to three.

31. In which of the following salts would both the positive ion and the negative ion
hydrolyze when the salt is dissolved in water?

a) NaCl
b) NaCN
c) NH4Cl
d) No correct response

32. Inorganic compounds divided in to:

a) Simple, complex substances


b) Metals, nonmetals
c) Acid, base, salt, oxide
d) Metal, acid, simple substance

33. What is the salts?

a) They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of
them oxygen
b) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
c) They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid
residues
d) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues

34. Which of the following statements concerning electrolytes is correct?

a) All strong acids are strong electrolytes


b) Some salts are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes.
c) Some molecular substances are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes
d) More than one correct response

35. [OH–] = 3.0 x 10–-6 M

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
36. In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?

a) H3PO4 and H2SO4


b) HCl and HNO3
c) H2CO3 and HBr
d) HC2H3O2 and HI

37. Which of the following does not describe an acidic solution?

a) The pH is less than 7.0


b) The [OH–] is greater than 1.0 x 10–7
c) The [H3O+] is greater than the [OH–]
d) The [OH–] is 6.0 x 10–10

38. Conjugate acid of HPO42–

a) H3PO4
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

39. If a solution is buffered at a pH of 8.0, then the addition of a small amount of acid will
cause the solution to have a pH of approximately

a) 6.0.
b) 7.0.
c) 8.0.
d) 9.0.

40. In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair weak acids?

a) H2SO4 and HC2H3O2


b) HNO3 and H2C4H4O6
c) HC2H3O2 and H3C6H5O7
d) H3PO4 and H2SiO3

41. If the pH of a solution of a salt is 5.0, the salt must be one which could be formed from
the neutralization of

a) A strong acid and a strong base.


b) A weak acid and a strong base.
c) A strong acid and a weak base.
d) HCl and NaOH.

42. The pH of a solution for which [OH–] = 1.0 x 10–6 is

a) 1.00

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
b) 8.00
c) 6.00
d) –6.00

43. Substance which reacts with NaOH to produce Na3PO4

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

44. Which of the following is a correct statement for a solution with a pH of 8.00?

a) The hydroxide ion concentration is greater than the hydronium ion concentration
b) The hydronium ion concentration is 8.0 M
c) The hydroxide ion concentration is 1.0 x 10–8 M
d) No correct response

45. Will form a buffer with PO43–

a) H3PO4
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

46. Diprotic weak acid

a) HCl
b) HClO4
c) H2SiO3
d) H2SO4

47. Which of the following equations represents an acid-base neutralization reaction?

a) H2SO4 + Zn ZnSO4 + H2
b) HNO3 + KOH KNO3 + H2O
c) Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaOH
d) No correct response

48. Aqueous NaOH solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
49. Which of the following is produced in the first step of the dissociation of the acid
H3PO4?

a) H3PO3
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

50. Aqueous HCl solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Ionization of water
Identify the triprotic acid from the following

a) Carbonic acid
b) Bicarbonate
c) Glycine
d) Phosphoric acid

2. Aqueous solution of the detergents are

a) Neutral
b) Acidic
c) Basic
d) Amphoteric

3. Which of the following is an isotonic solution?

a) 0.9% sodium chloride


b) 0.45% sodium chloride
c) Oceans
d) 10% dextrose in water

4. What is the concentration of OH– in a solution with a H+ concentration of 1.3×10-4 M?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) 7.7×10-10 M
b) 7.7×10-9 M
c) 7.7×10-11 M
d) 7.7×10-12 M

5. What is the factor that is responsible for salts like NaCl to dissolve in water easily?

a) Decrease in entropy
b) Increase in entropy
c) Increase in enthalpy
d) Decrease in enthalpy

6. What makes water a liquid at room temperature?

a) Hydrogen bonds between water molecules


b) Covalent bonding
c) Noncovalent interactions
d) Van der Waals forces of attraction

7. ΔG is negative for which of the following processes?

a) Melting of ice and evaporation of water


b) Oxidation of nitrogen
c) Oxidation of gold
d) Burning of chlorine

8. Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

a) Oceans
b) Freshwater habitats
c) 0.45% sodium chloride
d) Red blood cells placed in fresh water

9. ΔH is positive for which of the following processes?

a) Oxidation of nitrogen
b) Melting of ice and evaporation of water
c) Oxidation of gold
d) Burning of chlorine

10. Which of the following acids has the lowest pKa value?

a) Acetic acid
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Dil.HCl
d) Oxalic acid

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
11. Which of the following is a hypotonic solution?

a) 10% dextrose in water


b) 0.45% sodium chloride
c) 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
d) Oceans

12. The degree of ionization does not depend on?

a) Temperature
b) Current
c) Nature of solvent
d) Concentration

Lipids
Fatty acid synthesis takes place in

a) Mitochondria
b) Cellmembrane
c) Cytosol
d) Endoplasmicreticulum

2. Which substance is an electrolyte?

a) CH3OH
b) C6H12O6
c) H2O
d) KOH

3. Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule containing polar covalent bonds?

a) H2O
b) CCl4
c) NH3
d) H2

4. Condensed structural formula of Caproic acid is

a) CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
b) CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
c) CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
d) CH3-(CH2)16-COOH

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
5. The key enzyme in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis is

a) Acetyl CoA carboxylase


b) AMP activated proteinkinase
c) Proteinphosphatase
d) None of these

6. Which of following protects our heart and kidneys from injury?

a) Skin
b) Muscles
c) Lubricants
d) Fat

7. The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is

a) Ribose
b) Galactose
c) Mannose
d) Maltose

8. The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of

a) Diffusion
b) Effusion
c) Affusion
d) Coagulation

9. Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with

a) 2 double bonds
b) 3 double bonds
c) One double bond
d) None of these

10. Which formula represents a polar molecule?

a) H2
b) H2O
c) CO2
d) CCL4

11. Two hydrogen atoms form a hydrogen molecule when

a) One atom loses a valence electron to the other atom


b) One atom shares four electrons with the other atom
c) The two atoms collide and both atoms gain energy

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) The two atoms collide with sufficient energy to form a bond

12. Which kind of compound generally results when nonmetal atoms chemically combine
with metal atoms?

a) Hydrogen
b) Ionic
c) Covalent
d) Metallic

13. Micelles of fatty acids in water are organized such that the __________ faces the
solvent and the __________ are directed toward the interior

a) Carboxylic acid groups, hydrocarbon chains heads


b) Hydrophilicheads, hydrophobictails
c) Hydrocarbon chains, carboxylic acid groups
d) Both (a) and (b)

14. Atherosclerosis can cause blood

a) Thinning
b) Clotting
c) Thickening
d) Noneofthese

15. Storage polysaccharide made by animals is

a) Amylopectin
b) Glycogen
c) Cellulose
d) Collagen

16. Milk is deficient in which vitamins?

a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin B2
d) Vitamin K

17. The average pH of Urine is

a) 7.0
b) 6.0
c) 8.0
d) 0.0

18. Which compound has both ionic and covalent bonding?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) CaCO3
b) CH2C12
c) CH3OH
d) C6H12O6

19. Derivatives of phosphatidic acid, which are composed of glycerol, fatty acids and
phosphoric acids are known as

a) Phospholipids
b) Acylghycerols
c) Triglycerides
d) Esters

20. Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

a) Lysosomes
b) Mitochondria
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Entoplasmic reticulum

21. Saliva contains all of the following except

a) Hormones
b) Amylase
c) Bacteria-killingenzymes
d) Antibodies

22. As sodium reacts with fluorine to form the compound NaF, each sodium atom will

a) Gain 1 electron
b) Gain 2 electrons
c) Lose 1 electron
d) Lose 2 electrons

23. Which statement describes a chemical change?

a) Alcohol evaporates.
b) Water vapor forms snowflakes.
c) Table salt (NaCl) is crushed into powder.
d) Glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen produce CO2 and H2O.

24. As a bond between a hydrogen atom and a sulfur atom is formed, electrons are

a) Shared to form an ionic bond


b) Shared to form a covalent bond
c) Transferred to form an ionic bond
d) Transferred to form a covalent bond

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
25. The glycosidic bond

a) In maltose is not hydrolyzed in lactose intolerant humans


b) In sucrose is hydrolyzed by bees
c) Joins glucose and fructose to form sucrose
d) Both (b) and (c)

26. Cholestrol is the precursor of

a) Steroid hormones
b) Vitamin A
c) Bile salts
d) Both (a) and (c)

27. Arachidonate has 20 carbon atoms with

a) 3 doublebonds
b) 2 doublebonds
c) 4 doublebonds
d) 8 doublebonds

28. Which formula correctly represents the compound calcium hydroxide?

a) CaOH
b) Ca2OH
c) CaOH2
d) Ca(OH)2

29. In human diet, all cholesterol comes from

a) Animal products
b) Vegetable products
c) Both A and B
d) None of these

30. Which compound has the least ionic character?

a) KCl
b) CaCl2
c) AlCl3
d) CCl4

31. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that a carbon atom can form?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 2

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) 4

32. Milk is deficient of which mineral?

a) Phosphorus
b) Sodium
c) Iron
d) Potassium

33. Greater number of carbon atoms in chain results in higher

a) Melting point
b) Boiling point
c) Freezing oint
d) Stability

34. Condensed structural formula of Palmitic acid is

a) CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
b) CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
c) CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
d) CH3-(CH2)16-COOH

35. A substance has a high melting point and conducts electricity in the liquid phase. This
substance is

a) Ne
b) Hg
c) NaCl
d) SiC

36. Humans are unable to digest

a) Starch
b) Complex carbohydrates
c) Denatured proteins
d) Cellulose

37. Which type of bond is found between atoms of solid cobalt?

a) Nonpolar covalent
b) Polar covalent
c) Metallic
d) Ionic

38. Lipids provide insulation against cold and hot weather to exoskeleton of insects in form
of

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Cutin
b) Waxes
c) Cholesterol
d) Oil

39. Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?

a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Cytoplasm
d) Golgi apparatus

40. Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to

a) Phosphoenolpyruvate
b) AcetylCoA
c) Lactate
d) Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate

41. Which atom has the least attraction for the electrons in a bond between that atom and
an atom of hydrogen?

a) Carbon
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Fluorine

42. Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

a) Amylose
b) Cellobiose
c) Lactose
d) Noneofthese

43. Physical state of fat at room temperature is

a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Plasma

44. Which of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone
insulin?

a) Mn++
b) Mg++
c) Ca++

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Zn++

45. Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) + energy
Which statement describes the energy changes in this reaction?

a) Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, only.


b) Energy is released as bonds are broken, only.
c) Energy is absorbed as bonds are broken, and energy is released as bonds are
formed.
d) Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, and energy is released as bonds are broken.

46. What occurs in order to break the bond in a Cl2 molecule?

a) Energy is absorbed.
b) Energy is released.
c) The molecule creates energy.
d) The molecule destroys energy.

47. How many ATPs are formed during complete oxidation of palmitate?

a) 35
b) 96
c) 129
d) 131

48. Oxidation of which substance in the body yields the most calories

a) Glucose
b) Glycogen
c) Protein
d) Lipids

49. Phospholipid contains

a) Hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails


b) Long water-soluble carbon chains
c) Positivelychargedfunctionalgroups
d) Both (b) and (c)

50. Which element is composed of molecules that each contain a multiple covalent bond?

a) Chlorine
b) Fluorine
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
Miscellaneous
. Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:

a) It is basic in nature
b) It is acidic in nature
c) Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base
d) Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.

2. The value of Vant Hoff factor (i) = 2 is for:

a) Glucose
b) Sucrose
c) Calcium chloride
d) Sodium chloride

3. If the solvent boils at a temperature T1 and the solution at a temperature T2 , then the
elevation of boiling point is given by:

a) T1 + T2
b) T1 – T2
c) T2 – T1.
d) None of the above

4. Why pure water is very weak electrolyte?

a) It ionizes to a large extent


b) It ionizes to very small extent
c) It does not ionizes at all
d) It ionizes completely

5. Vapour pressure decreases with:

a) Increase in concentration of the solution.


b) Decrease in solute particles in the solution
c) Decrease in boiling point.
d) Increase in freezing point.

6. Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

a) Camphor
b) Petrol
c) Acetone
d) Acetanilide

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Group#18
7. In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.

a) Weak acid and strong base


b) Weak acid and weak base
c) Strong acid and strong base
d) Strong acid and weak base

8. When osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:

a) Equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute.
b) Equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.
c) Non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute
d) Non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute

9. The unit of Cryoscopic constant is:

a) Kelvin kg mol-1
b) Kelvin kg-1 mol-1
c) Kelvin kg mol+1
d) Kelvin kg+1 mol+1

10. NH3 and H20 can act as:

a) Lewis acid and Bronsted base


b) Lewis base and Bronsted acid
c) Lewis and Bronsted base
d) Lewis and Bronsted acid.

11. What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of
HOCl (ka = 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

a) 7.0
b) 3.2
c) 7.3
d) 4.5

12. Addition of a salt of weak acid and strong base to water would cause:

a) Increase in pH.
b) PH remains same.
c) Decrease in pH
d) None of these.

13. The concentration of a sparingly soluble salt in its saturated solution at a given
temperature is known as:

a) Solubility product

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b) Solubility
c) Hydrolysis
d) Degree of hydrolysis

14. Precipitation of salt occurs if:

a) Ionic product = solubility product


b) Ionic product > solubility product
c) Ionic product < solubility product
d) None of these

15. The conjugate base of methyl alcohol is:

a) Hydroxyl ion
b) Methyl radical
c) Hydronium ion
d) Methoxide ion

16. Buffer of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?

a) Weak acid + weak base in water


b) Strong acid + strong base in water.
c) Weak acid + strong base in water.
d) Strong acid + weak base in water.

17. Molarity of a solution is expressed as:

a) The number of moles of a solute present in one litre of the solution


b) The number of moles of a solute present in 1000 gm of the solvent
c) The number of gram equivalent of solute present in one litre of solution
d) The ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute

18. Among the following which is a strong electrolyte and thus the best conductor of
electricity?

a) Sulphuric acid
b) Acetic acid
c) Boric acid
d) Phosphoric acids

19. Water molecule is a highly polar solvent due to:

a) Presence of two lone pair of electrons


b) Presence of three lone pair of electrons
c) Absence of lone pair of electrons
d) None of these

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20. If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:

a) I=1
b) I>1
c) I=0
d) I<1

21. 10-4 M HCl solution at 298 K is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution will:

a) Lie between 8 and 9


b) Remain unchanged
c) Lie between 6 and 7
d) Equal to 7

22. The ionisation of a weak electrolyte increases when the concentration of the solution is
decreased. This relation is given by:

a) Ostwald’s law
b) Arrhenius equation
c) Nernst’s equation.
d) Law of mass action.

23. Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:

a) Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised


b) It has low molecular weight
c) Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.
d) It does not dissociates completely

24. NH4Cl and aq.NH3 will precipitate.

a) Cu2+
b) Fe3+
c) Na+
d) K+

25. Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

a) An increase in melting point of the liquid


b) A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.
c) A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid
d) No change in the boiling point of the liquid.

26. Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

a) Obeys Raoult’s law.


b) Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero

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c) There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.
d) Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

27. Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength?

a) HCl < HBr < HI < HF


b) HF < HBr < HCl < HI
c) HI < HCl < HBr < HF
d) HF < HCl < HI < HBr.

28. Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?

a) Equimolar solutions
b) Equinormal solution
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

29. When acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:

a) Both (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.


b) Both (H+) and (OH) ions increases
c) (H+) increases and (OH-) decreases
d) (H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.

30. Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:

a) Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between
individual liquids
b) Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between
individual liquids.
c) Force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids
d) Force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.

31. Aqueous solution of potassium chlorate is:

a) Amphoteric
b) Neutral
c) Alkaline
d) Acidic

32. HCO3- acts as:

a) Acid
b) Base
c) Both acid and base
d) None of these

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33. An acid is one that donates a proton. This theory was given by:

a) lewis
b) lowery-bronsted
c) arrhenius
d) ostwald

34. Which among the following is true? i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its
boiling point decreases. ii. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point
increases. iii. When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boil

a) I & iii
b) I & iv.
c) Ii & iii
d) Ii & iv

35. Addition of common salt in water causes

a) Increase in M.P of solution


b) Increase in B.P of solution
c) Decrease in B.P of solution
d) Decrease in both M.P & B.P

36. Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?

a) AgCl
b) BaSO4
c) CH3COOAg
d) None of these

37. Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of boiling point
c) Freezing point
d) Depression in freezing point.

38. Which of the following act as Bronsted acid?

a) HSO3-
b) HCO3-
c) Both a and b
d) None

39. Basicity of an acid is defined as number of replicable:

a) OH groups in its molecule

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b) H atom in its molecule
c) Non-metal cations in its molecule
d) Non-metal anions in its molecule

40. Which among the following is not a property of buffer solution?

a) It has a definite PH.


b) PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.
c) PH remains constant on keeping for a long time
d) It does not has a definite PH

41. A buffer solution is one that contains:

a) A weak acid and its conjugate base


b) Strong base and its conjugate acid
c) Strong acid and its conjugate base
d) None of these

42. The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

a) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it


b) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non
electrolyte solute in it
c) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.
d) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

43. The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

a) Amount of solute
b) Nature of solute.
c) Amount of solvent
d) Nature of solvent

44. If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:

a) Weak electrolyte
b) Strong electrolyte
c) Strong base
d) None of these.

45. Addition of HCl will suppress the ionisation of:

a) Benzoic acid
b) Carbonic acid
c) Nitric acid
d) Both a and b

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46. Vant Hoff’s eqution for solution is:

a) PV = n / RT
b) P = Vn / RT
c) PV = nRT
d) P = VnR / T

47. Which of the following pair of liquids are immiscible?

a) Acetone + water
b) Benzene + water.
c) Ethanol + water
d) Acetic acid + water

48. Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon
number of solute of particles present in the solution. ii. Relative lowering of vapour
pressure of a solution is equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-el

a) I
b) Ii
c) Both i & ii
d) None of the above

49. If ionic product < solubility product then the solution is:

a) Unsaturated
b) Just saturated.
c) Super saturated
d) None of these

50. Lewis acid is one that:

a) Accepts an electron pair


b) Donates a proton
c) Accepts a proton
d) Donates an electron pair

Miscellaneous 1
1. Sol consists of:

a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;


b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;

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d) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid

2. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:

a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) Size of particles;
d) Odor.

3. What is the Isothermal process?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const


b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

4. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:

a) Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.

5. Chromatography is:

a) The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;


b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

6. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

a) Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right

7. What is the convection?

a) The material to conduct heat.


b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

8. Coarse disperse system is:

a) Solution;

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b) Suspension;
c) Sol;
d) Gel.

9. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?

a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a


liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a
gas;
d) On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

10. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

11. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:

a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;


b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.

12. The heat transfer are divided into

a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation


b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

13. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const


b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

14. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:

a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation


b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

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15. Find the formula of Internal energy.

a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

16. Coagulation is:

a) Chaotic movement of particles;


b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;
c) Destruction of the native protein structure;
d) The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and
thereby separate from the continuous phase.

17. Stability of a disperse system is:

a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance


and viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) Constancy in time of its state and main properties.

18. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

a) Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.

19. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?

a) Julius Robert von Mayer


b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

20. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

a) Opalescence;
b) Light absorption;
c) Electrodialysis;
d) Electrophoresis and electroosmosis

21. Fog and smoke are:

a) Aerosols;

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b) Emulsions;
c) Gels;
d) Foams

22. Biological gel is:

a) Cartilage;
b) Air;
c) Clouds;
d) River water

23. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy
d) Exothermic process

24. What is the Isobaric process?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const


b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

25. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?

a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

26. What is the Closed System?

a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings


b) Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

27. What is the adiabaticprocess?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const


b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

28. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

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a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

29. Thermodynamic processes may be:

a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation


b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

30. Aerosol is:

a) Powder;
b) Dust cloud;
c) Hairspray;
d) All answers are right.

31. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

32. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

a) Viscosity, flowability;
b) Opalescence, light absorption;
c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;
d) Dissolution, swelling.

33. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:

a) Osmosis;
b) Diffusion;
c) Brownian motion;
d) Coagulation .

34. The basic formula for Entropy;

a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW

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35. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:

a) Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

36. What is the Open System?

a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings


b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

37. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components

a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

38. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:

a) N2;
b) H2O;
c) CO2;
d) O2.

39. What is the Isolated System?

a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings


b) Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

40. Enthalpy is called?

a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

41. What is the radiation?

a) The material to conduct heat.


b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).

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d) None of them.

42. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?

a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

43. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:

a) Aerosol;
b) Emulsion;
c) Sol;
d) Foam

44. What is the thermal conductivity?

a) The material to conduct heat.


b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

45. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?

a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

46. Thermodynamics studies

a) General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.


b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

47. Internal energy is called?

a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

48. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:

a) Fog;

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b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.

49. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:

a) These are heterogeneous systems;


b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) All answers are right.

50. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:

a) Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;


b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.

Miscellaneous 2
1. The structure of an alkene contains

a) Only single bonds;


b) A double bond;
c) Two double bonds;
d) A triple bond.

2. Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

a) CCl4;
b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) C6H6;
d) C6H12O6.

3. For spontaneous processes?

a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) ∆H≤ 0

4. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called

a) Cryometry

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b) Osmometry
c) PH-metry
d) Ebuliometry

5. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called

a) Hypotonic
b) Isoosmotic
c) Saturated
d) Isotonic

6. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called

a) Hypotonic
b) Isoosmotic
c) Saturated
d) Isotonic

7. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called

a) Hypotonic
b) Isoosmotic
c) Saturated
d) Isotonic

8. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise

a) Increases
b) Remains same
c) Decreases
d) No effect

9. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:

a) 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

10. Osmolarity is:

a) The molarity of particles in a solution;


b) The amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) Mass percentage concentration;
d) The concentration in parts per thousand.

11. Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?

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a) Butane;
b) Propane;
c) 1-chlorobutane;
d) 1-chloropropane.

12. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by
their osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:

a) Concentrationofwater;
b) Concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) Concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) Concentration of electrolytes.

13. Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H4;
b) C2H6;
c) C3H8;
d) C4H10.

14. In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?

a) CH3COOH;
b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) CH3CH2OH;
d) CH3OH.

15. The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two
adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

a) Alkanes;
b) Alkenes;
c) Alkynes;
d) Benzenes.

16. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called

a) Cryometry
b) Osmometry
c) PH-metry
d) Ebuliometry

17. Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

a) Benzene;
b) Propene;
c) Propane;

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d) Propyne.

18. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an organic
compound is a(an)

a) Dihedral angle;
b) Right angle;
c) Tetrahedral angle;
d) Acute angle.

19. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called

a) Hypotonic
b) Isoosmotic
c) Saturated
d) Hypertonic

20. What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?

a) 6
b) 2
c) 8
d) 4

21. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution

a) Increases
b) Remains same
c) Decreases
d) None of them

22. Organic compounds must contain

a) Oxygen;
b) Nitrogen;
c) Hydrogen;
d) Carbon.

23. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on

a) Concentration
b) Nature of solvent
c) Temperature
d) Nature of solute

24. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise

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a) Increases
b) Remains same
c) Decreases
d) Increases then decreases

25. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:

a) To increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;


b) To add some electrolytes into a solution;
c) To add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) To increase temperature.

26. How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

a) 5
b) 8
c) 6
d) 13

27. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:

a) Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than
that of pure solvents;
b) Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of
pure solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.

28. Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:

a) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;


b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

29. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling
points

a) Decreases;
b) Increases;
c) Remains the same;
d) Decreases then increases.

30. CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as

a) A carbohydrate;
b) An ester;

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c) An alcohol;
d) An organic acid.

31. Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C3H8;
b) C6H6;
c) C2H5OH;
d) C2H4O2.

32. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:

a) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that
of pure solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of
pure solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents.

33. A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is

a) Ethanol;
b) Glycerol;
c) Ethylene glycol;
d) Ethane.

34. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:

a) The number of the solute particles;


b) The chemical structure of solute;
c) Catalysts;
d) PH scale.

35. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:

a) 2.0×10-2osmol;
b) 1.0×10-1osmol;
c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
d) 5.0×10-3osmol.

36. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an


organic molecule is known as a(an)

a) Carboxyl group;
b) Functional group;
c) Group;

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d) Alkyl group.

37. How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

38. A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used
commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is called

a) Polymerization;
b) Hydrogenation;
c) Esterification;
d) Cracking.

39. Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated


hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

a) Contain multiple bonds;


b) Have a greater molecular mass;
c) Have tetrahedral bonds;
d) Contain more atoms.

40. A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both can
produce

a) An ester;
b) An alcohol;
c) An acid;
d) A soap.

41. A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

a) Fat;
b) Polymer;
c) Isomer;
d) Monomer.

42. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called

a) Cryometry
b) Osmometry
c) PH-metry
d) Ebuliometry

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
43. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:

a) Density;
b) Viscosity;
c) Molar mass;
d) Osmotic pressure.

44. The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of
compounds that are

a) Molecular;
b) Ionic;
c) Polar;
d) Atomic.

45. Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

a) CH4;
b) C2H6;
c) C3H8;
d) C4H10.

46. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:

a) TT= MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

47. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:

a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane


from a solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
from a truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane
from a pure water to a solution;
d) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable
membrane from a dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

48. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the
van der Waals forces between the molecules

a) Decreases;
b) Increases;
c) Remains the same;
d) Decreases then increases.

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
49. Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

a) Benzene;
b) Propyne;
c) Methane;
d) Ethanol.

50. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly


proportional to

a) Temperature
b) Molar fraction of solute
c) Molar fraction of solvent
d) Mixing rate

Miscellaneous 3
1. Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in

a) H2SO3
b) SO2
c) H2SO4
d) H2S

2. How many α-amine acidrests are in polypeptide

a) 01-10
b) 10-100
c) 100-200
d) More than 100

3. The strongest reducing agent is

a) HNO2
b) H2S
c) H2SO3
d) SnCl2

4. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O

a) X=2 y=4 z=10


b) X=2 y=6 z=5
c) X=2 y=3 z=8
d) X=2 y=3 z=10

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
5. Proteins are composed of:

a) 20 different amino acids


b) 15 different amino acids
c) 15 different aldehydes
d) 17 different ethers

6. Which of the following statements is true?

a) NaCl is a neutral salt;


b) KOH is an acid;
c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.
d) NaBr is basic salt.

7. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane

a) Essential
b) Non-essential
c) Semi- essential
d) None of these

8. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O

a) 10
b) 8
c) 5
d) 2

9. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O

a) X=4 y=6
b) X=8 y=3
c) X=8 y=6
d) X=3 y=8

10. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?

a) OH- and H2O;


b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-;
c) HCl and Cl-;
d) NH3 and NH4+;

11. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:

a) Unsaturated;
b) Supersaturated;

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
c) Saturated
d) Dilute

12. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?

a) AgCl;
b) PbBr2;
c) Ca3(PO4)2;
d) Na2CO3

13. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

a) F2
b) Cl2
c) Br2
d) I2

14. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;


b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;
c) HI is hydroiodic acid;
d) HClO2 is chloric acid

15. Which of the following is an insulator?

a) Graphite
b) Aluminium
c) Diamond
d) Silicon

16. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide

a) Coordination
b) Ionic
c) Hydrogen
d) Glycoside

17. Unsaponified lipids are

a) Mono-component
b) Di-component
c) Three-component
d) Poly-component

18. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) H2S
b) SO3
c) H2O2
d) F2

19. Glicaric acids are produced under action of

a) Mild oxidant
b) Strong reductant
c) Mildreductant
d) Strong oxidant

20. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of

a) Aldose
b) Pyranose
c) Fructose
d) Furanose

21. DNA contains

a) Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine


b) Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c) Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d) Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

22. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in

a) Acidic medium
b) Neutral medium
c) Basic medium
d) Any medium

23. Which equation is correctly balanced?

a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;
b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;
c) 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;
d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;

24. Functional Group of Ether:

a) H–C=O
b) C–O–C
c) C–C
d) C–X

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
25. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Esterification
d) Transamination

26. Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis

a) Alcohols, carboxylicacids
b) Carboxylicacids
c) Alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d) Alcohols

27. Amino acides are building blocks of:

a) Ketones
b) Aldehydes
c) Proteins
d) Ethers

28. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :

a) O3
b) KMnO4
c) H2O2
d) K2Cr2O7

29. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine

a) Aliphatic
b) Aromatic
c) Heterocyclic
d) Complex

30. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to

a) Dilution
b) Number of ions
c) Current density
d) Volume of the solution

31. An electrolyte is one

a) Which conducts electric current


b) Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current
c) Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent

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Group#18
d) None of the above

32. Functional Group of Ketone:

a) C-CO-C
b) C–X
c) C – OH
d) #NAME?

33. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides

a) Coordination
b) Ionic
c) Hydrogen
d) Hydrofobic

34. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest

a) C1
b) C2
c) C3
d) C4

35. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in

a) Acidic medium
b) Neutral medium
c) Basic medium
d) Any medium

36. Reduction involves

a) Loss of electrons
b) Gain of electrons
c) Increase in the valency of positive part
d) Decrease in the valency of negative part

37. Monomeric link of protein

a) Sugar rest
b) Isoprene
c) Amine acid rest
d) Ethylene

38. Functional Group of Amine:

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) C – NR – R’
b) O= C – OH
c) H–C=O
d) C – OH

39. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF;


b) 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2;
c) 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2
d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

40. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium
carbonate and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a) Cl-;
b) 2Na+;
c) CaCO3d
d) All of the substances above

41. Oxidation involves

a) Loss of electrons
b) Gain of electrons
c) Increase in the valency of negative part
d) Decrease in the valency of positive part

42. Functional Group of Amide:

O = C – OH

C – NR – R’

H–C=O

HOC – NR – R’

43. Functional Group of Nitrile:

- C≡N

O = C – OH

C – NR – R’

HOC – NR – R’

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
44. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:

a) -1/3
b) -1
c) +1
d) -3

45. Choose peptide bond

a) -CO-NH-
b) –S-S-
c) H2N–CH2–
d) -C-C-

46. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a) 1.5 m NaCl;
b) 1.5 m AgCl;
c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;
d) 2.0 m CaCl2

47. Lactose is

a) Monose
b) Unreducing disaccharide
c) Amine acid
d) Reducing disaccharide

48. Components of nucleotide

a) Protein
b) Amine acid rest
c) OH
d) Thymine

49. Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between
atoms

a) C5 and N1
b) C1 and N9
c) C3 and N9
d) C1 and N1

50. Functional Group of Aldehyde:

C – CO - C

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
C – CH = O

C–X

O = C – OH

Nucleic acid structure

1. What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—NH2?

a) Aldehyde
b) Amide
c) Amine
d) Carboxylic acid

2. What class of compound is butanone?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

3. What class of compound is methanol?

a) Ketone
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Alcohol

4. What class of compound is dopamine?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Amine

5. What class of compound is ethanamide?

a) Aldehyde

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
b) Ketone
c) Amide
d) Ester

6. What class of compound is butanal?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

7. What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—O—R’?

a) Aldehyde
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Ketone

8. Number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

9. Which of the following is the general formula for a phenol (alcohol on a benzene ring)?

a) Ar—OH
b) R—NH2
c) R—OH
d) R—O—R’

10. Which of the following is the general formula for an alcohol?

a) Ar—OH
b) R—NH2
c) R—OH
d) R—O—R’

11. What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–OH?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

12. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Organic halide
b) Alcohol
c) Phenol
d) Ether

13. What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–NH2?

a) Amide
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

14. What class of compound is methyl propanoate?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

15. Which of the following is a general formula for an amine?

a) Ar—OH
b) R—NH2
c) R—OH
d) R—O—R’

16. What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—OH?

a) Aldehyde
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Ketone

17. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–OH?

a) Organic halide
b) Alcohol
c) Phenol
d) Ether

18. What class of compound is the following: C6H5–OH?

a) Organic halide
b) Alcohol
c) Phenol
d) Ether

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
19. How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are there in the allene molecule, H2CCCH2?

a) Six σ bonds and two π bonds


b) Two σ bonds and six π bonds
c) Four σ bonds and four π bonds
d) Eight σ bonds and no π bonds

20. Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

21. What class of compound has the following general formula: Ar—C(=O)—H?

a) Aldehyde
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Ketone

22. Which of the following is a general formula for ether?

a) Ar—OH
b) R—NH2
c) R—OH
d) R—O—R’

23. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–H?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

24. Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?

a) Does not have a double stranded structure


b) Thymine is present
c) Does not obey Chargaff’s rule
d) The sugar contained in RNA is a ribose

25. What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—R’?

a) Aldehyde
b) Alkene
c) Carboxylic acid

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Ketone

26. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–NH2?

a) Organic halide
b) Amine
c) Phenol
d) Ether

27. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–CH2–CH3?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

Nucleic acids
1. Nucleoside is a pyrimidine or purine base

a) Covalently bonded to a sugar


b) Ionically bonded to a sugar
c) Hydrogen bonded to a sugar
d) None of the above

2. Which of the following are not the components of RNA?

a) Thymine
b) Adenine
c) Guanine
d) Cytosine

3. A nucleotide is composed of

a) An acid, a base, and a sugar


b) A base, a sugar, and a phosphate
c) A base, and sugar
d) An acid, a sugar, and a phosphate

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
4. Building blocks of nucleic acids are

a) Nucleotides
b) Nucleosides
c) Amino acids
d) Histones

5. Oligonucleotides are formed from 2 to 10

a) Strands
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Nucleosides
d) Nucleotides

6. In gel electrophoresis,what fragments will move most quickly through a gel?

a) Large fragments
b) Small fragments
c) Large genome
d) Noneofthese

7. What term is used to describe the process by which proteins are synthesised from a
genetic code?

a) Reproduction
b) Replication
c) Translation
d) Transcription

8. Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following

a) Cytosine
b) Thymine
c) Uracil
d) Adenine

9. What is the composition of nucleoside?

a) A sugar + a phosphate
b) A base + a sugar
c) A base + a phosphate
d) A base + a sugar + phosphate

10. Which pair is a complementary base pair?

a) C-G
b) A-G

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
c) A-C
d) G-G

11. Phosphoric acid can be joined with OH group of a pentose sugar with help of

a) Phosphodiesterbond
b) Ionicbond
c) Covalentbond
d) Esterlinkage

12. Gene expression is activation of a gene to produce a specific __________ .

a) Protein
b) TRNA
c) Amino acid
d) DNA

13. To which of the following does guanine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

a) Adenine
b) Thymine
c) Cytosine
d) Guanine

14. The variable portion of DNA is the sequence of _

a) Phosphoric acids
b) Sugars
c) Bases
d) Phosphates

15. The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA

a) Connect the sugar to the base


b) Can be hydrolyzed by OH- ion
c) Stabilize Watson-Crick H-bonds
d) Are free to rotate over about 180°

16. Which of the following will not be found in DNA?

a) Thymine
b) Uracil
c) Adenine
d) Guanine

17. Which of the following statements is true?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Sugar component of a nucleotide is ribose
b) Sugar component of a nucleotide is deoxyribose
c) The bases in nucleotides are attached to a pentose sugar moiety by a glycosidic
linkage
d) The sugar molecule of the nucleotide is in L-configuration

18. The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is

a) Pentose
b) Hexose
c) Tetrose
d) Triose

19. To which of the following does thymine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

a) Adenine
b) Thymine
c) Cytosine
d) Guanine

20. According to Erwin Chargoff analysis, ratio of adenine and thiamine is

a) Equal
b) Unequal
c) Less
d) More

21. What term is used to describe the process by which DNA is copied to produce two
daughter DNA molecules?

a) Reproduction
b) Replication
c) Translation
d) Transcription

22. NAD is an abbreviation for

a) NicotineAbusiveDepartment
b) NicotineAvoidDirections
c) Nicotinamideadeninedinucleotide
d) Nicotinamidedinucleotide

23. A purine with an amine (NH2) group on the 6th carbon is

a) Adenine
b) Cytosine
c) Thymine

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Guanine

24. What term is used to describe the process by which a segment of DNA is copied to
produce a molecule of messenger RNA?

a) Reproduction
b) Replication
c) Translation
d) Transcription

25. Which pyrimidine base contains an amino group at carbon 4?

a) Cytosine
b) Thymine
c) Uracil
d) Adenine

26. RNA is synthesized from DNA by process of

a) Translation
b) Transcription
c) Transgenic
d) Duplication

27. Nucleic acids

a) Are also called nucleotides


b) Do not contain purine
c) Are polymers
d) Do not contain uracil

28. What is the composition of nucleotide?

a) A sugar + a phosphate
b) A base + a sugar
c) A base + a phosphate
d) A base + a sugar + phosphate

29. Which of the following is a purine?

a) Cytosine
b) Adenine
c) Thymine
d) Uracil

30. The sugar in RNA is __________ , the sugar in DNA is __________

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Deoxyribose, ribose
b) Ribose, deoxyribose
c) Ribose, phosphate
d) Ribose, uracil

31. Scientist who first isolated nuclei of pus cells was

a) F.Sanger
b) M.steward
c) F.Miescher
d) A.Einstein

32. Nucleic acids can be analyzed experimentally by their

a) Molecular weight
b) Absorption of visible light
c) Absorption of uv light
d) None of these

33. Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by

a) Phosphodiester bond
b) Peptide bond
c) Ionic bond
d) Covalent bond

34. Which of the following is found on RNA but not DNA?

a) Uracil
b) Deoxyribose
c) Phosphate
d) Adenine

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
Organic compounds
1. For complex molecules, a chemist usually represents a molecule by

a) Molecular formula
b) Skeletal formula
c) Structural formula
d) B and c

2. Almost 95% of compounds are of carbon because it can form

a) Single bonds
b) Double bonds
c) Triple bonds
d) Multiple bonds

3. All proteins are made up of a side chain and

a) Alpha-amino acid.
b) Amine.
c) A nitrogen atom.
d) Peptide.

4. The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of octane is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

5. Assuming straight-chain compounds, which of the following will have the highest boiling
point?

a) C3H8
b) C7H16
c) C11H24
d) They all have the same boiling point

6. Which of the following is a polymer?

a) Cellulose
b) Polyethylene
c) Wool

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) All are polymers

7. In naming alkane stem tells about the

a) Number of hydrogen atoms


b) Number of oxygen atoms
c) Number of carbon atoms
d) Number of bonds

8. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Hexane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Octane

9. A hydrocarbon is an organic compound consisting of

a) Water and carbon.


b) Any number of elements as long as they include carbon and hydrogen.
c) Carbon and hydrogen.
d) Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

10. Organic chemistry is the study of

a) Any compound from any living thing.


b) Carbon-containing compounds that were formed by living things.
c) Any compound with carbon as the principal element.
d) Noneoftheabove.

11. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Hexane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Octane

12. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Butane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Decane

13. Supporting the idea that the origin of life was the result of natural processes is the fact
that

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Amino acids and other complex organic molecules have been found in meteorites and
comets.
b) In the laboratory amino acids, fatty acids, nitrogen bases, and other compounds can be
formed under simulated early Earth conditions.
c) The early Earth had oceans full of chemicals that may have been interacting to form
organic compounds.
d) All of the above are true.

14. Name the following compounds:

a) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
b) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylpenthane
c) 2-chloro-3-methylhexane
d) 2,3-dimethylbutane

15. A gasoline mixture of hydrocarbons that burns very rapidly has

a) A low octane number.


b) A high octane number.
c) Many branched chains.
d) Smaller hydrocarbon molecules.

16. Which of the following underlined atoms is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond
acceptor?

a) Amide nitrogen (RNHCOR')


b) Aniline nitrogen (ArNH2)
c) Amine nitrogen (RNH2)
d) Carboxylate oxygen (RCO 2-)

17. Which of the following functional groups is most likely to participate in a dipole-dipole
interaction?

a) Aromatic ring
b) Ketone
c) Alcohol
d) Alkene

18. Which of the following underlined protons is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond
donor?

a) Alcohol (ROH)
b) Amine (RNH2)
c) Phenol (ArOH)
d) Ammonium ion (RNH3+)

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
19. When wine "goes bad," the ethanol is converted into

a) CH3COOH.
b) CH3 OCH3.
c) CH3CH2OH.
d) CH3OH.

20. Name the following compounds:

a) 2,3-dimethylbutane
b) 1-bromo-3-methylpentane
c) 3-methylpentane
d) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

21. Name the following compounds:

a) 2,3-dimethylbutane
b) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
c) 3-methylpentane
d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

22. Name the following compounds:

a) 1-bromo-3-methylpentane
b) 3-methylpentane
c) 2-chloro-3-methylhexane
d) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

23. A hydrocarbon with two double covalent bonds between carbon atoms is a (an)

a) Alkane.
b) Alkene.
c) Alkyne.
d) Aromatic hydrocarbon.

24. Self-linking ability of carbon is called

a) Catenation
b) Sublimation
c) Hydrogenation
d) Carbonation

25. Fractional distillation

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Is a basic process used in petroleum refining.
b) Involves heating crude oil and condensing the vapors at different temperatures.
c) When applied to crude oil can produce such products as gasoline, kerosene, and
lubricating oil stock.
d) All of the above are true.

26. Name the following compounds:

a) Cis-1-butene
b) 2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
c) Trans- ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
d) 3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

27. Organic compounds called isomers have

a) The same molecular formulas but different physical structures.


b) Different molecular formulas with the same physical structures.
c) Different molecular formulas with the same chemical properties.
d) Noneoftheabove.

28. As compared to its parent alkane, an alkyl radical contains

a) One less carbon


b) One less hydrogen
c) One more carbon
d) One more hydrogen

29. Only one benzene ring is present in compounds of

a) Aryl
b) Acryl
c) Carboxylic
d) Ketone

30. Two optical isomers are formed from carbon atoms to create bond

a) 4 atoms
b) 2 atoms
c) 1 atom
d) 3 atoms

31. An organic molecule with a general formula of ROH is a (an)

a) Ether.
b) Alcohol.
c) Organic acid.

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Ester.

32. Organic compounds called aromatic hydrocarbons are compounds that

a) Have a wonderful odor.


b) Are based on the benzene rings structure.
c) Occur in nature with all carbons bonds saturated
d) Occur in nature with all carbon bonds unsaturated.

33. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Octane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Hexane

34. An organic molecule with a general formula of RCOOH is a (an)

a) Ester.
b) Organic acid.
c) Ketone.
d) Aldehyde.

35. Name the following compounds:

a) 2,3-dimethilhexane
b) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
c) 3-methylpentane
d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

36. Which of the following molecules has the highest carbon to hydrogen ratio?

a) Ethane
b) Ethane
c) Methane
d) Acetylene

37. The human body breaks down starches to

a) Monosaccharides.
b) Simple sugars.
c) Glucose.
d) Any of the above.

38. An alkane with 3 carbon atoms would have how many hydrogen atoms in the molecule?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10

39. The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for

a) A reactive atom.
b) A separate functional group.
c) Any hydrocarbon group.
d) The right side of the molecule.

40. Element that is backbone of organic molecules is

a) Carbon
b) Hydrogen
c) Oxygen
d) All of them

41. Which of the following compounds cannot exist?

a) C2H3
b) C2H4
c) C3H8
d) C4H10

42. Rate of reaction of organic compounds is slow due to

a) Ionic bonding in them


b) Amphoteric nature
c) Covalent bonding
d) Coordinate covalent bonding

43. The direct reserve source of energy in the muscles of a human is

a) Glycol.
b) Glycerol.
c) Glycogen.
d) Dextrose.

44. Carbon can form many different compounds because it can

a) Make a molecule in the shape of a cube, tetrahedron, or cylinder.


b) Combine with other carbon atoms in addition to other elements
c) Combine with more metals than other elements.
d) Combine with more nonmetals than other elements.

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
45. The characteristic odor and taste of fruit such as bananas, oranges, and pineapples
comes from certain

a) Ketones.
b) Ethers.
c) Aldehydes.
d) Esters.

46. Name the following compounds:

a) 1-bromo-3-methylpentane
b) 2,3-dimethylbutane
c) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

47. Substances which are basis of human life on earth are

a) Atom
b) Molecules
c) Matter
d) Organic compounds

48. Fats and oils are esters formed from three fatty acids and glycerol into a (an)

a) Alpha-amino acid.
b) Polysaccharide.
c) Triglyceride.
d) Disaccharide.

49. Which of the following is not true about benzene?

a) It is a dark brown liquid in its natural state.


b) It does not mix with water.
c) It has a strong odor.
d) It can be used as a solvent.

50. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Hexane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Octane

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Group#18
Soloutions
1. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to molality if the
solution is

a) Concentrated
b) Dilute
c) Saturated solution
d) All of the above

2. The determination of correct molecular weight from Raoults law is applicable to

a) A volatile solute in dilute solution


b) A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solution
c) A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solute
d) Non volatile solute in a dilute solution

3. Water of crystallization can be removed by

a) Drying
b) Heating
c) Evaporation
d) All of the above

4. The molar concentration is called?

a) The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution


b) The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution
c) The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution
d) The mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

5. Which one of the following salt does not hydrolyzed

a) Na2SO4
b) AlCl3
c) CuSO4
d) NH4Cl

6. Concentration of solute molecule when they are in equilibrium with solid substance at
particular temperature is called

a) Saturated solution
b) Solubility

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Group#18
c) Unsaturated solution
d) Super saturated solution

7. Which of the following solutions of H2SO4 is more concentrated?

a) 1 Molar solution
b) 1 molal solution
c) 1 normal solution
d) All have same concentration

8. 58.5g of ofNaCl per 1 dm3 of solution of NaCl in water the concentration of solution will
be

0.1 M

1m

1M

0.1 N

9. Which has the minimum freezing point?

a) One MolalNaCI
b) One molal KCI solution
c) One molal CaCI2
d) One molal urea solution

10. The molal boiling point constant is the ration of the elevation of boiling point to

a) Molarity
b) Molality
c) More fraction of solvent
d) Mole fraction of solute

11. If the volume of solution is equal to sum of volumes of its all components then the
solution

a) Will be an ideal solution


b) Will be non-ideal solution
c) Will show deviations from Raoults law
d) Both b & c

12. Which of the following is an example of liquid in gas solution.

a) Opals
b) Dust particles in smoke

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Group#18
c) Paints
d) Fog

13. The compounds in which water molecules are added are called

a) Hydrated ions
b) Double salts
c) Hydrates
d) Complexes

14. Which of the following is not a colligative property?

a) Lowering of vapour pressure


b) Freezing point
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Elevation of polling point

15. The component of solution which is in smaller amount is called

a) Solvent
b) Solute
c) Phase
d) Ion

16. Solution of Na2SO4 will be

a) Basic
b) Acidic
c) Neutral
d) Cannot be predicted without data

17. Which of the following unit of concertration is independent of temperature?

a) Molarity
b) Molality
c) Mole fraction
d) All

18. Solution with maximum concentration of solute at given temperature is called

a) Super saturated solution


b) Unsaturated solution
c) Saturated solution
d) Dilute solution

19. Number of moles in 1 kg of solvent is called

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Group#18
a) Normality
b) Molarity
c) Molality
d) Mole fraction

20. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is

a) Equal to the mole fraction of solvent


b) Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
c) Directly proportional to the mole fraction of solute
d) Both b & c

21. When common salt is dissolved in water?

a) Boiling point of water decrease


b) Boiling point of water increase
c) Boiling point of water remains same
d) None of the above

22. Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two compounds is called

a) Solution
b) Compound
c) Radical
d) Ion

23. Hydration is a process in which

a) Molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules


b) Ions are surrounded by solvent molecules
c) Both ions and molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
d) Both ions and molecules are surrounded by water molecules

24. 1 molar solution of glucose in water contains weight of glucose

a) 180g/dm3
b) 170g/dm3
c) 190g/dm3
d) 195g/dm3

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Group#18
Thermodynamics
1. The unit of energy in S.I. units is

a) Watt
b) Joule
c) Joule/s
d) Joule/m

2. In which ionic compound does the cation have the same number of electrons as the
anion?

a) LiF
b) NaCl
c) CaO
d) MgF2

3. At critical point the enthalpy of vaporisation is

a) Only dependent on temperature


b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Minimum

4. To which process does the term sublimation refer?

a) Solid to liquid
b) Liquid to solid
c) Solid to gas
d) Gas to solid

5. If the ∆H° for the reaction, 2 Mg (s) + 2 Cl2 (g) → 2 MgCl2 (s), is -1283.6 kJ, what is the
standard enthalpy of formation of magnesium chloride?

a) 0 kJ/mol
b) -320.9 kJ/mol
c) -641.8 kJ/mol
d) 1283.6 kJ/mol

6. Which of the following bonds is most polar?

a) B−O
b) B-F

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Group#18
c) C-O
d) C=O

7. A reaction has values of ∆H and ∆S which are both positive. The reaction

a) Is spontaneous
b) Spontaneity is temperature dependent
c) Has an increasing free energy
d) Is non-spontaneous

8. How are the boiling and freezing points of water affected by the addition of a soluble
salt?

a) The freezing and boiling points are both lowered.


b) The freezing and boiling points are both raised.
c) The freezing is lowered and the boiling point is raised.
d) The freezing is raised and the boiling point is lowered.

9. For a given substance, which of the following phase transitions is the most exothermic?

a) Solid → liquid
b) Gas → solid
c) Liquid → gas
d) Solid → gas

10. Of the following compounds, which one contains nitrogen in an oxidation state of +5?

a) NO2F
b) N2O3
c) NH4Cl
d) Mg3N2

11. An open system

a) Is a specified region where transfers of energy and/or mass take place


b) Cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings
c) Is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries
d) Has a mass transfer across its boundaries, and the mass within the system is not
necessarily

12. The following reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel at 200o C. CO(g)
+ 3 H2(g) → CH4(g) + H2O(g), ΔHo = −206 kJ Which of the following actions causes the
reaction to proceed from left to right in order to restore equilibri

a) Increasing the volume of the container, holding temperature constant


b) Adding some CH4 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
c) Adding some H2 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant

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Group#18
d) Increasing the temperature, holding the pressure constant

13. Natural oils, such as vegetable oil, are converted into solid, edible fats by a process
called

a) Fusion
b) Hydrogenation
c) Crystallization
d) Saponification

14. When temperature is increased, the rate of a reaction also increases. This observation
is best explained by

a) An increase in the frequency of molecular collisions


b) A decrease in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
c) An increase in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
d) An increase in the fraction of molecules that have enough energy to react

15. For a reversible adiabatic process the change in entropy is

a) Zero
b) Minimum
c) Maximum
d) Infinite

16. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system

a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Specific volume
d) Heat

17. What is the formula of magnesium sulfate?

a) MgS
b) MgS2
c) Mg3S2
d) MgSO4

18. The internal energy of a substance depends on

a) Temperature
b) Volume
c) Pressure
d) Entropy

19. If ∆H value is less than zero than reaction will be

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Group#18
a) Exothermic
b) Endothermic
c) May or may not be Exothormic or Endothermic
d) None of these

20. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?

a) HF
b) HCl
c) HBr
d) HI

21. What is the formula of the stable compound formed by magnesium and nitrogen?

a) MgN
b) Mg2N
c) Mg3N2
d) Mg2N3

22. A law which is applicable only to ideal vapours and liquids, that equates the equilibrium
partial pressures of a solution component in the coexisting phases, is known as

a) Henry's law
b) Joule's law
c) Fick's law
d) Roult's law

23. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is

a) Centigrade
b) Celsius
c) Farhenheit
d) Kelvin

24. The unit of length in S.I. units is

a) Meter
b) Centimeter
c) Kilometer
d) Millimeter

25. Which of the following is the strongest acid in water?

a) HBr
b) HOBrO2
c) HF
d) HI

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
26. In which of the following compounds does oxygen have the highest oxidation state?

a) CsO2
b) H2O
c) O2
d) OF2

27. What is the coefficient of O2 when the following equation is balanced? C10H8(s) + x
O2(g) → y CO2(g) + z H2O(l)

a) 1
b) 6
c) 7
d) 12

28. Whenever a system undergoes either a change in state or an energy or mass transfer at
a steady state, it is said to undergo

a) A change of state
b) A steady state transfer
c) A process
d) A thermodynamic change

29. Which of the following compounds will not undergo an acid-base (neutralization)
reaction with HClO4?

a) NaOH
b) Sr(OH)2
c) NH3
d) H2SO4

30. For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Infinite
d) Zero

31. For any reversible process, the change in entropy of the system and surroundings is

a) Zero
b) Minimum
c) Maximum
d) Infinite

32. A system consisting of more than one phase is known as

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Open system
b) Isolated system
c) Closed system
d) Heterogeneous system

33. The unit of mass in S.I. units is

a) Kilogram
b) Gram
c) Tonne
d) Quintal

34. Which of the following has the same number of electrons as a water molecule?

a) H2S
b) BH3
c) OH−
d) BeH2

35. The reaction below reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel. C6H12O6(s) = 2
C2H5OH(l) + 2 CO2(g), ∆Ho = −72 kJ Which of the following actions causes an increase in
the value of Kc? (i) adding some CO2(g) (ii) transferring the reactio

(i) only

(ii) only

(iii) only

None of the above

36. An open system is one in which

a) Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
b) Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
c) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
d) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

37. When the following equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients,
what is the coefficient of O2? NH3 + O2 → NO + H2O

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

38. An isolated system is one in which

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Mas does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
b) Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
c) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
d) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

39. Second law of theromodynamics defines

a) Heat
b) Enthalpy
c) Internal energy
d) Entropy

40. Mixture of ice and water from a

a) Closed system
b) Open system
c) Isolated system
d) Heterogeneous system

41. Which of the following compounds displays only covalent bonding?

a) NH4OH
b) Li2O
c) HOCN
d) NaNO3

42. Which is true for a spontaneous endothermic process?

a) ∆H<0
b) ∆G<0
c) ∆S<0
d) ∆G>0

43. Which of the following is a product of the reaction between H2SO4(aq) and NaOH(aq)?

a) H2(g)
b) H+(aq)
c) H2O(l)
d) O2(g)

44. Which of the following is incorrect?

a) The pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressure of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
b) The entropy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the entropies of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture

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Group#18
c) The internal energy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum f the internal energies of the
indicudual components taken each at the temperature and the volume of the mixture
d) None of the above

45. In an isothermal process

a) Temperature increases gradually


b) Volume remains constant
c) Change in internal energy is zero
d) Pressure remains constant

46. The unit of time in S.I. units is

a) Second
b) Minute
c) Hour
d) Day

47. Each of two identical containers holds one mole of CH4gas and one mole SO2 gas, all
at the same temperature. Which of following statements is true?

a) The SO2 gas has a higher pressure.


b) The CH4 gas has a greater density.
c) The SO2 molecules move, on average, faster than the CH4 molecules.
d) Deviations from ideal gas behaviour are smaller for the CH4 gas.

48. The heat of combustion of C(s) is −394 kJ/mol and that of CO(g) is −111 kJ/mol. What is
the enthalpy change for the reaction below? CO(g) → C(s) + ½ O2(g)

a) 505 kJ
b) 283 kJ
c) 111 kJ
d) −283 kJ

49. General gas equation is

a) PV=nRT
b) PV=mRT
c) PV=C
d) PV=KiRT

50. Which of the statements concerning the structure of benzene is false?

a) The double bonds oscillate rapidly back and forth between adjacent pairs of carbon
atoms.
b) The H-C-C angles are 120o
c) The carbon atoms form a flat hexagonal ring.

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Group#18
d) The oxidation state of carbon is −1.

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Group#18
Exam MCQs on chemistry
MODUL I
Composition and structure of atom. Periodic table of elements.
1. Smallest particle of an element which can take part in any chemical change.
a. nucleus
b. atom
c. proton
d. neutron

2. The atoms of same element having similar atomic number but different mass number are
a. isomers
b. isotopes
c. isoelectronics
d. steroisomers

3. Atomic number is number of


a. protons (p+)
b. electrons (e- )
c. neutrons (n0 )
d. nucleons (p+ and n0 )

4. The nucleus is composed of


a. protons and electrons
b. electrons and neutrons
c. protons and neutrons
d. only protons

5. Sum of protons and neutrons in an atom gives


a. nucleon number
b. mass number
c. atomic number
d. both A and B

6. Mass number is equal to the sum of the


a. protons and neutrons
b. electrons and protons
c. neutrons and electrons
d. only electrons

7. Particles which revolve around nucleus are called


a. proton
b. electrons
c. neutron
d. All of Above

8. Pathway of electron is called


a. orbit
b. orbital
c. axis
d. electric path

9. Mass number is designed as


a. Z
b. D
c. A
d. N

10. Principal quantum number (n) describes


a. the distance of electron from the nucleus and its energy
b. the shape of orbital
c. the magnetic properties of an electron and gives orientation of the orbital
d. the spin of an electron in the atom

11. Azimuthal quantum number (l) describes


a. the distance of electron from the nucleus and its energy
b. the shape of orbital
c. the magnetic properties of an electron and gives orientation of the orbital
d. the spin of an electron in the atom

12. The magnetic quantum number (m) describes


a. the distance of electron from the nucleus and its energy
b. the shape of orbital
c. the magnetic properties of an electron and gives orientation of the orbital
d. the spin of an electron in the atom

13. The spin quantum number describes


a. the distance of electron from the nucleus and its energy
b. the shape of orbital
c. the magnetic properties of an electron and gives orientation of the orbital
d. the spin of an electron in the atom

14. Number of protons and number of electrons are always equal in


a. neutral atom
b. molecules
c. ions
d. compounds

15. The total electron capacity of a principal level is calculated by


a. 2(n)
b. 2(n)2
c. 2(n)0
d. 2(n)10

16. The arrangement of electrons in atomic orbital is referred to as the atom’s


a. proton configuration
b. neutron configuration
c. electron configuration
d. element configuration

17. Metals tend to give electrons forming positive ions called


a. anions
b. cations
c. positrons
d. isotopes

18. Nonmetals tend to gain electrons forming negative ions called


a. anions
b. cations
c. positrons
d. isotopes

19. Neutrons (no) are neutral and carry


a. positive charge
b. negative charge
c. no charge
d. all

20. Protons (p+) and neutrons (no) are constitute the


a. nucleus
b. nucleon
c. orbital
d. diameter

21. Tiny area in centre of atom is concentrated with mass and is known as
a. proton
b. neutron
c. electron
d. nucleus

22. Chemical element contains only


a. one type of atom
b. two type of atom
c. atom and molecules
d. All of Above

23. Electronic configuration 1s22s22p2 corresponds to the particle


a. О2-
b. О2+
c. С2+
d. C2-

2s and 3s
Above given a pair of atomic orbital.
24. What do they have in common?
a. Size
b. Volume
c. Shape
d. Energy

25. Electronic configuration 1s22s2 corresponds to the particle


a. С-4
b. С+4
c. С+2
d. C2-

26. Electronic configuration 1s2corresponds to the particle


a. Н
b. Н+
c. Н-
d. He2+

27. Particles with the same electronic configuration


a. СI and Ar
b. CI- and Ar
c. CI- and F-
d. Na+ and Ar

28. Electronic configuration 1s22s22p63s23p6 corresponds to particles


a. argon atom and chlorine atom
b. аrgon atom and potassium atom
c. sulfide – ion (S-2) and lithium cation (Li+)
d. arhon atom and chlorine - ion
29. Electronic configuration 1s22s22p6 corresponds to
a. fluorine - ion
b. sodium atom
c. оxide –ion (O2-)
d. sulfide-ion (S2-)

30. Electrons number in the Са2+ ion is equal to


a. 18
b. 20
c. 22
d. 40

31. Electronic configuration 1s22s22p4 corresponds to the particle


a. N-
b. O2-
c. C2+
d. C4-

32. Find the particles with the same number of electrons?


a. helium atom Не and hydrogen – ion Н+
b. lithium - ion Li+ and lithium atom Li
c. nitrogen - ion N3+ and beryllium atom Ве
d. carbon С2+ and oxygen – ion О2-

33. Element is located in the representative (A group)) group 6 of the periodic table. Which
of the following ions are formed by this element?
a. Х-
b. Х2-
c. Х2+
d. X+

34. If atom at the beginning of the reaction gain three electrons and then gives out one
electron; which one of the following ions will be formed?
a. -3
b. -2
c. +2
d. +3

35. If atom at the beginning of the reaction loses three electrons and then gains one
electron; which one of the following ions will be formed?
a. +1
b. +2
c. +3
d. +4

36. Find the atom with a complete outer shell:


a. Сu2+
b. Мg 0
c. CI0
d. S2-

37. Find the atom with a complete outer shell


a. Са2+
b. Мg 2+
c. CI0
d. N3-

38. Which atoms have equal number of paired and unpaired electrons at normal state?
a. С
b. N
c. Na
d. S

39.Which of the following particles cannot give electrons?


a. С0
b. Al0
c. Al3+
d. N2+

40.Which of the following elements has valency in its compounds that corresponds to group
number on periodic table where it is located?
a. Fluorine (F)
b. Nitrogen (N)
c. Oxygen (O)
d. Sulfur (S)

41. How many protons (p) and electrons (e) does Si +4 ion consist?
a. 18р, 14е
b. 14р, 10е
c. 14р, 14е
d. 14p, 18e

42. Which of below given elements cannot show maximum valency correspond to the
number of group?
a. carbon
b. chlorine
c. phosphorus
d. fluorine
43. Below given model of ion?

What ion is it?


a. С0
b. С+2
c. С-2
d. C+4

44. Below fiven model of ion.

Which ion is it?


a. С+4
b. С-4
c. С+2
d. С-2

45. In outer shells of atom electronic formula consists of eight electrons, which elements is
it?
a. …..4р6
b. ......5d1
c. …..3р3
d. …..4f7

46. Which of following elements can form oxides corresponding to formulas XO2 and XO3
a. sulfur
b. nitrogen
c. carbon
d. phosphorus
47. As a result of gaining two electrons sulfur atom form an ion:
a. S2-
b. S6+
c. S4+
d. S0

48. As a result of losing six electrons sulfur atom forms an ion:


a. S2-
b. S6+
c. S4+
d. S0

49.Using below given electronic configuration of the atom determine the element:
3s23p3
a. Р
b. N
c. S
d. B

50. Using below given electronic configuration of the atom determine the element:
4s2
a. Be
b. Ca
c. Mn
d. K

Thermodynamics
51. Potential energy is
a. the energy an object has because of its relative position
b. energy that an object possesses because of its motion
c. the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules
d. is the energy that stored within the structural units of chemical substances

52. Kinetic energy is


a. the energy an object has because of its relative position
b. energy that an object possesses because of its motion
c. the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules
d. is the energy that stored within the structural units of chemical substances

53. Thermal energy is


a. the energy an object has because of its relative position
b. energy that an object possesses because of its motion
c. the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules
d. is the energy that stored within the structural units of chemical substances
54. Chemical energy
a. the energy an object has because of its relative position
b. energy that an object possesses because of its motion
c. the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules
d. is the energy that stored within the structural units of chemical substances

55. An exothermic reaction


a. release energy to surroundings
b. absorbed energy from the surroundings
c. release oxygen to surroundings
d. absorbed oxygen from the surroundings

56. An endothermic reaction


a. release energy to surroundings
b. absorbed energy from the surroundings
c. release oxygen to surroundings
d. absorbed oxygen from the surroundings

57. Enthalpy is a term that represents


a. heat energy
b. a level of randomness or disorder
c. a level of organization
d. a loss of electrons

58. Entropy is a term that represents


a. heat energy
b. a level of randomness or disorder
c. a level of organization
d. a loss of electrons

59. During any irreversible process, there is


a. Increase of entropy
b. Decrease of entropy
c. No change in entropy
d. None

60. Entropy increases with the


a. Addition of heat
b. Removal of heat
c. At constant heat
d. None
61. Which of the following processes should have ΔS < 0 ?
a. CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
b. H2O(s) →H2O(g)
c. 2 NO2(g) →N2O4(g)
d. NaCl(s) + H2O(l) → NaCl(aq)

62. Which one of the following process has ΔS > 0?


a. 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
b. 2NO2(g) → N2O4(g)
c. BaF2(s) → Ba2+(aq) + 2F–(aq)
d. CO2(g) → CO2(s)

63. Sodium reacts violently with water according to the equation below.
2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
The resulting solution has a higher temperature than the water prior to the addition of
sodium. What are the signs of ∆H° and ∆S° for this reaction?
a. ∆H° is negative and ∆S° is negative
b. ∆H° is positive and ∆S° is negative
c. ∆H° is negative and ∆S° is positive
d. ∆H° is positive and ∆S° is positive

64. With the rise of temperature in a system, sum of entropies of a system and its
surroundings
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. None

65. With the rise of pressure in a system, sum of entropies of a system and its
surroundings
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. None

66. The Third Law of Thermodynamics states:


a. If object A is in thermal equilibrium with object B, and object B is in thermal
equilibrium with object C.
b. The entropy of the universe increases for reversible processes.
c. ΔS = 0 for a pure element in its most stable state at standard conditions.
d. S = 0 for a perfect crystal of a pure substance at 0 K.

67. Which one of the following has the greatest entropy?


a. 1 mol N2(g) at 1 atm and at 400oC.
b. 1 mol N2(g) at 0.5 atm and at 400oC.
c. 1 mol N2(g) at 0.5 atm and at 700oC.
d. 2 mol N2(g) at 0.5 atm and at 700oC.

68. Which one of the following reactions is spontaneous at all temperatures?


a. CO2(s) →CO2(g) ΔH = +25.1 kJ
b. 2 NCl3(g) →3Cl2(g) + N2(g) ΔH = –460 kJ
c. 2 NF2(g) →N2F4(g) ΔH = –85 kJ
d. all of the above are spontaneous at all temperatures
e. none of the above

69. Thermodynamic quantity that expresses the degree of disorder in a system is


__________.
a. entropy
b. internal energy
c. heat flow
d. enthalpy
e. bond energy

70. Which one of the following is always positive when a spontaneous process occurs?
a. ∆Huniv
b. ∆Hsurr
c. ∆Ssurr
d. ∆Suniv
e. ∆Ssys

71. ∆S will be positive for the reaction __________.


a. 2H2(g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O(g)
b. 2NO2(g) → N2O4 (g)
c. BaF2(s) → Ba2+(aq) + 2F-(aq)
d. 2Hg(l) + O2(g) →2HgO(s)
e. CO2(g) → CO2(l)

72. Which one of the following processes produces a decrease in the entropy of the system?
a. dissolution of solid KCl in water
b. mixing of two gases into one container
c. freezing water to form ice
d. melting ice to form water
e. boiling water to form steam

73. Two gases are mixed. After mixing them, does the entropy of the system:
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stay the same
d. None of above: it depends on the individual situation

74. What is the factor that is responsible for salts like NaCl to dissolve in water easily?
a. Decrease in entropy
b. Increase in entropy
c. Increase in enthalpy
d. Decrease in enthalpy

75. The entropy will usually increase when


I. a molecule is broken into two or more smaller molecules.
II. a reaction occurs that results in an increase in the number of moles of gas.
III. a solid changes to a liquid.
IV. a liquid changes to a gas.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. IV only
e. I, II, III, and IV

Chemical kinetics and equilibrium


76. A first order reaction
a. a reaction whose rate depends on the reactant concentration raised to the first power.
b. a reaction whose rate depends on the concentration of one reactant raised to the
second power
c. a reaction whose rate is a constant, independent of reactant concentration.
d. a reaction whose rate depends on the concentration of reactant raised to the third
power

77. A second order reaction


a. a reaction whose rate depends on the reactant concentration raised to the first power.
b. a reaction whose rate depends on the concentration of one reactant raised to the
second power
c. a reaction whose rate is a constant, independent of reactant concentration.
d. a reaction whose rate depends on the concentration of reactant raised to the third
power

78. Unimolecular reaction is


a. a reaction that involves the only one molecule in one elementary step
b. a reaction that involves the participant of two molecules in one elementary step
c. a reaction that involves the participant of three molecules in one elementary step
d. a reaction that involves the participant of fort molecules in one elementary step
79. Bimolecular reaction is
a. a reaction that involves the only one molecule in one elementary step
b. a reaction that involves the participant of two molecules in one elementary step
c. a reaction that involves the participant of three molecules in one elementary step
d. a reaction that involves the participant of fort molecules in one elementary step

80. Termolecular reaction is


a. a reaction that involves the only one molecule in one elementary step
b. a reaction that involves the participant of two molecules in one elementary step
c. a reaction that involves the participant of three molecules in one elementary step
d. a reaction that involves the participant of fort molecules in one elementary step

81. Catalysis is
a. a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without itself being
consumed
b. a substance that decreases the rate of a chemical reaction without itself being
consumed
c. a substance that does not influence the rate of a chemical reaction
d. a substance that increases the energy of reaction

82. Heterogeneous catalysis


a. the reactants and the catalyst are in deferent phases
b. the reactants and catalyst are dispersed in a single phase
c. the reactants and catalyst are in liquid phase
d. the reactants and catalyst are in gaseous phase

83. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a. Temperature
b. Initial concentration of the reactants
c. Time of reaction
d. Extent of reaction

84. Which of following reactions is classified as a unimolecular?


a. 2NO + Br2 →2NOBr
b. CH3NC → CH3CN
c. CaO + CO2 → CaCO3
d. All of above

85. Which of following reactions is classified as a bimolecular?


a. 2NO + Br2 →2NOBr
b. CH3NC → CH3CN
c. CaO + CO2 → CaCO3
d. All of above

86. Which of following reactions is classified as a termolecular?


a. 2NO + Br2 →2NOBr
b. CH3NC → CH3CN
c. CaO + CO2 → CaCO3
d. All of above

87. Suppose the reaction: A + 2B → AB2 occurs by the following mechanism:

Step 1 A+ B → AB slow
Step 2 AB + B → AB2 fast
Overall A + 2B

88. The rate law expression must be Rate = _________.


a. k[A]
b. k[B]
c. k[A][B]
d. k[B]2
e. k[A][B]2

89. A possible mechanism for the reaction, 2A + B → C + D, is:

Step 1 A+ A ↔ A2 fast, equilibrium


Step 2 A2 + A → A3 slow
Step 3 A3 + B → A + C + D fast

According to the mechanism, the rate law will be:


a. Rate = k[A]2
b. Rate = k[A][B]
c. Rate = k[A]2[B]
d. Rate = k[A]
e. Rate = k[A]3

90. The slowest of the following reactions is:


a. a) Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → AgCl(s)
b. H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → 2H2O(l)
c. 3Ba2+(aq) + 2PO43-(aq) → Ba3(PO4)2(aq)
d. Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)

91. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide in the presence of iodide ion is believed to
occur via the mechanism
H2O2(aq) + I–(aq)→H2O(l) + IO–(aq)
H2O2(aq) + IO–(aq)→H2O(l) + O2(g) + I–(aq)
In this mechanism, I–(aq) is
a. a catalyst
b. a reactant in the overall reaction
c. a product of the overall reaction
d. an intermediate

92. If the rate law for a reaction is rate = k [A][B]2. Which one of the following statements
is NOT correct?
a. The reaction is first order in A.
b. The reaction is second order in B.
c. The reaction is second order overall.
d. The reaction is first order in A and second order in B, it has overall reaction order
3.

93. The rate law of the following overall reaction A + B →C is measured to be rate = k[A]2.
Which one of the following will NOT increase the rate of the reaction?
a. increasing the concentration of reactant A
b. increasing the concentration of reactant B
c. increasing the temperature of the reaction
d. adding a catalyst for the reaction

94. Write the expression for Keq for the reaction of ammonium ion with hydroxide ion
NH4+(aq) + OH-(aq) = NH3(aq) + H2O(l)

95. Consider the following reaction: C(s) + 2H2(g) ⇄ CH4(g) ΔH = -74.8 kJ. Which of
the following will cause an decrease in the value of the Keq?
a. increasing [H2]
b. decreasing the volume
c. finely powdering the C(s)
d. increasing the temperature

96. The enzymatic catalysis is


a. homogeneous
b. heterogenous
c. thermostable

97. Accordingly to the mass action law the reaction rate is directly proportional to:
a. the concentration product of the reactants
b. the ratio of the reactant’s product
c. log of the reactant product
98. Accordingly to van’t Hoff rule the increasing of temperature by 10 ОC leads to the
reaction rate
a. decrease in 3-4 times
b. increase in 3-4 times
c. increase in 2- 4 times
d. decraese in 2-4 times

99. The activation energy is


a. the maximum energy that is necessary to the reaction occurs
b. the minimum energy that is necessary to the reaction occurs
c. the average energy that is necessary to the reaction occurs

100. The function of enzymes is


a. the increase the activation energy;
b. the decrease the activation energy;
c. not affected on the activation energy.

101. The reaction rate of the fist order depends on:


a. the concentration of a single reactant
b. the amount of the reactants
c. the volume of the reactants
d. the concentration of a single product

102. The less it is the activation energy


a. the slower it is the reaction rate
b. the faster it is the reaction rate
c. the later it is the reaction rate

103. The reaction rate of the third order is depended on:


a. the concentration of the third reactants
b. the concentration of all three reactants
c. the concentration of the first reactan

104. Consider the following potential energy diagram for an equilibrium system:

105. When the temperature of the system is increased, the equilibrium shifts to the
________.
a. left and the Keq increases
b. left and the Keq decreases
c. right and the Keq increases
d. right and the Keq decreases

106. Consider the following potential energy diagram for an equilibrium system:

107. When the temperature of the system is increased, the equilibrium shifts to the
a. left and the Keq increases
b. left and the Keq decreases
c. right and the Keq increases
d. right and the Keq decreases

108. Ammonia, NH3, is produced by the following reaction:


N2(g) + 3H2(g) ↔ 2NH3(g) + energy
Which of the following would result in the highest concentration of ammonia at
equilibrium?

a. increasing the temperature and increasing the pressure


b. decreasing the temperature and increasing the pressure
c. increasing the temperature and decreasing the pressure
d. decreasing the temperature and decreasing the pressur

109. Consider the following equilibrium:


4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ↔ 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) + energy
Which of the following will cause the equilibrium to shift to the left?
a. adding H2O(g)
b. removing some NO(g)
c. increasing the volume
d. decreasing the temperature

110. Methanol, CH3OH, can be produced by the following:


CO(g) + 2H2(g) ↔ CH3OH(g) + energy
The conditions necessary to maximize the equilibrium yield of CH3OH are
a. low temperature and low pressure
b. high temperature and low pressure
c. low temperature and high pressure
d. high temperature and high pressure
111. Consider the following equilibrium:
2NO(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2NO2(g) + energy
When the volume of the container is increased, the equilibrium shifts to the
a. left and the Keq decreases
b. right and the Keq increases
c. left and the Keq remains constant
d. right and the Keq remains comstant

112. Consider the gas-phase equilibrium system represented by the equation:


2H2O(g) ↔ 2H2(g) + O2(g)
Given that the forward reaction is endothermic, which of the following changes
will decrease the amount of H2O?
a. adding more oxygen
b. adding a solid phase calalyst
c. decreasing the volume of the container (the total pressure increases)
d. increasing the temperature at constant pressure

113. The conventional equilibrium constant expression (Kc) for the system below is:
2ICl(s) ↔ I2(s) + Cl2(g)
2
a. [I2][Cl2]/[ICl]
b. [I2][Cl2]/2[ICl]
c. [Cl2]
d. ([I2] + [Cl2])/2[ICl]
e. [Cl2]/[ICl]2

114. Consider the equilibrium system:


2ICl(s) ↔ I2(s) + Cl2(g)
Which of the following changes will increase the total amount of of Cl2 that can be
produced?
a. removing some of the I2(s)
b. adding more ICl(s)
c. removing the Cl2 as it is formed
d. decreasing the volume of the container
e. all of the above

SOLUTION

115. Combination reaction is a reaction


a. in which two substances join to form another substance
b. produce two or more products from a single reactant
c. results in the formation of an insoluble product, precipitate.
d. involves the transfer of a hydrogen ion, H+, from one reactant to another.

116. Acid-Base reaction is a reaction


a. in which two substances join to form another substance
b. produces two or more products from a single reactant
c. results in the formation of an insoluble product, precipitate.
d. involve the transfer of a hydrogen ion, H+, from one reactant to another

117. Precipitation reaction is a reaction


a. in which two substances join to form another substance
b. produce two or more products from a single reactant
c. results in the formation of an insoluble product, precipitate.
d. involve the transfer of a hydrogen ion, H+, from one reactant to another

118. Decomposition reactions is a reaction


a. involve the joining of two or more elements or compounds, producing a product of
different composition
b. produces two or more products from a single reactant
c. results in the formation of an insoluble product, precipitate.
d. involve the transfer of a hydrogen ion, H+, from one reactant to another

119. Electrolyte is
a. a substance that dissolve in water to produce solution that conducts an electrical
current
b. a substance that, when dissolve in water, produces a solution that doesn’t conduct an
electricity
c. a substance that dissolve in water to produce oxygen
d. a substance that dissolve in water does not produce oxygen

120. Nonelectrolyte is
a. a substance that dissolve in water to produce solution that conducts an electrical
current
b. a substance that, when dissolve in water, produces a solution that doesn’t conduct an
electricity
c. a substance that dissolve in water to produce oxygen
d. a substance that dissolve in water not produce oxygen

121. A solution is made by dissolving some salt in a beaker of water. The salt is referred
to as the
a. solute
b. filtrate
c. solution
d. solvent

122. When KCl dissolves in water, the following will be produced.


a. K and Cl
b. K+ and Cl-
c. K and Cl2
d. K+ and Cl2

123. Solubility of a gas in liquid increases


a. Increase of pressure and increase of temperature
b. Decrease of pressure and increase of temperature
c. Increase of pressure and decrease of temperature
d. Deccrease of pressure and decrease of temperature

124. Molarity of a solution is expressed as:


a. the number of moles per kilogram of solvent
b. the number of moles per kilogram of solution
c. the number of moles per liter of solvent
d. the number of moles per liter of solution

125. Molality of a solution is expressed as:


a. the number of moles per kilogram of solvent
b. the number of moles per kilogram of solution
c. the number of moles per liter of solvent
d. the number of moles per liter of solution

126. Increasing in temperature of an aqeous solution causes


a. decrease in molality
b. decrease in molarity
c. decrease in mole fraction
d. all of them

127. Which one of the following is not a colligative property?


a. Osmotic pressure
b. Elevation of boiling point
c. Freezing point
d. Depression in freezing point

128. The value of Ebullioscopic constant of boiling point elevation constant depends
on:
a. amount of solute
b. nature of solute
c. amount of solvent
d. nature of solvent

129. Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:


a. an increase in melting point of the liquid
b. a decrease in the boiling point of the liquid
c. a decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid
d. no change in the boiling point of the liquid

130. Haemolysis is the phenomenon on which cells are swelled up and then burst if
placed in a:
a. isotonic solution
b. none of these
c. hypertonic solutions
d. hypotonic solution
131. When a solute is dissolved in water it shows:
a. decrease in freezing point of water
b. decrease in boiling point of water
c. increase in vapour pressure of water
d. all of the above

132. When sugar is added to water, what is the change observed in boiling and freezing
points of water?
a. Both boiling point and freezing point decreases
b. Both boiling point and freezing point increases
c. Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases
d. Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases

133. When blood cell is placed in water containing less than 0.9% salt (mass/volume)
than
a. blood cell collapses
b. blood cell burst
c. blood cell shrinks
d. blood cell remain unaffected

134. The process of cells by which they absorb solvent when placed in hypotonic
solution and get swelled up is called
a. haemolysis
b. plasmolysis
c. exosmosis
d. none of these

135. When red blood cells are placed in 95% NaCl, they shrink. This is called
a. haemolysis
b. plasmolysis
c. endoosmosis
d. none of these

136. Which of the following pairs of solutions are isotonic?


a. 1 M Urea and 1 M KCl
b. 1 M Urea and 0.01 M Glucose
c. 1 M KCl and 1 M BaCl2
d. 1 M urea and 1 M Sucrose

137. Which of the following will have the highest Boiling Point?
a. 1 % Urea in water
b. 1 % Sucrose in water
c. 1 % NaCl in water
d. 1 % glucose in water

138. In medicine we use isotonic NaCl solution with mass fraction there of:
a. 1 %
b. 0,5 %
c. 0,8 %
d. 0,9 %

139. Physiological or isotonic solution is recalled:


a. 0.9 % solution of Na2SO4
b. 0.9 % solution of NaCl
c. 0.9 % solution of NaNO3
d. 0.9 % solution of NaNO2

140. In medicine using hypertonic NaCl solution with mass fraction:


a. 1%
b. 0. 8%
c. 0. 9%
d. 10 %

141. The minimum freezing point is that of


a. 0.01 m NaCl
b. 0.005 m MgI2
c. 0.005 m C2H5OH
d. 0.001 m MgSO4

142. Osmosis is a phenomen in which


a. Solvent molecules move from higher to lower concentration of solution
b. Solvent molecules move from lower to higher concentration of solution
c. Solute molecules move from higher to lower concentration of solution
d. Solute molecules move from lower to higher concentration of solution

143. A 0.1 M glucose solution and 0.1 M urea solution are placed on the two sides of
semi-permeable membrane which is the corect observation?
a. There will be net movement across the membrane
b. Glucose solution will flow into the urea solution
c. Urea solution will flow into glucose solution
d. Water will flow from urea solution into the glucose solution

144. A semi-permeable membrane allows the passage of


a. solute molecules only
b. Solvent molecules only
c. Both solute and solvent molecules
d. None of these

145. Which involve osmosis?


a. Crenation
b. Haemolysis
c. Plasmolysis
d. All of these
146. As a result of osmosis from pure solvent to a solution the volume of the solution
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Neither a nor b
d. Depends on the solution

147. Two solutions are isotonic if


a. they have the same boiling point
b. they have the same freezing point
c. they have the same osmotic pressure
d. All of these

148. Which of the following has minimum freezing point


a. 0.1 M K2Cr2O7
b. 0.1 M NH4Cl
c. 0.1 M BaSO4
d. 0.1 M Al2(SO4)3

149. Which of the following pair of solutions are expected to be isotonic at the same
temperature?
a. 0.2 M Urea and 0.2 M NaCl
b. 0.1 M Urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
c. 0.1 NaCl and 0.1 Na2SO4
d. 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4

150. Which of the following aquest solutions has the highest boiling point
a. 0.1 M KNO3
b. 0.1 M Na3PO4
c. 0.1 M BaCl2
d. 0.1 M K2SO4

151. Сhoose primary location of Na in human body:


a. Intracellular
b. Extracellular
c. both of them

152. Сhoose primary location of K in human body:


a. Intracellular
b. Extracellular
c. both of them

153. The principal cation of extracellular fluid


a. Na
b. K
c. Mg
d. Ca
154. The principal cation of intracellular fluid
a. Na
b. K
c. Mg
d. Ca

155. The normal concentration of sodium in the plasma


a. 135-145 mEq/l
b. 3.5-5.5 mEq/l
c. 2-3 m/dl
d. 9-11 mg/dl

156. The normal concentration of potassium in the plasma


a. 135-145 mEq/l
b. 3.5-5.5 mEq/l
c. 2-3 m/dl
d. 9-11 mg/dl

157. Which of following is a hypotonic solution?


a. 10% dextrose in water
b. 0.45% sodium chloride
c. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
d. Oceans

158. Which of following is an isotonic solution?


a. 0. 9% sodium chloride
b. 0.45% sodium chloride
c. Oceans
d. 10% dextrose in water

Proteolytic theory
159. Arrhenius defined an acid as:
a. a species that can donate a proton.
b. a species that can accept a proton.
c. a source of OH- ions in water.
d. a sourse of H+ ions in water.

160. In the Bronsted-Lowry system, a base is defined as:


a. a proton donor.
b. a hydroxide donor.
c. an electron-pair acceptor.
d. a water-former.
e. a proton acceptor.

161. Which of the following structures represents the conjugate acid of HPO42- ?
a. H2PO4-
b. H3PO4
c. H4PO4+
d. PO43-

162. Which of the following relationships is true for an acidic solution at 25ºC?
a. [H+] > [OH-]
b. pH > 7.00
-14
c. Kw > 1 10
d. The solution is negatively-charged

163. A specie which is able to accept a proton is called


a. acid
b. base
c. neutral compound
d. cation

164. Substances that react with both acids and bases are called
a. neutral
b. conjugate bases
c. amphoteric substances
d. conjugate acids

165. The Bronsted-Lowry acid in the reaction H2O + NH3 → NH4+ + OH- is
a. H2O
b. NH3
c. OH-
d. NH4+

166. A specie which is able to accept a proton is called


a. acid
b. base
c. neutral compound
d. cation

167. If the pH value is greater than 7, then solution is


a. acidic
b. basic
c. neutral
d. salty

168. The pH of water is


a. 8
b. 3
c. 2
d. 7

169. As an electrolyte, water is


a. strong
b. neutral
c. weak
d. a good insulator

170. In pure water, the concentrations of


a. H+ and OH- ions are equal
b. H+ ions is more
c. OH- ions is more
d. Cl- is more

171. Acids ionize in water to produce


a. OH- ions
b. H+ ions
c. SO4-2 ions
d. H2O molecules

172. Acidosis - a shift in blood pH:


a. the alkaline side
b. the acid side
c. to pH 7

173. Alkalosis - a shift in blood pH:


a. the acid side
b. the alkaline side
c. to pH 7

174. Which ones of the following couples are acids in given reaction?
H2PO4- + HSO3- ↔ HPO4- + H2SO3

a. H2PO4- and H2SO3


b. HSO3- and H2SO3
c. HSO3- and HPO4-
d. H2PO4- and HPO4-

175. Which ones of the following couples are base in given reaction?
H2PO4- + HSO3- ↔ HPO4- + H2SO3
a. H2PO4- and H2SO3
b. HSO3- and H2SO3
c. HSO3- and HPO4-
d. H2PO4- and HPO4-

176. For the system shown here: HOBr + OH- ↔ H2O + OBr-. Bronsted would classify
the base species as:
a. OH- and HOBr
b. H2O and OH-
c. OBr- and OH-
d. OBr- and HOBr
e. H2O and HOBr

177. Which equation depics hydrocyanic acid, HCN, behaving as a Bronsted –Lowry
acid in water
a. HCN(aq) + OH-(aq) = OCN-(aq) + H2(g)
b. HCN(aq) + H3O+(aq) = H2CN+(aq) + H2O(l)
c. HCN(aq) + H2O(l) = CN- (aq) + H3O+(l)
d. CN-(aq) + H2O(l) = OCN-(aq) + H2(g)

178. In the equation: HF + H2O → H3O+ + F-


a. H2O is a base and HF is its conjugate acid.
b. H2O is an acid and HF is the conjugate base.
c. HF is an acid and F- is its conjugate base.
d. HF is a base and H3O+ is its conjugate acid.
e. HF is a base and F- is its conjugate acid.

179. All of the following species behave as Bronsted –Lowry acids EXCEPT
a. HCl
b. HCN
c. NH3
d. NH4+

180. All of the following species behave as Bronsted –Lowry base EXCEPT _____
a. CO32-
b. PO43-
c. NH3
d. HSO4-

181. Ion product of water is:


a. the sum of the concentrations of protons and hydroxide ions
b. the difference between of concentrations of protons and hydroxide ions
c. the product of the concentrations of protons and hydroxide ions
d. the ratio of the concentrations of protons and hydroxide ions

182. Equations of ion product of water:


a. [Н+] +[ОН-] = 1.0∙10-14
b. [Н+] / [ОН-] = 1.0∙10-14
c. [H+][OH-] = 1.0 ∙ 10-14
d. [OН-] / [Н+] = 1.0∙10-14

183. pH of gastric juice is:


a. 7.0 – 7.2
b. 0.9 - 1.1
c. 3.1 - 4.4
d. 7.4 - 8.0
184. pH of urine is:
a. 4.8 – 7.5
b. 6.35 – 6.85
c. 7.36 - 7.42
d. 7.5 – 8.0

185. pH of saliva
a. 0.9 - 1.1
b. 6.35 – 6.85
c. 7.36 - 7.42
d. 7.5 – 8.0

186. pH of pancreatic juice


a. 0.9 - 1.1
b. 6.35 – 6.85
c. 7.36 - 7.42
d. 7.5 – 8.0

Buffer solutions
187. Systems that do not change the pH by adding small amounts of strong acid or
alkali, and during breeding are called:
a. colloidal
b. buffer
c. real

188. Buffer action - the ability to buffer solution consistently keep a constant:
a. molar concentration of component
b. pH
c. the dissociation constants of weak electrolyte

189. Composition of acid buffer system type are:


a. strong acids and bases
b. a weak acid and its salt, which formed by strong base
c. strong acid and its salt, which formed a strong base

190. Composition of phosphate buffer:


a. Na3PO4 + NaH2PO4
b. Na2НPO4 + NaH2PO4
c. K3PO4 + NaH2PO4

191. Composition of buffer systems of general type:


a. strong acid and weak base
b. a weak base and its salt, which formed a strong acid
c. strong acid and its salt, which formed a strong base

192. Aques solutions freeze at temperatures:


a. 0O C
b. above 0OC
c. below 0OC

193. Which of the following are capable of forming a buffer solution?


a. HCl and KCl
b. HNO3 and KNO3
c. H2SO4 and Na2SO4
d. H2CO3 and Na2CO3

194. Which of the following are capable of forming a buffer solution?


a. NH3 and NH4Cl
b. HNO3 and KNO3
c. H2SO4 and Na2SO4
d. HCl and KCl

195. Choose acid buffer:


a. H2CO3/NaHCO3
b. NH4OH/NH4Cl
c. NaH2PO4/ Na2HPO4
d. Na2B4O7/NaOH

196. Choose base buffer:


a. NH4OH/NH4Cl
b. H2CO3/NaHCO3
c. H2SO3/NaHSO3
d. Na2B4O7/NaOH

197. Composition of acetate buffer:


a. СН3СООН + СН3СООС2Н5
b. СН3СООН + NaOH
c. СН3СООН + СН3СООNa
d. СН3СООН + СH3COONH4

198. Composition of bicarbonate buffer:


a. H2CO3 + NaHCO3
b. H2CO3 + NаCl
c. NaHCO3 + NаCl
d. H2CO3 + KCl

199. The equation calculating the pH buffer bicarbonate buffer system:

a.

b.

c.
d.

200. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of acetate buffer solution at presence of


alkalis:
a. CH3COOH + OН- =CH3COO - + H2O
b. CH3COO- + H+= CH3COOH
c. CH3COOH = CH3COO +H+
d. CH3COO- +H2O = CH3COOH + OH-

201. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of acetate buffer solution at presence of acids:
a. CH3COO- +H+ = CH3COOH
b. CH3COOH + H+= CH3COOH2+
c. CH3COOH = CH3COO-+ H+
d. CH3COO-+ H2O = CH3COOH +OH-

202. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of bicarbonate buffer solution at presence of


alkalis:
a. H2CO3 + OH- = HCO3- +H2O
b. HCO3- + OH- = CO32- +H2O
c. HCO3- + H+ = H2CO3
d. HCO3- + H2O = H2CO3 +OH-

203. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of bicarbonate buffer solution at presence of


acids:
a. HCO3- + H+ = H2CO3
b. CO32- + H+ = HCO3-
c. HCO3- + OH- = CO32- + H2O
d. H2CO3= HCO3- + H+
e. HCO3- + H2O = H2CO3 +OH-

204. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of ammonia buffer solution at presence of


alkalis:
a. NH4+ + OH- = NH3 + H2O
b. NH4OH + H+ = NH4+ + H2O
c. NH4OH = NH4+ + OH-
d. NH3 + H2O = NH4OH
e. G. NH3 + H+ = NH4+

205. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of ammonia buffer solution at presence of


acids:
a. NH3 + H+ = NH4+
b. NH4+ = NH3 + H+
c. NH4OH = NH4+ + OH-
d. NH3 + H2O = NH4OH
206. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of phosphate buffer solution at presence of
acids:
a. HPO42- + H+ =H2PO4-
b. H2PO4- + H+ =H3PO4
c. PO43- + H+ = HPO42-
d. HPO42- + OH- = PO43- +H2O

207. Choose formula of calculation of pH of buffer solutions:


a. pH=pKa+ lg(Cb/Ca)
b. pH=1/2 pKa-1/2 lgCa
c. pH=7+ 1/2 pKa+ 1/2 lgCb
d. pH = -lg[H+]

208. Choose buffer solution which presence in the human body:


a. Bicarbonate
b. Acetate
c. Borate
d. Ammonia

209. Choose buffer solution which presence in the human body:


a. Phosphate
b. Acetate
c. Borate
d. Ammonia

210. Choose buffer solution which presence in the human body:


a. Protein
b. Acetate
c. Borate
d. Ammonia

211. Choose buffer solution which presence in the human body:


a. Bicarbonate
b. Acetate
c. Borate
d. Ammonia

212. Choose buffer solution which presence in the human body:


a. Acetate
b. Hemoglobine
c. Borate
d. Ammonia

213. What normal range of pH of blood:


a. 7. 36 – 7.42
b. 6. 90 – 7.00
c. 8.20 - 8.40
d. 7.10 - 7.20
214. Choose effect of hypoventilation:
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

215. Which of the following describes the distribution of sodium and potassium
between cells and body fluids?
a. K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids
b. Na+ mainly in the cells, K+ in the body fluids
c. equal amounts of each ion in the cells and body fluids
d. little of either in the cells, but large amounts of each in the body fluids

216. A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to
pneumonia or emphysema indicates
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

217. Choose effect of hyperventilation:


a. respiratory alkalosis
b. respiratory acidosis
c. metabolic alkalosis
d. pH of blood not change

Electrochemistry
218. Identify the oxidizing agent in the following redox reaction:
MnO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2Cl−(aq) → Mn2+(aq)+2H2O(l) + Cl2(g)
a. MnO2
b. H+
c. Cl-
d. Cl2

219. Identify the reducing agent in the following redox reaction:


MnO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2Cl−(aq) → Mn2+(aq)+2H2O(l) + Cl2(g)
a. MnO2
b. H+
c. Cl-
d. Cl2

220. Identify the oxidized agent in the following redox reaction:


MnO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2Cl−(aq) → Mn2+(aq)+2H2O(l) + Cl2(g)
a. MnO2
b. H+
c. Cl-
d. Cl2
221. Identify the reduced agent in the following redox reaction:
MnO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2Cl−(aq) → Mn2+(aq)+2H2O(l) + Cl2(g)
a. MnO2
b. H+
c. Cl-
d. Cl2

222. For the reaction, 2NO2(g) + 7H2(g) → 2NH3(g) + 4H2O(g) is hydrogen


a. an oxidizing agent
b. a reducing agent
c. an oxidized agent
d. a reduced agent

223. Identify the reducing agent in the following redox reaction:


5SO32− + 2MnO4−+ 6H+→ 5SO42− + 2Mn2+ + 3H2O
a. SO32-
b. MnO4-
c. SO42-
d. Mn2+

224. What is the oxidizing agent in the following redox reaction?


Zn(s)+Cu2+(aq)→Zn2+(aq)+Cu(s)
a. Zn
b. Cu2+
c. Zn2+
d. Cu

225. Determine the oxidizing agent of the following chemical equation for aerobic
respiration:
C6H12O6(s)+6O2(g)→6CO2(g)+6H2O(l)
a. C6H12O6
b. O2
c. CO2
d. H2O

226. Determine the reducing agent of the following chemical equation for aerobic
respiration:
C6H12O6(s)+6O2(g)→6CO2(g)+6H2O(l)
a. C6H12O6
b. O2
c. CO2
d. H2O

227. In a redox reaction, there must be


a. an oxidizing agent and no reducing agent
b. a reducing agent and no oxidizing agent
c. a reducing agent and an oxidizing agent
d. no reducing or oxidizing agent

228. Which of the following is a strong reducing agent?


a. NO3−
b. NO
c. N2H4
d. NH3

229. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing agent?


a. NO3−
b. NO
c. N2H4
d. NH3

230. Consider the following reaction:


4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2O
The element being oxidized and the oxidizing agent are:
a. N and NH3
b. N and O2
c. O and NH3
d. O and O2
e. H and NH3

231. Given that the Activity Series is: Na>Mg>Cu>Ag>Au, which one of the following
answers represents the ions that would not be displaced from aqueous solution (reduced)
by metallic magnesium?
a. Na+
b. Cu2+
c. Cu2+ and Au+
d. Cu2+, Ag+ and Au+
e. Na+, Cu2+, Ag+ and Au+

232. Of the following, the metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of aqueous
solution of its salt is:
a. Cr
b. Cu
c. Mg
d. Ag

233. When aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolysed


a. Cl2 is evolved at the cathode
b. H2 is evolved at cathode
c. Na is deposited at the cathode
d. Na appears at the cathode
234. During electrolysis of KNO3, H2 is evolved
a. anode
b. cathode
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of these

235. During electrolysis of CuSO4(aq) Cu is deposited at


a. anode
b. cathode
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of these

236. An aqueous Mg(NO3)2 solution is electrolyzed. What are the products at the
anode?
a. O2
b. H2
c. N2
d. NO2

237. Electrolysis of aqeous solution of AgNO3 occurs according to following reaction


a. AgNO3 + H2O Ag↓ + Н2↑ + HNO3
b. AgNO3 + H2O Ag↓ + О2↑ + HNO3
c. AgNO3 + H2O Ag + Н2↑ + О2↑
d. AgNO3 + H2O Ag↓ + NO2 + Н2↑

238. Electrolysis of aqeous solution of BaBr2 occurs according to following reaction


a. BaBr2 + H2O Br2 + Н2↑ + Ba(OH)2
b. BaBr2 + H2O Br2 + Ba↓ + H2O
c. BaBr2 + H2O Br2 + О2↑ + Ba(OH)2
d. BaBr2 + H2O Br2 + О2↑ + Ba↓

239. An aqueous Na2SO4 solution is electrolyzed. What are the products at the anode
and cathode?
a. H2 and O2
b. Na and O2
c. H2 and SO3
d. Na and SO42-

240. In a galvanic cell, the reaction occurs 2H2O - 4e → O2↑ + 4H+. It occurs at the
a. anode
b. cathode
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of these

241. In a galvanic cell, the reaction occurs 2H2O + 2e → H2↑ + 2OH-.It occurs at the
a. anode
b. cathode
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of these

242. Strong reducing agents have


a. greater positive value of standard reduction potential
b. greater negative value of standard reduction potential
c. lesser positive value of standard reduction potential
d. none of these

243. Strong oxidizing agents have


a. greater positive value of standard reduction potential
b. lesser positive value of standard reduction potential
c. greater negative value of standard reduction potential
d. none of these

244. The electrode with more negative value of reduction potential acts as
a. Cathode
b. Anode
c. Electrode
d. none of these

MODUL II

Chemistry of biogenic elements


245. Choose macroelement:
a. Co
b. Zn
c. Na
d. Mn

246. Choose macroelement:


a. Cu
b. C
c. Со
d. F

247. Choose macroelement:


a. Ca
b. Bi
c. Te
d. Cs

248. Choose macroelement:


a. Hg
b. Mo
c. Sb
d. O

249. Choose microelement:


a. H
b. C
c. Mn
d. O

250. Choose microelement:


a. Na
b. Ca
c. Mg
d. Cu

251. Choose the organogenic elements


a. H, O, C, N
b. Na, K, Ca, N
c. H, O, C, Ca
d. H, C, Ca, Na

252. What natural compounds contents nitrogen?


a. Nucleic acids
b. Carbohydrates
c. Fats
d. All of above

253. What natural compounds contents nitrogen?


a. Fats
b. Carbohydrates
c. Proteins
d. All of above

254. A group of stable primary macroelements


a. Ca, S, Mg, Cl, Na, K, Fe
b. H, O, C, N
c. Hg, Cd, Cr, Tl
d. Cu, Zn, Mn, Co

255. A group of contaminating elements:


a. Ca, S, Mg, Cl, Na, K, Fe
b. H, O, C, N
c. Hg, Cd, Cr, Tl
d. Cu, Zn, Mn, Co

256. Choose s- biogenic elements


a. H, Na, K, Mg, Ca
b. H, N, K, Mg, Ca
c. H, C, N, O
d. H, O, K, Mg, Ca

257. Choose p- biogenic elements


a. H, Na, K, Mg, Ca
b. N, O, Cl, S, I
c. Mn, Zn, Cu, Co
d. N, Na, K, Mg, Ca

258. Choose d- biogenic elements


a. H, Na, K, Mg, Ca
b. N, O, Cl, S, I
c. Mn, Zn, Cu, Co
d. N, Na, K, Mg, Ca

259. Choose primary location of Na in human body:


a. Intracellular
b. Extracellular
c. both of them

260. The principal cation of extracellular fluid


a. Na
b. K
c. Mg
d. Ca

261. Disease state of calcium deficiency in human body is


a. rickets
b. anemia
c. endemic goiter
d. scurvy

262. The normal concentration of sodium in the plasma is


a. 135-145 mEq/l
b. 3.5-5.5 mEq/l
c. 2-3 m/dl
d. 9-11 mg/dl

263. What is biological role of sodium for human organism?


a. a contituent of DNA for genetic coding
b. maintenance of osmotic pressure of the body fluids
c. maintenance intracellular osmotic pressure
d. an essential component of bone, cartilage

264. The biological function of sodium is


a. taking part in coagulation of blood
b. activator of phosphorylation reavtions
c. structural component of vitamins thime, biotin, lipoic acid and pantotenic acid
d. takes part in the intestinal absorption of glucose, galactose and amino acids

265. The normal concentration of potassium in the plasma is


a. 135-145 mEq/l
b. 3.5-5.5 mEq/l
c. 2-3 m/dl
d. 9-11 mg/dl

266. The principal cation of intracellular fluid is


a. Na
b. K
c. Mg
d. Ca

267. What is biological role of potassium in the human organism?


a. a contituent of DNA for genetic coding
b. maintenance of osmotic pressure of the body fluids
c. maintenance intracellular osmotic pressure
d. an essential component of bone and cartilage

268. The normal concentration of calcium in the serum


a. 135-145 mEq/l
b. 3.5-5.5 mEq/l
c. 2-3 m/dl
d. 9-11 mg/dl

269. What is biological role of K for human organism?


a. Takes part in formation of connective tissues
b. Essential for bones and teeth
c. Mantains intracellular osmotic pressure
d. Takes part in the intestinal absorbtion of glucose, galactosed and amino acids

270. What is biological role of calcium for human organism?


a. A contituent of DNA for genetic coding
b. Maintenance of osmotic pressure of the body fluids
c. Maintenance intracellular osmotic pressure
d. It is required for the formation (of hydroxyapafite) and physical strength of skeletal
tissue

271. Choose functions of Mg in human organism:


a. Takes part in a regulation of water exchange
b. Can react with SH-groups of albumins
c. An activator of enzymes
d. Along with calcium essential for bones and teeth
272. The physiologically active form of calcium is
a. protein bound
b. ionised
c. complexed with citrate
d. complexed with carbonate

273. Calcium absorption is increased by


a. vitamin K
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin E

274. Choose biological importance of Ca:


a. Can depress a vasomoving center
b. Can depress the center of breathing
c. Mantains intracellular osmotic pressure
d. Takes part in the transmission of nervous impulse

275. Choose biological importance of Ca:


a. Can depress a vasomoving center
b. Can depress the center of breathing
c. Takes part in coagulation of blood
d. Mantains intracellular osmotic pressure

276. Deficiency of vitamin D causes


a. rickets
b. anemia
c. scurvy
d. night blindness

277. Several kinase enzymes (catalyses phosphorylation reactions) require the mineral
cofactor
a. Na
b. Mg
c. Ca
d. Ba

278. Biological importance of calcium in human body


a. necessary for the regulation of acid-base balance in the cell
b. essential constituents of skeletal structures such as bones and teeth
c. essential component of bone, cartilage
d. activates enzymes and proteins by phosphorylation

279. Which of the following regulates blood calcium?


a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E
280. Phosphorus is a component of the phosphate – and dihydrophosphate –ions of the
phosphate buffer system. Define the electronic configuration corresponding to the atom
of phosphorus in the structure of these ions:
a. 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
b. 1s22s22p63s23p4
c. 1s22s22p6
d. 1s22s22p63s23p2
e. 1s22s22p63s23p3

281. Point biological importance of Phosphorus compounds:


a. Can depress the center of breathing
b. Takes part in a regulation of water exchange
c. Coagulation of blood
d. Energetic exchange and deposition of energy

282. Biogenic p- element which is structural component of vitamins such as thymine,


biotin, lipoic acid and coenzyme A of pantotenic acid
a. C
b. P
c. O
d. S

283. The biogenic p - element which is requred as a component of thyroid hormones


(T3 and T4)
a. F
b. Cl
c. Br
d. I

284. The biogenic elements which involved in the regulation acid-base equilibrium,
fluid balance and osmotic pressure in the body are
a. Na, K, Cl
b. Na, K, Ca
c. Na, K, F
d. Na, K, I

285. Chlorine is biogenic p - element capable of generating anions with various


stability degrees. Determine an anion which has the smallest oxidative activity:
a. Cl-
b. ClO-
c. ClO2-
d. ClO3-
e. ClO4-

286. The biogenic element which takes part in mantaining a constant osmotic pressure
of biological liquids
a. Li
b. Na
c. Mg
d. Ca

287. For treatment of bone fracture doctor administrated medicines, which include the
s-biogenic element. Identify these element:
a. Li
b. Na
c. K
d. Ca
e. Mg

288. The processs of respiration is accompanied by the conversion of hemoglobin to


oxyhemoglobin. Determine biogenic p - element, which performs this conversion:
a. N
b. S
c. C
d. O

289. The inorganic element found in the structure of majority of high –energy
compounds
a. S
b. P
c. I
d. F

290. Choose biological impotance of manganese


a. Participate in transport of oxygen
b. Increases activity of thyroid gland
c. Maintenance of thyroxin in blood
d. Inhibits lipid peroxidation

291. Choose biological importance of iron


a. Increases activity of thyroid gland
b. Promotes hormonal activity of front stake of hypophysis
c. Formation of teeth
d. Paticipate in transport of oxygen.

292. The biogenic d - element is manly required for O2 transport and cellular
respiration
a. Fe
b. Zn
c. Mn
d. Co

293. What is biological role of cobalt compounds for human organism?


a. It is essential for red blood cell formation and the maintenance of nerve tissue
b. It is involved in the process of accumulation and transfer of energy in the body
c. It is required for wound healing
d. It is involved in the regulation of acid-base equilibrium

294. Iron is transported in the plasma in a bound form by the protein


a. ferritine
b. transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. ferroalbumin

295. Copper containing protein involved on the conversion of ferrious ion (Fe 2+) to
ferric ion (Fe3+) in the plasma is
a. ferritine
b. transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. ferroalbumin

296. The biogenic d - element that is necessary for the storage and secration of insulin
and maintainance of normal vitamin A in serum
a. iron
b. copper
c. zinc
d. calcium

297. Ceruloplasmin takes part in the transport of


a. iron
b. copper
c. zinc
d. calcium

298. The zinc containing protein in the saliva involved in taste sensation is
a. ferritine
b. albumine
c. gusten
d. ceruloplasmine

299. The following element is involved in wound healing


a. Fe
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Co

300. The element involved in the blood coagulation is


a. sodium
b. potassium
c. magnesium
d. calcium
301. The following substance(s) is (are) involved in the regulation of plasma calcium
level
a. Calcitriol
b. Parathyroid hormone
c. Calcitonin
d. All of them

302. The following element is involved in the biosynthesis of thyroid hormones


a. F
b. Cl
c. Br
d. I

303. Deficiency of iodine in the soil and water leads to development of


a. endemic goiter
b. diabetes mellitus
c. anemia
d. gastrite

304. The storage and secretion of insulin from the β-cells of pancreas required
a. Co
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Fe

305. Iron mainly exerts its functions through the compounds


a. hemoglobine and myoglobin
b. insuline and glucagon
c. transferrine and ferritine
d. ceruloplasmine and gusten

306. Hemoglobin is the most important chelate natural compounds of


a. iron
b. copper
c. manganese
d. zinc

307. Biologically important compounds of iron are


a. hemoglobin
b. myoglobin
c. cytochromes
d. All of them

308. Main physiological role of hemoglobine is


a. transport of O2 and CO2
b. transport of O2 and CO
c. regulation of blood glucose level
d. transport of O2 and OH- groups
309. Ferritin is a
a. storage form of iron
b. storage form of copper
c. transport form of iron
d. transport form of copper

310. Transferrin is a
a. storage form of iron
b. storage form of copper
c. transport form of iron
d. transport form of copper

311. The protein that transfers the iron


a. hemosiderine
b. transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. ferritin

312. Hemoglobin is the protein in the red blood cells and transports oxygen in the
body. Determine the element, which is a complexing in this compound:
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Magnesium
d. Calcium

313. The protein that is a storage form of the iron


a. hemosiderine
b. transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. ferritin

314. Cytochromes are necessary for


a. electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation
b. growth and bone formation
c. formation of myelin sheaths in the nervous systems
d. necessary to maintain the normal levels of vitamin A in serum

315. Which of following metalls is an integral component of vitamin B12


a. Mn
b. Mg
c. Cu
d. Co

Carbohydrates
316. The major functions of carbohydrates include
a. structural framework
b. stroage
c. both a and b
d. none of these

317. Thye main sources of carbohydrates are


a. milk
b. water
c. green plants
d. proteins

318. The general formula of carbohydrates is


a. (CH2O)n
b. (CH2O)2n
c. (CHO)n
d. (CnH2nO)

319. The general formula of monosaccharides is


a. CnH2nOn
b. C2nHnOn
c. CnH2nO
d. CnH2nO2n

320. The general formula of polysaccharides is


a. (C6H10O6)n
b. (C6H10O5)n
c. (C6H12O5)n
d. (C6H12O5)n

321. The suger found in in milk is


a. galactose
b. fructose
c. lactose
d. glucose

322. Most abundant carbohydrate which is found in nature is


a. fructose
b. glycogen
c. cellulose
d. pectin

323. Carbohydrates are


a. polyhydroxy aldehydes and phenols
b. polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones
c. polyhydroxy ketones and phenols
d. polyhydroxy phenols and alcohols

324. The smallest among carbohydrates are trioses. Which of the following is a triose?
a. glucose
b. ribulose
c. ribose
d. glyceraldehyde

325. Simplest carbohydrate is ….


a. Dihydroxy acetone
b. Ribose
c. Glucose
d. Sucrose

326. Which of the following is an aldotriose?


a. Dihydroxyacetone
b. Glyceraldehyde
c. Ribulose
d. Erythrose

327. Which of the following is an ketotriose?


a. Dihydroxyacetone
b. Glyceraldehyde
c. Ribulose
d. Erythrose

328. The only carbohydrate which is not having any chiral carbon atom is
a. glyceraldehide
b. dihydroxyacetone
c. erythrose
d. erythrulose

329. The minimum number of carbon required for a monosaccharides is


a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

330. The minimum number of carbon required for a ketose sugar to have cyclic
structure is
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

331. Which of the following is a pentose?


a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. ribose
d. glyceraldehyde

332. The sugar found in RNA is


a. ribose
b. deoxyribose
c. ribulose
d. erythrose

333. The sugar found in DNA is


a. ribose
b. deoxyribose
c. ribulose
d. erythrose

334. Which of the following is a hexose?


a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. ribose
d. glyceraldehyde

335. Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of …


a. L-type
b. D-type
c. D- and L-types
d. None of the above

336. Examples of Epimers are


a. glucose and galactose
b. glucose and ribose
c. succhrose and glucose
d. a and c

337. Monosaccharides have


a. oxidizing nature
b. reducing nature
c. redox nature
d. neutralizing nature

338. The red precipitate formed when glucose is heated with “Benedict’s reagent” is…
a. cupric hydroxide
b. cuprous hydroxide
c. cupric oxide
d. cuprous oxide

339. The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is


a. ribose
b. galactose
c. mannose
d. maltose

340. Which of the following are monosaccharides?


a. sucrose, maltose, lactose
b. glucose, fructose, galactose
c. glycogen, starch, cellulose
d. d. ribose, deoxyribose
e. glyceraldehyde, dihydroxyacetone

341. Which of the following is a disaccharide?


a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. ribose
d. glyceraldehyde

342. Which of the following is not a disaccharides?


a. Sucrose
b. Amylose
c. Lactose
d. Maltose

343. What is the molecular formula of Galactose?


a. C6H12O6
b. C12H22O11
c. C6H12O5
d. C5H12O6

344. What is the molecular formula of Lactose?


a. C6H12O6
b. C12H22O11
c. C6H12O5
d. C5H12O6

345. Galactose is a
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharide
d. triose

346. Lactose is a
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharide
d. triose

347. Sucrose is a
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharide
d. triose
348. Which of the following is not a reducing sugar?
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Galactose
d. Lactose
e. Sucrose

349. Maltose is a
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharide
d. triose

350. Which of following are further classified as trioses, tetroses, pentoses etc?
a. Monosaccharide
b. Disaccharide
c. Polysaccharide
d. Oligosaccharides

351. How many carbon atoms are contained by monosaccharides?


a. 2 to 9
b. 3 to 6
c. 4 to 8
d. 10 to 15

352. Which of following are classified as disaccharides, trisaccharides etc?


a. Monosaccharides
b. Disaccharides
c. Polysaccharides
d. Oligosaccharides

353. Which of the following is oligosaccharides?


a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Sucrose
d. Galactose

354. Which of the following are disaccharides?


a. sucrose, maltose, lactose
b. glucose, fructose, galactose
c. glycogen, starch, cellulose
d. ribose, deoxyribose
e. glyceraldehyde, dihydroxyacetone

355. Lactose is a disaccharides consists of


a. glucose and fructose
b. glucose and galactose
c. glucose and sucrose
d. glucose and ribose

356. Which of these are corect combinations of monosaccharides to form


disaccharides?
I. Glucose + Glucose = Maltose
II. Glucose + Fructose = Lactose
III. Glucose+Fructose = Sucrose
IV. Glucose + Galactose = Lactose

a. I, II, III only


b. II only
c. I, III, IV only
d. All of the above

357. Which of the carbohydrate molecule are non-reducing agents?


a. Glucose
b. Maltose
c. Fructose
d. Sucrose

358. What test is used for reducing sugars?


a. Biuret test
b. Benedict’s reagent
c. Seliwinoff’s reagent
d. Fehling’s reagent

359. In lactose, the linkage is


a. β (1→4) glycosidic linkage
b. β (1→2) glycosidic linkage
c. α (1→4) glycosidic linkage
d. α (1→2) glycosidic linkage

360. Maltose is obtained from


a. fruits
b. cereals
c. plants
d. sugarcane

361. In maltose, the linkage is


a. β (1→4) glycosidic linkage
b. β (1→2) glycosidic linkage
c. α (1→4) glycosidic linkage
d. α (1→2) glycosidic linkage

362. The glycosidic linkage between glucose molecule in maltose is


a. β (1→4)
b. β (1→2)
c. α (1→4)
d. α (1→2)

363. In sucrose, the linkage is


a. (α1→β2) glycosidic linkage
b. (β1→α2) glycosidic linkage
c. α (1→4) glycosidic linkage
d. α (1→2) glycosidic linkage

364. Maltose is a disaccharides consists of


a. glucose and fructose
b. glucose and galactose
c. glucose and glucose
d. glucose and ribose

365. Sucrose is a disaccharides consists of


a. glucose and fructose
b. glucose and galactose
c. glucose and glucose
d. glucose and ribose

366. Which of the following are polysaccharides?


a. sucrose, maltose, lactose
b. glucose, fructose, galactose
c. glycogen, starch, cellulose
d. ribose, deoxyribose
e. glyceraldehyde, dihydroxyacetone

367. Which bof the following is used in infant foods?


a. Protease
b. Amylase
c. Diastase
d. Lactase

368. On hydrolysis, lactose gives one glucose and one


a. fructose
b. galactose
c. glucose
d. maltose

369. Which polysaccharide is the chief constituents of the plant cell walls?
a. cellulose
b. chitin
c. glycogen
d. starch

370. Glycogen in animals are stored in


a. liver and spleen
b. liver and muscles
c. liver and bile
d. liver and adipose tissue

371. Nutritional polysacchrides are


a. starch and glycogen
b. starch and chitin
c. starch and cellulose
d. All of them

372. Amylopectin has


a. α(1 → 4) and α(1 → 6) linkage
b. α(1 → 4) and β(1 → 6) linkage
c. β(1 → 4) and β(1 → 6) linkage
d. ) α(1 → 2) linkage

373. The glycosidic linkage in cellulose is


a. β (1→4) glycosidic linkage
b. β (1→2) glycosidic linkage
c. α (1→4) glycosidic linkage
d. α (1→2) glycosidic linkage

374. Humans are unable to digest


a. starch
b. glycogen
c. sucrose
d. cellulose

375. Polysaccharides
a. contain many monosaccharides units which may or may not be of the same kind
b. function mainly a storage or structural compounds
c. are present in large amounts in the connective tissue
d. All of these

376. In polysaccharides, monosaccharides are joined by


a. peptide bond
b. glucose bond
c. glycosidic bond
d. covalent bond

377. Storage polysaccharides made by animals is


a. amylopectin
b. glycogen
c. cellulose
d. collagen

378. The end product of hydrolysis of starch by amylase is …


a. soluble starch
b. glucose
c. dextrins
d. maltose

379. What is the main source of energy for the brain?


a. Glucose
b. Glycogen
c. Starch
d. Sucrose

380. What are the two structures making up starch?


a. Amylose and cellulose
b. Amylose and amylopectin
c. Amilopectin and cellobiose
d. Cellobiose and cellulose

381. Starch is a example of


a. monosaccharides
b. disaccharides
c. oligosaccharides
d. polysaccharides

382. Excess energy is stored by plants in the form of


a. Starch
b. Glucose
c. Glycogen
d. Cellulose

383. Cellulose is made up of the molecules of


a. alfa glucose
b. beta glucose
c. Both of the above
d. None of these

384. A polysaccharides which often called animal starch is


a. glycogen
b. inulin
c. starch
d. dextrin

385. In human diet, cellulose is referred as


a. vitamin
b. fibre
c. lipid
d. protein

386. Cellulose is obtained from?


a. Animals
b. Microorganisms
c. Plants
d. All of these

387. Which of the following statements about starch and glycogen is false?
a. Amylase is unbranched; amylopectin and glycogen contain many α(1→6) branches.
b. Both are homopolymers of glucose.
c. Both serve primarily as structural elements in cell walls.
d. Both starch and glycogen are stored intracellulary as insoluble granules.

388. Starch and glycogen are both polymers of:


a. fructose
b. glucose 1-phosphate
c. sucrose
d. α-D-glycose

389. In what form is glucose stored in animal muscles and liver cells?
a. Glucagon
b. Glycogen
c. Vitamins
d. None of these

390. The end product of hydrolysis of starch by amylase is …


a. soluble starch
b. glucose
c. dextrins
d. maltose

391. Which of the following are the structural polysaccharides?


a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Cellulose
d) Glucose

392. Which of the following is an analogous to starch?


a) Cellulose
b) Glycogen
c) Sucrose
d) Chitin

393. In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants?


a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose
394. In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in liver?
a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose

395. Galactosemia is due to the deficiency of the enzyme


a. galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase
b. galactokinase
c. hexokinase
d. glucoso-6-phophatase

396. Galactosuria is due to the deficiency of the enzyme


a. galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase
b. galactokinase
c. hexokinase
d. glucoso-6-phophatase

Amino acids. Proteins.


397. Amino acids are
a. building blocks of carbohydrates
b. building blocks of nucleic acids
c. building blocks of lipids
d. building blocks of proteins

398. Amino acids have


a. both amino group and carboxyl group
b. both amino and keto group
c. amino group only
d. carboxyl group only

399. The simplest amino acid is


a. proline
b. methionine
c. glycine
d. serine

400. Sulfur containing amino acids are


a. cysteine and methionine
b. methionine and threonine
c. cysteine and threonine
d. cysteine and serine

401. Aromatic amino acids include


a. phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan
b. phenylalanine, serine and tryptophan
c. threonine, tyrosine and tryptophan
d. asparagine, tyrosine and tryptophan

402. Positivelly charged basic amino acids are


a. lysine and arginine
b. lysine and asparagine
c. glutamine and arginine
d. lysine and glutamate

403. Acidic amino acids include


a. arginine and glutamate
b. aspartate and glutamate
c. aspartate and asparagine
d. glutamate and glutamine

404. Amino acids with hydroxyl groups are


a. serine and alanine
b. alanine and valine
c. serine and threonine
d. valine and isoleucine

405. Which one is basic amino acids?


a. Glycine
b) serine
c) aspartate
d) arginine

406. Which of the following protein has storage capacity?


a) ovalbumine, casein
b) hemoglobine, myoglobine
c) actin, myosine
d) pepsine, trypsine

407. How many amino acids are synthesized by our body?


a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 20

408. The amino acids which are no synthesized by human body are called
a. simple amino acids
b. complex amino acids
c. essential amino acids
d. non-essential amino acids

409. Human body can synthesize only


a. Essential amino acids
b. Non-essential amino acids
c. Both A and B
d. None of these

410. Which of the following must be present in our diet?


a. Essential amino acids
b. Non-essential amino acids
c. Both A and B
d. None of these

411. An amino acid with sulfhydryle group on the side chain is


a. methionine
b. cysteine
c. threonine
d. all of these

412. Cysteine is
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar, neutral amino acid
c. polar, acidic amino acid
d. polar, basic amino acid

413. Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?


a. alanine
b. valine
c. leucine
d. isoleucine

414. What is the term used for the linkage which joints two amino acid units?
a. Amino group
b. Carboxyl group
c. Peptide bond
d. Dipeptide

415. At zwitterionic form, an amino acid will act as


a. proton donor
b. proton acceptor
c. proton donor and acceptor
d. none of these

416. Naturally occuring proteins are usually polymers of


a. D-amino acids
b. L-amino acids
c. A mixture of D- and L –amino acids
d. either D-amino acids or L-amino acids

417. Proteins that catalyze specific biological reactions whithout which life would be
impossible are called
a. gelatin
b. hormone
c. enzymes
d. lactase

418. The linkage that joints two amino acids is called


a. peptide bond
b. covalent bond
c. ionic bond
d. hydrogen bond

419. The resulting molecule after joining two amino acids is called a/an
a. peptide
b. dipeptide
c. peptide bond
d. amino group

420. Polar amino acids are usually found


a. on the surface of proteins
b. inside the core of proteins
c. at the sides of proteins
d. can be present anywhere in ptotein

421. Non - polar amino acids are usually found


a. on the surface of proteins
b. inside the core of proteins
c. at the sides of proteins
d. can be present anywhere in ptotein

422. One of few amino acids, cysteine is an amino acids that can be synthesized in the
human body and it contains
a. phosphoric acid
b. sulfur
c. phosphorus
d. magnesium

423. The ionic state of amino acids depends upon


a. pH of solution
b. pH of solute
c. pH of solvent
d. Pressure

424. At pH =1, the amino acids exists as


a. anion
b. cation
c. zwitterion
d. neutral
425. At pH =14, the amino acids exists as
a. anion
b. cation
c. zwitterion
d. neutral

426. At pH =7, the amino acids exists as


a. anion
b. cation
c. zwitterion
d. neutral

427. Arginine, lysine and histidine have basic side chains at


a. Acidic pH
b. Basic pH
c. Neutral pH
d. High pressure

428. Aspartate and glutamate have acidic side chains at


a. Acidic pH
b. Basic pH
c. Neutral pH
d. High pressure

429. Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the
physiological pH?
a. Valine
b. Leucine
c. Isoleucine
d. None of followings

430. The formation of dipeptide from two amino acids is accompanied by loss of
a. amine group
b. carboxyl group
c. sulfur
d. water molecule

431. Amino acids that can be found in proteins are


a. A- amino acids
b. B- amino acids
c. L- amino acids
d. D- amino acids

432. Proteins work in body to


a. transport and store oxygen and nutrients
b. speed up reactions
c. regulate important systems
d. all of above
433. An amino acid not found in proteins is
a. β – alanine
b. proline
c. lysine
d. histidine

434. Enzymes are protein in nature and are used as


a. biological catalyst
b. chemical catalyst
c. reaction inhibitor
d. reaction stopper

435. Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups


a) Alanine, leucine, isoleucine
b) Glycine, alanine, leucine
c) Lysine, arginine, histidine
d) Serine, threonine, cysteine

436. The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are
a) Aspartate and glutamate
b) Arginine and histidine
c) Cysteine and methionine
d) Proline and valine

437. Which among the following is both glucogenic and ketogenic?


a) Isoleucine
b) Leucine
c) Lysine
d) Histidine

438. Which of following amino acids is considered as both ketogenic and glycogenic?
a. Valine
b. Tryptophan
c. lysine
d. None of these

439. A ketogenic amino acid is


a. valine
b. cysteine
c. leucine
d. threonine

440. All of the following amino acids are both glycogenic as well as ketogenic except
a. isoleucine
b. leucine
c. tyrosine
d. phenylalanine
e. Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

1. During the formation of the peptide bond which of the following takes place?
a. Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen
atom is lost from its amino group of another amino acid
b. Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl
group is lost from its amino group of another amino acid
c. Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl
group is lost from its amino group of another amino acid
d. Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen
atom is lost from its amino group of another amino acid

441. The primary structure is represents


a. linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond
b. three dimentional structure of protein
c. helical structure of protein
d. sub unit structure of protein

442. The secondary structure is represents


a. linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond
b. three dimentional structure of protein
c. helical structure of protein
d. sub unit structure of protein

443. The tertiary structure is represents


a. Linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond
b. three dimentional structure of protein
c. helical structure of protein
d. sub unit structure of protein
444. The quaternary structure is represents
a. Linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond
b. three dimentional structure of protein
c. helical structure of protein
d. sub unit structure of protein

445. β-pleated sheets are the examples of


a. primary structure
b. secondary structure
c. tertiary structure
d. quaternary structure

446. A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds
in the same chain is
a. Primary structure
b. α-helix
c. β-pleated sheets
d. Tertiary structure

447. A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by
side is
a. primary structure
b. α-helix
c. β-pleated sheets
d. Tertiary structure

448. Secondary structure is defined by


a. hydrogen bonding
b. Vander Waals forces
c. covalent bonding
d. ionic bonding

449. Tertiary structure is maintained by


a. peptide bond
b. hydrogen bond
c. di-sulfide bond
d. all of the above

450. A tripeptide has


a. 3 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
b. 3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
c. 3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
d. 3 amino acids and 4 peptide bonds

451. Unfolding of a protein can be termed as


a. Renaturation
b. Denaturation
c. Oxidation
d. Reduction

452. What are the following is not a factor responsible for denaturation of proteins?
a. pH change
b. Organic solvents
c. Heat
d. Charge

453. The chirality of an amino acids results from the fact that its a carbon:
a. has no net charge
b. is a carboxylic acid
c. is bonded to four different chemical groups
d. is simmetric
454. Of the 20 standard amino acids, only ________ is not optically active.
a. alanine
b. glycine
c. lysine
d. proline

455. All of the amino acids that are found in proteins, except for proline, contain a(n):
a. amino group.
b. carbonyl group.
c. ester group.
d. thiol group.

456. Amino acids are ampholytes becouse they can function as either a(n):
a. acid or a base.
b. neutral molecule or an ion.
c. polar or a nonpolar molecule.
d. standard or a nonstandard monomer in proteins.

457. In highly basic solutuion, pH = 13, the dominant form of glucine is:
a. NH2 – CH2 – COOH
b. NH3+ – CH2 – COO-
c. NH2 – CH2 – COO-
d. NH3+ – CH2 – COOH

458. Proteins are polymers made of


a. α – amino acids
b. β- amino acids
c. α – fatty acids
d. monosaccharide’s

459. The amino acids are organic compounds contain


a. –NH2 and – COOH groups
b. –NH2 group
c. – COOH group
d. –NH2 and – COH groups

460. The amino acids are held together in a protein by


a. disulfide bond
b. hydrogen bonds
c. peptide bonds
d. ionic bond

461. The bonds in protein structure that are not broken on denaturation
a. disulfide bonds
b. hydrogen bonds
c. peptide bonds
d. ionic bonds
462. Structural proteins are
a. keratin, collagen, elastine
b. hemoglobin, albumin, globulins
c. actin, myosin
d. ovalbumin, casein

463. Contractile proteins are


a. keratin, collagen, elastine
b. hemoglobin, albumin, globulins
c. actin, myosin
d. ovalbumin, casein

464. Transport proteins are


a. keratin, collagen, elastine
b. hemoglobin, albumin, globulins
c. actin, myosin
d. ovalbumin, casein

465. Storage proteins are


a. keratin, collagen, elastine
b. hemoglobin, albumin, globulins
c. actin, myosin
d. ovalbumin, casein

466. Regulatory proteins are


a. keratin, collagen, elastine
b. hemoglobin, albumin, globulins
c. actin, myosin
d. insulin, glucagon

467. Catalytic proteins are


a. keratin, collagen, elastine
b. pepsin, chymotrypsin
c. actin, myosin
d. insulin, glucagon

468. The phenomen of disorganization of native protein structure is


a. denaturation
b. renaturation
c. replication
d. glycolysis

469. Insuline possess


a. primary structure
b. secondary structure
c. tertiary structure
d. quaternary structure
470. Myoglobin is a
a. protein with primary structure
b. protein with secondary structure
c. protein with tertiary structure
d. protein with quaternary structure

471. Hemoglobine possess


a. primary structure
b. secondary structure
c. tertiary structure
d. quaternary structure

472. The isoelectric pH for pepsine is


a. 1.1
b. 4.6
c. 6.7
d. 12.7

473. The isoelectric pH for casein is


a. 1.1
b. 4.6
c. 6.7
d. 12.7

474. The isoelectric pH for hemoglobin is


a. 1.1
b. 4.6
c. 6.7
d. 12.7

Nucleic acids
475. The key to ability of DNA to pass and store genetic information is
a. its hydrogen bonding
b. its double stranded structure
c. its deoxyribose sugar
d. its nitrogen base

476. Which of the following is true about DNA?


a. It is present in cell nucleus
b. It has single strand
c. It has ribose sugar
d. It is synthesized by RNA

477. Considering structure of DNA, each strand is made up of


a. deoxyribose sugar
b. phosphate sugar
c. nitrogen base
d. All of these

478. In the structure of DNA, how many strands are twisted around each other?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

479. The strands of DNA are held together by


a. covalent bond
b. ionic bond
c. hydrogen bond
d. dipole dipole interaction

480. Existence of RNA is in form of


a. single strand
b. double strand
c. triple strand
d. four strand

481. Which of the following is not true about RNA?


a. It is responsible for the directing synthesis of new proteins
b. It has single strand
c. It has deoxyribose sugar
d. It is synthesized by DNA

482. Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following


a. Cytosine
b. Thymine
c. Uracil
d. Adenine

483. Which of the following are not the components of RNA?


a. Thymine
b. Adenine
c. Guanine
d. Cytosine

484. What is the composition of nucleoside?


a. a sugar + a phosphate
b. a base + a sugar
c. a base + a phosphate
d. a base + a sugar + phosphate
485. What is the composition of nucleotide?
a. a sugar + a phosphate
b. a base + a sugar
c. a base + a phosphate
d. a base + a sugar + phosphate

486. Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by


a. phosphodiester bond
b. peptide bond
c. ionic bond
d. covalent bond

487. The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is


a. pentose
b. hexose
c. tetrose
d. triose

488. Building blocks of nucleic acids are


a. nucleotides
b. nucleosides
c. amino acids
d. histones

489. Number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?


a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

490. Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?


a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

491. According to Chargaff’s rule, in a DNA molecule


a. The amount of adenine and thymine is equal to the amount of guanine and cytosine
b. The amount of adenine and guanine is equal to the amount of thymine and cytosine
c. The amount of adenine and uracil is equal to the amount of guanine and cytosine
d. The amount of adenine and guanine is equal to the amount of uracil and cytosine

492. Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?


a. Does not have a double stranded structure
b. Thymine is present
c. Does not obey Chargaff’s rule
d. The sugar contained in RNA is a ribose
493. Which of the following nucleotides is not present in RNA?
a. AMP
b. GMP
c. CMP
d. TMP

494. Which of the following nucleotides is not present in DNA?


a. AMP
b. GMP
c. CMP
d. UMP

495. Which of the following involves in carrying genetic information from DNA for
protein synthesis?
a. m-RNA
b. t-RNA
c. r-RNA
d. sn-RNA

496. The nitrogenous base not present in DNA structure


a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. Urasil

497. The nitrogenous base not present in RNA structure


a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. Thymine

498. Nucleic acids are the polymers of


a. nucleotides
b. amino acids
c. nucleosides
d. nitrogenous bases

499. Transfer RNA (tRNA)


a. transfer amino acids form cytoplasm to ribosome
b. carries the genetic information for a protein from DNA to the ribosome
c. is a structural and functional component of the ribosome
d. carries all the genetic information in the cell

500. Messendger RNA (mRNA)


a. transfer amino acids form cytoplasm to ribosome
b. carries the genetic information for a protein from DNA to the ribosome
c. is a structural and functional component of the ribosome
d. carries all the genetic information in the cell

501. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)


a. transfers amino acids form cytoplasm to ribosome
b. carries the genetic information for a protein from DNA to the ribosome
c. is a structural and functional component of the ribosome
d. carries all the genetic information in the cell

502. The base pair G-C is more stable and stronger than A-T due to
a. double hydrogen bond
b. triple hydrogen bond
c. double phosphodiester bond
d. triple phosphodiester bond

503. The pyrimidine present in DNA but absent in RNA


a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. Thymine

504. The pyrimidine present in RNA but absent in DNA


a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. Urasil

505. Such carbohydrates enter in the compliment of nucleic acids are:


a. lacto glucose and mannose
b. ribose and deoxyribose
c. deoxyglucose and fructose

506. Deoxyribose can be distinguished from ribose by the absence of oxy group near:
a. first carbon
b. third carbon
c. second carbon

507. Type nucleoside connection between nitrous basis and carbohydrate is:
a. N-glycoside
b. OH-glycoside
c. hard efires

508. The products of hydrolysis of nucleoside is:


a. phosphate acid
b. nitrogenous basis and carbohydrates
c. nitrogenous basis and phosphate acid

509. Nucleoside which consist of uracil and ribose are called:


a. ureic acid
b. uridine
c. ribose

510. Nucleoside which consist of thymine and desoxyribose enters is called:


a. desoxyribose
b. deoxythymidine
c. deoxidized

511. Mononucleotides is:


a. phosphates of nucleotides
b. phosphates of carbohydrates
c. phosphates of nucleosides

512. Molecule ATP in the human organism is:


a. macroergic system
b. microergic system
c. power system

513. In a molecule of ATP energy provided in oneself is:


a. hard efires bonds
b. anhydride bonds
c. glycoside bonds

514. ATP takes part in activating:


a. amino acid
b. alcohols
c. fats

515. Primary structure of DNA is:


a. polynucleotide sequence
b. consistent of amino acid
c. polyglycoside sequence

516. Polynucleotide sequence is:


a. second structure of DNA
b. primary structure of DNA
c. spiral of DNA

517. Second structure of DNA is:


a. a double spiral involutes on the right
b. a spiral involutes to the left
c. linear chain of mononucleotides

518. Double spiral of DNA was set by scientists:


a. Watson and Krik
b. Boyl and Mariot
c. Shrouds-Goff and Pasters
519. The structure of the DNA duplex is supported:
a. by hard efires copulas between complementary bases
b. by hydrogen connections between complementary bases
c. by glycoside copulas between complementary bases

520. Complementary bases in the molecule of DNA are such pairs of bases:
a. A–G
b. U–C
c. A–T

521. Complementary bases in the molecule of DNA are such pair of bases:
a. A–G
b. G-C
c. A–C
Exam tests on Chemistry.
Thermodynamics.
Ism
1. Thermodynamics studies –
a. General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b. Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c. The rate of chemical reactions.
d. Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a. Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b. Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c. Open, Closed, Isolated
d. Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d. Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b. Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b. homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a. Open System
b. Closed System
c. Isolated System
d. Adiabatic System

7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a. Open System
b. Closed System
c. Isolated System
d. Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a. Open System
b. Closed System
c. Isolated System
d. Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a. Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b. Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c. Open, Closed, Isolated
d. Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a. A process during which the temperature T = const
b. A process during which the pressure P = const
c. A process during which the specific volume v = const
d. A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a. A process during which the temperature T = const
b. A process during which the pressure P = const
c. A process during which the specific volume v = const
d. A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a. A process during which the temperature T = const
b. A process during which the pressure P = const
c. A process during which the specific volume v = const
d. A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabatic process?


a. A process during which the temperature T = const
b. A process during which the pressure P = const
c. A process during which the specific volume v = const
d. A process during which the heat Q = 0

14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?


a. Isothermal process
b. Isobaric process
c. Isochoric (or isometric) process
d. Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a. Isothermal process
b. Isobaric process
c. Isochoric (or isometric) process
d. Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume V = const is called?


a. Isothermal process
b. Isobaric process
c. Isochoric (or isometric) process
d. Adiabaticprocess
17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?
a. Isothermal process
b. Isobaric process
c. Isochoric (or isometric) process
d. Adiabatic process

18. The basic formula for Entropy;


a. Q=∆U+A
b. H=U+pV
c. ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d. S = KlnW

19. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a. Q=∆U+A
b. H=U+pV
c. ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d. S = KlnW

20. Internal energy is called?


a. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d. The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

21. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a. Internal energy
b. Enthalpy
c. Entropy;
d. Exothermic process

22. Enthalpy is called?


a. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d. The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a. Internal energy
b. Enthalpy
c. Entropy;
d. Exothermic process

24. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat of the system are called?
a. Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b. Open, Closed, Isolated
c. Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d. Endothermic reactions

25. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat to surroundings are called


a. Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b. Open, Closed, Isolated
c. Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d. Exothermic reactions

26. System consisting of three phases is called


a. heterogeneous
b. homogeneous
c. isolated
d. open

27. System consisting of one phase is called


a. heterogeneous
b. homogeneous
c. isolated
d. open

28. What are the units of energy?


a. volta
b. pascal
c. litter
d) joule

29. Spontaneous process occurs only


a. without external energy
b. at constant temperature
c. in forward direction
d. with external energy help

30. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a. H = U + pV
b. ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c. H = G + TS
d. Qp = ∆H

31. The equation H= E + PV is applicable


a. always
b. only for constant pressure processes
c. only for constant temperature processes
d. only for constant volume processes

32. What occurs as two atoms of fluorine combine to become a molecule of fluorine?
a. A bond is formed as energy is absorbed.
b. A bond is formed as energy is released.
c. A bond is broken as energy is absorbed.
d. A bond is broken as energy is released.

33. To break a chemical bond, energy must be


a. absorbed
b. destroyed
c. produced
d. released

34. As two chlorine atoms combine to form a molecule, energy is


a. absorbed
b. released
c. created
d. destroyed

35. As energy is released during the formation of a bond, the stability of the chemical system
generally will
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain the same
d. absorbed

36. Which element has an atom with the greatest tendency to attract electrons in a chemical
bond?
a. carbon
b. chlorine
c. silicon
d. sulfur

37. Total energy of a system is


a. P.E + K.E
b. P.E + heat energy
c. K.E + heat energy
d. P.E + mechanical energ

38. When enthalpy formation of reactants is higher than product then reaction will be
a. endothermic
b. spontaneous
c. non-spontaneous
d. exothermic

39. Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by


a. calorimeter
b. manometer
c. Barometer
d. Thermometer

Chemical kinetics

40. Chemical kinetics studies –


a. energy changes during chemical transformations.
b. the rate of chemical reactions.
c. general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d. of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.
41. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?
a. Reversible reactions
b. Irreversible reactions
c. Soluble
d. Insoluble

42. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a. Reversible reactions
b. Irreversible reactions
c. Soluble
d. Insoluble

43. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?


a. N2O4 → 2NO2
b. 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c. 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d. 2HI → H2 + I2

44. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?


a. 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b. 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c. 2HI → H2 + I2
d. I2 → I • + I •

45. Which of these reactions is monomolecular?


a. 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b. Cl2 → 2Cl
c. 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d. 2HI → H2 + I2

46. Which of these reactions is monomolecular?


a. 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
b. 2HI → H2 + I2
c. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d. 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

47. Which of these reactions is monomolecular?


a. 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
b. 2HI → H2 + I2
c. NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d. 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

48. Which of these reactions is dimolecular?


a. CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
b. N2O4 → 2NO2
c. O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
49. Which of these reactions is dimolecular?
a. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b. 2HI → H2 + I2
c. N2O4 → 2NO2
d. O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

50. Which of these reactions is dimolecular?


a. N2O4 → 2NO2
b. O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c. Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

51. Which of these reactions is dimolecular?


a. N2O4 → 2NO2
b. O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d. H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

52. Which of these reactions is dimolecular?


a. 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b. N2O4 → 2NO2
c. O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

53. Which of these reactions is trimolecular?


a. O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b. I2 → I • + I •
c. CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d. N2O4 → 2NO2

54. Which of these reactions is trimolecular?


a. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b. 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c. 2HI → H2 + I2
d. Cl2 → 2Cl

55. Which of these reactions is trimolecular?


a. Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b. 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c. 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d. H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

56. Which of these reactions is trimolecular?


a. Cl2 → 2Cl
b. 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c. 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d. NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

57. Which of these reactions is trimolecular?


a. 2HI → H2 + I2
b. HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c. 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d. NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

58. Which of these reactions is trimolecular?


a. 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b. 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c. 2HI → H2 + I2
d. I2 → 2Cl

59. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a. Kc = [NH3]2 / [N2] + [H2]3 c. Kc = [NH3]2 / [N2] [H2]3
2
b. Kc = [NH3] / [N2] [H2] d. Kc = [N2] [H2]3 / [NH3]2

60. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a. Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2] c. Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
b. Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2 d. Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

61. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a. Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c. Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b. Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d. Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

62. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3(s) ↔ CaO(s) + CO2(g) reaction is


a. Keq = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
b. Keq = [CO2 ]
c. Keq = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d. Keq = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

63. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ 3H2 ↔ 2NH3 reaction will be shifted at
pressure elevation?
a. backward
b. forward
c. won’t shifted
d. towards reactants

64. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a. temperature
b. initial concentration of the reactants
c. time of reaction
d. extent of reaction

65. A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are
a. Unequal b. Constant c. Equal d. Increased
66. According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction
will
N2+O2= 2NO - 43200 cal
a. increase the yield of NO
b. decrease by yield of NO
c. hot effect on the yield of NO
d. hot help the reaction to proceed

67. As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases,
the rate of the reaction:
a. increases;
b. decreases;
c. remains the same;
d. approaches zero

68. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?
a. The number of moles of the reactants and products;
b. The potential energies of the reactants and products;
c. The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;
d. The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.

69. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:
a. decrease;
b. increase;
c. remain the same;
d. approach zero

Solutions
70. Molarity is expressed as
a. grams/litre b. litres/mole c. moles/litre d. moles/1000 gm

71. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in


a. 1000 gm of the solvent c. one litre of the solution
b. one litre of the solvent d. 22.4 litres of the solution

72. Normality is expressed as


a.moles/litre b.gm equivalents/litre c. moles/1000 gm d. gram/litre

73. What is the solution?


a. a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b. component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c. component of a solution present in the greater amount
d. amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

74. What is the solute?


a. a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b. component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c. component of a solution present in the greater amount
d. amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
75. What is the solvent?
a. a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b. component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c. component of a solution present in the greater amount
d. amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

76. What is the concentration?


a. a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b. component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c. component of a solution present in the greater amount
d. amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

77. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?


a. Solution
b. Solute
c. Solvent
d. Concentration

78. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?


a. Solution
b. Solute
c. Solvent
d. Concentration

79. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?


a. Solution
b. Solute
c. Solvent
d. Concentration

80. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a. Solution
b. Solute
c. Solvent
d. Concentration

81. Mass fraction is called?


a. The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
b. the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c. the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d. the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

82. Mass fraction is expressed in:


a. mol / kg.
b. percentage
c. mol / l.
d. g / ml.
83. The molar concentration is called?
a. the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b. the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c. the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d. the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

84. Molar concentration is expressed in:


a. mol / kg.
b. percentage
c. mol / l.
d. g / ml.

85. Molal concentration is expressed in:


a. mol / kg.
b. percentage
c. mol / l.
d. g / ml.

86. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a. Vant Hoff
b. Mendeleev
c. Arrhenius
d. Lomonosov

87. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a. 98 b. 2 c. 32 d. 49

88. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid


a. 98 b. 2 c. 32.6 d. 49

89. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide


a. 98 b. 37 c. 32 d. 49

90. “Activation energy” term is introduced by


a. coordination theory
b. theory of valent bonds
c. theory of active collisions
d. theory of electrolytic dissociation

91. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as


a. diluted solution
b. saturated solution
c. concentrated solution
d. unsaturated solution

92. Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in


a. high concentration
b. low concentration
c. high temeprature
d. low temeprature

93. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an
a. base
b. acid
c. salt
d. suspension

94. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a. molality
b. percentage
c. concentration
d. molarity

95. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a. colloid.
b. suspension
c. solution.
d. compound.

96. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a. solute. c. solution.
b. solvent. d. mixture.

97. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a. increasing the temperature c. increasing the volume
b. increasing the pressure d. decreasing the pressure

98. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a. hexane c. ethanol
b. sodium carbonate d. potassium chloride

99. Most salt become soluble in water as the


a. pressure is increased. c. temperature is decreased.
b. temperature is increased. d. pressure is decreased.

100. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a. Percent by mass c. Molarity
b. Molality d. Mole fraction

101. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a. Percent by mass c. Molarity
b. Molality d. Mole fraction

102. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more
concentrated solution.
a. Molarity c. Dilution
b. Normality d. Molality

103. In dilution of solution,


a. a solute is added to the solution.
b. solvent is added to the solution.
c. the amount of moles increases.
d. volume of solution decreases.

Colligative properties of solutions


104. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:
a. liquid, transparent, colored;
b. solid, liquid, turbid;
c. gaseous, liquid, solid;
d. liquid, turbid, colored.

105. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a. vapor pressure lowering;
b. density;
c. viscosity;
d. diffusion.

106. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as
a. the Henry’s law;
b. the Sechenov equation;
c. the Ostvald’s dilution law;
d. the Paul’s principle.

107. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes


a. hemolysis
b. plasmolysis
c. swelling
d. precipitation

108. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a.  = MRT;
b. Tf = Kf Cm;
c. Tb = KbCm;
d. Tf =iKf Cm.

109. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a. the number of the solute particles;
b. the chemical structure of solute;
c. catalysts;
d. pH scale.
110. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise
a. increases
b. remains same
c. decreases
d. no effect

111. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution


a. increases
b. remains same
c. Decreases
d. None of them

112. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise


a. increases
b. remains same
c. decreases
d. increases then decreases

113. For spontaneous processes


a. ∆H ≥ 0 b. ∆S ≤ 0 c. ∆G ≥ 0 d. ∆H≤ 0

114. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on


a. concentration
b. nature of solvent
c. temperature
d. nature of solute

115. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a. hypotonic
b. isoosmotic
c. saturated
d. hypertonic

116. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a. hypotonic
b. isoosmotic
c. saturated
d. isotonic

117. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a. hypotonic
b. isoosmotic
c. saturated
d. isotonic

118. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is
called
a. cryometry
b. osmometry
c. pH-metry
d. ebuliometry

119. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is
called
a. cryometry
b. osmometry
c. pH-metry
d. ebuliometry

120. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is
called
a. cryometry
b. osmometry
c. pH-metry
d. ebuliometry

121. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the


a. Nature of solute and solvent c. Temperature
b. Rate at which the gas dissolves d. Pressure

122. Which involves the colligative properties?


a. Heating of solvent.
b. Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c. Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d. Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

123. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a. osmosis
b. diffusion
c. active Transport
d. phagocytosis

124. The movement of water molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of
high concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a. Active Transport
b. Diffusion
c. Phagocytosis
d. Osmosis

125. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a. Active Transport c. Diffusion
b. Osmosis d. Phagocytosis

126. Colligative properties of the solution depend on


a. nature of solute
b. nature of solvent
c. number of particles present in the solution
d. number of moles of solvent only

127. Which one is a colligative property?


a. Boiling point
b. Vapour pressure
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Freezing point

128. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?


a. Osmotic pressure
b. Elevation of boiling point
c. Vapour pressure
d. Depression of freezing point

129. Which is not a colligative property?


a. Freezing point
b. Lowering of vapour pressure
c. Depression of freezing point
d. Elevation of boiling point

130. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number
of
a. Solute molecules to the solvent molecules
b. Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c. Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
d. Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

131. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute.
This law was given by
a. Raoult
b. Ostwald
c. Van’t Hoff
d. Lewis

132. When common salt is dissolved in water


a. melting point of the solution increases
b. boiling point of the solution increases
c. boiling point of the solution decreases
d. both melting point and boiling point decreases

133. What happens during osmosis?


a. Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.
b. Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.
c. Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.
d. Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.
134. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric
pressure?
a. 1000C c. melting point
b. boiling point d. freezing point

135. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)


a. electrolyte c. polar substance
b. nonelectrolyte d. nonpolar substance

136. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as


a. volatile c. electrolyte
b. nonvolatile d. nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.


Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

137. Acetic acid is weak because


a. It is unstable
b. It is an organic aliphatic acid
c. It is slightly ionized
d. None of these

138. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is


a. 8
b. 1 x 10-7
c. 7
d. 1

139. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is


a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
d. Amphoteric

140. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to


a. acidic impurities
b. ionization
c. hydrolysis
d. dissociation

141. FeCl3 solution is


a. acidic
b. basic
c. neutral
d. amphoteric

142. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is


a. neutral c. strongly acidic
b. weakly acidic d. alkaline

143. An aqueous solution of aluminium sulphate would show


a. an acidic reaction
b. a neutral reaction
c. a basic reaction
d. both acidic and basic reaction

144. Which one of the following is acidic salt?


a. Na2S
b. Na2SO3
c. NaHSO3
d. Na2SO4

145. Which salt can be classified as an basic salt?


a. Na2SO4
b. BiOCl
c. Pb(OH)Cl
d. Na2HPO4

146. Which one is not an acidic salt?


a. Na2H2PO4
b. Na3PO4
c. NaH2PO3
d. None of the above

147. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?


a. NaCl
b. NH4Cl
c. KCl
d. Na2SO4

148. Which one will not be hydrolysed?


a. Potassium nitrate
b. Potassium cyanide
c. Potassium succinate
d. Potassium carbonate

149. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?


a. CH3COOK c. KCl
b. NaNO3 d. K2SO4

150. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution


a. (NH4)2SO4
b. Ba(NO3)2
c. CrCl3
d. CuSO4
151. The aqeous solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from
a. a strong acid and strong base
b. a strong acid and weak base
c. a weak acid and weak base
d. a weak acid and strong base

152. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?
a. KNO3
b. NaOH
c. FeCl3
d. NaCN

153. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic
acid solution?
a. NH4Cl
b. Al2(SO4)3
c. AgNO3
d. NaCN

154. A buffer solution changes its pH


a. Increase in pH
b. Decrease in pH
c. No change in pH
d. No change in electrical conductivity

155. About buffer solution which in incorrect?


a. It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base
b. It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c. It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d. All of the above

156. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?


a. Strong acid and its salt of a weak base
b. Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c. Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d. Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

157. Which is a buffer solution?


a. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b. CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c. CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d. NaOH + NaCl

158. Which of the following is a buffer?


a. NaOH + CH3COONa
b. NaOH + Na2SO4
c. K2SO4 + H2SO4
d. NH4OH + NH4Cl
159. Which is not a buffer solution?
a. NH4Cl + NH4OH
b. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c. CH3COONa
d. Borax + Boric acid

160. pH of blood is
a. less than 6
b. greater than 7 and less than 8
c. greater than 8 and less than 9
d. greater than 10

161. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is


a. acetic acid + sodium acetate
b. boric acid + borax
c. citric acid + sodium citrate
d. All

162. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a. NaNO2; b. NaHCO3; c. Na2CO3; d. KMnO4.

163. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


a. electrons donors;
b. electrons acceptors;
c. protons donors;
d. protons acceptors.

164. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a. KCl/HCl; c. KHSO4/H2SO4;
b. NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4; d. NH3 /NH4Cl.

165. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


a) hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d) hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

166. According to the Bronsted theory bases are defined as:


a. electrons donor;
b. electrons acceptors;
c. protons donors;
d. protons acceptors.

167. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into


a. oxides, acid, base, salt
b. oxides, base
c. alkalis, salt, oxides
d. ampholytes, alkalis
168. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called
bases.
a. hydroxide (OH -)
b. hydrogen (H +)
c. ammonium cation (NH4+)
d. hydrogen cations (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH-)

169. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called
acids.
a) hydroxide(OH-)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH4+)
d) (H+) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

170. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a. pH<7 b. pH> 7 c. pH ~7 d. pH = 7

171. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a. pH<7 b. pH> 7 c. pH ~7 d. pH = 7

172. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution
of will be?
a. pH<7 b. pH> 7 c. pH ~7 d. pH = 7

173. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH
will be?
a. pH < 7 b. pH > 7 c. pH ~7 d. pH = 7

174. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

175. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a. acidic b.basic c. neutral d. none of them

176. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

177. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

178. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

179. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

180. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them
181. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate
a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

182. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

183. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

184. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

185. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite


a. acidic b.basic c. neutral d. none of them

186. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of


a. acid (H+-)
b. conjugate base (-OH-)
c. salt
d. both A and B

187. pH can be kept constant with help of


a. saturated solution
b. unsaturated solution
c. buffer solution
d. super saturated solution

188. Buffers present in blood contain


a. HCO3-
b. hemoglobin
c. H2PO4-
d. all of them

189. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a. aerobic respiration
b. anaerobic respiration
c. transpiration
d. photosynthesis

190. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a
buffer? Acetic acid, hydrochloric acid, potassium acetate and sodium chloride.
a. hydrochloric acid only c. acetic acid only
b. sodium chloride or potassium acetate d. acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

191. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a. oxide
b. ether
c. salt
d. alcohol
192. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a. salt
b. water
c. carbon dioxide
d. all of above

193. Salt among following is


a. HCl
b. KCl
c. HNO3
d. H3PO4

194. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a. neutralization
b. hydrogenation
c. halogenation
d. sublimation

195. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a. AH
b. HA
c. Ha
b. aH

196. Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is


a. high
b. low
c. same
d. constant

197. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining


a. concentration of acid c. concentration of water molecules
b. pH of solution d. both A and B

198. pH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing


a. concentration of acid
b. value of Ka
c. water potential
d. both A and B

199. Ka is called
a. acid dissociation constant
b. base dissociation constant
c. Avogadro constant
d. salt dissociation constant

200. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a. HNO3
b. HI
c. HBr
d. HNO2

201. Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a. MgCl2
b. Ba(NO3)2
c. LiClO4
d. CsBr

202. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:
a. water and a salt; c. a salt and hydrogen gas;
b. an acid and a base; d. a nonmetal oxid

203. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?


a. [H+] equals zero; c. [H+] is less than [OH-];
- +
b. [OH ] equals [H ]; d. [H+] is greater than [OH-]

204. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:


a. donate a proton; c. donate an electron pair;
b. yield H+ ions; d. acceptor of protons.

205. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:
a. increase; c. remain the same;
b. decrease; d. approach zero

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.

206. Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in


a. H2SO3 b. SO2 c. H2SO4 d. H2S

207. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a. H2S b. SO3 c. H2O2 d. F2

208. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :


a. O3 b. KMnO4 c.H2O2 d.K2Cr2O7

209. Reduction involves


a. Loss of electrons c. Increase in the valency of positive part
b. Gain of electrons d. Decrease in the valency of negative part

210. The strongest reducing agent is


a. HNO2 b. H2S c. H2SO3 d. SnCl2

211. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a. -1/3 b. -1 c. +1 d. -3

212. Oxidation involves


a. loss of electrons c. increase in the valency of negative part
b. gain of electrons d. decrease in the valency of positive part

213. In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a. Anode b. Cathode c. Both A & B d. The surface of the electrolyte solution

214. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a. -2 b. -1 c. 0 d. -4

215. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a. SO2 b. CaO c. Al2O3 d. CrO3

216. In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation
numbers
a. intermolecular b. intramolecular c. disproportion d. none of them

217. Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a. CH3COONa b. C2H5OH c. NaCl d. KOH

218. Element accepting electrons is called


a. product b. oxidant c. reactant d. reductant

219. One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a. F b.Cl c. He d. Na

220. The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:


a. -3 to +5 b. -1 to +1 c. -3 to -5 d. -5 to +1

221. Strong electrolytes are those which


a. Dissolve readily in water c. Dissociate into ions at high dilution
b. Conduct electricity d. Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

222. Which of the following conducts electricity?


a. crystal NaCl b. diamond c. molten KBr d. sulphur

223. In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a. Anode c. Both A & B
b. Cathode d. The surface of the electrolyte solution

224. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:


a. -1 b. -2 c. +4 d. 0

225. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:


a. +1 b. -2 c. - 4 d. 0

226. Element loosing electrons is called


a. product
b. oxidant
c. reactant
d. reductant

227. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a. the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b. the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c. the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d. the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical
systems in terms of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

228. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a. KMnO4→MnO2; c. HNO2→NO2;
b. Cl2O→HCl; d. P→H3PO4.

229. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


a. accepts electrons;
b. donates electrons;
c. increases its oxidation number;
d. decreases its concentration.

Biogenic elements

230. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:


a. in molecule of cytochrome b
b. in molecule of vitamin B12
c. in molecule of catalase
d. in molecule of vitamin B6

231. Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:


a. enzyme catalase
b. enzyme superoxide dismutase
c. cytochrome P450
d. glutathione peroxidase

232. Trace elements:


a. Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b. Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c. Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large
quantities
d. Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical
reactions on which life depends.

233. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a. neutral b. acidic c. basic d. Slightly Polar

234. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine


a. aliphatic b. aromatic c. heterocyclic d. complex
235. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in
a. acidic medium c. basic medium
b. neutral medium d. any medium

236. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in


a. acidic medium c. basic medium
b. neutral medium d. any medium

237. Bonds stabilizing secondary structure of proteins


a. coordination b. ionic c. hydrogen d.hydrofobic

238. Choose peptide bond


a.-CO-NH- b.–S-S- c.H2N–CH2– d. -C-C-

239. Lactose is
a. monose b. unreducing disaccharide c. amino acid d. reducing disaccharide

240. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a. coordination b. ionic c. hydrogen d. glycosidic

241. Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between
atoms
a. C5 and N1 b. C1 and N9 c. C3 and N9 d. C1 and N1

242. Bond between sugar rest and purine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a. C5 and N1 b. C1 and N9 c. C3 and N9 d. C1 and N1

243. Component of nucleotides is


a. protein b. amine acid residue c. OH- group d. thymine

244. Monomeric link of protein


a. sugar rest b. isoprene c. amine acid residue d. ethylene

245. DNA contains


a. cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b.cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c. cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d. thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

246. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a. neutral b. acidic c. basic d. slightly polar

247. Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

248. Choose disulphide bond


a. -CO-NH- b.–S-S- c. H2N–CH2– d. –C-C-
249. Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine
a. neutral b. acidic c. basic d. Slightly Polar

250. Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

251. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a.aliphatic b.aromatic c. heterocyclic d. complex

252. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a. aliphatic b.aromatic c. heterocyclic d. complex

253. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

254. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a. neutral b. acidic c. basic d. slightly polar

255. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a. aliphatic b. aromatic c. heterocyclic d. complex

256. Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

257. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

258. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a. aliphatic b. aromatic c. heterocyclic d. complex

259. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

260. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a. neutral b. acidic c. basic d. Slightly Polar

261. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

262. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

263. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a. neutral b. acidic c. basic d. Slightly Polar

264. The α-helix is a common form of


a. primary structure b.tertiary structure c. secondary structure d. none of these

265. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of


a. optical activity b. hydrogen bonding c. resonance d. delocalization

266. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by


a. sulphur-sulphur linkages c. hydrogen bonding
b. peptide bonding d. glycosidic bonds

267. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give


a. amino acids b. hydroxyl acids c. fatty acids d. alcohols

268. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces


a. ammonia and carbon dioxide b. urea and uric acid
c. a mixture of amino acids d. glycogen and a fatty acid

269. Which is a monosaccharide?


a.sucrose b. maltose c. galactose d. cellulose

270. Which is a disaccharide?


a. glucose b. maltose c. fructose d. cellulose

271. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?


a. ribose b. fructose c. sucrose d. glucose

272. The principal sugar in blood is


a. fructose b. glucose c. sucrose d. galactose

273. Glucose cannot be classified as


a. a hexose b. an oligosaccharide c. an aldose d. a monosaccharide

274. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?


a. it is a reducing sugar b. it is a disaccharide
b. it has a pyranose form d. it is a polyalcohol

275. Common table sugar is


a. glucose b. sucrose c. fructose d. maltose

276. Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?


a. glucose b. fructose c. lactose d. none of the above

277. Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?


a. it is also called table sugar
b. it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol
c. it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent
d. it reduces Fehling’s solution

278. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is


a. lactose b. sucrose c. maltose d. fructose
279. Starch
a. is a trisaccharide c. is also called amylopectin
b. is also called amylose d. is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin
Exam tests on Chemistry.
Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.

1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) + General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) + Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a) + Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) + Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) + Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a) + Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) + Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) + Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) + Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a) + A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) + A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) + A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) + A process during which the heat Q = 0
14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?
a) + Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) + Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) + Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) + Adiabatic process

18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?


a) + Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs

19. The basic formula for Entropy;


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) + S = KlnW

20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a) + Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW
21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.
a) Q=∆U+A
b) + H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

22. Internal energy is called?


a) + Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a) + Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

24. Enthalpy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) + Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a) Internal energy
b) + Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

26. The heat transfer are divided into


a) + Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

27. What is the thermal conductivity?


a) + The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
28. What is the convection?
a) The material to conduct heat.
b) + Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

29. What is the radiation?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) + The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) + Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

31. What is the endothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) + Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

32. What is the exothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) + Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Endothermic reactions

34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Exothermic reactions

35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.


a) + ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) Q= ΔU+ W
d) + ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) + ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

38. System consisting of three phases is called


a) + heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

39. System consisting of one phase is called


a) heterogeneous
b) + homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

40. What is the heterogeneous system?


a) + System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

41. What is the homogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) + System consisting of one phase is called
42. What are the units of energy?
a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d) + joule

43. Spontaneous process occurs only

a) + without external energy


b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help

44. Internal energy is ……


a) + energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness

45. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a) + H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H

46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) A
b) G
c) + Qp
d) H

47. Find state parametre


a) Q
b) G
c) + T
d) H

48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) Q
b) G
c) + Qp
d) S
49. Find state parameter
a) Q
b) G
c) + v
d) H
50.For spontaneous processes
a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics

51. Chemical kinetics studies –

a) energy changes during chemical transformations.


b) + the rate of chemical reactions.
c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?


a) + Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction
53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) + Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular
54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) + Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?
a) + Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?


a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.

58. Enzymes is a substance that …

a) increase the rate of reaction


b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) + biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate

59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-


a) + Catalyst
c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor
d) Reducing agents.

60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

a) Catalyst
b) + Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?
a) + a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel
62. Irreversible reactions are called?
a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) + a change that cannot go back
c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution

63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?


a) + Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) + Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

65. A material that dissolves is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) + Soluble
d) Insoluble

66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) + Insoluble

67. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) + N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

68. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S


b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) + I2 → I • + I •
69. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?
a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b) + Cl2 → 2Cl
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

70. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

71. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

72. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) + CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

73. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH


b) + 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
74. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) + Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
75. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) + H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O
76. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?
a) + 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

77. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) + O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

78. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b) + 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

79. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) + 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) + 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

81. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) + HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

82. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) + 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl

83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
c) + Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
b) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
c) + Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a) + Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is


a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) + K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]

87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is


a) + K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) + backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants

89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a) + Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction

90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c) + Time
d)Temperature

91. A catalyst is a substance which


a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) + Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) + Active mass

93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

a) + Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite

94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

a) Unequal
b)Constant
c) + Equal
d) Increased

95. The law of mass action was enunciated by

a) + Guldberg and Waage


b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham

96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction


will

N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

a) + Increase the yield of NO


b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed
97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?

a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;

b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;

c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;

d) + the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;

b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;

c) + the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;

d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

a) + increases;

b) decreases;

c) remains the same;

d) approaches zero

100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;

b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;

c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;

d) + The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.


101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

a) decrease;

b) increase;

c) + remain the same;

d) approach zero

102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;

b) add a catalyst;

c) cool the reaction down;

d) + use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?

I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

a) II only;

b) III only;

c) I and II only;

d) + II and III only

Solutions.

104. Molarity is expressed as

a)grams/litre

b) litres/mole

c) + moles/litre

d) moles/1000 gm

105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in


a) + 1000 gm of the solvent

c)onelitre of the solution

b) one litre of the solvent

d) 22.4 litres of the solution

106. Normality is expressed as

a)moles/litre

b) + gm equivalents/litre

c)moles/1000 gm

d)gram/litre

107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

a) 1 N

b) 10 N

c) + 2.7 N

d) + 1.7 N

108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

a) + 13N
b) 0x1N
c) +1N
d) None

109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

a) 0x1
b) + 2.0
c) + 1.0
d) 0.4

110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

a) + 5.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) + 2.04 N
d) 0.35 N

111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?


a) 0.5 N
b) + 3.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) + 3.6 N

112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

a) +4N
b) + 47 N
c) N/2
d) N/4

113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is

a) + 4.6 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) + 3.6 N

114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

a) 4g
b) + 16 g
c) +1g
d) 10 g

115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) + 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M

116. The molarity of pure water is

a) + 5.6
b) + 55.6
c) 100
d) 18

117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

a) 1
b) + 10
c) 18
d) 100

118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

a) 1
b) +3
c) +9
d) 1.5

119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) + 1.0 M

120. What is the solution?


a) + a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
121. What is the solute?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) + component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
122. What is the solvent?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) + component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
123. What is the concentration?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) + amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

a) + Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

a) Solution
b) + Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) + Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) + Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?

a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.


b) + the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

129. Mass fraction is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) + percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction


neq msolute
a) C E = c) + =
V m solution

CM CEME
T= = msubstance•1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M • m solution

131.The molar concentration iscalled?

a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:


b) + the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

132. Molar concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration


neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution

nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) + d) M • m solution

134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?


a) + the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent

a) msolute c) + neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance•1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

137. The molal concentration is:


a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) + the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

138. Molal concentration is expressed in:

a) + mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration

a) + msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

140. Find volume concentration


a) mass percent
b) + normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction

141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) + Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov

142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a) 98
b) 2
c) 32
d) + 49
143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid
a) 98
b) 2
c) + 32.6
d) 49
144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide
a) 98
b) + 37

c) 32
d) 49
145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by
a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) + theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation

146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

a) + diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution

147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

a) + high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature

148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an

a) base
b) + acid
c) salt
d) suspension

149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) + molarity

150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) + solution.
d) compound.

151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a) solute. c)solution.
b) + solvent. d) mixture.

152. Which of the following is not a solution?


a) + zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel

153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?


a) + alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene

154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?


a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d) + dental amalgam

155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?


a) + It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.

156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is


a) + concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.

157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b) + increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure

158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?


a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction
b) + Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction

159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) + 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution

160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a.) + hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride
161. Most salt become soluble in water as the
a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b) + temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.

162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a) + Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b) + Molality d)Mole fraction

164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity
c) + Dilution
b)Normality
d)Molality

165. In dilution of solution,


a) a solute is added to the solution.
b) + solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.

166. A 40% alcohol contains


a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b) + 40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

Colligative properties of solutions.

167. Solutions are:


а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c) + homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

168. Solubility of solids depends upon:


a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) + all answers are right.

169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:


a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) + gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) + solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) + vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.

172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) + The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.

173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:


a) Hemolysis;
b) + Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.
174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:
a) + 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.

175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:


а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile solutes;
d) + boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) + concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.

177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:


а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) + 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:


a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure solvents;
b) + Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.
179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:
a) + The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.

180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:


a) + to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.

181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:


a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d) + A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:


a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) + Osmotic pressure.

183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:


a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
b) + 1.0×10-1osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.
184. Osmolarity is:
a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) + the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.

185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a) +  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:


a) + 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a) + the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.

188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise


a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect
189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution

a) increases
b) remains same
c) + Decreases
d) None of them
190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise
a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases

191. For spontaneous processes


a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0

c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0
192. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on
a) concentration
b) + nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute
193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) + molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate
194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + Hypertonic

195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) + hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + isotonic
197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) + isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) + osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) + cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) + ebuliometry
201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b) + Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure

202. Which involves the colligative properties?


a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c) + Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) + Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis

204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis
d) + Osmosis

205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) + Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Osmosis
d)Phagocytosis

206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on

a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) + Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only

207. Which one is a colligative property?

a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point

208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) + Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.

209. Which is not a colligative property?

a) + Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point

210. Which of the following is a colligative property?

a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point

211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules


b) + Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by
a) + Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis

213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) + Mole fraction of solute

214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

a) + An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion

215. When common salt is dissolved in water

a) M. p. of the solution increases


b) + B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

a) + Molecular wt. of solute


b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these

217. When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then


phenomenon taking place is called

a) + Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis

218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) + П / C = ST

219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

a)less than c) + greater than

b)the same as d) greater than or equal to

220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) + Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.

221. What happens during osmosis?


a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.

b) + Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.

c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.

d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.

222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.


b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.

c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) + The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increase

223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) + boiling point d) freezing point

224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

a) + electrolyte c) polar substance


b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance

225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as

a) + volatile
b)electrolyte
c) nonvolatile
d) nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.

Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

226. Acetic acid is weak because

a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) + It is slightly ionized
d) None of these

227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw
at this temperature will be

a) + 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5

228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) + 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9

229. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2%
ionized weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

a) 0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively


b) 1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
c) 2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
d) 3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

230. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

a) 10-12
b) + 10-2
c)10-4
d)10-13
231. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

a) 10-13
b) 1013
c) + 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010

232. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

a) 10
b) +7
c) 1
d) 14

233. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) + Between 6 and 7

234. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

a) 8
b) + 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1

235. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

236. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) + Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation

237. FeCl3 solution is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

238. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

a) Neutral
b) c)Strongly acidic
c) Weakly acidic

d) + Alkaline

239. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

a) + An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction

240. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) + Almost neutral

241. Which one of the following is acid salt?

a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) + NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4

242. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) + Na2HPO4

243. Which one is not an acid salt?

a) Na2H2PO4
b) + NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above

244. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?


a) NaCl
b) + NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4

245. Which one will not be hydrolysed?

a) + Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate

246. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?

a) + CH3COOK
b) KCl
c) NaNO3
d) d)K2SO4

247. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

a) Weakly acidic
b) + Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic

248. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

a) (NH4)2SO4
b) + Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4

249. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

a) A strong acid and strong base


b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) + A weak acid and strong base

250. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) + FeCl3
d) NaCN

251. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?

a) + NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN

252. A buffer solution changes its pH

a) Increase in pH
b) Decrease in pH
c) + No change in pH
d) No change in electrical conductivity

253. About buffer solution which in incorrect?

a) It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base


b) It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c) + It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d) All of the above

254. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

a) Strong acid and its salt of a weak base


b) Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c) + Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d) Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

255. Which is a buffer solution?

a) + CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl

256. Which of the following is a buffer?

a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) + NH4OH + NH4Cl

257. Which is not a buffer solution?

a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) + CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid

258. pH of blood is

a) Less than 6
b) + Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9
d) Greater than 10

259. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

a) + Acetic acid + Sodium acetate


b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All

260. Give name to positively charged particles:

а) radicals;
b) molecules;
c) anions;
d) + cations.

261. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a) NaNO2;
b) + NaHCO3;
c) Na2CO3;
d) KMnO4.
262. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) + Low water ionization constant.
263. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) + Ion product for water.
264. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M;
b) 0.001M;
c) + 0.1 M;
d) 1.0M.

265.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:


a) + Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.

266. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


а) Electrons donors;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) + Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

267. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl;
b) KHSO4/H2SO4;
c) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
d) + NH3 /NH4Cl.

268. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:


a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) + All answers are right.

269. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


а) + Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

270. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:


а) Electrons donor;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) + Protons acceptors.

271. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:


a) + pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.

272. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into


a) + oxides, acid, base, salt
b) oxides, base
c) Alkalis, salt, oxides
d) Ampholytes, Alkalis

273. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.
a) + hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

274. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) + hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

275. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a) + pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

276. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) + pH = 7

277. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7
b) + pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

278. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH>7
c) + pH ~7
d) pH = 7

279. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

280. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

281. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

282. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


A + ) acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

283. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a) acidic b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them
e
284. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

285. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

286. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a) + acidic
) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

287. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

288. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

289. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

290. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

291. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

292. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

ld) none of them

293. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

294. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite


a) acidic
b) + basic
c)
d) c)neutral
e) d) none of them

295. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide


a) 2
b) 11
c) + 13
d) 7

296. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide


a) 2
b) 10
c) 1
d) +13

297. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide


a) 2
b) + 13
c) 1
d) 7
298. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of
a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) + both A and B

299. PH can be kept constant with help of


a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) + buffer solution
d) super saturated solution

300. Buffers present in blood contain


a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) + all of them

301. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a) + aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis

302. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase
b) c)carbolic hydrase

c) + carbonic anhydrase

d) d)carbonic hydrase

303. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

a) hydrochloric acid only


b) + acetic acid only
c) sodium chloride or potassium acetate
d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

304. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a) oxide
b) ether
c) + salt
d) alcohol
305. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) + all of above
306. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) + KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
307. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) + neutralization
b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation

308. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a) AH
b) + HA
c) Ha
d) aH

309.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is


a) high
b) + low
c) same
d) constant
310. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid
b) concentration of water molecules
c ) pH of solution
d) + both A and B
311. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
a) concentration of acid
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) + both A and B

312. Ka is called
a) + acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant

313. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) + HNO2

314.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) + LiClO4
d) CsBr

315. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?


a) H2O
b) + KF
c) HF
d)HNO2

316.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) + HCN

317. A stronger base:

a) is also a stronger acid;

b) tastes sour;

c) + is also a stronger electrolyte;

d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution

318. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

a) water and a salt;

b) an acid and a base;

c) + a salt and hydrogen gas;

d) a nonmetal oxid

319. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

a) HCl;
b) H2CO3;

c) + KOH;

d) CH3CH2OH;

320. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

a) 1×10-11 M;

b) + 1×10-5 M;

c) 1×10-7 M;

d) 1×10-6M;

321. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H + ions. This
substance is:

a) KOH;

b)CH4

c) + H2SO4;

d) NH3

322. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

a) [H+] equals zero;

b) [H+] is less than [OH-];

c) [OH-] equals [H+];

d) + [H+] is greater than [OH-]

323. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

a) donate a proton;

b)donate an electron pair;


c) yield H+ ions;

d) + acceptor of protons.

324. What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 4

0.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

a) 100.0 mL;

b) 80.0 mL;

c) 40.0 mL;

d) + 20.0 mL

325. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

a) + increase;

b) remain the same;

c) decrease;

d) approach zero

326. Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

a) 1;

b) 7;

c) 10;

d) + 14.

327. The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

a) a single replacement;

b) the process of hydrolysis;

c) + a neutralization reaction;
d) a synthesis reaction;

328. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

a) A pH of 2 is three times as strong;

b) + A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;

c) A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

d) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as weak;

329. Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

a) chlorous acid; b) acetic acid;

c) + perchloricacid;

d) hypochlorous acid

330. Which of the following statements is true?

a) NaCl is a neutral salt; c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.

b) KOH is an acid; d) NaBr is basic salt.

331. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?

a) OH- and H2O; c) HCl and Cl-;

b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-; d) NH3 and NH4+;

332. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF; c) SO2 + H2O → H2SO3;

b) + 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2; d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

333. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;

b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;


c) HI is hydroiodic acid;

d) + HClO2 is chloric acid

334. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?

a) AgCl; b) PbBr2; c) Ca3(PO4)2; d) + Na2CO3

335. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:

a) + unsaturated; b) supersaturated; c) saturated; d) dilute

336. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate
and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a)Cl-; b) + 2Na+; c) CaCO3d) all of the substances above

337. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a) 1.5 m NaCl; c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;

b) 1.5 m AgCl; d) + 2.0 m CaCl2

338. Which equation is correctly balanced?

a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;

b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;

c) + 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;

d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;

Unit 2.

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.


339 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in
a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d) + H2S
340. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c) + H2O2 d)F2
341. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b) + KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
342. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d) + x=2 y=3 z=10
343. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b) + Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
344. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b) + H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2

345. An electrolyte is one


a)Which conducts electric current c) + Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above

346. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to


a)Dilution b) + number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution

347. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) + -3

348. Which of the following is an insulator?


a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) + Diamond d)Silicon

349. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O


a)X=4 y=6 b) + x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8

350. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O


a) + 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
351. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a) + F2
b)Cl2
c)Br2
d)I2

352. Oxidation involves


A) + Loss of electrons
b)Increase in the valency of negative part
c)Gain of electrons
d)Decrease in the valency of positive part

353. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

354. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a)-2
b) + -1
c) 0
d) -4

355. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a) + SO2
b)CaO
c)Al2O3
d)CrO3

356.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular
b) intramolecular
c) + disproportion
d) none of them

357.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a) CH3COONa
b) + C2H5OH
c)NaCl

d)KOH

358 Element accepting electrons is called


a) product
b) + oxidant
c) reactant
d) reductant

359.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F
b) + Cl
c)He
d)Na

360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:


a) + -3 to +5
b)-1 to +1
c)-3 to -5

d) -5 to +1

361.Strong electrolytes are those which


a)Dissolve readily in water
b)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
c)Conduct electricity
d) + Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

362.Which of the following conducts electricity?


a) crystal NaCl
b)diamond
c) + molten KBr
d)sulphur

363. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

364. Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode


a) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

365. Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

366. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:


a) + -1
b) -2
c)+4
d) 0

367. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:


a) +1
b) + -2
c)- 4
d) 0
368. Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode
a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

369. Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

370. In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation numbers
a) + intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) intramolecular
d) disproportion

371. In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed


a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) counter disproportion
d) + disproportion

372. Element loosing electrons is called


a) product
b) oxidant
c) reactant
d) + reductant

373. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a) + the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in terms
of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

374. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a) KMnO4→MnO2;
b) HNO2→NO2;

c) Cl2O→HCl;

d) + P→H3PO4.
375. Point out the correct statements:
a) + A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
b) A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
c) High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
d) Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

376. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1;
b) + 6;
c) 14;
d)3.

377. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

a) Mn(OH)2;

b) MnO42-;

c) + MnO2;

d) Mn2+.

378. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

a) Fe2O3 + HCl;

b) + FeCl3+H2S;

c) Fe+ HCl;

d) SO3+NaOH.

379. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

а) 2; b) + 5; c) 10; d) 3.

380. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


а) + accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.

381. Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:
a) Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
b) Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
c) Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
d) + Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

382. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) + 1-

383. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?a)
HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) + KClO4

384. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

a) Al; b) Fe; c) + Fe3+; d) Al3+

385. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

; a) + loses 1 electron b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton

386. . In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) + Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni

387. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) + 10
388. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

a) it allows ion migration; c) + it allows electron migration;

b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;

389. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) + F2; d) I2

390. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:

a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) + electrolysis; d) hydrolysis

Biogenic elements.

391. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

a) in molecule of cytochrome b

b) + in molecule of vitamin B12

c) in molecule of catalase

d) in molecule of vitamin B6

392) Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

a) enzyme catalase

b) + enzyme superoxide dismutase

c) cytochrome P450

d) glutathione peroxidase

393) Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

a) hypervitaminosis

b) + hypovitaminosis

c) avitaminosis

d) acidosis

394) Vitamin A deficiency can cause:


a) + xeroftalmia

b) increased blood coagulation

c) growth acceleration

d) anemia

395) The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

a) vitamin D

b) + vitamin B1

c) vitamin K

d) thiamine

396. ZnO is used as

a) protective

c) + both (a) & (b)

b) astringent

d) antidote

397. Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

a) oxidation

b) protein precipitate

c) halogenation

d) + all of the above

398. Hydrogen peroxide is used as

a) + antiseptic

b) acidifying agent

c) protective

d) antioxidant

399. KMnO4 solutions are used for

a) antibacterial
b) antifungal

c) + both of the above

d) antioxidant

400. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these

elements:

a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;

b) + H, P, S, C, O, N;

c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;

d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

401. Choose biogenic macroelement

a)Cu

b) + P

c)Br

d)As

402. Choose biogenic microelement


a) + Cu
b)S
c)Ca
d)Mg

403. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) + 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm

404. Six major biogenic elements :


a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
c) + Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.

405.Five minor biogenic elements:


a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) + Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

406. Trace elements:


a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) + Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

407. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12%
b) + 10-3– 10-5 %
c)10-9%
d) 10-2%

408. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a) + 10-2%
b) 10-9%
c) 10-3– 10-5 %

d) 10-7% - 10-12

409. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + Zn

410. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) + Fe
c) N
d) C

411. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + I

412. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) + P
b) Cl
c)Cu
d) I
Choose biogenic macroelement
a) Pb
b) +Ca
c) I
d) Ne

413. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) l
c) + O
d) Mn

414. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) + C
c)Cu
d) I

Complex compounds.

415. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:


a)+1
b) + +3
c)-1
d)-3

416. A coordination compound consists of


a) a metal ion and counterions
b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions
d) + a metal ion bound to one or more ligands

417. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:


a)0
b)+4
c) + +3
d)+6

418. Name the following coordination compound:


K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II)
b) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
c ) potassium cyanoferrate(II)
d) + potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
419. The coordination number is:
a) + The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex

420. Number of hem sections in mioglobin


a) + 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

421. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2


a) + cationic
b) anionic
c) monodentate
d) neutral

422. Ethylenediamine would be called


a) dentate
b) + bidentate
c) tridentate
d)tetradentate

423. Name the following coordination compound:


[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) + triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

424. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?


(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
(3) chloride, Cl- (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5
b)1, 5, 6
c) + 1, 6
d) 2, 3, 4, 5

Ca3  Fe(CN)6 2
425. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0
b) 1+
c) 2+
d) + 3+

426. Number of hem sections in hemoglobin


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) + 4

427. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound


a) + central ion
b) ligands
c) outer sphere ions
d) all constituents

428.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements


a) does’tchang
b) increases
c) + decreasis
d) none

429.Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps


a) 0
b) 1
c) + 2 and more
d) always without steps

430. Dentantness of porfyrin


a) 2
b) + 4
c) 6
d) 5

431.Particles playing role of ligands are


a) positive ions
b) chelates
c) + negative ions
d) complex ions

432. A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its
formula.
a) [Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
b) [ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
c) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
d) + [CrCl2(H2O)4]

433. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?


a) +1
b) + +3
c) -2
d) 0

434. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?


a) carbonyl; b) nitro;
b)
c) acetate;
d) + oxalate.

435. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?


a) + [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
b) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
c) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

436. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?


a) + Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

437. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?


a) + Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper

438. Ligand «en» is an example of:


a) + bidentate ligand;
b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand;
d) hexadentate ligand.

439. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is


a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) + Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

440. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


a) cationic
b) + anionic
c) trigonal

d) neutral

441. Donor of electrons in coordination compound


a)central ion
b)outer sphere ions
c) + ligands
d) none

442. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements


a) doesn’t change
b) + increases
c) decreases
d) none of them

443.Coordination number of iron in hem


a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) + 6

444. Dentatness of EDTA


a) 2
b) 3

c) + 4
d) 6

445. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability


a) increases b) doesn’t change c) + decreases d) none of them

446. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) + donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

447. Particles playing role of central ion are


a) + positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions

448. Find ligand of weak field


a) + OH-
b) Au
c) CN-
d) Fe2+

449. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?


a) + Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)

450. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)


a) + K3[Fe(CN)6]
b) (CN)6[Fe K2]
c) Fe [K2(CN)6]
d) [FeK2(CN)6

451. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?


a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) + tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

452.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate


a) [(en)3Co]SO4
b) [SO4(en)3]Co
c) [Co(en)3SO4]
d) + [Co(en)3]SO4

453. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?


a) linear;

b) octahedral;

c) + tetrahedral;

d) trigonal

454. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) + electrostatic model

455. Find ligand of strong field


a) OH-
b) Au
c) Cl-
d) + NH3

456. Dentatness of ligand is


a) number of central ions
b) charge of central ion
c) + number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number
Unit 3.

Colloids.
457. Disperse systems consists of:

a) + dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
d) sol, gel

458. Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

a) dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) + coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
c) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
d) sol, gel

459. What is a disperse system?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

460. Coarse systems include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) Gel, suspensions.

461. What is the Emulsion?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

462. What is the suspension?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

463. What is the aerosol?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) + It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

464. Sols are:


a) gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) + blood, lymph.
c) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
d) Blood, jelly, marmalade.

465. Gels are:


a) + gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
c) blood, lymph.
d) blood, jelly, marmalade.

466. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:


a) medical products
b) colored glass
c) + pumice
d) fog

467. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:


a) Soil
b) + Moist soil
c) Rocks
d) fog

468. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) natural gas
b) + gas from oil droplets
c) smog
d) colored glass

469. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) natural gas
b) aerosols
c) + dust storms
d) pearl

470. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) Fizzy drinks, foam
b) + body fluids
c) pastes,mortar
d) smog

471. Colloidal solutions include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) saline solution in water

472. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:


a) cosmetic products
b) porous chocolate
c) + some alloys
d) fog

473. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

a) Dust in the air


b) Aerosol
c) Fog
d) + Does not exist

474. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) + Sols
b) Emulsion oil
c) Fizzy drinks
d) Fog

475. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

a) cream, milk
b) + foam
c) pastes
d) chocolate

476. Colloid particles have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 m
c) + 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -7 m

477. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) negative
b) + positive
c) without charge
d) zero

478. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
a) + Ba2+
b) H+
c) SO4 2-
d) H+

479. Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing


a) condensation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

480. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaCl
b) + Сa3(PO4)2
c) CaCl2
d) FeCl3

481. Optical property typical to colloid systems


a) reflection
b) absorption
c) + scattering
d) diffusion

482. Find optical property


a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) electroosmosis
d) + absorption
483. Emulsion is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) g/l

484. Powder is
a) l/s
b) l/l
c) s/l
d) + s/g

485. Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties


a) μ
b) η

c) + φ
d) ξ

486. Particles of coarse systems have sizes of


a) + greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -9 - 10 -7 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -9 m

487. Particles of true solutions have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) + less than 10 -7 m

488. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =


a) + positive
b) negative
c) without charge
d) zero

489. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) none
b) Cl-
c) SO4 2-
d) + Ba2+
490. Choose condensation method of colloids producing
a) coagulation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

491. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) none

492. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Ag Cl

c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) Ba(NO3) 2

493. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) PbS
d) Ba(NO3) 2

494. Optical property typical to coarse systems


a) reflection
b) scattering
c) + absorption
d) diffusion

495. Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one


a) absorption
c) Brownian movement
c) + osmosis

d) diffusion

496. Aerosol is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) s/g
497. Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties
a) μ

b) η

c) m

d) +

498. Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:
a) + Suspensions;
b) b) Electrolytes;
c) c) Molecular solutions;
d) d) Alloys.

499. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:


a) + Colloids;
b) b)Gas mixtures;
c) c) Saturated solutions
d) ; d) Alloys.

500. The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:


a) Coagulation;
b) + Tyndall effect;
b) c) Peptization;
c) d) Dialysis.

501. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:


a) Osmosis;
b) Diffusion;
c) + Brownian motion;

d) Coagulation .

502. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:


a) + Aerosol;
b) b) Emulsion;
c) c) Sol;
d) d) Foam.

503. Fog and smoke are:


a) + Aerosols;
b) b) Emulsions;
c)
d) c) Gels;
e) d) Foams.

504. Sol consists of:


a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) + Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;
d) liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid.

505. Stability of a disperse system is:


a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) + Constancy in time of its state and main properties.

506. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:


a) + Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.

507. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:


a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) + {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.

508. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
a) + Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.

509. The methods of cleaning colloidal solutions are:


a) Compensation dialysis; dialysis;
b) Condensation; crystallization;
c) Sublimation; distillation;
d) + Filtration; ultra filtration.

510. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:


a) N2;
b) H2O;
c) + CO2;
d) O2.

511. Aerosol is:


a) Powder;
b) Dust cloud;
c) Hairspray;
d)+ All answers are right.

512. Emulsion is:


a) + Milk;
b) b) Foam;
c) c) Jelly;
d) d) Fog.
513. Biological gel is:
a) + Cartilage;
b) air;
c) clouds;
d) river water.

514. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:


a) These are heterogeneous systems;
b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) + All answers are right.

515. Coarse disperse system is:


a) Solution;
b)Sol;

c 0+ Suspension;

d)Gel.

516. Chromatography is:


a) + The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

517. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:
a) + Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

518. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:


a) + Fog;
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.

519. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:
a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) + Size of particles;
d) Odor.

520. Emulsion is:


a) + Butter;
b) b) River ooze;
c) c) Stained glass;
d) d) Textile fabrics.

521. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:


a) + Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right

522. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
d) + On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

523. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

a) + Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.

524. Coagulation is:

a) Chaotic movement of particles;

b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;

c) Destruction of the native protein structure;

d) + The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby separate
from the continuous phase.

525. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

a) Viscosity, flowability;

b) + Opalescence, light absorption;

c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;

d) dissolution, swelling.

526. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

a) Opalescence;

b) Electrodialysis;

c) Light absorption;

d) + Electrophoresis and electroosmosis.

527. A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

a) Negatively charged;

b) Electro neutral;

c) Positively charged;
d) + Negatively and positively charged.

528. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

a) Diameter

b)Particle size

c)radius

d) + solubility

529. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

a) +suspension> colloidal > true solution

b)true solution > suspension > colloidal

c) suspension> colloidal = true solution

d) none of the above

530. Colloids can be purified by

a) peptization

b) coagulation

c) + dialysis

d) bredic arc method

531. which is a natural colloid?

a) sodium chloride

b)urea

c)cane sugar

d) + blood

532. Which one of the following is not a colloid

a) milk

b) blood

c)ice cream
d) + urea solution

533. Milk is a colloid in which

a) + a liquid is dispersed in liquid

b) a gas is dispersed in liquid

c) a solid is dispersed in liquid

d)some sugar is dispersed in water

534. an aerosol is a colloidal system of

a) aliquid dispersed in a solid

b) a gas dispersed in air

c) + a liquid dispersed in a gas

d)none of the above

535. Which of the following is a homogeneous system

a) muddy water b)bread c)concrete d) +a solution of sugar in water

536. Which of the following is an emulsifier?

a) + soap

b)water

c)oil

d)NaCl

537. Lyophobic colloids are

a) reversible colloids

b) + irreversible colloids

c)protective colloids

d)gum proteins

538. Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

a)condensation

c)diffusion through animal membrane


b)dialysis

d) + addition of an electrolyte

539. Colloidal solutions are not purified by

a) dialysis

b) electrodialysis

c) ultrafiltration

d) + electrophoresis

540. Suspensions are

a) + visible to naked eye

c) invisible under electron microscope

b) not visible by any means

d) invisible through microscope

541. Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

a) + gelatin

b) sulphur

c) gold

d) carbon

542. Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

a) lyophilic sol

b) + associated colloid

c) hydrophobic sol

d) emulsion

543. The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

a) + charge on their particles

b) a layer of medium of dispersion on their particles

c) the smaller size of their particles


d)the large size of their particles

544. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

a)the colloidal particles have positive charge

b)the colloidal particles have negative charge

c) + the colloidal particles are solvated

d) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

545. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

a)high concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained

b) + coagulation is reversible

c)viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water

d)the charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or
even zero

546. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

a)light scattered by colloidal particles

b)shape of the particle

c) + size of the particle

d)relative size

547. Light scattering takes place in

a)solution of electrolyte

b) electrodialysis

c) + colloidal solutions

d)electroplating

548.Maximum coagulation power is in

a)Na+

b)Ba2+

c)Al3+

d) + Sn4+
549. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

a)Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+

b)Cl- , SO42- , PO43-

c) + Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+

d)PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

550. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

a)NaCl solution

b) + starch solution

c)urea solution

d)FeCl3 solution

551. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

a)linear

b)curved

c) + zigzag

d)uncertain

552. The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

a)Photolysis

b) + dialysis

c)pyrolysis

d)peptisation

553. Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known
as

a)electrolysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)electrodyalysis

d)none of the above


554. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the
particles?

a)dialysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)sedimentation

d)ultrafiltration

555. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

a)prevent making of a colloid

b)stabilize the mixture

c) + stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization

d)enrich the aroma

556. Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

a)absorption

b)tyndall effect

c)flocculation

d) + paramagnetism

557. Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

a) + accumulates in the surface of the other substance

b) goes into the body of the other substance

c) remains close to the other substance

d) forms chemical bonds with other substences.

558. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?


a) + colloidal S
b)Colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold
d)colloidal platinum

559. As2S3 sol is


a)positive colloid
b) + negative colloid
c)neutral colloid
d)none of the above

560. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

a) + liquid dispersed in gas

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)gas dispersed in gas

d)solid dispersed in liquid

561. Which of the following is a colloid?

a)sugar solution

b)urea solution

c) + silicic acid

d)NaCl solution

562. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

a) smoke

b) ink

c) blood

d) + air

563. Milk is

a) fat dispersed in milk

b) + fat dispersed in water

c) water dispersed in fat

d) water dispersed in oil

564. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

a)solid is dispersed in liquid

b)liquid is dispersed in a solid

c) + gas is dispersed in a solid

d)solid is dispersed in a solid


565. Butter is a colloid formed when

a) fat is dispersed in water

b) fat globules are dispersed in water

c) + water is dispersed in fat

d) none of the above

566.Which of the following is not a colloid?

a) + chlorophyll

b) smoke

c) ruby glass

d) milk

567. Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

a)muddy water

b)bread

c)concrete

d) + a solution of sugar in water

568. A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

a)gel

b)homogeneous solution

c) + sol

d)aerosol

569. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

a) a sol

b) + a gel

c)an emulsion

d)a foam
570. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as

a) + foam

b)sol

c)aerosol

d)emulsion

571. Emulsifiers are generally

a)soap

b)synthetic detergents

c) + lyophilic sols

d)all of the above

572. Butter is

a) emulsion

b) aerosol

c) suspension

d) + none

573. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium
is termed as

a)aerosol

b) + gel

c)emulsion

d)foam

574. Which one of an example of gel?

a)soap

b)fog

c) + cheese

d)milk

575. Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called


a) aerosol

b) + cannot be prepared

c) gas aerosol

d) gasosol

576. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles
with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) + Surface
d) Size

577. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is
called

a)smoke

b) + clouds

c)jellies

d)emulsions

578. Milk is an example of

a) pure solution

b) + emulsion

c)gel

d)suspension

579. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

a)electro-osmosis

b)Brownian movement

c) + cataphoresis

d)dialysis

580. Tyndall effect will be observed in

a) + solution

b)precipitate
c)sol

d)vapour

581. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

a) + scattering of light

b)reflection of light

c)absorption of light

d)presence of electrically charged particles

582. The Brownian motion is due to

a)temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

b)attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

c) + impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

d)convective currents

583. The sky looks blue due to

a)dispersion effect

b) reflection

c)transmission

d) + scattering

584. The blue color of water in the sea is due to

a)refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water

b) + reflection of blue sky by sea water

c)scattering of blue light by water molecules

d)absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

585. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

a) + colloidal S

b)colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold

d)colloidal silver

586. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

a)dialysis

b) + Brownian movement

c)electro-osmosis

d)Tyndall effect

587. is an example of colloidal system of

a)solid dispersed in liquid

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)liquid dispersed in gas

d) + gas dispersed in gas

588. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

a)suspension

b)emulsion

c) + sugar solution

d)gold sol

589. Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

a)milk

b) + gum

c)fog

d)blood

590. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

a)suspension

b) + emulsion

c)gel
d)rtue solution

591. The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

a)dialysis

b) + addition of electrolytes

c)diffusion through animal membrane

d)condensation

592. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles
abruptly collected into spherical structures called _________
a) Ball
b) Sphere of ions
c) + Micelles
d) Dirt particle

593. _________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the
stationary liquid induced by an external field.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) + Electrophoresis

594. Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?


a) Minerals
b) Vitamins
c) + Proteins
d) Starch

595. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

a) Molecular colloid
b) + Associated colloid
c) Macromolecular colloid
d) Lyophillic colloid

596. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration


b) + Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
c) Aqueous solution of odium chloride
d) Aqueous solution of sugar
597. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

a) By addition of oppositely charged sol


b) By addition of an electrolyte
c) + By addition of lyophilic sol
d) By boiling

598. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

a) Coagulation
b) Electrolysis
c) Diffusion
d) + Peptisation

599. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag +

a) Na2S
b) Na3PO4
c) Na2SO4
d) + NaCl

(extent of adsorption is directly proportional to the ease of liquification is directly proportional to


Tc)

600. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

a) Solid sol
b) Gel
c) Emulsion
d) + Sol

601. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison
to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles
____________

a) Exhibit enormous surface area


b) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
c) Form lyophilic colloids
d) + Are comparatively less in number

Unit 4

Organic compounds.

602. Which element is present in all organic compounds?


a) + carbon

b)nitrogen

c)oxygen

d)phosphorous

603.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

a) + low melting point

b)high melting point

c)soluble in polar solvents

d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents

604.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

a)slower because organic particles are ions

b) + slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

c)faster because organic particles are ions

d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

605.Which compounds are isomers?

a ) + 1-propanol and 2-propanol

b)methanol and methanal

c)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid

d)ethane and ethanol

606.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.

d) + Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.


607.Which polymers occur naturally?

a)starch and nylon

b) + starch and cellulose

c)protein and nylon

d)protein and plastic

608.What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C 6H6?

a)butane

b)butene

c) + benzene

d)butyne

609. In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a
regular

a)pyramid

b) + tetrahedron

c)square

d)rectangle

610. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per
molecule?

a)C2H2 and C2H6

b)C2H2 and C3H6

c) + C4H8 and C2H4

d)C6H6 andC7H8

611. Which compound contain an alcohol group?

a) acetone

b) methanale

c) + methanol
d) dimethyl ether

612. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

a)water

b)oxygen

c) + carbon dioxide

d)sulfur dioxide

613. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + ethane

b)ethene

c)ethyne

d)ethanol

614. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

a)an addition reaction

b)a saponification reaction

b) + a substitution reaction

d)an esterification reaction

615. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

a)1

b)2

c)3

d) + 4

616. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

a)acids
b) + alcohols

c)esters

d)ethers

617. Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

a)2-methylpropane

b)2-methylbutane

c) + propane

d)butane

618. What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

a)ketone

b) + protein

c)ester

d)acid

619. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

a) + boiling points

b)melting points

c)triple points

d)saturation points

620. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3OH

b)CH3OCH3

c) + CH3COOH

d)CH3COOCH3

621. Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different


a)percentage compositions;

b)molecular masses;

c)molecular formulas;

d) + structural formulas.

622. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3 CH2 OH;

b)CH3 OCH3 ;

c) + CH3 COOH;

d)CH3COOCH3 .

623. Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one
additional carbon atom and

a) one hydrogen atom;

b) + two hydrogen atoms;

c)three hydrogen atoms;

d) four hydrogen atoms.

624. Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2 ;

b) C2 H4 ;

c) C3 H6 ;

d) + C3 H8 .

625. The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has
the same

a) + empirical formula;

b) general formula;

c) structural formula;

d) molecular formula.

626. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?
a) + methanol;

b) methane;

c) methyl methanoate;

d) methanoic acid.

627. A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

a) toluene;

b) + benzene;

c) butene;

d) pentene.

628. C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

a) + ddition;

b) substitution;

c) saponification;

d) esterification.

629. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

a) C3H7COCH3;

b)CH3COOC2H5;

c) + H5OC2H5;

d) CH3COOH.

630. What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

631.Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

a) + C2H6;
b) C3H6;

c) C4H6;

d) C6H6.

632. A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

a) carbon dioxide;

b) + water;

c) glycerol;

d) ethanol.

633.The general formula for the alkyne series is

a) CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) CnH2n+2;

d) + CnH2n-2.

634. Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

a) acetylene;

b) ethylene;

c) + toluene;

d) propene.

635.Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

a) + HCOOCH3;

b)CH3CH2COOH;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3COOCH3

636.Which compound is a member of the alkene series?

a) benzene;

b) toluene;
c) + acetylene;

d) ethane

637. All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

a) + single covalent;

b) double covalent;

c) triple covalent;

d) coordinate covalent

638.Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

a) C2H4;

b) C3H6;

c) C4H8;

d) + C5H10.

639.Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

a) an esterification reaction;

b) a neutralization reaction;

c) a saponification reaction;

d) + a fermentation reaction.

640.Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is
an example of _______ reaction.

a) + substitution;

b) addition;

c) polymerization;

d) fermentation.

641.In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

a) 11;
b) 11;

c) 3;

d) + 10

642.Which compound is an ester?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CHO;

c) + CH3COOCH3;

d) CH3COCH3.

643.The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

a) a polymer;

b) a soap;

c) an ester;

d) + an alcohol.

644.Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures

are called

a) + isomers;

b) isotopes;

c) allotropes;

d) homologs.

645.Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2

C2H4;

c) C5H8;

d) + C5H12.

646.CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with this

characteristic?
a) acetylene;
b) benzene;

c) + propane;

d) toluene.

647. A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

a) structural formula;

b) molecular formula

c) number of carbon atoms;

d) + number of hydrogen atoms.

648.Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CH2OH;

c) + CH3CH2COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH2OH.

649.The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

a) an acid;

b) an alcohol;

c) + an ester;

d) a hydrocarbon.

650.Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order,
has 1 more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

a) +4; b) 8; c) 3; d) 4.

651.Which molecular formula represents pentene?

a) C4H8;

b) C4H10;

c) + C5H10;

d) C5H12.
652.A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

a) propanol;

b) butanol;

c) pentanol

d) + glycerol.

653.Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

a) + organic acids;

b) esters;

c) alkynes;

d) alkanes.

654.Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

a) + C2H2;

b) C2H4;

c) C3H6;

d) C3H8.

655.Which formula represents an acid?

a) CH3COOCH3;

b) CH3OH;

c) + CH3COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH3.

656.Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and
formic acid. This type of reaction is called

a) fermentation;

b) + sterification;

c) saponification;

d) polymerization.
657. Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

a) + C3H6;

b) C2H6;

c) C2H2;

d) C6H6.

658. Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

a) tetrahedral;

b) planar triangular;

c) + linear;

d) bent.

659. Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

a) greater solubility in water;

b a tendency to form ions more readily;

b) more rapid reaction rates;

d) + lower melting points.

660. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

a) + -COOH;

b) -OR;

c) -CHO;

d) -NH2.

661. C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

a) substitution;

b) + addition;

c) polymerization;

d) esterification.

662. The isomers of propanol differ in


a) the number of carbon atoms;

b) the arrangement of the carbon atoms;

c) + molecular mass;

d) the position of functional group.

663. Which is the formula of an alcohol?

a) Ba(OH)2;

b) HCHO;

c) CH3COOH;

d) +C5H11OH.

664. C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) an organic acid;

d) + an alcohol.

665. Which compound can have isomers?

a) C2H4;

b) C2H2;

c) C2H6;

d) + C4H8.

666. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

a)polymerization;

b) + substitution;

c) addition;

d) esterification.

667.Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?


a) CCl2F2; b) C2H2;

c) + C2H5OH;

d) C2H5OC2H5.

668.Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

a) C3H8;

b) C3H7OH;

c) CH3COOH;

d) + CH3COOCH3.

669.Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

a) CCl4;

b) + C3H5(OH)3;

c) C6H6;

d) C6H12O6.

670.The structure of an alkene contains

a) only single bonds;

b) + a double bond;

c) two double bonds;

d) a triple bond.

671. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van
der Waals forces between the molecules

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

672.Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

a) CH4;
b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) + C4H10.

673.What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?

a) 6;

b) 3;

c) 8;

d) + 2.

674.In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?

a) + CH3COOH;

b) C3H5(OH)3;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3OH.

675.A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used

commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is

called

a) polymerization;

b) hydrogenation;

c) esterification;

d) + cracking.

676. Organic compounds must contain

a) oxygen;

b) nitrogen;

c) hydrogen;

d) + carbon.

677. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an
organic compound is a(an)

a) dihedral angle;

b) right angle;

c) + tetrahedral angle;

d) acute angle.

678. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an

organic molecule is known as a(an)

a) carboxyl group;

b) + functional group;

c) group;

d) alkyl group.

679.The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of

compounds that are

a) + molecular;

b) ionic;

c) polar;

d) atomic.

680.How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

a) 5;

b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 13.

681.The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two

adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

a) alkanes;
b) alkenes;

c) + alkynes;
d) benzenes.

682.Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated

hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

a) + contain multiple bonds;

b) have a greater molecular mass;

c) have tetrahedral bonds;

d) contain more atoms.

683.A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is

a) ethanol;

b) glycerol;

c) + ethylene glycol;

d) ethane.

684.A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

a) fat;

b) + polymer;

c) isomer;

d) monomer.

685.Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C2H4;

b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) C4H10.

686.How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?


a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

687.Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?

a) butane;

b) propane;

c) 1-chlorobutane;

d) + 1-chloropropane.

688.A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both

can produce

a) an ester;

b) + an alcohol;

c) an acid;

d) a soap.

689.Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C3H8;

b) C6H6;

c) C2H5OH;

d) C2H4O2.

690.Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) propane;

d) propyne.

691.CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as


a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) + an alcohol;

d) an organic acid.

692.Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

a) + benzene;
b) propyne;
c) methane;
d) ethanol.

693. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling

points

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

694. As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the

ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases

695. Which compound is most likely to react by addition?

a) CH4;

b) + C3H6;

c) C4H10;

d) C5H12.
696. Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

a) propanol;

b) + glycerol;

c) butanol;

d) pentanol.

697. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

a) + benzene;

b) propene;

c) pentene;

d) butene.

698. A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

a)alkene;

b) alkane;

c) + alkyne;

d) alkadiene.

699. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

a) aldehydes;

b) esters;

c) + polymers;

\d) ketones.

700. The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

a) + secondary alcohol;

c) tertiary alcohol;

d) dihydroxy alcohol.

701. What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

a) 10;
b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 4.

702. Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

a)butane;

b) + ethane;

c) pentane;

d) propane.

703. Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

a) C5H8;

) + C5H10;

c) C5H12;

d) C5H14.

704. The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

a) ionic;

b) coordinate covalent;

c) + covalent;

d) hydrogen.

705. As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the
number of double bonds per molecule

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

706.In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

a) + water;

b) carbon dioxide;
c) an acid;

d) a base.

707. Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

a) C2H5OH;

b) + C2H4(OH)2;

c) C3H5(OH)3;

d) C3H6(OH)2.

708. In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound

formed is

a) an ester;
b) ) a ketone;

c) an acid;

d) +an ether.

709.Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) ethene;

b) + ethane;

c) ethylene;

d) ethyne.

710. The compound C2H2 belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula

a)CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) + CnH2n-2;

d) CnH2n+2.

711. Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

a) Al(OH)3;

b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) Ca(OH)2;

d) + C2H4(OH)2.

712. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

a) + glycerol;

b) ethylene glycol;

c) propene;

d) propanoic acid.

713. Which organic compound is a ketone?

a) CH3OH;

) + H3COCH3;

c) CH3COOH;

d) CH3COOCH3.

714. Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

a) butane;

b) ethane;

c) + methane;

d) propane.

715. Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

a) oxidation;

b) + cracking;

c) Haber;

d) contact.

716. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular

forces have

a) + low melting points;

b) low vapor pressure;


c) high conductivity in solution;

d) high boiling points.

717. What is the formula for pentanol?

a) C5H12;

b) + C5H11OH;

c) C4H10;

d) C4H9OH.

718. Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) toluene;

d) butadiene.

719. Which compound contains a triple bond?

a) CH4;

b) + C2H2;

c) C3H6;

d) C4H10.

720. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

a)substitution;

b) oxidation;

c) addition polymerization;

d) + condensation, polymerization.

721. In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling

points by

a) the contact process;

b) the Haber process;


c) + fractional distillation;

d) cracking.

722.Organic acids are composed of a

a)C = O group at the end of the chain

b) COO– group

c) + C = O and COH group on the same carbon

d ) C = O and COH group on different carbons

723. Which of the following is a true statement?

a)ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an
oxidizing agent

b ) + aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent

c)ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol

d)organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

724. Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting

CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

a) an alcohol with an ether

b) a carboxylic acid with a ketone

c) + a carboxylic acid with an alcohol

d) a ketone with an aldehyde

725.The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

a) + ethylpropanoate

b) propylethanoate

c) propethanoate

d) none of the above

726. Which of the following is classified as an ether?

a)CH3CHOHCH3
b)CH2(OH)CH2CH3

c)CH3CH2CO

d) + CH3OCH3

727. Polymers are

a)molecules made of monomers

b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule

c)macromolecules

d) + all of the above

728. Classify this reaction:

CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

a) Chlorination

b) Oxidation

c) + Hydration

d) Elimination

729. The first member of the ketone family is:

a)Methanone

b) + Ethanone

c)Propanone

d) Butanone

730. Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

a) + Concentrated sulfuric acid

b) Dilute sulfuric acid

c) Water

d)None

731. How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

a) + The rotate at different rates


b) They have different colours

c) They have different melting/boiling points

d) They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

732. What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

a) PCl3 and an alcohol

b)HCl and an alcohol

c)HCl and an alcohol, under reflux

d) + Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

733.What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

a) A carboxylic acid

b) + A carboxylate salt

c) Water

d) Does not react

734. Name this molecule:

a) + 1,2-dimethylbutane

b) 3,4-dimethylbutane

c) hexane

d) 3-methylpentane
735. What are alcohols not used in?

a)wine

b)vinegar

c) + plastics

d)methylated spirits

736. What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?

a) hydration
b) hydrolysis

c) + esterification

d)polymerisation

737. What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

a) + CnH2n+1OH

b)CnH2nOH

c)CnH2n+2OH

d)CnH2n+1COOH

738. Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

a) + ethanoic acid

b)ethanol

c)butanoic acid

d)ethyl ethanoate

739. Which is true about ethanoic acid?

a)it has a higher boiling point than ethanol

b)it dissociates completely in water

c) + it dimerises in water

d)it reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

740. esters are ________.

a)made from alcohols and non-organic acids

b)used to make perfumes and flavorings

c) + poisonous

d)foul-smelling compounds

741. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

a)carbon monoxide and water

b)carbon and water


c) + carbon dioxide and water

d)carbon monoxide and hydrogen

742. what are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

a) + ethyl methanoate and water

b)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

c)methyl ethanoate and water

d)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

743. What is true about carboxylic acids?

a)carboxylic acids are strong acids

b) + carboxylic acids can react with metals

c)alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids

d)carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

744. esterification is a __________.

a)condensation reaction

b)irreversible reaction

c)addition reaction

d) + neutralization reaction

745. Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

a) + ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane

b)ethanol contains a hydroxyl group

c)ethanol is used as a fuel

d)ethanol is a solvent

746. What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

a)concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

b) + concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

c)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm


d)concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

747. In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

a)2 bond

b)3 bond

c) + 4 bond

d)5 bond

748. Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

a) + one σ bond, one π bond

b)two π bond, one π bond

c)one σ bond, two π bond

d)two σ bond, two π bond

749. Acetylene has a total of:

a) + one σ bond, two π bond

b)two σ bond, four π bond

c)three σ bond, two π bond

d)one σ bond, four π bond

750. In propene there are

a) + eight σ bond, one π bond

b)seven σ bond, two π bond

c)six σ bond, three π bond

d)nine σ bond

751. In propyne there are

a) + six σ bond, two π bond

b)seven σ bond, one π bond

c)six σ bond, one π bond


d)eight σ bond

752. 1-Buten -3-yne has

a)six σ bond, four π bond

b)seven σ bond, three π bond d)nine σ bond, one π bond

c) + eight σ bond, two π bond

d) 4 σ bond, 5 π bond

753. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH3CH2CH3

b)CH3C≡CH

c)CH2CH=CH2

d)CH2=CH-CH=CH2

754. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH4

b)H2N-CH2-NH2

c)H3C-OH

d)(CH3)3COH

755. When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

a) + 2 other atoms

b)4 other atoms

c)3 other atoms

d)5 other atoms

756. Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + C6H6 b)

c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
d) CH3CH=C=CH2

757. Which of the following is a planar molecule?

a)formaldehyde

b)acetone

c) + formic acid

d)acetic acid

758. What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

a)180o

b)120o

c) + 109.5o

d)115.5o

759.The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

a)60o

b) + 109.28o

c)120o

d)118.28o

760. The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

a)60o

b) + 120o

c)90o

d)180o

761. What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

a)1.20 Ǻ

) + 1.35 Ǻ

c)1.54 Ǻ

d)1.68 Ǻ
762. The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

a) + triple, duble, single

b)single, duble, triple

c)single, triple, duble

d) duble, triple, single.

763.Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

a)C-C < C=C < C≡C

b)C-C > C≡C > C=C

c)C≡C > C-C > C=C

d) + C≡C < C=C< C-C

764.Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

a)CH2 = CH2

b)CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d)

765.The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

a)CH2 = CH2

b) + CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d) CH2=CH-CH3

766. Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

a)ethyl alcohol

b)formaldehyde

c)diethyl ether

d) + 1,3-butadien
767. Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

a) + cis-1,2-dichloroetylene

b)o- dichlorobenzene

c)trans-1,2- dichloroetylene

d)p- dichlorobenzene

768. Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

a)CI2

b)CO2

c) + CCI4

d)CHCI3

769. Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

a) + carbon tetrachloride

b)chloromethane

c)dichloromethane

d)chloroform

770. Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

a) + CH3CI

b)CH3Br

c)CH3F

d)CH3I

771. Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

a)

b) +

c) d
d)

772. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

b) 1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol

c)+ 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
d) 2-chloro-3-methylpropan-3-ol

773. Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

a)

b)

b) +

d)

774. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 3-chlorobutan-3-ol

b 2-chlorobutan-3-ol

c) + 3-chlorobutan-2-ol

d) 2-chlorobutan-2-ol

775. Which is the correct name for ?

a) + propan-2-ol
b) butan-2-ol

c)propanol

d) butanol

776. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

a)

b) +

c)

d)

777.Which is the correct name for ?

a) ethoxyethane

b) + methoxyethane

c) ethoxybuthane

d) methoxymethane

778. Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

a) +

b)
c)

d)

779. Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

a)

c) +

d)

780. Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

a)+

b)

c)

d)

781.Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

a)
b)

c)+

d)

782. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol

b) 2-methoxy-1-methylpropane

c) 1-methoxy-2-methylpropane

d) + 2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

783. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

e)

c)

d) +
784. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol
b) b)2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
c) + 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol

d) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

785. Which is the correct name for ?

a)butanol

b)propanol

c) + propan-1-ol

d)butan-1-ol

786. Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

b)

c) +

d)propanol

787. Which is the correct name for ?

a)1-chlorobutan-3-ol
b)1-chlorobutan-2-ol

c) + 4-chlorobutan-2-ol

d)2-chlorobutan-3-ol

788.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a) +

b)

c)

d)

789.Which is the correct name for ?

a)3-chlorobutan-1-ol

b)1-chloropropan-3-ol

c) + 3-chloropropan-1-ol

d)1-chlorobutan-3-ol

790.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a)

b) +
c)

d)

791. Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

a) ClCH2CHClCOOH

b) CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH

c) + CH3CHClCHClCOOH

d)C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

792.Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

a)ketone

)aldehyde

c) + amine

d)ester

793.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)ester

b)amide

c)ketone

d) + carboxylic acid

794.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)amide

b)ketone

c)carboxylic acid

d) + ester
795. One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other
compounds is that in aldehydes and ketones

a)the carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other

carbonyl compounds.

b) the polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.

c) the molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.

d) + the carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

796. The carbonyl group is

a)found only in aldehydes and ketones.

b)produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.

c) + a functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.

d)a general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

797. All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true
except

a)The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.

b)The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.

c) + Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.

d) In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

798. Which molecule is formaldehyde?

a)+

b)

c)
d)

799. Which molecule is 2- butanone?

a)

c)

d)+

778. Which molecule is propanal?

a)

b)

c)+

d)

800. Which molecule is acetone?


a)

b)

c)

d) +

801. Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

a)ethyl methyl acetone

b)methyl propyl ketone

c) + 3-hexanone

d)propyl methyl ketone

802. Which molecule is a ketone?

a) +

b)

b)
d)

803. Which molecule is an aldehyde?

a)

b)

c)

d) +

804.The IUPAC name for acetone is

a) + 2-propanone.

b)dimethyl ketone.

c)1-propanone.

d)3-propanal.

805. The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

a)3-propanal.

b) + 2-propanone.

c)acetone.

d)1-propanone.
806. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

a)3- methyl 1 butanone.

b)2-methylbutanal.

c) + 3-methylbutanal.

d)isopentanal.

807. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

a)isobutyl acetone.

b)4 –methyl – 2- butanone.

c)2- methyl – 4- butanone.

d)4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

808. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)4-heptanone

b) + 2- methyl -3- hexanone

c)3-heptanone

d)isopropyl n-propyl ketone

809. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)isopentanal

b)2- methyl – 4- butanone

c)2- methyl- 1- butanone

d) + 3-methylbutanal

810. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?
a)3-octanone c)3- methyl -3-pentanone e)all are correct

b)2-butanone d)3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

811. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

a) 3-ethylpentanal

b) 4-methylpentanal

c)3- methyl- 2- pentanal

d) 2-methylpentanal

812. Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

a)They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded

to oxygen.

b) Most have distinctive odors.

c) They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.

d) They are polar.

813. All of the following are properties of acetone except

a)flammable. b)intoxicating. c)solvent for organic substances. d)nutrient.

814. Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

a)flavoring b)preservative c)hormone d)solvent

815. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CO-CH3 b)CH3-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

816. Which compound has the highest boiling point?

a)CH3-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

817. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CH2-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CH3 c)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

818. In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

a)H2. b)lactic acid. c)NADH. d)pyruvic acid.


819. All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

a)It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.

b)Its systematic name is ethanal.

c)Its common name is acetaldehyde.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

820. All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

a)Its systematic name is propanone.

b)Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone.

c)Its common name is acetone.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

821. The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is
methyl ethyl ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound
are ____ .

a)2-butanone; c)3-butanone;

b)2-propanone; d)3-butanone;

822. Tollens' reagent is used to

a)distinguish amines from aldehydes. c)reduce aldehydes.

b)distinguish aldehydes from ketones. d)reduce ketones.

823. Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

a)primary alcohol. b)secondary alcohol. c)carboxylic acid. d)ketone.

824. Oxidation of a ketone produces

a)an aldehyde b)a carboxylic acid c)a primary alcohol d)no reaction
825. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

a)Oxidation of ketones produces esters. c)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

b)Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +. d)Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

826. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

a)The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.

b)Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.

c)The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .

d)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

827. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a)pentanal b)3-pentanone c)2-pentanone d)pentanoic acid

828. Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

a)A silver wire dissolves.

b)A brick-red precipitate forms.

c)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.

d)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

829. Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

a)A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.

b)A red precipitate forms from a blue solution.

c)A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless.

d)A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

830. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

a)butane b)2-butanol c)1-butanol d)butanoic acid

831. What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?


a)butanoic acid b)butanal c)2-butanol d)no reaction

832. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a) c)

b) d)

833. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

a)an aldehyde b)a hemiacetal c)a carboxylic acid d)none, ketones don't oxidize.

834. What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

a) gold b) copper c) lead d) silver

835. Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

a)tertiary alcohol. b)carboxylic acid. c)secondary alcohol. d)primary alcohol.

836. Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

a)carboxylic acid. b)secondary alcohol. c)aldehyde. d)tertiary alcohol.

837. What is the product of reduction of butanal?

a)butanoic acid b)butane c)2-butanol d)1-butanol

838. What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

a)butanal b)1-butanol c)2-butanol d)butanoic acid

839.What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

a)3-methyl –2- pentanal c)3-methyl – 2-pentanol

b)2- methyl -3-pentanol d)3- methyl –2- pentene

840. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?


a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose

841.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5

842.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose

b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose

843. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose

844. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose

845. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-

a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose

846. Choose the keto triose-

a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose

847. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose

848.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers

849. All tests are negative for sucrose except-

a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone

850. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16

851. Galactose and Glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers


852. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-

a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers

853. What does the following equation represent?

α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose

a)Stereo isomerism b)Mutarotation c)Optical isomerism d)Epimerization

854. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose

855.Dulcitol is a -

a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugars d)Sugar alcohol

856. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose

857. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose

858. Invert sugar is-

a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

859. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine

860. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen

861. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose

862.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine

863. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone

864. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?


a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2

865. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde

866. Which of following is an anomeric pair?

a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose

b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

867. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid

868. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

a)The glucose residue is the β anomer.

b)The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.

c)C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

d)The compound is in its furanose form

869.The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

a)A purine nucleotide. b)A pyrimidine nucleotide. c)Adenosine. d)AMP

870.Functional Group of Alkane:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH
871. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:
a)H – C = O b) C – OH c)O = C – O – C d)None

872. Functional Group of Alkyl halide:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH

873. Functional Group of Alkene:


a)H – C = O b)C – OH c)C – X d)C=C

874. Functional Group of Alkyne:


a) b) - C≡N c)C – OH d)C≡C

875. Functional Group of Alcohol:


a)C – OH b)H – C = O c)C – X d)- C≡N

876. Functional Group of Ether:


a)H – C = O b) C – CO – C c) C – C d)C – X

877. Functional Group of Aldehyde:


a) b)C – CH = O c)C – X d)O = C – OH

878. Functional Group of Ketone:


a)C – CO - C b)C – X c)- C≡N d)O = C – OH

879. Functional Group of Carboxylic Acid:


a)O = C – OH b)C – X c)C – OH d)- C≡N

880. Functional Group of Amine:


a)C – NR – R’ b)O = C – OH c)H – C = O d)C – OH

881. Functional Group of Amide:


a)O = C – OH b)C – NR – R’ c)H – C = O d)HOC – NR – R’

882.Functional Group of Nitrile:


a)- C≡N b)O = C – OH c)C – NR – R’ d)HOC – NR – R’

883. Functional Group of Aromatic ring:


a) b)O = C – OH c)HOC – NR – R’ d)- C≡N

884. Amino acides are building blocks of:


a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers

885. Proteins are composed of:


a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers

886. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

887. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

888. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine


a) aliphatic b) aromatic c) heterocyclic d) complex

889. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest
a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4

890. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in


a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium
891. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in
a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium

892. How manyα-amine acidrests are in polypeptide


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

893. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)hydrofobic

894. Choose peptide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) -C-C-

895. Lactose is
a)monose b)unreducing disaccharide c)amine acid d)reducing disaccharide

896. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation b)reduction c)esterificationd)transamination

897. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of


a)aldose b)pyranose c)fructose d)furanose

898. Glicaric acids are produced under action of


a)mild oxidant b)strong reductant c)mildreductant d)strong oxidant

899. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside

900.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

901. Components of nucleotide


a)protein b)amine acid rest c)OH d)thymine

902.Monomeric link of protein


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

903.Unsaponified lipids are


a) mono-component b) di- component c) three-component d) poly-component

904.DNA contains
a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine
905. Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis
a)alcohols, carboxylicacids
b)carboxylicacids
c)alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

906. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

907.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

908.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

909.Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of


a)transamination b)oxidation c)reduction d)decarboxylation

910. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in


a)acidic medium b)neutral medium
c)basic medium d)any medium

911. How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d)more than 100

912. How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

913.Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins


a)coordination b)hydrofobic c)glycoside d)metallic

914.Choose disulphide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-

915.How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

916.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide

917.Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation c)esterification
b)reduction d)transamination

918.Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


a)transamination c)reduction
b)oxidation d)decarboxylation
919.Gliconic acids are produced under action of
a)mild oxidant c)mildreductant
b)strongreductant d)strong oxidant

920.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides


a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts

921.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

922.Components of nucleoside
a)phosphate group b)carbonyl group c)thymine d)sugar rest

923.Monomeric link of terpene


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

924. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

925. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

926.Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

927. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

928. Saponified lipids are


a)mono-component b)three-component c)without any component d) poly-component

929. RNA contains


a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

930. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

931. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar
932. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine
a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

933.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

934.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

935.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

936. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

937. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

938. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

939. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

940. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

941.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

942. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

943. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

944. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

945. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

946. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

947. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

948. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

949. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

950. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

951. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

952. Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

a)Rayon b)insulin c)gun cotton d)paper

953. Complex lipids form under hydrolysis

a)alcohols, carboxylic acids c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.

b)carboxylic acids d)alcohols

954. Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

955. Fatty acids are

a)unsaturated dicarboxylic acids c)aromatic carboxylic acids

b)long-chain alkanoic acids d)aromatic dicarboxylic acids

956. Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called

a)proteins b)terpenes c)carbohydrates d)soaps

957. soap is

a)a mixture of salts of fatty acids b)a salt of glycerol

c)a mixture of ethers d)a mixture of aromatic ethers

958. a wax is

a)a nonpolar solid c)a triacylglycerol

b)a long-chain alcohol d)none of these

959.Fats and oils are

a)monoesters of glycerol c)triesters of glycerol


b)diesters of glycerol d)diesters of glycol

960. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

a)more unsaturation c)a glycerol backbone

b)higher melting points d)longer fatty acids

961. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

a)12 carbons b)14 carbons c)16 carbons d)18 carbons

962. Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

a)hydrogenation b)saponification c)hydrolysis d)oxidation of double bonds

963. Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

a)Vanaspati ghee b)margarine c)both of these d)none of these

964. Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

a)saponification b)fermentation c)diazotization d)rancidification

965.Saponification of a fat

a)Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps c)is used in the production of detergents

b)produces glycerol and soap d)is used in the production of lactic acid

966. Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

a)Fats b)waxes c)soaps d)oils

967. The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

a)Iodine number b)octane number c)saponification number d)melting point

968. Zwitterion is
a)an ion that is positively charged in solution

b)an ion that is negatively charged in solution

c)a compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid

d)a carbohydrate with an electrical charge

969. A zwitterions has which of the following properties

a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these

970. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:


a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals

971. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds

972. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:

a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length

973. The isoelectric point of a protein is

a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface

b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges

c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions

d)none of these

974. Glycine is

a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH

b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH

975. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond

b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid

976. Proteins are

a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene

977. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I

978. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage

979. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure

980. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular


b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain

c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space

d)the presence or absence of an α-helix

981. The α-helix is a common form of

a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these

982. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization

983. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds

984. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols

985. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid

c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid

986. Nynhydring test is given by

a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes

987. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test

988. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is
called

a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test

989. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine

990. Monosaccharides are classified according to

a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule

b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes


d)all of the above

991. Which is a monosaccharide?

a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose

992. Which is a disaccharide?

a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose

993. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose

994. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light

b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate

c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group

d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

995. The principal sugar in blood is

a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose

996. Glucose cannot be classified as

a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide

997. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol

998. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

a)its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal c)it is oprtically active

b)it is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone d)it shows mutarotation

999. Common table sugar is

a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose

1000.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above

1001.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?


a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution

b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

1002. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose

1003. Starch

a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin

b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin


Exam tests on Chemistry.
Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.

1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0
14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?
a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs

19. The basic formula for Entropy;


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW

20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW
21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.
a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

22. Internal energy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

24. Enthalpy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

26. The heat transfer are divided into


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

27. What is the thermal conductivity?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
28. What is the convection?
a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

29. What is the radiation?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

31. What is the endothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

32. What is the exothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) Endothermic reactions

34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) Exothermic reactions

35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) Q= ΔU+ W
d)ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

38. System consisting of three phases is called


a) heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

39. System consisting of one phase is called


a) heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

40. What is the heterogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

41. What is the homogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called
42. What are the units of energy?
a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d)joule

43. Spontaneous process occurs only

a) without external energy


b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help

44. Internal energy is ……


a) energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness

45. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a) H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H

46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) A b) G c) Qp d) H

47. Find state parametre


a) Q b) G c) T d) H

48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) Q b) G c) Qp d) S

49. Find state parameter


a) Q b) G c) v d) H
50.For spontaneous processes
a) ∆H ≥ 0 b) ∆S ≤ 0 c) ∆G ≥ 0 d) ∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics

51. Chemical kinetics studies –

a) energy changes during chemical transformations.


b) the rate of chemical reactions.
c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?


a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction
53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular
54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?

a) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?


a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c)Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.
58. Enzymes is a substance that …

a) increase the rate of reaction


b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate

59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-


a) Catalyst c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor d) Reducing agents.

60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

a) Catalyst
b) Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?
a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel

62. Irreversible reactions are called?


a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution

63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble
65. A material that dissolves is called?
a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

67. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

68. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S


b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) I2 → I • + I •
69. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?
a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b) Cl2 → 2Cl
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

70. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

71. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl
72. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

73. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
74. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
75. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

76. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

77. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

78. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

79. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

81. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

82. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl

83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3 c) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
2
b) Kc = [NH3] / [N2] [H2] d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2] c) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
2
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a)Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is


a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]

87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is


a) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants

89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a) Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction

90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c)Time
d)Temperature

91. A catalyst is a substance which


a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) Active mass

93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

a) Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite

94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

a) Unequal b)Constant c)Equal d)Increased


95. The law of mass action was enunciated by

a) Guldberg and Waage


b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham

96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction


will

N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

a) Increase the yield of NO


b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed

97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)


Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?

a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;

b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;

c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;

d) the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;

b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;

c) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;

d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

a) increases; b) decreases; c) remains the same; d) approaches zero


100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;

b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;

c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;

d) The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.

101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

a) decrease; b) increase; c) remain the same; d) approach zero

102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;

b) add a catalyst;

c) cool the reaction down;

d) use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?

I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

a) II only; b) III only; c) I and II only; d) II and III only

Solutions.

104. Molarity is expressed as

a)grams/litre b) litres/mole c)moles/litre d)moles/1000 gm

105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in

a)1000 gm of the solvent c)onelitre of the solution

b) one litre of the solvent d) 22.4 litres of the solution

106. Normality is expressed as

a)moles/litre b)gm equivalents/litre c)moles/1000 gm d)gram/litre


107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

a) 1 N b) 10 N c) 1.7 N d) 0.83 N

108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

a) 1N
b) 0x1N
c) 4N
d) None

109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

a) 0x1
b) 1.0
c) 4.0
d) 0.4

110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

a) 2.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) 0.98 N
d) 0.35 N

111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?

a) 0.5 N
b) 1.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) 3.0 N

112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

a) 2N
b) 4N
c) N/2
d) N/4

113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is

a) 0.46 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) 4.6 N
114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

a) 4g
b) 1g
c) 2g
d) 10 g

115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M

116. The molarity of pure water is

a) 55.6
b) 50
c) 100
d) 18

117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

a) 1
b) 10
c) 18
d) 100

118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1.5

119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) 1.0 M

120. What is the solution?


a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
121. What is the solute?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
122. What is the solvent?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
123. What is the concentration?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?

a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.


b) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

129. Mass fraction is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction


neq msolute
a) C E = c) =
V msolution

CM CEME
T= = msubstance•1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M • m solution

131.The molar concentration iscalled?

a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:


b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

132. Molar concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration


neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution

nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution
134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?
a) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent

a) msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

137. The molal concentration is:


a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

138. Molal concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration

a) msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution
140. Find volume concentration
a) mass percent
b) normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction

141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov

142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a) 98 b) 2 c) 32 d) 49

143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid


a) 98 b) 2 c) 32.6 d) 49
144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide
a) 98 b) 37 c) 32 d) 49
145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by
a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation

146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

a) diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution

147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

a) high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature

148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an

a) base
b) acid
c) salt
d) suspension

149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) molarity

150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) solution.
d) compound.

151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a) solute. c)solution.
b) solvent. d) mixture.

152. Which of the following is not a solution?


a) zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel

153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?


a) alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene

154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?


a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d)dental amalgam

155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?


a)It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.

156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is


a)concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.

157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b)increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure

158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?


a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction
b) Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction

159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution

160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a.) hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride

161. Most salt become soluble in water as the


a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b)temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.

162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity c)Dilution
b)Normality d)Molality

165. In dilution of solution,


a) a solute is added to the solution.
b)solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.

166. A 40% alcohol contains


a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b)40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

Colligative properties of solutions.

167. Solutions are:


а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c)homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

168. Solubility of solids depends upon:


a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) all answers are right.

169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:


a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.

172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.
173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:
a) Hemolysis;
b) Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.

174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:


a) 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.

175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:


а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile solutes;
d) boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.

177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:


а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:


a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure solvents;
b) Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.

179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:


a) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.

180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:


a) to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.

181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:


a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d)A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:


a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) Osmotic pressure.
183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:
a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
b) 1.0×10-1osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.

184. Osmolarity is:


a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.

185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a)  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:


a) 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a) the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.

188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise


a) increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect

189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution


a) increases
b) remains same
c) Decreases
d) None of them

190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise


a) increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases

191. For spontaneous processes


a) ∆H ≥ 0 b) ∆S ≤ 0 c) ∆G ≥ 0 d) ∆H≤ 0
192. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on
a) concentration
b) nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute
193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate
194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) Hypertonic

195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b)Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure

202. Which involves the colligative properties?


a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c)Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis

204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis
d) Osmosis

205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) Active Transport c) Diffusion
b) Osmosis d)Phagocytosis

206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on


a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only

207. Which one is a colligative property?

a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point

208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.

209. Which is not a colligative property?

a) Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point

210. Which of the following is a colligative property?

a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point

211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules


b) Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by

a) Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis
213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) Mole fraction of solute

214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

a) An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion

215. When common salt is dissolved in water

a) M. p. of the solution increases


b) B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

a) Molecular wt. of solute


b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these

217. When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then


phenomenon taking place is called

a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis

218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) П / C = ST

219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

a)less than c)greater than


b)the same as d) greater than or equal to

220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.

221. What happens during osmosis?


a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.

b) Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.

c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.

d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.

222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.


b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.

c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increases.

223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) boiling point d) freezing point

224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

a) electrolyte c) polar substance


b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance

225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as

a) volatile c)electrolyte
b) nonvolatile d) nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.

Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

226. Acetic acid is weak because


a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) It is slightly ionized
d) None of these

227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw
at this temperature will be

a) 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5

228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9

229. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

a) 10-12 b)10-2 c)10-4 d)10-13

230. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

a) 10-13
b) 1013
c) 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010

231. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

a) 10
b) 7
c) 1
d) 14

232. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) Between 6 and 7
233. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

a) 8
b) 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1

234. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

235. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation

236. FeCl3 solution is

a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

237. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

a) Neutral c)Strongly acidic


b) Weakly acidic d)Alkaline

238. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

a) An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction

239. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) Almost neutral
240. Which one of the following is acid salt?

a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4

241. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) Na2HPO4

242. Which one is not an acid salt?

a) Na2H2PO4
b) NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above

243. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?

a) NaCl
b) NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4

244. Which one will not be hydrolysed?

a) Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate

245. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?

a) CH3COOK c)KCl
b) NaNO3 d)K2SO4

246. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

a) Weakly acidic
b) Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic
247. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

a) (NH4)2SO4
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4

248. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

a) A strong acid and strong base


b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) A weak acid and strong base

249. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) FeCl3
d) NaCN

250. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?

a) NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN

251. Which is a buffer solution?

a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl

252. Which of the following is a buffer?

a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) NH4OH + NH4Cl

253. Which is not a buffer solution?

a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid

254. pH of blood is

a) Less than 6
b) Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9
d) Greater than 10

255. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

a) Acetic acid + Sodium acetate


b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All

256. Give name to positively charged particles:

а) radicals; b) molecules; c) anions; d) cations.

257. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a) NaNO2; b) NaHCO3; c) Na2CO3; d) KMnO4.
258. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) Low water ionization constant.
259. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) Ion product for water.
260. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M; b) 0.001M; c) 0.1 M; d) 1.0M.

261.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:


a)Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.

262. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


а) Electrons donors;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

263. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl; c) KHSO4/H2SO4;
b) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4; d) NH3 /NH4Cl.

264. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:


a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) All answers are right.

265. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


а)Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

266. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:


а) Electrons donor;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

267. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:


a) pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.

268. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a)pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

269. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

270. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

271. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7 b) pH>7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

272. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

273. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

274. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutrald) none of them

275. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

276. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them
e
277. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

278. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

279. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

280. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them
281. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate
a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

282. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

283. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

284. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of


a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) both A and B

285. PH can be kept constant with help of


a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) buffer solution
d) super saturated solution

286. Buffers present in blood contain


a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) all of them

287. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a) aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis

288. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase c)carbolic hydrase

b) carbonic anhydrase d)carbonic hydrase

289. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

a) hydrochloric acid only c) acetic acid only


b) sodium chloride or potassium acetate d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

290. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a) oxide
b) ether
c) salt
d) alcohol
291. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) all of above
292. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
293. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) neutralization
b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation

294. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a) AH
b) HA
c) Ha
d) aH

295.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is


a) high
b) low
c) same
d) constant
296. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid c)concentration of water molecules
b)pH of solution d)both A and B
297. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
a) concentration of acid
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) both A and B

298. Ka is called
a) acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant

299. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) HNO2

300.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) LiClO4
d) CsBr

301. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?


a) H2O
b) KF
c) HF
d)HNO2

302.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) HCN

303. A stronger base:

a) is also a stronger acid; c) tastes sour;

b) is also a stronger electrolyte; d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution;

304. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

a) water and a salt; b) an acid and a base; c) a salt and hydrogen gas; d) a nonmetal oxid

305. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

a) HCl; b) H2CO3; c) KOH; d) CH3CH2OH;

306. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

a) 1×10-11 M; b)1×10-9 M; c) 1×10-7 M; d)1×10-5 M;

307. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H+ ions. This
substance is:

a) KOH; b)CH4 c) H2SO4; d) NH3


Unit 2.

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.

308 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in


a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d)H2S
309. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c)H2O2 d)F2
310. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b)KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
311. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d)x=2 y=3 z=10
312. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b)Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
313. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b)H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2

314. An electrolyte is one


a)Which conducts electric current c)Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above

315. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to


a)Dilution b)number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution

316. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) -3

317. Which of the following is an insulator?


a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) Diamond d)Silicon

318. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O


a)X=4 y=6 b)x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8
319. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O
a) 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
320. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a)F2 b)Cl2 c)Br2 d)I2

321. Oxidation involves


a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of negative part
b)Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of positive part

322. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a)Anode b)Cathode c)Both A & B d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

323. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a)-2 b) -1 c) 0 d) -4

324. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a)SO2 b)CaO c)Al2O3 d)CrO3

325.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular b) intramolecular c) disproportion d) none of them

326.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a) CH3COONa b)C2H5OH c)NaCl d)KOH

327. Element accepting electrons is called


a) product b) oxidant c) reactant d) reductant

328.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F b) Cl c)He d)Na

360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:


a) -3 to +5 b)-1 to +1 c)-3 to -5 d) -5 to +1
329.Strong electrolytes are those which
a)Dissolve readily in water c)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
b)Conduct electricity d)Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

330. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a) the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in terms
of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

331. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a) KMnO4→MnO2; b) HNO2→NO2;

c) Cl2O→HCl; d) P→H3PO4.

332. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1; b) 6; c) 14; d)3.

333. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

a) Mn(OH)2; b) MnO42-; c) MnO2; d) Mn2+.

334. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

a) Fe2O3 + HCl; b) FeCl3+H2S; c) Fe+ HCl; d) SO3+NaOH.

335. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

а) 2; b) 5; c) 10; d) 3.

336. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


а) accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.

337. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) 1-

338. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?a)
HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) KClO4

339. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

a) Al; b) Fe; c) Fe3+; d) Al3+

340. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

; a) loses 1 electron b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton

341. . In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni

342. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) 10

343. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

a) it allows ion migration; c) it allows electron migration;

b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;

344. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) F2; d) I2

345. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:

a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) electrolysis; d) hydrolysis


Biogenic elements.

346. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

a) in molecule of cytochrome b

b) in molecule of vitamin B12

c) in molecule of catalase

d) in molecule of vitamin B6

347. Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

a) enzyme catalase

b) enzyme superoxide dismutase

c) cytochrome P450

d) glutathione peroxidase

348. Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

a) hypervitaminosis

b) hypovitaminosis

c) avitaminosis

d) acidosis

349.Vitamin A deficiency can cause:

a) xeroftalmia

b) increased blood coagulation

c) growth acceleration

d) anemia

350. The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

a) vitamin D

b) vitamin B1

c) vitamin K

d) thiamine
351. ZnO is used as

a) protective c) both (a) & (b)

b) astringent d) antidote

352. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these

elements:

a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;

b). H, P, S, C, O, N;

c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;

d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

353. Choose biogenic macroelement

a)Cu b)P c)Br d)As

354. Choose biogenic microelement


a)Cu b)S c)Ca d)Mg

355. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm

356. Six major biogenic elements :


a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.

357.Five minor biogenic elements:


a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

358. Trace elements:


a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d)Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

359. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12% c) 10-3– 10-5 %
b)10-9% d) 10-2%

360. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a)10-2% c) 10-9%
b) 10 – 10 %
-3 -5
d) 10-7% - 10-12

361. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O b) S c) N d) Zn

362. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O b) Fe c) N d) C

363. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O b) S c) N d) I

364. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) P b) Cl c)Cu d) I

365. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb b) l c) O d) Mn

366. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb b) C c)Cu d) I

Complex compounds.

367. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:


a)+1 b)+3 c)-1 d)-3

368. A coordination compound consists of


a) a metal ion and counterions b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions d) a metal ion bound to one or more ligands

369. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:


a)0 b)+4 c)+3 d)+6

370. Name the following coordination compound:


K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II) c) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
b) potassium cyanoferrate(II) d) potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
371. The coordination number is:
a) The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex

372. Number of hem sections in mioglobin


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

373. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2


a) cationic b) anionic c) monodentate d) neutral

374. Ethylenediamine would be called


a) dentate b)bidentate c) tridentate d)tetradentate

375. Name the following coordination compound:


[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

376. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?


(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
-
(3) chloride, Cl (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5 b)1, 5, 6 c) 1, 6 d) 2, 3, 4, 5

Ca3  Fe(CN)6 2
377. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0 b) 1+ c) 2+ d) 3+

378. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound


a) central ion b) ligands c) outer sphere ions d) all constituents

379.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements


a) does’tchang b) increases c) decreasis d) none

380. Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps


a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 and more d) always without steps

381. Dentantness of porfyrin


a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

382.Particles playing role of ligands are


a) positive ions b) chelates c) negative ions d) complex ions
383. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?
a) +1 b) +3 c) -2 d) 0
384. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?
a) carbonyl; b) nitro; c) acetate; d) oxalate.

385. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?


a) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl c) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
b) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

386. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?


a) Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

387. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?


a) Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper

388. Ligand «en» is an example of:


a) bidentate ligand; b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand; d) hexadentate ligand.

389. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is


a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

390. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


a) cationic b) anionic c) trigonal d) neutral

391. Donor of electrons in coordination compound


a)central ion b)outer sphere ions c) ligands d) none

392. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements


a) doesn’t change b) increases c) decreases d) none of them

393.Coordination number of iron in hem


a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

394. Dentatness of EDTA


a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

395. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability


a) increases b) doesn’t change c) decreases d) none of them

396. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

397. Particles playing role of central ion are


a) positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions

398. Find ligand of weak field


a) OH- b) Au c) CN- d) Fe2+

399. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?


a) Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)

400. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)


a) K3[Fe(CN)6] c) (CN)6[Fe K2]
b) Fe [K2(CN)6] d) [FeK2(CN)6

401. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?


a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

402.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate


a) [(en)3Co]SO4 c) [SO4(en)3]Co
b) [Co(en)3SO4] d) [Co(en)3]SO4

403. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?


a) linear; c) octahedral;

b) tetrahedral; d) trigonal

404. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

405. Find ligand of strong field


a) OH- b) Au c) Cl- d) NH3

406. Dentatness of ligand is


a) number of central ions
b) charge of central ion
c) number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number

Organic compounds.

407. Which element is present in all organic compounds?

a)carbon b)nitrogen c)oxygen d)phosphorous

408.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

a)low melting point c)soluble in polar solvents

b)high melting point d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents

409.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

a)slower because organic particles are ions

b)slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

c)faster because organic particles are ions

d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

410.Which compounds are isomers?

a)1-propanol and 2-propanol c)methanol and methanal

b)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid d)ethane and ethanol

411.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.


d)Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.

412.Which polymers occur naturally?

a)starch and nylon

b)starch and cellulose

c)protein and nylon

d)protein and plastic

413. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

a)an addition reaction c)a saponification reaction

b)a substitution reaction d)an esterification reaction

414. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

415. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

a)acids b)alcohols c)esters d)ethers

416 What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

a)ketone b)protein c)ester d)acid

417. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

a)boiling points b)melting points c)triple points d)saturation points

418. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3OH b)CH3OCH3 c)CH3COOH d)CH3COOCH3


419. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

a) aldehydes; b) esters; c) polymers; d) ketones.

420. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular

forces have

a) low melting points; c) high conductivity in solution;

b) low vapor pressure; d) high boiling points.

421. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

a)substitution; b) oxidation; c) addition polymerization; d) condensation, polymerization.

422. Polymers are

a)molecules made of monomers

b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule

c)macromolecules

d)all of the above

423. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?

a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose

424.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5

425.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose

b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose

426. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose

427. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-


a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose

428. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-

a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose

429. Choose the keto triose-

a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose

430. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose

431.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers

432. All tests are negative for sucrose except-

a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone

433. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16

434. Galactose and Glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers

435. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-

a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers

436. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose

437.Dulcitol is a -

a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugars d)Sugar alcohol

438. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose

439. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose


440. Invert sugar is-

a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

441. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine

442. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen

443. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose

445.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine

446. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone

447. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?

a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2

448. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde

449. Which of following is an anomeric pair?

a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose

b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

450. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid

451. Amino acides are building blocks of:


a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers

452. Proteins are composed of:


a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers
453. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine
a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

454. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside

455.Monomeric link of protein


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

456.Unsaponified lipids are


a) mono-component b) di- component c) three-component d) poly-component

457.DNA contains
a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

458. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

459.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

460.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

461.Choose disulphide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-

462.How many cheiral centres are in aldopentose


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

463.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide

464.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides


a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts

465. RNA contains


a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

464. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

465. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

466. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

467.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

468.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

469.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

470. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

471. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

472. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

473. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

474. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

475.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

476. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

477. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

478. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

479. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

480. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

481. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

482. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

483. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

484. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

485. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

486. A zwitterions has which of the following properties

a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these

487. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:

a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals

488. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds

489. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:

a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length

490. The isoelectric point of a protein is

a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface

b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges

c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions


d)none of these

491. Glycine is

a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH

b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH

492. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond

b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid

493. Proteins are

a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene

494. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I

495. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage

496. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure

497. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular

b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain

c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space

d)the presence or absence of an α-helix

498. The α-helix is a common form of

a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these

499. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization

500. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds


501. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols

502. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid

c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid

503. Nynhydring test is given by

a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes

504. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test

505. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is
called

a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test

506. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine

507. Monosaccharides are classified according to

a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule

b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes

d)all of the above

508. Which is a monosaccharide?

a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose

509. Which is a disaccharide?

a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose

510. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose

511. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light


b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate

c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group

d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

512. The principal sugar in blood is

a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose

513. Glucose cannot be classified as

a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide

514. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol

515. Common table sugar is

a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose

516.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above

517.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?

a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution

b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

518. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose

519. Starch

a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin

b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin


Exam tests on Chemistry.
Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.

1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) + General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) + Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a) + Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) + Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) + Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a) + Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) + Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) + Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) + Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a) + A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) + A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) + A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) + A process during which the heat Q = 0
14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?
a) + Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) + Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) + Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) + Adiabatic process

18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?


a) + Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs

19. The basic formula for Entropy;


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) + S = KlnW

20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a) + Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW
21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.
a) Q=∆U+A
b) + H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

22. Internal energy is called?


a) + Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a) + Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

24. Enthalpy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) + Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a) Internal energy
b) + Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

26. The heat transfer are divided into


a) + Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

27. What is the thermal conductivity?


a) + The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
28. What is the convection?
a) The material to conduct heat.
b) + Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

29. What is the radiation?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) + The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) + Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

31. What is the endothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) + Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

32. What is the exothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) + Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Endothermic reactions

34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Exothermic reactions

35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.


a) + ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) Q= ΔU+ W
d) + ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) + ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

38. System consisting of three phases is called


a) + heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

39. System consisting of one phase is called


a) heterogeneous
b) + homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

40. What is the heterogeneous system?


a) + System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

41. What is the homogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) + System consisting of one phase is called
42. What are the units of energy?
a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d) + joule

43. Spontaneous process occurs only

a) + without external energy


b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help

44. Internal energy is ……


a) + energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness

45. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a) + H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H

46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) A
b) G
c) + Qp
d) H

47. Find state parametre


a) Q
b) G
c) + T
d) H

48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) Q
b) G
c) + Qp
d) S
49. Find state parameter
a) Q
b) G
c) + v
d) H
50.For spontaneous processes
a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics

51. Chemical kinetics studies –

a) energy changes during chemical transformations.


b) + the rate of chemical reactions.
c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?


a) + Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction
53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) + Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular
54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) + Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?
a) + Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?


a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.

58. Enzymes is a substance that …

a) increase the rate of reaction


b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) + biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate

59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-


a) + Catalyst
c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor
d) Reducing agents.

60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

a) Catalyst
b) + Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?
a) + a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel
62. Irreversible reactions are called?
a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) + a change that cannot go back
c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution

63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?


a) + Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) + Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

65. A material that dissolves is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) + Soluble
d) Insoluble

66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) + Insoluble

67. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) + N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

68. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S


b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) + I2 → I • + I •
69. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?
a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b) + Cl2 → 2Cl
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

70. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

71. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

72. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) + CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

73. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH


b) + 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
74. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) + Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
75. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) + H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O
76. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?
a) + 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

77. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) + O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

78. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b) + 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

79. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) + 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) + 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

81. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) + HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

82. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) + 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl

83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
c) + Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
b) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
c) + Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a) + Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is


a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) + K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]

87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is


a) + K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) + backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants

89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a) + Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction

90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c) + Time
d)Temperature

91. A catalyst is a substance which


a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) + Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) + Active mass

93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

a) + Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite

94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

a) Unequal
b)Constant
c) + Equal
d) Increased

95. The law of mass action was enunciated by

a) + Guldberg and Waage


b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham

96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction


will

N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

a) + Increase the yield of NO


b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed
97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?

a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;

b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;

c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;

d) + the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;

b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;

c) + the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;

d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

a) + increases;

b) decreases;

c) remains the same;

d) approaches zero

100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;

b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;

c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;

d) + The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.


101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

a) decrease;

b) increase;

c) + remain the same;

d) approach zero

102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;

b) add a catalyst;

c) cool the reaction down;

d) + use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?

I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

a) II only;

b) III only;

c) I and II only;

d) + II and III only

Solutions.

104. Molarity is expressed as

a)grams/litre

b) litres/mole

c) + moles/litre

d) moles/1000 gm

105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in


a) + 1000 gm of the solvent

c)onelitre of the solution

b) one litre of the solvent

d) 22.4 litres of the solution

106. Normality is expressed as

a)moles/litre

b) + gm equivalents/litre

c)moles/1000 gm

d)gram/litre

107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

a) 1 N

b) 10 N

c) + 2.7 N

d) + 1.7 N

108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

a) + 13N
b) 0x1N
c) +1N
d) None

109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

a) 0x1
b) + 2.0
c) + 1.0
d) 0.4

110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

a) + 5.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) + 2.04 N
d) 0.35 N

111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?


a) 0.5 N
b) + 3.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) + 3.6 N

112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

a) +4N
b) + 47 N
c) N/2
d) N/4

113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is

a) + 4.6 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) + 3.6 N

114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

a) 4g
b) + 16 g
c) +1g
d) 10 g

115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) + 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M

116. The molarity of pure water is

a) + 5.6
b) + 55.6
c) 100
d) 18

117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

a) 1
b) + 10
c) 18
d) 100

118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

a) 1
b) +3
c) +9
d) 1.5

119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) + 1.0 M

120. What is the solution?


a) + a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
121. What is the solute?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) + component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
122. What is the solvent?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) + component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
123. What is the concentration?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) + amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

a) + Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

a) Solution
b) + Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) + Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) + Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?

a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.


b) + the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

129. Mass fraction is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) + percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction


neq msolute
a) C E = c) + =
V m solution

CM CEME
T= = msubstance•1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M • m solution

131.The molar concentration iscalled?

a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:


b) + the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

132. Molar concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration


neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution

nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) + d) M • m solution

134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?


a) + the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent

a) msolute c) + neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance•1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

137. The molal concentration is:


a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) + the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

138. Molal concentration is expressed in:

a) + mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration

a) + msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

140. Find volume concentration


a) mass percent
b) + normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction

141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) + Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov

142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a) 98
b) 2
c) 32
d) + 49
143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid
a) 98
b) 2
c) + 32.6
d) 49
144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide
a) 98
b) + 37

c) 32
d) 49
145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by
a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) + theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation

146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

a) + diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution

147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

a) + high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature

148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an

a) base
b) + acid
c) salt
d) suspension

149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) + molarity

150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) + solution.
d) compound.

151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a) solute. c)solution.
b) + solvent. d) mixture.

152. Which of the following is not a solution?


a) + zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel

153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?


a) + alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene

154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?


a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d) + dental amalgam

155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?


a) + It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.

156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is


a) + concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.

157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b) + increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure

158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?


a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction
b) + Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction

159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) + 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution

160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a.) + hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride
161. Most salt become soluble in water as the
a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b) + temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.

162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a) + Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b) + Molality d)Mole fraction

164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity
c) + Dilution
b)Normality
d)Molality

165. In dilution of solution,


a) a solute is added to the solution.
b) + solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.

166. A 40% alcohol contains


a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b) + 40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

Colligative properties of solutions.

167. Solutions are:


а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c) + homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.
168. Solubility of solids depends upon:
a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) + all answers are right.

169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:


a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) + gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) + solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) + vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.

172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) + The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.

173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:


a) Hemolysis;
b) + Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.

174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:


a) + 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.

175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:


а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile solutes;
d) + boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) + concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.

177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:


а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) + 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:


a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure solvents;
b) + Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.

179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:


a) + The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.

180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:


a) + to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.

181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:


a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d) + A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:


a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) + Osmotic pressure.

183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:


a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
b) + 1.0×10-1osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.

184. Osmolarity is:


a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) + the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.

185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a) +  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:


a) + 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a) + the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.

188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise


a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect
189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution
a) increases
b) remains same
c) + Decreases
d) None of them
190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise
a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases

191. For spontaneous processes


a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0
192. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on
a) concentration
b) + nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute
193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) + molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate
194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + Hypertonic

195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) + hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + isotonic
197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) + isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) + osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) + cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) + ebuliometry
201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b) + Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure

202. Which involves the colligative properties?


a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c) + Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) + Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis

204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis
d) + Osmosis

205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) + Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Osmosis
d)Phagocytosis

206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on

a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) + Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only

207. Which one is a colligative property?

a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point

208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) + Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.

209. Which is not a colligative property?

a) + Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point

210. Which of the following is a colligative property?

a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point

211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules


b) + Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute
212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by

a) + Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis

213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) + Mole fraction of solute

214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

a) + An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion

215. When common salt is dissolved in water

a) M. p. of the solution increases


b) + B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

a) + Molecular wt. of solute


b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these

217. When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then


phenomenon taking place is called

a) + Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis

218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:


a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) + П / C = ST

219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

a)less than c) + greater than

b)the same as d) greater than or equal to

220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) + Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.

221. What happens during osmosis?


a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.

b) + Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.

c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.

d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.

222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.


b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.

c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) + The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increase

223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) + boiling point d) freezing point

224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

a) + electrolyte c) polar substance


b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance

225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as


a) + volatile
b)electrolyte
c) nonvolatile
d) nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.

Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

226. Acetic acid is weak because

a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) + It is slightly ionized
d) None of these

227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw
at this temperature will be

a) + 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5

228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) + 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9

229. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2%
ionized weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

a) 0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively


b) 1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
c) 2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
d) 3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

230. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

a) 10-12
b) + 10-2
c)10-4
d)10-13
231. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

a) 10-13
b) 1013
c) + 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010

232. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

a) 10
b) +7
c) 1
d) 14

233. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) + Between 6 and 7

234. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

a) 8
b) + 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1

235. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

236. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) + Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation

237. FeCl3 solution is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

238. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

a) Neutral
b) c)Strongly acidic
c) Weakly acidic

d) + Alkaline

239. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

a) + An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction

240. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) + Almost neutral

241. Which one of the following is acid salt?

a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) + NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4

242. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) + Na2HPO4

243. Which one is not an acid salt?

a) Na2H2PO4
b) + NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above

244. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?


a) NaCl
b) + NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4

245. Which one will not be hydrolysed?

a) + Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate

246. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?

a) + CH3COOK
b) KCl
c) NaNO3
d) d)K2SO4

247. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

a) Weakly acidic
b) + Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic

248. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

a) (NH4)2SO4
b) + Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4

249. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

a) A strong acid and strong base


b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) + A weak acid and strong base

250. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) + FeCl3
d) NaCN

251. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?

a) + NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN

252. A buffer solution changes its pH

a) Increase in pH
b) Decrease in pH
c) + No change in pH
d) No change in electrical conductivity

253. About buffer solution which in incorrect?

a) It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base


b) It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c) + It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d) All of the above

254. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

a) Strong acid and its salt of a weak base


b) Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c) + Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d) Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

255. Which is a buffer solution?

a) + CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl

256. Which of the following is a buffer?

a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) + NH4OH + NH4Cl

257. Which is not a buffer solution?

a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) + CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid

258. pH of blood is

a) Less than 6
b) + Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9
d) Greater than 10

259. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

a) + Acetic acid + Sodium acetate


b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All

260. Give name to positively charged particles:

а) radicals;
b) molecules;
c) anions;
d) + cations.

261. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a) NaNO2;
b) + NaHCO3;
c) Na2CO3;
d) KMnO4.
262. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) + Low water ionization constant.
263. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) + Ion product for water.
264. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M;
b) 0.001M;
c) + 0.1 M;
d) 1.0M.

265.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:


a) + Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.

266. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


а) Electrons donors;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) + Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

267. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl;
b) KHSO4/H2SO4;
c) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
d) + NH3 /NH4Cl.

268. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:


a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) + All answers are right.

269. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


а) + Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

270. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:


а) Electrons donor;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) + Protons acceptors.

271. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:


a) + pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.

272. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into


a) + oxides, acid, base, salt
b) oxides, base
c) Alkalis, salt, oxides
d) Ampholytes, Alkalis

273. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.
a) + hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

274. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) + hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

275. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a) + pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

276. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) + pH = 7

277. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7
b) + pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

278. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH>7
c) + pH ~7
d) pH = 7

279. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

280. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

281. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

282. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


A + ) acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

283. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a) acidic b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them
e
284. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

285. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

286. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a) + acidic
) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

287. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

288. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

289. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

290. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

291. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

292. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

ld) none of them

293. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

294. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite


a) acidic
b) + basic
c)
d) c)neutral
e) d) none of them

295. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide


a) 2
b) 11
c) + 13
d) 7

296. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide


a) 2
b) 10
c) 1
d) +13

297. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide


a) 2
b) + 13
c) 1
d) 7
298. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of
a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) + both A and B

299. PH can be kept constant with help of


a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) + buffer solution
d) super saturated solution

300. Buffers present in blood contain


a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) + all of them

301. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a) + aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis

302. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase
b) c)carbolic hydrase

c) + carbonic anhydrase

d) d)carbonic hydrase

303. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

a) hydrochloric acid only


b) + acetic acid only
c) sodium chloride or potassium acetate
d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

304. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a) oxide
b) ether
c) + salt
d) alcohol
305. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) + all of above
306. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) + KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
307. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) + neutralization
b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation

308. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a) AH
b) + HA
c) Ha
d) aH

309.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is


a) high
b) + low
c) same
d) constant
310. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid
b) concentration of water molecules
c ) pH of solution
d) + both A and B
311. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
a) concentration of acid
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) + both A and B

312. Ka is called
a) + acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant

313. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) + HNO2

314.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) + LiClO4
d) CsBr

315. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?


a) H2O
b) + KF
c) HF
d)HNO2

316.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) + HCN

317. A stronger base:

a) is also a stronger acid;

b) tastes sour;

c) + is also a stronger electrolyte;

d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution

318. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

a) water and a salt;

b) an acid and a base;

c) + a salt and hydrogen gas;

d) a nonmetal oxid

319. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

a) HCl;
b) H2CO3;

c) + KOH;

d) CH3CH2OH;

320. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

a) 1×10-11 M;

b) + 1×10-5 M;

c) 1×10-7 M;

d) 1×10-6M;

321. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H + ions. This
substance is:

a) KOH;

b)CH4

c) + H2SO4;

d) NH3

322. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

a) [H+] equals zero;

b) [H+] is less than [OH-];

c) [OH-] equals [H+];

d) + [H+] is greater than [OH-]

323. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

a) donate a proton;

b)donate an electron pair;


c) yield H+ ions;

d) + acceptor of protons.

324. What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 4

0.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

a) 100.0 mL;

b) 80.0 mL;

c) 40.0 mL;

d) + 20.0 mL

325. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

a) + increase;

b) remain the same;

c) decrease;

d) approach zero

326. Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

a) 1;

b) 7;

c) 10;

d) + 14.

327. The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

a) a single replacement;

b) the process of hydrolysis;

c) + a neutralization reaction;
d) a synthesis reaction;

328. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

a) A pH of 2 is three times as strong;

b) + A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;

c) A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

d) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as weak;

329. Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

a) chlorous acid; b) acetic acid;

c) + perchloricacid;

d) hypochlorous acid

330. Which of the following statements is true?

a) NaCl is a neutral salt; c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.

b) KOH is an acid; d) NaBr is basic salt.

331. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?

a) OH- and H2O; c) HCl and Cl-;

b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-; d) NH3 and NH4+;

332. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF; c) SO2 + H2O → H2SO3;

b) + 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2; d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

333. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;

b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;


c) HI is hydroiodic acid;

d) + HClO2 is chloric acid

334. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?

a) AgCl; b) PbBr2; c) Ca3(PO4)2; d) + Na2CO3

335. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:

a) + unsaturated; b) supersaturated; c) saturated; d) dilute

336. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate
and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a)Cl-; b) + 2Na+; c) CaCO3d) all of the substances above

337. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a) 1.5 m NaCl; c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;

b) 1.5 m AgCl; d) + 2.0 m CaCl2

338. Which equation is correctly balanced?

a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;

b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;

c) + 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;

d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;

Unit 2.

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.


339 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in
a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d) + H2S
340. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c) + H2O2 d)F2
341. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b) + KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
342. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d) + x=2 y=3 z=10
343. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b) + Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
344. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b) + H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2

345. An electrolyte is one


a)Which conducts electric current c) + Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above

346. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to


a)Dilution b) + number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution

347. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) + -3

348. Which of the following is an insulator?


a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) + Diamond d)Silicon

349. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O


a)X=4 y=6 b) + x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8

350. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O


a) + 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
351. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a) + F2
b)Cl2
c)Br2
d)I2

352. Oxidation involves


A) + Loss of electrons
b)Increase in the valency of negative part
c)Gain of electrons
d)Decrease in the valency of positive part

353. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

354. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a)-2
b) + -1
c) 0
d) -4

355. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a) + SO2
b)CaO
c)Al2O3
d)CrO3

356.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular
b) intramolecular
c) + disproportion
d) none of them

357.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a) CH3COONa
b) + C2H5OH
c)NaCl

d)KOH

358 Element accepting electrons is called


a) product
b) + oxidant
c) reactant
d) reductant

359.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F
b) + Cl
c)He
d)Na

360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:


a) + -3 to +5
b)-1 to +1
c)-3 to -5

d) -5 to +1

361.Strong electrolytes are those which


a)Dissolve readily in water
b)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
c)Conduct electricity
d) + Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

362.Which of the following conducts electricity?


a) crystal NaCl
b)diamond
c) + molten KBr
d)sulphur

363. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

364. Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode


a) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

365. Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

366. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:


a) + -1
b) -2
c)+4
d) 0

367. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:


a) +1
b) + -2
c)- 4
d) 0
368. Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode
a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

369. Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

370. In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation numbers
a) + intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) intramolecular
d) disproportion

371. In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed


a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) counter disproportion
d) + disproportion

372. Element loosing electrons is called


a) product
b) oxidant
c) reactant
d) + reductant

373. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a) + the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in terms
of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

374. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a) KMnO4→MnO2;
b) HNO2→NO2;

c) Cl2O→HCl;

d) + P→H3PO4.
375. Point out the correct statements:
a) + A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
b) A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
c) High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
d) Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

376. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1;
b) + 6;
c) 14;
d)3.

377. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

a) Mn(OH)2;

b) MnO42-;

c) + MnO2;

d) Mn2+.

378. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

a) Fe2O3 + HCl;

b) + FeCl3+H2S;

c) Fe+ HCl;

d) SO3+NaOH.

379. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

а) 2; b) + 5; c) 10; d) 3.

380. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


а) + accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.

381. Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:
a) Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
b) Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
c) Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
d) + Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

382. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) + 1-

383. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?a)
HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) + KClO4

384. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

a) Al; b) Fe; c) + Fe3+; d) Al3+

385. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

; a) + loses 1 electron b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton

386. . In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) + Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni

387. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) + 10
388. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

a) it allows ion migration; c) + it allows electron migration;

b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;

389. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) + F2; d) I2

390. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:

a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) + electrolysis; d) hydrolysis

Biogenic elements.

391. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

a) in molecule of cytochrome b

b) + in molecule of vitamin B12

c) in molecule of catalase

d) in molecule of vitamin B6

392) Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

a) enzyme catalase

b) + enzyme superoxide dismutase

c) cytochrome P450

d) glutathione peroxidase

393) Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

a) hypervitaminosis

b) + hypovitaminosis

c) avitaminosis

d) acidosis

394) Vitamin A deficiency can cause:


a) + xeroftalmia

b) increased blood coagulation

c) growth acceleration

d) anemia

395) The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

a) vitamin D

b) + vitamin B1

c) vitamin K

d) thiamine

396. ZnO is used as

a) protective

c) + both (a) & (b)

b) astringent

d) antidote

397. Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

a) oxidation

b) protein precipitate

c) halogenation

d) + all of the above

398. Hydrogen peroxide is used as

a) + antiseptic

b) acidifying agent

c) protective

d) antioxidant

399. KMnO4 solutions are used for

a) antibacterial
b) antifungal

c) + both of the above

d) antioxidant

400. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these

elements:

a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;

b) + H, P, S, C, O, N;

c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;

d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

401. Choose biogenic macroelement

a)Cu

b) + P

c)Br

d)As

402. Choose biogenic microelement


a) + Cu
b)S
c)Ca
d)Mg

403. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) + 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm

404. Six major biogenic elements :


a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
c) + Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.

405.Five minor biogenic elements:


a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) + Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

406. Trace elements:


a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) + Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

407. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12%
b) + 10-3– 10-5 %
c)10-9%
d) 10-2%

408. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a) + 10-2%
b) 10-9%
c) 10-3– 10-5 %

d) 10-7% - 10-12

409. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + Zn

410. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) + Fe
c) N
d) C

411. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + I

412. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) + P
b) Cl
c)Cu
d) I
Choose biogenic macroelement
a) Pb
b) +Ca
c) I
d) Ne

413. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) l
c) + O
d) Mn

414. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) + C
c)Cu
d) I

Complex compounds.

415. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:


a)+1
b) + +3
c)-1
d)-3

416. A coordination compound consists of


a) a metal ion and counterions
b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions
d) + a metal ion bound to one or more ligands

417. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:


a)0
b)+4
c) + +3
d)+6

418. Name the following coordination compound:


K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II)
b) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
c ) potassium cyanoferrate(II)
d) + potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
419. The coordination number is:
a) + The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex

420. Number of hem sections in mioglobin


a) + 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

421. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2


a) + cationic
b) anionic
c) monodentate
d) neutral

422. Ethylenediamine would be called


a) dentate
b) + bidentate
c) tridentate
d)tetradentate

423. Name the following coordination compound:


[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) + triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

424. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?


(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
(3) chloride, Cl- (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5
b)1, 5, 6
c) + 1, 6
d) 2, 3, 4, 5

Ca3  Fe(CN)6 2
425. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0
b) 1+
c) 2+
d) + 3+

426. Number of hem sections in hemoglobin


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) + 4

427. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound


a) + central ion
b) ligands
c) outer sphere ions
d) all constituents

428.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements


a) does’tchang
b) increases
c) + decreasis
d) none

429.Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps


a) 0
b) 1
c) + 2 and more
d) always without steps

430. Dentantness of porfyrin


a) 2
b) + 4
c) 6
d) 5

431.Particles playing role of ligands are


a) positive ions
b) chelates
c) + negative ions
d) complex ions

432. A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its
formula.
a) [Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
b) [ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
c) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
d) + [CrCl2(H2O)4]

433. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?


a) +1
b) + +3
c) -2
d) 0

434. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?


a) carbonyl; b) nitro;
b)
c) acetate;
d) + oxalate.

435. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?


a) + [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
b) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
c) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

436. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?


a) + Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

437. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?


a) + Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper

438. Ligand «en» is an example of:


a) + bidentate ligand;
b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand;
d) hexadentate ligand.

439. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is


a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) + Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

440. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


a) cationic
b) + anionic
c) trigonal

d) neutral

441. Donor of electrons in coordination compound


a)central ion
b)outer sphere ions
c) + ligands
d) none

442. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements


a) doesn’t change
b) + increases
c) decreases
d) none of them

443.Coordination number of iron in hem


a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) + 6

444. Dentatness of EDTA


a) 2
b) 3

c) + 4
d) 6

445. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability


a) increases b) doesn’t change c) + decreases d) none of them

446. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) + donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

447. Particles playing role of central ion are


a) + positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions

448. Find ligand of weak field


a) + OH-
b) Au
c) CN-
d) Fe2+

449. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?


a) + Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)

450. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)


a) + K3[Fe(CN)6]
b) (CN)6[Fe K2]
c) Fe [K2(CN)6]
d) [FeK2(CN)6

451. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?


a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) + tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

452.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate


a) [(en)3Co]SO4
b) [SO4(en)3]Co
c) [Co(en)3SO4]
d) + [Co(en)3]SO4

453. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?


a) linear;

b) octahedral;

c) + tetrahedral;

d) trigonal

454. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) + electrostatic model

455. Find ligand of strong field


a) OH-
b) Au
c) Cl-
d) + NH3

456. Dentatness of ligand is


a) number of central ions
b) charge of central ion
c) + number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number
Unit 3.

Colloids.
457. Disperse systems consists of:

a) + dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
d) sol, gel

458. Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

a) dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) + coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
c) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
d) sol, gel

459. What is a disperse system?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

460. Coarse systems include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) Gel, suspensions.

461. What is the Emulsion?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

462. What is the suspension?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

463. What is the aerosol?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) + It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

464. Sols are:


a) gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) + blood, lymph.
c) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
d) Blood, jelly, marmalade.

465. Gels are:


a) + gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
c) blood, lymph.
d) blood, jelly, marmalade.

466. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:


a) medical products
b) colored glass
c) + pumice
d) fog

467. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:


a) Soil
b) + Moist soil
c) Rocks
d) fog

468. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) natural gas
b) + gas from oil droplets
c) smog
d) colored glass

469. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) natural gas
b) aerosols
c) + dust storms
d) pearl

470. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) Fizzy drinks, foam
b) + body fluids
c) pastes,mortar
d) smog

471. Colloidal solutions include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) saline solution in water

472. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:


a) cosmetic products
b) porous chocolate
c) + some alloys
d) fog

473. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

a) Dust in the air


b) Aerosol
c) Fog
d) + Does not exist

474. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) + Sols
b) Emulsion oil
c) Fizzy drinks
d) Fog

475. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

a) cream, milk
b) + foam
c) pastes
d) chocolate

476. Colloid particles have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 m
c) + 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -7 m

477. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) negative
b) + positive
c) without charge
d) zero

478. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
a) + Ba2+
b) H+
c) SO4 2-
d) H+

479. Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing


a) condensation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

480. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaCl
b) + Сa3(PO4)2
c) CaCl2
d) FeCl3

481. Optical property typical to colloid systems


a) reflection
b) absorption
c) + scattering
d) diffusion

482. Find optical property


a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) electroosmosis
d) + absorption
483. Emulsion is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) g/l

484. Powder is
a) l/s
b) l/l
c) s/l
d) + s/g

485. Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties


a) μ
b) η

c) + φ
d) ξ

486. Particles of coarse systems have sizes of


a) + greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -9 - 10 -7 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -9 m

487. Particles of true solutions have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) + less than 10 -7 m

488. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =


a) + positive
b) negative
c) without charge
d) zero

489. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) none
b) Cl-
c) SO4 2-
d) + Ba2+
490. Choose condensation method of colloids producing
a) coagulation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

491. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) none

492. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Ag Cl

c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) Ba(NO3) 2

493. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) PbS
d) Ba(NO3) 2

494. Optical property typical to coarse systems


a) reflection
b) scattering
c) + absorption
d) diffusion

495. Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one


a) absorption
c) Brownian movement
c) + osmosis

d) diffusion

496. Aerosol is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) s/g
497. Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties
a) μ

b) η

c) m

d) +

498. Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:
a) + Suspensions;
b) b) Electrolytes;
c) c) Molecular solutions;
d) d) Alloys.

499. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:


a) + Colloids;
b) b)Gas mixtures;
c) c) Saturated solutions
d) ; d) Alloys.

500. The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:


a) Coagulation;
b) + Tyndall effect;
b) c) Peptization;
c) d) Dialysis.

501. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:


a) Osmosis;
b) Diffusion;
c) + Brownian motion;

d) Coagulation .

502. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:


a) + Aerosol;
b) b) Emulsion;
c) c) Sol;
d) d) Foam.

503. Fog and smoke are:


a) + Aerosols;
b) b) Emulsions;
c)
d) c) Gels;
e) d) Foams.

504. Sol consists of:


a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) + Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;
d) liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid.

505. Stability of a disperse system is:


a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) + Constancy in time of its state and main properties.

506. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:


a) + Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.

507. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:


a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) + {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.

508. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
a) + Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.

509. The methods of cleaning colloidal solutions are:


a) Compensation dialysis; dialysis;
b) Condensation; crystallization;
c) Sublimation; distillation;
d) + Filtration; ultra filtration.

510. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:


a) N2;
b) H2O;
c) + CO2;
d) O2.

511. Aerosol is:


a) Powder;
b) Dust cloud;
c) Hairspray;
d)+ All answers are right.

512. Emulsion is:


a) + Milk;
b) b) Foam;
c) c) Jelly;
d) d) Fog.
513. Biological gel is:
a) + Cartilage;
b) air;
c) clouds;
d) river water.

514. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:


a) These are heterogeneous systems;
b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) + All answers are right.

515. Coarse disperse system is:


a) Solution;
b)Sol;

c 0+ Suspension;

d)Gel.

516. Chromatography is:


a) + The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

517. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:
a) + Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

518. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:


a) + Fog;
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.

519. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:
a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) + Size of particles;
d) Odor.

520. Emulsion is:


a) + Butter;
b) b) River ooze;
c) c) Stained glass;
d) d) Textile fabrics.

521. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:


a) + Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right

522. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
d) + On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

523. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

a) + Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.

524. Coagulation is:

a) Chaotic movement of particles;

b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;

c) Destruction of the native protein structure;

d) + The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby separate
from the continuous phase.

525. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

a) Viscosity, flowability;

b) + Opalescence, light absorption;

c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;

d) dissolution, swelling.

526. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

a) Opalescence;

b) Electrodialysis;

c) Light absorption;

d) + Electrophoresis and electroosmosis.

527. A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

a) Negatively charged;

b) Electro neutral;

c) Positively charged;
d) + Negatively and positively charged.

528. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

a) Diameter

b)Particle size

c)radius

d) + solubility

529. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

a) +suspension> colloidal > true solution

b)true solution > suspension > colloidal

c) suspension> colloidal = true solution

d) none of the above

530. Colloids can be purified by

a) peptization

b) coagulation

c) + dialysis

d) bredic arc method

531. which is a natural colloid?

a) sodium chloride

b)urea

c)cane sugar

d) + blood

532. Which one of the following is not a colloid

a) milk

b) blood

c)ice cream
d) + urea solution

533. Milk is a colloid in which

a) + a liquid is dispersed in liquid

b) a gas is dispersed in liquid

c) a solid is dispersed in liquid

d)some sugar is dispersed in water

534. an aerosol is a colloidal system of

a) aliquid dispersed in a solid

b) a gas dispersed in air

c) + a liquid dispersed in a gas

d)none of the above

535. Which of the following is a homogeneous system

a) muddy water b)bread c)concrete d) +a solution of sugar in water

536. Which of the following is an emulsifier?

a) + soap

b)water

c)oil

d)NaCl

537. Lyophobic colloids are

a) reversible colloids

b) + irreversible colloids

c)protective colloids

d)gum proteins

538. Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

a)condensation

c)diffusion through animal membrane


b)dialysis

d) + addition of an electrolyte

539. Colloidal solutions are not purified by

a) dialysis

b) electrodialysis

c) ultrafiltration

d) + electrophoresis

540. Suspensions are

a) + visible to naked eye

c) invisible under electron microscope

b) not visible by any means

d) invisible through microscope

541. Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

a) + gelatin

b) sulphur

c) gold

d) carbon

542. Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

a) lyophilic sol

b) + associated colloid

c) hydrophobic sol

d) emulsion

543. The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

a) + charge on their particles

b) a layer of medium of dispersion on their particles

c) the smaller size of their particles


d)the large size of their particles

544. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

a)the colloidal particles have positive charge

b)the colloidal particles have negative charge

c) + the colloidal particles are solvated

d) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

545. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

a)high concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained

b) + coagulation is reversible

c)viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water

d)the charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or
even zero

546. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

a)light scattered by colloidal particles

b)shape of the particle

c) + size of the particle

d)relative size

547. Light scattering takes place in

a)solution of electrolyte

b) electrodialysis

c) + colloidal solutions

d)electroplating

548.Maximum coagulation power is in

a)Na+

b)Ba2+

c)Al3+

d) + Sn4+
549. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

a)Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+

b)Cl- , SO42- , PO43-

c) + Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+

d)PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

550. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

a)NaCl solution

b) + starch solution

c)urea solution

d)FeCl3 solution

551. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

a)linear

b)curved

c) + zigzag

d)uncertain

552. The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

a)Photolysis

b) + dialysis

c)pyrolysis

d)peptisation

553. Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known
as

a)electrolysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)electrodyalysis

d)none of the above


554. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the
particles?

a)dialysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)sedimentation

d)ultrafiltration

555. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

a)prevent making of a colloid

b)stabilize the mixture

c) + stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization

d)enrich the aroma

556. Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

a)absorption

b)tyndall effect

c)flocculation

d) + paramagnetism

557. Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

a) + accumulates in the surface of the other substance

b) goes into the body of the other substance

c) remains close to the other substance

d) forms chemical bonds with other substences.

558. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?


a) + colloidal S
b)Colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold
d)colloidal platinum

559. As2S3 sol is


a)positive colloid
b) + negative colloid
c)neutral colloid
d)none of the above

560. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

a) + liquid dispersed in gas

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)gas dispersed in gas

d)solid dispersed in liquid

561. Which of the following is a colloid?

a)sugar solution

b)urea solution

c) + silicic acid

d)NaCl solution

562. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

a) smoke

b) ink

c) blood

d) + air

563. Milk is

a) fat dispersed in milk

b) + fat dispersed in water

c) water dispersed in fat

d) water dispersed in oil

564. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

a)solid is dispersed in liquid

b)liquid is dispersed in a solid

c) + gas is dispersed in a solid

d)solid is dispersed in a solid


565. Butter is a colloid formed when

a) fat is dispersed in water

b) fat globules are dispersed in water

c) + water is dispersed in fat

d) none of the above

566.Which of the following is not a colloid?

a) + chlorophyll

b) smoke

c) ruby glass

d) milk

567. Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

a)muddy water

b)bread

c)concrete

d) + a solution of sugar in water

568. A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

a)gel

b)homogeneous solution

c) + sol

d)aerosol

569. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

a) a sol

b) + a gel

c)an emulsion

d)a foam
570. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as

a) + foam

b)sol

c)aerosol

d)emulsion

571. Emulsifiers are generally

a)soap

b)synthetic detergents

c) + lyophilic sols

d)all of the above

572. Butter is

a) emulsion

b) aerosol

c) suspension

d) + none

573. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium
is termed as

a)aerosol

b) + gel

c)emulsion

d)foam

574. Which one of an example of gel?

a)soap

b)fog

c) + cheese

d)milk

575. Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called


a) aerosol

b) + cannot be prepared

c) gas aerosol

d) gasosol

576. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles
with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) + Surface
d) Size

577. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is
called

a)smoke

b) + clouds

c)jellies

d)emulsions

578. Milk is an example of

a) pure solution

b) + emulsion

c)gel

d)suspension

579. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

a)electro-osmosis

b)Brownian movement

c) + cataphoresis

d)dialysis

580. Tyndall effect will be observed in

a) + solution

b)precipitate
c)sol

d)vapour

581. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

a) + scattering of light

b)reflection of light

c)absorption of light

d)presence of electrically charged particles

582. The Brownian motion is due to

a)temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

b)attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

c) + impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

d)convective currents

583. The sky looks blue due to

a)dispersion effect

b) reflection

c)transmission

d) + scattering

584. The blue color of water in the sea is due to

a)refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water

b) + reflection of blue sky by sea water

c)scattering of blue light by water molecules

d)absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

585. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

a) + colloidal S

b)colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold

d)colloidal silver

586. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

a)dialysis

b) + Brownian movement

c)electro-osmosis

d)Tyndall effect

587. is an example of colloidal system of

a)solid dispersed in liquid

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)liquid dispersed in gas

d) + gas dispersed in gas

588. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

a)suspension

b)emulsion

c) + sugar solution

d)gold sol

589. Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

a)milk

b) + gum

c)fog

d)blood

590. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

a)suspension

b) + emulsion

c)gel
d)rtue solution

591. The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

a)dialysis

b) + addition of electrolytes

c)diffusion through animal membrane

d)condensation

592. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles
abruptly collected into spherical structures called _________
a) Ball
b) Sphere of ions
c) + Micelles
d) Dirt particle

593. _________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the
stationary liquid induced by an external field.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) + Electrophoresis

594. Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?


a) Minerals
b) Vitamins
c) + Proteins
d) Starch

595. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

a) Molecular colloid
b) + Associated colloid
c) Macromolecular colloid
d) Lyophillic colloid

596. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration


b) + Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
c) Aqueous solution of odium chloride
d) Aqueous solution of sugar
597. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

a) By addition of oppositely charged sol


b) By addition of an electrolyte
c) + By addition of lyophilic sol
d) By boiling

598. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

a) Coagulation
b) Electrolysis
c) Diffusion
d) + Peptisation

599. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag +

a) Na2S
b) Na3PO4
c) Na2SO4
d) + NaCl

(extent of adsorption is directly proportional to the ease of liquification is directly proportional to


Tc)

600. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

a) Solid sol
b) Gel
c) Emulsion
d) + Sol

601. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison
to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles
____________

a) Exhibit enormous surface area


b) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
c) Form lyophilic colloids
d) + Are comparatively less in number

Unit 4

Organic compounds.

602. Which element is present in all organic compounds?


a) + carbon

b)nitrogen

c)oxygen

d)phosphorous

603.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

a) + low melting point

b)high melting point

c)soluble in polar solvents

d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents

604.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

a)slower because organic particles are ions

b) + slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

c)faster because organic particles are ions

d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

605.Which compounds are isomers?

a ) + 1-propanol and 2-propanol

b)methanol and methanal

c)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid

d)ethane and ethanol

606.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.

d) + Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.


607.Which polymers occur naturally?

a)starch and nylon

b) + starch and cellulose

c)protein and nylon

d)protein and plastic

608.What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C 6H6?

a)butane

b)butene

c) + benzene

d)butyne

609. In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a
regular

a)pyramid

b) + tetrahedron

c)square

d)rectangle

610. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per
molecule?

a)C2H2 and C2H6

b)C2H2 and C3H6

c) + C4H8 and C2H4

d)C6H6 andC7H8

611. Which compound contain an alcohol group?

a) acetone

b) methanale

c) + methanol
d) dimethyl ether

612. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

a)water

b)oxygen

c) + carbon dioxide

d)sulfur dioxide

613. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + ethane

b)ethene

c)ethyne

d)ethanol

614. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

a)an addition reaction

b)a saponification reaction

b) + a substitution reaction

d)an esterification reaction

615. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

a)1

b)2

c)3

d) + 4

616. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

a)acids
b) + alcohols

c)esters

d)ethers

617. Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

a)2-methylpropane

b)2-methylbutane

c) + propane

d)butane

618. What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

a)ketone

b) + protein

c)ester

d)acid

619. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

a) + boiling points

b)melting points

c)triple points

d)saturation points

620. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3OH

b)CH3OCH3

c) + CH3COOH

d)CH3COOCH3

621. Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different


a)percentage compositions;

b)molecular masses;

c)molecular formulas;

d) + structural formulas.

622. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3 CH2 OH;

b)CH3 OCH3 ;

c) + CH3 COOH;

d)CH3COOCH3 .

623. Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one
additional carbon atom and

a) one hydrogen atom;

b) + two hydrogen atoms;

c)three hydrogen atoms;

d) four hydrogen atoms.

624. Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2 ;

b) C2 H4 ;

c) C3 H6 ;

d) + C3 H8 .

625. The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has
the same

a) + empirical formula;

b) general formula;

c) structural formula;

d) molecular formula.

626. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?
a) + methanol;

b) methane;

c) methyl methanoate;

d) methanoic acid.

627. A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

a) toluene;

b) + benzene;

c) butene;

d) pentene.

628. C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

a) + ddition;

b) substitution;

c) saponification;

d) esterification.

629. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

a) C3H7COCH3;

b)CH3COOC2H5;

c) + H5OC2H5;

d) CH3COOH.

630. What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

631.Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

a) + C2H6;
b) C3H6;

c) C4H6;

d) C6H6.

632. A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

a) carbon dioxide;

b) + water;

c) glycerol;

d) ethanol.

633.The general formula for the alkyne series is

a) CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) CnH2n+2;

d) + CnH2n-2.

634. Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

a) acetylene;

b) ethylene;

c) + toluene;

d) propene.

635.Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

a) + HCOOCH3;

b)CH3CH2COOH;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3COOCH3

636.Which compound is a member of the alkene series?

a) benzene;

b) toluene;
c) + acetylene;

d) ethane

637. All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

a) + single covalent;

b) double covalent;

c) triple covalent;

d) coordinate covalent

638.Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

a) C2H4;

b) C3H6;

c) C4H8;

d) + C5H10.

639.Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

a) an esterification reaction;

b) a neutralization reaction;

c) a saponification reaction;

d) + a fermentation reaction.

640.Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is
an example of _______ reaction.

a) + substitution;

b) addition;

c) polymerization;

d) fermentation.

641.In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

a) 11;
b) 11;

c) 3;

d) + 10

642.Which compound is an ester?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CHO;

c) + CH3COOCH3;

d) CH3COCH3.

643.The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

a) a polymer;

b) a soap;

c) an ester;

d) + an alcohol.

644.Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures

are called

a) + isomers;

b) isotopes;

c) allotropes;

d) homologs.

645.Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2

C2H4;

c) C5H8;

d) + C5H12.

646.CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with this

characteristic?
a) acetylene;
b) benzene;

c) + propane;

d) toluene.

647. A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

a) structural formula;

b) molecular formula

c) number of carbon atoms;

d) + number of hydrogen atoms.

648.Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CH2OH;

c) + CH3CH2COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH2OH.

649.The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

a) an acid;

b) an alcohol;

c) + an ester;

d) a hydrocarbon.

650.Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order,
has 1 more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

a) +4; b) 8; c) 3; d) 4.

651.Which molecular formula represents pentene?

a) C4H8;

b) C4H10;

c) + C5H10;

d) C5H12.
652.A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

a) propanol;

b) butanol;

c) pentanol

d) + glycerol.

653.Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

a) + organic acids;

b) esters;

c) alkynes;

d) alkanes.

654.Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

a) + C2H2;

b) C2H4;

c) C3H6;

d) C3H8.

655.Which formula represents an acid?

a) CH3COOCH3;

b) CH3OH;

c) + CH3COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH3.

656.Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and
formic acid. This type of reaction is called

a) fermentation;

b) + sterification;

c) saponification;

d) polymerization.
657. Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

a) + C3H6;

b) C2H6;

c) C2H2;

d) C6H6.

658. Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

a) tetrahedral;

b) planar triangular;

c) + linear;

d) bent.

659. Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

a) greater solubility in water;

b a tendency to form ions more readily;

b) more rapid reaction rates;

d) + lower melting points.

660. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

a) + -COOH;

b) -OR;

c) -CHO;

d) -NH2.

661. C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

a) substitution;

b) + addition;

c) polymerization;

d) esterification.

662. The isomers of propanol differ in


a) the number of carbon atoms;

b) the arrangement of the carbon atoms;

c) + molecular mass;

d) the position of functional group.

663. Which is the formula of an alcohol?

a) Ba(OH)2;

b) HCHO;

c) CH3COOH;

d) +C5H11OH.

664. C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) an organic acid;

d) + an alcohol.

665. Which compound can have isomers?

a) C2H4;

b) C2H2;

c) C2H6;

d) + C4H8.

666. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

a)polymerization;

b) + substitution;

c) addition;

d) esterification.

667.Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?


a) CCl2F2; b) C2H2;

c) + C2H5OH;

d) C2H5OC2H5.

668.Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

a) C3H8;

b) C3H7OH;

c) CH3COOH;

d) + CH3COOCH3.

669.Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

a) CCl4;

b) + C3H5(OH)3;

c) C6H6;

d) C6H12O6.

670.The structure of an alkene contains

a) only single bonds;

b) + a double bond;

c) two double bonds;

d) a triple bond.

671. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van
der Waals forces between the molecules

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

672.Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

a) CH4;
b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) + C4H10.

673.What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?

a) 6;

b) 3;

c) 8;

d) + 2.

674.In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?

a) + CH3COOH;

b) C3H5(OH)3;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3OH.

675.A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used

commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is

called

a) polymerization;

b) hydrogenation;

c) esterification;

d) + cracking.

676. Organic compounds must contain

a) oxygen;

b) nitrogen;

c) hydrogen;

d) + carbon.

677. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an
organic compound is a(an)

a) dihedral angle;

b) right angle;

c) + tetrahedral angle;

d) acute angle.

678. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an

organic molecule is known as a(an)

a) carboxyl group;

b) + functional group;

c) group;

d) alkyl group.

679.The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of

compounds that are

a) + molecular;

b) ionic;

c) polar;

d) atomic.

680.How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

a) 5;

b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 13.

681.The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two

adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

a) alkanes;
b) alkenes;

c) + alkynes;
d) benzenes.

682.Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated

hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

a) + contain multiple bonds;

b) have a greater molecular mass;

c) have tetrahedral bonds;

d) contain more atoms.

683.A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is

a) ethanol;

b) glycerol;

c) + ethylene glycol;

d) ethane.

684.A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

a) fat;

b) + polymer;

c) isomer;

d) monomer.

685.Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C2H4;

b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) C4H10.

686.How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?


a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

687.Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?

a) butane;

b) propane;

c) 1-chlorobutane;

d) + 1-chloropropane.

688.A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both

can produce

a) an ester;

b) + an alcohol;

c) an acid;

d) a soap.

689.Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C3H8;

b) C6H6;

c) C2H5OH;

d) C2H4O2.

690.Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) propane;

d) propyne.

691.CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as


a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) + an alcohol;

d) an organic acid.

692.Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

a) + benzene;
b) propyne;
c) methane;
d) ethanol.

693. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling

points

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

694. As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the

ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases

695. Which compound is most likely to react by addition?

a) CH4;

b) + C3H6;

c) C4H10;

d) C5H12.
696. Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

a) propanol;

b) + glycerol;

c) butanol;

d) pentanol.

697. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

a) + benzene;

b) propene;

c) pentene;

d) butene.

698. A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

a)alkene;

b) alkane;

c) + alkyne;

d) alkadiene.

699. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

a) aldehydes;

b) esters;

c) + polymers;

\d) ketones.

700. The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

a) + secondary alcohol;

c) tertiary alcohol;

d) dihydroxy alcohol.

701. What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

a) 10;
b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 4.

702. Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

a)butane;

b) + ethane;

c) pentane;

d) propane.

703. Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

a) C5H8;

) + C5H10;

c) C5H12;

d) C5H14.

704. The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

a) ionic;

b) coordinate covalent;

c) + covalent;

d) hydrogen.

705. As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the
number of double bonds per molecule

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

706.In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

a) + water;

b) carbon dioxide;
c) an acid;

d) a base.

707. Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

a) C2H5OH;

b) + C2H4(OH)2;

c) C3H5(OH)3;

d) C3H6(OH)2.

708. In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound

formed is

a) an ester;
b) ) a ketone;

c) an acid;

d) +an ether.

709.Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) ethene;

b) + ethane;

c) ethylene;

d) ethyne.

710. The compound C2H2 belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula

a)CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) + CnH2n-2;

d) CnH2n+2.

711. Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

a) Al(OH)3;

b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) Ca(OH)2;

d) + C2H4(OH)2.

712. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

a) + glycerol;

b) ethylene glycol;

c) propene;

d) propanoic acid.

713. Which organic compound is a ketone?

a) CH3OH;

) + H3COCH3;

c) CH3COOH;

d) CH3COOCH3.

714. Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

a) butane;

b) ethane;

c) + methane;

d) propane.

715. Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

a) oxidation;

b) + cracking;

c) Haber;

d) contact.

716. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular

forces have

a) + low melting points;

b) low vapor pressure;


c) high conductivity in solution;

d) high boiling points.

717. What is the formula for pentanol?

a) C5H12;

b) + C5H11OH;

c) C4H10;

d) C4H9OH.

718. Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) toluene;

d) butadiene.

719. Which compound contains a triple bond?

a) CH4;

b) + C2H2;

c) C3H6;

d) C4H10.

720. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

a)substitution;

b) oxidation;

c) addition polymerization;

d) + condensation, polymerization.

721. In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling

points by

a) the contact process;

b) the Haber process;


c) + fractional distillation;

d) cracking.

722.Organic acids are composed of a

a)C = O group at the end of the chain

b) COO– group

c) + C = O and COH group on the same carbon

d ) C = O and COH group on different carbons

723. Which of the following is a true statement?

a)ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an
oxidizing agent

b ) + aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent

c)ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol

d)organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

724. Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting

CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

a) an alcohol with an ether

b) a carboxylic acid with a ketone

c) + a carboxylic acid with an alcohol

d) a ketone with an aldehyde

725.The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

a) + ethylpropanoate

b) propylethanoate

c) propethanoate

d) none of the above

726. Which of the following is classified as an ether?

a)CH3CHOHCH3
b)CH2(OH)CH2CH3

c)CH3CH2CO

d) + CH3OCH3

727. Polymers are

a)molecules made of monomers

b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule

c)macromolecules

d) + all of the above

728. Classify this reaction:

CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

a) Chlorination

b) Oxidation

c) + Hydration

d) Elimination

729. The first member of the ketone family is:

a)Methanone

b) + Ethanone

c)Propanone

d) Butanone

730. Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

a) + Concentrated sulfuric acid

b) Dilute sulfuric acid

c) Water

d)None

731. How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

a) + The rotate at different rates


b) They have different colours

c) They have different melting/boiling points

d) They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

732. What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

a) PCl3 and an alcohol

b)HCl and an alcohol

c)HCl and an alcohol, under reflux

d) + Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

733.What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

a) A carboxylic acid

b) + A carboxylate salt

c) Water

d) Does not react

734. Name this molecule:

a) + 1,2-dimethylbutane

b) 3,4-dimethylbutane

c) hexane

d) 3-methylpentane
735. What are alcohols not used in?

a)wine

b)vinegar

c) + plastics

d)methylated spirits

736. What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?

a) hydration
b) hydrolysis

c) + esterification

d)polymerisation

737. What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

a) + CnH2n+1OH

b)CnH2nOH

c)CnH2n+2OH

d)CnH2n+1COOH

738. Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

a) + ethanoic acid

b)ethanol

c)butanoic acid

d)ethyl ethanoate

739. Which is true about ethanoic acid?

a)it has a higher boiling point than ethanol

b)it dissociates completely in water

c) + it dimerises in water

d)it reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

740. esters are ________.

a)made from alcohols and non-organic acids

b)used to make perfumes and flavorings

c) + poisonous

d)foul-smelling compounds

741. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

a)carbon monoxide and water

b)carbon and water


c) + carbon dioxide and water

d)carbon monoxide and hydrogen

742. what are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

a) + ethyl methanoate and water

b)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

c)methyl ethanoate and water

d)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

743. What is true about carboxylic acids?

a)carboxylic acids are strong acids

b) + carboxylic acids can react with metals

c)alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids

d)carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

744. esterification is a __________.

a)condensation reaction

b)irreversible reaction

c)addition reaction

d) + neutralization reaction

745. Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

a) + ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane

b)ethanol contains a hydroxyl group

c)ethanol is used as a fuel

d)ethanol is a solvent

746. What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

a)concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

b) + concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

c)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm


d)concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

747. In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

a)2 bond

b)3 bond

c) + 4 bond

d)5 bond

748. Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

a) + one σ bond, one π bond

b)two π bond, one π bond

c)one σ bond, two π bond

d)two σ bond, two π bond

749. Acetylene has a total of:

a) + one σ bond, two π bond

b)two σ bond, four π bond

c)three σ bond, two π bond

d)one σ bond, four π bond

750. In propene there are

a) + eight σ bond, one π bond

b)seven σ bond, two π bond

c)six σ bond, three π bond

d)nine σ bond

751. In propyne there are

a) + six σ bond, two π bond

b)seven σ bond, one π bond

c)six σ bond, one π bond


d)eight σ bond

752. 1-Buten -3-yne has

a)six σ bond, four π bond

b)seven σ bond, three π bond d)nine σ bond, one π bond

c) + eight σ bond, two π bond

d) 4 σ bond, 5 π bond

753. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH3CH2CH3

b)CH3C≡CH

c)CH2CH=CH2

d)CH2=CH-CH=CH2

754. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH4

b)H2N-CH2-NH2

c)H3C-OH

d)(CH3)3COH

755. When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

a) + 2 other atoms

b)4 other atoms

c)3 other atoms

d)5 other atoms

756. Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + C6H6 b)

c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
d) CH3CH=C=CH2

757. Which of the following is a planar molecule?

a)formaldehyde

b)acetone

c) + formic acid

d)acetic acid

758. What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

a)180o

b)120o

c) + 109.5o

d)115.5o

759.The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

a)60o

b) + 109.28o

c)120o

d)118.28o

760. The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

a)60o

b) + 120o

c)90o

d)180o

761. What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

a)1.20 Ǻ

) + 1.35 Ǻ

c)1.54 Ǻ

d)1.68 Ǻ
762. The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

a) + triple, duble, single

b)single, duble, triple

c)single, triple, duble

d) duble, triple, single.

763.Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

a)C-C < C=C < C≡C

b)C-C > C≡C > C=C

c)C≡C > C-C > C=C

d) + C≡C < C=C< C-C

764.Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

a)CH2 = CH2

b)CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d)

765.The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

a)CH2 = CH2

b) + CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d) CH2=CH-CH3

766. Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

a)ethyl alcohol

b)formaldehyde

c)diethyl ether

d) + 1,3-butadien
767. Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

a) + cis-1,2-dichloroetylene

b)o- dichlorobenzene

c)trans-1,2- dichloroetylene

d)p- dichlorobenzene

768. Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

a)CI2

b)CO2

c) + CCI4

d)CHCI3

769. Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

a) + carbon tetrachloride

b)chloromethane

c)dichloromethane

d)chloroform

770. Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

a) + CH3CI

b)CH3Br

c)CH3F

d)CH3I

771. Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

a)

b) +

c) d
d)

772. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

b) 1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol

c)+ 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
d) 2-chloro-3-methylpropan-3-ol

773. Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

a)

b)

b) +

d)

774. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 3-chlorobutan-3-ol

b 2-chlorobutan-3-ol

c) + 3-chlorobutan-2-ol

d) 2-chlorobutan-2-ol

775. Which is the correct name for ?

a) + propan-2-ol
b) butan-2-ol

c)propanol

d) butanol

776. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

a)

b) +

c)

d)

777.Which is the correct name for ?

a) ethoxyethane

b) + methoxyethane

c) ethoxybuthane

d) methoxymethane

778. Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

a) +

b)
c)

d)

779. Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

a)

c) +

d)

780. Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

a)+

b)

c)

d)

781.Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

a)
b)

c)+

d)

782. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol

b) 2-methoxy-1-methylpropane

c) 1-methoxy-2-methylpropane

d) + 2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

783. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

e)

c)

d) +
784. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol
b) b)2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
c) + 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol

d) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

785. Which is the correct name for ?

a)butanol

b)propanol

c) + propan-1-ol

d)butan-1-ol

786. Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

b)

c) +

d)propanol

787. Which is the correct name for ?

a)1-chlorobutan-3-ol
b)1-chlorobutan-2-ol

c) + 4-chlorobutan-2-ol

d)2-chlorobutan-3-ol

788.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a) +

b)

c)

d)

789.Which is the correct name for ?

a)3-chlorobutan-1-ol

b)1-chloropropan-3-ol

c) + 3-chloropropan-1-ol

d)1-chlorobutan-3-ol

790.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a)

b) +
c)

d)

791. Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

a) ClCH2CHClCOOH

b) CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH

c) + CH3CHClCHClCOOH

d)C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

792.Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

a)ketone

)aldehyde

c) + amine

d)ester

793.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)ester

b)amide

c)ketone

d) + carboxylic acid

794.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)amide

b)ketone

c)carboxylic acid

d) + ester
795. One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other
compounds is that in aldehydes and ketones

a)the carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other

carbonyl compounds.

b) the polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.

c) the molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.

d) + the carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

796. The carbonyl group is

a)found only in aldehydes and ketones.

b)produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.

c) + a functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.

d)a general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

797. All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true
except

a)The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.

b)The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.

c) + Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.

d) In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

798. Which molecule is formaldehyde?

a)+

b)

c)
d)

799. Which molecule is 2- butanone?

a)

c)

d)+

778. Which molecule is propanal?

a)

b)

c)+

d)

800. Which molecule is acetone?


a)

b)

c)

d) +

801. Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

a)ethyl methyl acetone

b)methyl propyl ketone

c) + 3-hexanone

d)propyl methyl ketone

802. Which molecule is a ketone?

a) +

b)

b)
d)

803. Which molecule is an aldehyde?

a)

b)

c)

d) +

804.The IUPAC name for acetone is

a) + 2-propanone.

b)dimethyl ketone.

c)1-propanone.

d)3-propanal.

805. The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

a)3-propanal.

b) + 2-propanone.

c)acetone.

d)1-propanone.
806. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

a)3- methyl 1 butanone.

b)2-methylbutanal.

c) + 3-methylbutanal.

d)isopentanal.

807. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

a)isobutyl acetone.

b)4 –methyl – 2- butanone.

c)2- methyl – 4- butanone.

d)4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

808. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)4-heptanone

b) + 2- methyl -3- hexanone

c)3-heptanone

d)isopropyl n-propyl ketone

809. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)isopentanal

b)2- methyl – 4- butanone

c)2- methyl- 1- butanone

d) + 3-methylbutanal

810. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?
a)3-octanone c)3- methyl -3-pentanone e)all are correct

b)2-butanone d)3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

811. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

a) 3-ethylpentanal

b) 4-methylpentanal

c)3- methyl- 2- pentanal

d) 2-methylpentanal

812. Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

a)They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded

to oxygen.

b) Most have distinctive odors.

c) They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.

d) They are polar.

813. All of the following are properties of acetone except

a)flammable. b)intoxicating. c)solvent for organic substances. d)nutrient.

814. Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

a)flavoring b)preservative c)hormone d)solvent

815. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CO-CH3 b)CH3-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

816. Which compound has the highest boiling point?

a)CH3-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

817. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CH2-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CH3 c)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

818. In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

a)H2. b)lactic acid. c)NADH. d)pyruvic acid.


819. All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

a)It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.

b)Its systematic name is ethanal.

c)Its common name is acetaldehyde.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

820. All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

a)Its systematic name is propanone.

b)Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone.

c)Its common name is acetone.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

821. The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is
methyl ethyl ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound
are ____ .

a)2-butanone; c)3-butanone;

b)2-propanone; d)3-butanone;

822. Tollens' reagent is used to

a)distinguish amines from aldehydes. c)reduce aldehydes.

b)distinguish aldehydes from ketones. d)reduce ketones.

823. Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

a)primary alcohol. b)secondary alcohol. c)carboxylic acid. d)ketone.

824. Oxidation of a ketone produces

a)an aldehyde b)a carboxylic acid c)a primary alcohol d)no reaction
825. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

a)Oxidation of ketones produces esters. c)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

b)Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +. d)Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

826. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

a)The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.

b)Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.

c)The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .

d)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

827. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a)pentanal b)3-pentanone c)2-pentanone d)pentanoic acid

828. Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

a)A silver wire dissolves.

b)A brick-red precipitate forms.

c)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.

d)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

829. Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

a)A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.

b)A red precipitate forms from a blue solution.

c)A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless.

d)A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

830. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

a)butane b)2-butanol c)1-butanol d)butanoic acid

831. What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?


a)butanoic acid b)butanal c)2-butanol d)no reaction

832. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a) c)

b) d)

833. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

a)an aldehyde b)a hemiacetal c)a carboxylic acid d)none, ketones don't oxidize.

834. What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

a) gold b) copper c) lead d) silver

835. Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

a)tertiary alcohol. b)carboxylic acid. c)secondary alcohol. d)primary alcohol.

836. Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

a)carboxylic acid. b)secondary alcohol. c)aldehyde. d)tertiary alcohol.

837. What is the product of reduction of butanal?

a)butanoic acid b)butane c)2-butanol d)1-butanol

838. What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

a)butanal b)1-butanol c)2-butanol d)butanoic acid

839.What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

a)3-methyl –2- pentanal c)3-methyl – 2-pentanol

b)2- methyl -3-pentanol d)3- methyl –2- pentene

840. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?


a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose

841.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5

842.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose

b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose

843. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose

844. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose

845. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-

a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose

846. Choose the keto triose-

a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose

847. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose

848.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers

849. All tests are negative for sucrose except-

a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone

850. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16

851. Galactose and Glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers


852. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-

a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers

853. What does the following equation represent?

α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose

a)Stereo isomerism b)Mutarotation c)Optical isomerism d)Epimerization

854. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose

855.Dulcitol is a -

a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugars d)Sugar alcohol

856. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose

857. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose

858. Invert sugar is-

a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

859. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine

860. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen

861. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose

862.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine

863. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone

864. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?


a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2

865. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde

866. Which of following is an anomeric pair?

a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose

b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

867. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid

868. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

a)The glucose residue is the β anomer.

b)The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.

c)C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

d)The compound is in its furanose form

869.The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

a)A purine nucleotide. b)A pyrimidine nucleotide. c)Adenosine. d)AMP

870.Functional Group of Alkane:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH
871. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:
a)H – C = O b) C – OH c)O = C – O – C d)None

872. Functional Group of Alkyl halide:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH

873. Functional Group of Alkene:


a)H – C = O b)C – OH c)C – X d)C=C

874. Functional Group of Alkyne:


a) b) - C≡N c)C – OH d)C≡C

875. Functional Group of Alcohol:


a)C – OH b)H – C = O c)C – X d)- C≡N

876. Functional Group of Ether:


a)H – C = O b) C – CO – C c) C – C d)C – X

877. Functional Group of Aldehyde:


a) b)C – CH = O c)C – X d)O = C – OH

878. Functional Group of Ketone:


a)C – CO - C b)C – X c)- C≡N d)O = C – OH

879. Functional Group of Carboxylic Acid:


a)O = C – OH b)C – X c)C – OH d)- C≡N

880. Functional Group of Amine:


a)C – NR – R’ b)O = C – OH c)H – C = O d)C – OH

881. Functional Group of Amide:


a)O = C – OH b)C – NR – R’ c)H – C = O d)HOC – NR – R’

882.Functional Group of Nitrile:


a)- C≡N b)O = C – OH c)C – NR – R’ d)HOC – NR – R’

883. Functional Group of Aromatic ring:


a) b)O = C – OH c)HOC – NR – R’ d)- C≡N

884. Amino acides are building blocks of:


a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers

885. Proteins are composed of:


a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers

886. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

887. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

888. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine


a) aliphatic b) aromatic c) heterocyclic d) complex

889. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest
a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4

890. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in


a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium
891. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in
a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium

892. How manyα-amine acidrests are in polypeptide


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

893. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)hydrofobic

894. Choose peptide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) -C-C-

895. Lactose is
a)monose b)unreducing disaccharide c)amine acid d)reducing disaccharide

896. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation b)reduction c)esterificationd)transamination

897. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of


a)aldose b)pyranose c)fructose d)furanose

898. Glicaric acids are produced under action of


a)mild oxidant b)strong reductant c)mildreductant d)strong oxidant

899. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside

900.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

901. Components of nucleotide


a)protein b)amine acid rest c)OH d)thymine

902.Monomeric link of protein


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

903.Unsaponified lipids are


a) mono-component b) di- component c) three-component d) poly-component

904.DNA contains
a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine
905. Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis
a)alcohols, carboxylicacids
b)carboxylicacids
c)alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

906. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

907.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

908.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

909.Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of


a)transamination b)oxidation c)reduction d)decarboxylation

910. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in


a)acidic medium b)neutral medium
c)basic medium d)any medium

911. How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d)more than 100

912. How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

913.Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins


a)coordination b)hydrofobic c)glycoside d)metallic

914.Choose disulphide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-

915.How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

916.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide

917.Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation c)esterification
b)reduction d)transamination

918.Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


a)transamination c)reduction
b)oxidation d)decarboxylation
919.Gliconic acids are produced under action of
a)mild oxidant c)mildreductant
b)strongreductant d)strong oxidant

920.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides


a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts

921.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

922.Components of nucleoside
a)phosphate group b)carbonyl group c)thymine d)sugar rest

923.Monomeric link of terpene


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

924. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

925. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

926.Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

927. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

928. Saponified lipids are


a)mono-component b)three-component c)without any component d) poly-component

929. RNA contains


a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

930. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

931. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar
932. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine
a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

933.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

934.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

935.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

936. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

937. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

938. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

939. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

940. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

941.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

942. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

943. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

944. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

945. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

946. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

947. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

948. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

949. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

950. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

951. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

952. Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

a)Rayon b)insulin c)gun cotton d)paper

953. Complex lipids form under hydrolysis

a)alcohols, carboxylic acids c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.

b)carboxylic acids d)alcohols

954. Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

955. Fatty acids are

a)unsaturated dicarboxylic acids c)aromatic carboxylic acids

b)long-chain alkanoic acids d)aromatic dicarboxylic acids

956. Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called

a)proteins b)terpenes c)carbohydrates d)soaps

957. soap is

a)a mixture of salts of fatty acids b)a salt of glycerol

c)a mixture of ethers d)a mixture of aromatic ethers

958. a wax is

a)a nonpolar solid c)a triacylglycerol

b)a long-chain alcohol d)none of these

959.Fats and oils are

a)monoesters of glycerol c)triesters of glycerol


b)diesters of glycerol d)diesters of glycol

960. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

a)more unsaturation c)a glycerol backbone

b)higher melting points d)longer fatty acids

961. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

a)12 carbons b)14 carbons c)16 carbons d)18 carbons

962. Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

a)hydrogenation b)saponification c)hydrolysis d)oxidation of double bonds

963. Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

a)Vanaspati ghee b)margarine c)both of these d)none of these

964. Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

a)saponification b)fermentation c)diazotization d)rancidification

965.Saponification of a fat

a)Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps c)is used in the production of detergents

b)produces glycerol and soap d)is used in the production of lactic acid

966. Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

a)Fats b)waxes c)soaps d)oils

967. The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

a)Iodine number b)octane number c)saponification number d)melting point

968. Zwitterion is
a)an ion that is positively charged in solution

b)an ion that is negatively charged in solution

c)a compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid

d)a carbohydrate with an electrical charge

969. A zwitterions has which of the following properties

a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these

970. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:


a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals

971. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds

972. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:

a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length

973. The isoelectric point of a protein is

a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface

b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges

c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions

d)none of these

974. Glycine is

a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH

b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH

975. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond

b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid

976. Proteins are

a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene

977. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I

978. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage

979. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure

980. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular


b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain

c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space

d)the presence or absence of an α-helix

981. The α-helix is a common form of

a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these

982. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization

983. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds

984. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols

985. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid

c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid

986. Nynhydring test is given by

a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes

987. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test

988. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is
called

a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test

989. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine

990. Monosaccharides are classified according to

a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule

b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes


d)all of the above

991. Which is a monosaccharide?

a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose

992. Which is a disaccharide?

a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose

993. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose

994. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light

b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate

c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group

d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

995. The principal sugar in blood is

a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose

996. Glucose cannot be classified as

a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide

997. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol

998. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

a)its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal c)it is oprtically active

b)it is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone d)it shows mutarotation

999. Common table sugar is

a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose

1000.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above

1001.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?


a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution

b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

1002. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose

1003. Starch

a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin

b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin


Exam t
estsonChemist
ry.
Unit1.
Ther
mody nami
cs.

1.
Ther
mody
nami
csst
udi
es–

a) +Gener
all
awsofmut
ual
ener
gyconv
ersi
onsf
rom onef
ormt
oanot
her
.

b)Ener
gychangesdur
ingchemi
cal
transf
ormat
ions.

c)Ther
ateofchemi
cal
react
ions.

d)Chemi
cal
processest
hatcauseel
ect
ronst
omov
e. 

2.
Byi
nter
act
ionwi
tht
heenv
ironmentTher
mody
nami
csy
stemsar
edi
vi
dedi
nto:

a)Ther
mal
conduct
ivi
ty,
Conv
ect
ion,
Radi
ati
on

b)Het
erogeneous,
homogeneous

c)+Open,
Closed,
Isol
ated

d)I
sochor
ic,
Isobar
ic,
Isot
her
mal
,Adi
abat
ic

3.
Whati
stheOpenSy
stem?

a)+Mat
terandener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

b)Ener
gybutnotmat
tercanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

c)Nei
thermat
ternorener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

d)homogeneousi
ncomposi
ti
onandphy
sical
proper
ti
est
hroughoutt
hev
olume

4.
Whati
stheCl
osedSy
stem?

a)Mat
terandener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

b)homogeneousi
ncomposi
ti
onandphy
sical
proper
ti
est
hroughoutt
hev
olume

c)+Ener
gybutnotmat
tercanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

d)Nei
thermat
ternorener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs
5.
Whati
stheI
sol
atedSy
stem?

a)Mat
terandener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

b)homogeneousi
ncomposi
ti
onandphy
sical
proper
ti
est
hroughoutt
hev
olume

c)Ener
gybutnotmat
tercanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

d)+Nei
thermat
ternorener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

6.
Mat
terandener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngsi
scal
led?

a)
+OpenSy
stem

b)
ClosedSy
stem

c)
Isol
atedSy
stem

d)
Adi
abat
icSy
stem

7.
Ener
gybutnotmat
tercanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngsi
scal
led?

a)
OpenSy
stem

b)+Cl
osedSy
stem

c)
Isol
atedSy
stem

d)
Adi
abat
icSy
stem

8.
Nei
thermat
ternorener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngsi
scal
led?

a)
OpenSy
stem

b)
ClosedSy
stem

c)
+Isol
atedSy
stem

d)
Adi
abat
icSy
stem
9.
Ther
mody
nami
cpr
ocessesmaybe:

a)Ther
mal
conduct
ivi
ty,
Conv
ect
ion,
Radi
ati
on

b)Het
erogeneous,
homogeneous

c)Open,
Closed,
Isol
ated

d)+I
sochor
ic,
Isobar
ic,
Isot
her
mal
,Adi
abat
ic

10. Whati
stheI
sot
her
malpr
ocess?

a)+Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
het
emper
atur
eT=const

b)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hepr
essur
eP=const

c)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hespeci
fi
cvol
umev=const

d)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
heheatQ=0

11. Whati
stheI
sobar
icpr
ocess?

a)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
het
emper
atur
eT=const

b)+Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hepr
essur
eP=const

c)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hespeci
fi
cvol
umev=const

d)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
heheatQ=0

12. Whati
stheI
sochor
ic(
ori
somet
ri
c)pr
ocess?

a)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
het
emper
atur
eT=const

b)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hepr
essur
eP=const

c)+Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hespeci
fi
cvol
umev=const

d)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
heheatQ=0
13. Whati
stheadi
abat
icpr
ocess?

a)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
het
emper
atur
eT=const

b)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hepr
essur
eP=const

c)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hespeci
fi
cvol
umev=const

d)+Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
heheatQ=0

14. Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
het
emper
atur
eT=consti
scal
led?

a)+I
sot
her
mal
process

b)I
sobar
icpr
ocess

c)I
sochor
ic(
ori
somet
ri
c)pr
ocess

d)Adi
abat
icpr
ocess

15. Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hepr
essur
eP=consti
scal
led?

a)I
sot
her
mal
process

b)+I
sobar
icpr
ocess

c)I
sochor
ic(
ori
somet
ri
c)pr
ocess

d)Adi
abat
icpr
ocess

16. Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hespeci
fi
cvol
umev=consti
scal
led?

a)I
sot
her
mal
process

b)I
sobar
icpr
ocess

c)+I
sochor
ic(
ori
somet
ri
c)pr
ocess

d)Adi
abat
icpr
ocess

17. Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
heheatQ=0i
scal
led?

a)I
sot
her
mal
process

b)I
sobar
icpr
ocess
c)I
sochor
ic(
ori
somet
ri
c)pr
ocess

d)+Adi
abat
icpr
ocess

18. Whohadopenedt
hef
ir
stl
awoft
her
mody
nami
cs?

a)+Jul
i
usRober
tvonMay
er

b)Rudol
fCl
ausi
us

c)VantHof
f

d)Gi
bbs

19. Thebasi
cfor
mul
aforEnt
ropy
;

a)Q=ΔU+A

b)H=U+pV

c)ΔU=U(
fi
nal
)–U(
ini
ti
al)

d)+S=Kl
nW

20. Mat
hemat
icalexpr
essi
onoft
hef
ir
stl
awoft
her
mody
nami
cs:

a)+Q=ΔU+A

b)H=U+pV

c)ΔU=U(
fi
nal
)–U(
ini
ti
al)

d)S=Kl
nW

21. Fi
net
hef
ormul
aofI
nter
nalener
gy.

a)Q=ΔU+A

b)+H=U+pV

c)ΔU=U(
fi
nal
)–U(
ini
ti
al)
d)ΔS=S(
ini
ti
al)-S(
fi
nal
)

22. I
nter
nalener
gyi
scal
led?

a)+Sum ofal
lpot
ent
ial
andki
net
icener
giesofal
lcomponent
s

b)Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

c)React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
her
eleasi
ngofheatar
ecal
l
ed

d)Ther
ateofwhi
chchemi
cal
react
ioni
ncr
easeswi
thi
ncr
easi
ngt
emper
atur
es

23. Sum ofal


lpot
ent
ialandki
net
icener
giesofal
lcomponent
s

a)+I
nter
nal
ener
gy

b)
Ent
hal
py

c)
Ent
ropy
;

d)
Exot
her
micpr
ocess

24. Ent
hal
pyi
scal
led?

a)Sum ofal
lpot
ent
ial
andki
net
icener
giesofal
lcomponent
s

b)+Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

c)React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
her
eleasi
ngofheatar
ecal
l
ed

d)Ther
ateofwhi
chchemi
cal
react
ioni
ncr
easeswi
thi
ncr
easi
ngt
emper
atur
es

25. Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

a)I
nter
nal
ener
gy

b)+Ent
hal
py

c)Ent
ropy
;

d)Exot
her
micpr
ocess
26. Theheatt
ransf
erar
edi
vi
dedi
nto

a)+Ther
mal
conduct
ivi
ty,
Conv
ect
ion,
Radi
ati
on

b)Het
erogeneous,
homogeneous

c)Open,
Closed,
Isol
ated

d)I
sochor
ic,
Isobar
ic,
Isot
her
mal
,Adi
abat
ic

27. Whati
sthet
her
malconduct
ivi
ty?

a)
+Themat
eri
alt
oconductheat
.

b)
Heati
str
ansf
err
edf
rom onepl
acet
oanot
her
.

c)
Ther
adi
ati
ont
ransmi
tt
edev
env
oid(
sun)
.

d)
Noneoft
hem.

28. Whati
stheconv
ect
ion?

a)
Themat
eri
alt
oconductheat
.

b)
+Heati
str
ansf
err
edf
rom onepl
acet
oanot
her
.

c)
Ther
adi
ati
ont
ransmi
tt
edev
env
oid(
sun)
.

d)
Noneoft
hem.

29. Whati
sther
adi
ati
on?

a)
Themat
eri
alt
oconductheat
.

b)
Heati
str
ansf
err
edf
rom onepl
acet
oanot
her
.

c)
+Ther
adi
ati
ont
ransmi
tt
edev
env
oid(
sun)
.

d)
Noneoft
hem.
30. Whohadopenedt
hesecondl
awoft
her
mody
nami
cs?

a)Jul
i
usRober
tvonMay
er

b)+Rudol
fCl
ausi
us

c)Mendel
eev

d)Gi
bbs

31. Whati
stheendot
her
micpr
ocess?

a)Sum ofal
lpot
ent
ial
andki
net
icener
giesofal
lcomponent
s

b)Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

c)React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
her
eleasi
ngofheatar
ecal
l
ed

d)+React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
hei
ncr
easi
ngofheatar
ecal
l
ed

32. Whati
stheexot
her
micpr
ocess?

a)Sum ofal
lpot
ent
ial
andki
net
icener
giesofal
lcomponent
s

b)Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

c)+React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
her
eleasi
ngofheatar
ecal
l
ed

d)React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
hei
ncr
easi
ngofheatar
ecal
l
ed

33. React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
hei
ncr
easi
ngofheatar
ecal
led?

a)
Het
erogeneous,
homogeneous

b)
Open,
Closed,
Isol
ated

c)
Isochor
ic,
Isobar
ic,
Isot
her
mal
,Adi
abat
ic

d)
+Endot
her
micr
eact
ions

34. React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
her
eleasi
ngofheatar
ecal
led
a)
Het
erogeneous,
homogeneous

b)
Open,
Closed,
Isol
ated

c)
Isochor
ic,
Isobar
ic,
Isot
her
mal
,Adi
abat
ic

d)
+Exot
her
micr
eact
ions

35. Whi
chi
sthebasi
cfor
mul
aofHess'
sLaw.

a)+ΔH1=ΔH2+ΔH3=ΔH4+ΔH5+ΔH6

b)
ΔHr=ΣΔHf°(
product)-ΣΔHf°(
react
ants)
c)
ΔHr=ΣΔHc°(r
eactants)-ΣΔHc°(pr
oduct)

d)
Q=ΔU+W

36. Whi
chi
sthesecondef
fectf
ormul
aofHess'
sLaw

a)ΔH1=ΔH2+ΔH3=ΔH4+ΔH5+ΔH6

b)ΔHr=ΣΔHf
°(pr
oduct
)-ΣΔHf
°(r
eact
ant
s)
c)Q=ΔU+W

d)+ΔH=ΣΔHc°(
react
ant
s)-ΣΔHc°(
product
)

37. Whi
chi
sthet
hir
def
fectf
ormul
aofHess'
sLaw:

a)ΔH1=ΔH2+ΔH3=ΔH4+ΔH5+ΔH6

b)+ΔHr=ΣΔHf
°(product)-ΣΔHf
°(r
eactant
s)
c)ΔH=ΣΔHc°(
reactant
s)-ΣΔHc°(product
)

d)Q=ΔU+W

38. Syst
em consi
sti
ngoft
hreephasesi
scal
led
a)+heter
ogeneous
b)homogeneous
c)i
solat
ed
d)open

39. Syst
em consi
sti
ngofonephasei
scal
led
a)heter
ogeneous
b)+homogeneous
c)i
solat
ed
d)open

40. Whatist
heheter
ogeneoussy st
em?
a)+Syst
em consi
sti
ngofthreephasesiscal
led
b)Heati
str
ansfer
redfr
om oneplacetoanot
her.

c)Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

d)Sy
stem consi
sti
ngofonephasei
scal
l
ed

41. Whati
sthehomogeneoussy st
em?
a)Syst
em consi
sti
ngofthreephasesi
scall
ed
b)Heatistr
ansf
err
edfrom onepl
acetoanot
her
.

c)Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

d)+Sy
stem consi
sti
ngofonephasei
scal
l
ed

42. Whatar
etheuni
tsofener
gy?
a)volt
a
b)pascal
c)l
it
er
d)+joule

43. Spont
aneouspr
ocessoccur
sonl
y

a)+wi t
houtext er
nal energy
b)atconstanttemper atur
e
c)inforwarddirect
ion
d)withexternalenergyhel p

44.Int
ernalener
gyis……
a)+energyofsystem atconstantpressur
e
b)Gibbsenergy
c)energyofsyst
em atconstantvolume
d)measureofsystemsr andomness

45.Ent
hal
pyi
sexpr
essedbyf
oll
owi
ng
a)+H=U+pV
b)ΔH1=ΔH2+ΔH3
c)H=G+TS
d)Qp=ΔH
46.I
ndi
cat
ewhi
chf
unct
ioni
sn’
tfunct
ionofst
ate
a)A
b)G
c)+Qp
d) H

47.Fi
ndst
atepar
amet
re
a)Q
b)G
c)+T
d) H

48.
Indi
cat
ewhi
chf
unct
ioni
sn’
tfunct
ionofst
ate
a)Q
b)G
c) +Qp
d) S
49.Fi
ndst
atepar
amet
er
a)Q
b)G
c)+v
d) H
50.
Forspont
aneouspr
ocesses
a)ΔH≥ 0
b)ΔS≤0
c)ΔG≥0
d)+ΔH≤0

Chemi
calki
net
ics

51.Chemi
calki
net
icsst
udi
es–

a)ener
gychangesdur
ingchemi
cal
transf
ormat
ions.

b)+t
her
ateofchemi
cal
react
ions.

c)gener
all
awsofmut
ual
ener
gyconv
ersi
onsf
rom onef
ormt
oanot
her
.
d)
ofchemi
cal
processest
hatcauseel
ect
ronst
omov
e. 

52.React
ionsi
nwhi
cht
her
eisachemi
calconv
ersi
onofonemol
ecul
eiscal
led?

a)
+Monomol
ecul
ar

b)
Dimol
ecul
ar

c)
Tri
mol
ecul
ar

d)
Radi
cal
react
ion

53.React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nacol
li
sionoft
wopar
ti
clesi
scal
led?

a)
Monomol
ecul
ar

b)
Radi
cal
react
ion

c)
+Di
mol
ecul
ar

d)
Tri
mol
ecul
ar

54.
React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nthecol
li
sionoft
hreepar
ti
cles:

a)
Monomol
ecul
ar

b)
Dimol
ecul
ar

c)
Radi
cal
react
ion

d)+Tr
imol
ecul
ar

55.Whati
stheMonomol
ecul
arr
eact
ion?

a)+React
ionsi
nwhi
cht
her
eisachemi
cal
conv
ersi
onofonemol
ecul
e.

b)React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nacol
l
isi
onoft
wopar
ti
cles.

c)React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nthecol
l
isi
onoft
hreepar
ti
cles.

d)React
ionsi
nwhi
cht
her
eisachemi
cal
conv
ersi
onoff
ourmol
ecul
es.

56.Whati
stheDi
mol
ecul
arReact
ion?
a)React
ioni
nwhi
cht
her
eisachemi
cal
conv
ersi
onofonemol
ecul
e.

b)+React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nacol
l
isi
onoft
wopar
ti
cles.

c)Conj
ugat
ereact
ions.

d)React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nthecol
l
isi
onoft
hreepar
ti
cles.

57.Whati
stheTr
imol
ecul
arr
eact
ion?

a)React
ioni
nwhi
cht
her
eisachemi
cal
conv
ersi
onofonemol
ecul
e.

b)React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nacol
l
isi
onoft
wopar
ti
cles.

c)+React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nthecol
l
isi
onoft
hreepar
ti
cles.

d)r
eact
ionspr
oceedi
ngsi
mul
taneousl
y.

58.Enzy
mesi
sasubst
ancet
hat…

a)i
ncr
easet
her
ateofr
eact
ion

b)decr
easet
her
ateofr
eact
ion

c)+bi
ologi
cal
cat
aly
stofr
eact
ion

d)noef
fectont
her
eact
ionr
ate

59.Asubst ancet
hatincr
easest
her
eact
ionr
ate-
a)+Catalyst
c)I
ndicator
b)Inhi
bit
or
d)Reducingagents.

60.Asubst
ancet
hatdecr
easet
her
eact
ionr
ate-

a)
Cat
aly
st

b)
+Inhi
bit
or

c)
Enzy
mes

d)
Indi
cat
or

61.Rever
sibl
er eact
ionsar
ecall
ed?
a)+achanget hatcangoforwar
dsorbackwar
ds
b)achangethatcannotgoback,
c)processofsubstancedi
ssoluti
on
d)reacti
onsproceedi
nginparall
el

62.Irr
eversi
blereactionsarecalled?
a)achanget hatcangof or
war dsorbackwar
ds
b)+achanget hatcannotgoback
c)reacti
onsproceedinginpar all
el
d)processofsubst ancedissoluti
on

63.Thereact
ionsthatcangof
orwar
dsorbackwar
dsi
scal
led?
a)+Reversi
blereact
ions

b)
Ir
rev
ersi
bler
eact
ions

c)
Sol
ubl
e

d)
Insol
ubl
e

64.Thereact
ionst
hatcannotgobacki
scal
led?
a)Rever
sibl
ereact
ions

b)
+Ir
rev
ersi
bler
eact
ions

c)
Sol
ubl
e

d)
Insol
ubl
e

65.Amateri
althatdissol
vesi
scal
led?
a)Rev
ersi
blereact
ions

b)
Ir
rev
ersi
bler
eact
ions

c)
+Sol
ubl
e

d)
Insol
ubl
e

66.Amateri
althatdoesn’
tdi
ssol
vei
scal
led?
a)Rev
ersi
blereact
ions

b)
Ir
rev
ersi
bler
eact
ions

c)
Sol
ubl
e

d)
+Insol
ubl
e
67.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
emonomol
ecul
ar?

a)+N2O4→ 2NO2
b)2FeCl
3+H2S→ 2FeCl
2+2HCl
+S
c)2NO+Cl2→ 2NOC l
d)2HI→ H2+I2

68.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
emonomol
ecul
ar?

a)
2FeCl
3+H2S→ 2FeCl
2+2HCl
+S
b)
2NO+Cl 2→ 2NOCl
c)
2HI→ H2+I2

d)
+I2→ I•+I•

69.Whichoftheser
eacti
onsar
emonomol
ecul
ar?
a)2FeCl3+H2S→ 2FeCl
2+2HCl+S
b)+Cl2→ 2 Cl
c)2NO+Cl 2→ 2NOC l
d)2HI→ H2+I 2

70.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
emonomol
ecul
ar?

a)2NO+Cl2→ 2NOC l
b)2HI→ H2+I2
c)+C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH
d)2FeCl
3+H2S→ 2FeCl
2+2HCl
+S

71.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
emonomol
ecul
ar?

a)2NO+Cl2→ 2NOC l
b)2HI→ H2+I2
c)+NH4NO3→ N2O+2H2O
d)2FeCl
3+H2S→ 2FeCl
2+2HCl

72.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
edi
mol
ecul
ar?

a)+CH3Br+KOH→ CH3OH+KBr
b)N2O4→ 2NO2
c)O2+NO+NO→ 2NO2
d)C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH

73.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
edi
mol
ecul
ar?

a)C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH
b)+2HI→ H2+I 2
c)N2O4→ 2NO2
d)O2+NO+NO→ 2NO2
74.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
edi
mol
ecul
ar?

a)N2O4→ 2NO2
b)O2+NO+NO→ 2NO2
c)+Na2S2O3+H2SO4→Na2SO4+S+SO2+H20
d)C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH
75.Whichoft
hesereact
ionsar
edi
molecul
ar?

a)N2O4→ 2NO2
b)O2+NO+NO→ 2NO2
c)C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH
d)+H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

76.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
edi
mol
ecul
ar?
a)+2NH4NO3→ 2N2+O2+4H2O
b)N2O4→ 2NO2
c)O2+NO+NO→ 2NO2
d)C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH

77.Whichoft
heser
eact
ionsar
etr
imol
ecul
ar?
a)+O2+NO+NO→ 2NO2
b)I2→ I•+I•
c)CH3Br+KOH→ CH3OH+KBr
d)N2O4→ 2NO2

78.Whichoft
hesereact
ionsar
etr
imol
ecul
ar?
a)C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH

b)+2NO+Cl2→ 2NOCl
c)2HI→ H2+I
2
d)Cl
2→ 2Cl

79.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
etr
imol
ecul
ar?
a)Na2S2O3+H2SO4=Na2SO4+S+SO2+H20
b)2NH4NO3=2N2+O2+4H2O
c)+2NO+H2→ N2O+HOH
d)H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
etr
imol
ecul
ar?
a)Cl
2→ 2Cl
b)+2FeCl
3+H2S→ 2FeCl
2+2HCl
+S
c)2NH4NO3=2N2+O2+4H2O
d)NH4NO3→ N2O+2H2O

81.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
etr
imol
ecul
ar?
a)2HI→ H2+I2
b)+HCLO3+P+H2O=H2PO4+HCL
c)2NH4NO3=2N2+O2+4H2O
d)NH4NO3→ N2O+2H2O

82.Whichoft
hesereact
ionsar
etr
imol
ecul
ar?
a)2NH4NO3=2N2+O2+4H2O
b)+3NaClO=NaClO3+2NaCl
c)2HI→ H2+I2
d)l2→ 2Cl

83.Whichexpressioncor respondst
othechemi
calequi
li
bri
um const
antf
ort
hisr
eact
ion?
N2+3H2=2NH3
2 3
a)Kc=[NH3] /[ N2]+[H2]
2 3
c)+Kc=[NH3] /[ N2][H2]
b)Kc=[NH3]2/[ N2][H2]
3
d)Kc=[ N2][
H2] /[NH3]2

84.Whatistheequil
ibri
um const
antoft
hisr
eact
ion?
2NO+O2→2NO2
a)Kc=[NO2]2/[NO][O2]
2
c)+Kc=[NO2] /[ NO]2[O2]
b)Kc=[NO][O2]/[NO2]2
d)Kc=[NO2]/[NO][ O2]

85.Theequi
li
bri
um const
antforther
eact
ion?
2CO(g)+O2( g)=2CO2(g):
a)+Kc=[CO2]2/[CO]2[
O2]; c)Kc=1/[CO2]
;
b)Kc=[CO2]/[
CO]; d)Kc=[ CO]/[
CO2]
.

86.Equi
li
bri
um const
antof NaNO3↔ NaNO2+O2r
eact
ioni
s
a)K=[O2]
b)K=[NaNO2]/[
NaNO3]
.
c)+K=[
NaNO2][
O2]
/[NaNO3]

d)K=[
NaNO3]

87.Equil
ibr
ium const
antofCaCO3↔ CaO+CO2r
eact
ioni
s
.
a)+K=[ CaO][ CO2]
/[CaCO3]
b)K=[ CO2]
c)K=[ CaO]/[CaCO3]
.
d)K=[ CaO][CO2]

88.I
nwhatdi
recti
ontheequi
li
bri
um st
ateofN2+H2↔ NH3r
eact
ionwi
llbeshi
ft
edat
pr
essur
eel
ev at
ion?
a)+backward
b)f
orward
c)won’
tshif
ted
d)t
owardsreact
ant
s

89.Ther ateconstantofareact
ionsdependson
a) 
+Temper ature
b) 
  
 Ini
ti
alconcentrat
ionoft
hereactant
s
c) 
  
 Timeofr eacti
on
d) 
  
 Extentofreacti
on

90.Thespecificr
ateconstantofaf
ir
stor
derr
eact
iondependsont
he
a)Concentrat
ionofther
eactant
b)Concent
rati
onoftheproduct
c)+Time
d)Temperatur
e

91.Acat alysti
sasubst ancewhi ch
a)I
ncreasest heequil
ibrium concentr
ati
onoft heproduct
b)Changest heequil
ibrium constantofreact
ion
c)+Shor tensthetimet oreachequili
bri
um
d)Suppliesenergytot her eact
ion
92.
Ther ateofreacti
onofsubst ancesisproporti
onalofthei
r

a)St
abi
l
ity

b)Mol
ecul
arwei
ght

c)Equi
val
entwei
ght

d)+Act
ivemass

93.I
nar
ever
sibl
ereact
ionbot
hsi
der
atesofr
eact
ionsar
e

a)+Same

b)Di
ff
erent

c)Onesi
demor
e

d)Notdef
ini
te

94.
Achemi
calr
eact
ioni
satequi
li
bri
um whent
her
ateoff
orwar
dandbackwar
dreact
ionar
e

a)Unequal

b)
Const
ant

c)+Equal
d)I
ncr
eased

95.Thel
awofmassact
ionwasenunci
atedby

a)+Gul
dber
gandWaage

b)Bodenst
ein

c)Ber
thl
ot

d)Gr
aham

96.
Accordi
ngt
oLeChat
eli
erpr
inci
ple,
ani
ncr
easei
nthet
emper
atur
eoft
hef
oll
owi
ng
r
eacti
onwil
l

N2+O2=2NO–43200cal

a)+I
ncr
easet
hey
iel
dofNO

b)Decr
easebyy
iel
dofNO

c)Notef
fectont
hey
iel
dofNO

d)Nothel
pther
eact
iont
opr
oceed

97.
Giv
ent
her
eact
ion:Zn(
s)+2HCl
(aq)→ ZnCl
2(
aq)+H2(
g)

Whyi
sther
eact
ionsl
owerwhenasi
ngl
epi
eceofzi
nci
susedt
hanwhenpowder
edzi
ncof
t
hesamemassi
sused?

a)t
hepowder
edzi
nci
smor
econcent
rat
ed;

b)t
hesi
ngl
epi
eceofzi
nci
smor
ereact
ive;

c)t
hepowder
edzi
ncr
equi
resl
essact
ivat
ionener
gy;

d)+t
hepowder
edzi
nchasagr
eat
ersur
facear
ea.

98.Whi
cht
akespl
acewhenacat
aly
sti
saddedt
oar
eact
ionatequi
li
bri
um?

a)t
hepoi
ntofequi
l
ibr
ium i
sshi
ft
edt
other
ight
;

b)t
hepoi
ntofequi
l
ibr
ium i
sshi
ft
edt
othel
eft
;
c)+t
hef
orwar
dandr
ever
ser
eact
ionsr
atesar
eincr
easedunequal
l
y;

d)t
hef
orwar
dandr
ever
ser
eact
ionsr
atesar
eincr
easedequal
l
y.

99.
Ast
hef
requencyandt
henumberofef
fect
ivecol
li
sionsbet
weenr
eact
ingpar
ti
cles
i
ncr
eases,
ther
ateoft
her
eact
ion:

a)+i
ncr
eases;

b)decr
eases;

c)r
emai
nst
hesame;

d)appr
oacheszer
o

100.Whi
chf
act
orsar
eequali
nar
ever
sibl
echemi
calr
eact
iont
hathasr
eachedequi
li
bri
um?

a)Thenumberofmol
esoft
her
eact
ant
sandpr
oduct
s;

b)Thepot
ent
ial
ener
giesoft
her
eact
ant
sandpr
oduct
s;

c)Theact
ivat
ionener
giesoft
hef
orwar
dandr
ever
ser
eact
ions;

d)+Ther
atesofr
eact
ionf
ort
hef
orwar
dandr
ever
ser
eact
ions.

101.Acat
aly
sti
saddedt
oasy
stem atequi
li
bri
um.Theconcent
rat
ionoft
her
eact
ant
swi
ll
t
hen:

a)decr
ease;

b)i
ncr
ease;

c)+r
emai
nthesame;

d)appr
oachzer
o

102.I
nanef
for
ttospeedupar
eact
ionbet
weenasol
idandagasonewoul
dnot
:

a)makeanef
for
ttoconcent
rat
ether
eact
ant
sasbestaspossi
ble;

b)addacat
aly
st;

c)cool
ther
eact
iondown;
d)+useapowder
edsol
i
dinst
eadofonebi
glumpoft
hesamesol
i
d.

103.Whi
chr
eact
ionbel
owi
sexpect
edt
ogot
ocompl
eti
on?

1+( -
I
.Zn+HCl
;II
.HCl+NaOH;I
II
.Ag aq)+Cl
(aq)

a)I
Ionl
y;

b)I
IIonl
y;

c)IandI
Ionl
y;

d)+I
IandI
IIonl
y

Sol
uti
ons.

104.Mol
ari
tyi
sexpr
essedas

a)
grams/
li
tr
e

b)l
i
tres/
mol
e

c)+mol
es/
li
tr
e

d)mol
es/
1000gm

105.
Amol
alsol
uti
oni
sonet
hatcont
ainsonemol
eofasol
utei
n

a)+1000gm oft
hesol
vent

c)
onel
i
treoft
hesol
uti
on

b)onel
i
treoft
hesol
vent

d)22.
4li
tr
esoft
hesol
uti
on

106.Nor
mal
it
yisexpr
essedas

a)
mol
es/
li
tr
e

b)+gm equi
val
ent
s/l
i
tre

c)
mol
es/
1000gm

d)
gram/
li
tr
e

107.Thenor
mal
it
yof10%(
w/v
)acet
icaci
dis

a)1N
b)10N

c)+2.
7N

d)+1.
7N

108.Nor
mal
it
yofasol
uti
oncont
aini
ng0.
50g-
eqofasubst
ancei
n2l
it
resofsol
uti
oni
s

a)+13N

b)0x1N

c)+1N

d)None

109.Thenor
mal
it
yofasol
uti
onofNaOH;
100ml
.ofwhi
chcont
ains4gofNaOHi
s

a)0x1

b)+2.
0

c)+1.
0

d)0.
4

110.Nor
mal
it
yofsul
phur
icaci
dcont
aini
ng50goft
heaci
din500mlofsol
uti
oni
s

a)+5.
04N

b)0.
49N

c)+2.
04N

d)0.
35N

111.Whati
sthenor
mal
it
yofa1M sol
uti
onofH3PO4?

a)0.
5N

b)+3.
0N

c)2.
0N

d)+3.
6N

112.
Nor
mal
it
yof2M sul
phur
icaci
dis

a)+4N

b)+47N
c)N/
2

d)N/
4

113.
Thenor
mal
it
yofa2.
3M sul
phur
icaci
dsol
uti
oni
s

a)+4.
6N

b)0.
23N

c)2.
3N

d)+3.
6N

114.Thewei
ghtofpur
eNaOHr
equi
redt
opr e250cm3of0.
epar 1Nsol
uti
oni
s

a)4g

b)+16g

c)+1g

d)10g

115.Mol
ari
tyofa0.
2NNa2CO3sol
uti
onwi
llbe

a)0.
05M

b)0.
2M

c)+0.
1M

d)0.
4M

116.Themol
ari
tyofpur
ewat
eri
s

a)+5.
6

b)+55.
6

c)100

d)18

117.Thenumberofmol
esi
n180gofwat
eri
s

a)1
b)+10

c)18

d)100

118.Thenumberofmol
esofKCli
n1000mlof3mol
arsol
uti
oni
s

a)1

b)+3

c)+9

d)1.
5

119.
Mol
ari
tyof4%NaOHsol
uti
oni
s

a)0.
1M

b)0.
5M

c)0.
01M

d)+1.
0M

120.Whatisthesol
uti
on?
a)+amixtureconsi
sti
ngofasol
uteandasol
vent

b)
componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthel
esseramount

c)
componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthegr
eat
eramount

d)
amountofasol
utepr
esenti
nasol
uti
onperst
andar
damountofsol
vent

121.Whati
sthesolut
e?
a)amixt
ureconsi
sti
ngofasol
uteandasol
vent

b)
+componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthel
esseramount

c)
componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthegr
eat
eramount

d)
amountofasol
utepr
esenti
nasol
uti
onperst
andar
damountofsol
vent

122.Whati
sthesolvent
?
a)amixt
ureconsi
sti
ngofasol
uteandasol
vent

b)
componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthel
esseramount

c)
+componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthegr
eat
eramount
d)
amountofasol
utepr
esenti
nasol
uti
onperst
andar
damountofsol
vent

123.Whati
stheconcent
rat
ion?
a)amixt
ureconsi
sti
ngofasolut
eandasol
vent

b)
componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthel
esseramount

c)
componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthegr
eat
eramount

d)
+amountofasol
utepr
esenti
nasol
uti
onperst
andar
damountofsol
vent

124.Ami
xtur
econsi
sti
ngofasol
uteandasol
venti
scal
led?

a)+Sol
uti
on

b)
Sol
ute

c)
Sol
vent

d)
Concent
rat
ion

125.Componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthel
esseramounti
scal
led?

a)
Sol
uti
on

b)+Sol
ute

c)
Sol
vent

d)
Concent
rat
ion

126.Componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthegr
eat
eramounti
scal
led?

a)
Sol
uti
on

b)
Sol
ute

c)
+Sol
vent

d)
Concent
rat
ion

127.Amountofasol
utepr
esenti
nasol
uti
onperst
andar
damountofsol
venti
scal
led?
a)Solut
ion

b)
Sol
ute

c)
Sol
vent
d)
+Concent
rat
ion

128.Massf
ract
ioni
scal
led?

a)Thenumberofmol
essol
utecont
ainedi
n1kgofsol
vent
.

b)+t
her
ati
ooft
hemassoft
hesol
utei
nthemasssol
uti
on:

c)t
heequi
val
entamountofasubst
ancecont
ainedi
n1l
i
terofsol
uti
on.

d)t
hemassofsubst
ancei
n1l
i
terofsol
uti
on.

129.Massf
ract
ion i
s expr
essedi
n:

a)mol
/kg.

b)+per
cent
age

c)mol
/l.

d)g/ml
.

130.Mat
hemat
icalexpr
essi
onoft
heMassf
ract
ion

a) c)+

b) d)

131.
Themol
arconcent
rat
ioni
scal
led?

a)t
her
ati
ooft
hemassoft
hesol
utei
nthemasssol
uti
on:

b)+t
hemassofsubst
ancei
n1l
i
terofsol
uti
on.

c)t
heequi
val
entamountofasubst
ancecont
ainedi
n1l
i
terofsol
uti
on.

d)t
hemassofsol
utecont
ainedi
n1kgofsol
vent
.

132.Mol
arconcent
rat
ioni
sexpr
essedi
n:

a)mol
/kg.

b)per
cent
age

c)+mol
/l.
d)g/ml
.

133.Mat
hemat
icalexpr
essi
onoft
heMol
arconcent
rat
ion

a) c)

b)+ d)

134.Themolarconcent r
ati
onofequiv al
entiscal
led?
a)+t heequi
valentamountofasubst ancecontai
nedin1l i
terofsol
uti
on.
b)thenumberofmol essol ut
econtai
nedi n1kgofsolv ent
.
c)themassofsubst ancein1lit
erofsoluti
on.
d)therat
ioofthemassoft hesolutei
nt hemasssol ut
ion:

135.Themol
arconcent
rat
ionofequi
val
enti
sexpr
essedi
n:

a)mol
/kg.

b)per
cent
age

c)+mol
/l.

d)g/ml
.

136.Mat
hemat
icalexpr
essi
onoft
hemol
arconcent
rat
ionequi
val
ent

a) c)+

b) d)

137.Themol alconcentr
ati
onis:
a)therat
ioofthemassoft hesoluteinthemasssolut
ion:
b)themassofsubst ancein1li
terofsoluti
on.
c)theequiv
alentamountofasubst ancecontai
nedi
n1l i
terofsol
uti
on.
d)+thenumberofmol essol
utecontainedin1kgofsolvent
.

138.Mol
alconcent
rat
ion i
s expr
essedi
n:

a)+mol
/kg.
b)per
cent
age

c)mol
/l.

d)g/ml
.

139.Mat
hemat
icalexpr
essi
onoft
heMol
alconcent
rat
ion

a) + c)

b) d)

140.Fi
ndvolumeconcent
rat
ion
a)masspercent
b)+nor
mal
i
ty
c)mol
ali
ty
d)massf
ract
ion

141.Whohaddev
elopedt
heor
yofsol
uti
onschemi
calnat
ure
a)VantHof
f
b)Mendel
eev
c)+Ar
rheni
us
d)Lomonosov

142.Fi
ndequi
val
entmassofsul
phur
icaci
d
a) 98
b) 2
c) 32
d)+49
143.Fi
ndequi
val
entmassofphosphor
icaci
d
a) 98
b)2
c)+32.
6
d)49
144.Fi
ndequi
val
entmassofcal
cium hy
droxi
de
a) 98
b)+37
c) 32
d)49
145.“Act
ivat
ionener
gy”t
ermi
sint
roducedby
a)coordi
nati
ontheor
y
b)t
heor
yofv
alentbonds
c)+t
heor
yofact
ivecol
l
isi
ons
d)t
heor
yofel
ect
rol
yti
cdi
ssoci
ati
on

146.
 Whent
her
eisal
owconcent
rat
ionofsol
utei
nasol
uti
on,
iti
sknownas

a)+di
l
utedsol
uti
on

b)sat
urat
edsol
uti
on

c)concent
rat
edsol
uti
on

d)unsat
urat
edsol
uti
on

147.
Sol
uti
oni
shi
ghl
yconcent
rat
edwhensol
utei
sin

a)+hi
ghconcent
rat
ion

b)l
owconcent
rat
ion

c)hi
ght
emepr
atur
e

d)l
owt
emepr
atur
e

148.Oneofmostcommonki
ndoft
it
rat
ioni
nvol
vesexactneut
ral
izat
ionofanal
kal
i(OH-)
-
bya/an

a)base

b)+aci
d
c)sal
t

d)suspensi
on
3
149.Numberofmolesofsol
utedi
ssol
vedperdm  
ofsol
uti
oni
s
a)mol al
i
ty
b)percentage
c)concentrati
on
d)+mol arit
y

150. Ahomogeneousmi xtureoftwosubstancesi
sa
a)col
loi
d. 
  
   
  
 
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 
b) 
suspension
c)+soluti
on. 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d)compound.

151.Thedissol
vingmedi um inthesol
uti
oni
sthe
a)sol
ute.
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 c)sol
ution.
b)+solvent.
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
   
 d) 
mixtur
e.

152.Whichoft hefoll
owingi snotasolut
ion?
a)+zinc   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
c)brass
b)ster
li
ngsilver 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d)stai
nlessst
eel

153.Whati sthesolventin70%al coholsol


uti
on?
a) 
  
 +  
 al
cohol 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 c) 
sugar
b) 
  
  
 water
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d) ker
osene

154.Whi chofthesesoluti
onsi sinsoli
dphase?
a) 
ti
nctureofiodi
ne  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 c) 
aer
osol
b)ai
r-
iodinesolut
ion 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 d)+dental
amalgam

155.Whichoft hefoll
owingisnotapr oper
tyofsol
uti
on?
a)+Ithasadef ini
tecompositi
on.
b)I
thasahomogeneouscomposi t
ion.
c)I
tisconsi
stofasi ngl
ephase.
d)I
tcanbephy sical
lysepar
atedint
oi t
scomponents.

156. Asoluti
oncont aini
ngt hemaxi mum amountofdi
ssol
vedsol
utei
s
a)+concent r
ated. 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
   
 c)
dil
ute.
b)unsat
urated.
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 d)sat
urated.

157. 
Oft hefol
lowi
ng,whichwi lli
ncreaset hesol ubi
li
tyofagasinwater
?
a)i
ncreasi
ngthetemperature 
  
  
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
c) 
increasi
ngt hevol
ume
b)+increasi
ngthepressure  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d)decreasingthepr
essur
e

158.Whatopposi
ngpr
ocessesoccuri
nsat
urat
edsol
uti
on?
a)Vapor
izati
onandcondensati
on  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
c)Oxi
dat
ionandreduction
b) +Di
ssolut
ionandcr
ystal
li
zati
on  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 d)Di
ssoci
ati
onandr educti
on

159.Whi
chsoluti
onshasconcentr
ati
onof1M?
  Themol
armassofsucr
osei
s342g.
  
A
sol
uti
oncontai
ning
a)342gsucr
osein658gofwat er
b)+342gsucrosei n1000mLofsolut
ion
c)342gsucr
osein1000gofwat er
d)342gsucrosein1000gofsolut
ion

160.Keroseneisanonpol arsolvent

 Whichsol utewilldi
ssol
vei
nit
?
a.
) +hexane   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
c)ethanol
b)sodi
um carbonate  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d)potassium chl
ori
de

161. Mostsaltbecomesol ubleinwat erasthe


a) 
pressur
eisincreased. 
  
  
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 c)
t emperatur
eisdecreased.
b)+t emper
atureisincreased. 
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 d) 
pressurei
sdecreased.

162.Itr
eferstothemassofsol utedissolvein100gofsolut
ion.
a)+Percentbymass   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
c)Mol
ari
ty
b)Mol
ali
ty 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d)Molef
ract
ion

163.Thenumberofmol esofsol utedivi


dedbyt henumberofki
logr
amsofsol
venti
s
a)Per
centbymass   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
c)Molari
ty
b)+Molali
ty 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d)Molefract
ion

164.I
treferstothepr ocessofpr epari
ngal
essconcent
rat
edsol
uti
onf
rom amor
e
concentr
atedsol ut
ion.
a) 
Molari
ty 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 
c)+Dil
ution
b)Nor
mality
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 
d)Molal
it
y

165. I
ndiluti
onofsoluti
on,
a) 
asoluteisaddedtothesol uti
on.
b)+solventisaddedtothesol uti
on.
c) 
theamountofmol esincreases.
d)vol
umeofsol ut
iondecreases.

166.A40%alcoholcont
ains
a)40mLal
coholin100mLofwater.
b)+40mLalcoholin60mLofwater.
c)60mLofal
coholin100mLofwater.
d)60mLofal
cohol i
n40mLofwater.

Col
li
gat
ivepr
oper
ti
esofsol
uti
ons.
167.Sol
uti
onsar
e:
а)i
sol
atedsy
stems,
separ
atedf
rom t
hesur
roundi
ngsbyani
nter
facesur
face;
b)homogeneoussy
stemswhi
chdonotexchangebymasswi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs;
c)+homogeneoussy
stemswhi
chcont
ainatl
eastt
wocomponent
s;
d)het
erogeneoussy
stemswhi
chcont
ainatl
eastt
wocomponent
s.

168.Sol
ubi
li
tyofsol
idsdependsupon:
a)t
emper
atur
e,t
henat
ureofsol
utesandsol
vent
s; c)heatofsol
uti
on;
b)pr
essur
e; d)+al
lanswer
sar
eri
ght
.

169.I
naccor
dancewi
tht
hest
ateofsol
vent
ssol
uti
onsar
e:
a)l
i
qui
d,t
ranspar
ent
,col
ored;
b)sol
i
d,l
i
qui
d,t
urbi
d;
c)+gaseous,
li
qui
d,sol
i
d;
d)l
i
qui
d,t
urbi
d,col
ored.
170.Nameequi
li
bri
um const
ant
swhi
chchar
act
eri
zehomogeneousequi
li
bri
um i
naqueous
sol
uti
ons:
a)+sol
ubi
l
itypr
oductconst
ant(
Ksp)
;
b)aci
dioni
zat
ionconst
ant(
Ka)
;basei
oni
zat
ionconst
ant(
Kb)
;
c)mol
arf
reezi
ng-
poi
ntconst
ant(
Kf)
;
d)mol
arboi
l
ing-
poi
ntconst
ant(
Kb)
.

171.Col
li
gat
ive(
col
lect
ive)pr
oper
ti
esofsol
uti
onsdependupont
henumber
ofsol
utepar
ti
clesandnott
hei
rnat
ure.Theyar
e:
a)+v
aporpr
essur
elower
ing;
b)
densi
ty;
c)v
iscosi
ty;
d)di
ff
usi
on.

172.Thest
atementt
hatsol
ubi
li
tyofagasi
nal
iqui
dispr
opor
ti
onalt
oit
spar
ti
al
pr
essur
eabov
ethesol
uti
oni
sdef
inedas:

a)+TheHenr
yslaw;
b)TheSechenovequat
ion;
c)TheOst
v d’
alsdi
l
uti
onl
aw;

d)ThePaul
spr
inci
ple.

173.Aner
ythr
ocy
tepl
acedi
nto10%NaClsol
uti
onunder
goes:
a)Hemol
ysi
s;
b)+Pl
asmol
ysi
s;
c)Swel
l
ing;
d)Pr
eci
pit
ati
on.

174.Poi
ntoutasol
uti
onwi
tht
hehi
ghestboi
li
ngpoi
nt:
a)+0.
01M sucr
ose;
b)0.
01M sodi
um phosphat
e;
c)0.
01М pot
assi
um chl
ori
de;
d)0.
01M sodi
um car
bonat
e.

175.TheRaoul
t’
sebul
li
oscopi
clawcanbedef
inedas:
а)boi
l
ingpoi
ntsofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngnonv
olat
il
esol
utesar
eal
way
slowert
hant
hatofpur
e
sol
vent
s;
b)boi
l
ingpoi
ntsofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngnonv
olat
il
esol
utesar
eal
way
shi
ghert
hant
hatofpur
e
sol
vent
s;
c)boi
l
ing poi
ntsofpur
esol
vent
sar
eal
way
shi
ghert
han t
hatofsol
uti
onst
hatcont
ain
nonv
olat
il
esol
utes;
d)+ boi
l
ingpoi
ntsofpur
esol
vent
sar
eal
way
slowert
hant
hatofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ng
nonv
olat
il
esol
utes.

176.Sol
uti
onswhi
char
eappl
iedi
nmedi
cinef
ori
ntr
avenousi
nject
ionsar
echar
act
eri
zedby
t
hei
rosmol
ari
tyorosmol
ali
ty.Theseconcent
rat
ionuni
tsexpr
ess:
a)concent
rat
ionof
wat
er;
b)concent
rat
ionofsubst
ancesunabl
etodi
ff
uset
hroughcel
lmembr
anes;
c)+concent
rat
ionofsubst
ancesabl
etodi
ff
uset
hroughcel
lmembr
anes;
d)concent
rat
ionofel
ect
rol
ytes.

177.
Poi
ntout
sol
uti
onswhi
char
eisot
oni
cwi
thbl
oodpl
asma:
а)3%sodi
um chl
ori
de;
4.5%gl
ucose;
b)0.
9%gl
ucose;
0.9%sodi
um chl
ori
de;
c)+0.
9%sodi
um chl
ori
de;
4.5%gl
ucose;
d)20%gl
ucose;
10%CaCl
2.

178.Def
inet
heRaoul
t’
scr
yoscopi
claw:
a)
Freezi
ngpoi
ntsofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngnonv
olat
il
esol
utesar
eal
way
slowert
hant
hatof
pur
esol
vent
s;
b)+Fr
eezi
ngpoi
ntsofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngnonv
olat
il
esol
utesar
eal
way
shi
ghert
hant
hatof
pur
esol
vent
s;
c)Fr
eezi
ngpoi
ntsofpur
esol
vent
sar
eal
way
slowert
hant
hatofsol
uti
ons;
d)Fr
eezi
ngpoi
ntsofpur
esol
vent
sar
eal
way
shi
ghert
hant
hatofsol
uti
ons.

179.Thef
ir
stRaoul
t’
sLawi
sdef
inedas:
a)+Thev
aporpr
essur
eofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngnonv
olat
il
esol
utesi
sal
way
slesst
hant
hatof
pur
esol
vent
s;
b)Thedecr
easei
nvaporpr
essur
eisnotpr
opor
ti
onal
tot
hemol
efr
act
ionofasol
ute;
c)Thev
aporpr
essur
eofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngnonv
olat
il
esol
utesi
sal
way
shi
ghert
hant
hat
ofpur
esol
vent
s;
d)Thev
aporpr
essur
eofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngv
olat
il
esol
utesi
sal
way
slesst
hant
hatofpur
e
sol
vent
s.

180.I
nor
dert
oincr
easesol
ubi
li
tyofgasesi
nwat
eri
tisnecessar
y:
a)+t
oincr
easegaspr
essur
eabov
ewat
er;
sol
uti
on;
todecr
easet
emper
atur
e;
b)t
oaddsomeel
ect
rol
ytesi
ntoasol
uti
on;
c)
toaddsomenonel
ect
rol
ytesi
ntoasol
uti
on;
d)t
oincr
easet
emper
atur
e.

181.Osmosi
sisaspont
aneouspr
ocessdef
inedas:
a)Ar
ever
sibl
ether
mody
nami
cpr
ocessofwat
erdi
ff
usi
ont
hroughsemi
per
meabl
emembr
ane
f
rom asol
uti
onofaweakel
ect
rol
ytei
ntoasol
uti
onofast
rongel
ect
rol
yte;
b)Ar
ever
sibl
ether
mody
nami
cpr
ocessofwat
erdi
ff
usi
ont
hroughsemi
per
meabl
emembr
ane
f
rom at
ruesol
uti
ont
oacol
l
oidal
sol
uti
on;
c) A r
ever
sibl
ether
mody
nami
c pr
ocess of sol
ute di
ff
usi
on t
hrough semi
per
meabl
e
membr
anef
rom apur
ewat
ert
oasol
uti
on;
d)+ A r
ever
sibl
ether
mody
nami
c pr
ocess ofwat
erdi
ff
usi
on t
hrough semi
per
meabl
e
membr
anef
rom adi
l
utesol
uti
oni
ntoamor
econcent
rat
edone.

182.Cr
yoscopyandebul
li
oscopyar
eexper
iment
almet
hodst
odet
ermi
ne:
a)
Densi
ty; c)Vi
scosi
ty;
b)Mol
armass; d)+Osmot
icpr
essur
e.

183.Theosmol
ari
t 0×10-2M NaCli
yof5. sequalt
o:
0×10-2osmol
a)2. ; 0×10-2osmol
c)3. ;
0×10-1osmol
b)+1. ; 0×10-3osmol
d)5. .

184.Osmol
ari
tyi
s:
a)t
hemol
ari
tyofpar
ti
clesi
nasol
uti
on;
b)+t
heamountofsol
utedi
ssol
vedi
naspeci
fi
edamountofsol
uti
on;
c)massper
cent
ageconcent
rat
ion;
d)t
heconcent
rat
ioni
npar
tspert
housand.

185.Osmot
icpr
essur
ecanbecal
cul
atedaccor
dingt
othef
oll
owi
ngequat
ion:
a)+=MRT;
b)Tf=KfCm;
c)Tb=KbCm;
d)Tf=i
KfCm.

186.Nor
malosmot
icpr
essur
eofbl
oodpl
asmai
s:
a)+740-
780kPa;
b)140-
240kPa;
c)840-
980kPa;
d)60-
70kPa.
187.Col
li
gat
ivepr
oper
ti
esofsol
uti
onsdependupon:
a)+t
henumberoft
hesol
utepar
ti
cles;
b)t
hechemi
cal
str
uct
ureofsol
ute;
c)cat
aly
sts;
d)pHscal
e.

188.Boi
li
ngpointofsol
uti
onwi
thconcent
rat
ionr
ise
a)+incr
eases
b)r
emai
nssame
c)decr
eases
d)noef
fect
189.Sol
vent
’ssat
urat
edv
aporpr
essur
eov
ersol
uti
on
a)i
ncr
eases
b)r
emai
nssame
c)+Decr
eases
d)Noneoft
hem
190.Osmoticpr
essur
eofsol
uti
onwi
thconcent
rat
ionr
ise
a)+incr
eases
b)r
emai
nssame
c)decr
eases
d)i
ncr
eases t
hendecr
eases

191.Forspont
aneouspr
ocesses
a)ΔH≥ 0
b)ΔS≤0
c)ΔG≥0
d)+ΔH≤0
192.Coll
igati
veproper
tyofsol
uti
onofnon-el
ect
rol
ytedoesn’
tdependon
a)concentrat
ion
b)+nat
ureofsol
vent
c)t
emper
atur
e
d)nat
ureofsol
ute
193.Saturatedvapourpr
essur
eofsol
uti
on(
accor
dingt
oRaoul
t’
slaw) i
sdi
rect
ly
proport
ionalto
a)temperature
b)+mol
arf
ract
ionofsol
ute
c)mol
arf
ract
ionofsol
vent
d)mi
xi
ngr
ate
194.Sol
uti
onshav
ingosmot
icpr
essur
ehi
ghert
hant
hatofbl
oodpl
asmaar
ecal
led
a)hypot
oni
c
b)i
soosmot
ic
c)sat
urat
ed
d)+Hy
per
toni
c

195.Sol
uti
onshav
ingosmot
icpr
essur
elesst
hant
hatofbl
oodpl
asmaar
ecal
led
a)+hy
pot
oni
c
b)i
soosmot
ic
c)sat
urat
ed
d)i
sot
oni
c

196.Sol
uti
onshav
ingsameosmot
icpr
essur
ear
ecal
led
a)hypot
oni
c
b)i
soosmot
ic
c)sat
urat
ed
d)+i
sot
oni
c
197.Sol
uti
onshav
ingosmot
icpr
essur
esamewi
tht
hatofbl
oodpl
asmaar
ecal
led
a)hypot
oni
c
b)+i
soosmot
ic
c)sat
urat
ed
d)i
sot
oni
c
198.Methodofdet
ermi
nat
ionofmol
armassofsol
uteont
hebaseofVantHof
flawi
s
cal
led
a)cr
yomet
ry
b)+osmomet
ry
c)pH-
met
ry
d)ebul
i
omet
ry
199.Methodofdet
ermi
nat
ionofmol
armassofsol
uteont
hebaseoff
reezi
ngpoi
nti
s
cal
led
a)+cryometr
y
b)osmomet
ry
c)pH-
met
ry
d)ebul
i
omet
ry
200.Met
hodofdet
ermi
nat
ionofmol
armassofsol
uteont
hebaseofboi
li
ngpoi
nti
scal
led
a)cry
ometr
y
b)osmomet
ry
c)pH-
met
ry
d)+ebul
i
omet
ry
201.Thesol
ubi
li
tyofagasdissolvedinal iquidi
snotaffect
edbyt
he
a.
)Natur
eofsol
uteandsol
vent  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 c)Temperat
ure
b)+Rateatwhi
chthegasdissol
ves   
  
  
  
  
   
  
d)Pr
essure

202.Whi chi
nvolvesthecol
li
gativepropert
ies?
a)Heati
ngofsolvent.
b)Al
lowingacarbonatedbeveragetowar mt oroom temperat
ure.
c)+Addi ngsal
ttothewaterinwhichpastai sbeingcooked.
d)Pouri
ngaconcent r
atedsol
utionint
oadi l
utesol ut
ion.

203.Themov ementofmolecul
esf
rom anar
eaofhi
ghconcent
rat
iont
oanar
eaofl
ower
concentr
ationisknownas:
a)Osmosis
b)+Di f
fusi
on
c)Acti
veTransport
d)Phagocytosis

204.Themov ementofwat
ermoleculesfr
om anar
eaofhighconcent
rat
iont
oanar
eaof
lowconcentr
ati
onthr
oughasemi permeabl
emembraneisknownas:
a)Acti
veTransport
b)Diff
usi
on
c)Phagocyt
osis
d)+Osmosi s

205.Themov
ementofmol
ecul
esf
rom anar
eaofl
owconcent
rat
iont
oanar
eaofhi
gh
concentrati
onagainsttheconcent
rat
iongr
adi
enti
sknownas:
a)+Act i
veTransport
b)Diffusi
on
c)Osmosis
d)Phagocytosi
s

206.Col
li
gat
ivepr
oper
ti
esoft
hesol
uti
ondependon

a)Nat
ureofsol
ute

b)Nat
ureofsol
vent

c)+Numberofpar
ti
clespr
esenti
nthesol
uti
on

d)Numberofmol
esofsol
ventonl
y

207.Whi
chonei
sacol
li
gat
ivepr
oper
ty?

a)Boi
l
ingpoi
nt

b)Vapourpr
essur
e

c)+Osmot
icpr
essur
e

d)Fr
eezi
ngpoi
nt

208.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotacol
li
gat
ivepr
opr
etr
y?

a)Osmot
icpr
essur
e

b)El
evat
ionofb.
p.

c)+Vapourpr
essur
e

d)Depr
essi
onoff
.p.

209.Whi
chi
snotacol
li
gat
ivepr
oper
ty?

a)+Fr
eezi
ngpoi
nt

b)Lower
ingofv
apourpr
essur
e

c)Depr
essi
onoff
reezi
ngpoi
nt

d)El
evat
ionofboi
l
ingpoi
nt

210.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sacol
li
gat
ivepr
oper
ty?

a)Sur
facet
ensi
on

b)Vi
scosi
ty
c)+Osmot
icpr
essur
e

d)Boi
l
ingpoi
nt

211.Ther
elat
ivel
ower
ingoft
hev
apourpr
essur
eisequalt
other
ati
obet
weent
henumber
of

a)Sol
utemol
ecul
est
othesol
ventmol
ecul
es

b)+Sol
utemol
ecul
est
othet
otal
mol
ecul
esi
nthesol
uti
on

c)Sol
ventmol
ecul
est
othet
otal
mol
ecul
esi
nthesol
uti
on

d)Sol
ventmol
ecul
est
othet
otal
numberofi
onsoft
hesol
ute

212.Therel
ati
vel
oweri
ngofv
apourpr
essur
eisequalt
othemol
efr
act
ionoft
hesol
ute.
Thisl
awwasgivenby

a)+Raoul
t

b)Ost
wal
d

c)Van’
tHof
f

d)Lewi
s

213.Accor
dingt
oRaoul
t’
slaw,
ther
elat
ivel
ower
ingofv
apourf
orasol
uti
oni
sequalt
o

a)Mol
esofsol
ute

b)Mol
efr
act
ionofsol
vent

c)Mol
esofsol
vent

d)+Mol
efr
act
ionofsol
ute

214.Ami
xtur
eofbenzeneandt
oluenef
orms

a)+Ani
deal
sol
uti
on

b)Non-
ideal
sol
uti
on

c)Suspensi
on

d)Emul
sion

215.Whencommonsal
tisdi
ssol
vedi
nwat
er

a)M.p.oft
hesol
uti
oni
ncr
eases

b)+B.p.oft
hesol
uti
oni
ncr
eases
c)B.p.oft
hesol
uti
ondecr
eases

d)Bot
hm.p.andb.p.decr
eases

216.El
evat
ionofboi
li
ngpoi
ntofasol
uti
oni
sdi
rect
lypr
opor
ti
onalt
o

a)+Mol
ecul
arwt
.ofsol
ute

b)Mol
ecul
arwt
.ofsol
vent

c)Mol
ali
tyofsol
ute

d)Noneoft
hese

217.Whenasoluti
onissepar
atedf
rom asol
ventbysemi
per
meabl
emembr
ane,
then
phenomenontaki
ngplacei
scall
ed

a)+Osmosi
s

b)Di
ff
usi
on

c)Cat
aphor
esi
s

d)Pl
asmol
ysi
s

218.Theosmot
icpr
essur
eofasol
uti
oni
sgi
venbyt
hef
ormul
a:

a)П=ST/
C

b)П=CT/
S

c)П=SC/
T

d)+П/C=ST

219.Themel
ti
ngpoi
ntofani
mpur
ecompoundi
sgener
all
y__
___
___
___
_thatoft
hepur
e
soli
d.

a)
lesst
han c)+gr
eat
ert
han

b)
thesameas d)gr
eat
ert
hanorequal
to

220.IfSol
uti
onA cont
ains5gNaCli
n100mLwaterandSolut
ionBcont
ains 10gNaCli
n
100mLwat er
,whi
chofthefol
lowi
ngi
str
ueaboutsol
uti
onAandB?

a)Sol
uti
onAhasgr
eat
erboi
l
ingpoi
ntt
hanSol
uti
onB.
b)+Sol
uti
onBhasgr
eat
erboi
l
ingpoi
ntt
hanSol
uti
onA.

c)Sol
uti
onAandBhav
ethesameboi
l
ingpoi
nt.

d)noneoft
hem.

221.Whathappensdur
ingosmosi
s?

a)Pur
esol
ventdi
ff
usest
hroughamembr
anebutsol
utesdonot
.

b)+Pur
esol
utesdi
ff
uset
hroughamembr
anebutsol
ventdoesnot
.

c)
Gazesdi
ff
uset
hroughamembr
anei
ntoasol
uti
onandbui
l
duppr
essur
e.

d)Pur
esol
ventandasol
uti
onbot
hdi
ff
useatt
hesamet
imet
hroughamembr
ane.

222.Accor
dingt
oRaoul
t`
slaw,
whi
chst
atementi
sFALSE?

a)Thesolubil
it
yofagazincr
easesast
hetemper
aturei
ncreases.
b)Thegreaterthepr
essur
eofagazoverasol
uti
onthegreateri
tssol
ubi
l
ity
.

c)
Thev
aporpr
essur
eofasol
ventov
erasol
uti
oni
slesst
hant
hatofpur
esol
vent
.

d)+Thev
aporpr
essur
eofasol
ventov
erasol
uti
ondecr
easesasi
tsmol
efr
act
ioni
ncr
ease

223.Inwhatt
emper
atur
edoest
hev
aporpr
essur
eoft
hel
iqui
dequalt
heat
mospher
ic
pressur
e?

1000C
a) c)mel
ti
ngpoi
nt

b)+boi
l
ingpoi
nt d)f
reezi
ngpoi
nt

224.Asubst
ancewhosewat
ersol
uti
onanel
ect
ri
ccur
renti
scal
leda(
n)

a)+el
ect
rol
yte c)pol
arsubst
ance

b)nonel
ect
rol
yte d)
nonpol
arsubst
ance

225.Asubst
ancet
hatv
apor
izeseasi
lyi
sknownas

a)+v
olat
il
e

b)
elect
rol
yte

c)nonv
olat
il
e
d)nonel
ect
rol
yte

El
ect
rol
yti
cdi
ssoci
ati
onofwat
er,
aci
ds,
basesandsal
ts.

Sal
tshy
drol
ysi
s.Buf
fersy
stems.

226.Acet
icaci
disweakbecause

a)I
tisunst
abl
e

b)I
tisanor
gani
cal
i
phat
icaci
d

c)+I
tissl
i
ght
lyi
oni
zed

d)Noneoft
hese

227.At800Cpuredi
stil
ledwat H3O+]concent
erhas[ rat
i o1x10-6mol
onequalt /L.Thev
alue
ofKw att
hist
emperaturewi
llbe

a)+1x10-6

b)1x10-12

c)1x10-14

d)1x10-5

228.Oneli
tr
eofwat
ercont
ains10-7mol
esofH+i
ons.Per
cent
agedegr
eeofi
noni
zat
ionof
wateri
s

8x10-7
a)1.
-
9
b)0.
8x10

6x10-7
c)+3.

6x10-9
d)3.

229.Theconcent
rati
onof[H+]andconcentr
ati OH-]ofa0.
onof[ 1M aqueoussol
uti
onof2%
-
14
ioni
zedweakacidis(
ioni
cpr oductofwat
er=1x10 ) .

02x10-3M and5x10-11M r
a)0. espect
ivel
y

b)1x10-3M and3x10-11M r
espect
ivel
y

c)2x10-3M and5x10-12M r
espect
ivel
y

12M and4x10-13M r
d)3x10- espect
ivel
y
230.Theconcent
rat
ionofhy
drogeni H+]i
on[ n0.
01M HCli
s

a)10-12

b)+10-2

10-4
c)
-
13
d)
10

231.Thenumberofhy
drogeni
onsi
n1mlsol
uti
onofpH13i
s

a)10-13

b)1013

023x107
c)+6.

0233x1010
d)6.

232.pHof10-10mol
arHClsol
uti
oni
sappr
oxi
mat
ely

a)10

b)+7

c)1

d)14

233.ThepHofa10-8mol
arsol
uti
onofHCli
nwat
eri
s

a)8

b)-
8

c)Bet
ween7and8

d)+Bet
ween6and7

234.Concent
rat
ionofhy
drogeni
oni
nwat
eri
s

a)8

b)+1x10-7

c)7

d)1
235.Anaqueoussol
uti
onofCuSO4i
s

a)+Aci
dic

b)Basi
c

c)Neut
ral

d)Amphot
eri
c

236.Theaqueoussol
uti
onofFeCl
3isaci
dict
o

a)Aci
dici
mpur
it
ies

b)I
oni
zat
ion

c)+Hy
drol
ysi
s

d)Di
ssoci
ati
on

237.FeCl
3sol
uti
oni
s

a)+Aci
dic

b)Basi
c

c)Neut
ral

d)Amphot
eri
c

238.Aqueoussol
uti
onofsodi
um acet
atei
s

a)Neut
ral

b)c)
Str
ongl
yaci
dic

c)Weakl
yaci
dic

d)+Al
kal
i
ne

239.Anaqueoussol
uti
onofal
umi
niumsul
phat
ewoul
dshow

a)+Anaci
dicr
eact
ion

b)Aneut
ral
react
ion

c)Abasi
creact
ion

d)Bot
haci
dicandbasi
creact
ion
240.Anaqueoussol
uti
onofammoni
um acet
atei
s

a)Fai
ntl
yaci
dic

b)Fai
rl
yaci
dic

c)Fai
ntl
yal
kal
i
ne

d)+Al
mostneut
ral

241.Whi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
saci
dsal
t?

a)Na2S

b)Na2SO3

c)+NaHSO3

d)Na2SO4

242.Whi
chsal
tcanbecl
assi
fi
edasanaci
dsal
t?

a)Na2SO4

b)Bi
OCl

c)Pb(
OH)
Cl

d)+Na2HPO4

243.Whi
chonei
snotanaci
dsal
t?

a)Na2H2PO4

b)+NaH2PO2

c)NaH2PO3

d)Noneoft
heabov
e

244.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngsal
tswhendi
ssol
vedi
nwat
erhy
drol
yse?

a)NaCl

b)+NH4Cl

c)KCl

d)Na2SO4
245.Whi
chonewi
llnotbehy
drol
ysed?

a)+Pot
assi
um ni
tr
ate

b)Pot
assi
um cy
ani
de

c)Pot
assi
um succi
nat
e

d)Pot
assi
um car
bonat
e

246.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngsal
tunder
goeshy
drol
ysi
s?

a)+CH3COOK

b)KCl

c)NaNO3

d)d)
K2SO4

247.Anaqueoussol
uti
onofammoni
um car
bonat
eis

a)Weakl
yaci
dic

b)+Weakl
ybasi
c

c)St
rongl
yaci
dic

d)Nei
theraci
dicnorbasi
c

248.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngdi
ssol
vesi
nwat
ert
ogi
vei
sneut
ralsol
uti
on

a)(
NH4)
2SO4

b)+Ba(
NO3)
2

c)Cr
Cl3

d)CuSO4

249.Theaq.Sol
uti
onofasal
tisal
kal
ine.Thi
sshowst
hatsal
tismadef
rom

a)Ast
rongaci
dandst
rongbase

b)Ast
rongaci
dandweakbase

c)Aweakaci
dandweakbase

d)+Aweakaci
dandst
rongbase

250.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngaqueoussol
uti
onwi
llhav
eapHl
esst
han7.
0?
a)KNO3

b)NaOH

c)+FeCl
3

d)NaCN

251.Addi
ti
onofwhi
chchemi
caldecr
easest
hehy
drogeni
onconcent
rat
ionofanacet
icaci
d
sol
uti
on?

a)+NH4Cl

b)Al
2(
SO4)
3

c)AgNO3

d)NaCN

252.Abuf
fersol
uti
onchangesi
tspH

a)I
ncr
easei
npH

b)Decr
easei
npH

c)+Nochangei
npH

d)Nochangei
nel
ect
ri
cal
conduct
ivi
ty

253.Aboutbuf
fersol
uti
onwhi
chi
nincor
rect
?

a)I
tcont
ainsaweakaci
dandi
tsconj
ugat
ebase

b)I
tcont
ainsaweakbaseandi
tsconj
ugat
eaci
d

c)+I
tshowschangei
npHonaddi
ngsmal
lamountofaci
dorbase

d)Al
loft
heabov
e

254.Whi
chsol
uti
onsar
emi
xedt
ofor
m abuf
fersol
uti
on?

a)St
rongaci
dandi
tssal
tofaweakbase

b)Weakaci
dandi
tssal
tofast
rongbase

c)+Weakaci
dandi
tssal
tofaweakbase

d)St
rongaci
dandi
tssal
tofast
rongbase

255.Whi
chi
sabuf
fersol
uti
on?

a)+CH3COOH+CH3COONa
b)CH3COOH+CH3COONH4

c)CH3COOH+NH4Cl

d)NaOH+NaCl

256.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sabuf
fer
?

a)NaOH+CH3COONa

b)NaOH+Na2SO4

c)K2SO4+H2SO4

d)+NH4OH+NH4Cl

257.Whi
chi
snotabuf
fersol
uti
on?

a)NH4Cl
+NH4OH

b)CH3COOH+CH3COONa

c)+CH3COONa

d)Bor
ax+Bor
icaci
d

258.pHofbl
oodi
s

a)Lesst
han6

b)+Gr
eat
ert
han7andl
esst
han8

c)Gr
eat
ert
han8andl
esst
han9

d)Gr
eat
ert
han10

259.Combi
nat
ionusedi
npr
epar
ati
onofbuf
fersol
uti
oni
s

a)+Acet
icaci
d+Sodi
um acet
ate

b)Bor
icaci
d+Bor
ax

c)Ci
tr
icaci
d+Sodi
um ci
tr
ate

d)Al
l

260.Gi
venamet
oposi
ti
vel
ychar
gedpar
ti
cles:

а)r
adi
cal
s;
b)mol
ecul
es;
c)ani
ons;
d)+cat
ions.

261.Whatsubst
ancei
sappl
iedi
nmedi
cinet
ocor
rectaci
dosi
s?
a)NaNO2;
b)+NaHCO3;
c)Na2CO3;
d)KMnO4.
262.Wat
eri
sthebestmedi
um f
orel
ect
rol
ytesdi
ssoci
ati
onduet
oit
s:
a)Hi
ghheatcapaci
ty;
b)Hi
ghpol
ari
tyofmol
ecul
es;
c)Lowf
reezi
ngpoi
nt;
d)+Lowwat
eri
oni
zat
ionconst
ant
.
263.Weakel
ect
rol
ytesar
echar
act
eri
zedby
:
a)I
oni
zat
ionper
cent
;aci
dioni
zat
ionconst
ant
;basei
oni
zat
ionconst
ant
;
b)I
oni
cst
rengt
h;
c)Concent
rat
ionofagasi
nasol
uti
on;
d)+I
onpr
oductf
orwat
er.
264.Gast
ri
cjui
cepHi
sappr
oxi
mat
ely1.Thehy
drogeni
onsmol
ari
tyi
niti
s:
а)0.
01M;
b)0.
001M;
c)+0.
1M;
d)1.
0M.

265.
Buf
fercapaci
tyofasol
uti
ondependsupon:
a)+Nat
ureofcomponent
s;t
her
ati
oofconcent
rat
ionsofbuf
fercomponent
s.
b)At
mospher
icpr
essur
e;
c)Boi
l
ingpoi
nt;
d)Vaporpr
essur
e.

266.Accor
dingt
otheBr
onst
edt
heor
yaci
dsar
edef
inedas:
а)El
ect
ronsdonor
s;
b)El
ect
ronsaccept
ors;
c)+Pr
otonsdonor
s;
d)Pr
otonsaccept
ors.

267.Speci
fywhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngsy
stemscanbecl
assi
fi
edasabuf
fersy
stem:
a)KCl
/HCl
;
b)KHSO4/
H2SO4;
c)NaH2PO4/
Na2HPO4;
d) +NH3/
NH4Cl
.

268.St
rongel
ect
rol
ytesar
echar
act
eri
zedby
:
a)I
oni
cst
rengt
hofsol
uti
on;
act
ivi
tycoef
fi
cientofel
ect
rol
ytes;
b)I
oni
zat
ionconst
antofwat
er;
c)Aci
dioni
zat
ionconst
ant
;
d) +Al
lanswer
sar
eri
ght
.

269.Poi
ntoutt
hebuf
fersy
stemofbl
oodpl
asma:
а) +Hemogl
obi
nbuf
fersy
stem;
oxy
hemogl
obi
nbuf
fersy
stem;
b)Acet
atebuf
fersy
stems;
ammoni
abuf
fersy
stems;
c)Hy
drocar
bonat
ebuf
fersy
stems;
acet
atebuf
fersy
stems;
d)
Hydr
ophosphat
ebuf
fersy
stem;
ammoni
abuf
fersy
stem.

270.Accor
dingt
otheBr
onst
edt
heor
ybasesar
edef
inedas:
а)El
ect
ronsdonor
;
b)El
ect
ronsaccept
ors;
c)Pr
otonsdonor
s;
d) +Pr
otonsaccept
ors.

271.Theaci
d-basest
ateofbl
oodi
sdet
ermi
nedof
:
a) +pHv
alue,HCO3-concent
rat
ionandpr
essur
eofCO2;
b)pOHv
al H+andOH-concent
ue, rat
ion;
c)pHv
alue,CH3COO-andH+concent
rat
ion;
d)concent
rat
ionofH+andOH-.
272.Compl
exsubst
ancesorcompoundcl
assesar
edi
vi
dedi
nto
a)+oxides,acid,base,sal
t
b)oxides,base
c)Alkali
s,salt,
oxides
d)Amphol ytes,
Alkali
s

273.Electr
olyt
esunderdi ssoci
ati
onasani
onsfor
mingonl
y¬¬¬¬_
___
___
___
ionsar
ecal
led
bases.
a) +hy dr
oxide(OH- )
+
b)hydrogen(H )
c)ammoni umcat ion(NH+4)
d)hydrogencations(H +)andhydroxi ons(OH 
dei -
)

274.El
ectrol
ytesthatunderdi
ssoci
ati
onascat
ionsf
orm onl
y¬_
___
___
__i
onsar
ecal
led
aci
ds.
a)hydroxi
de(OH- )
+
b)+hy ogen(
dr H )
c)ammoni umcation(NH+4)
d)(H 
+)andhy droxi ons(OH 
dei -
)

275.Thesal
tfor
medbyaweakbaseandst
rongaci
d(hy
drol
ysi
sbycat
ion)pHwi
llbe?
a)+pH<7
b)pH>7
c)pH~7
d)pH=7

276.Thesal
tfor
medbyast
rongbaseandst
rongaci
dpHofsol
uti
onwi
llbe?
a)pH<7
b)pH>7
c)pH~7
d)+pH=7

277.Thesal
tfor
medbyast
rongbaseandweakaci
d(hy
drol
ysi
sbyani
on)pH ofsol
uti
onof
wil
lbe?
a)pH<7
b) +pH>7
c)pH~7
d)pH=7

278.Thesal
tfor
medbyaweakaci
dandweakbase(
hydr
oly
sisbycat
ionandani
on)pHwi
ll
be?
a)pH<7
b)pH>7
c)+pH~7
d)pH=7

279.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofcesi
um chl
ori
de
a)aci
dic
b)basi
c
c) +neutr
al
d)noneofthem

280.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofcal
cium chl
ori
de
a)aci
dic
b)basic
c) +neutr
al
d)noneofthem

281.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofammoni
um chl
ori
de
a)+aci di
c
b)basic
c)neut
ral
d)noneofthem

282.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofcopperchl
ori
de
A+)acidic
b)basi
c
c)neut
ral
d)noneofthem

283.Deter
mi neaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofbari
um chl
ori
de
a)aci
dicb)basic
c)+neut r
al
d)noneofthem
e
284.Deter
mi neaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofstr
onti
um chl
ori
de
a)+acidic
b)basi
c
c)neutr
al
d)noneoft hem

285.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofi
ronchl
ori
de
a)+acidic
b)basic
c)neut
ral

d)noneoft
hem

286.Det
ermi
neaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofi
ronsul
phat
e
a)+acidi
c
)basi
c
c)neut
ral
d)noneofthem

287.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofst
ront
ium sul
phat
e
a)+acidic
b)basic
c)neut
ral
d)noneofthem

288.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofcoppersul
phat
e
a)+acidic
b)basi
c
c)neut
ral
d)noneofthem

289.Determi
neaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofammoni
um sul
phat
e
a)+aci di
c
b)basic
c)neutr
al
d)noneofthem

290.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofbar
ium acet
ate
a)aci
dic
b)+basi c
c)neutr
al

d)noneoft
hem

291.Determineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofpot
assi
um acet
ate
a)aci
dic
b)+basic
c)neutr
al
d)noneofthem

292.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofsodi
um acet
ate
a)aci
dic
b)+basic
c)neut
ral

l
d)noneoft
hem

293.Determineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofcal
cium acet
ate
a)aci
dic
b)+basi c
c)neut
ral

d)noneoft
hem
294.Determi
neaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofbar
ium sul
phi
te
a)aci
dic
b)+basi
c
c)
d)c)
neut
ral
e)d)noneoft
hem
295.Det
ermi
nepHof0.
1M sol
uti
onofpot
assi
um hy
droxi
de
a)2
b)11
c)+13
d)7
296.Det
ermi
nepHof0.
1M sol
uti
onofsodi
um hy
droxi
de
a)2
b)10
c)1
d)+13
297.Det
ermi
nepHof0.
1M sol
uti
onofcesi
um hy
droxi
de
a)2
b)+13
c)1
d)7

298.pHofbuff
ersol
uti
ondependsuponconcent
rat
ionof
a)aci
d(H+-
)
b)conj
ugat
ebase(OH-)
-
c)sal
t
d)+bothAandB

299. 
PHcanbekeptconst antwi
thhel
pof
a)satur
atedsoluti
on
b)unsatur
atedsoluti
on
c)+buffersol
ution
d)supersatur
atedsolut
ion
300. 
Buffer
spr esenti
nbl
oodcont
ain
-
a)HCO3
b)hemoglobin
c)H2PO4-
d)+allofthem

301. 
Enzy me( carbonicanhy
drase)i
susedi
n
a)+aerobicrespirati
on
b)anaerobicrespirat
ion
c)tr
anspirati
on
d)photosynthesis

302. Oneofbestcatal
ystwhi
chi
ncr
easesr
ateofr
eact
ionbymi
ll
iont
imesi
s
a)carboli
canhydr
ase
b)c)carbol
ichy
drase

c)+car
boni
canhy
drase

d)d)
car
boni
chy
drase

303.Whi
chofthefol
lowingcouldbeaddedtoasol
utionofsodium acet
atetopr
oducea
buf
fer
?acet
icacidhydrochl
ori
cacidpot
assi
um acetat
esodium chlor
ide

a)hydrochl
ori
cacidonl
y
b)+acet icaci
donly
c)sodium chl
ori
deorpotassi
um acet
ate
d)acet
icacidorhydr
ochl
oricaci
d

304.Whenamet alrepl
aceshydrogenat
om thencompoundf or
mis
a)oxide
b)ether
c)+sal t
d)al
cohol
305.Whenaci dreactswithmetalcar
bonat
e,productsare
a)salt
b)wat er
c)carbondi oxi
de
d)+al lofabove
306.Sal tamongf ol
lowingis
a)HCl
b)+KCl
c)HNO3
d)H3PO4
e)
307.Pr ocessinwhichacids(H+)andbases(OH-)reactt
ofor
m sal
tsandwat
eri
scal
led
a)+neut ral
i
zati
on
b)hydrogenati
on
c)halogenati
on
d)subli
mat i
on

308.Basi
cfor
mul
aformonobasi
caci
dis
a)AH
b)+HA
c)Ha
d)aH

309.Posi t
ionofequi l
ibri
um wil
lbelef
tifv
alueofKa 
is
a)high
b)+low
c)same
d)const ant
310.Val ueofKacanbecal culat
edbydetermini
ng
a)concent rationofacid
b)concent rationofwatermolecul
es
c)pHofsol ution
d)+bot hAandB
311.PHofweakaci dcanbecalcul
atedbyknowing
a)concent rationofacid
b)valueofKa
c)wat erpot ential
d)+bot hAandB

312.Kaiscalled
a)+aciddissociati
onconstant
b)basedissociati
onconstant
c)Avogadroconst ant
d)sal
tdissoci
at i
onconstant

313.Whichoneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sa 
weak 
aci
d?
a)HNO3
b)HI
c)HBr
d)+HNO2

314.
Whichsal
tis 
not
 der
ivedf
rom ast
rongaci
dandast
rongsol
ubl
ebase?
a)MgCl2
b)Ba(NO3)
2
c)+LiClO4
d)CsBr

315.Whi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sast
rongel
ect
rol
yte?
a)H2O
b)+KF
c)HF
d)HNO2

316.
Whi choft
hef
oll
owi
ngweakaci
dsi
oni
zest
ogi
vet
he 
str
ongest
 conj
ugat
ebase?
a)HClO
b)CH3COOH
c)HF
d) +HCN

317.Ast
rongerbase:

a)i
sal
soast
rongeraci
d;

b)t
ast
essour
;

c)+i
sal
soast
rongerel
ect
rol
yte;

d)y
iel ewerOH-i
dsf onsi
nsol
uti
on

318.WhenHCl
(aq)r
eact
swi
thZn(
s)t
hepr
oduct
sfor
medar
e:

a)wat
erandasal
t;

b)anaci
dandabase;

c)+asal
tandhy
drogengas;

d)anonmet
aloxi
d

319. Asubst
ancei
saddedt
oasol
uti
oncont
aini
ngt
wodr
opsofphenol
pht
hal
ein.The
sol
uti
ont
hent
urnspi
nk.Whi
chsubst
ancewoul
dpr
oducet
hiscol
orchange?

a)HCl
;

b)H2CO3;

c)+KOH;

d)CH3CH2OH;

320.Li
tmusi
sr heH+concent
edwhent rat
ioni
nthesol
uti
oni
s:

a)1×10-11M;
b)+1×10-5M;

c)1×10-7M;

-
6
d)1×10 M;

321.Asubst
ancei
sdi
ssol
vedi
nwat
erandt
heonl
yposi
ti
vei
onsi
nthesol
uti eH+i
onar ons.
Thi
ssubst
ancei
s:

a)KOH;

b)
CH4

c)+H2SO4;

d)NH3

322.Whi
chi
str
ueaboutasol
uti
ont
hati
saci
dic?

H+]equal
a)[ szer
o;

H+]i
b)[ slesst OH-]
han[ ;

OH-]equal
c)[ s[H+]
;

H+]i
d)+[ sgr
eat
ert OH-]
han[

323.Accor
dingt
otheBr
onst
ed-
Lowr
ytheor
y,abasecan:

a)donat
eapr
oton;

b)
donat
eanel
ect
ronpai
r;

c)y
i dH+i
el ons;

d)+accept
orofpr
otons.

324.Whatv
olumeof0.
200M NaOH(
aq)i
sneededt
oneut
ral
ize4

0.
0mLofa0.
100M HCl(
aq)
?

a)100.
0mL;
b)80.
0mL;

c)40.
0mL;

d)+20.
0mL

325.Asanaci
dicsol
uti
oni
sti
tr
atedwi
thdr
opsofbase,
thepHv
alueoft
hesol
uti
onwi
ll
:

a)+i
ncr
ease;

b)r
emai
nthesame;

c)decr
ease;

d)appr
oachzer
o

326.Whi
chpHv
aluedemonst
rat
esasol
uti
onwi
tht
hegr
eat
estconcent
rat
ionofOH-i
ons?

a)1;

b)7;

c)10;

d)+14.

327.Ther
eact
ion:HI
(aq)+Li
OH(
aq)→H2O(
l)+Li
I(
aq)i
scl
assi
fi
edas:

a)asi
ngl
erepl
acement
;

b)t
hepr
ocessofhy
drol
ysi
s;

c)+aneut
ral
i
zat
ionr
eact
ion;

d)asy
nthesi
sreact
ion;

328.Howmanyt
imesst
rongeri
sanaci
dwi
thapHof2t
hananaci
dwi
thapHof5?

a)ApHof2i
sthr
eet
imesasst
rong;

b)+ApHof2i
sonet
housandt
imesasst
rong;

c)ApHof2i
sthr
eet
imesasweak;
d)ApHof2i
sonet
housandt
imesasweak;

329.Whi
chsubst
ancebel
owi
sexpect
edt
obet
hest
rongestel
ect
rol
yte?

a)chl
orousaci
d; b)acet
icaci
d;

c)+per
chl
ori
caci
d;

d)hy
pochl
orousaci
d

330.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngst
atement
sist
rue?

a)NaCl
isaneut
ral
sal
t; c)HCl
andKOHr
eactt
ofor
m hy
drogengasandwat
er.

b)KOHi
sanaci
d; d)NaBri
sbasi
csal
t.

331.Whi
chpai
ri
ngi
snotasetofconj
ugat
es?

a)OH-andH2O; c)HCl -
andCl
;

b)HC2H3O2andC2H3O2-; d)NH3andNH4+;

332.Whi
chr
eact
ionbel
owi
sincor
rectbasedupont
her
eact
ant
sgi
ven?

a)HF+Li
OH→ H2O+Li
F; c)SO2+H2O→ H2SO3;

b)+2HCl
+Zn→ H2O+ZnCl
2; d)K2O+H2O→ 2KOH;

333.Whi
chcompoundbel
owi
snotcor
rect
lypai
redwi
thi
tsname?

a)KOHi
spot
assi
um hy
droxi
de;

b)H2SO3i
ssul
fur
ousaci
d;

c)HIi
shy
droi
odi
caci
d;

d)+HCl
O2i
schl
ori
caci
d

334.Whi
chsal
thasasol
ubi
li
tyt
hati
sdi
ff
erentf
rom t
heot
her?

a)AgCl
; b)PbBr
2; c)Ca3(
PO4)
2; d)+Na2CO3

335.Asol
uti
onofasal
tand100gr
amsofwat
ert
hatcanst
il
ldi
ssol
vemor
esol
uteata
gi
vent
emper
atur
eiscl
assi
fi
edas:

a)+unsat
urat
ed; b)super
sat
urat
ed; c)sat
urat
ed;d)di
l
ute

336.Theneti
oni
cequat
ionf
ort
her
eact
ionbet
weenCaCl
2andNa2CO3 t
ofor
m cal
cium
car
bonat
eandsodi
um chl
ori
dewoul
dincl
udeal
loft
hef
oll
owi
ngexcept
:

-
a)
Cl; b)+2Na+; c)CaCO3d)al
loft
hesubst
ancesabov
e

337.Whi
chsol
uti
onl
ist
edbel
owi
sgoi
ngt
ohav
ethehi
ghestboi
li
ngpoi
nt?

a)1.
5m NaCl
; c)2.
0m C6H12O6;

b)1.
5m AgCl
; d)+2.
0m CaCl
2

338.Whi
chequat
ioni
scor
rect
lybal
anced?

a)Na+Cl
2→ 2NaCl
;

b)CH4+3O2→ CO2+H2O;

c)+2KI+Pb(
NO3)
2→ 2KNO3+PbI
2;

d)H2SO4+KOH→ K2SO4+H2O;

Uni
t2.

El
ect
rochemi
str
y.Redoxr
eact
ions.

339.Sul
phurhasl
owestoxi
dat
ionnumberi
n
a)
H2SO3 b)
SO2 c)
H2SO4 d)+H2S
340.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmol
ecul
escanactasanoxi
dizi
ngaswel
lasar
educi
ngagent
:
a)
H2S b)
SO¬3 c)+H2O2 d)
F2
341.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngagenti
fthemostoxi
dizi
ng:
a)
O3 b)+KMnO4 c)
H2O2 d)
K2Cr
2O7
342.I
nther
edoxr
eact
ion:xCr
Cl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2Cr
O4+NaCl
+H2O
a)
X=2y
=4z=10 b)
x=2y
=6z=5 c)
x=2y
=3z=8 d)+x=2y
=3z=10
343.Reduct
ioni
nvol
ves
a)
Lossofel
ect
rons c)
Incr
easei
nthev
alencyofposi
ti
vepar
t
b)+Gai
nofel
ect
rons d)
Decr
easei
nthev
alencyofnegat
ivepar
t
344.Thest
rongestr
educi
ngagenti
s
a)
HNO2 b)+H2S c)
H2SO3 d)
SnCl
2

345.Anel
ect
rol
ytei
sone
a)
Whi
chconduct
sel
ect
ri
ccur
rentc)+Whi
chdi
ssoci
atesi
ntoi
onsbydi
ssol
vi
ngi
nasui
tabl
e
sol
vent
b)
Whi
chi
scapabl
eofi
oni
zat
ionbypassi
ngel
ect
ri
ccur
rent d)
Noneoft
heabov
e

346.Conduct
ivi
tyofasol
uti
oni
sdi
rect
lypr
opor
ti
onalt
o
a)
Dil
uti
on b)+numberofi
onsc)
cur
rentdensi
ty d)
vol
umeoft
hesol
uti
on

347.Oxi
dat
ionnumberofni
tr
ogeni
n(NH4)
2SO4i
s:
a)
-1/
3 b)-
1 c)+1 d)+-
3

348.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sani
nsul
ator
?
a)Gr
aphi
te b)Al
umi
nium c)+Di
amond d)
Sil
i
con

349.I
nther
edoxr
eact
ion:xKMnO4+y
NH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O
a)
X=4y
=6 b)+x=8y
=3c)
x=8y
=6 d)
x=3y
=8

350.Coef
fi
cientbef
oreHNO3 i
ngi
venr
eact
ionMnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(
NO3)
2+H2O
a)+10 b)8 c)2 d)5
351.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sthest
rongestoxi
dizi
ngagent
?
a)+F2
b)
Cl2

c)
Br2

d)
I2
352.Oxi
dat
ioni
nvol
ves
A)+Lossofel
ect
rons
b)
Incr
easei
nthev
alencyofnegat
ivepar
t
c)
Gai
nofel
ect
rons
d)
Decr
easei
nthev
alencyofposi
ti
vepar
t

353.i
nel
ect
rol
ysi
s,oxi
dat
iont
akespl
aceat
a)+Anode
b)
Cat
hode
c)
Bot
hA&B

d)
Thesur
faceoft
heel
ect
rol
ytesol
uti
on

354.I
nH2O2,
theoxi
dat
ionst
ateofoxy
geni
s
a)
-2
b) +-
1
c)0
d)-
4

355.Thecompoundwhi
chcoul
dactbot
hasoxi
dizi
ngaswel
lasr
educi
ngagenti
s:
a)+SO2
b)
CaO
c)
Al2O3

d)
CrO3

356.
Inwhi
chr
ed-
oxr
eact
iondi
ff
erentat
omsofsamesubst
ancechangeoxi
dat
ionnumber
s
a)i
nter
mol
ecul
ar
b)i
ntr
amol
ecul
ar
c) +di
spr
opor
ti
on
d)noneoft
hem

357.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sapoorconduct
orofel
ect
ri
cit
y?
a)CH3COONa
b)+C2H5OH
c)
NaCl

d)
KOH

358El
ementaccept
ingel
ect
ronsi
scal
led
a)pr
oduct
b)+oxi
dant
c)r
eact
ant
d)r
educt
ant

359.
Oneoft
hef
oll
owi
nghasbot
hposi
ti
veandnegat
iveoxi
dat
ionst
ates:
a)
F
b)+Cl
c)
He
d)
Na

360.
Theoxi
dat
ionnumberofni
tr
ogenv
ari
esf
rom:
a) +-
3to+5
b)
-1t
o+1
c)
-3t
o-5

d)-
5to+1

361.
Str
ongel
ect
rol
ytesar
ethosewhi
ch
a)
Dissol
ver
eadi
l
yinwat
er
b)
Dissoci
atei
ntoi
onsathi
ghdi
l
uti
on
c)
Conductel
ect
ri
cit
y
d)+Compl
etel
ydi
ssoci
atei
ntoi
onsatal
ldi
l
uti
ons

362.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngconduct
sel
ect
ri
cit
y?
a)cr
yst
alNaCl
b)
diamond
c)+mol
tenKBr
d)
sul
phur

363.i
nel
ect
rol
ysi
s,oxi
dat
iont
akespl
aceat
a)+Anode
b)
Cat
hode
c)
Bot
hA&B

d)
Thesur
faceoft
heel
ect
rol
ytesol
uti
on

364.Chooseequat ionf orelect


rodepot
ent
ialofzi
ncel
ect
rode
0 n+
a)+φ=φ +RT/ nFlnaMe
b)φ=RT/nFl na1/a2
c)φ=φ0+RT/ nFl
naox/ared
d) V=Ae-E/Rt

365.Chooseequat ionf orelectr


odepot
ent
ialofconcent
rat
iongal
vani
ccel
l
a)φ=φ0+RT/ nFlnaMen+
b)φ=RT/ nFlna1/a2
c) +φ=φ0+RT/ nFlnaox/ared
-
E/Rt
d)V=Ae

366.Oxidat
ionNumberofHal
ogensar
e:
a) +-1
b)-2
c)+4
d)0

367.Oxidat
ionNumberofOxy
geni
s:
a)+1
b)+ -
2
c)-4
d)0

368.Chooseequat ionf orelect


rodepot
ent
ialofr
ed-
oxel
ect
rode
a)φ=φ0+RT/ naMen+
nFl
b)φ=RT/ nFlna1/a2
c)+φ=φ0+RT/ nFlnaox/ared
-E/
Rt
d) V=Ae

369.Chooseequati
onf orel
ect
rodepot
ent
ialofchemi
calgal
vani
ccel
l
a)φ=φ0+RT/ nFlnaMen+
b)φ=RT/nFlna1/a2
0
c) +φ=φ +RT/ nFl
naox/
ared
d)φ=φ0cu-φ0Zn+RT/nFl
nacu/azn

370.Inwhichr ed-
oxreact
ionat
omsofdi
ff
erentsubst
anceschangeoxi
dat
ionnumber
s
a) +inter
mol ecul
ar
b)doubleexchange
c)i
ntramolecular
d)di
sproporti
on

371.Inwhichred-oxreact
ionoxi
dat
ionnumberofsameel
ementi
schanged
a)i
ntermolecul
ar
b)doubleexchange
c)counterdi
sproport
ion
d)+disproport
ion

372.Elementloosi
ngel
ect
ronsi
scal
led
a)pr oduct
b)oxidant
c)reactant
d)+r eductant

373.El
ect
rochemi
str
yist
hebr
anchofchemi
str
ythatdeal
swi
th:
a)+t
hei
nter
conv
ersi
onofel
ect
ri
cal
ener
gyandchemi
cal
ener
gy;
b)t
heheatener
gyassoci
atedwi
thchemi
cal
react
ions;
c)t
hesci
ent
if
icst
udyoft
hest
ruct
ure,
proper
ti
esandr
eact
ionsofor
gani
ccompounds;
d)t
hest
udyofmacr
oscopi
c,at
omi
c,subat
omi
c,andpar
ti
cul
atephenomenai
nchemi
cal
sy
stemsi
nter
msoft
hepr
inci
ples,
pract
icesandconcept
sofphy
sics.

374.I
nwhatcaset
her
eisanoxi
dat
ionpr
ocess:

a)KMnO4→MnO2;

b)HNO2→NO2;

c)Cl
2O→HCl
;

d)+P→H3PO4.

375.Poi
ntoutt
hecor
rectst
atement
s:
a) +A conj
ugat
epai
rofoxi
dizi
ngandr
educi
ngagent
sischar
act
eri
zedbyi
tsr
educt
ion
pot
ent
ial
;
/
b)Ar
educt
ionpot
ent
ial
canbecal
cul
atedbyt
heRauol
tsequat
ion;
c)Hi
ghr
educt
ionpot
ent
ial
scor
respondt
oweakoxi
dizi
ngagent
s;
d)Lowr
educt
ionpot
ent
ial
scor
respondt
oweakr
educi
ngagent
s.

376.Poi
ntoutt
hecoef
fi
cientbef
oret
her
educi
ngagenti
nthef
oll
owi
ngequat
ion:
K2Cr
2O7+KI+HCl→ Cr
Cl3+I
2+KCl+H2O
а)1;
b)+6;
c)14;
d)
3.

377.Whatpr
oduct
sar
efor
medatr
educt
ionr
eact
ionofKMnO4i
nthepr
esenceofbase?

a)Mn(
OH)
2;

b)MnO42-;

c)+MnO2;

d)Mn2+.

378.Whatr
eact
ionsoccur
ri
ngi
naqueoussol
uti
onsar
eredox?

a)Fe2O3+HCl
;

b)+FeCl
3+H2S;

c)Fe+HCl
;

d)SO3+NaOH.

379.Poi
ntoutt
hecoef
fi
cientbef
oret
her
educi
ngagenti
nthef
oll
owi
ngr
eact
ion:

KMnO4+H2O2+H2SO4→ MnSO4+O2+K2SO4+H2O

а)2; b)+5; c)10; d)3.


380.Anoxi
dizi
ngagenti
sanat
om,
amol
ecul
eorani
on,
whi
ch:
а)+accept
sel
ect
rons;
b)donat
esel
ect
rons;
c)i
ncr
easesi
tsoxi
dat
ionnumber
;
d)decr
easesi
tsconcent
rat
ion.

381.Poi
ntoutt
heschemef
orgal
vani
ccel
lthatconsi
stsf
rom zi
ncandcopper
el
ect
rodesdi
ppedi
ntot
hei
rsal
tsol
uti
ons:
+2 +2
a)Zn|
Zn (
aq)
|Cu (
aq)
|Cu;
Zn+2(
b)Cu| aq)
|Cu+2(
aq)
|Zn;
Cu+2(
c)Cu|
| Zn+2(
aq)| aq)
|Zn;
Zn+2(
d)+Zn| aq)
|Cu+2(
| aq)
|Cu.

382.Theoxi
dat
ionnumberf
orhy
drogeni
nNaHi
s:
a)1+; b)2+; c)0; d)+1-

383. Oft
hecompoundsbel
ow,i
nwhi
chonedoeschl
ori
nehav
ethehi
ghestoxi
dat
ion
number
?a)HCl
; b)KCl
O3; c)HCl
O2; d)+KCl
O4

384.I
nther
eact
ionAl+Fe3+→Al
3+
+Fe,
theoxi
dizi
ngagenti
s:

a)Al
; b)Fe; c)+Fe3+; 3+
d)Al

2+ 3+ 2+
385.WhenFe i
soxi
dizedt
oFe ,
theFe i
on:

;
a)+l
oses1el
ect
ronb)l
oses1pr
oton; c)gai
ns1el
ect
ron;d)gai
ns1pr
oton

2+ 3+
386..I
nthechemi
calcel
lreact
ion2Cr+3Ni → 2Cr +3Ni
,whi
chspeci
esi
sreduced?

2+ 3+
a)Cr
;b)+Ni ;c)Cr ; d)Ni

2+
387.Whent
heequat
ionCo+Ni →Co3++Nii
sbal
anced,
thesum oft
hecoef
fi
cient
sis:

a)2; b)3; c)5; d)+10

388.Whati
sthepur
poseoft
hesal
tbr
idgei
nanel
ect
rochemi
calcel
l?

a)i
tal
l
owsi
onmi
grat
ion; c)+i
tal
l
owsel
ect
ronmi
grat
ion;
b)i
tal
l
owsneut
ronmi
grat
ion; d)i
tpr
event
sionmi
grat
ion;

389.Maki
ngr
efer
encet
oel
ect
ronegat
ivi
tyv
alues,
whi
chsubst
ancei
smosteasi
l
yreduced?

a)Br
2; b)Cl
2; c)+F2; d)I
2

390.Whennonspont
aneousr
edoxr
eact
ionsoccurbyuseofanext
ernalcur
rent
,the
pr
ocessi
scal
led:

a)neut
ral
i
zat
ion; b)est
eri
fi
cat
ion; c)+el
ect
rol
ysi
s; d)hy
drol
ysi
s

Bi
ogeni
cel
ement
s.

391.Cobal
tasabi
ogeni
cel
ementi
sfound:

a)i
nmol
ecul
eofcy
tochr
omeb

b)+i
nmol
ecul
eofv
itami
nB12

c)i
nmol
ecul
eofcat
alase

d)i
nmol
ecul
eofv
itami
nB6

392)Zi
ncasabi
ogeni
cel
ementi
scomponentof
:

a)enzy
mecat
alase

b)+enzy
mesuper
oxi
dedi
smut
ase

c)cy
tochr
omeP450

d)gl
utat
hioneper
oxi
dase

393)Reducedi
ntakeofv
itami
nscauses:

a)hy
per
vit
ami
nosi
s

b)+hy
pov
itami
nosi
s

c)av
itami
nosi
s

d)aci
dosi
s

394)Vi
tami
nAdef
ici
encycancause:

a)+xer
oft
almi
a

b)i
ncr
easedbl
oodcoagul
ati
on
c)gr
owt
haccel
erat
ion

d)anemi
a

395)Thener
vousact
ivi
tymal
funct
ionsar
eaconsequenceofhy
pov
itami
nosi
sof
:

a)v
itami
nD

b)+v
itami
nB1

c)v
itami
nK

d)t
hiami
ne

396.ZnO i
s used as

a)pr
otect
ive

c)+bot
h(a)& (
b)

b)ast
ri
ngent

d)ant
idot
e

397.I
nor
gani
c ant
imi
crobi
al agent can be

a) oxi
dat
ion

b) pr
otei
n pr
eci
pit
ate

c) hal
ogenat
ion

d)+al
loft
he abov
e

398.Hy
drogen per
oxi
de i
s used as

a)+ant
isept
ic

b) aci
dif
ying agent

c) pr
otect
ive

d) ant
ioxi
dant

399.KMnO4 sol
uti
ons ar
e used f
or

a)ant
ibact
eri
al

b) ant
if
ungal

c)+bot
hoft
heabov
e
d)ant
ioxi
dant

400.Al
lli
vi
ngsy
stemscomposedf
rom si
xor
ganogeni
cel
ement
s.Chooset
hese

el
ement
s:

a)
.C,
N,As,
B,Al
,Cl
;

b)+H,
P,S,
C,O,
N;

c)
.O,
Cl,
Na,
K,Ca,
Mg;

d)
.H,
F,Br
,Bi
,As,
I;

401.Choosebi
ogeni
cmacr
oel
ement

a)
Cu

b)+P

c)
Br

d)
As

402.Choosebi
ogeni
cmi
croel
ement
a)+Cu
b)S
c)Ca
d)Mg

403.Particl
esofmi crohet
erogeneoussy
stemshav
esi
zesof
a) gr
eat erthan10-3cm
b)+10-5 -10-3cm
c)10-7 -10-5cm
d) l
esst han10-7cm

404.Sixmajorbiogenicelements:
a)Essenti
alelementsnecessaryonlyinverysmal lquanti
tiestomaintainthechemical
react
ionson whichli
fedepends. 
b)ElementsfoundinmanyofEar th’sl
ivi
ngsy stems, and/orinrel
ati
velysmallquanti
ti
es
c)+Elementsf oundinalmostallofEart
h’sli
vingsy stems, of
teni
nrelati
velyl
argequanti
ti
es
d)Elementsthatareinthefir
stgroupoft heper i
odictabl
e.

405.Fi
vemi norbiogenicelements:
a)Elementsfoundi nalmostallofEart
h’slivi
ngsystems,oft
eni nrelat
ivelyl
argequantit
ies
b)Essenti
alelement snecessaryonl
yinv erysmallquanti
ti
estomai nt
ainthechemi cal
react
ionson whichl i
fedepends. 
c)Elementsthatarei nthesecondgroupoft heperiodi
ctable.
d)+Element sfoundi nmanyofEar t
h’sli
vingsyst
ems, and/orinrelati
velysmallquanti
ti
es
406.Tr aceelement s:
a)Element sfoundinmanyofEar th’
sli
vi
ngsystems,and/orinrel
ati
velysmallquant
it
ies
b)El ementst hatar
ei nthesecondgroupoftheperi
odictable.
c)Element sfoundinal mostall
ofEarth’
sli
vi
ngsy st
ems, of
teninrel
ativel
ylar
gequantit
ies
d)+Essent ialelementsnecessaryonlyi
nverysmallquanti
ti
estomai ntai
nthechemical
reactionson whichlif
edepends. 

407.Macr oel
ements 
(ormacr
omi
ner
als)–t
hecont
enti
ntheor
gani
sm i
smor
ethan:
-
7 -
12
a)10 % -10 %
-
3 -

b)+10 –10 %
-
9
c)
10 %
d)10-2%

408.Mi croelement
s(ort
raceel
ement
s)–t
hecont
enti
ntheor
gani
sm i
s:
-2
a)+10 %
b)10-9%
c)10-3–10-5 %

d)10-7% -10-12

409.Choosebi
ogeni
cmi
croel
ement
a)O
b)S
c)N
d)+Zn

410.Choosebi
ogeni
cmi
croel
ement
a)O
b)+Fe
c)N
d)C

411.Choosebi
ogeni
cmi
croel
ement
a)O
b)S
c)N
d)+I

412.Choosebi
ogeni
cmacr
oel
ement
a)+P
b)Cl
c)Cu
d)I

Choosebi
ogeni
cmacr
oel
ement
a)Pb
b)+Ca
c)I
d)Ne

413.Choosebi
ogeni
cmacr
oel
ement
a) Pb
b)l
c)+O
d)Mn

414.Choosebi
ogeni
cmacr
oel
ement
a) Pb
b)+C
c)Cu
d)I

Compl
excompounds.

415.Oxi
dati
onnumberofcobal
tinK[
Co(
CO)
2Cl
4]i
s:
a)+1
b)++3
c)-
1
d)-3

416.Acoordinat
ioncompoundconsist
sof
a)amet al
ionandcount eri
ons
b)l
igandsboundt ocounteri
ons
c)acomplexionandcount eri
ons
d)+amet ali
onboundt ooneormoreli
gands

417.Theoxi
dat
ionnumberofcobal
tinK3[
Co(
NO2)
6]i
s:
a)0
b)+4
c)++3
d)+6

418.Namet hefoll
owingcoor dinati
oncompound:
K4[
Fe(CN) 6]
a)t
etr
apot assi
umhexacy anoferrat
e(II
)
b)potassium hexacyanoferr
ate(II
I)
c)pot assium cy
anoferrate(
II)
d) +potassium hexacyanoferrate(I
I)

419.Thecoordinati
onnumberi s:
a) +Thenumberofdonorat omssurr
oundi ngthecent
ral
met alat
om i
nacompl
exi
on
b)Themoleculesori onsthatsurr
oundthemet al i
nacomplexion
c)Theatom i
nal igandthatisbounddirect
lytot hemet
alatom
d)Thenumberofposi t
ivel
ychargedparti
clesinthecomplex
420.Numberofhem sect
ionsi
nmi
ogl
obi
n
a)+1
b)2
c)3
d)4

421.Det
erminet
ypeof[
Cu(
NH3)
2]Cl
2
a)+cati
onic
b)ani
oni
c
c)monodent
ate
d)neutr
al

422.Et hyl
enediami
newoul
dbecal
led
a)dentate
b)+bi dentat
e
c)tr
identate
d)t
etradentat
e

423.Namet hefoll
owingcoor di
nat i
oncompound:
[
Cr(NH3)3(H O) ]
C
2 3 3l
a)tri
ammi netri
aquachromi um( I
II
)tri
chlor
ide
b)tri
ammi neaquachromi um(III
)tri
chlori
de
c) +t r
iammi netr
iaquachromi um( I
II
)chlori
de
d)
amminet r
iaquachromium( II
I)chlori
de

424.Whi choft hef


oll
owi
ngar
ebi
dentat
eligands?
2-
(1)oxalate,-C2O4 (
4)hydroxi
de
(2)ammoni a,
NH3 (5)ni
tri
te,NO2-
-
(3)chlori
de,Cl (6) en
a)1,4,5
b)1,5,6
c)+1, 6
d)2, 3,4,5

425.Whati
sthechar
geoft
hecent
ralmet
ali
oni
n ?
a)0
b)1+
c)2+
d)+3+

426.Numberofhem sect
ionsi
nhemogl
obi
n
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)+4

427.Accept
orofel
ect
ronsi
ncoor
dinat
ioncompound
a)+cent rali
on
b)l
igands
c)outerspherei
ons
d)all
constit
uent
s

428.
Compl exfor
mingabi
li
tyi
nthesequenceofd-
p-s-
element
s
a)does’
tchang
b)i
ncreases
c)+decr easi
s
d)none

429.
Dissosi
ati
onofcompl
exi
scar
ri
edouti
n…st
eps
a)0
b)1
c)+2andmor e
d)al
way swi
thoutst
eps

430.Dent
ant
nessofpor
fyr
in
a)2
b)+4
c)6
d)5

431.Parti
clesplayi
ngr
oleofl
igandsar
e
a)positi
veions
b)chelates
c)+negat iveions
d)compl exions
3+ –
432.Acompl exioncont
ainsaCr boundt
ofourH2Omol
ecul
esandt
woCl i
ons.Wr
it
eit
s
formula.
a)[
Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
b)[(H2O)Cr4Cl2]
c)[
Cr (
H2O)4Cl2]
d)+[ CrCl
2(H2O)4]

433.Whatar
etheoxi
dat
ionnumber
soft
hemet
alsi
nK[
Au(
OH)
4]?
a)+1
b)++3
c)-
2
d)0

434.Whi
chamongt
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sapol
ydent
atel
igand?

a)car
bony
l; b)ni
tr
o;

b)
c)acet
ate;

d)+oxal
ate.

435.Wr i
tethef ormulaof t
etr
aaquadi
chl
orochr
omi
um(
II
I)
chl
ori
de?
a)+[ Cr(
HOH) 4C l
2]Cl
b)[(
HOH) 4Cl2C r]Cl
c)[(
HOH) 4CrCl2] Cl
d)[Cr(HOH)4C l
2C l
]

436.Whati sthesy stemat i


cnameofPt(
NH3)
2Cl
2?
a)+Di amminedichloropl
atinum( I
I)
b)Dichlor
odiammi neplati
num( II
)
c)Pl
at i
num(II)
diammi nedichloro
d)Dichlor
oplati
num( I
I)di
ammi ne
2+
437.Whatisthesy stemati
cnameofCu(
NH3)
4 ?
a)+Tetraammi necopper(
II
)
b)Copper t
etr
aammi ne(I
I)
c)Tetr
aammi ne(II
)copper
d)Tetr
a(II
)ammi necopper

438.Li
gand«
en»i
sanexampl
eof
:

a) +bi
dent
atel
i
gand;

b)monodent
atel
i
gand;

c)t
ri
dent
atel
i
gand;

d)hexadent
atel
i
gand.

439.TheI UPACnameofXe[ PtF6]i


s
a) 
   
Hexafluori
dopl
ati
nate( VI)xenon
b) 
   
Xenolhexafl
uori
doplati
nat e(V)
c) 
  + Xenonhexafluori
doplatinate(VI
)
d)   
 Xenoniumhexafl
uoridoplati
num (V)

440.Determi
net
ypeofK2[
CuCl
4]compl
ex
a) cat
ionic
b)+ani oni
c
c)t
ri
gonal

d)neut
ral
441.Donorofelectr
onsi
ncoor
dinat
ioncompound
a)centr
alion
b)outerspher
eions
c) +li
gands
d) none

442.Compl exfor
mingabi
li
tyi
nrawofs-
p-d-
element
s
a)doesn’tchange
b)+increases
c)decreases
d)noneofthem

443.Coor
dinat
ionnumberofi
roni
nhem
a)2
b)3
c)5
d)+6

444.Dent
atnessofEDTA
a)2
b)3

c)+4
d)6

445.Wit
hr i
seofi
nstabi
li
tyconstantofcompl
exit’
sst
abil
it
y
a) i
ncreases b)doesn’tchange c)+decreasesd)noneoft
hem

446.Theoryofcr y
stalf
ieldexplai
nsf
ormat
ionofcompl
exesont
hebaseof
a)rateofreacti
on
b)+donor -acceptori
nteract
ion
c)protonsnumber
d)electr
ostati
cmodel

447.Part
icl
esplayi
ngrol
eofcent
rali
onar
e
a)+posi ti
veions
b)neutr
almolecul
es
c)negati
veions
d)complexions

448.Fi
ndl i
gandofweakf
iel
d
a) +OH-
b)Au
c)CN-
d)Fe2+
2+
449.Whati
sthesystemati
cnameofCo(
H2O)
6 ?
a)+Hexaaquacobalt
(I
I)
b)Hexaaqua(I
I)
cobal
t
c)Cobal
t(I
I)
hexaaqua
d)Cobalt
hexaaqua(
II
)

450.Writethef ormul
aof Pot
assi
um hexacy
anof
err
ate(
II
I)
a)+K3[ Fe(CN) 6]
b)(CN)6[FeK2]
c)Fe[K2(CN)6]
d)[FeK2(CN)6

451.Whatisthesy stemat i
cnameof[ Cr(H2O)4Cl
2]
Cl?
a)tet
raaquadi
chlorochromi um(
III
)chl
oride
b)chl
oridet
etr
aaquadi chlor
ochromium(II
I)
c)+tetr
aaquadichlorochromiumchlor
ide(I
II
)
d)tet
raaqua(I
II
)dichlorochromi
umchloride

452.
Writ
et hef ormul
aoft
ri
s(et
hyl
enedi
ami
ne)
cobal
t(
II
)sul
fat
e
a)[
(en)
3Co] SO4
b)[
SO4(en)3]Co
c)[
Co(en)3S O4]
d)+[Co(en) 3]
SO4

+
453.Whatar
ethegeomet
ryoft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompl
ex:[
Ag(
NH3)
2] ?

a)l
i
near
;

b)oct
ahedr
al;

c)+t
etr
ahedr
al;

d)t
ri
gonal

454.Theor yofvalentbondsexpl
ainsf
ormat
ionofcompl
exesont
hebaseof
a)rateofreacti
on
b)donor-accept
orinter
acti
on
c)protonsnumber
d)+el ectr
ostat
icmodel

455.Fi
ndli
gandofst
rongf
iel
d
-
a)OH
b)Au
-
c)Cl
d)+NH3

456.Dentat
nessofl
igandis
a)numberofcentr
alions
b)chargeofcent
rali
on
c)+numberofbondsofl
i
gandwi
thcent
ral
ion
d)i
on’
stot
alnumber

Uni
t3.

Col
loi
ds.
457.Di
sper
sesy
stemsconsi
stsof
:

a)+di
sper
sionmedi
um,
disper
sedphase

b)emul
sions,
suspensi
ons,
aer
osol
s

c)coar
sesy
stem,
col
l
oidsy
stems,
truesol
uti
ons

d) sol
,gel

458.Di
sper
sesy
stemsbyt
hepar
ti
clesi
zear
ecl
assi
fi
edi
nto:

a)di
sper
sionmedi
um,
disper
sedphase

b)+coar
sesy
stem,
col
l
oidsy
stems,
truesol
uti
ons

c)emul
sions,
suspensi
ons,
aer
osol
s

d)sol
,gel

459.Whati
sadi
sper
sesy
stem?

a)I
tismi cr
ohet
erogeneoussy
stem wi
thahi
ghl
ydev
elopedi
nter
nal
sur
facebet
weent
he
phases.

b)+Itisdisper
sionsyst
em i
nwhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphaseandt
hedi
sper
sionmedi
um ar
e
mutual
lyimmiscibl
eli
qui
d.

c)I
tisdi
sper
sionsy
stem i
nwhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphasei
ssol
i
dandt
hedi
sper
singmedi
um –
l
i
quid.

d)I
tissuspensi
onoff
inepar
ti
clesofl
i
qui
dsorsol
i
dsi
nthegas.

460.Coar
sesy
stemsi
ncl
ude:

a)+emul
sions,
suspensi
ons,
aer
osol
s

b)mol
ecul
ar,
ioni
c,mol
ecul
ari
oni
c
c)sol
,gel

d)Gel
,suspensi
ons.

461.Whati
stheEmul
sion?

a)I
tismi cr
ohet
erogeneoussy
stem wi
thahi
ghl
ydev
elopedi
nter
nal
sur
facebet
weent
he
phases.

b)+I
tisdi
sper
sionsyst
em inwhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphaseandt
hedi
sper
sionmedi
um ar
e
mut
uall
yimmisci
blel
iqui
d.

c)I
tisdi
sper
sionsy
stem i
nwhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphasei
ssol
i
dandt
hedi
sper
singmedi
um –
l
i
quid.

d)I
tissuspensi
onoff
inepar
ti
clesofl
i
qui
dsorsol
i
dsi
nthegas.

462.Whati
sthesuspensi
on?

a)I
tismi cr
ohet
erogeneoussy
stem wi
thahi
ghl
ydev
elopedi
nter
nal
sur
facebet
weent
he
phases.

b)I
tisdisper
sionsy
stem inwhicht
hedi
sper
sedphaseandt
hedi
sper
sionmedi
um ar
e
mutuall
yimmisci
blel
iquid.

c)+I
tisdi
sper
sionsy
stem i
nwhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphasei
ssol
i
dandt
hedi
sper
singmedi
um
–l
iqui
d.

d)I
tissuspensi
onoff
inepar
ti
clesofl
i
qui
dsorsol
i
dsi
nthegas.

463.Whati
stheaer
osol
?

a)I
tismi cr
ohet
erogeneoussy
stem wi
thahi
ghl
ydev
elopedi
nter
nal
sur
facebet
weent
he
phases.

b)I
tisdisper
sionsy
stem inwhicht
hedi
sper
sedphaseandt
hedi
sper
sionmedi
um ar
e
mutuall
yimmisci
blel
iquid.

c)I
tisdi
sper
sionsy
stem i
nwhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphasei
ssol
i
dandt
hedi
sper
singmedi
um –
l
i
quid.

d)+I
tissuspensi
onoff
inepar
ti
clesofl
i
qui
dsorsol
i
dsi
nthegas.

464.Sol
sar
e:

a)gel
ati
n,j
ell
y,mar
mal
ade.
b)+bl
ood,
lymph.

c)gel
ati
n,l
ymph,
mar
mal
ade.

d)Bl
ood,
jel
l
y,mar
mal
ade.

465.Gel
sar
e:

a)+gel
ati
n,j
ell
y,mar
mal
ade.

b)gel
ati
n,l
ymph,
mar
mal
ade.

c)bl
ood,
lymph.

d)bl
ood,
jel
l
y,mar
mal
ade.

466.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:sol
idofdi
scont
inuousphase-gasi
s:

a)medi
cal
product
s

b)col
oredgl
ass

c)+pumi
ce

d)f
og

467.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:sol
id,
discont
inuousphase–l
iqui
dis:

a)Soi
l

b)+Moi
stsoi
l

c)Rocks

d)f
og

468.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:gas,
discont
inuousphasel
iqui
d– i
s:

a)nat
ural
gas
b)+gasf
rom oi
ldr
opl
ets

c)smog

d)col
oredgl
ass

469.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:gas,
discont
inuousphasesol
id– i
s:

a)nat
ural
gas

b)aer
osol
s

c)+dustst
orms

d)pear
l

470.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:l
iqui
d,di
scont
inuousphasel
iqui
d– i
s:

a)Fi
zzydr
inks,
foam

b)+bodyf
lui
ds

c)past
es,
mor
tar

d)smog

471.Col
loi
dalsol
uti
onsi
ncl
ude:

a)+emul
sions,
suspensi
ons,
aer
osol
s

b)mol
ecul
ar,
ioni
c,mol
ecul
ari
oni
c

c)sol
,gel

d)sal
i
nesol
uti
oni
nwat
er

472.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:sol
id,
discont
inuousphase–sol
idi
s:

a)cosmet
icpr
oduct
s

b)por
ouschocol
ate

c)+someal
l
oys
d)f
og

473.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:gas,
discont
inuousphase–gasi
s:

a)Dusti
ntheai
r

b)Aer
osol

c)Fog

d)+Doesnotexi
st

474.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:l
iqui
d,di
scont
inuousphasesol
id– i
s:

a)+Sol
s

b)Emul
sionoi
l

c)Fi
zzydr
inks

d)Fog

475.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:l
iqui
d,di
scont
inuousphasegas– i
s:

a)cr
eam,
mil
k

b)+f
oam

c)past
es

d)chocol
ate

476.Col l
oidpart
icl
eshavesi
zesof
a) gr
eat erthan10-3cm
b)10-5 -10-3m
c)+10-7 -10-5m
d) l
esst han10-7m

477.Det
erminechar
geofcol
loi
dpar
ti
clepr
oducedaccor
dingr
eact
ionВаCl
2(
excess)
+
H2SO4=
a)negat
ive
b)+posit
ive
c)wit
houtchar
ge
d)zer
o

478.Findpot enti
aldef
ini
ngi
onsi
nmi
cel
lepr
oducedaccor
dingr
eact
ionВаCl
2+
H2SO4( excess)=
a)+Ba2+
b)H+
2-
c)SO4
+
d)H

479.Choosedi sper
sionmet
hodofcol
loi
dsy
stemspr
oduci
ng
a)condensati
on
b)changeofsolvent
c)red-oxreacti
on
d)+peptizat
ion

480.Whi
chsubstancemaybemi
cel
le’
saggr
egat
e
a)NaCl
b)+Сa3(PO4)
2
c)CaCl
2
d)FeCl
3

481.Opti
calproper
tyt
ypi
calt
ocol
loi
dsy
stems
a)ref
lecti
on
b)absorpti
on
c)+scatteri
ng
d)dif
fusi
on

482.Findopt i
calpr
oper
ty
a)diffusion
b)osmosi s
c)electroosmosis
d)+absor pt
ion

483.Emulsi
oni
s
a)l/s
b)+l/l
c)s/l
d)g/l

484.Powderi
s
a)l/s
b)l/
l
c)s/l
d)+s/g
485.Fi
ndpar
amet
erwhi
chi
sinequat
ionf
ormol
ecul
ar-
kinet
icpr
oper
ti
es
a)μ
b)η

c)+φ
d)ξ

486.Par ti
clesofcoarsesy
stemshav
esi
zesof
-5
a)+gr eaterthan10 m
-9 -7
b)10 -10 m
c)10-7 -10-5m
d) lesst han10-9m

487.Particlesoftruesolut
ionshav
esi
zesof
a) great erthan10-5m
b)10-5 -10-3 cm
c)10-7 -10-5m
d)+l esst han10-7m

488.Determinechar
geofcol
loi
dpar
ti
clepr
oducedaccor
dingr
eact
ionВаCl
2+H2SO4(
excess)
=
a)+positive
b)negativ
e
c)withoutchar
ge
d)zero

489.Fi
ndpotent
ialdef
ini
ngi
onsi
nmi
cel
lepr
oducedaccor
dingr
eact
ionВаCl
2(
excess)
+
H2SO4=
a)none
-
b)Cl
c)SO42-
d)+Ba2+

490.Choosecondensati
onmet
hodofcol
loi
dspr
oduci
ng
a)coagul
at i
on
b)changeofsol v
ent
c)red-
oxr eact
ion
d)+peptizati
on

491.Whichsubst
ancemaybemi
cel
le’
saggr
egat
e
a)+NaNO3
b)Fe(NO3)
3
c)Ca(NO3)2
d)none
492.Whi
chsubst
ancemaybemi
cel
le’
saggr
egat
e
a)+NaNO3
b)AgCl

c)Ca(
NO3)2
d)Ba(
NO3)2

493.Whichsubst
ancemaybemi
cel
le’
saggr
egat
e
a)+NaNO3
b)Fe(
NO3)3
c)PbS
d)Ba(
NO3)2

494.Opt icalproper
tyt
ypi
calt
ocoar
sesy
stems
a)ref
lection
b)scattering
c)+absor pti
on
d)diffusion

495.Findproper
tywhichi
sn’
tmol
ecul
ar-
kinet
icone
a)absor
pti
on
c)Browni
anmov ement
c)+osmosis

d)di
ff
usi
on

496.Aerosoli
s
a)l/
s
b)+l/l
c)s/l
d)s/g

497.Fi
ndpar
amet
erwhi
chi
sinequat
ionf
oropt
icalpr
oper
ti
es
a)μ

b)η

c)m

d) +

498.Mi
xtur
esf
rom whi
chpar
ti
clesset
tl
eoutuponst
andi
ngar
edef
ined:
a)+Suspensi
ons;
b)b)El
ect
rol
ytes;

c)c)Mol
ecul
arsol
uti
ons;

d)d)Al
l
oys.

499.Het
erogeneousmi
xtur
escont
aini
ngpar
ti
clest
hatar
eint
ermedi
atei
nsi
ze:

a)+Col
l
oids;

b)b)
Gasmi
xtur
es;

c)c)Sat
urat
edsol
uti
ons

d);d)Al
l
oys.

500.Thescat
ter
ingofv
isi
blel
ighti
nal
ldi
rect
ionsi
scal
led:

a)Coagul
ati
on;

b)+Ty
ndal
lef
fect
;

b)c)Pept
izat
ion;

c)d)Di
aly
sis.

501.Chaot
icmov
ementofcol
loi
dalpar
ti
clesi
s:

a)Osmosi
s;

b)Di
ff
usi
on;

c)+Br
owni
anmot
ion;

d)Coagul
ati
on .
502.Col
loi
daldi
sper
sionofl
iqui
dsi
nli
qui
dsi
sdef
inedas:

a)+Aer
osol
;

b)b)Emul
sion;

c)c)Sol
;

d)d)Foam.

503.Fogandsmokear
e:

a)+Aer
osol
s;

b)b)Emul
sions;

c)

d)c)Gel
s;

e)d)Foams.

504.Solconsi
stsof
:

a)Li
qui
ddr
opl
etsdi
sper
sedt
hroughoutagas;

b)Sol
i
dpar
ti
clesdi
sper
sedt
hroughoutagas;

c)+Sol
i
dpar
ti
clesdi
sper
sedi
nal
i
qui
d;

d)l
i
qui
ddr
opl
etsdi
sper
sedt
hroughoutanot
herl
i
qui
d.

505.St
abi
li
tyofadi
sper
sesy
stem i
s:

a)Emer
genceofdr
egs;decr
easi
ngofosmot
icpr
essur
e;changi
ngofel
ect
ri
calconduct
ance
andv
iscosi
ty;
b)Pr
ocessofpar
ti
clesi
ntegr
ati
on;

c)Mov
ementoft
hechar
gedpar
ti
clesunderi
nfl
uenceofanext
ernal
elect
ri
cfi
eld;

d)+Const
ancyi
nti
meofi
tsst
ateandmai
npr
oper
ti
es.

506.Aggr
egat
est
abi
li
tyi
sdef
inedbyabi
li
tyofdi
sper
sesy
stemst
ocount
eract
:

a)+Coal
esci
ngofpar
ti
cles;

b)Sedi
ment
ati
onofpar
ti
cles;

c)Dest
ruct
ionofpar
ti
cles;

d)Subdi
vi
sionofpar
ti
cles.

507.Thest
ruct
ureofi
roni
chy
droxi
desol
:

a){
m[Fe(
OH)nFe3+3(
3] n- -3x
}+3xCl
x)Cl -
;

b){
m[BaSO4]nBa2+2(
n- NO3-}
x) 2x+
2xNO3-;

c)+{
m[BaSO4]nSO42-2(
n- K+}
x) 2x-
2xK+;

d){
m[Au]nAuO2-(
n- K+}
x) x-
xK+.

508.Accor
dingt
othemi
cel
lart
heor
y,t
hecol
loi
dalsol
uti
onsst
ruct
ure:solconsi
stsf
rom:

a)+Twopar
ts:
micel
l
aeandi
nter
micel
l
arl
i
qui
d;

b)Pr
eci
pit
ateandwat
er;

c)Mi
xtur
eofgases;

d)At
omsandi
ons.
509.Themet
hodsofcl
eani
ngcol
loi
dalsol
uti
onsar
e:

a)Compensat
iondi
aly
sis;
dial
ysi
s;

b)Condensat
ion;
cry
stal
l
izat
ion;

c)Subl
i
mat
ion;
dist
il
lat
ion;

d)+Fi
l
trat
ion;
ult
raf
il
tr
ati
on.

510.Di
sper
sephaseofspar
kli
ngdr
inksi
s:

a)N2;

b)H2O;

c)+CO2;

d)O2.

511.Aer
osoli
s:

a)Powder
;

b)Dustcl
oud;

c)Hai
rspr
ay;

d)
+Al
lanswer
sar
eri
ght
.

512.Emul
sioni
s:

a)+Mi
l
k;

b)b)Foam;

c)c)Jel
l
y;
d)d)Fog.

513.Bi
ologi
calgeli
s:

a)+Car
ti
lage;

b)ai
r;

c)cl
ouds;

d)r
iverwat
er.

514.Thesi
mil
ari
tyofsuspensi
onandemul
sioni
sto:

a)Thesear
ehet
erogeneoussy
stems;

b)Par
ti
clesar
evi
sibl
ewi
tht
henakedey
e;

c)Theyar
eeasi
l
ybesi
eged;

d)+Al
lanswer
sar
eri
ght
.

515.Coar
sedi
sper
sesy
stem i
s:

a)Sol
uti
on;

b)
Sol
;

c0+Suspensi
on;

d)
Gel
.

516.Chr
omat
ogr
aphyi
s:
a)+Themet
hodofsepar
ati
onofhet
erogeneousmi
xtur
es;

b)At
ypeofdi
sper
sesy
stems;

c)Acont
inuousphase;

d)Themet
hodofsepar
ati
onofhomogeneousmi
xtur
es.

517.I
nwar
dfor
cet
hatt
endst
omi
nimi
zet
hesur
facear
eaofal
iqui
discal
ledas:

a)+Sur
facet
ensi
on;

b)Sur
faceener
gy;

c)I
nter
nal
ener
gy;

d)Heatofdi
ssol
uti
on.

518.Aer
osol
swi
thal
iqui
ddi
sper
sephasear
ecal
led:

a)+Fog;

b)Dust
;

c)Smoke;

d)St
eam.

519.Di
sti
ngui
shacol
loi
dalsol
uti
onandat
ruesol
uti
onaccor
dingt
othef
oll
owi
ng:

a)Col
or;

b)Tr
anspar
ence;

c)+Si
zeofpar
ti
cles;

d)Odor
.
520.Emul
sioni
s:

a)+But
ter
;

b)b)Ri
verooze;

c)c)St
ainedgl
ass;

d)d)Text
il
efabr
ics.

521.Def
inet
hedi
sper
sephaseaggr
egat
ivest
atei
nfog:

a)+Li
qui
d;

b)Sol
i
d;

c)Gas;

d)Al
lanswer
sar
eri
ght

522.Whatcondensedmet
hodsofobt
aini
ngt
hecol
loi
dsy
stemsar
ebasedon?

a)Onthecr
ushi
ngofsol
i
dmat
eri
alsorl
i
qui
dsanddi
sper
sionoft
hei
rpar
ti
cles t
hroughouta
l
iqui
d;

b)Ont
hei
ntegr
ati
onofpar
ti
clesatt
heaggr
egat
ionofmol
ecul
esandi
ons;

c)Onthecr
ushi
ngofsol
i
dmat
eri
alsorl
i
qui
dsanddi
sper
sionoft
hei
rpar
ti
cles t
hroughouta
gas;

d)+Ont
hesol
obt
aini
ngf
rom apr
eci
pit
ati
onusi
ngpept
izat
or.

523.Suspensi
onsaccor
dingt
othedegr
eeofdi
sper
sit
yar
e:

a)+Coar
sedi
sper
sed;

b)Col
l
oidal
;
c)Mol
ecul
ar;

d)Tr
uesol
uti
on.

524.Coagul
ati
oni
s:

a)Chaot
icmov
ementofpar
ti
cles;

b)Di
ssoci
ati
onofel
ect
rol
ytesol
uti
ons;

c)Dest
ruct
ionoft
henat
ivepr
otei
nst
ruct
ure;

d)+Thepr
ocessbywhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphaseofacol
l
oidi
smadet
oaggr
egat
eandt
her
eby
separ
atef
rom t
hecont
inuousphase.

525.Opt
icalpr
oper
ti
esofdi
sper
sedsy
stemsar
e:

a)Vi
scosi
ty,
flowabi
l
ity
;

b)+Opal
escence,
li
ghtabsor
pti
on;

c)Di
ff
usi
on,
Browni
anmot
ion;

d)di
ssol
uti
on,
swel
l
ing.

526.El
ect
ro-
kinet
icphenomenoni
s:

a)Opal
escence;

b)El
ect
rodi
aly
sis;

c)Li
ghtabsor
pti
on;

d)+El
ect
rophor
esi
sandel
ect
roosmosi
s.

527.Ami
cel
lewhi
chi
sfor
medasar
esul
toff
ormat
ionofadoubl
eel
ect
ri
clay
eri
s:

a)Negat
ivel
ychar
ged;

b)El
ect
roneut
ral
;
c)Posi
ti
vel
ychar
ged;

d)+Negat
ivel
yandposi
ti
vel
ychar
ged.

528.Di
ff
erencebet
weencol
loi
dsandcr
yst
all
oidsi
sof

a)Di
amet
er

b)
Par
ti
clesi
ze

c)
radi
us

d)+sol
ubi
l
ity

529.Thesi
zeofpar
ti
clesi
nsuspensi
on,
truesol
uti
onandcol
loi
dalsol
uti
onv
ari
esi
nthe
order

a)+suspensi
on>col
l
oidal
>tr
uesol
uti
on

b)
truesol
uti
on>suspensi
on>col
l
oidal

c)suspensi
on>col
l
oidal
=tr
uesol
uti
on

d)noneoft
heabov
e

530.Col
loi
dscanbepur
if
iedby

a)pept
izat
ion

b)coagul
ati
on

c)+di
aly
sis

d)br
edi
car
cmet
hod

531.whi
chi
sanat
uralcol
loi
d?

a)sodi
um chl
ori
de

b)
urea

c)
canesugar

d)+bl
ood

532.Whi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotacol
loi
d

a)mi
l
k
b)bl
ood

c)
icecr
eam

d)+ur
easol
uti
on

533.Mi
lki
sacol
loi
dinwhi
ch

a)+al
i
qui
disdi
sper
sedi
nli
qui
d

b)agasi
sdi
sper
sedi
nli
qui
d

c)asol
i
disdi
sper
sedi
nli
qui
d

d)
somesugari
sdi
sper
sedi
nwat
er

534.anaer
osoli
sacol
loi
dalsy
stem of

a)al
i
qui
ddi
sper
sedi
nasol
i
d

b)agasdi
sper
sedi
nai
r

c)+al
i
qui
ddi
sper
sedi
nagas

d)
noneoft
heabov
e

535.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sahomogeneoussy
stem

a)muddywat
er b)
bread c)
concr
ete d)+asol
uti
onofsugari
nwat
er

536.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sanemul
sif
ier
?

a)+soap

b)
wat
er

c)
oil

d)
NaCl

537.Ly
ophobi
ccol
loi
dsar
e

a)r
ever
sibl
ecol
l
oids

b)+i
rr
ever
sibl
ecol
l
oids

c)
prot
ect
ivecol
l
oids

d)
gum pr
otei
ns

538.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmet
hodsi
susedf
ort
hedest
ruct
ionofsol
?
a)
condensat
ion

c)
dif
fusi
ont
hroughani
mal
membr
ane

b)
dial
ysi
s

d)+addi
ti
onofanel
ect
rol
yte

539.Col
loi
dalsol
uti
onsar
enotpur
if
iedby

a)di
aly
sis

b)el
ect
rodi
aly
sis

c)ul
tr
afi
l
trat
ion

d)+el
ect
rophor
esi
s

540.Suspensi
onsar
e

a)+v
isi
blet
onakedey
e

c)i
nvi
sibl
eunderel
ect
ronmi
croscope

b)notv
isi
blebyanymeans

d)i
nvi
sibl
ethr
oughmi
croscope

541.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sly
ophi
li
ccol
loi
d?

a)+gel
ati
n

b)sul
phur

c)gol
d

d)car
bon

542.St
archdi
sper
sedi
nhotwat
eri
sanexampl
eof

a)l
yophi
l
icsol

b)+associ
atedcol
l
oid

c)hy
drophobi
csol

d)emul
sion

543.Theext
rast
abi
li
tyofl
yophi
li
ccol
loi
dsi
sduet
o

a)+char
geont
hei
rpar
ti
cles
b)al
ayerofmedi
um ofdi
sper
sionont
hei
rpar
ti
cles

c)t
hesmal
l
ersi
zeoft
hei
rpar
ti
cles

d)
thel
argesi
zeoft
hei
rpar
ti
cles

544.Ly
ophi
li
csol
sar
emor
est
abl
ethanl
yophobi
csol
sbecause

a)
thecol
l
oidal
par
ti
cleshav
eposi
ti
vechar
ge

b)
thecol
l
oidal
par
ti
cleshav
enegat
ivechar
ge

c)+t
hecol
l
oidal
par
ti
clesar
esol
vat
ed

d)t
her
ear
est
rongel
ect
rost
ati
crepul
sionsbet
weent
henegat
ivel
ychar
gedcol
l
oidal
par
ti
cles.

545.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotapr
oper
tyofhy
drophi
li
csol
s?

a)
highconcent
rat
ionofdi
sper
sedphasecanbeeasi
l
yat
tai
ned

b)+coagul
ati
oni
srev
ersi
ble

c)
viscosi
tyandsur
facet
ensi
onar
enear
lysameast
hatofwat
er

d)
thechargeoft
heparti
cledependsont
hepHv
alueoft
hemedi
um;
itmaybeposi
ti
ve,
negat
ive,
orevenzer
o

546.Whenacol
loi
dalsol
uti
oni
sobser
vedunderanul
tr
ami
croscope,
wecansee

a)
li
ghtscat
ter
edbycol
l
oidal
par
ti
cles

b)
shapeoft
hepar
ti
cle

c)+si
zeoft
hepar
ti
cle

d)
rel
ati
vesi
ze

547.Li
ghtscat
ter
ingt
akespl
acei
n

a)
sol
uti
onofel
ect
rol
yte

b)el
ect
rodi
aly
sis

c)+col
l
oidal
sol
uti
ons

d)
elect
ropl
ati
ng

548.
Maxi
mum coagul
ati
onpoweri
sin

Na+
a)

Ba2+
b)
3+
c)
Al

d)+Sn4+

549.Thecoagul
ati
onpowerofanel
ect
rol
ytef
orAs2S3decr
easesi
ntheor
der

Na+,
a) Al3+
,Ba2+
- 2- 3-
b)
Cl,
SO4 ,
PO4
3+
c)+Al ,Ba2+,
Na+

PO43-,
d) SO42-,
Cl-

550.Ty
ndal
lphenomenai
sexhi
bit
edby

a)
NaCl
sol
uti
on

b)+st
archsol
uti
on

c)
ureasol
uti
on

d)
FeCl
3sol
uti
on

551.Br
owni
anmov
ementormot
ion,
thepat
hsoft
hepar
ti
clesar
e

a)
li
near

b)
cur
ved

c)+zi
gzag

d)
uncer
tai
n

552.Thesepar
ati
onofcol
loi
dalpar
ti
clesf
rom t
hoseofmol
ecul
ardi
mensi
oni
sknownas

a)
Phot
oly
sis

b)+di
aly
sis

c)
pyr
oly
sis

d)
pept
isat
ion

553.Separ
ati
onofcol
loi
dalpar
ti
clesf
rom t
hoseofmol
ecul
ardi
mensi
onwi
thel
ect
ri
cit
yis
knownas

a)
elect
rol
ysi
s

b)+el
ect
rophor
esi
s

c)
elect
rody
aly
sis
d)
noneoft
heabov
e

554.Whichproper
tyofcol
loi
dalsuspensi
oni
susedt
odet
ermi
net
henat
ureofchar
geon
thepart
icl
es?

a)
dial
ysi
s

b)+el
ect
rophor
esi
s

c)
sedi
ment
ati
on

d)
ult
raf
il
tr
ati
on

555.Gel
ati
nismost
lyusedi
nmaki
ngi
ce-
creamsi
nor
dert
o

a)
prev
entmaki
ngofacol
l
oid

b)
stabi
l
izet
hemi
xtur
e

c)+st
abi
l
izet
hecol
l
oidandpr
eventcr
yst
all
i
zat
ion

d)
enr
icht
hear
oma

556.Whi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotr
epr
esent
edbysol
s?

a)
absor
pti
on

b)
tyndal
lef
fect

c)
fl
occul
ati
on

d)+par
amagnet
ism

557.Absor
pti
oni
sthephenomenoni
nwhi
chasubst
ance

a)+accumul
atesi
nthesur
faceoft
heot
hersubst
ance

b)goesi
ntot
hebodyoft
heot
hersubst
ance

c)r
emai
nscl
oset
otheot
hersubst
ance

d)f
ormschemi
cal
bondswi
thot
hersubst
ences.

558.Whichcoll
oidi
susedi
ntr
eat
ingey
edi
sease?
a)+colloi
dalS
b)Col
loi
dalant
imony
c)col
loi
dalgold
d)col
l
oidalpl
ati
num

559.As2S3soli
s
a)posi
ti
vecoll
oid
b)+negati
vecoll
oid
c)
neut
ralcol
loi
d
d)
noneoftheabove

560.Cl
oudorf
ogi
sanexampl
eofcol
loi
dalsy
stem of

a)+l
i
qui
ddi
sper
sedi
ngas

b)
sol
i
ddi
sper
sedi
ngas

c)
gasdi
sper
sedi
ngas

d)
sol
i
ddi
sper
sedi
nli
qui
d

561.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sacol
loi
d?

a)
sugarsol
uti
on

b)
ureasol
uti
on

c)+si
l
ici
caci
d

d)
NaCl
sol
uti
on

562.Whi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
nnotacol
loi
dalsol
uti
on?

a)smoke

b)i
nk

c)bl
ood

d)+ai
r

563.Mi
lki
s

a)f
atdi
sper
sedi
nmi
l
k

b)+f
atdi
sper
sedi
nwat
er

c)wat
erdi
sper
sedi
nfat

d)wat
erdi
sper
sedi
noi
l

564.Pumi
cest
onei
sanexampl
eofacol
loi
dinwhi
ch

a)
sol
i
disdi
sper
sedi
nli
qui
d

b)
li
qui
disdi
sper
sedi
nasol
i
d

c)+gasi
sdi
sper
sedi
nasol
i
d
d)
sol
i
disdi
sper
sedi
nasol
i
d

565.But
teri
sacol
loi
dfor
medwhen

a)f
ati
sdi
sper
sedi
nwat
er

b)f
atgl
obul
esar
edi
sper
sedi
nwat
er

c)+wat
eri
sdi
sper
sedi
nfat

d)noneoft
heabov
e

566.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotacol
loi
d?

a)+chl
orophy
ll

b)smoke

c)r
ubygl
ass

d)mi
l
k

567.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sahomogeneoussy
stem?

a)
muddywat
er

b)
bread

c)
concr
ete

d)+asol
uti
onofsugari
nwat
er

568.Acol
loi
dalsuspensi
oni
nli
qui
dst
atei
sdef
inedas

a)
gel

b)
homogeneoussol
uti
on

c)+sol

d)
aer
osol

569.I
fdi
sper
sedphasei
sal
iqui
dandt
hedi
sper
sionmedi
um i
sasol
id,
thecol
loi
disknown
as

a)asol

b)+agel

c)
anemul
sion
d)
afoam

570.Acol
loi
dalsy
stem i
nwhi
chgasbubbl
esar
edi
sper
sedi
nal
iqui
disknownas

a)+f
oam

b)
sol

c)
aer
osol

d)
emul
sion

571.Emul
sif
ier
sar
egener
all
y

a)
soap

b)
synt
het
icdet
ergent
s

c)+l
yophi
l
icsol
s

d)
all
oft
heabov
e

572.But
teri
s

a)emul
sion

b)aer
osol

c)suspensi
on

d)+none

573.Thecol
loi
dalsyst
em consi
sti
ngofal
iqui
dasdi
sper
sedphasei
nasol
idasdi
sper
sion
medium i
stermedas

a)
aer
osol

b)+gel

c)
emul
sion

d)
foam

574.Whi
choneofanexampl
eofgel
?

a)
soap

b)
fog

c)+cheese

d)
mil
k
575.Col
loi
dalsol
uti
onofagasi
nagasi
scal
led

a)aer
osol

b)+cannotbepr
epar
ed

c)gasaer
osol

d)gasosol

576.The________
_ofcol
loi
dsareofmaxi
mum import
ancesi
ncetheint
eract
ionoft
he
part
icl
eswi t
heachotherandt
hepri
nci
palphasei
sofpri
maryconcern.
a)Magnitude
b)Shape
c)+Surface
d)Size

577.Whendispersedphasei
sli
qui
danddi
sper
sionmedi
um i
sgast
hent
hecol
loi
dal
syst
em i
scalled

a)
smoke

b)+cl
ouds

c)
jel
l
ies

d)
emul
sions

578.Mi
lki
sanexampl
eof

a)pur
esol
uti
on

b)+emul
sion

c)
gel

d)
suspensi
on

579.Themi
grat
ionofcol
loi
dalpar
ti
clesunderi
nfl
uenceofanel
ect
ri
cfi
eldi
sknownas

a)
elect
ro-
osmosi
s

b)
Browni
anmov
ement

c) +cat
aphor
esi
s

d)
dial
ysi
s

580.Ty
ndal
lef
fectwi
llbeobser
vedi
n

a)+sol
uti
on
b)
preci
pit
ate

c)
sol

d)
vapour

581.Ty
ndal
lef
fecti
ncol
loi
dalsol
uti
oni
sduet
o

a)+scat
ter
ingofl
i
ght

b)
ref
lect
ionofl
i
ght

c)
absor
pti
onofl
i
ght

d)
presenceofel
ect
ri
cal
l
ychar
gedpar
ti
cles

582.TheBr
owni
anmot
ioni
sduet
o

a)
temper
atur
efl
uct
uat
ionwi
thi
nthel
i
qui
dphase

b)
att
ract
ionandr
epul
sionbet
weenchar
gesont
hecol
l
oidal
par
ti
cles

c)+i
mpactofmol
ecul
esoft
hedi
sper
sionmedi
um ont
hecol
l
oidal
par
ti
cles

d)
conv
ect
ivecur
rent
s

583.Theskyl
ooksbl
ueduet
o

a)
disper
sionef
fect

b)r
efl
ect
ion

c)
transmi
ssi
on

d)+scat
ter
ing

584.Thebl
uecol
orofwat
eri
ntheseai
sduet
o

a)
ref
ract
ionoft
hebl
uel
i
ghtbyt
hei
mpur
it
iesi
nseawat
er

b)+r
efl
ect
ionofbl
ueskybyseawat
er

c)
scat
ter
ingofbl
uel
i
ghtbywat
ermol
ecul
es

d)
absor
pti
onofot
hercol
orsexceptt
hebl
uecol
orbywat
ermol
ecul
es

585.Whi
chcol
loi
disusedi
ntr
eat
ingey
edi
sease?

a)+col
l
oidal
S
b)
col
l
oidal
ant
imony

c)
col
l
oidal
gol
d

d)
col
l
oidal
sil
ver

586.Random mot
ionofcol
loi
dalpar
ti
clesi
sknownas

a)
dial
ysi
s

b)+Br
owni
anmov
ement

c)
elect
ro-
osmosi
s

d)
Tyndal
lef
fect

587.i
sanexampl
eofcol
loi
dalsy
stem of

a)
sol
i
ddi
sper
sedi
nli
qui
d

b)
sol
i
ddi
sper
sedi
ngas

c)
li
qui
ddi
sper
sedi
ngas

d)+gasdi
sper
sedi
ngas

588.I
nwhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngTy
ndal
lef
fecti
snotobser
ved?

a)
suspensi
on

b)
emul
sion

c)+sugarsol
uti
on

d)
gol
dsol

589.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sal
yophi
li
ccol
loi
d?

a)
mil
k

b)+gum

c)
fog

d)
blood

590.Smal
lli
qui
ddr
opl
etsdi
sper
sedi
nanot
herl
iqui
dis

a)
suspensi
on

b)+emul
sion
c)
gel

d)
rtuesol
uti
on

591.Themet
hodusual
lyempl
oyedf
ort
hedest
ruct
ionofacol
loi
dalsol
uti
oni
s

a)
dial
ysi
s

b)+addi
ti
onofel
ect
rol
ytes

c)
dif
fusi
ont
hroughani
mal
membr
ane

d)
condensat
ion

592.Ast heconcentrat
ionincr
easest
othecrit
icalmicel
leconcentr
ati
on(
C.M.
C.)soap
part
iclesabruptl
ycollect
edint
ospher
icalst
ructur
escalled____
____
_
a)Ball
b)Spher eofions
c)+Mi cel
les
d)Dirtpart
icl
e

593._______
__isthemov ementofchargedsurf
aceswi
thcor
respondi
ngi
onsandH2Oi
nthe
stat
ionaryli
quidinducedbyanext er
nalfi
eld.
a)Coll
oidalsuspension
b)Emul si
on
c)Sedimentati
onpot enti
al
d)+El ectr
ophoresis

594.Whichoft hef
oll
owi
ngi
sut
il
izedi
nfoam f
ormat
ion?
a)Minerals
b)Vi
tami ns
c)+Pr otei
ns
d)St
arch

595.Athi
ghconcent
rat
ionofsoapi
nwat
er,
soapbehav
esas_
___
___
___
___
_

a)Mol
ecul
arcol
l
oid

b)+Associ
atedcol
l
oid

c)Macr
omol
ecul
arcol
l
oid

d)Ly
ophi
l
li
ccol
l
oid

596.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngwi
llshowTy
ndal
lef
fect
?

a)Aqueoussol
uti
onofsoapbel
owcr
it
ical
micel
l
econcent
rat
ion
b)+Aqueoussol
uti
onofsoapabov
ecr
it
ical
micel
l
econcent
rat
ion

c)Aqueoussol
uti
onofodi
um chl
ori
de

d)Aqueoussol
uti
onofsugar

597.Met
hodbywhi
chl
yophobi
csolcanbepr
otect
ed

a)Byaddi
ti
onofopposi
tel
ychar
gedsol

b)Byaddi
ti
onofanel
ect
rol
yte

c)+Byaddi
ti
onofl
yophi
l
icsol

d)Byboi
l
ing

598.Fr
eshl
ypr
epar
edpr
eci
pit
atesomet
imesget
sconv
ert
edt
ocol
loi
dalsol
uti
onby

a)Coagul
ati
on

b)El
ect
rol
ysi
s

c)Di
ff
usi
on

d)+Pept
isat
ion

599.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngel
ect
rol
yteswi
llhav
emaxi
mum coagul
ati
ngv
aluef
orAgI
/Ag+

a)Na2S

b)Na3PO4

c)Na2SO4

d)+NaCl

(ext
entofadsor
pti
oni
sdi
rect
lypr
opor
ti
onal
tot
heeaseofl
i
qui
fi
cat
ioni
sdi
rect
ly
propor
ti
onaltoTc)

600.Acolloi
dalsy
stem havi
ngasoli
dsubst
anceasadisper
sedphaseandal
iqui
dasa
disper
sionmedium i
sclassi
fi
edas__
____
____
___
___

a)Sol
i
dsol

b)Gel

c)Emul
sion

d) +Sol
601.Thevaluesofcolli
gat
ivepropert
iesofcoll
oidalsol
uti
onar
eofsmal lor
derin
compari
sont othoseshownbyt ruesolut
ionsofsameconcentrat
ionbecauseof
col
loi
dalparti
cles__
_____
_____

a)Exhi
bitenor
moussur
facear
ea

b)Remai
nsuspendedi
nthedi
sper
sionmedi
um

c)For
mly
ophi
l
iccol
l
oids

d)+Ar
ecompar
ati
vel
ylessi
nnumber

Uni
t4

Or
gani
ccompounds.

602.Whi
chel
ementi
spr
esenti
nal
lor
gani
ccompounds?

a)+car
bon

b)
nit
rogen

c)
oxy
gen

d)
phosphor
ous

603.
Whi
chpr
oper
tyi
sgener
all
ychar
act
eri
sti
cofanor
gani
ccompound?

a)+l
owmel
ti
ngpoi
nt

b)
highmel
ti
ngpoi
nt

c)
sol
ubl
einpol
arsol
vent
s

d)
insol
ubl
einnonpol
arsol
vent
s

604.
Compar
edt
other
ateofi
nor
gani
creact
ions,
ther
ateofor
gani
creact
ionsgener
all
yis

a)
slowerbecauseor
gani
cpar
ti
clesar
eions

b)+sl
owerbecauseor
gani
cpar
ti
clescont
aincov
alentbonds

c)
fast
erbecauseor
gani
cpar
ti
clesar
eions

d)
fast
erbecauseor
gani
cpar
ti
clescont
aincov
alentbonds

605.
Whi
chcompoundsar
eisomer
s?

a)+1-
propanol
and2-
propanol
b)
met
hanol
andmet
hanal

c)
met
hanoi
caci
dandet
hanoi
caci
d

d)
ethaneandet
hanol

606.
Whi
chst
atementexpl
ainswhyt
heel
ementcar
bonf
ormssomanycompounds?

a)
Car
bonat
omscombi
ner
eadi
l
ywi
thoxy
gen.

b)
Car
bonat
omshav
ever
yhi
ghel
ect
ronegat
ivi
ty.

c)
Car
bonr
eadi
l
yfor
msi
oni
cbondswi
thot
hercar
bonat
oms.

d)+Car
bonr
eadi
l
yfor
mscov
alentbondswi
thot
hercar
bonat
oms.

607.
Whi
chpol
ymer
soccurnat
ural
ly
?

a)
star
chandny
lon

b)+st
archandcel
l
ulose

c)
prot
einandny
lon

d)
prot
einandpl
ast
ic

608.
Whati
sthenameoft
hecompoundt
hathast
hemol
ecul
arf
ormul
aC6H6?

a)
but
ane

b)
but
ene

c)+benzene

d)
but
yne

609.I
namol ecul
eofCH4,
thehy
drogenat
omsar
espat
ial
lyor
ient
edt
owar
dthecent
ers
ofaregul
ar

a)
pyr
ami
d

b)+t
etr
ahedr
on

c)
squar
e

d)
rect
angl
e

610.I
nwhi
chpai
rofhy
drocar
bonsdoeseachcompoundcont
ainonl
yonedoubl
ebond
permol
ecul
e?

a)
C2H2 
andC2H6

b)
C2H2 
andC3H6

c)+C4H8 
andC2H4

d)
C6H6 
andC7H8

611. Whi
chcompoundcont
ainanal
coholgr
oup?

a)acet
one

b)met
hanal
e

c)+met
hanol

d)di
met
hyl
ether

612.Thepr
oduct
soft
hef
erment
ati
onofsugarar
eet
hanoland

a)
wat
er

b)
oxy
gen

c)+car
bondi
oxi
de

d)
sul
furdi
oxi
de

613.Whi
chcompoundi
sasat
urat
edhy
drocar
bon?

a)+et
hane

b)
ethene

c)
ethy
ne

d)
ethanol

614.Whatt
ypeofr
eact
ioni
sCH3CH3 
+Cl

->CH3CH2Cl+HCl
?

a)
anaddi
ti
onr
eact
ion

b)
asaponi
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ion

b)+asubst
it
uti
onr
eact
ion
d)
anest
eri
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ion

615.Whati
sthemaxi
mum numberofcov
alentbondst
hananat
om ofcar
boncanf
orm?

a)
1

b)
2

c)
3

d)+4

616.Whi
chcl
assofor
gani
ccompoundscanber
epr
esent
edasR-
-OH?

a)
aci
ds

b)+al
cohol
s

c)
est
ers

d)
ether
s

617.Whi
chmol
ecul
econt
ainsat
otaloft
hreecar
bonat
oms?

a)
2-met
hyl
propane

b)
2-met
hyl
but
ane

c)+pr
opane

d)
but
ane

618.Whatsubst
ancei
smadeupofmonomer
sjoi
nedt
oget
heri
nlongchai
ns?

a)
ket
one

b)+pr
otei
n

c)
est
er

d)
aci
d

619.Dur
ingf
ract
ionaldi
sti
ll
ati
on,
hydr
ocar
bonsar
esepar
atedaccor
dingt
othei
r

a)+boi
l
ingpoi
nts
b)
mel
ti
ngpoi
nts

c)
tri
plepoi
nts

d)
sat
urat
ionpoi
nts

620.Whi
chcompoundi
sanor
gani
caci
d?

a)
CH3OH

b)
CH3OCH3

c)+CH3COOH

d)
CH3COOCH3

621. Mol
ecul
esof1-
propanoland2-
propanolhav
edi
ff
erent

a)
per
cent
agecomposi
ti
ons;

b)
mol
ecul
armasses;

c)
mol
ecul
arf
ormul
as;

d)+st
ruct
ural
for
mul
as.

622. Whi
chcompoundi
sanor
gani
caci
d?

a)
CH3CH2OH;

b)
CH3OCH3;

c)+CH3COOH;

d)
CH3COOCH3.

623. Eachmemberofthealkaneser
iesdi
ff
ersf
rom t
hepr
ecedi
ngmemberbyone
addi
ti
onalcar
bonatom and

a)onehy
drogenat
om;

b)+t
wohy
drogenat
oms;

c)
thr
eehy
drogenat
oms;

d)f
ourhy
drogenat
oms.

624. Whi
chf
ormul
arepr
esent
sasat
urat
edhy
drocar
bon?

a) C2H2;
b)C2H4;

c) C3H6;

d)+C3H8.

625.Themembersoft
heal
kaneser
iesofhy
drocar
bonsar
esi
mil
ari
nthateach
memberhast
hesame

a)+empi
ri
cal
for
mul
a;

b) gener
alf
ormul
a;

c)st
ruct
ural
for
mul
a;

d)mol
ecul
arf
ormul
a.

626. Whatcoul
dbet
henameofacompoundt
hathast
hegener
alf
ormul
aR-
OH?

a)+met
hanol
;

b)met
hane;

c)met
hyl
met
hanoat
e;

d) met
hanoi
caci
d.

627. A compound wi
tht
he f
ormul
a C6H6i
s

a) t
oluene;

b) +benzene;

c)but
ene;

d)pent
ene.

628.C2H4+H2<======>C2H6 Theabov
ereact
ioni
sanexampl
eof_
___r
eact
ion.

a)+ddi
ti
on;

b)subst
it
uti
on;

c)saponi
fi
cat
ion;

d)est
eri
fi
cat
ion.

629.ThecompoundC4H9OHi
sani
somerof

a)C3H7COCH3;

b)
CH3COOC2H5;
c)+H5OC2H5;

d)CH3COOH.

630.Whati
sthet
otalnumberofcar
bonat
omscont
ainedi
nanet
hylgr
oup?

a)1;

b)+2;

c) 3;

d)4.

631.
Whi
chcompoundi
samemberoft
heal
kaneser
ies?

a)+C2H6;

b)C3H6;

c)C4H6;

d)C6H6.

632.Ar
eact
ionbet
weenanaci
dandal
coholpr
oducesanest
erand

a)car
bondi
oxi
de;

b)+wat
er;

c)gl
ycer
ol;

d)et
hanol
.

633.
Thegener
alf
ormul
afort
heal
kyneser
iesi
s

a)CnHn;

b)CnH2n;

c)CnH2n+2;

d)+CnH2n-
2.

634.Whi
chcompoundr
epr
esent
samemberoft
hebenzeneser
ies?

a)acet
ylene;

b)et
hyl
ene;

c)+t
oluene;
d)pr
opene.

635.
Whi
chcompoundi
sani
somerofCH3COOH?

a)+HCOOCH3;

b)
CH3CH2COOH;

c)CH3CH2OH;

d)CH3COOCH3

636.
Whi
chcompoundi
samemberoft
heal
keneser
ies?

a)benz
ene;

b)t
oluene;

c)+acet
ylene;

d)et
hane

637.Al
lcar
bon-
car
bonbondsi
nasat
urat
edhy
drocar
bonmol
ecul
ear
e

a) +si
ngl
ecov
alent
;

b)doubl
ecov
alent
;

c)t
ri
plecov
alent
;

d)coor
dinat
ecov
alent

638.
Whi
chnor
malal
kenehast
hehi
ghestboi
li
ngpoi
ntat1at
mospher
e?

a)C2H4;

b)C3H6;

c)C4H8;

d)+C5H10.

639.
Whi
chr
eact
ionpr
oduceset
hylal
coholasoneoft
hepr
inci
palpr
oduct
s?

a)anest
eri
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ion;

b)aneut
ral
i
zat
ionr
eact
ion;

c)asaponi
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ion;
d)+af
erment
ati
onr
eact
ion.

640.
Giv
ent
hefol
lowi
ngreacti
on:C4H10+Br
2<======>C4H9Br+HBr
.Theabov
ereact
ion
i
sanexampl
eof____
___react
ion.

a)+subst
it
uti
on;

b)addi
ti
on;

c)pol
ymer
izat
ion;

d)f
erment
ati
on.

641.
Inamol
ecul
eofC3H8,
thet
otalnumberofcov
alentbondsi
s

a)11;

b)11;

c)3;

d)+10

642.
Whi
chcompoundi
sanest
er?

a)CH3COOH;

b)CH3CHO;

c)+CH3COOCH3;

d)CH3COCH3.

643.
Thef
erment
ati
onofC6H12O6wi
llpr
oducecar
bondi
oxi
deand

a)apol
ymer
;

b)asoap;

c)anest
er;

d)+anal
cohol
.

644.Compoundswhi
chhav
ethesamemol
ecul
arf
ormul
abutdi
ff
erentmol
ecul
ar
str
uctur
es

ar
ecal
led

a)+i
somer
s;
b)i
sot
opes;

c)al
l
otr
opes;

d)homol
ogs.

645.
Whi
chi
sthef
ormul
aofasat
urat
edhy
drocar
bon?

a)C2H2

C2H4;

c)C5H8;

d)+C5H12.

646.CnH2n+2i
sthegener
alf
ormul
aofahomol
ogousser
ies.Whi
chi
samemberwi
th
thi
s

char
act
eri
sti
c?

a)acet
ylene;

b)benzene;

c)+pr
opane;

d)t
oluene.

647.Amol
ecul
eofet
henei
ssi
mil
art
oamol
ecul
eofmet
hanei
nthatt
heybot
hhav
ethe
same

a)st
ruct
ural
for
mul
a;

b)mol
ecul
arf
ormul
a

c)numberofcar
bonat
oms;

d)+numberofhy
drogenat
oms.

648.
Whi
chi
sthef
ormul
aforet
hanoi
caci
d?

a)CH3COOH;

b)CH3CH2OH;

c)+CH3CH2COOH;

d)CH3CH2CH2OH.

649.
ThecompoundCH3COOCH3i
scl
assi
fi
edas
a)anaci
d;

b)anal
cohol
;

c)+anest
er;

d)ahy
drocar
bon.

650.Eachmemberi
nthealkaneseri
esofhy
drocar
bons,whenconsi
der
edi
nsuccessi
ve
order,has1mor
ecarbonatom andhowmanymor ehydr
ogenatoms?

a)+4; b)8; c)3; d)4.

651.
Whi
chmol
ecul
arf
ormul
arepr
esent
spent
ene?

a)C4H8;

b)C4H10;

c)+C5H10;

d)C5H12.

652.
Amol
ecul
eofwhi
chal
coholcont
ainsmor
ethanonehy
droxy
lgr
oup?

a)pr
opanol
;

b)but
anol
;

c)pent
anol

d)+gl
ycer
ol.

653.
Hydr
ogenbondi
ngi
smostnot
icabl
ein

a)+or
gani
caci
ds;

b)est
ers;

c)al
kynes;

d)al
kanes.

654.
Whi
chmol
ecul
econt
ainsat
ri
plecov
alentbond?

a)+C2H2;

b)C2H4;

c)C3H6;
d)C3H8.

655.
Whi
chf
ormul
arepr
esent
sanaci
d?

a)CH3COOCH3;

b)CH3OH;

c)+CH3COOH;

d)CH3CH2CH3.

656.
Ethylfor
mat ecanbeproducedbyheat
ingconcent
rat
edsul
fur
icaci
d,et
hylal
cohol
andformicacid.Thi
stypeofreact
ioni
scal
led

a)f
erment
ati
on;

b)+st
eri
fi
cat
ion;

c)saponi
fi
cat
ion;

d)pol
ymer
izat
ion.

657.Whi
chf
ormul
arepr
esent
samemberoft
heal
keneser
ies?

a)+C3H6;

b)C2H6;

c)C2H2;

d)C6H6.

658.Et
hyne(
acet
ylene)haswhi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngshapes?

a)t
etr
ahedr
al;

b)pl
anart
ri
angul
ar;

c)+l
i
near
;

d)bent
.

659.Compar
edwi
thor
gani
ccompoundsi
ngener
al,
organi
ccompoundsusual
lyhav
e

a)gr
eat
ersol
ubi
l
ityi
nwat
er;

bat
endencyt
ofor
mionsmor
ereadi
l
y;

b)mor
erapi
dreact
ionr
ates;

d)+l
owermel
ti
ngpoi
nts.
660.Whi
chr
epr
esent
sthef
unct
ionalgr
oupofanor
gani
caci
d?

a) +-
COOH;

b)-
OR;

c)-
CHO;

d)-
NH2.

661.C3H6+H2=C3H8 Theabov
ereact
ioni
sanexampl
eof
___
___r
eact
ion.

a)subst
it
uti
on;

b) +addi
ti
on;

c)pol
ymer
izat
ion;

d)est
eri
fi
cat
ion.

662.Thei
somer
sofpr
opanoldi
ff
eri
n

a)t
henumberofcar
bonat
oms;

b)t
hear
rangementoft
hecar
bonat
oms;

c)+mol
ecul
armass;

d)t
heposi
ti
onoff
unct
ional
group.

663.Whi
chi
sthef
ormul
aofanal
cohol
?

a)Ba(
OH)
2;

b)HCHO;

c)CH3COOH;

d)+C5H11OH.

664.C3H5(
OH)
3Theabov
eor
gani
ccompoundi
scl
assi
fi
edas

a)acar
bohy
drat
e;

b)anest
er;

c)anor
gani
caci
d;

d)+anal
cohol
.

665.Whi
chcompoundcanhav
eisomer
s?
a)C2H4;

b)C2H2;

c)C2H6;

d)+C4H8.

666.C2H4+Br
2=?Whatr
eact
ionoccur
swhent
heabov
echemi
cal
sreact
?

a)
pol
ymer
izat
ion;

b)+subst
it
uti
on;

c)addi
ti
on;

d)est
eri
fi
cat
ion.

667.
Whi
chor
gani
ccompoundi
sapr
oductofaf
erment
ati
onr
eact
ion?

a)CCl
2F2; b)C2H2;

c)+C2H5OH;

d)C2H5OC2H5.

668.
Whi
chor
gani
ccompoundi
sapr
oductofanest
eri
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ion?

a)C3H8;

b)C3H7OH;

c)CH3COOH;

d)+CH3COOCH3.

669.
Whi
chor
gani
ccompoundi
sapr
oductofasaponi
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ion?

a)CCl
4;

b)+C3H5(
OH)
3;

c)C6H6;

d)C6H12O6.

670.
Thest
ruct
ureofanal
kenecont
ains
a)onl
ysi
ngl
ebonds;

b)+adoubl
ebond;

c)t
wodoubl
ebonds;

d)at
ri
plebond.

671.Asthemembersofthealkaneser
iesincr
easei
nmol
ecul
armasst
hemagni
tudeof
thevanderWaal
sforcesbet
weent hemolecul
es

a)decr
eases;

b)+i
ncr
eases;

c)r
emai
nst
hesame;

d)decr
easest
heni
ncr
eases.

672.
Whi
chhy
drocar
bonhasmor
ethanonepossi
blest
ruct
uralf
ormul
a?

a)CH4;

b)C2H6;

c)C3H8;

d)+C4H10.

673.
Whati
sthenumberofhy
drogenat
omsi
namol
ecul
eofet
hyne?

a)6;

b)3;

c)8;

d)+2.

674.
Inanaqueoussol
uti
on,
whi
chcompoundwi
llbeaci
dic?

a)+CH3COOH;

b)C3H5(
OH)
3;

c)CH3CH2OH;

d)CH3OH.

675.
Apr
ocessi
nwhi
chl
argemol
ecul
esar
ebr
okendowni
ntosmal
lermol
ecul
esi
sused

commer
cial
lyt
oincr
easet
hey
iel
dofgasol
inef
rom pet
rol
eum.Thi
spr
ocessi
s
cal
led

a)pol
ymer
izat
ion;

b)hy
drogenat
ion;

c)est
eri
fi
cat
ion;

d)+cr
acki
ng.

676.Or
gani
ccompoundsmustcont
ain

a)oxy
gen;

b)ni
tr
ogen;

c)hy
drogen;

d)+car
bon.

677.Theangl
efor
medbet
weenanyt
wocar
bon-
hydr
ogenbondsi
namol
ecul
eofan

or
gani
ccompoundi
sa(
an)

a)di
hedr
alangl
e;

b)r
ightangl
e;

c)+t
etr
ahedr
alangl
e;

d)acut
eangl
e.

678.Aspeci
fi
car
rangementofsev
eralat
omswhi
chgi
veschar
act
eri
sti
cpr
oper
ti
est
o
an

or
gani
cmol
ecul
eisknownasa(
an)

a)car
boxy
lgr
oup;

b)+f
unct
ional
group;

c)gr
oup;

d)al
kyl
group.

679.
Theabi
li
tyoft
hecar
bonat
om t
ofor
m cov
alentbondsr
esul
tint
hef
ormat
ionof

compoundst
hatar
e

a)+mol
ecul
ar;

b)i
oni
c;
c)pol
ar;

d)at
omi
c.

680.
Howmanycar
bonat
omsar
einonemol
ecul
eof2,
3,
3-t
ri
met
hyl
pent
ane?

a)5;

b)+8;

c)6;

d)13.

681.
Theser
iesofunsat
urat
edhy
drocar
bonscont
aini
ngat
ri
plebondshar
edbet
ween
two

adj
acentcar
bonat
omsi
sknownast
he

a)al
kanes;

b)al
kenes;

c)+al
kynes;

d)benz
enes.

682.
Addi
ti
onr
eact
ionsoccuri
nunsat
urat
edhy
drocar
bonsr
athert
hani
nsat
urat
ed

hy
drocar
bonsbecauseunsat
urat
edhy
drocar
bons

a) +cont
ainmul
ti
plebonds;

b)hav
eagr
eat
ermol
ecul
armass;

c)hav
etet
rahedr
albonds;

d)cont
ainmor
eat
oms.

683.
Adi
hydr
oxyal
coholt
hati
smadef
rom et
hanei
s

a)et
hanol
;

b)gl
ycer
ol;

c) +et
hyl
enegl
ycol
;
d)et
hane.

684.
Alongchai
npr
otei
nisanexampl
eofa(
an)

a)f
at;

b) +pol
ymer
;

c)i
somer
;

d)monomer
.

685.
Whi
chr
epr
esent
sanunsat
urat
edhy
drocar
bon?

a)+C2H4;

b)C2H6;

c)C3H8;

d)C4H10.

686.
Howmanydoubl
ebondsar
einonemol
ecul
eof1,
3-but
adi
ene?

a)1;

b)+2;

c)3;

d)4.

687.
Whi
chi
sani
somerof2-
chl
oropr
opane?

a)but
ane;

b)pr
opane;

c)1-
chl
orobut
ane;

d)+1-
chl
oropr
opane.

688.
Afer
ment
ati
onr
eact
ionandasaponi
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ionar
esi
mil
ari
nthatt
heybot
h

canpr
oduce

a)anest
er;

b)+anal
cohol
;

c)anaci
d;
d)asoap.

689.
Whi
chi
sasat
urat
edhy
drocar
bon?

a)+C3H8;

b)C6H6;

c)C2H5OH;

d)C2H4O2.

690.
Whi
chmol
ecul
ewi
l
lhav
easi
ngl
epibond?

a)benz
ene;

b)+pr
opene;

c)pr
opane;

d)pr
opy
ne.

691.
CH3CH2OH Theabov
eor
gani
ccompoundi
scl
assi
fi
edas

a)acar
bohy
drat
e;

b)anest
er;

c)+anal
cohol
;

d)anor
gani
caci
d.

692.
Whi
chor
gani
cmol
ecul
eunder
goesr
esonance?

a)+benzene;

b)pr
opy
ne;

c)met
hane;

d)et
hanol
.

693.Ast
hemol
ecul
armassoft
hecompoundsoft
heal
kaneser
iesi
ncr
easest
hei
r
boi
li
ng

poi
nts

a)decr
eases;

b)+i
ncr
eases;
c)r
emai
nst
hesame;

d)decr
easest
heni
ncr
eases.

694.Ast
henumberofcar
bonat
omsi
nthemember
soft
heal
keneser
iesi
ncr
eases,
the

r
ati
oofcar
bonat
omst
ohy
drogenat
oms

a)decr
eases;

b)i
ncr
eases;

c)+r
emai
nst
hesame;

d)decr
easest
heni
ncr
eases

695.Whi
chcompoundi
smostl
ikel
ytor
eactbyaddi
ti
on?

a)CH4;

b)+C3H6;

c)C4H10;

d)C5H12.

696.Whi
chal
coholcont
ainst
hreehy
droxy
lgr
oupspermol
ecul
e?

a)pr
opanol
;

b)+gl
ycer
ol;

c)but
anol
;

d)pent
anol
.

697.Tol
uenebel
ongst
othesameser
iesofhy
drocar
bonsas

a)+benzene;

b)pr
opene;

c)pent
ene;

d)but
ene.

698.Ahy
drocar
bonmol
ecul
econt
aini
ngonet
ri
plecov
alentbondi
scl
assi
fi
edasan

a)
alkene;

b)al
kane;
c)+al
kyne;

d)al
kadi
ene.

699.Bot
hcel
lul
oseandpr
otei
nsar
ecl
assi
fi
edas

a)al
dehy
des;

b)est
ers;

c)+pol
ymer
s;

\
d)ket
ones.

700.Thecompound2-
propanoli
scl
assi
fi
edasa

a)+secondar
yal
cohol
;

c)t
ert
iar
yal
cohol
;

d)di
hydr
oxyal
cohol
.

701.Whati
sthet
otalnumberofhy
drogenat
omsi
namol
ecul
eofbut
ene?

a)10;

b)+8;

c)6;

d)4.

702.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundshast
hegr
eat
estpossi
blenumberofi
somer
s?

a)
but
ane;

b)+et
hane;

c)pent
ane;

d)pr
opane.

703.Whi
chi
sthecor
rectmol
ecul
arf
ormul
aofpent
ene?

a)C5H8;

)+C5H10;

c)C5H12;

d)C5H14.
704.Thebondsbet
weent
heat
omsi
nanor
gani
cmol
ecul
ear
egener
all
y

a)i
oni
c;

b)coor
dinat
ecov
alent
;

c)+cov
alent
;

d)hy
drogen.

705.Asthelengt
hofthechai
nofcarbonatomsi
nmolecul
esoft
heal
keneser
ies
i
ncreases,
thenumberofdoublebondspermol
ecul
e

a)decr
eases;

b)i
ncr
eases;

c)+r
emai
nst
hesame;

d)decr
easest
heni
ncr
eases.

706.
Inacondensat
ionpol
ymer
izat
ion,
thet
wopr
oduct
sfor
medar
eapol
ymerand

a)+wat
er;

b)car
bondi
oxi
de;

c)anaci
d;

d)abase.

707.Whi
chi
sthecor
rectmol
ecul
arf
ormul
aof1,
2-et
hanedi
ol?

a)C2H5OH;

b)+C2H4(
OH)
2;

c)C3H5(
OH)
3;

d)C3H6(
OH)
2.

708.I
nther
eact
ionC2H5OH+CH3OH-
->C2H5OCH3+H2O,
theor
gani
ccompound

f
ormedi
s

a)anest
er;

b))aket
one;

c)anaci
d;
d)+anet
her
.

709.
Whi
chcompoundi
sasat
urat
edhy
drocar
bon?

a)et
hene;

b)+et
hane;

c)et
hyl
ene;

d)et
hyne.

710.ThecompoundC2H2bel
ongst
otheser
iesofhy
drocar
bonswi
tht
hegener
alf
ormul
a

a)
CnHn;

b)CnH2n;

c)+CnH2n-
2;

d)CnH2n+2.

711.Whi
chcompoundi
sadi
hydr
oxy
lal
cohol
?

a)Al
(OH)
3;

b)C3H5(
OH)
3;

c)Ca(
OH)
2;

d)+C2H4(
OH)
2.

712.Thenameoft
hecompoundhav
ingt
hef
ormul
aC3H5(
OH)
3is

a)+gl
ycer
ol;

b)et
hyl
enegl
ycol
;

c)pr
opene;

d)pr
opanoi
caci
d.

713.Whi
chor
gani
ccompoundi
saket
one?

a)CH3OH;

)+H3COCH3;

c)CH3COOH;

d)CH3COOCH3.
714.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundshast
hel
owestnor
malboi
li
ngpoi
nt?

a)but
ane;

b)et
hane;

c)+met
hane;

d)pr
opane.

715.Whi
chpr
ocessi
ncr
easest
hey
iel
dofgasol
ineandker
osenef
rom cr
udeoi
l?

a)oxi
dat
ion;

b)+cr
acki
ng;

c)Haber
;

d)cont
act
.

716.Or
gani
ccompoundst
hatar
eessent
ial
lynonpol
arandexhi
bitweaki
nter
mol
ecul
ar

f
orceshav
e

a)+l
owmel
ti
ngpoi
nts;

b)l
owv
aporpr
essur
e;

c)hi
ghconduct
ivi
tyi
nsol
uti
on;

d)hi
ghboi
l
ingpoi
nts.

717.Whati
sthef
ormul
aforpent
anol
?

a)C5H12;

b)+C5H11OH;

c)C4H10;

d)C4H9OH.

718.Whi
chcompoundi
samemberoft
heal
keneser
iesofhy
drocar
bons?

a)benz
ene;

b)+pr
opene;

c)t
oluene;

d)but
adi
ene.
719.Whi
chcompoundcont
ainsat
ri
plebond?

a)CH4;

b)+C2H2;

c)C3H6;

d)C4H10.

720.Whichor
gani
creact
ioni
nvol
vest
hebondi
ngofmonomer
sbyadehy
drat
ion
process?

a)
subst
it
uti
on;

b)oxi
dat
ion;

c)addi
ti
onpol
ymer
izat
ion;

d)+condensat
ion,
pol
ymer
izat
ion.

721.I
ncr
udepet
rol
eum,
fract
ionscanbesepar
atedaccor
dingt
othei
rdi
ff
eri
ngboi
li
ng

poi
ntsby

a)t
hecont
actpr
ocess;

b)t
heHaberpr
ocess;

c)+f
ract
ional
dist
il
lat
ion;

d)cr
acki
ng.

722.
Organi
caci
dsar
ecomposedofa 

a)
C=Ogr
oupatt
heendoft
hechai
n

b)COO–gr
oup

c)+C=OandCOHgr
oupont
hesamecar
bon 

d)
 C=OandCOHgr
oupondi
ff
erentcar
bons

723.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sat
ruest
atement
?

a)
ket
onesareproducedbypl
aci
ngahotcopperwi
rei
ntoapr
imar
yal
cohol
int
he
pr
esenceofanoxidi
zi
ngagent

b)+aldehydesar
eproducedbypl
aci
ngahotcopperwi
rei
ntoapr
imar
yal
cohol
int
he
pr
esenceofanoxi
dizi
ngagent
c)
ket
onesar
epr
oducedbyoxi
dizi
ngapr
imar
yal
cohol

d)
organi
caci
dsar
ebyoxi
dizi
ngaket
one

724.Or
gani
csal
ts–est
ers–ar
epr
oducedbyr
eact
ing

CH3CH2CH(
CH3)
CCC(
CH3)
2CH3

a)anal
cohol
wit
hanet
her

b)acar
boxy
li
caci
dwi
thaket
one

c) +acar
boxy
li
caci
dwi
thanal
cohol

d)aket
onewi
thanal
dehy
de

725.
Thenameofanest
erpr
oducedbyar
eact
ionbet
weenpr
opanolandet
hanoi
caci
dis

a)+et
hyl
propanoat
e

b)pr
opy
let
hanoat
e

c)pr
opet
hanoat
e

d)noneoft
heabov
e

726.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
scl
assi
fi
edasanet
her
?

a)
CH3CHOHCH3

b)
CH2(
OH)
CH2CH3

c)
CH3CH2CO

d)+CH3OCH3

727.Pol
ymer
sar
e

a)
mol
ecul
esmadeofmonomer
s

b)
mol
ecul
esmadeofr
egul
arl
yrepeat
inguni
tst
hatext
endt
hroughoutamol
ecul
e

c)
macr
omol
ecul
es

d)+al
loft
heabov
e

728.Cl
assi
fyt
hisr
eact
ion:

CH2=CH2+H2O==>C2H5OH

a)Chl
ori
nat
ion
b)Oxi
dat
ion

c)+Hy
drat
ion

d)El
i
minat
ion

729.Thef
ir
stmemberoft
heket
onef
ami
lyi
s:

a)
Met
hanone

b)+Et
hanone

c)
Propanone

d)But
anone

730.Est
eri
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ionsbet
weenanal
coholandacar
boxy
li
caci
drequi
rewhat
cat
alyst
?

a)+Concent
rat
edsul
fur
icaci
d

b)Di
l
utesul
fur
icaci
d

c)Wat
er

d)
None

731.Howdoy
oudi
ff
erent
iat
ebet
weent
woopt
icali
somer
s?

a)+Ther
otat
eatdi
ff
erentr
ates

b)Theyhav
edi
ff
erentcol
our
s

c)Theyhav
edi
ff
erentmel
ti
ng/
boi
l
ingpoi
nts

d)Theyr
otat
ethepl
aneofpol
ari
sedl
i
ghti
ndi
ff
erentdi
rect
ions

732.Whati
sthemostcommonmet
hodofpr
oduci
ngachl
oroal
kane?

a)PCl
3andanal
cohol

b)
HCl
andanal
cohol

c)
HCl
andanal
cohol
,underr
efl
ux

d)+React
ionofanal
cohol
wit
hacar
boxy
li
caci
d,f
oll
owedbyaddi
ti
onofHCl

733.
Whati
sapr
oductwhenanest
eri
shy
drol
ysedunderal
kal
inecondi
ti
ons?

a)Acar
box
yli
caci
d

b)+Acar
boxy
lat
esal
t
c)Wat
er

d)Doesnotr
eact

734.Namet
hismol
ecul
e:

a)+1,
2-di
met
hyl
but
ane

b)3,
4-di
met
hyl
but
ane

c)hexane

d)3-
met
hyl
pent
ane

735.Whatar
eal
cohol
snotusedi
n?

a)
wine

b)
vinegar

c)+pl
ast
ics

d)
met
hyl
atedspi
ri
ts

736.Whati
sther
eact
ionbet
weenanal
coholandcar
boxy
li
caci
dcal
led?

a)hy
drat
ion

b)hy
drol
ysi
s

c)+est
eri
fi
cat
ion

d)
pol
ymer
isat
ion

737.Whati
sthegener
almol
ecul
arf
ormul
aofal
cohol
?

a)+CnH2n+1OH

b)
CnH2nOH

c)
CnH2n+2OH

d)
CnH2n+1COOH

738.Vi
negart
ast
essourbecauseof_
___
__.

a)+et
hanoi
caci
d

b)
ethanol
c)
but
anoi
caci
d

d)
ethy
let
hanoat
e

739.Whi
chi
str
ueaboutet
hanoi
caci
d?

a)
ithasahi
gherboi
l
ingpoi
ntt
hanet
hanol

b)
itdi
ssoci
atescompl
etel
yinwat
er

c)+i
tdi
mer
isesi
nwat
er

d)
itr
eact
swi
thcal
cium car
bonat
etopr
oducecal
cium et
hanoat
eandwat
er

740.est
ersar
e__
___
___
.

a)
madef
rom al
cohol
sandnon-
organi
caci
ds

b)
usedt
omakeper
fumesandf
lav
ori
ngs

c)+poi
sonous

d)
foul
-smel
l
ingcompounds

741.Whatar
epr
oducedwhenet
hanoli
sbur
nscompl
etel
yinai
r?

a)
car
bonmonoxi
deandwat
er

b)
car
bonandwat
er

c) +car
bondi
oxi
deandwat
er

d)
car
bonmonoxi
deandhy
drogen

742.whatar
ethepr
oduct
soft
her
eact
ionbet
weenmet
hanolandet
hanoi
caci
d

a)+et
hyl
met
hanoat
eandwat
er

b)
CH3COOCH3andhy
drogen

c)
met
hyl
ethanoat
eandwat
er

d)
CH3COOCH3andhy
drogen

743.Whati
str
ueaboutcar
boxy
li
caci
ds?

a)
car
boxy
li
caci
dsar
est
rongaci
ds

b)+car
boxy
li
caci
dscanr
eactwi
thmet
als

c)
alkanesoxi
dizet
ofor
m car
boxy
li
caci
ds
d)
car
boxy
li
caci
dscannotf
orm hy
drogenbonds

744.est
eri
fi
cat
ioni
sa_
___
___
___
.

a)
condensat
ionr
eact
ion

b)
ir
rev
ersi
bler
eact
ion

c)
addi
ti
onr
eact
ion

d)+neut
ral
i
zat
ionr
eact
ion

745.Whi
chi
sfal
seaboutt
hef
ormat
ionofet
hanol
?

a)+et
hanol
ispr
oducedt
hrought
hehy
drat
ionofet
hane

b)
ethanol
cont
ainsahy
droxy
lgr
oup

c)
ethanol
isusedasaf
uel

d)
ethanol
isasol
vent

746.Whatar
ethecondi
ti
onsf
ordehy
drat
ionofal
cohol
s?

a)
concent
rat
edhy
drochl
ori
caci
dasdehy
drat
ingagentandt
emper
atur
eat180degr
ees
Cel
sius

b)+concent
rat
edsul
fur
icaci
dasdehy
drat
ingagentandt
emper
atur
eat180degr
ees
Cel
sius

c)
concent
rat
edsul
fur
icaci
dasdehy
drat
ingagentandpr
essur
eat18at
m

d)
concent
rat
edcar
boxy
li
caci
dasdehy
drat
ingagentandt
emper
atur
eat180degr
ees
Cel
sius

747.I
nst
abl
eor
gani
ccompounds,
car
bonwi
llal
way
sfor
m

a)
2bond

b)
3bond

c)+4bond

d)
5bond

748.Car
bon-
car
bondoubl
ebondconsi
stof
:

a)+oneσbond,
oneπbond
b)
twoπbond,
oneπbond

c)
oneσbond,
twoπbond

d)
twoσbond,
twoπbond

749.Acet
ylenehasat
otalof
:

a)+oneσbond,
twoπbond

b)
twoσbond,
fourπbond

c)
thr
eeσbond,
twoπbond

d)
oneσbond,
fourπbond

750.I
npr
openet
her
ear
e

a)+ei
ghtσbond,
oneπbond

b)
sev
enσbond,
twoπbond

c)
sixσbond,
thr
eeπbond

d)
nineσbond

751.I
npr
opy
net
her
ear
e

a)+si
xσbond,
twoπbond

b)
sev
enσbond,
oneπbond

c)
sixσbond,
oneπbond

d)
eightσbond

752.1-
But
en-
3-y
nehas

a)
sixσbond,
fourπbond

b)
sev
enσbond,
thr
eeπbond d)
nineσbond,
oneπbond

c)+ei
ghtσbond,
twoπbond

d)4σbond,
5πbond

753.Compoundi
nwhi
chcar ysp3hy
bonuseonl bri
dor
bit
alsf
orbondf
ormat
ioni
s

a)+CH3CH2CH3
b)
CH3C≡CH

c)
CH2CH=CH2

d)
CH2=CH-
CH=CH2

754.Compoundi
nwhi
chcar ysp3hy
bonuseonl bri
dor
bit
alsf
orbondf
ormat
ioni
s

a)+CH4

b)
H2N-
CH2-
NH2

c)
H3C-
OH

d)
(CH3)
3COH

755.Whent
hecar
bonat ssp2hy
om i bri
dizedi
nacompound,
iti
sbondedt
o

a)+2ot
herat
oms

b)
4ot
herat
oms

c)
3ot
herat
oms

d)
5ot
herat
oms

756.Compoundi
nwhi
chcar ysp2hy
bonuseonl bri
dor
bit
alsf
orbondf
ormat
ioni
s

a) +C6H6 b)

c)CH2=CH-
CH=CH2

d)CH3CH=C=CH2

757.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sapl
anarmol
ecul
e?

a)
for
mal
dehy
de

b)
acet
one

c)+f
ormi
caci
d

d)
acet
icaci
d

758.Whati
sbondangl
ebet
weent
hehy
bri
dor
bit
alsi
nmet
hane?

180o
a)

120o
b)
5o
c)+109.

d) 5o
115.

759.
TheH-
C-Cbondangl
einet
hanei
s

60o
a)
o
b)+109.
28

120o
c)

d) 28o
118.

760.TheH-
C-Hbondangl
einet
hyl
enei
s

60o
a)

b)+120o

90o
c)

180o
d)

761.Whati
sthebondl
engt
hofacar
bon-
car
bondoubl
ebond?

a)
1.20Ǻ

)+1.
35Ǻ

c)
1.54Ǻ

d)
1.68Ǻ

762.Thecar
bon-
car
bonbondl
engt
hsi
nrankofi
ncr
easi
ngbondl
engt
his:

a)+t
ri
ple,
dubl
e,si
ngl
e

b)
singl
e,dubl
e,t
ri
ple

c)
singl
e,t
ri
ple,
dubl
e

d)dubl
e,t
ri
ple,
singl
e.

763.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sist
hecor
rector
derofbondl
engt
hs?

a)
C-C<C=C<C≡C

b)
C-C>C≡C>C=C

c)
C≡C>C-
C>C=C
d)+C≡C<C=C<C-
C

764.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
nghy
drocar
bonshast
heshor
testC-
Cbondl
engt
h?

a)
CH2=CH2

b)
CH3CH3

c)
HC≡CH

d)

765.
Thecar
bon-
car
bonl
engt
hismaxi
mum i
n

a)
CH2=CH2

b)+CH3CH3

c)
HC≡CH

d)CH2=CH-
CH3

766.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundshav
epl
anarmol
ecul
es?

a)
ethy
lal
cohol

b)
for
mal
dehy
de

c)
diet
hyl
ether

d)+1,
3-but
adi
en

767.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundswi
llshowdi
pol
emoment
?

a)+ci
s-1,
2-di
chl
oroet
ylene

b)
o-di
chl
orobenzene

c)
trans-
1,2-di
chl
oroet
ylene

d)
p-di
chl
orobenzene

768.Whi
chmol
ecul
ehasanonzer
odi
pol
emoment
?

a)
CI2

b)
CO2

c)+CCI
4
d)
CHCI
3

769.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundshav
elowestdi
pol
emoment
?

a)+car
bont
etr
achl
ori
de

b)
chl
oromet
hane

c)
dichl
oromet
hane

d)
chl
orof
orm

770.Whi
chmol
ecul
ehast
hegr
eat
estdi
pol
emoment
?

a)+CH3CI

b)
CH3Br

c)
CH3F

d)
CH3I

771.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s pr
opan-
1-ol
?

 
  
a) 
    
  
 

b)
   + 

c)  
 d

d) 
 

772.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

 
  
 a)
  
2-chl
oro-
2-met
hyl
propan-
2-ol

 
  
b) 
 1-
chl
oro-
1-met
hyl
propan-
1-ol

c)
+2-
chl
oro-
2-met
hyl
propan-
1-ol

d)2-
chl
oro-
3-met
hyl
propan-
3-ol

773.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s hexan-
2-ol
?
 
  
  
 a)

 
  
  
 b)

b)+ 
 

 
 d)
  

774.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

 
  
 a)
 3-
chl
orobut
an-
3-ol  
  
 

 
b 2-
chl
orobut
an-
3-ol

c)+3-
chl
orobut
an-
2-ol

 
d) 
  
2-chl
orobut
an-
2-ol

775.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

 
  
a)+ 
 pr
opan-
2-ol 

b)
 but
an-
2-ol
  

c)
propanol  

d)
 but
anol

776.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 2-
met
hyl
pent
an-
3-ol
?

a)
  
  
    
 
b)+ 
  

 
 c)
  
    
  

d)
  

777.
Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

 
 a)
  
ethoxy
ethane  

b)
 + 
met
hoxy
ethane 
 

c)
  
ethoxy
but
hane

d)
  
 met
hoxy
met
hane

778.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 3-
met
hyl
pent
an-
2-ol
?

a)+

b)

c)

d)

779.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s pent
an-
3-ol
?

 
 a)
  
   
 
b  

c)+ 
 

d)
  

780.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s et
hoxy
ethane?

a)

b)
  
  
 

c)
  
  
 

 
d) 
  
 

781.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 3-
met
hypent
an-
3-ol
?

a)

b)

c)
+
d)

782.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

 
 a)
 2,
2-di
met
hyl
propan-
1-ol  
  

b)
 2-
met
hoxy
-1-
met
hyl
propane

c)
 1-
met
hoxy
-2-
met
hyl
propane

d) +2-
met
hoxy
-2-
met
hyl
propane

783.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 2-
met
hyl
pent
an-
1-ol
?

 
 a)
  

e)

 
c)

d)
  
+

784.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

a)1-
chl
oro-
2-met
hyl
propan-
3-ol  
  
   

b) 
b)2-
chl
oro-
3-met
hyl
propan-
1-ol

c)+ 
3-chl
oro-
2-met
hyl
propan-
1-ol

 
d) 
3-chl
oro-
2-met
hyl
propan-
2-ol
785.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

a)
but
anol

b)
propanol

c)+pr
opan-
1-ol

d)
but
an-
1-ol

786.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 4-
met
hyl
pent
an-
1-ol
?

 
  
a) 
  

b) 
  
   

c)
  
 +

d)
propanol

787.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

a)
1-chl
orobut
an-
3-ol

b)
1-chl
orobut
an-
2-ol

c)+4-
chl
orobut
an-
2-ol

d)
2-chl
orobut
an-
3-ol

788.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 2-
met
hyl
propan-
2-ol
?
 
 a)
 +

b)

c)
  
  

 
d) 
 
  

789.
Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

a)
3-chl
orobut
an-
1-ol
 
 

b)
1-chl
oropr
opan-
3-ol

c)+3-
chl
oropr
opan-
1-ol
 

d)
1-chl
orobut
an-
3-ol

790.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 2-
met
hyl
propan-
2-ol
?

a)

b) +

c)

d)
791.Whi
chmol
ecul
eis2,
3-di
chl
orobut
hanoi
caci
d?

a)Cl
CH2CHCl
COOH

b)CH3C(
CH3)
ClCHCl
COOH

c)+CH3CHCl
CHCl
COOH

d)
C(CH3)
2CCl
CHCl
COOH

792.
Whi
cht
ypeofcompounddoesnotcont
ainacar
bony
lgr
oup?

a)
ket
one

)
aldehy
de

c)+ami
ne

d)
est
er

793.Whi
chf
uncti
onalgr
oupcont
ainsacar
bony
lgr
oupandahy
droxy
lgr
oupbondedt
o
thesamecarbonat
om?

a)
est
er

b)
ami
de

c)
ket
one

d)+car
boxy
li
caci
d

794.
Whi
chfunct
ionalgr
oupcont
ainsacar
bony
lgr
oupandanet
herl
inkagebondedt
othe
samecar
bon atom?

a)
ami
de

b)
ket
one

c)
car
boxy
li
caci
d

d)+est
er

795.Oneoft
hemajordi
ffer
encesbetweenaldehy
desandket
onesascompar
edt
oot
her
compoundsist
hati
naldehydesandketones

a)
thecar
bony
lcar
bonhasbondangl
esof120°
C,unl
i
ket
hecompar
abl
ebondangl
esi
n
ot
her

car
bony
lcompounds.

b)t
hepol
arcar
bonoxy
genbondi
slessr
eact
ivet
hant
hehy
drocar
bonpor
ti
onoft
he
mol
ecul
e.

c)t
hemol
armassest
endt
obemuchsmal
l
ert
hani
ntheot
hert
ypesofcompounds.

d)+thecar
bony
lgr
oupcar
bonat
om i
sbondedt
oat
omst
hatdonotat
tractel
ect
rons
st
rongl
y.

796.Thecar
bony
lgr
oupi
s

a)
foundonl
yinal
dehy
desandket
ones.

b)
producedbyr
educt
ionr
eact
ionsofpr
imar
yorsecondar
yal
cohol
s.

c)+af
unct
ional
groupi
nwhi
chcar
bonandoxy
genar
ejoi
nedbyadoubl
ebond.

d)
agener
alt
ermf
oranyf
unct
ional
groupi
nvol
vi
ngacar
bonoxy
genbond.

797.Al
loft
hest
atement
sconcer
ningt
hecar
bony
lgr
oupi
nal
dehy
desandket
onesar
e
tr
ueexcept

a)
Thebondi
spol
ar,
wit
hasl
i
ghtnegat
ivechar
geont
heoxy
genat
om.

b)
Thebondangl
esaboutt
hecent
ral
car
bonat
om ar
e120°
.

c)+Becauset
hebondi
spol
ar,
car
bony
lgr
oupsr
eadi
l
yfor
m hy
drogenbondswi
theach
ot
her
.

d)I
ncondensedf
ormt
hecar
bony
lgr
oupcanbewr
it
tenas -
CHO.

798.Whi
chmol
ecul
eisf
ormal
dehy
de?

a)
+

b)

c)

d)
799.Whi
chmol
ecul
eis2-but
anone?

a)

c)

d)
+

778.Whi
chmol
ecul
eispr
opanal
?

a)

b)

c)
+

d)

800.Whi
chmol
ecul
eisacet
one?

a)
b)

c)

d)+

801.Whi
chi
sthecor
rectsy
stemat
icnamef
ort
hemol
ecul
eshown?

a)
ethy
lmet
hyl
acet
one

b)
met
hyl
propy
lket
one

c)+3-
hexanone

d)
propy
lmet
hyl
ket
one

802.Whi
chmol
ecul
eisaket
one?

a)+

b)

b)

d)
803.Whi
chmol
ecul
eisanal
dehy
de?

a)

b)

c)

d)+

804.
TheI
UPACnamef
oracet
onei
s

a)+2-
propanone.

b)
dimet
hyl
ket
one.

c)
1-pr
opanone.

d)
3-pr
opanal
.

805.TheI
UPACnamef
ordi
met
hylket
onei
s

a)
3-pr
opanal
.

b)+2-
propanone.

c)
acet
one.

d)
1-pr
opanone.

806.Thecor
rectnamef
orCH3-
CH(
CH3)
-CH2–CHO i
s

a)
3-met
hyl
1but
anone.

b)
2-met
hyl
but
anal
.
c)+3-
met
hyl
but
anal
.

d)
isopent
anal
.

807.Thecor
rectnamef
orCH3-
CH(
CH3)
-CH2-
CO-
CH3 i
s

a)
isobut
ylacet
one.

b)
4–met
hyl
–2-but
anone.

c)
2-met
hyl
–4-but
anone.

d)
4-met
hyl
–2-pent
anone.

808.Whati
stheI
UPACnameoft
hecompoundshown?

a)
4-hept
anone

b)+2-met
hyl
-3-hexanone

c)
3-hept
anone

d)
isopr
opy
ln-
propy
lket
one

809.Whati
stheI
UPACnameoft
hecompoundshown?

a)
isopent
anal

b)
2-met
hyl
–4-but
anone

c)
2-met
hyl
-1-but
anone

d)+3-
met
hyl
but
anal

810.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngnamesdoesnotf
itar
ealcompound?

a)
3-oct
anone c)
3-met
hyl
-3-
pent
anone e)
all
arecor
rect

b)
2-but
anone d)
3–met
hyl
-1-
pent
anone
811.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngnamesdoesnotf
itar
ealcompound?

a)3-
ethy
lpent
anal

b)4-
met
hyl
pent
anal

c)
3-met
hyl
-2-pent
anal

d)2-
met
hyl
pent
anal

812.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotapr
oper
tyofal
dehy
desandket
ones?

a)Theycannotf
orm hy
drogenbondswi
thwat
erbecauset
heyhav
enohy
drogenat
oms
bonded

t
ooxy
gen.

b)Mosthav
edi
sti
nct
iveodor
s.

c)Theyhav
ehi
gherboi
l
ingpoi
ntst
hanal
kanesofsi
mil
armol
armass.

d)Theyar
epol
ar.

813.Al
loft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
epr
oper
ti
esofacet
oneexcept

a)
fl
ammabl e. b)
int
oxi
cat
ing. c)
sol
ventf
oror
gani
csubst
ances.
d)
nutr
ient
.

814.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sauseoff
ormal
dehy
de?

a)
fl
avor
ing b)
preser
vat
ive c)
hor
mone d)
sol
vent

815.Whi
chcompoundhast
hel
owestboi
li
ngpoi
nt?

a)
CH3-
CO-
CH3 b)
CH3-
CHO c)
CH3-
CH2-
OH d)
CH3-
CH2-
CH2-
OH

816.Whi
chcompoundhast
hehi
ghestboi
li
ngpoi
nt?

a)
CH3-
CHO b)
CH3-
CH2-
CHO c)
CH3-
CH2-
OH d)
CH3-
CH2-
CH2-
OH

817.Whi
chcompoundhast
hel
owestboi
li
ngpoi
nt?

a)
CH3-
CH2-
CHO b)
CH3-
CH2-
CH3 c)
CH3-
CH2-
CH2-
OH d)
CH3-
CH2-
CH2-
CH3

818.I
nbi
ochemi
calr
eact
ions,
reduct
ionofcar
bony
lgr
oupsi
scar
ri
edoutby

a)
H2. b)
lact
icaci
d. c)
NADH. d)
pyr
uvi
caci
d.

819.Al
loft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
etr
ueconcer
ningat
wo-
car
bonal
dehy
deexcept
a)
Ithasahi
gherboi
l
ingpoi
ntt
hananal
cohol
ofsi
mil
armol
ecul
arwei
ght
.

b)
It
ssy
stemat
icnamei
set
hanal
.

c)
It
scommonnamei
sacet
aldehy
de.

d)
It
scondensedf
ormul
aisCH3-
CHO.

820.Al
loft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
etr
ueconcer
ningat
hree-
car
bonket
oneexcept

a)
It
ssy
stemat
icnamei
spr
opanone.

b)
Anot
heraccept
abl
enamei
smet
hyl
ethy
lket
one.

c)
It
scommonnamei
sacet
one.

d)
It
scondensedf
ormul
aisCH3-
CO-
CH3

821.Thecommonnameofani ndust
rialsol
ventusedi
nmanymanufact
uri
ngprocesses
i
smet hy
let
hylket
one.Thecor
rectsystemati
cnameandstr
uct
uralf
ormulaoft
his
compoundare_
___.

a)
2-but
anone; c)
3-but
anone;

b)
2-pr
opanone; d)
3-but
anone;

822.Tol
lens'
reagenti
susedt
o

a)
dist
ingui
shami
nesf
rom al
dehy
des. c)
reduceal
dehy
des.

b)
dist
ingui
shal
dehy
desf
rom ket
ones. d)
reduceket
ones.

823.Oxi
dat
ionofanal
dehy
depr
oducesa

a)
pri
mar
yal
cohol
. b)
secondar
yal
cohol
. c)
car
boxy
li
caci
d. d)
ket
one.

824.Oxi
dat
ionofaket
onepr
oduces

a)
anal
dehy
de b)
acar
boxy
li
caci
d c)
apr
imar
yal
cohold)
nor
eact
ion
825.Al
loft
hef
oll
owi
ngst
atement
saboutoxi
dat
ionofcar
bony
lsar
etr
ueexcept

a)Oxidat
ionofket
onespr
oducesest
ers. c)
Oxi
dat
ionofal
dehy
despr
oduces
carboxyl
icaci
ds.

b)
Tol
l
en'
stesti
nvol
vesr
educt
ionofAg+. d)
Benedi
ct'
stesti
nvol
vesr
educt
ionofCu2+.

826.Al
loft
hef
oll
owi
ngst
atement
saboutoxi
dat
ionofcar
bony
lar
etr
ueexcept

a)
TheBenedi
ct'
stesti
nvol
vesr
educt
ionofCu2+.

b)
Ket
onesdonotr
eactwi
thmi
l
doxi
dizi
ngagent
s.

c)
TheTol
l
ens'
testi
nvol
vesoxi
dat
ionofAg+ .

d)
Oxi
dat
ionofal
dehy
despr
oducescar
boxy
li
caci
ds.

827.Whi
chcompoundwi
llgi
veaposi
ti
veTol
len'
stest
?

a)
pent
anal b)
3-pent
anone c)
2-pent
anone d)
pent
anoi
caci
d

828.Whi
chobser
vat
iondenot
esaposi
ti
veTol
len'
stest
?

a)
Asi
l
verwi
redi
ssol
ves.

b)
Abr
ick-
redpr
eci
pit
atef
orms.

c)
Thel
i
ghtbl
uecol
oroft
her
eagentdi
sappear
s.

d)
Asi
l
verdeposi
tfor
msont
hegl
asssur
face.

829.Whi
chobser
vat
iondenot
esaposi
ti
veBenedi
ct'
stest
?

a)
Ami
rr
or-
li
kedeposi
tfor
msf
rom acol
orl
esssol
uti
on.

b)
Aredpr
eci
pit
atef
ormsf
rom abl
uesol
uti
on.

c)
Ared-br
ownsol
uti
onbecomescl
earandcol
orl
ess.

d)
Apal
eyel
l
owsol
uti
onwi
thanodorofchl
ori
nechangest
oapur
plecol
or.

830.Whati
sthepr
oductofoxi
dat
ionofbut
anal
?

a)
but
ane b)
2-but
anol c)
1-but
anol d)
but
anoi
caci
d

831.Whati
sthepr
oductofoxi
dat
ionof2-but
anone?
a)
but
anoi
caci
d b)
but
anal c)
2-but
anol d)
nor
eact
ion

832.Whi
chcompoundwi
llgi
veaposi
ti
veTol
len'
stest
?

a) c)

b) d)

833.Whati
spr
oductoft
heoxi
dat
ionofaket
one?

a)analdehy
de b)
ahemi
acet
al c)
acar
boxy
li
caci
d d)
none,
ket
onesdon'
t
oxidi
ze.

834.Whati
stheel
ementt
hatcausesoxi
dat
ioni
ntheTol
lenst
estf
oral
dehy
des?

a)gol
d b)copper c)l
ead d)si
l
ver

835.Reduct
ionofanal
dehy
depr
oducesa

a)
ter
ti
aryal
cohol
. b)
car
boxy
li
caci
d. c)
secondar
yal
cohol
. d)
pri
mar
yal
cohol
.

836.Reduct
ionofaket
onepr
oducesa(
an)

a)
car
boxy
li
caci
d. b)
secondar
yal
cohol
. c)
aldehy
de. d)
ter
ti
aryal
cohol
.

837.Whati
sthepr
oductofr
educt
ionofbut
anal
?

a)
but
anoi
caci
d b)
but
ane c)
2-but
anol d)
1-but
anol

838.Whati
sthepr
oductofr
educt
ionof2-but
anone?

a)
but
anal b)
1-but
anol c)
2-but
anol d)
but
anoi
caci
d

839.
Whati
sthepr
oductoft
her
educt
ionof3-met
hyl-
2-pent
anone?

a)
3-met
hyl
–2-pent
anal c)
3-met
hyl
–2-
pent
anol

b)
2-met
hyl
-3-
pent
anol d)
3-met
hyl
–2-pent
ene
840.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngsi
sasi
mpl
esugarormonosacchar
ide?

a)
Gal
act
ose b)
Lact
ose c)
Mal
tose d)
Sucr
ose

841.
Whati
sthemol
ecul
arf
ormul
aforGl
ucose?

a)
CH3OH b)
C6H1206 c)
C12H22O11 d)
C6H12O5

842.
Mal
tosei
scomposedofwhi
cht
wosugar
s?

a)
GlucoseandGl
ucose c)
GlucoseandFr
uct
ose

b)
GlucoseandGal
act
ose d)
Fruct
oseandGal
act
ose

843.I
nwhi
chf
orm 
is 
Glucosest
oredi
nani
mal
s?

a)
Star
ch b)
Gly
cogen c)
Dext
ri
ns d)
Cel
l
ulose

844.Al
lar
egl
ucosans(
pol
ymer
sofgl
ucose)except
-

a)
Gly
cogen b)
Inul
i
n c)
Star
ch d)
Cel
l
ulose

845.Chooset
heAl
dosesugaroutoft
hef
oll
owi
ngs-

a)
Sucr
ose b)
Ribul
ose c)
Fruct
ose d)
Ribose

846.Chooset
heket
otr
iose-

a)
Gly
cer
aldehy
de b)
Ery
thr
ose c)
Dihy
droxy
acet
oned)
Arabi
nose

847.Apent
osesugarpr
esenti
nthehear
tmuscl
eis-

a)
Xyl
ose b)
Lyxose c)
Xyl
ulose d)
Aldose

848.
α-DGl
ucoseand 
β-Dgl
ucosear
e-

a)
Epi
mer
s b)
Ket
o-Al
doseI
somer
s c)
Anomer
s d)
Opt
ical
isomer
s

849.Al
ltest
sar
enegat
ivef
orsucr
oseexcept
-

a)
Benedi
ct b)
Sel
i
wanof
f c)
Bar
foed d)
Osazone

850.Gl
ucosecanhav
e————-i
somer
sduet
othepr
esenceof4asy
mmet
ri
ccar
bon
atoms-

a)
4 b)
12 c)
8 d)
16

851.Gal
act
oseandGl
ucosear
e-
a)
Epi
mer
s b)
Isomer
s c)
Anomer
s d)
Ket
ose-Al
dosei
somer
s

852.Thecompoundshavi
ngsamest r
uct
uralf
ormul
abutdi
ff
eri
ngi
nconf
igur
ati
on
aroundonecar
bonat
om arecal
led-

a)
Opt
ical
isomer
s b)
Ster
eoi
somer
s c)
Anomer
s d)
Epi
mer
s

853.Whatdoest
hef
oll
owi
ngequat
ion 
repr
esent
?  
 

α-
DGl
ucose+112ο→+52.
5ο→ 
 +19οβ-Dgl
ucose

a)
Ster
eoi
somer
ism b)
Mut
arot
ati
on c)
Opt
ical
isomer
ismd)
Epi
mer
izat
ion

854.Thecar
bohy
drat
eofbl
oodgr
oupsubst
ancei
s-

a)
Glucose b)
Xyl
ose c)
Lyxose d)
Fruct
ose

855.
Dul
cit
oli
sa 
-

a)
Sugaraci
db)
Ami
nosugar c)
Deoxy
sugar
s d)
Sugaral
cohol

856.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sanonr
educi
ngsugar
-

a)
Arabi
nose b)
Ery
thr
ose c)
Trehal
ose d)
Ribul
ose

857.APol
ysacchar
idef
ormedby
 β1→4Gl
ycosi
dicl
inkagesi
s-

a)
Star
ch b)
Dext
ri
n c)
Gly
cogen d)
Cel
l
ulose

858.I
nver
tsugari
s-

a)
Star
ch b)
Glucose c)
Fruct
ose d)
Hydr
oly
ticpr
oductofSucr
ose

859.The 
Pol
ysacchar
ide 
foundi
ntheexoskel
etonofi
nsect
sis-

a)
Hyal
uroni
caci
d b)
Cel
l
ulose c)
Chi
ti
n d)
Chondr
osami
ne

860.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sapol
ymeroff
ruct
ose?

a)
Insul
i
n b)
Dext
ri
n c)
Cel
l
ulose d)
Gly
cogen

861.Adi
sacchar
idepr
oducedonhy
drol
ysi
sofst
archi
scal
led-

a)
Sucr
ose b)
Lact
ose c)
Mal
tose d)
Trehal
ose

862.
Thet
ypi
calcy
cli
calst
ruct
ureofGl
ucosei
s α 
and 
β D-

a)
Glucopy
ranose b)
Glucosi
de c)
Glucof
uranose d)
Glucosami
ne

863.Whi
cht
estcanbeunder
takent
odi
ff
erent
iat
ebet
weenGl
ucoseandFr
uct
ose?

a)
Benedi
ct b)
Mol
i
sch c)
Sel
i
wanof
fd)
Osazone
864.
 Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmol
ecul
esi
sacar
bohy
drat
e?

a)
C3 
H7O2N b)
C13H26O2 c)
C6H12O6 d)
C20H40O2

865.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmonosacchar
idesi
s not
 anal
dose?

a)
Ribose b)
Fruct
ose c)
Glucose d)
Gly
cer
aldehy
de

866.Whi
choff
oll
owi
ngi
sananomer
icpai
r?

a)
D-gl
ucoseandL-
glucose c)
D-gl
ucoseandD-
fr
uct
ose

b)
α-D-
glucoseand 
β-D-
glucose d)
α-D-
glucoseand 
β-L-
glucose

867.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmonosacchar
idesi
s not
 acar
boxy
li
caci
d?

a)
Glucur
onat
e b)
Gluconat
e c)
Glucose d)
Mur
ami
caci
d

868.Fr
om t
heabbr
evi
atednameoft
hecompoundGal(
β 1 
→4)Gl
c,weknowt
hat
:

a)
Thegl
ucoser
esi
duei
sthe 
β anomer
.

b)
Thegal
act
oser
esi
duei
satt
henonr
educi
ngend.

c)
C-4ofgl
ucosei
sjoi
nedt
oC-
1ofgal
act
osebyagl
ycosi
dicbond.

d)
Thecompoundi
sini
tsf
uranosef
orm

869.Thecompoundt
hatconsi
stsofr
ibosel
i N-
nkedbyan  gl
ycosi
dicbondt
oN-
9of
adeninei
s:

a)
Apur
inenucl
eot
ide. b)
Apy
rimi
dinenucl
eot
ide.c)
Adenosi
ne.
d)AMP

870.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAlkane:
a)
None b)C–X c)C=C d)
C–OH
871.Functi
onalGroupofCycloal
kane:
a)
H–C=O b)C–OH c) O=C–O–C d)None

872.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAl
kylhal
ide:
a)
None b) C–X c)C=C d)
C–OH

873.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAl
kene:
a)
H–C=O b) C–OH c)C–X d)C=C

874.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAl
kyne:

a) b)-C≡N c)
C–OH d)
C≡C

875.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAl
cohol
:
a)
C–OH b)
H–C=O c)
C–X d)
-C≡N

876.Funct
ionalGr
oupofEther
:
a)
H–C=O b)C–CO–C c)C–C d)
C–X

877.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAl
dehy
de:

a) b)
C–CH=O c)
C–X d)
O=C–OH

878.Funct
ionalGr
oupofKetone:
a)
C–CO-C b) C–X c)
-C≡N d)
O=C–OH

879.Funct
ionalGr
oupofCar
boxy
licAci
d:
a)
O=C–OH b)C–X c)C–OH d)
-C≡N

880.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAmi
ne:
a)
C–NR–R’ b)
O=C–OH c)
H–C=O d)
C–OH

881.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAmi
de:
a)
O=C–OH b)
C–NR–R’ c)
H–C=O d)
HOC–NR–R’

882.Funct
ionalGr
oupofNi
tr
il
e:
a)
-C≡N b)O=C–OH c)
C–NR–R’ d)
HOC–NR–R’

883.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAr
omat
icr
ing:

a) b)
O=C–OHc)
HOC–NR–R’ d)
-C≡N

884.Aminoaci
desarebui
ldi
ngblocksof
:
a)ket
ones b)aldehy
des c)
prot
eins d)et
her
s

885.Pr
oteinsar
ecomposedof
:
a)20di
ff
erentaminoaci
ds c)
15diff
erental
dehydes
b)15di
ff
erentaminoaci
ds d)17di
ff
erentet
hers

886.Deter
minetypeofα-amineacid-ser
ine
a)neut
ral b)aci
dicc)
basic d)Sl
ightl
yPolar
 

887.Determi
netypeofα-amineaci
d-t
ript
ophane
a)essent
ial b)
non-essent
ialc)semi
-essent
iald)noneoft
hem

888.Determi
nety
peofα-amineacid-ty
rosi
ne
a)al
iphati
c b)aromat
ic c)het
erocycl
i
c d)compl
ex

889.Phosphori
caci
dusual
lyest
eri
fi
cat
esal
cohol
icgr
oupsatf
oll
owi
ngcar
bonat
oms
ofsugarrest
a)C1 b)C2 c)C3 d)C4
890.α-Amineacidexi
stsi
nfor
m ofcat
ioni
n
a)aci
dicmedium c) basi
cmedium
b)neut
ralmedium d)anymedium

891.α-Amineacidexi
stsi
nfor
m ofzwi
tt
er-
ioni
n
a)aci
dicmedium c) basi
cmedium
b)neut
ralmedium d)anymedium

892.Howmany
α-amineaci
drest
sarei
npol
ypept
ide
a)1-
10 b)10-
100 c)100- 200 d)morethan100

893.Bondsstabil
izingsecondar
ystr
uct
ureofpept
ides
a)coor
dinat
ion b)ionicc)hydr
ogen d)
hydr
ofobic

894.Choosepepti
debond 
a)-
CO-NH- b) –S-
S- c)H2N–CH2– d)-
C-C-

895.Lact
osei
s
a)monose b)unr
educi
ngdi
sacchar
ide c)
ami
neaci
d d)
reduci
ngdi
sacchar
ide

896.Gli
car
icaci
dsar eproducedf r
om aldosesby
a)oxi
dat
ion b)
reduct
ion c)est
eri
fi
cati
on d)
transami
nat
ion

897.Sugarr
estenter
sint
ocomposit
ionofnatur
alnucl
eosi
dei
nfor
m of
a)al
dose b)
pyranose c)
fruct
ose d)f
uranose

898.Gli
cari
cacidsar
eproducedunderact
ionof
a)mil
doxidant b)st
rongreduct
ant c)
mil
dreduct
ant d)
str
ongoxi
dant

899.Whichbondsar
eusedf
orformat
ionofnucl
eoti
de
a)coor
dinat
ion b)
ioni
c c)
hydrogen d)
gly
cosi
de

900.Bondbet
weensugarr
estandpy
rimi
dineN-basei
nnucl
eosi
deisfor
medbetween
atoms
a)C5andN1 b)
C1andN9 c)C3andN9 d)C1andN1

901.Componentsofnucl
eoti
de
a)pr
otei
n b)ami
neacidrest c)
OH d)
thy
mine

902.Monomeri
clinkofpr
otein
a)sugarr
est b)
isopr
ene c)amineaci
drestd)
ethy
lene

903.
Unsaponi
fi
edli
pidsar
e
a)mono-
component b)di
-component c)t
hree-
componentd)pol
y-
component

904.
DNAcontai
ns
a)
cyt
osi
ne,
guani
ne,ur
aci
l
,thy
mine
b)
cyt
osi
ne,guani
ne,uracil
,adenine
c)
cyt
osi
ne,guani
ne,adenine,thymine
d)
thy
mine,
cy t
osi
ne,ur aci
l,adenine

905.Compl exl
ipi
dsf
ormunderhydr
olysis
a)al
cohol
s,carboxyl
i
cacids
b)car
boxyl
icaci
ds
c)al
cohol
s,carboxyl
icaci
ds,car
bohydrateset
c.
d)al
cohol
s

906.Deter
minetypeofα-amineacid-val
ine
a)neut
ral b)aci
dicc)
basicd)Sli
ghtl
yPolar
 

907.Determi
net
ypeofα-amineaci
d–glut
amicacid
a)essenti
al b)
non-
essenti
alc)semi
-essent
iald)noneoft
hem

908.Det
ermi
nety
peofα-ami
neacid-thr
eoni
ne
a)al
i
phati
c b)aromat
ic c)
het
erocycl
icd)compl
ex

909.Bi
ogenicaminesar
eproducedunderreact
ionof
a)t
ransaminat
ion b)oxi
dati
on c)reduct
ion d)decar
boxy
lat
ion

910.α-ami
neacidexi
stsinfor
m ofani
oni
n
a)aci
dicmedi
um b) neut
ralmedi
um
c)basi
cmedium d)anymedium

911.Howmanyα-
ami
neacidr
est
sar
einpr
otei
n
a)1-
10 b)
10-
100 c)100-
200 d)mor
ethan100

912.Howmanyα-
ami
neacidr
estsareinol
igopept
ides
a)1-
10 b)10-
100 c)100-200 d)morethan100

913.Bondsstabi
li
zingt
ert
iarystr
uct
ureofprot
eins
a)coor
dinat
ion b)
hydrofobi
c c)gl
ycosi
de d)met
all
i
c

914.Choosedi
sul
phidebond 
a)-
CO-NH- b) –S-
S- c)H2N–CH2– d)–C-
C-

915.Howmanychei
ral
cent
resar
einal
dopent
ose
a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

916.Sucrosei
s
a)monose c)
ami
neacid
b)unreduci
ngdi
sacchar
ide d)
reduci
ngdi
sacchar
ide

917.Aldi
tes(pol
yol
s)areproducedf r
om al
dosesby
a)oxidat
ion c)ester
if
icati
on
b)reduct
ion d)tr
ansami nat
ion
918.Reacti
onofami
neaci dsbiosynthesi
sfr
om oxoaci
dsi
scal
led
a)tr
ansaminat
ion c)reducti
on
b)oxidat
ion d)decarboxyl
ation

919.Gl
iconicaci
dsarepr
oducedunderacti
onof
a)mil
doxidant c)mi
l
dreductant
b)st
rongreduct
ant d)
strongoxi
dant

920.Product
sofaci
diccat
aly
sisofmonosacchari
des
a)gl
ycozides b)aci
ds c)pol
yols d)
sal
ts

921.Bondbet
weensugarr
estandpy
rimi
dineN-basei
nnucl
eosi
deisf
ormedbet
ween
atoms
a)C5andN1 b)
C1andN9 c)C3andN9d)C1andN1

922.Componentsofnucl
eosi
de
a)phosphat
egroup b)
car
bonylgr
oup c)
thy
mine d)
sugarr
est

923.Monomeri
cli
nkoft
erpene
a)sugarr
est b)i
sopr
ene c)
ami
neaci
drest d)
ethy
lene

924.I
ndi
catenameoft
erpenesatn=3
a)monot
erpene b)di
ter
penec)t
ri
ter
pene d)
sesqui
ter
pene

925.I
ndi
catenameofterpenesatn=2
a)monot
erpene b)dit
erpene c)t
ri
ter
pene d)
sesqui
ter
pene

926.
Indi
catenameofter
penesatn=4
a)monot
erpene b)
dit
erpene c)
tri
ter
pene d)
sesqui
ter
pene

927.I
ndi
catenameofterpenesatn=6
a)monot
erpene b)dit
erpene c)t
ri
ter
pene d)
sesqui
ter
pene

928.Saponif
iedl
ipi
dsar
e
a)mono-component b)
thr
ee-
component c)
wit
houtanycomponentd)pol
y-
component

929.RNAcont ai
ns
a)cyt
osi
ne,guani
ne, uracil
,thymine
b)cyt
osi
ne,guani
ne, uracil
,adenine
c)cyt
osi
ne,guani
ne, adenine,thymine
d)thy
mine,
cy t
osine,ur aci
l,adenine

930.Simpl
elipi
dsform underhydr
olysi
s
a)al
cohol
s,carboxy
li
cacids
b)car
boxyl
icaci
ds
c)al
cohol
s,carboxy
li
cacids,car
bohydrat
eset
c.
d)
alcohol
s

931.Deter
minetypeofα-
ami neacid-alani
ne
a)neut
ral b)
acidi
c c)basic d)Sl
ightl
yPolar
 

932.Determi
net
ypeofα-amineacid–phenylal
ani
ne
a)essent
ial b)non-
essent
ialc)semi
-essenti
ald)noneoft
hem

933.Determi
netypeofα-amineacid-alanine
a)essenti
alb)non-
essenti
alc)semi-essenti
ald)noneoft
hem

934.Deter
minetypeofα-
amineacid-gl
ysi
ne
a)neut
ral b) acidi
cc)basi
c d)Sli
ght
lyPol
ar 

935.Determi
netypeofα-amineacid–tyr
osine
a)essenti
al b)
non-essent
ialc)semi
-essenti
ald)noneoft
hem

936.Det
ermi
netypeofα-
amineaci
d-hist
idi
ne
a)al
i
phat
ic b)ar
omatic c)
heter
ocycl
i
cd)compl
ex

937.Det
ermi
netypeofα-
amineaci
d-leuci
ne
a)al
i
phat
ic b)ar
omatic c)
heter
ocycl
icd)compl
ex

938.Determinet
ypeofα-amineacid–leuci
ne
a)essent
ial b)
non-essent
ial
c)semi-essent
iald)noneoft
hem

939.Deter
minetypeofα-amineacid-l
eucine
a)neut
ral b)aci
dicc)
basicd)Sli
ghtl
yPolar 

940.Det
ermi
netypeofα-
amineaci
d-seri
ne
a)al
i
phat
ic b)ar
omatic c)
heter
ocycl
i
cd)compl
ex

941.Determi
netypeofα-amineaci
d–ser i
ne
a)essenti
alb)non-
essenti
alc)semi-essenti
ald)noneoft
hem

942.Determi
netypeofα- amineaci
d–hi sti
dine
a)essent
ial b)
non-essenti
alc)semi-essentiald)noneoft
hem

943.Det
ermi
netypeofα-
amineaci
d-isol
euci
ne
a)al
i
phat
ic b)ar
omatic c)
heter
ocycl
icd)compl
ex

944.Determi
netypeofα-amineacid–i
soleuci
ne
a)essent
ial b)
non-essent
ialc)semi
-essenti
ald)noneoft
hem

945.Deter
minetypeofα-amineaci
d-i
soleuci
ne
a)neut
ral b) aci
dicc)basi
cd)Sli
ghtl
yPolar 

946.Det
ermi
net
ypeofα-
ami
neaci
d–t
hreoni
ne
a)
essent
ial b)
non-
essent
ialc)semi
-essent
iald)noneoft
hem

947.Deter
minetypeofα-ami
neacid-thr
eoni
ne
a)neut
ral b) aci
dic c)
basi
c d)Sli
ghtl
yPol
ar 

948.Det
ermi
netypeofα-
amineaci
d-lysi
ne
a)al
i
phat
ic b)ar
omatic c)
heter
ocycl
i
cd)compl
ex

949.Determi
net
ypeofα-amineacid–l
ysine
a)essent
ial b)non-
essent
ialc)semi
-essent
iald)noneoft
hem

950.Deter
minetypeofα-
amineaci
d-ly
sine
a)neut
ral b) aci
dic c)
basicd)Sl
ight
lyPol
ar 

951.Det
ermi
netypeofα-
amineaci
d-pheny
lal
ani
ne
a)al
i
phat
ic b)ar
omatic c)
heter
ocycl
i
cd)complex

952.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngpr
oduct
sisnotder
ivedf
rom cel
lul
ose?

a)
Ray
on b)
insul
i
n c)
guncot
ton d)
paper

953.Compl
exl
ipi
dsf
orm underhy
drol
ysi
s

a)
alcohol
s,car
boxy
li
caci
ds c)
alcohol
s,car
boxy
li
caci
ds,
car
bohy
drat
eset
c.

b)
car
boxy
li
caci
ds d)
alcohol
s

954.Numberofchei
ral
cent
resi
nal
dohexose

a)
1 b)
2 c)
3 d)
4

955.Fat
tyaci
dsar
e

a)
unsat
urat
eddi
car
boxy
li
caci
ds c)
aromat
iccar
boxy
li
caci
ds

b)
long-
chai
nal
kanoi
caci
ds d)
aromat
icdi
car
boxy
li
caci
ds

956.Sodi
um orpot
assi
um sal
tsoff
att
yaci
dsar
ecal
led

a)
prot
eins b)
ter
penes c)
car
bohy
drat
es d)
soaps

957.soapi
s

a)
ami
xtur
eofsal
tsoff
att
yaci
ds b)
asal
tofgl
ycer
ol

c)
ami
xtur
eofet
her
s d)
ami
xtur
eofar
omat
icet
her
s

958.awaxi
s

a)
anonpol
arsol
i
d c)
atr
iacy
lgl
ycer
ol
b)
along-
chai
nal
cohold)
noneoft
hese

959.
Fat
sandoi
lsar
e

a)
monoest
ersofgl
ycer
olc)
tri
est
ersofgl
ycer
ol

b)
diest
ersofgl
ycer
ol d)
diest
ersofgl
ycol

960.Fat
sdi
ff
erf
rom waxesi
nthatf
atshav
e:

a)
mor
eunsat
urat
ion c)
agl
ycer
olbackbone

b)
highermel
ti
ngpoi
nts d)
longerf
att
yaci
ds

961.Ol
eicaci
disaf
att
yaci
dcont
aini
ng

a)
12car
bons b)
14car
bons c)
16car
bons d)
18car
bons

962.Li
qui
doi
lscanbeconv
ert
edt
osol
idf
atsby

a)
hydr
ogenat
ion b)
saponi
fi
cat
ion c)
hydr
oly
sis d)
oxi
dat
ionofdoubl
ebonds

963.Par
ti
alhy
drogenat
ionofv
eget
abl
eoi
lsi
nthepr
esenceofNicat
aly
stat200⁰
Cgi
ves

a)
Vanaspat
ighee b)
mar
gar
ine c)
bot
hoft
hese d)
noneoft
hese

964.Al
kal
inehy
drol
ysesofoi
lsorf
atsi
scal
led:

a)
saponi
fi
cat
ion b)
fer
ment
ati
on c)
diazot
izat
ion d)
ranci
dif
icat
ion

965.
Saponi
fi
cat
ionofaf
at

a)Alwaysresul
tsi
nthef
ormat
ionofi
nsol
ubl
esoapsc)
isusedi
nthepr
oduct
ionof
detergent
s

b)
producesgl
ycer
olandsoap d)
isusedi
nthepr
oduct
ionofl
act
icaci
d

966.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundswi
llnotbecl
assi
fi
edasl
ipi
ds?

a)
Fat
s b)
waxes c)
soaps d)
oil
s

967.Thedegr
eeofunsat
urat
ionofaf
atcanbedet
ermi
nedbymeansofi
ts

a)
Iodi
nenumberb)
oct
anenumber c)
saponi
fi
cat
ionnumber d)
mel
ti
ngpoi
nt

968.Zwi
tter
ionis
a)ani
onthatisposi
ti
vel
ychar
gedi
nsol
uti
on

b)
ani
ont
hati
snegat
ivel
ychar
gedi
nsol
uti
on

c)
acompoundt
hatcani
oni
zebot
hasabaseandanaci
d
d)
acar
bohy
drat
ewi
thanel
ect
ri
cal
char
ge

969.Azwi
tt
eri
onshaswhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngpr
oper
ti
es

a)
nonetchar
ge b)
ahi
ghmel
ti
ngpoi
ntc)
sol
ubl
einwat
erd)
all
oft
hese

970.Anaqueoussol
uti
onofgl
yci
nei
sneut
ralbecauseoft
hef
ormat
ionof
:

a)
car
boni
onb)
zwi
tt
eri
ons c)
car
boni
um i
ons d)
freer
adi
cal
s

971.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundsf
orm zwi
tt
eri
ons?

a)
car
bony
lcompounds b)
ami
noaci
ds c)
phenol
s d)
het
erocy
cli
ccompounds

972.ThepHwhichtheami
noaci
dshowsnot
endencyt
omi
grat
ewhenpl
acedi
nan
el
ectri
cfi
eldi
sknownasit
s:

a)
isoel
ect
ri
cpoi
ntb)
dipol
emomentc)
iodi
nenumberd)
wav
elengt
h

973.Thei
soel
ect
ri
cpoi
ntofapr
otei
nis

a)
thepHatwhi
cht
hepr
otei
nmol
ecul
ehasnochar
gesoni
tssur
face

b)t
hepHatwhi
chapr
otei
ninsol
uti
onhasanequal
numberofposi
ti
veandnegat
ive
charges

c)
theel
ect
ri
cchar
genumberunderi
sot
her
mal
condi
ti
ons

d)
noneoft
hese

974.Gl
yci
nei
s

a)
NH2CH2COOH c)
NO2CH2CH2COOH

b)NH2CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 d)
BrCH2COOH

975.Gl
yci
nei
sauni
queami
noaci
dbecausei
t

a)
hasnochi
ral
car
bon c)
cannotf
orm apept
idebond

b)
hasasul
phurcont
aini
ngRgr
oup d)
isanessent
ial
ami
noaci
d

976.Pr
otei
nsar
e

a)
pol
yamides b)
pol
ymer
sofet
hyl
ene c)
α-Ami
nocar
boxy
li
caci
ds d)
pol
ymer
sof
pr
opy
lene

977.The5el
ement
spr
esenti
nmostnat
ural
lyoccur
ri
ngpr
otei
nsar
e:

a)
C,H,
O,P,
S b)
N,C,
H,O,
I c)
N,S,
C,H,
O d)
C,H,
O,S,
I
978.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sthemai
nst
ruct
uralf
eat
ureofpr
otei
ns?

a)
pept
idel
i
nkage b)
est
erl
i
nkage c)
etherl
i
nkage d)
α,β-
Linkage

979.Thel
inearar
rangementofami
noaci
duni
tsi
npr
otei
nsi
scal
led:

a)
pri
mar
yst
ruct
ure b)
secondar
yst
ruct
ure c)
ter
ti
aryst
ruct
ure d)
quat
ernar
yst
ruct
ure

980.Thepr
imar
yst
ruct
ureofapr
otei
nref
erst
o:

a)
whet
hert
hepr
otei
nisf
ibr
ousorgl
obul
ar

b)
theami
noaci
dsequencei
nthepol
ypept
idechai
n

c)
theor
ient
ati
onoft
heami
noaci
dsi
dechai
nsi
nspace

d)
thepr
esenceorabsenceofanα-
hel
i
x

981.Theα-
hel
ixi
sacommonf
orm of

a)
pri
mar
yst
ruct
ure b)
ter
ti
aryst
ruct
ure c)
secondar
yst
ruct
ure d)
noneoft
hese

982.Theα-
hel
ixi
shel
dinacoi
ledconf
ormat
ionpar
ti
all
ybecauseof

a)
opt
ical
act
ivi
ty b)
hydr
ogenbondi
ng c)
resonance d)
del
ocal
i
zat
ion

983.Thedoubl
ehel
icalst
ruct
ureofDNAi
shel
dtoget
herby

a)
sul
phur
-sul
phurl
i
nkages b)
pept
idebondi
ng c)
hydr
ogenbondi
ngd)
gly
cosi
dicbonds

984.Uponhy
drol
ysi
s,pr
otei
nsgi
ve

a)
ami
noaci
ds b)
hydr
oxy
laci
dsc)
fat
tyaci
ds d)
alcohol
s

985.Compl
etehy
drol
ysi
sofpr
otei
nspr
oduces

a)
ammoni
aandcar
bondi
oxi
de b)
ureaandur
icaci
d

c)
ami
xtur
eofami
noaci
ds d)
gly
cogenandaf
att
yaci
d

986.Ny
nhy
dri
ngt
esti
sgi
venby

a)
car
bohy
drat
es b)
prot
eins c)
alkanes d)
alkenes

987.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngt
est
sisnotusedf
ort
est
ingpr
otei
ns?

a)
ninhy
dri
ntestb)
biur
ett
est c)
xant
hopr
otei
ctest d)
tol
l
enst
est

988.Apr
otei
nsol
uti
ononwar
mingwi
thconcent
rat
edHNO3mayt
urny
ell
ow.Thi
stesti
s
cal
led

a)
xant
hopr
otei
ctest b)
ninhy
dri
ngt
estc)
biur
ett
est d)
mil
l
ion’
stest
989.Acompoundgi
vesaposi
ti
veTol
lens’
testbutnegat
iveNi
nhy
dri
ntest
.Iti
s

a)
apr
otei
n b)
anami
noaci
d c)
amonosacchar
ide d)
pyr
idi
ne

990.Monosacchar
idesar
ecl
assi
fi
edaccor
dingt
o

a)
thenumberofcar
bonat
omsi
nthemol
ecul
e

b)
whet
hert
heycont
ainanal
dehy
deoraket
onegr
oup

c)
thei
rconf
igur
ati
onal
rel
ati
onshi
ptogl
ycer
aldehy
des

d)
all
oft
heabov
e

991.Whi
chi
samonosacchar
ide?

a)
sucr
ose b)
mal
tose c)
gal
act
ose d)
cel
l
ulose

992.Whi
chi
sadi
sacchar
ide?

a)
glucose b)
mal
tose c)
fruct
ose d)
cel
l
ulose

993.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotamonosacchar
ide?

a)
ri
bose b)
fruct
ose c)
sucr
ose d)
glucose

994.Thedesi
gnat
ionDorLbef
oret
henameofamonosacchar
ide

a)
indi
cat
est
hedi
rect
ionofr
otat
ionofpol
ari
zedl
i
ght

b)
indi
cat
est
hel
engt
hoft
hecar
bonchai
nint
hecar
bohy
drat
e

c)
indi
cat
est
heposi
ti
onoft
heOHgr
oupont
hecar
bonnextt
othepr
imar
yal
cohol
group

d)
indi
cat
est
heposi
ti
onoft
heasy
mmet
ri
ccar
bonat
omsi
nthecar
bohy
drat
e

995.Thepr
inci
palsugari
nbl
oodi
s

a)
fruct
ose b)
glucose c)
sucr
ose d)
gal
act
ose

996.Gl
ucosecannotbecl
assi
fi
edas

a)
ahex
ose b)
anol
i
gosacchar
ide c)
anal
dose d)
amonosacchar
ide

997.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngst
atement
sisf
alseaboutgl
ucose?

a)i
tisareduci
ngsugar b)
iti
sadi
sacchar
ide c)
ithasapy
ranosef
orm d)
iti
sa
pol
yalcohol

998.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngst
atement
sisf
alseaboutgl
ycer
aldehy
des?

a)
it
sIUPACnamei
s1,
2-di
hydr
oxy
propanal c)
iti
sopr
ti
cal
l
yact
ive
b)
iti
sisomer
icwi
th1,
3-di
hydr
oxy
propanone d)
itshowsmut
arot
ati
on

999.Commont
abl
esugari
s

a)
glucose b)
sucr
ose c)
fruct
ose d)
mal
tose

1000.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcar
bohy
drat
esi
ssweet
ert
hansucr
ose?

a)
glucoseb)
fruct
ose c)
lact
ose d)
noneoft
heabov
e

1001.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngst
atement
sisf
alseaboutsucr
ose?

a)
iti
sal
socal
l
edt
abl
esugar c)
itr
educesFehl
i
ng’
ssol
uti
on

b)itmaybef
erment
edbyy
eastt
opr
oduceal
cohol d)
itdoesnotr
educeTol
l
ens’
reagent

1002.Thesugart
haty
iel
dsonl
ygl
ucoseonhy
drol
ysi
sis

a)
lact
ose b)
sucr
ose c)
mal
tose d)
fruct
ose

1003.St
arch

a)
isat
ri
sacchar
idec)
isal
socal
l
edamy
lopect
in

b)
isal
socal
l
edamy
lose d)
isami
xtur
eofamy
lase+amy
lopect
in
Exam t
estsonChemist
ry.
Unit1.
Ther
mody nami
cs.

1.
Ther
mody
nami
csst
udi
es–

a) +Gener
all
awsofmut
ual
ener
gyconv
ersi
onsf
rom onef
ormt
oanot
her
.

b)Ener
gychangesdur
ingchemi
cal
transf
ormat
ions.

c)Ther
ateofchemi
cal
react
ions.

d)Chemi
cal
processest
hatcauseel
ect
ronst
omov
e. 

2.
Byi
nter
act
ionwi
tht
heenv
ironmentTher
mody
nami
csy
stemsar
edi
vi
dedi
nto:

a)Ther
mal
conduct
ivi
ty,
Conv
ect
ion,
Radi
ati
on

b)Het
erogeneous,
homogeneous

c)+Open,
Closed,
Isol
ated

d)I
sochor
ic,
Isobar
ic,
Isot
her
mal
,Adi
abat
ic

3.
Whati
stheOpenSy
stem?

a)+Mat
terandener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

b)Ener
gybutnotmat
tercanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

c)Nei
thermat
ternorener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

d)homogeneousi
ncomposi
ti
onandphy
sical
proper
ti
est
hroughoutt
hev
olume

4.
Whati
stheCl
osedSy
stem?

a)Mat
terandener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

b)homogeneousi
ncomposi
ti
onandphy
sical
proper
ti
est
hroughoutt
hev
olume

c)+Ener
gybutnotmat
tercanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

d)Nei
thermat
ternorener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs
5.
Whati
stheI
sol
atedSy
stem?

a)Mat
terandener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

b)homogeneousi
ncomposi
ti
onandphy
sical
proper
ti
est
hroughoutt
hev
olume

c)Ener
gybutnotmat
tercanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

d)+Nei
thermat
ternorener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs

6.
Mat
terandener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngsi
scal
led?

a)
+OpenSy
stem

b)
ClosedSy
stem

c)
Isol
atedSy
stem

d)
Adi
abat
icSy
stem

7.
Ener
gybutnotmat
tercanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngsi
scal
led?

a)
OpenSy
stem

b)+Cl
osedSy
stem

c)
Isol
atedSy
stem

d)
Adi
abat
icSy
stem

8.
Nei
thermat
ternorener
gycanbeexchangedwi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngsi
scal
led?

a)
OpenSy
stem

b)
ClosedSy
stem

c)
+Isol
atedSy
stem

d)
Adi
abat
icSy
stem
9.
Ther
mody
nami
cpr
ocessesmaybe:

a)Ther
mal
conduct
ivi
ty,
Conv
ect
ion,
Radi
ati
on

b)Het
erogeneous,
homogeneous

c)Open,
Closed,
Isol
ated

d)+I
sochor
ic,
Isobar
ic,
Isot
her
mal
,Adi
abat
ic

10. Whati
stheI
sot
her
malpr
ocess?

a)+Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
het
emper
atur
eT=const

b)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hepr
essur
eP=const

c)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hespeci
fi
cvol
umev=const

d)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
heheatQ=0

11. Whati
stheI
sobar
icpr
ocess?

a)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
het
emper
atur
eT=const

b)+Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hepr
essur
eP=const

c)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hespeci
fi
cvol
umev=const

d)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
heheatQ=0

12. Whati
stheI
sochor
ic(
ori
somet
ri
c)pr
ocess?

a)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
het
emper
atur
eT=const

b)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hepr
essur
eP=const

c)+Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hespeci
fi
cvol
umev=const

d)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
heheatQ=0
13. Whati
stheadi
abat
icpr
ocess?

a)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
het
emper
atur
eT=const

b)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hepr
essur
eP=const

c)Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hespeci
fi
cvol
umev=const

d)+Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
heheatQ=0

14. Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
het
emper
atur
eT=consti
scal
led?

a)+I
sot
her
mal
process

b)I
sobar
icpr
ocess

c)I
sochor
ic(
ori
somet
ri
c)pr
ocess

d)Adi
abat
icpr
ocess

15. Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hepr
essur
eP=consti
scal
led?

a)I
sot
her
mal
process

b)+I
sobar
icpr
ocess

c)I
sochor
ic(
ori
somet
ri
c)pr
ocess

d)Adi
abat
icpr
ocess

16. Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
hespeci
fi
cvol
umev=consti
scal
led?

a)I
sot
her
mal
process

b)I
sobar
icpr
ocess

c)+I
sochor
ic(
ori
somet
ri
c)pr
ocess

d)Adi
abat
icpr
ocess

17. Apr
ocessdur
ingwhi
cht
heheatQ=0i
scal
led?

a)I
sot
her
mal
process

b)I
sobar
icpr
ocess
c)I
sochor
ic(
ori
somet
ri
c)pr
ocess

d)+Adi
abat
icpr
ocess

18. Whohadopenedt
hef
ir
stl
awoft
her
mody
nami
cs?

a)+Jul
i
usRober
tvonMay
er

b)Rudol
fCl
ausi
us

c)VantHof
f

d)Gi
bbs

19. Thebasi
cfor
mul
aforEnt
ropy
;

a)Q=ΔU+A

b)H=U+pV

c)ΔU=U(
fi
nal
)–U(
ini
ti
al)

d)+S=Kl
nW

20. Mat
hemat
icalexpr
essi
onoft
hef
ir
stl
awoft
her
mody
nami
cs:

a)+Q=ΔU+A

b)H=U+pV

c)ΔU=U(
fi
nal
)–U(
ini
ti
al)

d)S=Kl
nW

21. Fi
net
hef
ormul
aofI
nter
nalener
gy.

a)Q=ΔU+A

b)+H=U+pV

c)ΔU=U(
fi
nal
)–U(
ini
ti
al)
d)ΔS=S(
ini
ti
al)-S(
fi
nal
)

22. I
nter
nalener
gyi
scal
led?

a)+Sum ofal
lpot
ent
ial
andki
net
icener
giesofal
lcomponent
s

b)Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

c)React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
her
eleasi
ngofheatar
ecal
l
ed

d)Ther
ateofwhi
chchemi
cal
react
ioni
ncr
easeswi
thi
ncr
easi
ngt
emper
atur
es

23. Sum ofal


lpot
ent
ialandki
net
icener
giesofal
lcomponent
s

a)+I
nter
nal
ener
gy

b)
Ent
hal
py

c)
Ent
ropy
;

d)
Exot
her
micpr
ocess

24. Ent
hal
pyi
scal
led?

a)Sum ofal
lpot
ent
ial
andki
net
icener
giesofal
lcomponent
s

b)+Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

c)React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
her
eleasi
ngofheatar
ecal
l
ed

d)Ther
ateofwhi
chchemi
cal
react
ioni
ncr
easeswi
thi
ncr
easi
ngt
emper
atur
es

25. Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

a)I
nter
nal
ener
gy

b)+Ent
hal
py

c)Ent
ropy
;

d)Exot
her
micpr
ocess
26. Theheatt
ransf
erar
edi
vi
dedi
nto

a)+Ther
mal
conduct
ivi
ty,
Conv
ect
ion,
Radi
ati
on

b)Het
erogeneous,
homogeneous

c)Open,
Closed,
Isol
ated

d)I
sochor
ic,
Isobar
ic,
Isot
her
mal
,Adi
abat
ic

27. Whati
sthet
her
malconduct
ivi
ty?

a)
+Themat
eri
alt
oconductheat
.

b)
Heati
str
ansf
err
edf
rom onepl
acet
oanot
her
.

c)
Ther
adi
ati
ont
ransmi
tt
edev
env
oid(
sun)
.

d)
Noneoft
hem.

28. Whati
stheconv
ect
ion?

a)
Themat
eri
alt
oconductheat
.

b)
+Heati
str
ansf
err
edf
rom onepl
acet
oanot
her
.

c)
Ther
adi
ati
ont
ransmi
tt
edev
env
oid(
sun)
.

d)
Noneoft
hem.

29. Whati
sther
adi
ati
on?

a)
Themat
eri
alt
oconductheat
.

b)
Heati
str
ansf
err
edf
rom onepl
acet
oanot
her
.

c)
+Ther
adi
ati
ont
ransmi
tt
edev
env
oid(
sun)
.

d)
Noneoft
hem.
30. Whohadopenedt
hesecondl
awoft
her
mody
nami
cs?

a)Jul
i
usRober
tvonMay
er

b)+Rudol
fCl
ausi
us

c)Mendel
eev

d)Gi
bbs

31. Whati
stheendot
her
micpr
ocess?

a)Sum ofal
lpot
ent
ial
andki
net
icener
giesofal
lcomponent
s

b)Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

c)React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
her
eleasi
ngofheatar
ecal
l
ed

d)+React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
hei
ncr
easi
ngofheatar
ecal
l
ed

32. Whati
stheexot
her
micpr
ocess?

a)Sum ofal
lpot
ent
ial
andki
net
icener
giesofal
lcomponent
s

b)Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

c)+React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
her
eleasi
ngofheatar
ecal
l
ed

d)React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
hei
ncr
easi
ngofheatar
ecal
l
ed

33. React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
hei
ncr
easi
ngofheatar
ecal
led?

a)
Het
erogeneous,
homogeneous

b)
Open,
Closed,
Isol
ated

c)
Isochor
ic,
Isobar
ic,
Isot
her
mal
,Adi
abat
ic

d)
+Endot
her
micr
eact
ions

34. React
ionsaccompani
edbyt
her
eleasi
ngofheatar
ecal
led
a)
Het
erogeneous,
homogeneous

b)
Open,
Closed,
Isol
ated

c)
Isochor
ic,
Isobar
ic,
Isot
her
mal
,Adi
abat
ic

d)
+Exot
her
micr
eact
ions

35. Whi
chi
sthebasi
cfor
mul
aofHess'
sLaw.

a)+ΔH1=ΔH2+ΔH3=ΔH4+ΔH5+ΔH6

b)
ΔHr=ΣΔHf°(
product)-ΣΔHf°(
react
ants)
c)
ΔHr=ΣΔHc°(r
eactants)-ΣΔHc°(pr
oduct)

d)
Q=ΔU+W

36. Whi
chi
sthesecondef
fectf
ormul
aofHess'
sLaw

a)ΔH1=ΔH2+ΔH3=ΔH4+ΔH5+ΔH6

b)ΔHr=ΣΔHf
°(pr
oduct
)-ΣΔHf
°(r
eact
ant
s)
c)Q=ΔU+W

d)+ΔH=ΣΔHc°(
react
ant
s)-ΣΔHc°(
product
)

37. Whi
chi
sthet
hir
def
fectf
ormul
aofHess'
sLaw:

a)ΔH1=ΔH2+ΔH3=ΔH4+ΔH5+ΔH6

b)+ΔHr=ΣΔHf
°(product)-ΣΔHf
°(r
eactant
s)
c)ΔH=ΣΔHc°(
reactant
s)-ΣΔHc°(product
)

d)Q=ΔU+W

38. Syst
em consi
sti
ngoft
hreephasesi
scal
led
a)+heter
ogeneous
b)homogeneous
c)i
solat
ed
d)open

39. Syst
em consi
sti
ngofonephasei
scal
led
a)heter
ogeneous
b)+homogeneous
c)i
solat
ed
d)open

40. Whatist
heheter
ogeneoussy st
em?
a)+Syst
em consi
sti
ngofthreephasesiscal
led
b)Heati
str
ansfer
redfr
om oneplacetoanot
her.

c)Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

d)Sy
stem consi
sti
ngofonephasei
scal
l
ed

41. Whati
sthehomogeneoussy st
em?
a)Syst
em consi
sti
ngofthreephasesi
scall
ed
b)Heatistr
ansf
err
edfrom onepl
acetoanot
her
.

c)Heatf
lowi
npr
ocessesoccur
ri
ngatconst
antpr
essur
e

d)+Sy
stem consi
sti
ngofonephasei
scal
l
ed

42. Whatar
etheuni
tsofener
gy?
a)volt
a
b)pascal
c)l
it
er
d)+joule

43. Spont
aneouspr
ocessoccur
sonl
y

a)+wi t
houtext er
nal energy
b)atconstanttemper atur
e
c)inforwarddirect
ion
d)withexternalenergyhel p

44.Int
ernalener
gyis……
a)+energyofsystem atconstantpressur
e
b)Gibbsenergy
c)energyofsyst
em atconstantvolume
d)measureofsystemsr andomness

45.Ent
hal
pyi
sexpr
essedbyf
oll
owi
ng
a)+H=U+pV
b)ΔH1=ΔH2+ΔH3
c)H=G+TS
d)Qp=ΔH
46.I
ndi
cat
ewhi
chf
unct
ioni
sn’
tfunct
ionofst
ate
a)A
b)G
c)+Qp
d) H

47.Fi
ndst
atepar
amet
re
a)Q
b)G
c)+T
d) H

48.
Indi
cat
ewhi
chf
unct
ioni
sn’
tfunct
ionofst
ate
a)Q
b)G
c) +Qp
d) S
49.Fi
ndst
atepar
amet
er
a)Q
b)G
c)+v
d) H
50.
Forspont
aneouspr
ocesses
a)ΔH≥ 0
b)ΔS≤0
c)ΔG≥0
d)+ΔH≤0

Chemi
calki
net
ics

51.Chemi
calki
net
icsst
udi
es–

a)ener
gychangesdur
ingchemi
cal
transf
ormat
ions.

b)+t
her
ateofchemi
cal
react
ions.

c)gener
all
awsofmut
ual
ener
gyconv
ersi
onsf
rom onef
ormt
oanot
her
.
d)
ofchemi
cal
processest
hatcauseel
ect
ronst
omov
e. 

52.React
ionsi
nwhi
cht
her
eisachemi
calconv
ersi
onofonemol
ecul
eiscal
led?

a)
+Monomol
ecul
ar

b)
Dimol
ecul
ar

c)
Tri
mol
ecul
ar

d)
Radi
cal
react
ion

53.React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nacol
li
sionoft
wopar
ti
clesi
scal
led?

a)
Monomol
ecul
ar

b)
Radi
cal
react
ion

c)
+Di
mol
ecul
ar

d)
Tri
mol
ecul
ar

54.
React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nthecol
li
sionoft
hreepar
ti
cles:

a)
Monomol
ecul
ar

b)
Dimol
ecul
ar

c)
Radi
cal
react
ion

d)+Tr
imol
ecul
ar

55.Whati
stheMonomol
ecul
arr
eact
ion?

a)+React
ionsi
nwhi
cht
her
eisachemi
cal
conv
ersi
onofonemol
ecul
e.

b)React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nacol
l
isi
onoft
wopar
ti
cles.

c)React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nthecol
l
isi
onoft
hreepar
ti
cles.

d)React
ionsi
nwhi
cht
her
eisachemi
cal
conv
ersi
onoff
ourmol
ecul
es.

56.Whati
stheDi
mol
ecul
arReact
ion?
a)React
ioni
nwhi
cht
her
eisachemi
cal
conv
ersi
onofonemol
ecul
e.

b)+React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nacol
l
isi
onoft
wopar
ti
cles.

c)Conj
ugat
ereact
ions.

d)React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nthecol
l
isi
onoft
hreepar
ti
cles.

57.Whati
stheTr
imol
ecul
arr
eact
ion?

a)React
ioni
nwhi
cht
her
eisachemi
cal
conv
ersi
onofonemol
ecul
e.

b)React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nacol
l
isi
onoft
wopar
ti
cles.

c)+React
ionel
ement
aryactwhi
chi
scar
ri
edouti
nthecol
l
isi
onoft
hreepar
ti
cles.

d)r
eact
ionspr
oceedi
ngsi
mul
taneousl
y.

58.Enzy
mesi
sasubst
ancet
hat…

a)i
ncr
easet
her
ateofr
eact
ion

b)decr
easet
her
ateofr
eact
ion

c)+bi
ologi
cal
cat
aly
stofr
eact
ion

d)noef
fectont
her
eact
ionr
ate

59.Asubst ancet
hatincr
easest
her
eact
ionr
ate-
a)+Catalyst
c)I
ndicator
b)Inhi
bit
or
d)Reducingagents.

60.Asubst
ancet
hatdecr
easet
her
eact
ionr
ate-

a)
Cat
aly
st

b)
+Inhi
bit
or

c)
Enzy
mes

d)
Indi
cat
or

61.Rever
sibl
er eact
ionsar
ecall
ed?
a)+achanget hatcangoforwar
dsorbackwar
ds
b)achangethatcannotgoback,
c)processofsubstancedi
ssoluti
on
d)reacti
onsproceedi
nginparall
el

62.Irr
eversi
blereactionsarecalled?
a)achanget hatcangof or
war dsorbackwar
ds
b)+achanget hatcannotgoback
c)reacti
onsproceedinginpar all
el
d)processofsubst ancedissoluti
on

63.Thereact
ionsthatcangof
orwar
dsorbackwar
dsi
scal
led?
a)+Reversi
blereact
ions

b)
Ir
rev
ersi
bler
eact
ions

c)
Sol
ubl
e

d)
Insol
ubl
e

64.Thereact
ionst
hatcannotgobacki
scal
led?
a)Rever
sibl
ereact
ions

b)
+Ir
rev
ersi
bler
eact
ions

c)
Sol
ubl
e

d)
Insol
ubl
e

65.Amateri
althatdissol
vesi
scal
led?
a)Rev
ersi
blereact
ions

b)
Ir
rev
ersi
bler
eact
ions

c)
+Sol
ubl
e

d)
Insol
ubl
e

66.Amateri
althatdoesn’
tdi
ssol
vei
scal
led?
a)Rev
ersi
blereact
ions

b)
Ir
rev
ersi
bler
eact
ions

c)
Sol
ubl
e

d)
+Insol
ubl
e
67.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
emonomol
ecul
ar?

a)+N2O4→ 2NO2
b)2FeCl
3+H2S→ 2FeCl
2+2HCl
+S
c)2NO+Cl2→ 2NOC l
d)2HI→ H2+I2

68.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
emonomol
ecul
ar?

a)
2FeCl
3+H2S→ 2FeCl
2+2HCl
+S
b)
2NO+Cl 2→ 2NOCl
c)
2HI→ H2+I2

d)
+I2→ I•+I•

69.Whichoftheser
eacti
onsar
emonomol
ecul
ar?
a)2FeCl3+H2S→ 2FeCl
2+2HCl+S
b)+Cl2→ 2 Cl
c)2NO+Cl 2→ 2NOC l
d)2HI→ H2+I 2

70.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
emonomol
ecul
ar?

a)2NO+Cl2→ 2NOC l
b)2HI→ H2+I2
c)+C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH
d)2FeCl
3+H2S→ 2FeCl
2+2HCl
+S

71.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
emonomol
ecul
ar?

a)2NO+Cl2→ 2NOC l
b)2HI→ H2+I2
c)+NH4NO3→ N2O+2H2O
d)2FeCl
3+H2S→ 2FeCl
2+2HCl

72.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
edi
mol
ecul
ar?

a)+CH3Br+KOH→ CH3OH+KBr
b)N2O4→ 2NO2
c)O2+NO+NO→ 2NO2
d)C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH

73.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
edi
mol
ecul
ar?

a)C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH
b)+2HI→ H2+I 2
c)N2O4→ 2NO2
d)O2+NO+NO→ 2NO2
74.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
edi
mol
ecul
ar?

a)N2O4→ 2NO2
b)O2+NO+NO→ 2NO2
c)+Na2S2O3+H2SO4→Na2SO4+S+SO2+H20
d)C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH
75.Whichoft
hesereact
ionsar
edi
molecul
ar?

a)N2O4→ 2NO2
b)O2+NO+NO→ 2NO2
c)C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH
d)+H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

76.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
edi
mol
ecul
ar?
a)+2NH4NO3→ 2N2+O2+4H2O
b)N2O4→ 2NO2
c)O2+NO+NO→ 2NO2
d)C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH

77.Whichoft
heser
eact
ionsar
etr
imol
ecul
ar?
a)+O2+NO+NO→ 2NO2
b)I2→ I•+I•
c)CH3Br+KOH→ CH3OH+KBr
d)N2O4→ 2NO2

78.Whichoft
hesereact
ionsar
etr
imol
ecul
ar?
a)C2H5OH→ C2H4+HOH

b)+2NO+Cl2→ 2NOCl
c)2HI→ H2+I
2
d)Cl
2→ 2Cl

79.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
etr
imol
ecul
ar?
a)Na2S2O3+H2SO4=Na2SO4+S+SO2+H20
b)2NH4NO3=2N2+O2+4H2O
c)+2NO+H2→ N2O+HOH
d)H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
etr
imol
ecul
ar?
a)Cl
2→ 2Cl
b)+2FeCl
3+H2S→ 2FeCl
2+2HCl
+S
c)2NH4NO3=2N2+O2+4H2O
d)NH4NO3→ N2O+2H2O

81.Whi
choft
heser
eact
ionsar
etr
imol
ecul
ar?
a)2HI→ H2+I2
b)+HCLO3+P+H2O=H2PO4+HCL
c)2NH4NO3=2N2+O2+4H2O
d)NH4NO3→ N2O+2H2O

82.Whichoft
hesereact
ionsar
etr
imol
ecul
ar?
a)2NH4NO3=2N2+O2+4H2O
b)+3NaClO=NaClO3+2NaCl
c)2HI→ H2+I2
d)l2→ 2Cl

83.Whichexpressioncor respondst
othechemi
calequi
li
bri
um const
antf
ort
hisr
eact
ion?
N2+3H2=2NH3
2 3
a)Kc=[NH3] /[ N2]+[H2]
2 3
c)+Kc=[NH3] /[ N2][H2]
b)Kc=[NH3]2/[ N2][H2]
3
d)Kc=[ N2][
H2] /[NH3]2

84.Whatistheequil
ibri
um const
antoft
hisr
eact
ion?
2NO+O2→2NO2
a)Kc=[NO2]2/[NO][O2]
2
c)+Kc=[NO2] /[ NO]2[O2]
b)Kc=[NO][O2]/[NO2]2
d)Kc=[NO2]/[NO][ O2]

85.Theequi
li
bri
um const
antforther
eact
ion?
2CO(g)+O2( g)=2CO2(g):
a)+Kc=[CO2]2/[CO]2[
O2]; c)Kc=1/[CO2]
;
b)Kc=[CO2]/[
CO]; d)Kc=[ CO]/[
CO2]
.

86.Equi
li
bri
um const
antof NaNO3↔ NaNO2+O2r
eact
ioni
s
a)K=[O2]
b)K=[NaNO2]/[
NaNO3]
.
c)+K=[
NaNO2][
O2]
/[NaNO3]

d)K=[
NaNO3]

87.Equil
ibr
ium const
antofCaCO3↔ CaO+CO2r
eact
ioni
s
.
a)+K=[ CaO][ CO2]
/[CaCO3]
b)K=[ CO2]
c)K=[ CaO]/[CaCO3]
.
d)K=[ CaO][CO2]

88.I
nwhatdi
recti
ontheequi
li
bri
um st
ateofN2+H2↔ NH3r
eact
ionwi
llbeshi
ft
edat
pr
essur
eel
ev at
ion?
a)+backward
b)f
orward
c)won’
tshif
ted
d)t
owardsreact
ant
s

89.Ther ateconstantofareact
ionsdependson
a) 
+Temper ature
b) 
  
 Ini
ti
alconcentrat
ionoft
hereactant
s
c) 
  
 Timeofr eacti
on
d) 
  
 Extentofreacti
on

90.Thespecificr
ateconstantofaf
ir
stor
derr
eact
iondependsont
he
a)Concentrat
ionofther
eactant
b)Concent
rati
onoftheproduct
c)+Time
d)Temperatur
e

91.Acat alysti
sasubst ancewhi ch
a)I
ncreasest heequil
ibrium concentr
ati
onoft heproduct
b)Changest heequil
ibrium constantofreact
ion
c)+Shor tensthetimet oreachequili
bri
um
d)Suppliesenergytot her eact
ion
92.
Ther ateofreacti
onofsubst ancesisproporti
onalofthei
r

a)St
abi
l
ity

b)Mol
ecul
arwei
ght

c)Equi
val
entwei
ght

d)+Act
ivemass

93.I
nar
ever
sibl
ereact
ionbot
hsi
der
atesofr
eact
ionsar
e

a)+Same

b)Di
ff
erent

c)Onesi
demor
e

d)Notdef
ini
te

94.
Achemi
calr
eact
ioni
satequi
li
bri
um whent
her
ateoff
orwar
dandbackwar
dreact
ionar
e

a)Unequal

b)
Const
ant

c)+Equal
d)I
ncr
eased

95.Thel
awofmassact
ionwasenunci
atedby

a)+Gul
dber
gandWaage

b)Bodenst
ein

c)Ber
thl
ot

d)Gr
aham

96.
Accordi
ngt
oLeChat
eli
erpr
inci
ple,
ani
ncr
easei
nthet
emper
atur
eoft
hef
oll
owi
ng
r
eacti
onwil
l

N2+O2=2NO–43200cal

a)+I
ncr
easet
hey
iel
dofNO

b)Decr
easebyy
iel
dofNO

c)Notef
fectont
hey
iel
dofNO

d)Nothel
pther
eact
iont
opr
oceed

97.
Giv
ent
her
eact
ion:Zn(
s)+2HCl
(aq)→ ZnCl
2(
aq)+H2(
g)

Whyi
sther
eact
ionsl
owerwhenasi
ngl
epi
eceofzi
nci
susedt
hanwhenpowder
edzi
ncof
t
hesamemassi
sused?

a)t
hepowder
edzi
nci
smor
econcent
rat
ed;

b)t
hesi
ngl
epi
eceofzi
nci
smor
ereact
ive;

c)t
hepowder
edzi
ncr
equi
resl
essact
ivat
ionener
gy;

d)+t
hepowder
edzi
nchasagr
eat
ersur
facear
ea.

98.Whi
cht
akespl
acewhenacat
aly
sti
saddedt
oar
eact
ionatequi
li
bri
um?

a)t
hepoi
ntofequi
l
ibr
ium i
sshi
ft
edt
other
ight
;

b)t
hepoi
ntofequi
l
ibr
ium i
sshi
ft
edt
othel
eft
;
c)+t
hef
orwar
dandr
ever
ser
eact
ionsr
atesar
eincr
easedunequal
l
y;

d)t
hef
orwar
dandr
ever
ser
eact
ionsr
atesar
eincr
easedequal
l
y.

99.
Ast
hef
requencyandt
henumberofef
fect
ivecol
li
sionsbet
weenr
eact
ingpar
ti
cles
i
ncr
eases,
ther
ateoft
her
eact
ion:

a)+i
ncr
eases;

b)decr
eases;

c)r
emai
nst
hesame;

d)appr
oacheszer
o

100.Whi
chf
act
orsar
eequali
nar
ever
sibl
echemi
calr
eact
iont
hathasr
eachedequi
li
bri
um?

a)Thenumberofmol
esoft
her
eact
ant
sandpr
oduct
s;

b)Thepot
ent
ial
ener
giesoft
her
eact
ant
sandpr
oduct
s;

c)Theact
ivat
ionener
giesoft
hef
orwar
dandr
ever
ser
eact
ions;

d)+Ther
atesofr
eact
ionf
ort
hef
orwar
dandr
ever
ser
eact
ions.

101.Acat
aly
sti
saddedt
oasy
stem atequi
li
bri
um.Theconcent
rat
ionoft
her
eact
ant
swi
ll
t
hen:

a)decr
ease;

b)i
ncr
ease;

c)+r
emai
nthesame;

d)appr
oachzer
o

102.I
nanef
for
ttospeedupar
eact
ionbet
weenasol
idandagasonewoul
dnot
:

a)makeanef
for
ttoconcent
rat
ether
eact
ant
sasbestaspossi
ble;

b)addacat
aly
st;

c)cool
ther
eact
iondown;
d)+useapowder
edsol
i
dinst
eadofonebi
glumpoft
hesamesol
i
d.

103.Whi
chr
eact
ionbel
owi
sexpect
edt
ogot
ocompl
eti
on?

1+( -
I
.Zn+HCl
;II
.HCl+NaOH;I
II
.Ag aq)+Cl
(aq)

a)I
Ionl
y;

b)I
IIonl
y;

c)IandI
Ionl
y;

d)+I
IandI
IIonl
y

Sol
uti
ons.

104.Mol
ari
tyi
sexpr
essedas

a)
grams/
li
tr
e

b)l
i
tres/
mol
e

c)+mol
es/
li
tr
e

d)mol
es/
1000gm

105.
Amol
alsol
uti
oni
sonet
hatcont
ainsonemol
eofasol
utei
n

a)+1000gm oft
hesol
vent

c)
onel
i
treoft
hesol
uti
on

b)onel
i
treoft
hesol
vent

d)22.
4li
tr
esoft
hesol
uti
on

106.Nor
mal
it
yisexpr
essedas

a)
mol
es/
li
tr
e

b)+gm equi
val
ent
s/l
i
tre

c)
mol
es/
1000gm

d)
gram/
li
tr
e

107.Thenor
mal
it
yof10%(
w/v
)acet
icaci
dis

a)1N
b)10N

c)+2.
7N

d)+1.
7N

108.Nor
mal
it
yofasol
uti
oncont
aini
ng0.
50g-
eqofasubst
ancei
n2l
it
resofsol
uti
oni
s

a)+13N

b)0x1N

c)+1N

d)None

109.Thenor
mal
it
yofasol
uti
onofNaOH;
100ml
.ofwhi
chcont
ains4gofNaOHi
s

a)0x1

b)+2.
0

c)+1.
0

d)0.
4

110.Nor
mal
it
yofsul
phur
icaci
dcont
aini
ng50goft
heaci
din500mlofsol
uti
oni
s

a)+5.
04N

b)0.
49N

c)+2.
04N

d)0.
35N

111.Whati
sthenor
mal
it
yofa1M sol
uti
onofH3PO4?

a)0.
5N

b)+3.
0N

c)2.
0N

d)+3.
6N

112.
Nor
mal
it
yof2M sul
phur
icaci
dis

a)+4N

b)+47N
c)N/
2

d)N/
4

113.
Thenor
mal
it
yofa2.
3M sul
phur
icaci
dsol
uti
oni
s

a)+4.
6N

b)0.
23N

c)2.
3N

d)+3.
6N

114.Thewei
ghtofpur
eNaOHr
equi
redt
opr e250cm3of0.
epar 1Nsol
uti
oni
s

a)4g

b)+16g

c)+1g

d)10g

115.Mol
ari
tyofa0.
2NNa2CO3sol
uti
onwi
llbe

a)0.
05M

b)0.
2M

c)+0.
1M

d)0.
4M

116.Themol
ari
tyofpur
ewat
eri
s

a)+5.
6

b)+55.
6

c)100

d)18

117.Thenumberofmol
esi
n180gofwat
eri
s

a)1
b)+10

c)18

d)100

118.Thenumberofmol
esofKCli
n1000mlof3mol
arsol
uti
oni
s

a)1

b)+3

c)+9

d)1.
5

119.
Mol
ari
tyof4%NaOHsol
uti
oni
s

a)0.
1M

b)0.
5M

c)0.
01M

d)+1.
0M

120.Whatisthesol
uti
on?
a)+amixtureconsi
sti
ngofasol
uteandasol
vent

b)
componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthel
esseramount

c)
componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthegr
eat
eramount

d)
amountofasol
utepr
esenti
nasol
uti
onperst
andar
damountofsol
vent

121.Whati
sthesolut
e?
a)amixt
ureconsi
sti
ngofasol
uteandasol
vent

b)
+componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthel
esseramount

c)
componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthegr
eat
eramount

d)
amountofasol
utepr
esenti
nasol
uti
onperst
andar
damountofsol
vent

122.Whati
sthesolvent
?
a)amixt
ureconsi
sti
ngofasol
uteandasol
vent

b)
componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthel
esseramount

c)
+componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthegr
eat
eramount
d)
amountofasol
utepr
esenti
nasol
uti
onperst
andar
damountofsol
vent

123.Whati
stheconcent
rat
ion?
a)amixt
ureconsi
sti
ngofasolut
eandasol
vent

b)
componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthel
esseramount

c)
componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthegr
eat
eramount

d)
+amountofasol
utepr
esenti
nasol
uti
onperst
andar
damountofsol
vent

124.Ami
xtur
econsi
sti
ngofasol
uteandasol
venti
scal
led?

a)+Sol
uti
on

b)
Sol
ute

c)
Sol
vent

d)
Concent
rat
ion

125.Componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthel
esseramounti
scal
led?

a)
Sol
uti
on

b)+Sol
ute

c)
Sol
vent

d)
Concent
rat
ion

126.Componentofasol
uti
onpr
esenti
nthegr
eat
eramounti
scal
led?

a)
Sol
uti
on

b)
Sol
ute

c)
+Sol
vent

d)
Concent
rat
ion

127.Amountofasol
utepr
esenti
nasol
uti
onperst
andar
damountofsol
venti
scal
led?
a)Solut
ion

b)
Sol
ute

c)
Sol
vent
d)
+Concent
rat
ion

128.Massf
ract
ioni
scal
led?

a)Thenumberofmol
essol
utecont
ainedi
n1kgofsol
vent
.

b)+t
her
ati
ooft
hemassoft
hesol
utei
nthemasssol
uti
on:

c)t
heequi
val
entamountofasubst
ancecont
ainedi
n1l
i
terofsol
uti
on.

d)t
hemassofsubst
ancei
n1l
i
terofsol
uti
on.

129.Massf
ract
ion i
s expr
essedi
n:

a)mol
/kg.

b)+per
cent
age

c)mol
/l.

d)g/ml
.

130.Mat
hemat
icalexpr
essi
onoft
heMassf
ract
ion

a) c)+

b) d)

131.
Themol
arconcent
rat
ioni
scal
led?

a)t
her
ati
ooft
hemassoft
hesol
utei
nthemasssol
uti
on:

b)+t
hemassofsubst
ancei
n1l
i
terofsol
uti
on.

c)t
heequi
val
entamountofasubst
ancecont
ainedi
n1l
i
terofsol
uti
on.

d)t
hemassofsol
utecont
ainedi
n1kgofsol
vent
.

132.Mol
arconcent
rat
ioni
sexpr
essedi
n:

a)mol
/kg.

b)per
cent
age

c)+mol
/l.
d)g/ml
.

133.Mat
hemat
icalexpr
essi
onoft
heMol
arconcent
rat
ion

a) c)

b)+ d)

134.Themolarconcent r
ati
onofequiv al
entiscal
led?
a)+t heequi
valentamountofasubst ancecontai
nedin1l i
terofsol
uti
on.
b)thenumberofmol essol ut
econtai
nedi n1kgofsolv ent
.
c)themassofsubst ancein1lit
erofsoluti
on.
d)therat
ioofthemassoft hesolutei
nt hemasssol ut
ion:

135.Themol
arconcent
rat
ionofequi
val
enti
sexpr
essedi
n:

a)mol
/kg.

b)per
cent
age

c)+mol
/l.

d)g/ml
.

136.Mat
hemat
icalexpr
essi
onoft
hemol
arconcent
rat
ionequi
val
ent

a) c)+

b) d)

137.Themol alconcentr
ati
onis:
a)therat
ioofthemassoft hesoluteinthemasssolut
ion:
b)themassofsubst ancein1li
terofsoluti
on.
c)theequiv
alentamountofasubst ancecontai
nedi
n1l i
terofsol
uti
on.
d)+thenumberofmol essol
utecontainedin1kgofsolvent
.

138.Mol
alconcent
rat
ion i
s expr
essedi
n:

a)+mol
/kg.
b)per
cent
age

c)mol
/l.

d)g/ml
.

139.Mat
hemat
icalexpr
essi
onoft
heMol
alconcent
rat
ion

a) + c)

b) d)

140.Fi
ndvolumeconcent
rat
ion
a)masspercent
b)+nor
mal
i
ty
c)mol
ali
ty
d)massf
ract
ion

141.Whohaddev
elopedt
heor
yofsol
uti
onschemi
calnat
ure
a)VantHof
f
b)Mendel
eev
c)+Ar
rheni
us
d)Lomonosov

142.Fi
ndequi
val
entmassofsul
phur
icaci
d
a) 98
b) 2
c) 32
d)+49
143.Fi
ndequi
val
entmassofphosphor
icaci
d
a) 98
b)2
c)+32.
6
d)49
144.Fi
ndequi
val
entmassofcal
cium hy
droxi
de
a) 98
b)+37
c) 32
d)49
145.“Act
ivat
ionener
gy”t
ermi
sint
roducedby
a)coordi
nati
ontheor
y
b)t
heor
yofv
alentbonds
c)+t
heor
yofact
ivecol
l
isi
ons
d)t
heor
yofel
ect
rol
yti
cdi
ssoci
ati
on

146.
 Whent
her
eisal
owconcent
rat
ionofsol
utei
nasol
uti
on,
iti
sknownas

a)+di
l
utedsol
uti
on

b)sat
urat
edsol
uti
on

c)concent
rat
edsol
uti
on

d)unsat
urat
edsol
uti
on

147.
Sol
uti
oni
shi
ghl
yconcent
rat
edwhensol
utei
sin

a)+hi
ghconcent
rat
ion

b)l
owconcent
rat
ion

c)hi
ght
emepr
atur
e

d)l
owt
emepr
atur
e

148.Oneofmostcommonki
ndoft
it
rat
ioni
nvol
vesexactneut
ral
izat
ionofanal
kal
i(OH-)
-
bya/an

a)base

b)+aci
d
c)sal
t

d)suspensi
on
3
149.Numberofmolesofsol
utedi
ssol
vedperdm  
ofsol
uti
oni
s
a)mol al
i
ty
b)percentage
c)concentrati
on
d)+mol arit
y

150. Ahomogeneousmi xtureoftwosubstancesi
sa
a)col
loi
d. 
  
   
  
 
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 
b) 
suspension
c)+soluti
on. 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d)compound.

151.Thedissol
vingmedi um inthesol
uti
oni
sthe
a)sol
ute.
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 c)sol
ution.
b)+solvent.
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
   
 d) 
mixtur
e.

152.Whichoft hefoll
owingi snotasolut
ion?
a)+zinc   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
c)brass
b)ster
li
ngsilver 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d)stai
nlessst
eel

153.Whati sthesolventin70%al coholsol


uti
on?
a) 
  
 +  
 al
cohol 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 c) 
sugar
b) 
  
  
 water
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d) ker
osene

154.Whi chofthesesoluti
onsi sinsoli
dphase?
a) 
ti
nctureofiodi
ne  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 c) 
aer
osol
b)ai
r-
iodinesolut
ion 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 d)+dental
amalgam

155.Whichoft hefoll
owingisnotapr oper
tyofsol
uti
on?
a)+Ithasadef ini
tecompositi
on.
b)I
thasahomogeneouscomposi t
ion.
c)I
tisconsi
stofasi ngl
ephase.
d)I
tcanbephy sical
lysepar
atedint
oi t
scomponents.

156. Asoluti
oncont aini
ngt hemaxi mum amountofdi
ssol
vedsol
utei
s
a)+concent r
ated. 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
   
 c)
dil
ute.
b)unsat
urated.
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 d)sat
urated.

157. 
Oft hefol
lowi
ng,whichwi lli
ncreaset hesol ubi
li
tyofagasinwater
?
a)i
ncreasi
ngthetemperature 
  
  
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
c) 
increasi
ngt hevol
ume
b)+increasi
ngthepressure  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d)decreasingthepr
essur
e

158.Whatopposi
ngpr
ocessesoccuri
nsat
urat
edsol
uti
on?
a)Vapor
izati
onandcondensati
on  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
c)Oxi
dat
ionandreduction
b) +Di
ssolut
ionandcr
ystal
li
zati
on  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 d)Di
ssoci
ati
onandr educti
on

159.Whi
chsoluti
onshasconcentr
ati
onof1M?
  Themol
armassofsucr
osei
s342g.
  
A
sol
uti
oncontai
ning
a)342gsucr
osein658gofwat er
b)+342gsucrosei n1000mLofsolut
ion
c)342gsucr
osein1000gofwat er
d)342gsucrosein1000gofsolut
ion

160.Keroseneisanonpol arsolvent

 Whichsol utewilldi
ssol
vei
nit
?
a.
) +hexane   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
c)ethanol
b)sodi
um carbonate  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d)potassium chl
ori
de

161. Mostsaltbecomesol ubleinwat erasthe


a) 
pressur
eisincreased. 
  
  
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 c)
t emperatur
eisdecreased.
b)+t emper
atureisincreased. 
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 d) 
pressurei
sdecreased.

162.Itr
eferstothemassofsol utedissolvein100gofsolut
ion.
a)+Percentbymass   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
c)Mol
ari
ty
b)Mol
ali
ty 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d)Molef
ract
ion

163.Thenumberofmol esofsol utedivi


dedbyt henumberofki
logr
amsofsol
venti
s
a)Per
centbymass   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
c)Molari
ty
b)+Molali
ty 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
d)Molefract
ion

164.I
treferstothepr ocessofpr epari
ngal
essconcent
rat
edsol
uti
onf
rom amor
e
concentr
atedsol ut
ion.
a) 
Molari
ty 
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 
c)+Dil
ution
b)Nor
mality
   
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 
d)Molal
it
y

165. I
ndiluti
onofsoluti
on,
a) 
asoluteisaddedtothesol uti
on.
b)+solventisaddedtothesol uti
on.
c) 
theamountofmol esincreases.
d)vol
umeofsol ut
iondecreases.

166.A40%alcoholcont
ains
a)40mLal
coholin100mLofwater.
b)+40mLalcoholin60mLofwater.
c)60mLofal
coholin100mLofwater.
d)60mLofal
cohol i
n40mLofwater.

Col
li
gat
ivepr
oper
ti
esofsol
uti
ons.
167.Sol
uti
onsar
e:
а)i
sol
atedsy
stems,
separ
atedf
rom t
hesur
roundi
ngsbyani
nter
facesur
face;
b)homogeneoussy
stemswhi
chdonotexchangebymasswi
tht
hesur
roundi
ngs;
c)+homogeneoussy
stemswhi
chcont
ainatl
eastt
wocomponent
s;
d)het
erogeneoussy
stemswhi
chcont
ainatl
eastt
wocomponent
s.

168.Sol
ubi
li
tyofsol
idsdependsupon:
a)t
emper
atur
e,t
henat
ureofsol
utesandsol
vent
s; c)heatofsol
uti
on;
b)pr
essur
e; d)+al
lanswer
sar
eri
ght
.

169.I
naccor
dancewi
tht
hest
ateofsol
vent
ssol
uti
onsar
e:
a)l
i
qui
d,t
ranspar
ent
,col
ored;
b)sol
i
d,l
i
qui
d,t
urbi
d;
c)+gaseous,
li
qui
d,sol
i
d;
d)l
i
qui
d,t
urbi
d,col
ored.
170.Nameequi
li
bri
um const
ant
swhi
chchar
act
eri
zehomogeneousequi
li
bri
um i
naqueous
sol
uti
ons:
a)+sol
ubi
l
itypr
oductconst
ant(
Ksp)
;
b)aci
dioni
zat
ionconst
ant(
Ka)
;basei
oni
zat
ionconst
ant(
Kb)
;
c)mol
arf
reezi
ng-
poi
ntconst
ant(
Kf)
;
d)mol
arboi
l
ing-
poi
ntconst
ant(
Kb)
.

171.Col
li
gat
ive(
col
lect
ive)pr
oper
ti
esofsol
uti
onsdependupont
henumber
ofsol
utepar
ti
clesandnott
hei
rnat
ure.Theyar
e:
a)+v
aporpr
essur
elower
ing;
b)
densi
ty;
c)v
iscosi
ty;
d)di
ff
usi
on.

172.Thest
atementt
hatsol
ubi
li
tyofagasi
nal
iqui
dispr
opor
ti
onalt
oit
spar
ti
al
pr
essur
eabov
ethesol
uti
oni
sdef
inedas:

a)+TheHenr
yslaw;
b)TheSechenovequat
ion;
c)TheOst
v d’
alsdi
l
uti
onl
aw;

d)ThePaul
spr
inci
ple.

173.Aner
ythr
ocy
tepl
acedi
nto10%NaClsol
uti
onunder
goes:
a)Hemol
ysi
s;
b)+Pl
asmol
ysi
s;
c)Swel
l
ing;
d)Pr
eci
pit
ati
on.

174.Poi
ntoutasol
uti
onwi
tht
hehi
ghestboi
li
ngpoi
nt:
a)+0.
01M sucr
ose;
b)0.
01M sodi
um phosphat
e;
c)0.
01М pot
assi
um chl
ori
de;
d)0.
01M sodi
um car
bonat
e.

175.TheRaoul
t’
sebul
li
oscopi
clawcanbedef
inedas:
а)boi
l
ingpoi
ntsofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngnonv
olat
il
esol
utesar
eal
way
slowert
hant
hatofpur
e
sol
vent
s;
b)boi
l
ingpoi
ntsofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngnonv
olat
il
esol
utesar
eal
way
shi
ghert
hant
hatofpur
e
sol
vent
s;
c)boi
l
ing poi
ntsofpur
esol
vent
sar
eal
way
shi
ghert
han t
hatofsol
uti
onst
hatcont
ain
nonv
olat
il
esol
utes;
d)+ boi
l
ingpoi
ntsofpur
esol
vent
sar
eal
way
slowert
hant
hatofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ng
nonv
olat
il
esol
utes.

176.Sol
uti
onswhi
char
eappl
iedi
nmedi
cinef
ori
ntr
avenousi
nject
ionsar
echar
act
eri
zedby
t
hei
rosmol
ari
tyorosmol
ali
ty.Theseconcent
rat
ionuni
tsexpr
ess:
a)concent
rat
ionof
wat
er;
b)concent
rat
ionofsubst
ancesunabl
etodi
ff
uset
hroughcel
lmembr
anes;
c)+concent
rat
ionofsubst
ancesabl
etodi
ff
uset
hroughcel
lmembr
anes;
d)concent
rat
ionofel
ect
rol
ytes.
177.
Poi
ntout
sol
uti
onswhi
char
eisot
oni
cwi
thbl
oodpl
asma:
а)3%sodi
um chl
ori
de;
4.5%gl
ucose;
b)0.
9%gl
ucose;
0.9%sodi
um chl
ori
de;
c)+0.
9%sodi
um chl
ori
de;
4.5%gl
ucose;
d)20%gl
ucose;
10%CaCl
2.

178.Def
inet
heRaoul
t’
scr
yoscopi
claw:
a)
Freezi
ngpoi
ntsofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngnonv
olat
il
esol
utesar
eal
way
slowert
hant
hatof
pur
esol
vent
s;
b)+Fr
eezi
ngpoi
ntsofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngnonv
olat
il
esol
utesar
eal
way
shi
ghert
hant
hatof
pur
esol
vent
s;
c)Fr
eezi
ngpoi
ntsofpur
esol
vent
sar
eal
way
slowert
hant
hatofsol
uti
ons;
d)Fr
eezi
ngpoi
ntsofpur
esol
vent
sar
eal
way
shi
ghert
hant
hatofsol
uti
ons.

179.Thef
ir
stRaoul
t’
sLawi
sdef
inedas:
a)+Thev
aporpr
essur
eofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngnonv
olat
il
esol
utesi
sal
way
slesst
hant
hatof
pur
esol
vent
s;
b)Thedecr
easei
nvaporpr
essur
eisnotpr
opor
ti
onal
tot
hemol
efr
act
ionofasol
ute;
c)Thev
aporpr
essur
eofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngnonv
olat
il
esol
utesi
sal
way
shi
ghert
hant
hat
ofpur
esol
vent
s;
d)Thev
aporpr
essur
eofsol
uti
onscont
aini
ngv
olat
il
esol
utesi
sal
way
slesst
hant
hatofpur
e
sol
vent
s.

180.I
nor
dert
oincr
easesol
ubi
li
tyofgasesi
nwat
eri
tisnecessar
y:
a)+t
oincr
easegaspr
essur
eabov
ewat
er;
sol
uti
on;
todecr
easet
emper
atur
e;
b)t
oaddsomeel
ect
rol
ytesi
ntoasol
uti
on;
c)
toaddsomenonel
ect
rol
ytesi
ntoasol
uti
on;
d)t
oincr
easet
emper
atur
e.

181.Osmosi
sisaspont
aneouspr
ocessdef
inedas:
a)Ar
ever
sibl
ether
mody
nami
cpr
ocessofwat
erdi
ff
usi
ont
hroughsemi
per
meabl
emembr
ane
f
rom asol
uti
onofaweakel
ect
rol
ytei
ntoasol
uti
onofast
rongel
ect
rol
yte;
b)Ar
ever
sibl
ether
mody
nami
cpr
ocessofwat
erdi
ff
usi
ont
hroughsemi
per
meabl
emembr
ane
f
rom at
ruesol
uti
ont
oacol
l
oidal
sol
uti
on;
c) A r
ever
sibl
ether
mody
nami
c pr
ocess of sol
ute di
ff
usi
on t
hrough semi
per
meabl
e
membr
anef
rom apur
ewat
ert
oasol
uti
on;
d)+ A r
ever
sibl
ether
mody
nami
c pr
ocess ofwat
erdi
ff
usi
on t
hrough semi
per
meabl
e
membr
anef
rom adi
l
utesol
uti
oni
ntoamor
econcent
rat
edone.

182.Cr
yoscopyandebul
li
oscopyar
eexper
iment
almet
hodst
odet
ermi
ne:
a)
Densi
ty; c)Vi
scosi
ty;
b)Mol
armass; d)+Osmot
icpr
essur
e.

183.Theosmol
ari
t 0×10-2M NaCli
yof5. sequalt
o:
0×10-2osmol
a)2. ; 0×10-2osmol
c)3. ;
0×10-1osmol
b)+1. ; 0×10-3osmol
d)5. .

184.Osmol
ari
tyi
s:
a)t
hemol
ari
tyofpar
ti
clesi
nasol
uti
on;
b)+t
heamountofsol
utedi
ssol
vedi
naspeci
fi
edamountofsol
uti
on;
c)massper
cent
ageconcent
rat
ion;
d)t
heconcent
rat
ioni
npar
tspert
housand.

185.Osmot
icpr
essur
ecanbecal
cul
atedaccor
dingt
othef
oll
owi
ngequat
ion:
a)+=MRT;
b)Tf=KfCm;
c)Tb=KbCm;
d)Tf=i
KfCm.

186.Nor
malosmot
icpr
essur
eofbl
oodpl
asmai
s:
a)+740-
780kPa;
b)140-
240kPa;
c)840-
980kPa;
d)60-
70kPa.

187.Col
li
gat
ivepr
oper
ti
esofsol
uti
onsdependupon:
a)+t
henumberoft
hesol
utepar
ti
cles;
b)t
hechemi
cal
str
uct
ureofsol
ute;
c)cat
aly
sts;
d)pHscal
e.

188.Boi
li
ngpointofsol
uti
onwi
thconcent
rat
ionr
ise
a)+incr
eases
b)r
emai
nssame
c)decr
eases
d)noef
fect
189.Sol
vent
’ssat
urat
edv
aporpr
essur
eov
ersol
uti
on
a)i
ncr
eases
b)r
emai
nssame
c)+Decr
eases
d)Noneoft
hem
190.Osmoticpr
essur
eofsol
uti
onwi
thconcent
rat
ionr
ise
a)+incr
eases
b)r
emai
nssame
c)decr
eases
d)i
ncr
eases t
hendecr
eases

191.Forspont
aneouspr
ocesses
a)ΔH≥ 0
b)ΔS≤0
c)ΔG≥0
d)+ΔH≤0
192.Coll
igati
veproper
tyofsol
uti
onofnon-el
ect
rol
ytedoesn’
tdependon
a)concentrat
ion
b)+nat
ureofsol
vent
c)t
emper
atur
e
d)nat
ureofsol
ute
193.Saturatedvapourpr
essur
eofsol
uti
on(
accor
dingt
oRaoul
t’
slaw) i
sdi
rect
ly
proport
ionalto
a)temperature
b)+mol
arf
ract
ionofsol
ute
c)mol
arf
ract
ionofsol
vent
d)mi
xi
ngr
ate
194.Sol
uti
onshav
ingosmot
icpr
essur
ehi
ghert
hant
hatofbl
oodpl
asmaar
ecal
led
a)hypot
oni
c
b)i
soosmot
ic
c)sat
urat
ed
d)+Hy
per
toni
c

195.Sol
uti
onshav
ingosmot
icpr
essur
elesst
hant
hatofbl
oodpl
asmaar
ecal
led
a)+hy
pot
oni
c
b)i
soosmot
ic
c)sat
urat
ed
d)i
sot
oni
c

196.Sol
uti
onshav
ingsameosmot
icpr
essur
ear
ecal
led
a)hypot
oni
c
b)i
soosmot
ic
c)sat
urat
ed
d)+i
sot
oni
c
197.Sol
uti
onshav
ingosmot
icpr
essur
esamewi
tht
hatofbl
oodpl
asmaar
ecal
led
a)hypot
oni
c
b)+i
soosmot
ic
c)sat
urat
ed
d)i
sot
oni
c
198.Methodofdet
ermi
nat
ionofmol
armassofsol
uteont
hebaseofVantHof
flawi
s
cal
led
a)cry
ometry
b)+osmomet
ry
c)pH-
met
ry
d)ebul
i
omet
ry
199.Methodofdet
ermi
nat
ionofmol
armassofsol
uteont
hebaseoff
reezi
ngpoi
nti
s
cal
led
a)+cryometr
y
b)osmomet
ry
c)pH-
met
ry
d)ebul
i
omet
ry
200.Met
hodofdet
ermi
nat
ionofmol
armassofsol
uteont
hebaseofboi
li
ngpoi
nti
scal
led
a)cry
ometr
y
b)osmomet
ry
c)pH-
met
ry
d)+ebul
i
omet
ry
201.Thesol
ubi
li
tyofagasdissolvedinal iquidi
snotaffect
edbyt
he
a.
)Natur
eofsol
uteandsol
vent  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
 c)Temperat
ure
b)+Rateatwhi
chthegasdissol
ves   
  
  
  
  
   
  
d)Pr
essure

202.Whi chi
nvolvesthecol
li
gativepropert
ies?
a)Heati
ngofsolvent.
b)Al
lowingacarbonatedbeveragetowar mt oroom temperat
ure.
c)+Addi ngsal
ttothewaterinwhichpastai sbeingcooked.
d)Pouri
ngaconcent r
atedsol
utionint
oadi l
utesol ut
ion.

203.Themov ementofmolecul
esf
rom anar
eaofhi
ghconcent
rat
iont
oanar
eaofl
ower
concentr
ationisknownas:
a)Osmosis
b)+Di f
fusi
on
c)Acti
veTransport
d)Phagocytosis

204.Themov ementofwat
ermoleculesfr
om anar
eaofhighconcent
rat
iont
oanar
eaof
lowconcentr
ati
onthr
oughasemi permeabl
emembraneisknownas:
a)Acti
veTransport
b)Diff
usi
on
c)Phagocyt
osis
d)+Osmosi s
205.Themov ementofmol ecul
esfrom anar
eaofl
owconcent
rat
iont
oanar
eaofhi
gh
concentrati
onagainsttheconcentr
ati
ongr
adi
enti
sknownas:
a)+Act i
veTransport
b)Diffusi
on
c)Osmosis
d)Phagocytosi
s

206.Col
li
gat
ivepr
oper
ti
esoft
hesol
uti
ondependon

a)Nat
ureofsol
ute

b)Nat
ureofsol
vent

c)+Numberofpar
ti
clespr
esenti
nthesol
uti
on

d)Numberofmol
esofsol
ventonl
y

207.Whi
chonei
sacol
li
gat
ivepr
oper
ty?

a)Boi
l
ingpoi
nt

b)Vapourpr
essur
e

c)+Osmot
icpr
essur
e

d)Fr
eezi
ngpoi
nt

208.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotacol
li
gat
ivepr
opr
etr
y?

a)Osmot
icpr
essur
e

b)El
evat
ionofb.
p.

c)+Vapourpr
essur
e

d)Depr
essi
onoff
.p.

209.Whi
chi
snotacol
li
gat
ivepr
oper
ty?

a)+Fr
eezi
ngpoi
nt

b)Lower
ingofv
apourpr
essur
e

c)Depr
essi
onoff
reezi
ngpoi
nt

d)El
evat
ionofboi
l
ingpoi
nt

210.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sacol
li
gat
ivepr
oper
ty?

a)Sur
facet
ensi
on
b)Vi
scosi
ty

c)+Osmot
icpr
essur
e

d)Boi
l
ingpoi
nt

211.Ther
elat
ivel
ower
ingoft
hev
apourpr
essur
eisequalt
other
ati
obet
weent
henumber
of

a)Sol
utemol
ecul
est
othesol
ventmol
ecul
es

b)+Sol
utemol
ecul
est
othet
otal
mol
ecul
esi
nthesol
uti
on

c)Sol
ventmol
ecul
est
othet
otal
mol
ecul
esi
nthesol
uti
on

d)Sol
ventmol
ecul
est
othet
otal
numberofi
onsoft
hesol
ute

212.Therel
ati
vel
oweri
ngofv
apourpr
essur
eisequalt
othemol
efr
act
ionoft
hesol
ute.
Thisl
awwasgivenby

a)+Raoul
t

b)Ost
wal
d

c)Van’
tHof
f

d)Lewi
s

213.Accor
dingt
oRaoul
t’
slaw,
ther
elat
ivel
ower
ingofv
apourf
orasol
uti
oni
sequalt
o

a)Mol
esofsol
ute

b)Mol
efr
act
ionofsol
vent

c)Mol
esofsol
vent

d)+Mol
efr
act
ionofsol
ute

214.Ami
xtur
eofbenzeneandt
oluenef
orms

a)+Ani
deal
sol
uti
on

b)Non-
ideal
sol
uti
on

c)Suspensi
on

d)Emul
sion

215.Whencommonsal
tisdi
ssol
vedi
nwat
er

a)M.p.oft
hesol
uti
oni
ncr
eases
b)+B.p.oft
hesol
uti
oni
ncr
eases

c)B.p.oft
hesol
uti
ondecr
eases

d)Bot
hm.p.andb.p.decr
eases

216.El
evat
ionofboi
li
ngpoi
ntofasol
uti
oni
sdi
rect
lypr
opor
ti
onalt
o

a)+Mol
ecul
arwt
.ofsol
ute

b)Mol
ecul
arwt
.ofsol
vent

c)Mol
ali
tyofsol
ute

d)Noneoft
hese

217.Whenasoluti
onissepar
atedf
rom asol
ventbysemi
per
meabl
emembr
ane,
then
phenomenontaki
ngplacei
scall
ed

a)+Osmosi
s

b)Di
ff
usi
on

c)Cat
aphor
esi
s

d)Pl
asmol
ysi
s

218.Theosmot
icpr
essur
eofasol
uti
oni
sgi
venbyt
hef
ormul
a:

a)П=ST/
C

b)П=CT/
S

c)П=SC/
T

d)+П/C=ST

219.Themel
ti
ngpoi
ntofani
mpur
ecompoundi
sgener
all
y__
___
___
___
_thatoft
hepur
e
soli
d.

a)
lesst
han c)+gr
eat
ert
han

b)
thesameas d)gr
eat
ert
hanorequal
to

220.IfSol
uti
onA cont
ains5gNaCli
n100mLwaterandSolut
ionBcont
ains 10gNaCli
n
100mLwat er
,whi
chofthefol
lowi
ngi
str
ueaboutsol
uti
onAandB?
a)Sol
uti
onAhasgr
eat
erboi
l
ingpoi
ntt
hanSol
uti
onB.

b)+Sol
uti
onBhasgr
eat
erboi
l
ingpoi
ntt
hanSol
uti
onA.

c)Sol
uti
onAandBhav
ethesameboi
l
ingpoi
nt.

d)noneoft
hem.

221.Whathappensdur
ingosmosi
s?

a)Pur
esol
ventdi
ff
usest
hroughamembr
anebutsol
utesdonot
.

b)+Pur
esol
utesdi
ff
uset
hroughamembr
anebutsol
ventdoesnot
.

c)
Gazesdi
ff
uset
hroughamembr
anei
ntoasol
uti
onandbui
l
duppr
essur
e.

d)Pur
esol
ventandasol
uti
onbot
hdi
ff
useatt
hesamet
imet
hroughamembr
ane.

222.Accor
dingt
oRaoul
t`
slaw,
whi
chst
atementi
sFALSE?

a)Thesolubil
it
yofagazincr
easesast
hetemper
aturei
ncreases.
b)Thegreaterthepr
essur
eofagazoverasol
uti
onthegreateri
tssol
ubi
l
ity
.

c)
Thev
aporpr
essur
eofasol
ventov
erasol
uti
oni
slesst
hant
hatofpur
esol
vent
.

d)+Thev
aporpr
essur
eofasol
ventov
erasol
uti
ondecr
easesasi
tsmol
efr
act
ioni
ncr
ease

223.Inwhatt
emper
atur
edoest
hev
aporpr
essur
eoft
hel
iqui
dequalt
heat
mospher
ic
pressur
e?
0
a)
100C c)mel
ti
ngpoi
nt

b)+boi
l
ingpoi
nt d)f
reezi
ngpoi
nt

224.Asubst
ancewhosewat
ersol
uti
onanel
ect
ri
ccur
renti
scal
leda(
n)

a)+el
ect
rol
yte c)pol
arsubst
ance

b)nonel
ect
rol
yte d)
nonpol
arsubst
ance

225.Asubst
ancet
hatv
apor
izeseasi
lyi
sknownas

a)+v
olat
il
e

b)
elect
rol
yte
c)nonv
olat
il
e

d)nonel
ect
rol
yte

El
ect
rol
yti
cdi
ssoci
ati
onofwat
er,
aci
ds,
basesandsal
ts.

Sal
tshy
drol
ysi
s.Buf
fersy
stems.

226.Acet
icaci
disweakbecause

a)I
tisunst
abl
e

b)I
tisanor
gani
cal
i
phat
icaci
d

c)+I
tissl
i
ght
lyi
oni
zed

d)Noneoft
hese

227.At800Cpuredi
stil
ledwat H3O+]concent
erhas[ rat
i o1x10-6mol
onequalt /L.Thev
alue
ofKw att
hist
emperaturewi
llbe

a)+1x10-6

b)1x10-12

c)1x10-14

d)1x10-5

228.Oneli
tr
eofwat
ercont
ains10-7mol
esofH+i
ons.Per
cent
agedegr
eeofi
noni
zat
ionof
wateri
s
-
7
a)1.
8x10

8x10-9
b)0.

6x10-7
c)+3.

6x10-9
d)3.

229.Theconcent
rati
onof[H+]andconcentr
ati OH-]ofa0.
onof[ 1M aqueoussol
uti
onof2%
-
14
ioni
zedweakacidis(
ioni
cpr oductofwat
er=1x10 ) .

02x10-3M and5x10-11M r
a)0. espect
ivel
y

b)1x10-3M and3x10-11M r
espect
ivel
y

c)2x10-3M and5x10-12M r
espect
ivel
y
12M and4x10-13M r
d)3x10- espect
ivel
y

230.Theconcent
rat
ionofhy
drogeni H+]i
on[ n0.
01M HCli
s

a)10-12

b)+10-2
-
4
c)
10

10-13
d)

231.Thenumberofhy
drogeni
onsi
n1mlsol
uti
onofpH13i
s

a)10-13

b)1013

023x107
c)+6.

0233x1010
d)6.

232.pHof10-10mol
arHClsol
uti
oni
sappr
oxi
mat
ely

a)10

b)+7

c)1

d)14

233.ThepHofa10-8mol
arsol
uti
onofHCli
nwat
eri
s

a)8

b)-
8

c)Bet
ween7and8

d)+Bet
ween6and7

234.Concent
rat
ionofhy
drogeni
oni
nwat
eri
s

a)8

b)+1x10-7

c)7
d)1

235.Anaqueoussol
uti
onofCuSO4i
s

a)+Aci
dic

b)Basi
c

c)Neut
ral

d)Amphot
eri
c

236.Theaqueoussol
uti
onofFeCl
3isaci
dict
o

a)Aci
dici
mpur
it
ies

b)I
oni
zat
ion

c)+Hy
drol
ysi
s

d)Di
ssoci
ati
on

237.FeCl
3sol
uti
oni
s

a)+Aci
dic

b)Basi
c

c)Neut
ral

d)Amphot
eri
c

238.Aqueoussol
uti
onofsodi
um acet
atei
s

a)Neut
ral

b)c)
Str
ongl
yaci
dic

c)Weakl
yaci
dic

d)+Al
kal
i
ne

239.Anaqueoussol
uti
onofal
umi
niumsul
phat
ewoul
dshow

a)+Anaci
dicr
eact
ion

b)Aneut
ral
react
ion

c)Abasi
creact
ion
d)Bot
haci
dicandbasi
creact
ion

240.Anaqueoussol
uti
onofammoni
um acet
atei
s

a)Fai
ntl
yaci
dic

b)Fai
rl
yaci
dic

c)Fai
ntl
yal
kal
i
ne

d)+Al
mostneut
ral

241.Whi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
saci
dsal
t?

a)Na2S

b)Na2SO3

c)+NaHSO3

d)Na2SO4

242.Whi
chsal
tcanbecl
assi
fi
edasanaci
dsal
t?

a)Na2SO4

b)Bi
OCl

c)Pb(
OH)
Cl

d)+Na2HPO4

243.Whi
chonei
snotanaci
dsal
t?

a)Na2H2PO4

b)+NaH2PO2

c)NaH2PO3

d)Noneoft
heabov
e

244.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngsal
tswhendi
ssol
vedi
nwat
erhy
drol
yse?

a)NaCl

b)+NH4Cl

c)KCl

d)Na2SO4
245.Whi
chonewi
llnotbehy
drol
ysed?

a)+Pot
assi
um ni
tr
ate

b)Pot
assi
um cy
ani
de

c)Pot
assi
um succi
nat
e

d)Pot
assi
um car
bonat
e

246.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngsal
tunder
goeshy
drol
ysi
s?

a)+CH3COOK

b)KCl

c)NaNO3

d)d)
K2SO4

247.Anaqueoussol
uti
onofammoni
um car
bonat
eis

a)Weakl
yaci
dic

b)+Weakl
ybasi
c

c)St
rongl
yaci
dic

d)Nei
theraci
dicnorbasi
c

248.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngdi
ssol
vesi
nwat
ert
ogi
vei
sneut
ralsol
uti
on

a)(
NH4)
2SO4

b)+Ba(
NO3)
2

c)Cr
Cl3

d)CuSO4

249.Theaq.Sol
uti
onofasal
tisal
kal
ine.Thi
sshowst
hatsal
tismadef
rom

a)Ast
rongaci
dandst
rongbase

b)Ast
rongaci
dandweakbase

c)Aweakaci
dandweakbase

d)+Aweakaci
dandst
rongbase
250.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngaqueoussol
uti
onwi
llhav
eapHl
esst
han7.
0?

a)KNO3

b)NaOH

c)+FeCl
3

d)NaCN

251.Addi
ti
onofwhi
chchemi
caldecr
easest
hehy
drogeni
onconcent
rat
ionofanacet
icaci
d
sol
uti
on?

a)+NH4Cl

b)Al
2(
SO4)
3

c)AgNO3

d)NaCN

252.Abuf
fersol
uti
onchangesi
tspH

a)I
ncr
easei
npH

b)Decr
easei
npH

c)+Nochangei
npH

d)Nochangei
nel
ect
ri
cal
conduct
ivi
ty

253.Aboutbuf
fersol
uti
onwhi
chi
nincor
rect
?

a)I
tcont
ainsaweakaci
dandi
tsconj
ugat
ebase

b)I
tcont
ainsaweakbaseandi
tsconj
ugat
eaci
d

c)+I
tshowschangei
npHonaddi
ngsmal
lamountofaci
dorbase

d)Al
loft
heabov
e

254.Whi
chsol
uti
onsar
emi
xedt
ofor
m abuf
fersol
uti
on?

a)St
rongaci
dandi
tssal
tofaweakbase

b)Weakaci
dandi
tssal
tofast
rongbase

c)+Weakaci
dandi
tssal
tofaweakbase

d)St
rongaci
dandi
tssal
tofast
rongbase

255.Whi
chi
sabuf
fersol
uti
on?
a)+CH3COOH+CH3COONa

b)CH3COOH+CH3COONH4

c)CH3COOH+NH4Cl

d)NaOH+NaCl

256.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sabuf
fer
?

a)NaOH+CH3COONa

b)NaOH+Na2SO4

c)K2SO4+H2SO4

d)+NH4OH+NH4Cl

257.Whi
chi
snotabuf
fersol
uti
on?

a)NH4Cl
+NH4OH

b)CH3COOH+CH3COONa

c)+CH3COONa

d)Bor
ax+Bor
icaci
d

258.pHofbl
oodi
s

a)Lesst
han6

b)+Gr
eat
ert
han7andl
esst
han8

c)Gr
eat
ert
han8andl
esst
han9

d)Gr
eat
ert
han10

259.Combi
nat
ionusedi
npr
epar
ati
onofbuf
fersol
uti
oni
s

a)+Acet
icaci
d+Sodi
um acet
ate

b)Bor
icaci
d+Bor
ax

c)Ci
tr
icaci
d+Sodi
um ci
tr
ate

d)Al
l

260.Gi
venamet
oposi
ti
vel
ychar
gedpar
ti
cles:
а)r
adi
cal
s;
b)mol
ecul
es;
c)ani
ons;
d)+cat
ions.

261.Whatsubst
ancei
sappl
iedi
nmedi
cinet
ocor
rectaci
dosi
s?
a)NaNO2;
b)+NaHCO3;
c)Na2CO3;
d)KMnO4.
262.Wat
eri
sthebestmedi
um f
orel
ect
rol
ytesdi
ssoci
ati
onduet
oit
s:
a)Hi
ghheatcapaci
ty;
b)Hi
ghpol
ari
tyofmol
ecul
es;
c)Lowf
reezi
ngpoi
nt;
d)+Lowwat
eri
oni
zat
ionconst
ant
.
263.Weakel
ect
rol
ytesar
echar
act
eri
zedby
:
a)I
oni
zat
ionper
cent
;aci
dioni
zat
ionconst
ant
;basei
oni
zat
ionconst
ant
;
b)I
oni
cst
rengt
h;
c)Concent
rat
ionofagasi
nasol
uti
on;
d)+I
onpr
oductf
orwat
er.
264.Gast
ri
cjui
cepHi
sappr
oxi
mat
ely1.Thehy
drogeni
onsmol
ari
tyi
niti
s:
а)0.
01M;
b)0.
001M;
c)+0.
1M;
d)1.
0M.

265.
Buf
fercapaci
tyofasol
uti
ondependsupon:
a)+Nat
ureofcomponent
s;t
her
ati
oofconcent
rat
ionsofbuf
fercomponent
s.
b)At
mospher
icpr
essur
e;
c)Boi
l
ingpoi
nt;
d)Vaporpr
essur
e.

266.Accor
dingt
otheBr
onst
edt
heor
yaci
dsar
edef
inedas:
а)El
ect
ronsdonor
s;
b)El
ect
ronsaccept
ors;
c)+Pr
otonsdonor
s;
d)Pr
otonsaccept
ors.

267.Speci
fywhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngsy
stemscanbecl
assi
fi
edasabuf
fersy
stem:
a)KCl
/HCl
;
b)KHSO4/
H2SO4;
c)NaH2PO4/
Na2HPO4;
d) +NH3/
NH4Cl
.

268.St
rongel
ect
rol
ytesar
echar
act
eri
zedby
:
a)I
oni
cst
rengt
hofsol
uti
on;
act
ivi
tycoef
fi
cientofel
ect
rol
ytes;
b)I
oni
zat
ionconst
antofwat
er;
c)Aci
dioni
zat
ionconst
ant
;
d) +Al
lanswer
sar
eri
ght
.

269.Poi
ntoutt
hebuf
fersy
stemofbl
oodpl
asma:
а) +Hemogl
obi
nbuf
fersy
stem;
oxy
hemogl
obi
nbuf
fersy
stem;
b)Acet
atebuf
fersy
stems;
ammoni
abuf
fersy
stems;
c)Hy
drocar
bonat
ebuf
fersy
stems;
acet
atebuf
fersy
stems;
d)
Hydr
ophosphat
ebuf
fersy
stem;
ammoni
abuf
fersy
stem.

270.Accor
dingt
otheBr
onst
edt
heor
ybasesar
edef
inedas:
а)El
ect
ronsdonor
;
b)El
ect
ronsaccept
ors;
c)Pr
otonsdonor
s;
d) +Pr
otonsaccept
ors.

271.Theaci
d-basest
ateofbl
oodi
sdet
ermi
nedof
:
a) +pHv
alue,HCO3-concent
rat
ionandpr
essur
eofCO2;
b)pOHv
al H+andOH-concent
ue, rat
ion;
c)pHv
alue,CH3COO-andH+concent
rat
ion;
d)concent
rat
ionofH+andOH-.

272.Compl
exsubst
ancesorcompoundcl
assesar
edi
vi
dedi
nto
a)+oxides,acid,base,sal
t
b)oxides,base
c)Alkali
s,salt,
oxides
d)Amphol ytes,
Alkali
s

273.Electr
olyt
esunderdi ssoci
ati
onasani
onsfor
mingonl
y¬¬¬¬_
___
___
___
ionsar
ecal
led
bases.
a) +hy dr
oxide(OH- )
+
b)hydrogen(H )
c)ammoni umcat ion(NH+4)
d)hydrogencations(H +)andhydroxi ons(OH 
dei -
)

274.El
ectrol
ytesthatunderdi
ssoci
ati
onascat
ionsf
orm onl
y¬_
___
___
__i
onsar
ecal
led
aci
ds.
a)hydroxi
de(OH- )
+
b)+hy ogen(
dr H )
c)ammoni umcation(NH+4)
d)(H 
+)andhy droxi ons(OH 
dei -
)

275.Thesal
tfor
medbyaweakbaseandst
rongaci
d(hy
drol
ysi
sbycat
ion)pHwi
llbe?
a)+pH<7
b)pH>7
c)pH~7
d)pH=7

276.Thesal
tfor
medbyast
rongbaseandst
rongaci
dpHofsol
uti
onwi
llbe?
a)pH<7
b)pH>7
c)pH~7
d)+pH=7

277.Thesal
tfor
medbyast
rongbaseandweakaci
d(hy
drol
ysi
sbyani
on)pH ofsol
uti
onof
wil
lbe?
a)pH<7
b) +pH>7
c)pH~7
d)pH=7
278.Thesal
tfor
medbyaweakaci
dandweakbase(
hydr
oly
sisbycat
ionandani
on)pHwi
ll
be?
a)pH<7
b)pH>7
c)+pH~7
d)pH=7

279.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofcesi
um chl
ori
de
a)aci
dic
b)basi
c
c) +neutr
al
d)noneofthem

280.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofcal
cium chl
ori
de
a)aci
dic
b)basic
c) +neutr
al
d)noneofthem

281.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofammoni
um chl
ori
de
a)+aci di
c
b)basic
c)neut
ral
d)noneofthem

282.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofcopperchl
ori
de
A+)acidic
b)basi
c
c)neut
ral
d)noneofthem

283.Deter
mi neaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofbari
um chl
ori
de
a)aci
dicb)basic
c)+neut r
al
d)noneofthem
e
284.Deter
mi neaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofstr
onti
um chl
ori
de
a)+acidic
b)basi
c
c)neutr
al
d)noneoft hem

285.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofi
ronchl
ori
de
a)+acidic
b)basic
c)neut
ral

d)noneoft
hem
286.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofi
ronsul
phat
e
a)+acidic
)basi
c
c)neut
ral
d)noneofthem

287.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofst
ront
ium sul
phat
e
a)+acidic
b)basic
c)neut
ral
d)noneofthem

288.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofcoppersul
phat
e
a)+acidic
b)basi
c
c)neut
ral
d)noneofthem

289.Determi
neaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofammoni
um sul
phat
e
a)+aci di
c
b)basic
c)neutr
al
d)noneofthem

290.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofbar
ium acet
ate
a)aci
dic
b)+basi c
c)neutr
al

d)noneoft
hem

291.Determineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofpot
assi
um acet
ate
a)aci
dic
b)+basic
c)neutr
al
d)noneofthem

292.Deter
mineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofsodi
um acet
ate
a)aci
dic
b)+basic
c)neut
ral

l
d)noneoft
hem

293.Determineaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofcal
cium acet
ate
a)aci
dic
b)+basi c
c)neut
ral
d)noneoft
hem

294.Determi
neaci
dit
yofsol
uti
onofbar
ium sul
phi
te
a)aci
dic
b)+basi
c
c)
d)c)
neut
ral
e)d)noneoft
hem
295.Det
ermi
nepHof0.
1M sol
uti
onofpot
assi
um hy
droxi
de
a)2
b)11
c)+13
d)7
296.Det
ermi
nepHof0.
1M sol
uti
onofsodi
um hy
droxi
de
a)2
b)10
c)1
d)+13
297.Det
ermi
nepHof0.
1M sol
uti
onofcesi
um hy
droxi
de
a)2
b)+13
c)1
d)7

298.pHofbuff
ersol
uti
ondependsuponconcent
rat
ionof
a)aci
d(H+-
)
b)conj
ugat
ebase(OH-)
-
c)sal
t
d)+bothAandB

299. 
PHcanbekeptconst
antwi
thhel
pof
a)satur
atedsol
uti
on
b)unsatur
atedsol
uti
on
c)+buffersol
uti
on
d)supersat
urat
edsol
uti
on

300. 
Buffer
spr esenti
nbl
oodcont
ain
a)HCO3-
b)hemoglobin
c)H2PO4-
d)+allofthem

301. 
Enzy me( carbonicanhy
drase)i
susedi
n
a)+aerobicrespirati
on
b)anaerobicrespirat
ion
c)tr
anspirati
on
d)photosynthesis

302. Oneofbestcatal
ystwhi
chi
ncr
easesr
ateofr
eact
ionbymi
ll
iont
imesi
s
a)carboli
canhydr
ase
b)c)carbol
ichy
drase

c)+car
boni
canhy
drase

d)d)
car
boni
chy
drase

303.Whi
chofthefol
lowingcouldbeaddedtoasol
utionofsodium acet
atetopr
oducea
buf
fer
?acet
icacidhydrochl
ori
cacidpot
assi
um acetat
esodium chlor
ide

a)hydrochl
ori
cacidonl
y
b)+acet icaci
donly
c)sodium chl
ori
deorpotassi
um acet
ate
d)acet
icacidorhydr
ochl
oricaci
d

304.Whenamet alrepl
aceshydrogenat
om thencompoundf
ormi
s
a)oxide
b)ether
c)+sal t
d)al
cohol
305.Whenaci dreactswithmetalcar
bonat
e,product
sare
a)salt
b)wat er
c)carbondi oxi
de
d)+al lofabove
306.Sal tamongf ol
lowingis
a)HCl
b)+KCl
c)HNO3
d)H3PO4
e)
307.Processi nwhi chaci H+)andbases(
ds( OH-)r
eactt
ofor
m sal
tsandwat
eri
scal
led
a)+neut ral
ization
b)hydrogenat i
on
c)halogenation
d)subli
mat i
on

308.Basi
cfor
mul
aformonobasi
caci
dis
a)AH
b)+HA
c)Ha
d)aH

309.Posi t
ionofequi l
ibri
um wil
lbelef
tifv
alueofKa 
is
a)high
b)+low
c)same
d)const ant
310.Val ueofKacanbecal culat
edbydetermini
ng
a)concent rationofacid
b)concent rationofwatermolecul
es
c)pHofsol ution
d)+bot hAandB
311.PHofweakaci dcanbecalcul
atedbyknowing
a)concent rationofacid
b)valueofKa
c)wat erpot ential
d)+bot hAandB

312.Kaiscalled
a)+aciddissociati
onconstant
b)basedissociati
onconstant
c)Avogadroconst ant
d)sal
tdissoci
at i
onconstant

313.Whichoneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sa 
weak 
aci
d?
a)HNO3
b)HI
c)HBr
d)+HNO2

314.
Whichsal
tis 
not
 der
ivedf
rom ast
rongaci
dandast
rongsol
ubl
ebase?
a)MgCl2
b)Ba(NO3)
2
c)+LiClO4
d)CsBr
315.Whichoneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sast
rongel
ect
rol
yte?
a)H2O
b)+KF
c)HF
d)HNO2

316.
Whi choft
hef
oll
owi
ngweakaci
dsi
oni
zest
ogi
vet
he 
str
ongest
 conj
ugat
ebase?
a)HClO
b)CH3COOH
c)HF
d) +HCN

317.Ast
rongerbase:

a)i
sal
soast
rongeraci
d;

b)t
ast
essour
;

c)+i
sal
soast
rongerel
ect
rol
yte;

d)y
iel ewerOH-i
dsf onsi
nsol
uti
on

318.WhenHCl
(aq)r
eact
swi
thZn(
s)t
hepr
oduct
sfor
medar
e:

a)wat
erandasal
t;

b)anaci
dandabase;

c)+asal
tandhy
drogengas;

d)anonmet
aloxi
d

319. Asubst
ancei
saddedt
oasol
uti
oncont
aini
ngt
wodr
opsofphenol
pht
hal
ein.The
sol
uti
ont
hent
urnspi
nk.Whi
chsubst
ancewoul
dpr
oducet
hiscol
orchange?

a)HCl
;

b)H2CO3;

c)+KOH;

d)CH3CH2OH;

320.Li
tmusi
sr heH+concent
edwhent rat
ioni
nthesol
uti
oni
s:
a)1×10-11M;

b)+1×10-5M;

-
7
c)1×10 M;

d)1×10-6M;

321.Asubst
ancei
sdi
ssol
vedi
nwat
erandt
heonl
yposi
ti
vei
onsi
nthesol
uti eH+i
onar ons.
Thi
ssubst
ancei
s:

a)KOH;

b)
CH4

c)+H2SO4;

d)NH3

322.Whi
chi
str
ueaboutasol
uti
ont
hati
saci
dic?

H+]equal
a)[ szer
o;

H+]i
b)[ slesst OH-]
han[ ;

OH-]equal
c)[ s[H+]
;

H+]i
d)+[ sgr
eat
ert OH-]
han[

323.Accor
dingt
otheBr
onst
ed-
Lowr
ytheor
y,abasecan:

a)donat
eapr
oton;

b)
donat
eanel
ect
ronpai
r;

c)y
i dH+i
el ons;

d)+accept
orofpr
otons.

324.Whatv
olumeof0.
200M NaOH(
aq)i
sneededt
oneut
ral
ize4

0.
0mLofa0.
100M HCl(
aq)
?
a)100.
0mL;

b)80.
0mL;

c)40.
0mL;

d)+20.
0mL

325.Asanaci
dicsol
uti
oni
sti
tr
atedwi
thdr
opsofbase,
thepHv
alueoft
hesol
uti
onwi
ll
:

a)+i
ncr
ease;

b)r
emai
nthesame;

c)decr
ease;

d)appr
oachzer
o

326.Whi
chpHv
aluedemonst
rat
esasol
uti
onwi
tht
hegr
eat
estconcent
rat
ionofOH-i
ons?

a)1;

b)7;

c)10;

d)+14.

327.Ther
eact
ion:HI
(aq)+Li
OH(
aq)→H2O(
l)+Li
I(
aq)i
scl
assi
fi
edas:

a)asi
ngl
erepl
acement
;

b)t
hepr
ocessofhy
drol
ysi
s;

c)+aneut
ral
i
zat
ionr
eact
ion;

d)asy
nthesi
sreact
ion;

328.Howmanyt
imesst
rongeri
sanaci
dwi
thapHof2t
hananaci
dwi
thapHof5?

a)ApHof2i
sthr
eet
imesasst
rong;

b)+ApHof2i
sonet
housandt
imesasst
rong;
c)ApHof2i
sthr
eet
imesasweak;

d)ApHof2i
sonet
housandt
imesasweak;

329.Whi
chsubst
ancebel
owi
sexpect
edt
obet
hest
rongestel
ect
rol
yte?

a)chl
orousaci
d; b)acet
icaci
d;

c)+per
chl
ori
caci
d;

d)hy
pochl
orousaci
d

330.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngst
atement
sist
rue?

a)NaCl
isaneut
ral
sal
t; c)HCl
andKOHr
eactt
ofor
m hy
drogengasandwat
er.

b)KOHi
sanaci
d; d)NaBri
sbasi
csal
t.

331.Whi
chpai
ri
ngi
snotasetofconj
ugat
es?

a)OH-andH2O; c)HCl -
andCl
;

b)HC2H3O2andC2H3O2-; d)NH3andNH4+;

332.Whi
chr
eact
ionbel
owi
sincor
rectbasedupont
her
eact
ant
sgi
ven?

a)HF+Li
OH→ H2O+Li
F; c)SO2+H2O→ H2SO3;

b)+2HCl
+Zn→ H2O+ZnCl
2; d)K2O+H2O→ 2KOH;

333.Whi
chcompoundbel
owi
snotcor
rect
lypai
redwi
thi
tsname?

a)KOHi
spot
assi
um hy
droxi
de;

b)H2SO3i
ssul
fur
ousaci
d;

c)HIi
shy
droi
odi
caci
d;

d)+HCl
O2i
schl
ori
caci
d

334.Whi
chsal
thasasol
ubi
li
tyt
hati
sdi
ff
erentf
rom t
heot
her?

a)AgCl
; b)PbBr
2; c)Ca3(
PO4)
2; d)+Na2CO3
335.Asol
uti
onofasal
tand100gr
amsofwat
ert
hatcanst
il
ldi
ssol
vemor
esol
uteata
gi
vent
emper
atur
eiscl
assi
fi
edas:

a)+unsat
urat
ed; b)super
sat
urat
ed; c)sat
urat
ed;d)di
l
ute

336.Theneti
oni
cequat
ionf
ort
her
eact
ionbet
weenCaCl
2andNa2CO3 t
ofor
m cal
cium
car
bonat
eandsodi
um chl
ori
dewoul
dincl
udeal
loft
hef
oll
owi
ngexcept
:

-
a)
Cl; b)+2Na+; c)CaCO3d)al
loft
hesubst
ancesabov
e

337.Whi
chsol
uti
onl
ist
edbel
owi
sgoi
ngt
ohav
ethehi
ghestboi
li
ngpoi
nt?

a)1.
5m NaCl
; c)2.
0m C6H12O6;

b)1.
5m AgCl
; d)+2.
0m CaCl
2

338.Whi
chequat
ioni
scor
rect
lybal
anced?

a)Na+Cl
2→ 2NaCl
;

b)CH4+3O2→ CO2+H2O;

c)+2KI+Pb(
NO3)
2→ 2KNO3+PbI
2;

d)H2SO4+KOH→ K2SO4+H2O;

Uni
t2.

El
ect
rochemi
str
y.Redoxr
eact
ions.

339.Sul
phurhasl
owestoxi
dat
ionnumberi
n
a)
H2SO3 b)
SO2 c)
H2SO4 d)+H2S
340.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmol
ecul
escanactasanoxi
dizi
ngaswel
lasar
educi
ngagent
:
a)
H2S b)
SO¬3 c)+H2O2 d)
F2
341.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngagenti
fthemostoxi
dizi
ng:
a)
O3 b)+KMnO4 c)
H2O2 d)
K2Cr
2O7

342.I
nther
edoxr
eact
ion:xCr
Cl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2Cr
O4+NaCl
+H2O
a)
X=2y
=4z=10 b)
x=2y
=6z=5 c)
x=2y
=3z=8 d)+x=2y
=3z=10
343.Reduct
ioni
nvol
ves
a)
Lossofel
ect
rons c)
Incr
easei
nthev
alencyofposi
ti
vepar
t
b)+Gai
nofel
ect
rons d)
Decr
easei
nthev
alencyofnegat
ivepar
t
344.Thest
rongestr
educi
ngagenti
s
a)
HNO2 b)+H2S c)
H2SO3 d)
SnCl
2

345.Anel
ect
rol
ytei
sone
a)
Whi
chconduct
sel
ect
ri
ccur
rentc)+Whi
chdi
ssoci
atesi
ntoi
onsbydi
ssol
vi
ngi
nasui
tabl
e
sol
vent
b)
Whi
chi
scapabl
eofi
oni
zat
ionbypassi
ngel
ect
ri
ccur
rent d)
Noneoft
heabov
e

346.Conduct
ivi
tyofasol
uti
oni
sdi
rect
lypr
opor
ti
onalt
o
a)
Dil
uti
on b)+numberofi
onsc)
cur
rentdensi
ty d)
vol
umeoft
hesol
uti
on

347.Oxi
dat
ionnumberofni
tr
ogeni
n(NH4)
2SO4i
s:
a)
-1/
3 b)-
1 c)+1 d)+-
3

348.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sani
nsul
ator
?
a)Gr
aphi
te b)Al
umi
nium c)+Di
amond d)
Sil
i
con

349.I
nther
edoxr
eact
ion:xKMnO4+y
NH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O
a)
X=4y
=6 b)+x=8y
=3c)
x=8y
=6 d)
x=3y
=8

350.Coef
fi
cientbef
oreHNO3 i
ngi
venr
eact
ionMnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(
NO3)
2+H2O
a)+10 b)8 c)2 d)5
351.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sthest
rongestoxi
dizi
ngagent
?
a)+F2
b)
Cl2

c)
Br2

d)
I2
352.Oxi
dat
ioni
nvol
ves
A)+Lossofel
ect
rons
b)
Incr
easei
nthev
alencyofnegat
ivepar
t
c)
Gai
nofel
ect
rons
d)
Decr
easei
nthev
alencyofposi
ti
vepar
t

353.i
nel
ect
rol
ysi
s,oxi
dat
iont
akespl
aceat
a)+Anode
b)
Cat
hode
c)
Bot
hA&B

d)
Thesur
faceoft
heel
ect
rol
ytesol
uti
on

354.I
nH2O2,
theoxi
dat
ionst
ateofoxy
geni
s
a)
-2
b) +-
1
c)0
d)-
4

355.Thecompoundwhi
chcoul
dactbot
hasoxi
dizi
ngaswel
lasr
educi
ngagenti
s:
a)+SO2
b)
CaO
c)
Al2O3

d)
CrO3

356.
Inwhi
chr
ed-
oxr
eact
iondi
ff
erentat
omsofsamesubst
ancechangeoxi
dat
ionnumber
s
a)i
nter
mol
ecul
ar
b)i
ntr
amol
ecul
ar
c) +di
spr
opor
ti
on
d)noneoft
hem

357.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sapoorconduct
orofel
ect
ri
cit
y?
a)CH3COONa
b)+C2H5OH
c)
NaCl

d)
KOH

358El
ementaccept
ingel
ect
ronsi
scal
led
a)pr
oduct
b)+oxi
dant
c)r
eact
ant
d)r
educt
ant

359.
Oneoft
hef
oll
owi
nghasbot
hposi
ti
veandnegat
iveoxi
dat
ionst
ates:
a)
F
b)+Cl
c)
He
d)
Na

360.
Theoxi
dat
ionnumberofni
tr
ogenv
ari
esf
rom:
a) +-
3to+5
b)
-1t
o+1
c)
-3t
o-5

d)-
5to+1

361.
Str
ongel
ect
rol
ytesar
ethosewhi
ch
a)
Dissol
ver
eadi
l
yinwat
er
b)
Dissoci
atei
ntoi
onsathi
ghdi
l
uti
on
c)
Conductel
ect
ri
cit
y
d)+Compl
etel
ydi
ssoci
atei
ntoi
onsatal
ldi
l
uti
ons

362.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngconduct
sel
ect
ri
cit
y?
a)cr
yst
alNaCl
b)
diamond
c)+mol
tenKBr
d)
sul
phur

363.i
nel
ect
rol
ysi
s,oxi
dat
iont
akespl
aceat
a)+Anode
b)
Cat
hode
c)
Bot
hA&B

d)
Thesur
faceoft
heel
ect
rol
ytesol
uti
on

364.Chooseequat ionf orelect


rodepot
ent
ialofzi
ncel
ect
rode
0 n+
a)+φ=φ +RT/ nFlnaMe
b)φ=RT/nFl na1/a2
c)φ=φ0+RT/ nFl
naox/ared
d) V=Ae-E/Rt

365.Chooseequat ionf orelectr


odepot
ent
ialofconcent
rat
iongal
vani
ccel
l
0 n+
a)φ=φ +RT/ nFlnaMe
b)φ=RT/ nFlna1/a2
c) +φ=φ0+RT/ nFlnaox/ared
-
E/Rt
d)V=Ae

366.Oxidat
ionNumberofHal
ogensar
e:
a) +-1
b)-2
c)+4
d)0

367.Oxidat
ionNumberofOxy
geni
s:
a)+1
b)+ -
2
c)-4
d)0

368.Chooseequat ionf orelect


rodepot
ent
ialofr
ed-
oxel
ect
rode
0 n+
a)φ=φ +RT/ nFl
naMe
b)φ=RT/ nFlna1/a2
c)+φ=φ0+RT/ nFlnaox/ared
-E/
Rt
d) V=Ae
369.Chooseequat i
onf orel ect
rodepot
ent
ialofchemi
calgal
vani
ccel
l
0 n+
a)φ=φ +RT/ nFlnaMe
b)φ=RT/ nFlna1/a2
0
c) +φ=φ +RT/ nFlnaox/ared
d)φ=φ0cu-φ0Zn+RT/ nFlnacu/azn

370.Inwhichr ed-
oxreact
ionat
omsofdi
ff
erentsubst
anceschangeoxi
dat
ionnumber
s
a) +inter
mol ecul
ar
b)doubleexchange
c)i
ntramolecular
d)di
sproporti
on

371.Inwhichred-oxreact
ionoxi
dat
ionnumberofsameel
ementi
schanged
a)i
ntermolecul
ar
b)doubleexchange
c)counterdi
sproport
ion
d)+disproport
ion

372.Elementloosi
ngel
ect
ronsi
scal
led
a)pr oduct
b)oxidant
c)reactant
d)+r eductant

373.El
ect
rochemi
str
yist
hebr
anchofchemi
str
ythatdeal
swi
th:
a)+t
hei
nter
conv
ersi
onofel
ect
ri
cal
ener
gyandchemi
cal
ener
gy;
b)t
heheatener
gyassoci
atedwi
thchemi
cal
react
ions;
c)t
hesci
ent
if
icst
udyoft
hest
ruct
ure,
proper
ti
esandr
eact
ionsofor
gani
ccompounds;
d)t
hest
udyofmacr
oscopi
c,at
omi
c,subat
omi
c,andpar
ti
cul
atephenomenai
nchemi
cal
sy
stemsi
nter
msoft
hepr
inci
ples,
pract
icesandconcept
sofphy
sics.

374.I
nwhatcaset
her
eisanoxi
dat
ionpr
ocess:

a)KMnO4→MnO2;

b)HNO2→NO2;

c)Cl
2O→HCl
;

d)+P→H3PO4.
375.Poi
ntoutt
hecor
rectst
atement
s:
a) +A conj
ugat
epai
rofoxi
dizi
ngandr
educi
ngagent
sischar
act
eri
zedbyi
tsr
educt
ion
pot
ent
ial
;
/
b)Ar
educt
ionpot
ent
ial
canbecal
cul
atedbyt
heRauol
tsequat
ion;
c)Hi
ghr
educt
ionpot
ent
ial
scor
respondt
oweakoxi
dizi
ngagent
s;
d)Lowr
educt
ionpot
ent
ial
scor
respondt
oweakr
educi
ngagent
s.

376.Poi
ntoutt
hecoef
fi
cientbef
oret
her
educi
ngagenti
nthef
oll
owi
ngequat
ion:
K2Cr
2O7+KI+HCl→ Cr
Cl3+I
2+KCl+H2O
а)1;
b)+6;
c)14;
d)
3.

377.Whatpr
oduct
sar
efor
medatr
educt
ionr
eact
ionofKMnO4i
nthepr
esenceofbase?

a)Mn(
OH)
2;

b)MnO42-;

c)+MnO2;

d)Mn2+.

378.Whatr
eact
ionsoccur
ri
ngi
naqueoussol
uti
onsar
eredox?

a)Fe2O3+HCl
;

b)+FeCl
3+H2S;

c)Fe+HCl
;

d)SO3+NaOH.

379.Poi
ntoutt
hecoef
fi
cientbef
oret
her
educi
ngagenti
nthef
oll
owi
ngr
eact
ion:
KMnO4+H2O2+H2SO4→ MnSO4+O2+K2SO4+H2O

а)2; b)+5; c)10; d)3.

380.Anoxi
dizi
ngagenti
sanat
om,
amol
ecul
eorani
on,
whi
ch:
а)+accept
sel
ect
rons;
b)donat
esel
ect
rons;
c)i
ncr
easesi
tsoxi
dat
ionnumber
;
d)decr
easesi
tsconcent
rat
ion.

381.Poi
ntoutt
heschemef
orgal
vani
ccel
lthatconsi
stsf
rom zi
ncandcopper
el
ect
rodesdi
ppedi
ntot
hei
rsal
tsol
uti
ons:
Zn+2(
a)Zn| aq)
|Cu+2(
aq)
|Cu;
Zn+2(
b)Cu| aq)
|Cu+2(
aq)
|Zn;
Cu+2(
c)Cu|
| Zn+2(
aq)| aq)
|Zn;
Zn+2(
d)+Zn| aq)
|Cu+2(
| aq)
|Cu.

382.Theoxi
dat
ionnumberf
orhy
drogeni
nNaHi
s:
a)1+; b)2+; c)0; d)+1-

383. Oft
hecompoundsbel
ow,i
nwhi
chonedoeschl
ori
nehav
ethehi
ghestoxi
dat
ion
number
?a)HCl
; b)KCl
O3; c)HCl
O2; d)+KCl
O4

384.I
nther
eact
ionAl+Fe3+→Al
3+
+Fe,
theoxi
dizi
ngagenti
s:

a)Al
; b)Fe; c)+Fe3+; 3+
d)Al

385.WhenFe2+i
soxi
di oFe3+,
zedt theFe2+i
on:

;
a)+l
oses1el
ect
ronb)l
oses1pr
oton; c)gai
ns1el
ect
ron;d)gai
ns1pr
oton

2+ 3+
386..I
nthechemi
calcel
lreact
ion2Cr+3Ni → 2Cr +3Ni
,whi
chspeci
esi
sreduced?

2+ 3+
a)Cr
;b)+Ni ;c)Cr ; d)Ni

2+
387.Whent
heequat
ionCo+Ni →Co3++Nii
sbal
anced,
thesum oft
hecoef
fi
cient
sis:

a)2; b)3; c)5; d)+10


388.Whati
sthepur
poseoft
hesal
tbr
idgei
nanel
ect
rochemi
calcel
l?

a)i
tal
l
owsi
onmi
grat
ion; c)+i
tal
l
owsel
ect
ronmi
grat
ion;

b)i
tal
l
owsneut
ronmi
grat
ion; d)i
tpr
event
sionmi
grat
ion;

389.Maki
ngr
efer
encet
oel
ect
ronegat
ivi
tyv
alues,
whi
chsubst
ancei
smosteasi
l
yreduced?

a)Br
2; b)Cl
2; c)+F2; d)I
2

390.Whennonspont
aneousr
edoxr
eact
ionsoccurbyuseofanext
ernalcur
rent
,the
pr
ocessi
scal
led:

a)neut
ral
i
zat
ion; b)est
eri
fi
cat
ion; c)+el
ect
rol
ysi
s; d)hy
drol
ysi
s

Bi
ogeni
cel
ement
s.

391.Cobal
tasabi
ogeni
cel
ementi
sfound:

a)i
nmol
ecul
eofcy
tochr
omeb

b)+i
nmol
ecul
eofv
itami
nB12

c)i
nmol
ecul
eofcat
alase

d)i
nmol
ecul
eofv
itami
nB6

392)Zi
ncasabi
ogeni
cel
ementi
scomponentof
:

a)enzy
mecat
alase

b)+enzy
mesuper
oxi
dedi
smut
ase

c)cy
tochr
omeP450

d)gl
utat
hioneper
oxi
dase

393)Reducedi
ntakeofv
itami
nscauses:

a)hy
per
vit
ami
nosi
s

b)+hy
pov
itami
nosi
s

c)av
itami
nosi
s

d)aci
dosi
s

394)Vi
tami
nAdef
ici
encycancause:
a)+xer
oft
almi
a

b)i
ncr
easedbl
oodcoagul
ati
on

c)gr
owt
haccel
erat
ion

d)anemi
a

395)Thener
vousact
ivi
tymal
funct
ionsar
eaconsequenceofhy
pov
itami
nosi
sof
:

a)v
itami
nD

b)+v
itami
nB1

c)v
itami
nK

d)t
hiami
ne

396.ZnO i
s used as

a)pr
otect
ive

c)+bot
h(a)& (
b)

b)ast
ri
ngent

d)ant
idot
e

397.I
nor
gani
c ant
imi
crobi
al agent can be

a) oxi
dat
ion

b) pr
otei
n pr
eci
pit
ate

c) hal
ogenat
ion

d)+al
loft
he abov
e

398.Hy
drogen per
oxi
de i
s used as

a)+ant
isept
ic

b) aci
dif
ying agent

c) pr
otect
ive

d) ant
ioxi
dant

399.KMnO4 sol
uti
ons ar
e used f
or

a)ant
ibact
eri
al
b) ant
if
ungal

c)+bot
hoft
heabov
e

d)ant
ioxi
dant

400.Al
lli
vi
ngsy
stemscomposedf
rom si
xor
ganogeni
cel
ement
s.Chooset
hese

el
ement
s:

a)
.C,
N,As,
B,Al
,Cl
;

b)+H,
P,S,
C,O,
N;

c)
.O,
Cl,
Na,
K,Ca,
Mg;

d)
.H,
F,Br
,Bi
,As,
I;

401.Choosebi
ogeni
cmacr
oel
ement

a)
Cu

b)+P

c)
Br

d)
As

402.Choosebi
ogeni
cmi
croel
ement
a)+Cu
b)S
c)Ca
d)Mg

403.Particl
esofmi crohet
erogeneoussy
stemshav
esi
zesof
a) gr
eat erthan10-3cm
b)+10-5 -10-3cm
c)10-7 -10-5cm
d) l
esst han10-7cm

404.Sixmajorbiogenicelements:
a)Essenti
alelementsnecessaryonlyinverysmal lquanti
tiestomaintainthechemical
react
ionson whichli
fedepends. 
b)ElementsfoundinmanyofEar th’sl
ivi
ngsy stems, and/orinrel
ati
velysmallquanti
ti
es
c)+Elementsf oundinalmostallofEart
h’sli
vingsy stems, of
teni
nrelati
velyl
argequanti
ti
es
d)Elementsthatareinthefir
stgroupoft heper i
odictabl
e.

405.
Fivemi norbi
ogenicelements:
a)El
ement sfoundinalmostallofEar
th’
sli
vi
ngsy
stems,oft
eninr
elat
ivel
ylar
gequant
it
ies
b)Essent
ialelementsnecessar
yonlyinver
ysmal
lquant
it
iestomaint
ainthechemi
cal
r
eacti
onson whichli
fedepends.
 
c)El
ementsthatareinthesecondgroupoftheperi
odi
ctable.
d)+Element
sf oundinmanyofEarth’sl
iv
ingsyst
ems,and/orinr
elat
ivel
ysmal
lquant
it
ies

406.Tr aceelement s:
a)Element sfoundinmanyofEar th’
sli
vi
ngsystems,and/orinrel
ati
velysmallquant
it
ies
b)El ementst hatar
ei nthesecondgroupoftheperi
odictable.
c)Element sfoundinal mostall
ofEarth’
sli
vi
ngsy st
ems, of
teninrel
ativel
ylar
gequantit
ies
d)+Essent ialelementsnecessaryonlyi
nverysmallquanti
ti
estomai ntai
nthechemical
reactionson whichlif
edepends. 

407.Macr oel
ements 
(ormacr
omi
ner
als)–t
hecont
enti
ntheor
gani
sm i
smor
ethan:
-
7 -
12
a)10 % -10 %
-
3 -

b)+10 –10 %
-
9
c)
10 %
d)10-2%

408.Mi croelement
s(ort
raceel
ement
s)–t
hecont
enti
ntheor
gani
sm i
s:
-2
a)+10 %
b)10-9%
c)10-3–10-5 %

d)10-7% -10-12

409.Choosebi
ogeni
cmi
croel
ement
a)O
b)S
c)N
d)+Zn

410.Choosebi
ogeni
cmi
croel
ement
a)O
b)+Fe
c)N
d)C

411.Choosebi
ogeni
cmi
croel
ement
a)O
b)S
c)N
d)+I

412.Choosebi
ogeni
cmacr
oel
ement
a)+P
b)Cl
c)Cu
d)I
Choosebi
ogeni
cmacr
oel
ement
a)Pb
b)+Ca
c)I
d)Ne

413.Choosebi
ogeni
cmacr
oel
ement
a) Pb
b)l
c)+O
d)Mn

414.Choosebi
ogeni
cmacr
oel
ement
a) Pb
b)+C
c)Cu
d)I

Compl
excompounds.

415.Oxi
dati
onnumberofcobal
tinK[
Co(
CO)
2Cl
4]i
s:
a)+1
b)++3
c)-
1
d)-3

416.Acoordinat
ioncompoundconsist
sof
a)amet al
ionandcount eri
ons
b)l
igandsboundt ocounteri
ons
c)acomplexionandcount eri
ons
d)+amet ali
onboundt ooneormoreli
gands

417.Theoxi
dat
ionnumberofcobal
tinK3[
Co(
NO2)
6]i
s:
a)0
b)+4
c)++3
d)+6

418.Namet hefoll
owingcoor dinati
oncompound:
K4[
Fe(CN) 6]
a)t
etr
apot assi
umhexacy anoferrat
e(II
)
b)potassium hexacyanoferr
ate(II
I)
c)pot assium cy
anoferrate(
II)
d) +potassium hexacyanoferrate(I
I)

419.Thecoor
dinat
ionnumberi
s:
a) +Thenumberofdonorat omssurr
oundi ngthecent
ral
met alat
om i
nacompl
exi
on
b)Themoleculesorionsthatsurr
oundthemet al i
nacomplexion
c)Theatom i
nal i
gandthatisbounddirect
lytot hemet
alatom
d)Thenumberofposi t
ivel
ychargedparti
clesinthecomplex

420.Numberofhem sect
ionsi
nmi
ogl
obi
n
a)+1
b)2
c)3
d)4

421.Det
erminet
ypeof[
Cu(
NH3)
2]Cl
2
a)+cati
onic
b)ani
oni
c
c)monodent
ate
d)neutr
al

422.Et hyl
enediami
newoul
dbecal
led
a)dentate
b)+bi dentat
e
c)tr
identate
d)t
etradentat
e

423.Namet hefoll
owingcoor dinationcompound:
[
Cr(NH3)3(H2O)3]
Cl3
a)tri
ammi netri
aquachromium( I
II)tr
ichlor
ide
b)tri
ammi neaquachromium(III
)t ri
chlori
de
c) +t r
iammi netr
iaquachr
omi um( II
I)chlori
de
d)
amminet r
iaquachromium(II
I)chlor i
de

424.Whi choft hef


oll
owi
ngar
ebi
dentat
eligands?
(1)oxalate,-C2O42- (
4)hydroxi
de
(2)ammoni a,
NH3 (5)ni
tri
te,NO2-
-
(3)chlori
de,Cl (6) en
a)1,4,5
b)1,5,6
c)+1, 6
d)2, 3,4,5

425.Whati
sthechar
geoft
hecent
ralmet
ali
oni
n ?
a)0
b)1+
c)2+
d)+3+

426.Numberofhem sect
ionsi
nhemogl
obi
n
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)+4

427.Acceptorofel
ect
ronsi
ncoor
dinat
ioncompound
a)+cent rali
on
b)l
igands
c)outerspherei
ons
d)all
constit
uent
s

428.
Compl exfor
mingabi
li
tyi
nthesequenceofd-
p-s-
element
s
a)does’
tchang
b)i
ncreases
c)+decr easi
s
d)none

429.
Dissosi
ati
onofcompl
exi
scar
ri
edouti
n…st
eps
a)0
b)1
c)+2andmor e
d)al
way swi
thoutst
eps

430.Dent
ant
nessofpor
fyr
in
a)2
b)+4
c)6
d)5

431.Parti
clesplayi
ngr
oleofl
igandsar
e
a)positi
veions
b)chelates
c)+negat iveions
d)compl exions
3+ –
432.Acompl exioncont
ainsaCr boundt
ofourH2Omol
ecul
esandt
woCl i
ons.Wr
it
eit
s
formula.
a)[
Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
b)[(H2O)Cr4Cl2]
c)[
Cr (
H2O)4Cl2]
d)+[ CrCl
2(H2O)4]

433.Whatar
etheoxi
dat
ionnumber
soft
hemet
alsi
nK[
Au(
OH)
4]?
a)+1
b)++3
c)-
2
d)0

434.Whi
chamongt
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sapol
ydent
atel
igand?
a)car
bony
l; b)ni
tr
o;

b)

c)acet
ate;

d)+oxal
ate.

435.Wr i
tethef ormulaof t
etr
aaquadi
chl
orochr
omi
um(
II
I)
chl
ori
de?
a)+[ Cr(
HOH) 4C l
2]Cl
b)[(
HOH) 4Cl2C r]Cl
c)[(
HOH) 4CrCl2] Cl
d)[Cr(HOH)4C l
2C l
]

436.Whati sthesy stemat i


cnameofPt(
NH3)
2Cl
2?
a)+Di amminedichloropl
atinum( I
I)
b)Dichlor
odiammi neplati
num( II
)
c)Pl
at i
num(II)
diammi nedichloro
d)Dichlor
oplati
num( I
I)di
ammi ne
2+
437.Whatisthesy stemati
cnameofCu(
NH3)
4 ?
a)+Tetraammi necopper(
II
)
b)Copper t
etr
aammi ne(I
I)
c)Tetr
aammi ne(II
)copper
d)Tetr
a(II
)ammi necopper

438.Li
gand«
en»i
sanexampl
eof
:

a) +bi
dent
atel
i
gand;

b)monodent
atel
i
gand;

c)t
ri
dent
atel
i
gand;

d)hexadent
atel
i
gand.

439.TheI UPACnameofXe[ PtF6]i


s
a) 
   
Hexafluori
dopl
ati
nate( VI)xenon
b) 
   
Xenolhexafl
uori
doplati
nat e(V)
c) 
  + Xenonhexafluori
doplatinate(VI
)
d)   
 Xenoniumhexafl
uoridoplati
num (V)

440.Det
erminet
ypeofK2[
CuCl
4]compl
ex
a) cat
ioni
c
b)+anioni
c
c)tr
igonal

d)neut
ral

441.Donorofelectr
onsi
ncoor
dinat
ioncompound
a)centr
alion
b)outerspher
eions
c) +li
gands
d) none

442.Compl exfor
mingabi
li
tyi
nrawofs-
p-d-
element
s
a)doesn’tchange
b)+increases
c)decreases
d)noneofthem

443.Coor
dinat
ionnumberofi
roni
nhem
a)2
b)3
c)5
d)+6

444.Dent
atnessofEDTA
a)2
b)3

c)+4
d)6

445.Wit
hr i
seofi
nstabi
li
tyconstantofcompl
exit’
sst
abil
it
y
a) i
ncreases b)doesn’tchange c)+decreasesd)noneoft
hem

446.Theoryofcr y
stalf
ieldexplai
nsf
ormat
ionofcompl
exesont
hebaseof
a)rateofreacti
on
b)+donor -acceptori
nteract
ion
c)protonsnumber
d)electr
ostati
cmodel

447.Part
icl
esplayi
ngrol
eofcent
rali
onar
e
a)+posi ti
veions
b)neutr
almolecul
es
c)negati
veions
d)complexions

448.Fi
ndl
igandofweakf
iel
d
a) +OH-
b)Au
c)CN-
d)Fe2+
2+
449.Whatisthesyst
emat i
cnameofCo(
H2O)
6 ?
a)+Hexaaquacobalt(
II
)
b)Hexaaqua(I
I)
cobal
t
c)Cobal
t(I
I)
hexaaqua
d)Cobalt
hexaaqua(
II
)

450.Writethef ormul
aof Pot
assi
um hexacy
anof
err
ate(
II
I)
a)+K3[ Fe(CN) 6]
b)(CN)6[FeK2]
c)Fe[K2(CN)6]
d)[FeK2(CN)6

451.Whatisthesy stemat i
cnameof[ Cr(H2O)4Cl
2]
Cl?
a)tet
raaquadi
chlorochromi um(
III
)chl
oride
b)chl
oridet
etr
aaquadi chlor
ochromium(II
I)
c)+tetr
aaquadichlorochromiumchlor
ide(I
II
)
d)tet
raaqua(I
II
)dichlorochromi
umchloride

452.
Writ
et hef ormul
aoft
ri
s(et
hyl
enedi
ami
ne)
cobal
t(
II
)sul
fat
e
a)[
(en)
3Co] SO4
b)[
SO4(en)3]Co
c)[
Co(en)3S O4]
d)+[Co(en) 3]
SO4

+
453.Whatar
ethegeomet
ryoft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompl
ex:[
Ag(
NH3)
2] ?

a)l
i
near
;

b)oct
ahedr
al;

c)+t
etr
ahedr
al;

d)t
ri
gonal

454.Theor yofvalentbondsexpl
ainsf
ormat
ionofcompl
exesont
hebaseof
a)rateofreacti
on
b)donor-accept
orinter
acti
on
c)protonsnumber
d)+el ectr
ostat
icmodel

455.Fi
ndli
gandofst
rongf
iel
d
-
a)OH
b)Au
-
c)Cl
d)+NH3
456.Dentatnessofli
gandis
a)numberofcent r
alions
b)chargeofcent r
alion
c)+numberofbondsofl igandwi
thcent
ral
ion
d)ion’
st otalnumber

Uni
t3.

Col
loi
ds.
457.Di
sper
sesy
stemsconsi
stsof
:

a)+di
sper
sionmedi
um,
disper
sedphase

b)emul
sions,
suspensi
ons,
aer
osol
s

c)coar
sesy
stem,
col
l
oidsy
stems,
truesol
uti
ons

d) sol
,gel

458.Di
sper
sesy
stemsbyt
hepar
ti
clesi
zear
ecl
assi
fi
edi
nto:

a)di
sper
sionmedi
um,
disper
sedphase

b)+coar
sesy
stem,
col
l
oidsy
stems,
truesol
uti
ons

c)emul
sions,
suspensi
ons,
aer
osol
s

d)sol
,gel

459.Whati
sadi
sper
sesy
stem?

a)I
tismi cr
ohet
erogeneoussy
stem wi
thahi
ghl
ydev
elopedi
nter
nal
sur
facebet
weent
he
phases.

b)+Itisdisper
sionsyst
em i
nwhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphaseandt
hedi
sper
sionmedi
um ar
e
mutual
lyimmiscibl
eli
qui
d.

c)I
tisdi
sper
sionsy
stem i
nwhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphasei
ssol
i
dandt
hedi
sper
singmedi
um –
l
i
quid.

d)I
tissuspensi
onoff
inepar
ti
clesofl
i
qui
dsorsol
i
dsi
nthegas.

460.Coar
sesy
stemsi
ncl
ude:
a)+emul
sions,
suspensi
ons,
aer
osol
s

b)mol
ecul
ar,
ioni
c,mol
ecul
ari
oni
c

c)sol
,gel

d)Gel
,suspensi
ons.

461.Whati
stheEmul
sion?

a)I
tismi cr
ohet
erogeneoussy
stem wi
thahi
ghl
ydev
elopedi
nter
nal
sur
facebet
weent
he
phases.

b)+I
tisdi
sper
sionsyst
em inwhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphaseandt
hedi
sper
sionmedi
um ar
e
mut
uall
yimmisci
blel
iqui
d.

c)I
tisdi
sper
sionsy
stem i
nwhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphasei
ssol
i
dandt
hedi
sper
singmedi
um –
l
i
quid.

d)I
tissuspensi
onoff
inepar
ti
clesofl
i
qui
dsorsol
i
dsi
nthegas.

462.Whati
sthesuspensi
on?

a)I
tismi cr
ohet
erogeneoussy
stem wi
thahi
ghl
ydev
elopedi
nter
nal
sur
facebet
weent
he
phases.

b)I
tisdisper
sionsy
stem inwhicht
hedi
sper
sedphaseandt
hedi
sper
sionmedi
um ar
e
mutuall
yimmisci
blel
iquid.

c)+I
tisdi
sper
sionsy
stem i
nwhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphasei
ssol
i
dandt
hedi
sper
singmedi
um
–l
iqui
d.

d)I
tissuspensi
onoff
inepar
ti
clesofl
i
qui
dsorsol
i
dsi
nthegas.

463.Whati
stheaer
osol
?

a)I
tismi cr
ohet
erogeneoussy
stem wi
thahi
ghl
ydev
elopedi
nter
nal
sur
facebet
weent
he
phases.

b)I
tisdisper
sionsy
stem inwhicht
hedi
sper
sedphaseandt
hedi
sper
sionmedi
um ar
e
mutuall
yimmisci
blel
iquid.

c)I
tisdi
sper
sionsy
stem i
nwhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphasei
ssol
i
dandt
hedi
sper
singmedi
um –
l
i
quid.

d)+I
tissuspensi
onoff
inepar
ti
clesofl
i
qui
dsorsol
i
dsi
nthegas.
464.Sol
sar
e:

a)gel
ati
n,j
ell
y,mar
mal
ade.

b)+bl
ood,
lymph.

c)gel
ati
n,l
ymph,
mar
mal
ade.

d)Bl
ood,
jel
l
y,mar
mal
ade.

465.Gel
sar
e:

a)+gel
ati
n,j
ell
y,mar
mal
ade.

b)gel
ati
n,l
ymph,
mar
mal
ade.

c)bl
ood,
lymph.

d)bl
ood,
jel
l
y,mar
mal
ade.

466.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:sol
idofdi
scont
inuousphase-gasi
s:

a)medi
cal
product
s

b)col
oredgl
ass

c)+pumi
ce

d)f
og

467.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:sol
id,
discont
inuousphase–l
iqui
dis:

a)Soi
l

b)+Moi
stsoi
l

c)Rocks

d)f
og
468.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:gas,
discont
inuousphasel
iqui
d– i
s:

a)nat
ural
gas

b)+gasf
rom oi
ldr
opl
ets

c)smog

d)col
oredgl
ass

469.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:gas,
discont
inuousphasesol
id– i
s:

a)nat
ural
gas

b)aer
osol
s

c)+dustst
orms

d)pear
l

470.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:l
iqui
d,di
scont
inuousphasel
iqui
d– i
s:

a)Fi
zzydr
inks,
foam

b)+bodyf
lui
ds

c)past
es,
mor
tar

d)smog

471.Col
loi
dalsol
uti
onsi
ncl
ude:

a)+emul
sions,
suspensi
ons,
aer
osol
s

b)mol
ecul
ar,
ioni
c,mol
ecul
ari
oni
c

c)sol
,gel

d)sal
i
nesol
uti
oni
nwat
er

472.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:sol
id,
discont
inuousphase–sol
idi
s:

a)cosmet
icpr
oduct
s
b)por
ouschocol
ate

c)+someal
l
oys

d)f
og

473.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:gas,
discont
inuousphase–gasi
s:

a)Dusti
ntheai
r

b)Aer
osol

c)Fog

d)+Doesnotexi
st

474.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:l
iqui
d,di
scont
inuousphasesol
id– i
s:

a)+Sol
s

b)Emul
sionoi
l

c)Fi
zzydr
inks

d)Fog

475.Di
sper
sionmedi
um:l
iqui
d,di
scont
inuousphasegas– i
s:

a)cr
eam,
mil
k

b)+f
oam

c)past
es

d)chocol
ate

476.Col l
oidpart
icl
eshavesi
zesof
a) gr
eat erthan10-3cm
b)10-5 -10-3m
c)+10-7 -10-5m
d) l
esst han10-7m

477.Det
ermi
nechar
geofcol
loi
dpar
ti
clepr
oducedaccor
dingr
eact
ionВаCl
2(
excess)
+
H2SO4=
a)negati
ve
b)+positi
ve
c)wit
houtchar
ge
d)zero

478.Fi
ndpot enti
aldef
ini
ngi
onsi
nmi
cel
lepr
oducedaccor
dingr
eact
ionВаCl
2+
H2SO4(excess)=
2+
a)+Ba
b)H+
c)SO42-
d)H+

479.Choosedi sper
sionmet
hodofcol
loi
dsy
stemspr
oduci
ng
a)condensati
on
b)changeofsolvent
c)red-oxreacti
on
d)+peptizat
ion

480.Whi
chsubstancemaybemi
cel
le’
saggr
egat
e
a)NaCl
b)+Сa3(PO4)
2
c)CaCl
2
d)FeCl
3

481.Opti
calproper
tyt
ypi
calt
ocol
loi
dsy
stems
a)ref
lecti
on
b)absorpti
on
c)+scatteri
ng
d)dif
fusi
on

482.Findopt i
calpr
oper
ty
a)diffusion
b)osmosi s
c)electroosmosis
d)+absor pt
ion

483.Emulsi
oni
s
a)l/s
b)+l/l
c)s/l
d)g/l

484.Powderi
s
a)l/s
b)l
/l
c)s/l
d)+s/g

485.Fi
ndpar
amet
erwhi
chi
sinequat
ionf
ormol
ecul
ar-
kinet
icpr
oper
ti
es
a)μ
b)η

c)+φ
d)ξ

486.Particlesofcoar
sesyst
emshav
esi
zesof
a)+gr eat han10-5m
ert
b)10-9 -10-7m
c)10-7 -10-5m
d) lesst han10-9m

487.Particlesoftruesolut
ionshav
esi
zesof
a) great erthan10-5m
b)10-5 -10-3 cm
c)10-7 -10-5m
d)+l esst han10-7m

488.Determinechar
geofcol
loi
dpar
ti
clepr
oducedaccor
dingr
eact
ionВаCl
2+H2SO4(
excess)
=
a)+positive
b)negativ
e
c)withoutchar
ge
d)zero

489.Fi
ndpotent
ialdef
ini
ngi
onsi
nmi
cel
lepr
oducedaccor
dingr
eact
ionВаCl
2(
excess)
+
H2SO4=
a)none
-
b)Cl
c)SO42-
d)+Ba2+

490.Choosecondensati
onmet
hodofcol
loi
dspr
oduci
ng
a)coagul
at i
on
b)changeofsol v
ent
c)red-
oxr eact
ion
d)+peptizati
on

491.Whi
chsubst
ancemaybemi
cel
le’
saggr
egat
e
a)+NaNO3
b)Fe(NO3)
3
c)Ca(NO3)2
d)none

492.Whi
chsubst
ancemaybemi
cel
le’
saggr
egat
e
a)+NaNO3
b)AgCl

c)Ca(
NO3)2
d)Ba(
NO3)2

493.Whichsubst
ancemaybemi
cel
le’
saggr
egat
e
a)+NaNO3
b)Fe(
NO3)3
c)PbS
d)Ba(
NO3)2

494.Opt icalproper
tyt
ypi
calt
ocoar
sesy
stems
a)ref
lection
b)scattering
c)+absor pti
on
d)diffusion

495.Findproper
tywhichi
sn’
tmol
ecul
ar-
kinet
icone
a)absor
pti
on
c)Browni
anmov ement
c)+osmosis

d)di
ff
usi
on

496.Aerosoli
s
a)l/
s
b)+l/l
c)s/l
d)s/g

497.Fi
ndpar
amet
erwhi
chi
sinequat
ionf
oropt
icalpr
oper
ti
es
a)μ

b)η

c)m

d) +
498.Mi
xtur
esf
rom whi
chpar
ti
clesset
tl
eoutuponst
andi
ngar
edef
ined:
a)+Suspensi
ons;

b)b)El
ect
rol
ytes;

c)c)Mol
ecul
arsol
uti
ons;

d)d)Al
l
oys.

499.Het
erogeneousmi
xtur
escont
aini
ngpar
ti
clest
hatar
eint
ermedi
atei
nsi
ze:

a)+Col
l
oids;

b)b)
Gasmi
xtur
es;

c)c)Sat
urat
edsol
uti
ons

d);d)Al
l
oys.

500.Thescat
ter
ingofv
isi
blel
ighti
nal
ldi
rect
ionsi
scal
led:

a)Coagul
ati
on;

b)+Ty
ndal
lef
fect
;

b)c)Pept
izat
ion;

c)d)Di
aly
sis.

501.Chaot
icmov
ementofcol
loi
dalpar
ti
clesi
s:

a)Osmosi
s;

b)Di
ff
usi
on;

c)+Br
owni
anmot
ion;
d)Coagul
ati
on .

502.Col
loi
daldi
sper
sionofl
iqui
dsi
nli
qui
dsi
sdef
inedas:

a)+Aer
osol
;

b)b)Emul
sion;

c)c)Sol
;

d)d)Foam.

503.Fogandsmokear
e:

a)+Aer
osol
s;

b)b)Emul
sions;

c)

d)c)Gel
s;

e)d)Foams.

504.Solconsi
stsof
:

a)Li
qui
ddr
opl
etsdi
sper
sedt
hroughoutagas;

b)Sol
i
dpar
ti
clesdi
sper
sedt
hroughoutagas;

c)+Sol
i
dpar
ti
clesdi
sper
sedi
nal
i
qui
d;

d)l
i
qui
ddr
opl
etsdi
sper
sedt
hroughoutanot
herl
i
qui
d.

505.St
abi
li
tyofadi
sper
sesy
stem i
s:
a)Emer
genceofdr
egs;decr
easi
ngofosmot
icpr
essur
e;changi
ngofel
ect
ri
calconduct
ance
andv
iscosi
ty;

b)Pr
ocessofpar
ti
clesi
ntegr
ati
on;

c)Mov
ementoft
hechar
gedpar
ti
clesunderi
nfl
uenceofanext
ernal
elect
ri
cfi
eld;

d)+Const
ancyi
nti
meofi
tsst
ateandmai
npr
oper
ti
es.

506.Aggr
egat
est
abi
li
tyi
sdef
inedbyabi
li
tyofdi
sper
sesy
stemst
ocount
eract
:

a)+Coal
esci
ngofpar
ti
cles;

b)Sedi
ment
ati
onofpar
ti
cles;

c)Dest
ruct
ionofpar
ti
cles;

d)Subdi
vi
sionofpar
ti
cles.

507.Thest
ruct
ureofi
roni
chy
droxi
desol
:

a){
m[Fe(
OH)nFe3+3(
3] n- -3x
}+3xCl
x)Cl -
;

b){
m[BaSO4]nBa2+2(
n- NO3-}
x) 2x+
2xNO3-;

c)+{
m[BaSO4]nSO42-2(
n- K+}
x) 2x-
2xK+;

d){
m[Au]nAuO2-(
n- K+}
x) x-
xK+.

508.Accor
dingt
othemi
cel
lart
heor
y,t
hecol
loi
dalsol
uti
onsst
ruct
ure:solconsi
stsf
rom:

a)+Twopar
ts:
micel
l
aeandi
nter
micel
l
arl
i
qui
d;

b)Pr
eci
pit
ateandwat
er;

c)Mi
xtur
eofgases;
d)At
omsandi
ons.

509.Themet
hodsofcl
eani
ngcol
loi
dalsol
uti
onsar
e:

a)Compensat
iondi
aly
sis;
dial
ysi
s;

b)Condensat
ion;
cry
stal
l
izat
ion;

c)Subl
i
mat
ion;
dist
il
lat
ion;

d)+Fi
l
trat
ion;
ult
raf
il
tr
ati
on.

510.Di
sper
sephaseofspar
kli
ngdr
inksi
s:

a)N2;

b)H2O;

c)+CO2;

d)O2.

511.Aer
osoli
s:

a)Powder
;

b)Dustcl
oud;

c)Hai
rspr
ay;

d)
+Al
lanswer
sar
eri
ght
.

512.Emul
sioni
s:

a)+Mi
l
k;
b)b)Foam;

c)c)Jel
l
y;

d)d)Fog.

513.Bi
ologi
calgeli
s:

a)+Car
ti
lage;

b)ai
r;

c)cl
ouds;

d)r
iverwat
er.

514.Thesi
mil
ari
tyofsuspensi
onandemul
sioni
sto:

a)Thesear
ehet
erogeneoussy
stems;

b)Par
ti
clesar
evi
sibl
ewi
tht
henakedey
e;

c)Theyar
eeasi
l
ybesi
eged;

d)+Al
lanswer
sar
eri
ght
.

515.Coar
sedi
sper
sesy
stem i
s:

a)Sol
uti
on;

b)
Sol
;

c0+Suspensi
on;

d)
Gel
.
516.Chr
omat
ogr
aphyi
s:

a)+Themet
hodofsepar
ati
onofhet
erogeneousmi
xtur
es;

b)At
ypeofdi
sper
sesy
stems;

c)Acont
inuousphase;

d)Themet
hodofsepar
ati
onofhomogeneousmi
xtur
es.

517.I
nwar
dfor
cet
hatt
endst
omi
nimi
zet
hesur
facear
eaofal
iqui
discal
ledas:

a)+Sur
facet
ensi
on;

b)Sur
faceener
gy;

c)I
nter
nal
ener
gy;

d)Heatofdi
ssol
uti
on.

518.Aer
osol
swi
thal
iqui
ddi
sper
sephasear
ecal
led:

a)+Fog;

b)Dust
;

c)Smoke;

d)St
eam.

519.Di
sti
ngui
shacol
loi
dalsol
uti
onandat
ruesol
uti
onaccor
dingt
othef
oll
owi
ng:

a)Col
or;

b)Tr
anspar
ence;
c)+Si
zeofpar
ti
cles;

d)Odor
.

520.Emul
sioni
s:

a)+But
ter
;

b)b)Ri
verooze;

c)c)St
ainedgl
ass;

d)d)Text
il
efabr
ics.

521.Def
inet
hedi
sper
sephaseaggr
egat
ivest
atei
nfog:

a)+Li
qui
d;

b)Sol
i
d;

c)Gas;

d)Al
lanswer
sar
eri
ght

522.Whatcondensedmet
hodsofobt
aini
ngt
hecol
loi
dsy
stemsar
ebasedon?

a)Onthecr
ushi
ngofsol
i
dmat
eri
alsorl
i
qui
dsanddi
sper
sionoft
hei
rpar
ti
cles t
hroughouta
l
iqui
d;

b)Ont
hei
ntegr
ati
onofpar
ti
clesatt
heaggr
egat
ionofmol
ecul
esandi
ons;

c)Onthecr
ushi
ngofsol
i
dmat
eri
alsorl
i
qui
dsanddi
sper
sionoft
hei
rpar
ti
cles t
hroughouta
gas;

d)+Ont
hesol
obt
aini
ngf
rom apr
eci
pit
ati
onusi
ngpept
izat
or.

523.Suspensi
onsaccor
dingt
othedegr
eeofdi
sper
sit
yar
e:
a)+Coar
sedi
sper
sed;

b)Col
l
oidal
;

c)Mol
ecul
ar;

d)Tr
uesol
uti
on.

524.Coagul
ati
oni
s:

a)Chaot
icmov
ementofpar
ti
cles;

b)Di
ssoci
ati
onofel
ect
rol
ytesol
uti
ons;

c)Dest
ruct
ionoft
henat
ivepr
otei
nst
ruct
ure;

d)+Thepr
ocessbywhi
cht
hedi
sper
sedphaseofacol
l
oidi
smadet
oaggr
egat
eandt
her
eby
separ
atef
rom t
hecont
inuousphase.

525.Opt
icalpr
oper
ti
esofdi
sper
sedsy
stemsar
e:

a)Vi
scosi
ty,
flowabi
l
ity
;

b)+Opal
escence,
li
ghtabsor
pti
on;

c)Di
ff
usi
on,
Browni
anmot
ion;

d)di
ssol
uti
on,
swel
l
ing.

526.El
ect
ro-
kinet
icphenomenoni
s:

a)Opal
escence;

b)El
ect
rodi
aly
sis;

c)Li
ghtabsor
pti
on;

d)+El
ect
rophor
esi
sandel
ect
roosmosi
s.

527.Ami
cel
lewhi
chi
sfor
medasar
esul
toff
ormat
ionofadoubl
eel
ect
ri
clay
eri
s:
a)Negat
ivel
ychar
ged;

b)El
ect
roneut
ral
;

c)Posi
ti
vel
ychar
ged;

d)+Negat
ivel
yandposi
ti
vel
ychar
ged.

528.Di
ff
erencebet
weencol
loi
dsandcr
yst
all
oidsi
sof

a)Di
amet
er

b)
Par
ti
clesi
ze

c)
radi
us

d)+sol
ubi
l
ity

529.Thesi
zeofpar
ti
clesi
nsuspensi
on,
truesol
uti
onandcol
loi
dalsol
uti
onv
ari
esi
nthe
order

a)+suspensi
on>col
l
oidal
>tr
uesol
uti
on

b)
truesol
uti
on>suspensi
on>col
l
oidal

c)suspensi
on>col
l
oidal
=tr
uesol
uti
on

d)noneoft
heabov
e

530.Col
loi
dscanbepur
if
iedby

a)pept
izat
ion

b)coagul
ati
on

c)+di
aly
sis

d)br
edi
car
cmet
hod

531.whi
chi
sanat
uralcol
loi
d?

a)sodi
um chl
ori
de

b)
urea

c)
canesugar

d)+bl
ood
532.Whi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotacol
loi
d

a)mi
l
k

b)bl
ood

c)
icecr
eam

d)+ur
easol
uti
on

533.Mi
lki
sacol
loi
dinwhi
ch

a)+al
i
qui
disdi
sper
sedi
nli
qui
d

b)agasi
sdi
sper
sedi
nli
qui
d

c)asol
i
disdi
sper
sedi
nli
qui
d

d)
somesugari
sdi
sper
sedi
nwat
er

534.anaer
osoli
sacol
loi
dalsy
stem of

a)al
i
qui
ddi
sper
sedi
nasol
i
d

b)agasdi
sper
sedi
nai
r

c)+al
i
qui
ddi
sper
sedi
nagas

d)
noneoft
heabov
e

535.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sahomogeneoussy
stem

a)muddywat
er b)
bread c)
concr
ete d)+asol
uti
onofsugari
nwat
er

536.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sanemul
sif
ier
?

a)+soap

b)
wat
er

c)
oil

d)
NaCl

537.Ly
ophobi
ccol
loi
dsar
e

a)r
ever
sibl
ecol
l
oids

b)+i
rr
ever
sibl
ecol
l
oids

c)
prot
ect
ivecol
l
oids
d)
gum pr
otei
ns

538.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmet
hodsi
susedf
ort
hedest
ruct
ionofsol
?

a)
condensat
ion

c)
dif
fusi
ont
hroughani
mal
membr
ane

b)
dial
ysi
s

d)+addi
ti
onofanel
ect
rol
yte

539.Col
loi
dalsol
uti
onsar
enotpur
if
iedby

a)di
aly
sis

b)el
ect
rodi
aly
sis

c)ul
tr
afi
l
trat
ion

d)+el
ect
rophor
esi
s

540.Suspensi
onsar
e

a)+v
isi
blet
onakedey
e

c)i
nvi
sibl
eunderel
ect
ronmi
croscope

b)notv
isi
blebyanymeans

d)i
nvi
sibl
ethr
oughmi
croscope

541.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sly
ophi
li
ccol
loi
d?

a)+gel
ati
n

b)sul
phur

c)gol
d

d)car
bon

542.St
archdi
sper
sedi
nhotwat
eri
sanexampl
eof

a)l
yophi
l
icsol

b)+associ
atedcol
l
oid

c)hy
drophobi
csol

d)emul
sion
543.Theext
rast
abi
li
tyofl
yophi
li
ccol
loi
dsi
sduet
o

a)+char
geont
hei
rpar
ti
cles

b)al
ayerofmedi
um ofdi
sper
sionont
hei
rpar
ti
cles

c)t
hesmal
l
ersi
zeoft
hei
rpar
ti
cles

d)
thel
argesi
zeoft
hei
rpar
ti
cles

544.Ly
ophi
li
csol
sar
emor
est
abl
ethanl
yophobi
csol
sbecause

a)
thecol
l
oidal
par
ti
cleshav
eposi
ti
vechar
ge

b)
thecol
l
oidal
par
ti
cleshav
enegat
ivechar
ge

c)+t
hecol
l
oidal
par
ti
clesar
esol
vat
ed

d)t
her
ear
est
rongel
ect
rost
ati
crepul
sionsbet
weent
henegat
ivel
ychar
gedcol
l
oidal
par
ti
cles.

545.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotapr
oper
tyofhy
drophi
li
csol
s?

a)
highconcent
rat
ionofdi
sper
sedphasecanbeeasi
l
yat
tai
ned

b)+coagul
ati
oni
srev
ersi
ble

c)
viscosi
tyandsur
facet
ensi
onar
enear
lysameast
hatofwat
er

d)
thechargeoft
heparti
cledependsont
hepHv
alueoft
hemedi
um;
itmaybeposi
ti
ve,
negat
ive,
orevenzer
o

546.Whenacol
loi
dalsol
uti
oni
sobser
vedunderanul
tr
ami
croscope,
wecansee

a)
li
ghtscat
ter
edbycol
l
oidal
par
ti
cles

b)
shapeoft
hepar
ti
cle

c)+si
zeoft
hepar
ti
cle

d)
rel
ati
vesi
ze

547.Li
ghtscat
ter
ingt
akespl
acei
n

a)
sol
uti
onofel
ect
rol
yte

b)el
ect
rodi
aly
sis

c)+col
l
oidal
sol
uti
ons

d)
elect
ropl
ati
ng

548.
Maxi
mum coagul
ati
onpoweri
sin
Na+
a)

Ba2+
b)
3+
c)
Al

d)+Sn4+

549.Thecoagul
ati
onpowerofanel
ect
rol
ytef
orAs2S3decr
easesi
ntheor
der

Na+,
a) Al3+
,Ba2+
-
b)
Cl ,SO42-,
PO43-
3+
c)+Al ,Ba2+,
Na+

PO43-,
d) SO42-,
Cl-

550.Ty
ndal
lphenomenai
sexhi
bit
edby

a)
NaCl
sol
uti
on

b)+st
archsol
uti
on

c)
ureasol
uti
on

d)
FeCl
3sol
uti
on

551.Br
owni
anmov
ementormot
ion,
thepat
hsoft
hepar
ti
clesar
e

a)
li
near

b)
cur
ved

c)+zi
gzag

d)
uncer
tai
n

552.Thesepar
ati
onofcol
loi
dalpar
ti
clesf
rom t
hoseofmol
ecul
ardi
mensi
oni
sknownas

a)
Phot
oly
sis

b)+di
aly
sis

c)
pyr
oly
sis

d)
pept
isat
ion

553.Separ
ati
onofcol
loi
dalpar
ti
clesf
rom t
hoseofmol
ecul
ardi
mensi
onwi
thel
ect
ri
cit
yis
knownas

a)
elect
rol
ysi
s
b)+el
ect
rophor
esi
s

c)
elect
rody
aly
sis

d)
noneoft
heabov
e

554.Whichproper
tyofcol
loi
dalsuspensi
oni
susedt
odet
ermi
net
henat
ureofchar
geon
thepart
icl
es?

a)
dial
ysi
s

b)+el
ect
rophor
esi
s

c)
sedi
ment
ati
on

d)
ult
raf
il
tr
ati
on

555.Gel
ati
nismost
lyusedi
nmaki
ngi
ce-
creamsi
nor
dert
o

a)
prev
entmaki
ngofacol
l
oid

b)
stabi
l
izet
hemi
xtur
e

c)+st
abi
l
izet
hecol
l
oidandpr
eventcr
yst
all
i
zat
ion

d)
enr
icht
hear
oma

556.Whi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotr
epr
esent
edbysol
s?

a)
absor
pti
on

b)
tyndal
lef
fect

c)
fl
occul
ati
on

d)+par
amagnet
ism

557.Absor
pti
oni
sthephenomenoni
nwhi
chasubst
ance

a)+accumul
atesi
nthesur
faceoft
heot
hersubst
ance

b)goesi
ntot
hebodyoft
heot
hersubst
ance

c)r
emai
nscl
oset
otheot
hersubst
ance

d)f
ormschemi
cal
bondswi
thot
hersubst
ences.

558.Whichcoll
oidi
susedi
ntr
eat
ingey
edi
sease?
a)+colloi
dalS
b)Col
l
oidalant
imony
c)col
loi
dalgol
d
d)
col
l
oidal
plat
inum

559.As2S3sol i
s
a)posi
ti
vecolloi
d
b)+negat i
vecol l
oid
c)neut
ralcol
loid
d)noneoftheabov e

560.Cl
oudorf
ogi
sanexampl
eofcol
loi
dalsy
stem of

a)+l
i
qui
ddi
sper
sedi
ngas

b)
sol
i
ddi
sper
sedi
ngas

c)
gasdi
sper
sedi
ngas

d)
sol
i
ddi
sper
sedi
nli
qui
d

561.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sacol
loi
d?

a)
sugarsol
uti
on

b)
ureasol
uti
on

c)+si
l
ici
caci
d

d)
NaCl
sol
uti
on

562.Whi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
nnotacol
loi
dalsol
uti
on?

a)smoke

b)i
nk

c)bl
ood

d)+ai
r

563.Mi
lki
s

a)f
atdi
sper
sedi
nmi
l
k

b)+f
atdi
sper
sedi
nwat
er

c)wat
erdi
sper
sedi
nfat

d)wat
erdi
sper
sedi
noi
l

564.Pumi
cest
onei
sanexampl
eofacol
loi
dinwhi
ch

a)
sol
i
disdi
sper
sedi
nli
qui
d
b)
li
qui
disdi
sper
sedi
nasol
i
d

c)+gasi
sdi
sper
sedi
nasol
i
d

d)
sol
i
disdi
sper
sedi
nasol
i
d

565.But
teri
sacol
loi
dfor
medwhen

a)f
ati
sdi
sper
sedi
nwat
er

b)f
atgl
obul
esar
edi
sper
sedi
nwat
er

c)+wat
eri
sdi
sper
sedi
nfat

d)noneoft
heabov
e

566.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotacol
loi
d?

a)+chl
orophy
ll

b)smoke

c)r
ubygl
ass

d)mi
l
k

567.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sahomogeneoussy
stem?

a)
muddywat
er

b)
bread

c)
concr
ete

d)+asol
uti
onofsugari
nwat
er

568.Acol
loi
dalsuspensi
oni
nli
qui
dst
atei
sdef
inedas

a)
gel

b)
homogeneoussol
uti
on

c)+sol

d)
aer
osol

569.I
fdi
sper
sedphasei
sal
iqui
dandt
hedi
sper
sionmedi
um i
sasol
id,
thecol
loi
disknown
as

a)asol
b)+agel

c)
anemul
sion

d)
afoam

570.Acol
loi
dalsy
stem i
nwhi
chgasbubbl
esar
edi
sper
sedi
nal
iqui
disknownas

a)+f
oam

b)
sol

c)
aer
osol

d)
emul
sion

571.Emul
sif
ier
sar
egener
all
y

a)
soap

b)
synt
het
icdet
ergent
s

c)+l
yophi
l
icsol
s

d)
all
oft
heabov
e

572.But
teri
s

a)emul
sion

b)aer
osol

c)suspensi
on

d)+none

573.Thecol
loi
dalsyst
em consi
sti
ngofal
iqui
dasdi
sper
sedphasei
nasol
idasdi
sper
sion
medium i
stermedas

a)
aer
osol

b)+gel

c)
emul
sion

d)
foam

574.Whi
choneofanexampl
eofgel
?

a)
soap

b)
fog
c)+cheese

d)
mil
k

575.Col
loi
dalsol
uti
onofagasi
nagasi
scal
led

a)aer
osol

b)+cannotbepr
epar
ed

c)gasaer
osol

d)gasosol

576.The________
_ofcol
loi
dsareofmaxi
mum import
ancesi
ncetheint
eract
ionoft
he
part
icl
eswi t
heachotherandt
hepri
nci
palphasei
sofpri
maryconcern.
a)Magnitude
b)Shape
c)+Surface
d)Size

577.Whendispersedphasei
sli
qui
danddi
sper
sionmedi
um i
sgast
hent
hecol
loi
dal
syst
em i
scalled

a)
smoke

b)+cl
ouds

c)
jel
l
ies

d)
emul
sions

578.Mi
lki
sanexampl
eof

a)pur
esol
uti
on

b)+emul
sion

c)
gel

d)
suspensi
on

579.Themi
grat
ionofcol
loi
dalpar
ti
clesunderi
nfl
uenceofanel
ect
ri
cfi
eldi
sknownas

a)
elect
ro-
osmosi
s

b)
Browni
anmov
ement

c) +cat
aphor
esi
s

d)
dial
ysi
s
580.Ty
ndal
lef
fectwi
llbeobser
vedi
n

a)+sol
uti
on

b)
preci
pit
ate

c)
sol

d)
vapour

581.Ty
ndal
lef
fecti
ncol
loi
dalsol
uti
oni
sduet
o

a)+scat
ter
ingofl
i
ght

b)
ref
lect
ionofl
i
ght

c)
absor
pti
onofl
i
ght

d)
presenceofel
ect
ri
cal
l
ychar
gedpar
ti
cles

582.TheBr
owni
anmot
ioni
sduet
o

a)
temper
atur
efl
uct
uat
ionwi
thi
nthel
i
qui
dphase

b)
att
ract
ionandr
epul
sionbet
weenchar
gesont
hecol
l
oidal
par
ti
cles

c)+i
mpactofmol
ecul
esoft
hedi
sper
sionmedi
um ont
hecol
l
oidal
par
ti
cles

d)
conv
ect
ivecur
rent
s

583.Theskyl
ooksbl
ueduet
o

a)
disper
sionef
fect

b)r
efl
ect
ion

c)
transmi
ssi
on

d)+scat
ter
ing

584.Thebl
uecol
orofwat
eri
ntheseai
sduet
o

a)
ref
ract
ionoft
hebl
uel
i
ghtbyt
hei
mpur
it
iesi
nseawat
er

b)+r
efl
ect
ionofbl
ueskybyseawat
er

c)
scat
ter
ingofbl
uel
i
ghtbywat
ermol
ecul
es

d)
absor
pti
onofot
hercol
orsexceptt
hebl
uecol
orbywat
ermol
ecul
es
585.Whi
chcol
loi
disusedi
ntr
eat
ingey
edi
sease?

a)+col
l
oidal
S

b)
col
l
oidal
ant
imony

c)
col
l
oidal
gol
d

d)
col
l
oidal
sil
ver

586.Random mot
ionofcol
loi
dalpar
ti
clesi
sknownas

a)
dial
ysi
s

b)+Br
owni
anmov
ement

c)
elect
ro-
osmosi
s

d)
Tyndal
lef
fect

587.i
sanexampl
eofcol
loi
dalsy
stem of

a)
sol
i
ddi
sper
sedi
nli
qui
d

b)
sol
i
ddi
sper
sedi
ngas

c)
li
qui
ddi
sper
sedi
ngas

d)+gasdi
sper
sedi
ngas

588.I
nwhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngTy
ndal
lef
fecti
snotobser
ved?

a)
suspensi
on

b)
emul
sion

c)+sugarsol
uti
on

d)
gol
dsol

589.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sal
yophi
li
ccol
loi
d?

a)
mil
k

b)+gum

c)
fog

d)
blood

590.Smal
lli
qui
ddr
opl
etsdi
sper
sedi
nanot
herl
iqui
dis
a)
suspensi
on

b)+emul
sion

c)
gel

d)
rtuesol
uti
on

591.Themet
hodusual
lyempl
oyedf
ort
hedest
ruct
ionofacol
loi
dalsol
uti
oni
s

a)
dial
ysi
s

b)+addi
ti
onofel
ect
rol
ytes

c)
dif
fusi
ont
hroughani
mal
membr
ane

d)
condensat
ion

592.Ast heconcentrat
ionincr
easest
othecrit
icalmicel
leconcentr
ati
on(
C.M.
C.)soap
part
iclesabruptl
ycollect
edint
ospher
icalst
ructur
escalled____
____
_
a)Ball
b)Spher eofions
c)+Mi cel
les
d)Dirtpart
icl
e

593._______
__isthemov ementofchargedsurf
aceswi
thcor
respondi
ngi
onsandH2Oi
nthe
stat
ionaryli
quidinducedbyanext er
nalfi
eld.
a)Coll
oidalsuspension
b)Emul si
on
c)Sedimentati
onpot enti
al
d)+El ectr
ophoresis

594.Whichoft hef
oll
owi
ngi
sut
il
izedi
nfoam f
ormat
ion?
a)Minerals
b)Vi
tami ns
c)+Pr otei
ns
d)St
arch

595.Athi
ghconcent
rat
ionofsoapi
nwat
er,
soapbehav
esas_
___
___
___
___
_

a)Mol
ecul
arcol
l
oid

b)+Associ
atedcol
l
oid

c)Macr
omol
ecul
arcol
l
oid

d)Ly
ophi
l
li
ccol
l
oid
596.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngwi
llshowTy
ndal
lef
fect
?

a)Aqueoussol
uti
onofsoapbel
owcr
it
ical
micel
l
econcent
rat
ion

b)+Aqueoussol
uti
onofsoapabov
ecr
it
ical
micel
l
econcent
rat
ion

c)Aqueoussol
uti
onofodi
um chl
ori
de

d)Aqueoussol
uti
onofsugar

597.Met
hodbywhi
chl
yophobi
csolcanbepr
otect
ed

a)Byaddi
ti
onofopposi
tel
ychar
gedsol

b)Byaddi
ti
onofanel
ect
rol
yte

c)+Byaddi
ti
onofl
yophi
l
icsol

d)Byboi
l
ing

598.Fr
eshl
ypr
epar
edpr
eci
pit
atesomet
imesget
sconv
ert
edt
ocol
loi
dalsol
uti
onby

a)Coagul
ati
on

b)El
ect
rol
ysi
s

c)Di
ff
usi
on

d)+Pept
isat
ion

599.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngel
ect
rol
yteswi
llhav
emaxi
mum coagul
ati
ngv
aluef
orAgI
/Ag+

a)Na2S

b)Na3PO4

c)Na2SO4

d)+NaCl

(ext
entofadsor
pti
oni
sdi
rect
lypr
opor
ti
onal
tot
heeaseofl
i
qui
fi
cat
ioni
sdi
rect
ly
propor
ti
onaltoTc)

600.Acolloi
dalsy
stem havi
ngasoli
dsubst
anceasadisper
sedphaseandal
iqui
dasa
disper
sionmedium i
sclassi
fi
edas__
____
____
___
___

a)Sol
i
dsol

b)Gel

c)Emul
sion
d) +Sol

601.Thevaluesofcolli
gat
ivepropert
iesofcoll
oidalsol
uti
onar
eofsmal lor
derin
compari
sont othoseshownbyt ruesolut
ionsofsameconcentrat
ionbecauseof
col
loi
dalparti
cles__
_____
_____

a)Exhi
bitenor
moussur
facear
ea

b)Remai
nsuspendedi
nthedi
sper
sionmedi
um

c)For
mly
ophi
l
iccol
l
oids

d)+Ar
ecompar
ati
vel
ylessi
nnumber

Uni
t4

Or
gani
ccompounds.

602.Whi
chel
ementi
spr
esenti
nal
lor
gani
ccompounds?

a)+car
bon

b)
nit
rogen

c)
oxy
gen

d)
phosphor
ous

603.
Whi
chpr
oper
tyi
sgener
all
ychar
act
eri
sti
cofanor
gani
ccompound?

a)+l
owmel
ti
ngpoi
nt

b)
highmel
ti
ngpoi
nt

c)
sol
ubl
einpol
arsol
vent
s

d)
insol
ubl
einnonpol
arsol
vent
s

604.
Compar
edt
other
ateofi
nor
gani
creact
ions,
ther
ateofor
gani
creact
ionsgener
all
yis

a)
slowerbecauseor
gani
cpar
ti
clesar
eions

b)+sl
owerbecauseor
gani
cpar
ti
clescont
aincov
alentbonds

c)
fast
erbecauseor
gani
cpar
ti
clesar
eions

d)
fast
erbecauseor
gani
cpar
ti
clescont
aincov
alentbonds
605.
Whi
chcompoundsar
eisomer
s?

a)+1-
propanol
and2-
propanol

b)
met
hanol
andmet
hanal

c)
met
hanoi
caci
dandet
hanoi
caci
d

d)
ethaneandet
hanol

606.
Whi
chst
atementexpl
ainswhyt
heel
ementcar
bonf
ormssomanycompounds?

a)
Car
bonat
omscombi
ner
eadi
l
ywi
thoxy
gen.

b)
Car
bonat
omshav
ever
yhi
ghel
ect
ronegat
ivi
ty.

c)
Car
bonr
eadi
l
yfor
msi
oni
cbondswi
thot
hercar
bonat
oms.

d)+Car
bonr
eadi
l
yfor
mscov
alentbondswi
thot
hercar
bonat
oms.

607.
Whi
chpol
ymer
soccurnat
ural
ly
?

a)
star
chandny
lon

b)+st
archandcel
l
ulose

c)
prot
einandny
lon

d)
prot
einandpl
ast
ic

608.
Whati
sthenameoft
hecompoundt
hathast
hemol
ecul
arf
ormul
aC6H6?

a)
but
ane

b)
but
ene

c)+benzene

d)
but
yne

609.I
namol ecul
eofCH4,
thehy
drogenat
omsar
espat
ial
lyor
ient
edt
owar
dthecent
ers
ofaregul
ar

a)
pyr
ami
d

b)+t
etr
ahedr
on

c)
squar
e
d)
rect
angl
e

610.I
nwhi chpai
rofhy
drocar
bonsdoeseachcompoundcont
ainonl
yonedoubl
ebond
permolecule?

a)
C2H2 
andC2H6

b)
C2H2 
andC3H6

c)+C4H8 
andC2H4

d)
C6H6 
andC7H8

611. Whi
chcompoundcont
ainanal
coholgr
oup?

a)acet
one

b)met
hanal
e

c)+met
hanol

d)di
met
hyl
ether

612.Thepr
oduct
soft
hef
erment
ati
onofsugarar
eet
hanoland

a)
wat
er

b)
oxy
gen

c)+car
bondi
oxi
de

d)
sul
furdi
oxi
de

613.Whi
chcompoundi
sasat
urat
edhy
drocar
bon?

a)+et
hane

b)
ethene

c)
ethy
ne

d)
ethanol

614.Whatt
ypeofr
eact
ioni
sCH3CH3 
+Cl

->CH3CH2Cl+HCl
?

a)
anaddi
ti
onr
eact
ion

b)
asaponi
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ion
b)+asubst
it
uti
onr
eact
ion

d)
anest
eri
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ion

615.Whati
sthemaxi
mum numberofcov
alentbondst
hananat
om ofcar
boncanf
orm?

a)
1

b)
2

c)
3

d)+4

616.Whi
chcl
assofor
gani
ccompoundscanber
epr
esent
edasR-
-OH?

a)
aci
ds

b)+al
cohol
s

c)
est
ers

d)
ether
s

617.Whi
chmol
ecul
econt
ainsat
otaloft
hreecar
bonat
oms?

a)
2-met
hyl
propane

b)
2-met
hyl
but
ane

c)+pr
opane

d)
but
ane

618.Whatsubst
ancei
smadeupofmonomer
sjoi
nedt
oget
heri
nlongchai
ns?

a)
ket
one

b)+pr
otei
n

c)
est
er

d)
aci
d

619.Dur
ingf
ract
ionaldi
sti
ll
ati
on,
hydr
ocar
bonsar
esepar
atedaccor
dingt
othei
r
a)+boi
l
ingpoi
nts

b)
mel
ti
ngpoi
nts

c)
tri
plepoi
nts

d)
sat
urat
ionpoi
nts

620.Whi
chcompoundi
sanor
gani
caci
d?

a)
CH3OH

b)
CH3OCH3

c)+CH3COOH

d)
CH3COOCH3

621. Mol
ecul
esof1-
propanoland2-
propanolhav
edi
ff
erent

a)
per
cent
agecomposi
ti
ons;

b)
mol
ecul
armasses;

c)
mol
ecul
arf
ormul
as;

d)+st
ruct
ural
for
mul
as.

622. Whi
chcompoundi
sanor
gani
caci
d?

a)
CH3CH2OH;

b)
CH3OCH3;

c)+CH3COOH;

d)
CH3COOCH3.

623. Eachmemberofthealkaneser
iesdi
ff
ersf
rom t
hepr
ecedi
ngmemberbyone
addi
ti
onalcar
bonatom and

a)onehy
drogenat
om;

b)+t
wohy
drogenat
oms;

c)
thr
eehy
drogenat
oms;

d)f
ourhy
drogenat
oms.

624. Whi
chf
ormul
arepr
esent
sasat
urat
edhy
drocar
bon?
a) C2H2;

b)C2H4;

c) C3H6;

d)+C3H8.

625.Themembersoft
heal
kaneser
iesofhy
drocar
bonsar
esi
mil
ari
nthateach
memberhast
hesame

a)+empi
ri
cal
for
mul
a;

b) gener
alf
ormul
a;

c)st
ruct
ural
for
mul
a;

d)mol
ecul
arf
ormul
a.

626. Whatcoul
dbet
henameofacompoundt
hathast
hegener
alf
ormul
aR-
OH?

a)+met
hanol
;

b)met
hane;

c)met
hyl
met
hanoat
e;

d) met
hanoi
caci
d.

627. A compound wi
tht
he f
ormul
a C6H6i
s

a) t
oluene;

b) +benzene;

c)but
ene;

d)pent
ene.

628.C2H4+H2<======>C2H6 Theabov
ereact
ioni
sanexampl
eof_
___r
eact
ion.

a)+ddi
ti
on;

b)subst
it
uti
on;

c)saponi
fi
cat
ion;

d)est
eri
fi
cat
ion.

629.ThecompoundC4H9OHi
sani
somerof

a)C3H7COCH3;
b)
CH3COOC2H5;

c)+H5OC2H5;

d)CH3COOH.

630.Whati
sthet
otalnumberofcar
bonat
omscont
ainedi
nanet
hylgr
oup?

a)1;

b)+2;

c) 3;

d)4.

631.
Whi
chcompoundi
samemberoft
heal
kaneser
ies?

a)+C2H6;

b)C3H6;

c)C4H6;

d)C6H6.

632.Ar
eact
ionbet
weenanaci
dandal
coholpr
oducesanest
erand

a)car
bondi
oxi
de;

b)+wat
er;

c)gl
ycer
ol;

d)et
hanol
.

633.
Thegener
alf
ormul
afort
heal
kyneser
iesi
s

a)CnHn;

b)CnH2n;

c)CnH2n+2;

d)+CnH2n-
2.

634.Whi
chcompoundr
epr
esent
samemberoft
hebenzeneser
ies?

a)acet
ylene;

b)et
hyl
ene;
c)+t
oluene;

d)pr
opene.

635.
Whi
chcompoundi
sani
somerofCH3COOH?

a)+HCOOCH3;

b)
CH3CH2COOH;

c)CH3CH2OH;

d)CH3COOCH3

636.
Whi
chcompoundi
samemberoft
heal
keneser
ies?

a)benz
ene;

b)t
oluene;

c)+acet
ylene;

d)et
hane

637.Al
lcar
bon-
car
bonbondsi
nasat
urat
edhy
drocar
bonmol
ecul
ear
e

a) +si
ngl
ecov
alent
;

b)doubl
ecov
alent
;

c)t
ri
plecov
alent
;

d)coor
dinat
ecov
alent

638.
Whi
chnor
malal
kenehast
hehi
ghestboi
li
ngpoi
ntat1at
mospher
e?

a)C2H4;

b)C3H6;

c)C4H8;

d)+C5H10.

639.
Whi
chr
eact
ionpr
oduceset
hylal
coholasoneoft
hepr
inci
palpr
oduct
s?

a)anest
eri
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ion;

b)aneut
ral
i
zat
ionr
eact
ion;
c)asaponi
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ion;

d)+af
erment
ati
onr
eact
ion.

640.
Giv
ent
hefol
lowi
ngreacti
on:C4H10+Br
2<======>C4H9Br+HBr
.Theabov
ereact
ion
i
sanexampl
eof____
___react
ion.

a)+subst
it
uti
on;

b)addi
ti
on;

c)pol
ymer
izat
ion;

d)f
erment
ati
on.

641.
Inamol
ecul
eofC3H8,
thet
otalnumberofcov
alentbondsi
s

a)11;

b)11;

c)3;

d)+10

642.
Whi
chcompoundi
sanest
er?

a)CH3COOH;

b)CH3CHO;

c)+CH3COOCH3;

d)CH3COCH3.

643.
Thef
erment
ati
onofC6H12O6wi
llpr
oducecar
bondi
oxi
deand

a)apol
ymer
;

b)asoap;

c)anest
er;

d)+anal
cohol
.

644.Compoundswhi
chhav
ethesamemol
ecul
arf
ormul
abutdi
ff
erentmol
ecul
ar
str
uctur
es

ar
ecal
led
a)+i
somer
s;

b)i
sot
opes;

c)al
l
otr
opes;

d)homol
ogs.

645.
Whi
chi
sthef
ormul
aofasat
urat
edhy
drocar
bon?

a)C2H2

C2H4;

c)C5H8;

d)+C5H12.

646.CnH2n+2i
sthegener
alf
ormul
aofahomol
ogousser
ies.Whi
chi
samemberwi
th
thi
s

char
act
eri
sti
c?

a)acet
ylene;

b)benzene;

c)+pr
opane;

d)t
oluene.

647.Amol
ecul
eofet
henei
ssi
mil
art
oamol
ecul
eofmet
hanei
nthatt
heybot
hhav
ethe
same

a)st
ruct
ural
for
mul
a;

b)mol
ecul
arf
ormul
a

c)numberofcar
bonat
oms;

d)+numberofhy
drogenat
oms.

648.
Whi
chi
sthef
ormul
aforet
hanoi
caci
d?

a)CH3COOH;

b)CH3CH2OH;

c)+CH3CH2COOH;

d)CH3CH2CH2OH.
649.
ThecompoundCH3COOCH3i
scl
assi
fi
edas

a)anaci
d;

b)anal
cohol
;

c)+anest
er;

d)ahy
drocar
bon.

650.Eachmemberi
nthealkaneseri
esofhy
drocar
bons,whenconsi
der
edi
nsuccessi
ve
order,has1mor
ecarbonatom andhowmanymor ehydr
ogenatoms?

a)+4; b)8; c)3; d)4.

651.
Whi
chmol
ecul
arf
ormul
arepr
esent
spent
ene?

a)C4H8;

b)C4H10;

c)+C5H10;

d)C5H12.

652.
Amol
ecul
eofwhi
chal
coholcont
ainsmor
ethanonehy
droxy
lgr
oup?

a)pr
opanol
;

b)but
anol
;

c)pent
anol

d)+gl
ycer
ol.

653.
Hydr
ogenbondi
ngi
smostnot
icabl
ein

a)+or
gani
caci
ds;

b)est
ers;

c)al
kynes;

d)al
kanes.

654.
Whi
chmol
ecul
econt
ainsat
ri
plecov
alentbond?

a)+C2H2;

b)C2H4;
c)C3H6;

d)C3H8.

655.
Whi
chf
ormul
arepr
esent
sanaci
d?

a)CH3COOCH3;

b)CH3OH;

c)+CH3COOH;

d)CH3CH2CH3.

656.
Ethylfor
mat ecanbeproducedbyheat
ingconcent
rat
edsul
fur
icaci
d,et
hylal
cohol
andformicacid.Thi
stypeofreact
ioni
scal
led

a)f
erment
ati
on;

b)+st
eri
fi
cat
ion;

c)saponi
fi
cat
ion;

d)pol
ymer
izat
ion.

657.Whi
chf
ormul
arepr
esent
samemberoft
heal
keneser
ies?

a)+C3H6;

b)C2H6;

c)C2H2;

d)C6H6.

658.Et
hyne(
acet
ylene)haswhi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngshapes?

a)t
etr
ahedr
al;

b)pl
anart
ri
angul
ar;

c)+l
i
near
;

d)bent
.

659.Compar
edwi
thor
gani
ccompoundsi
ngener
al,
organi
ccompoundsusual
lyhav
e

a)gr
eat
ersol
ubi
l
ityi
nwat
er;

bat
endencyt
ofor
mionsmor
ereadi
l
y;

b)mor
erapi
dreact
ionr
ates;
d)+l
owermel
ti
ngpoi
nts.

660.Whi
chr
epr
esent
sthef
unct
ionalgr
oupofanor
gani
caci
d?

a) +-
COOH;

b)-
OR;

c)-
CHO;

d)-
NH2.

661.C3H6+H2=C3H8 Theabov
ereact
ioni
sanexampl
eof
___
___r
eact
ion.

a)subst
it
uti
on;

b) +addi
ti
on;

c)pol
ymer
izat
ion;

d)est
eri
fi
cat
ion.

662.Thei
somer
sofpr
opanoldi
ff
eri
n

a)t
henumberofcar
bonat
oms;

b)t
hear
rangementoft
hecar
bonat
oms;

c)+mol
ecul
armass;

d)t
heposi
ti
onoff
unct
ional
group.

663.Whi
chi
sthef
ormul
aofanal
cohol
?

a)Ba(
OH)
2;

b)HCHO;

c)CH3COOH;

d)+C5H11OH.

664.C3H5(
OH)
3Theabov
eor
gani
ccompoundi
scl
assi
fi
edas

a)acar
bohy
drat
e;

b)anest
er;

c)anor
gani
caci
d;

d)+anal
cohol
.
665.Whi
chcompoundcanhav
eisomer
s?

a)C2H4;

b)C2H2;

c)C2H6;

d)+C4H8.

666.C2H4+Br
2=?Whatr
eact
ionoccur
swhent
heabov
echemi
cal
sreact
?

a)
pol
ymer
izat
ion;

b)+subst
it
uti
on;

c)addi
ti
on;

d)est
eri
fi
cat
ion.

667.
Whi
chor
gani
ccompoundi
sapr
oductofaf
erment
ati
onr
eact
ion?

a)CCl
2F2; b)C2H2;

c)+C2H5OH;

d)C2H5OC2H5.

668.
Whi
chor
gani
ccompoundi
sapr
oductofanest
eri
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ion?

a)C3H8;

b)C3H7OH;

c)CH3COOH;

d)+CH3COOCH3.

669.
Whi
chor
gani
ccompoundi
sapr
oductofasaponi
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ion?

a)CCl
4;

b)+C3H5(
OH)
3;

c)C6H6;

d)C6H12O6.
670.
Thest
ruct
ureofanal
kenecont
ains

a)onl
ysi
ngl
ebonds;

b)+adoubl
ebond;

c)t
wodoubl
ebonds;

d)at
ri
plebond.

671.Asthemembersofthealkaneser
iesincr
easei
nmol
ecul
armasst
hemagni
tudeof
thevanderWaal
sforcesbet
weent hemolecul
es

a)decr
eases;

b)+i
ncr
eases;

c)r
emai
nst
hesame;

d)decr
easest
heni
ncr
eases.

672.
Whi
chhy
drocar
bonhasmor
ethanonepossi
blest
ruct
uralf
ormul
a?

a)CH4;

b)C2H6;

c)C3H8;

d)+C4H10.

673.
Whati
sthenumberofhy
drogenat
omsi
namol
ecul
eofet
hyne?

a)6;

b)3;

c)8;

d)+2.

674.
Inanaqueoussol
uti
on,
whi
chcompoundwi
llbeaci
dic?

a)+CH3COOH;

b)C3H5(
OH)
3;

c)CH3CH2OH;

d)CH3OH.

675.
Apr
ocessi
nwhi
chl
argemol
ecul
esar
ebr
okendowni
ntosmal
lermol
ecul
esi
sused
commer
cial
lyt
oincr
easet
hey
iel
dofgasol
inef
rom pet
rol
eum.Thi
spr
ocessi
s

cal
led

a)pol
ymer
izat
ion;

b)hy
drogenat
ion;

c)est
eri
fi
cat
ion;

d)+cr
acki
ng.

676.Or
gani
ccompoundsmustcont
ain

a)oxy
gen;

b)ni
tr
ogen;

c)hy
drogen;

d)+car
bon.

677.Theangl
efor
medbet
weenanyt
wocar
bon-
hydr
ogenbondsi
namol
ecul
eofan

or
gani
ccompoundi
sa(
an)

a)di
hedr
alangl
e;

b)r
ightangl
e;

c)+t
etr
ahedr
alangl
e;

d)acut
eangl
e.

678.Aspeci
fi
car
rangementofsev
eralat
omswhi
chgi
veschar
act
eri
sti
cpr
oper
ti
est
o
an

or
gani
cmol
ecul
eisknownasa(
an)

a)car
boxy
lgr
oup;

b)+f
unct
ional
group;

c)gr
oup;

d)al
kyl
group.

679.
Theabi
li
tyoft
hecar
bonat
om t
ofor
m cov
alentbondsr
esul
tint
hef
ormat
ionof

compoundst
hatar
e

a)+mol
ecul
ar;
b)i
oni
c;

c)pol
ar;

d)at
omi
c.

680.
Howmanycar
bonat
omsar
einonemol
ecul
eof2,
3,
3-t
ri
met
hyl
pent
ane?

a)5;

b)+8;

c)6;

d)13.

681.
Theser
iesofunsat
urat
edhy
drocar
bonscont
aini
ngat
ri
plebondshar
edbet
ween
two

adj
acentcar
bonat
omsi
sknownast
he

a)al
kanes;

b)al
kenes;

c)+al
kynes;

d)benz
enes.

682.
Addi
ti
onr
eact
ionsoccuri
nunsat
urat
edhy
drocar
bonsr
athert
hani
nsat
urat
ed

hy
drocar
bonsbecauseunsat
urat
edhy
drocar
bons

a) +cont
ainmul
ti
plebonds;

b)hav
eagr
eat
ermol
ecul
armass;

c)hav
etet
rahedr
albonds;

d)cont
ainmor
eat
oms.

683.
Adi
hydr
oxyal
coholt
hati
smadef
rom et
hanei
s

a)et
hanol
;

b)gl
ycer
ol;
c) +et
hyl
enegl
ycol
;

d)et
hane.

684.
Alongchai
npr
otei
nisanexampl
eofa(
an)

a)f
at;

b) +pol
ymer
;

c)i
somer
;

d)monomer
.

685.
Whi
chr
epr
esent
sanunsat
urat
edhy
drocar
bon?

a)+C2H4;

b)C2H6;

c)C3H8;

d)C4H10.

686.
Howmanydoubl
ebondsar
einonemol
ecul
eof1,
3-but
adi
ene?

a)1;

b)+2;

c)3;

d)4.

687.
Whi
chi
sani
somerof2-
chl
oropr
opane?

a)but
ane;

b)pr
opane;

c)1-
chl
orobut
ane;

d)+1-
chl
oropr
opane.

688.
Afer
ment
ati
onr
eact
ionandasaponi
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ionar
esi
mil
ari
nthatt
heybot
h

canpr
oduce

a)anest
er;

b)+anal
cohol
;
c)anaci
d;

d)asoap.

689.
Whi
chi
sasat
urat
edhy
drocar
bon?

a)+C3H8;

b)C6H6;

c)C2H5OH;

d)C2H4O2.

690.
Whi
chmol
ecul
ewi
l
lhav
easi
ngl
epibond?

a)benz
ene;

b)+pr
opene;

c)pr
opane;

d)pr
opy
ne.

691.
CH3CH2OH Theabov
eor
gani
ccompoundi
scl
assi
fi
edas

a)acar
bohy
drat
e;

b)anest
er;

c)+anal
cohol
;

d)anor
gani
caci
d.

692.
Whi
chor
gani
cmol
ecul
eunder
goesr
esonance?

a)+benzene;

b)pr
opy
ne;

c)met
hane;

d)et
hanol
.

693.Ast
hemol
ecul
armassoft
hecompoundsoft
heal
kaneser
iesi
ncr
easest
hei
r
boi
li
ng

poi
nts

a)decr
eases;
b)+i
ncr
eases;

c)r
emai
nst
hesame;

d)decr
easest
heni
ncr
eases.

694.Ast
henumberofcar
bonat
omsi
nthemember
soft
heal
keneser
iesi
ncr
eases,
the

r
ati
oofcar
bonat
omst
ohy
drogenat
oms

a)decr
eases;

b)i
ncr
eases;

c)+r
emai
nst
hesame;

d)decr
easest
heni
ncr
eases

695.Whi
chcompoundi
smostl
ikel
ytor
eactbyaddi
ti
on?

a)CH4;

b)+C3H6;

c)C4H10;

d)C5H12.

696.Whi
chal
coholcont
ainst
hreehy
droxy
lgr
oupspermol
ecul
e?

a)pr
opanol
;

b)+gl
ycer
ol;

c)but
anol
;

d)pent
anol
.

697.Tol
uenebel
ongst
othesameser
iesofhy
drocar
bonsas

a)+benzene;

b)pr
opene;

c)pent
ene;

d)but
ene.

698.Ahy
drocar
bonmol
ecul
econt
aini
ngonet
ri
plecov
alentbondi
scl
assi
fi
edasan

a)
alkene;
b)al
kane;

c)+al
kyne;

d)al
kadi
ene.

699.Bot
hcel
lul
oseandpr
otei
nsar
ecl
assi
fi
edas

a)al
dehy
des;

b)est
ers;

c)+pol
ymer
s;

\
d)ket
ones.

700.Thecompound2-
propanoli
scl
assi
fi
edasa

a)+secondar
yal
cohol
;

c)t
ert
iar
yal
cohol
;

d)di
hydr
oxyal
cohol
.

701.Whati
sthet
otalnumberofhy
drogenat
omsi
namol
ecul
eofbut
ene?

a)10;

b)+8;

c)6;

d)4.

702.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundshast
hegr
eat
estpossi
blenumberofi
somer
s?

a)
but
ane;

b)+et
hane;

c)pent
ane;

d)pr
opane.

703.Whi
chi
sthecor
rectmol
ecul
arf
ormul
aofpent
ene?

a)C5H8;

)+C5H10;

c)C5H12;
d)C5H14.

704.Thebondsbet
weent
heat
omsi
nanor
gani
cmol
ecul
ear
egener
all
y

a)i
oni
c;

b)coor
dinat
ecov
alent
;

c)+cov
alent
;

d)hy
drogen.

705.Asthelengt
hofthechai
nofcarbonatomsi
nmolecul
esoft
heal
keneser
ies
i
ncreases,
thenumberofdoublebondspermol
ecul
e

a)decr
eases;

b)i
ncr
eases;

c)+r
emai
nst
hesame;

d)decr
easest
heni
ncr
eases.

706.
Inacondensat
ionpol
ymer
izat
ion,
thet
wopr
oduct
sfor
medar
eapol
ymerand

a)+wat
er;

b)car
bondi
oxi
de;

c)anaci
d;

d)abase.

707.Whi
chi
sthecor
rectmol
ecul
arf
ormul
aof1,
2-et
hanedi
ol?

a)C2H5OH;

b)+C2H4(
OH)
2;

c)C3H5(
OH)
3;

d)C3H6(
OH)
2.

708.I
nther
eact
ionC2H5OH+CH3OH-
->C2H5OCH3+H2O,
theor
gani
ccompound

f
ormedi
s

a)anest
er;

b))aket
one;
c)anaci
d;

d)+anet
her
.

709.
Whi
chcompoundi
sasat
urat
edhy
drocar
bon?

a)et
hene;

b)+et
hane;

c)et
hyl
ene;

d)et
hyne.

710.ThecompoundC2H2bel
ongst
otheser
iesofhy
drocar
bonswi
tht
hegener
alf
ormul
a

a)
CnHn;

b)CnH2n;

c)+CnH2n-
2;

d)CnH2n+2.

711.Whi
chcompoundi
sadi
hydr
oxy
lal
cohol
?

a)Al
(OH)
3;

b)C3H5(
OH)
3;

c)Ca(
OH)
2;

d)+C2H4(
OH)
2.

712.Thenameoft
hecompoundhav
ingt
hef
ormul
aC3H5(
OH)
3is

a)+gl
ycer
ol;

b)et
hyl
enegl
ycol
;

c)pr
opene;

d)pr
opanoi
caci
d.

713.Whi
chor
gani
ccompoundi
saket
one?

a)CH3OH;

)+H3COCH3;

c)CH3COOH;
d)CH3COOCH3.

714.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundshast
hel
owestnor
malboi
li
ngpoi
nt?

a)but
ane;

b)et
hane;

c)+met
hane;

d)pr
opane.

715.Whi
chpr
ocessi
ncr
easest
hey
iel
dofgasol
ineandker
osenef
rom cr
udeoi
l?

a)oxi
dat
ion;

b)+cr
acki
ng;

c)Haber
;

d)cont
act
.

716.Or
gani
ccompoundst
hatar
eessent
ial
lynonpol
arandexhi
bitweaki
nter
mol
ecul
ar

f
orceshav
e

a)+l
owmel
ti
ngpoi
nts;

b)l
owv
aporpr
essur
e;

c)hi
ghconduct
ivi
tyi
nsol
uti
on;

d)hi
ghboi
l
ingpoi
nts.

717.Whati
sthef
ormul
aforpent
anol
?

a)C5H12;

b)+C5H11OH;

c)C4H10;

d)C4H9OH.

718.Whi
chcompoundi
samemberoft
heal
keneser
iesofhy
drocar
bons?

a)benz
ene;

b)+pr
opene;

c)t
oluene;
d)but
adi
ene.

719.Whi
chcompoundcont
ainsat
ri
plebond?

a)CH4;

b)+C2H2;

c)C3H6;

d)C4H10.

720.Whichor
gani
creact
ioni
nvol
vest
hebondi
ngofmonomer
sbyadehy
drat
ion
process?

a)
subst
it
uti
on;

b)oxi
dat
ion;

c)addi
ti
onpol
ymer
izat
ion;

d)+condensat
ion,
pol
ymer
izat
ion.

721.I
ncr
udepet
rol
eum,
fract
ionscanbesepar
atedaccor
dingt
othei
rdi
ff
eri
ngboi
li
ng

poi
ntsby

a)t
hecont
actpr
ocess;

b)t
heHaberpr
ocess;

c)+f
ract
ional
dist
il
lat
ion;

d)cr
acki
ng.

722.
Organi
caci
dsar
ecomposedofa 

a)
C=Ogr
oupatt
heendoft
hechai
n

b)COO–gr
oup

c)+C=OandCOHgr
oupont
hesamecar
bon 

d)
 C=OandCOHgr
oupondi
ff
erentcar
bons

723.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sat
ruest
atement
?

a)
ket
onesareproducedbypl
aci
ngahotcopperwi
rei
ntoapr
imar
yal
cohol
int
he
pr
esenceofanoxidi
zi
ngagent

b)+al
dehy
desar
epr
oducedbypl
aci
ngahotcopperwi
rei
ntoapr
imar
yal
cohol
int
he
pr
esenceofanoxi
dizi
ngagent

c)
ket
onesar
epr
oducedbyoxi
dizi
ngapr
imar
yal
cohol

d)
organi
caci
dsar
ebyoxi
dizi
ngaket
one

724.Or
gani
csal
ts–est
ers–ar
epr
oducedbyr
eact
ing

CH3CH2CH(
CH3)
CCC(
CH3)
2CH3

a)anal
cohol
wit
hanet
her

b)acar
boxy
li
caci
dwi
thaket
one

c) +acar
boxy
li
caci
dwi
thanal
cohol

d)aket
onewi
thanal
dehy
de

725.
Thenameofanest
erpr
oducedbyar
eact
ionbet
weenpr
opanolandet
hanoi
caci
dis

a)+et
hyl
propanoat
e

b)pr
opy
let
hanoat
e

c)pr
opet
hanoat
e

d)noneoft
heabov
e

726.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
scl
assi
fi
edasanet
her
?

a)
CH3CHOHCH3

b)
CH2(
OH)
CH2CH3

c)
CH3CH2CO

d)+CH3OCH3

727.Pol
ymer
sar
e

a)
mol
ecul
esmadeofmonomer
s

b)
mol
ecul
esmadeofr
egul
arl
yrepeat
inguni
tst
hatext
endt
hroughoutamol
ecul
e

c)
macr
omol
ecul
es

d)+al
loft
heabov
e

728.Cl
assi
fyt
hisr
eact
ion:

CH2=CH2+H2O==>C2H5OH
a)Chl
ori
nat
ion

b)Oxi
dat
ion

c)+Hy
drat
ion

d)El
i
minat
ion

729.Thef
ir
stmemberoft
heket
onef
ami
lyi
s:

a)
Met
hanone

b)+Et
hanone

c)
Propanone

d)But
anone

730.Est
eri
fi
cat
ionr
eact
ionsbet
weenanal
coholandacar
boxy
li
caci
drequi
rewhat
cat
alyst
?

a)+Concent
rat
edsul
fur
icaci
d

b)Di
l
utesul
fur
icaci
d

c)Wat
er

d)
None

731.Howdoy
oudi
ff
erent
iat
ebet
weent
woopt
icali
somer
s?

a)+Ther
otat
eatdi
ff
erentr
ates

b)Theyhav
edi
ff
erentcol
our
s

c)Theyhav
edi
ff
erentmel
ti
ng/
boi
l
ingpoi
nts

d)Theyr
otat
ethepl
aneofpol
ari
sedl
i
ghti
ndi
ff
erentdi
rect
ions

732.Whati
sthemostcommonmet
hodofpr
oduci
ngachl
oroal
kane?

a)PCl
3andanal
cohol

b)
HCl
andanal
cohol

c)
HCl
andanal
cohol
,underr
efl
ux

d)+React
ionofanal
cohol
wit
hacar
boxy
li
caci
d,f
oll
owedbyaddi
ti
onofHCl

733.
Whati
sapr
oductwhenanest
eri
shy
drol
ysedunderal
kal
inecondi
ti
ons?

a)Acar
box
yli
caci
d
b)+Acar
boxy
lat
esal
t

c)Wat
er

d)Doesnotr
eact

734.Namet
hismol
ecul
e:

a)+1,
2-di
met
hyl
but
ane

b)3,
4-di
met
hyl
but
ane

c)hexane

d)3-
met
hyl
pent
ane

735.Whatar
eal
cohol
snotusedi
n?

a)
wine

b)
vinegar

c)+pl
ast
ics

d)
met
hyl
atedspi
ri
ts

736.Whati
sther
eact
ionbet
weenanal
coholandcar
boxy
li
caci
dcal
led?

a)hy
drat
ion

b)hy
drol
ysi
s

c)+est
eri
fi
cat
ion

d)
pol
ymer
isat
ion

737.Whati
sthegener
almol
ecul
arf
ormul
aofal
cohol
?

a)+CnH2n+1OH

b)
CnH2nOH

c)
CnH2n+2OH

d)
CnH2n+1COOH

738.Vi
negart
ast
essourbecauseof_
___
__.

a)+et
hanoi
caci
d
b)
ethanol

c)
but
anoi
caci
d

d)
ethy
let
hanoat
e

739.Whi
chi
str
ueaboutet
hanoi
caci
d?

a)
ithasahi
gherboi
l
ingpoi
ntt
hanet
hanol

b)
itdi
ssoci
atescompl
etel
yinwat
er

c)+i
tdi
mer
isesi
nwat
er

d)
itr
eact
swi
thcal
cium car
bonat
etopr
oducecal
cium et
hanoat
eandwat
er

740.est
ersar
e__
___
___
.

a)
madef
rom al
cohol
sandnon-
organi
caci
ds

b)
usedt
omakeper
fumesandf
lav
ori
ngs

c)+poi
sonous

d)
foul
-smel
l
ingcompounds

741.Whatar
epr
oducedwhenet
hanoli
sbur
nscompl
etel
yinai
r?

a)
car
bonmonoxi
deandwat
er

b)
car
bonandwat
er

c) +car
bondi
oxi
deandwat
er

d)
car
bonmonoxi
deandhy
drogen

742.whatar
ethepr
oduct
soft
her
eact
ionbet
weenmet
hanolandet
hanoi
caci
d

a)+et
hyl
met
hanoat
eandwat
er

b)
CH3COOCH3andhy
drogen

c)
met
hyl
ethanoat
eandwat
er

d)
CH3COOCH3andhy
drogen

743.Whati
str
ueaboutcar
boxy
li
caci
ds?

a)
car
boxy
li
caci
dsar
est
rongaci
ds

b)+car
boxy
li
caci
dscanr
eactwi
thmet
als
c)
alkanesoxi
dizet
ofor
m car
boxy
li
caci
ds

d)
car
boxy
li
caci
dscannotf
orm hy
drogenbonds

744.est
eri
fi
cat
ioni
sa_
___
___
___
.

a)
condensat
ionr
eact
ion

b)
ir
rev
ersi
bler
eact
ion

c)
addi
ti
onr
eact
ion

d)+neut
ral
i
zat
ionr
eact
ion

745.Whi
chi
sfal
seaboutt
hef
ormat
ionofet
hanol
?

a)+et
hanol
ispr
oducedt
hrought
hehy
drat
ionofet
hane

b)
ethanol
cont
ainsahy
droxy
lgr
oup

c)
ethanol
isusedasaf
uel

d)
ethanol
isasol
vent

746.Whatar
ethecondi
ti
onsf
ordehy
drat
ionofal
cohol
s?

a)
concent
rat
edhy
drochl
ori
caci
dasdehy
drat
ingagentandt
emper
atur
eat180degr
ees
Cel
sius

b)+concent
rat
edsul
fur
icaci
dasdehy
drat
ingagentandt
emper
atur
eat180degr
ees
Cel
sius

c)
concent
rat
edsul
fur
icaci
dasdehy
drat
ingagentandpr
essur
eat18at
m

d)
concent
rat
edcar
boxy
li
caci
dasdehy
drat
ingagentandt
emper
atur
eat180degr
ees
Cel
sius

747.I
nst
abl
eor
gani
ccompounds,
car
bonwi
llal
way
sfor
m

a)
2bond

b)
3bond

c)+4bond

d)
5bond

748.Car
bon-
car
bondoubl
ebondconsi
stof
:
a)+oneσbond,
oneπbond

b)
twoπbond,
oneπbond

c)
oneσbond,
twoπbond

d)
twoσbond,
twoπbond

749.Acet
ylenehasat
otalof
:

a)+oneσbond,
twoπbond

b)
twoσbond,
fourπbond

c)
thr
eeσbond,
twoπbond

d)
oneσbond,
fourπbond

750.I
npr
openet
her
ear
e

a)+ei
ghtσbond,
oneπbond

b)
sev
enσbond,
twoπbond

c)
sixσbond,
thr
eeπbond

d)
nineσbond

751.I
npr
opy
net
her
ear
e

a)+si
xσbond,
twoπbond

b)
sev
enσbond,
oneπbond

c)
sixσbond,
oneπbond

d)
eightσbond

752.1-
But
en-
3-y
nehas

a)
sixσbond,
fourπbond

b)
sev
enσbond,
thr
eeπbond d)
nineσbond,
oneπbond

c)+ei
ghtσbond,
twoπbond

d)4σbond,
5πbond

753.Compoundi
nwhi
chcar ysp3hy
bonuseonl bri
dor
bit
alsf
orbondf
ormat
ioni
s
a)+CH3CH2CH3

b)
CH3C≡CH

c)
CH2CH=CH2

d)
CH2=CH-
CH=CH2
3
754.Compoundi
nwhi
chcar
bonuseonl
ysp hy
bri
dor
bit
alsf
orbondf
ormat
ioni
s

a)+CH4

b)
H2N-
CH2-
NH2

c)
H3C-
OH

d)
(CH3)
3COH

755.Whent
hecar
bonat ssp2hy
om i bri
dizedi
nacompound,
iti
sbondedt
o

a)+2ot
herat
oms

b)
4ot
herat
oms

c)
3ot
herat
oms

d)
5ot
herat
oms

756.Compoundi
nwhi
chcar ysp2hy
bonuseonl bri
dor
bit
alsf
orbondf
ormat
ioni
s

a) +C6H6 b)

c)CH2=CH-
CH=CH2

d)CH3CH=C=CH2

757.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sapl
anarmol
ecul
e?

a)
for
mal
dehy
de

b)
acet
one

c)+f
ormi
caci
d

d)
acet
icaci
d

758.Whati
sbondangl
ebet
weent
hehy
bri
dor
bit
alsi
nmet
hane?

180o
a)
120o
b)

5o
c)+109.

d) 5o
115.

759.
TheH-
C-Cbondangl
einet
hanei
s
o
a)
60

28o
b)+109.

120o
c)

d) 28o
118.

760.TheH-
C-Hbondangl
einet
hyl
enei
s

60o
a)

b)+120o

90o
c)

180o
d)

761.Whati
sthebondl
engt
hofacar
bon-
car
bondoubl
ebond?

a)
1.20Ǻ

)+1.
35Ǻ

c)
1.54Ǻ

d)
1.68Ǻ

762.Thecar
bon-
car
bonbondl
engt
hsi
nrankofi
ncr
easi
ngbondl
engt
his:

a)+t
ri
ple,
dubl
e,si
ngl
e

b)
singl
e,dubl
e,t
ri
ple

c)
singl
e,t
ri
ple,
dubl
e

d)dubl
e,t
ri
ple,
singl
e.

763.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sist
hecor
rector
derofbondl
engt
hs?

a)
C-C<C=C<C≡C

b)
C-C>C≡C>C=C
c)
C≡C>C-
C>C=C

d)+C≡C<C=C<C-
C

764.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
nghy
drocar
bonshast
heshor
testC-
Cbondl
engt
h?

a)
CH2=CH2

b)
CH3CH3

c)
HC≡CH

d)

765.
Thecar
bon-
car
bonl
engt
hismaxi
mum i
n

a)
CH2=CH2

b)+CH3CH3

c)
HC≡CH

d)CH2=CH-
CH3

766.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundshav
epl
anarmol
ecul
es?

a)
ethy
lal
cohol

b)
for
mal
dehy
de

c)
diet
hyl
ether

d)+1,
3-but
adi
en

767.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundswi
llshowdi
pol
emoment
?

a)+ci
s-1,
2-di
chl
oroet
ylene

b)
o-di
chl
orobenzene

c)
trans-
1,2-di
chl
oroet
ylene

d)
p-di
chl
orobenzene

768.Whi
chmol
ecul
ehasanonzer
odi
pol
emoment
?

a)
CI2

b)
CO2
c)+CCI
4

d)
CHCI
3

769.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundshav
elowestdi
pol
emoment
?

a)+car
bont
etr
achl
ori
de

b)
chl
oromet
hane

c)
dichl
oromet
hane

d)
chl
orof
orm

770.Whi
chmol
ecul
ehast
hegr
eat
estdi
pol
emoment
?

a)+CH3CI

b)
CH3Br

c)
CH3F

d)
CH3I

771.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s pr
opan-
1-ol
?

 
  
a) 
    
  
 

b)
   + 

c)  
 d

d) 
 

772.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

 
  
 a)
  
2-chl
oro-
2-met
hyl
propan-
2-ol

 
  
b) 
 1-
chl
oro-
1-met
hyl
propan-
1-ol

c)
+2-
chl
oro-
2-met
hyl
propan-
1-ol

d)2-
chl
oro-
3-met
hyl
propan-
3-ol

773.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s hexan-
2-ol
?
 
  
  
 a)

 
  
  
 b)

b)+ 
 

 
 d)
  

774.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

 
  
 a)
 3-
chl
orobut
an-
3-ol  
  
 

 
b 2-
chl
orobut
an-
3-ol

c)+3-
chl
orobut
an-
2-ol

 
d) 
  
2-chl
orobut
an-
2-ol

775.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

 
  
a)+ 
 pr
opan-
2-ol 

b)
 but
an-
2-ol
  

c)
propanol  

d)
 but
anol

776.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 2-
met
hyl
pent
an-
3-ol
?

a)
  
  
    
 
b)+ 
  

 
 c)
  
    
  

d)
  

777.
Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

 
 a)
  
ethoxy
ethane  

b)
 + 
met
hoxy
ethane 
 

c)
  
ethoxy
but
hane

d)
  
 met
hoxy
met
hane

778.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 3-
met
hyl
pent
an-
2-ol
?

a)+

b)

c)

d)

779.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s pent
an-
3-ol
?

 
 a)
  
   
 
b  

c)+ 
 

d)
  

780.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s et
hoxy
ethane?

a)

b)
  
  
 

c)
  
  
 

 
d) 
  
 

781.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 3-
met
hypent
an-
3-ol
?

a)

b)

c)
+
d)

782.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

 
 a)
 2,
2-di
met
hyl
propan-
1-ol  
  

b)
 2-
met
hoxy
-1-
met
hyl
propane

c)
 1-
met
hoxy
-2-
met
hyl
propane

d) +2-
met
hoxy
-2-
met
hyl
propane

783.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 2-
met
hyl
pent
an-
1-ol
?

 
 a)
  

e)

 
c)

d)
  
+

784.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

a)1-
chl
oro-
2-met
hyl
propan-
3-ol  
  
   

b) 
b)2-
chl
oro-
3-met
hyl
propan-
1-ol

c)+ 
3-chl
oro-
2-met
hyl
propan-
1-ol

 
d) 
3-chl
oro-
2-met
hyl
propan-
2-ol
785.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

a)
but
anol

b)
propanol

c)+pr
opan-
1-ol

d)
but
an-
1-ol

786.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 4-
met
hyl
pent
an-
1-ol
?

 
  
a) 
  

b) 
  
   

c)
  
 +

d)
propanol

787.Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

a)
1-chl
orobut
an-
3-ol

b)
1-chl
orobut
an-
2-ol

c)+4-
chl
orobut
an-
2-ol

d)
2-chl
orobut
an-
3-ol

788.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 2-
met
hyl
propan-
2-ol
?
 
 a)
 +

b)

c)
  
  

 
d) 
 
  

789.
Whi
chi
sthe 
cor
rectname 
for
  ?

a)
3-chl
orobut
an-
1-ol
 
 

b)
1-chl
oropr
opan-
3-ol

c)+3-
chl
oropr
opan-
1-ol
 

d)
1-chl
orobut
an-
3-ol

790.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
s 2-
met
hyl
propan-
2-ol
?

a)

b) +

c)

d)
791.Whi
chmol
ecul
eis2,
3-di
chl
orobut
hanoi
caci
d?

a)Cl
CH2CHCl
COOH

b)CH3C(
CH3)
ClCHCl
COOH

c)+CH3CHCl
CHCl
COOH

d)
C(CH3)
2CCl
CHCl
COOH

792.
Whi
cht
ypeofcompounddoesnotcont
ainacar
bony
lgr
oup?

a)
ket
one

)
aldehy
de

c)+ami
ne

d)
est
er

793.Whi
chf
uncti
onalgr
oupcont
ainsacar
bony
lgr
oupandahy
droxy
lgr
oupbondedt
o
thesamecarbonat
om?

a)
est
er

b)
ami
de

c)
ket
one

d)+car
boxy
li
caci
d

794.
Whi
chfunct
ionalgr
oupcont
ainsacar
bony
lgr
oupandanet
herl
inkagebondedt
othe
samecar
bon atom?

a)
ami
de

b)
ket
one

c)
car
boxy
li
caci
d

d)+est
er

795.Oneoft
hemajordi
ffer
encesbetweenaldehy
desandket
onesascompar
edt
oot
her
compoundsist
hati
naldehydesandketones

a)
thecar
bony
lcar
bonhasbondangl
esof120°
C,unl
i
ket
hecompar
abl
ebondangl
esi
n
ot
her

car
bony
lcompounds.

b)t
hepol
arcar
bonoxy
genbondi
slessr
eact
ivet
hant
hehy
drocar
bonpor
ti
onoft
he
mol
ecul
e.

c)t
hemol
armassest
endt
obemuchsmal
l
ert
hani
ntheot
hert
ypesofcompounds.

d)+thecar
bony
lgr
oupcar
bonat
om i
sbondedt
oat
omst
hatdonotat
tractel
ect
rons
st
rongl
y.

796.Thecar
bony
lgr
oupi
s

a)
foundonl
yinal
dehy
desandket
ones.

b)
producedbyr
educt
ionr
eact
ionsofpr
imar
yorsecondar
yal
cohol
s.

c)+af
unct
ional
groupi
nwhi
chcar
bonandoxy
genar
ejoi
nedbyadoubl
ebond.

d)
agener
alt
ermf
oranyf
unct
ional
groupi
nvol
vi
ngacar
bonoxy
genbond.

797.Al
loft
hest
atement
sconcer
ningt
hecar
bony
lgr
oupi
nal
dehy
desandket
onesar
e
tr
ueexcept

a)
Thebondi
spol
ar,
wit
hasl
i
ghtnegat
ivechar
geont
heoxy
genat
om.

b)
Thebondangl
esaboutt
hecent
ral
car
bonat
om ar
e120°
.

c)+Becauset
hebondi
spol
ar,
car
bony
lgr
oupsr
eadi
l
yfor
m hy
drogenbondswi
theach
ot
her
.

d)I
ncondensedf
ormt
hecar
bony
lgr
oupcanbewr
it
tenas -
CHO.

798.Whi
chmol
ecul
eisf
ormal
dehy
de?

a)
+

b)

c)

d)
799.Whi
chmol
ecul
eis2-but
anone?

a)

c)

d)
+

778.Whi
chmol
ecul
eispr
opanal
?

a)

b)

c)
+

d)

800.Whi
chmol
ecul
eisacet
one?

a)
b)

c)

d)+

801.Whi
chi
sthecor
rectsy
stemat
icnamef
ort
hemol
ecul
eshown?

a)
ethy
lmet
hyl
acet
one

b)
met
hyl
propy
lket
one

c)+3-
hexanone

d)
propy
lmet
hyl
ket
one

802.Whi
chmol
ecul
eisaket
one?

a)+

b)

b)

d)
803.Whi
chmol
ecul
eisanal
dehy
de?

a)

b)

c)

d)+

804.
TheI
UPACnamef
oracet
onei
s

a)+2-
propanone.

b)
dimet
hyl
ket
one.

c)
1-pr
opanone.

d)
3-pr
opanal
.

805.TheI
UPACnamef
ordi
met
hylket
onei
s

a)
3-pr
opanal
.

b)+2-
propanone.

c)
acet
one.

d)
1-pr
opanone.

806.Thecor
rectnamef
orCH3-
CH(
CH3)
-CH2–CHO i
s

a)
3-met
hyl
1but
anone.

b)
2-met
hyl
but
anal
.
c)+3-
met
hyl
but
anal
.

d)
isopent
anal
.

807.Thecor
rectnamef
orCH3-
CH(
CH3)
-CH2-
CO-
CH3 i
s

a)
isobut
ylacet
one.

b)
4–met
hyl
–2-but
anone.

c)
2-met
hyl
–4-but
anone.

d)
4-met
hyl
–2-pent
anone.

808.Whati
stheI
UPACnameoft
hecompoundshown?

a)
4-hept
anone

b)+2-met
hyl
-3-hexanone

c)
3-hept
anone

d)
isopr
opy
ln-
propy
lket
one

809.Whati
stheI
UPACnameoft
hecompoundshown?

a)
isopent
anal

b)
2-met
hyl
–4-but
anone

c)
2-met
hyl
-1-but
anone

d)+3-
met
hyl
but
anal

810.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngnamesdoesnotf
itar
ealcompound?

a)
3-oct
anone c)
3-met
hyl
-3-
pent
anone e)
all
arecor
rect

b)
2-but
anone d)
3–met
hyl
-1-
pent
anone
811.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngnamesdoesnotf
itar
ealcompound?

a)3-
ethy
lpent
anal

b)4-
met
hyl
pent
anal

c)
3-met
hyl
-2-pent
anal

d)2-
met
hyl
pent
anal

812.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotapr
oper
tyofal
dehy
desandket
ones?

a)Theycannotf
orm hy
drogenbondswi
thwat
erbecauset
heyhav
enohy
drogenat
oms
bonded

t
ooxy
gen.

b)Mosthav
edi
sti
nct
iveodor
s.

c)Theyhav
ehi
gherboi
l
ingpoi
ntst
hanal
kanesofsi
mil
armol
armass.

d)Theyar
epol
ar.

813.Al
loft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
epr
oper
ti
esofacet
oneexcept

a)
fl
ammabl e. b)
int
oxi
cat
ing. c)
sol
ventf
oror
gani
csubst
ances.
d)
nutr
ient
.

814.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sauseoff
ormal
dehy
de?

a)
fl
avor
ing b)
preser
vat
ive c)
hor
mone d)
sol
vent

815.Whi
chcompoundhast
hel
owestboi
li
ngpoi
nt?

a)
CH3-
CO-
CH3 b)
CH3-
CHO c)
CH3-
CH2-
OH d)
CH3-
CH2-
CH2-
OH

816.Whi
chcompoundhast
hehi
ghestboi
li
ngpoi
nt?

a)
CH3-
CHO b)
CH3-
CH2-
CHO c)
CH3-
CH2-
OH d)
CH3-
CH2-
CH2-
OH

817.Whi
chcompoundhast
hel
owestboi
li
ngpoi
nt?

a)
CH3-
CH2-
CHO b)
CH3-
CH2-
CH3 c)
CH3-
CH2-
CH2-
OH d)
CH3-
CH2-
CH2-
CH3

818.I
nbi
ochemi
calr
eact
ions,
reduct
ionofcar
bony
lgr
oupsi
scar
ri
edoutby

a)
H2. b)
lact
icaci
d. c)
NADH. d)
pyr
uvi
caci
d.

819.Al
loft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
etr
ueconcer
ningat
wo-
car
bonal
dehy
deexcept
a)
Ithasahi
gherboi
l
ingpoi
ntt
hananal
cohol
ofsi
mil
armol
ecul
arwei
ght
.

b)
It
ssy
stemat
icnamei
set
hanal
.

c)
It
scommonnamei
sacet
aldehy
de.

d)
It
scondensedf
ormul
aisCH3-
CHO.

820.Al
loft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
etr
ueconcer
ningat
hree-
car
bonket
oneexcept

a)
It
ssy
stemat
icnamei
spr
opanone.

b)
Anot
heraccept
abl
enamei
smet
hyl
ethy
lket
one.

c)
It
scommonnamei
sacet
one.

d)
It
scondensedf
ormul
aisCH3-
CO-
CH3

821.Thecommonnameofani ndust
rialsol
ventusedi
nmanymanufact
uri
ngprocesses
i
smet hy
let
hylket
one.Thecor
rectsystemati
cnameandstr
uct
uralf
ormulaoft
his
compoundare_
___.

a)
2-but
anone; c)
3-but
anone;

b)
2-pr
opanone; d)
3-but
anone;

822.Tol
lens'
reagenti
susedt
o

a)
dist
ingui
shami
nesf
rom al
dehy
des. c)
reduceal
dehy
des.

b)
dist
ingui
shal
dehy
desf
rom ket
ones. d)
reduceket
ones.

823.Oxi
dat
ionofanal
dehy
depr
oducesa

a)
pri
mar
yal
cohol
. b)
secondar
yal
cohol
. c)
car
boxy
li
caci
d. d)
ket
one.

824.Oxi
dat
ionofaket
onepr
oduces

a)
anal
dehy
de b)
acar
boxy
li
caci
d c)
apr
imar
yal
cohold)
nor
eact
ion
825.Al
loft
hef
oll
owi
ngst
atement
saboutoxi
dat
ionofcar
bony
lsar
etr
ueexcept

a)Oxidat
ionofket
onespr
oducesest
ers. c)
Oxi
dat
ionofal
dehy
despr
oduces
carboxyl
icaci
ds.

b)
Tol
l
en'
stesti
nvol
vesr
educt
ionofAg+. d)
Benedi
ct'
stesti
nvol
vesr
educt
ionofCu2+.

826.Al
loft
hef
oll
owi
ngst
atement
saboutoxi
dat
ionofcar
bony
lar
etr
ueexcept

a)
TheBenedi
ct'
stesti
nvol
vesr
educt
ionofCu2+.

b)
Ket
onesdonotr
eactwi
thmi
l
doxi
dizi
ngagent
s.

c)
TheTol
l
ens'
testi
nvol
vesoxi
dat
ionofAg+ .

d)
Oxi
dat
ionofal
dehy
despr
oducescar
boxy
li
caci
ds.

827.Whi
chcompoundwi
llgi
veaposi
ti
veTol
len'
stest
?

a)
pent
anal b)
3-pent
anone c)
2-pent
anone d)
pent
anoi
caci
d

828.Whi
chobser
vat
iondenot
esaposi
ti
veTol
len'
stest
?

a)
Asi
l
verwi
redi
ssol
ves.

b)
Abr
ick-
redpr
eci
pit
atef
orms.

c)
Thel
i
ghtbl
uecol
oroft
her
eagentdi
sappear
s.

d)
Asi
l
verdeposi
tfor
msont
hegl
asssur
face.

829.Whi
chobser
vat
iondenot
esaposi
ti
veBenedi
ct'
stest
?

a)
Ami
rr
or-
li
kedeposi
tfor
msf
rom acol
orl
esssol
uti
on.

b)
Aredpr
eci
pit
atef
ormsf
rom abl
uesol
uti
on.

c)
Ared-br
ownsol
uti
onbecomescl
earandcol
orl
ess.

d)
Apal
eyel
l
owsol
uti
onwi
thanodorofchl
ori
nechangest
oapur
plecol
or.

830.Whati
sthepr
oductofoxi
dat
ionofbut
anal
?

a)
but
ane b)
2-but
anol c)
1-but
anol d)
but
anoi
caci
d

831.Whati
sthepr
oductofoxi
dat
ionof2-but
anone?
a)
but
anoi
caci
d b)
but
anal c)
2-but
anol d)
nor
eact
ion

832.Whi
chcompoundwi
llgi
veaposi
ti
veTol
len'
stest
?

a) c)

b) d)

833.Whati
spr
oductoft
heoxi
dat
ionofaket
one?

a)analdehy
de b)
ahemi
acet
al c)
acar
boxy
li
caci
d d)
none,
ket
onesdon'
t
oxidi
ze.

834.Whati
stheel
ementt
hatcausesoxi
dat
ioni
ntheTol
lenst
estf
oral
dehy
des?

a)gol
d b)copper c)l
ead d)si
l
ver

835.Reduct
ionofanal
dehy
depr
oducesa

a)
ter
ti
aryal
cohol
. b)
car
boxy
li
caci
d. c)
secondar
yal
cohol
. d)
pri
mar
yal
cohol
.

836.Reduct
ionofaket
onepr
oducesa(
an)

a)
car
boxy
li
caci
d. b)
secondar
yal
cohol
. c)
aldehy
de. d)
ter
ti
aryal
cohol
.

837.Whati
sthepr
oductofr
educt
ionofbut
anal
?

a)
but
anoi
caci
d b)
but
ane c)
2-but
anol d)
1-but
anol

838.Whati
sthepr
oductofr
educt
ionof2-but
anone?

a)
but
anal b)
1-but
anol c)
2-but
anol d)
but
anoi
caci
d

839.
Whati
sthepr
oductoft
her
educt
ionof3-met
hyl-
2-pent
anone?

a)
3-met
hyl
–2-pent
anal c)
3-met
hyl
–2-
pent
anol

b)
2-met
hyl
-3-
pent
anol d)
3-met
hyl
–2-pent
ene
840.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngsi
sasi
mpl
esugarormonosacchar
ide?

a)
Gal
act
ose b)
Lact
ose c)
Mal
tose d)
Sucr
ose

841.
Whati
sthemol
ecul
arf
ormul
aforGl
ucose?

a)
CH3OH b)
C6H1206 c)
C12H22O11 d)
C6H12O5

842.
Mal
tosei
scomposedofwhi
cht
wosugar
s?

a)
GlucoseandGl
ucose c)
GlucoseandFr
uct
ose

b)
GlucoseandGal
act
ose d)
Fruct
oseandGal
act
ose

843.I
nwhi
chf
orm 
is 
Glucosest
oredi
nani
mal
s?

a)
Star
ch b)
Gly
cogen c)
Dext
ri
ns d)
Cel
l
ulose

844.Al
lar
egl
ucosans(
pol
ymer
sofgl
ucose)except
-

a)
Gly
cogen b)
Inul
i
n c)
Star
ch d)
Cel
l
ulose

845.Chooset
heAl
dosesugaroutoft
hef
oll
owi
ngs-

a)
Sucr
ose b)
Ribul
ose c)
Fruct
ose d)
Ribose

846.Chooset
heket
otr
iose-

a)
Gly
cer
aldehy
de b)
Ery
thr
ose c)
Dihy
droxy
acet
oned)
Arabi
nose

847.Apent
osesugarpr
esenti
nthehear
tmuscl
eis-

a)
Xyl
ose b)
Lyxose c)
Xyl
ulose d)
Aldose

848.
α-DGl
ucoseand 
β-Dgl
ucosear
e-

a)
Epi
mer
s b)
Ket
o-Al
doseI
somer
s c)
Anomer
s d)
Opt
ical
isomer
s

849.Al
ltest
sar
enegat
ivef
orsucr
oseexcept
-

a)
Benedi
ct b)
Sel
i
wanof
f c)
Bar
foed d)
Osazone

850.Gl
ucosecanhav
e————-i
somer
sduet
othepr
esenceof4asy
mmet
ri
ccar
bon
atoms-

a)
4 b)
12 c)
8 d)
16

851.Gal
act
oseandGl
ucosear
e-
a)
Epi
mer
s b)
Isomer
s c)
Anomer
s d)
Ket
ose-Al
dosei
somer
s

852.Thecompoundshavi
ngsamest r
uct
uralf
ormul
abutdi
ff
eri
ngi
nconf
igur
ati
on
aroundonecar
bonat
om arecal
led-

a)
Opt
ical
isomer
s b)
Ster
eoi
somer
s c)
Anomer
s d)
Epi
mer
s

853.Whatdoest
hef
oll
owi
ngequat
ion 
repr
esent
?  
 

α-
DGl
ucose+112ο→+52.
5ο→ 
 +19οβ-Dgl
ucose

a)
Ster
eoi
somer
ism b)
Mut
arot
ati
on c)
Opt
ical
isomer
ismd)
Epi
mer
izat
ion

854.Thecar
bohy
drat
eofbl
oodgr
oupsubst
ancei
s-

a)
Glucose b)
Xyl
ose c)
Lyxose d)
Fruct
ose

855.
Dul
cit
oli
sa 
-

a)
Sugaraci
db)
Ami
nosugar c)
Deoxy
sugar
s d)
Sugaral
cohol

856.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sanonr
educi
ngsugar
-

a)
Arabi
nose b)
Ery
thr
ose c)
Trehal
ose d)
Ribul
ose

857.APol
ysacchar
idef
ormedby
 β1→4Gl
ycosi
dicl
inkagesi
s-

a)
Star
ch b)
Dext
ri
n c)
Gly
cogen d)
Cel
l
ulose

858.I
nver
tsugari
s-

a)
Star
ch b)
Glucose c)
Fruct
ose d)
Hydr
oly
ticpr
oductofSucr
ose

859.The 
Pol
ysacchar
ide 
foundi
ntheexoskel
etonofi
nsect
sis-

a)
Hyal
uroni
caci
d b)
Cel
l
ulose c)
Chi
ti
n d)
Chondr
osami
ne

860.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sapol
ymeroff
ruct
ose?

a)
Insul
i
n b)
Dext
ri
n c)
Cel
l
ulose d)
Gly
cogen

861.Adi
sacchar
idepr
oducedonhy
drol
ysi
sofst
archi
scal
led-

a)
Sucr
ose b)
Lact
ose c)
Mal
tose d)
Trehal
ose

862.
Thet
ypi
calcy
cli
calst
ruct
ureofGl
ucosei
s α 
and 
β D-

a)
Glucopy
ranose b)
Glucosi
de c)
Glucof
uranose d)
Glucosami
ne

863.Whi
cht
estcanbeunder
takent
odi
ff
erent
iat
ebet
weenGl
ucoseandFr
uct
ose?

a)
Benedi
ct b)
Mol
i
sch c)
Sel
i
wanof
fd)
Osazone
864.
 Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmol
ecul
esi
sacar
bohy
drat
e?

a)
C3 
H7O2N b)
C13H26O2 c)
C6H12O6 d)
C20H40O2

865.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmonosacchar
idesi
s not
 anal
dose?

a)
Ribose b)
Fruct
ose c)
Glucose d)
Gly
cer
aldehy
de

866.Whi
choff
oll
owi
ngi
sananomer
icpai
r?

a)
D-gl
ucoseandL-
glucose c)
D-gl
ucoseandD-
fr
uct
ose

b)
α-D-
glucoseand 
β-D-
glucose d)
α-D-
glucoseand 
β-L-
glucose

867.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmonosacchar
idesi
s not
 acar
boxy
li
caci
d?

a)
Glucur
onat
e b)
Gluconat
e c)
Glucose d)
Mur
ami
caci
d

868.Fr
om t
heabbr
evi
atednameoft
hecompoundGal(
β 1 
→4)Gl
c,weknowt
hat
:

a)
Thegl
ucoser
esi
duei
sthe 
β anomer
.

b)
Thegal
act
oser
esi
duei
satt
henonr
educi
ngend.

c)
C-4ofgl
ucosei
sjoi
nedt
oC-
1ofgal
act
osebyagl
ycosi
dicbond.

d)
Thecompoundi
sini
tsf
uranosef
orm

869.Thecompoundt
hatconsi
stsofr
ibosel
i N-
nkedbyan  gl
ycosi
dicbondt
oN-
9of
adeninei
s:

a)
Apur
inenucl
eot
ide. b)
Apy
rimi
dinenucl
eot
ide.c)
Adenosi
ne.
d)AMP

870.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAlkane:
a)
None b)C–X c)C=C d)
C–OH
871.Functi
onalGroupofCycloal
kane:
a)
H–C=O b)C–OH c) O=C–O–C d)None

872.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAl
kylhal
ide:
a)
None b) C–X c)C=C d)
C–OH

873.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAl
kene:
a)
H–C=O b) C–OH c)C–X d)C=C

874.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAl
kyne:

a) b)-C≡N c)
C–OH d)
C≡C

875.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAl
cohol
:
a)
C–OH b)
H–C=O c)
C–X d)
-C≡N

876.Funct
ionalGr
oupofEther
:
a)
H–C=O b)C–CO–C c)C–C d)
C–X

877.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAl
dehy
de:

a) b)
C–CH=O c)
C–X d)
O=C–OH

878.Funct
ionalGr
oupofKetone:
a)
C–CO-C b) C–X c)
-C≡N d)
O=C–OH

879.Funct
ionalGr
oupofCar
boxy
licAci
d:
a)
O=C–OH b)C–X c)C–OH d)
-C≡N

880.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAmi
ne:
a)
C–NR–R’ b)
O=C–OH c)
H–C=O d)
C–OH

881.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAmi
de:
a)
O=C–OH b)
C–NR–R’ c)
H–C=O d)
HOC–NR–R’

882.Funct
ionalGr
oupofNi
tr
il
e:
a)
-C≡N b)O=C–OH c)
C–NR–R’ d)
HOC–NR–R’

883.Funct
ionalGr
oupofAr
omat
icr
ing:

a) b)
O=C–OHc)
HOC–NR–R’ d)
-C≡N

884.Aminoaci
desarebui
ldi
ngblocksof
:
a)ket
ones b)aldehy
des c)
prot
eins d)et
her
s

885.Pr
oteinsar
ecomposedof
:
a)20di
ff
erentaminoaci
ds c)
15diff
erental
dehydes
b)15di
ff
erentaminoaci
ds d)17di
ff
erentet
hers

886.Deter
minetypeofα-amineacid-ser
ine
a)neut
ral b)aci
dicc)
basic d)Sl
ightl
yPolar
 

887.Determi
netypeofα-amineaci
d-t
ript
ophane
a)essent
ial b)
non-essent
ialc)semi
-essent
iald)noneoft
hem

888.Determi
nety
peofα-amineacid-ty
rosi
ne
a)al
iphati
c b)aromat
ic c)het
erocycl
i
c d)compl
ex

889.Phosphori
caci
dusual
lyest
eri
fi
cat
esal
cohol
icgr
oupsatf
oll
owi
ngcar
bonat
oms
ofsugarrest
a)C1 b)C2 c)C3 d)C4
890.α-Amineacidexi
stsi
nfor
m ofcat
ioni
n
a)aci
dicmedium c) basi
cmedium
b)neut
ralmedium d)anymedium

891.α-Amineacidexi
stsi
nfor
m ofzwi
tt
er-
ioni
n
a)aci
dicmedium c) basi
cmedium
b)neut
ralmedium d)anymedium

892.Howmany
α-amineaci
drest
sarei
npol
ypept
ide
a)1-
10 b)10-
100 c)100- 200 d)morethan100

893.Bondsstabil
izingsecondar
ystr
uct
ureofpept
ides
a)coor
dinat
ion b)ionicc)hydr
ogen d)
hydr
ofobic

894.Choosepepti
debond 
a)-
CO-NH- b) –S-
S- c)H2N–CH2– d)-
C-C-

895.Lact
osei
s
a)monose b)unr
educi
ngdi
sacchar
ide c)
ami
neaci
d d)
reduci
ngdi
sacchar
ide

896.Gli
car
icaci
dsar eproducedf r
om aldosesby
a)oxi
dat
ion b)
reduct
ion c)est
eri
fi
cati
on d)
transami
nat
ion

897.Sugarr
estenter
sint
ocomposit
ionofnatur
alnucl
eosi
dei
nfor
m of
a)al
dose b)
pyranose c)
fruct
ose d)f
uranose

898.Gli
cari
cacidsar
eproducedunderact
ionof
a)mil
doxidant b)st
rongreduct
ant c)
mil
dreduct
ant d)
str
ongoxi
dant

899.Whichbondsar
eusedf
orformat
ionofnucl
eoti
de
a)coor
dinat
ion b)
ioni
c c)
hydrogen d)
gly
cosi
de

900.Bondbet
weensugarr
estandpy
rimi
dineN-basei
nnucl
eosi
deisfor
medbetween
atoms
a)C5andN1 b)
C1andN9 c)C3andN9 d)C1andN1

901.Componentsofnucl
eoti
de
a)pr
otei
n b)ami
neacidrest c)
OH d)
thy
mine

902.Monomeri
clinkofpr
otein
a)sugarr
est b)
isopr
ene c)amineaci
drestd)
ethy
lene

903.
Unsaponi
fi
edli
pidsar
e
a)mono-
component b)di
-component c)t
hree-
componentd)pol
y-
component

904.
DNAcontai
ns
a)
cyt
osi
ne,
guani
ne,ur
aci
l
,thy
mine
b)
cyt
osi
ne,guani
ne,uracil
,adenine
c)
cyt
osi
ne,guani
ne,adenine,thymine
d)
thy
mine,
cy t
osi
ne,ur aci
l,adenine

905.Compl exl
ipi
dsf
ormunderhydr
olysis
a)al
cohol
s,carboxyl
i
cacids
b)car
boxyl
icaci
ds
c)al
cohol
s,carboxyl
icaci
ds,car
bohydrateset
c.
d)al
cohol
s

906.Deter
minetypeofα-amineacid-val
ine
a)neut
ral b)aci
dicc)
basicd)Sli
ghtl
yPolar
 

907.Determi
net
ypeofα-amineaci
d–glut
amicacid
a)essenti
al b)
non-
essenti
alc)semi
-essent
iald)noneoft
hem

908.Det
ermi
nety
peofα-ami
neacid-thr
eoni
ne
a)al
i
phati
c b)aromat
ic c)
het
erocycl
icd)compl
ex

909.Bi
ogenicaminesar
eproducedunderreact
ionof
a)t
ransaminat
ion b)oxi
dati
on c)reduct
ion d)decar
boxy
lat
ion

910.α-ami
neacidexi
stsinfor
m ofani
oni
n
a)aci
dicmedi
um b) neut
ralmedi
um
c)basi
cmedium d)anymedium

911.Howmanyα-
ami
neacidr
est
sar
einpr
otei
n
a)1-
10 b)
10-
100 c)100-
200 d)mor
ethan100

912.Howmanyα-
ami
neacidr
estsareinol
igopept
ides
a)1-
10 b)10-
100 c)100-200 d)morethan100

913.Bondsstabi
li
zingt
ert
iarystr
uct
ureofprot
eins
a)coor
dinat
ion b)
hydrofobi
c c)gl
ycosi
de d)met
all
i
c

914.Choosedi
sul
phidebond 
a)-
CO-NH- b) –S-
S- c)H2N–CH2– d)–C-
C-

915.Howmanychei
ral
cent
resar
einal
dopent
ose
a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

916.Sucrosei
s
a)monose c)
ami
neacid
b)unreduci
ngdi
sacchar
ide d)
reduci
ngdi
sacchar
ide

917.Aldi
tes(pol
yol
s)areproducedf r
om al
dosesby
a)oxidat
ion c)ester
if
icati
on
b)reduct
ion d)tr
ansami nat
ion
918.Reacti
onofami
neaci dsbiosynthesi
sfr
om oxoaci
dsi
scal
led
a)tr
ansaminat
ion c)reducti
on
b)oxidat
ion d)decarboxyl
ation

919.Gl
iconicaci
dsarepr
oducedunderacti
onof
a)mil
doxidant c)mi
l
dreductant
b)st
rongreduct
ant d)
strongoxi
dant

920.Product
sofaci
diccat
aly
sisofmonosacchari
des
a)gl
ycozides b)aci
ds c)pol
yols d)
sal
ts

921.Bondbet
weensugarr
estandpy
rimi
dineN-basei
nnucl
eosi
deisf
ormedbet
ween
atoms
a)C5andN1 b)
C1andN9 c)C3andN9d)C1andN1

922.Componentsofnucl
eosi
de
a)phosphat
egroup b)
car
bonylgr
oup c)
thy
mine d)
sugarr
est

923.Monomeri
cli
nkoft
erpene
a)sugarr
est b)i
sopr
ene c)
ami
neaci
drest d)
ethy
lene

924.I
ndi
catenameoft
erpenesatn=3
a)monot
erpene b)di
ter
penec)t
ri
ter
pene d)
sesqui
ter
pene

925.I
ndi
catenameofterpenesatn=2
a)monot
erpene b)dit
erpene c)t
ri
ter
pene d)
sesqui
ter
pene

926.
Indi
catenameofter
penesatn=4
a)monot
erpene b)
dit
erpene c)
tri
ter
pene d)
sesqui
ter
pene

927.I
ndi
catenameofterpenesatn=6
a)monot
erpene b)dit
erpene c)t
ri
ter
pene d)
sesqui
ter
pene

928.Saponif
iedl
ipi
dsar
e
a)mono-component b)
thr
ee-
component c)
wit
houtanycomponentd)pol
y-
component

929.RNAcont ai
ns
a)cyt
osi
ne,guani
ne, uracil
,thymine
b)cyt
osi
ne,guani
ne, uracil
,adenine
c)cyt
osi
ne,guani
ne, adenine,thymine
d)thy
mine,
cy t
osine,ur aci
l,adenine

930.Simpl
elipi
dsform underhydr
olysi
s
a)al
cohol
s,carboxy
li
cacids
b)car
boxyl
icaci
ds
c)al
cohol
s,carboxy
li
cacids,car
bohydrat
eset
c.
d)
alcohol
s

931.Deter
minetypeofα-
ami neacid-alani
ne
a)neut
ral b)
acidi
c c)basic d)Sl
ightl
yPolar
 

932.Determi
net
ypeofα-amineacid–phenylal
ani
ne
a)essent
ial b)non-
essent
ialc)semi
-essenti
ald)noneoft
hem

933.Determi
netypeofα-amineacid-alanine
a)essenti
alb)non-
essenti
alc)semi-essenti
ald)noneoft
hem

934.Deter
minetypeofα-
amineacid-gl
ysi
ne
a)neut
ral b) acidi
cc)basi
c d)Sli
ght
lyPol
ar 

935.Determi
netypeofα-amineacid–tyr
osine
a)essenti
al b)
non-essent
ialc)semi
-essenti
ald)noneoft
hem

936.Det
ermi
netypeofα-
amineaci
d-hist
idi
ne
a)al
i
phat
ic b)ar
omatic c)
heter
ocycl
i
cd)compl
ex

937.Det
ermi
netypeofα-
amineaci
d-leuci
ne
a)al
i
phat
ic b)ar
omatic c)
heter
ocycl
icd)compl
ex

938.Determinet
ypeofα-amineacid–leuci
ne
a)essent
ial b)
non-essent
ial
c)semi-essent
iald)noneoft
hem

939.Deter
minetypeofα-amineacid-l
eucine
a)neut
ral b)aci
dicc)
basicd)Sli
ghtl
yPolar 

940.Det
ermi
netypeofα-
amineaci
d-seri
ne
a)al
i
phat
ic b)ar
omatic c)
heter
ocycl
i
cd)compl
ex

941.Determi
netypeofα-amineaci
d–ser i
ne
a)essenti
alb)non-
essenti
alc)semi-essenti
ald)noneoft
hem

942.Determi
netypeofα- amineaci
d–hi sti
dine
a)essent
ial b)
non-essenti
alc)semi-essentiald)noneoft
hem

943.Det
ermi
netypeofα-
amineaci
d-isol
euci
ne
a)al
i
phat
ic b)ar
omatic c)
heter
ocycl
icd)compl
ex

944.Determi
netypeofα-amineacid–i
soleuci
ne
a)essent
ial b)
non-essent
ialc)semi
-essenti
ald)noneoft
hem

945.Deter
minetypeofα-amineaci
d-i
soleuci
ne
a)neut
ral b) aci
dicc)basi
cd)Sli
ghtl
yPolar 

946.Det
ermi
net
ypeofα-
ami
neaci
d–t
hreoni
ne
a)
essent
ial b)
non-
essent
ialc)semi
-essent
iald)noneoft
hem

947.Deter
minetypeofα-ami
neacid-thr
eoni
ne
a)neut
ral b) aci
dic c)
basi
c d)Sli
ghtl
yPol
ar 

948.Det
ermi
netypeofα-
amineaci
d-lysi
ne
a)al
i
phat
ic b)ar
omatic c)
heter
ocycl
i
cd)compl
ex

949.Determi
net
ypeofα-amineacid–l
ysine
a)essent
ial b)non-
essent
ialc)semi
-essent
iald)noneoft
hem

950.Deter
minetypeofα-
amineaci
d-ly
sine
a)neut
ral b) aci
dic c)
basicd)Sl
ight
lyPol
ar 

951.Det
ermi
netypeofα-
amineaci
d-pheny
lal
ani
ne
a)al
i
phat
ic b)ar
omatic c)
heter
ocycl
i
cd)complex

952.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngpr
oduct
sisnotder
ivedf
rom cel
lul
ose?

a)
Ray
on b)
insul
i
n c)
guncot
ton d)
paper

953.Compl
exl
ipi
dsf
orm underhy
drol
ysi
s

a)
alcohol
s,car
boxy
li
caci
ds c)
alcohol
s,car
boxy
li
caci
ds,
car
bohy
drat
eset
c.

b)
car
boxy
li
caci
ds d)
alcohol
s

954.Numberofchei
ral
cent
resi
nal
dohexose

a)
1 b)
2 c)
3 d)
4

955.Fat
tyaci
dsar
e

a)
unsat
urat
eddi
car
boxy
li
caci
ds c)
aromat
iccar
boxy
li
caci
ds

b)
long-
chai
nal
kanoi
caci
ds d)
aromat
icdi
car
boxy
li
caci
ds

956.Sodi
um orpot
assi
um sal
tsoff
att
yaci
dsar
ecal
led

a)
prot
eins b)
ter
penes c)
car
bohy
drat
es d)
soaps

957.soapi
s

a)
ami
xtur
eofsal
tsoff
att
yaci
ds b)
asal
tofgl
ycer
ol

c)
ami
xtur
eofet
her
s d)
ami
xtur
eofar
omat
icet
her
s

958.awaxi
s

a)
anonpol
arsol
i
d c)
atr
iacy
lgl
ycer
ol
b)
along-
chai
nal
cohold)
noneoft
hese

959.
Fat
sandoi
lsar
e

a)
monoest
ersofgl
ycer
olc)
tri
est
ersofgl
ycer
ol

b)
diest
ersofgl
ycer
ol d)
diest
ersofgl
ycol

960.Fat
sdi
ff
erf
rom waxesi
nthatf
atshav
e:

a)
mor
eunsat
urat
ion c)
agl
ycer
olbackbone

b)
highermel
ti
ngpoi
nts d)
longerf
att
yaci
ds

961.Ol
eicaci
disaf
att
yaci
dcont
aini
ng

a)
12car
bons b)
14car
bons c)
16car
bons d)
18car
bons

962.Li
qui
doi
lscanbeconv
ert
edt
osol
idf
atsby

a)
hydr
ogenat
ion b)
saponi
fi
cat
ion c)
hydr
oly
sis d)
oxi
dat
ionofdoubl
ebonds

963.Par
ti
alhy
drogenat
ionofv
eget
abl
eoi
lsi
nthepr
esenceofNicat
aly
stat200⁰
Cgi
ves

a)
Vanaspat
ighee b)
mar
gar
ine c)
bot
hoft
hese d)
noneoft
hese

964.Al
kal
inehy
drol
ysesofoi
lsorf
atsi
scal
led:

a)
saponi
fi
cat
ion b)
fer
ment
ati
on c)
diazot
izat
ion d)
ranci
dif
icat
ion

965.
Saponi
fi
cat
ionofaf
at

a)Alwaysresul
tsi
nthef
ormat
ionofi
nsol
ubl
esoapsc)
isusedi
nthepr
oduct
ionof
detergent
s

b)
producesgl
ycer
olandsoap d)
isusedi
nthepr
oduct
ionofl
act
icaci
d

966.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundswi
llnotbecl
assi
fi
edasl
ipi
ds?

a)
Fat
s b)
waxes c)
soaps d)
oil
s

967.Thedegr
eeofunsat
urat
ionofaf
atcanbedet
ermi
nedbymeansofi
ts

a)
Iodi
nenumberb)
oct
anenumber c)
saponi
fi
cat
ionnumber d)
mel
ti
ngpoi
nt

968.Zwi
tter
ionis
a)ani
onthatisposi
ti
vel
ychar
gedi
nsol
uti
on

b)
ani
ont
hati
snegat
ivel
ychar
gedi
nsol
uti
on

c)
acompoundt
hatcani
oni
zebot
hasabaseandanaci
d
d)
acar
bohy
drat
ewi
thanel
ect
ri
cal
char
ge

969.Azwi
tt
eri
onshaswhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngpr
oper
ti
es

a)
nonetchar
ge b)
ahi
ghmel
ti
ngpoi
ntc)
sol
ubl
einwat
erd)
all
oft
hese

970.Anaqueoussol
uti
onofgl
yci
nei
sneut
ralbecauseoft
hef
ormat
ionof
:

a)
car
boni
onb)
zwi
tt
eri
ons c)
car
boni
um i
ons d)
freer
adi
cal
s

971.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcompoundsf
orm zwi
tt
eri
ons?

a)
car
bony
lcompounds b)
ami
noaci
ds c)
phenol
s d)
het
erocy
cli
ccompounds

972.ThepHwhichtheami
noaci
dshowsnot
endencyt
omi
grat
ewhenpl
acedi
nan
el
ectri
cfi
eldi
sknownasit
s:

a)
isoel
ect
ri
cpoi
ntb)
dipol
emomentc)
iodi
nenumberd)
wav
elengt
h

973.Thei
soel
ect
ri
cpoi
ntofapr
otei
nis

a)
thepHatwhi
cht
hepr
otei
nmol
ecul
ehasnochar
gesoni
tssur
face

b)t
hepHatwhi
chapr
otei
ninsol
uti
onhasanequal
numberofposi
ti
veandnegat
ive
charges

c)
theel
ect
ri
cchar
genumberunderi
sot
her
mal
condi
ti
ons

d)
noneoft
hese

974.Gl
yci
nei
s

a)
NH2CH2COOH c)
NO2CH2CH2COOH

b)NH2CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 d)
BrCH2COOH

975.Gl
yci
nei
sauni
queami
noaci
dbecausei
t

a)
hasnochi
ral
car
bon c)
cannotf
orm apept
idebond

b)
hasasul
phurcont
aini
ngRgr
oup d)
isanessent
ial
ami
noaci
d

976.Pr
otei
nsar
e

a)
pol
yamides b)
pol
ymer
sofet
hyl
ene c)
α-Ami
nocar
boxy
li
caci
ds d)
pol
ymer
sof
pr
opy
lene

977.The5el
ement
spr
esenti
nmostnat
ural
lyoccur
ri
ngpr
otei
nsar
e:

a)
C,H,
O,P,
S b)
N,C,
H,O,
I c)
N,S,
C,H,
O d)
C,H,
O,S,
I
978.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sthemai
nst
ruct
uralf
eat
ureofpr
otei
ns?

a)
pept
idel
i
nkage b)
est
erl
i
nkage c)
etherl
i
nkage d)
α,β-
Linkage

979.Thel
inearar
rangementofami
noaci
duni
tsi
npr
otei
nsi
scal
led:

a)
pri
mar
yst
ruct
ure b)
secondar
yst
ruct
ure c)
ter
ti
aryst
ruct
ure d)
quat
ernar
yst
ruct
ure

980.Thepr
imar
yst
ruct
ureofapr
otei
nref
erst
o:

a)
whet
hert
hepr
otei
nisf
ibr
ousorgl
obul
ar

b)
theami
noaci
dsequencei
nthepol
ypept
idechai
n

c)
theor
ient
ati
onoft
heami
noaci
dsi
dechai
nsi
nspace

d)
thepr
esenceorabsenceofanα-
hel
i
x

981.Theα-
hel
ixi
sacommonf
orm of

a)
pri
mar
yst
ruct
ure b)
ter
ti
aryst
ruct
ure c)
secondar
yst
ruct
ure d)
noneoft
hese

982.Theα-
hel
ixi
shel
dinacoi
ledconf
ormat
ionpar
ti
all
ybecauseof

a)
opt
ical
act
ivi
ty b)
hydr
ogenbondi
ng c)
resonance d)
del
ocal
i
zat
ion

983.Thedoubl
ehel
icalst
ruct
ureofDNAi
shel
dtoget
herby

a)
sul
phur
-sul
phurl
i
nkages b)
pept
idebondi
ng c)
hydr
ogenbondi
ngd)
gly
cosi
dicbonds

984.Uponhy
drol
ysi
s,pr
otei
nsgi
ve

a)
ami
noaci
ds b)
hydr
oxy
laci
dsc)
fat
tyaci
ds d)
alcohol
s

985.Compl
etehy
drol
ysi
sofpr
otei
nspr
oduces

a)
ammoni
aandcar
bondi
oxi
de b)
ureaandur
icaci
d

c)
ami
xtur
eofami
noaci
ds d)
gly
cogenandaf
att
yaci
d

986.Ny
nhy
dri
ngt
esti
sgi
venby

a)
car
bohy
drat
es b)
prot
eins c)
alkanes d)
alkenes

987.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngt
est
sisnotusedf
ort
est
ingpr
otei
ns?

a)
ninhy
dri
ntestb)
biur
ett
est c)
xant
hopr
otei
ctest d)
tol
l
enst
est

988.Apr
otei
nsol
uti
ononwar
mingwi
thconcent
rat
edHNO3mayt
urny
ell
ow.Thi
stesti
s
cal
led

a)
xant
hopr
otei
ctest b)
ninhy
dri
ngt
estc)
biur
ett
est d)
mil
l
ion’
stest
989.Acompoundgi
vesaposi
ti
veTol
lens’
testbutnegat
iveNi
nhy
dri
ntest
.Iti
s

a)
apr
otei
n b)
anami
noaci
d c)
amonosacchar
ide d)
pyr
idi
ne

990.Monosacchar
idesar
ecl
assi
fi
edaccor
dingt
o

a)
thenumberofcar
bonat
omsi
nthemol
ecul
e

b)
whet
hert
heycont
ainanal
dehy
deoraket
onegr
oup

c)
thei
rconf
igur
ati
onal
rel
ati
onshi
ptogl
ycer
aldehy
des

d)
all
oft
heabov
e

991.Whi
chi
samonosacchar
ide?

a)
sucr
ose b)
mal
tose c)
gal
act
ose d)
cel
l
ulose

992.Whi
chi
sadi
sacchar
ide?

a)
glucose b)
mal
tose c)
fruct
ose d)
cel
l
ulose

993.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotamonosacchar
ide?

a)
ri
bose b)
fruct
ose c)
sucr
ose d)
glucose

994.Thedesi
gnat
ionDorLbef
oret
henameofamonosacchar
ide

a)
indi
cat
est
hedi
rect
ionofr
otat
ionofpol
ari
zedl
i
ght

b)
indi
cat
est
hel
engt
hoft
hecar
bonchai
nint
hecar
bohy
drat
e

c)
indi
cat
est
heposi
ti
onoft
heOHgr
oupont
hecar
bonnextt
othepr
imar
yal
cohol
group

d)
indi
cat
est
heposi
ti
onoft
heasy
mmet
ri
ccar
bonat
omsi
nthecar
bohy
drat
e

995.Thepr
inci
palsugari
nbl
oodi
s

a)
fruct
ose b)
glucose c)
sucr
ose d)
gal
act
ose

996.Gl
ucosecannotbecl
assi
fi
edas

a)
ahex
ose b)
anol
i
gosacchar
ide c)
anal
dose d)
amonosacchar
ide

997.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngst
atement
sisf
alseaboutgl
ucose?

a)i
tisareduci
ngsugar b)
iti
sadi
sacchar
ide c)
ithasapy
ranosef
orm d)
iti
sa
pol
yalcohol

998.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngst
atement
sisf
alseaboutgl
ycer
aldehy
des?

a)
it
sIUPACnamei
s1,
2-di
hydr
oxy
propanal c)
iti
sopr
ti
cal
l
yact
ive
b)
iti
sisomer
icwi
th1,
3-di
hydr
oxy
propanone d)
itshowsmut
arot
ati
on

999.Commont
abl
esugari
s

a)
glucose b)
sucr
ose c)
fruct
ose d)
mal
tose

1000.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcar
bohy
drat
esi
ssweet
ert
hansucr
ose?

a)
glucoseb)
fruct
ose c)
lact
ose d)
noneoft
heabov
e

1001.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngst
atement
sisf
alseaboutsucr
ose?

a)
iti
sal
socal
l
edt
abl
esugar c)
itr
educesFehl
i
ng’
ssol
uti
on

b)itmaybef
erment
edbyy
eastt
opr
oduceal
cohol d)
itdoesnotr
educeTol
l
ens’
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Question
23. 23 (1/24)
24. 24
Which of the following solutions of H2SO4 is more concentrated?

Options
1 Molar solution
1 molal solution
1 normal solution
All have same concentration

Which of the following unit of concertration is independent of temperature?

Options
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction
All

Which of the following is an example of liquid in gas solution.

Options
Opals
PrevDust particles in smoke
SkipPaints
NextFog

The molal boiling point constant is the ration of the elevation of boiling point to

Options
Molarity
Molality
More fraction of solvent
Mole fraction of solute

Which has the minimum freezing point?

Options
One MolalNaCI
One molal KCI solution
One molal CaCI2
One molal urea solution

Which of the following is not a colligative property?

Options
Lowering of vapour pressure
Freezing point
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of polling point

When common salt is dissolved in water?

Options
Boiling point of water decrease
Boiling point of water increase
Boiling point of water remains same
None of the above

Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two compounds is called

Options
Solution
Compound
Radical
Ion

The component of solution which is in smaller amount is called

Options
Solvent
Solute
Phase
Ion

Solution with maximum concentration of solute at given temperature is called

Options
Super saturated solution
Unsaturated solution
Saturated solution
Dilute solution

Number of moles in 1 kg of solvent is called

Options
Normality
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction

58.5g of ofNaCl per 1 dm3 of solution of NaCl in water the concentration of solution will be

Options
0.1 M
1m
1M
0.1 N

If the volume of solution is equal to sum of volumes of its all components then the solution

Options
Will be an ideal solution
Will be non-ideal solution
Will show deviations from Raoults law
Both b & c

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is

Options
Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
Directly proportional to the mole fraction of solute
Both b & c

Concentration of solute molecule when they are in equilibrium with solid substance at particular
temperature is called

Options
Saturated solution
Solubility
Unsaturated solution
Super saturated solution

The determination of correct molecular weight from Raoults law is applicable to

Options
A volatile solute in dilute solution
A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solution
A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solute
Non volatile solute in a dilute solution

The compounds in which water molecules are added are called

Options
Hydrated ions
Double salts
Hydrates
Complexes

Hydration is a process in which

Options
Molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
Ions are surrounded by solvent molecules
Both ions and molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
Both ions and molecules are surrounded by water molecules

Solution of Na2SO4 will be

Options
Basic
Acidic
Neutral
Cannot be predicted without data

1 molar solution of glucose in water contains weight of glucose

Options
180g/dm3
170g/dm3
190g/dm3
195g/dm3

Water of crystallization can be removed by

Options
Drying
Heating
Evaporation
All of the above

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to molality if the solution is

Options
Concentrated
Dilute
Saturated solution
All of the above

Which one of the following salt does not hydrolyzed

Options
Na2SO4
AlCl3
CuSO4
NH4Cl
The molar concentration is called?

Options
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution
The mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
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Question
23. 23 (1/101)
24. 24
Which
25. 25change is oxidation?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Gain
28 of electrons
29.Gain
29 of hydrogen
30.Loss
30 of oxygen
31.Loss
31 of electrons
32. 32
33. 33change is reduction?
Which
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.A 36
decrease in oxidation state
37. 37
Gain of oxygen
38. 38
39.Loss
39 of electrons
40.Loss
40 of hydrogen
41. 41
What
42. 42is the oxidation state of chromium in the CrO3-2
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.+345
46.-346
Prev
47. 47
Skip+6
48. 48
Next-6
49. 49
50. 50
Magnesium displace lead ions from solution lead(II) sulfate. Which statement about this reaction
51. 51
is true?
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Lead
54 (II) ions are oxidized.
55. 55
56.Magnesium
atoms are oxidised.
56
57.Lead
57 (II) ions lose electrons.
58.Magnesium
58 atoms gain electrons .
59. 59
Which
60. 60one of the following substance is reducing agent?
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.Argon
63
64.Oxygen
64
65. 65
66.Carbon
66 dioxide
67.Carbon
67 monoxide
68. 68
Which
69. 69compound, when added to aqueous iron(II) sulphate, takes part in a redox reaction?
70. 70
Options
71. 71
72.Ammonia
72
73.Barium
73 chloride
74.Acidified
74 potassium manganate (VII)
75.Sodium
75 hydroxide
76. 76
77. 77 potassium dichromate (VI) can be used to detect the presence of ethanol vapour in the
Acidified
78. 78of a person who consumed alcohol. A color change from orange to green is absolved if
breach
79. 79 is present. This shows that ethanol is
ethanol
80. 80
81. 81
Options
82.An82alkali
83. 83
An indicator
84. 84
85.An85oxidizing agent
86.A 86
reducing agent
87. 87
Which
88. 88of the following bases has the highest pKa value
89. 89
Options
90. 90
91.NaOH
91
92.NaNO3
92
93.KNO3
93
94.KCl
94
95. 95
96. 96
What is the oxidation state of sulphur in SO3-2
97. 97
98. 98
Options
99.-499
100. 100
+2
101. 101
+4
+6

In which reaction is the first substance acting as a reducing agent?

Options
Chlorine + iron(II) chloride ---> iron(III) chloride
Copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ---> copper + water
Hydrochloric acid + magnesium oxide ---> magnesium chloride + water
Carbon monoxide + zinc oxide ---> zinc + carbon dioxide

Hydrogen peroxide, H2O2 reacts with silver oxide according to the following equation/ Ag2O(s) +
H2O2(l) = 2Ag(s) + H2O(l) + O2(g) in this reaction hydrogen peroxide behaves as
Options
A catalyst
A dehydrating agent
An oxidising agent
A reducing agent

What is the oxidation number of an iron atom in Fe2O3?

Options
+6
+3
-3
-2

What is the oxidation of xenon in XeF6?

Options
-6
-1
+6
-7

What is the oxidation number of an As atom in AsO4-3(aq)?

Options
+5
+9
+1
-7

Which represents an oxidation reaction?

Options
NaNO3 + KCl -> NaCl + KNO3
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
Cl2 + 2e--> 2 Cl-
K -> K+ + e-

Which represents a reduction reaction?

Options
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
Cl2 + 2 e--> 2 Cl-
K -> K+ + e-

In the electrolysis of water, which reaction occurs at the cathode?

Options
2 H2(g) + O2(g)  2 H2O(g)
2 02-(aq)  O2(g) + 4 e-
2 H2O(l)  4 H+(aq) + 2 02-(aq)
2 H+(aq) + 2 e- H2(g)

Which process / equation pair occurs at the cathode when iron hinges are plated with copper?

Options
Reduction, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
Reduction, Cu2+ + 2 e- Cu(s)
Oxidation, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
Oxidation, Cu2+ (aq) + 2 e- Cu(s)

Balance the following oxidation-reduction equation: Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq)  Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)

Options
Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq)    Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
2Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq)    2Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
2Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq)    2Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)
Sn2+(aq) + 2Ce4+(aq)    Sn4+(aq) + 2Ce3+(aq)

The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is __.

Options
+1
-1
+2
-2

Which of the following statements about corrosion are NOT true?

Options
A car rusts because steel reacts with water and oxygen in the air.
When iron rusts electrons are lost from the metal.
Plating metal speeds up the oxidation process.
Adding zinc metal strips to iron metals prevents corrosion.

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, __________ is oxidized. (acidic solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the oxidizing agent. (acidic
solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the reducing agent. (acidic
solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, the coefficient of water is ________. (acidic
solution)

Options
0
2
4
8

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is oxidized. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is reduced. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, _________ is the reducing agent. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, the coefficient of water is ________. (basic
solution)

Options
1
4
3
6

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31 (acidic solution), __________ is oxidized.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the oxidizing agent.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), the coefficient of water is
________.

Options
5
4
3
2

In the balanced reaction Cr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2 (basic solution) __________ is oxidized.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+22 (basic solution), _________ is the oxidizing
agent.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), the coefficient of water is
________.

Options
1
2
3
0

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3 (acidic solution), __________ is oxidized.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the oxidizing agent.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), the coefficient of water is

Options
0
1
2
3

Which one of these reactions is heterogeneous?

Options
CaO(s) + CO2(g) = CaCO3
KOH(sol) + HNO3(sol) = KNO3(sol) + H2O(l)
H2 + N2 = NH3
NH3 + O2 = N2 + H2O(g)

Which one of these reactions is homogeneous?

Options
K(s) + H2O(l) = KOH(sol) + H2(g)
N2(g) + H2(g) = NH3(g)
BaCl2(sol) + H2SO4(sol) =BaSO4(s) + 2HC1 (sol);
Fe + H2SO4 = FeSO4 + H2;

Find an endothermic reaction:

Options
N2 + Н2 = NH3- ΔH
SO2 + O2+ ΔH= SO3
С + О2 = СО2- ΔH
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

Which one of these reactions is redox reaction?

Options
Аl + Сl2= АlСl3
ВаСО3 = ВаО + СО2
Ba(NO3)2 + K2SO4= BaSO4 + KNO3
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2

Find irreversible reaction:

Options
H2 + N2 = NH3
NaOH + HCl = NaCl + H2O
SO2 + O2 = SO3
N2O4 = NO2

Number of reaction products always greater than number of reactants if it is:

Options
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
Reaction of substitution
Reaction of direct combination

Number of reaction products always less than number of reactants if it is:

Options
Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
Reaction of direct combination
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of substitution

Redox reactions in inorganic chemistry are always:

Options
Reactions of decomposition
Reactions of exchange (metathesis)
Reactions of substitution
Reactions of direct combination

Redox reactions are cannot be:

Options
Reactions of substitution
Reactions of exchange
Reactions of decomposition
Reactions of direct combination
Reaction, that goes without changes in oxidation numbers of atoms in compound, is:

Options
Reaction of exchange
Reaction of direct combination
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of substitution

The exchange reaction goes between:

Options
Simple and complex substances
Two simple substances
Two complex substances;
It can be both pair of simple and pair of complex substances

The products of decomposition reaction are:

Options
Only simple substances
Only complex substances
Both: and simple substances, and complex substances
Simple substance and complex substance.

Find redox reaction of substitution:

Options
СаСO3 = СаO + СО2
Н2O2= Н2O + O2
Cu + O2 = CuO
NaHCO3 = Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

Find redox reaction of direct combination:

Options
SO2 + O2 = SO3
NO2 + Н2O= HNO3 + NO
Н2O2= Н2O + O2
SO2 + NaOH = NaHSO3

At the same time reaction CANNOT be:

Options
Reaction of exchange and redox reaction
Redox reaction and decomposition
Substitution and redox
Direct combination and redox

Reactions, that can be homogeneous, are:


Options
Only exchange reactions
Only direct combination reactions
Only decomposition reactions
Every single one of them and substitution reactions.

Choose most common requirement for reaction to be homogeneous:

Options
Products are in one phase
Reactants are in one phase
Reactants and product are both in same phase
Reactants and product are both in gaseous state

Find heterogeneous reactions:

Options
CaO(s) + CO2(s) = CaCO3(s)
CO(g) + O2(g) = CO2(g)
NO2(g) + H2O(l) + O2(g) = HNO3(l
SO3(l) + H2O(l) = H2SO4(l)

Find redox decomposition reaction:

Options
Cu(NO3)2(s) = CuO(s) + NO2(g) + O2(g)
SO3(g) = SO2(g) + O2(g)
NH4NO3(g) = N2O(g) + H2O
Cu + O2 = CuO

Choose the heterogeneous redox reaction:

Options
Na(s) + H2O(l) = NaOH(sol) + H2(g)
NO2(g) + CO(g) = N2(g) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + N2O(g) = N2(g) + H2O(g)
SO3(g) = SO2(g) + O2(g)

There are reactions for SO2 obtaining:

Options
FeS2(s) + O2(g) = Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g)
NaHSO3(sol) + HCl(sol) = NaCl(sol) + H2O(l) + SO3(g)
S(s) + O2(g) = SO2(g)
Fe2(SO4)3(s) = Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + O2(g)

Among them redox reactions are:

Options
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 3, 4

Choose half-reaction for reduction process:

Options
С0 – 4e = С+4
N+5 + 2e = N+3
H2 – 2e = 2H+1
2S-1 – 10e = 2S+4

Choose half-reaction for reduction process:

Options
H02 – 2e = 2H+1
O20 + 4e = 2O-2
N-3 -5e = N+2
2O-1 – 2e = O20

Find half-reaction, where atoms of nitrogen are acting as reduction agents:

Options
H02 + 2e = 2H-1
H02 – 2e = 2H+1
N+5 + 2e = N+3
N-3 -5e = N+2

Find half-reaction, where atoms of sulfur are acting as oxidation agents:

Options
S0 – 4e = S+4
S+6 + 8e = S-2
2S-1 – 10e = 2S+4
S+4 + 4e = S0

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of sulfur changes from -1 to +4:

Options
H2SO4 + Cu = CuSO4 + SO2 + H2O
FeS2 + O2 = Fe2O3 + SO2
H2S + O2 = SO2 + H2O
KHS + HCl = KCl + H2S

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of nitrogen changes from -3 to 0:

Options
NH3 + O2 = NO + H2O
NO2 + H2O + O2 = HNO3
NH4NO2 = N2 +H2O
NH4NO3 = N2O + H2O

Choose reaction where oxidation number of carbon atom is increasing:

Options
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 = CaCO3 + H2O
CaO + CO2 = CaCO3
CO + Fe2O3 = Fe + CO2
CO2 + Mg = Mg + C

Choose reaction where oxidation number of chlorine atom is increasing:

Options
Cl2 + Fe = FeCl3
KClO3 = KCl + O2
Cl2 + KI = KCl + I2
KCl + F2 = KF + Cl2

Which one is oxidation process?

Options
Cl2 → 2 ClO-
NO2- → NO
Cr2O72- → 2CrO42-
SO32-→ H2S

Which one is oxidation process?

Options
HPO42- → H2PO4-
SO32-→ H2S
MnO4- → MnO42-
Cr2O72- → 2Cr3+

Sulfur is reduction agent in reaction with:

Options
Cu
Cl
P
H2

Phosphorus is oxidation agent when reacts with:

Options
Ca
S
O2
Cl

Oxidation properties of halogens increasing from left to right in line:

Options
I2, F2, Cl2
I2, Cl2, F2
Br2, F2, Cl2
F2, Cl2, I2

Which substance in redox reaction maintains only reduction properties?

Options
Nitrogen
Sulfur
Sodium
Phosphorus

Strongest oxidation agent, among simple substances is:

Options
Oxygen
Fluorine
Nitrogen
Aurum

Oxidation properties of substances increasing from left to right in line:

Options
C, S, O2
O2, S, C
Si, F2, I2
P, O2,S

Coefficient “2” before SO2 should be placed in redox reaction:

Options
Ag + HNO3 = Ag2SO4 + SO2 + H2O
Cu + H2SO4 = CuSO4 + SO2 + H2O
SO2 + H2S = S + H2O
SO2 + O2 = SO3

In redox reactions, Ag + HNO3 = AgNO3 + NO + H2O Cu + HNO3 = Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O NO2 + O2
+ H2O = HNO3 Mg + HNO3 = Mg(NO3)2 + NH4NO3 + H2O coefficient “4” before HNO3 should be
placed

Options
2,3,4
1,2,3
1,2,4
1,3,4

In process S+6→S-2, sulfur atoms are:

Options
Lose their electrons, oxidize
Receive electrons, oxidize
Lose their electrons, reduce
Receive electrons, reduce

In process N-3→N+2, sulfur atoms are:

Options
Lose their electrons, oxidize
Lose their electrons, reduce
Receive electrons, oxidize
Receive electrons, reduce

For process S-2→S+4 corresponds reaction:

Options
2NaOH + SO2 = Na2SO3 + H2O
2H2S + O2 = 2H2O + 2S
2H2S + 3O2 = 2H2O + 2SO2
Cu + 2H2SO4 = CuSO4 + 2SO2 + 2H2O

Process PbS→PbSO4 corresponds to:

Options
S+4 – 2e = S+6
S-2 – 8e = S+6
S0 + 2e = S-2
S0 + 4e = S-4

Which process reflects by 2O-1 – 2e = O20?

Options
H2O = H2 + O2
CuS + O2 = CuO + SO2
H2O2 + PbS = H2O + PbSO4
H2O2 + KMnO4 + H2SO4 = O2 + MnSO4 + K2SO4 + H2O

Which pair of half-reactions correct for Cl2 + KOH = KCl + KClO3 + H2O?

Options
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 3e = Cl+3
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 7e = Cl+7
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 5e = Cl+5
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 + 5e = Cl+5
Under oxidation, oxidation number of atom is

Options
Will decrease
Will increase
Stay same
Can increase and decrease

Process of reduction occurs when:

Options
Neutral atoms transforms into cations
Neutral atoms transforms into anions
Positive charge of simple ion increases
Negative charge of simple ion increases

Find reaction where oxidation agent receives 5 electrons.

Options
MnO2 + 4H+ = Mn2+ + 4H2O
MnO4 + 8H+ = Mn2+ + 4H2O
N2 + 4OH- = 2NO + 2H2O
N2 + 4 H2O = 2NH2OH + 2OH-

Under reduction, oxidation number of atom is

Options
Willincrease
Will decrease
Stay same
Can increase and decrease

Process of oxidation occurs when:

Options
Neutral atoms transforms into cations
Neutral atoms transforms into anions
Positive charge of simple ion decreases
Negative charge of simple ion

Find reaction where water is oxidation agent:

Options
Cl2 + H2O = HCl + HClO3
Ca + H2O = Ca(OH)2 + H2
CaC2 + H2O = Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
NO2 + H2O + O2 = HNO3

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of nitrogen changes from 0 to -2:


Options
N2 + 4H2O = N2H4 + 4OH-
N2 + 4H2O = 2NH2OH + 2OH-
N2 + 6H+ = 2NH3
N2 + 8H+ = 2NH4+

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of chlorine changes from 0 to +7:

Options
HCl + 2H2O = ClO2 + 5H+
Cl2 + 6H2O = 2ClO3- + 12H+
Cl2 + 8H2O = 2ClO4- + 16H+
2HCl + H2O = Cl2O + 4H+

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of chromium changes from +6 to 0:

Options
CrO42- + 4H+ = CrO2- + 2H2O
CrO42- + 4H2O = Cr(OH)3 + 5OH-
Cr2O72- + 14H+ = 2Cr3+ + 7H2O
Cr2O42- + 8H+ = Cr + 4H2O

Find reaction where hydrogen peroxide is reduction agent:

Options
H2O2 + 2H+ = 2H2O
H2O2 = O2 + 2H+
PbS + H2O2 = PbSO4 + H2O
Na2SO3 + H2O2 = Na2SO4 + H2O

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of phosphorus changes from +3 to 0:

Options
H3PO3 + 2H+ = H3PO2 + H2O
H3PO4 + 4H+ = H3PO2 + 2H2O
5НСlО3 + 6Р = 6Н3РО4 + 5НСl
PO43- + 2H2O = HPO32- + 2OH-
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21. 21
22. 22
Question
23. 23 (1/58)
24. 24
In25.
which
25 of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.H3PO4
28 and H2SO4
29.HCl
29 and HNO3
30.H2CO3
30 and HBr
31.HC2H3O2
31
and HI
32. 32
In33. 33 of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair weak acids?
which
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.H2SO4
36 and HC2H3O2
37. 37
HNO3 and H2C4H4O6
38. 38
39.HC2H3O2
39 and H3C6H5O7
40.H3PO4
40 and H2SiO3
41. 41
Which
42. 42of the following is produced in the first step of the dissociation of the acid H3PO4?
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.H3PO3
45
46. 46
PrevH2PO4–
47. 47
SkipHPO42–
48. 48
NextPO43–
49. 49
50. ionization
Acid 50 constants give information about
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.The
53 strengths of acids.
54. 54
55.The
55 number of nonacidic hydrogens present in acids.
56.Whether
56 acids are polyprotic.
57.Whether
57 acids can neutralize bases
58. 58
In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

Options
H2SO4 and BaSO4
NaCl and NaOH
NH4Cl and KCl
HNO3 and KOH

In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base will react
in a molar ratio of

Options
One to one
One to three.
Three to one
Three to three.

A solution with a pH of 12.0 is

Options
Strongly acidic.
Weakly acidic
Weakly basic
Strongly basic

The pH of a solution for which [OH–] = 1.0 x 10–6 is

Options
1.00
8.00
6.00
–6.00

Which of the following does not describe an acidic solution?

Options
The pH is less than 7.0
The [OH–] is greater than 1.0 x 10–7
The [H3O+] is greater than the [OH–]
The [OH–] is 6.0 x 10–10

In which of the following pairs of salts will both members of the pair hydrolyze in water to give
solutions that are basic?

Options
NaCl and NaCN
NH4Cl and NH4NO3
KC2H3O2 and KCN
NaNO3 and Na2SO4

If the pH of a solution of a salt is 5.0, the salt must be one which could be formed from the
neutralization of

Options
A strong acid and a strong base.
A weak acid and a strong base.
A strong acid and a weak base.
HCl and NaOH.

If a solution is buffered at a pH of 8.0, then the addition of a small amount of acid will cause the
solution to have a pH of approximately

Options
6.0.
7.0.
8.0.
9.0.

A buffer solution could be prepared from

Options
NaCl and HCl
NaOH and HCl
KC2H3O2 and HC2H3O2.
NaCN and KCN

In which of the following pairings of compounds are both members of the pair strong
electrolytes?

Options
NaOH and NaCl
NH3 and HCl
KOH and H2CO3
NaCN and HCN

In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?

Options
HNO3 and HNO2
H2SO4 and H2SO3
HCl and HClO4
No correct response

Which of the following statements about weak acids is correct?

Options
Weak acids always contain C atoms
The percentage dissociation for weak acids is usually in the range of 40-60%.
Weak acid molecules readily lose their acidic hydrogen atoms.
No correct response

In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base will react
in a molar ratio of
Options
One to one
One to one
Three to one
Three to three

Which of the following equations represents an acid-base neutralization reaction?

Options
H2SO4 + Zn ZnSO4 + H2
HNO3 + KOH KNO3 + H2O
Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaOH
No correct response

In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

Options
NaCl and NaOH
KNO3 and K2SO4
H3PO4 and (NH4)3PO4
More than one correct response

Which of the following pairings of pH and hydronium ion concentration is correct?

Options
PH = 2.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 102
PH = 7.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 10–7
PH = 9.0; [H3O+] = 9 x 10–9
No correct response

Which of the following is a correct statement for a solution with a pH of 8.00?

Options
The hydroxide ion concentration is greater than the hydronium ion concentration
The hydronium ion concentration is 8.0 M
The hydroxide ion concentration is 1.0 x 10–8 M
No correct response

In which of the following salts would both the positive ion and the negative ion hydrolyze when
the salt is dissolved in water?

Options
NaCl
NaCN
NH4Cl
No correct response

The pH of a buffered solution

Options
Always equals 7.0.
May be acidic or basic depending on the buffer present.
Changes drastically when a small amount of acid is added
No correct response

Which of the following statements concerning electrolytes is correct?

Options
All strong acids are strong electrolytes
Some salts are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes.
Some molecular substances are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes
More than one correct response

Conjugate base of H3PO4

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Conjugate acid of HPO42–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Will form a buffer with PO43–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Reacts with H3O+ to form HPO42–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Diprotic weak acid

Options
HCl
HClO4
H2SiO3
H2SO4

Monoprotic strong acid

Options
HCl
HC2H3O2
H2C3H2O2
H2SO4

Acid which completely dissociates in solution to produce negative ions with a charge of one

Options
HCl
HC2H3O2
H2C3H2O2
H2SO4

Salt whose dissociation produces equal amounts of two ions

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance which reacts with H2SO4 to produce K2SO4

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance produced when HNO3 neutralizes NaOH

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance which reacts with NaOH to produce Na3PO4

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Salt whose dissociation produces more positive ions than negative ions

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

PH = 2.30

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

PH = 7.00

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

[H3O+] = 2.0 x 10–8 M

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

[OH–] = 3.0 x 10–-6 M

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaCl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaCN solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaOH solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NH4Cl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous HCl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Inorganic compounds divided in to:

Options
Simple, complex substances
Metals, nonmetals
Acid, base, salt, oxide
Metal, acid, simple substance

What is the oxides?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues.
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

What is the bases?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

What is the salts?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues

What is the acids?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen.
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

Complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them oxygen are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl group (OH) are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues are called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid residues are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Basic formula oxides?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula bases?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula salts?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula acids?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy
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Question (1/16)

Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the given….

Options
Protein
Lipids
Carbohydrate
Vitamins

In carbohydrates a special functional groups are present in the given following:

Options
Alcohol & Carboxyl groups
Aldehyde & Ketone groups
Hydroxyl groups & Hydrogen groups
Carboxyl groups & Others

Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of …

Options
L-type
PrevD-type
SkipDL-types
NextNone of the above

Simplest carbohydrate is ….

Options
Dihydroxy acetone
Glycerldehyde
Glucose
Gulose

Examples of Epimers….

Options
Glucose &Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
A&c
Fermentation is the degradation of complex organic substances into simpler ones by the activity
of living cells through the agency of ….

Options
Acid
Alkali
Oxidizing substances
Enzymes (Zymase)

The end product of hydrolysis of “Starch” by amylase is …

Options
Soluble starch
Glucose
Dextrins
Maltose

Structure or shape of something is known as its

Options
Structure
Morphology
Conformation
Shape

Glucose is a monosaccharide and is a

Options
Hexose
Pentose
Furanose
Sucrose

What is the relationship between glucose, mannose and galactose?

Options
They are isomers
They are epimers
They are ketoses
No relationship exists

What best describes amylose?

Options
Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

What best describes amylopectin?


Options
Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

What is the storage form of carbohydrate in animals?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch

Where is glycogen stored?

Options
In the kidney and liver
In the stomach and kidney
In the muscle and liver
In the muscle and stomach

What is the major constituent of plant cell wall?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch

What forms the exoskeleton of anthropods?

Options
Agarose
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch
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23. 23
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25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29
Question (1/313)
30. 30
31. 31
Thermodynamics studies
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.General
34 laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
35.Energy
35 changes during chemical transformations.
36.The
36 rate of chemical reactions.
37.Chemical
37 processes that cause electrons to move.
38. 38
By39. 39
interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:
40. 40
Options
41. 41
42.Thermal
42 conductivity, Convection, Radiation
43.Heterogeneous,
43 homogeneous
44.Open,
44 Closed, Isolated
45.Isochoric,
45 Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
46. 46
What
47. 47is the Open System?
48. 48
Options
49. 49
50.Matter
50 and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
51.Energy
51 but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
52.Neither
52 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
53.Homogeneous
53 in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
54. 54
What
55. 55is the Closed System?
56. 56
Options
57. 57
Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
58. 58
Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
59. 59
PrevEnergy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
60. 60
Skip
61.Neither
61 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
Next
62. 62
What is the Isolated System?
63. 63
64. 64
Options
65.Matter
65 and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
66. 66
Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
67. 67
Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
68. 68
Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
69. 69
70. 70
Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
71. 71
72. 72
Options
73.Open
73 System
74.Closed
74 System
75.Isolated
75 System
76.Adiabatic
76 System
77. 77
Energy
78. 78but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
79. 79
Options
80. 80
81.Open
81 System
82.Closed
82 System
83.Isolated
83 System
84.Adiabatic
84 System
85. 85
Neither
86. 86 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
Open System
89. 89
90.Closed
90 System
91.Isolated
91 System
92.Adiabatic
92 System
93. 93
Thermodynamic processes may be:
94. 94
95. 95
Options
96. 96
Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
97. 97
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
98. 98
Open, Closed, Isolated
99. 99
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
100. 100
101. 101
What is the Isothermal process?
102. 102
103. 103
Options
104.A 104
process during which the temperature T = const
105.A 105
process during which the pressure P = const
106.A 106
process during which the specific volume v = const
107. 107
A process during which the heat Q = 0
108. 108
109. 109
What is the Isobaric process?
110. 110
Options
111. 111
112.A 112
process during which the temperature T = const
113.A 113
process during which the pressure P = const
114.A 114
process during which the specific volume v = const
115.A 115
process during which the heat Q = 0
116. 116
What
117. 117
is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?
118. 118
Options
119. 119
120.A 120
process during which the temperature T = const
121.A 121
process during which the pressure P = const
122.A 122
process during which the specific volume v = const
123.A 123
process during which the heat Q = 0
124. 124
What
125. 125
is the adiabaticprocess?
126. 126
Options
127. 127
128.A 128
process during which the temperature T = const
129.A 129
process during which the pressure P = const
130.A 130
process during which the specific volume v = const
131.A 131
process during which the heat Q = 0
132. 132
A133.
process
133 during which the temperature T = const is called?
134. 134
Options
135. 135
Isothermal process
136. 136
137.Isobaric
137 process
138.Isochoric
138 (or isometric) process
139.Adiabaticprocess
139
140. 140
A process during which the pressure P = const is called?
141. 141
142. 142
Options
143. 143
Isothermal process
144. 144
Isobaric process
145. 145
146.Isochoric
146 (or isometric) process
147.Adiabaticprocess
147
148. 148
A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?
149. 149
150. 150
Options
151.Isothermal
151 process
152. 152
Isobaric process
153. 153
Isochoric (or isometric) process
154. 154
Adiabaticprocess
155. 155
156.basic
The 156 formula for Entropy;
157. 157
Options
158. 158
159.Q=∆U+A
159
160.H=U+pV
160
161.∆U161
= U(final) – U(initial)
162.S 162
= KlnW
163. 163
164. 164movement of colloidal particles is:
Chaotic
165. 165
Options
166. 166
167.Osmosis;
167
168.Diffusion;
168
169.Brownian
169 motion;
170.Coagulation
170 .
171. 171
Find
172. the
172 formula of Internal energy.
173. 173
Options
174. 174
175.Q=∆U+A
175
176.H=U+pV
176
177.∆U177
= U(final) – U(initial)
178. 178
∆S = S(initial) - S(final)
179. 179
180. 180energy is called?
Internal
181. 181
Options
182. 182
183.Sum
183of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
184.Heat
184 flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
185.Reactions
185 accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
186.The
186rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
187. 187
Colloidal
188. 188 dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:
189. 189
Options
190. 190
191.Aerosol;
191
192.Emulsion;
192
193.Sol;
193
194.Foam
194
195. 195
Sum
196. of
196all potential and kinetic energies of all components
197. 197
Options
198. 198
Internal energy
199. 199
Enthalpy
200. 200
201.Entropy;
201
Exothermic
202. 202 process
203. 203
Fog and smoke are:
204. 204
205. 205
Options
206. 206
Aerosols;
207. 207
Emulsions;
208. 208
Gels;
209. 209
Foams
210. 210
211. 211 is called?
Enthalpy
212. 212
213. 213
Options
214.Sum
214of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
215.Heat
215 flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
216. 216
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
217. 217
The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
218. 218
219.consists
Sol 219 of:
220. 220
Options
221. 221
222.Liquid
222 droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
223.Solid
223 particles dispersed throughout a gas;
224.Solid
224 particles dispersed in a liquid;
225.Liquid
225 droplets dispersed throughout another liquid
226. 226
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
227. 227
228. 228
Options
229. 229
Internal energy
230. 230
231.Enthalpy
231
Entropy
232. 232
233.Exothermic
233 process
234. 234
Stability of a disperse system is:
235. 235
236. 236
Options
237. 237
Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and
238. 238
viscosity;
239. 239
Process of particles integration;
240. 240
Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
241. 241
242.Constancy
242 in time of its state and main properties.
243. 243
The heat transfer are divided into
244. 244
245. 245
Options
246.Thermal
246 conductivity, Convection, Radiation
247. 247
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
248. 248
Open, Closed, Isolated
249. 249
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
250. 250
251. 251 stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:
Aggregate
252. 252
Options
253. 253
254.Coalescing
254 of particles;
255.Sedimentation
255 of particles;
256.Destruction
256 of particles;
257. 257
Subdivision of particles.
258. 258
259. 259
What is the thermal conductivity?
260. 260
Options
261. 261
262.The
262material to conduct heat.
263.Heat
263 is transferred from one place to another.
264.The
264radiation transmitted even void (sun).
265.None
265 of them.
266. 266
What is the convection?
267. 267
268. 268
Options
269. 269
270.The
270material to conduct heat.
271.Heat
271 is transferred from one place to another.
272.The
272radiation transmitted even void (sun).
273.None
273 of them.
274. 274
The
275.structure
275 of ironic hydroxide sol:
276. 276
Options
277. 277
278.{m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
278
279.{m[BaSO4]
279 n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
280.{m[BaSO4]
280 n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
281.{m[Au]
281 n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.
282. 282
What is the radiation?
283. 283
284. 284
Options
285. 285
The material to conduct heat.
286. 286
287.Heat
287 is transferred from one place to another.
288.The
288radiation transmitted even void (sun).
289.None
289 of them.
290. 290
According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
291. 291
292. 292
Options
293. 293
Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
294. 294
Precipitate and water;
295. 295
Mixture of gases;
296. 296
297.Atoms
297 and ions.
298. 298
Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?
299. 299
300. 300
Options
301.Julius
301 Robert von Mayer
302.Rudolf
302 Clausius
303. 303
Mendeleev
304. 304
Gibbs
305. 305
306. 306 phase of sparkling drinks is:
Disperse
307. 307
Options
308. 308
309.N2;
309
310.H2O;
310
311.CO2;
311
312. 312
O2.
313. 313
Aerosol is:

Options
Powder;
Dust cloud;
Hairspray;
All answers are right.

Biological gel is:

Options
Cartilage;
Air;
Clouds;
River water

The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:

Options
These are heterogeneous systems;
Particles are visible with the naked eye;
They are easily besieged;
All answers are right.

Coarse disperse system is:

Options
Solution;
Suspension;
Sol;
Gel.

Chromatography is:

Options
The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
A type of disperse systems;
A continuous phase;
The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:

Options
Surface tension;
Surface energy;
Internal energy;
Heat of dissolution.

Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:

Options
Fog;
Dust;
Smoke;
Steam.

Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:

Options
Color;
Transparence;
Size of particles;
Odor.

Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

Options
Liquid;
Solid;
Gas;
All answers are right

What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?

Options
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a
liquid;
On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

Options
Coarse dispersed;
Colloidal;
Molecular;
True solution.

Coagulation is:

Options
Chaotic movement of particles;
Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;
Destruction of the native protein structure;
The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby
separate from the continuous phase.

Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

Options
Viscosity, flowability;
Opalescence, light absorption;
Diffusion, Brownian motion;
Dissolution, swelling.

Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

Options
Opalescence;
Light absorption;
Electrodialysis;
Electrophoresis and electroosmosis
A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

Options
Negatively charged;
Positively charged;
Electro neutral;
Negatively and positively charged.

Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

Options
Diameter
Particle size
Radius
Solubility

The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

Options
Suspension> colloidal > true solution
True solution > suspension > colloidal
Suspension> colloidal = true solution
None of the above

Colloids can be purified by

Options
Peptization
Coagulation
Dialysis
Bredic arc method

Which is a natural colloid?

Options
Sodium chloride
Urea
Cane sugar
Blood

Which one of the following is not a colloid

Options
Milk
Blood
Ice cream
Urea solution

Milk is a colloid in which

Options
A liquid is dispersed in liquid
A solid is dispersed in liquid
A gas is dispersed in liquid
Some sugar is dispersed in water

An aerosol is a colloidal system of

Options
A liquid dispersed in a solid
A liquid dispersed in a gas
A gas dispersed in air
None of the above

Which of the following is a homogeneous system

Options
Muddy water
Bread
Concrete
A solution of sugar in water

Which of the following is an emulsifier?

Options
Soap
Water
Oil
NaCl

Lyophobic colloids are

Options
Reversible colloids
Irreversible colloids
Protective colloids
Gum proteins

Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

Options
Condensation
Dialysis
Diffusion through animal membrane
Addition of an electrolyte

Colloidal solutions are not purified by

Options
Dialysis
Electrodialysis
Ultrafiltration
Electrophoresis

Suspensions are

Options
Visible to naked eye
Not visible by any means
Invisible under electron microscope
Invisible through microscope

Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

Options
Gelatin
Sulphur
Gold
Carbon

Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

Options
Lyophilic sol
Associated colloid
Hydrophobic sol
Emulsion

The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

Options
Charge on their particles
A layer of medium of dispersion on their particles
The smaller size of their particles
The large size of their particles

Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

Options
The colloidal particles have positive charge
The colloidal particles have negative charge
The colloidal particles are solvated
There are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

Options
High concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained
Coagulation is reversible
Viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water
The charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive,
negative, or even zero
When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

Options
Light scattered by colloidal particles
Size of the particle
Shape of the particle
Relative size

Light scattering takes place in

Options
Solution of electrolyte
Colloidal solutions
Electrodialysis
Electroplating

Maximum coagulation power is in

Options
Na+
Ba2+
Al3+
Sn4+

The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

Options
Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+
Cl- , SO42- , PO43-
Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+
PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

Options
NaCl solution
Starch solution
Urea solution
FeCl3 solution

Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

Options
Linear
Curved
Zigzag
Uncertain

The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

Options
Photolysis
Dialysis
Pyrolysis
Peptisation

Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known as

Options
Electrolysis
Electrophoresis
Electrodyalysis
None of the above

Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the particles?

Options
Dialysis
Electrophoresis
Sedimentation
Ultrafiltration

Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

Options
Absorption
Tyndall effect
Flocculation
Paramagnetism

Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

Options
Accumulates in the surface of the other substance
Goes into the body of the other substance
Remains close to the other substance
Forms chemical bonds with other substences.

Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

Options
Colloidal S
Colloidal antimony
Colloidal gold
Colloidal platinum

As2S3 sol is

Options
Positive colloid
Negative colloid
Neutral colloid
None of the above

Which of the following is a colloid?

Options
Sugar solution
Urea solution
Silicic acid
NaCl solution

Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

Options
Smoke
Ink
Blood
Air

Milk is

Options
Fat dispersed in milk
Fat dispersed in water
Water dispersed in fat
Water dispersed in oil

Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

Options
Solid is dispersed in liquid
Liquid is dispersed in a solid
Gas is dispersed in a solid
Solid is dispersed in a solid

What is the endothermic process?

Options
Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

What is the exothermic process?

Options
Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


Options
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
Open, Closed, Isolated
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
Endothermic reactions

Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

Options
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
Open, Closed, Isolated
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
Exothermic reactions

Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Q= ΔU+ W

Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
Q= ΔU+ W
ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Q= ΔU+ W

System consisting of three phases is called

Options
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Isolated
Open

System consisting of one phase is called

Options
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Isolated
Open

What is the heterogeneous system?

Options
System consisting of three phases is called
Heat is transferred from one place to another.
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
System consisting of one phase is called

What is the homogeneous system?

Options
System consisting of three phases is called
Heat is transferred from one place to another.
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
System consisting of one phase is called

What are the units of energy?

Options
Volta
Pascal
Liter
Joule

Spontaneous process occurs only

Options
Without external energy
At constant temperature
In forward direction
With external energy help

Internal energy is ……

Options
Energy of system at constant pressure
Gibbs energy
Energy of system at constant volume
Measure of systems randomness

Enthalpy is expressed by following

Options
H = U + pV
∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
H = G + TS
Qp = ∆H
Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Options
A
G
Qp
H

Find state parametre

Options
Q
G
T
H

Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Options
Q
G
Qp
S

Find state parameter

Options
Q
G
V
H

For spontaneous processes

Options
∆H ≥ 0
∆S ≤ 0
∆G ≥ 0
∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics studies –

Options
Energy changes during chemical transformations.
The rate of chemical reactions.
General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
Of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

Butter is a colloid formed when

Options
Fat is dispersed in water
Fat globules are dispersed in water
Water is dispersed in fat
None of the above

Which of the following is not a colloid?

Options
Chlorophyll
Smoke
Ruby glass
Milk

Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?

Options
Monomolecular
Dimolecular
Trimolecular
Radical reaction

Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

Options
Muddy water
Bread
Concrete
A solution of sugar in water

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

Options
Monomolecular
Radical reaction
Dimolecular
Trimolecular

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

Options
Monomolecular
Dimolecular
Radical reaction
Trimolecular

What is the Monomolecular reaction?

Options
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

What is theDimolecular Reaction?

Options
Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Conjugate reactions.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

What is theTrimolecular reaction?

Options
Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
Reactions proceeding simultaneously.

A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

Options
Gel
Homogeneous solution
Sol
Aerosol

Enzymes isais a substance that …

Options
Increase the rate of reaction
Decrease the rate of reaction
Biological catalyst of reaction
No effect on the reaction rate

If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

Options
A sol
A gel
An emulsion
A foam

A substance that increases the reaction rate-

Options
Catalyst
Indicator
Inhibitor
Reducing agents.

A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as


Options
Foam
Sol
Aerosol
Emulsion

A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

Options
Catalyst
Inhibitor
Enzymes
Indicator

Reversible reactions are called?

Options
A change that can go forwards or backwards
A change that cannot go back,
Process of substance dissolution
Reactions proceeding in parallel

Irreversible reactions are called?

Options
A change that can go forwards or backwards
A change that cannot go back,
Reactions proceeding in parallel
Process of substance dissolution

The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

The reactions that cannot go back is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

A material that dissolves is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

Which of these reactions are monomolecular

Options
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
I2 → I • + I •

Which of these reactions are monomolecula

Options
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
Cl2 → 2Cl
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2

Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

Options
CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

Which of these reactions are dimolecular

Options
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
2HI → H2 + I2
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

Which of these reactions are dimolecular.

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
Which of these reactions are dimolecula

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
N2O4 → 2NO2

Emulsifiers are generally

Options
Soap
Synthetic detergents
Lyophilic sols
All of the above

The equilibrium constant for the reaction? 2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):

Options
Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2];
Kc = [CO2] / [CO];
Kc = 1 / [CO2];
Kc = [CO] / [CO2]

What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?2NO + O2→2NO2

Options
Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction? N2 +3H2 =
2NH3

Options
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is

Options
K= [O2]
K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
K= [NaNO3 ]

Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is

Options
K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
K = [CO2 ]
K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?

Options
Backward
Forward
Won’t shifted
Towards reactants

The rate constant of a reactions depends on

Options
Temperature
Initial concentration of the reactants
Time of reaction
Extent of reaction

The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the

Options
Concentration of the reactant
Concentration of the product
Time
Temperature

A catalyst is a substance which

Options
Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
Supplies energy to the reaction

The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

Options
Stability
Molecular weight
Equivalent weight
Active mass

In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

Options
Same
Different
One side more
Not definite

Butter is

Options
Emulsion
Aerosol
Suspension
None

A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

Options
Unequal
Constant
Equal
Increased

The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium is
termed as

Options
Aerosol
Gel
Emulsion
Foam

The law of mass action was enunciated by

Options
Guldberg and Waage
Bodenstein
Berthlot
Graham

Which one of an example of gel?

Options
Soap
Fog
Cheese
Milk
According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction will
N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

Options
Increase the yield of NO
Decrease by yield of NO
Not effect on the yield of NO
Not help the reaction to proceed

Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called

Options
Aerosol
Cannot be prepared
Gas aerosol
Gasosol

Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g) Why is the reaction slower when a single
piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the same mass is used?

Options
The powdered zinc is more concentrated;
The single piece of zinc is more reactive;
The powdered zinc requires less activation energy;
The powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

Options
Increases
Decreases;
Remains the same;
Approaches zero

Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

Options
The number of moles of the reactants and products;
The potential energies of the reactants and products;
The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;
The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.

When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is called

Options
Smoke
Clouds
Jellies
Emulsions
Milk is an example of

Options
Pure solution
Emulsion
Gel
Suspension

The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

Options
Electro-osmosis
Brownian movement
Cataphoresis
Dialysis

Tyndall effect will be observed in

Options
Solution
Precipitate
Sol
Vapour

Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

Options
Scattering of light
Reflection of light
Absorption of light
Presence of electrically charged particles

The Brownian motion is due to

Options
Temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase
Attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles
Impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles
Convective currents

The sky looks blue due to

Options
Dispersion effect
Reflection
Transmission
Scattering

The blue color of water in the sea is due to

Options
Refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water
Reflection of blue sky by sea water
Scattering of blue light by water molecules
Absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

Which colloid is used in treating eye disease

Options
Colloidal S
Colloidal antimony
Colloidal gold
Colloidal silver

Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

Options
Dialysis
Brownian movement
Electro-osmosis
Tyndall effect

In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

Options
Suspension
Emulsion
Sugar solution
Gold sol

Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

Options
Milk
Gum
Fog
Blood

Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

Options
Suspension
Emulsion
Gel
Rtue solution

The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

Options
Dialysis
Addition of electrolytes
Diffusion through animal membrane
Condensation

As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles abruptly
collected into spherical structures called _________

Options
Ball
Sphere of ions
Micelles
Dirt particle

_________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary
liquid induced by an external field.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?

Options
Minerals
Vitamins
Proteins
Starch

At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

Options
Molecular colloid
Associated colloid
Macromolecular colloid
Lyophillic colloid

Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

Options
Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration
Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
Aqueous solution of odium chloride
Aqueous solution of sugar

Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

Options
By addition of oppositely charged sol
By addition of an electrolyte
By addition of lyophilic sol
By boiling
Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

Options
Coagulation
Electrolysis
Diffusion
Peptisation

Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+

Options
Na2S
Na3PO4
Na2SO4
NaCl

A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

Options
Solid sol
Gel
Emulsion
Sol

The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison to those
shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles ____________

Options
Exhibit enormous surface area
Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
Form lyophilic colloids
Are comparatively less in number

Which element is present in all organic compounds?

Options
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Phosphorous

Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

Options
Low melting point
High melting point
Soluble in polar solvents
Insoluble in nonpolar solvents

Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is
Options
Slower because organic particles are ions
Slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds
Faster because organic particles are ions
Faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

Which compounds are isomers?

Options
1-propanol and 2-propanol
Methanoic acid and ethanoic acid
Methanol and methanal
Ethane and ethanol

Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

Options
Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.
Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.
Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms
Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms

Which polymers occur naturally?

Options
Starch and nylon
Starch and cellulose
Protein and nylon
Protein and plastic

What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?

Options
Butane
Butene
Benzene
Butyne

In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a regular

Options
Pyramid
Tetrahedron
Square
Rectangle

In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per molecule?

Options
C2H2 and C2H6
C2H2 and C3H6
C4H8 and C2H4
C6H6 andC7H8

A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

Options
Decrease;
Increase
Remain the same;
Approach zero

Which compound contain an alcohol group?

Options
Acetone
Methanale
Methanol
Dimethyl ether

In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

Options
Make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;
Add a catalyst;
Cool the reaction down;
Use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

Options
Water
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
Sulfur dioxide

Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) +
Cl-(aq)

Options
II only;
III only;
I and II only;
II and III only

Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
Ethane
Ethene
Ethyne
Ethanol
Molarity is expressed as

Options
Grams/litre
Litres/mole
Moles/litre
Moles/1000 gm

Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in

Options
1000 gm of the solvent
Onelitre of the solution
One litre of the solvent
22.4 litres of the solution

What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

Options
An addition reaction
A substitution reaction
A saponification reaction
An esterification reaction

Normality is expressed as

Options
Moles/litre
Gm equivalents/litre
Moles/1000 gm
Gram/litre

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

Options
1
2
3
4

The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

Options
1N
10 N
1.7 N
0.83 N

Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

Options
Acids
Alcohols
Esters
Ethers

Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

Options
1N
0x1N
4N
None

Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

Options
2-methylpropane
2-methylbutane
Propane
Butane

The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

Options
0x1
1
4
0.4

Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

Options
2.04 N
0.49 N
0.98 N
0.35 N

What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

Options
Ketone
Protein
Ester
Acid

What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?

Options
0.5 N
1.0 N
2.0 N
3.0 N

During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

Options
Boiling points
Melting points
Triple points
Saturation points

Which compound is an organic acid?

Options
CH3OH
CH3OCH3
CH3COOH
CH3COOCH3

Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different

Options
Percentage compositions;
Molecular masses;
Molecular formulas;
Structural formulas.

Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

Options
2N
4N
N/2
N/4

Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one additional carbon
atom and

Options
One hydrogen atom;
Two hydrogen atoms;
Three hydrogen atoms;
Four hydrogen atoms.

The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is ?

Options
0.46 N
0.23 N
2.3 N
4.6 N
The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has the same

Options
Empirical formula;
General formula;
Structural formula;
Molecular formula.

The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

Options
4g
1g
2g
10 g

What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?

Options
Methanol;
Methane;
Methyl methanoate;
Methanoic acid.

Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

Options
0.05 M
0.2 M
0.1 M
0.4 M

A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

Options
Toluene;
Benzene;
Butene;
Pentene.

The molarity of pure water is

Options
55.6
50
100
18

C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

Options
Addition;
Substitution;
Saponification;
Esterification.

The number of moles in 180 g of water is

Options
1
10
18
100

The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

Options
C3H7COCH3;
CH3COOC2H5;
C2H5OC2H5;
CH3COOH.

The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

Options
1
2
3
1.5

What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

Options
1
2
3
4

Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

Options
C2H6;
C3H6;
C4H6;
C6H6.

A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

Options
Carbon dioxide;
Water;
Glycerol;
Ethanol.

The general formula for the alkyne series is

Options
CnHn;
CnH2n;
CnH2n+2;
CnH2n-2.

Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

Options
0.1 M
0.5 M
0.01 M
1.0 M

Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

Options
Acetylene;
Ethylene;
Toluene;
Propene

What is the solution?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

Options
HCOOCH3;
CH3CH2COOH;
CH3CH2OH;
CH3COOCH3

What is the solute?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which compound is a member of the alkene series?


Options
Benzene;
Toluene;
Acetylene;
Ethane

What is the solvent?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

Options
Single covalent;
Double covalent;
Triple covalent;
Coordinate covalent

What is the concentration?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

Options
C2H4;
C3H6;
C4H8;
C5H10

A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

Options
An esterification reaction;
A neutralization reaction;
A saponification reaction;
A fermentation reaction.

Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is an
example of _______ reaction.

Options
Substitution;
Addition;
Polymerization;
Fermentation.

In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

Options
11
10
3
8

Which compound is an ester?

Options
CH3COOH;
CH3CHO;
CH3COOCH3;
CH3COCH3.

The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

Options
A polymer;
A soap;
An ester;
An alcohol.

Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures are called

Options
Isomers;
Isotopes;
Allotropes;
Homologs.
Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

Options
Structural formula;
Molecular formula
Number of carbon atoms;
Number of hydrogen atoms.

Mass fraction is called?

Options
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

Options
CH3COOH;
CH3CH2OH;
CH3CH2COOH;
CH3CH2CH2OH

Mass fraction is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

Options
An acid;
An alcohol;
An ester;
A hydrocarbon

Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order, has 1
more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

Options
1
2
3
4

Molar concentration is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The molar concentration of equivalent is called?

Options
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The molal concentration is:

Options
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

Molal concentration is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

Find volume concentration

Options
Mass percent
Normality
Molality
Mass fraction

Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature

Options
Vant Hoff
Mendeleev
Arrhenius
Lomonosov

Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid

Options
98
2
32
49

Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid

Options
98
2
32.6
49

Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide

Options
98
37
32
49

“Activation energy” term is introduced by

Options
Coordination theory
Theory of valent bonds
Theory of active collisions
Theory of electrolytic dissociation
When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

Options
Diluted solution
Saturated solution
Concentrated solution
Unsaturated solution

Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

Options
High concentration
Low concentration
High temeprature
Low temeprature

One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by a/an

Options
Base
Acid
Salt
Suspension

Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is

Options
Molality
Percentage
Concentration
Molarity

A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a

Options
Colloid.
Suspension
Solution.
Compound.

Which molecular formula represents pentene?

Options
C4H8;
C4H10;
C5H10;
C5H12.

The dissolving medium in the solution is the

Options
Solute
Solution.
Solvent.
Mixture.

A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

Options
Propanol;
Butanol;
Pentanol;
Glycerol

Which of the following is not a solution?

Options
Zinc
Sterling silver
Brass
Stainless steel

Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

Options
Organic acids;
Esters;
Alkynes;
Alkanes.

What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?

Options
Alcohol
Water
Sugar
Kerosene

Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

Options
C2H2;
C2H4;
C3H6;
C3H8.

Which of these solutions is in solid phase?

Options
Tincture of iodine
Aerosol
Air-iodine solution
Dental amalgam

Which of the following is not a property of solution?

Options
It has a definite composition.
It has a homogeneous composition.
It is consist of a single phase.
It can be physically separated into its components.

A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is

Options
Concentrated.
Dilute.
Unsaturated.
Saturated.

Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?

Options
Increasing the temperature
Increasing the pressure
Increasing the volume
Decreasing the pressure

What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?

Options
Vaporization and condensation
Dissolution and crystallization
Oxidation and reduction
Dissociation and reduction

Which formula represents an acid?

Options
CH3COOCH3;
CH3OH;
CH3COOH;
CH3CH2CH3.

Which solutions has concentration of 1M?  The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g.  A solution
containing

Options
342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution
Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and formic
acid. This type of reaction is called

Options
Fermentation;
Esterification;
Saponification;
Polymerization.

Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent.  Which solute will dissolve in it?

Options
Hexane
Sodium carbonate
Ethanol
Potassium chloride

Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

Options
C3H6;
C2H6;
C2H2;
C6H6.

Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

Options
Tetrahedral;
Planar triangular;
Linear;
Bent.

Most salt become soluble in water as the

Options
Pressure is increased.
Temperature is increased.
Temperature is decreased.
Pressure is decreased.

It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.

Options
Percent by mass
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction

Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

Options
Greater solubility in water;
More rapid reaction rates;
A tendency to form ions more readily;
Lower melting points.

The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is

Options
Percent by mass
Molality
Molarity
Mole fraction

Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

Options
-COOH;
-OR;
-CHO;
#NAME?

It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.

Options
Molarity
Normality
Dilution
Molality

In dilution of solution,

Options
A solute is added to the solution.
)solvent is added to the solution
The amount of moles increases.
Volume of solution decreases.

C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

Options
Substitution;
Addition;
Polymerization;
Esterification.

A 40% alcohol contains

Options
40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

The isomers of propanol differ in

Options
The number of carbon atoms;
The arrangement of the carbon atoms;
Molecular mass;
The position of functional group.

Solutions are:

Options
Isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
Homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
Homogeneous systems which contain at least two components
Heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

Which is the formula of an alcohol?

Options
Ba(OH)2;
HCHO;
CH3COOH;
C5H11OH.

Solubility of solids depends upon:

Options
Temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents;
Pressure;
Heat of solution;
All answers are right.

C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

Options
A carbohydrate;
An ester;
An organic acid;
An alcohol.

In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:

Options
Liquid, transparent, colored;
Solid, liquid, turbid;
Gaseous, liquid, solid;
Liquid, turbid, colored.
Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number of solute particles and not
their nature. They are:

Options
Vapor pressure lowering;
Density;
Viscosity;
Diffusion.

Which compound can have isomers?

Options
C2H4;
C2H2;
C2H6;
C4H8.

The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the
solution is defined as:

Options
The Henry’s law;
The Sechenov equation;
The Ostvald’s dilution law;
The Paul’s principle.

C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

Options
Polymerization;
Substitution;
Addition;
Esterification.

An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:

Options
Hemolysis;
Plasmolysis;
Swelling;
Precipitation.

Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:

Options
0.01M sucrose;
0.01 M sodium phosphate;
0.01 М potassium chloride;
0.01 M sodium carbonate.

Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?


Options
CCl2F2;
C2H2;
C2H5OH;
C2H5OC2H5.

The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:

Options
Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure
solvents;
Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure
solvents;
Boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile
solutes;
Boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile
solutes.

Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

Options
C3H8;
C3H7OH;
CH3COOH;
CH3COOCH3.
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Question (1/12)

What is the concentration of OH– in a solution with a H+ concentration of 1.3×10-4 M?

Options
7.7×10-10 M
7.7×10-9 M
7.7×10-11 M
7.7×10-12 M

Identify the triprotic acid from the following

Options
Carbonic acid
Bicarbonate
Glycine
Phosphoric acid

Which of the following acids has the lowest pKa value?

Options
Acetic acid
PrevSulphuric acid
SkipDil.HCl
NextOxalic acid

The degree of ionization does not depend on?

Options
Temperature
Current
Nature of solvent
Concentration

Aqueous solution of the detergents are

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Amphoteric

What makes water a liquid at room temperature?

Options
Hydrogen bonds between water molecules
Covalent bonding
Noncovalent interactions
Van der Waals forces of attraction

ΔG is negative for which of the following processes?

Options
Melting of ice and evaporation of water
Oxidation of nitrogen
Oxidation of gold
Burning of chlorine

ΔH is positive for which of the following processes?

Options
Oxidation of nitrogen
Melting of ice and evaporation of water
Oxidation of gold
Burning of chlorine

What is the factor that is responsible for salts like NaCl to dissolve in water easily?

Options
Decrease in entropy
Increase in entropy
Increase in enthalpy
Decrease in enthalpy

Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

Options
Oceans
Freshwater habitats
0.45% sodium chloride
Red blood cells placed in fresh water

Which of the following is a hypotonic solution?

Options
10% dextrose in water
0.45% sodium chloride
5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
Oceans

Which of the following is an isotonic solution?

Options
0.9% sodium chloride
0.45% sodium chloride
Oceans
10% dextrose in water
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Question
23. 23 (1/50)
24. 24
Why
25. pure
25 water is very weak electrolyte?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.It28
ionizes to a large extent
29.It29
ionizes to very small extent
30.It30
does not ionizes at all
31.It31
ionizes completely
32. 32
33. 33molecule is a highly polar solvent due to:
Water
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Presence
36 of two lone pair of electrons
37. 37
Presence of three lone pair of electrons
38. 38
39.Absence
39 of lone pair of electrons
40.None
40 of these
41. 41
When
42. 42acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Both
45 (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.
46.Both
Prev 46 (H+) and (OH) ions increases
47. 47
Skip(H+) increases and (OH-) decreases
48. 48
Next(H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.
49. 49
50. 50of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?
Buffer

Options
Weak acid + weak base in water
Strong acid + strong base in water.
Weak acid + strong base in water.
Strong acid + weak base in water.

Which among the following is not a property of buffer solution?

Options
It has a definite PH.
PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.
PH remains constant on keeping for a long time
It does not has a definite PH

Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?

Options
AgCl
BaSO4
CH3COOAg
None of these

The concentration of a sparingly soluble salt in its saturated solution at a given temperature is
known as:

Options
Solubility product
Solubility
Hydrolysis
Degree of hydrolysis

If ionic product < solubility product then the solution is:

Options
Unsaturated
Just saturated.
Super saturated
None of these

Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength?

Options
HCl < HBr < HI < HF
HF < HBr < HCl < HI
HI < HCl < HBr < HF
HF < HCl < HI < HBr.

Lewis acid is one that:

Options
Accepts an electron pair
Donates a proton
Accepts a proton
Donates an electron pair

HCO3- acts as:

Options
Acid
Base
Both acid and base
None of these

Which of the following act as Bronsted acid?

Options
HSO3-
HCO3-
Both a and b
None

An acid is one that donates a proton. This theory was given by:

Options
Lewis
Lowery – Bronsted
Arrhenius
Ostwald

If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:

Options
Weak electrolyte
Strong electrolyte
Strong base
None of these.

NH4Cl and aq.NH3 will precipitate.

Options
Cu2+
Fe3+
Na+
K+

10-4 M HCl solution at 298 K is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution will:

Options
Lie between 8 and 9
Remain unchanged
Lie between 6 and 7
Equal to 7

The conjugate base of methyl alcohol is:

Options
Hydroxyl ion
Methyl radical
Hydronium ion
Methoxide ion

Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?

Options
Equimolar solutions
Equinormal solution
Both a and b
None of these

The ionisation of a weak electrolyte increases when the concentration of the solution is decreased.
This relation is given by:

Options
Ostwald’s law
Arrhenius equation
Nernst’s equation.
Law of mass action.

Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:

Options
Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised
It has low molecular weight
Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.
It does not dissociates completely

Aqueous solution of potassium chlorate is:

Options
Amphoteric
Neutral
Alkaline
Acidic

Precipitation of salt occurs if:

Options
Ionic product = solubility product
Ionic product > solubility product
Ionic product < solubility product
None of these

Addition of HCl will suppress the ionisation of:

Options
Benzoic acid
Carbonic acid
Nitric acid
Both a and b
Basicity of an acid is defined as number of replicable:

Options
OH groups in its molecule
H atom in its molecule
Non-metal cations in its molecule
Non-metal anions in its molecule

NH3 and H20 can act as:

Options
Lewis acid and Bronsted base
Lewis base and Bronsted acid
Lewis and Bronsted base
Lewis and Bronsted acid.

What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of HOCl (ka
= 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

Options
7.0
3.2
7.3
4.5

A buffer solution is one that contains:

Options
A weak acid and its conjugate base
Strong base and its conjugate acid
Strong acid and its conjugate base
None of these

In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.

Options
Weak acid and strong base
Weak acid and weak base
Strong acid and strong base
Strong acid and weak base

Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:

Options
It is basic in nature
It is acidic in nature
Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base
Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.

Addition of a salt of weak acid and strong base to water would cause:
Options
Increase in pH.
PH remains same.
Decrease in pH
None of these.

Among the following which is a strong electrolyte and thus the best conductor of electricity?

Options
Sulphuric acid
Acetic acid
Boric acid
Phosphoric acids

Molarity of a solution is expressed as:

Options
The number of moles of a solute present in one litre of the solution
The number of moles of a solute present in 1000 gm of the solvent
The number of gram equivalent of solute present in one litre of solution
The ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute

Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

Options
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of boiling point
Freezing point
Depression in freezing point.

Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

Options
Camphor
Petrol
Acetone
Acetanilide

Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

Options
Obeys Raoult’s law.
Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero
There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.
Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

Options
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in
it
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

Options
Amount of solute
Nature of solute.
Amount of solvent
Nature of solvent

The unit of Cryoscopic constant is:

Options
Kelvin kg mol-1
Kelvin kg-1 mol-1
Kelvin kg mol+1
Kelvin kg+1 mol+1

Vant Hoff’s eqution for solution is:

Options
PV = n / RT
P = Vn / RT
PV = nRT
P = VnR / T

When osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:

Options
Equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute.
Equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.
Non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute
Non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute

Which among the following is true? i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling
point decreases.  ii. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point increases.  iii.
When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point decreases.  iv. When vapour
pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point increases.

Options
I & iii
I & iv.
Ii & iii
Ii & iv

Vapour pressure decreases with:


Options
Increase in concentration of the solution.
Decrease in solute particles in the solution
Decrease in boiling point.
Increase in freezing point.

Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:

Options
Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between
individual liquids
Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between
individual liquids.
Force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids
Force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.

If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:

Options
I=1
I>1
I=0
I<1

Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon number of
solute of particles present in the solution.  ii. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is
equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-electrolyte solute.

Options
I
Ii
Both i & ii
None of the above

Addition of common salt in water causes

Options
Increase in M.P of solution
Increase in B.P of solution
Decrease in B.P of solution
Decrease in both M.P & B.P

The value of Vant Hoff factor (i) = 2 is for:

Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Calcium chloride
Sodium chloride
Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

Options
An increase in melting point of the liquid
A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.
A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid
No change in the boiling point of the liquid.

Which of the following pair of liquids are immiscible?

Options
Acetone + water
Benzene + water.
Ethanol + water
Acetic acid + water

If the solvent boils at a temperature T1 and the solution at a temperature T2 , then the elevation of
boiling point is given by:

Options
T1 + T2
T1 – T2
T2 – T1.
None of the above
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Question
23. 23 (1/119)
24. 24
The
25.unit
25 of temperature in S.I. units is
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Centigrade
28
29.Celsius
29
30.Farhenheit
30
31.Kelvin
31
32. 32
33.unit
The 33 of mass in S.I. units is
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Kilogram
36
37. 37
Gram
38. 38
39.Tonne
39
40.Quintal
40
41. 41
The
42.unit
42 of time in S.I. units is
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Second
45
46. 46
PrevMinute
47. 47
SkipHour
48. 48
NextDay
49. 49
50.unit
The 50 of length in S.I. units is
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Meter
53
54. 54
55.Centimeter
55
Kilometer
56. 56
57.Millimeter
57
58. 58
The
59.unit
59 of energy in S.I. units is
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Watt
62
63.Joule
63
64.Joule/s
64
65. 65
66.Joule/m
66
67. 67
General gas equation is
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
PV=nRT
71. 71
72.PV=mRT
72
73.PV=C
73
74.PV=KiRT
74
75. 75
An76.
open76 system is one in which
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Mass
79 does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
80.Neither
80 mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
81. 81
Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
82. 82
83.Mass
83 crosses the boundary but not the energy
84. 84
An isolated system is one in which
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
88.Mas
88 does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
89.Neither
89 mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
90.Both
90 energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
91.Mass
91 crosses the boundary but not the energy
92. 92
93. 93of the following quantities is not the property of the system
Which
94. 94
Options
95. 95
96.Pressure
96
97.Temperature
97
98. 98
Specific volume
99. 99
100.Heat
100
101. 101
Mixture
102. 102of ice and water from a
103. 103
Options
104. 104
105.Closed
105 system
106.Open
106 system
107.Isolated
107 system
108.Heterogeneous
108 system
109. 109
If110.
∆H 110
value is less than zero than reaction will be
111. 111
Options
112. 112
113.Exothermic
113
114.Endothermic
114
115. 115
116.May
116or may not be Exothormic or Endothermic
117.None
117 of these
118. 118
119. 119
Which is true for a spontaneous endothermic process?

Options
∆H<0
∆G<0
∆S<0
∆G>0

A reaction has values of ∆H and ∆S which are both positive. The reaction

Options
Is spontaneous
Spontaneity is temperature dependent
Has an increasing free energy
Is non-spontaneous

Whenever a system undergoes either a change in state or an energy or mass transfer at a steady
state, it is said to undergo

Options
A change of state
A steady state transfer
A process
A thermodynamic change

A law which is applicable only to ideal vapours and liquids, that equates the equilibrium partial
pressures of a solution component in the coexisting phases, is known as

Options
Henry's law
Joule's law
Fick's law
Roult's law

An open system

Options
Is a specified region where transfers of energy and/or mass take place
Cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings
Is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries
Has a mass transfer across its boundaries, and the mass within the system is not necessarily

A system consisting of more than one phase is known as

Options
Open system
Isolated system
Closed system
Heterogeneous system

Second law of theromodynamics defines

Options
Heat
Enthalpy
Internal energy
Entropy

The internal energy of a substance depends on

Options
Temperature
Volume
Pressure
Entropy

At critical point the enthalpy of vaporisation is

Options
Only dependent on temperature
Zero
Maximum
Minimum

For a reversible adiabatic process the change in entropy is

Options
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinite

For any reversible process, the change in entropy of the system and surroundings is

Options
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinite

For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

Options
Positive
Negative
Infinite
Zero

In an isothermal process

Options
Temperature increases gradually
Volume remains constant
Change in internal energy is zero
Pressure remains constant

Which of the following is incorrect?

Options
The pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressure of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
The entropy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the entropies of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
The internal energy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum f the internal energies of the
indicudual components taken each at the temperature and the volume of the mixture
None of the above

If the ∆H° for the reaction, 2 Mg (s) + 2 Cl2 (g) → 2 MgCl2 (s), is -1283.6 kJ, what is the standard
enthalpy of formation of magnesium chloride?

Options
0 kJ/mol
-320.9 kJ/mol
-641.8 kJ/mol
1283.6 kJ/mol

Which of the following compounds will not undergo an acid-base (neutralization) reaction with
HClO4?

Options
NaOH
Sr(OH)2
NH3
H2SO4

The reaction below reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel. C6H12O6(s) = 2 C2H5OH(l) + 2
CO2(g), ∆Ho = −72 kJ Which of the following actions causes an increase in the value of Kc? (i)
adding some CO2(g) (ii) transferring the reaction mixture to a vessel of larger volume (iii)
increasing the temperature

Options
(i) only
(ii) only
(iii) only
None of the above
What is the coefficient of O2 when the following equation is balanced? C10H8(s) + x O2(g) → y
CO2(g) + z H2O(l)

Options
1
6
7
12

Natural oils, such as vegetable oil, are converted into solid, edible fats by a process called

Options
Fusion
Hydrogenation
Crystallization
Saponification

Which of the following is the strongest acid in water?

Options
HBr
HOBrO2
HF
HI

The heat of combustion of C(s) is −394 kJ/mol and that of CO(g) is −111 kJ/mol. What is the enthalpy
change for the reaction below? CO(g) → C(s) + ½ O2(g)

Options
505 kJ
283 kJ
111 kJ
−283 kJ

How are the boiling and freezing points of water affected by the addition of a soluble salt?

Options
The freezing and boiling points are both lowered.
The freezing and boiling points are both raised.
The freezing is lowered and the boiling point is raised.
The freezing is raised and the boiling point is lowered.

In which ionic compound does the cation have the same number of electrons as the anion?

Options
LiF
NaCl
CaO
MgF2
Which of the following compounds displays only covalent bonding?

Options
NH4OH
Li2O
HOCN
NaNO3

When temperature is increased, the rate of a reaction also increases. This observation is best
explained by

Options
An increase in the frequency of molecular collisions
A decrease in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
An increase in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
An increase in the fraction of molecules that have enough energy to react

For a given substance, which of the following phase transitions is the most exothermic?

Options
Solid → liquid
Gas → solid
Liquid → gas
Solid → gas

The following reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel at 200o C. CO(g) + 3 H2(g) →
CH4(g) + H2O(g), ΔHo = −206 kJ Which of the following actions causes the reaction to proceed from
left to right in order to restore equilibrium?

Options
Increasing the volume of the container, holding temperature constant
Adding some CH4 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
Adding some H2 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
Increasing the temperature, holding the pressure constant

In which of the following compounds does oxygen have the highest oxidation state?

Options
CsO2
H2O
O2
OF2

What is the formula of the stable compound formed by magnesium and nitrogen?

Options
MgN
Mg2N
Mg3N2
Mg2N3
Which of the following bonds is most polar?

Options
B−O
B-F
C-O
C=O

When the following equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients, what is
the coefficient of O2? NH3 + O2 → NO + H2O

Options
2
3
4
5

Which of the statements concerning the structure of benzene is false?

Options
The double bonds oscillate rapidly back and forth between adjacent pairs of carbon atoms.
The H-C-C angles are 120o
The carbon atoms form a flat hexagonal ring.
The oxidation state of carbon is −1.

Of the following compounds, which one contains nitrogen in an oxidation state of +5?

Options
NO2F
N2O3
NH4Cl
Mg3N2

To which process does the term sublimation refer?

Options
Solid to liquid
Liquid to solid
Solid to gas
Gas to solid

Each of two identical containers holds one mole of CH4gas and one mole SO2 gas, all at the same
temperature. Which of following statements is true?

Options
The SO2 gas has a higher pressure.
The CH4 gas has a greater density.
The SO2 molecules move, on average, faster than the CH4 molecules.
Deviations from ideal gas behaviour are smaller for the CH4 gas.
Which of the following has the same number of electrons as a water molecule?

Options
H2S
BH3
OH−
BeH2

What is the formula of magnesium sulfate?

Options
MgS
MgS2
Mg3S2
MgSO4

Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?

Options
HF
HCl
HBr
HI

Which of the following is a product of the reaction between H2SO4(aq) and NaOH(aq)?

Options
H2(g)
H+(aq)
H2O(l)
O2(g)

Which of the following species is not linear?

Options
O3
HCN
C2H2
NNO

Which of the following compounds has the greatest ionic character?

Options
IBr
CsF
HI
HF

What is the oxidation state of Cr in Li2CrO4?


Options
−6
−2
0
+6

Which of the following statements about H2SO3, a diprotic acid, is true?

Options
There is just one lone pair on the sulfur atom
It is a strong acid.
The hydrogen atoms are bonded directly to the sulfur atom
The oxidation state of sulfur is +6.

Which statement is not correct for the reaction below? 2 NO(g) ↔ N2(g) + O2(g)

Options
At equilibrium, the forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates
Reaction to the left or to the right occurs spontaneously until the equilibrium state is reached.
Reducing the volume of the system has no effect on the equilibrium amounts of NO, N2 and O2
The equilibrium value of [N2 ] [O2 ] / [NO]2 is the same at all temperatures

Which of the following is an ionic compound?

Options
HOCN
NH4NO2
CH3NH2
SiO2

Select the correct ending to make the following a true statement. A catalyst ...

Options
Lowers the energy of the products
Induces an alternate reaction pathway with a higher activation energy
Increases the frequency of collisions between molecules
Is not consumed by the overall reaction although it may be temporarily changed

How many electrons are needed to fill the 4f subshell of an atom?

Options
Two
Six
Ten
Fourteen

Which of the following bonds is the most polar?

Options
H−O
C−N
H−C
O−N

Which of the following have three unpaired electrons in their ground electronic states?

Options
The third period atoms (Na to Ar)
The group 3 atoms (B to Tl)
The group 15 atoms (N to Bi)
N3− and P3−

Which of the following statements concerning the nitrate ion, NO3−, is incorrect?

Options
The ONO bond angles are all 120o.
One of the nitrogen-oxygen bonds is shorter than the other two nitrogen-oxygen bonds.
The nitrogen atom has a formal charge of +1.
It is nonpolar.

Electronegativity is a measure of

Options
The magnitude of the charge of an electron
The energy released when an electron is added to an atom
The energy required to remove an electron from an atom
The ability of an atom to draw electron density towards itself

Which of the following is the weakest acid in water?

Options
H2S
H2Se
H2Te
HBr

Which of the following is always true of a spontaneous process?

Options
The process is exothermic
The process does not involve any work
The entropy of the system increases
The internal energy of the system decreasis

The equation ΔH= ΔU+PΔ V is applicable

Options
Always
Only for constant pressure processes
Only for constant temperature processes
Only for constant volume processes

What occurs as two atoms of fluorine combine to become a molecule of fluorine?

Options
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed.
A bond is formed as energy is released
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed
A bond is broken as energy is released

To break a chemical bond, energy must be

Options
Absorbed
Destroyed
Produced
Released

As two chlorine atoms combine to form a molecule, energy is

Options
Absorbed
Released
Created
Destroyed

As energy is released during the formation of a bond, the stability of the chemical system
generally will

Options
Decrease
Increase
Remain the same
Absorbed

Which element has an atom with the greatest tendency to attract electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
Carbon
Chlorine
Silicon
Sulfur

Which term indicates how strongly an atom attracts the electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
Alkalinity
Atomic mass
Electronegativity
Activation energy

Which formula represents a substance with the greatest degree of ionic bonding?

Options
PBr3
MgBr2
NH3
CO

An ionic compound is formed when there is a reaction between the elements

Options
Strontium and chlorine
Hydrogen and chlorine
Nitrogen and oxygen
Sulfur and oxygen

Which type of bond is formed when electrons are transferred from one atom to another?

Options
Covalent
Ionic
Hydrogen
Metallic

Which compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds?

Options
CaCO3
PCl3
MgF2
CH2O

Which of the following solids has the highest melting point?

Options
H2O(s)
Na2O(s)
SO2(s)
CO2(s)

What is the total number of electron pairs shared between the two atoms in an O2 molecule?

Options
1
2
6
4
A molecular compound is formed when a chemical reaction occurs between atoms of

Options
Chlorine and sodium
Chlorine and yttrium
Oxygen and hydrogen
Oxygen and magnesium

Which characteristic is a property of molecular substances?

Options
Good heat conductivity
Good electrical conductivity
Low melting point
High melting point

Magnesium nitrate contains chemical bonds that are

Options
Covalent, only
Ionic, only
Both covalent and ionic
Neither covalent nor ionic

A solid substance is an excellent conductor of electricity. The chemical bonds in this substance are
most likely

Options
Ionic, because the valence electrons are shared between atoms
Ionic, because the valence electrons are mobile
Metallic, because the valence electrons are stationary
Metallic, because the valence electrons are mobile

Which substance contains metallic bonds?

Options
Hg(l )
H2O( l)
NaCl(s)
C6H12O6(s)

Silicon dioxide (SiO2) and diamonds are best described as

Options
Molecular substances with coordinate covalent bonding
Molecular substances with ionic bonding
Network solids with covalent bonding
Network solids with ionic bonding

Which compound has hydrogen bonding between its molecules?


Options
CH4
CaH2
KH
NH3

Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule?

Options
CH4
HCl
H2O
NH3

Which statement explains why a molecule of CH4 is nonpolar?

Options
The bonds between the atoms in a CH4 molecule are polar
The bonds between the atoms in a CH4 molecule are ionic
The geometric shape of a CH4 molecule distributes the charges symmetrically.
The geometric shape of a CH4 molecule distributes the charges asymmetrically

Hydrogen bonding is a type of

Options
Strong covalent bond
Weak ionic bond
Strong intermolecular force
Weak intermolecular force

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: Cl2 → Cl + Cl What occurs during this
reaction?

Options
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed
A bond is broken as energy is released
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed
A bond is formed as energy is released

Which statement describes what occurs as two atoms of bromine combine to become a molecule
of bromine?

Options
Energy is absorbed as a bond is formed
Energy is absorbed as a bond is broken
Energy is released as a bond is formed
Energy is released as a bond is broken

Which of these elements has an atom with the most stable outer electron configuration?
Options
Ne
Cl
Ca
Na

When a sodium atom reacts with a chlorine atom to form a compound, the electron configurations
of the ions forming the compound are the same as those in which noble gas atoms?

Options
Krypton and neon
Krypton and argon
Neon and helium
Neon and argon

Which element has an atom with the greatest attraction for electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
As
Bi
N
P

Based on electronegativity values, which type of elements tends to have the greatest attraction for
electrons in a bond?

Options
Metals
Metalloids
Nonmetals
Noble gases

Which bond is least polar?

Options
As–Cl
Bi–Cl
P–Cl
N–Cl

Which formula represents an ionic compound?

Options
H2
CH4
CH3OH
NH4 Cl

Which type of bond results when one or more valence electrons are transferred from one atom to
another?
Options
A hydrogen bond
An ionic bond
A nonpolar covalent bond
A polar covalent bond

Based on bond type, which compound has the highest melting point?

Options
CH3OH
C6H14
CaCl2
CCl4

The environment in which a system is studied is

Options
State function
Phase
Surrounding
State

Unit of heat in SI system is

Options
J
KCaL
Cal
Kg

Total energy of a system is

Options
P.E + K.E
P.E + heat energy
K.E + heat energy
P.E + mechanical energ

CuSO4 + Zn ZnSO4+Cu is

Options
Spontaneous reaction
Non-spontaneous reaction
Endothermic
Exothermic

State function the macroscopic property of system depends upon

Options
Path of reaction
Initial state
Initial and final state
Final state

When enthalpy formation of reactants is higher than product then reaction will be

Options
Endothermic
Spontaneous
Non-spontaneous
Exothermic

Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by

Options
Calorimeter
Manometer
Barometer
Manometer

Enthalpy of combustion for food fuel and other compounds can be measured accurately by

Options
Calorimeter
Bomb calorimeter
Thermometer
Manometerv

Most of thermodynamic parameters are

Options
System
Surrounding
Phase
State functions

Change in enthalpy (H) of a system can be calculated by following relationship

Options
∆H=∆E+P∆V
∆H=∆E-PV
∆H=∆E-q
∆H=∆E+q

Two fundamental ways to transfer energy are

Options
Pressure and temperature
Pressure and volume
Heat and work
Heat and volume

Which of the following processes has always ∆H = -ve

Options
Formation of compoun
Combustion
Dissolution of ionic compound
Dilution of a solution

A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?

Options
Isothermal process
Isobaric process
Isochoric (or isometric) process
Adiabatic process

Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?

Options
Julius Robert von Mayer
Rudolf Clausius
Vant Hoff
Gibbs

Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:

Options
Q=∆U+W
H=U+pV
∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
S = KlnW

Choose thermochemical reactions:

Options
2H2(g) + O2(g) = H2O(g)
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g) -180,8kJ
PbS + H2O2 = PbSO4 + H2O
Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 = BaSO4 + 2NaOH

Enthalpy of reaction depends on: 1.Physical state of substances 2.Chemical quantity of substances
3.Temperature 4.Nature of substances

Options
1,2,3
2,3,4
1,2,3,4
1,3,4

From reaction: CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g) – 157 kJ, find enthalpy of reaction, if m(CaCO3) = 1 kg.

Options
+1570
-1570
+785
-785

If ΔG>0, then process:

Options
Spontaneous
Nonspontaneous
Exothermic
Endothermic

If ΔG<0, then process:

Options
Spontaneous
Nonspontaneous
Exothermic
Endothermic

If ∆H>0, then process…

Options
Endothermic
Exothermic
Exergonic
Endergonic

If ∆H<0, then process…

Options
Endothermic
Exergonic
Exothermic
Endergonic
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23. 23 (1/127)
24. 24
As25.
compared
25 to its parent alkane, an alkyl radical contains
26. 26
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27. 27
28.One
28 less carbon
29.One
29 less hydrogen
30.One
30 more carbon
31.One
31 more hydrogen
32. 32
33. of
Rate 33reaction of organic compounds is slow due to
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Ionic
36 bonding in them
37. 37
Amphoteric nature
38. 38
39.Covalent
39 bonding
40.Coordinate
40 covalent bonding
41. 41
In42.
naming
42 alkane stem tells about the
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Number
45 of hydrogen atoms
46.Number
Prev 46 of oxygen atoms
47. 47
SkipNumber of carbon atoms
48. 48
NextNumber of bonds
49. 49
50. 50
Self-linking ability of carbon is called
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Catenation
53
54. 54
55.Sublimation
55
Hydrogenation
56. 56
57.Carbonation
57
58. 58
Almost
59. 5995% of compounds are of carbon because it can form
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Single
62 bonds
63.Double
63 bonds
64.Triple
64 bonds
65. 65
66.Multiple
66 bonds
67. 67
Only one benzene ring is present in compounds of
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
Aryl
71. 71
72.Acryl
72
73.Carboxylic
73
74.Ketone
74
75. 75
Substances
76. 76 which are basis of human life on earth are
77. 77
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78. 78
79.Atom
79
80.Molecules
80
81. 81
Matter
82. 82
83.Organic
83 compounds
84. 84
For complex molecules, a chemist usually represents a molecule by
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
88.Molecular
formula
88
89.Skeletal
89 formula
90.Structural
90 formula
91.B 91
and c
92. 92
93. optical
Two 93 isomers are formed from carbon atoms to create bond
94. 94
Options
95. 95
96.4 96
atoms
97.2 97
atoms
98. 98
1 atom
99. 99
100.3 100
atoms
101. 101
Element
102. 102that is backbone of organic molecules is
103. 103
Options
104. 104
105.Carbon
105
106.Hydrogen
106
107.Oxygen
107
108.All
108
of them
109. 109
110. 110chemistry is the study of
Organic
111. 111
Options
112. 112
113.Any
113compound from any living thing.
114.Carbon-containing
114 compounds that were formed by living things.
115. 115
116.Any
116compound with carbon as the principal element.
117.Noneoftheabove.
117
118. 118
119. 119can form many different compounds because it can
Carbon
120. 120
121. 121
Options
122.Make
122 a molecule in the shape of a cube, tetrahedron, or cylinder.
123. 123
Combine with other carbon atoms in addition to other elements
124. 124
125.Combine
125 with more metals than other elements.
126.Combine
126 with more nonmetals than other elements.
127. 127
A hydrocarbon is an organic compound consisting of

Options
Water and carbon.
Any number of elements as long as they include carbon and hydrogen.
Carbon and hydrogen.
Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

A hydrocarbon with two double covalent bonds between carbon atoms is a (an)

Options
Alkane.
Alkene.
Alkyne.
Aromatic hydrocarbon.

Organic compounds called isomers have

Options
The same molecular formulas but different physical structures.
Different molecular formulas with the same physical structures.
Different molecular formulas with the same chemical properties.
Noneoftheabove.

The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of octane is

Options
1
2
4
8

Organic compounds called aromatic hydrocarbons are compounds that

Options
Have a wonderful odor.
Are based on the benzene rings structure.
Occur in nature with all carbons bonds saturated
Occur in nature with all carbon bonds unsaturated.

A gasoline mixture of hydrocarbons that burns very rapidly has

Options
A low octane number.
A high octane number.
Many branched chains.
Smaller hydrocarbon molecules.

An organic molecule with a general formula of ROH is a (an)

Options
Ether.
Alcohol.
Organic acid.
Ester.

An organic molecule with a general formula of RCOOH is a (an)

Options
Ester.
Organic acid.
Ketone.
Aldehyde.

The characteristic odor and taste of fruit such as bananas, oranges, and pineapples comes from
certain

Options
Ketones.
Ethers.
Aldehydes.
Esters.

The human body breaks down starches to

Options
Monosaccharides.
Simple sugars.
Glucose.
Any of the above.

The direct reserve source of energy in the muscles of a human is

Options
Glycol.
Glycerol.
Glycogen.
Dextrose.
All proteins are made up of a side chain and

Options
Alpha-amino acid.
Amine.
A nitrogen atom.
Peptide.

Fats and oils are esters formed from three fatty acids and glycerol into a (an)

Options
Alpha-amino acid.
Polysaccharide.
Triglyceride.
Disaccharide.

Which of the following is a polymer?

Options
Cellulose
Polyethylene
Wool
All are polymers

Which of the following is not true about benzene?

Options
It is a dark brown liquid in its natural state.
It does not mix with water.
It has a strong odor.
It can be used as a solvent.

An alkane with 3 carbon atoms would have how many hydrogen atoms in the molecule?

Options
4
6
8
10

The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for

Options
A reactive atom.
A separate functional group.
Any hydrocarbon group.
The right side of the molecule.

When wine "goes bad," the ethanol is converted into


Options
CH3COOH.
CH3 OCH3.
CH3CH2OH.
CH3OH.

Which of the following compounds cannot exist?

Options
C2H3
C2H4
C3H8
C4H10

Assuming straight-chain compounds, which of the following will have the highest boiling point?

Options
C3H8
C7H16
C11H24
They all have the same boiling point

Fractional distillation

Options
Is a basic process used in petroleum refining.
Involves heating crude oil and condensing the vapors at different temperatures.
When applied to crude oil can produce such products as gasoline, kerosene, and lubricating oil
stock.
All of the above are true.

Which of the following molecules has the highest carbon to hydrogen ratio?

Options
Ethane
Ethane
Methane
Acetylene

Supporting the idea that the origin of life was the result of natural processes is the fact that

Options
Amino acids and other complex organic molecules have been found in meteorites and comets.
In the laboratory amino acids, fatty acids, nitrogen bases, and other compounds can be formed
under simulated early Earth conditions.
The early Earth had oceans full of chemicals that may have been interacting to form organic
compounds.
All of the above are true.

Which of the following underlined atoms is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond acceptor?
Options
Amide nitrogen (RNHCOR')
Aniline nitrogen (ArNH2)
Amine nitrogen (RNH2)
Carboxylate oxygen (RCO 2-)

Which of the following underlined protons is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond donor?

Options
Alcohol (ROH)
Amine (RNH2)
Phenol (ArOH)
Ammonium ion (RNH3+)

Which of the following functional groups is most likely to participate in a dipole-dipole


interaction?

Options
Aromatic ring
Ketone
Alcohol
Alkene

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Octane
Heptane
Pentane
Hexane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Butane
Heptane
Pentane
Decane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethilhexane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2-bromo-2-methylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylpenthane
2-chloro-3-methylhexane
2,3-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
2,3-dimethylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethylbutane
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
3-methylpentane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
3-methylpentane
2-chloro-3-methylhexane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:


Options
Cis-1-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
Trans- ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,2-dichloro-3-methylpenten
Trans- 4-ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,3-dimethyl-2-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methilpenthen
Trans- 4-chloro-6-methil-3-heptahe
3,3-dimethil-2-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
Trans- 4-chloro-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

Name the following compounds:


Options
5-methil-3-heptyne
4- pentyne
3-methil-2-hexyne
3-methyle-4-heptene

Name the following compounds:

Options
4-methil-3-heptyne
1- pentyne
3-methil-2-hexyne
4-chloro-1-butyne

Name the following compounds:

Options
5-methil-3-heptyne
4- pentyne
4-methil-2-hexyne
2-ethyl-3-pentyne

Name the following alcohols.

Options
4-methil-4-pentanol
2-butanol
1-propanol
2-methil-2-propanol

Name the following alcohols

Options
4-methil-2-pentanol
2-butanol
1-propanol
2-methil-2-propanol

Name the following aldehydes.

Options
Ethanol
Methanal
2-methylpropanal
Butanal

Name the following aldehydes.

Options
Butanal
2-methylpropanal
Methanol
Ethanol

Special name the following ketones.

Options
Acetone
Ethyl methyl ketone
Diethyl ketone
Proryl ketone

Special name the following ketones.

Options
Diethyl ketone
Acetone
Ethyl methyl ketone
Propyl ketone
Choose the following KETONES.

Options
2-butanon
3-pentanon
3-butanon
2-pentanon

Choose the following KETONES.

Options
3-pentanon
2-pentanon
3-butanon
2-butanon

Choose the following KETONES.

Options
3-pentanon
2-pentanon
4-pentanon
4-pentanon

Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
C2H2 ;
C2 H4 ;
C3 H6 ;
C3 H8 .

Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
C2H2;
C2H4;
C5H8;
C5H12.
CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with
thischaracteristic?

Options
Acetylene;
Benzene;
Propane;
Toluene.

A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

Options
Structural formula;
Number of carbon atoms;
Molecular formula
Number of hydrogen atoms.

The compound C2H2belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula

Options
CnHn;
CnH2n;
CnH2n-2;
CnH2n+2.

The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

Options
Less than
Greater than
The same as
Greater than or equal to

Two molecules that are isomers:

Options
Must contain the same functional groups
Often differ in the number of unsaturated bonds they possess
Have the same molecular formulas
Often have different masses

In which of the following kinds of organic compounds does a carbon atom bond ONLY to
hydrogen and other carbon atoms?

Options
Carbohydrates
Hydrocarbons
Fatty acids
Lipids
Glycogen is best defined as a:

Options
Storage form of lipids
Polymer of glucose
Storage form of glycerol
Polymer of lactose

Most biologically important atoms attempt to possess _____ electrons in their outermost energy
level

Options
N2
2
8
10

Which molecule does NOT have a polar covalent bond?

Options
H2O
H-Br
H-H
H-F

What chemical family does H2C=C=CH2 belong to?

Options
Alkane
Ether
Alkene
Alkyne

In the induced-fit model of enzyme action, a _______ must bind to the enzyme's______ for the
enzyme to perform its function.

Options
Catalyst; activation energy
Product; catalytic site
Product; active site
Substrate; active site

Which one of the following applies to a basic solution?

Options
High OH-
Low OH-
High H+
H+ = OH-
Which one of the four classes of biologically important molecules does CELLULOSE belong to?

Options
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Lipids

Amino acids are joined during a(n) __________ reaction and a(n) __________bond/linkage is formed.

Options
Hydrolysis; peptide
Condensation; amide
Neutralization; ether
Oxidation; ester

With respect to proteins, the primary structure refers to the:

Options
Helix or pleated sheet pattern of a polypeptide
Complex 3-dimensional folding pattern of a polypeptide
Interaction of more than one polypeptide chain
Ordered sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

With respect to proteins, the quaternary structure refers to the:

Options
Helix or pleated sheet pattern of a polypeptide
Complex 3-dimensional folding pattern of a polypeptide
Interaction of more than one polypeptide chain
Ordered sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

Complete the equation: glucose + fructose

Options
Maltose
Lactose
Sucrose
Cellulose

Which molecule would provide the most glucose upon hydrolysis?

Options
Galactose
Lactose
Starch
Amino acid

An athlete is tested at an Olympic event and STEROIDS are found in the bloodstream. Which class
of biologically important molecules are steroids related to?
Options
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Proteins
Lipids

Glucose + galactose produces:

Options
Lactose
Cellulose
Maltose
Sucrose

If the H from the OH group in CH3-OH is removed and replaced with a METHYL group, what
family will the molecule then belong to?

Options
Ether
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester

Which of the following is CORRECT for an exergonic reaction?

Options
More activation energy is needed than for an endergonic reaction
Less activation energy is needed than for an endergonic reaction
Products have more energy than reactants
Products have less energy than reactants

Hydrolysis is best described as the:

Options
Heating of a compound in order to drive off excess water and concentrate its volume
Breaking of a long-chain compound into subunits by adding water
Linking of two or more molecules by the removal of one or more water molecules
Constant removal of hydrogen atoms from the surface of a carbohydrate

Unlike triglycerides, phospholipid molecules:

Options
Have 1 lipid tail
Have 4 lipid tails
Have 2 lipid tails
Have 3 lipid tails

Which one of the following would convert a liquid fat to a solid fat:

Options
Add heat
Add hydrogen (hydrogenation)
Add carbon
Unsaturate it

Enzymes:

Options
Increase the rate of a chemical reaction
Are always stored in active form
Are always stored in active form
Raise activation energy

The exoskeleton of many insects is made of chitin which is a modified form of:

Options
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Protein
Nucleic acid

Electrons are shared unequally in a(n) _________ bond.

Options
Non polar covalent
Hydrogen
Ionic
Polar covalent

Myoglobin is an oxygen-carrying molecule in muscle. It consists of just one polypeptide chain.


Myoglobin lacks:

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

During the formation of the peptide bond which of the following takes place?

Options
Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Peptide bond is a

Options
Covalent bond
Ionic bond
Metallic bond
Hydrogen bond

A tripeptide has

Options
3 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds

The factor which does not affect pKa value of an amino acid is

Options
The loss of charge in the α-carboxyl and α-amino groups
The interactions with other peptide R groups
Other environmental factors
Molecular weight

The average molecular weight of an amino acid residue in a protein is about

Options
128
118
110
120

Which of the following is not the classified form of conjugated proteins?

Options
Lipoproteins
Glycoproteins
Metalloproteins
Complete proteins

Which part of the amino acid gives it uniqueness?

Options
Amino group
Carboxyl group
Side chain
None

Which of the following information is responsible to specify the three-dimensional shape of a


protein?
Options
The protein’s peptide bond
The protein’s amino acid sequence
The protein’s interaction with other polypeptides
The protein’s interaction with molecular chaperons

Unfolding of a protein can be termed as

Options
Renaturation
Denaturation
Oxidation
Reduction

What are the following is not a factor responsible for denaturation of proteins?

Options
PH change
Organic solvents
Heat
Charge

Which of the following structures is a 20:2 (Δ4,9) fatty acid?

Options
CH3(CH2)9CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)2COOH
CH3(CH2)2CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)9COOH
CH3(CH2)10CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CHCH2COOH
CH3CH2CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)10COOH

Which of the following is a characteristic of both triacylglycerols and glycerophospholipids?

Options
Both contain carboxyl groups and are amphipathic
Both contain fatty acids and are saponifiable
Both contain glycerol and ether bonds.
Both can be negatively charged at cellular pH.

Which is a characteristic of all the fatty acid components in this lipid?

Options
They all contain an unbranched carbon chain.
They all contain unconjugated cis double bonds.
They all are joined to glycerol through an ester bond.
They all are hydrophilic because they contain oxygen.

Based on its structural similarity to other lipids, this lipid most likely functions as

Options
A membrane component.
An energy storage molecule.
A sex hormone.
A vitamin required for vision. The structure of an animal cell membrane is analyzed.

Which would be a property of all the major types of lipids in this membrane?

Options
They would be saponifiable in base and hydrolyzed in acid.
They would have polar heads and non-polar tails.
They would be composed of five-carbon units.
They would be joined to each other through covalent bonds.

A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the
other side is called a(n)

Options
Nonpolar molecule.
Charged molecule.
Polar molecule.
Ion.

Which of the following is not a large biomolecule?

Options
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Ice
Nucleic acid

All of the following are examples of lipids except

Options
Oil.
Steroids.
Starch.
Candle wax.

Which molecules are most closely related to lipids?

Options
Amino acids
Fatty acids
Nucleotides
Sugars

The building blocks of most biomolecules contain the element

Options
Carbon.
Calcium.
Nitrogen.
Sodium.

Which of the following molecules are classified as carbohydrates?

Options
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Fats
Sugars

Polysaccharides are

Options
Carbohydrates.
Proteins.
Lipids
Nucleic acids.

Which of the following is a carbohydrate?

Options
ATP
Steroid
Wax
Sucrose

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to proteins?

Options
Amino acids
Monosaccharides
Nucleotides
Sugars

Long chains of amino acids are found in

Options
Carbohydrates.
Lipids.
Proteins.
Sugars.

The two types of nucleic acids are

Options
RNA and ATP.
DNA and RNA. .
DNA and ATP.
Nucleotides and ATP

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?

Options
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Fats
Sugars

Which of the following is not part of a nucleotide in a DNA molecule?

Options
Three phosphate groups
A base
A sugar
A phosphate group

The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)

Options
Active site.
Polar molecule.
Inactive site.
Substrate.

Ionic bonds form between particles that have

Options
Opposite charges.
No charges.
The same charge.
Neutral charges.

Attractions between water molecules are called

Options
Covalent bonds.
Polar bonds.
Ionic bonds.
Hydrogen bonds.
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Number of dative bonds to central metal ion is its


Options
Oxidation number
Compound number
Co-ordination number
Dative number

Ions which are produced from ligands are

Options
Cation
Anion
Complex ion
Allofthem

Different ions will split up by different compounds to given of

Options
Same colored complexes
PrevDifferent colored complexes
SkipSame density complexes
NextSame temperature complexes

Ligands which can form two coordinate bonds from each ion or molecule to transition metal ion
are known as

Options
Ligands ions
Dentate ligands
Monodentate ligands
Bidentate ligands

Due to ligands' action of splitting color of transition metal compound, this change occurs at

Options
S-orbital
D-orbital
P-orbital
F-orbital
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25. 25 expression of the Mass fraction
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80. 80 expression of the Molal concentration
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98. 98of the following species is formed in the second step of the ionization of the triprotic acid
Which
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H3PO4?
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Options
102. 102

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 3, 3-dimethylpentane

Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 3-ethyl-2-methylhexane

Options

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 1, 2-dichloro-3-methylheptane


Options

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 2,3-dimethylpentane

Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 4-methyl-4-ethyldecane

Options

Draw the structures for the following compounds: 2-chloro-3-methyl-2-butene

Options
Draw the structures for the following compounds: trans-3,4-dimethyl-2-penten

Options

Draw the structures for the following compounds: cis-3,4,6-trimethyl-3-heptene

Options
Draw the following alkynes.4-chloro-2-pentyne

Options

Draw the following alkynes. 3-propyl-1-hexyne

Options
Draw the following alkynes.1,4-dibromo-2-pentyne

Options

Draw the following alcohols. 4-methil-2-pentanol

Options
Draw the following alcohols. 2-methil-2-propanol

Options

Find the following aldehydes. 2-methylpropanal

Options
Special name the following ketones.

Options
Ethyl methyl ketone
Diethyl ketone
Acetone
Propyl ketone

Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol
1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol
2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
1-chloro-1-methylpropan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for


Options
3-chlorobutan-3-ol
2-chlorobutan-3-ol
3-chlorobutan-2-ol
2-chlorobutan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Propan-2-ol
Butan-2-ol
Propanol
Butanol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Ethoxyethane
Methoxyethane
Ethoxybuthane
Methoxymethane

Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

Options
Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

Options

Choose correct units for rate of chemical reaction:

Options
Mol/1*sec
Sec/mol*l
L/mol*sec
Mol/j*l

For 5 seconds molar concentration of substance A changed from 3,15mol/l to 3,00 mol/l. Find
average rate of reaction for A.

Options
0,01mol/l*sec
0,02mol/l*sec
0,03mol/l*sec
0,04mol/l*sec

For certain reaction, reaction rate is 0,0012 mol/l*sec. In mol/l*min rate of this reaction will be:

Options
2*10⁻⁵
4*10⁻⁵
0,072
0,036

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes under constant pressure, is
0,03 mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 2,0mol/l. Find time of reaction, if final concentration of
A is 0,8mol/l

Options
10
20
30
40

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,04mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 1,6mol/l. Find time of reaction, if A completely expends.
Options
40
30
20
10

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,04mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of AB is 1,8mol/l. Find time of reaction, when AB concentration
will be 2,2mol/l.

Options
40
30
20
10

Choose the following aldehydes. ethanal

Options

Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

Options
Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

Options

Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

Options
Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol
2-methoxy-1-methylpropane
1-methoxy-2-methylpropane
2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

Options
Which is the correct name for

Options
1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol
2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Butanol
Propanol
Propan-1-ol
Butan-1-ol

Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

Options
Which is the correct name for

Options
1-chlorobutan-3-ol
1-chlorobutan-2-ol
4-chlorobutan-2-ol
2-chlorobutan-3-ol

Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
3-chlorobutan-1-ol
3-chloropropan-1-ol
1-chloropropan-3-ol
1-chlorobutan-3-ol

Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

Options

Which molecule is formaldehyde?

Options

Which molecule is 2- butanone?

Options
Which molecule is propanal?

Options

Which molecule is acetone?

Options

Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

Options
Ethyl methyl acetone
Methyl propyl ketone
3-hexanone
Propyl methyl ketone

Which molecule is a ketone?

Options
Which molecule is an aldehyde?

Options

What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

Options
4-heptanone
2- methyl -3- hexanone
3-heptanone
Isopropyl n-propyl ketone

An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

Options
Weakly acidic
Weakly basic
Strongly acidic
Neither acidic nor basic

Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

Options
Functional Group of Aromatic compounds:

Options

Nail polish remover contains ?

Options
Benzene
Acetic acid
Acetone
Petroleum ether

The isotope atoms differ in ?

Options
Number of protons
Atomic number
Number of electrons
Atomic weight

Which is also called Stranger Gas ?

Options
Xenon
Neon
Argon
Nitrous oxide

The chemical used as a fixer in photography is ?

Options
Sodium thio sulphate
Sodium sulphate
Borax
Ammonium sulphate

Water drops are spherical because of ?

Options
Viscosity
Density
Polarity
Surface tension

Xide of Nitrogen used in medicine as anaesthetic is ?

Options
Nitrogen pentoxide
Nitrous oxide
Nitric oxide
Nitrogen dioxide

Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen?

Options
Cadmium
Lithium
Potassium
Sodium

The most electronegative element among the following is

Options
Sodium
Bromine
Fluorine
Oxygen

The metal used to recover copper from a solution of copper sulphate is ?

Options
Na
Ag
Hg
Fe

The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called ?

Options
Roasting
Calcinations
Smelting
Froth floatation

Which of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog ?

Options
Nitrogen oxides
Hydrocarbons
Methane
Ozone
The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is ?

Options
Ethane
Ethylene
Carbon dioxide
Acetylene

The main chemical constituent of clay is ?

Options
Aluminium silicate
Zeolites
Aluminium borosilicate
Silicon oxide

Sugars are converted in the liver into

Options
Glycogen
Vitamin
Monosaccharide
None of above

Which of the following gases is the most toxic?

Options
Carbon dioxide
Sulphur dioxide
Carbon monoxide
Acetic acid

Which of the following elements behave chemically both as a metal and a non metal?

Options
Boron
Carbon
Argon
Mercury

How many different oxides are formed by nitrogen ?

Options
Two
Three
Four
Five

The major component used in preparation of different types of glasses is :


Options
Sodium borate
Sodium silicate
Silica
Calcium silicate

What is metallurgy ?

Options
Process of extracting metal in pure form from its ore.
Process of creating alloys of metals.
Process of making metals live long.
None of above.

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,02mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 1,2mol/l. Find concentration of A after 10 seconds.

Options
0.4 mol/l
0.6 mol/l
0.8 mol/l
1.0 mol/l

Which have maximum number of isotopes ?

Options
Bromine
Aluminium
Polonium
Carbon

Which prefix is often used with scientific terms to indicate that something is the same, equal or
constant

Options
Iso
Mega
Meta
Quasi

Select the one which is not a mixture

Options
Air
Gasoline
LPG
Distilled water

Which one of the following best defines the word “allotropes”?


Options
Different structural forms of an element
A pair of substances that differ by H+
Elements that possess properties intermediate between those of metals and non-metals
Atoms of a given atomic number that have a specific number of neutrons

What is the formula of the compound formed between magnesium and oxygen?

Options
MgO
Mg2O2
Mg2O3
MgO2

Which one of the following statements concerning elements in the Periodic Table is correct?

Options
Elements of the same group all have the same number of electrons in the outermost occupied
electron shell.
Elements of Group 16 occur as cations in ionic compounds.
Oxides of elements in Groups 16 and 17 are basic.
The halogens (Group 17) are all gases at room temperature.

Which one of the following substances will form strong hydrogen bonds?

Options
HCOOH
CH3CN
CCl4
SiH4

Which one of the following statements regarding a catalyst is not correct?

Options
An enzyme is a catalyst that only binds certain substrates.
An enzyme is a protein that is a highly efficient catalyst for one or more chemical reactions in
a living system.
Catalysts increase the rate of a reaction by altering the mechanism, thereby increasing the
activation energy.
An enzyme is a catalyst

What happens when a catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium?

Options
The reaction follows an alternative pathway of lower activation energy.
The heat of reaction decreases.
The potential energy of the reactants decreases.
The potential energy of the products decreases.
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Question
23. 23 (1/27)
24. 24
Number
25. 25 of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
1
2
3
4

Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?

Options
1
2
3
4

Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?

Options
Does not have a double stranded structure
PrevThymine is present
SkipDoes not obey Chargaff’s rule
NextThe sugar contained in RNA is a ribose

Which of the following is the general formula for an alcohol?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is the general formula for a phenol (alcohol on a benzene ring)?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is a general formula for ether?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is a general formula for an amine?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

What class of compound has the following general formula: Ar—C(=O)—H?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—R’?

Options
Aldehyde
Alkene
Carboxylic acid
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—OH?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—O—R’?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—NH2?

Options
Aldehyde
Amide
Amine
Carboxylic acid

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–OH?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: C6H5–OH?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–NH2?

Options
Organic halide
Amine
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–H?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–CH2–CH3?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–OH?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–NH2?

Options
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is methanol?

Options
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Alcohol

What class of compound is butanal?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is methyl propanoate?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
What class of compound is butanone?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is ethanamide?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Amide
Ester

What class of compound is dopamine?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Amine

How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are there in the allene molecule, H2CCCH2?

Options
Six σ bonds and two π bonds
Two σ bonds and six π bonds
Four σ bonds and four π bonds
Eight σ bonds and no π bonds
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Question
23. 23 (1/128)
24. 24
Lipids
25. 25provide insulation against cold and hot weather to exoskeleton of insects in form of
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Cutin
28
29.Waxes
29
30.Cholesterol
30
31.Oil
31
32. 32
33. 33 number of carbon atoms in chain results in higher
Greater
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Melting
36 point
37. 37
Boiling point
38. 38
39.Freezing
39 oint
40.Stability
40
41. 41
Derivatives
42. 42 of phosphatidic acid, which are composed of glycerol, fatty acids and phosphoric acids
are known
43. 43 as
44. 44
Options
45. 45
46.Phospholipids
Prev 46
47. 47
SkipAcylghycerols
48. 48
NextTriglycerides
49. 49
Esters
50. 50
In51. 51 diet, all cholesterol comes from
human
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Animal
54 products
55. 55
56.Vegetable
products
56
57.Both
57 A and B
58.None
58 of these
59. 59
Condensed
60. 60 structural formula of Palmitic acid is
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
63
64.CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
64
65. 65
66.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
66
67.CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
67
68. 68
Condensed
69. 69 structural formula of Caproic acid is
70. 70
Options
71. 71
72.CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
72
73.CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
73
74.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
74
75.CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
75
76. 76
77. 77 state of fat at room temperature is
Physical
78. 78
79. 79
Options
80.Solid
80
81. 81
Liquid
82. 82
83.Gas
83
Plasma
84. 84
85. 85
Which
86. 86of following protects our heart and kidneys from injury?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
89.Skin
89
90.Muscles
90
91.Lubricants
91
92.Fat
92
93. 93
94. 94of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone insulin?
Which
95. 95
96. 96
Options
97.Mn++
97
98. 98
Mg++
99. 99
100.Ca++
100
101.Zn++
101
102. 102
Oxidation
103. 103 of which substance in the body yields the most calories
104. 104
Options
105. 105
106.Glucose
106
107.Glycogen
107
108.Protein
108
109. 109
Lipids
110. 110
111. is
Milk 111deficient in which vitamins?
112. 112
113. 113
Options
114.Vitamin
114 C
115. 115
116.Vitamin
116 A
117.Vitamin
117 B2
118. 118
119.Vitamin
119 K
120. 120
Milk is deficient of which mineral?
121. 121
122. 122
Options
123. 123
Phosphorus
124. 124
125.Sodium
125
126.Iron
126
127.Potassium
127
128. 128
Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?

Options
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Cytoplasm
Golgi apparatus

Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

Options
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Entoplasmic reticulum

The average pH of Urine is

Options
7.0
6.0
8.0
0.0

The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of

Options
Diffusion
Effusion
Affusion
Coagulation

The key enzyme in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis is

Options
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
AMP activated proteinkinase
Proteinphosphatase
None of these

Arachidonate has 20 carbon atoms with

Options
3 doublebonds
2 doublebonds
4 doublebonds
8 doublebonds

Fatty acid synthesis takes place in

Options
Mitochondria
Cellmembrane
Cytosol
Endoplasmicreticulum

Atherosclerosis can cause blood

Options
Thinning
Clotting
Thickening
Noneofthese

Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with

Options
2 double bonds
3 double bonds
One double bond
None of these

How many ATPs are formed during complete oxidation of palmitate?

Options
35
96
129
131

Humans are unable to digest

Options
Starch
Complex carbohydrates
Denatured proteins
Cellulose

Saliva contains all of the following except

Options
Hormones
Amylase
Bacteria-killingenzymes
Antibodies

Storage polysaccharide made by animals is

Options
Amylopectin
Glycogen
Cellulose
Collagen

The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is

Options
Ribose
Galactose
Mannose
Maltose

Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to

Options
Phosphoenolpyruvate
AcetylCoA
Lactate
Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate

Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

Options
Amylose
Cellobiose
Lactose
Noneofthese

Which substance is an electrolyte?

Options
CH3OH
C6H12O6
H2O
KOH
Which compound has both ionic and covalent bonding?

Options
CaCO3
CH2C12
CH3OH
C6H12O6

Which element is composed of molecules that each contain a multiple covalent bond?

Options
Chlorine
Fluorine
Hydrogen
Nitrogen

As a bond between a hydrogen atom and a sulfur atom is formed, electrons are

Options
Shared to form an ionic bond
Shared to form a covalent bond
Transferred to form an ionic bond
Transferred to form a covalent bond

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that a carbon atom can form?

Options
1
3
2
4

Which type of bond is found between atoms of solid cobalt?

Options
Nonpolar covalent
Polar covalent
Metallic
Ionic

Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule containing polar covalent bonds?

Options
H2O
CCl4
NH3
H2

Which formula represents a polar molecule?


Options
H2
H2O
CO2
CCL4

Two hydrogen atoms form a hydrogen molecule when

Options
One atom loses a valence electron to the other atom
One atom shares four electrons with the other atom
The two atoms collide and both atoms gain energy
The two atoms collide with sufficient energy to form a bond

Which statement describes a chemical change?

Options
Alcohol evaporates.
Water vapor forms snowflakes.
Table salt (NaCl) is crushed into powder.
Glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen produce CO2 and H2O.

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) + energy Which
statement describes the energy changes in this reaction?

Options
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, only.
Energy is released as bonds are broken, only.
Energy is absorbed as bonds are broken, and energy is released as bonds are formed.
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, and energy is released as bonds are broken.

What occurs in order to break the bond in a Cl2 molecule?

Options
Energy is absorbed.
Energy is released.
The molecule creates energy.
The molecule destroys energy.

Which atom has the least attraction for the electrons in a bond between that atom and an atom of
hydrogen?

Options
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Fluorine

Which compound has the least ionic character?


Options
KCl
CaCl2
AlCl3
CCl4

Which kind of compound generally results when nonmetal atoms chemically combine with metal
atoms?

Options
Hydrogen
Ionic
Covalent
Metallic

As sodium reacts with fluorine to form the compound NaF, each sodium atom will

Options
Gain 1 electron
Gain 2 electrons
Lose 1 electron
Lose 2 electrons

Which formula correctly represents the compound calcium hydroxide?

Options
CaOH
Ca2OH
CaOH2
Ca(OH)2

A substance has a high melting point and conducts electricity in the liquid phase. This substance is

Options
Ne
Hg
NaCl
SiC

A substance that does not conduct electricity as a solid but does conduct electricity when melted is
most likely classified as

Options
An ionic compound
A molecular compound
A metal
A nonmetal

Which formula represents a molecular solid?


Options
NaCl(s)
C6H12O6(s)
Cu(s)
KF(s)

What occurs when a coordinate covalent bond is formed between nitrogen and hydrogen in the
ammonium ion, NH4 + ?

Options
Hydrogen provides a pair of electrons to be shared with nitrogen.
Nitrogen provides a pair of electrons to be shared with hydrogen.
Hydrogen transfers a pair of electrons to nitrogen.
Nitrogen transfers a pair of electrons to hydrogen.

Which type of bond would be formed when a hydrogen ion (H+ ) reacts with an ammonia
molecule (NH3)?

Options
A coordinate covalent bond
A nonpolar covalent bond
A metallic bond
An ionic bond

Which element has a crystalline lattice composed of positive ions through which electrons flow
freely?

Options
Bromine
Calcium
Carbon
Sulfur

The high electrical conductivity of metals is primarily due to

Options
High ionization energies
Filled energy levels
Mobile electrons
High electronegativities

Which is an example of a network solid?

Options
SiC(s)
CO2(s)
AgNO3(s)
Ag(s)

Which compound is a network solid?


Options
SiO2
Na2O
H2O
CO2

Which compound is a poor conductor of heat and electricity and has a high melting point?

Options
SiO2
CO2
H2O
N2O

Which combination of atoms can form a polar covalent bond?

Options
H and Br
H and H
N and N
Na and Br

Which type of bond is formed between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom in CH3OH?

Options
Ionic
Electrovalent
Polar covalent
Nonpolar covalent

In a nonpolar covalent bond, electrons are

Options
Shared equally by two atoms
Shared unequally by two atoms
Transferred from one atom to another
Located in a mobile "sea" shared by many atoms

Which substance is correctly paired with its type of bonding?

Options
NaBr–nonpolar covalent
HCl–nonpolar covalent
NH3–polar covalent
Br2–polar covalent

Hexane (C6H14) and water do not form a solution. Which statement explains this phenomenon?

Options
Hexane is polar and water is nonpolar.
Hexane is ionic and water is polar.
Hexane is nonpolar and water is polar.
Hexane is nonpolar and water is ionic.

Which formula represents a polar molecule?

Options
Br2
CO2
CH4
NH3

Which of the following is the correct formula for propene?

Options
C4H10
C3H8
C4H8
C3H6

Which of these is the formula for an alkyne?

Options
C15H30
C10H18
C20H42
C30H64

Which of the following compounds has only single bonds?

Options
Octene
C3H4
C7H16
Decyne

Which of these is the formula for an alkene?

Options
C13H26
C19H36
C50H102
C14H30

Which of the following compounds does NOT exist?

Options
Acetylene
Methene
Nonyne
Cyclopentane

Acetylene is best described as

Options
The simplest alkyne.
An alkene with two carbon atoms.
An alkyne containing only one carbon atom.
More than one of the above

The formula for butane is

Options
C3H8
C4H10
C4H8
C3H10

Which of these is NOT an isomer of 2-heptene?

Options
1-heptene
Cycloheptane
3-heptene
2-heptyne

Ethanol is sometimes called

Options
Ethyl alcohol
Isopropyl alcohol
Butanol
Ethane

Which of these alcohols is incorrectly matched with its name?

Options
C7H15OH - heptanol
C10H21OH - decanol
C8H15OH - octanol
C9H19OH - nonyl alcohol

The general formula of monosaccharides is

Options
CnH2nOn
C2nH2On
CnH2O2n
CnH2nO2n

The general formula of polysaccharides is

Options
(C6H10O5)n
(C6H12O5)n
(C6H10O6)n
(C6H10O6)n

The aldose sugar is

Options
Glycerose
Ribulose
Erythrulose
Dihydoxyacetone

A triose sugar is

Options
Glycerose
Ribose
Erythrose
Fructose

A pentose sugar is

Options
Dihydroxyacetone
Ribulose
Erythrose
Glucose

The pentose sugar present mainly in the heart muscle is

Options
Lyxose
Ribose
Arabinose
Xylose

Vitamin C is required for the production and maintenance of:

Options
Collagen
Hormone
Ascorbic Acid
Red Blood Cells
Vitamin C deficiency is leads to:

Options
Scurvy
Cold
Cancer
Rickets

Which of the following is a function of Vitamin A in the body?

Options
Vision, bone and body growth
Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin
Normal cell development and reproduction
All of the above

Common food sources of Vitamin A are:

Options
Milk, eggs, butter, cheese, cream, and liver
White sugar, honey, and sugar cane
Broccoli, apricots, cantaloupe, carrots, sweet potato, spinach
Both A and C

Vitamin B-12 deficiency caused by lack of intrinsic factor is called:

Options
Pernicious anemia
Poor circulation of the red blood cells
Beri Beri
None of the above

What groups of people need additional Vitamin K?

Options
Premature newborns
People who do not have enough bile to absorb fat
Both A and B
None of the above answers

The vitamin Folate works together with to produce new red blood cells.

Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin B-12
None of the above

Which of the following is not a water soluble vitamin?


Options
Tocopherol
Pyridoxine
Pantothenic acid
Niacin

Which of the following is not a Fat-soluble vitamin?

Options
Calciferol
Retinoids
Tocopherol
Ascorbic acid

Which of the following Vitamin is also called as Pyridoxine?

Options
Vitamin B5
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B2

Which of the following is not included in fat soluble vitamins?

Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Vitamin B

How many types of vitamins are there?

Options
Two
Three
Four
Five

Which of the following statements is true about a peptide bond (RCONHR')?

Options
It is non planar.
It is capable of forming a hydrogen bond.
The cis configuration is favoured over the trans configuration.
Single bond rotation is permitted between nitrogen and the carbonyl

Which of the following statements is untrue about protein secondary structure?

Options
The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta turns are examples of protein secondary
structure.
The ability of peptide bonds to form intramolecular hydrogen bonds is important to secondary
structure
The steric influence of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.
The hydrophilic/hydrophobic character of amino acid residues is important to secondary
structure.

Identify which of the following terms refers to the arrangement of different protein subunits in a
multiprotein complex.

Options
Primarystructure
Secondarystructure
Tertiarystructure
Quaternarystructure

Identify which of the following terms refers to the overall three dimensional shape of a protein.

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving the residue
of the amino acid serine.

Options
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals interactions
None of the above

Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving the residue
of the amino acid valine.

Options
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals interactions
None of the above

What type of ring structure is present in structures A and B?


Options
Quinoline
Purine
Naphthalene
Pyrimidine

What type of structures are the compounds (i) - (iv)?

Options
Nucleic acids
Nucleotides
Nucleosides
Deoxyriboses

On which of the following molecules would you find a codon?

Options
Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
Small nuclear RNA

On which of the following molecules would you find an anticodon?

Options
Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
Small nuclear RNA

The amino acid that has hydrocarbon branch chain is:

Options
Lysine
Cysteine
Glutamic acid
Valine

Which of the following substances can give diesters:

Options
Lysine
Serine
Glycine
Alanine

Serine is:

Options
A monoamino–monocarboxylic aromatic acid
A monoamino–dicarboxylic acid
A diamino–monocarboxylic acid
A hydroxylated amino acid

In phosphorproteins, the phosphoric acid is bound to hydroxyl groups by bonds of type:

Options
Ether
Ionic
Carbonyl
Ester

The number of water molecules, eliminated when a molecule of heptapeptide is formed, is:

Options
5
6
7
8

The following substance contains 3 oxygen atoms in the molecule:

Options
Glycine
Valine
Lysine
Cysteine

Regarding pH, the following statement is true:

Options
When mixing an acid and a base, the mixture that results has the pH = 14.
The sum of pH values of substances in a solution is always equal to 14.
The add of small quantities of acid or base to a buffer solution does not change significantly its
pH.
The solution of a weak acid has high values of pH.

Regarding pH, the following statement is true:

Options
It is a parameter characterizing the strength of an acid or a base.
It is a characteristic of each acid or base.
It is a measure of the concentration of H in an aqueous solution.
It has different values if the substance is solid or gaseous.

Acids are chemical species able to:

Options
Give molecules
Give atoms
Give protons
Give molecular hydrogen

The formic acid has the following characteristic chemical property, unlike the other saturated
carboxylic acids:

Options
Is the weakest acid
Has reducing character
Has oxidant character
Sublimates easily

With Tollens reagent, aldehydes suffer a reaction of:

Options
Oxidation
Hydrogenation
Reduction
Condensation

What can result by the reduction of a ketone?

Options
A primary alcohol
A secondary alcohol
A carboxylic acid
A compound with a mixed function alcohol – ketone

What can result by the reduction of an aldehyde?

Options
A primary alcohol
A secondary alcohol
A carboxylic acid
A compound with a mixed function alcohol – aldehyde

Which of the following compounds reacts with an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide?

Options
Methane
Propanol
Phenol
Benzene

Which of the following is a branched chain hydrocarbon?

Options
Ethene
2-methyl-2-butene
2-butene
2-pentene

The linear alkanes cannot participate to reactions of:

Options
Addition
Dehydrogenation
Oxidation
Substitution

Which of the following substances: (I) naphthalene, (II) ethanol, (III) triolein, (IV) glucose, (V)
amylopectin, (VI) glutamic acid, does not dissolve in water?

Options
I, III, VI
I, III, V
II, IV, IV
I, IV

The separating process of the components of a mixture, based on the differences between the
boiling points of the components, is possible by:

Options
Extraction
Distillation
Sublimation
Crystallization

The separation process of a solid component of a mixture, based on its property to pass through
heating direct from the solid phase into the gaseous phase, without melting, is called:

Options
Crystallization
Decantation
Sublimation
Distillation

Which of the following substances presents only primary carbon atoms in its structure?

Options
Methane
Acetylene
Ethane
Propane

How many secondary carbon atoms contain the following hydrocarbon chain? СН3-СН2- СН2-
СН2- СН3

Options
N=5
N=3
N=0
N=2

The combustion of a hydrocarbon will produce mandatory:

Options
SO2
CO2
CO
SO3

Which one of the following will exhibit highest osmotic pressure at 25°C?

Options
KCl
Glucose.
Urea.
Calcium chloride.

Unit of molarity is:

Options
Kg / litre.
Mol / litre.
Gm / litre.
None of these.

Two solutions C and D are separated by a semi-permeable membrane. If liquid flows from D to C
then.

Options
Both have same concentration.
D is less concentrated than C.
D is more concentrated than C.
None of these.

When sugar is added to water, what is the change observed in boiling and freezing points of
water?

Options
Both boiling point and freezing point decreases.
Both boiling point and freezing point increases.
Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases.
Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases.

When a solute is dissolved in water it shows:

Options
Decrease in freezing point of water.
Decrease in boiling point of water.
Increase in vapour pressure of water.
All of the above.

The boiling point of Benzene, Ethanol, Octane and Pentane are 80°C, 78°C, 126°C and 36°C
respectively. Which of the following will show highest vapour pressure at room temperature.

Options
Benzene.
Octane.
Pentane.
Entahol.

Molecular weight of non-volatile and soluble solute can be determined by:

Options
Elevation of boiling point.
Depression in freezing point.
Lowering of vapour pressure.
Osmotic pressure.
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Question (1/6)
Which can act as buffer?

Options
NH4 Cl + HCl
CH3 COOH + H2 CO3
40ml of 0.1M NaCN + 20ml of 0.1M HCN
NaCl + NaOH

NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is

Options
Not a buffer solution with pH < 7
Not a buffer solution with pH > 7
A buffer solution with pH < 7
A buffer solution with pH > 7

For an acid buffer solution the pH is 3. The pH can be increased by

Options
Increasing the concentration of salt
PrevIncreasing the concentration of acid
SkipDecreasing the concentration of salt
NextIndependent of concentration of acid & salt

Which of the following does not react with water?

Options
Barium
Calcium
Beryllium
Strontium

Which among the following statements is true about the following chemical reaction? 3Fe(s) + 4H2
O → Fe3 O4 (s) + 4H2

Options
Iron metal is getting reduced
Water is acting as a reducing agent
Water is acting as an oxidizing agent
Water is getting oxidized

Identify the products formed in the following reaction CH3 COOCH3 + H2 O → A + B

Options
CH3 COOH and CH3 OH
CH3 COOOH and CH4
CO2 and C2 H6
No reaction
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Question
21. 21 (1/25)
22. 22
How
23. might
23 solid sodium carbonate be obtained from sodium carbonate solution?
24. 24
Options
25. 25
Centrifugation
Filtration
Evaporation
It cannot be extracted

What is the best description of blood?

Options
Sol
Foam
Solution
Aerosol

A suspension is formed from uniform particles of solid, of diameter 10 Mm, suspended in a


solvent. What is the best description of this system?
Prev
Options
Skip
Monodisperse and coarse
Next
Monodisperse and colloidal
Polydisperse and coarse
Polydisperse and colloidal

Which one of the following dispersions does not have liquid continuous phase?

Options
Nanosuspension
Microemulsion
Gel
Foam

Which one of the following systems has the smallest sized domains in its dispersed phase?

Options
Nanoemulsion
Coarse suspension
Coarse emulsion
Microemulsion

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the change in domain structure as more oil
is added to a water-in-oil emulsion?

Options
Bicontinuous, spherical, cylinder-like
Spherical, cylinder-like, bicontinuous
Spherical, bicontinuous, cylinder-like
Cylinder-like, spherical, bicontinuous

Which method for the production of dispersions involves the formation of particles from
materials dissolved in true solutions?

Options
Bottom-up
Top-down
Milling
High pressure homogenization

The scattering of light by coarse and colloidal dispersed systems is known as?

Options
Contrast matching
DLVO theory
Tyndall effect
Creaming

Which of the following is not a mechanism for the separation of a physically unstable suspension
of magnesium hydroxide in water?

Options
Flocculation
Aggregation
Ostwald ripening
Hydrolysis

In the DLVO theory of colloids, normal thermal motion may be sufficient to overcome the energy
barrier that leads to irreversible particle aggregation. The name of this energy barrier is which
one of the following?

Options
Primary maximum
Secondary maximum
Primary minimum
Secondary minimum

One of following substances that belongs to colloid system is....


Options
Milk
Mineral water
Vinegar
Salty water

Dispersed phase and dispersing medium of smoke are..

Options
Solid in liquid
Liquid in solid
Solid in gas
Gas in solid

Margarine is a colloid system of...

Options
Foam
Emulsion
Aerosol
Solid emulsion

Light scattering in colloid system is known as..

Options
Brownian Motion
Tyndall Effect
Coagulation
Electrophoresis

These following things are colloid properties, except...

Options
Composed of 2 phase
Stable
Homogeneous
Can be filtered

An _________ is a sol with the continuous phase a gas. Fog is an _________ of water droplets.

Options
Aerosol
Emulsion
Agglomerate
Electrophoresis

An _________ is a sol in which the suspended particles are liquid droplets and the continuous phase
is also a liquid. The 2 phases are immiscible, otherwise a solution would form.

Options
Aerosol
Emulsion
Agglomerate
Electrophoresis

A _________ is a sol of solid particles scattered in a liquid. Foam is a colloidal system in which gas
bubbles dispersed in a liquid or solid.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Streaming potential
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles with
each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.

Options
Magnitude
Shape
Surface
Size

Is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary liquid
induced by an external field.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Is the charged field generated by charged particles moving in a stationary liquid.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Is the generation of an electric field by locomotion of the liquid along stationary charged surfaces.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Streaming potential
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Emulsion is:
Options
Butter;
River ooze;
Stained glass;
Textile fabrics.

Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

Options
Prevent making of a colloid
Stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization
Stabilize the mixture
Enrich the aroma

Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

Options
Liquid dispersed in gas
Gas dispersed in gas
Solid dispersed in gas
Solid dispersed in liquid
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Question
23. 23 (1/46)
24. 24
Amount
25. 25 of amino acid residues in proteins ranges from
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.50-2000
28
29.2000-4000
29
30.4000-6000
30
31.7000-10,000
31
32. 32
33. 33
Polar amino acids are usually found
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.On36surface of proteins
37. 37
Inside core of proteins
38. 38
39.At39sides of proteins
40.Can
40 be present anywhere in proteins
41. 41
Sulfur
42. 42atom of cysteine is involved in formation of
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Sulfide
45 group
46.Sulfhydryl
Prev 46 group
SkipSulfite group
NextSulphates

Number of amino acids that have hydrophobic side chains are

Options
7
8
9
10

Bond formed between two amino acid molecules is

Options
Peptide bond
Sulfur linkage
Ionic bond
Coordinate covalent bond

A mutation has changed an isoleucine residue of a protein to Glutamic acid, which statement best
describes its location in a hydrophilic exterior

Options
On the surface since it is hydrophilic in nature
In side the core of the protein since it is hydrophobic in nature
Any where inside or outside
Inside the core of protein since it has a polar but uncharged side chain

Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of

Options
Hemoglobin
Myoglobin
Insulin
Collagen 3- Some proteins contain

Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the physiological pH ?

Options
Valine
Leucine
Isoleucine
None of the followings

Mother of a mal nourished child has been instructed to include a complete protein in diet for her
child, which out of the followings proteins should be recommended?

Options
Pulses
Wheat
Soy Protein
Milk

All of the below mentioned amino acids can participate in hydrogen bonding except one

Options
Serine
Cysteine
Threonine
Valine

Which out of the followings is not a fibrous protein?

Options
Carbonic anhydrase
Collagen
Fibrinogen
Keratin

Which one of the following amino acids may be considered a hydrophobic amino acid at
physiological p H of 7.4

Options
Isoleucine
Arginine
Aspartic acid
Threonine

Which of the characteristics below apply to amino acid Glycine?

Options
Optically inactive
Hydrophilic, basic and charged
Hydrophobic
Hydrophilic, acidic and charged

Which of the amino acids below is the uncharged derivative of an acidic amino acid?

Options
Cystine
Tyrosine
Glutamine
Serine

Choose the correct category for milk protein casein out of the followings

Options
Nucleoprotein
Phosphoprotein
Lipoprotein
Glycoprotein

Which of the following statements about amino acids is correct?

Options
Amino acids are classified according to the structures and properties of their side chains.
Amino acids are uncharged at neutral pH.
Amino acids in proteins are mainly in the D-configuration.
Twenty four amino acids are commonly used in protein synthesis.

Which type of bonding is responsible for the secondary structure of proteins?

Options
Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues.
Hydrogen bonding between the C=O and N-H groups of peptide bonds.
Peptide bonds between amino acids.
Salt bridges between charged side chains of amino acids

Which term below best defines the 'quaternary structure' of a protein?

Options
The arrangement of two or more polypeptide subunits into a single functional complex
The folding of the polypeptide backbone in three-dimensional space.
The interaction of amino acid side chains.
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

Which of the following most accurately describes how secondary structures in proteins are
stabilised?

Options
Through ionic bonds operating between oppositely charged amino acid side chains.
Through covalent bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.
Through hydrogen bonds between different amino acid side chains.
Through hydrogen bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.

Which amino acid can form disulphide bonds?

Options
Glycine.
Proline.
Glutamate.
Cysteine.

Which of the following statements is false?

Options
Primary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
Secondary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
Three dimensional structure of a protein determines the function of a protein
Amino acid sequence is absolutely invariant for a particular protein

Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?

Options
Frederick Sanger
Mendel
Watson and Francis Crick
Anton van Leeuwenhoek

Tertiary conformation of proteins is maintained by 3 types of bonds namely ionic, hydrogen and

Options
Sulfide
Disulfide
Covalent
Peptide

Hemoglobin is a

Options
Monomer
Dimer
Trimer
Tetramer

Native state of a protein can be disrupted by

Options
Temperature
PH
Removal of water
Presence of hydrophilic surfaces

Identify the wrong statement

Options
Hemoglobin is a globular protein
Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein
Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water
Collagen is a fibrous protein

1In 3° structure of proteins, folding and shaping is done by

Options
Hydrophobic interactions
Polar interactions
Hydrogen bonding
None of the mentioned

β-pleated sheets are the examples of

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the same
chain is

Options
Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure

A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side is

Options
Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure

Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups

Options
Phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan
Glycine, alanine, leucine
Lysine, arginine, histidine
Serine, threonine, cysteine

The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are

Options
Aspartate and glutamate
Arginine and histidine
Cysteine and methionine
Proline and valine

Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid?

Options
Serine
Threonine
Lysine
Histidine

Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

Options
Cysteine
Asparagine
Glutamine
Phenylalanine

Which of the following is an imino acid?

Options
Alanine
Glycine
Proline
Serine

Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is

Options
1
2
3
4

Which of the following are an example of epimers?

Options
Glucose & Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
A&c

Fructose and Glucose can be distinguished by

Options
Selwinoff’s reagent
Benedict’s reagent
Fehling’s reagent
Barfoed’s reagent

Which of the following is an example of monosaccharide?

Options
Galactose
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose

Which of the following is an example of disaccharide?

Options
Glucose
Fructose
Galactose
Maltose

In maltose, between which of the following carbons there is a linkage?

Options
C1, C2
C2, C3
C1, C4
C2, C4
Which of the following carbohydrates is a triose?

Options
Glucose
Ribose
Ribulose
Glyceraldehyde

Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following sugar units?

Options
Glucose and fructose
Glucose and galactose
Glucose and sucrose
Glucose and ribose

In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants?

Options
Glycogen
Starch
Dextrin
Cellulose

In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in liver?

Options
Glycogen
Starch
Dextrin
Cellulose

Which of the following are the storage polysaccharides?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Glucose
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Question
23. 23 (1/87)
24. 24
The
25.addition
25 of a catalyst to the reaction system
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Increases
28 the rate of forward reaction only
29.Increases
29 the rate of reverse reaction
30.Increases
30 the rate of forward but decreases the rate of backward reaction
31.Increases
31
the rate of forward as well as backward reaction equally
32. 32
On33. 33
increasing the temperature the rate of reaction increases mainly because
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.The
36 activation energy of the reaction increases
37. 37
Concentration of the reacting molecules increases
38. 38
39.Collision
39 frequency increases
40.None
40 of these
41. 41
The
42.value
42 of activation energy is primarily determined by
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Temperature
45
46. 46
PrevEffective collision
47. 47
SkipConcentration of reactants
48. 48
NextChemical nature of reactants and products
49. 49
50. of
Sum 50exponents of molar concentration is called
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Order
53 of reaction
54. 54
55.Molecularity
55
56. 56 of reaction
Rate
57.Average
57 of reaction
58. 58
In59.
rate59expression the concentration of reactants is negative. It shows
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Concentration
62 of reactant does not change
63.Concentration
63 of product increases
64.Concentration
64
of reactant decreases
65. 65
66.Concentration
66 of reactant increases
67. 67
Unit of rate of reaction is
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
Moles dm-3 sec-1
71. 71
72.Moles
72 sec-1
73.Moles
73 dm-3
74.Mol-1
74 dm-3 sec-1
75. 75
Rate
76. of
76disappearance of reactant is equal to
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Rate
79 of reaction
80.Energy
80 released during reaction
81. 81
Rate of formation of product
82. 82
83.A 83
and b
84. 84
Radiations are absorbed in
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
Spectrophotometer method
Optical relation method
Dilatometric method
Refractometric method

Activated complex is formed due to

Options
Pressure
Ineffective collisions
Effective collision
Temperature

Energy required to form transition state is called

Options
Ea
V
P.E
K.E

Which of the following will have very high rate of reaction?

Options
Double decomposition reaction
Ionic reactions
Neutralization reaction
All of above

Greater the concentration of reactant

Options
Greater will be dx/dt
Dx/dt will be moderate
Lesser will be dx/dt
Any of above

Anything which increases rate of reaction without being involved in the reaction

Options
Promoter
Inhibitor
Catalyst
All of the above

The substances that reduces the effectiveness of a catalyst are called

Options
Promoters
Inhibitors
Poisoning catalysts
Pro-catalysts

When catalysts and reactants are in more than one phase it is

Options
Homogeneous catalysis
Heterogeneous catalysis
Catalysis
Ea

Each catalyst has

Options
Specificity
Its own Ea
Special structure
All of above

Biocatalytical proteins are

Options
Enzymes
Lipids
Substrate
Any of above

A catalyst can not effect

Options
Products
Chemical equilibrium
Reactants
Both a & b

An enzyme has its specificity due to

Options
Substrate
Temperature
Structure
Pressure

When the reaction completes in more than one steps rate of reaction will be determined by

Options
Fast step
Slowest step
All steps
Molecularity of the reaction

Energy of activation for backward reaction is less than forward reaction for ________ reaction

Options
Endothermic
Exothermic
Moderate
Fast

Which statement is incorrect about catalyst

Options
It is used in smaller amount
Decrease activation energy
Specific in action
It affects specific rate constant

Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

Options
2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
Cl2 → 2Cl
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
2HI → H2 + I2
HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


Options
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
2HI → H2 + I2
L2 → 2Cl

Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

Options
The point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;
The point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;
The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;
The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous solutions:

Options
Solubility product constant (Ksp);
Acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
Molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
Molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) shifted to reactants, if:

Options
Temperature will be increased
Pressure will be decreased
Concentration of ammonia will be decreased
Concentration of hydrogen will be increased.

Rate of decomposition of H2O2 will increase if:

Options
Temperature will be increased
Inhibitor will be added
Solvent will be added
Temperature will be decreased

Rate of chemical reaction between gases with increase of pressure, in common:

Options
Increase
Decrease
Remain the same
All of this is possible

For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, increasing of chemical rate of forward reaction is
IMPOSSIBLE if we’ll increase:

Options
Temperature
Pressure
Concentration of hydrogen
Concentration of ammonia

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH shifted to product, if we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Decrease temperature
Decrease concentration of nitrogen

Which factor will effect on shifting of chemical equilibrium for reaction Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) = 3Fe(s)
+ 4H2O(g):

Options
Adding catalyst to system
Changing of pressure
Changing of Fe3O4 concentration
Increasing of hydrogen concentration

Rate of chemical reaction Mg with acetic acid will NOT increase, if we’ll:

Options
Use Mg powder
Increase temperature
Decrease temperature
Add HI to system, as catalyst

For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H process, increasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

Options
Shifting of equilibrium to reactants
Increasing reaction rate for forward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction
Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction

For N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH process, decreasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

Options
Shifting of equilibrium to reactants
Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for forward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction

For reaction 2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2- ΔH shifting equilibrium to product is impossible, if we’ll:

Options
Decrease temperature
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Increase concentration of oxygen

Pressure changing will NOT effect for reaction:

Options
FeO(s) + CO(g) = Fe(s) + CO2(g
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
2CO(g) + O2(g) = 2CO2(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

Decreasing of pressure shifts equilibrium to products in case:

Options
FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)
CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

Increasing of concentration of reactants shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
Fe(s) + H2O(g) = FeO(s) + H2(g)
H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI

Increasing of temperature shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
2NH3(g) = N2(g) +3H2(g)+ ΔH
2H2(g) + O2 = 2H2O – H
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Decrease pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase concentration of CO2
Increase pressure

For reaction C(s) + 2N2O(g) = 2N2(g) + CO2(g)- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is possible, due
these factors:

Options
Increasing of pressure; decreasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; increasing N2O concentration
Increasing of pressure; decreasing CO2 concentration
Increasing of pressure; decreasing N2O concentration

With the highest rate of chemical reaction, next oxidation reaction will go:

Options
Cu on air in standard conditions
Cu on pure O2 with temperature elevation
Mg on air in normal temperature
Mg on pure O2 with temperature elevation

To increase product’s yield of reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, one should:

Options
Decrease pressure
Add catalyst
Increase concentration of hydrogen
Increase temperature

For reaction SO2 + O2 = SO3 – H, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, due these factors:

Options
Increasing of pressure; Increasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; Decreasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; Increasing of temperature
Increasing of pressure; Decreasing of temperature

For reaction SO32-(sol) + H2O = HSO3- (sol)+ OH-(sol)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is
impossible, if we’ll:

Options
Add an acid
Add a water
Add an alkali
Increase temperature

Decreasing of volume will NOT shift equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3(sol)
H2SO3(sol) = H2O(l) + SO2(g)
2NH3(g) = N2(g) + 3H2(g)

Increasing of volume will shift equilibrium to products in case:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)
2C(s) + O2(g) = 2CO(g)
H2SO3(sol) = H2O(l) + SO2(g)
BaO(s) +CO2(g) = BaCO3(g)

If temperature is increased, then:

Options
Rate of exothermic as well as endothermic reactions is increases.
Rate of exothermic reactions is increases but decreases for endothermic reactions
Rate of endothermic reactions is increases but decreases for exothermic reactions
Rate of exothermic as well as endothermic reactions is decreases.

For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Decrease pressure
Increase H2CO3 concentration

Changing of concentration of A will NOT effecton rate of reaction:

Options
A(g) + B(g) = AB(g)
2A(g) + B(g) = A2B(g)
2A(s) + 2B(g) = 2AB(s)
A(g) + 2B(g) = AB2(g)

Rate of homogeneous exothermic reaction of ammonia synthesis CANNOT be increased, if we’ll

Options
Increase temperature
Use catalyst
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature

Choose the main reason of reaction rate elevation though temperature increase.

Options
Number of molecular collisions is increased
Activation energy is increased
Activation energy is decreased
Number of active molecules is increased

Addition of catalyst increases reaction rate due to:

Options
Activation energy is increased
Activation energy is decreased
Number of active molecules is decreased
Enthalpy of reaction is increased
Addition of catalyst increases reaction rate of:

Options
Only straight reaction
Only backward reaction
Both types: straight and backward reactions
For homogeneous reactions

When system moves to equilibrium…

Options
Rates of forward and backward reactions are increases.
Rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward decreases
Rate of backward reaction increases and rate forward of decreases
Rates of forward and backward reactions are decreases

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g), if temperature is increased, shifts to reactants.


Why?

Options
Because rate of backward reaction increases and rate forward of decreases
Rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward decreases
Rates of forward and backward reactions are increases, but in greater degree increases for
backward reaction
Rates of forward and backward reactions are decreases, but in greater degree decreases for
forward reaction

For reaction HNO2 + H2O = H3O+ + NO2 + ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease temperature
Increase temperature
Add to system some acid
Increase pressure

For reaction CO(g) + 2H2(g) = CH3OH(l)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease pressure
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Increase CO concentration

Increasing of pressure and decreasing of temperature separately will NOT shift equilibrium in
same direction:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H
2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2 – H
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H

Increasing of temperature and decreasing of pressure separately will shift equilibrium in same
direction:

Options
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl – H
2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2 – H
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl + ΔH

Industrial synthesis of sulfur oxide (VI) SO2 + O2 = SO3 – H is carried out at high temperaturein
order to:

Options
Shift equilibrium to right
Shift equilibrium to left
Increase rate of reaction
Decrease activation energy of process

For reaction 2HgO(s)= 2Hg(s) + O2(g)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Increase temperature
Increase pressure
Increase O2 concentration
Decrease temperature

For reaction FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)- ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if
we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase concentration of FeO
Increase concentration of H2O

Find correct statement:

Options
The higher activation energy of reaction, the higher reaction rate
The lower activation energy of reaction, the higher reaction rate
Reaction rate doesn’t depend on activation energy of reaction
Enthalpy of reaction depends on number of steps of reaction

How reaction rate changes for reaction Mg + 2HCl = MgCl2 + H2, if piece of Mg (1 g) will break into
1000 same blocs?

Options
Remain the same
Increase 10 times
Increase 100 times
Increase 1000 times

For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g), shifting equilibrium to products is impossible, if we’ll add
to system:

Options
Ammonia
HCl
N2
H2

For one-step reaction rate equation is v=kc(A2) That reaction is…

Options
B2(g) + A2(g) = 2AB
2B2(g) + A2 = 2B2A(g)
B(s) + A2(g) = BA2(g)
2BA2(g) + A2(g) = 2BA2(g)

Reaction rate of forward reaction A2(g) + 3B2(g) = 2AB3(g), that was found from concentration
changes of A, is 0,01mol/l*sec. Calculate reaction rate from concentrations of B2 and AB3:

Options
0,02 and 0,01
0,03 and -0,02
0,03 and 0,02
0,02 and 0,04

How many times rate of reaction A2(g) + B2(g) = 2AB(l) changes, if concentration of A2 increases
for 3 times.

Options
3
6
9
12

For reaction 2A2(g) + B2(g) = 2A2B(g), if concentration of A2 decreases for 3 times, how reaction
rate will change?

Options
Increase for 3 times
Decrease for 3 times
Increase for 9 times
Decrease for 9 times

How many times pressure should be increased, if we want speed up reaction A(g) + 2B(g) =
2AB2(g) for 125 times?
Options
5
25
100
125

For reaction A + B = AB, if pressureincreases for 4 times, how reaction rate will change?

Options
Remain the same
Increases for 8 times
Increases for 4 times
Increases for 16 times

Increasing concentration of A for 2 times will lead to reaction rate increasing for 4 times, in
reaction…

Options
A2(g) + B2(g) = 2AB(g)
A2(g) + B(s) = BA2(s)
2A2(g) = B(g)
2A2(s) = B(g) + 2C(g)

224.Volume of exuded H2, in reaction between Fe and H2SO4(sol), if piece of Fe (10g) will break in
125 cubes, increases for:

Options
2 times
5 times
15 times
125 times

Solvents can be…

Options
Liquid
Gaseous
Solid
Every one of these types

Solutions, in difference with pure substances…

Options
Homogeneous
Instable
Have constant composition
Can be colored or colorless

If in solution, in certain conditions, can be added an extra quantity of solute, then this solution
cannot be…
Options
Concentrated
Diluted
Saturated
Unsaturated

After addition an extra quantity of solute to solution, it did not dissolve. Then we can say, that
solution:

Options
Diluted
Concentrated
Saturated
Unsaturated

On solubility of solid substances in liquids doesn’t affect:

Options
Temperature
Nature of solute
Nature of solvent
Stirring

For reaction 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2 (g) - ΔH, shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease pressure
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase CO concentration
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5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
Question
27. 27 (1/285)
28. 28
Which
29. 29of the following statements is true?
30. 30
Options
31. 31
32.NaCl
32 is a neutral salt;
33.KOH
33 is an acid;
34.HCl
34 and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.
35.NaBr
35 is basic salt.
36. 36
37. 37
Functional Group of Ether:
38. 38
39. 39
Options
40.H40–C=O
41. 41
C–O–C
42. 42
43.C 43
–C
44.C 44
–X
45. 45
Which
46. 46pairing is not a set of conjugates?
47. 47
Options
48. 48
49.OH-
49 and H2O;
50.HC2H3O2
50 and C2H3O2-;
51.HCl
51 and Cl-;
52.NH3
52 and NH4+;
53. 53
54. 54
Functional
Prev Group of Aldehyde:
55. 55
Skip
56. 56
Options
Next
57.C 57
– CO - C
58. 58
C – CH = O
59. 59
60.C 60
–X
61.O61
= C – OH
62. 62
Which
63. 63reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?
64. 64
Options
65. 65
66.HF
66+ LiOH → H2O + LiF;
67.2HCl
67 + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2;
68. 68
2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2
69. 69
70.K2O
70 + H2O → 2KOH;
71. 71
Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?
72. 72
73. 73
Options
74. 74
75.KOH
75 is potassium hydroxide;
76.H2SO3
76 is sulfurous acid;
77.HI77is hydroiodic acid;
78.HClO2
78 is chloric acid
79. 79
80. 80salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?
Which
81. 81
Options
82. 82
83.AgCl;
83
84.PbBr2;
84
85. 85
Ca3(PO4)2;
86. 86
87.Na2CO3
87
88. 88
A 89.
solution
89 of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:
90. 90
91. 91
Options
92. 92
93.Unsaturated;
93
94.Supersaturated;
94
95.Saturated
95
96.Dilute
96
97. 97
98.net
The 98 ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate and
99.
sodium 99 chloride would include all of the following except:
100. 100
Options
101. 101
102.Cl-;
102
103.2Na+;
103
104. 104
CaCO3d
105. 105
106.All
106of the substances above
107. 107
Functional
108. 108 Group of Ketone:
109. 109
Options
110. 110
111.C-CO-C
111
112.C 112
–X
113.C 113
– OH
114.#NAME?
114
115. 115
Which
116. 116solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?
117. 117
Options
118. 118
119.1.5
119
m NaCl;
120.1.5
120
m AgCl;
121. 121
2.0 m C6H12O6;
122. 122
123.2.0 m CaCl2
123
124. 124
Functional Group of Amine:
125. 125
126. 126
Options
127. 127
128.C 128
– NR – R’
129.O129
= C – OH
130.H130
–C=O
131.C 131
– OH
132. 132
133. 133
Which equation is correctly balanced?
134. 134
Options
135. 135
136.Na136
+ Cl2 → 2NaCl;
137.CH4
137+ 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;
138. 138
2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;
139. 139
140.H2SO4
140 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;
141. 141
Functional
142. 142 Group of Amide:
143. 143
Options
144. 144
145.O145
= C – OH
146.C 146
– NR – R’
147.H147
–C=O
148.HOC
148– NR – R’
149. 149
150. 150has lowest oxidation number in
Sulphur
151. 151
Options
152. 152
153.H2SO3
153
154.SO2
154
155. 155
156.H2SO4
156
H2S
157. 157
158. 158
Functional
159. 159 Group of Nitrile:
160. 160
Options
161. 161
162.- C≡N
162
163.O163
= C – OH
164.C 164
– NR – R’
165.HOC
165– NR – R’
166. 166
167. 167
Amino acides are building blocks of:
168. 168
Options
169. 169
170.Ketones
170
171. 171
Aldehydes
172. 172
173.Proteins
173
Ethers
174. 174
175. 175
Which
176. 176of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
177. 177
Options
178. 178
179.H2S
179
180.SO3
180
181.H2O2
181
182.F2182
183. 183
184. 184 are composed of:
Proteins
185. 185
186. 186
Options
187.20187
different amino acids
188. 188
15 different amino acids
189. 189
190.15190
different aldehydes
191.17191
different ethers
192. 192
Which
193. 193of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
194. 194
Options
195. 195
196.O3196
197.KMnO4
197
198.H2O2
198
199.K2Cr2O7
199
200. 200
201.
In the201
redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
202. 202
203. 203
Options
204.X=2
204y=4 z=10
205. 205
X=2 y=6 z=5
206. 206
207.X=2
207y=3 z=8
208.X=2
208y=3 z=10
209. 209
Reduction
210. 210 involves
211. 211
Options
212. 212
213.Loss
213of electrons
214.Gain
214 of electrons
215.Increase
215 in the valency of positive part
216. 216
Decrease in the valency of negative part
217. 217
218. 218 type of α-amine acid - triptophane
Determine
219. 219
220. 220
Options
221.Essential
221
222.Non-essential
222
223. 223
Semi- essential
224. 224
225.None
225 of these
226. 226
Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine
227. 227
228. 228
Options
229. 229
Aliphatic
230. 230
231.Aromatic
231
232.Heterocyclic
232
233.Complex
233
234. 234
The
235.strongest
235 reducing agent is
236. 236
Options
237. 237
238.HNO2
238
239.H2S
239
240. 240
H2SO3
241. 241
242.SnCl2
242
243. 243
Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of sugar rest
244. 244
245. 245
Options
246. 246
247.C1247
248.C2248
249.C3249
250.C4250
251. 251
252. 252 acid exists in form of cation in
α-Amine
253. 253
Options
254. 254
255.Acidic
255 medium
256.Neutral
256 medium
257. 257
Basic medium
258. 258
259.Any
259medium
260. 260
An electrolyte
261. 261 is one
262. 262
Options
263. 263
264.Which
264 conducts electric current
265.Which
265 is capable of ionization by passing electric current
266.Which
266 dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
267.None
267 of the above
268. 268
269. 269 acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in
α-Amine
270. 270
Options
271. 271
272.Acidic
272 medium
273.Neutral
273 medium
274. 274
275.Basic
275 medium
276.Any
276medium
277. 277
278. 278
Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to
279. 279
280. 280
Options
281.Dilution
281
282. 282
Number of ions
283. 283
284.Current
284 density
285.Volume
285 of the solution

How many α-amine acidrests are in polypeptide

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:

Options
-1/3
-1
+1
-3

Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides

Options
Coordination
Ionic
Hydrogen
Hydrofobic

Which of the following is an insulator?

Options
Graphite
Aluminium
Diamond
Silicon

Choose peptide bond

Options
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
-C-C-

In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O

Options
X=4 y=6
X=8 y=3
X=8 y=6
X=3 y=8

Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O

Options
10
8
5
2

Lactose is

Options
Monose
Unreducing disaccharide
Amine acid
Reducing disaccharide

Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

Options
F2
Cl2
Br2
I2

Oxidation involves

Options
Loss of electrons
Gain of electrons
Increase in the valency of negative part
Decrease in the valency of positive part

Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

Options
Oxidation
Reduction
Esterification
Transamination
Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of

Options
Aldose
Pyranose
Fructose
Furanose

Glicaric acids are produced under action of

Options
Mild oxidant
Strong reductant
Mildreductant
Strong oxidant

Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide

Options
Coordination
Ionic
Hydrogen
Glycoside

Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms

Options
C5 and N1
C1 and N9
C3 and N9
C1 and N1

Components of nucleotide

Options
Protein
Amine acid rest
OH
Thymine

Monomeric link of protein

Options
Sugar rest
Isoprene
Amine acid rest
Ethylene

Unsaponified lipids are


Options
Mono-component
Di-component
Three-component
Poly-component

DNA contains

Options
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis

Options
Alcohols, carboxylicacids
Carboxylicacids
Alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

Determine type of α-amine acid - valine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of

Options
Transamination
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation

α-amine acid exists in form of anion in

Options
Acidic medium
Neutral medium
Basic medium
Any medium

How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is

Options
-2
-1
0
-4

The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:

Options
SO2
CaO
Al2O3
CrO3

In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers

Options
Intermolecular
Intramolecular
Disproportion
None of them

Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?

Options
CH3COONa
C2H5OH
NaCl
KOH

Element accepting electrons is called

Options
Product
Oxidant
Reactant
Reductant

One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:

Options
F
Cl
He
Na

The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:

Options
-3 to +5
-1 to +1
-3 to -5
-5 to +1

Strong electrolytes are those which

Options
Dissolve readily in water
Conduct electricity
Dissociate into ions at high dilution
Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

Which of the following conducts electricity?

Options
Crystal NaCl
Diamond
Molten KBr
Sulphur

How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at

Options
Anode
Cathode
Both A & B
The surface of the electrolyte solution

Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins

Options
Coordination
Hydrofobic
Glycoside
Metallic

Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Choose disulphide bond

Options
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
–C-C-

Oxidation Number of Halogens are:

Options
-1
-2
4
0
How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose

Options
1
2
3
4

Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:

Options
1
-2
-4
0

Sucrose is

Options
Monose
Unreducing disaccharide
Amine acid
Reducing disaccharide

Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by

Options
Oxidation
Reduction
Esterification
Transamination

Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


Options
Transamination
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation

In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation number

Options
Intermolecular
Double exchange
Intramolecular
Disproportion

In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed

Options
Intermolecular
Double exchange
Counter disproportion
Disproportion

Gliconic acids are produced under action of

Options
Mild oxidant
Strongreductant
Mildreductant
Strong oxidant

Element loosing electrons is called

Options
Product
Oxidant
Reactant
Reductant

Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides

Options
Glycozides
Acids
Polyols
Salts

Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms:

Options
C5 and N1
C1 and N9
C3 and N9
C1 and N1

Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:

Options
The interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
The heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
The scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
The study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems
in terms of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

Components of nucleoside

Options
Phosphate group
Carbonyl group
Thymine
Sugar rest

In what case there is an oxidation process:

Options
KMnO4→MnO2;
HNO2→NO2;
Cl2O→HCl;
P→H3PO4.

Monomeric link of terpene

Options
Sugar rest
Isoprene
Amine acid res
Ethylene

Point out the correct statements:

Options
A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl →
CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O

Options
1
6
14
3

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

Options
Mn(OH)2;
MnO42-;
MnO2;
Mn2+.

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

Options
Fe2O3 + HCl;
FeCl3+H2S;
Fe+ HCl;
SO3+NaOH.

Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction: KMnO4 + H2O2
+H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

Options
2
5
10
3

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:

Options
Accepts electrons;
Donates electrons;
Increases its oxidation number;
Decreases its concentration

Saponified lipids are

Options
Mono-component
Three-component
Without any component
Poly-component

Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consistsfromzinc consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:

Options
Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

Options
1+;
2+;
0;
1-;

RNA contains

Options
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?

Options
HCl;
KClO3;
HClO2;
KClO4

Simple lipids form under hydrolysis

Options
Alcohols, carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids
Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

Options
Al;
Fe3+
Fe3+Al3+;
Al3+ Fe3+;

Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine:

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

Options
Loses 1 electron;
Loses 1 proton;
Gains 1 electron;
Gains 1 proton

Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

Options
Cr;
Ni2+;
Cr3+;
Ni

Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

Options
2
3
5
10

Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

Options
It allows ion migration;
It allows neutron migration;
It allows electron migration;
It prevents ion migration;

Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

Options
Br2;
Cl2;
F2;
I2

Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is called:

Options
Neutralization;
Esterification;
Electrolysis;
Hydrolysis

Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

Options
In molecule of cytochrome b
In molecule of vitamin B12
In molecule of catalase
In molecule of vitamin B6

Determine type of α-amine acid - serine:

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

Options
Enzyme catalase
Enzyme superoxide dismutase
Cytochrome P450
Glutathione peroxidase

Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

Options
Hypervitaminosis
Hypovitaminosis
Avitaminosis
Acidosis

Determine type of α-amine acid – serine;

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Vitamin A deficiency can cause:

Options
Xeroftalmia
Increased blood coagulation
Growth acceleration
Anemia

The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin B1
Vitamin K
Thiamine

Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

ZnO is used as

Options
Protective
Astringent
Both (a) & (b)
Antidote

Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

Options
Oxidation
Halogenation
Protein precipitate
All of the above

Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine;

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Hydrogen peroxide is used as

Options
Antiseptic
Acidifying agent
Protective
Antioxidant

Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

KMnO4 solutions are used for

Options
Antibacterial
Antifungal
Both of the above
Antioxidant

Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these elements:

Options
C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;
H, P, S, C, O, N;
O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;
H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

Choose biogenic macroelement

Options
Cu
P
Br
As

Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar
Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Choose biogenic microelement

Options
Cu
S
Ca
Mg

Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

Options
Rayon
Insulin
Gun cotton
Paper

Complex lipids form under hydrolysis


Options
Alcohols, carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids
Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -3 cm
10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
Less than 10 -7 cm

Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

Options
1
2
3
4

Six major biogenic elements :

Options
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table

Fatty acids are

Options
Unsaturated dicarboxylic acids
Long-chain alkanoic acids
Aromatic carboxylic acids
Aromatic dicarboxylic acids

Five minor biogenic elements:

Options
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called


Options
Proteins
Terpenes
Carbohydrates
Soaps

Trace elements:

Options
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

Soap is

Options
A mixture of salts of fatty acids
A salt of glycerol
A mixture of ethers
A mixture of aromatic ethers

Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:

Options
10-7% - 10-12%
10-9%
10-3– 10-5 %
10-2%

Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:

Options
10-2%
10-3– 10-5 %
10-9%
10-7% - 10-12

Fats and oils are

Options
Monoesters of glycerol
Diesters of glycerol
Triesters of glycerol
Diesters of glycol

Choose biogenic microelement

Options
O
S
N
Zn

Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

Options
More unsaturation
Higher melting points
A glycerol backbone
Longer fatty acids

Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

Options
12 carbons
14 carbons
16 carbons
18 carbons

Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

Options
Hydrogenation
Saponification
Hydrolysis
Oxidation of double bonds

Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:

Options
1
3
-1
-3

Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

Options
Vanaspati ghee
Margarine
Both of these
None of these

Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

Options
Saponification
Fermentation
Diazotization
Rancidification

Saponification of a fat

Options
Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps
Produces glycerol and soap
Is used in the production of detergents
Is used in the production of lactic acid

Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

Options
Fats
Waxes
Soaps
Oils

The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

Options
Iodine number
Octane number
Saponification number
Melting point

Zwitterion is

Options
An ion that is positively charged in solution
An ion that is negatively charged in solution
A compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid
A carbohydrate with an electrical charge

A coordination compound consists of

Options
A metal ion and counterions
Ligands bound to counterions
A complex ion and counterions
A metal ion bound to one or more ligands

The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:

Options
0
4
3
6

A zwitterions has which of the following properties

Options
No net charge
A high melting point
Soluble in water
All of these

Name the following coordination compound: K4[Fe(CN)6]

Options
Name the following coordination compound: K4[Fe(CN)6]
Potassium cyanoferrate(II)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)

An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:

Options
Carbonion
Zwitterions
Carbonium ions
Free radicals

The coordination number is:

Options
The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
The number of positively charged particles in the complex

Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

Options
Carbonyl compounds
Amino acids
Phenols
Heterocyclic compounds

Number of hem sections in mioglobin

Options
1
2
3
4

The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric field is
known as its:

Options
Isoelectric point
Dipole moment
Iodine number
Wave length

Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2

Options
Cationic
Anionic
Monodentate
Neutral

The isoelectric point of a protein is

Options
The pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface
The pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges
The electric charge number under isothermal conditions
None of these

Glycine is

Options
NH2CH2COOH
NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2
NO2 CH2CH2 COOH
Br CH2 COOH

Ethylenediamine would be called

Options
Dentate
Bidentate
Tridentate
Tetradentate

Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

Options
Has no chiral carbon
Has a sulphur containing R group
Cannot form a peptide bond
Is an essential amino acid
Proteins are

Options
Polyamides
Polymers of ethylene
α-Aminocarboxylic acids
Polymers of propylene

The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

Options
C,H,O,P,S
N,C,H,O,I
N,S,C,H,O
C,H,O,S,I

Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

Options
Peptide linkage
Ester linkage
Ether linkage
α,β-Linkage

Name the following coordination compound: [Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3

Options
Triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
Triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
Triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
Amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

Which of the following are bidentate ligands? (1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide (2) ammonia,
NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2- (3) chloride, Cl- (6) en

Options
1, 4, 5
1, 5, 6
1, 6
2, 3, 4, 5

The primary structure of a protein refers to:


Options
Whether the protein is fibrous or globular
The amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain
The orientation of the amino acid side chains in space
The presence or absence of an α-helix

The α-helix is a common form of

Options
Primary structure
Tertiary structure
Secondary structure
None of these

What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?

Options
0
1+
2+
3+

Number of hem sections in hemoglobin

Options
1
2
3
4

The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

Options
Optical activity
Hydrogen bonding
Resonance
Delocalization

Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound

Options
Central ion
Ligands
Outer sphere ions
All constituents

Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements

Options
Does’tchang
Increases
Decreasis
None

The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

Options
Sulphur-sulphur linkages
Peptide bonding
Hydrogen bonding
Glycosidic bonds

Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps

Options
0
1
2 and more
Always without steps

Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

Options
Amino acids
Hydroxyl acids
Fatty acids
Alcohols

Dentantness of porfyrin

Options
2
3
4
5

Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

Options
Ammonia and carbon dioxide
Urea and uric acid
A mixture of amino acids
Glycogen and a fatty acid

Nynhydring test is given by

Options
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Alkanes
Alkenes

Particles playing role of ligands are

Options
Positive ions
Chelates
Negative ions
Complex ions

Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

Options
Ninhydrin test
Biuret test
Xanthoproteic tes
Tollens test

A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is called

Options
Xanthoproteic test
Ninhydring test
Biuret test
Million’s test

A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its formula.

Options
[Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
[Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
[ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
[CrCl2(H2O)4]

What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?

Options
1
3
-2
0

A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

Options
A protein
An amino acid
A monosaccharide
Pyridine

Monosaccharides are classified according to

Options
The number of carbon atoms in the molecule
Whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group
Their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes
All of the above

Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?

Options
Carbonyl;
Nitro;
Acetate;
Oxalate.

Which is a monosaccharide?

Options
Sucrose
Maltose
Galactose
Cellulose

Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride

Options
[Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
[(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
[(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
[Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

Which is a disaccharide?

Options
Glucose
Maltose
Fructose
Cellulose

Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

Options
Ribose
Fructose
Sucrose
Glucose
The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

Options
Indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light
Indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate
Indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group
Indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?

Options
Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?

Options
Tetraamminecopper(II)
Coppertetraammine (II)
Tetraammine(II)copper
Tetra(II)amminecopper

The principal sugar in blood is

Options
Fructose
Glucose
Sucrose
Galactose

Ligand «en» is an example of:

Options
Bidentate ligand;
Monodentate ligand;
Tridentate ligand;
Hexadentate ligand.

The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is

Options
Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


Options
Cationic
Anionic
Trigonal
Neutral

Donor of electrons in coordination compound

Options
Central ion
Outer sphere ions
Ligands
None

Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements

Options
Doesn’t change
Increases
Decreases
None of them

Coordination number of iron in hem

Options
2
3
5
6

Dentatness of EDTA

Options
2
3
4
6

With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability

Options
Increases
Doesn’t change
Decreases
None of them

Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of

Options
Rate of reaction
Donor-acceptor interaction
Protons number
Electrostatic model

Particles playing role of central ion are

Options
Positive ions
Neutral molecules
Negative ions
Complex ions

Find ligand of weak field

Options
OH-
Au
CN-
Fe2+

What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?

Options
Hexaaquacobalt(II)
Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
Cobalthexaaqua(II)

Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)

Options
K3[Fe(CN)6]
Fe [K2(CN)6]
(CN)6[Fe K2]
[FeK2(CN)6

What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?

Options
Tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
Chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
Tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
Tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate

Options
[(en)3Co]SO4
[Co(en)3SO4]
[SO4(en)3]Co
[Co(en)3]SO4

What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?

Options
Linear;
Tetrahedral;
Octahedral;
Trigonal

Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of

Options
Rate of reaction
Donor-acceptor interaction
Protons number
Electrostatic model

Find ligand of strong field

Options
OH-
Au
Cl-
NH3

Dentatness of ligand is

Options
Number of central ions
Charge of central ion
Number of bonds of ligand with central ion
Ion’s total number

Disperse systems consists of:

Options
Dispersion medium, dispersed phase
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
Sol, gel

Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

Options
Dispersion medium, dispersed phase
Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Sol, gel

Glucose cannot be classified as

Options
A hexose
An oligosaccharide
An aldose
A monosaccharide

What is a disperse system?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Coarse systems include

Options
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
Sol, gel
Gel, suspensions.

Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

Options
It is a reducing sugar
It is a disaccharide
It has a pyranose form
It is a polyalcohol

Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

Options
Its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal
It is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone
It is oprtically active
It shows mutarotation

What is the Emulsion?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Common table sugar is

Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Fructose
Maltose

Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

Options
Glucose
Fructose
Lactose
None of the above

Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?

Options
It is also called table sugar
It may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol
It reduces Fehling’s solution
It does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

What is the suspension?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

Options
Lactose
Sucrose
Maltose
Fructose

What is the aerosol?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Sols are:

Options
Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
Blood, lymph.
Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
Blood, jelly, marmalade.

Starch

Options
Is a trisaccharide
Is also called amylose
Is also called amylopectin
Is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin

Gels are:

Options
Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
Blood, lymph.
Blood, jelly, marmalade.

Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:

Options
Medical products
Colored glass
Pumice
Fog

Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:

Options
Soil
Moist soil
Rocks
Fog

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

Options
Natural gas
Gas from oil droplets
Smog
Colored glass

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:

Options
Natural gas
Aerosols
Dust storms
Pearl

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

Options
Fizzy drinks, foam
Body fluids
Pastes,mortar
Smog

Colloidal solutions include:

Options
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
Sol, gel
Saline solution in water

Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:

Options
Cosmetic products
Porous chocolate
Some alloys
Fog

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

Options
Dust in the air
Aerosol
Fog
Does not exist

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:

Options
Sols
Emulsion oil
Fizzy drinks
Fog

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

Options
Cream, milk
Foam
Pastes
Chocolate

Colloid particles have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -3 cm
10 -5 - 10 -3 m
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -7 m

Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =

Options
Negative
Positive
Without charge
Zero

Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

Options
Ba2+
H+
SO4 2-
H+

Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing

Options
Condensation
Change of solvent
Red-ox reaction
Peptization

Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate

Options
NaCl
Сa3(PO4)2
CaCl2
FeCl3

Optical property typical to colloid systems

Options
Reflection
Absorption
Scattering
Diffusion

Find optical property

Options
Diffusion
Osmosis
Electroosmosis
Absorption

Powder is

Options
L/s
L/l
S/l
S/g

Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties

Options
μ
η
φ
ξ

Particles of coarse systems have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -5 m
10 -9 - 10 -7 m
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -9 m

Particles of true solutions have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -5 m
10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -7 m
Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

Options
Positive
Negative
Without charge
Zero

Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =

Options
None
Cl-
SO4 2-
Ba2+

Choose condensation method of colloids producing

Options
Coagulation
Change of solvent
Red-ox reaction
Peptization

Optical property typical to coarse systems

Options
Reflection
Absorption
Scattering
Diffusion

Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one

Options
Absorption
Osmosis
Brownian movement
Diffusion

Aerosol is

Options
L/s
L/l
S/l
S/g

Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties


Options
μ
η
Md
λ

Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:

Options
Suspensions;
Electrolytes;
Molecular solutions;
Alloys

Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:

Options
Colloids;
Gas mixtures;
Saturated solutions;
Alloys.

The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:

Options
Coagulation;
Tyndall effect;
Peptization;
Dialysis
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22. 22
Question
23. 23 (1/328)
24. 24
Solutions
25. 25 which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity
26. 26 or osmolality. These concentration units express:
27. 27
Options
28. 28
29.Concentrationofwater;
29
30.Concentration
30 of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
31.Concentration
31 of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
32.Concentration
32
of electrolytes.
33. 33
34. 34organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?
Which
35. 35
36. 36
Options
37.CCl4;
37
38. 38
C3H5(OH)3;
39. 39
40.C6H6;
40
41.C6H12O6.
41
42. 42
Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:
43. 43
44. 44
Options
45. 45
46.3 46
Prev
% sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
47. 47
Skip0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
48. 48
Next0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
49. 49
20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.
50. 50
51.structure
The 51 of an alkene contains
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Only
54 single bonds;
55. 55
56.A 56
double bond;
57.Two
57 double bonds;
58.A 58
triple bond.
59. 59
Define
60. 60the Raoult’scryoscopic law:
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.Freezing
63 points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure
64. 64
solvents;
65.Freezing
65
points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
66. 66
solvents;
67. 67
68.Freezing
68 points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
69.Freezing
69 points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.
70. 70
The
71.first
71 Raoult’s Law is defined as:
72. 72
Options
73. 73
74.The
74 vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
75. 75
76.The
76 decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
77.The
77 vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of
pure 78
78. solvents;
79.The
79 vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure
80. 80
solvents.
81. 81
As82.
the82members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van der
Waals83forces between the molecules
83.
84. 84
85. 85
Options
86.Decreases;
86
87. 87
Increases;
88. 88
89.Remains
89 the same;
90.Decreases
90 then increases.
91. 91
In92.
order
92 to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:
93. 93
Options
94. 94
95.To95increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
96.To96add some electrolytes into a solution;
97.To97add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
98.To98increase temperature.
99. 99
100. 100
Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?
101. 101
102. 102
Options
103.CH4;
103
104. 104
C2H6;
105. 105
106.C3H8;
106
107.C4H10.
107
108. 108
What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?
109. 109
110. 110
Options
111. 111
112.6 112
113.2 113
114.8 114
115. 115
116.4 116
117. 117
118. 118is a spontaneous process defined as:
Osmosis
119. 119
Options
120. 120
121.A 121
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
122. 122
from a solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
123.A 123
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
124. 124
from a truesolution to a colloidal solution;
125. 125
A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane
126. 126
from a pure water to a solution;
127. 127
128.A 128
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
from a
129. 129dilute solution into a more concentrated one.
130. 130
In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?
131. 131
132. 132
Options
133. 133
134.CH3COOH;
134
C3H5(OH)3;
135. 135
136.CH3CH2OH;
136
137.CH3OH.
137
138. 138
A139. 139 in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used commercially
process
140.
to 140 the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is called
increase
141. 141
Options
142. 142
143.Polymerization;
143
144.Hydrogenation;
144
145. 145
Esterification;
146. 146
147.Cracking.
147
148. 148
Organic
149. 149compounds must contain
150. 150
Options
151. 151
152.Oxygen;
152
Nitrogen;
153. 153
154.Hydrogen;
154
155.Carbon.
155
156. 156
157.angle
The 157 formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an organic
158. 158 is a(an)
compound
159. 159
Options
160. 160
161.Dihedral
161 angle;
162.Right
162 angle;
163. 163
164.Tetrahedral
164 angle;
165.Acute
165 angle.
166. 166
A167.
specific
167 arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an organic
molecule
168. 168 is known as a(an)
Options
169. 169
170.Carboxyl
170 group;
171. 171
Functional group;
172. 172
173.Group;
173
174. 174 group.
Alkyl
175. 175
The
176.ability
176 of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of compounds that
are
177. 177
178. 178
Options
179. 179
180.Molecular;
180
181.Ionic;
181
182.Polar;
182
183.Atomic.
183
184. 184
185. many
How 185 carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?
186. 186
187. 187
Options
188.5 188
189. 189
8
190. 190
191.6 191
192.13192
193. 193
The
194.series
194 of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two adjacent
carbon
195. 195atoms is known as the
196. 196
Options
197. 197
198.Alkanes;
198
199.Alkenes;
199
200.Alkynes;
200
201.Benzenes.
201
202. 202
203. 203 reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated hydrocarbons
Addition
204. 204unsaturated hydrocarbons
because
205. 205
206. 206
Options
207.Contain
207 multiple bonds;
208. 208
Have a greater molecular mass;
209. 209
210.Have
210 tetrahedral bonds;
211.Contain
211 more atoms.
212. 212
A213.
dihydroxy
213 alcohol that is made from ethane is
214. 214
Options
215. 215
216.Ethanol;
216
217.Glycerol;
217
218.Ethylene
218 glycol;
219. 219
Ethane.
220. 220
A221.
long 221
chain protein is an example of a(an)
Options
222. 222
223.Fat;
223
224. 224
Polymer;
225. 225
226.Isomer;
226
Monomer.
227. 227
228. 228
Which
229. 229represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
230. 230
Options
231. 231
232.C2H4;
232
233.C2H6;
233
234.C3H8;
234
235.C4H10.
235
236. 236
237. many
How 237 double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?
238. 238
239. 239
Options
240.1 240
241. 241
2
242. 242
243.3 243
244.4 244
245. 245
Cryoscopy
246. 246 and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:
247. 247
Options
248. 248
249.Density;
249
250.Viscosity;
250
251.Molar
251 mass;
252.Osmotic
252 pressure.
253. 253
254.osmolarity
The 254 of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:
255. 255
256. 256
Options
257.2.0×10-2osmol;
257
258. 258
1.0×10-1osmol;
259. 259
260.3.0×10-2osmol;
260
261.5.0×10-3osmol.
261
262. 262
Osmolarity
263. 263 is:
264. 264
Options
265. 265
266.The
266molarity of particles in a solution;
267.The
267amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
268.Mass
268 percentage concentration;
269. 269
The concentration in parts per thousand.
270. 270
271. 271
Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?
272. 272
273. 273
Options
274.Butane;
274
275.Propane;
275
276.1-chlorobutane;
276
277. 277
278.1-chloropropane.
278
279. 279
Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:
280. 280
281. 281
Options
282. 282
TT= MRT;
283. 283
284.Tf284
= Kf Cm;
285.Tb285
= KbCm;
286.Tf286
=iKf Cm.
287. 287
A288.
fermentation
288 reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both can produce
289. 289
Options
290. 290
291.An291
ester;
292.An292
alcohol;
293. 293
An acid;
294. 294
295.A 295
soap.
296. 296
Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:
297. 297
298. 298
Options
299. 299
300.740-780
300 kPa;
301.140-240
301 kPa;
302.840-980
302 kPa;
303.60-70
303 kPa.
304. 304
305. 305 properties of solutions depend upon:
Colligative
306. 306
Options
307. 307
308.The
308number of the solute particles;
309.The
309chemical structure of solute;
310. 310
Catalysts;
311. 311
312.PH scale.
312
313. 313
Which
314. 314is a saturated hydrocarbon?
315. 315
Options
316. 316
317.C3H8;
317
318.C6H6;
318
319.C2H5OH;
319
320.C2H4O2.
320
321. 321
322. 322
Boiling point of solution with concentration rise
323. 323
Options
324. 324
325.Increases
325
326.Remains
326 same
327. 327
328.Decreases
328
No effect

Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution

Options
Increases
Remains same
Decreases
None of them

Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise

Options
Increases
Remains same
Decreases
Increases then decreases

For spontaneous processes?

Options
∆H ≥ 0
∆S ≤ 0
∆G ≥ 0
∆H≤ 0

Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on

Options
Concentration
Nature of solvent
Temperature
Nature of solute

Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional to

Options
Temperature
Molar fraction of solute
Molar fraction of solvent
Mixing rate

Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Hypertonic

Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry
Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Propane;
Propyne.

CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as

Options
A carbohydrate;
An ester;
An alcohol;
An organic acid.

Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

Options
Benzene;
Propyne;
Methane;
Ethanol.

As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling points

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases.

As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the ratio of carbon
atoms to hydrogen atoms

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases

The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the

Options
Nature of solute and solvent
Rate at which the gas dissolves
Temperature
Pressure

Which compound is most likely to react by addition?


Options
CH4;
C3H6;
C4H10;
C5H12.

Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

Options
Propanol;
Glycerol;
Butanol;
Pentanol.

Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Pentene;
Butene.

Which involves the colligative properties?

Options
Heating of solvent.
Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature
Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

Options
Alkene;
Alkane;
Alkyne;
Alkadiene.

Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

Options
Aldehydes;
Esters;
Polymers;
Ketones.

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration
is known as :

Options
Osmosis
Diffusion
Active Transport
Phagocytosis

The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

Options
Primary alcohol;
Secondary alcohol;
Tertiary alcohol;
Dihydroxy alcohol.

What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

Options
10
8
6
4

Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

Options
Butane;
Ethane;
Pentane;
Propane.

Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

Options
C5H8;
C5H10;
C5H12;
C5H14.

The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :

Options
Active Transport
Diffusion
Phagocytosis
Osmosis

The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

Options
Ionic;
Coordinate covalent;
Covalent;
Hydrogen.

The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
against the concentration gradient is known as :

Options
Active Transport
Diffusion
Osmosis
Phagocytosis

As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the number
of double bonds per molecule

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases.

In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

Options
Water;
Carbon dioxide;
An acid;
A base.

Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

Options
C2H5OH;
C2H4(OH)2;
C3H5(OH)3;
C3H6(OH)2.

In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound formed is

Options
An ester;
A ketone;
An acid;
An ether.

Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon

Options
Ethene;
Ethane;
Ethylene;
Ethyne.

Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

Options
Al(OH)3;
C3H5(OH)3;
Ca(OH)2;
C2H4(OH)2.

The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

Options
Glycerol;
Ethylene glycol;
Propene;
Propanoic acid.

Which organic compound is a ketone?

Options
CH3OH;
CH3COCH3;
CH3COOH;
CH3COOCH3.

Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

Options
Butane;
Ethane;
Methane;
Propane.

Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

Options
Oxidation;
Cracking;
Haber;
Contact.

Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular forces have

Options
Low melting points;
Low vapor pressure;
High conductivity in solution;
High boiling points.

What is the formula for pentanol?

Options
C5H12;
C5H11OH;
C4H10;
C4H9OH.

Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Toluene;
Butadiene

Colligative properties of the solution depend on

Options
Nature of solute
Nature of solvent
Number of particles present in the solution
Number of moles of solvent only

Which compound contains a triple bond?

Options
CH4;
C2H2;
C3H6;
C4H10.

Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

Options
Substitution;
Oxidation;
Addition polymerization;
Condensation, polymerization.

Which one is a colligative property?

Options
Boiling point
Vapour pressure
Osmotic pressure
Freezing point

In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling points by

Options
The contact process;
The Haber process;
Fractional distillation;
Cracking.

Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

Options
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of b.p.
Vapour pressure
Depression of f.p.

Which is not a colligative property?

Options
Freezing point
Lowering of vapour pressure
Depression of freezing point
Elevation of boiling point

Organic acids are composed of a

Options
C = O group at the end of the chain
COO– group
C = O and COH group on the same carbon
C = O and COH group on different carbons

Which of the following is a true statement?

Options
Ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
Aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
Ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol
Organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

Which of the following is a colligative property?

Options
Surface tension
Viscosity
Osmotic pressure
Boiling point

The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

Options
Solute molecules to the solvent molecules
Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law was
given by

Options
Raoult
Ostwald
Van’t Hoff
Lewis

According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

Options
Moles of solute
Mole fraction of solvent
Moles of solvent
Mole fraction of solute

A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

Options
An ideal solution
Non-ideal solution
Suspension
Emulsion

When common salt is dissolved in water

Options
M. p. of the solution increases
B. p. of the solution increases
B. p. of the solution decreases
Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

Options
Molecular wt. of solute
Molecular wt. of solvent
Molality of solute
None of these
When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then phenomenon
taking place is called

Options
Osmosis
Diffusion
Cataphoresis
Plasmolysis

The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

Options
П =ST/C
П = CT/S
П = SC/T
П / C = ST

Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

Options
An alcohol with an ether
A carboxylic acid with a ketone
A carboxylic acid with an alcohol
A ketone with an aldehyde

If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in 100mL water,
which of the following is true about solution A and B ?

Options
Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
None of them.

The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

Options
Ethylpropanoate
Propylethanoate
Propethanoate
None of the above

What happens during osmosis?

Options
Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.
Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.
Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.
Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.
Which of the following is classified as an ether?

Options
CH3CHOHCH3
CH2(OH)CH2CH3
CH2COCH3
CH3OCH3

According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

Options
The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.
The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.
The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increases.

Polymers are

Options
Molecules made of monomers
Molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule
Macromolecules
All of the above

In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?

Options
1000C
Boiling point
Melting point
Freezing point

Classify this reaction: CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

Options
Chlorination
Oxidation
Hydration
Elimination

A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

Options
Electrolyte
Nonelectrolyte
Polar substance
Nonpolar substance

The first member of the ketone family is:


Options
Methanone
Ethanone
Propanone
Butanone

A substance that vaporizes easily is known as

Options
Volatile
Nonvolatile
Electrolyte
Nonelectrolyte

Acetic acid is weak because

Options
It is unstable
It is an organic aliphatic acid
It is slightly ionized
None of these

Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

Options
Concentrated sulfuric acid
Dilute sulfuric acid
Water
None

At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw at
this temperature will be

Options
1x10-6
1x10-12
1x10-14
1x10-5

How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

Options
The rotate at different rates
They have different colours
They have different melting/boiling points
They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

Options
1.8 x 10-7
0.8 x 10-9
3.6 x 10-7
3.6 x 10-9

What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

Options
PCl3 and an alcohol
HCl and an alcohol
HCl and an alcohol, under reflux
Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

Options
A carboxylic acid
A carboxylate salt
Water
Does not react

The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2% ionized
weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

Options
0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively
1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

Options
10-Dec
10-Feb
10-Apr
Oct-13

The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

Options
Oct-13
1013
6.023 x 107
6.0233 x 1010

PH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

Options
10
7
1
14

Name this molecule:

Options
1,2-dimethylbutane
3,4-dimethylbutane
Hexane
3-methylpentane

The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

Options
8
-8
Between 7 and 8
Between 6 and 7

What are alcohols not used in?

Options
Wine
Vinegar
Plastics
Methylated spirits

Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

Options
8
1 x 10-7
7
1

An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Amphoteric

What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?


Options
Hydration
Hydrolysis
Esterification
Polymerisation

The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

Options
Acidic impurities
Ionization
Hydrolysis
Dissociation

What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

Options
CnH2n+1OH
CnH2nOH
CnH2n+2OH
CnH2n+1COOH

FeCl3 solution is

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Amphoteric

Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

Options
Ethanoic acid
Ethanol
Butanoic acid
Ethyl ethanoate

Which is true about ethanoic acid?

Options
It has a higher boiling point than ethanol
It dissociates completely in water
It dimerises in water
It reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

Options
Neutral
Weakly acidic
Strongly acidic
Alkaline

An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

Options
An acidic reaction
A neutral reaction
A basic reaction
Both acidic and basic reaction

Esters are ________.

Options
Made from alcohols and non-organic acids
Used to make perfumes and flavorings
Poisonous
Foul-smelling compounds

An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

Options
Faintly acidic
Fairly acidic
Faintly alkaline
Almost neutral

What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

Options
Carbon monoxide and water
Carbon and water
Carbon dioxide and water
Carbon monoxide and hydrogen

Which one of the following is acid salt?

Options
Na2S
Na2SO3
NaHSO3
Na2SO4

What are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

Options
Ethyl methanoate and water
CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen
Methyl ethanoate and water
CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

Options
Na2SO4
BiOCl
Pb(OH)Cl
Na2HPO4

What is true about carboxylic acids?

Options
Carboxylic acids are strong acids
Carboxylic acids can react with metals
Alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

Which one is not an acid salt?

Options
Na2H2PO4
NaH2PO2
NaH2PO3
None of the above

Esterification is a __________.

Options
Condensation reaction
Irreversible reaction
Addition reaction
Neutralization reaction

Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?

Options
NaCl
NH4Cl
KCl
Na2SO4

Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

Options
Ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane
Ethanol contains a hydroxyl group
Ethanol is used as a fuel
Ethanol is a solvent

Which one will not be hydrolysed?

Options
Potassium nitrate
Potassium cyanide
Potassium succinate
Potassium carbonate

What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

Options
Concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm
Concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis

Options
CH3COOK
NaNO3
KCl
K2SO4

In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

Options
2 bond
3 bond
4 bond
5 bond

Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

Options
(NH4)2SO4
Ba(NO3)2
CrCl3
CuSO4

Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

Options
One σ bond, one π bond
Two π bond, one π bond
One σ bond, two π bond
Two σ bond, two π bond
Acetylene has a total of:

Options
One σ bond, two π bond
Two σ bond, four π bond
Three σ bond, two π bond
One σ bond, four π bond

The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

Options
A strong acid and strong base
A strong acid and weak base
A weak acid and weak base
A weak acid and strong base

Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

Options
KNO3
NaOH
FeCl3
NaCN

In propene there are

Options
Eight σ bond, one π bond
Seven σ bond, two π bond
Six σ bond, three π bond
Nine σ bond

In propyne there are

Options
Six σ bond, two π bond
Seven σ bond, one π bond
Six σ bond, one π bond
Eight σ bond

1-Buten -3-yne has

Options
Six σ bond, four π bond
Seven σ bond, three π bond
Eight σ bond, two π bond
Nine σ bond, one π bond

Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is
Options
CH3CH2CH3
CH3C≡CH
CH2CH=CH2
CH2=CH-CH=CH2

Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is:

Options
CH4
H2N-CH2-NH2
H3C-OH
(CH3)3COH

When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

Options
2 other atoms
4 other atoms
3 other atoms
5 other atoms

Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

Options
C6H6
H2N-CH2-NH2
CH2=CH-CH=CH2
CH3CH=C=CH2

Which of the following is a planar molecule?

Options
Formaldehyde
Acetone
Formic acid
Acetic acid

What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

Options
180o
120o
109.5o
115.5o

The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

Options
60o
109.28o
120o
118.28o

The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

Options
60o
120o
90o
180o

What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

Options
1.20 Ǻ
1.35 Ǻ
1.54 Ǻ
1.68 Ǻ

The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

Options
Triple, duble, single
Single, duble, triple
Single, triple, duble
Duble, triple, single.

Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

Options
C-C < C=C < C≡C
C-C > C≡C > C=C
C≡C > C-C > C=C
C≡C < C=C< C-C

Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

Options
CH2 = CH2
CH3CH3
HC ≡ CH
CHCI3

The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

Options
CH2 = CH2
CH3CH3
HC ≡ CH
CHCI3

Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

Options
Ethyl alcohol
Formaldehyde
Diethyl ether
1,3-butadien

Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

Options
Cis-1,2-dichloroetylene
O- dichlorobenzene
Trans-1,2- dichloroetylene
P- dichlorobenzene

Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

Options
CI2
CO2
CCI4
CHCI3

Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

Options
Carbon tetrachloride
Chloromethane
Dichloromethane
Chloroform

Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

Options
CH3CI
CH3Br
CH3F
CH3I

Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

Options
ClCH2CHClCOOH
CH3CHClCHClCOOH
CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH
C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

Options
Ketone
Aldehyde
Amine
Ester

Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the same
carbon atom?

Options
Ester
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid

Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the same
carbon atom?

Options
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other compounds is
that in aldehydes and ketones

Options
The carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other
carbonyl compounds.
The polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.
The molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.
The carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

The carbonyl group is

Options
Found only in aldehydes and ketones.
Produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.
A functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.
A general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true except

Options
The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.
The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.
Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.
In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

The IUPAC name for acetone is

Options
2-propanone.
Dimethyl ketone
1-propanone.
3-propanal.

The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

Options
3-propanal.
2-propanone.
Acetone.
1-propanone.

Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid solution?

Options
NH4Cl
Al2(SO4)3
AgNO3
NaCN

The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

Options
3- methyl 1 butanone.
2-methylbutanal.
3-methylbutanal
Isopentanal

A buffer solution changes its pH

Options
Increase in pH
Decrease in pH
No change in pH
No change in electrical conductivity

The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

Options
Isobutyl acetone
2- methyl – 4- butanone
4 –methyl – 2- butanone.
4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

About buffer solution which in incorrect?

Options
It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base
It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
All of the above

Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

Options
3-octanone
2-butanone
3- methyl -3-pentanone all are correct
3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

Options
Strong acid and its salt of a weak base
Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

Which is a buffer solution?

Options
CH3COOH + CH3COONa
CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
CH3COOH + NH4Cl
NaOH + NaCl

Which of the following is a buffer?

Options
NaOH + CH3COONa
NaOH + Na2SO4
K2SO4 + H2SO4
NH4OH + NH4Cl

Which is not a buffer solution?

Options
NH4Cl + NH4OH
CH3COOH + CH3COONa
CH3COONa
Borax + Boric acid

Which of the following names does not fit a real compound

Options
3-ethylpentanal
4-methylpentanal
3- methyl- 2- pentanal
2-methylpentanal

PH of blood is

Options
Less than 6
Greater than 7 and less than 8
Greater than 8 and less than 9
Greater than 10

Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

Options
They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded
to oxygen.
Most have distinctive odors.
They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.
They are polar.

Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

Options
Acetic acid + Sodium acetate
Boric acid + Borax
Citric acid + Sodium citrate
All

All of the following are properties of acetone except

Options
Flammable.
Intoxicating.
Solvent for organic substances.
Nutrient.

Give name to positively charged particles:

Options
Radicals;
Molecules;
Anions;
Cations.
Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

Options
Flavoring
Preservative
Hormone
Solvent

What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?

Options
NaNO2;
NaHCO3;
Na2CO3;
KMnO4

Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

Options
CH3-CO-CH3
CH3-CHO
CH3-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:

Options
High heat capacity;
High polarity of molecules;
Lowfreezingpoint;
Low water ionization constant.

Which compound has the highest boiling point?

Options
CH3-CHO
CH3-CH2-CHO
CH3-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

Weak electrolytes are characterized by:

Options
Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
Ionic strength;
Concentration of a gas in a solution;
Ion product for water.

Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:


Options
0.01M
0.001M;
0.1 M;
1.0M.

Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:

Options
Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
Atmospheric pressure;
Boiling point;
Vapor pressure.

According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:

Options
Electrons donors;
Electrons acceptor
Protons donors;
Protons acceptors.

Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:

Options
KCl/HCl;
NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
KHSO4/H2SO4;
NH3 /NH4Cl.

Strong electrolytes are characterized by:

Options
Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
Ionization constant of water;
Acid ionization constant;
All answers are right.

Which compound has the lowest boiling point

Options
CH3-CH2-CHO
CH3-CH2-CH3
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

Options
H2.
Lactic acid.
NADH.
Pyruvic acid.

All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

Options
It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.
Its systematic name is ethanal.
Its common name is acetaldehyde.
Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:

Options
Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

Options
Its systematic name is propanone.
Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone
Its common name is acetone.
Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:

Options
Electrons donor;
Electrons acceptors;
Protons donors;
Protons acceptors.

The acid-base state of blood is determined of:

Options
PH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
POHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
PH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
Concentration of H+ and OH-.

Complex substances or compound classes are divided into

Options
Oxides, acid, base, salt
Oxides, base
Alkalis, salt, oxides
Ampholytes, Alkalis

Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.

Options
Hydroxide(OH -)
Hydrogen(H +)
Ammoniumcation(NH+4)
Hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is methyl ethyl
ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound are ____ .

Options
2-butanone;
2-propanone;
3-butanone;
3-butanone;

Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.

Options
Hydroxide(OH -)
Hydrogen(H +)
Ammoniumcation(NH+4)
(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

Tollens' reagent is used to

Options
Distinguish amines from aldehydes.
Reduce aldehydes.
Distinguish aldehydes from ketones.
Reduce ketones.

The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

Options
Primary alcohol.
Secondary alcohol.
Carboxylic acid.
Ketone.

The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

Oxidation of a ketone produces

Options
An aldehyde
A carboxylic acid
A primary alcohol
No reaction

The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

Options
Oxidation of ketones produces esters.
Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +.
Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?

Options
PH<7
PH>7
PH ~7
PH = 7

All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

Options
The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.
Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.
The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .
Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

Options
Pentanal
3-pentanone
2-pentanone
Pentanoic acid

Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

Options
A silver wire dissolves.
A brick-red precipitate forms.
The light blue color of the reagent disappears.
A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

Options
A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.
A red precipitate forms from a blue solution
A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless
A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

Options
Butane
2-butanol
1-butanol
Butanoic acid

What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?

Options
Butanoic acid
Butanal
2-butanol
No reaction

Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride

Options
Acidicb
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

Options
An aldehyde
A hemiacetal
A carboxylic acid
None, ketones don't oxidize

Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

Options
Gold
Copper
Lead
Silver

Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

Options
Tertiary alcohol.
Carboxylic acid
Secondary alcohol.
Primary alcohol.

Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

Options
Carboxylic acid.
Secondary alcohol
Aldehyde.
Tertiary alcohol.

Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the product of reduction of butanal?

Options
Butanoic acid
Butane
2-butanol
1-butanol

Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of them

What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

Options
Butanal
1-butanol
2-butanol
Butanoic acid

Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of them

What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

Options
3-methyl –2- pentanal
2- methyl -3-pentanol
3-methyl – 2-pentanol
3- methyl –2- pentene

Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?

Options
Galactose
Lactose
Maltose
Sucrose

Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

Options
CH3OH
C6H1206
C12H22O11
C6H12O5
Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

Options
Glucose and Glucose
Glucose and Galactose
Glucose and Fructose
Fructose and Galactose

PH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of

Options
Acid (H+-)
Conjugate base (-OH-)
Salt
Both A and Bswer D

PH can be kept constant with help of

Options
Saturated solution
Unsaturated solution
Buffer solution
Super saturated solution

In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

Options
Starch
Glycogen
Dextrins
Cellulose

Buffers present in blood contain


Options
HCO3-
Hemoglobin
H2PO4-
All of them

All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

Options
Glycogen
Inulin
Starch
Cellulose

Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings

Options
Sucrose
Ribulose
Fructose
Ribose

Choose the keto triose-

Options
Glyceraldehyde
Erythrose
Dihydroxyacetone
Arabinose

Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in

Options
Aerobic respiration
Anaerobic respiration
Transpiration
Photosynthesis

One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is

Options
Carbolic anhydrase
Carbonic anhydrase
Carbolic hydrase
Carbonic hydrase

A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

Options
Xylose
Lyxose
Xylulose
Aldose

Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer? acetic
acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

Options
Hydrochloric acid only
Sodium chloride or potassium acetate
Acetic acid only
Acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

Options
Epimers
Keto- Aldose Isomers
Anomers
Optical isomers

When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is

Options
Oxide
Ether
Salt
Alcohol

All tests are negative for sucrose except-

Options
Benedict
Seliwanoff
Barfoed
Osazone

When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are

Options
Salt
Water
Carbon dioxide
All of above

Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

Options
4
12
8
16

Salt among following is

Options
HCl
KCl
HNO3
H3PO4

Galactose and Glucose are-

Options
Epimers
Isomers
Anomers
Ketose- Aldose isomers

Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called

Options
Neutralization
Hydrogenation
Halogenation
Sublimation

The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around one carbon
atom are called-

Options
Optical isomers
Stereo isomers
Anomers
Epimers

Basic formula for monobasic acid is

Options
AH
HA
Ha
AH

Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is

Options
High
Low
Same
Constant

What does the following equation represent?    α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→  +19οβ- D glucose

Options
Stereo isomerism
Mutarotation
Optical isomerism
Epimerization

Value of Ka can be calculated by determining

Options
Concentration of acid
PH of solution
Concentration of water molecules
Both A and B

The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

Options
Glucose
Xylose
Lyxose
Fructose

Dulcitol is a -

Options
Sugar acid
Amino sugar
Deoxysugars
Sugar alcohol

Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

Options
Arabinose
Erythrose
Trehalose
Ribulose

A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

Options
Starch
Dextrin
Glycogen
Cellulose
PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing?

Options
Concentration of acid
Value of Ka
Water potential
Both A and B

Invert sugar is-

Options
Starch
Glucose
Fructose
Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

Ka is called

Options
Acid dissociation constant
Base dissociation constant
Avogadro constant
Salt dissociation constant

The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

Options
Hyaluronic acid
Cellulose
Chitin
Chondrosamine

Which one of the following is a weak acid?

Options
HNO3
HI
HBr
HNO2

Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

Options
Insulin
Dextrin
Cellulose
Glycogen

Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
Options
MgCl2
Ba(NO3)2
LiClO4
CsBr

A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

Options
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
Trehalose

Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?

Options
H2O
KF
HF
HNO2

The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

Options
Glucopyranose
Glucoside
Glucofuranose
Glucosamine

Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?

Options
HClO
CH3COOH
HF
HCN

A stronger base:

Options
Is also a stronger acid;
Is also a stronger electrolyte;
Tastes sour;
Yields fewer OH- ions in solution;

Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

Options
Benedict
Molisch
Seliwanoff
Osazone

Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?

Options
C3 H7O2N
C13H26O2
C6H12O6
C20H40O2

When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

Options
Water and a salt
An acid and a base;
A salt and hydrogen gas;
A nonmetal oxid

Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

Options
Ribose
Fructose
Glucose
Glyceraldehyde

A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution then
turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

Options
HCl;
H2CO3;
KOH;
CH3CH2OH;

Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

Options
1×10-11 M;
1×10-9 M;
1×10-7 M;
1×10-5 M;

Which of following is an anomeric pair?

Options
D-glucose and L-glucose
α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose
D-glucose and D-fructose
α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H+ ions. This
substance is:

Options
KOH;
CH4
H2SO4;
NH3

Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

Options
Glucuronate
Gluconate
Glucose
Muramic acid

Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

Options
H+] equals zero;
[OH-] equals [H+];
H+] is less than [OH-];
H+] is greater than [OH-

From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

Options
The glucose residue is the β anomer.
The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.
C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.
The compound is in its furanose form

According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

Options
Donate a proton;
Yield H+ ions;
Donate an electron pair;
Acceptor of protons.

The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

Options
A purine nucleotide
A pyrimidine nucleotide.
Adenosine
AMP

What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 40.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

Options
100.0 mL;
80.0 mL;
40.0 mL;
20.0 mL

Functional Group of Alkane:

Options
None
C–X
C=C
C – OH

As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

Options
Increase;
Decrease;
Remain the same;
Approach zero

Functional Group of Cycloalkane:

Options
H–C=O
C – OH
O=C–O–C
None

Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

Options
1
7
10
14

Functional Group of Alkyl halide:

Options
None
C–X
C=C
C – OH
The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

Options
A single replacement;
A neutralization reaction;
The process of hydrolysis;
A synthesis reaction;

How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

Options
A pH of 2 is three times as strong;
A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;
A pH of 2 is three times as weak;
A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

Functional Group of Alkyne:

Options
H–C=O
#NAME?
#NAME?
C≡C

Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

Options
Chlorous acid
Acetic acid;
Perchloricacid;
Hypochlorous acid

Functional Group of Alcohol:

Options
C – OH
H–C=O
C–X
C–X
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Options
NicotineAbusiveDepartment
NicotineAvoidDirections
Nicotinamideadeninedinucleotide
Nicotinamidedinucleotide

Phosphoric acid can be joined with OH group of a pentose sugar with help of

Options
Phosphodiesterbond
PrevIonicbond
SkipCovalentbond
NextEsterlinkage

RNA is synthesized from DNA by process of

Options
Translation
Transcription
Transgenic
Duplication

According to Erwin Chargoff analysis, ratio of adenine and thiamine is

Options
Equal
Unequal
Less
More

Nucleic acids

Options
Are also called nucleotides
Do not contain purine
Are polymers
Do not contain uracil

Which of the following will not be found in DNA?

Options
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine
Guanine

A nucleotide is composed of

Options
An acid, a base, and a sugar
A base, a sugar, and a phosphate
A base, and sugar
An acid, a sugar, and a phosphate

Oligonucleotides are formed from 2 to 10

Options
Strands
Hydrogen bonds
Nucleosides
Nucleotides

The variable portion of DNA is the sequence of _

Options
Phosphoric acids
Sugars
Bases
Phosphates

Which pair is a complementary base pair?

Options
C-G
A-G
A-C
G-G

Gene expression is activation of a gene to produce a specific __________ .

Options
Protein
TRNA
Amino acid
DNA

To which of the following does thymine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

Options
Adenine
Thymine
Cytosine
Guanine

What term is used to describe the process by which DNA is copied to produce two daughter DNA
molecules?

Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription

What term is used to describe the process by which a segment of DNA is copied to produce a
molecule of messenger RNA?

Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription

What term is used to describe the process by which proteins are synthesised from a genetic code?

Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription

To which of the following does guanine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

Options
Adenine
Thymine
Cytosine
Guanine

The sugar in RNA is __________ , the sugar in DNA is __________

Options
Deoxyribose, ribose
Ribose, deoxyribose
Ribose, phosphate
Ribose, uracil

Nucleoside is a pyrimidine or purine base

Options
Covalently bonded to a sugar
Ionically bonded to a sugar
Hydrogen bonded to a sugar
None of the above

In gel electrophoresis,what fragments will move most quickly through a gel?

Options
Large fragments
Small fragments
Large genome
Noneofthese

Which pyrimidine base contains an amino group at carbon 4?

Options
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine

The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA

Options
Connect the sugar to the base
Can be hydrolyzed by OH- ion
Stabilize Watson-Crick H-bonds
Are free to rotate over about 180°

Nucleic acids can be analyzed experimentally by their

Options
Molecular weight
Absorption of visible light
Absorption of uv light
None of these

A purine with an amine (NH2) group on the 6th carbon is

Options
Adenine
Cytosine
Thymine
Guanine

Which of the following is found on RNA but not DNA?

Options
Uracil
Deoxyribose
Phosphate
Adenine

Which of the following is a purine?

Options
Cytosine
Adenine
Thymine
Uracil

Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following

Options
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine

Which of the following are not the components of RNA?

Options
Thymine
Adenine
Guanine
Cytosine

Which of the following statements is true?

Options
Sugar component of a nucleotide is ribose
Sugar component of a nucleotide is deoxyribose
The bases in nucleotides are attached to a pentose sugar moiety by a glycosidic linkage
The sugar molecule of the nucleotide is in L-configuration
What is the composition of nucleoside?

Options
A sugar + a phosphate
A base + a sugar
A base + a phosphate
A base + a sugar + phosphate

What is the composition of nucleotide?

Options
A sugar + a phosphate
A base + a sugar
A base + a phosphate
A base + a sugar + phosphate

Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by

Options
Phosphodiester bond
Peptide bond
Ionic bond
Covalent bond

The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is

Options
Pentose
Hexose
Tetrose
Triose

Building blocks of nucleic acids are

Options
Nucleotides
Nucleosides
Amino acids
Histones
Amino acids
1. Amount of amino acid residues in proteins ranges from

a) 50-2000
b) 2000-4000
c) 4000-6000
d) 7000-10,000

2. Identify the wrong statement

a) Hemoglobin is a globular protein


b) Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein
c) Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water
d) Collagen is a fibrous protein

3. Which amino acid can form disulphide bonds?

a) Glycine.
b) Proline.
c) Glutamate.
d) Cysteine.

4. Which of the following is an example of monosaccharide?

a) Galactose
b) Sucrose
c) Lactose
d) Maltose

5. Which one of the following amino acids may be considered a hydrophobic amino acid at
physiological p H of 7.4

a) Isoleucine
b) Arginine
c) Aspartic acid
d) Threonine

6. Which of the following is an imino acid?

a) Alanine
b) Glycine
c) Proline

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d) Serine

7. Which of the following carbohydrates is a triose?

a) Glucose
b) Ribose
c) Ribulose
d) Glyceraldehyde

8. Tertiary conformation of proteins is maintained by 3 types of bonds namely ionic,


hydrogen and

a) Sulfide
b) Disulfide
c) Covalent
d) Peptide

9. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Primary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
b) Secondary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three
dimensional structure
c) Three dimensional structure of a protein determines the function of a protein
d) Amino acid sequence is absolutely invariant for a particular protein

10. Native state of a protein can be disrupted by

a) Temperature
b) PH
c) Removal of water
d) Presence of hydrophilic surfaces

11. β-pleated sheets are the examples of

a) Primary structure
b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure
d) Quaternary structure

12. Sulfur atom of cysteine is involved in formation of

a) Sulfide group
b) Sulfhydryl group
c) Sulfite group
d) Sulphates

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13. The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are

a) Aspartate and glutamate


b) Arginine and histidine
c) Cysteine and methionine
d) Proline and valine

14. Choose the correct category for milk protein casein out of the followings

a) Nucleoprotein
b) Phosphoprotein
c) Lipoprotein
d) Glycoprotein

15. Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following sugar units?

a) Glucose and fructose


b) Glucose and galactose
c) Glucose and sucrose
d) Glucose and ribose

16. Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the
physiological pH ?

a) Valine
b) Leucine
c) Isoleucine
d) None of the followings

17. Number of amino acids that have hydrophobic side chains are

a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10

18. Which out of the followings is not a fibrous protein?

a) Carbonic anhydrase
b) Collagen
c) Fibrinogen
d) Keratin

19. Which of the following most accurately describes how secondary structures in proteins
are stabilised?

a) Through ionic bonds operating between oppositely charged amino acid side chains.

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b) Through covalent bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.
c) Through hydrogen bonds between different amino acid side chains.
d) Through hydrogen bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.

20. Which of the characteristics below apply to amino acid Glycine?

a) Optically inactive
b) Hydrophilic, basic and charged
c) Hydrophobic
d) Hydrophilic, acidic and charged

21. Which of the following is an example of disaccharide?

a) Glucose
b) Fructose
c) Galactose
d) Maltose

22. Which term below best defines the 'quaternary structure' of a protein?

a) The arrangement of two or more polypeptide subunits into a single functional


complex
b) The folding of the polypeptide backbone in three-dimensional space.
c) The interaction of amino acid side chains.
d) The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

23. In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in liver?

a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose

24. Mother of a mal nourished child has been instructed to include a complete protein in
diet for her child, which out of the followings proteins should be recommended?

a) Pulses
b) Wheat
c) Soy Protein
d) Milk

25. Hemoglobin is a

a) Monomer
b) Dimer
c) Trimer
d) Tetramer

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26. Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of

a) Hemoglobin
b) Myoglobin
c) Insulin
d) Collagen 3- Some proteins contain

27. 1In 3° structure of proteins, folding and shaping is done by

a) Hydrophobic interactions
b) Polar interactions
c) Hydrogen bonding
d) None of the mentioned

28. Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid?

a) Serine
b) Threonine
c) Lysine
d) Histidine

29. In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants?

a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose

30. In maltose, between which of the following carbons there is a linkage?

a) C1, C2
b) C2, C3
c) C1, C4
d) C2, C4

31. Fructose and Glucose can be distinguished by

a) Selwinoff’s reagent
b) Benedict’s reagent
c) Fehling’s reagent
d) Barfoed’s reagent

32. Which of the following are the storage polysaccharides?

a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin

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d) Glucose

33. Bond formed between two amino acid molecules is

a) Peptide bond
b) Sulfur linkage
c) Ionic bond
d) Coordinate covalent bond

34. Which type of bonding is responsible for the secondary structure of proteins?

a) Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues.


b) Hydrogen bonding between the C=O and N-H groups of peptide bonds.
c) Peptide bonds between amino acids.
d) Salt bridges between charged side chains of amino acids

35. A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the
same chain is

a) Primary structure
b) α-helix
c) β-pleated sheets
d) Tertiary structure

36. Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

37. Which of the following are an example of epimers?

a) Glucose & Galactose


b) Glucose & Ribose
c) Mannose & Glucose
d) A&c

38. Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups

a) Phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan


b) Glycine, alanine, leucine
c) Lysine, arginine, histidine
d) Serine, threonine, cysteine

39. Polar amino acids are usually found

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a) On surface of proteins
b) Inside core of proteins
c) At sides of proteins
d) Can be present anywhere in proteins

40. A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side
is

a) Primary structure
b) α-helix
c) β-pleated sheets
d) Tertiary structure

41. All of the below mentioned amino acids can participate in hydrogen bonding except
one

a) Serine
b) Cysteine
c) Threonine
d) Valine

42. Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?

a) Frederick Sanger
b) Mendel
c) Watson and Francis Crick
d) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

43. Which of the amino acids below is the uncharged derivative of an acidic amino acid?

a) Cystine
b) Tyrosine
c) Glutamine
d) Serine

44. A mutation has changed an isoleucine residue of a protein to Glutamic acid, which
statement best describes its location in a hydrophilic exterior

a) On the surface since it is hydrophilic in nature


b) In side the core of the protein since it is hydrophobic in nature
c) Any where inside or outside
d) Inside the core of protein since it has a polar but uncharged side chain

45. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

a) Cysteine
b) Asparagine

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c) Glutamine
d) Phenylalanine

46. Which of the following statements about amino acids is correct?

a) Amino acids are classified according to the structures and properties of their side
chains.
b) Amino acids are uncharged at neutral pH.
c) Amino acids in proteins are mainly in the D-configuration.
d) Twenty four amino acids are commonly used in protein synthesis.

Buffer systems
1. For an acid buffer solution the pH is 3. The pH can be increased by

a) Increasing the concentration of salt


b) Increasing the concentration of acid
c) Decreasing the concentration of salt
d) Independent of concentration of acid & salt

2. Which of the following does not react with water?

a) Barium
b) Calcium
c) Beryllium
d) Strontium

3. NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is

a) Not a buffer solution with pH < 7


b) Not a buffer solution with pH > 7
c) A buffer solution with pH < 7
d) A buffer solution with pH > 7

4. Which among the following statements is true about the following chemical reaction?
3Fe(s) + 4H2 O → Fe3 O4 (s) + 4H2

a) Iron metal is getting reduced


b) Water is acting as a reducing agent
c) Water is acting as an oxidizing agent
d) Water is getting oxidized

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5. Identify the products formed in the following reaction CH3 COOCH3 + H2 O → A + B

a) CH3 COOH and CH3 OH


b) CH3 COOOH and CH4
c) CO2 and C2 H6
d) No reaction

6. Which can act as buffer?

a) NH4 Cl + HCl
b) CH3 COOH + H2 CO3
c) 40ml of 0.1M NaCN + 20ml of 0.1M HCN
d) NaCl + NaOH

Carbohydrates
1. What is the storage form of carbohydrate in animals?

a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Starch

2. Where is glycogen stored?

a) In the kidney and liver


b) In the stomach and kidney
c) In the muscle and liver
d) In the muscle and stomach

3. In carbohydrates a special functional groups are present in the given following:

a) Alcohol & Carboxyl groups


b) Aldehyde & Ketone groups
c) Hydroxyl groups & Hydrogen groups
d) Carboxyl groups & Others

4. What best describes amylopectin?

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a) Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
b) Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
c) Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
d) Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

5. What is the relationship between glucose, mannose and galactose?

a) They are isomers


b) They are epimers
c) They are ketoses
d) No relationship exists

6. Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the given….

a) Protein
b) Lipids
c) Carbohydrate
d) Vitamins

7. The end product of hydrolysis of “Starch” by amylase is …

a) Soluble starch
b) Glucose
c) Dextrins
d) Maltose

8. Fermentation is the degradation of complex organic substances into simpler ones by the
activity of living cells through the agency of ….

a) Acid
b) Alkali
c) Oxidizing substances
d) Enzymes (Zymase)

9. Glucose is a monosaccharide and is a

a) Hexose
b) Pentose
c) Furanose
d) Sucrose

10. Simplest carbohydrate is ….

a) Dihydroxy acetone
b) Glycerldehyde
c) Glucose
d) Gulose

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11. What best describes amylose?

a) Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages


b) Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
c) Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
d) Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

12. Examples of Epimers….

a) Glucose &Galactose
b) Glucose & Ribose
c) Mannose & Glucose
d) A&c

13. Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of …

a) L-type
b) D-type
c) DL-types
d) None of the above

14. Structure or shape of something is known as its

a) Structure
b) Morphology
c) Conformation
d) Shape

15. What is the major constituent of plant cell wall?

a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Starch

16. What forms the exoskeleton of anthropods?

a) Agarose
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Starch

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Chemical kinetics
1. Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) shifted to reactants, if:

a) Temperature will be increased


b) Pressure will be decreased
c) Concentration of ammonia will be decreased
d) Concentration of hydrogen will be increased.

2. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20


b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

3. Energy of activation for backward reaction is less than forward reaction for ________
reaction

a) Endothermic
b) Exothermic
c) Moderate
d) Fast

4. Rate of decomposition of H2O2 will increase if:

a) Temperature will be increased


b) Inhibitor will be added
c) Solvent will be added
d) Temperature will be decreased

5. With the highest rate of chemical reaction, next oxidation reaction will go:

a) Cu on air in standard conditions


b) Cu on pure O2 with temperature elevation
c) Mg on air in normal temperature
d) Mg on pure O2 with temperature elevation

6. For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, increasing of chemical rate of forward


reaction is IMPOSSIBLE if we’ll increase:

a) Temperature
b) Pressure

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c) Concentration of hydrogen
d) Concentration of ammonia

7. The addition of a catalyst to the reaction system

a) Increases the rate of forward reaction only


b) Increases the rate of reverse reaction
c) Increases the rate of forward but decreases the rate of backward reaction
d) Increases the rate of forward as well as backward reaction equally

8. The substances that reduces the effectiveness of a catalyst are called

a) Promoters
b) Inhibitors
c) Poisoning catalysts
d) Pro-catalysts

9. When catalysts and reactants are in more than one phase it is

a) Homogeneous catalysis
b) Heterogeneous catalysis
c) Catalysis
d) Ea

10. For N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH process, decreasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

a) Shifting of equilibrium to reactants


b) Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction
c) Decreasing reaction rate for forward reaction
d) Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction

11. Greater the concentration of reactant

a) Greater will be dx/dt


b) Dx/dt will be moderate
c) Lesser will be dx/dt
d) Any of above

12. Increasing of concentration of reactants shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

a) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)


b) H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
c) Fe(s) + H2O(g) = FeO(s) + H2(g)
d) H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI

13. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

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a) The point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;
b) The point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;
c) The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;
d) The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

14. To increase product’s yield of reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, one should:

a) Decrease pressure
b) Add catalyst
c) Increase concentration of hydrogen
d) Increase temperature

15. Activated complex is formed due to

a) Pressure
b) Ineffective collisions
c) Effective collision
d) Temperature

16. For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible,
if we’ll:

a) Decrease pressure
b) Decrease temperature
c) Increase concentration of CO2
d) Increase pressure

17. Sum of exponents of molar concentration is called

a) Order of reaction
b) Molecularity
c) Rate of reaction
d) Average of reaction

18. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

19. Each catalyst has

a) Specificity
b) Its own Ea
c) Special structure
d) All of above

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Group#18
20. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:

a) Solubility product constant (Ksp);


b) Acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) Molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) Molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

21. Which of the following will have very high rate of reaction?

a) Double decomposition reaction


b) Ionic reactions
c) Neutralization reaction
d) All of above

22. Increasing of temperature shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

a) N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH


b) 2NH3(g) = N2(g) +3H2(g)+ ΔH
c) 2H2(g) + O2 = 2H2O – H
d) СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

23. Rate of disappearance of reactant is equal to

a) Rate of reaction
b) Energy released during reaction
c) Rate of formation of product
d) A and b

24. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

25. A catalyst can not effect

a) Products
b) Chemical equilibrium
c) Reactants
d) Both a & b

26. On increasing the temperature the rate of reaction increases mainly because

a) The activation energy of the reaction increases


b) Concentration of the reacting molecules increases

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c) Collision frequency increases
d) None of these

27. Unit of rate of reaction is

a) Moles dm-3 sec-1


b) Moles sec-1
c) Moles dm-3
d) Mol-1 dm-3 sec-1

28. The value of activation energy is primarily determined by

a) Temperature
b) Effective collision
c) Concentration of reactants
d) Chemical nature of reactants and products

29. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

30. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

31. Which factor will effect on shifting of chemical equilibrium for reaction Fe3O4(s) +
4H2(g) = 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g):

a) Adding catalyst to system


b) Changing of pressure
c) Changing of Fe3O4 concentration
d) Increasing of hydrogen concentration

32. Radiations are absorbed in

a) Spectrophotometer method
b) Optical relation method
c) Dilatometric method
d) Refractometric method

33. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

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a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

34. Rate of chemical reaction Mg with acetic acid will NOT increase, if we’ll:

a) Use Mg powder
b) Increase temperature
c) Decrease temperature
d) Add HI to system, as catalyst

35. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

36. When the reaction completes in more than one steps rate of reaction will be determined
by

a) Fast step
b) Slowest step
c) All steps
d) Molecularity of the reaction

37. In rate expression the concentration of reactants is negative. It shows

a) Concentration of reactant does not change


b) Concentration of product increases
c) Concentration of reactant decreases
d) Concentration of reactant increases

38. Equilibrium of process N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH shifted to product, if we’ll:

a) Increase pressure
b) Increase temperature
c) Decrease temperature
d) Decrease concentration of nitrogen

39. Biocatalytical proteins are

a) Enzymes
b) Lipids
c) Substrate
d) Any of above

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Group#18
40. Which statement is incorrect about catalyst

a) It is used in smaller amount


b) Decrease activation energy
c) Specific in action
d) It affects specific rate constant

41. Pressure changing will NOT effect for reaction:

a) FeO(s) + CO(g) = Fe(s) + CO2(g


b) H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
c) 2CO(g) + O2(g) = 2CO2(g)
d) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

42. Decreasing of pressure shifts equilibrium to products in case:

a) FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)


b) CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
c) H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
d) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

43. Rate of chemical reaction between gases with increase of pressure, in common:

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain the same
d) All of this is possible

44. For reaction C(s) + 2N2O(g) = 2N2(g) + CO2(g)- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is
possible, due these factors:

a) Increasing of pressure; decreasing of temperature


b) Decreasing of pressure; increasing N2O concentration
c) Increasing of pressure; decreasing CO2 concentration
d) Increasing of pressure; decreasing N2O concentration

45. Anything which increases rate of reaction without being involved in the reaction

a) Promoter
b) Inhibitor
c) Catalyst
d) All of the above

46. Energy required to form transition state is called

a) Ea
b) V

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c) P.E
d) K.E

47. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O


b) 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) L2 → 2Cl

48. For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H process, increasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

a) Shifting of equilibrium to reactants


b) Increasing reaction rate for forward reaction
c) Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction
d) Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction

49. For reaction 2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2- ΔH shifting equilibrium to product is impossible, if


we’ll:

a) Decrease temperature
b) Increase pressure
c) Increase temperature
d) Increase concentration of oxygen

50. An enzyme has its specificity due to

a) Substrate
b) Temperature
c) Structure
d) Pressure

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Colloids
1. Which method for the production of dispersions involves the formation of particles from
materials dissolved in true solutions?

a) Bottom-up
b) Top-down
c) Milling
d) High pressure homogenization

2. Is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary
liquid induced by an external field.

a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

3. Emulsion is:

a) Butter;
b) River ooze;
c) Stained glass;
d) Textile fabrics.

4. A suspension is formed from uniform particles of solid, of diameter 10 Mm, suspended


in a solvent. What is the best description of this system?

a) Monodisperse and coarse


b) Monodisperse and colloidal
c) Polydisperse and coarse
d) Polydisperse and colloidal

5. These following things are colloid properties, except...

a) Composed of 2 phase
b) Stable
c) Homogeneous
d) Can be filtered

6. Which one of the following systems has the smallest sized domains in its dispersed
phase?

a) Nanoemulsion

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b) Coarse suspension
c) Coarse emulsion
d) Microemulsion

7. The scattering of light by coarse and colloidal dispersed systems is known as?

a) Contrast matching
b) DLVO theory
c) Tyndall effect
d) Creaming

8. An _________ is a sol with the continuous phase a gas. Fog is an _________ of water
droplets.

a) Aerosol
b) Emulsion
c) Agglomerate
d) Electrophoresis

9. Which one of the following dispersions does not have liquid continuous phase?

a) Nanosuspension
b) Microemulsion
c) Gel
d) Foam

10. How might solid sodium carbonate be obtained from sodium carbonate solution?

a) Centrifugation
b) Filtration
c) Evaporation
d) It cannot be extracted

11. Margarine is a colloid system of...

a) Foam
b) Emulsion
c) Aerosol
d) Solid emulsion

12. An _________ is a sol in which the suspended particles are liquid droplets and the
continuous phase is also a liquid. The 2 phases are immiscible, otherwise a solution would
form.

a) Aerosol
b) Emulsion
c) Agglomerate

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Electrophoresis

13. Is the charged field generated by charged particles moving in a stationary liquid.

a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

14. A _________ is a sol of solid particles scattered in a liquid. Foam is a colloidal system
in which gas bubbles dispersed in a liquid or solid.

a) Colloidal suspension
b) Streaming potential
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

15. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the
particles with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.

a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) Surface
d) Size

16. One of following substances that belongs to colloid system is....

a) Milk
b) Mineral water
c) Vinegar
d) Salty water

17. Light scattering in colloid system is known as..

a) Brownian Motion
b) Tyndall Effect
c) Coagulation
d) Electrophoresis

18. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

a) Prevent making of a colloid


b) Stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization
c) Stabilize the mixture
d) Enrich the aroma

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
19. In the DLVO theory of colloids, normal thermal motion may be sufficient to overcome
the energy barrier that leads to irreversible particle aggregation. The name of this energy
barrier is which one of the following?

a) Primary maximum
b) Secondary maximum
c) Primary minimum
d) Secondary minimum

20. What is the best description of blood?

a) Sol
b) Foam
c) Solution
d) Aerosol

21. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

a) Liquid dispersed in gas


b) Gas dispersed in gas
c) Solid dispersed in gas
d) Solid dispersed in liquid

22. Dispersed phase and dispersing medium of smoke are..

a) Solid in liquid
b) Liquid in solid
c) Solid in gas
d) Gas in solid

23. Which of the following sequences correctly describes the change in domain structure
as more oil is added to a water-in-oil emulsion?

a) Bicontinuous, spherical, cylinder-like


b) Spherical, cylinder-like, bicontinuous
c) Spherical, bicontinuous, cylinder-like
d) Cylinder-like, spherical, bicontinuous

24. Is the generation of an electric field by locomotion of the liquid along stationary
charged surfaces.

a) Colloidal suspension
b) Streaming potential
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
25. Which of the following is not a mechanism for the separation of a physically unstable
suspension of magnesium hydroxide in water?

a) Flocculation
b) Aggregation
c) Ostwald ripening
d) Hydrolysis

Complex compounds
1. Ligands which can form two coordinate bonds from each ion or molecule to transition
metal ion are known as

a) Ligands ions
b) Dentate ligands
c) Monodentate ligands
d) Bidentate ligands

2. Number of dative bonds to central metal ion is its

a) Oxidation number
b) Compound number
c) Co-ordination number
d) Dative number

3. Due to ligands' action of splitting color of transition metal compound, this change
occurs at

a) S-orbital
b) D-orbital
c) P-orbital
d) F-orbital

4. Ions which are produced from ligands are

a) Cation
b) Anion
c) Complex ion
d) Allofthem

5. Different ions will split up by different compounds to given of

a) Same colored complexes


b) Different colored complexes

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
c) Same density complexes
d) Same temperature complexes

Electrochemistry redox
reaction
Which process / equation pair occurs at the cathode when iron hinges are plated with
copper?

a) Reduction, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-


b) Reduction, Cu2+ + 2 e- Cu(s)
c) Oxidation, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
d) Oxidation, Cu2+ (aq) + 2 e- Cu(s)

2. In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the oxidizing agent.
(acidic solution)

a) Sn
b) Sn+2
c) MnO41
d) Mn

3. Number of reaction products always greater than number of reactants if it is:

a) Reaction of decomposition
b) Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
c) Reaction of substitution
d) Reaction of direct combination

4. What is the oxidation number of an As atom in AsO4-3(aq)?

a) +5
b) +9
c) +1
d) -7

5. In which reaction is the first substance acting as a reducing agent?

a) Chlorine + iron(II) chloride ---> iron(III) chloride


b) Copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ---> copper + water
c) Hydrochloric acid + magnesium oxide ---> magnesium chloride + water

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Carbon monoxide + zinc oxide ---> zinc + carbon dioxide

6. In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), __________ is


reduced.

a) N
b) NO21
c) Cr+6
d) Cr

7. Find an endothermic reaction:

a) N2 + Н2 = NH3- ΔH
b) SO2 + O2+ ΔH= SO3
c) С + О2 = СО2- ΔH
d) СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

8. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3 (acidic solution), __________ is


oxidized.

a) O
b) Ce
c) H2O2
d) Ce+4

9. In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, the coefficient of water is
________. (acidic solution)

a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

10. Which represents a reduction reaction?

a) AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3


b) AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
c) Cl2 + 2 e--> 2 Cl-
d) K -> K+ + e-

11. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31 (acidic solution), __________ is
oxidized.

a) H5IO6
b) N
c) I
d) NO

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
12. What is the oxidation number of an iron atom in Fe2O3?

a) +6
b) +3
c) -3
d) -2

13. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the
reducing agent.

a) O
b) Ce
c) H2O2
d) Ce+4

14. What is the oxidation of xenon in XeF6?

a) -6
b) -1
c) +6
d) -7

15. In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), _________ is the
reducing agent.

a) N
b) NO21
c) Cr+6
d) Cr

16. Which change is reduction?

a) A decrease in oxidation state


b) Gain of oxygen
c) Loss of electrons
d) Loss of hydrogen

17. What is the oxidation state of sulphur in SO3-2

a) -4
b) +2
c) +4
d) +6

18. Balance the following oxidation-reduction equation: Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq) Sn4+(aq) +


Ce3+(aq)

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq) Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
b) 2Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq) 2Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
c) 2Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq) 2Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)
d) Sn2+(aq) + 2Ce4+(aq) Sn4+(aq) + 2Ce3+(aq)

19. Magnesium displace lead ions from solution lead(II) sulfate. Which statement about this
reaction is true?

a) Lead (II) ions are oxidized.


b) Magnesium atoms are oxidised.
c) Lead (II) ions lose electrons.
d) Magnesium atoms gain electrons .

20. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), __________ is


reduced.

a) H5IO6
b) N
c) I
d) NO

21. In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the reducing agent.
(acidic solution)

a) Sn
b) Sn+2
c) MnO41
d) Mn

22. Hydrogen peroxide, H2O2 reacts with silver oxide according to the following equation/
Ag2O(s) + H2O2(l) = 2Ag(s) + H2O(l) + O2(g) in this reaction hydrogen peroxide behaves as

a) A catalyst
b) A dehydrating agent
c) An oxidising agent
d) A reducing agent

23. In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, the coefficient of water is ________.
(basic solution)

a) 1
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6

24. In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is reduced. (basic
solution)

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) F
b) CO2
c) F2
d) C

25. Which one of these reactions is heterogeneous?

a) CaO(s) + CO2(g) = CaCO3


b) KOH(sol) + HNO3(sol) = KNO3(sol) + H2O(l)
c) H2 + N2 = NH3
d) NH3 + O2 = N2 + H2O(g)

26. Which represents an oxidation reaction?

a) NaNO3 + KCl -> NaCl + KNO3


b) AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
c) Cl2 + 2e--> 2 Cl-
d) K -> K+ + e-

27. In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, _________ is the reducing agent.
(basic solution)

a) F
b) CO2
c) F2
d) C

28. What is the oxidation state of chromium in the CrO3-2

a) +3
b) -3
c) +6
d) -6

29. Which one of these reactions is redox reaction?

a) Аl + Сl2= АlСl3
b) ВаСО3 = ВаО + СО2
c) Ba(NO3)2 + K2SO4= BaSO4 + KNO3
d) СаСО3 = СаО + СО2

30. In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+22 (basic solution), _________ is the
oxidizing agent.

a) N
b) NO21
c) Cr+6

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Cr

31. Acidified potassium dichromate (VI) can be used to detect the presence of ethanol
vapour in the breach of a person who consumed alcohol. A color change from orange to
green is absolved if ethanol is present. This shows that ethanol is

a) An alkali
b) An indicator
c) An oxidizing agent
d) A reducing agent

32. In the electrolysis of water, which reaction occurs at the cathode?

a) 2 H2(g) + O2(g) 2 H2O(g)


b) 2 02-(aq) O2(g) + 4 e-
c) 2 H2O(l) 4 H+(aq) + 2 02-(aq)
d) 2 H+(aq) + 2 e- H2(g)

33. Which change is oxidation?

a) Gain of electrons
b) Gain of hydrogen
c) Loss of oxygen
d) Loss of electrons

34. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the
oxidizing agent.

a) H5IO6
b) N
c) I
d) NO

35. In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), the coefficient of
water is ________.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0

36. Which compound, when added to aqueous iron(II) sulphate, takes part in a redox
reaction?

a) Ammonia
b) Barium chloride
c) Acidified potassium manganate (VII)

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Sodium hydroxide

37. Find irreversible reaction:

a) H2 + N2 = NH3
b) NaOH + HCl = NaCl + H2O
c) SO2 + O2 = SO3
d) N2O4 = NO2

38. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), __________ is


reduced.

a) O
b) Ce
c) H2O2
d) Ce+4

39. Which one of these reactions is homogeneous?

a) K(s) + H2O(l) = KOH(sol) + H2(g)


b) N2(g) + H2(g) = NH3(g)
c) BaCl2(sol) + H2SO4(sol) =BaSO4(s) + 2HC1 (sol);
d) Fe + H2SO4 = FeSO4 + H2;

40. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the
reducing agent.

a) H5IO6
b) N
c) I
d) NO

41. Which of the following statements about corrosion are NOT true?

a) A car rusts because steel reacts with water and oxygen in the air.
b) When iron rusts electrons are lost from the metal.
c) Plating metal speeds up the oxidation process.
d) Adding zinc metal strips to iron metals prevents corrosion.

42. In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, __________ is oxidized. (acidic
solution)

a) Sn
b) Sn+2
c) MnO41
d) Mn

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
43. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), the coefficient of
water is ________.

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

44. In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is oxidized. (basic
solution)

a) F
b) CO2
c) F2
d) C

45. The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is __.

a) +1
b) -1
c) +2
d) -2

46. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), the coefficient of
water is

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

47. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the
oxidizing agent.

a) O
b) Ce
c) H2O2
d) Ce+4

48. Which of the following bases has the highest pKa value

a) NaOH
b) NaNO3
c) KNO3
d) KCl

49. Which one of the following substance is reducing agent?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Argon
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Carbon monoxide

50. In the balanced reaction Cr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2 (basic solution) __________ is
oxidized.

a) N
b) NO21
c) Cr+6
d) Cr

Hydrolysis
Salt whose dissociation produces equal amounts of two ions

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

2. Conjugate base of H3PO4

a) H3PO4
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

3. Reacts with H3O+ to form HPO42–

a) H3PO4
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

4. A solution with a pH of 12.0 is

a) Strongly acidic.
b) Weakly acidic
c) Weakly basic
d) Strongly basic

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
5. In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base
will react in a molar ratio of

a) One to one
b) One to one
c) Three to one
d) Three to three

6. A buffer solution could be prepared from

a) NaCl and HCl


b) NaOH and HCl
c) KC2H3O2 and HC2H3O2.
d) NaCN and KCN

7. What is the acids?

a) They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of
them oxygen.
b) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
c) They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid
residues
d) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

8. In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

a) H2SO4 and BaSO4


b) NaCl and NaOH
c) NH4Cl and KCl
d) HNO3 and KOH

9. Salt whose dissociation produces more positive ions than negative ions

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

10. PH = 7.00

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
11. Substance produced when HNO3 neutralizes NaOH

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

12. [H3O+] = 2.0 x 10–8 M

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

13. The pH of a buffered solution

a) Always equals 7.0.


b) May be acidic or basic depending on the buffer present.
c) Changes drastically when a small amount of acid is added
d) No correct response

14. What is the bases?

a) They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of
them oxygen
b) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and
hydroxyl group (OH)
c) They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
d) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

15. Substance which reacts with H2SO4 to produce K2SO4

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

16. Aqueous NH4Cl solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

17. What is the oxides?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one
of them oxygen
b) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
c) They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues.
d) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

18. In which of the following pairs of salts will both members of the pair hydrolyze in water
to give solutions that are basic?

a) NaCl and NaCN


b) NH4Cl and NH4NO3
c) KC2H3O2 and KCN
d) NaNO3 and Na2SO4

19. Monoprotic strong acid

a) HCl
b) HC2H3O2
c) H2C3H2O2
d) H2SO4

20. In which of the following pairings of compounds are both members of the pair strong
electrolytes?

a) NaOH and NaCl


b) NH3 and HCl
c) KOH and H2CO3
d) NaCN and HCN

21. Aqueous NaCl solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

22. PH = 2.30

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

23. Which of the following pairings of pH and hydronium ion concentration is correct?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) PH = 2.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 102
b) PH = 7.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 10–7
c) PH = 9.0; [H3O+] = 9 x 10–9
d) No correct response

24. Acid ionization constants give information about

a) The strengths of acids.


b) The number of nonacidic hydrogens present in acids.
c) Whether acids are polyprotic.
d) Whether acids can neutralize bases

25. In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

a) NaCl and NaOH


b) KNO3 and K2SO4
c) H3PO4 and (NH4)3PO4
d) More than one correct response

26. Which of the following statements about weak acids is correct?

a) Weak acids always contain C atoms


b) The percentage dissociation for weak acids is usually in the range of 40-60%.
c) Weak acid molecules readily lose their acidic hydrogen atoms.
d) No correct response

27. Acid which completely dissociates in solution to produce negative ions with a charge
of one

a) HCl
b) HC2H3O2
c) H2C3H2O2
d) H2SO4

28. In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?

a) HNO3 and HNO2


b) H2SO4 and H2SO3
c) HCl and HClO4
d) No correct response

29. Aqueous NaCN solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
30. In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base
will react in a molar ratio of

a) One to one
b) One to three.
c) Three to one
d) Three to three.

31. In which of the following salts would both the positive ion and the negative ion
hydrolyze when the salt is dissolved in water?

a) NaCl
b) NaCN
c) NH4Cl
d) No correct response

32. Inorganic compounds divided in to:

a) Simple, complex substances


b) Metals, nonmetals
c) Acid, base, salt, oxide
d) Metal, acid, simple substance

33. What is the salts?

a) They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of
them oxygen
b) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
c) They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid
residues
d) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues

34. Which of the following statements concerning electrolytes is correct?

a) All strong acids are strong electrolytes


b) Some salts are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes.
c) Some molecular substances are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes
d) More than one correct response

35. [OH–] = 3.0 x 10–-6 M

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
36. In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?

a) H3PO4 and H2SO4


b) HCl and HNO3
c) H2CO3 and HBr
d) HC2H3O2 and HI

37. Which of the following does not describe an acidic solution?

a) The pH is less than 7.0


b) The [OH–] is greater than 1.0 x 10–7
c) The [H3O+] is greater than the [OH–]
d) The [OH–] is 6.0 x 10–10

38. Conjugate acid of HPO42–

a) H3PO4
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

39. If a solution is buffered at a pH of 8.0, then the addition of a small amount of acid will
cause the solution to have a pH of approximately

a) 6.0.
b) 7.0.
c) 8.0.
d) 9.0.

40. In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair weak acids?

a) H2SO4 and HC2H3O2


b) HNO3 and H2C4H4O6
c) HC2H3O2 and H3C6H5O7
d) H3PO4 and H2SiO3

41. If the pH of a solution of a salt is 5.0, the salt must be one which could be formed from
the neutralization of

a) A strong acid and a strong base.


b) A weak acid and a strong base.
c) A strong acid and a weak base.
d) HCl and NaOH.

42. The pH of a solution for which [OH–] = 1.0 x 10–6 is

a) 1.00

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
b) 8.00
c) 6.00
d) –6.00

43. Substance which reacts with NaOH to produce Na3PO4

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

44. Which of the following is a correct statement for a solution with a pH of 8.00?

a) The hydroxide ion concentration is greater than the hydronium ion concentration
b) The hydronium ion concentration is 8.0 M
c) The hydroxide ion concentration is 1.0 x 10–8 M
d) No correct response

45. Will form a buffer with PO43–

a) H3PO4
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

46. Diprotic weak acid

a) HCl
b) HClO4
c) H2SiO3
d) H2SO4

47. Which of the following equations represents an acid-base neutralization reaction?

a) H2SO4 + Zn ZnSO4 + H2
b) HNO3 + KOH KNO3 + H2O
c) Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaOH
d) No correct response

48. Aqueous NaOH solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
49. Which of the following is produced in the first step of the dissociation of the acid
H3PO4?

a) H3PO3
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

50. Aqueous HCl solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Ionization of water
Identify the triprotic acid from the following

a) Carbonic acid
b) Bicarbonate
c) Glycine
d) Phosphoric acid

2. Aqueous solution of the detergents are

a) Neutral
b) Acidic
c) Basic
d) Amphoteric

3. Which of the following is an isotonic solution?

a) 0.9% sodium chloride


b) 0.45% sodium chloride
c) Oceans
d) 10% dextrose in water

4. What is the concentration of OH– in a solution with a H+ concentration of 1.3×10-4 M?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) 7.7×10-10 M
b) 7.7×10-9 M
c) 7.7×10-11 M
d) 7.7×10-12 M

5. What is the factor that is responsible for salts like NaCl to dissolve in water easily?

a) Decrease in entropy
b) Increase in entropy
c) Increase in enthalpy
d) Decrease in enthalpy

6. What makes water a liquid at room temperature?

a) Hydrogen bonds between water molecules


b) Covalent bonding
c) Noncovalent interactions
d) Van der Waals forces of attraction

7. ΔG is negative for which of the following processes?

a) Melting of ice and evaporation of water


b) Oxidation of nitrogen
c) Oxidation of gold
d) Burning of chlorine

8. Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

a) Oceans
b) Freshwater habitats
c) 0.45% sodium chloride
d) Red blood cells placed in fresh water

9. ΔH is positive for which of the following processes?

a) Oxidation of nitrogen
b) Melting of ice and evaporation of water
c) Oxidation of gold
d) Burning of chlorine

10. Which of the following acids has the lowest pKa value?

a) Acetic acid
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Dil.HCl
d) Oxalic acid

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
11. Which of the following is a hypotonic solution?

a) 10% dextrose in water


b) 0.45% sodium chloride
c) 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
d) Oceans

12. The degree of ionization does not depend on?

a) Temperature
b) Current
c) Nature of solvent
d) Concentration

Lipids
Fatty acid synthesis takes place in

a) Mitochondria
b) Cellmembrane
c) Cytosol
d) Endoplasmicreticulum

2. Which substance is an electrolyte?

a) CH3OH
b) C6H12O6
c) H2O
d) KOH

3. Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule containing polar covalent bonds?

a) H2O
b) CCl4
c) NH3
d) H2

4. Condensed structural formula of Caproic acid is

a) CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
b) CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
c) CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
d) CH3-(CH2)16-COOH

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Group#18
5. The key enzyme in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis is

a) Acetyl CoA carboxylase


b) AMP activated proteinkinase
c) Proteinphosphatase
d) None of these

6. Which of following protects our heart and kidneys from injury?

a) Skin
b) Muscles
c) Lubricants
d) Fat

7. The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is

a) Ribose
b) Galactose
c) Mannose
d) Maltose

8. The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of

a) Diffusion
b) Effusion
c) Affusion
d) Coagulation

9. Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with

a) 2 double bonds
b) 3 double bonds
c) One double bond
d) None of these

10. Which formula represents a polar molecule?

a) H2
b) H2O
c) CO2
d) CCL4

11. Two hydrogen atoms form a hydrogen molecule when

a) One atom loses a valence electron to the other atom


b) One atom shares four electrons with the other atom
c) The two atoms collide and both atoms gain energy

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Group#18
d) The two atoms collide with sufficient energy to form a bond

12. Which kind of compound generally results when nonmetal atoms chemically combine
with metal atoms?

a) Hydrogen
b) Ionic
c) Covalent
d) Metallic

13. Micelles of fatty acids in water are organized such that the __________ faces the
solvent and the __________ are directed toward the interior

a) Carboxylic acid groups, hydrocarbon chains heads


b) Hydrophilicheads, hydrophobictails
c) Hydrocarbon chains, carboxylic acid groups
d) Both (a) and (b)

14. Atherosclerosis can cause blood

a) Thinning
b) Clotting
c) Thickening
d) Noneofthese

15. Storage polysaccharide made by animals is

a) Amylopectin
b) Glycogen
c) Cellulose
d) Collagen

16. Milk is deficient in which vitamins?

a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin B2
d) Vitamin K

17. The average pH of Urine is

a) 7.0
b) 6.0
c) 8.0
d) 0.0

18. Which compound has both ionic and covalent bonding?

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Group#18
a) CaCO3
b) CH2C12
c) CH3OH
d) C6H12O6

19. Derivatives of phosphatidic acid, which are composed of glycerol, fatty acids and
phosphoric acids are known as

a) Phospholipids
b) Acylghycerols
c) Triglycerides
d) Esters

20. Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

a) Lysosomes
b) Mitochondria
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Entoplasmic reticulum

21. Saliva contains all of the following except

a) Hormones
b) Amylase
c) Bacteria-killingenzymes
d) Antibodies

22. As sodium reacts with fluorine to form the compound NaF, each sodium atom will

a) Gain 1 electron
b) Gain 2 electrons
c) Lose 1 electron
d) Lose 2 electrons

23. Which statement describes a chemical change?

a) Alcohol evaporates.
b) Water vapor forms snowflakes.
c) Table salt (NaCl) is crushed into powder.
d) Glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen produce CO2 and H2O.

24. As a bond between a hydrogen atom and a sulfur atom is formed, electrons are

a) Shared to form an ionic bond


b) Shared to form a covalent bond
c) Transferred to form an ionic bond
d) Transferred to form a covalent bond

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
25. The glycosidic bond

a) In maltose is not hydrolyzed in lactose intolerant humans


b) In sucrose is hydrolyzed by bees
c) Joins glucose and fructose to form sucrose
d) Both (b) and (c)

26. Cholestrol is the precursor of

a) Steroid hormones
b) Vitamin A
c) Bile salts
d) Both (a) and (c)

27. Arachidonate has 20 carbon atoms with

a) 3 doublebonds
b) 2 doublebonds
c) 4 doublebonds
d) 8 doublebonds

28. Which formula correctly represents the compound calcium hydroxide?

a) CaOH
b) Ca2OH
c) CaOH2
d) Ca(OH)2

29. In human diet, all cholesterol comes from

a) Animal products
b) Vegetable products
c) Both A and B
d) None of these

30. Which compound has the least ionic character?

a) KCl
b) CaCl2
c) AlCl3
d) CCl4

31. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that a carbon atom can form?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 2

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Group#18
d) 4

32. Milk is deficient of which mineral?

a) Phosphorus
b) Sodium
c) Iron
d) Potassium

33. Greater number of carbon atoms in chain results in higher

a) Melting point
b) Boiling point
c) Freezing oint
d) Stability

34. Condensed structural formula of Palmitic acid is

a) CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
b) CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
c) CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
d) CH3-(CH2)16-COOH

35. A substance has a high melting point and conducts electricity in the liquid phase. This
substance is

a) Ne
b) Hg
c) NaCl
d) SiC

36. Humans are unable to digest

a) Starch
b) Complex carbohydrates
c) Denatured proteins
d) Cellulose

37. Which type of bond is found between atoms of solid cobalt?

a) Nonpolar covalent
b) Polar covalent
c) Metallic
d) Ionic

38. Lipids provide insulation against cold and hot weather to exoskeleton of insects in form
of

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Group#18
a) Cutin
b) Waxes
c) Cholesterol
d) Oil

39. Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?

a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Cytoplasm
d) Golgi apparatus

40. Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to

a) Phosphoenolpyruvate
b) AcetylCoA
c) Lactate
d) Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate

41. Which atom has the least attraction for the electrons in a bond between that atom and
an atom of hydrogen?

a) Carbon
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Fluorine

42. Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

a) Amylose
b) Cellobiose
c) Lactose
d) Noneofthese

43. Physical state of fat at room temperature is

a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Plasma

44. Which of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone
insulin?

a) Mn++
b) Mg++
c) Ca++

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Group#18
d) Zn++

45. Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) + energy
Which statement describes the energy changes in this reaction?

a) Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, only.


b) Energy is released as bonds are broken, only.
c) Energy is absorbed as bonds are broken, and energy is released as bonds are
formed.
d) Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, and energy is released as bonds are broken.

46. What occurs in order to break the bond in a Cl2 molecule?

a) Energy is absorbed.
b) Energy is released.
c) The molecule creates energy.
d) The molecule destroys energy.

47. How many ATPs are formed during complete oxidation of palmitate?

a) 35
b) 96
c) 129
d) 131

48. Oxidation of which substance in the body yields the most calories

a) Glucose
b) Glycogen
c) Protein
d) Lipids

49. Phospholipid contains

a) Hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails


b) Long water-soluble carbon chains
c) Positivelychargedfunctionalgroups
d) Both (b) and (c)

50. Which element is composed of molecules that each contain a multiple covalent bond?

a) Chlorine
b) Fluorine
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
Miscellaneous
. Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:

a) It is basic in nature
b) It is acidic in nature
c) Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base
d) Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.

2. The value of Vant Hoff factor (i) = 2 is for:

a) Glucose
b) Sucrose
c) Calcium chloride
d) Sodium chloride

3. If the solvent boils at a temperature T1 and the solution at a temperature T2 , then the
elevation of boiling point is given by:

a) T1 + T2
b) T1 – T2
c) T2 – T1.
d) None of the above

4. Why pure water is very weak electrolyte?

a) It ionizes to a large extent


b) It ionizes to very small extent
c) It does not ionizes at all
d) It ionizes completely

5. Vapour pressure decreases with:

a) Increase in concentration of the solution.


b) Decrease in solute particles in the solution
c) Decrease in boiling point.
d) Increase in freezing point.

6. Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

a) Camphor
b) Petrol
c) Acetone
d) Acetanilide

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Group#18
7. In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.

a) Weak acid and strong base


b) Weak acid and weak base
c) Strong acid and strong base
d) Strong acid and weak base

8. When osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:

a) Equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute.
b) Equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.
c) Non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute
d) Non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute

9. The unit of Cryoscopic constant is:

a) Kelvin kg mol-1
b) Kelvin kg-1 mol-1
c) Kelvin kg mol+1
d) Kelvin kg+1 mol+1

10. NH3 and H20 can act as:

a) Lewis acid and Bronsted base


b) Lewis base and Bronsted acid
c) Lewis and Bronsted base
d) Lewis and Bronsted acid.

11. What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of
HOCl (ka = 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

a) 7.0
b) 3.2
c) 7.3
d) 4.5

12. Addition of a salt of weak acid and strong base to water would cause:

a) Increase in pH.
b) PH remains same.
c) Decrease in pH
d) None of these.

13. The concentration of a sparingly soluble salt in its saturated solution at a given
temperature is known as:

a) Solubility product

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Group#18
b) Solubility
c) Hydrolysis
d) Degree of hydrolysis

14. Precipitation of salt occurs if:

a) Ionic product = solubility product


b) Ionic product > solubility product
c) Ionic product < solubility product
d) None of these

15. The conjugate base of methyl alcohol is:

a) Hydroxyl ion
b) Methyl radical
c) Hydronium ion
d) Methoxide ion

16. Buffer of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?

a) Weak acid + weak base in water


b) Strong acid + strong base in water.
c) Weak acid + strong base in water.
d) Strong acid + weak base in water.

17. Molarity of a solution is expressed as:

a) The number of moles of a solute present in one litre of the solution


b) The number of moles of a solute present in 1000 gm of the solvent
c) The number of gram equivalent of solute present in one litre of solution
d) The ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute

18. Among the following which is a strong electrolyte and thus the best conductor of
electricity?

a) Sulphuric acid
b) Acetic acid
c) Boric acid
d) Phosphoric acids

19. Water molecule is a highly polar solvent due to:

a) Presence of two lone pair of electrons


b) Presence of three lone pair of electrons
c) Absence of lone pair of electrons
d) None of these

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
20. If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:

a) I=1
b) I>1
c) I=0
d) I<1

21. 10-4 M HCl solution at 298 K is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution will:

a) Lie between 8 and 9


b) Remain unchanged
c) Lie between 6 and 7
d) Equal to 7

22. The ionisation of a weak electrolyte increases when the concentration of the solution is
decreased. This relation is given by:

a) Ostwald’s law
b) Arrhenius equation
c) Nernst’s equation.
d) Law of mass action.

23. Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:

a) Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised


b) It has low molecular weight
c) Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.
d) It does not dissociates completely

24. NH4Cl and aq.NH3 will precipitate.

a) Cu2+
b) Fe3+
c) Na+
d) K+

25. Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

a) An increase in melting point of the liquid


b) A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.
c) A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid
d) No change in the boiling point of the liquid.

26. Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

a) Obeys Raoult’s law.


b) Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero

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Group#18
c) There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.
d) Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

27. Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength?

a) HCl < HBr < HI < HF


b) HF < HBr < HCl < HI
c) HI < HCl < HBr < HF
d) HF < HCl < HI < HBr.

28. Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?

a) Equimolar solutions
b) Equinormal solution
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

29. When acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:

a) Both (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.


b) Both (H+) and (OH) ions increases
c) (H+) increases and (OH-) decreases
d) (H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.

30. Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:

a) Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between
individual liquids
b) Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between
individual liquids.
c) Force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids
d) Force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.

31. Aqueous solution of potassium chlorate is:

a) Amphoteric
b) Neutral
c) Alkaline
d) Acidic

32. HCO3- acts as:

a) Acid
b) Base
c) Both acid and base
d) None of these

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
33. An acid is one that donates a proton. This theory was given by:

a) lewis
b) lowery-bronsted
c) arrhenius
d) ostwald

34. Which among the following is true? i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its
boiling point decreases. ii. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point
increases. iii. When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boil

a) I & iii
b) I & iv.
c) Ii & iii
d) Ii & iv

35. Addition of common salt in water causes

a) Increase in M.P of solution


b) Increase in B.P of solution
c) Decrease in B.P of solution
d) Decrease in both M.P & B.P

36. Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?

a) AgCl
b) BaSO4
c) CH3COOAg
d) None of these

37. Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of boiling point
c) Freezing point
d) Depression in freezing point.

38. Which of the following act as Bronsted acid?

a) HSO3-
b) HCO3-
c) Both a and b
d) None

39. Basicity of an acid is defined as number of replicable:

a) OH groups in its molecule

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Group#18
b) H atom in its molecule
c) Non-metal cations in its molecule
d) Non-metal anions in its molecule

40. Which among the following is not a property of buffer solution?

a) It has a definite PH.


b) PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.
c) PH remains constant on keeping for a long time
d) It does not has a definite PH

41. A buffer solution is one that contains:

a) A weak acid and its conjugate base


b) Strong base and its conjugate acid
c) Strong acid and its conjugate base
d) None of these

42. The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

a) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it


b) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non
electrolyte solute in it
c) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.
d) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

43. The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

a) Amount of solute
b) Nature of solute.
c) Amount of solvent
d) Nature of solvent

44. If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:

a) Weak electrolyte
b) Strong electrolyte
c) Strong base
d) None of these.

45. Addition of HCl will suppress the ionisation of:

a) Benzoic acid
b) Carbonic acid
c) Nitric acid
d) Both a and b

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
46. Vant Hoff’s eqution for solution is:

a) PV = n / RT
b) P = Vn / RT
c) PV = nRT
d) P = VnR / T

47. Which of the following pair of liquids are immiscible?

a) Acetone + water
b) Benzene + water.
c) Ethanol + water
d) Acetic acid + water

48. Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon
number of solute of particles present in the solution. ii. Relative lowering of vapour
pressure of a solution is equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-el

a) I
b) Ii
c) Both i & ii
d) None of the above

49. If ionic product < solubility product then the solution is:

a) Unsaturated
b) Just saturated.
c) Super saturated
d) None of these

50. Lewis acid is one that:

a) Accepts an electron pair


b) Donates a proton
c) Accepts a proton
d) Donates an electron pair

Miscellaneous 1
1. Sol consists of:

a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;


b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid

2. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:

a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) Size of particles;
d) Odor.

3. What is the Isothermal process?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const


b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

4. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:

a) Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.

5. Chromatography is:

a) The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;


b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

6. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

a) Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right

7. What is the convection?

a) The material to conduct heat.


b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

8. Coarse disperse system is:

a) Solution;

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Group#18
b) Suspension;
c) Sol;
d) Gel.

9. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?

a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a


liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a
gas;
d) On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

10. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

11. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:

a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;


b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.

12. The heat transfer are divided into

a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation


b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

13. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const


b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

14. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:

a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation


b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
15. Find the formula of Internal energy.

a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

16. Coagulation is:

a) Chaotic movement of particles;


b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;
c) Destruction of the native protein structure;
d) The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and
thereby separate from the continuous phase.

17. Stability of a disperse system is:

a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance


and viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) Constancy in time of its state and main properties.

18. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

a) Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.

19. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?

a) Julius Robert von Mayer


b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

20. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

a) Opalescence;
b) Light absorption;
c) Electrodialysis;
d) Electrophoresis and electroosmosis

21. Fog and smoke are:

a) Aerosols;

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Group#18
b) Emulsions;
c) Gels;
d) Foams

22. Biological gel is:

a) Cartilage;
b) Air;
c) Clouds;
d) River water

23. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy
d) Exothermic process

24. What is the Isobaric process?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const


b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

25. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?

a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

26. What is the Closed System?

a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings


b) Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

27. What is the adiabaticprocess?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const


b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

28. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

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Group#18
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

29. Thermodynamic processes may be:

a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation


b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

30. Aerosol is:

a) Powder;
b) Dust cloud;
c) Hairspray;
d) All answers are right.

31. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

32. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

a) Viscosity, flowability;
b) Opalescence, light absorption;
c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;
d) Dissolution, swelling.

33. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:

a) Osmosis;
b) Diffusion;
c) Brownian motion;
d) Coagulation .

34. The basic formula for Entropy;

a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW

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Group#18
35. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:

a) Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

36. What is the Open System?

a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings


b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

37. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components

a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

38. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:

a) N2;
b) H2O;
c) CO2;
d) O2.

39. What is the Isolated System?

a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings


b) Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

40. Enthalpy is called?

a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

41. What is the radiation?

a) The material to conduct heat.


b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).

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Group#18
d) None of them.

42. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?

a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

43. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:

a) Aerosol;
b) Emulsion;
c) Sol;
d) Foam

44. What is the thermal conductivity?

a) The material to conduct heat.


b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

45. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?

a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

46. Thermodynamics studies

a) General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.


b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

47. Internal energy is called?

a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

48. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:

a) Fog;

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Group#18
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.

49. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:

a) These are heterogeneous systems;


b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) All answers are right.

50. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:

a) Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;


b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.

Miscellaneous 2
1. The structure of an alkene contains

a) Only single bonds;


b) A double bond;
c) Two double bonds;
d) A triple bond.

2. Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

a) CCl4;
b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) C6H6;
d) C6H12O6.

3. For spontaneous processes?

a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) ∆H≤ 0

4. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called

a) Cryometry

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Group#18
b) Osmometry
c) PH-metry
d) Ebuliometry

5. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called

a) Hypotonic
b) Isoosmotic
c) Saturated
d) Isotonic

6. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called

a) Hypotonic
b) Isoosmotic
c) Saturated
d) Isotonic

7. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called

a) Hypotonic
b) Isoosmotic
c) Saturated
d) Isotonic

8. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise

a) Increases
b) Remains same
c) Decreases
d) No effect

9. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:

a) 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

10. Osmolarity is:

a) The molarity of particles in a solution;


b) The amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) Mass percentage concentration;
d) The concentration in parts per thousand.

11. Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?

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Group#18
a) Butane;
b) Propane;
c) 1-chlorobutane;
d) 1-chloropropane.

12. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by
their osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:

a) Concentrationofwater;
b) Concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) Concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) Concentration of electrolytes.

13. Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H4;
b) C2H6;
c) C3H8;
d) C4H10.

14. In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?

a) CH3COOH;
b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) CH3CH2OH;
d) CH3OH.

15. The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two
adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

a) Alkanes;
b) Alkenes;
c) Alkynes;
d) Benzenes.

16. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called

a) Cryometry
b) Osmometry
c) PH-metry
d) Ebuliometry

17. Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

a) Benzene;
b) Propene;
c) Propane;

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Group#18
d) Propyne.

18. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an organic
compound is a(an)

a) Dihedral angle;
b) Right angle;
c) Tetrahedral angle;
d) Acute angle.

19. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called

a) Hypotonic
b) Isoosmotic
c) Saturated
d) Hypertonic

20. What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?

a) 6
b) 2
c) 8
d) 4

21. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution

a) Increases
b) Remains same
c) Decreases
d) None of them

22. Organic compounds must contain

a) Oxygen;
b) Nitrogen;
c) Hydrogen;
d) Carbon.

23. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on

a) Concentration
b) Nature of solvent
c) Temperature
d) Nature of solute

24. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise

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a) Increases
b) Remains same
c) Decreases
d) Increases then decreases

25. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:

a) To increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;


b) To add some electrolytes into a solution;
c) To add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) To increase temperature.

26. How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

a) 5
b) 8
c) 6
d) 13

27. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:

a) Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than
that of pure solvents;
b) Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of
pure solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.

28. Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:

a) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;


b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

29. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling
points

a) Decreases;
b) Increases;
c) Remains the same;
d) Decreases then increases.

30. CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as

a) A carbohydrate;
b) An ester;

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Group#18
c) An alcohol;
d) An organic acid.

31. Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C3H8;
b) C6H6;
c) C2H5OH;
d) C2H4O2.

32. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:

a) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that
of pure solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of
pure solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents.

33. A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is

a) Ethanol;
b) Glycerol;
c) Ethylene glycol;
d) Ethane.

34. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:

a) The number of the solute particles;


b) The chemical structure of solute;
c) Catalysts;
d) PH scale.

35. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:

a) 2.0×10-2osmol;
b) 1.0×10-1osmol;
c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
d) 5.0×10-3osmol.

36. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an


organic molecule is known as a(an)

a) Carboxyl group;
b) Functional group;
c) Group;

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Alkyl group.

37. How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

38. A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used
commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is called

a) Polymerization;
b) Hydrogenation;
c) Esterification;
d) Cracking.

39. Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated


hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

a) Contain multiple bonds;


b) Have a greater molecular mass;
c) Have tetrahedral bonds;
d) Contain more atoms.

40. A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both can
produce

a) An ester;
b) An alcohol;
c) An acid;
d) A soap.

41. A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

a) Fat;
b) Polymer;
c) Isomer;
d) Monomer.

42. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called

a) Cryometry
b) Osmometry
c) PH-metry
d) Ebuliometry

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Group#18
43. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:

a) Density;
b) Viscosity;
c) Molar mass;
d) Osmotic pressure.

44. The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of
compounds that are

a) Molecular;
b) Ionic;
c) Polar;
d) Atomic.

45. Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

a) CH4;
b) C2H6;
c) C3H8;
d) C4H10.

46. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:

a) TT= MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

47. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:

a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane


from a solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
from a truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane
from a pure water to a solution;
d) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable
membrane from a dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

48. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the
van der Waals forces between the molecules

a) Decreases;
b) Increases;
c) Remains the same;
d) Decreases then increases.

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Group#18
49. Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

a) Benzene;
b) Propyne;
c) Methane;
d) Ethanol.

50. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly


proportional to

a) Temperature
b) Molar fraction of solute
c) Molar fraction of solvent
d) Mixing rate

Miscellaneous 3
1. Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in

a) H2SO3
b) SO2
c) H2SO4
d) H2S

2. How many α-amine acidrests are in polypeptide

a) 01-10
b) 10-100
c) 100-200
d) More than 100

3. The strongest reducing agent is

a) HNO2
b) H2S
c) H2SO3
d) SnCl2

4. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O

a) X=2 y=4 z=10


b) X=2 y=6 z=5
c) X=2 y=3 z=8
d) X=2 y=3 z=10

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
5. Proteins are composed of:

a) 20 different amino acids


b) 15 different amino acids
c) 15 different aldehydes
d) 17 different ethers

6. Which of the following statements is true?

a) NaCl is a neutral salt;


b) KOH is an acid;
c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.
d) NaBr is basic salt.

7. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane

a) Essential
b) Non-essential
c) Semi- essential
d) None of these

8. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O

a) 10
b) 8
c) 5
d) 2

9. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O

a) X=4 y=6
b) X=8 y=3
c) X=8 y=6
d) X=3 y=8

10. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?

a) OH- and H2O;


b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-;
c) HCl and Cl-;
d) NH3 and NH4+;

11. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:

a) Unsaturated;
b) Supersaturated;

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c) Saturated
d) Dilute

12. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?

a) AgCl;
b) PbBr2;
c) Ca3(PO4)2;
d) Na2CO3

13. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

a) F2
b) Cl2
c) Br2
d) I2

14. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;


b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;
c) HI is hydroiodic acid;
d) HClO2 is chloric acid

15. Which of the following is an insulator?

a) Graphite
b) Aluminium
c) Diamond
d) Silicon

16. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide

a) Coordination
b) Ionic
c) Hydrogen
d) Glycoside

17. Unsaponified lipids are

a) Mono-component
b) Di-component
c) Three-component
d) Poly-component

18. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:

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Group#18
a) H2S
b) SO3
c) H2O2
d) F2

19. Glicaric acids are produced under action of

a) Mild oxidant
b) Strong reductant
c) Mildreductant
d) Strong oxidant

20. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of

a) Aldose
b) Pyranose
c) Fructose
d) Furanose

21. DNA contains

a) Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine


b) Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c) Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d) Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

22. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in

a) Acidic medium
b) Neutral medium
c) Basic medium
d) Any medium

23. Which equation is correctly balanced?

a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;
b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;
c) 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;
d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;

24. Functional Group of Ether:

a) H–C=O
b) C–O–C
c) C–C
d) C–X

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Group#18
25. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Esterification
d) Transamination

26. Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis

a) Alcohols, carboxylicacids
b) Carboxylicacids
c) Alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d) Alcohols

27. Amino acides are building blocks of:

a) Ketones
b) Aldehydes
c) Proteins
d) Ethers

28. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :

a) O3
b) KMnO4
c) H2O2
d) K2Cr2O7

29. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine

a) Aliphatic
b) Aromatic
c) Heterocyclic
d) Complex

30. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to

a) Dilution
b) Number of ions
c) Current density
d) Volume of the solution

31. An electrolyte is one

a) Which conducts electric current


b) Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current
c) Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent

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Group#18
d) None of the above

32. Functional Group of Ketone:

a) C-CO-C
b) C–X
c) C – OH
d) #NAME?

33. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides

a) Coordination
b) Ionic
c) Hydrogen
d) Hydrofobic

34. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest

a) C1
b) C2
c) C3
d) C4

35. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in

a) Acidic medium
b) Neutral medium
c) Basic medium
d) Any medium

36. Reduction involves

a) Loss of electrons
b) Gain of electrons
c) Increase in the valency of positive part
d) Decrease in the valency of negative part

37. Monomeric link of protein

a) Sugar rest
b) Isoprene
c) Amine acid rest
d) Ethylene

38. Functional Group of Amine:

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Group#18
a) C – NR – R’
b) O= C – OH
c) H–C=O
d) C – OH

39. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF;


b) 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2;
c) 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2
d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

40. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium
carbonate and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a) Cl-;
b) 2Na+;
c) CaCO3d
d) All of the substances above

41. Oxidation involves

a) Loss of electrons
b) Gain of electrons
c) Increase in the valency of negative part
d) Decrease in the valency of positive part

42. Functional Group of Amide:

O = C – OH

C – NR – R’

H–C=O

HOC – NR – R’

43. Functional Group of Nitrile:

- C≡N

O = C – OH

C – NR – R’

HOC – NR – R’

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
44. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:

a) -1/3
b) -1
c) +1
d) -3

45. Choose peptide bond

a) -CO-NH-
b) –S-S-
c) H2N–CH2–
d) -C-C-

46. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a) 1.5 m NaCl;
b) 1.5 m AgCl;
c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;
d) 2.0 m CaCl2

47. Lactose is

a) Monose
b) Unreducing disaccharide
c) Amine acid
d) Reducing disaccharide

48. Components of nucleotide

a) Protein
b) Amine acid rest
c) OH
d) Thymine

49. Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between
atoms

a) C5 and N1
b) C1 and N9
c) C3 and N9
d) C1 and N1

50. Functional Group of Aldehyde:

C – CO - C

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Group#18
C – CH = O

C–X

O = C – OH

Nucleic acid structure

1. What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—NH2?

a) Aldehyde
b) Amide
c) Amine
d) Carboxylic acid

2. What class of compound is butanone?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

3. What class of compound is methanol?

a) Ketone
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Alcohol

4. What class of compound is dopamine?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Amine

5. What class of compound is ethanamide?

a) Aldehyde

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
b) Ketone
c) Amide
d) Ester

6. What class of compound is butanal?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

7. What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—O—R’?

a) Aldehyde
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Ketone

8. Number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

9. Which of the following is the general formula for a phenol (alcohol on a benzene ring)?

a) Ar—OH
b) R—NH2
c) R—OH
d) R—O—R’

10. Which of the following is the general formula for an alcohol?

a) Ar—OH
b) R—NH2
c) R—OH
d) R—O—R’

11. What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–OH?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

12. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Organic halide
b) Alcohol
c) Phenol
d) Ether

13. What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–NH2?

a) Amide
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

14. What class of compound is methyl propanoate?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

15. Which of the following is a general formula for an amine?

a) Ar—OH
b) R—NH2
c) R—OH
d) R—O—R’

16. What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—OH?

a) Aldehyde
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Ketone

17. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–OH?

a) Organic halide
b) Alcohol
c) Phenol
d) Ether

18. What class of compound is the following: C6H5–OH?

a) Organic halide
b) Alcohol
c) Phenol
d) Ether

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
19. How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are there in the allene molecule, H2CCCH2?

a) Six σ bonds and two π bonds


b) Two σ bonds and six π bonds
c) Four σ bonds and four π bonds
d) Eight σ bonds and no π bonds

20. Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

21. What class of compound has the following general formula: Ar—C(=O)—H?

a) Aldehyde
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Ketone

22. Which of the following is a general formula for ether?

a) Ar—OH
b) R—NH2
c) R—OH
d) R—O—R’

23. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–H?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

24. Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?

a) Does not have a double stranded structure


b) Thymine is present
c) Does not obey Chargaff’s rule
d) The sugar contained in RNA is a ribose

25. What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—R’?

a) Aldehyde
b) Alkene
c) Carboxylic acid

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Ketone

26. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–NH2?

a) Organic halide
b) Amine
c) Phenol
d) Ether

27. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–CH2–CH3?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

Nucleic acids
1. Nucleoside is a pyrimidine or purine base

a) Covalently bonded to a sugar


b) Ionically bonded to a sugar
c) Hydrogen bonded to a sugar
d) None of the above

2. Which of the following are not the components of RNA?

a) Thymine
b) Adenine
c) Guanine
d) Cytosine

3. A nucleotide is composed of

a) An acid, a base, and a sugar


b) A base, a sugar, and a phosphate
c) A base, and sugar
d) An acid, a sugar, and a phosphate

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
4. Building blocks of nucleic acids are

a) Nucleotides
b) Nucleosides
c) Amino acids
d) Histones

5. Oligonucleotides are formed from 2 to 10

a) Strands
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Nucleosides
d) Nucleotides

6. In gel electrophoresis,what fragments will move most quickly through a gel?

a) Large fragments
b) Small fragments
c) Large genome
d) Noneofthese

7. What term is used to describe the process by which proteins are synthesised from a
genetic code?

a) Reproduction
b) Replication
c) Translation
d) Transcription

8. Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following

a) Cytosine
b) Thymine
c) Uracil
d) Adenine

9. What is the composition of nucleoside?

a) A sugar + a phosphate
b) A base + a sugar
c) A base + a phosphate
d) A base + a sugar + phosphate

10. Which pair is a complementary base pair?

a) C-G
b) A-G

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
c) A-C
d) G-G

11. Phosphoric acid can be joined with OH group of a pentose sugar with help of

a) Phosphodiesterbond
b) Ionicbond
c) Covalentbond
d) Esterlinkage

12. Gene expression is activation of a gene to produce a specific __________ .

a) Protein
b) TRNA
c) Amino acid
d) DNA

13. To which of the following does guanine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

a) Adenine
b) Thymine
c) Cytosine
d) Guanine

14. The variable portion of DNA is the sequence of _

a) Phosphoric acids
b) Sugars
c) Bases
d) Phosphates

15. The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA

a) Connect the sugar to the base


b) Can be hydrolyzed by OH- ion
c) Stabilize Watson-Crick H-bonds
d) Are free to rotate over about 180°

16. Which of the following will not be found in DNA?

a) Thymine
b) Uracil
c) Adenine
d) Guanine

17. Which of the following statements is true?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Sugar component of a nucleotide is ribose
b) Sugar component of a nucleotide is deoxyribose
c) The bases in nucleotides are attached to a pentose sugar moiety by a glycosidic
linkage
d) The sugar molecule of the nucleotide is in L-configuration

18. The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is

a) Pentose
b) Hexose
c) Tetrose
d) Triose

19. To which of the following does thymine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

a) Adenine
b) Thymine
c) Cytosine
d) Guanine

20. According to Erwin Chargoff analysis, ratio of adenine and thiamine is

a) Equal
b) Unequal
c) Less
d) More

21. What term is used to describe the process by which DNA is copied to produce two
daughter DNA molecules?

a) Reproduction
b) Replication
c) Translation
d) Transcription

22. NAD is an abbreviation for

a) NicotineAbusiveDepartment
b) NicotineAvoidDirections
c) Nicotinamideadeninedinucleotide
d) Nicotinamidedinucleotide

23. A purine with an amine (NH2) group on the 6th carbon is

a) Adenine
b) Cytosine
c) Thymine

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Group#18
d) Guanine

24. What term is used to describe the process by which a segment of DNA is copied to
produce a molecule of messenger RNA?

a) Reproduction
b) Replication
c) Translation
d) Transcription

25. Which pyrimidine base contains an amino group at carbon 4?

a) Cytosine
b) Thymine
c) Uracil
d) Adenine

26. RNA is synthesized from DNA by process of

a) Translation
b) Transcription
c) Transgenic
d) Duplication

27. Nucleic acids

a) Are also called nucleotides


b) Do not contain purine
c) Are polymers
d) Do not contain uracil

28. What is the composition of nucleotide?

a) A sugar + a phosphate
b) A base + a sugar
c) A base + a phosphate
d) A base + a sugar + phosphate

29. Which of the following is a purine?

a) Cytosine
b) Adenine
c) Thymine
d) Uracil

30. The sugar in RNA is __________ , the sugar in DNA is __________

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Group#18
a) Deoxyribose, ribose
b) Ribose, deoxyribose
c) Ribose, phosphate
d) Ribose, uracil

31. Scientist who first isolated nuclei of pus cells was

a) F.Sanger
b) M.steward
c) F.Miescher
d) A.Einstein

32. Nucleic acids can be analyzed experimentally by their

a) Molecular weight
b) Absorption of visible light
c) Absorption of uv light
d) None of these

33. Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by

a) Phosphodiester bond
b) Peptide bond
c) Ionic bond
d) Covalent bond

34. Which of the following is found on RNA but not DNA?

a) Uracil
b) Deoxyribose
c) Phosphate
d) Adenine

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Group#18
Organic compounds
1. For complex molecules, a chemist usually represents a molecule by

a) Molecular formula
b) Skeletal formula
c) Structural formula
d) B and c

2. Almost 95% of compounds are of carbon because it can form

a) Single bonds
b) Double bonds
c) Triple bonds
d) Multiple bonds

3. All proteins are made up of a side chain and

a) Alpha-amino acid.
b) Amine.
c) A nitrogen atom.
d) Peptide.

4. The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of octane is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

5. Assuming straight-chain compounds, which of the following will have the highest boiling
point?

a) C3H8
b) C7H16
c) C11H24
d) They all have the same boiling point

6. Which of the following is a polymer?

a) Cellulose
b) Polyethylene
c) Wool

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Group#18
d) All are polymers

7. In naming alkane stem tells about the

a) Number of hydrogen atoms


b) Number of oxygen atoms
c) Number of carbon atoms
d) Number of bonds

8. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Hexane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Octane

9. A hydrocarbon is an organic compound consisting of

a) Water and carbon.


b) Any number of elements as long as they include carbon and hydrogen.
c) Carbon and hydrogen.
d) Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

10. Organic chemistry is the study of

a) Any compound from any living thing.


b) Carbon-containing compounds that were formed by living things.
c) Any compound with carbon as the principal element.
d) Noneoftheabove.

11. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Hexane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Octane

12. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Butane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Decane

13. Supporting the idea that the origin of life was the result of natural processes is the fact
that

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Group#18
a) Amino acids and other complex organic molecules have been found in meteorites and
comets.
b) In the laboratory amino acids, fatty acids, nitrogen bases, and other compounds can be
formed under simulated early Earth conditions.
c) The early Earth had oceans full of chemicals that may have been interacting to form
organic compounds.
d) All of the above are true.

14. Name the following compounds:

a) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
b) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylpenthane
c) 2-chloro-3-methylhexane
d) 2,3-dimethylbutane

15. A gasoline mixture of hydrocarbons that burns very rapidly has

a) A low octane number.


b) A high octane number.
c) Many branched chains.
d) Smaller hydrocarbon molecules.

16. Which of the following underlined atoms is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond
acceptor?

a) Amide nitrogen (RNHCOR')


b) Aniline nitrogen (ArNH2)
c) Amine nitrogen (RNH2)
d) Carboxylate oxygen (RCO 2-)

17. Which of the following functional groups is most likely to participate in a dipole-dipole
interaction?

a) Aromatic ring
b) Ketone
c) Alcohol
d) Alkene

18. Which of the following underlined protons is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond
donor?

a) Alcohol (ROH)
b) Amine (RNH2)
c) Phenol (ArOH)
d) Ammonium ion (RNH3+)

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Group#18
19. When wine "goes bad," the ethanol is converted into

a) CH3COOH.
b) CH3 OCH3.
c) CH3CH2OH.
d) CH3OH.

20. Name the following compounds:

a) 2,3-dimethylbutane
b) 1-bromo-3-methylpentane
c) 3-methylpentane
d) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

21. Name the following compounds:

a) 2,3-dimethylbutane
b) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
c) 3-methylpentane
d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

22. Name the following compounds:

a) 1-bromo-3-methylpentane
b) 3-methylpentane
c) 2-chloro-3-methylhexane
d) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

23. A hydrocarbon with two double covalent bonds between carbon atoms is a (an)

a) Alkane.
b) Alkene.
c) Alkyne.
d) Aromatic hydrocarbon.

24. Self-linking ability of carbon is called

a) Catenation
b) Sublimation
c) Hydrogenation
d) Carbonation

25. Fractional distillation

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Group#18
a) Is a basic process used in petroleum refining.
b) Involves heating crude oil and condensing the vapors at different temperatures.
c) When applied to crude oil can produce such products as gasoline, kerosene, and
lubricating oil stock.
d) All of the above are true.

26. Name the following compounds:

a) Cis-1-butene
b) 2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
c) Trans- ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
d) 3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

27. Organic compounds called isomers have

a) The same molecular formulas but different physical structures.


b) Different molecular formulas with the same physical structures.
c) Different molecular formulas with the same chemical properties.
d) Noneoftheabove.

28. As compared to its parent alkane, an alkyl radical contains

a) One less carbon


b) One less hydrogen
c) One more carbon
d) One more hydrogen

29. Only one benzene ring is present in compounds of

a) Aryl
b) Acryl
c) Carboxylic
d) Ketone

30. Two optical isomers are formed from carbon atoms to create bond

a) 4 atoms
b) 2 atoms
c) 1 atom
d) 3 atoms

31. An organic molecule with a general formula of ROH is a (an)

a) Ether.
b) Alcohol.
c) Organic acid.

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Group#18
d) Ester.

32. Organic compounds called aromatic hydrocarbons are compounds that

a) Have a wonderful odor.


b) Are based on the benzene rings structure.
c) Occur in nature with all carbons bonds saturated
d) Occur in nature with all carbon bonds unsaturated.

33. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Octane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Hexane

34. An organic molecule with a general formula of RCOOH is a (an)

a) Ester.
b) Organic acid.
c) Ketone.
d) Aldehyde.

35. Name the following compounds:

a) 2,3-dimethilhexane
b) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
c) 3-methylpentane
d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

36. Which of the following molecules has the highest carbon to hydrogen ratio?

a) Ethane
b) Ethane
c) Methane
d) Acetylene

37. The human body breaks down starches to

a) Monosaccharides.
b) Simple sugars.
c) Glucose.
d) Any of the above.

38. An alkane with 3 carbon atoms would have how many hydrogen atoms in the molecule?

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Group#18
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10

39. The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for

a) A reactive atom.
b) A separate functional group.
c) Any hydrocarbon group.
d) The right side of the molecule.

40. Element that is backbone of organic molecules is

a) Carbon
b) Hydrogen
c) Oxygen
d) All of them

41. Which of the following compounds cannot exist?

a) C2H3
b) C2H4
c) C3H8
d) C4H10

42. Rate of reaction of organic compounds is slow due to

a) Ionic bonding in them


b) Amphoteric nature
c) Covalent bonding
d) Coordinate covalent bonding

43. The direct reserve source of energy in the muscles of a human is

a) Glycol.
b) Glycerol.
c) Glycogen.
d) Dextrose.

44. Carbon can form many different compounds because it can

a) Make a molecule in the shape of a cube, tetrahedron, or cylinder.


b) Combine with other carbon atoms in addition to other elements
c) Combine with more metals than other elements.
d) Combine with more nonmetals than other elements.

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Group#18
45. The characteristic odor and taste of fruit such as bananas, oranges, and pineapples
comes from certain

a) Ketones.
b) Ethers.
c) Aldehydes.
d) Esters.

46. Name the following compounds:

a) 1-bromo-3-methylpentane
b) 2,3-dimethylbutane
c) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

47. Substances which are basis of human life on earth are

a) Atom
b) Molecules
c) Matter
d) Organic compounds

48. Fats and oils are esters formed from three fatty acids and glycerol into a (an)

a) Alpha-amino acid.
b) Polysaccharide.
c) Triglyceride.
d) Disaccharide.

49. Which of the following is not true about benzene?

a) It is a dark brown liquid in its natural state.


b) It does not mix with water.
c) It has a strong odor.
d) It can be used as a solvent.

50. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Hexane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Octane

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Soloutions
1. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to molality if the
solution is

a) Concentrated
b) Dilute
c) Saturated solution
d) All of the above

2. The determination of correct molecular weight from Raoults law is applicable to

a) A volatile solute in dilute solution


b) A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solution
c) A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solute
d) Non volatile solute in a dilute solution

3. Water of crystallization can be removed by

a) Drying
b) Heating
c) Evaporation
d) All of the above

4. The molar concentration is called?

a) The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution


b) The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution
c) The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution
d) The mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

5. Which one of the following salt does not hydrolyzed

a) Na2SO4
b) AlCl3
c) CuSO4
d) NH4Cl

6. Concentration of solute molecule when they are in equilibrium with solid substance at
particular temperature is called

a) Saturated solution
b) Solubility

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Group#18
c) Unsaturated solution
d) Super saturated solution

7. Which of the following solutions of H2SO4 is more concentrated?

a) 1 Molar solution
b) 1 molal solution
c) 1 normal solution
d) All have same concentration

8. 58.5g of ofNaCl per 1 dm3 of solution of NaCl in water the concentration of solution will
be

0.1 M

1m

1M

0.1 N

9. Which has the minimum freezing point?

a) One MolalNaCI
b) One molal KCI solution
c) One molal CaCI2
d) One molal urea solution

10. The molal boiling point constant is the ration of the elevation of boiling point to

a) Molarity
b) Molality
c) More fraction of solvent
d) Mole fraction of solute

11. If the volume of solution is equal to sum of volumes of its all components then the
solution

a) Will be an ideal solution


b) Will be non-ideal solution
c) Will show deviations from Raoults law
d) Both b & c

12. Which of the following is an example of liquid in gas solution.

a) Opals
b) Dust particles in smoke

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Group#18
c) Paints
d) Fog

13. The compounds in which water molecules are added are called

a) Hydrated ions
b) Double salts
c) Hydrates
d) Complexes

14. Which of the following is not a colligative property?

a) Lowering of vapour pressure


b) Freezing point
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Elevation of polling point

15. The component of solution which is in smaller amount is called

a) Solvent
b) Solute
c) Phase
d) Ion

16. Solution of Na2SO4 will be

a) Basic
b) Acidic
c) Neutral
d) Cannot be predicted without data

17. Which of the following unit of concertration is independent of temperature?

a) Molarity
b) Molality
c) Mole fraction
d) All

18. Solution with maximum concentration of solute at given temperature is called

a) Super saturated solution


b) Unsaturated solution
c) Saturated solution
d) Dilute solution

19. Number of moles in 1 kg of solvent is called

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Group#18
a) Normality
b) Molarity
c) Molality
d) Mole fraction

20. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is

a) Equal to the mole fraction of solvent


b) Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
c) Directly proportional to the mole fraction of solute
d) Both b & c

21. When common salt is dissolved in water?

a) Boiling point of water decrease


b) Boiling point of water increase
c) Boiling point of water remains same
d) None of the above

22. Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two compounds is called

a) Solution
b) Compound
c) Radical
d) Ion

23. Hydration is a process in which

a) Molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules


b) Ions are surrounded by solvent molecules
c) Both ions and molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
d) Both ions and molecules are surrounded by water molecules

24. 1 molar solution of glucose in water contains weight of glucose

a) 180g/dm3
b) 170g/dm3
c) 190g/dm3
d) 195g/dm3

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Group#18
Thermodynamics
1. The unit of energy in S.I. units is

a) Watt
b) Joule
c) Joule/s
d) Joule/m

2. In which ionic compound does the cation have the same number of electrons as the
anion?

a) LiF
b) NaCl
c) CaO
d) MgF2

3. At critical point the enthalpy of vaporisation is

a) Only dependent on temperature


b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Minimum

4. To which process does the term sublimation refer?

a) Solid to liquid
b) Liquid to solid
c) Solid to gas
d) Gas to solid

5. If the ∆H° for the reaction, 2 Mg (s) + 2 Cl2 (g) → 2 MgCl2 (s), is -1283.6 kJ, what is the
standard enthalpy of formation of magnesium chloride?

a) 0 kJ/mol
b) -320.9 kJ/mol
c) -641.8 kJ/mol
d) 1283.6 kJ/mol

6. Which of the following bonds is most polar?

a) B−O
b) B-F

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Group#18
c) C-O
d) C=O

7. A reaction has values of ∆H and ∆S which are both positive. The reaction

a) Is spontaneous
b) Spontaneity is temperature dependent
c) Has an increasing free energy
d) Is non-spontaneous

8. How are the boiling and freezing points of water affected by the addition of a soluble
salt?

a) The freezing and boiling points are both lowered.


b) The freezing and boiling points are both raised.
c) The freezing is lowered and the boiling point is raised.
d) The freezing is raised and the boiling point is lowered.

9. For a given substance, which of the following phase transitions is the most exothermic?

a) Solid → liquid
b) Gas → solid
c) Liquid → gas
d) Solid → gas

10. Of the following compounds, which one contains nitrogen in an oxidation state of +5?

a) NO2F
b) N2O3
c) NH4Cl
d) Mg3N2

11. An open system

a) Is a specified region where transfers of energy and/or mass take place


b) Cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings
c) Is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries
d) Has a mass transfer across its boundaries, and the mass within the system is not
necessarily

12. The following reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel at 200o C. CO(g)
+ 3 H2(g) → CH4(g) + H2O(g), ΔHo = −206 kJ Which of the following actions causes the
reaction to proceed from left to right in order to restore equilibri

a) Increasing the volume of the container, holding temperature constant


b) Adding some CH4 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
c) Adding some H2 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant

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Group#18
d) Increasing the temperature, holding the pressure constant

13. Natural oils, such as vegetable oil, are converted into solid, edible fats by a process
called

a) Fusion
b) Hydrogenation
c) Crystallization
d) Saponification

14. When temperature is increased, the rate of a reaction also increases. This observation
is best explained by

a) An increase in the frequency of molecular collisions


b) A decrease in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
c) An increase in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
d) An increase in the fraction of molecules that have enough energy to react

15. For a reversible adiabatic process the change in entropy is

a) Zero
b) Minimum
c) Maximum
d) Infinite

16. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system

a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Specific volume
d) Heat

17. What is the formula of magnesium sulfate?

a) MgS
b) MgS2
c) Mg3S2
d) MgSO4

18. The internal energy of a substance depends on

a) Temperature
b) Volume
c) Pressure
d) Entropy

19. If ∆H value is less than zero than reaction will be

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Group#18
a) Exothermic
b) Endothermic
c) May or may not be Exothormic or Endothermic
d) None of these

20. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?

a) HF
b) HCl
c) HBr
d) HI

21. What is the formula of the stable compound formed by magnesium and nitrogen?

a) MgN
b) Mg2N
c) Mg3N2
d) Mg2N3

22. A law which is applicable only to ideal vapours and liquids, that equates the equilibrium
partial pressures of a solution component in the coexisting phases, is known as

a) Henry's law
b) Joule's law
c) Fick's law
d) Roult's law

23. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is

a) Centigrade
b) Celsius
c) Farhenheit
d) Kelvin

24. The unit of length in S.I. units is

a) Meter
b) Centimeter
c) Kilometer
d) Millimeter

25. Which of the following is the strongest acid in water?

a) HBr
b) HOBrO2
c) HF
d) HI

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Group#18
26. In which of the following compounds does oxygen have the highest oxidation state?

a) CsO2
b) H2O
c) O2
d) OF2

27. What is the coefficient of O2 when the following equation is balanced? C10H8(s) + x
O2(g) → y CO2(g) + z H2O(l)

a) 1
b) 6
c) 7
d) 12

28. Whenever a system undergoes either a change in state or an energy or mass transfer at
a steady state, it is said to undergo

a) A change of state
b) A steady state transfer
c) A process
d) A thermodynamic change

29. Which of the following compounds will not undergo an acid-base (neutralization)
reaction with HClO4?

a) NaOH
b) Sr(OH)2
c) NH3
d) H2SO4

30. For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Infinite
d) Zero

31. For any reversible process, the change in entropy of the system and surroundings is

a) Zero
b) Minimum
c) Maximum
d) Infinite

32. A system consisting of more than one phase is known as

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Group#18
a) Open system
b) Isolated system
c) Closed system
d) Heterogeneous system

33. The unit of mass in S.I. units is

a) Kilogram
b) Gram
c) Tonne
d) Quintal

34. Which of the following has the same number of electrons as a water molecule?

a) H2S
b) BH3
c) OH−
d) BeH2

35. The reaction below reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel. C6H12O6(s) = 2
C2H5OH(l) + 2 CO2(g), ∆Ho = −72 kJ Which of the following actions causes an increase in
the value of Kc? (i) adding some CO2(g) (ii) transferring the reactio

(i) only

(ii) only

(iii) only

None of the above

36. An open system is one in which

a) Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
b) Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
c) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
d) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

37. When the following equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients,
what is the coefficient of O2? NH3 + O2 → NO + H2O

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

38. An isolated system is one in which

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Group#18
a) Mas does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
b) Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
c) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
d) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

39. Second law of theromodynamics defines

a) Heat
b) Enthalpy
c) Internal energy
d) Entropy

40. Mixture of ice and water from a

a) Closed system
b) Open system
c) Isolated system
d) Heterogeneous system

41. Which of the following compounds displays only covalent bonding?

a) NH4OH
b) Li2O
c) HOCN
d) NaNO3

42. Which is true for a spontaneous endothermic process?

a) ∆H<0
b) ∆G<0
c) ∆S<0
d) ∆G>0

43. Which of the following is a product of the reaction between H2SO4(aq) and NaOH(aq)?

a) H2(g)
b) H+(aq)
c) H2O(l)
d) O2(g)

44. Which of the following is incorrect?

a) The pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressure of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
b) The entropy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the entropies of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture

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c) The internal energy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum f the internal energies of the
indicudual components taken each at the temperature and the volume of the mixture
d) None of the above

45. In an isothermal process

a) Temperature increases gradually


b) Volume remains constant
c) Change in internal energy is zero
d) Pressure remains constant

46. The unit of time in S.I. units is

a) Second
b) Minute
c) Hour
d) Day

47. Each of two identical containers holds one mole of CH4gas and one mole SO2 gas, all
at the same temperature. Which of following statements is true?

a) The SO2 gas has a higher pressure.


b) The CH4 gas has a greater density.
c) The SO2 molecules move, on average, faster than the CH4 molecules.
d) Deviations from ideal gas behaviour are smaller for the CH4 gas.

48. The heat of combustion of C(s) is −394 kJ/mol and that of CO(g) is −111 kJ/mol. What is
the enthalpy change for the reaction below? CO(g) → C(s) + ½ O2(g)

a) 505 kJ
b) 283 kJ
c) 111 kJ
d) −283 kJ

49. General gas equation is

a) PV=nRT
b) PV=mRT
c) PV=C
d) PV=KiRT

50. Which of the statements concerning the structure of benzene is false?

a) The double bonds oscillate rapidly back and forth between adjacent pairs of carbon
atoms.
b) The H-C-C angles are 120o
c) The carbon atoms form a flat hexagonal ring.

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d) The oxidation state of carbon is −1.

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Group#18
Exam MCQs on chemistry
MODUL I
Composition and structure of atom. Periodic table of elements.
1. Smallest particle of an element which can take part in any chemical change.
a. nucleus
b. atom
c. proton
d. neutron

2. The atoms of same element having similar atomic number but different mass number are
a. isomers
b. isotopes
c. isoelectronics
d. steroisomers

3. Atomic number is number of


a. protons (p+)
b. electrons (e- )
c. neutrons (n0 )
d. nucleons (p+ and n0 )

4. The nucleus is composed of


a. protons and electrons
b. electrons and neutrons
c. protons and neutrons
d. only protons

5. Sum of protons and neutrons in an atom gives


a. nucleon number
b. mass number
c. atomic number
d. both A and B

6. Mass number is equal to the sum of the


a. protons and neutrons
b. electrons and protons
c. neutrons and electrons
d. only electrons

7. Particles which revolve around nucleus are called


a. proton
b. electrons
c. neutron
d. All of Above

8. Pathway of electron is called


a. orbit
b. orbital
c. axis
d. electric path

9. Mass number is designed as


a. Z
b. D
c. A
d. N

10. Principal quantum number (n) describes


a. the distance of electron from the nucleus and its energy
b. the shape of orbital
c. the magnetic properties of an electron and gives orientation of the orbital
d. the spin of an electron in the atom

11. Azimuthal quantum number (l) describes


a. the distance of electron from the nucleus and its energy
b. the shape of orbital
c. the magnetic properties of an electron and gives orientation of the orbital
d. the spin of an electron in the atom

12. The magnetic quantum number (m) describes


a. the distance of electron from the nucleus and its energy
b. the shape of orbital
c. the magnetic properties of an electron and gives orientation of the orbital
d. the spin of an electron in the atom

13. The spin quantum number describes


a. the distance of electron from the nucleus and its energy
b. the shape of orbital
c. the magnetic properties of an electron and gives orientation of the orbital
d. the spin of an electron in the atom

14. Number of protons and number of electrons are always equal in


a. neutral atom
b. molecules
c. ions
d. compounds

15. The total electron capacity of a principal level is calculated by


a. 2(n)
b. 2(n)2
c. 2(n)0
d. 2(n)10

16. The arrangement of electrons in atomic orbital is referred to as the atom’s


a. proton configuration
b. neutron configuration
c. electron configuration
d. element configuration

17. Metals tend to give electrons forming positive ions called


a. anions
b. cations
c. positrons
d. isotopes

18. Nonmetals tend to gain electrons forming negative ions called


a. anions
b. cations
c. positrons
d. isotopes

19. Neutrons (no) are neutral and carry


a. positive charge
b. negative charge
c. no charge
d. all

20. Protons (p+) and neutrons (no) are constitute the


a. nucleus
b. nucleon
c. orbital
d. diameter

21. Tiny area in centre of atom is concentrated with mass and is known as
a. proton
b. neutron
c. electron
d. nucleus

22. Chemical element contains only


a. one type of atom
b. two type of atom
c. atom and molecules
d. All of Above

23. Electronic configuration 1s22s22p2 corresponds to the particle


a. О2-
b. О2+
c. С2+
d. C2-

2s and 3s
Above given a pair of atomic orbital.
24. What do they have in common?
a. Size
b. Volume
c. Shape
d. Energy

25. Electronic configuration 1s22s2 corresponds to the particle


a. С-4
b. С+4
c. С+2
d. C2-

26. Electronic configuration 1s2corresponds to the particle


a. Н
b. Н+
c. Н-
d. He2+

27. Particles with the same electronic configuration


a. СI and Ar
b. CI- and Ar
c. CI- and F-
d. Na+ and Ar

28. Electronic configuration 1s22s22p63s23p6 corresponds to particles


a. argon atom and chlorine atom
b. аrgon atom and potassium atom
c. sulfide – ion (S-2) and lithium cation (Li+)
d. arhon atom and chlorine - ion
29. Electronic configuration 1s22s22p6 corresponds to
a. fluorine - ion
b. sodium atom
c. оxide –ion (O2-)
d. sulfide-ion (S2-)

30. Electrons number in the Са2+ ion is equal to


a. 18
b. 20
c. 22
d. 40

31. Electronic configuration 1s22s22p4 corresponds to the particle


a. N-
b. O2-
c. C2+
d. C4-

32. Find the particles with the same number of electrons?


a. helium atom Не and hydrogen – ion Н+
b. lithium - ion Li+ and lithium atom Li
c. nitrogen - ion N3+ and beryllium atom Ве
d. carbon С2+ and oxygen – ion О2-

33. Element is located in the representative (A group)) group 6 of the periodic table. Which
of the following ions are formed by this element?
a. Х-
b. Х2-
c. Х2+
d. X+

34. If atom at the beginning of the reaction gain three electrons and then gives out one
electron; which one of the following ions will be formed?
a. -3
b. -2
c. +2
d. +3

35. If atom at the beginning of the reaction loses three electrons and then gains one
electron; which one of the following ions will be formed?
a. +1
b. +2
c. +3
d. +4

36. Find the atom with a complete outer shell:


a. Сu2+
b. Мg 0
c. CI0
d. S2-

37. Find the atom with a complete outer shell


a. Са2+
b. Мg 2+
c. CI0
d. N3-

38. Which atoms have equal number of paired and unpaired electrons at normal state?
a. С
b. N
c. Na
d. S

39.Which of the following particles cannot give electrons?


a. С0
b. Al0
c. Al3+
d. N2+

40.Which of the following elements has valency in its compounds that corresponds to group
number on periodic table where it is located?
a. Fluorine (F)
b. Nitrogen (N)
c. Oxygen (O)
d. Sulfur (S)

41. How many protons (p) and electrons (e) does Si +4 ion consist?
a. 18р, 14е
b. 14р, 10е
c. 14р, 14е
d. 14p, 18e

42. Which of below given elements cannot show maximum valency correspond to the
number of group?
a. carbon
b. chlorine
c. phosphorus
d. fluorine
43. Below given model of ion?

What ion is it?


a. С0
b. С+2
c. С-2
d. C+4

44. Below fiven model of ion.

Which ion is it?


a. С+4
b. С-4
c. С+2
d. С-2

45. In outer shells of atom electronic formula consists of eight electrons, which elements is
it?
a. …..4р6
b. ......5d1
c. …..3р3
d. …..4f7

46. Which of following elements can form oxides corresponding to formulas XO2 and XO3
a. sulfur
b. nitrogen
c. carbon
d. phosphorus
47. As a result of gaining two electrons sulfur atom form an ion:
a. S2-
b. S6+
c. S4+
d. S0

48. As a result of losing six electrons sulfur atom forms an ion:


a. S2-
b. S6+
c. S4+
d. S0

49.Using below given electronic configuration of the atom determine the element:
3s23p3
a. Р
b. N
c. S
d. B

50. Using below given electronic configuration of the atom determine the element:
4s2
a. Be
b. Ca
c. Mn
d. K

Thermodynamics
51. Potential energy is
a. the energy an object has because of its relative position
b. energy that an object possesses because of its motion
c. the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules
d. is the energy that stored within the structural units of chemical substances

52. Kinetic energy is


a. the energy an object has because of its relative position
b. energy that an object possesses because of its motion
c. the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules
d. is the energy that stored within the structural units of chemical substances

53. Thermal energy is


a. the energy an object has because of its relative position
b. energy that an object possesses because of its motion
c. the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules
d. is the energy that stored within the structural units of chemical substances
54. Chemical energy
a. the energy an object has because of its relative position
b. energy that an object possesses because of its motion
c. the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules
d. is the energy that stored within the structural units of chemical substances

55. An exothermic reaction


a. release energy to surroundings
b. absorbed energy from the surroundings
c. release oxygen to surroundings
d. absorbed oxygen from the surroundings

56. An endothermic reaction


a. release energy to surroundings
b. absorbed energy from the surroundings
c. release oxygen to surroundings
d. absorbed oxygen from the surroundings

57. Enthalpy is a term that represents


a. heat energy
b. a level of randomness or disorder
c. a level of organization
d. a loss of electrons

58. Entropy is a term that represents


a. heat energy
b. a level of randomness or disorder
c. a level of organization
d. a loss of electrons

59. During any irreversible process, there is


a. Increase of entropy
b. Decrease of entropy
c. No change in entropy
d. None

60. Entropy increases with the


a. Addition of heat
b. Removal of heat
c. At constant heat
d. None
61. Which of the following processes should have ΔS < 0 ?
a. CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
b. H2O(s) →H2O(g)
c. 2 NO2(g) →N2O4(g)
d. NaCl(s) + H2O(l) → NaCl(aq)

62. Which one of the following process has ΔS > 0?


a. 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
b. 2NO2(g) → N2O4(g)
c. BaF2(s) → Ba2+(aq) + 2F–(aq)
d. CO2(g) → CO2(s)

63. Sodium reacts violently with water according to the equation below.
2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
The resulting solution has a higher temperature than the water prior to the addition of
sodium. What are the signs of ∆H° and ∆S° for this reaction?
a. ∆H° is negative and ∆S° is negative
b. ∆H° is positive and ∆S° is negative
c. ∆H° is negative and ∆S° is positive
d. ∆H° is positive and ∆S° is positive

64. With the rise of temperature in a system, sum of entropies of a system and its
surroundings
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. None

65. With the rise of pressure in a system, sum of entropies of a system and its
surroundings
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. None

66. The Third Law of Thermodynamics states:


a. If object A is in thermal equilibrium with object B, and object B is in thermal
equilibrium with object C.
b. The entropy of the universe increases for reversible processes.
c. ΔS = 0 for a pure element in its most stable state at standard conditions.
d. S = 0 for a perfect crystal of a pure substance at 0 K.

67. Which one of the following has the greatest entropy?


a. 1 mol N2(g) at 1 atm and at 400oC.
b. 1 mol N2(g) at 0.5 atm and at 400oC.
c. 1 mol N2(g) at 0.5 atm and at 700oC.
d. 2 mol N2(g) at 0.5 atm and at 700oC.

68. Which one of the following reactions is spontaneous at all temperatures?


a. CO2(s) →CO2(g) ΔH = +25.1 kJ
b. 2 NCl3(g) →3Cl2(g) + N2(g) ΔH = –460 kJ
c. 2 NF2(g) →N2F4(g) ΔH = –85 kJ
d. all of the above are spontaneous at all temperatures
e. none of the above

69. Thermodynamic quantity that expresses the degree of disorder in a system is


__________.
a. entropy
b. internal energy
c. heat flow
d. enthalpy
e. bond energy

70. Which one of the following is always positive when a spontaneous process occurs?
a. ∆Huniv
b. ∆Hsurr
c. ∆Ssurr
d. ∆Suniv
e. ∆Ssys

71. ∆S will be positive for the reaction __________.


a. 2H2(g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O(g)
b. 2NO2(g) → N2O4 (g)
c. BaF2(s) → Ba2+(aq) + 2F-(aq)
d. 2Hg(l) + O2(g) →2HgO(s)
e. CO2(g) → CO2(l)

72. Which one of the following processes produces a decrease in the entropy of the system?
a. dissolution of solid KCl in water
b. mixing of two gases into one container
c. freezing water to form ice
d. melting ice to form water
e. boiling water to form steam

73. Two gases are mixed. After mixing them, does the entropy of the system:
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stay the same
d. None of above: it depends on the individual situation

74. What is the factor that is responsible for salts like NaCl to dissolve in water easily?
a. Decrease in entropy
b. Increase in entropy
c. Increase in enthalpy
d. Decrease in enthalpy

75. The entropy will usually increase when


I. a molecule is broken into two or more smaller molecules.
II. a reaction occurs that results in an increase in the number of moles of gas.
III. a solid changes to a liquid.
IV. a liquid changes to a gas.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. IV only
e. I, II, III, and IV

Chemical kinetics and equilibrium


76. A first order reaction
a. a reaction whose rate depends on the reactant concentration raised to the first power.
b. a reaction whose rate depends on the concentration of one reactant raised to the
second power
c. a reaction whose rate is a constant, independent of reactant concentration.
d. a reaction whose rate depends on the concentration of reactant raised to the third
power

77. A second order reaction


a. a reaction whose rate depends on the reactant concentration raised to the first power.
b. a reaction whose rate depends on the concentration of one reactant raised to the
second power
c. a reaction whose rate is a constant, independent of reactant concentration.
d. a reaction whose rate depends on the concentration of reactant raised to the third
power

78. Unimolecular reaction is


a. a reaction that involves the only one molecule in one elementary step
b. a reaction that involves the participant of two molecules in one elementary step
c. a reaction that involves the participant of three molecules in one elementary step
d. a reaction that involves the participant of fort molecules in one elementary step
79. Bimolecular reaction is
a. a reaction that involves the only one molecule in one elementary step
b. a reaction that involves the participant of two molecules in one elementary step
c. a reaction that involves the participant of three molecules in one elementary step
d. a reaction that involves the participant of fort molecules in one elementary step

80. Termolecular reaction is


a. a reaction that involves the only one molecule in one elementary step
b. a reaction that involves the participant of two molecules in one elementary step
c. a reaction that involves the participant of three molecules in one elementary step
d. a reaction that involves the participant of fort molecules in one elementary step

81. Catalysis is
a. a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without itself being
consumed
b. a substance that decreases the rate of a chemical reaction without itself being
consumed
c. a substance that does not influence the rate of a chemical reaction
d. a substance that increases the energy of reaction

82. Heterogeneous catalysis


a. the reactants and the catalyst are in deferent phases
b. the reactants and catalyst are dispersed in a single phase
c. the reactants and catalyst are in liquid phase
d. the reactants and catalyst are in gaseous phase

83. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a. Temperature
b. Initial concentration of the reactants
c. Time of reaction
d. Extent of reaction

84. Which of following reactions is classified as a unimolecular?


a. 2NO + Br2 →2NOBr
b. CH3NC → CH3CN
c. CaO + CO2 → CaCO3
d. All of above

85. Which of following reactions is classified as a bimolecular?


a. 2NO + Br2 →2NOBr
b. CH3NC → CH3CN
c. CaO + CO2 → CaCO3
d. All of above

86. Which of following reactions is classified as a termolecular?


a. 2NO + Br2 →2NOBr
b. CH3NC → CH3CN
c. CaO + CO2 → CaCO3
d. All of above

87. Suppose the reaction: A + 2B → AB2 occurs by the following mechanism:

Step 1 A+ B → AB slow
Step 2 AB + B → AB2 fast
Overall A + 2B

88. The rate law expression must be Rate = _________.


a. k[A]
b. k[B]
c. k[A][B]
d. k[B]2
e. k[A][B]2

89. A possible mechanism for the reaction, 2A + B → C + D, is:

Step 1 A+ A ↔ A2 fast, equilibrium


Step 2 A2 + A → A3 slow
Step 3 A3 + B → A + C + D fast

According to the mechanism, the rate law will be:


a. Rate = k[A]2
b. Rate = k[A][B]
c. Rate = k[A]2[B]
d. Rate = k[A]
e. Rate = k[A]3

90. The slowest of the following reactions is:


a. a) Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → AgCl(s)
b. H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → 2H2O(l)
c. 3Ba2+(aq) + 2PO43-(aq) → Ba3(PO4)2(aq)
d. Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)

91. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide in the presence of iodide ion is believed to
occur via the mechanism
H2O2(aq) + I–(aq)→H2O(l) + IO–(aq)
H2O2(aq) + IO–(aq)→H2O(l) + O2(g) + I–(aq)
In this mechanism, I–(aq) is
a. a catalyst
b. a reactant in the overall reaction
c. a product of the overall reaction
d. an intermediate

92. If the rate law for a reaction is rate = k [A][B]2. Which one of the following statements
is NOT correct?
a. The reaction is first order in A.
b. The reaction is second order in B.
c. The reaction is second order overall.
d. The reaction is first order in A and second order in B, it has overall reaction order
3.

93. The rate law of the following overall reaction A + B →C is measured to be rate = k[A]2.
Which one of the following will NOT increase the rate of the reaction?
a. increasing the concentration of reactant A
b. increasing the concentration of reactant B
c. increasing the temperature of the reaction
d. adding a catalyst for the reaction

94. Write the expression for Keq for the reaction of ammonium ion with hydroxide ion
NH4+(aq) + OH-(aq) = NH3(aq) + H2O(l)

95. Consider the following reaction: C(s) + 2H2(g) ⇄ CH4(g) ΔH = -74.8 kJ. Which of
the following will cause an decrease in the value of the Keq?
a. increasing [H2]
b. decreasing the volume
c. finely powdering the C(s)
d. increasing the temperature

96. The enzymatic catalysis is


a. homogeneous
b. heterogenous
c. thermostable

97. Accordingly to the mass action law the reaction rate is directly proportional to:
a. the concentration product of the reactants
b. the ratio of the reactant’s product
c. log of the reactant product
98. Accordingly to van’t Hoff rule the increasing of temperature by 10 ОC leads to the
reaction rate
a. decrease in 3-4 times
b. increase in 3-4 times
c. increase in 2- 4 times
d. decraese in 2-4 times

99. The activation energy is


a. the maximum energy that is necessary to the reaction occurs
b. the minimum energy that is necessary to the reaction occurs
c. the average energy that is necessary to the reaction occurs

100. The function of enzymes is


a. the increase the activation energy;
b. the decrease the activation energy;
c. not affected on the activation energy.

101. The reaction rate of the fist order depends on:


a. the concentration of a single reactant
b. the amount of the reactants
c. the volume of the reactants
d. the concentration of a single product

102. The less it is the activation energy


a. the slower it is the reaction rate
b. the faster it is the reaction rate
c. the later it is the reaction rate

103. The reaction rate of the third order is depended on:


a. the concentration of the third reactants
b. the concentration of all three reactants
c. the concentration of the first reactan

104. Consider the following potential energy diagram for an equilibrium system:

105. When the temperature of the system is increased, the equilibrium shifts to the
________.
a. left and the Keq increases
b. left and the Keq decreases
c. right and the Keq increases
d. right and the Keq decreases

106. Consider the following potential energy diagram for an equilibrium system:

107. When the temperature of the system is increased, the equilibrium shifts to the
a. left and the Keq increases
b. left and the Keq decreases
c. right and the Keq increases
d. right and the Keq decreases

108. Ammonia, NH3, is produced by the following reaction:


N2(g) + 3H2(g) ↔ 2NH3(g) + energy
Which of the following would result in the highest concentration of ammonia at
equilibrium?

a. increasing the temperature and increasing the pressure


b. decreasing the temperature and increasing the pressure
c. increasing the temperature and decreasing the pressure
d. decreasing the temperature and decreasing the pressur

109. Consider the following equilibrium:


4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ↔ 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) + energy
Which of the following will cause the equilibrium to shift to the left?
a. adding H2O(g)
b. removing some NO(g)
c. increasing the volume
d. decreasing the temperature

110. Methanol, CH3OH, can be produced by the following:


CO(g) + 2H2(g) ↔ CH3OH(g) + energy
The conditions necessary to maximize the equilibrium yield of CH3OH are
a. low temperature and low pressure
b. high temperature and low pressure
c. low temperature and high pressure
d. high temperature and high pressure
111. Consider the following equilibrium:
2NO(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2NO2(g) + energy
When the volume of the container is increased, the equilibrium shifts to the
a. left and the Keq decreases
b. right and the Keq increases
c. left and the Keq remains constant
d. right and the Keq remains comstant

112. Consider the gas-phase equilibrium system represented by the equation:


2H2O(g) ↔ 2H2(g) + O2(g)
Given that the forward reaction is endothermic, which of the following changes
will decrease the amount of H2O?
a. adding more oxygen
b. adding a solid phase calalyst
c. decreasing the volume of the container (the total pressure increases)
d. increasing the temperature at constant pressure

113. The conventional equilibrium constant expression (Kc) for the system below is:
2ICl(s) ↔ I2(s) + Cl2(g)
2
a. [I2][Cl2]/[ICl]
b. [I2][Cl2]/2[ICl]
c. [Cl2]
d. ([I2] + [Cl2])/2[ICl]
e. [Cl2]/[ICl]2

114. Consider the equilibrium system:


2ICl(s) ↔ I2(s) + Cl2(g)
Which of the following changes will increase the total amount of of Cl2 that can be
produced?
a. removing some of the I2(s)
b. adding more ICl(s)
c. removing the Cl2 as it is formed
d. decreasing the volume of the container
e. all of the above

SOLUTION

115. Combination reaction is a reaction


a. in which two substances join to form another substance
b. produce two or more products from a single reactant
c. results in the formation of an insoluble product, precipitate.
d. involves the transfer of a hydrogen ion, H+, from one reactant to another.

116. Acid-Base reaction is a reaction


a. in which two substances join to form another substance
b. produces two or more products from a single reactant
c. results in the formation of an insoluble product, precipitate.
d. involve the transfer of a hydrogen ion, H+, from one reactant to another

117. Precipitation reaction is a reaction


a. in which two substances join to form another substance
b. produce two or more products from a single reactant
c. results in the formation of an insoluble product, precipitate.
d. involve the transfer of a hydrogen ion, H+, from one reactant to another

118. Decomposition reactions is a reaction


a. involve the joining of two or more elements or compounds, producing a product of
different composition
b. produces two or more products from a single reactant
c. results in the formation of an insoluble product, precipitate.
d. involve the transfer of a hydrogen ion, H+, from one reactant to another

119. Electrolyte is
a. a substance that dissolve in water to produce solution that conducts an electrical
current
b. a substance that, when dissolve in water, produces a solution that doesn’t conduct an
electricity
c. a substance that dissolve in water to produce oxygen
d. a substance that dissolve in water does not produce oxygen

120. Nonelectrolyte is
a. a substance that dissolve in water to produce solution that conducts an electrical
current
b. a substance that, when dissolve in water, produces a solution that doesn’t conduct an
electricity
c. a substance that dissolve in water to produce oxygen
d. a substance that dissolve in water not produce oxygen

121. A solution is made by dissolving some salt in a beaker of water. The salt is referred
to as the
a. solute
b. filtrate
c. solution
d. solvent

122. When KCl dissolves in water, the following will be produced.


a. K and Cl
b. K+ and Cl-
c. K and Cl2
d. K+ and Cl2

123. Solubility of a gas in liquid increases


a. Increase of pressure and increase of temperature
b. Decrease of pressure and increase of temperature
c. Increase of pressure and decrease of temperature
d. Deccrease of pressure and decrease of temperature

124. Molarity of a solution is expressed as:


a. the number of moles per kilogram of solvent
b. the number of moles per kilogram of solution
c. the number of moles per liter of solvent
d. the number of moles per liter of solution

125. Molality of a solution is expressed as:


a. the number of moles per kilogram of solvent
b. the number of moles per kilogram of solution
c. the number of moles per liter of solvent
d. the number of moles per liter of solution

126. Increasing in temperature of an aqeous solution causes


a. decrease in molality
b. decrease in molarity
c. decrease in mole fraction
d. all of them

127. Which one of the following is not a colligative property?


a. Osmotic pressure
b. Elevation of boiling point
c. Freezing point
d. Depression in freezing point

128. The value of Ebullioscopic constant of boiling point elevation constant depends
on:
a. amount of solute
b. nature of solute
c. amount of solvent
d. nature of solvent

129. Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:


a. an increase in melting point of the liquid
b. a decrease in the boiling point of the liquid
c. a decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid
d. no change in the boiling point of the liquid

130. Haemolysis is the phenomenon on which cells are swelled up and then burst if
placed in a:
a. isotonic solution
b. none of these
c. hypertonic solutions
d. hypotonic solution
131. When a solute is dissolved in water it shows:
a. decrease in freezing point of water
b. decrease in boiling point of water
c. increase in vapour pressure of water
d. all of the above

132. When sugar is added to water, what is the change observed in boiling and freezing
points of water?
a. Both boiling point and freezing point decreases
b. Both boiling point and freezing point increases
c. Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases
d. Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases

133. When blood cell is placed in water containing less than 0.9% salt (mass/volume)
than
a. blood cell collapses
b. blood cell burst
c. blood cell shrinks
d. blood cell remain unaffected

134. The process of cells by which they absorb solvent when placed in hypotonic
solution and get swelled up is called
a. haemolysis
b. plasmolysis
c. exosmosis
d. none of these

135. When red blood cells are placed in 95% NaCl, they shrink. This is called
a. haemolysis
b. plasmolysis
c. endoosmosis
d. none of these

136. Which of the following pairs of solutions are isotonic?


a. 1 M Urea and 1 M KCl
b. 1 M Urea and 0.01 M Glucose
c. 1 M KCl and 1 M BaCl2
d. 1 M urea and 1 M Sucrose

137. Which of the following will have the highest Boiling Point?
a. 1 % Urea in water
b. 1 % Sucrose in water
c. 1 % NaCl in water
d. 1 % glucose in water

138. In medicine we use isotonic NaCl solution with mass fraction there of:
a. 1 %
b. 0,5 %
c. 0,8 %
d. 0,9 %

139. Physiological or isotonic solution is recalled:


a. 0.9 % solution of Na2SO4
b. 0.9 % solution of NaCl
c. 0.9 % solution of NaNO3
d. 0.9 % solution of NaNO2

140. In medicine using hypertonic NaCl solution with mass fraction:


a. 1%
b. 0. 8%
c. 0. 9%
d. 10 %

141. The minimum freezing point is that of


a. 0.01 m NaCl
b. 0.005 m MgI2
c. 0.005 m C2H5OH
d. 0.001 m MgSO4

142. Osmosis is a phenomen in which


a. Solvent molecules move from higher to lower concentration of solution
b. Solvent molecules move from lower to higher concentration of solution
c. Solute molecules move from higher to lower concentration of solution
d. Solute molecules move from lower to higher concentration of solution

143. A 0.1 M glucose solution and 0.1 M urea solution are placed on the two sides of
semi-permeable membrane which is the corect observation?
a. There will be net movement across the membrane
b. Glucose solution will flow into the urea solution
c. Urea solution will flow into glucose solution
d. Water will flow from urea solution into the glucose solution

144. A semi-permeable membrane allows the passage of


a. solute molecules only
b. Solvent molecules only
c. Both solute and solvent molecules
d. None of these

145. Which involve osmosis?


a. Crenation
b. Haemolysis
c. Plasmolysis
d. All of these
146. As a result of osmosis from pure solvent to a solution the volume of the solution
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Neither a nor b
d. Depends on the solution

147. Two solutions are isotonic if


a. they have the same boiling point
b. they have the same freezing point
c. they have the same osmotic pressure
d. All of these

148. Which of the following has minimum freezing point


a. 0.1 M K2Cr2O7
b. 0.1 M NH4Cl
c. 0.1 M BaSO4
d. 0.1 M Al2(SO4)3

149. Which of the following pair of solutions are expected to be isotonic at the same
temperature?
a. 0.2 M Urea and 0.2 M NaCl
b. 0.1 M Urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
c. 0.1 NaCl and 0.1 Na2SO4
d. 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4

150. Which of the following aquest solutions has the highest boiling point
a. 0.1 M KNO3
b. 0.1 M Na3PO4
c. 0.1 M BaCl2
d. 0.1 M K2SO4

151. Сhoose primary location of Na in human body:


a. Intracellular
b. Extracellular
c. both of them

152. Сhoose primary location of K in human body:


a. Intracellular
b. Extracellular
c. both of them

153. The principal cation of extracellular fluid


a. Na
b. K
c. Mg
d. Ca
154. The principal cation of intracellular fluid
a. Na
b. K
c. Mg
d. Ca

155. The normal concentration of sodium in the plasma


a. 135-145 mEq/l
b. 3.5-5.5 mEq/l
c. 2-3 m/dl
d. 9-11 mg/dl

156. The normal concentration of potassium in the plasma


a. 135-145 mEq/l
b. 3.5-5.5 mEq/l
c. 2-3 m/dl
d. 9-11 mg/dl

157. Which of following is a hypotonic solution?


a. 10% dextrose in water
b. 0.45% sodium chloride
c. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
d. Oceans

158. Which of following is an isotonic solution?


a. 0. 9% sodium chloride
b. 0.45% sodium chloride
c. Oceans
d. 10% dextrose in water

Proteolytic theory
159. Arrhenius defined an acid as:
a. a species that can donate a proton.
b. a species that can accept a proton.
c. a source of OH- ions in water.
d. a sourse of H+ ions in water.

160. In the Bronsted-Lowry system, a base is defined as:


a. a proton donor.
b. a hydroxide donor.
c. an electron-pair acceptor.
d. a water-former.
e. a proton acceptor.

161. Which of the following structures represents the conjugate acid of HPO42- ?
a. H2PO4-
b. H3PO4
c. H4PO4+
d. PO43-

162. Which of the following relationships is true for an acidic solution at 25ºC?
a. [H+] > [OH-]
b. pH > 7.00
-14
c. Kw > 1 10
d. The solution is negatively-charged

163. A specie which is able to accept a proton is called


a. acid
b. base
c. neutral compound
d. cation

164. Substances that react with both acids and bases are called
a. neutral
b. conjugate bases
c. amphoteric substances
d. conjugate acids

165. The Bronsted-Lowry acid in the reaction H2O + NH3 → NH4+ + OH- is
a. H2O
b. NH3
c. OH-
d. NH4+

166. A specie which is able to accept a proton is called


a. acid
b. base
c. neutral compound
d. cation

167. If the pH value is greater than 7, then solution is


a. acidic
b. basic
c. neutral
d. salty

168. The pH of water is


a. 8
b. 3
c. 2
d. 7

169. As an electrolyte, water is


a. strong
b. neutral
c. weak
d. a good insulator

170. In pure water, the concentrations of


a. H+ and OH- ions are equal
b. H+ ions is more
c. OH- ions is more
d. Cl- is more

171. Acids ionize in water to produce


a. OH- ions
b. H+ ions
c. SO4-2 ions
d. H2O molecules

172. Acidosis - a shift in blood pH:


a. the alkaline side
b. the acid side
c. to pH 7

173. Alkalosis - a shift in blood pH:


a. the acid side
b. the alkaline side
c. to pH 7

174. Which ones of the following couples are acids in given reaction?
H2PO4- + HSO3- ↔ HPO4- + H2SO3

a. H2PO4- and H2SO3


b. HSO3- and H2SO3
c. HSO3- and HPO4-
d. H2PO4- and HPO4-

175. Which ones of the following couples are base in given reaction?
H2PO4- + HSO3- ↔ HPO4- + H2SO3
a. H2PO4- and H2SO3
b. HSO3- and H2SO3
c. HSO3- and HPO4-
d. H2PO4- and HPO4-

176. For the system shown here: HOBr + OH- ↔ H2O + OBr-. Bronsted would classify
the base species as:
a. OH- and HOBr
b. H2O and OH-
c. OBr- and OH-
d. OBr- and HOBr
e. H2O and HOBr

177. Which equation depics hydrocyanic acid, HCN, behaving as a Bronsted –Lowry
acid in water
a. HCN(aq) + OH-(aq) = OCN-(aq) + H2(g)
b. HCN(aq) + H3O+(aq) = H2CN+(aq) + H2O(l)
c. HCN(aq) + H2O(l) = CN- (aq) + H3O+(l)
d. CN-(aq) + H2O(l) = OCN-(aq) + H2(g)

178. In the equation: HF + H2O → H3O+ + F-


a. H2O is a base and HF is its conjugate acid.
b. H2O is an acid and HF is the conjugate base.
c. HF is an acid and F- is its conjugate base.
d. HF is a base and H3O+ is its conjugate acid.
e. HF is a base and F- is its conjugate acid.

179. All of the following species behave as Bronsted –Lowry acids EXCEPT
a. HCl
b. HCN
c. NH3
d. NH4+

180. All of the following species behave as Bronsted –Lowry base EXCEPT _____
a. CO32-
b. PO43-
c. NH3
d. HSO4-

181. Ion product of water is:


a. the sum of the concentrations of protons and hydroxide ions
b. the difference between of concentrations of protons and hydroxide ions
c. the product of the concentrations of protons and hydroxide ions
d. the ratio of the concentrations of protons and hydroxide ions

182. Equations of ion product of water:


a. [Н+] +[ОН-] = 1.0∙10-14
b. [Н+] / [ОН-] = 1.0∙10-14
c. [H+][OH-] = 1.0 ∙ 10-14
d. [OН-] / [Н+] = 1.0∙10-14

183. pH of gastric juice is:


a. 7.0 – 7.2
b. 0.9 - 1.1
c. 3.1 - 4.4
d. 7.4 - 8.0
184. pH of urine is:
a. 4.8 – 7.5
b. 6.35 – 6.85
c. 7.36 - 7.42
d. 7.5 – 8.0

185. pH of saliva
a. 0.9 - 1.1
b. 6.35 – 6.85
c. 7.36 - 7.42
d. 7.5 – 8.0

186. pH of pancreatic juice


a. 0.9 - 1.1
b. 6.35 – 6.85
c. 7.36 - 7.42
d. 7.5 – 8.0

Buffer solutions
187. Systems that do not change the pH by adding small amounts of strong acid or
alkali, and during breeding are called:
a. colloidal
b. buffer
c. real

188. Buffer action - the ability to buffer solution consistently keep a constant:
a. molar concentration of component
b. pH
c. the dissociation constants of weak electrolyte

189. Composition of acid buffer system type are:


a. strong acids and bases
b. a weak acid and its salt, which formed by strong base
c. strong acid and its salt, which formed a strong base

190. Composition of phosphate buffer:


a. Na3PO4 + NaH2PO4
b. Na2НPO4 + NaH2PO4
c. K3PO4 + NaH2PO4

191. Composition of buffer systems of general type:


a. strong acid and weak base
b. a weak base and its salt, which formed a strong acid
c. strong acid and its salt, which formed a strong base

192. Aques solutions freeze at temperatures:


a. 0O C
b. above 0OC
c. below 0OC

193. Which of the following are capable of forming a buffer solution?


a. HCl and KCl
b. HNO3 and KNO3
c. H2SO4 and Na2SO4
d. H2CO3 and Na2CO3

194. Which of the following are capable of forming a buffer solution?


a. NH3 and NH4Cl
b. HNO3 and KNO3
c. H2SO4 and Na2SO4
d. HCl and KCl

195. Choose acid buffer:


a. H2CO3/NaHCO3
b. NH4OH/NH4Cl
c. NaH2PO4/ Na2HPO4
d. Na2B4O7/NaOH

196. Choose base buffer:


a. NH4OH/NH4Cl
b. H2CO3/NaHCO3
c. H2SO3/NaHSO3
d. Na2B4O7/NaOH

197. Composition of acetate buffer:


a. СН3СООН + СН3СООС2Н5
b. СН3СООН + NaOH
c. СН3СООН + СН3СООNa
d. СН3СООН + СH3COONH4

198. Composition of bicarbonate buffer:


a. H2CO3 + NaHCO3
b. H2CO3 + NаCl
c. NaHCO3 + NаCl
d. H2CO3 + KCl

199. The equation calculating the pH buffer bicarbonate buffer system:

a.

b.

c.
d.

200. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of acetate buffer solution at presence of


alkalis:
a. CH3COOH + OН- =CH3COO - + H2O
b. CH3COO- + H+= CH3COOH
c. CH3COOH = CH3COO +H+
d. CH3COO- +H2O = CH3COOH + OH-

201. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of acetate buffer solution at presence of acids:
a. CH3COO- +H+ = CH3COOH
b. CH3COOH + H+= CH3COOH2+
c. CH3COOH = CH3COO-+ H+
d. CH3COO-+ H2O = CH3COOH +OH-

202. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of bicarbonate buffer solution at presence of


alkalis:
a. H2CO3 + OH- = HCO3- +H2O
b. HCO3- + OH- = CO32- +H2O
c. HCO3- + H+ = H2CO3
d. HCO3- + H2O = H2CO3 +OH-

203. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of bicarbonate buffer solution at presence of


acids:
a. HCO3- + H+ = H2CO3
b. CO32- + H+ = HCO3-
c. HCO3- + OH- = CO32- + H2O
d. H2CO3= HCO3- + H+
e. HCO3- + H2O = H2CO3 +OH-

204. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of ammonia buffer solution at presence of


alkalis:
a. NH4+ + OH- = NH3 + H2O
b. NH4OH + H+ = NH4+ + H2O
c. NH4OH = NH4+ + OH-
d. NH3 + H2O = NH4OH
e. G. NH3 + H+ = NH4+

205. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of ammonia buffer solution at presence of


acids:
a. NH3 + H+ = NH4+
b. NH4+ = NH3 + H+
c. NH4OH = NH4+ + OH-
d. NH3 + H2O = NH4OH
206. Choose mechanism of buffer effect of phosphate buffer solution at presence of
acids:
a. HPO42- + H+ =H2PO4-
b. H2PO4- + H+ =H3PO4
c. PO43- + H+ = HPO42-
d. HPO42- + OH- = PO43- +H2O

207. Choose formula of calculation of pH of buffer solutions:


a. pH=pKa+ lg(Cb/Ca)
b. pH=1/2 pKa-1/2 lgCa
c. pH=7+ 1/2 pKa+ 1/2 lgCb
d. pH = -lg[H+]

208. Choose buffer solution which presence in the human body:


a. Bicarbonate
b. Acetate
c. Borate
d. Ammonia

209. Choose buffer solution which presence in the human body:


a. Phosphate
b. Acetate
c. Borate
d. Ammonia

210. Choose buffer solution which presence in the human body:


a. Protein
b. Acetate
c. Borate
d. Ammonia

211. Choose buffer solution which presence in the human body:


a. Bicarbonate
b. Acetate
c. Borate
d. Ammonia

212. Choose buffer solution which presence in the human body:


a. Acetate
b. Hemoglobine
c. Borate
d. Ammonia

213. What normal range of pH of blood:


a. 7. 36 – 7.42
b. 6. 90 – 7.00
c. 8.20 - 8.40
d. 7.10 - 7.20
214. Choose effect of hypoventilation:
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

215. Which of the following describes the distribution of sodium and potassium
between cells and body fluids?
a. K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids
b. Na+ mainly in the cells, K+ in the body fluids
c. equal amounts of each ion in the cells and body fluids
d. little of either in the cells, but large amounts of each in the body fluids

216. A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to
pneumonia or emphysema indicates
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

217. Choose effect of hyperventilation:


a. respiratory alkalosis
b. respiratory acidosis
c. metabolic alkalosis
d. pH of blood not change

Electrochemistry
218. Identify the oxidizing agent in the following redox reaction:
MnO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2Cl−(aq) → Mn2+(aq)+2H2O(l) + Cl2(g)
a. MnO2
b. H+
c. Cl-
d. Cl2

219. Identify the reducing agent in the following redox reaction:


MnO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2Cl−(aq) → Mn2+(aq)+2H2O(l) + Cl2(g)
a. MnO2
b. H+
c. Cl-
d. Cl2

220. Identify the oxidized agent in the following redox reaction:


MnO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2Cl−(aq) → Mn2+(aq)+2H2O(l) + Cl2(g)
a. MnO2
b. H+
c. Cl-
d. Cl2
221. Identify the reduced agent in the following redox reaction:
MnO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2Cl−(aq) → Mn2+(aq)+2H2O(l) + Cl2(g)
a. MnO2
b. H+
c. Cl-
d. Cl2

222. For the reaction, 2NO2(g) + 7H2(g) → 2NH3(g) + 4H2O(g) is hydrogen


a. an oxidizing agent
b. a reducing agent
c. an oxidized agent
d. a reduced agent

223. Identify the reducing agent in the following redox reaction:


5SO32− + 2MnO4−+ 6H+→ 5SO42− + 2Mn2+ + 3H2O
a. SO32-
b. MnO4-
c. SO42-
d. Mn2+

224. What is the oxidizing agent in the following redox reaction?


Zn(s)+Cu2+(aq)→Zn2+(aq)+Cu(s)
a. Zn
b. Cu2+
c. Zn2+
d. Cu

225. Determine the oxidizing agent of the following chemical equation for aerobic
respiration:
C6H12O6(s)+6O2(g)→6CO2(g)+6H2O(l)
a. C6H12O6
b. O2
c. CO2
d. H2O

226. Determine the reducing agent of the following chemical equation for aerobic
respiration:
C6H12O6(s)+6O2(g)→6CO2(g)+6H2O(l)
a. C6H12O6
b. O2
c. CO2
d. H2O

227. In a redox reaction, there must be


a. an oxidizing agent and no reducing agent
b. a reducing agent and no oxidizing agent
c. a reducing agent and an oxidizing agent
d. no reducing or oxidizing agent

228. Which of the following is a strong reducing agent?


a. NO3−
b. NO
c. N2H4
d. NH3

229. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing agent?


a. NO3−
b. NO
c. N2H4
d. NH3

230. Consider the following reaction:


4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2O
The element being oxidized and the oxidizing agent are:
a. N and NH3
b. N and O2
c. O and NH3
d. O and O2
e. H and NH3

231. Given that the Activity Series is: Na>Mg>Cu>Ag>Au, which one of the following
answers represents the ions that would not be displaced from aqueous solution (reduced)
by metallic magnesium?
a. Na+
b. Cu2+
c. Cu2+ and Au+
d. Cu2+, Ag+ and Au+
e. Na+, Cu2+, Ag+ and Au+

232. Of the following, the metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of aqueous
solution of its salt is:
a. Cr
b. Cu
c. Mg
d. Ag

233. When aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolysed


a. Cl2 is evolved at the cathode
b. H2 is evolved at cathode
c. Na is deposited at the cathode
d. Na appears at the cathode
234. During electrolysis of KNO3, H2 is evolved
a. anode
b. cathode
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of these

235. During electrolysis of CuSO4(aq) Cu is deposited at


a. anode
b. cathode
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of these

236. An aqueous Mg(NO3)2 solution is electrolyzed. What are the products at the
anode?
a. O2
b. H2
c. N2
d. NO2

237. Electrolysis of aqeous solution of AgNO3 occurs according to following reaction


a. AgNO3 + H2O Ag↓ + Н2↑ + HNO3
b. AgNO3 + H2O Ag↓ + О2↑ + HNO3
c. AgNO3 + H2O Ag + Н2↑ + О2↑
d. AgNO3 + H2O Ag↓ + NO2 + Н2↑

238. Electrolysis of aqeous solution of BaBr2 occurs according to following reaction


a. BaBr2 + H2O Br2 + Н2↑ + Ba(OH)2
b. BaBr2 + H2O Br2 + Ba↓ + H2O
c. BaBr2 + H2O Br2 + О2↑ + Ba(OH)2
d. BaBr2 + H2O Br2 + О2↑ + Ba↓

239. An aqueous Na2SO4 solution is electrolyzed. What are the products at the anode
and cathode?
a. H2 and O2
b. Na and O2
c. H2 and SO3
d. Na and SO42-

240. In a galvanic cell, the reaction occurs 2H2O - 4e → O2↑ + 4H+. It occurs at the
a. anode
b. cathode
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of these

241. In a galvanic cell, the reaction occurs 2H2O + 2e → H2↑ + 2OH-.It occurs at the
a. anode
b. cathode
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of these

242. Strong reducing agents have


a. greater positive value of standard reduction potential
b. greater negative value of standard reduction potential
c. lesser positive value of standard reduction potential
d. none of these

243. Strong oxidizing agents have


a. greater positive value of standard reduction potential
b. lesser positive value of standard reduction potential
c. greater negative value of standard reduction potential
d. none of these

244. The electrode with more negative value of reduction potential acts as
a. Cathode
b. Anode
c. Electrode
d. none of these

MODUL II

Chemistry of biogenic elements


245. Choose macroelement:
a. Co
b. Zn
c. Na
d. Mn

246. Choose macroelement:


a. Cu
b. C
c. Со
d. F

247. Choose macroelement:


a. Ca
b. Bi
c. Te
d. Cs

248. Choose macroelement:


a. Hg
b. Mo
c. Sb
d. O

249. Choose microelement:


a. H
b. C
c. Mn
d. O

250. Choose microelement:


a. Na
b. Ca
c. Mg
d. Cu

251. Choose the organogenic elements


a. H, O, C, N
b. Na, K, Ca, N
c. H, O, C, Ca
d. H, C, Ca, Na

252. What natural compounds contents nitrogen?


a. Nucleic acids
b. Carbohydrates
c. Fats
d. All of above

253. What natural compounds contents nitrogen?


a. Fats
b. Carbohydrates
c. Proteins
d. All of above

254. A group of stable primary macroelements


a. Ca, S, Mg, Cl, Na, K, Fe
b. H, O, C, N
c. Hg, Cd, Cr, Tl
d. Cu, Zn, Mn, Co

255. A group of contaminating elements:


a. Ca, S, Mg, Cl, Na, K, Fe
b. H, O, C, N
c. Hg, Cd, Cr, Tl
d. Cu, Zn, Mn, Co

256. Choose s- biogenic elements


a. H, Na, K, Mg, Ca
b. H, N, K, Mg, Ca
c. H, C, N, O
d. H, O, K, Mg, Ca

257. Choose p- biogenic elements


a. H, Na, K, Mg, Ca
b. N, O, Cl, S, I
c. Mn, Zn, Cu, Co
d. N, Na, K, Mg, Ca

258. Choose d- biogenic elements


a. H, Na, K, Mg, Ca
b. N, O, Cl, S, I
c. Mn, Zn, Cu, Co
d. N, Na, K, Mg, Ca

259. Choose primary location of Na in human body:


a. Intracellular
b. Extracellular
c. both of them

260. The principal cation of extracellular fluid


a. Na
b. K
c. Mg
d. Ca

261. Disease state of calcium deficiency in human body is


a. rickets
b. anemia
c. endemic goiter
d. scurvy

262. The normal concentration of sodium in the plasma is


a. 135-145 mEq/l
b. 3.5-5.5 mEq/l
c. 2-3 m/dl
d. 9-11 mg/dl

263. What is biological role of sodium for human organism?


a. a contituent of DNA for genetic coding
b. maintenance of osmotic pressure of the body fluids
c. maintenance intracellular osmotic pressure
d. an essential component of bone, cartilage

264. The biological function of sodium is


a. taking part in coagulation of blood
b. activator of phosphorylation reavtions
c. structural component of vitamins thime, biotin, lipoic acid and pantotenic acid
d. takes part in the intestinal absorption of glucose, galactose and amino acids

265. The normal concentration of potassium in the plasma is


a. 135-145 mEq/l
b. 3.5-5.5 mEq/l
c. 2-3 m/dl
d. 9-11 mg/dl

266. The principal cation of intracellular fluid is


a. Na
b. K
c. Mg
d. Ca

267. What is biological role of potassium in the human organism?


a. a contituent of DNA for genetic coding
b. maintenance of osmotic pressure of the body fluids
c. maintenance intracellular osmotic pressure
d. an essential component of bone and cartilage

268. The normal concentration of calcium in the serum


a. 135-145 mEq/l
b. 3.5-5.5 mEq/l
c. 2-3 m/dl
d. 9-11 mg/dl

269. What is biological role of K for human organism?


a. Takes part in formation of connective tissues
b. Essential for bones and teeth
c. Mantains intracellular osmotic pressure
d. Takes part in the intestinal absorbtion of glucose, galactosed and amino acids

270. What is biological role of calcium for human organism?


a. A contituent of DNA for genetic coding
b. Maintenance of osmotic pressure of the body fluids
c. Maintenance intracellular osmotic pressure
d. It is required for the formation (of hydroxyapafite) and physical strength of skeletal
tissue

271. Choose functions of Mg in human organism:


a. Takes part in a regulation of water exchange
b. Can react with SH-groups of albumins
c. An activator of enzymes
d. Along with calcium essential for bones and teeth
272. The physiologically active form of calcium is
a. protein bound
b. ionised
c. complexed with citrate
d. complexed with carbonate

273. Calcium absorption is increased by


a. vitamin K
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin E

274. Choose biological importance of Ca:


a. Can depress a vasomoving center
b. Can depress the center of breathing
c. Mantains intracellular osmotic pressure
d. Takes part in the transmission of nervous impulse

275. Choose biological importance of Ca:


a. Can depress a vasomoving center
b. Can depress the center of breathing
c. Takes part in coagulation of blood
d. Mantains intracellular osmotic pressure

276. Deficiency of vitamin D causes


a. rickets
b. anemia
c. scurvy
d. night blindness

277. Several kinase enzymes (catalyses phosphorylation reactions) require the mineral
cofactor
a. Na
b. Mg
c. Ca
d. Ba

278. Biological importance of calcium in human body


a. necessary for the regulation of acid-base balance in the cell
b. essential constituents of skeletal structures such as bones and teeth
c. essential component of bone, cartilage
d. activates enzymes and proteins by phosphorylation

279. Which of the following regulates blood calcium?


a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E
280. Phosphorus is a component of the phosphate – and dihydrophosphate –ions of the
phosphate buffer system. Define the electronic configuration corresponding to the atom
of phosphorus in the structure of these ions:
a. 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
b. 1s22s22p63s23p4
c. 1s22s22p6
d. 1s22s22p63s23p2
e. 1s22s22p63s23p3

281. Point biological importance of Phosphorus compounds:


a. Can depress the center of breathing
b. Takes part in a regulation of water exchange
c. Coagulation of blood
d. Energetic exchange and deposition of energy

282. Biogenic p- element which is structural component of vitamins such as thymine,


biotin, lipoic acid and coenzyme A of pantotenic acid
a. C
b. P
c. O
d. S

283. The biogenic p - element which is requred as a component of thyroid hormones


(T3 and T4)
a. F
b. Cl
c. Br
d. I

284. The biogenic elements which involved in the regulation acid-base equilibrium,
fluid balance and osmotic pressure in the body are
a. Na, K, Cl
b. Na, K, Ca
c. Na, K, F
d. Na, K, I

285. Chlorine is biogenic p - element capable of generating anions with various


stability degrees. Determine an anion which has the smallest oxidative activity:
a. Cl-
b. ClO-
c. ClO2-
d. ClO3-
e. ClO4-

286. The biogenic element which takes part in mantaining a constant osmotic pressure
of biological liquids
a. Li
b. Na
c. Mg
d. Ca

287. For treatment of bone fracture doctor administrated medicines, which include the
s-biogenic element. Identify these element:
a. Li
b. Na
c. K
d. Ca
e. Mg

288. The processs of respiration is accompanied by the conversion of hemoglobin to


oxyhemoglobin. Determine biogenic p - element, which performs this conversion:
a. N
b. S
c. C
d. O

289. The inorganic element found in the structure of majority of high –energy
compounds
a. S
b. P
c. I
d. F

290. Choose biological impotance of manganese


a. Participate in transport of oxygen
b. Increases activity of thyroid gland
c. Maintenance of thyroxin in blood
d. Inhibits lipid peroxidation

291. Choose biological importance of iron


a. Increases activity of thyroid gland
b. Promotes hormonal activity of front stake of hypophysis
c. Formation of teeth
d. Paticipate in transport of oxygen.

292. The biogenic d - element is manly required for O2 transport and cellular
respiration
a. Fe
b. Zn
c. Mn
d. Co

293. What is biological role of cobalt compounds for human organism?


a. It is essential for red blood cell formation and the maintenance of nerve tissue
b. It is involved in the process of accumulation and transfer of energy in the body
c. It is required for wound healing
d. It is involved in the regulation of acid-base equilibrium

294. Iron is transported in the plasma in a bound form by the protein


a. ferritine
b. transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. ferroalbumin

295. Copper containing protein involved on the conversion of ferrious ion (Fe 2+) to
ferric ion (Fe3+) in the plasma is
a. ferritine
b. transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. ferroalbumin

296. The biogenic d - element that is necessary for the storage and secration of insulin
and maintainance of normal vitamin A in serum
a. iron
b. copper
c. zinc
d. calcium

297. Ceruloplasmin takes part in the transport of


a. iron
b. copper
c. zinc
d. calcium

298. The zinc containing protein in the saliva involved in taste sensation is
a. ferritine
b. albumine
c. gusten
d. ceruloplasmine

299. The following element is involved in wound healing


a. Fe
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Co

300. The element involved in the blood coagulation is


a. sodium
b. potassium
c. magnesium
d. calcium
301. The following substance(s) is (are) involved in the regulation of plasma calcium
level
a. Calcitriol
b. Parathyroid hormone
c. Calcitonin
d. All of them

302. The following element is involved in the biosynthesis of thyroid hormones


a. F
b. Cl
c. Br
d. I

303. Deficiency of iodine in the soil and water leads to development of


a. endemic goiter
b. diabetes mellitus
c. anemia
d. gastrite

304. The storage and secretion of insulin from the β-cells of pancreas required
a. Co
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Fe

305. Iron mainly exerts its functions through the compounds


a. hemoglobine and myoglobin
b. insuline and glucagon
c. transferrine and ferritine
d. ceruloplasmine and gusten

306. Hemoglobin is the most important chelate natural compounds of


a. iron
b. copper
c. manganese
d. zinc

307. Biologically important compounds of iron are


a. hemoglobin
b. myoglobin
c. cytochromes
d. All of them

308. Main physiological role of hemoglobine is


a. transport of O2 and CO2
b. transport of O2 and CO
c. regulation of blood glucose level
d. transport of O2 and OH- groups
309. Ferritin is a
a. storage form of iron
b. storage form of copper
c. transport form of iron
d. transport form of copper

310. Transferrin is a
a. storage form of iron
b. storage form of copper
c. transport form of iron
d. transport form of copper

311. The protein that transfers the iron


a. hemosiderine
b. transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. ferritin

312. Hemoglobin is the protein in the red blood cells and transports oxygen in the
body. Determine the element, which is a complexing in this compound:
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Magnesium
d. Calcium

313. The protein that is a storage form of the iron


a. hemosiderine
b. transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. ferritin

314. Cytochromes are necessary for


a. electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation
b. growth and bone formation
c. formation of myelin sheaths in the nervous systems
d. necessary to maintain the normal levels of vitamin A in serum

315. Which of following metalls is an integral component of vitamin B12


a. Mn
b. Mg
c. Cu
d. Co

Carbohydrates
316. The major functions of carbohydrates include
a. structural framework
b. stroage
c. both a and b
d. none of these

317. Thye main sources of carbohydrates are


a. milk
b. water
c. green plants
d. proteins

318. The general formula of carbohydrates is


a. (CH2O)n
b. (CH2O)2n
c. (CHO)n
d. (CnH2nO)

319. The general formula of monosaccharides is


a. CnH2nOn
b. C2nHnOn
c. CnH2nO
d. CnH2nO2n

320. The general formula of polysaccharides is


a. (C6H10O6)n
b. (C6H10O5)n
c. (C6H12O5)n
d. (C6H12O5)n

321. The suger found in in milk is


a. galactose
b. fructose
c. lactose
d. glucose

322. Most abundant carbohydrate which is found in nature is


a. fructose
b. glycogen
c. cellulose
d. pectin

323. Carbohydrates are


a. polyhydroxy aldehydes and phenols
b. polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones
c. polyhydroxy ketones and phenols
d. polyhydroxy phenols and alcohols

324. The smallest among carbohydrates are trioses. Which of the following is a triose?
a. glucose
b. ribulose
c. ribose
d. glyceraldehyde

325. Simplest carbohydrate is ….


a. Dihydroxy acetone
b. Ribose
c. Glucose
d. Sucrose

326. Which of the following is an aldotriose?


a. Dihydroxyacetone
b. Glyceraldehyde
c. Ribulose
d. Erythrose

327. Which of the following is an ketotriose?


a. Dihydroxyacetone
b. Glyceraldehyde
c. Ribulose
d. Erythrose

328. The only carbohydrate which is not having any chiral carbon atom is
a. glyceraldehide
b. dihydroxyacetone
c. erythrose
d. erythrulose

329. The minimum number of carbon required for a monosaccharides is


a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

330. The minimum number of carbon required for a ketose sugar to have cyclic
structure is
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

331. Which of the following is a pentose?


a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. ribose
d. glyceraldehyde

332. The sugar found in RNA is


a. ribose
b. deoxyribose
c. ribulose
d. erythrose

333. The sugar found in DNA is


a. ribose
b. deoxyribose
c. ribulose
d. erythrose

334. Which of the following is a hexose?


a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. ribose
d. glyceraldehyde

335. Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of …


a. L-type
b. D-type
c. D- and L-types
d. None of the above

336. Examples of Epimers are


a. glucose and galactose
b. glucose and ribose
c. succhrose and glucose
d. a and c

337. Monosaccharides have


a. oxidizing nature
b. reducing nature
c. redox nature
d. neutralizing nature

338. The red precipitate formed when glucose is heated with “Benedict’s reagent” is…
a. cupric hydroxide
b. cuprous hydroxide
c. cupric oxide
d. cuprous oxide

339. The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is


a. ribose
b. galactose
c. mannose
d. maltose

340. Which of the following are monosaccharides?


a. sucrose, maltose, lactose
b. glucose, fructose, galactose
c. glycogen, starch, cellulose
d. d. ribose, deoxyribose
e. glyceraldehyde, dihydroxyacetone

341. Which of the following is a disaccharide?


a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. ribose
d. glyceraldehyde

342. Which of the following is not a disaccharides?


a. Sucrose
b. Amylose
c. Lactose
d. Maltose

343. What is the molecular formula of Galactose?


a. C6H12O6
b. C12H22O11
c. C6H12O5
d. C5H12O6

344. What is the molecular formula of Lactose?


a. C6H12O6
b. C12H22O11
c. C6H12O5
d. C5H12O6

345. Galactose is a
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharide
d. triose

346. Lactose is a
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharide
d. triose

347. Sucrose is a
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharide
d. triose
348. Which of the following is not a reducing sugar?
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Galactose
d. Lactose
e. Sucrose

349. Maltose is a
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharide
d. triose

350. Which of following are further classified as trioses, tetroses, pentoses etc?
a. Monosaccharide
b. Disaccharide
c. Polysaccharide
d. Oligosaccharides

351. How many carbon atoms are contained by monosaccharides?


a. 2 to 9
b. 3 to 6
c. 4 to 8
d. 10 to 15

352. Which of following are classified as disaccharides, trisaccharides etc?


a. Monosaccharides
b. Disaccharides
c. Polysaccharides
d. Oligosaccharides

353. Which of the following is oligosaccharides?


a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Sucrose
d. Galactose

354. Which of the following are disaccharides?


a. sucrose, maltose, lactose
b. glucose, fructose, galactose
c. glycogen, starch, cellulose
d. ribose, deoxyribose
e. glyceraldehyde, dihydroxyacetone

355. Lactose is a disaccharides consists of


a. glucose and fructose
b. glucose and galactose
c. glucose and sucrose
d. glucose and ribose

356. Which of these are corect combinations of monosaccharides to form


disaccharides?
I. Glucose + Glucose = Maltose
II. Glucose + Fructose = Lactose
III. Glucose+Fructose = Sucrose
IV. Glucose + Galactose = Lactose

a. I, II, III only


b. II only
c. I, III, IV only
d. All of the above

357. Which of the carbohydrate molecule are non-reducing agents?


a. Glucose
b. Maltose
c. Fructose
d. Sucrose

358. What test is used for reducing sugars?


a. Biuret test
b. Benedict’s reagent
c. Seliwinoff’s reagent
d. Fehling’s reagent

359. In lactose, the linkage is


a. β (1→4) glycosidic linkage
b. β (1→2) glycosidic linkage
c. α (1→4) glycosidic linkage
d. α (1→2) glycosidic linkage

360. Maltose is obtained from


a. fruits
b. cereals
c. plants
d. sugarcane

361. In maltose, the linkage is


a. β (1→4) glycosidic linkage
b. β (1→2) glycosidic linkage
c. α (1→4) glycosidic linkage
d. α (1→2) glycosidic linkage

362. The glycosidic linkage between glucose molecule in maltose is


a. β (1→4)
b. β (1→2)
c. α (1→4)
d. α (1→2)

363. In sucrose, the linkage is


a. (α1→β2) glycosidic linkage
b. (β1→α2) glycosidic linkage
c. α (1→4) glycosidic linkage
d. α (1→2) glycosidic linkage

364. Maltose is a disaccharides consists of


a. glucose and fructose
b. glucose and galactose
c. glucose and glucose
d. glucose and ribose

365. Sucrose is a disaccharides consists of


a. glucose and fructose
b. glucose and galactose
c. glucose and glucose
d. glucose and ribose

366. Which of the following are polysaccharides?


a. sucrose, maltose, lactose
b. glucose, fructose, galactose
c. glycogen, starch, cellulose
d. ribose, deoxyribose
e. glyceraldehyde, dihydroxyacetone

367. Which bof the following is used in infant foods?


a. Protease
b. Amylase
c. Diastase
d. Lactase

368. On hydrolysis, lactose gives one glucose and one


a. fructose
b. galactose
c. glucose
d. maltose

369. Which polysaccharide is the chief constituents of the plant cell walls?
a. cellulose
b. chitin
c. glycogen
d. starch

370. Glycogen in animals are stored in


a. liver and spleen
b. liver and muscles
c. liver and bile
d. liver and adipose tissue

371. Nutritional polysacchrides are


a. starch and glycogen
b. starch and chitin
c. starch and cellulose
d. All of them

372. Amylopectin has


a. α(1 → 4) and α(1 → 6) linkage
b. α(1 → 4) and β(1 → 6) linkage
c. β(1 → 4) and β(1 → 6) linkage
d. ) α(1 → 2) linkage

373. The glycosidic linkage in cellulose is


a. β (1→4) glycosidic linkage
b. β (1→2) glycosidic linkage
c. α (1→4) glycosidic linkage
d. α (1→2) glycosidic linkage

374. Humans are unable to digest


a. starch
b. glycogen
c. sucrose
d. cellulose

375. Polysaccharides
a. contain many monosaccharides units which may or may not be of the same kind
b. function mainly a storage or structural compounds
c. are present in large amounts in the connective tissue
d. All of these

376. In polysaccharides, monosaccharides are joined by


a. peptide bond
b. glucose bond
c. glycosidic bond
d. covalent bond

377. Storage polysaccharides made by animals is


a. amylopectin
b. glycogen
c. cellulose
d. collagen

378. The end product of hydrolysis of starch by amylase is …


a. soluble starch
b. glucose
c. dextrins
d. maltose

379. What is the main source of energy for the brain?


a. Glucose
b. Glycogen
c. Starch
d. Sucrose

380. What are the two structures making up starch?


a. Amylose and cellulose
b. Amylose and amylopectin
c. Amilopectin and cellobiose
d. Cellobiose and cellulose

381. Starch is a example of


a. monosaccharides
b. disaccharides
c. oligosaccharides
d. polysaccharides

382. Excess energy is stored by plants in the form of


a. Starch
b. Glucose
c. Glycogen
d. Cellulose

383. Cellulose is made up of the molecules of


a. alfa glucose
b. beta glucose
c. Both of the above
d. None of these

384. A polysaccharides which often called animal starch is


a. glycogen
b. inulin
c. starch
d. dextrin

385. In human diet, cellulose is referred as


a. vitamin
b. fibre
c. lipid
d. protein

386. Cellulose is obtained from?


a. Animals
b. Microorganisms
c. Plants
d. All of these

387. Which of the following statements about starch and glycogen is false?
a. Amylase is unbranched; amylopectin and glycogen contain many α(1→6) branches.
b. Both are homopolymers of glucose.
c. Both serve primarily as structural elements in cell walls.
d. Both starch and glycogen are stored intracellulary as insoluble granules.

388. Starch and glycogen are both polymers of:


a. fructose
b. glucose 1-phosphate
c. sucrose
d. α-D-glycose

389. In what form is glucose stored in animal muscles and liver cells?
a. Glucagon
b. Glycogen
c. Vitamins
d. None of these

390. The end product of hydrolysis of starch by amylase is …


a. soluble starch
b. glucose
c. dextrins
d. maltose

391. Which of the following are the structural polysaccharides?


a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Cellulose
d) Glucose

392. Which of the following is an analogous to starch?


a) Cellulose
b) Glycogen
c) Sucrose
d) Chitin

393. In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants?


a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose
394. In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in liver?
a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose

395. Galactosemia is due to the deficiency of the enzyme


a. galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase
b. galactokinase
c. hexokinase
d. glucoso-6-phophatase

396. Galactosuria is due to the deficiency of the enzyme


a. galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase
b. galactokinase
c. hexokinase
d. glucoso-6-phophatase

Amino acids. Proteins.


397. Amino acids are
a. building blocks of carbohydrates
b. building blocks of nucleic acids
c. building blocks of lipids
d. building blocks of proteins

398. Amino acids have


a. both amino group and carboxyl group
b. both amino and keto group
c. amino group only
d. carboxyl group only

399. The simplest amino acid is


a. proline
b. methionine
c. glycine
d. serine

400. Sulfur containing amino acids are


a. cysteine and methionine
b. methionine and threonine
c. cysteine and threonine
d. cysteine and serine

401. Aromatic amino acids include


a. phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan
b. phenylalanine, serine and tryptophan
c. threonine, tyrosine and tryptophan
d. asparagine, tyrosine and tryptophan

402. Positivelly charged basic amino acids are


a. lysine and arginine
b. lysine and asparagine
c. glutamine and arginine
d. lysine and glutamate

403. Acidic amino acids include


a. arginine and glutamate
b. aspartate and glutamate
c. aspartate and asparagine
d. glutamate and glutamine

404. Amino acids with hydroxyl groups are


a. serine and alanine
b. alanine and valine
c. serine and threonine
d. valine and isoleucine

405. Which one is basic amino acids?


a. Glycine
b) serine
c) aspartate
d) arginine

406. Which of the following protein has storage capacity?


a) ovalbumine, casein
b) hemoglobine, myoglobine
c) actin, myosine
d) pepsine, trypsine

407. How many amino acids are synthesized by our body?


a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 20

408. The amino acids which are no synthesized by human body are called
a. simple amino acids
b. complex amino acids
c. essential amino acids
d. non-essential amino acids

409. Human body can synthesize only


a. Essential amino acids
b. Non-essential amino acids
c. Both A and B
d. None of these

410. Which of the following must be present in our diet?


a. Essential amino acids
b. Non-essential amino acids
c. Both A and B
d. None of these

411. An amino acid with sulfhydryle group on the side chain is


a. methionine
b. cysteine
c. threonine
d. all of these

412. Cysteine is
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar, neutral amino acid
c. polar, acidic amino acid
d. polar, basic amino acid

413. Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?


a. alanine
b. valine
c. leucine
d. isoleucine

414. What is the term used for the linkage which joints two amino acid units?
a. Amino group
b. Carboxyl group
c. Peptide bond
d. Dipeptide

415. At zwitterionic form, an amino acid will act as


a. proton donor
b. proton acceptor
c. proton donor and acceptor
d. none of these

416. Naturally occuring proteins are usually polymers of


a. D-amino acids
b. L-amino acids
c. A mixture of D- and L –amino acids
d. either D-amino acids or L-amino acids

417. Proteins that catalyze specific biological reactions whithout which life would be
impossible are called
a. gelatin
b. hormone
c. enzymes
d. lactase

418. The linkage that joints two amino acids is called


a. peptide bond
b. covalent bond
c. ionic bond
d. hydrogen bond

419. The resulting molecule after joining two amino acids is called a/an
a. peptide
b. dipeptide
c. peptide bond
d. amino group

420. Polar amino acids are usually found


a. on the surface of proteins
b. inside the core of proteins
c. at the sides of proteins
d. can be present anywhere in ptotein

421. Non - polar amino acids are usually found


a. on the surface of proteins
b. inside the core of proteins
c. at the sides of proteins
d. can be present anywhere in ptotein

422. One of few amino acids, cysteine is an amino acids that can be synthesized in the
human body and it contains
a. phosphoric acid
b. sulfur
c. phosphorus
d. magnesium

423. The ionic state of amino acids depends upon


a. pH of solution
b. pH of solute
c. pH of solvent
d. Pressure

424. At pH =1, the amino acids exists as


a. anion
b. cation
c. zwitterion
d. neutral
425. At pH =14, the amino acids exists as
a. anion
b. cation
c. zwitterion
d. neutral

426. At pH =7, the amino acids exists as


a. anion
b. cation
c. zwitterion
d. neutral

427. Arginine, lysine and histidine have basic side chains at


a. Acidic pH
b. Basic pH
c. Neutral pH
d. High pressure

428. Aspartate and glutamate have acidic side chains at


a. Acidic pH
b. Basic pH
c. Neutral pH
d. High pressure

429. Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the
physiological pH?
a. Valine
b. Leucine
c. Isoleucine
d. None of followings

430. The formation of dipeptide from two amino acids is accompanied by loss of
a. amine group
b. carboxyl group
c. sulfur
d. water molecule

431. Amino acids that can be found in proteins are


a. A- amino acids
b. B- amino acids
c. L- amino acids
d. D- amino acids

432. Proteins work in body to


a. transport and store oxygen and nutrients
b. speed up reactions
c. regulate important systems
d. all of above
433. An amino acid not found in proteins is
a. β – alanine
b. proline
c. lysine
d. histidine

434. Enzymes are protein in nature and are used as


a. biological catalyst
b. chemical catalyst
c. reaction inhibitor
d. reaction stopper

435. Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups


a) Alanine, leucine, isoleucine
b) Glycine, alanine, leucine
c) Lysine, arginine, histidine
d) Serine, threonine, cysteine

436. The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are
a) Aspartate and glutamate
b) Arginine and histidine
c) Cysteine and methionine
d) Proline and valine

437. Which among the following is both glucogenic and ketogenic?


a) Isoleucine
b) Leucine
c) Lysine
d) Histidine

438. Which of following amino acids is considered as both ketogenic and glycogenic?
a. Valine
b. Tryptophan
c. lysine
d. None of these

439. A ketogenic amino acid is


a. valine
b. cysteine
c. leucine
d. threonine

440. All of the following amino acids are both glycogenic as well as ketogenic except
a. isoleucine
b. leucine
c. tyrosine
d. phenylalanine
e. Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

1. During the formation of the peptide bond which of the following takes place?
a. Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen
atom is lost from its amino group of another amino acid
b. Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl
group is lost from its amino group of another amino acid
c. Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl
group is lost from its amino group of another amino acid
d. Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen
atom is lost from its amino group of another amino acid

441. The primary structure is represents


a. linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond
b. three dimentional structure of protein
c. helical structure of protein
d. sub unit structure of protein

442. The secondary structure is represents


a. linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond
b. three dimentional structure of protein
c. helical structure of protein
d. sub unit structure of protein

443. The tertiary structure is represents


a. Linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond
b. three dimentional structure of protein
c. helical structure of protein
d. sub unit structure of protein
444. The quaternary structure is represents
a. Linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond
b. three dimentional structure of protein
c. helical structure of protein
d. sub unit structure of protein

445. β-pleated sheets are the examples of


a. primary structure
b. secondary structure
c. tertiary structure
d. quaternary structure

446. A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds
in the same chain is
a. Primary structure
b. α-helix
c. β-pleated sheets
d. Tertiary structure

447. A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by
side is
a. primary structure
b. α-helix
c. β-pleated sheets
d. Tertiary structure

448. Secondary structure is defined by


a. hydrogen bonding
b. Vander Waals forces
c. covalent bonding
d. ionic bonding

449. Tertiary structure is maintained by


a. peptide bond
b. hydrogen bond
c. di-sulfide bond
d. all of the above

450. A tripeptide has


a. 3 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
b. 3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
c. 3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
d. 3 amino acids and 4 peptide bonds

451. Unfolding of a protein can be termed as


a. Renaturation
b. Denaturation
c. Oxidation
d. Reduction

452. What are the following is not a factor responsible for denaturation of proteins?
a. pH change
b. Organic solvents
c. Heat
d. Charge

453. The chirality of an amino acids results from the fact that its a carbon:
a. has no net charge
b. is a carboxylic acid
c. is bonded to four different chemical groups
d. is simmetric
454. Of the 20 standard amino acids, only ________ is not optically active.
a. alanine
b. glycine
c. lysine
d. proline

455. All of the amino acids that are found in proteins, except for proline, contain a(n):
a. amino group.
b. carbonyl group.
c. ester group.
d. thiol group.

456. Amino acids are ampholytes becouse they can function as either a(n):
a. acid or a base.
b. neutral molecule or an ion.
c. polar or a nonpolar molecule.
d. standard or a nonstandard monomer in proteins.

457. In highly basic solutuion, pH = 13, the dominant form of glucine is:
a. NH2 – CH2 – COOH
b. NH3+ – CH2 – COO-
c. NH2 – CH2 – COO-
d. NH3+ – CH2 – COOH

458. Proteins are polymers made of


a. α – amino acids
b. β- amino acids
c. α – fatty acids
d. monosaccharide’s

459. The amino acids are organic compounds contain


a. –NH2 and – COOH groups
b. –NH2 group
c. – COOH group
d. –NH2 and – COH groups

460. The amino acids are held together in a protein by


a. disulfide bond
b. hydrogen bonds
c. peptide bonds
d. ionic bond

461. The bonds in protein structure that are not broken on denaturation
a. disulfide bonds
b. hydrogen bonds
c. peptide bonds
d. ionic bonds
462. Structural proteins are
a. keratin, collagen, elastine
b. hemoglobin, albumin, globulins
c. actin, myosin
d. ovalbumin, casein

463. Contractile proteins are


a. keratin, collagen, elastine
b. hemoglobin, albumin, globulins
c. actin, myosin
d. ovalbumin, casein

464. Transport proteins are


a. keratin, collagen, elastine
b. hemoglobin, albumin, globulins
c. actin, myosin
d. ovalbumin, casein

465. Storage proteins are


a. keratin, collagen, elastine
b. hemoglobin, albumin, globulins
c. actin, myosin
d. ovalbumin, casein

466. Regulatory proteins are


a. keratin, collagen, elastine
b. hemoglobin, albumin, globulins
c. actin, myosin
d. insulin, glucagon

467. Catalytic proteins are


a. keratin, collagen, elastine
b. pepsin, chymotrypsin
c. actin, myosin
d. insulin, glucagon

468. The phenomen of disorganization of native protein structure is


a. denaturation
b. renaturation
c. replication
d. glycolysis

469. Insuline possess


a. primary structure
b. secondary structure
c. tertiary structure
d. quaternary structure
470. Myoglobin is a
a. protein with primary structure
b. protein with secondary structure
c. protein with tertiary structure
d. protein with quaternary structure

471. Hemoglobine possess


a. primary structure
b. secondary structure
c. tertiary structure
d. quaternary structure

472. The isoelectric pH for pepsine is


a. 1.1
b. 4.6
c. 6.7
d. 12.7

473. The isoelectric pH for casein is


a. 1.1
b. 4.6
c. 6.7
d. 12.7

474. The isoelectric pH for hemoglobin is


a. 1.1
b. 4.6
c. 6.7
d. 12.7

Nucleic acids
475. The key to ability of DNA to pass and store genetic information is
a. its hydrogen bonding
b. its double stranded structure
c. its deoxyribose sugar
d. its nitrogen base

476. Which of the following is true about DNA?


a. It is present in cell nucleus
b. It has single strand
c. It has ribose sugar
d. It is synthesized by RNA

477. Considering structure of DNA, each strand is made up of


a. deoxyribose sugar
b. phosphate sugar
c. nitrogen base
d. All of these

478. In the structure of DNA, how many strands are twisted around each other?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

479. The strands of DNA are held together by


a. covalent bond
b. ionic bond
c. hydrogen bond
d. dipole dipole interaction

480. Existence of RNA is in form of


a. single strand
b. double strand
c. triple strand
d. four strand

481. Which of the following is not true about RNA?


a. It is responsible for the directing synthesis of new proteins
b. It has single strand
c. It has deoxyribose sugar
d. It is synthesized by DNA

482. Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following


a. Cytosine
b. Thymine
c. Uracil
d. Adenine

483. Which of the following are not the components of RNA?


a. Thymine
b. Adenine
c. Guanine
d. Cytosine

484. What is the composition of nucleoside?


a. a sugar + a phosphate
b. a base + a sugar
c. a base + a phosphate
d. a base + a sugar + phosphate
485. What is the composition of nucleotide?
a. a sugar + a phosphate
b. a base + a sugar
c. a base + a phosphate
d. a base + a sugar + phosphate

486. Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by


a. phosphodiester bond
b. peptide bond
c. ionic bond
d. covalent bond

487. The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is


a. pentose
b. hexose
c. tetrose
d. triose

488. Building blocks of nucleic acids are


a. nucleotides
b. nucleosides
c. amino acids
d. histones

489. Number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?


a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

490. Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?


a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

491. According to Chargaff’s rule, in a DNA molecule


a. The amount of adenine and thymine is equal to the amount of guanine and cytosine
b. The amount of adenine and guanine is equal to the amount of thymine and cytosine
c. The amount of adenine and uracil is equal to the amount of guanine and cytosine
d. The amount of adenine and guanine is equal to the amount of uracil and cytosine

492. Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?


a. Does not have a double stranded structure
b. Thymine is present
c. Does not obey Chargaff’s rule
d. The sugar contained in RNA is a ribose
493. Which of the following nucleotides is not present in RNA?
a. AMP
b. GMP
c. CMP
d. TMP

494. Which of the following nucleotides is not present in DNA?


a. AMP
b. GMP
c. CMP
d. UMP

495. Which of the following involves in carrying genetic information from DNA for
protein synthesis?
a. m-RNA
b. t-RNA
c. r-RNA
d. sn-RNA

496. The nitrogenous base not present in DNA structure


a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. Urasil

497. The nitrogenous base not present in RNA structure


a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. Thymine

498. Nucleic acids are the polymers of


a. nucleotides
b. amino acids
c. nucleosides
d. nitrogenous bases

499. Transfer RNA (tRNA)


a. transfer amino acids form cytoplasm to ribosome
b. carries the genetic information for a protein from DNA to the ribosome
c. is a structural and functional component of the ribosome
d. carries all the genetic information in the cell

500. Messendger RNA (mRNA)


a. transfer amino acids form cytoplasm to ribosome
b. carries the genetic information for a protein from DNA to the ribosome
c. is a structural and functional component of the ribosome
d. carries all the genetic information in the cell

501. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)


a. transfers amino acids form cytoplasm to ribosome
b. carries the genetic information for a protein from DNA to the ribosome
c. is a structural and functional component of the ribosome
d. carries all the genetic information in the cell

502. The base pair G-C is more stable and stronger than A-T due to
a. double hydrogen bond
b. triple hydrogen bond
c. double phosphodiester bond
d. triple phosphodiester bond

503. The pyrimidine present in DNA but absent in RNA


a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. Thymine

504. The pyrimidine present in RNA but absent in DNA


a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. Urasil

505. Such carbohydrates enter in the compliment of nucleic acids are:


a. lacto glucose and mannose
b. ribose and deoxyribose
c. deoxyglucose and fructose

506. Deoxyribose can be distinguished from ribose by the absence of oxy group near:
a. first carbon
b. third carbon
c. second carbon

507. Type nucleoside connection between nitrous basis and carbohydrate is:
a. N-glycoside
b. OH-glycoside
c. hard efires

508. The products of hydrolysis of nucleoside is:


a. phosphate acid
b. nitrogenous basis and carbohydrates
c. nitrogenous basis and phosphate acid

509. Nucleoside which consist of uracil and ribose are called:


a. ureic acid
b. uridine
c. ribose

510. Nucleoside which consist of thymine and desoxyribose enters is called:


a. desoxyribose
b. deoxythymidine
c. deoxidized

511. Mononucleotides is:


a. phosphates of nucleotides
b. phosphates of carbohydrates
c. phosphates of nucleosides

512. Molecule ATP in the human organism is:


a. macroergic system
b. microergic system
c. power system

513. In a molecule of ATP energy provided in oneself is:


a. hard efires bonds
b. anhydride bonds
c. glycoside bonds

514. ATP takes part in activating:


a. amino acid
b. alcohols
c. fats

515. Primary structure of DNA is:


a. polynucleotide sequence
b. consistent of amino acid
c. polyglycoside sequence

516. Polynucleotide sequence is:


a. second structure of DNA
b. primary structure of DNA
c. spiral of DNA

517. Second structure of DNA is:


a. a double spiral involutes on the right
b. a spiral involutes to the left
c. linear chain of mononucleotides

518. Double spiral of DNA was set by scientists:


a. Watson and Krik
b. Boyl and Mariot
c. Shrouds-Goff and Pasters
519. The structure of the DNA duplex is supported:
a. by hard efires copulas between complementary bases
b. by hydrogen connections between complementary bases
c. by glycoside copulas between complementary bases

520. Complementary bases in the molecule of DNA are such pairs of bases:
a. A–G
b. U–C
c. A–T

521. Complementary bases in the molecule of DNA are such pair of bases:
a. A–G
b. G-C
c. A–C
Exam tests on Chemistry.
Thermodynamics.
Ism
1. Thermodynamics studies –
a. General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b. Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c. The rate of chemical reactions.
d. Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a. Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b. Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c. Open, Closed, Isolated
d. Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d. Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b. Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b. homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a. Open System
b. Closed System
c. Isolated System
d. Adiabatic System

7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a. Open System
b. Closed System
c. Isolated System
d. Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a. Open System
b. Closed System
c. Isolated System
d. Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a. Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b. Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c. Open, Closed, Isolated
d. Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a. A process during which the temperature T = const
b. A process during which the pressure P = const
c. A process during which the specific volume v = const
d. A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a. A process during which the temperature T = const
b. A process during which the pressure P = const
c. A process during which the specific volume v = const
d. A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a. A process during which the temperature T = const
b. A process during which the pressure P = const
c. A process during which the specific volume v = const
d. A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabatic process?


a. A process during which the temperature T = const
b. A process during which the pressure P = const
c. A process during which the specific volume v = const
d. A process during which the heat Q = 0

14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?


a. Isothermal process
b. Isobaric process
c. Isochoric (or isometric) process
d. Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a. Isothermal process
b. Isobaric process
c. Isochoric (or isometric) process
d. Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume V = const is called?


a. Isothermal process
b. Isobaric process
c. Isochoric (or isometric) process
d. Adiabaticprocess
17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?
a. Isothermal process
b. Isobaric process
c. Isochoric (or isometric) process
d. Adiabatic process

18. The basic formula for Entropy;


a. Q=∆U+A
b. H=U+pV
c. ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d. S = KlnW

19. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a. Q=∆U+A
b. H=U+pV
c. ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d. S = KlnW

20. Internal energy is called?


a. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d. The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

21. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a. Internal energy
b. Enthalpy
c. Entropy;
d. Exothermic process

22. Enthalpy is called?


a. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d. The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a. Internal energy
b. Enthalpy
c. Entropy;
d. Exothermic process

24. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat of the system are called?
a. Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b. Open, Closed, Isolated
c. Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d. Endothermic reactions

25. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat to surroundings are called


a. Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b. Open, Closed, Isolated
c. Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d. Exothermic reactions

26. System consisting of three phases is called


a. heterogeneous
b. homogeneous
c. isolated
d. open

27. System consisting of one phase is called


a. heterogeneous
b. homogeneous
c. isolated
d. open

28. What are the units of energy?


a. volta
b. pascal
c. litter
d) joule

29. Spontaneous process occurs only


a. without external energy
b. at constant temperature
c. in forward direction
d. with external energy help

30. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a. H = U + pV
b. ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c. H = G + TS
d. Qp = ∆H

31. The equation H= E + PV is applicable


a. always
b. only for constant pressure processes
c. only for constant temperature processes
d. only for constant volume processes

32. What occurs as two atoms of fluorine combine to become a molecule of fluorine?
a. A bond is formed as energy is absorbed.
b. A bond is formed as energy is released.
c. A bond is broken as energy is absorbed.
d. A bond is broken as energy is released.

33. To break a chemical bond, energy must be


a. absorbed
b. destroyed
c. produced
d. released

34. As two chlorine atoms combine to form a molecule, energy is


a. absorbed
b. released
c. created
d. destroyed

35. As energy is released during the formation of a bond, the stability of the chemical system
generally will
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain the same
d. absorbed

36. Which element has an atom with the greatest tendency to attract electrons in a chemical
bond?
a. carbon
b. chlorine
c. silicon
d. sulfur

37. Total energy of a system is


a. P.E + K.E
b. P.E + heat energy
c. K.E + heat energy
d. P.E + mechanical energ

38. When enthalpy formation of reactants is higher than product then reaction will be
a. endothermic
b. spontaneous
c. non-spontaneous
d. exothermic

39. Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by


a. calorimeter
b. manometer
c. Barometer
d. Thermometer

Chemical kinetics

40. Chemical kinetics studies –


a. energy changes during chemical transformations.
b. the rate of chemical reactions.
c. general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d. of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.
41. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?
a. Reversible reactions
b. Irreversible reactions
c. Soluble
d. Insoluble

42. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a. Reversible reactions
b. Irreversible reactions
c. Soluble
d. Insoluble

43. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?


a. N2O4 → 2NO2
b. 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c. 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d. 2HI → H2 + I2

44. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?


a. 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b. 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c. 2HI → H2 + I2
d. I2 → I • + I •

45. Which of these reactions is monomolecular?


a. 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b. Cl2 → 2Cl
c. 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d. 2HI → H2 + I2

46. Which of these reactions is monomolecular?


a. 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
b. 2HI → H2 + I2
c. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d. 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

47. Which of these reactions is monomolecular?


a. 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
b. 2HI → H2 + I2
c. NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d. 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

48. Which of these reactions is dimolecular?


a. CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
b. N2O4 → 2NO2
c. O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
49. Which of these reactions is dimolecular?
a. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b. 2HI → H2 + I2
c. N2O4 → 2NO2
d. O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

50. Which of these reactions is dimolecular?


a. N2O4 → 2NO2
b. O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c. Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

51. Which of these reactions is dimolecular?


a. N2O4 → 2NO2
b. O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d. H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

52. Which of these reactions is dimolecular?


a. 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b. N2O4 → 2NO2
c. O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

53. Which of these reactions is trimolecular?


a. O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b. I2 → I • + I •
c. CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d. N2O4 → 2NO2

54. Which of these reactions is trimolecular?


a. C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b. 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c. 2HI → H2 + I2
d. Cl2 → 2Cl

55. Which of these reactions is trimolecular?


a. Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b. 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c. 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d. H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

56. Which of these reactions is trimolecular?


a. Cl2 → 2Cl
b. 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c. 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d. NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

57. Which of these reactions is trimolecular?


a. 2HI → H2 + I2
b. HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c. 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d. NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

58. Which of these reactions is trimolecular?


a. 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b. 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c. 2HI → H2 + I2
d. I2 → 2Cl

59. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a. Kc = [NH3]2 / [N2] + [H2]3 c. Kc = [NH3]2 / [N2] [H2]3
2
b. Kc = [NH3] / [N2] [H2] d. Kc = [N2] [H2]3 / [NH3]2

60. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a. Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2] c. Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
b. Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2 d. Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

61. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a. Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c. Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b. Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d. Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

62. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3(s) ↔ CaO(s) + CO2(g) reaction is


a. Keq = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
b. Keq = [CO2 ]
c. Keq = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d. Keq = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

63. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ 3H2 ↔ 2NH3 reaction will be shifted at
pressure elevation?
a. backward
b. forward
c. won’t shifted
d. towards reactants

64. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a. temperature
b. initial concentration of the reactants
c. time of reaction
d. extent of reaction

65. A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are
a. Unequal b. Constant c. Equal d. Increased
66. According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction
will
N2+O2= 2NO - 43200 cal
a. increase the yield of NO
b. decrease by yield of NO
c. hot effect on the yield of NO
d. hot help the reaction to proceed

67. As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases,
the rate of the reaction:
a. increases;
b. decreases;
c. remains the same;
d. approaches zero

68. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?
a. The number of moles of the reactants and products;
b. The potential energies of the reactants and products;
c. The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;
d. The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.

69. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:
a. decrease;
b. increase;
c. remain the same;
d. approach zero

Solutions
70. Molarity is expressed as
a. grams/litre b. litres/mole c. moles/litre d. moles/1000 gm

71. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in


a. 1000 gm of the solvent c. one litre of the solution
b. one litre of the solvent d. 22.4 litres of the solution

72. Normality is expressed as


a.moles/litre b.gm equivalents/litre c. moles/1000 gm d. gram/litre

73. What is the solution?


a. a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b. component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c. component of a solution present in the greater amount
d. amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

74. What is the solute?


a. a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b. component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c. component of a solution present in the greater amount
d. amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
75. What is the solvent?
a. a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b. component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c. component of a solution present in the greater amount
d. amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

76. What is the concentration?


a. a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b. component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c. component of a solution present in the greater amount
d. amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

77. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?


a. Solution
b. Solute
c. Solvent
d. Concentration

78. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?


a. Solution
b. Solute
c. Solvent
d. Concentration

79. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?


a. Solution
b. Solute
c. Solvent
d. Concentration

80. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a. Solution
b. Solute
c. Solvent
d. Concentration

81. Mass fraction is called?


a. The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
b. the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c. the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d. the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

82. Mass fraction is expressed in:


a. mol / kg.
b. percentage
c. mol / l.
d. g / ml.
83. The molar concentration is called?
a. the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b. the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c. the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d. the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

84. Molar concentration is expressed in:


a. mol / kg.
b. percentage
c. mol / l.
d. g / ml.

85. Molal concentration is expressed in:


a. mol / kg.
b. percentage
c. mol / l.
d. g / ml.

86. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a. Vant Hoff
b. Mendeleev
c. Arrhenius
d. Lomonosov

87. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a. 98 b. 2 c. 32 d. 49

88. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid


a. 98 b. 2 c. 32.6 d. 49

89. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide


a. 98 b. 37 c. 32 d. 49

90. “Activation energy” term is introduced by


a. coordination theory
b. theory of valent bonds
c. theory of active collisions
d. theory of electrolytic dissociation

91. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as


a. diluted solution
b. saturated solution
c. concentrated solution
d. unsaturated solution

92. Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in


a. high concentration
b. low concentration
c. high temeprature
d. low temeprature

93. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an
a. base
b. acid
c. salt
d. suspension

94. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a. molality
b. percentage
c. concentration
d. molarity

95. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a. colloid.
b. suspension
c. solution.
d. compound.

96. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a. solute. c. solution.
b. solvent. d. mixture.

97. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a. increasing the temperature c. increasing the volume
b. increasing the pressure d. decreasing the pressure

98. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a. hexane c. ethanol
b. sodium carbonate d. potassium chloride

99. Most salt become soluble in water as the


a. pressure is increased. c. temperature is decreased.
b. temperature is increased. d. pressure is decreased.

100. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a. Percent by mass c. Molarity
b. Molality d. Mole fraction

101. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a. Percent by mass c. Molarity
b. Molality d. Mole fraction

102. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more
concentrated solution.
a. Molarity c. Dilution
b. Normality d. Molality

103. In dilution of solution,


a. a solute is added to the solution.
b. solvent is added to the solution.
c. the amount of moles increases.
d. volume of solution decreases.

Colligative properties of solutions


104. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:
a. liquid, transparent, colored;
b. solid, liquid, turbid;
c. gaseous, liquid, solid;
d. liquid, turbid, colored.

105. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a. vapor pressure lowering;
b. density;
c. viscosity;
d. diffusion.

106. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as
a. the Henry’s law;
b. the Sechenov equation;
c. the Ostvald’s dilution law;
d. the Paul’s principle.

107. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes


a. hemolysis
b. plasmolysis
c. swelling
d. precipitation

108. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a.  = MRT;
b. Tf = Kf Cm;
c. Tb = KbCm;
d. Tf =iKf Cm.

109. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a. the number of the solute particles;
b. the chemical structure of solute;
c. catalysts;
d. pH scale.
110. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise
a. increases
b. remains same
c. decreases
d. no effect

111. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution


a. increases
b. remains same
c. Decreases
d. None of them

112. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise


a. increases
b. remains same
c. decreases
d. increases then decreases

113. For spontaneous processes


a. ∆H ≥ 0 b. ∆S ≤ 0 c. ∆G ≥ 0 d. ∆H≤ 0

114. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on


a. concentration
b. nature of solvent
c. temperature
d. nature of solute

115. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a. hypotonic
b. isoosmotic
c. saturated
d. hypertonic

116. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a. hypotonic
b. isoosmotic
c. saturated
d. isotonic

117. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a. hypotonic
b. isoosmotic
c. saturated
d. isotonic

118. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is
called
a. cryometry
b. osmometry
c. pH-metry
d. ebuliometry

119. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is
called
a. cryometry
b. osmometry
c. pH-metry
d. ebuliometry

120. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is
called
a. cryometry
b. osmometry
c. pH-metry
d. ebuliometry

121. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the


a. Nature of solute and solvent c. Temperature
b. Rate at which the gas dissolves d. Pressure

122. Which involves the colligative properties?


a. Heating of solvent.
b. Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c. Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d. Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

123. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a. osmosis
b. diffusion
c. active Transport
d. phagocytosis

124. The movement of water molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of
high concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a. Active Transport
b. Diffusion
c. Phagocytosis
d. Osmosis

125. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a. Active Transport c. Diffusion
b. Osmosis d. Phagocytosis

126. Colligative properties of the solution depend on


a. nature of solute
b. nature of solvent
c. number of particles present in the solution
d. number of moles of solvent only

127. Which one is a colligative property?


a. Boiling point
b. Vapour pressure
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Freezing point

128. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?


a. Osmotic pressure
b. Elevation of boiling point
c. Vapour pressure
d. Depression of freezing point

129. Which is not a colligative property?


a. Freezing point
b. Lowering of vapour pressure
c. Depression of freezing point
d. Elevation of boiling point

130. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number
of
a. Solute molecules to the solvent molecules
b. Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c. Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
d. Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

131. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute.
This law was given by
a. Raoult
b. Ostwald
c. Van’t Hoff
d. Lewis

132. When common salt is dissolved in water


a. melting point of the solution increases
b. boiling point of the solution increases
c. boiling point of the solution decreases
d. both melting point and boiling point decreases

133. What happens during osmosis?


a. Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.
b. Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.
c. Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.
d. Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.
134. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric
pressure?
a. 1000C c. melting point
b. boiling point d. freezing point

135. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)


a. electrolyte c. polar substance
b. nonelectrolyte d. nonpolar substance

136. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as


a. volatile c. electrolyte
b. nonvolatile d. nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.


Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

137. Acetic acid is weak because


a. It is unstable
b. It is an organic aliphatic acid
c. It is slightly ionized
d. None of these

138. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is


a. 8
b. 1 x 10-7
c. 7
d. 1

139. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is


a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
d. Amphoteric

140. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to


a. acidic impurities
b. ionization
c. hydrolysis
d. dissociation

141. FeCl3 solution is


a. acidic
b. basic
c. neutral
d. amphoteric

142. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is


a. neutral c. strongly acidic
b. weakly acidic d. alkaline

143. An aqueous solution of aluminium sulphate would show


a. an acidic reaction
b. a neutral reaction
c. a basic reaction
d. both acidic and basic reaction

144. Which one of the following is acidic salt?


a. Na2S
b. Na2SO3
c. NaHSO3
d. Na2SO4

145. Which salt can be classified as an basic salt?


a. Na2SO4
b. BiOCl
c. Pb(OH)Cl
d. Na2HPO4

146. Which one is not an acidic salt?


a. Na2H2PO4
b. Na3PO4
c. NaH2PO3
d. None of the above

147. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?


a. NaCl
b. NH4Cl
c. KCl
d. Na2SO4

148. Which one will not be hydrolysed?


a. Potassium nitrate
b. Potassium cyanide
c. Potassium succinate
d. Potassium carbonate

149. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?


a. CH3COOK c. KCl
b. NaNO3 d. K2SO4

150. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution


a. (NH4)2SO4
b. Ba(NO3)2
c. CrCl3
d. CuSO4
151. The aqeous solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from
a. a strong acid and strong base
b. a strong acid and weak base
c. a weak acid and weak base
d. a weak acid and strong base

152. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?
a. KNO3
b. NaOH
c. FeCl3
d. NaCN

153. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic
acid solution?
a. NH4Cl
b. Al2(SO4)3
c. AgNO3
d. NaCN

154. A buffer solution changes its pH


a. Increase in pH
b. Decrease in pH
c. No change in pH
d. No change in electrical conductivity

155. About buffer solution which in incorrect?


a. It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base
b. It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c. It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d. All of the above

156. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?


a. Strong acid and its salt of a weak base
b. Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c. Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d. Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

157. Which is a buffer solution?


a. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b. CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c. CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d. NaOH + NaCl

158. Which of the following is a buffer?


a. NaOH + CH3COONa
b. NaOH + Na2SO4
c. K2SO4 + H2SO4
d. NH4OH + NH4Cl
159. Which is not a buffer solution?
a. NH4Cl + NH4OH
b. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c. CH3COONa
d. Borax + Boric acid

160. pH of blood is
a. less than 6
b. greater than 7 and less than 8
c. greater than 8 and less than 9
d. greater than 10

161. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is


a. acetic acid + sodium acetate
b. boric acid + borax
c. citric acid + sodium citrate
d. All

162. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a. NaNO2; b. NaHCO3; c. Na2CO3; d. KMnO4.

163. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


a. electrons donors;
b. electrons acceptors;
c. protons donors;
d. protons acceptors.

164. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a. KCl/HCl; c. KHSO4/H2SO4;
b. NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4; d. NH3 /NH4Cl.

165. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


a) hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d) hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

166. According to the Bronsted theory bases are defined as:


a. electrons donor;
b. electrons acceptors;
c. protons donors;
d. protons acceptors.

167. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into


a. oxides, acid, base, salt
b. oxides, base
c. alkalis, salt, oxides
d. ampholytes, alkalis
168. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called
bases.
a. hydroxide (OH -)
b. hydrogen (H +)
c. ammonium cation (NH4+)
d. hydrogen cations (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH-)

169. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called
acids.
a) hydroxide(OH-)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH4+)
d) (H+) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

170. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a. pH<7 b. pH> 7 c. pH ~7 d. pH = 7

171. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a. pH<7 b. pH> 7 c. pH ~7 d. pH = 7

172. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution
of will be?
a. pH<7 b. pH> 7 c. pH ~7 d. pH = 7

173. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH
will be?
a. pH < 7 b. pH > 7 c. pH ~7 d. pH = 7

174. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

175. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a. acidic b.basic c. neutral d. none of them

176. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

177. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

178. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

179. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

180. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them
181. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate
a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

182. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

183. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

184. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate


a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. none of them

185. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite


a. acidic b.basic c. neutral d. none of them

186. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of


a. acid (H+-)
b. conjugate base (-OH-)
c. salt
d. both A and B

187. pH can be kept constant with help of


a. saturated solution
b. unsaturated solution
c. buffer solution
d. super saturated solution

188. Buffers present in blood contain


a. HCO3-
b. hemoglobin
c. H2PO4-
d. all of them

189. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a. aerobic respiration
b. anaerobic respiration
c. transpiration
d. photosynthesis

190. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a
buffer? Acetic acid, hydrochloric acid, potassium acetate and sodium chloride.
a. hydrochloric acid only c. acetic acid only
b. sodium chloride or potassium acetate d. acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

191. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a. oxide
b. ether
c. salt
d. alcohol
192. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a. salt
b. water
c. carbon dioxide
d. all of above

193. Salt among following is


a. HCl
b. KCl
c. HNO3
d. H3PO4

194. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a. neutralization
b. hydrogenation
c. halogenation
d. sublimation

195. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a. AH
b. HA
c. Ha
b. aH

196. Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is


a. high
b. low
c. same
d. constant

197. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining


a. concentration of acid c. concentration of water molecules
b. pH of solution d. both A and B

198. pH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing


a. concentration of acid
b. value of Ka
c. water potential
d. both A and B

199. Ka is called
a. acid dissociation constant
b. base dissociation constant
c. Avogadro constant
d. salt dissociation constant

200. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a. HNO3
b. HI
c. HBr
d. HNO2

201. Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a. MgCl2
b. Ba(NO3)2
c. LiClO4
d. CsBr

202. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:
a. water and a salt; c. a salt and hydrogen gas;
b. an acid and a base; d. a nonmetal oxid

203. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?


a. [H+] equals zero; c. [H+] is less than [OH-];
- +
b. [OH ] equals [H ]; d. [H+] is greater than [OH-]

204. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:


a. donate a proton; c. donate an electron pair;
b. yield H+ ions; d. acceptor of protons.

205. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:
a. increase; c. remain the same;
b. decrease; d. approach zero

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.

206. Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in


a. H2SO3 b. SO2 c. H2SO4 d. H2S

207. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a. H2S b. SO3 c. H2O2 d. F2

208. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :


a. O3 b. KMnO4 c.H2O2 d.K2Cr2O7

209. Reduction involves


a. Loss of electrons c. Increase in the valency of positive part
b. Gain of electrons d. Decrease in the valency of negative part

210. The strongest reducing agent is


a. HNO2 b. H2S c. H2SO3 d. SnCl2

211. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a. -1/3 b. -1 c. +1 d. -3

212. Oxidation involves


a. loss of electrons c. increase in the valency of negative part
b. gain of electrons d. decrease in the valency of positive part

213. In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a. Anode b. Cathode c. Both A & B d. The surface of the electrolyte solution

214. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a. -2 b. -1 c. 0 d. -4

215. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a. SO2 b. CaO c. Al2O3 d. CrO3

216. In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation
numbers
a. intermolecular b. intramolecular c. disproportion d. none of them

217. Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a. CH3COONa b. C2H5OH c. NaCl d. KOH

218. Element accepting electrons is called


a. product b. oxidant c. reactant d. reductant

219. One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a. F b.Cl c. He d. Na

220. The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:


a. -3 to +5 b. -1 to +1 c. -3 to -5 d. -5 to +1

221. Strong electrolytes are those which


a. Dissolve readily in water c. Dissociate into ions at high dilution
b. Conduct electricity d. Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

222. Which of the following conducts electricity?


a. crystal NaCl b. diamond c. molten KBr d. sulphur

223. In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a. Anode c. Both A & B
b. Cathode d. The surface of the electrolyte solution

224. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:


a. -1 b. -2 c. +4 d. 0

225. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:


a. +1 b. -2 c. - 4 d. 0

226. Element loosing electrons is called


a. product
b. oxidant
c. reactant
d. reductant

227. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a. the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b. the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c. the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d. the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical
systems in terms of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

228. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a. KMnO4→MnO2; c. HNO2→NO2;
b. Cl2O→HCl; d. P→H3PO4.

229. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


a. accepts electrons;
b. donates electrons;
c. increases its oxidation number;
d. decreases its concentration.

Biogenic elements

230. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:


a. in molecule of cytochrome b
b. in molecule of vitamin B12
c. in molecule of catalase
d. in molecule of vitamin B6

231. Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:


a. enzyme catalase
b. enzyme superoxide dismutase
c. cytochrome P450
d. glutathione peroxidase

232. Trace elements:


a. Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b. Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c. Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large
quantities
d. Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical
reactions on which life depends.

233. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a. neutral b. acidic c. basic d. Slightly Polar

234. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine


a. aliphatic b. aromatic c. heterocyclic d. complex
235. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in
a. acidic medium c. basic medium
b. neutral medium d. any medium

236. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in


a. acidic medium c. basic medium
b. neutral medium d. any medium

237. Bonds stabilizing secondary structure of proteins


a. coordination b. ionic c. hydrogen d.hydrofobic

238. Choose peptide bond


a.-CO-NH- b.–S-S- c.H2N–CH2– d. -C-C-

239. Lactose is
a. monose b. unreducing disaccharide c. amino acid d. reducing disaccharide

240. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a. coordination b. ionic c. hydrogen d. glycosidic

241. Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between
atoms
a. C5 and N1 b. C1 and N9 c. C3 and N9 d. C1 and N1

242. Bond between sugar rest and purine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a. C5 and N1 b. C1 and N9 c. C3 and N9 d. C1 and N1

243. Component of nucleotides is


a. protein b. amine acid residue c. OH- group d. thymine

244. Monomeric link of protein


a. sugar rest b. isoprene c. amine acid residue d. ethylene

245. DNA contains


a. cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b.cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c. cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d. thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

246. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a. neutral b. acidic c. basic d. slightly polar

247. Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

248. Choose disulphide bond


a. -CO-NH- b.–S-S- c. H2N–CH2– d. –C-C-
249. Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine
a. neutral b. acidic c. basic d. Slightly Polar

250. Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

251. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a.aliphatic b.aromatic c. heterocyclic d. complex

252. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a. aliphatic b.aromatic c. heterocyclic d. complex

253. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

254. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a. neutral b. acidic c. basic d. slightly polar

255. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a. aliphatic b. aromatic c. heterocyclic d. complex

256. Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

257. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

258. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a. aliphatic b. aromatic c. heterocyclic d. complex

259. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

260. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a. neutral b. acidic c. basic d. Slightly Polar

261. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

262. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a. essential b. non-essential c. semi- essential d. none of them

263. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a. neutral b. acidic c. basic d. Slightly Polar

264. The α-helix is a common form of


a. primary structure b.tertiary structure c. secondary structure d. none of these

265. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of


a. optical activity b. hydrogen bonding c. resonance d. delocalization

266. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by


a. sulphur-sulphur linkages c. hydrogen bonding
b. peptide bonding d. glycosidic bonds

267. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give


a. amino acids b. hydroxyl acids c. fatty acids d. alcohols

268. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces


a. ammonia and carbon dioxide b. urea and uric acid
c. a mixture of amino acids d. glycogen and a fatty acid

269. Which is a monosaccharide?


a.sucrose b. maltose c. galactose d. cellulose

270. Which is a disaccharide?


a. glucose b. maltose c. fructose d. cellulose

271. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?


a. ribose b. fructose c. sucrose d. glucose

272. The principal sugar in blood is


a. fructose b. glucose c. sucrose d. galactose

273. Glucose cannot be classified as


a. a hexose b. an oligosaccharide c. an aldose d. a monosaccharide

274. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?


a. it is a reducing sugar b. it is a disaccharide
b. it has a pyranose form d. it is a polyalcohol

275. Common table sugar is


a. glucose b. sucrose c. fructose d. maltose

276. Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?


a. glucose b. fructose c. lactose d. none of the above

277. Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?


a. it is also called table sugar
b. it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol
c. it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent
d. it reduces Fehling’s solution

278. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is


a. lactose b. sucrose c. maltose d. fructose
279. Starch
a. is a trisaccharide c. is also called amylopectin
b. is also called amylose d. is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin
Exam tests on Chemistry.
Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.

1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) + General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) + Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a) + Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) + Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) + Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a) + Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) + Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) + Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) + Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a) + A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) + A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) + A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) + A process during which the heat Q = 0
14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?
a) + Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) + Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) + Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) + Adiabatic process

18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?


a) + Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs

19. The basic formula for Entropy;


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) + S = KlnW

20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a) + Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW
21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.
a) Q=∆U+A
b) + H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

22. Internal energy is called?


a) + Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a) + Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

24. Enthalpy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) + Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a) Internal energy
b) + Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

26. The heat transfer are divided into


a) + Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

27. What is the thermal conductivity?


a) + The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
28. What is the convection?
a) The material to conduct heat.
b) + Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

29. What is the radiation?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) + The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) + Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

31. What is the endothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) + Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

32. What is the exothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) + Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Endothermic reactions

34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Exothermic reactions

35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.


a) + ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) Q= ΔU+ W
d) + ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) + ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

38. System consisting of three phases is called


a) + heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

39. System consisting of one phase is called


a) heterogeneous
b) + homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

40. What is the heterogeneous system?


a) + System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

41. What is the homogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) + System consisting of one phase is called
42. What are the units of energy?
a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d) + joule

43. Spontaneous process occurs only

a) + without external energy


b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help

44. Internal energy is ……


a) + energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness

45. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a) + H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H

46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) A
b) G
c) + Qp
d) H

47. Find state parametre


a) Q
b) G
c) + T
d) H

48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) Q
b) G
c) + Qp
d) S
49. Find state parameter
a) Q
b) G
c) + v
d) H
50.For spontaneous processes
a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics

51. Chemical kinetics studies –

a) energy changes during chemical transformations.


b) + the rate of chemical reactions.
c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?


a) + Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction
53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) + Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular
54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) + Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?
a) + Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?


a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.

58. Enzymes is a substance that …

a) increase the rate of reaction


b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) + biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate

59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-


a) + Catalyst
c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor
d) Reducing agents.

60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

a) Catalyst
b) + Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?
a) + a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel
62. Irreversible reactions are called?
a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) + a change that cannot go back
c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution

63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?


a) + Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) + Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

65. A material that dissolves is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) + Soluble
d) Insoluble

66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) + Insoluble

67. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) + N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

68. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S


b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) + I2 → I • + I •
69. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?
a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b) + Cl2 → 2Cl
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

70. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

71. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

72. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) + CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

73. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH


b) + 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
74. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) + Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
75. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) + H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O
76. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?
a) + 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

77. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) + O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

78. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b) + 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

79. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) + 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) + 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

81. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) + HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

82. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) + 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl

83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
c) + Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
b) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
c) + Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a) + Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is


a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) + K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]

87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is


a) + K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) + backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants

89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a) + Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction

90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c) + Time
d)Temperature

91. A catalyst is a substance which


a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) + Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) + Active mass

93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

a) + Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite

94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

a) Unequal
b)Constant
c) + Equal
d) Increased

95. The law of mass action was enunciated by

a) + Guldberg and Waage


b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham

96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction


will

N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

a) + Increase the yield of NO


b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed
97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?

a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;

b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;

c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;

d) + the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;

b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;

c) + the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;

d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

a) + increases;

b) decreases;

c) remains the same;

d) approaches zero

100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;

b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;

c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;

d) + The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.


101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

a) decrease;

b) increase;

c) + remain the same;

d) approach zero

102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;

b) add a catalyst;

c) cool the reaction down;

d) + use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?

I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

a) II only;

b) III only;

c) I and II only;

d) + II and III only

Solutions.

104. Molarity is expressed as

a)grams/litre

b) litres/mole

c) + moles/litre

d) moles/1000 gm

105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in


a) + 1000 gm of the solvent

c)onelitre of the solution

b) one litre of the solvent

d) 22.4 litres of the solution

106. Normality is expressed as

a)moles/litre

b) + gm equivalents/litre

c)moles/1000 gm

d)gram/litre

107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

a) 1 N

b) 10 N

c) + 2.7 N

d) + 1.7 N

108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

a) + 13N
b) 0x1N
c) +1N
d) None

109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

a) 0x1
b) + 2.0
c) + 1.0
d) 0.4

110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

a) + 5.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) + 2.04 N
d) 0.35 N

111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?


a) 0.5 N
b) + 3.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) + 3.6 N

112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

a) +4N
b) + 47 N
c) N/2
d) N/4

113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is

a) + 4.6 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) + 3.6 N

114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

a) 4g
b) + 16 g
c) +1g
d) 10 g

115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) + 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M

116. The molarity of pure water is

a) + 5.6
b) + 55.6
c) 100
d) 18

117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

a) 1
b) + 10
c) 18
d) 100

118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

a) 1
b) +3
c) +9
d) 1.5

119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) + 1.0 M

120. What is the solution?


a) + a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
121. What is the solute?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) + component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
122. What is the solvent?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) + component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
123. What is the concentration?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) + amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

a) + Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

a) Solution
b) + Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) + Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) + Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?

a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.


b) + the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

129. Mass fraction is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) + percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction


neq msolute
a) C E = c) + =
V m solution

CM CEME
T= = msubstance•1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M • m solution

131.The molar concentration iscalled?

a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:


b) + the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

132. Molar concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration


neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution

nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) + d) M • m solution

134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?


a) + the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent

a) msolute c) + neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance•1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

137. The molal concentration is:


a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) + the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

138. Molal concentration is expressed in:

a) + mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration

a) + msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

140. Find volume concentration


a) mass percent
b) + normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction

141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) + Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov

142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a) 98
b) 2
c) 32
d) + 49
143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid
a) 98
b) 2
c) + 32.6
d) 49
144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide
a) 98
b) + 37

c) 32
d) 49
145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by
a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) + theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation

146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

a) + diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution

147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

a) + high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature

148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an

a) base
b) + acid
c) salt
d) suspension

149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) + molarity

150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) + solution.
d) compound.

151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a) solute. c)solution.
b) + solvent. d) mixture.

152. Which of the following is not a solution?


a) + zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel

153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?


a) + alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene

154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?


a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d) + dental amalgam

155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?


a) + It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.

156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is


a) + concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.

157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b) + increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure

158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?


a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction
b) + Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction

159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) + 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution

160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a.) + hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride
161. Most salt become soluble in water as the
a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b) + temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.

162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a) + Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b) + Molality d)Mole fraction

164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity
c) + Dilution
b)Normality
d)Molality

165. In dilution of solution,


a) a solute is added to the solution.
b) + solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.

166. A 40% alcohol contains


a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b) + 40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

Colligative properties of solutions.

167. Solutions are:


а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c) + homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

168. Solubility of solids depends upon:


a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) + all answers are right.

169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:


a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) + gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) + solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) + vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.

172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) + The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.

173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:


a) Hemolysis;
b) + Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.
174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:
a) + 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.

175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:


а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile solutes;
d) + boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) + concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.

177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:


а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) + 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:


a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure solvents;
b) + Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.
179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:
a) + The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.

180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:


a) + to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.

181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:


a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d) + A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:


a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) + Osmotic pressure.

183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:


a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
b) + 1.0×10-1osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.
184. Osmolarity is:
a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) + the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.

185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a) +  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:


a) + 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a) + the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.

188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise


a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect
189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution

a) increases
b) remains same
c) + Decreases
d) None of them
190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise
a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases

191. For spontaneous processes


a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0

c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0
192. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on
a) concentration
b) + nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute
193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) + molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate
194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + Hypertonic

195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) + hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + isotonic
197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) + isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) + osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) + cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) + ebuliometry
201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b) + Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure

202. Which involves the colligative properties?


a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c) + Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) + Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis

204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis
d) + Osmosis

205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) + Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Osmosis
d)Phagocytosis

206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on

a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) + Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only

207. Which one is a colligative property?

a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point

208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) + Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.

209. Which is not a colligative property?

a) + Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point

210. Which of the following is a colligative property?

a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point

211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules


b) + Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by
a) + Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis

213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) + Mole fraction of solute

214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

a) + An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion

215. When common salt is dissolved in water

a) M. p. of the solution increases


b) + B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

a) + Molecular wt. of solute


b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these

217. When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then


phenomenon taking place is called

a) + Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis

218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) + П / C = ST

219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

a)less than c) + greater than

b)the same as d) greater than or equal to

220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) + Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.

221. What happens during osmosis?


a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.

b) + Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.

c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.

d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.

222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.


b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.

c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) + The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increase

223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) + boiling point d) freezing point

224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

a) + electrolyte c) polar substance


b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance

225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as

a) + volatile
b)electrolyte
c) nonvolatile
d) nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.

Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

226. Acetic acid is weak because

a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) + It is slightly ionized
d) None of these

227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw
at this temperature will be

a) + 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5

228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) + 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9

229. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2%
ionized weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

a) 0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively


b) 1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
c) 2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
d) 3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

230. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

a) 10-12
b) + 10-2
c)10-4
d)10-13
231. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

a) 10-13
b) 1013
c) + 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010

232. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

a) 10
b) +7
c) 1
d) 14

233. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) + Between 6 and 7

234. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

a) 8
b) + 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1

235. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

236. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) + Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation

237. FeCl3 solution is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

238. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

a) Neutral
b) c)Strongly acidic
c) Weakly acidic

d) + Alkaline

239. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

a) + An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction

240. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) + Almost neutral

241. Which one of the following is acid salt?

a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) + NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4

242. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) + Na2HPO4

243. Which one is not an acid salt?

a) Na2H2PO4
b) + NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above

244. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?


a) NaCl
b) + NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4

245. Which one will not be hydrolysed?

a) + Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate

246. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?

a) + CH3COOK
b) KCl
c) NaNO3
d) d)K2SO4

247. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

a) Weakly acidic
b) + Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic

248. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

a) (NH4)2SO4
b) + Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4

249. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

a) A strong acid and strong base


b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) + A weak acid and strong base

250. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) + FeCl3
d) NaCN

251. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?

a) + NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN

252. A buffer solution changes its pH

a) Increase in pH
b) Decrease in pH
c) + No change in pH
d) No change in electrical conductivity

253. About buffer solution which in incorrect?

a) It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base


b) It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c) + It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d) All of the above

254. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

a) Strong acid and its salt of a weak base


b) Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c) + Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d) Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

255. Which is a buffer solution?

a) + CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl

256. Which of the following is a buffer?

a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) + NH4OH + NH4Cl

257. Which is not a buffer solution?

a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) + CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid

258. pH of blood is

a) Less than 6
b) + Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9
d) Greater than 10

259. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

a) + Acetic acid + Sodium acetate


b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All

260. Give name to positively charged particles:

а) radicals;
b) molecules;
c) anions;
d) + cations.

261. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a) NaNO2;
b) + NaHCO3;
c) Na2CO3;
d) KMnO4.
262. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) + Low water ionization constant.
263. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) + Ion product for water.
264. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M;
b) 0.001M;
c) + 0.1 M;
d) 1.0M.

265.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:


a) + Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.

266. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


а) Electrons donors;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) + Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

267. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl;
b) KHSO4/H2SO4;
c) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
d) + NH3 /NH4Cl.

268. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:


a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) + All answers are right.

269. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


а) + Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

270. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:


а) Electrons donor;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) + Protons acceptors.

271. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:


a) + pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.

272. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into


a) + oxides, acid, base, salt
b) oxides, base
c) Alkalis, salt, oxides
d) Ampholytes, Alkalis

273. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.
a) + hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

274. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) + hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

275. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a) + pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

276. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) + pH = 7

277. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7
b) + pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

278. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH>7
c) + pH ~7
d) pH = 7

279. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

280. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

281. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

282. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


A + ) acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

283. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a) acidic b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them
e
284. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

285. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

286. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a) + acidic
) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

287. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

288. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

289. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

290. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

291. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

292. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

ld) none of them

293. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

294. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite


a) acidic
b) + basic
c)
d) c)neutral
e) d) none of them

295. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide


a) 2
b) 11
c) + 13
d) 7

296. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide


a) 2
b) 10
c) 1
d) +13

297. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide


a) 2
b) + 13
c) 1
d) 7
298. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of
a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) + both A and B

299. PH can be kept constant with help of


a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) + buffer solution
d) super saturated solution

300. Buffers present in blood contain


a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) + all of them

301. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a) + aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis

302. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase
b) c)carbolic hydrase

c) + carbonic anhydrase

d) d)carbonic hydrase

303. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

a) hydrochloric acid only


b) + acetic acid only
c) sodium chloride or potassium acetate
d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

304. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a) oxide
b) ether
c) + salt
d) alcohol
305. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) + all of above
306. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) + KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
307. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) + neutralization
b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation

308. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a) AH
b) + HA
c) Ha
d) aH

309.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is


a) high
b) + low
c) same
d) constant
310. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid
b) concentration of water molecules
c ) pH of solution
d) + both A and B
311. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
a) concentration of acid
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) + both A and B

312. Ka is called
a) + acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant

313. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) + HNO2

314.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) + LiClO4
d) CsBr

315. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?


a) H2O
b) + KF
c) HF
d)HNO2

316.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) + HCN

317. A stronger base:

a) is also a stronger acid;

b) tastes sour;

c) + is also a stronger electrolyte;

d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution

318. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

a) water and a salt;

b) an acid and a base;

c) + a salt and hydrogen gas;

d) a nonmetal oxid

319. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

a) HCl;
b) H2CO3;

c) + KOH;

d) CH3CH2OH;

320. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

a) 1×10-11 M;

b) + 1×10-5 M;

c) 1×10-7 M;

d) 1×10-6M;

321. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H + ions. This
substance is:

a) KOH;

b)CH4

c) + H2SO4;

d) NH3

322. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

a) [H+] equals zero;

b) [H+] is less than [OH-];

c) [OH-] equals [H+];

d) + [H+] is greater than [OH-]

323. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

a) donate a proton;

b)donate an electron pair;


c) yield H+ ions;

d) + acceptor of protons.

324. What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 4

0.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

a) 100.0 mL;

b) 80.0 mL;

c) 40.0 mL;

d) + 20.0 mL

325. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

a) + increase;

b) remain the same;

c) decrease;

d) approach zero

326. Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

a) 1;

b) 7;

c) 10;

d) + 14.

327. The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

a) a single replacement;

b) the process of hydrolysis;

c) + a neutralization reaction;
d) a synthesis reaction;

328. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

a) A pH of 2 is three times as strong;

b) + A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;

c) A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

d) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as weak;

329. Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

a) chlorous acid; b) acetic acid;

c) + perchloricacid;

d) hypochlorous acid

330. Which of the following statements is true?

a) NaCl is a neutral salt; c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.

b) KOH is an acid; d) NaBr is basic salt.

331. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?

a) OH- and H2O; c) HCl and Cl-;

b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-; d) NH3 and NH4+;

332. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF; c) SO2 + H2O → H2SO3;

b) + 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2; d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

333. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;

b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;


c) HI is hydroiodic acid;

d) + HClO2 is chloric acid

334. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?

a) AgCl; b) PbBr2; c) Ca3(PO4)2; d) + Na2CO3

335. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:

a) + unsaturated; b) supersaturated; c) saturated; d) dilute

336. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate
and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a)Cl-; b) + 2Na+; c) CaCO3d) all of the substances above

337. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a) 1.5 m NaCl; c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;

b) 1.5 m AgCl; d) + 2.0 m CaCl2

338. Which equation is correctly balanced?

a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;

b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;

c) + 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;

d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;

Unit 2.

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.


339 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in
a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d) + H2S
340. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c) + H2O2 d)F2
341. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b) + KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
342. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d) + x=2 y=3 z=10
343. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b) + Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
344. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b) + H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2

345. An electrolyte is one


a)Which conducts electric current c) + Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above

346. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to


a)Dilution b) + number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution

347. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) + -3

348. Which of the following is an insulator?


a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) + Diamond d)Silicon

349. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O


a)X=4 y=6 b) + x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8

350. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O


a) + 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
351. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a) + F2
b)Cl2
c)Br2
d)I2

352. Oxidation involves


A) + Loss of electrons
b)Increase in the valency of negative part
c)Gain of electrons
d)Decrease in the valency of positive part

353. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

354. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a)-2
b) + -1
c) 0
d) -4

355. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a) + SO2
b)CaO
c)Al2O3
d)CrO3

356.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular
b) intramolecular
c) + disproportion
d) none of them

357.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a) CH3COONa
b) + C2H5OH
c)NaCl

d)KOH

358 Element accepting electrons is called


a) product
b) + oxidant
c) reactant
d) reductant

359.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F
b) + Cl
c)He
d)Na

360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:


a) + -3 to +5
b)-1 to +1
c)-3 to -5

d) -5 to +1

361.Strong electrolytes are those which


a)Dissolve readily in water
b)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
c)Conduct electricity
d) + Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

362.Which of the following conducts electricity?


a) crystal NaCl
b)diamond
c) + molten KBr
d)sulphur

363. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

364. Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode


a) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

365. Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

366. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:


a) + -1
b) -2
c)+4
d) 0

367. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:


a) +1
b) + -2
c)- 4
d) 0
368. Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode
a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

369. Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

370. In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation numbers
a) + intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) intramolecular
d) disproportion

371. In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed


a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) counter disproportion
d) + disproportion

372. Element loosing electrons is called


a) product
b) oxidant
c) reactant
d) + reductant

373. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a) + the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in terms
of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

374. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a) KMnO4→MnO2;
b) HNO2→NO2;

c) Cl2O→HCl;

d) + P→H3PO4.
375. Point out the correct statements:
a) + A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
b) A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
c) High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
d) Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

376. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1;
b) + 6;
c) 14;
d)3.

377. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

a) Mn(OH)2;

b) MnO42-;

c) + MnO2;

d) Mn2+.

378. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

a) Fe2O3 + HCl;

b) + FeCl3+H2S;

c) Fe+ HCl;

d) SO3+NaOH.

379. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

а) 2; b) + 5; c) 10; d) 3.

380. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


а) + accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.

381. Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:
a) Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
b) Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
c) Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
d) + Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

382. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) + 1-

383. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?a)
HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) + KClO4

384. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

a) Al; b) Fe; c) + Fe3+; d) Al3+

385. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

; a) + loses 1 electron b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton

386. . In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) + Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni

387. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) + 10
388. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

a) it allows ion migration; c) + it allows electron migration;

b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;

389. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) + F2; d) I2

390. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:

a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) + electrolysis; d) hydrolysis

Biogenic elements.

391. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

a) in molecule of cytochrome b

b) + in molecule of vitamin B12

c) in molecule of catalase

d) in molecule of vitamin B6

392) Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

a) enzyme catalase

b) + enzyme superoxide dismutase

c) cytochrome P450

d) glutathione peroxidase

393) Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

a) hypervitaminosis

b) + hypovitaminosis

c) avitaminosis

d) acidosis

394) Vitamin A deficiency can cause:


a) + xeroftalmia

b) increased blood coagulation

c) growth acceleration

d) anemia

395) The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

a) vitamin D

b) + vitamin B1

c) vitamin K

d) thiamine

396. ZnO is used as

a) protective

c) + both (a) & (b)

b) astringent

d) antidote

397. Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

a) oxidation

b) protein precipitate

c) halogenation

d) + all of the above

398. Hydrogen peroxide is used as

a) + antiseptic

b) acidifying agent

c) protective

d) antioxidant

399. KMnO4 solutions are used for

a) antibacterial
b) antifungal

c) + both of the above

d) antioxidant

400. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these

elements:

a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;

b) + H, P, S, C, O, N;

c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;

d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

401. Choose biogenic macroelement

a)Cu

b) + P

c)Br

d)As

402. Choose biogenic microelement


a) + Cu
b)S
c)Ca
d)Mg

403. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) + 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm

404. Six major biogenic elements :


a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
c) + Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.

405.Five minor biogenic elements:


a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) + Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

406. Trace elements:


a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) + Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

407. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12%
b) + 10-3– 10-5 %
c)10-9%
d) 10-2%

408. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a) + 10-2%
b) 10-9%
c) 10-3– 10-5 %

d) 10-7% - 10-12

409. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + Zn

410. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) + Fe
c) N
d) C

411. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + I

412. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) + P
b) Cl
c)Cu
d) I
Choose biogenic macroelement
a) Pb
b) +Ca
c) I
d) Ne

413. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) l
c) + O
d) Mn

414. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) + C
c)Cu
d) I

Complex compounds.

415. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:


a)+1
b) + +3
c)-1
d)-3

416. A coordination compound consists of


a) a metal ion and counterions
b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions
d) + a metal ion bound to one or more ligands

417. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:


a)0
b)+4
c) + +3
d)+6

418. Name the following coordination compound:


K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II)
b) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
c ) potassium cyanoferrate(II)
d) + potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
419. The coordination number is:
a) + The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex

420. Number of hem sections in mioglobin


a) + 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

421. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2


a) + cationic
b) anionic
c) monodentate
d) neutral

422. Ethylenediamine would be called


a) dentate
b) + bidentate
c) tridentate
d)tetradentate

423. Name the following coordination compound:


[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) + triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

424. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?


(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
(3) chloride, Cl- (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5
b)1, 5, 6
c) + 1, 6
d) 2, 3, 4, 5

Ca3  Fe(CN)6 2
425. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0
b) 1+
c) 2+
d) + 3+

426. Number of hem sections in hemoglobin


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) + 4

427. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound


a) + central ion
b) ligands
c) outer sphere ions
d) all constituents

428.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements


a) does’tchang
b) increases
c) + decreasis
d) none

429.Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps


a) 0
b) 1
c) + 2 and more
d) always without steps

430. Dentantness of porfyrin


a) 2
b) + 4
c) 6
d) 5

431.Particles playing role of ligands are


a) positive ions
b) chelates
c) + negative ions
d) complex ions

432. A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its
formula.
a) [Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
b) [ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
c) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
d) + [CrCl2(H2O)4]

433. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?


a) +1
b) + +3
c) -2
d) 0

434. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?


a) carbonyl; b) nitro;
b)
c) acetate;
d) + oxalate.

435. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?


a) + [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
b) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
c) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

436. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?


a) + Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

437. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?


a) + Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper

438. Ligand «en» is an example of:


a) + bidentate ligand;
b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand;
d) hexadentate ligand.

439. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is


a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) + Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

440. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


a) cationic
b) + anionic
c) trigonal

d) neutral

441. Donor of electrons in coordination compound


a)central ion
b)outer sphere ions
c) + ligands
d) none

442. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements


a) doesn’t change
b) + increases
c) decreases
d) none of them

443.Coordination number of iron in hem


a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) + 6

444. Dentatness of EDTA


a) 2
b) 3

c) + 4
d) 6

445. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability


a) increases b) doesn’t change c) + decreases d) none of them

446. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) + donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

447. Particles playing role of central ion are


a) + positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions

448. Find ligand of weak field


a) + OH-
b) Au
c) CN-
d) Fe2+

449. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?


a) + Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)

450. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)


a) + K3[Fe(CN)6]
b) (CN)6[Fe K2]
c) Fe [K2(CN)6]
d) [FeK2(CN)6

451. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?


a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) + tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

452.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate


a) [(en)3Co]SO4
b) [SO4(en)3]Co
c) [Co(en)3SO4]
d) + [Co(en)3]SO4

453. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?


a) linear;

b) octahedral;

c) + tetrahedral;

d) trigonal

454. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) + electrostatic model

455. Find ligand of strong field


a) OH-
b) Au
c) Cl-
d) + NH3

456. Dentatness of ligand is


a) number of central ions
b) charge of central ion
c) + number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number
Unit 3.

Colloids.
457. Disperse systems consists of:

a) + dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
d) sol, gel

458. Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

a) dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) + coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
c) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
d) sol, gel

459. What is a disperse system?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

460. Coarse systems include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) Gel, suspensions.

461. What is the Emulsion?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

462. What is the suspension?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

463. What is the aerosol?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) + It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

464. Sols are:


a) gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) + blood, lymph.
c) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
d) Blood, jelly, marmalade.

465. Gels are:


a) + gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
c) blood, lymph.
d) blood, jelly, marmalade.

466. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:


a) medical products
b) colored glass
c) + pumice
d) fog

467. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:


a) Soil
b) + Moist soil
c) Rocks
d) fog

468. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) natural gas
b) + gas from oil droplets
c) smog
d) colored glass

469. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) natural gas
b) aerosols
c) + dust storms
d) pearl

470. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) Fizzy drinks, foam
b) + body fluids
c) pastes,mortar
d) smog

471. Colloidal solutions include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) saline solution in water

472. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:


a) cosmetic products
b) porous chocolate
c) + some alloys
d) fog

473. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

a) Dust in the air


b) Aerosol
c) Fog
d) + Does not exist

474. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) + Sols
b) Emulsion oil
c) Fizzy drinks
d) Fog

475. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

a) cream, milk
b) + foam
c) pastes
d) chocolate

476. Colloid particles have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 m
c) + 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -7 m

477. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) negative
b) + positive
c) without charge
d) zero

478. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
a) + Ba2+
b) H+
c) SO4 2-
d) H+

479. Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing


a) condensation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

480. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaCl
b) + Сa3(PO4)2
c) CaCl2
d) FeCl3

481. Optical property typical to colloid systems


a) reflection
b) absorption
c) + scattering
d) diffusion

482. Find optical property


a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) electroosmosis
d) + absorption
483. Emulsion is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) g/l

484. Powder is
a) l/s
b) l/l
c) s/l
d) + s/g

485. Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties


a) μ
b) η

c) + φ
d) ξ

486. Particles of coarse systems have sizes of


a) + greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -9 - 10 -7 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -9 m

487. Particles of true solutions have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) + less than 10 -7 m

488. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =


a) + positive
b) negative
c) without charge
d) zero

489. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) none
b) Cl-
c) SO4 2-
d) + Ba2+
490. Choose condensation method of colloids producing
a) coagulation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

491. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) none

492. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Ag Cl

c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) Ba(NO3) 2

493. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) PbS
d) Ba(NO3) 2

494. Optical property typical to coarse systems


a) reflection
b) scattering
c) + absorption
d) diffusion

495. Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one


a) absorption
c) Brownian movement
c) + osmosis

d) diffusion

496. Aerosol is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) s/g
497. Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties
a) μ

b) η

c) m

d) +

498. Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:
a) + Suspensions;
b) b) Electrolytes;
c) c) Molecular solutions;
d) d) Alloys.

499. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:


a) + Colloids;
b) b)Gas mixtures;
c) c) Saturated solutions
d) ; d) Alloys.

500. The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:


a) Coagulation;
b) + Tyndall effect;
b) c) Peptization;
c) d) Dialysis.

501. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:


a) Osmosis;
b) Diffusion;
c) + Brownian motion;

d) Coagulation .

502. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:


a) + Aerosol;
b) b) Emulsion;
c) c) Sol;
d) d) Foam.

503. Fog and smoke are:


a) + Aerosols;
b) b) Emulsions;
c)
d) c) Gels;
e) d) Foams.

504. Sol consists of:


a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) + Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;
d) liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid.

505. Stability of a disperse system is:


a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) + Constancy in time of its state and main properties.

506. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:


a) + Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.

507. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:


a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) + {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.

508. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
a) + Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.

509. The methods of cleaning colloidal solutions are:


a) Compensation dialysis; dialysis;
b) Condensation; crystallization;
c) Sublimation; distillation;
d) + Filtration; ultra filtration.

510. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:


a) N2;
b) H2O;
c) + CO2;
d) O2.

511. Aerosol is:


a) Powder;
b) Dust cloud;
c) Hairspray;
d)+ All answers are right.

512. Emulsion is:


a) + Milk;
b) b) Foam;
c) c) Jelly;
d) d) Fog.
513. Biological gel is:
a) + Cartilage;
b) air;
c) clouds;
d) river water.

514. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:


a) These are heterogeneous systems;
b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) + All answers are right.

515. Coarse disperse system is:


a) Solution;
b)Sol;

c 0+ Suspension;

d)Gel.

516. Chromatography is:


a) + The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

517. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:
a) + Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

518. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:


a) + Fog;
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.

519. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:
a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) + Size of particles;
d) Odor.

520. Emulsion is:


a) + Butter;
b) b) River ooze;
c) c) Stained glass;
d) d) Textile fabrics.

521. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:


a) + Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right

522. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
d) + On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

523. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

a) + Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.

524. Coagulation is:

a) Chaotic movement of particles;

b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;

c) Destruction of the native protein structure;

d) + The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby separate
from the continuous phase.

525. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

a) Viscosity, flowability;

b) + Opalescence, light absorption;

c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;

d) dissolution, swelling.

526. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

a) Opalescence;

b) Electrodialysis;

c) Light absorption;

d) + Electrophoresis and electroosmosis.

527. A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

a) Negatively charged;

b) Electro neutral;

c) Positively charged;
d) + Negatively and positively charged.

528. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

a) Diameter

b)Particle size

c)radius

d) + solubility

529. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

a) +suspension> colloidal > true solution

b)true solution > suspension > colloidal

c) suspension> colloidal = true solution

d) none of the above

530. Colloids can be purified by

a) peptization

b) coagulation

c) + dialysis

d) bredic arc method

531. which is a natural colloid?

a) sodium chloride

b)urea

c)cane sugar

d) + blood

532. Which one of the following is not a colloid

a) milk

b) blood

c)ice cream
d) + urea solution

533. Milk is a colloid in which

a) + a liquid is dispersed in liquid

b) a gas is dispersed in liquid

c) a solid is dispersed in liquid

d)some sugar is dispersed in water

534. an aerosol is a colloidal system of

a) aliquid dispersed in a solid

b) a gas dispersed in air

c) + a liquid dispersed in a gas

d)none of the above

535. Which of the following is a homogeneous system

a) muddy water b)bread c)concrete d) +a solution of sugar in water

536. Which of the following is an emulsifier?

a) + soap

b)water

c)oil

d)NaCl

537. Lyophobic colloids are

a) reversible colloids

b) + irreversible colloids

c)protective colloids

d)gum proteins

538. Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

a)condensation

c)diffusion through animal membrane


b)dialysis

d) + addition of an electrolyte

539. Colloidal solutions are not purified by

a) dialysis

b) electrodialysis

c) ultrafiltration

d) + electrophoresis

540. Suspensions are

a) + visible to naked eye

c) invisible under electron microscope

b) not visible by any means

d) invisible through microscope

541. Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

a) + gelatin

b) sulphur

c) gold

d) carbon

542. Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

a) lyophilic sol

b) + associated colloid

c) hydrophobic sol

d) emulsion

543. The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

a) + charge on their particles

b) a layer of medium of dispersion on their particles

c) the smaller size of their particles


d)the large size of their particles

544. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

a)the colloidal particles have positive charge

b)the colloidal particles have negative charge

c) + the colloidal particles are solvated

d) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

545. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

a)high concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained

b) + coagulation is reversible

c)viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water

d)the charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or
even zero

546. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

a)light scattered by colloidal particles

b)shape of the particle

c) + size of the particle

d)relative size

547. Light scattering takes place in

a)solution of electrolyte

b) electrodialysis

c) + colloidal solutions

d)electroplating

548.Maximum coagulation power is in

a)Na+

b)Ba2+

c)Al3+

d) + Sn4+
549. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

a)Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+

b)Cl- , SO42- , PO43-

c) + Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+

d)PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

550. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

a)NaCl solution

b) + starch solution

c)urea solution

d)FeCl3 solution

551. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

a)linear

b)curved

c) + zigzag

d)uncertain

552. The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

a)Photolysis

b) + dialysis

c)pyrolysis

d)peptisation

553. Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known
as

a)electrolysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)electrodyalysis

d)none of the above


554. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the
particles?

a)dialysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)sedimentation

d)ultrafiltration

555. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

a)prevent making of a colloid

b)stabilize the mixture

c) + stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization

d)enrich the aroma

556. Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

a)absorption

b)tyndall effect

c)flocculation

d) + paramagnetism

557. Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

a) + accumulates in the surface of the other substance

b) goes into the body of the other substance

c) remains close to the other substance

d) forms chemical bonds with other substences.

558. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?


a) + colloidal S
b)Colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold
d)colloidal platinum

559. As2S3 sol is


a)positive colloid
b) + negative colloid
c)neutral colloid
d)none of the above

560. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

a) + liquid dispersed in gas

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)gas dispersed in gas

d)solid dispersed in liquid

561. Which of the following is a colloid?

a)sugar solution

b)urea solution

c) + silicic acid

d)NaCl solution

562. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

a) smoke

b) ink

c) blood

d) + air

563. Milk is

a) fat dispersed in milk

b) + fat dispersed in water

c) water dispersed in fat

d) water dispersed in oil

564. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

a)solid is dispersed in liquid

b)liquid is dispersed in a solid

c) + gas is dispersed in a solid

d)solid is dispersed in a solid


565. Butter is a colloid formed when

a) fat is dispersed in water

b) fat globules are dispersed in water

c) + water is dispersed in fat

d) none of the above

566.Which of the following is not a colloid?

a) + chlorophyll

b) smoke

c) ruby glass

d) milk

567. Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

a)muddy water

b)bread

c)concrete

d) + a solution of sugar in water

568. A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

a)gel

b)homogeneous solution

c) + sol

d)aerosol

569. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

a) a sol

b) + a gel

c)an emulsion

d)a foam
570. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as

a) + foam

b)sol

c)aerosol

d)emulsion

571. Emulsifiers are generally

a)soap

b)synthetic detergents

c) + lyophilic sols

d)all of the above

572. Butter is

a) emulsion

b) aerosol

c) suspension

d) + none

573. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium
is termed as

a)aerosol

b) + gel

c)emulsion

d)foam

574. Which one of an example of gel?

a)soap

b)fog

c) + cheese

d)milk

575. Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called


a) aerosol

b) + cannot be prepared

c) gas aerosol

d) gasosol

576. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles
with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) + Surface
d) Size

577. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is
called

a)smoke

b) + clouds

c)jellies

d)emulsions

578. Milk is an example of

a) pure solution

b) + emulsion

c)gel

d)suspension

579. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

a)electro-osmosis

b)Brownian movement

c) + cataphoresis

d)dialysis

580. Tyndall effect will be observed in

a) + solution

b)precipitate
c)sol

d)vapour

581. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

a) + scattering of light

b)reflection of light

c)absorption of light

d)presence of electrically charged particles

582. The Brownian motion is due to

a)temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

b)attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

c) + impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

d)convective currents

583. The sky looks blue due to

a)dispersion effect

b) reflection

c)transmission

d) + scattering

584. The blue color of water in the sea is due to

a)refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water

b) + reflection of blue sky by sea water

c)scattering of blue light by water molecules

d)absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

585. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

a) + colloidal S

b)colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold

d)colloidal silver

586. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

a)dialysis

b) + Brownian movement

c)electro-osmosis

d)Tyndall effect

587. is an example of colloidal system of

a)solid dispersed in liquid

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)liquid dispersed in gas

d) + gas dispersed in gas

588. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

a)suspension

b)emulsion

c) + sugar solution

d)gold sol

589. Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

a)milk

b) + gum

c)fog

d)blood

590. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

a)suspension

b) + emulsion

c)gel
d)rtue solution

591. The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

a)dialysis

b) + addition of electrolytes

c)diffusion through animal membrane

d)condensation

592. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles
abruptly collected into spherical structures called _________
a) Ball
b) Sphere of ions
c) + Micelles
d) Dirt particle

593. _________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the
stationary liquid induced by an external field.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) + Electrophoresis

594. Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?


a) Minerals
b) Vitamins
c) + Proteins
d) Starch

595. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

a) Molecular colloid
b) + Associated colloid
c) Macromolecular colloid
d) Lyophillic colloid

596. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration


b) + Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
c) Aqueous solution of odium chloride
d) Aqueous solution of sugar
597. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

a) By addition of oppositely charged sol


b) By addition of an electrolyte
c) + By addition of lyophilic sol
d) By boiling

598. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

a) Coagulation
b) Electrolysis
c) Diffusion
d) + Peptisation

599. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag +

a) Na2S
b) Na3PO4
c) Na2SO4
d) + NaCl

(extent of adsorption is directly proportional to the ease of liquification is directly proportional to


Tc)

600. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

a) Solid sol
b) Gel
c) Emulsion
d) + Sol

601. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison
to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles
____________

a) Exhibit enormous surface area


b) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
c) Form lyophilic colloids
d) + Are comparatively less in number

Unit 4

Organic compounds.

602. Which element is present in all organic compounds?


a) + carbon

b)nitrogen

c)oxygen

d)phosphorous

603.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

a) + low melting point

b)high melting point

c)soluble in polar solvents

d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents

604.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

a)slower because organic particles are ions

b) + slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

c)faster because organic particles are ions

d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

605.Which compounds are isomers?

a ) + 1-propanol and 2-propanol

b)methanol and methanal

c)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid

d)ethane and ethanol

606.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.

d) + Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.


607.Which polymers occur naturally?

a)starch and nylon

b) + starch and cellulose

c)protein and nylon

d)protein and plastic

608.What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C 6H6?

a)butane

b)butene

c) + benzene

d)butyne

609. In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a
regular

a)pyramid

b) + tetrahedron

c)square

d)rectangle

610. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per
molecule?

a)C2H2 and C2H6

b)C2H2 and C3H6

c) + C4H8 and C2H4

d)C6H6 andC7H8

611. Which compound contain an alcohol group?

a) acetone

b) methanale

c) + methanol
d) dimethyl ether

612. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

a)water

b)oxygen

c) + carbon dioxide

d)sulfur dioxide

613. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + ethane

b)ethene

c)ethyne

d)ethanol

614. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

a)an addition reaction

b)a saponification reaction

b) + a substitution reaction

d)an esterification reaction

615. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

a)1

b)2

c)3

d) + 4

616. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

a)acids
b) + alcohols

c)esters

d)ethers

617. Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

a)2-methylpropane

b)2-methylbutane

c) + propane

d)butane

618. What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

a)ketone

b) + protein

c)ester

d)acid

619. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

a) + boiling points

b)melting points

c)triple points

d)saturation points

620. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3OH

b)CH3OCH3

c) + CH3COOH

d)CH3COOCH3

621. Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different


a)percentage compositions;

b)molecular masses;

c)molecular formulas;

d) + structural formulas.

622. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3 CH2 OH;

b)CH3 OCH3 ;

c) + CH3 COOH;

d)CH3COOCH3 .

623. Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one
additional carbon atom and

a) one hydrogen atom;

b) + two hydrogen atoms;

c)three hydrogen atoms;

d) four hydrogen atoms.

624. Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2 ;

b) C2 H4 ;

c) C3 H6 ;

d) + C3 H8 .

625. The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has
the same

a) + empirical formula;

b) general formula;

c) structural formula;

d) molecular formula.

626. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?
a) + methanol;

b) methane;

c) methyl methanoate;

d) methanoic acid.

627. A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

a) toluene;

b) + benzene;

c) butene;

d) pentene.

628. C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

a) + ddition;

b) substitution;

c) saponification;

d) esterification.

629. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

a) C3H7COCH3;

b)CH3COOC2H5;

c) + H5OC2H5;

d) CH3COOH.

630. What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

631.Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

a) + C2H6;
b) C3H6;

c) C4H6;

d) C6H6.

632. A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

a) carbon dioxide;

b) + water;

c) glycerol;

d) ethanol.

633.The general formula for the alkyne series is

a) CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) CnH2n+2;

d) + CnH2n-2.

634. Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

a) acetylene;

b) ethylene;

c) + toluene;

d) propene.

635.Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

a) + HCOOCH3;

b)CH3CH2COOH;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3COOCH3

636.Which compound is a member of the alkene series?

a) benzene;

b) toluene;
c) + acetylene;

d) ethane

637. All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

a) + single covalent;

b) double covalent;

c) triple covalent;

d) coordinate covalent

638.Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

a) C2H4;

b) C3H6;

c) C4H8;

d) + C5H10.

639.Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

a) an esterification reaction;

b) a neutralization reaction;

c) a saponification reaction;

d) + a fermentation reaction.

640.Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is
an example of _______ reaction.

a) + substitution;

b) addition;

c) polymerization;

d) fermentation.

641.In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

a) 11;
b) 11;

c) 3;

d) + 10

642.Which compound is an ester?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CHO;

c) + CH3COOCH3;

d) CH3COCH3.

643.The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

a) a polymer;

b) a soap;

c) an ester;

d) + an alcohol.

644.Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures

are called

a) + isomers;

b) isotopes;

c) allotropes;

d) homologs.

645.Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2

C2H4;

c) C5H8;

d) + C5H12.

646.CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with this

characteristic?
a) acetylene;
b) benzene;

c) + propane;

d) toluene.

647. A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

a) structural formula;

b) molecular formula

c) number of carbon atoms;

d) + number of hydrogen atoms.

648.Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CH2OH;

c) + CH3CH2COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH2OH.

649.The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

a) an acid;

b) an alcohol;

c) + an ester;

d) a hydrocarbon.

650.Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order,
has 1 more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

a) +4; b) 8; c) 3; d) 4.

651.Which molecular formula represents pentene?

a) C4H8;

b) C4H10;

c) + C5H10;

d) C5H12.
652.A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

a) propanol;

b) butanol;

c) pentanol

d) + glycerol.

653.Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

a) + organic acids;

b) esters;

c) alkynes;

d) alkanes.

654.Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

a) + C2H2;

b) C2H4;

c) C3H6;

d) C3H8.

655.Which formula represents an acid?

a) CH3COOCH3;

b) CH3OH;

c) + CH3COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH3.

656.Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and
formic acid. This type of reaction is called

a) fermentation;

b) + sterification;

c) saponification;

d) polymerization.
657. Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

a) + C3H6;

b) C2H6;

c) C2H2;

d) C6H6.

658. Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

a) tetrahedral;

b) planar triangular;

c) + linear;

d) bent.

659. Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

a) greater solubility in water;

b a tendency to form ions more readily;

b) more rapid reaction rates;

d) + lower melting points.

660. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

a) + -COOH;

b) -OR;

c) -CHO;

d) -NH2.

661. C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

a) substitution;

b) + addition;

c) polymerization;

d) esterification.

662. The isomers of propanol differ in


a) the number of carbon atoms;

b) the arrangement of the carbon atoms;

c) + molecular mass;

d) the position of functional group.

663. Which is the formula of an alcohol?

a) Ba(OH)2;

b) HCHO;

c) CH3COOH;

d) +C5H11OH.

664. C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) an organic acid;

d) + an alcohol.

665. Which compound can have isomers?

a) C2H4;

b) C2H2;

c) C2H6;

d) + C4H8.

666. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

a)polymerization;

b) + substitution;

c) addition;

d) esterification.

667.Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?


a) CCl2F2; b) C2H2;

c) + C2H5OH;

d) C2H5OC2H5.

668.Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

a) C3H8;

b) C3H7OH;

c) CH3COOH;

d) + CH3COOCH3.

669.Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

a) CCl4;

b) + C3H5(OH)3;

c) C6H6;

d) C6H12O6.

670.The structure of an alkene contains

a) only single bonds;

b) + a double bond;

c) two double bonds;

d) a triple bond.

671. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van
der Waals forces between the molecules

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

672.Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

a) CH4;
b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) + C4H10.

673.What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?

a) 6;

b) 3;

c) 8;

d) + 2.

674.In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?

a) + CH3COOH;

b) C3H5(OH)3;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3OH.

675.A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used

commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is

called

a) polymerization;

b) hydrogenation;

c) esterification;

d) + cracking.

676. Organic compounds must contain

a) oxygen;

b) nitrogen;

c) hydrogen;

d) + carbon.

677. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an
organic compound is a(an)

a) dihedral angle;

b) right angle;

c) + tetrahedral angle;

d) acute angle.

678. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an

organic molecule is known as a(an)

a) carboxyl group;

b) + functional group;

c) group;

d) alkyl group.

679.The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of

compounds that are

a) + molecular;

b) ionic;

c) polar;

d) atomic.

680.How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

a) 5;

b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 13.

681.The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two

adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

a) alkanes;
b) alkenes;

c) + alkynes;
d) benzenes.

682.Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated

hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

a) + contain multiple bonds;

b) have a greater molecular mass;

c) have tetrahedral bonds;

d) contain more atoms.

683.A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is

a) ethanol;

b) glycerol;

c) + ethylene glycol;

d) ethane.

684.A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

a) fat;

b) + polymer;

c) isomer;

d) monomer.

685.Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C2H4;

b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) C4H10.

686.How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?


a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

687.Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?

a) butane;

b) propane;

c) 1-chlorobutane;

d) + 1-chloropropane.

688.A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both

can produce

a) an ester;

b) + an alcohol;

c) an acid;

d) a soap.

689.Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C3H8;

b) C6H6;

c) C2H5OH;

d) C2H4O2.

690.Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) propane;

d) propyne.

691.CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as


a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) + an alcohol;

d) an organic acid.

692.Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

a) + benzene;
b) propyne;
c) methane;
d) ethanol.

693. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling

points

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

694. As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the

ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases

695. Which compound is most likely to react by addition?

a) CH4;

b) + C3H6;

c) C4H10;

d) C5H12.
696. Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

a) propanol;

b) + glycerol;

c) butanol;

d) pentanol.

697. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

a) + benzene;

b) propene;

c) pentene;

d) butene.

698. A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

a)alkene;

b) alkane;

c) + alkyne;

d) alkadiene.

699. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

a) aldehydes;

b) esters;

c) + polymers;

\d) ketones.

700. The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

a) + secondary alcohol;

c) tertiary alcohol;

d) dihydroxy alcohol.

701. What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

a) 10;
b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 4.

702. Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

a)butane;

b) + ethane;

c) pentane;

d) propane.

703. Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

a) C5H8;

) + C5H10;

c) C5H12;

d) C5H14.

704. The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

a) ionic;

b) coordinate covalent;

c) + covalent;

d) hydrogen.

705. As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the
number of double bonds per molecule

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

706.In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

a) + water;

b) carbon dioxide;
c) an acid;

d) a base.

707. Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

a) C2H5OH;

b) + C2H4(OH)2;

c) C3H5(OH)3;

d) C3H6(OH)2.

708. In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound

formed is

a) an ester;
b) ) a ketone;

c) an acid;

d) +an ether.

709.Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) ethene;

b) + ethane;

c) ethylene;

d) ethyne.

710. The compound C2H2 belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula

a)CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) + CnH2n-2;

d) CnH2n+2.

711. Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

a) Al(OH)3;

b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) Ca(OH)2;

d) + C2H4(OH)2.

712. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

a) + glycerol;

b) ethylene glycol;

c) propene;

d) propanoic acid.

713. Which organic compound is a ketone?

a) CH3OH;

) + H3COCH3;

c) CH3COOH;

d) CH3COOCH3.

714. Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

a) butane;

b) ethane;

c) + methane;

d) propane.

715. Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

a) oxidation;

b) + cracking;

c) Haber;

d) contact.

716. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular

forces have

a) + low melting points;

b) low vapor pressure;


c) high conductivity in solution;

d) high boiling points.

717. What is the formula for pentanol?

a) C5H12;

b) + C5H11OH;

c) C4H10;

d) C4H9OH.

718. Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) toluene;

d) butadiene.

719. Which compound contains a triple bond?

a) CH4;

b) + C2H2;

c) C3H6;

d) C4H10.

720. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

a)substitution;

b) oxidation;

c) addition polymerization;

d) + condensation, polymerization.

721. In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling

points by

a) the contact process;

b) the Haber process;


c) + fractional distillation;

d) cracking.

722.Organic acids are composed of a

a)C = O group at the end of the chain

b) COO– group

c) + C = O and COH group on the same carbon

d ) C = O and COH group on different carbons

723. Which of the following is a true statement?

a)ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an
oxidizing agent

b ) + aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent

c)ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol

d)organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

724. Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting

CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

a) an alcohol with an ether

b) a carboxylic acid with a ketone

c) + a carboxylic acid with an alcohol

d) a ketone with an aldehyde

725.The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

a) + ethylpropanoate

b) propylethanoate

c) propethanoate

d) none of the above

726. Which of the following is classified as an ether?

a)CH3CHOHCH3
b)CH2(OH)CH2CH3

c)CH3CH2CO

d) + CH3OCH3

727. Polymers are

a)molecules made of monomers

b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule

c)macromolecules

d) + all of the above

728. Classify this reaction:

CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

a) Chlorination

b) Oxidation

c) + Hydration

d) Elimination

729. The first member of the ketone family is:

a)Methanone

b) + Ethanone

c)Propanone

d) Butanone

730. Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

a) + Concentrated sulfuric acid

b) Dilute sulfuric acid

c) Water

d)None

731. How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

a) + The rotate at different rates


b) They have different colours

c) They have different melting/boiling points

d) They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

732. What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

a) PCl3 and an alcohol

b)HCl and an alcohol

c)HCl and an alcohol, under reflux

d) + Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

733.What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

a) A carboxylic acid

b) + A carboxylate salt

c) Water

d) Does not react

734. Name this molecule:

a) + 1,2-dimethylbutane

b) 3,4-dimethylbutane

c) hexane

d) 3-methylpentane
735. What are alcohols not used in?

a)wine

b)vinegar

c) + plastics

d)methylated spirits

736. What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?

a) hydration
b) hydrolysis

c) + esterification

d)polymerisation

737. What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

a) + CnH2n+1OH

b)CnH2nOH

c)CnH2n+2OH

d)CnH2n+1COOH

738. Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

a) + ethanoic acid

b)ethanol

c)butanoic acid

d)ethyl ethanoate

739. Which is true about ethanoic acid?

a)it has a higher boiling point than ethanol

b)it dissociates completely in water

c) + it dimerises in water

d)it reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

740. esters are ________.

a)made from alcohols and non-organic acids

b)used to make perfumes and flavorings

c) + poisonous

d)foul-smelling compounds

741. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

a)carbon monoxide and water

b)carbon and water


c) + carbon dioxide and water

d)carbon monoxide and hydrogen

742. what are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

a) + ethyl methanoate and water

b)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

c)methyl ethanoate and water

d)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

743. What is true about carboxylic acids?

a)carboxylic acids are strong acids

b) + carboxylic acids can react with metals

c)alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids

d)carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

744. esterification is a __________.

a)condensation reaction

b)irreversible reaction

c)addition reaction

d) + neutralization reaction

745. Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

a) + ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane

b)ethanol contains a hydroxyl group

c)ethanol is used as a fuel

d)ethanol is a solvent

746. What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

a)concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

b) + concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

c)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm


d)concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

747. In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

a)2 bond

b)3 bond

c) + 4 bond

d)5 bond

748. Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

a) + one σ bond, one π bond

b)two π bond, one π bond

c)one σ bond, two π bond

d)two σ bond, two π bond

749. Acetylene has a total of:

a) + one σ bond, two π bond

b)two σ bond, four π bond

c)three σ bond, two π bond

d)one σ bond, four π bond

750. In propene there are

a) + eight σ bond, one π bond

b)seven σ bond, two π bond

c)six σ bond, three π bond

d)nine σ bond

751. In propyne there are

a) + six σ bond, two π bond

b)seven σ bond, one π bond

c)six σ bond, one π bond


d)eight σ bond

752. 1-Buten -3-yne has

a)six σ bond, four π bond

b)seven σ bond, three π bond d)nine σ bond, one π bond

c) + eight σ bond, two π bond

d) 4 σ bond, 5 π bond

753. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH3CH2CH3

b)CH3C≡CH

c)CH2CH=CH2

d)CH2=CH-CH=CH2

754. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH4

b)H2N-CH2-NH2

c)H3C-OH

d)(CH3)3COH

755. When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

a) + 2 other atoms

b)4 other atoms

c)3 other atoms

d)5 other atoms

756. Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + C6H6 b)

c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
d) CH3CH=C=CH2

757. Which of the following is a planar molecule?

a)formaldehyde

b)acetone

c) + formic acid

d)acetic acid

758. What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

a)180o

b)120o

c) + 109.5o

d)115.5o

759.The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

a)60o

b) + 109.28o

c)120o

d)118.28o

760. The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

a)60o

b) + 120o

c)90o

d)180o

761. What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

a)1.20 Ǻ

) + 1.35 Ǻ

c)1.54 Ǻ

d)1.68 Ǻ
762. The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

a) + triple, duble, single

b)single, duble, triple

c)single, triple, duble

d) duble, triple, single.

763.Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

a)C-C < C=C < C≡C

b)C-C > C≡C > C=C

c)C≡C > C-C > C=C

d) + C≡C < C=C< C-C

764.Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

a)CH2 = CH2

b)CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d)

765.The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

a)CH2 = CH2

b) + CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d) CH2=CH-CH3

766. Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

a)ethyl alcohol

b)formaldehyde

c)diethyl ether

d) + 1,3-butadien
767. Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

a) + cis-1,2-dichloroetylene

b)o- dichlorobenzene

c)trans-1,2- dichloroetylene

d)p- dichlorobenzene

768. Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

a)CI2

b)CO2

c) + CCI4

d)CHCI3

769. Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

a) + carbon tetrachloride

b)chloromethane

c)dichloromethane

d)chloroform

770. Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

a) + CH3CI

b)CH3Br

c)CH3F

d)CH3I

771. Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

a)

b) +

c) d
d)

772. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

b) 1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol

c)+ 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
d) 2-chloro-3-methylpropan-3-ol

773. Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

a)

b)

b) +

d)

774. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 3-chlorobutan-3-ol

b 2-chlorobutan-3-ol

c) + 3-chlorobutan-2-ol

d) 2-chlorobutan-2-ol

775. Which is the correct name for ?

a) + propan-2-ol
b) butan-2-ol

c)propanol

d) butanol

776. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

a)

b) +

c)

d)

777.Which is the correct name for ?

a) ethoxyethane

b) + methoxyethane

c) ethoxybuthane

d) methoxymethane

778. Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

a) +

b)
c)

d)

779. Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

a)

c) +

d)

780. Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

a)+

b)

c)

d)

781.Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

a)
b)

c)+

d)

782. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol

b) 2-methoxy-1-methylpropane

c) 1-methoxy-2-methylpropane

d) + 2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

783. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

e)

c)

d) +
784. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol
b) b)2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
c) + 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol

d) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

785. Which is the correct name for ?

a)butanol

b)propanol

c) + propan-1-ol

d)butan-1-ol

786. Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

b)

c) +

d)propanol

787. Which is the correct name for ?

a)1-chlorobutan-3-ol
b)1-chlorobutan-2-ol

c) + 4-chlorobutan-2-ol

d)2-chlorobutan-3-ol

788.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a) +

b)

c)

d)

789.Which is the correct name for ?

a)3-chlorobutan-1-ol

b)1-chloropropan-3-ol

c) + 3-chloropropan-1-ol

d)1-chlorobutan-3-ol

790.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a)

b) +
c)

d)

791. Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

a) ClCH2CHClCOOH

b) CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH

c) + CH3CHClCHClCOOH

d)C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

792.Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

a)ketone

)aldehyde

c) + amine

d)ester

793.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)ester

b)amide

c)ketone

d) + carboxylic acid

794.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)amide

b)ketone

c)carboxylic acid

d) + ester
795. One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other
compounds is that in aldehydes and ketones

a)the carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other

carbonyl compounds.

b) the polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.

c) the molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.

d) + the carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

796. The carbonyl group is

a)found only in aldehydes and ketones.

b)produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.

c) + a functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.

d)a general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

797. All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true
except

a)The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.

b)The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.

c) + Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.

d) In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

798. Which molecule is formaldehyde?

a)+

b)

c)
d)

799. Which molecule is 2- butanone?

a)

c)

d)+

778. Which molecule is propanal?

a)

b)

c)+

d)

800. Which molecule is acetone?


a)

b)

c)

d) +

801. Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

a)ethyl methyl acetone

b)methyl propyl ketone

c) + 3-hexanone

d)propyl methyl ketone

802. Which molecule is a ketone?

a) +

b)

b)
d)

803. Which molecule is an aldehyde?

a)

b)

c)

d) +

804.The IUPAC name for acetone is

a) + 2-propanone.

b)dimethyl ketone.

c)1-propanone.

d)3-propanal.

805. The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

a)3-propanal.

b) + 2-propanone.

c)acetone.

d)1-propanone.
806. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

a)3- methyl 1 butanone.

b)2-methylbutanal.

c) + 3-methylbutanal.

d)isopentanal.

807. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

a)isobutyl acetone.

b)4 –methyl – 2- butanone.

c)2- methyl – 4- butanone.

d)4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

808. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)4-heptanone

b) + 2- methyl -3- hexanone

c)3-heptanone

d)isopropyl n-propyl ketone

809. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)isopentanal

b)2- methyl – 4- butanone

c)2- methyl- 1- butanone

d) + 3-methylbutanal

810. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?
a)3-octanone c)3- methyl -3-pentanone e)all are correct

b)2-butanone d)3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

811. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

a) 3-ethylpentanal

b) 4-methylpentanal

c)3- methyl- 2- pentanal

d) 2-methylpentanal

812. Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

a)They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded

to oxygen.

b) Most have distinctive odors.

c) They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.

d) They are polar.

813. All of the following are properties of acetone except

a)flammable. b)intoxicating. c)solvent for organic substances. d)nutrient.

814. Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

a)flavoring b)preservative c)hormone d)solvent

815. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CO-CH3 b)CH3-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

816. Which compound has the highest boiling point?

a)CH3-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

817. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CH2-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CH3 c)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

818. In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

a)H2. b)lactic acid. c)NADH. d)pyruvic acid.


819. All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

a)It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.

b)Its systematic name is ethanal.

c)Its common name is acetaldehyde.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

820. All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

a)Its systematic name is propanone.

b)Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone.

c)Its common name is acetone.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

821. The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is
methyl ethyl ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound
are ____ .

a)2-butanone; c)3-butanone;

b)2-propanone; d)3-butanone;

822. Tollens' reagent is used to

a)distinguish amines from aldehydes. c)reduce aldehydes.

b)distinguish aldehydes from ketones. d)reduce ketones.

823. Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

a)primary alcohol. b)secondary alcohol. c)carboxylic acid. d)ketone.

824. Oxidation of a ketone produces

a)an aldehyde b)a carboxylic acid c)a primary alcohol d)no reaction
825. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

a)Oxidation of ketones produces esters. c)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

b)Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +. d)Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

826. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

a)The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.

b)Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.

c)The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .

d)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

827. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a)pentanal b)3-pentanone c)2-pentanone d)pentanoic acid

828. Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

a)A silver wire dissolves.

b)A brick-red precipitate forms.

c)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.

d)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

829. Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

a)A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.

b)A red precipitate forms from a blue solution.

c)A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless.

d)A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

830. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

a)butane b)2-butanol c)1-butanol d)butanoic acid

831. What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?


a)butanoic acid b)butanal c)2-butanol d)no reaction

832. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a) c)

b) d)

833. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

a)an aldehyde b)a hemiacetal c)a carboxylic acid d)none, ketones don't oxidize.

834. What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

a) gold b) copper c) lead d) silver

835. Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

a)tertiary alcohol. b)carboxylic acid. c)secondary alcohol. d)primary alcohol.

836. Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

a)carboxylic acid. b)secondary alcohol. c)aldehyde. d)tertiary alcohol.

837. What is the product of reduction of butanal?

a)butanoic acid b)butane c)2-butanol d)1-butanol

838. What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

a)butanal b)1-butanol c)2-butanol d)butanoic acid

839.What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

a)3-methyl –2- pentanal c)3-methyl – 2-pentanol

b)2- methyl -3-pentanol d)3- methyl –2- pentene

840. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?


a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose

841.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5

842.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose

b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose

843. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose

844. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose

845. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-

a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose

846. Choose the keto triose-

a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose

847. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose

848.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers

849. All tests are negative for sucrose except-

a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone

850. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16

851. Galactose and Glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers


852. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-

a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers

853. What does the following equation represent?

α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose

a)Stereo isomerism b)Mutarotation c)Optical isomerism d)Epimerization

854. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose

855.Dulcitol is a -

a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugars d)Sugar alcohol

856. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose

857. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose

858. Invert sugar is-

a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

859. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine

860. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen

861. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose

862.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine

863. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone

864. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?


a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2

865. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde

866. Which of following is an anomeric pair?

a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose

b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

867. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid

868. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

a)The glucose residue is the β anomer.

b)The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.

c)C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

d)The compound is in its furanose form

869.The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

a)A purine nucleotide. b)A pyrimidine nucleotide. c)Adenosine. d)AMP

870.Functional Group of Alkane:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH
871. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:
a)H – C = O b) C – OH c)O = C – O – C d)None

872. Functional Group of Alkyl halide:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH

873. Functional Group of Alkene:


a)H – C = O b)C – OH c)C – X d)C=C

874. Functional Group of Alkyne:


a) b) - C≡N c)C – OH d)C≡C

875. Functional Group of Alcohol:


a)C – OH b)H – C = O c)C – X d)- C≡N

876. Functional Group of Ether:


a)H – C = O b) C – CO – C c) C – C d)C – X

877. Functional Group of Aldehyde:


a) b)C – CH = O c)C – X d)O = C – OH

878. Functional Group of Ketone:


a)C – CO - C b)C – X c)- C≡N d)O = C – OH

879. Functional Group of Carboxylic Acid:


a)O = C – OH b)C – X c)C – OH d)- C≡N

880. Functional Group of Amine:


a)C – NR – R’ b)O = C – OH c)H – C = O d)C – OH

881. Functional Group of Amide:


a)O = C – OH b)C – NR – R’ c)H – C = O d)HOC – NR – R’

882.Functional Group of Nitrile:


a)- C≡N b)O = C – OH c)C – NR – R’ d)HOC – NR – R’

883. Functional Group of Aromatic ring:


a) b)O = C – OH c)HOC – NR – R’ d)- C≡N

884. Amino acides are building blocks of:


a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers

885. Proteins are composed of:


a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers

886. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

887. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

888. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine


a) aliphatic b) aromatic c) heterocyclic d) complex

889. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest
a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4

890. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in


a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium
891. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in
a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium

892. How manyα-amine acidrests are in polypeptide


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

893. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)hydrofobic

894. Choose peptide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) -C-C-

895. Lactose is
a)monose b)unreducing disaccharide c)amine acid d)reducing disaccharide

896. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation b)reduction c)esterificationd)transamination

897. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of


a)aldose b)pyranose c)fructose d)furanose

898. Glicaric acids are produced under action of


a)mild oxidant b)strong reductant c)mildreductant d)strong oxidant

899. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside

900.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

901. Components of nucleotide


a)protein b)amine acid rest c)OH d)thymine

902.Monomeric link of protein


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

903.Unsaponified lipids are


a) mono-component b) di- component c) three-component d) poly-component

904.DNA contains
a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine
905. Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis
a)alcohols, carboxylicacids
b)carboxylicacids
c)alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

906. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

907.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

908.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

909.Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of


a)transamination b)oxidation c)reduction d)decarboxylation

910. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in


a)acidic medium b)neutral medium
c)basic medium d)any medium

911. How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d)more than 100

912. How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

913.Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins


a)coordination b)hydrofobic c)glycoside d)metallic

914.Choose disulphide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-

915.How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

916.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide

917.Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation c)esterification
b)reduction d)transamination

918.Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


a)transamination c)reduction
b)oxidation d)decarboxylation
919.Gliconic acids are produced under action of
a)mild oxidant c)mildreductant
b)strongreductant d)strong oxidant

920.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides


a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts

921.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

922.Components of nucleoside
a)phosphate group b)carbonyl group c)thymine d)sugar rest

923.Monomeric link of terpene


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

924. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

925. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

926.Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

927. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

928. Saponified lipids are


a)mono-component b)three-component c)without any component d) poly-component

929. RNA contains


a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

930. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

931. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar
932. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine
a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

933.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

934.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

935.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

936. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

937. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

938. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

939. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

940. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

941.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

942. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

943. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

944. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

945. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

946. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

947. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

948. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

949. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

950. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

951. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

952. Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

a)Rayon b)insulin c)gun cotton d)paper

953. Complex lipids form under hydrolysis

a)alcohols, carboxylic acids c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.

b)carboxylic acids d)alcohols

954. Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

955. Fatty acids are

a)unsaturated dicarboxylic acids c)aromatic carboxylic acids

b)long-chain alkanoic acids d)aromatic dicarboxylic acids

956. Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called

a)proteins b)terpenes c)carbohydrates d)soaps

957. soap is

a)a mixture of salts of fatty acids b)a salt of glycerol

c)a mixture of ethers d)a mixture of aromatic ethers

958. a wax is

a)a nonpolar solid c)a triacylglycerol

b)a long-chain alcohol d)none of these

959.Fats and oils are

a)monoesters of glycerol c)triesters of glycerol


b)diesters of glycerol d)diesters of glycol

960. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

a)more unsaturation c)a glycerol backbone

b)higher melting points d)longer fatty acids

961. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

a)12 carbons b)14 carbons c)16 carbons d)18 carbons

962. Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

a)hydrogenation b)saponification c)hydrolysis d)oxidation of double bonds

963. Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

a)Vanaspati ghee b)margarine c)both of these d)none of these

964. Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

a)saponification b)fermentation c)diazotization d)rancidification

965.Saponification of a fat

a)Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps c)is used in the production of detergents

b)produces glycerol and soap d)is used in the production of lactic acid

966. Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

a)Fats b)waxes c)soaps d)oils

967. The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

a)Iodine number b)octane number c)saponification number d)melting point

968. Zwitterion is
a)an ion that is positively charged in solution

b)an ion that is negatively charged in solution

c)a compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid

d)a carbohydrate with an electrical charge

969. A zwitterions has which of the following properties

a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these

970. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:


a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals

971. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds

972. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:

a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length

973. The isoelectric point of a protein is

a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface

b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges

c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions

d)none of these

974. Glycine is

a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH

b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH

975. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond

b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid

976. Proteins are

a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene

977. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I

978. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage

979. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure

980. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular


b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain

c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space

d)the presence or absence of an α-helix

981. The α-helix is a common form of

a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these

982. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization

983. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds

984. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols

985. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid

c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid

986. Nynhydring test is given by

a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes

987. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test

988. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is
called

a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test

989. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine

990. Monosaccharides are classified according to

a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule

b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes


d)all of the above

991. Which is a monosaccharide?

a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose

992. Which is a disaccharide?

a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose

993. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose

994. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light

b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate

c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group

d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

995. The principal sugar in blood is

a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose

996. Glucose cannot be classified as

a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide

997. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol

998. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

a)its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal c)it is oprtically active

b)it is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone d)it shows mutarotation

999. Common table sugar is

a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose

1000.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above

1001.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?


a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution

b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

1002. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose

1003. Starch

a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin

b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin


Exam tests on Chemistry.
Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.

1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0
14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?
a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs

19. The basic formula for Entropy;


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW

20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW
21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.
a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

22. Internal energy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

24. Enthalpy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

26. The heat transfer are divided into


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

27. What is the thermal conductivity?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
28. What is the convection?
a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

29. What is the radiation?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

31. What is the endothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

32. What is the exothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) Endothermic reactions

34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) Exothermic reactions

35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) Q= ΔU+ W
d)ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

38. System consisting of three phases is called


a) heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

39. System consisting of one phase is called


a) heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

40. What is the heterogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

41. What is the homogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called
42. What are the units of energy?
a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d)joule

43. Spontaneous process occurs only

a) without external energy


b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help

44. Internal energy is ……


a) energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness

45. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a) H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H

46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) A b) G c) Qp d) H

47. Find state parametre


a) Q b) G c) T d) H

48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) Q b) G c) Qp d) S

49. Find state parameter


a) Q b) G c) v d) H
50.For spontaneous processes
a) ∆H ≥ 0 b) ∆S ≤ 0 c) ∆G ≥ 0 d) ∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics

51. Chemical kinetics studies –

a) energy changes during chemical transformations.


b) the rate of chemical reactions.
c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?


a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction
53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular
54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?

a) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?


a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c)Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.
58. Enzymes is a substance that …

a) increase the rate of reaction


b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate

59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-


a) Catalyst c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor d) Reducing agents.

60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

a) Catalyst
b) Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?
a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel

62. Irreversible reactions are called?


a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution

63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble
65. A material that dissolves is called?
a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

67. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

68. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S


b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) I2 → I • + I •
69. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?
a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b) Cl2 → 2Cl
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

70. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

71. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl
72. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

73. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
74. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
75. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

76. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

77. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

78. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

79. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

81. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

82. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl

83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3 c) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
2
b) Kc = [NH3] / [N2] [H2] d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2] c) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
2
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a)Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is


a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]

87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is


a) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants

89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a) Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction

90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c)Time
d)Temperature

91. A catalyst is a substance which


a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) Active mass

93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

a) Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite

94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

a) Unequal b)Constant c)Equal d)Increased


95. The law of mass action was enunciated by

a) Guldberg and Waage


b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham

96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction


will

N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

a) Increase the yield of NO


b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed

97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)


Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?

a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;

b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;

c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;

d) the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;

b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;

c) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;

d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

a) increases; b) decreases; c) remains the same; d) approaches zero


100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;

b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;

c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;

d) The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.

101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

a) decrease; b) increase; c) remain the same; d) approach zero

102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;

b) add a catalyst;

c) cool the reaction down;

d) use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?

I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

a) II only; b) III only; c) I and II only; d) II and III only

Solutions.

104. Molarity is expressed as

a)grams/litre b) litres/mole c)moles/litre d)moles/1000 gm

105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in

a)1000 gm of the solvent c)onelitre of the solution

b) one litre of the solvent d) 22.4 litres of the solution

106. Normality is expressed as

a)moles/litre b)gm equivalents/litre c)moles/1000 gm d)gram/litre


107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

a) 1 N b) 10 N c) 1.7 N d) 0.83 N

108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

a) 1N
b) 0x1N
c) 4N
d) None

109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

a) 0x1
b) 1.0
c) 4.0
d) 0.4

110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

a) 2.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) 0.98 N
d) 0.35 N

111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?

a) 0.5 N
b) 1.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) 3.0 N

112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

a) 2N
b) 4N
c) N/2
d) N/4

113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is

a) 0.46 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) 4.6 N
114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

a) 4g
b) 1g
c) 2g
d) 10 g

115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M

116. The molarity of pure water is

a) 55.6
b) 50
c) 100
d) 18

117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

a) 1
b) 10
c) 18
d) 100

118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1.5

119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) 1.0 M

120. What is the solution?


a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
121. What is the solute?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
122. What is the solvent?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
123. What is the concentration?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?

a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.


b) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

129. Mass fraction is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction


neq msolute
a) C E = c) =
V msolution

CM CEME
T= = msubstance•1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M • m solution

131.The molar concentration iscalled?

a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:


b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

132. Molar concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration


neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution

nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution
134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?
a) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent

a) msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

137. The molal concentration is:


a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

138. Molal concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration

a) msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution
140. Find volume concentration
a) mass percent
b) normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction

141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov

142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a) 98 b) 2 c) 32 d) 49

143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid


a) 98 b) 2 c) 32.6 d) 49
144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide
a) 98 b) 37 c) 32 d) 49
145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by
a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation

146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

a) diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution

147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

a) high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature

148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an

a) base
b) acid
c) salt
d) suspension

149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) molarity

150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) solution.
d) compound.

151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a) solute. c)solution.
b) solvent. d) mixture.

152. Which of the following is not a solution?


a) zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel

153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?


a) alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene

154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?


a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d)dental amalgam

155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?


a)It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.

156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is


a)concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.

157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b)increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure

158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?


a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction
b) Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction

159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution

160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a.) hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride

161. Most salt become soluble in water as the


a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b)temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.

162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity c)Dilution
b)Normality d)Molality

165. In dilution of solution,


a) a solute is added to the solution.
b)solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.

166. A 40% alcohol contains


a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b)40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

Colligative properties of solutions.

167. Solutions are:


а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c)homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

168. Solubility of solids depends upon:


a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) all answers are right.

169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:


a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.

172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.
173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:
a) Hemolysis;
b) Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.

174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:


a) 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.

175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:


а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile solutes;
d) boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.

177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:


а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:


a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure solvents;
b) Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.

179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:


a) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.

180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:


a) to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.

181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:


a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d)A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:


a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) Osmotic pressure.
183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:
a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
b) 1.0×10-1osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.

184. Osmolarity is:


a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.

185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a)  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:


a) 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a) the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.

188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise


a) increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect

189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution


a) increases
b) remains same
c) Decreases
d) None of them

190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise


a) increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases

191. For spontaneous processes


a) ∆H ≥ 0 b) ∆S ≤ 0 c) ∆G ≥ 0 d) ∆H≤ 0
192. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on
a) concentration
b) nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute
193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate
194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) Hypertonic

195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b)Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure

202. Which involves the colligative properties?


a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c)Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis

204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis
d) Osmosis

205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) Active Transport c) Diffusion
b) Osmosis d)Phagocytosis

206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on


a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only

207. Which one is a colligative property?

a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point

208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.

209. Which is not a colligative property?

a) Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point

210. Which of the following is a colligative property?

a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point

211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules


b) Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by

a) Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis
213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) Mole fraction of solute

214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

a) An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion

215. When common salt is dissolved in water

a) M. p. of the solution increases


b) B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

a) Molecular wt. of solute


b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these

217. When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then


phenomenon taking place is called

a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis

218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) П / C = ST

219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

a)less than c)greater than


b)the same as d) greater than or equal to

220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.

221. What happens during osmosis?


a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.

b) Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.

c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.

d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.

222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.


b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.

c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increases.

223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) boiling point d) freezing point

224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

a) electrolyte c) polar substance


b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance

225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as

a) volatile c)electrolyte
b) nonvolatile d) nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.

Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

226. Acetic acid is weak because


a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) It is slightly ionized
d) None of these

227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw
at this temperature will be

a) 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5

228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9

229. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

a) 10-12 b)10-2 c)10-4 d)10-13

230. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

a) 10-13
b) 1013
c) 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010

231. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

a) 10
b) 7
c) 1
d) 14

232. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) Between 6 and 7
233. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

a) 8
b) 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1

234. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

235. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation

236. FeCl3 solution is

a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

237. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

a) Neutral c)Strongly acidic


b) Weakly acidic d)Alkaline

238. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

a) An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction

239. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) Almost neutral
240. Which one of the following is acid salt?

a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4

241. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) Na2HPO4

242. Which one is not an acid salt?

a) Na2H2PO4
b) NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above

243. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?

a) NaCl
b) NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4

244. Which one will not be hydrolysed?

a) Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate

245. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?

a) CH3COOK c)KCl
b) NaNO3 d)K2SO4

246. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

a) Weakly acidic
b) Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic
247. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

a) (NH4)2SO4
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4

248. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

a) A strong acid and strong base


b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) A weak acid and strong base

249. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) FeCl3
d) NaCN

250. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?

a) NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN

251. Which is a buffer solution?

a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl

252. Which of the following is a buffer?

a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) NH4OH + NH4Cl

253. Which is not a buffer solution?

a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid

254. pH of blood is

a) Less than 6
b) Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9
d) Greater than 10

255. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

a) Acetic acid + Sodium acetate


b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All

256. Give name to positively charged particles:

а) radicals; b) molecules; c) anions; d) cations.

257. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a) NaNO2; b) NaHCO3; c) Na2CO3; d) KMnO4.
258. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) Low water ionization constant.
259. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) Ion product for water.
260. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M; b) 0.001M; c) 0.1 M; d) 1.0M.

261.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:


a)Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.

262. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


а) Electrons donors;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

263. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl; c) KHSO4/H2SO4;
b) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4; d) NH3 /NH4Cl.

264. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:


a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) All answers are right.

265. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


а)Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

266. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:


а) Electrons donor;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

267. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:


a) pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.

268. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a)pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

269. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

270. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

271. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7 b) pH>7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

272. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

273. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

274. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutrald) none of them

275. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

276. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them
e
277. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

278. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

279. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

280. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them
281. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate
a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

282. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

283. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

284. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of


a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) both A and B

285. PH can be kept constant with help of


a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) buffer solution
d) super saturated solution

286. Buffers present in blood contain


a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) all of them

287. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a) aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis

288. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase c)carbolic hydrase

b) carbonic anhydrase d)carbonic hydrase

289. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

a) hydrochloric acid only c) acetic acid only


b) sodium chloride or potassium acetate d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

290. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a) oxide
b) ether
c) salt
d) alcohol
291. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) all of above
292. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
293. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) neutralization
b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation

294. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a) AH
b) HA
c) Ha
d) aH

295.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is


a) high
b) low
c) same
d) constant
296. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid c)concentration of water molecules
b)pH of solution d)both A and B
297. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
a) concentration of acid
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) both A and B

298. Ka is called
a) acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant

299. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) HNO2

300.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) LiClO4
d) CsBr

301. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?


a) H2O
b) KF
c) HF
d)HNO2

302.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) HCN

303. A stronger base:

a) is also a stronger acid; c) tastes sour;

b) is also a stronger electrolyte; d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution;

304. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

a) water and a salt; b) an acid and a base; c) a salt and hydrogen gas; d) a nonmetal oxid

305. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

a) HCl; b) H2CO3; c) KOH; d) CH3CH2OH;

306. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

a) 1×10-11 M; b)1×10-9 M; c) 1×10-7 M; d)1×10-5 M;

307. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H+ ions. This
substance is:

a) KOH; b)CH4 c) H2SO4; d) NH3


Unit 2.

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.

308 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in


a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d)H2S
309. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c)H2O2 d)F2
310. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b)KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
311. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d)x=2 y=3 z=10
312. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b)Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
313. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b)H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2

314. An electrolyte is one


a)Which conducts electric current c)Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above

315. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to


a)Dilution b)number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution

316. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) -3

317. Which of the following is an insulator?


a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) Diamond d)Silicon

318. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O


a)X=4 y=6 b)x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8
319. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O
a) 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
320. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a)F2 b)Cl2 c)Br2 d)I2

321. Oxidation involves


a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of negative part
b)Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of positive part

322. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a)Anode b)Cathode c)Both A & B d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

323. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a)-2 b) -1 c) 0 d) -4

324. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a)SO2 b)CaO c)Al2O3 d)CrO3

325.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular b) intramolecular c) disproportion d) none of them

326.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a) CH3COONa b)C2H5OH c)NaCl d)KOH

327. Element accepting electrons is called


a) product b) oxidant c) reactant d) reductant

328.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F b) Cl c)He d)Na

360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:


a) -3 to +5 b)-1 to +1 c)-3 to -5 d) -5 to +1
329.Strong electrolytes are those which
a)Dissolve readily in water c)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
b)Conduct electricity d)Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

330. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a) the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in terms
of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

331. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a) KMnO4→MnO2; b) HNO2→NO2;

c) Cl2O→HCl; d) P→H3PO4.

332. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1; b) 6; c) 14; d)3.

333. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

a) Mn(OH)2; b) MnO42-; c) MnO2; d) Mn2+.

334. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

a) Fe2O3 + HCl; b) FeCl3+H2S; c) Fe+ HCl; d) SO3+NaOH.

335. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

а) 2; b) 5; c) 10; d) 3.

336. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


а) accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.

337. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) 1-

338. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?a)
HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) KClO4

339. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

a) Al; b) Fe; c) Fe3+; d) Al3+

340. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

; a) loses 1 electron b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton

341. . In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni

342. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) 10

343. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

a) it allows ion migration; c) it allows electron migration;

b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;

344. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) F2; d) I2

345. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:

a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) electrolysis; d) hydrolysis


Biogenic elements.

346. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

a) in molecule of cytochrome b

b) in molecule of vitamin B12

c) in molecule of catalase

d) in molecule of vitamin B6

347. Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

a) enzyme catalase

b) enzyme superoxide dismutase

c) cytochrome P450

d) glutathione peroxidase

348. Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

a) hypervitaminosis

b) hypovitaminosis

c) avitaminosis

d) acidosis

349.Vitamin A deficiency can cause:

a) xeroftalmia

b) increased blood coagulation

c) growth acceleration

d) anemia

350. The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

a) vitamin D

b) vitamin B1

c) vitamin K

d) thiamine
351. ZnO is used as

a) protective c) both (a) & (b)

b) astringent d) antidote

352. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these

elements:

a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;

b). H, P, S, C, O, N;

c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;

d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

353. Choose biogenic macroelement

a)Cu b)P c)Br d)As

354. Choose biogenic microelement


a)Cu b)S c)Ca d)Mg

355. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm

356. Six major biogenic elements :


a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.

357.Five minor biogenic elements:


a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

358. Trace elements:


a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d)Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

359. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12% c) 10-3– 10-5 %
b)10-9% d) 10-2%

360. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a)10-2% c) 10-9%
b) 10 – 10 %
-3 -5
d) 10-7% - 10-12

361. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O b) S c) N d) Zn

362. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O b) Fe c) N d) C

363. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O b) S c) N d) I

364. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) P b) Cl c)Cu d) I

365. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb b) l c) O d) Mn

366. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb b) C c)Cu d) I

Complex compounds.

367. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:


a)+1 b)+3 c)-1 d)-3

368. A coordination compound consists of


a) a metal ion and counterions b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions d) a metal ion bound to one or more ligands

369. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:


a)0 b)+4 c)+3 d)+6

370. Name the following coordination compound:


K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II) c) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
b) potassium cyanoferrate(II) d) potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
371. The coordination number is:
a) The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex

372. Number of hem sections in mioglobin


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

373. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2


a) cationic b) anionic c) monodentate d) neutral

374. Ethylenediamine would be called


a) dentate b)bidentate c) tridentate d)tetradentate

375. Name the following coordination compound:


[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

376. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?


(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
-
(3) chloride, Cl (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5 b)1, 5, 6 c) 1, 6 d) 2, 3, 4, 5

Ca3  Fe(CN)6 2
377. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0 b) 1+ c) 2+ d) 3+

378. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound


a) central ion b) ligands c) outer sphere ions d) all constituents

379.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements


a) does’tchang b) increases c) decreasis d) none

380. Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps


a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 and more d) always without steps

381. Dentantness of porfyrin


a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

382.Particles playing role of ligands are


a) positive ions b) chelates c) negative ions d) complex ions
383. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?
a) +1 b) +3 c) -2 d) 0
384. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?
a) carbonyl; b) nitro; c) acetate; d) oxalate.

385. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?


a) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl c) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
b) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

386. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?


a) Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

387. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?


a) Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper

388. Ligand «en» is an example of:


a) bidentate ligand; b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand; d) hexadentate ligand.

389. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is


a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

390. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


a) cationic b) anionic c) trigonal d) neutral

391. Donor of electrons in coordination compound


a)central ion b)outer sphere ions c) ligands d) none

392. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements


a) doesn’t change b) increases c) decreases d) none of them

393.Coordination number of iron in hem


a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

394. Dentatness of EDTA


a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

395. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability


a) increases b) doesn’t change c) decreases d) none of them

396. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

397. Particles playing role of central ion are


a) positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions

398. Find ligand of weak field


a) OH- b) Au c) CN- d) Fe2+

399. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?


a) Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)

400. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)


a) K3[Fe(CN)6] c) (CN)6[Fe K2]
b) Fe [K2(CN)6] d) [FeK2(CN)6

401. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?


a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

402.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate


a) [(en)3Co]SO4 c) [SO4(en)3]Co
b) [Co(en)3SO4] d) [Co(en)3]SO4

403. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?


a) linear; c) octahedral;

b) tetrahedral; d) trigonal

404. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

405. Find ligand of strong field


a) OH- b) Au c) Cl- d) NH3

406. Dentatness of ligand is


a) number of central ions
b) charge of central ion
c) number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number

Organic compounds.

407. Which element is present in all organic compounds?

a)carbon b)nitrogen c)oxygen d)phosphorous

408.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

a)low melting point c)soluble in polar solvents

b)high melting point d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents

409.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

a)slower because organic particles are ions

b)slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

c)faster because organic particles are ions

d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

410.Which compounds are isomers?

a)1-propanol and 2-propanol c)methanol and methanal

b)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid d)ethane and ethanol

411.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.


d)Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.

412.Which polymers occur naturally?

a)starch and nylon

b)starch and cellulose

c)protein and nylon

d)protein and plastic

413. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

a)an addition reaction c)a saponification reaction

b)a substitution reaction d)an esterification reaction

414. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

415. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

a)acids b)alcohols c)esters d)ethers

416 What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

a)ketone b)protein c)ester d)acid

417. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

a)boiling points b)melting points c)triple points d)saturation points

418. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3OH b)CH3OCH3 c)CH3COOH d)CH3COOCH3


419. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

a) aldehydes; b) esters; c) polymers; d) ketones.

420. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular

forces have

a) low melting points; c) high conductivity in solution;

b) low vapor pressure; d) high boiling points.

421. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

a)substitution; b) oxidation; c) addition polymerization; d) condensation, polymerization.

422. Polymers are

a)molecules made of monomers

b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule

c)macromolecules

d)all of the above

423. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?

a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose

424.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5

425.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose

b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose

426. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose

427. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-


a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose

428. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-

a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose

429. Choose the keto triose-

a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose

430. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose

431.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers

432. All tests are negative for sucrose except-

a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone

433. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16

434. Galactose and Glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers

435. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-

a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers

436. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose

437.Dulcitol is a -

a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugars d)Sugar alcohol

438. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose

439. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose


440. Invert sugar is-

a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

441. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine

442. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen

443. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose

445.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine

446. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone

447. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?

a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2

448. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde

449. Which of following is an anomeric pair?

a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose

b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

450. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid

451. Amino acides are building blocks of:


a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers

452. Proteins are composed of:


a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers
453. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine
a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

454. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside

455.Monomeric link of protein


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

456.Unsaponified lipids are


a) mono-component b) di- component c) three-component d) poly-component

457.DNA contains
a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

458. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

459.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

460.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

461.Choose disulphide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-

462.How many cheiral centres are in aldopentose


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

463.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide

464.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides


a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts

465. RNA contains


a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

464. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

465. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

466. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

467.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

468.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

469.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

470. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

471. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

472. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

473. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

474. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

475.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

476. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

477. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

478. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

479. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

480. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

481. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

482. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

483. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

484. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

485. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

486. A zwitterions has which of the following properties

a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these

487. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:

a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals

488. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds

489. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:

a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length

490. The isoelectric point of a protein is

a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface

b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges

c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions


d)none of these

491. Glycine is

a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH

b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH

492. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond

b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid

493. Proteins are

a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene

494. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I

495. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage

496. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure

497. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular

b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain

c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space

d)the presence or absence of an α-helix

498. The α-helix is a common form of

a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these

499. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization

500. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds


501. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols

502. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid

c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid

503. Nynhydring test is given by

a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes

504. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test

505. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is
called

a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test

506. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine

507. Monosaccharides are classified according to

a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule

b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes

d)all of the above

508. Which is a monosaccharide?

a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose

509. Which is a disaccharide?

a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose

510. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose

511. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light


b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate

c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group

d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

512. The principal sugar in blood is

a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose

513. Glucose cannot be classified as

a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide

514. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol

515. Common table sugar is

a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose

516.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above

517.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?

a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution

b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

518. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose

519. Starch

a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin

b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin


Exam tests on Chemistry.
Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.

1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) + General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) + Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a) + Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) + Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) + Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a) + Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) + Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) + Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) + Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a) + A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) + A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) + A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) + A process during which the heat Q = 0
14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?
a) + Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) + Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) + Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) + Adiabatic process

18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?


a) + Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs

19. The basic formula for Entropy;


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) + S = KlnW

20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a) + Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW
21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.
a) Q=∆U+A
b) + H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

22. Internal energy is called?


a) + Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a) + Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

24. Enthalpy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) + Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a) Internal energy
b) + Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

26. The heat transfer are divided into


a) + Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

27. What is the thermal conductivity?


a) + The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
28. What is the convection?
a) The material to conduct heat.
b) + Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

29. What is the radiation?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) + The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) + Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

31. What is the endothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) + Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

32. What is the exothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) + Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Endothermic reactions

34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Exothermic reactions

35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.


a) + ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) Q= ΔU+ W
d) + ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) + ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

38. System consisting of three phases is called


a) + heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

39. System consisting of one phase is called


a) heterogeneous
b) + homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

40. What is the heterogeneous system?


a) + System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

41. What is the homogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) + System consisting of one phase is called
42. What are the units of energy?
a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d) + joule

43. Spontaneous process occurs only

a) + without external energy


b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help

44. Internal energy is ……


a) + energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness

45. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a) + H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H

46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) A
b) G
c) + Qp
d) H

47. Find state parametre


a) Q
b) G
c) + T
d) H

48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) Q
b) G
c) + Qp
d) S
49. Find state parameter
a) Q
b) G
c) + v
d) H
50.For spontaneous processes
a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics

51. Chemical kinetics studies –

a) energy changes during chemical transformations.


b) + the rate of chemical reactions.
c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?


a) + Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction
53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) + Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular
54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) + Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?
a) + Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?


a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.

58. Enzymes is a substance that …

a) increase the rate of reaction


b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) + biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate

59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-


a) + Catalyst
c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor
d) Reducing agents.

60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

a) Catalyst
b) + Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?
a) + a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel
62. Irreversible reactions are called?
a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) + a change that cannot go back
c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution

63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?


a) + Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) + Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

65. A material that dissolves is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) + Soluble
d) Insoluble

66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) + Insoluble

67. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) + N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

68. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S


b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) + I2 → I • + I •
69. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?
a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b) + Cl2 → 2Cl
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

70. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

71. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

72. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) + CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

73. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH


b) + 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
74. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) + Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
75. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) + H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O
76. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?
a) + 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

77. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) + O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

78. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b) + 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

79. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) + 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) + 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

81. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) + HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

82. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) + 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl

83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
c) + Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
b) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
c) + Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a) + Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is


a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) + K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]

87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is


a) + K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) + backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants

89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a) + Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction

90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c) + Time
d)Temperature

91. A catalyst is a substance which


a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) + Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) + Active mass

93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

a) + Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite

94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

a) Unequal
b)Constant
c) + Equal
d) Increased

95. The law of mass action was enunciated by

a) + Guldberg and Waage


b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham

96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction


will

N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

a) + Increase the yield of NO


b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed
97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?

a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;

b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;

c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;

d) + the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;

b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;

c) + the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;

d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

a) + increases;

b) decreases;

c) remains the same;

d) approaches zero

100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;

b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;

c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;

d) + The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.


101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

a) decrease;

b) increase;

c) + remain the same;

d) approach zero

102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;

b) add a catalyst;

c) cool the reaction down;

d) + use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?

I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

a) II only;

b) III only;

c) I and II only;

d) + II and III only

Solutions.

104. Molarity is expressed as

a)grams/litre

b) litres/mole

c) + moles/litre

d) moles/1000 gm

105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in


a) + 1000 gm of the solvent

c)onelitre of the solution

b) one litre of the solvent

d) 22.4 litres of the solution

106. Normality is expressed as

a)moles/litre

b) + gm equivalents/litre

c)moles/1000 gm

d)gram/litre

107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

a) 1 N

b) 10 N

c) + 2.7 N

d) + 1.7 N

108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

a) + 13N
b) 0x1N
c) +1N
d) None

109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

a) 0x1
b) + 2.0
c) + 1.0
d) 0.4

110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

a) + 5.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) + 2.04 N
d) 0.35 N

111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?


a) 0.5 N
b) + 3.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) + 3.6 N

112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

a) +4N
b) + 47 N
c) N/2
d) N/4

113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is

a) + 4.6 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) + 3.6 N

114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

a) 4g
b) + 16 g
c) +1g
d) 10 g

115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) + 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M

116. The molarity of pure water is

a) + 5.6
b) + 55.6
c) 100
d) 18

117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

a) 1
b) + 10
c) 18
d) 100

118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

a) 1
b) +3
c) +9
d) 1.5

119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) + 1.0 M

120. What is the solution?


a) + a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
121. What is the solute?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) + component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
122. What is the solvent?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) + component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
123. What is the concentration?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) + amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

a) + Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

a) Solution
b) + Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) + Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) + Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?

a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.


b) + the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

129. Mass fraction is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) + percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction


neq msolute
a) C E = c) + =
V m solution

CM CEME
T= = msubstance•1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M • m solution

131.The molar concentration iscalled?

a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:


b) + the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

132. Molar concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration


neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution

nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) + d) M • m solution

134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?


a) + the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent

a) msolute c) + neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance•1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

137. The molal concentration is:


a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) + the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

138. Molal concentration is expressed in:

a) + mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration

a) + msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance•1000
MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

140. Find volume concentration


a) mass percent
b) + normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction

141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) + Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov

142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a) 98
b) 2
c) 32
d) + 49
143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid
a) 98
b) 2
c) + 32.6
d) 49
144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide
a) 98
b) + 37

c) 32
d) 49
145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by
a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) + theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation

146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

a) + diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution

147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

a) + high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature

148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an

a) base
b) + acid
c) salt
d) suspension

149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) + molarity

150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) + solution.
d) compound.

151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a) solute. c)solution.
b) + solvent. d) mixture.

152. Which of the following is not a solution?


a) + zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel

153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?


a) + alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene

154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?


a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d) + dental amalgam

155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?


a) + It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.

156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is


a) + concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.

157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b) + increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure

158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?


a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction
b) + Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction

159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) + 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution

160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a.) + hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride
161. Most salt become soluble in water as the
a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b) + temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.

162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a) + Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b) + Molality d)Mole fraction

164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity
c) + Dilution
b)Normality
d)Molality

165. In dilution of solution,


a) a solute is added to the solution.
b) + solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.

166. A 40% alcohol contains


a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b) + 40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

Colligative properties of solutions.

167. Solutions are:


а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c) + homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.
168. Solubility of solids depends upon:
a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) + all answers are right.

169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:


a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) + gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) + solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) + vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.

172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) + The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.

173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:


a) Hemolysis;
b) + Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.

174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:


a) + 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.

175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:


а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile solutes;
d) + boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) + concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.

177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:


а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) + 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:


a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure solvents;
b) + Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.

179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:


a) + The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.

180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:


a) + to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.

181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:


a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d) + A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:


a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) + Osmotic pressure.

183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:


a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
b) + 1.0×10-1osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.

184. Osmolarity is:


a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) + the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.

185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a) +  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:


a) + 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a) + the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.

188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise


a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect
189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution
a) increases
b) remains same
c) + Decreases
d) None of them
190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise
a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases

191. For spontaneous processes


a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0
192. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on
a) concentration
b) + nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute
193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) + molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate
194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + Hypertonic

195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) + hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + isotonic
197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) + isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) + osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) + cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) + ebuliometry
201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b) + Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure

202. Which involves the colligative properties?


a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c) + Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) + Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis

204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis
d) + Osmosis

205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) + Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Osmosis
d)Phagocytosis

206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on

a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) + Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only

207. Which one is a colligative property?

a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point

208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) + Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.

209. Which is not a colligative property?

a) + Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point

210. Which of the following is a colligative property?

a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point

211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules


b) + Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute
212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by

a) + Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis

213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) + Mole fraction of solute

214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

a) + An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion

215. When common salt is dissolved in water

a) M. p. of the solution increases


b) + B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

a) + Molecular wt. of solute


b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these

217. When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then


phenomenon taking place is called

a) + Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis

218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:


a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) + П / C = ST

219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

a)less than c) + greater than

b)the same as d) greater than or equal to

220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) + Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.

221. What happens during osmosis?


a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.

b) + Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.

c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.

d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.

222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.


b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.

c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) + The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increase

223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) + boiling point d) freezing point

224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

a) + electrolyte c) polar substance


b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance

225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as


a) + volatile
b)electrolyte
c) nonvolatile
d) nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.

Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

226. Acetic acid is weak because

a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) + It is slightly ionized
d) None of these

227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw
at this temperature will be

a) + 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5

228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) + 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9

229. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2%
ionized weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

a) 0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively


b) 1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
c) 2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
d) 3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

230. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

a) 10-12
b) + 10-2
c)10-4
d)10-13
231. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

a) 10-13
b) 1013
c) + 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010

232. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

a) 10
b) +7
c) 1
d) 14

233. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) + Between 6 and 7

234. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

a) 8
b) + 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1

235. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

236. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) + Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation

237. FeCl3 solution is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

238. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

a) Neutral
b) c)Strongly acidic
c) Weakly acidic

d) + Alkaline

239. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

a) + An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction

240. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) + Almost neutral

241. Which one of the following is acid salt?

a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) + NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4

242. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) + Na2HPO4

243. Which one is not an acid salt?

a) Na2H2PO4
b) + NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above

244. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?


a) NaCl
b) + NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4

245. Which one will not be hydrolysed?

a) + Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate

246. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?

a) + CH3COOK
b) KCl
c) NaNO3
d) d)K2SO4

247. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

a) Weakly acidic
b) + Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic

248. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

a) (NH4)2SO4
b) + Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4

249. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

a) A strong acid and strong base


b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) + A weak acid and strong base

250. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) + FeCl3
d) NaCN

251. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?

a) + NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN

252. A buffer solution changes its pH

a) Increase in pH
b) Decrease in pH
c) + No change in pH
d) No change in electrical conductivity

253. About buffer solution which in incorrect?

a) It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base


b) It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c) + It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d) All of the above

254. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

a) Strong acid and its salt of a weak base


b) Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c) + Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d) Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

255. Which is a buffer solution?

a) + CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl

256. Which of the following is a buffer?

a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) + NH4OH + NH4Cl

257. Which is not a buffer solution?

a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) + CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid

258. pH of blood is

a) Less than 6
b) + Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9
d) Greater than 10

259. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

a) + Acetic acid + Sodium acetate


b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All

260. Give name to positively charged particles:

а) radicals;
b) molecules;
c) anions;
d) + cations.

261. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a) NaNO2;
b) + NaHCO3;
c) Na2CO3;
d) KMnO4.
262. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) + Low water ionization constant.
263. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) + Ion product for water.
264. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M;
b) 0.001M;
c) + 0.1 M;
d) 1.0M.

265.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:


a) + Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.

266. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


а) Electrons donors;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) + Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

267. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl;
b) KHSO4/H2SO4;
c) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
d) + NH3 /NH4Cl.

268. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:


a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) + All answers are right.

269. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


а) + Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

270. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:


а) Electrons donor;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) + Protons acceptors.

271. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:


a) + pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.

272. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into


a) + oxides, acid, base, salt
b) oxides, base
c) Alkalis, salt, oxides
d) Ampholytes, Alkalis

273. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.
a) + hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

274. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) + hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

275. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a) + pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

276. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) + pH = 7

277. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7
b) + pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

278. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH>7
c) + pH ~7
d) pH = 7

279. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

280. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

281. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

282. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


A + ) acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

283. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a) acidic b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them
e
284. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

285. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

286. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a) + acidic
) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

287. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

288. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

289. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

290. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

291. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

292. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

ld) none of them

293. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

294. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite


a) acidic
b) + basic
c)
d) c)neutral
e) d) none of them

295. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide


a) 2
b) 11
c) + 13
d) 7

296. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide


a) 2
b) 10
c) 1
d) +13

297. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide


a) 2
b) + 13
c) 1
d) 7
298. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of
a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) + both A and B

299. PH can be kept constant with help of


a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) + buffer solution
d) super saturated solution

300. Buffers present in blood contain


a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) + all of them

301. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a) + aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis

302. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase
b) c)carbolic hydrase

c) + carbonic anhydrase

d) d)carbonic hydrase

303. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

a) hydrochloric acid only


b) + acetic acid only
c) sodium chloride or potassium acetate
d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

304. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a) oxide
b) ether
c) + salt
d) alcohol
305. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) + all of above
306. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) + KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
307. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) + neutralization
b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation

308. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a) AH
b) + HA
c) Ha
d) aH

309.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is


a) high
b) + low
c) same
d) constant
310. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid
b) concentration of water molecules
c ) pH of solution
d) + both A and B
311. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
a) concentration of acid
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) + both A and B

312. Ka is called
a) + acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant

313. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) + HNO2

314.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) + LiClO4
d) CsBr

315. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?


a) H2O
b) + KF
c) HF
d)HNO2

316.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) + HCN

317. A stronger base:

a) is also a stronger acid;

b) tastes sour;

c) + is also a stronger electrolyte;

d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution

318. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

a) water and a salt;

b) an acid and a base;

c) + a salt and hydrogen gas;

d) a nonmetal oxid

319. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

a) HCl;
b) H2CO3;

c) + KOH;

d) CH3CH2OH;

320. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

a) 1×10-11 M;

b) + 1×10-5 M;

c) 1×10-7 M;

d) 1×10-6M;

321. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H + ions. This
substance is:

a) KOH;

b)CH4

c) + H2SO4;

d) NH3

322. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

a) [H+] equals zero;

b) [H+] is less than [OH-];

c) [OH-] equals [H+];

d) + [H+] is greater than [OH-]

323. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

a) donate a proton;

b)donate an electron pair;


c) yield H+ ions;

d) + acceptor of protons.

324. What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 4

0.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

a) 100.0 mL;

b) 80.0 mL;

c) 40.0 mL;

d) + 20.0 mL

325. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

a) + increase;

b) remain the same;

c) decrease;

d) approach zero

326. Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

a) 1;

b) 7;

c) 10;

d) + 14.

327. The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

a) a single replacement;

b) the process of hydrolysis;

c) + a neutralization reaction;
d) a synthesis reaction;

328. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

a) A pH of 2 is three times as strong;

b) + A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;

c) A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

d) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as weak;

329. Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

a) chlorous acid; b) acetic acid;

c) + perchloricacid;

d) hypochlorous acid

330. Which of the following statements is true?

a) NaCl is a neutral salt; c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.

b) KOH is an acid; d) NaBr is basic salt.

331. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?

a) OH- and H2O; c) HCl and Cl-;

b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-; d) NH3 and NH4+;

332. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF; c) SO2 + H2O → H2SO3;

b) + 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2; d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

333. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;

b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;


c) HI is hydroiodic acid;

d) + HClO2 is chloric acid

334. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?

a) AgCl; b) PbBr2; c) Ca3(PO4)2; d) + Na2CO3

335. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:

a) + unsaturated; b) supersaturated; c) saturated; d) dilute

336. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate
and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a)Cl-; b) + 2Na+; c) CaCO3d) all of the substances above

337. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a) 1.5 m NaCl; c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;

b) 1.5 m AgCl; d) + 2.0 m CaCl2

338. Which equation is correctly balanced?

a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;

b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;

c) + 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;

d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;

Unit 2.

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.


339 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in
a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d) + H2S
340. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c) + H2O2 d)F2
341. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b) + KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
342. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d) + x=2 y=3 z=10
343. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b) + Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
344. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b) + H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2

345. An electrolyte is one


a)Which conducts electric current c) + Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above

346. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to


a)Dilution b) + number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution

347. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) + -3

348. Which of the following is an insulator?


a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) + Diamond d)Silicon

349. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O


a)X=4 y=6 b) + x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8

350. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O


a) + 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
351. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a) + F2
b)Cl2
c)Br2
d)I2

352. Oxidation involves


A) + Loss of electrons
b)Increase in the valency of negative part
c)Gain of electrons
d)Decrease in the valency of positive part

353. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

354. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a)-2
b) + -1
c) 0
d) -4

355. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a) + SO2
b)CaO
c)Al2O3
d)CrO3

356.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular
b) intramolecular
c) + disproportion
d) none of them

357.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a) CH3COONa
b) + C2H5OH
c)NaCl

d)KOH

358 Element accepting electrons is called


a) product
b) + oxidant
c) reactant
d) reductant

359.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F
b) + Cl
c)He
d)Na

360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:


a) + -3 to +5
b)-1 to +1
c)-3 to -5

d) -5 to +1

361.Strong electrolytes are those which


a)Dissolve readily in water
b)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
c)Conduct electricity
d) + Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

362.Which of the following conducts electricity?


a) crystal NaCl
b)diamond
c) + molten KBr
d)sulphur

363. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

364. Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode


a) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

365. Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

366. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:


a) + -1
b) -2
c)+4
d) 0

367. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:


a) +1
b) + -2
c)- 4
d) 0
368. Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode
a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

369. Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

370. In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation numbers
a) + intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) intramolecular
d) disproportion

371. In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed


a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) counter disproportion
d) + disproportion

372. Element loosing electrons is called


a) product
b) oxidant
c) reactant
d) + reductant

373. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a) + the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in terms
of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

374. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a) KMnO4→MnO2;
b) HNO2→NO2;

c) Cl2O→HCl;

d) + P→H3PO4.
375. Point out the correct statements:
a) + A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
b) A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
c) High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
d) Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

376. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1;
b) + 6;
c) 14;
d)3.

377. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

a) Mn(OH)2;

b) MnO42-;

c) + MnO2;

d) Mn2+.

378. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

a) Fe2O3 + HCl;

b) + FeCl3+H2S;

c) Fe+ HCl;

d) SO3+NaOH.

379. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

а) 2; b) + 5; c) 10; d) 3.

380. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


а) + accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.

381. Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:
a) Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
b) Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
c) Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
d) + Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

382. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) + 1-

383. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?a)
HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) + KClO4

384. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

a) Al; b) Fe; c) + Fe3+; d) Al3+

385. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

; a) + loses 1 electron b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton

386. . In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) + Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni

387. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) + 10
388. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

a) it allows ion migration; c) + it allows electron migration;

b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;

389. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) + F2; d) I2

390. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:

a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) + electrolysis; d) hydrolysis

Biogenic elements.

391. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

a) in molecule of cytochrome b

b) + in molecule of vitamin B12

c) in molecule of catalase

d) in molecule of vitamin B6

392) Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

a) enzyme catalase

b) + enzyme superoxide dismutase

c) cytochrome P450

d) glutathione peroxidase

393) Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

a) hypervitaminosis

b) + hypovitaminosis

c) avitaminosis

d) acidosis

394) Vitamin A deficiency can cause:


a) + xeroftalmia

b) increased blood coagulation

c) growth acceleration

d) anemia

395) The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

a) vitamin D

b) + vitamin B1

c) vitamin K

d) thiamine

396. ZnO is used as

a) protective

c) + both (a) & (b)

b) astringent

d) antidote

397. Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

a) oxidation

b) protein precipitate

c) halogenation

d) + all of the above

398. Hydrogen peroxide is used as

a) + antiseptic

b) acidifying agent

c) protective

d) antioxidant

399. KMnO4 solutions are used for

a) antibacterial
b) antifungal

c) + both of the above

d) antioxidant

400. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these

elements:

a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;

b) + H, P, S, C, O, N;

c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;

d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

401. Choose biogenic macroelement

a)Cu

b) + P

c)Br

d)As

402. Choose biogenic microelement


a) + Cu
b)S
c)Ca
d)Mg

403. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) + 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm

404. Six major biogenic elements :


a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
c) + Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.

405.Five minor biogenic elements:


a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) + Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

406. Trace elements:


a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) + Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

407. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12%
b) + 10-3– 10-5 %
c)10-9%
d) 10-2%

408. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a) + 10-2%
b) 10-9%
c) 10-3– 10-5 %

d) 10-7% - 10-12

409. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + Zn

410. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) + Fe
c) N
d) C

411. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + I

412. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) + P
b) Cl
c)Cu
d) I
Choose biogenic macroelement
a) Pb
b) +Ca
c) I
d) Ne

413. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) l
c) + O
d) Mn

414. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) + C
c)Cu
d) I

Complex compounds.

415. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:


a)+1
b) + +3
c)-1
d)-3

416. A coordination compound consists of


a) a metal ion and counterions
b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions
d) + a metal ion bound to one or more ligands

417. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:


a)0
b)+4
c) + +3
d)+6

418. Name the following coordination compound:


K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II)
b) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
c ) potassium cyanoferrate(II)
d) + potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
419. The coordination number is:
a) + The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex

420. Number of hem sections in mioglobin


a) + 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

421. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2


a) + cationic
b) anionic
c) monodentate
d) neutral

422. Ethylenediamine would be called


a) dentate
b) + bidentate
c) tridentate
d)tetradentate

423. Name the following coordination compound:


[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) + triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

424. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?


(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
(3) chloride, Cl- (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5
b)1, 5, 6
c) + 1, 6
d) 2, 3, 4, 5

Ca3  Fe(CN)6 2
425. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0
b) 1+
c) 2+
d) + 3+

426. Number of hem sections in hemoglobin


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) + 4

427. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound


a) + central ion
b) ligands
c) outer sphere ions
d) all constituents

428.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements


a) does’tchang
b) increases
c) + decreasis
d) none

429.Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps


a) 0
b) 1
c) + 2 and more
d) always without steps

430. Dentantness of porfyrin


a) 2
b) + 4
c) 6
d) 5

431.Particles playing role of ligands are


a) positive ions
b) chelates
c) + negative ions
d) complex ions

432. A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its
formula.
a) [Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
b) [ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
c) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
d) + [CrCl2(H2O)4]

433. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?


a) +1
b) + +3
c) -2
d) 0

434. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?


a) carbonyl; b) nitro;
b)
c) acetate;
d) + oxalate.

435. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?


a) + [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
b) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
c) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

436. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?


a) + Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

437. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?


a) + Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper

438. Ligand «en» is an example of:


a) + bidentate ligand;
b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand;
d) hexadentate ligand.

439. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is


a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) + Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

440. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


a) cationic
b) + anionic
c) trigonal

d) neutral

441. Donor of electrons in coordination compound


a)central ion
b)outer sphere ions
c) + ligands
d) none

442. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements


a) doesn’t change
b) + increases
c) decreases
d) none of them

443.Coordination number of iron in hem


a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) + 6

444. Dentatness of EDTA


a) 2
b) 3

c) + 4
d) 6

445. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability


a) increases b) doesn’t change c) + decreases d) none of them

446. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) + donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

447. Particles playing role of central ion are


a) + positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions

448. Find ligand of weak field


a) + OH-
b) Au
c) CN-
d) Fe2+

449. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?


a) + Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)

450. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)


a) + K3[Fe(CN)6]
b) (CN)6[Fe K2]
c) Fe [K2(CN)6]
d) [FeK2(CN)6

451. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?


a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) + tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

452.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate


a) [(en)3Co]SO4
b) [SO4(en)3]Co
c) [Co(en)3SO4]
d) + [Co(en)3]SO4

453. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?


a) linear;

b) octahedral;

c) + tetrahedral;

d) trigonal

454. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) + electrostatic model

455. Find ligand of strong field


a) OH-
b) Au
c) Cl-
d) + NH3

456. Dentatness of ligand is


a) number of central ions
b) charge of central ion
c) + number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number
Unit 3.

Colloids.
457. Disperse systems consists of:

a) + dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
d) sol, gel

458. Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

a) dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) + coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
c) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
d) sol, gel

459. What is a disperse system?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

460. Coarse systems include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) Gel, suspensions.

461. What is the Emulsion?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

462. What is the suspension?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

463. What is the aerosol?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) + It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

464. Sols are:


a) gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) + blood, lymph.
c) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
d) Blood, jelly, marmalade.

465. Gels are:


a) + gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
c) blood, lymph.
d) blood, jelly, marmalade.

466. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:


a) medical products
b) colored glass
c) + pumice
d) fog

467. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:


a) Soil
b) + Moist soil
c) Rocks
d) fog

468. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) natural gas
b) + gas from oil droplets
c) smog
d) colored glass

469. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) natural gas
b) aerosols
c) + dust storms
d) pearl

470. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) Fizzy drinks, foam
b) + body fluids
c) pastes,mortar
d) smog

471. Colloidal solutions include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) saline solution in water

472. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:


a) cosmetic products
b) porous chocolate
c) + some alloys
d) fog

473. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

a) Dust in the air


b) Aerosol
c) Fog
d) + Does not exist

474. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) + Sols
b) Emulsion oil
c) Fizzy drinks
d) Fog

475. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

a) cream, milk
b) + foam
c) pastes
d) chocolate

476. Colloid particles have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 m
c) + 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -7 m

477. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) negative
b) + positive
c) without charge
d) zero

478. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
a) + Ba2+
b) H+
c) SO4 2-
d) H+

479. Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing


a) condensation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

480. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaCl
b) + Сa3(PO4)2
c) CaCl2
d) FeCl3

481. Optical property typical to colloid systems


a) reflection
b) absorption
c) + scattering
d) diffusion

482. Find optical property


a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) electroosmosis
d) + absorption
483. Emulsion is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) g/l

484. Powder is
a) l/s
b) l/l
c) s/l
d) + s/g

485. Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties


a) μ
b) η

c) + φ
d) ξ

486. Particles of coarse systems have sizes of


a) + greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -9 - 10 -7 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -9 m

487. Particles of true solutions have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) + less than 10 -7 m

488. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =


a) + positive
b) negative
c) without charge
d) zero

489. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) none
b) Cl-
c) SO4 2-
d) + Ba2+
490. Choose condensation method of colloids producing
a) coagulation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

491. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) none

492. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Ag Cl

c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) Ba(NO3) 2

493. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) PbS
d) Ba(NO3) 2

494. Optical property typical to coarse systems


a) reflection
b) scattering
c) + absorption
d) diffusion

495. Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one


a) absorption
c) Brownian movement
c) + osmosis

d) diffusion

496. Aerosol is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) s/g
497. Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties
a) μ

b) η

c) m

d) +

498. Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:
a) + Suspensions;
b) b) Electrolytes;
c) c) Molecular solutions;
d) d) Alloys.

499. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:


a) + Colloids;
b) b)Gas mixtures;
c) c) Saturated solutions
d) ; d) Alloys.

500. The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:


a) Coagulation;
b) + Tyndall effect;
b) c) Peptization;
c) d) Dialysis.

501. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:


a) Osmosis;
b) Diffusion;
c) + Brownian motion;

d) Coagulation .

502. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:


a) + Aerosol;
b) b) Emulsion;
c) c) Sol;
d) d) Foam.

503. Fog and smoke are:


a) + Aerosols;
b) b) Emulsions;
c)
d) c) Gels;
e) d) Foams.

504. Sol consists of:


a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) + Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;
d) liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid.

505. Stability of a disperse system is:


a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) + Constancy in time of its state and main properties.

506. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:


a) + Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.

507. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:


a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) + {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.

508. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
a) + Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.

509. The methods of cleaning colloidal solutions are:


a) Compensation dialysis; dialysis;
b) Condensation; crystallization;
c) Sublimation; distillation;
d) + Filtration; ultra filtration.

510. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:


a) N2;
b) H2O;
c) + CO2;
d) O2.

511. Aerosol is:


a) Powder;
b) Dust cloud;
c) Hairspray;
d)+ All answers are right.

512. Emulsion is:


a) + Milk;
b) b) Foam;
c) c) Jelly;
d) d) Fog.
513. Biological gel is:
a) + Cartilage;
b) air;
c) clouds;
d) river water.

514. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:


a) These are heterogeneous systems;
b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) + All answers are right.

515. Coarse disperse system is:


a) Solution;
b)Sol;

c 0+ Suspension;

d)Gel.

516. Chromatography is:


a) + The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

517. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:
a) + Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

518. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:


a) + Fog;
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.

519. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:
a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) + Size of particles;
d) Odor.

520. Emulsion is:


a) + Butter;
b) b) River ooze;
c) c) Stained glass;
d) d) Textile fabrics.

521. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:


a) + Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right

522. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
d) + On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

523. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

a) + Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.

524. Coagulation is:

a) Chaotic movement of particles;

b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;

c) Destruction of the native protein structure;

d) + The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby separate
from the continuous phase.

525. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

a) Viscosity, flowability;

b) + Opalescence, light absorption;

c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;

d) dissolution, swelling.

526. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

a) Opalescence;

b) Electrodialysis;

c) Light absorption;

d) + Electrophoresis and electroosmosis.

527. A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

a) Negatively charged;

b) Electro neutral;

c) Positively charged;
d) + Negatively and positively charged.

528. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

a) Diameter

b)Particle size

c)radius

d) + solubility

529. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

a) +suspension> colloidal > true solution

b)true solution > suspension > colloidal

c) suspension> colloidal = true solution

d) none of the above

530. Colloids can be purified by

a) peptization

b) coagulation

c) + dialysis

d) bredic arc method

531. which is a natural colloid?

a) sodium chloride

b)urea

c)cane sugar

d) + blood

532. Which one of the following is not a colloid

a) milk

b) blood

c)ice cream
d) + urea solution

533. Milk is a colloid in which

a) + a liquid is dispersed in liquid

b) a gas is dispersed in liquid

c) a solid is dispersed in liquid

d)some sugar is dispersed in water

534. an aerosol is a colloidal system of

a) aliquid dispersed in a solid

b) a gas dispersed in air

c) + a liquid dispersed in a gas

d)none of the above

535. Which of the following is a homogeneous system

a) muddy water b)bread c)concrete d) +a solution of sugar in water

536. Which of the following is an emulsifier?

a) + soap

b)water

c)oil

d)NaCl

537. Lyophobic colloids are

a) reversible colloids

b) + irreversible colloids

c)protective colloids

d)gum proteins

538. Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

a)condensation

c)diffusion through animal membrane


b)dialysis

d) + addition of an electrolyte

539. Colloidal solutions are not purified by

a) dialysis

b) electrodialysis

c) ultrafiltration

d) + electrophoresis

540. Suspensions are

a) + visible to naked eye

c) invisible under electron microscope

b) not visible by any means

d) invisible through microscope

541. Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

a) + gelatin

b) sulphur

c) gold

d) carbon

542. Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

a) lyophilic sol

b) + associated colloid

c) hydrophobic sol

d) emulsion

543. The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

a) + charge on their particles

b) a layer of medium of dispersion on their particles

c) the smaller size of their particles


d)the large size of their particles

544. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

a)the colloidal particles have positive charge

b)the colloidal particles have negative charge

c) + the colloidal particles are solvated

d) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

545. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

a)high concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained

b) + coagulation is reversible

c)viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water

d)the charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or
even zero

546. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

a)light scattered by colloidal particles

b)shape of the particle

c) + size of the particle

d)relative size

547. Light scattering takes place in

a)solution of electrolyte

b) electrodialysis

c) + colloidal solutions

d)electroplating

548.Maximum coagulation power is in

a)Na+

b)Ba2+

c)Al3+

d) + Sn4+
549. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

a)Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+

b)Cl- , SO42- , PO43-

c) + Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+

d)PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

550. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

a)NaCl solution

b) + starch solution

c)urea solution

d)FeCl3 solution

551. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

a)linear

b)curved

c) + zigzag

d)uncertain

552. The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

a)Photolysis

b) + dialysis

c)pyrolysis

d)peptisation

553. Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known
as

a)electrolysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)electrodyalysis

d)none of the above


554. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the
particles?

a)dialysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)sedimentation

d)ultrafiltration

555. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

a)prevent making of a colloid

b)stabilize the mixture

c) + stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization

d)enrich the aroma

556. Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

a)absorption

b)tyndall effect

c)flocculation

d) + paramagnetism

557. Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

a) + accumulates in the surface of the other substance

b) goes into the body of the other substance

c) remains close to the other substance

d) forms chemical bonds with other substences.

558. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?


a) + colloidal S
b)Colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold
d)colloidal platinum

559. As2S3 sol is


a)positive colloid
b) + negative colloid
c)neutral colloid
d)none of the above

560. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

a) + liquid dispersed in gas

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)gas dispersed in gas

d)solid dispersed in liquid

561. Which of the following is a colloid?

a)sugar solution

b)urea solution

c) + silicic acid

d)NaCl solution

562. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

a) smoke

b) ink

c) blood

d) + air

563. Milk is

a) fat dispersed in milk

b) + fat dispersed in water

c) water dispersed in fat

d) water dispersed in oil

564. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

a)solid is dispersed in liquid

b)liquid is dispersed in a solid

c) + gas is dispersed in a solid

d)solid is dispersed in a solid


565. Butter is a colloid formed when

a) fat is dispersed in water

b) fat globules are dispersed in water

c) + water is dispersed in fat

d) none of the above

566.Which of the following is not a colloid?

a) + chlorophyll

b) smoke

c) ruby glass

d) milk

567. Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

a)muddy water

b)bread

c)concrete

d) + a solution of sugar in water

568. A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

a)gel

b)homogeneous solution

c) + sol

d)aerosol

569. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

a) a sol

b) + a gel

c)an emulsion

d)a foam
570. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as

a) + foam

b)sol

c)aerosol

d)emulsion

571. Emulsifiers are generally

a)soap

b)synthetic detergents

c) + lyophilic sols

d)all of the above

572. Butter is

a) emulsion

b) aerosol

c) suspension

d) + none

573. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium
is termed as

a)aerosol

b) + gel

c)emulsion

d)foam

574. Which one of an example of gel?

a)soap

b)fog

c) + cheese

d)milk

575. Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called


a) aerosol

b) + cannot be prepared

c) gas aerosol

d) gasosol

576. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles
with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) + Surface
d) Size

577. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is
called

a)smoke

b) + clouds

c)jellies

d)emulsions

578. Milk is an example of

a) pure solution

b) + emulsion

c)gel

d)suspension

579. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

a)electro-osmosis

b)Brownian movement

c) + cataphoresis

d)dialysis

580. Tyndall effect will be observed in

a) + solution

b)precipitate
c)sol

d)vapour

581. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

a) + scattering of light

b)reflection of light

c)absorption of light

d)presence of electrically charged particles

582. The Brownian motion is due to

a)temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

b)attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

c) + impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

d)convective currents

583. The sky looks blue due to

a)dispersion effect

b) reflection

c)transmission

d) + scattering

584. The blue color of water in the sea is due to

a)refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water

b) + reflection of blue sky by sea water

c)scattering of blue light by water molecules

d)absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

585. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

a) + colloidal S

b)colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold

d)colloidal silver

586. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

a)dialysis

b) + Brownian movement

c)electro-osmosis

d)Tyndall effect

587. is an example of colloidal system of

a)solid dispersed in liquid

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)liquid dispersed in gas

d) + gas dispersed in gas

588. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

a)suspension

b)emulsion

c) + sugar solution

d)gold sol

589. Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

a)milk

b) + gum

c)fog

d)blood

590. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

a)suspension

b) + emulsion

c)gel
d)rtue solution

591. The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

a)dialysis

b) + addition of electrolytes

c)diffusion through animal membrane

d)condensation

592. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles
abruptly collected into spherical structures called _________
a) Ball
b) Sphere of ions
c) + Micelles
d) Dirt particle

593. _________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the
stationary liquid induced by an external field.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) + Electrophoresis

594. Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?


a) Minerals
b) Vitamins
c) + Proteins
d) Starch

595. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

a) Molecular colloid
b) + Associated colloid
c) Macromolecular colloid
d) Lyophillic colloid

596. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration


b) + Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
c) Aqueous solution of odium chloride
d) Aqueous solution of sugar
597. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

a) By addition of oppositely charged sol


b) By addition of an electrolyte
c) + By addition of lyophilic sol
d) By boiling

598. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

a) Coagulation
b) Electrolysis
c) Diffusion
d) + Peptisation

599. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag +

a) Na2S
b) Na3PO4
c) Na2SO4
d) + NaCl

(extent of adsorption is directly proportional to the ease of liquification is directly proportional to


Tc)

600. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

a) Solid sol
b) Gel
c) Emulsion
d) + Sol

601. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison
to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles
____________

a) Exhibit enormous surface area


b) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
c) Form lyophilic colloids
d) + Are comparatively less in number

Unit 4

Organic compounds.

602. Which element is present in all organic compounds?


a) + carbon

b)nitrogen

c)oxygen

d)phosphorous

603.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

a) + low melting point

b)high melting point

c)soluble in polar solvents

d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents

604.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

a)slower because organic particles are ions

b) + slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

c)faster because organic particles are ions

d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

605.Which compounds are isomers?

a ) + 1-propanol and 2-propanol

b)methanol and methanal

c)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid

d)ethane and ethanol

606.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.

d) + Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.


607.Which polymers occur naturally?

a)starch and nylon

b) + starch and cellulose

c)protein and nylon

d)protein and plastic

608.What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C 6H6?

a)butane

b)butene

c) + benzene

d)butyne

609. In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a
regular

a)pyramid

b) + tetrahedron

c)square

d)rectangle

610. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per
molecule?

a)C2H2 and C2H6

b)C2H2 and C3H6

c) + C4H8 and C2H4

d)C6H6 andC7H8

611. Which compound contain an alcohol group?

a) acetone

b) methanale

c) + methanol
d) dimethyl ether

612. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

a)water

b)oxygen

c) + carbon dioxide

d)sulfur dioxide

613. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + ethane

b)ethene

c)ethyne

d)ethanol

614. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

a)an addition reaction

b)a saponification reaction

b) + a substitution reaction

d)an esterification reaction

615. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

a)1

b)2

c)3

d) + 4

616. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

a)acids
b) + alcohols

c)esters

d)ethers

617. Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

a)2-methylpropane

b)2-methylbutane

c) + propane

d)butane

618. What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

a)ketone

b) + protein

c)ester

d)acid

619. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

a) + boiling points

b)melting points

c)triple points

d)saturation points

620. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3OH

b)CH3OCH3

c) + CH3COOH

d)CH3COOCH3

621. Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different


a)percentage compositions;

b)molecular masses;

c)molecular formulas;

d) + structural formulas.

622. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3 CH2 OH;

b)CH3 OCH3 ;

c) + CH3 COOH;

d)CH3COOCH3 .

623. Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one
additional carbon atom and

a) one hydrogen atom;

b) + two hydrogen atoms;

c)three hydrogen atoms;

d) four hydrogen atoms.

624. Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2 ;

b) C2 H4 ;

c) C3 H6 ;

d) + C3 H8 .

625. The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has
the same

a) + empirical formula;

b) general formula;

c) structural formula;

d) molecular formula.

626. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?
a) + methanol;

b) methane;

c) methyl methanoate;

d) methanoic acid.

627. A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

a) toluene;

b) + benzene;

c) butene;

d) pentene.

628. C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

a) + ddition;

b) substitution;

c) saponification;

d) esterification.

629. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

a) C3H7COCH3;

b)CH3COOC2H5;

c) + H5OC2H5;

d) CH3COOH.

630. What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

631.Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

a) + C2H6;
b) C3H6;

c) C4H6;

d) C6H6.

632. A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

a) carbon dioxide;

b) + water;

c) glycerol;

d) ethanol.

633.The general formula for the alkyne series is

a) CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) CnH2n+2;

d) + CnH2n-2.

634. Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

a) acetylene;

b) ethylene;

c) + toluene;

d) propene.

635.Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

a) + HCOOCH3;

b)CH3CH2COOH;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3COOCH3

636.Which compound is a member of the alkene series?

a) benzene;

b) toluene;
c) + acetylene;

d) ethane

637. All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

a) + single covalent;

b) double covalent;

c) triple covalent;

d) coordinate covalent

638.Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

a) C2H4;

b) C3H6;

c) C4H8;

d) + C5H10.

639.Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

a) an esterification reaction;

b) a neutralization reaction;

c) a saponification reaction;

d) + a fermentation reaction.

640.Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is
an example of _______ reaction.

a) + substitution;

b) addition;

c) polymerization;

d) fermentation.

641.In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

a) 11;
b) 11;

c) 3;

d) + 10

642.Which compound is an ester?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CHO;

c) + CH3COOCH3;

d) CH3COCH3.

643.The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

a) a polymer;

b) a soap;

c) an ester;

d) + an alcohol.

644.Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures

are called

a) + isomers;

b) isotopes;

c) allotropes;

d) homologs.

645.Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2

C2H4;

c) C5H8;

d) + C5H12.

646.CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with this

characteristic?
a) acetylene;
b) benzene;

c) + propane;

d) toluene.

647. A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

a) structural formula;

b) molecular formula

c) number of carbon atoms;

d) + number of hydrogen atoms.

648.Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CH2OH;

c) + CH3CH2COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH2OH.

649.The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

a) an acid;

b) an alcohol;

c) + an ester;

d) a hydrocarbon.

650.Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order,
has 1 more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

a) +4; b) 8; c) 3; d) 4.

651.Which molecular formula represents pentene?

a) C4H8;

b) C4H10;

c) + C5H10;

d) C5H12.
652.A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

a) propanol;

b) butanol;

c) pentanol

d) + glycerol.

653.Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

a) + organic acids;

b) esters;

c) alkynes;

d) alkanes.

654.Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

a) + C2H2;

b) C2H4;

c) C3H6;

d) C3H8.

655.Which formula represents an acid?

a) CH3COOCH3;

b) CH3OH;

c) + CH3COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH3.

656.Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and
formic acid. This type of reaction is called

a) fermentation;

b) + sterification;

c) saponification;

d) polymerization.
657. Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

a) + C3H6;

b) C2H6;

c) C2H2;

d) C6H6.

658. Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

a) tetrahedral;

b) planar triangular;

c) + linear;

d) bent.

659. Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

a) greater solubility in water;

b a tendency to form ions more readily;

b) more rapid reaction rates;

d) + lower melting points.

660. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

a) + -COOH;

b) -OR;

c) -CHO;

d) -NH2.

661. C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

a) substitution;

b) + addition;

c) polymerization;

d) esterification.

662. The isomers of propanol differ in


a) the number of carbon atoms;

b) the arrangement of the carbon atoms;

c) + molecular mass;

d) the position of functional group.

663. Which is the formula of an alcohol?

a) Ba(OH)2;

b) HCHO;

c) CH3COOH;

d) +C5H11OH.

664. C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) an organic acid;

d) + an alcohol.

665. Which compound can have isomers?

a) C2H4;

b) C2H2;

c) C2H6;

d) + C4H8.

666. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

a)polymerization;

b) + substitution;

c) addition;

d) esterification.

667.Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?


a) CCl2F2; b) C2H2;

c) + C2H5OH;

d) C2H5OC2H5.

668.Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

a) C3H8;

b) C3H7OH;

c) CH3COOH;

d) + CH3COOCH3.

669.Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

a) CCl4;

b) + C3H5(OH)3;

c) C6H6;

d) C6H12O6.

670.The structure of an alkene contains

a) only single bonds;

b) + a double bond;

c) two double bonds;

d) a triple bond.

671. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van
der Waals forces between the molecules

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

672.Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

a) CH4;
b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) + C4H10.

673.What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?

a) 6;

b) 3;

c) 8;

d) + 2.

674.In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?

a) + CH3COOH;

b) C3H5(OH)3;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3OH.

675.A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used

commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is

called

a) polymerization;

b) hydrogenation;

c) esterification;

d) + cracking.

676. Organic compounds must contain

a) oxygen;

b) nitrogen;

c) hydrogen;

d) + carbon.

677. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an
organic compound is a(an)

a) dihedral angle;

b) right angle;

c) + tetrahedral angle;

d) acute angle.

678. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an

organic molecule is known as a(an)

a) carboxyl group;

b) + functional group;

c) group;

d) alkyl group.

679.The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of

compounds that are

a) + molecular;

b) ionic;

c) polar;

d) atomic.

680.How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

a) 5;

b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 13.

681.The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two

adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

a) alkanes;
b) alkenes;

c) + alkynes;
d) benzenes.

682.Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated

hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

a) + contain multiple bonds;

b) have a greater molecular mass;

c) have tetrahedral bonds;

d) contain more atoms.

683.A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is

a) ethanol;

b) glycerol;

c) + ethylene glycol;

d) ethane.

684.A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

a) fat;

b) + polymer;

c) isomer;

d) monomer.

685.Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C2H4;

b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) C4H10.

686.How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?


a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

687.Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?

a) butane;

b) propane;

c) 1-chlorobutane;

d) + 1-chloropropane.

688.A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both

can produce

a) an ester;

b) + an alcohol;

c) an acid;

d) a soap.

689.Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C3H8;

b) C6H6;

c) C2H5OH;

d) C2H4O2.

690.Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) propane;

d) propyne.

691.CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as


a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) + an alcohol;

d) an organic acid.

692.Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

a) + benzene;
b) propyne;
c) methane;
d) ethanol.

693. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling

points

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

694. As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the

ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases

695. Which compound is most likely to react by addition?

a) CH4;

b) + C3H6;

c) C4H10;

d) C5H12.
696. Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

a) propanol;

b) + glycerol;

c) butanol;

d) pentanol.

697. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

a) + benzene;

b) propene;

c) pentene;

d) butene.

698. A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

a)alkene;

b) alkane;

c) + alkyne;

d) alkadiene.

699. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

a) aldehydes;

b) esters;

c) + polymers;

\d) ketones.

700. The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

a) + secondary alcohol;

c) tertiary alcohol;

d) dihydroxy alcohol.

701. What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

a) 10;
b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 4.

702. Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

a)butane;

b) + ethane;

c) pentane;

d) propane.

703. Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

a) C5H8;

) + C5H10;

c) C5H12;

d) C5H14.

704. The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

a) ionic;

b) coordinate covalent;

c) + covalent;

d) hydrogen.

705. As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the
number of double bonds per molecule

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

706.In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

a) + water;

b) carbon dioxide;
c) an acid;

d) a base.

707. Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

a) C2H5OH;

b) + C2H4(OH)2;

c) C3H5(OH)3;

d) C3H6(OH)2.

708. In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound

formed is

a) an ester;
b) ) a ketone;

c) an acid;

d) +an ether.

709.Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) ethene;

b) + ethane;

c) ethylene;

d) ethyne.

710. The compound C2H2 belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula

a)CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) + CnH2n-2;

d) CnH2n+2.

711. Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

a) Al(OH)3;

b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) Ca(OH)2;

d) + C2H4(OH)2.

712. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

a) + glycerol;

b) ethylene glycol;

c) propene;

d) propanoic acid.

713. Which organic compound is a ketone?

a) CH3OH;

) + H3COCH3;

c) CH3COOH;

d) CH3COOCH3.

714. Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

a) butane;

b) ethane;

c) + methane;

d) propane.

715. Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

a) oxidation;

b) + cracking;

c) Haber;

d) contact.

716. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular

forces have

a) + low melting points;

b) low vapor pressure;


c) high conductivity in solution;

d) high boiling points.

717. What is the formula for pentanol?

a) C5H12;

b) + C5H11OH;

c) C4H10;

d) C4H9OH.

718. Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) toluene;

d) butadiene.

719. Which compound contains a triple bond?

a) CH4;

b) + C2H2;

c) C3H6;

d) C4H10.

720. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

a)substitution;

b) oxidation;

c) addition polymerization;

d) + condensation, polymerization.

721. In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling

points by

a) the contact process;

b) the Haber process;


c) + fractional distillation;

d) cracking.

722.Organic acids are composed of a

a)C = O group at the end of the chain

b) COO– group

c) + C = O and COH group on the same carbon

d ) C = O and COH group on different carbons

723. Which of the following is a true statement?

a)ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an
oxidizing agent

b ) + aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent

c)ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol

d)organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

724. Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting

CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

a) an alcohol with an ether

b) a carboxylic acid with a ketone

c) + a carboxylic acid with an alcohol

d) a ketone with an aldehyde

725.The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

a) + ethylpropanoate

b) propylethanoate

c) propethanoate

d) none of the above

726. Which of the following is classified as an ether?

a)CH3CHOHCH3
b)CH2(OH)CH2CH3

c)CH3CH2CO

d) + CH3OCH3

727. Polymers are

a)molecules made of monomers

b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule

c)macromolecules

d) + all of the above

728. Classify this reaction:

CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

a) Chlorination

b) Oxidation

c) + Hydration

d) Elimination

729. The first member of the ketone family is:

a)Methanone

b) + Ethanone

c)Propanone

d) Butanone

730. Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

a) + Concentrated sulfuric acid

b) Dilute sulfuric acid

c) Water

d)None

731. How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

a) + The rotate at different rates


b) They have different colours

c) They have different melting/boiling points

d) They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

732. What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

a) PCl3 and an alcohol

b)HCl and an alcohol

c)HCl and an alcohol, under reflux

d) + Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

733.What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

a) A carboxylic acid

b) + A carboxylate salt

c) Water

d) Does not react

734. Name this molecule:

a) + 1,2-dimethylbutane

b) 3,4-dimethylbutane

c) hexane

d) 3-methylpentane
735. What are alcohols not used in?

a)wine

b)vinegar

c) + plastics

d)methylated spirits

736. What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?

a) hydration
b) hydrolysis

c) + esterification

d)polymerisation

737. What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

a) + CnH2n+1OH

b)CnH2nOH

c)CnH2n+2OH

d)CnH2n+1COOH

738. Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

a) + ethanoic acid

b)ethanol

c)butanoic acid

d)ethyl ethanoate

739. Which is true about ethanoic acid?

a)it has a higher boiling point than ethanol

b)it dissociates completely in water

c) + it dimerises in water

d)it reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

740. esters are ________.

a)made from alcohols and non-organic acids

b)used to make perfumes and flavorings

c) + poisonous

d)foul-smelling compounds

741. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

a)carbon monoxide and water

b)carbon and water


c) + carbon dioxide and water

d)carbon monoxide and hydrogen

742. what are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

a) + ethyl methanoate and water

b)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

c)methyl ethanoate and water

d)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

743. What is true about carboxylic acids?

a)carboxylic acids are strong acids

b) + carboxylic acids can react with metals

c)alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids

d)carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

744. esterification is a __________.

a)condensation reaction

b)irreversible reaction

c)addition reaction

d) + neutralization reaction

745. Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

a) + ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane

b)ethanol contains a hydroxyl group

c)ethanol is used as a fuel

d)ethanol is a solvent

746. What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

a)concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

b) + concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

c)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm


d)concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

747. In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

a)2 bond

b)3 bond

c) + 4 bond

d)5 bond

748. Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

a) + one σ bond, one π bond

b)two π bond, one π bond

c)one σ bond, two π bond

d)two σ bond, two π bond

749. Acetylene has a total of:

a) + one σ bond, two π bond

b)two σ bond, four π bond

c)three σ bond, two π bond

d)one σ bond, four π bond

750. In propene there are

a) + eight σ bond, one π bond

b)seven σ bond, two π bond

c)six σ bond, three π bond

d)nine σ bond

751. In propyne there are

a) + six σ bond, two π bond

b)seven σ bond, one π bond

c)six σ bond, one π bond


d)eight σ bond

752. 1-Buten -3-yne has

a)six σ bond, four π bond

b)seven σ bond, three π bond d)nine σ bond, one π bond

c) + eight σ bond, two π bond

d) 4 σ bond, 5 π bond

753. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH3CH2CH3

b)CH3C≡CH

c)CH2CH=CH2

d)CH2=CH-CH=CH2

754. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH4

b)H2N-CH2-NH2

c)H3C-OH

d)(CH3)3COH

755. When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

a) + 2 other atoms

b)4 other atoms

c)3 other atoms

d)5 other atoms

756. Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + C6H6 b)

c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
d) CH3CH=C=CH2

757. Which of the following is a planar molecule?

a)formaldehyde

b)acetone

c) + formic acid

d)acetic acid

758. What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

a)180o

b)120o

c) + 109.5o

d)115.5o

759.The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

a)60o

b) + 109.28o

c)120o

d)118.28o

760. The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

a)60o

b) + 120o

c)90o

d)180o

761. What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

a)1.20 Ǻ

) + 1.35 Ǻ

c)1.54 Ǻ

d)1.68 Ǻ
762. The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

a) + triple, duble, single

b)single, duble, triple

c)single, triple, duble

d) duble, triple, single.

763.Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

a)C-C < C=C < C≡C

b)C-C > C≡C > C=C

c)C≡C > C-C > C=C

d) + C≡C < C=C< C-C

764.Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

a)CH2 = CH2

b)CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d)

765.The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

a)CH2 = CH2

b) + CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d) CH2=CH-CH3

766. Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

a)ethyl alcohol

b)formaldehyde

c)diethyl ether

d) + 1,3-butadien
767. Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

a) + cis-1,2-dichloroetylene

b)o- dichlorobenzene

c)trans-1,2- dichloroetylene

d)p- dichlorobenzene

768. Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

a)CI2

b)CO2

c) + CCI4

d)CHCI3

769. Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

a) + carbon tetrachloride

b)chloromethane

c)dichloromethane

d)chloroform

770. Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

a) + CH3CI

b)CH3Br

c)CH3F

d)CH3I

771. Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

a)

b) +

c) d
d)

772. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

b) 1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol

c)+ 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
d) 2-chloro-3-methylpropan-3-ol

773. Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

a)

b)

b) +

d)

774. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 3-chlorobutan-3-ol

b 2-chlorobutan-3-ol

c) + 3-chlorobutan-2-ol

d) 2-chlorobutan-2-ol

775. Which is the correct name for ?

a) + propan-2-ol
b) butan-2-ol

c)propanol

d) butanol

776. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

a)

b) +

c)

d)

777.Which is the correct name for ?

a) ethoxyethane

b) + methoxyethane

c) ethoxybuthane

d) methoxymethane

778. Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

a) +

b)
c)

d)

779. Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

a)

c) +

d)

780. Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

a)+

b)

c)

d)

781.Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

a)
b)

c)+

d)

782. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol

b) 2-methoxy-1-methylpropane

c) 1-methoxy-2-methylpropane

d) + 2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

783. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

e)

c)

d) +
784. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol
b) b)2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
c) + 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol

d) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

785. Which is the correct name for ?

a)butanol

b)propanol

c) + propan-1-ol

d)butan-1-ol

786. Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

b)

c) +

d)propanol

787. Which is the correct name for ?

a)1-chlorobutan-3-ol
b)1-chlorobutan-2-ol

c) + 4-chlorobutan-2-ol

d)2-chlorobutan-3-ol

788.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a) +

b)

c)

d)

789.Which is the correct name for ?

a)3-chlorobutan-1-ol

b)1-chloropropan-3-ol

c) + 3-chloropropan-1-ol

d)1-chlorobutan-3-ol

790.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a)

b) +
c)

d)

791. Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

a) ClCH2CHClCOOH

b) CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH

c) + CH3CHClCHClCOOH

d)C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

792.Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

a)ketone

)aldehyde

c) + amine

d)ester

793.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)ester

b)amide

c)ketone

d) + carboxylic acid

794.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)amide

b)ketone

c)carboxylic acid

d) + ester
795. One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other
compounds is that in aldehydes and ketones

a)the carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other

carbonyl compounds.

b) the polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.

c) the molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.

d) + the carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

796. The carbonyl group is

a)found only in aldehydes and ketones.

b)produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.

c) + a functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.

d)a general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

797. All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true
except

a)The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.

b)The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.

c) + Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.

d) In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

798. Which molecule is formaldehyde?

a)+

b)

c)
d)

799. Which molecule is 2- butanone?

a)

c)

d)+

778. Which molecule is propanal?

a)

b)

c)+

d)

800. Which molecule is acetone?


a)

b)

c)

d) +

801. Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

a)ethyl methyl acetone

b)methyl propyl ketone

c) + 3-hexanone

d)propyl methyl ketone

802. Which molecule is a ketone?

a) +

b)

b)
d)

803. Which molecule is an aldehyde?

a)

b)

c)

d) +

804.The IUPAC name for acetone is

a) + 2-propanone.

b)dimethyl ketone.

c)1-propanone.

d)3-propanal.

805. The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

a)3-propanal.

b) + 2-propanone.

c)acetone.

d)1-propanone.
806. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

a)3- methyl 1 butanone.

b)2-methylbutanal.

c) + 3-methylbutanal.

d)isopentanal.

807. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

a)isobutyl acetone.

b)4 –methyl – 2- butanone.

c)2- methyl – 4- butanone.

d)4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

808. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)4-heptanone

b) + 2- methyl -3- hexanone

c)3-heptanone

d)isopropyl n-propyl ketone

809. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)isopentanal

b)2- methyl – 4- butanone

c)2- methyl- 1- butanone

d) + 3-methylbutanal

810. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?
a)3-octanone c)3- methyl -3-pentanone e)all are correct

b)2-butanone d)3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

811. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

a) 3-ethylpentanal

b) 4-methylpentanal

c)3- methyl- 2- pentanal

d) 2-methylpentanal

812. Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

a)They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded

to oxygen.

b) Most have distinctive odors.

c) They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.

d) They are polar.

813. All of the following are properties of acetone except

a)flammable. b)intoxicating. c)solvent for organic substances. d)nutrient.

814. Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

a)flavoring b)preservative c)hormone d)solvent

815. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CO-CH3 b)CH3-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

816. Which compound has the highest boiling point?

a)CH3-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

817. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CH2-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CH3 c)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

818. In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

a)H2. b)lactic acid. c)NADH. d)pyruvic acid.


819. All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

a)It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.

b)Its systematic name is ethanal.

c)Its common name is acetaldehyde.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

820. All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

a)Its systematic name is propanone.

b)Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone.

c)Its common name is acetone.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

821. The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is
methyl ethyl ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound
are ____ .

a)2-butanone; c)3-butanone;

b)2-propanone; d)3-butanone;

822. Tollens' reagent is used to

a)distinguish amines from aldehydes. c)reduce aldehydes.

b)distinguish aldehydes from ketones. d)reduce ketones.

823. Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

a)primary alcohol. b)secondary alcohol. c)carboxylic acid. d)ketone.

824. Oxidation of a ketone produces

a)an aldehyde b)a carboxylic acid c)a primary alcohol d)no reaction
825. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

a)Oxidation of ketones produces esters. c)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

b)Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +. d)Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

826. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

a)The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.

b)Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.

c)The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .

d)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

827. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a)pentanal b)3-pentanone c)2-pentanone d)pentanoic acid

828. Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

a)A silver wire dissolves.

b)A brick-red precipitate forms.

c)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.

d)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

829. Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

a)A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.

b)A red precipitate forms from a blue solution.

c)A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless.

d)A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

830. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

a)butane b)2-butanol c)1-butanol d)butanoic acid

831. What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?


a)butanoic acid b)butanal c)2-butanol d)no reaction

832. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a) c)

b) d)

833. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

a)an aldehyde b)a hemiacetal c)a carboxylic acid d)none, ketones don't oxidize.

834. What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

a) gold b) copper c) lead d) silver

835. Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

a)tertiary alcohol. b)carboxylic acid. c)secondary alcohol. d)primary alcohol.

836. Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

a)carboxylic acid. b)secondary alcohol. c)aldehyde. d)tertiary alcohol.

837. What is the product of reduction of butanal?

a)butanoic acid b)butane c)2-butanol d)1-butanol

838. What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

a)butanal b)1-butanol c)2-butanol d)butanoic acid

839.What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

a)3-methyl –2- pentanal c)3-methyl – 2-pentanol

b)2- methyl -3-pentanol d)3- methyl –2- pentene

840. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?


a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose

841.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5

842.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose

b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose

843. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose

844. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose

845. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-

a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose

846. Choose the keto triose-

a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose

847. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose

848.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers

849. All tests are negative for sucrose except-

a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone

850. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16

851. Galactose and Glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers


852. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-

a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers

853. What does the following equation represent?

α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose

a)Stereo isomerism b)Mutarotation c)Optical isomerism d)Epimerization

854. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose

855.Dulcitol is a -

a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugars d)Sugar alcohol

856. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose

857. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose

858. Invert sugar is-

a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

859. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine

860. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen

861. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose

862.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine

863. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone

864. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?


a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2

865. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde

866. Which of following is an anomeric pair?

a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose

b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

867. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid

868. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

a)The glucose residue is the β anomer.

b)The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.

c)C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

d)The compound is in its furanose form

869.The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

a)A purine nucleotide. b)A pyrimidine nucleotide. c)Adenosine. d)AMP

870.Functional Group of Alkane:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH
871. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:
a)H – C = O b) C – OH c)O = C – O – C d)None

872. Functional Group of Alkyl halide:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH

873. Functional Group of Alkene:


a)H – C = O b)C – OH c)C – X d)C=C

874. Functional Group of Alkyne:


a) b) - C≡N c)C – OH d)C≡C

875. Functional Group of Alcohol:


a)C – OH b)H – C = O c)C – X d)- C≡N

876. Functional Group of Ether:


a)H – C = O b) C – CO – C c) C – C d)C – X

877. Functional Group of Aldehyde:


a) b)C – CH = O c)C – X d)O = C – OH

878. Functional Group of Ketone:


a)C – CO - C b)C – X c)- C≡N d)O = C – OH

879. Functional Group of Carboxylic Acid:


a)O = C – OH b)C – X c)C – OH d)- C≡N

880. Functional Group of Amine:


a)C – NR – R’ b)O = C – OH c)H – C = O d)C – OH

881. Functional Group of Amide:


a)O = C – OH b)C – NR – R’ c)H – C = O d)HOC – NR – R’

882.Functional Group of Nitrile:


a)- C≡N b)O = C – OH c)C – NR – R’ d)HOC – NR – R’

883. Functional Group of Aromatic ring:


a) b)O = C – OH c)HOC – NR – R’ d)- C≡N

884. Amino acides are building blocks of:


a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers

885. Proteins are composed of:


a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers

886. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

887. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

888. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine


a) aliphatic b) aromatic c) heterocyclic d) complex

889. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest
a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4

890. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in


a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium
891. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in
a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium

892. How manyα-amine acidrests are in polypeptide


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

893. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)hydrofobic

894. Choose peptide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) -C-C-

895. Lactose is
a)monose b)unreducing disaccharide c)amine acid d)reducing disaccharide

896. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation b)reduction c)esterificationd)transamination

897. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of


a)aldose b)pyranose c)fructose d)furanose

898. Glicaric acids are produced under action of


a)mild oxidant b)strong reductant c)mildreductant d)strong oxidant

899. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside

900.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

901. Components of nucleotide


a)protein b)amine acid rest c)OH d)thymine

902.Monomeric link of protein


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

903.Unsaponified lipids are


a) mono-component b) di- component c) three-component d) poly-component

904.DNA contains
a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine
905. Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis
a)alcohols, carboxylicacids
b)carboxylicacids
c)alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

906. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

907.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

908.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

909.Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of


a)transamination b)oxidation c)reduction d)decarboxylation

910. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in


a)acidic medium b)neutral medium
c)basic medium d)any medium

911. How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d)more than 100

912. How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

913.Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins


a)coordination b)hydrofobic c)glycoside d)metallic

914.Choose disulphide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-

915.How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

916.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide

917.Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation c)esterification
b)reduction d)transamination

918.Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


a)transamination c)reduction
b)oxidation d)decarboxylation
919.Gliconic acids are produced under action of
a)mild oxidant c)mildreductant
b)strongreductant d)strong oxidant

920.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides


a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts

921.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

922.Components of nucleoside
a)phosphate group b)carbonyl group c)thymine d)sugar rest

923.Monomeric link of terpene


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

924. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

925. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

926.Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

927. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

928. Saponified lipids are


a)mono-component b)three-component c)without any component d) poly-component

929. RNA contains


a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

930. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

931. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar
932. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine
a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

933.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

934.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

935.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

936. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

937. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

938. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

939. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

940. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

941.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

942. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

943. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

944. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

945. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

946. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

947. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

948. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

949. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

950. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

951. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

952. Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

a)Rayon b)insulin c)gun cotton d)paper

953. Complex lipids form under hydrolysis

a)alcohols, carboxylic acids c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.

b)carboxylic acids d)alcohols

954. Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

955. Fatty acids are

a)unsaturated dicarboxylic acids c)aromatic carboxylic acids

b)long-chain alkanoic acids d)aromatic dicarboxylic acids

956. Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called

a)proteins b)terpenes c)carbohydrates d)soaps

957. soap is

a)a mixture of salts of fatty acids b)a salt of glycerol

c)a mixture of ethers d)a mixture of aromatic ethers

958. a wax is

a)a nonpolar solid c)a triacylglycerol

b)a long-chain alcohol d)none of these

959.Fats and oils are

a)monoesters of glycerol c)triesters of glycerol


b)diesters of glycerol d)diesters of glycol

960. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

a)more unsaturation c)a glycerol backbone

b)higher melting points d)longer fatty acids

961. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

a)12 carbons b)14 carbons c)16 carbons d)18 carbons

962. Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

a)hydrogenation b)saponification c)hydrolysis d)oxidation of double bonds

963. Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

a)Vanaspati ghee b)margarine c)both of these d)none of these

964. Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

a)saponification b)fermentation c)diazotization d)rancidification

965.Saponification of a fat

a)Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps c)is used in the production of detergents

b)produces glycerol and soap d)is used in the production of lactic acid

966. Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

a)Fats b)waxes c)soaps d)oils

967. The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

a)Iodine number b)octane number c)saponification number d)melting point

968. Zwitterion is
a)an ion that is positively charged in solution

b)an ion that is negatively charged in solution

c)a compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid

d)a carbohydrate with an electrical charge

969. A zwitterions has which of the following properties

a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these

970. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:


a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals

971. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds

972. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:

a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length

973. The isoelectric point of a protein is

a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface

b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges

c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions

d)none of these

974. Glycine is

a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH

b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH

975. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond

b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid

976. Proteins are

a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene

977. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I

978. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage

979. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure

980. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular


b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain

c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space

d)the presence or absence of an α-helix

981. The α-helix is a common form of

a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these

982. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization

983. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds

984. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols

985. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid

c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid

986. Nynhydring test is given by

a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes

987. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test

988. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is
called

a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test

989. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine

990. Monosaccharides are classified according to

a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule

b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes


d)all of the above

991. Which is a monosaccharide?

a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose

992. Which is a disaccharide?

a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose

993. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose

994. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light

b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate

c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group

d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

995. The principal sugar in blood is

a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose

996. Glucose cannot be classified as

a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide

997. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol

998. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

a)its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal c)it is oprtically active

b)it is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone d)it shows mutarotation

999. Common table sugar is

a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose

1000.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above

1001.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?


a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution

b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

1002. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose

1003. Starch

a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin

b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin


Exam tests on Chemistry.
Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.

1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) + General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) + Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a) + Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) + Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) + Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a) + Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) + Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) + Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) + Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a) + A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) + A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) + A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) + A process during which the heat Q = 0
14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?
a) + Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) + Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) + Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) + Adiabatic process

18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?


a) + Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs

19. The basic formula for Entropy;


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) + S = KlnW

20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a) + Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW
21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.
a) Q=∆U+A
b) + H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

22. Internal energy is called?


a) + Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a) + Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

24. Enthalpy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) + Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a) Internal energy
b) + Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

26. The heat transfer are divided into


a) + Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

27. What is the thermal conductivity?


a) + The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
28. What is the convection?
a) The material to conduct heat.
b) + Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

29. What is the radiation?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) + The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) + Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

31. What is the endothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) + Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

32. What is the exothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) + Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Endothermic reactions

34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Exothermic reactions

35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.


a) + ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) Q= ΔU+ W
d) + ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) + ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

38. System consisting of three phases is called


a) + heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

39. System consisting of one phase is called


a) heterogeneous
b) + homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

40. What is the heterogeneous system?


a) + System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

41. What is the homogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) + System consisting of one phase is called
42. What are the units of energy?
a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d) + joule

43. Spontaneous process occurs only

a) + without external energy


b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help

44. Internal energy is ……


a) + energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness

45. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a) + H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H

46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) A
b) G
c) + Qp
d) H

47. Find state parametre


a) Q
b) G
c) + T
d) H

48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) Q
b) G
c) + Qp
d) S
49. Find state parameter
a) Q
b) G
c) + v
d) H
50.For spontaneous processes
a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics

51. Chemical kinetics studies –

a) energy changes during chemical transformations.


b) + the rate of chemical reactions.
c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?


a) + Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction
53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) + Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular
54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) + Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?
a) + Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?


a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.

58. Enzymes is a substance that …

a) increase the rate of reaction


b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) + biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate

59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-


a) + Catalyst
c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor
d) Reducing agents.

60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

a) Catalyst
b) + Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?
a) + a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel
62. Irreversible reactions are called?
a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) + a change that cannot go back
c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution

63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?


a) + Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) + Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

65. A material that dissolves is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) + Soluble
d) Insoluble

66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) + Insoluble

67. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) + N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

68. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S


b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) + I2 → I • + I •
69. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?
a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b) + Cl2 → 2Cl
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

70. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

71. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

72. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) + CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

73. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH


b) + 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
74. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) + Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
75. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) + H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O
76. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?
a) + 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

77. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) + O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

78. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b) + 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

79. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) + 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) + 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

81. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) + HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

82. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) + 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl

83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
c) + Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
b) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
c) + Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a) + Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is


a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) + K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]

87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is


a) + K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) + backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants

89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a) + Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction

90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c) + Time
d)Temperature

91. A catalyst is a substance which


a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) + Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) + Active mass

93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

a) + Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite

94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

a) Unequal
b)Constant
c) + Equal
d) Increased

95. The law of mass action was enunciated by

a) + Guldberg and Waage


b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham

96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction


will

N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

a) + Increase the yield of NO


b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed
97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?

a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;

b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;

c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;

d) + the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;

b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;

c) + the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;

d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

a) + increases;

b) decreases;

c) remains the same;

d) approaches zero

100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;

b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;

c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;

d) + The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.


101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

a) decrease;

b) increase;

c) + remain the same;

d) approach zero

102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;

b) add a catalyst;

c) cool the reaction down;

d) + use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?

I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

a) II only;

b) III only;

c) I and II only;

d) + II and III only

Solutions.

104. Molarity is expressed as

a)grams/litre

b) litres/mole

c) + moles/litre

d) moles/1000 gm

105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in


a) + 1000 gm of the solvent

c)onelitre of the solution

b) one litre of the solvent

d) 22.4 litres of the solution

106. Normality is expressed as

a)moles/litre

b) + gm equivalents/litre

c)moles/1000 gm

d)gram/litre

107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

a) 1 N

b) 10 N

c) + 2.7 N

d) + 1.7 N

108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

a) + 13N
b) 0x1N
c) +1N
d) None

109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

a) 0x1
b) + 2.0
c) + 1.0
d) 0.4

110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

a) + 5.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) + 2.04 N
d) 0.35 N

111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?


a) 0.5 N
b) + 3.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) + 3.6 N

112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

a) +4N
b) + 47 N
c) N/2
d) N/4

113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is

a) + 4.6 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) + 3.6 N

114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

a) 4g
b) + 16 g
c) +1g
d) 10 g

115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) + 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M

116. The molarity of pure water is

a) + 5.6
b) + 55.6
c) 100
d) 18

117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

a) 1
b) + 10
c) 18
d) 100

118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

a) 1
b) +3
c) +9
d) 1.5

119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) + 1.0 M

120. What is the solution?


a) + a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
121. What is the solute?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) + component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
122. What is the solvent?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) + component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
123. What is the concentration?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) + amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

a) + Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

a) Solution
b) + Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) + Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) + Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?

a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.


b) + the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

129. Mass fraction is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) + percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction


neq msolute
a) C E = c) + =
V m solution

CM CEME
T= = msubstance•1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M • m solution

131.The molar concentration iscalled?

a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:


b) + the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

132. Molar concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration


neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution

nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance•1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) + d) M • m solution

134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?


a) + the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent

a) msolute c) + neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance•1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

137. The molal concentration is:


a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) + the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

138. Molal concentration is expressed in:

a) + mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration

a) + msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance•1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

140. Find volume concentration


a) mass percent
b) + normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction

141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) + Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov

142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a) 98
b) 2
c) 32
d) + 49
143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid
a) 98
b) 2
c) + 32.6
d) 49
144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide
a) 98
b) + 37
c) 32
d) 49
145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by
a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) + theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation

146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

a) + diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution

147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

a) + high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature

148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an

a) base
b) + acid
c) salt
d) suspension

149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) + molarity

150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) + solution.
d) compound.

151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a) solute. c)solution.
b) + solvent. d) mixture.

152. Which of the following is not a solution?


a) + zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel

153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?


a) + alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene

154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?


a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d) + dental amalgam

155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?


a) + It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.

156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is


a) + concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.

157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b) + increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure

158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?


a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction
b) + Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction

159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) + 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution

160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a.) + hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride
161. Most salt become soluble in water as the
a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b) + temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.

162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a) + Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b) + Molality d)Mole fraction

164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity
c) + Dilution
b)Normality
d)Molality

165. In dilution of solution,


a) a solute is added to the solution.
b) + solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.

166. A 40% alcohol contains


a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b) + 40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

Colligative properties of solutions.

167. Solutions are:


а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c) + homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

168. Solubility of solids depends upon:


a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) + all answers are right.

169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:


a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) + gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) + solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) + vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.

172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) + The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.

173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:


a) Hemolysis;
b) + Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.
174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:
a) + 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.

175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:


а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile solutes;
d) + boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) + concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.

177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:


а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) + 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:


a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure solvents;
b) + Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.
179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:
a) + The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.

180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:


a) + to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.

181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:


a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d) + A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:


a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) + Osmotic pressure.

183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:


a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
b) + 1.0×10-1osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.
184. Osmolarity is:
a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) + the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.

185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a) +  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:


a) + 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a) + the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.

188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise


a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect
189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution
a) increases
b) remains same
c) + Decreases
d) None of them
190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise
a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases

191. For spontaneous processes


a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0
192. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on
a) concentration
b) + nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute
193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) + molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate
194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + Hypertonic

195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) + hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + isotonic
197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) + isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) + osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) + cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) + ebuliometry
201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b) + Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure

202. Which involves the colligative properties?


a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c) + Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) + Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis

204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis
d) + Osmosis

205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) + Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Osmosis
d)Phagocytosis

206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on

a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) + Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only

207. Which one is a colligative property?

a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point

208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) + Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.

209. Which is not a colligative property?

a) + Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point

210. Which of the following is a colligative property?

a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point

211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules


b) + Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by
a) + Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis

213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) + Mole fraction of solute

214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

a) + An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion

215. When common salt is dissolved in water

a) M. p. of the solution increases


b) + B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

a) + Molecular wt. of solute


b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these

217. When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then


phenomenon taking place is called

a) + Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis

218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) + П / C = ST

219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

a)less than c) + greater than

b)the same as d) greater than or equal to

220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) + Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.

221. What happens during osmosis?


a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.

b) + Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.

c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.

d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.

222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.


b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.

c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) + The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increase

223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) + boiling point d) freezing point

224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

a) + electrolyte c) polar substance


b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance

225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as

a) + volatile
b)electrolyte
c) nonvolatile
d) nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.

Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

226. Acetic acid is weak because

a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) + It is slightly ionized
d) None of these

227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw
at this temperature will be

a) + 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5

228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) + 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9

229. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2%
ionized weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

a) 0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively


b) 1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
c) 2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
d) 3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

230. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

a) 10-12
b) + 10-2
c)10-4
d)10-13
231. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

a) 10-13
b) 1013
c) + 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010

232. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

a) 10
b) +7
c) 1
d) 14

233. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) + Between 6 and 7

234. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

a) 8
b) + 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1

235. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

236. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) + Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation

237. FeCl3 solution is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

238. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

a) Neutral
b) c)Strongly acidic
c) Weakly acidic

d) + Alkaline

239. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

a) + An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction

240. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) + Almost neutral

241. Which one of the following is acid salt?

a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) + NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4

242. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) + Na2HPO4

243. Which one is not an acid salt?

a) Na2H2PO4
b) + NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above

244. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?


a) NaCl
b) + NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4

245. Which one will not be hydrolysed?

a) + Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate

246. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?

a) + CH3COOK
b) KCl
c) NaNO3
d) d)K2SO4

247. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

a) Weakly acidic
b) + Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic

248. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

a) (NH4)2SO4
b) + Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4

249. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

a) A strong acid and strong base


b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) + A weak acid and strong base

250. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) + FeCl3
d) NaCN

251. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?

a) + NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN

252. A buffer solution changes its pH

a) Increase in pH
b) Decrease in pH
c) + No change in pH
d) No change in electrical conductivity

253. About buffer solution which in incorrect?

a) It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base


b) It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c) + It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d) All of the above

254. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

a) Strong acid and its salt of a weak base


b) Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c) + Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d) Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

255. Which is a buffer solution?

a) + CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl

256. Which of the following is a buffer?

a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) + NH4OH + NH4Cl

257. Which is not a buffer solution?

a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) + CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid

258. pH of blood is

a) Less than 6
b) + Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9
d) Greater than 10

259. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

a) + Acetic acid + Sodium acetate


b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All

260. Give name to positively charged particles:

а) radicals;
b) molecules;
c) anions;
d) + cations.

261. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a) NaNO2;
b) + NaHCO3;
c) Na2CO3;
d) KMnO4.
262. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) + Low water ionization constant.
263. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) + Ion product for water.
264. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M;
b) 0.001M;
c) + 0.1 M;
d) 1.0M.

265.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:


a) + Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.

266. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


а) Electrons donors;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) + Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

267. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl;
b) KHSO4/H2SO4;
c) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
d) + NH3 /NH4Cl.

268. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:


a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) + All answers are right.

269. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


а) + Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

270. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:


а) Electrons donor;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) + Protons acceptors.

271. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:


a) + pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.

272. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into


a) + oxides, acid, base, salt
b) oxides, base
c) Alkalis, salt, oxides
d) Ampholytes, Alkalis

273. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.
a) + hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

274. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) + hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

275. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a) + pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

276. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) + pH = 7

277. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7
b) + pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

278. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH>7
c) + pH ~7
d) pH = 7

279. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

280. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

281. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

282. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


A + ) acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

283. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a) acidic b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them
e
284. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

285. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

286. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a) + acidic
) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

287. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

288. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

289. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

290. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

291. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

292. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

ld) none of them

293. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

294. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite


a) acidic
b) + basic
c)
d) c)neutral
e) d) none of them
295. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide
a) 2
b) 11
c) + 13
d) 7
296. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide
a) 2
b) 10
c) 1
d) +13
297. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide
a) 2
b) + 13
c) 1
d) 7
298. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of
a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) + both A and B

299. PH can be kept constant with help of


a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) + buffer solution
d) super saturated solution

300. Buffers present in blood contain


a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) + all of them

301. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a) + aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis

302. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase
b) c)carbolic hydrase

c) + carbonic anhydrase

d) d)carbonic hydrase

303. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

a) hydrochloric acid only


b) + acetic acid only
c) sodium chloride or potassium acetate
d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

304. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a) oxide
b) ether
c) + salt
d) alcohol
305. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) + all of above
306. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) + KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
307. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) + neutralization
b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation

308. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a) AH
b) + HA
c) Ha
d) aH

309.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is


a) high
b) + low
c) same
d) constant
310. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid
b) concentration of water molecules
c ) pH of solution
d) + both A and B
311. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
a) concentration of acid
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) + both A and B

312. Ka is called
a) + acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant

313. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) + HNO2

314.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) + LiClO4
d) CsBr

315. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?


a) H2O
b) + KF
c) HF
d)HNO2

316.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) + HCN

317. A stronger base:

a) is also a stronger acid;

b) tastes sour;

c) + is also a stronger electrolyte;

d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution

318. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

a) water and a salt;

b) an acid and a base;

c) + a salt and hydrogen gas;

d) a nonmetal oxid

319. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

a) HCl;
b) H2CO3;

c) + KOH;

d) CH3CH2OH;

320. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

a) 1×10-11 M;

b) + 1×10-5 M;

c) 1×10-7 M;

d) 1×10-6M;

321. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H + ions. This
substance is:

a) KOH;

b)CH4

c) + H2SO4;

d) NH3

322. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

a) [H+] equals zero;

b) [H+] is less than [OH-];

c) [OH-] equals [H+];

d) + [H+] is greater than [OH-]

323. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

a) donate a proton;

b)donate an electron pair;


c) yield H+ ions;

d) + acceptor of protons.

324. What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 4

0.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

a) 100.0 mL;

b) 80.0 mL;

c) 40.0 mL;

d) + 20.0 mL

325. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

a) + increase;

b) remain the same;

c) decrease;

d) approach zero

326. Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

a) 1;

b) 7;

c) 10;

d) + 14.

327. The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

a) a single replacement;

b) the process of hydrolysis;

c) + a neutralization reaction;
d) a synthesis reaction;

328. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

a) A pH of 2 is three times as strong;

b) + A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;

c) A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

d) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as weak;

329. Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

a) chlorous acid; b) acetic acid;

c) + perchloricacid;

d) hypochlorous acid

330. Which of the following statements is true?

a) NaCl is a neutral salt; c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.

b) KOH is an acid; d) NaBr is basic salt.

331. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?

a) OH- and H2O; c) HCl and Cl-;

b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-; d) NH3 and NH4+;

332. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF; c) SO2 + H2O → H2SO3;

b) + 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2; d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

333. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;

b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;


c) HI is hydroiodic acid;

d) + HClO2 is chloric acid

334. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?

a) AgCl; b) PbBr2; c) Ca3(PO4)2; d) + Na2CO3

335. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:

a) + unsaturated; b) supersaturated; c) saturated; d) dilute

336. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate
and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a)Cl-; b) + 2Na+; c) CaCO3d) all of the substances above

337. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a) 1.5 m NaCl; c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;

b) 1.5 m AgCl; d) + 2.0 m CaCl2

338. Which equation is correctly balanced?

a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;

b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;

c) + 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;

d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;

Unit 2.

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.


339 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in
a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d) + H2S
340. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c) + H2O2 d)F2
341. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b) + KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
342. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d) + x=2 y=3 z=10
343. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b) + Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
344. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b) + H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2

345. An electrolyte is one


a)Which conducts electric current c) + Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above

346. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to


a)Dilution b) + number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution

347. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) + -3

348. Which of the following is an insulator?


a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) + Diamond d)Silicon

349. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O


a)X=4 y=6 b) + x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8

350. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O


a) + 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
351. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a) + F2
b)Cl2
c)Br2
d)I2

352. Oxidation involves


A) + Loss of electrons
b)Increase in the valency of negative part
c)Gain of electrons
d)Decrease in the valency of positive part

353. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

354. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a)-2
b) + -1
c) 0
d) -4

355. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a) + SO2
b)CaO
c)Al2O3
d)CrO3

356.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular
b) intramolecular
c) + disproportion
d) none of them

357.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a) CH3COONa
b) + C2H5OH
c)NaCl

d)KOH

358 Element accepting electrons is called


a) product
b) + oxidant
c) reactant
d) reductant

359.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F
b) + Cl
c)He
d)Na

360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:


a) + -3 to +5
b)-1 to +1
c)-3 to -5

d) -5 to +1

361.Strong electrolytes are those which


a)Dissolve readily in water
b)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
c)Conduct electricity
d) + Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

362.Which of the following conducts electricity?


a) crystal NaCl
b)diamond
c) + molten KBr
d)sulphur

363. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

364. Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode


a) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

365. Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

366. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:


a) + -1
b) -2
c)+4
d) 0

367. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:


a) +1
b) + -2
c)- 4
d) 0
368. Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode
a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

369. Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

370. In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation numbers
a) + intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) intramolecular
d) disproportion

371. In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed


a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) counter disproportion
d) + disproportion

372. Element loosing electrons is called


a) product
b) oxidant
c) reactant
d) + reductant

373. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a) + the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in terms
of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

374. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a) KMnO4→MnO2;
b) HNO2→NO2;

c) Cl2O→HCl;

d) + P→H3PO4.
375. Point out the correct statements:
a) + A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
b) A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
c) High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
d) Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

376. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1;
b) + 6;
c) 14;
d)3.

377. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

a) Mn(OH)2;

b) MnO42-;

c) + MnO2;

d) Mn2+.

378. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

a) Fe2O3 + HCl;

b) + FeCl3+H2S;

c) Fe+ HCl;

d) SO3+NaOH.

379. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

а) 2; b) + 5; c) 10; d) 3.

380. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


а) + accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.

381. Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:
a) Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
b) Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
c) Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
d) + Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

382. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) + 1-

383. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?a)
HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) + KClO4

384. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

a) Al; b) Fe; c) + Fe3+; d) Al3+

385. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

; a) + loses 1 electron b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton

386. . In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) + Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni

387. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) + 10
388. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

a) it allows ion migration; c) + it allows electron migration;

b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;

389. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) + F2; d) I2

390. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:

a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) + electrolysis; d) hydrolysis

Biogenic elements.

391. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

a) in molecule of cytochrome b

b) + in molecule of vitamin B12

c) in molecule of catalase

d) in molecule of vitamin B6

392) Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

a) enzyme catalase

b) + enzyme superoxide dismutase

c) cytochrome P450

d) glutathione peroxidase

393) Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

a) hypervitaminosis

b) + hypovitaminosis

c) avitaminosis

d) acidosis

394) Vitamin A deficiency can cause:


a) + xeroftalmia

b) increased blood coagulation

c) growth acceleration

d) anemia

395) The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

a) vitamin D

b) + vitamin B1

c) vitamin K

d) thiamine

396. ZnO is used as

a) protective

c) + both (a) & (b)

b) astringent

d) antidote

397. Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

a) oxidation

b) protein precipitate

c) halogenation

d) + all of the above

398. Hydrogen peroxide is used as

a) + antiseptic

b) acidifying agent

c) protective

d) antioxidant

399. KMnO4 solutions are used for

a) antibacterial
b) antifungal

c) + both of the above

d) antioxidant

400. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these

elements:

a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;

b) + H, P, S, C, O, N;

c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;

d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

401. Choose biogenic macroelement

a)Cu

b) + P

c)Br

d)As

402. Choose biogenic microelement


a) + Cu
b)S
c)Ca
d)Mg

403. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) + 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm

404. Six major biogenic elements :


a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
c) + Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.

405.Five minor biogenic elements:


a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) + Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

406. Trace elements:


a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) + Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

407. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12%
b) + 10-3– 10-5 %
c)10-9%
d) 10-2%

408. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a) + 10-2%
b) 10-9%
c) 10-3– 10-5 %

d) 10-7% - 10-12

409. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + Zn

410. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) + Fe
c) N
d) C

411. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + I

412. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) + P
b) Cl
c)Cu
d) I
Choose biogenic macroelement
a) Pb
b) +Ca
c) I
d) Ne

413. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) l
c) + O
d) Mn

414. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) + C
c)Cu
d) I

Complex compounds.

415. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:


a)+1
b) + +3
c)-1
d)-3

416. A coordination compound consists of


a) a metal ion and counterions
b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions
d) + a metal ion bound to one or more ligands

417. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:


a)0
b)+4
c) + +3
d)+6

418. Name the following coordination compound:


K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II)
b) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
c ) potassium cyanoferrate(II)
d) + potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
419. The coordination number is:
a) + The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex

420. Number of hem sections in mioglobin


a) + 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

421. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2


a) + cationic
b) anionic
c) monodentate
d) neutral

422. Ethylenediamine would be called


a) dentate
b) + bidentate
c) tridentate
d)tetradentate

423. Name the following coordination compound:


[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) + triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

424. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?


(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
(3) chloride, Cl- (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5
b)1, 5, 6
c) + 1, 6
d) 2, 3, 4, 5

Ca 3  Fe(CN)6 2
425. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0
b) 1+
c) 2+
d) + 3+

426. Number of hem sections in hemoglobin


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) + 4

427. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound


a) + central ion
b) ligands
c) outer sphere ions
d) all constituents

428.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements


a) does’tchang
b) increases
c) + decreasis
d) none

429.Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps


a) 0
b) 1
c) + 2 and more
d) always without steps

430. Dentantness of porfyrin


a) 2
b) + 4
c) 6
d) 5

431.Particles playing role of ligands are


a) positive ions
b) chelates
c) + negative ions
d) complex ions

432. A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its
formula.
a) [Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
b) [ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
c) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
d) + [CrCl2(H2O)4]

433. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?


a) +1
b) + +3
c) -2
d) 0

434. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?


a) carbonyl; b) nitro;
b)
c) acetate;
d) + oxalate.

435. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?


a) + [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
b) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
c) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

436. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?


a) + Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

437. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?


a) + Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper

438. Ligand «en» is an example of:


a) + bidentate ligand;
b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand;
d) hexadentate ligand.

439. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is


a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) + Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

440. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


a) cationic
b) + anionic
c) trigonal

d) neutral

441. Donor of electrons in coordination compound


a)central ion
b)outer sphere ions
c) + ligands
d) none

442. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements


a) doesn’t change
b) + increases
c) decreases
d) none of them

443.Coordination number of iron in hem


a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) + 6

444. Dentatness of EDTA


a) 2
b) 3

c) + 4
d) 6

445. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability


a) increases b) doesn’t change c) + decreases d) none of them

446. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) + donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

447. Particles playing role of central ion are


a) + positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions

448. Find ligand of weak field


a) + OH-
b) Au
c) CN-
d) Fe2+

449. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?


a) + Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)

450. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)


a) + K3[Fe(CN)6]
b) (CN)6[Fe K2]
c) Fe [K2(CN)6]
d) [FeK2(CN)6

451. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?


a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) + tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

452.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate


a) [(en)3Co]SO4
b) [SO4(en)3]Co
c) [Co(en)3SO4]
d) + [Co(en)3]SO4

453. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?


a) linear;

b) octahedral;

c) + tetrahedral;

d) trigonal

454. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) + electrostatic model

455. Find ligand of strong field


a) OH-
b) Au
c) Cl-
d) + NH3

456. Dentatness of ligand is


a) number of central ions
b) charge of central ion
c) + number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number
Unit 3.

Colloids.
457. Disperse systems consists of:

a) + dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
d) sol, gel

458. Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

a) dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) + coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
c) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
d) sol, gel

459. What is a disperse system?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

460. Coarse systems include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) Gel, suspensions.

461. What is the Emulsion?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

462. What is the suspension?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

463. What is the aerosol?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) + It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

464. Sols are:


a) gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) + blood, lymph.
c) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
d) Blood, jelly, marmalade.

465. Gels are:


a) + gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
c) blood, lymph.
d) blood, jelly, marmalade.

466. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:


a) medical products
b) colored glass
c) + pumice
d) fog

467. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:


a) Soil
b) + Moist soil
c) Rocks
d) fog

468. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) natural gas
b) + gas from oil droplets
c) smog
d) colored glass

469. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) natural gas
b) aerosols
c) + dust storms
d) pearl

470. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) Fizzy drinks, foam
b) + body fluids
c) pastes,mortar
d) smog

471. Colloidal solutions include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) saline solution in water

472. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:


a) cosmetic products
b) porous chocolate
c) + some alloys
d) fog

473. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

a) Dust in the air


b) Aerosol
c) Fog
d) + Does not exist

474. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) + Sols
b) Emulsion oil
c) Fizzy drinks
d) Fog

475. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

a) cream, milk
b) + foam
c) pastes
d) chocolate

476. Colloid particles have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 m
c) + 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -7 m

477. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) negative
b) + positive
c) without charge
d) zero

478. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
a) + Ba2+
b) H+
c) SO4 2-
d) H+

479. Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing


a) condensation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

480. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaCl
b) + Сa3(PO4)2
c) CaCl2
d) FeCl3

481. Optical property typical to colloid systems


a) reflection
b) absorption
c) + scattering
d) diffusion

482. Find optical property


a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) electroosmosis
d) + absorption
483. Emulsion is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) g/l

484. Powder is
a) l/s
b) l/l
c) s/l
d) + s/g

485. Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties


a) μ
b) η

c) + φ
d) ξ

486. Particles of coarse systems have sizes of


a) + greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -9 - 10 -7 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -9 m

487. Particles of true solutions have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) + less than 10 -7 m

488. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =


a) + positive
b) negative
c) without charge
d) zero

489. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) none
b) Cl-
c) SO4 2-
d) + Ba2+
490. Choose condensation method of colloids producing
a) coagulation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

491. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) none

492. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Ag Cl

c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) Ba(NO3) 2

493. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) PbS
d) Ba(NO3) 2

494. Optical property typical to coarse systems


a) reflection
b) scattering
c) + absorption
d) diffusion

495. Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one


a) absorption
c) Brownian movement
c) + osmosis

d) diffusion

496. Aerosol is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) s/g
497. Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties
a) μ

b) η

c) m

d) +

498. Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:
a) + Suspensions;
b) b) Electrolytes;
c) c) Molecular solutions;
d) d) Alloys.

499. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:


a) + Colloids;
b) b)Gas mixtures;
c) c) Saturated solutions
d) ; d) Alloys.

500. The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:


a) Coagulation;
b) + Tyndall effect;
b) c) Peptization;
c) d) Dialysis.

501. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:


a) Osmosis;
b) Diffusion;
c) + Brownian motion;

d) Coagulation .

502. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:


a) + Aerosol;
b) b) Emulsion;
c) c) Sol;
d) d) Foam.

503. Fog and smoke are:


a) + Aerosols;
b) b) Emulsions;
c)
d) c) Gels;
e) d) Foams.

504. Sol consists of:


a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) + Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;
d) liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid.

505. Stability of a disperse system is:


a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) + Constancy in time of its state and main properties.

506. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:


a) + Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.

507. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:


a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) + {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.

508. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
a) + Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.

509. The methods of cleaning colloidal solutions are:


a) Compensation dialysis; dialysis;
b) Condensation; crystallization;
c) Sublimation; distillation;
d) + Filtration; ultra filtration.

510. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:


a) N2;
b) H2O;
c) + CO2;
d) O2.

511. Aerosol is:


a) Powder;
b) Dust cloud;
c) Hairspray;
d)+ All answers are right.

512. Emulsion is:


a) + Milk;
b) b) Foam;
c) c) Jelly;
d) d) Fog.
513. Biological gel is:
a) + Cartilage;
b) air;
c) clouds;
d) river water.

514. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:


a) These are heterogeneous systems;
b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) + All answers are right.

515. Coarse disperse system is:


a) Solution;
b)Sol;

c 0+ Suspension;

d)Gel.

516. Chromatography is:


a) + The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

517. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:
a) + Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

518. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:


a) + Fog;
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.

519. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:
a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) + Size of particles;
d) Odor.

520. Emulsion is:


a) + Butter;
b) b) River ooze;
c) c) Stained glass;
d) d) Textile fabrics.

521. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:


a) + Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right

522. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
d) + On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

523. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

a) + Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.

524. Coagulation is:

a) Chaotic movement of particles;

b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;

c) Destruction of the native protein structure;

d) + The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby separate
from the continuous phase.

525. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

a) Viscosity, flowability;

b) + Opalescence, light absorption;

c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;

d) dissolution, swelling.

526. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

a) Opalescence;

b) Electrodialysis;

c) Light absorption;

d) + Electrophoresis and electroosmosis.

527. A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

a) Negatively charged;

b) Electro neutral;

c) Positively charged;
d) + Negatively and positively charged.

528. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

a) Diameter

b)Particle size

c)radius

d) + solubility

529. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

a) +suspension> colloidal > true solution

b)true solution > suspension > colloidal

c) suspension> colloidal = true solution

d) none of the above

530. Colloids can be purified by

a) peptization

b) coagulation

c) + dialysis

d) bredic arc method

531. which is a natural colloid?

a) sodium chloride

b)urea

c)cane sugar

d) + blood

532. Which one of the following is not a colloid

a) milk

b) blood

c)ice cream
d) + urea solution

533. Milk is a colloid in which

a) + a liquid is dispersed in liquid

b) a gas is dispersed in liquid

c) a solid is dispersed in liquid

d)some sugar is dispersed in water

534. an aerosol is a colloidal system of

a) aliquid dispersed in a solid

b) a gas dispersed in air

c) + a liquid dispersed in a gas

d)none of the above

535. Which of the following is a homogeneous system

a) muddy water b)bread c)concrete d) +a solution of sugar in water

536. Which of the following is an emulsifier?

a) + soap

b)water

c)oil

d)NaCl

537. Lyophobic colloids are

a) reversible colloids

b) + irreversible colloids

c)protective colloids

d)gum proteins

538. Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

a)condensation

c)diffusion through animal membrane


b)dialysis

d) + addition of an electrolyte

539. Colloidal solutions are not purified by

a) dialysis

b) electrodialysis

c) ultrafiltration

d) + electrophoresis

540. Suspensions are

a) + visible to naked eye

c) invisible under electron microscope

b) not visible by any means

d) invisible through microscope

541. Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

a) + gelatin

b) sulphur

c) gold

d) carbon

542. Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

a) lyophilic sol

b) + associated colloid

c) hydrophobic sol

d) emulsion

543. The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

a) + charge on their particles

b) a layer of medium of dispersion on their particles

c) the smaller size of their particles


d)the large size of their particles

544. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

a)the colloidal particles have positive charge

b)the colloidal particles have negative charge

c) + the colloidal particles are solvated

d) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

545. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

a)high concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained

b) + coagulation is reversible

c)viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water

d)the charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or
even zero

546. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

a)light scattered by colloidal particles

b)shape of the particle

c) + size of the particle

d)relative size

547. Light scattering takes place in

a)solution of electrolyte

b) electrodialysis

c) + colloidal solutions

d)electroplating

548.Maximum coagulation power is in

a)Na+

b)Ba2+

c)Al3+

d) + Sn4+
549. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

a)Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+

b)Cl- , SO42- , PO43-

c) + Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+

d)PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

550. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

a)NaCl solution

b) + starch solution

c)urea solution

d)FeCl3 solution

551. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

a)linear

b)curved

c) + zigzag

d)uncertain

552. The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

a)Photolysis

b) + dialysis

c)pyrolysis

d)peptisation

553. Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known
as

a)electrolysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)electrodyalysis

d)none of the above


554. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the
particles?

a)dialysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)sedimentation

d)ultrafiltration

555. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

a)prevent making of a colloid

b)stabilize the mixture

c) + stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization

d)enrich the aroma

556. Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

a)absorption

b)tyndall effect

c)flocculation

d) + paramagnetism

557. Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

a) + accumulates in the surface of the other substance

b) goes into the body of the other substance

c) remains close to the other substance

d) forms chemical bonds with other substences.

558. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?


a) + colloidal S
b)Colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold
d)colloidal platinum

559. As2S3 sol is


a)positive colloid
b) + negative colloid
c)neutral colloid
d)none of the above

560. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

a) + liquid dispersed in gas

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)gas dispersed in gas

d)solid dispersed in liquid

561. Which of the following is a colloid?

a)sugar solution

b)urea solution

c) + silicic acid

d)NaCl solution

562. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

a) smoke

b) ink

c) blood

d) + air

563. Milk is

a) fat dispersed in milk

b) + fat dispersed in water

c) water dispersed in fat

d) water dispersed in oil

564. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

a)solid is dispersed in liquid

b)liquid is dispersed in a solid

c) + gas is dispersed in a solid

d)solid is dispersed in a solid


565. Butter is a colloid formed when

a) fat is dispersed in water

b) fat globules are dispersed in water

c) + water is dispersed in fat

d) none of the above

566.Which of the following is not a colloid?

a) + chlorophyll

b) smoke

c) ruby glass

d) milk

567. Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

a)muddy water

b)bread

c)concrete

d) + a solution of sugar in water

568. A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

a)gel

b)homogeneous solution

c) + sol

d)aerosol

569. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

a) a sol

b) + a gel

c)an emulsion

d)a foam
570. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as

a) + foam

b)sol

c)aerosol

d)emulsion

571. Emulsifiers are generally

a)soap

b)synthetic detergents

c) + lyophilic sols

d)all of the above

572. Butter is

a) emulsion

b) aerosol

c) suspension

d) + none

573. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium
is termed as

a)aerosol

b) + gel

c)emulsion

d)foam

574. Which one of an example of gel?

a)soap

b)fog

c) + cheese

d)milk

575. Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called


a) aerosol

b) + cannot be prepared

c) gas aerosol

d) gasosol

576. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles
with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) + Surface
d) Size

577. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is
called

a)smoke

b) + clouds

c)jellies

d)emulsions

578. Milk is an example of

a) pure solution

b) + emulsion

c)gel

d)suspension

579. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

a)electro-osmosis

b)Brownian movement

c) + cataphoresis

d)dialysis

580. Tyndall effect will be observed in

a) + solution

b)precipitate
c)sol

d)vapour

581. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

a) + scattering of light

b)reflection of light

c)absorption of light

d)presence of electrically charged particles

582. The Brownian motion is due to

a)temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

b)attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

c) + impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

d)convective currents

583. The sky looks blue due to

a)dispersion effect

b) reflection

c)transmission

d) + scattering

584. The blue color of water in the sea is due to

a)refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water

b) + reflection of blue sky by sea water

c)scattering of blue light by water molecules

d)absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

585. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

a) + colloidal S

b)colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold

d)colloidal silver

586. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

a)dialysis

b) + Brownian movement

c)electro-osmosis

d)Tyndall effect

587. is an example of colloidal system of

a)solid dispersed in liquid

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)liquid dispersed in gas

d) + gas dispersed in gas

588. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

a)suspension

b)emulsion

c) + sugar solution

d)gold sol

589. Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

a)milk

b) + gum

c)fog

d)blood

590. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

a)suspension

b) + emulsion

c)gel
d)rtue solution

591. The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

a)dialysis

b) + addition of electrolytes

c)diffusion through animal membrane

d)condensation

592. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles
abruptly collected into spherical structures called _________
a) Ball
b) Sphere of ions
c) + Micelles
d) Dirt particle

593. _________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the
stationary liquid induced by an external field.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) + Electrophoresis

594. Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?


a) Minerals
b) Vitamins
c) + Proteins
d) Starch

595. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

a) Molecular colloid
b) + Associated colloid
c) Macromolecular colloid
d) Lyophillic colloid

596. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration


b) + Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
c) Aqueous solution of odium chloride
d) Aqueous solution of sugar
597. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

a) By addition of oppositely charged sol


b) By addition of an electrolyte
c) + By addition of lyophilic sol
d) By boiling

598. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

a) Coagulation
b) Electrolysis
c) Diffusion
d) + Peptisation

599. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+

a) Na2S
b) Na3PO4
c) Na2SO4
d) + NaCl

(extent of adsorption is directly proportional to the ease of liquification is directly proportional to


Tc)

600. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

a) Solid sol
b) Gel
c) Emulsion
d) + Sol

601. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison
to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles
____________

a) Exhibit enormous surface area


b) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
c) Form lyophilic colloids
d) + Are comparatively less in number

Unit 4

Organic compounds.

602. Which element is present in all organic compounds?


a) + carbon

b)nitrogen

c)oxygen

d)phosphorous

603.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

a) + low melting point

b)high melting point

c)soluble in polar solvents

d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents

604.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

a)slower because organic particles are ions

b) + slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

c)faster because organic particles are ions

d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

605.Which compounds are isomers?

a ) + 1-propanol and 2-propanol

b)methanol and methanal

c)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid

d)ethane and ethanol

606.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.

d) + Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.


607.Which polymers occur naturally?

a)starch and nylon

b) + starch and cellulose

c)protein and nylon

d)protein and plastic

608.What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?

a)butane

b)butene

c) + benzene

d)butyne

609. In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a
regular

a)pyramid

b) + tetrahedron

c)square

d)rectangle

610. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per
molecule?

a)C2H2 and C2H6

b)C2H2 and C3H6

c) + C4H8 and C2H4

d)C6H6 andC7H8

611. Which compound contain an alcohol group?

a) acetone

b) methanale

c) + methanol
d) dimethyl ether

612. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

a)water

b)oxygen

c) + carbon dioxide

d)sulfur dioxide

613. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + ethane

b)ethene

c)ethyne

d)ethanol

614. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

a)an addition reaction

b)a saponification reaction

b) + a substitution reaction

d)an esterification reaction

615. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

a)1

b)2

c)3

d) + 4

616. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

a)acids
b) + alcohols

c)esters

d)ethers

617. Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

a)2-methylpropane

b)2-methylbutane

c) + propane

d)butane

618. What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

a)ketone

b) + protein

c)ester

d)acid

619. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

a) + boiling points

b)melting points

c)triple points

d)saturation points

620. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3OH

b)CH3OCH3

c) + CH3COOH

d)CH3COOCH3

621. Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different


a)percentage compositions;

b)molecular masses;

c)molecular formulas;

d) + structural formulas.

622. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3 CH2 OH;

b)CH3 OCH3 ;

c) + CH3 COOH;

d)CH3COOCH3 .

623. Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one
additional carbon atom and

a) one hydrogen atom;

b) + two hydrogen atoms;

c)three hydrogen atoms;

d) four hydrogen atoms.

624. Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2 ;

b) C2 H4 ;

c) C3 H6 ;

d) + C3 H8 .

625. The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has
the same

a) + empirical formula;

b) general formula;

c) structural formula;

d) molecular formula.

626. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?
a) + methanol;

b) methane;

c) methyl methanoate;

d) methanoic acid.

627. A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

a) toluene;

b) + benzene;

c) butene;

d) pentene.

628. C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

a) + ddition;

b) substitution;

c) saponification;

d) esterification.

629. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

a) C3H7COCH3;

b)CH3COOC2H5;

c) + H5OC2H5;

d) CH3COOH.

630. What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

631.Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

a) + C2H6;
b) C3H6;

c) C4H6;

d) C6H6.

632. A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

a) carbon dioxide;

b) + water;

c) glycerol;

d) ethanol.

633.The general formula for the alkyne series is

a) CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) CnH2n+2;

d) + CnH2n-2.

634. Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

a) acetylene;

b) ethylene;

c) + toluene;

d) propene.

635.Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

a) + HCOOCH3;

b)CH3CH2COOH;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3COOCH3

636.Which compound is a member of the alkene series?

a) benzene;

b) toluene;
c) + acetylene;

d) ethane

637. All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

a) + single covalent;

b) double covalent;

c) triple covalent;

d) coordinate covalent

638.Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

a) C2H4;

b) C3H6;

c) C4H8;

d) + C5H10.

639.Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

a) an esterification reaction;

b) a neutralization reaction;

c) a saponification reaction;

d) + a fermentation reaction.

640.Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is
an example of _______ reaction.

a) + substitution;

b) addition;

c) polymerization;

d) fermentation.

641.In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

a) 11;
b) 11;

c) 3;

d) + 10

642.Which compound is an ester?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CHO;

c) + CH3COOCH3;

d) CH3COCH3.

643.The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

a) a polymer;

b) a soap;

c) an ester;

d) + an alcohol.

644.Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures

are called

a) + isomers;

b) isotopes;

c) allotropes;

d) homologs.

645.Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2

C2H4;

c) C5H8;

d) + C5H12.

646.CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with this

characteristic?
a) acetylene;
b) benzene;

c) + propane;

d) toluene.

647. A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

a) structural formula;

b) molecular formula

c) number of carbon atoms;

d) + number of hydrogen atoms.

648.Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CH2OH;

c) + CH3CH2COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH2OH.

649.The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

a) an acid;

b) an alcohol;

c) + an ester;

d) a hydrocarbon.

650.Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order,
has 1 more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

a) +4; b) 8; c) 3; d) 4.

651.Which molecular formula represents pentene?

a) C4H8;

b) C4H10;

c) + C5H10;

d) C5H12.
652.A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

a) propanol;

b) butanol;

c) pentanol

d) + glycerol.

653.Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

a) + organic acids;

b) esters;

c) alkynes;

d) alkanes.

654.Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

a) + C2H2;

b) C2H4;

c) C3H6;

d) C3H8.

655.Which formula represents an acid?

a) CH3COOCH3;

b) CH3OH;

c) + CH3COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH3.

656.Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and
formic acid. This type of reaction is called

a) fermentation;

b) + sterification;

c) saponification;

d) polymerization.
657. Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

a) + C3H6;

b) C2H6;

c) C2H2;

d) C6H6.

658. Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

a) tetrahedral;

b) planar triangular;

c) + linear;

d) bent.

659. Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

a) greater solubility in water;

b a tendency to form ions more readily;

b) more rapid reaction rates;

d) + lower melting points.

660. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

a) + -COOH;

b) -OR;

c) -CHO;

d) -NH2.

661. C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

a) substitution;

b) + addition;

c) polymerization;

d) esterification.

662. The isomers of propanol differ in


a) the number of carbon atoms;

b) the arrangement of the carbon atoms;

c) + molecular mass;

d) the position of functional group.

663. Which is the formula of an alcohol?

a) Ba(OH)2;

b) HCHO;

c) CH3COOH;

d) +C5H11OH.

664. C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) an organic acid;

d) + an alcohol.

665. Which compound can have isomers?

a) C2H4;

b) C2H2;

c) C2H6;

d) + C4H8.

666. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

a)polymerization;

b) + substitution;

c) addition;

d) esterification.

667.Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?


a) CCl2F2; b) C2H2;

c) + C2H5OH;

d) C2H5OC2H5.

668.Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

a) C3H8;

b) C3H7OH;

c) CH3COOH;

d) + CH3COOCH3.

669.Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

a) CCl4;

b) + C3H5(OH)3;

c) C6H6;

d) C6H12O6.

670.The structure of an alkene contains

a) only single bonds;

b) + a double bond;

c) two double bonds;

d) a triple bond.

671. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van
der Waals forces between the molecules

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

672.Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

a) CH4;
b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) + C4H10.

673.What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?

a) 6;

b) 3;

c) 8;

d) + 2.

674.In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?

a) + CH3COOH;

b) C3H5(OH)3;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3OH.

675.A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used

commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is

called

a) polymerization;

b) hydrogenation;

c) esterification;

d) + cracking.

676. Organic compounds must contain

a) oxygen;

b) nitrogen;

c) hydrogen;

d) + carbon.

677. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an
organic compound is a(an)

a) dihedral angle;

b) right angle;

c) + tetrahedral angle;

d) acute angle.

678. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an

organic molecule is known as a(an)

a) carboxyl group;

b) + functional group;

c) group;

d) alkyl group.

679.The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of

compounds that are

a) + molecular;

b) ionic;

c) polar;

d) atomic.

680.How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

a) 5;

b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 13.

681.The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two

adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

a) alkanes;
b) alkenes;

c) + alkynes;
d) benzenes.

682.Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated

hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

a) + contain multiple bonds;

b) have a greater molecular mass;

c) have tetrahedral bonds;

d) contain more atoms.

683.A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is

a) ethanol;

b) glycerol;

c) + ethylene glycol;

d) ethane.

684.A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

a) fat;

b) + polymer;

c) isomer;

d) monomer.

685.Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C2H4;

b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) C4H10.

686.How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?


a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

687.Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?

a) butane;

b) propane;

c) 1-chlorobutane;

d) + 1-chloropropane.

688.A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both

can produce

a) an ester;

b) + an alcohol;

c) an acid;

d) a soap.

689.Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C3H8;

b) C6H6;

c) C2H5OH;

d) C2H4O2.

690.Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) propane;

d) propyne.

691.CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as


a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) + an alcohol;

d) an organic acid.

692.Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

a) + benzene;
b) propyne;
c) methane;
d) ethanol.

693. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling

points

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

694. As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the

ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases

695. Which compound is most likely to react by addition?

a) CH4;

b) + C3H6;

c) C4H10;

d) C5H12.
696. Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

a) propanol;

b) + glycerol;

c) butanol;

d) pentanol.

697. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

a) + benzene;

b) propene;

c) pentene;

d) butene.

698. A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

a)alkene;

b) alkane;

c) + alkyne;

d) alkadiene.

699. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

a) aldehydes;

b) esters;

c) + polymers;

\d) ketones.

700. The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

a) + secondary alcohol;

c) tertiary alcohol;

d) dihydroxy alcohol.

701. What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

a) 10;
b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 4.

702. Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

a)butane;

b) + ethane;

c) pentane;

d) propane.

703. Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

a) C5H8;

) + C5H10;

c) C5H12;

d) C5H14.

704. The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

a) ionic;

b) coordinate covalent;

c) + covalent;

d) hydrogen.

705. As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the
number of double bonds per molecule

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

706.In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

a) + water;

b) carbon dioxide;
c) an acid;

d) a base.

707. Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

a) C2H5OH;

b) + C2H4(OH)2;

c) C3H5(OH)3;

d) C3H6(OH)2.

708. In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound

formed is

a) an ester;
b) ) a ketone;

c) an acid;

d) +an ether.

709.Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) ethene;

b) + ethane;

c) ethylene;

d) ethyne.

710. The compound C2H2 belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula

a)CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) + CnH2n-2;

d) CnH2n+2.

711. Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

a) Al(OH)3;

b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) Ca(OH)2;

d) + C2H4(OH)2.

712. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

a) + glycerol;

b) ethylene glycol;

c) propene;

d) propanoic acid.

713. Which organic compound is a ketone?

a) CH3OH;

) + H3COCH3;

c) CH3COOH;

d) CH3COOCH3.

714. Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

a) butane;

b) ethane;

c) + methane;

d) propane.

715. Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

a) oxidation;

b) + cracking;

c) Haber;

d) contact.

716. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular

forces have

a) + low melting points;

b) low vapor pressure;


c) high conductivity in solution;

d) high boiling points.

717. What is the formula for pentanol?

a) C5H12;

b) + C5H11OH;

c) C4H10;

d) C4H9OH.

718. Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) toluene;

d) butadiene.

719. Which compound contains a triple bond?

a) CH4;

b) + C2H2;

c) C3H6;

d) C4H10.

720. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

a)substitution;

b) oxidation;

c) addition polymerization;

d) + condensation, polymerization.

721. In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling

points by

a) the contact process;

b) the Haber process;


c) + fractional distillation;

d) cracking.

722.Organic acids are composed of a

a)C = O group at the end of the chain

b) COO– group

c) + C = O and COH group on the same carbon

d ) C = O and COH group on different carbons

723. Which of the following is a true statement?

a)ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an
oxidizing agent

b ) + aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent

c)ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol

d)organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

724. Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting

CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

a) an alcohol with an ether

b) a carboxylic acid with a ketone

c) + a carboxylic acid with an alcohol

d) a ketone with an aldehyde

725.The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

a) + ethylpropanoate

b) propylethanoate

c) propethanoate

d) none of the above

726. Which of the following is classified as an ether?

a)CH3CHOHCH3
b)CH2(OH)CH2CH3

c)CH3CH2CO

d) + CH3OCH3

727. Polymers are

a)molecules made of monomers

b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule

c)macromolecules

d) + all of the above

728. Classify this reaction:

CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

a) Chlorination

b) Oxidation

c) + Hydration

d) Elimination

729. The first member of the ketone family is:

a)Methanone

b) + Ethanone

c)Propanone

d) Butanone

730. Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

a) + Concentrated sulfuric acid

b) Dilute sulfuric acid

c) Water

d)None

731. How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

a) + The rotate at different rates


b) They have different colours

c) They have different melting/boiling points

d) They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

732. What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

a) PCl3 and an alcohol

b)HCl and an alcohol

c)HCl and an alcohol, under reflux

d) + Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

733.What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

a) A carboxylic acid

b) + A carboxylate salt

c) Water

d) Does not react

734. Name this molecule:

a) + 1,2-dimethylbutane

b) 3,4-dimethylbutane

c) hexane

d) 3-methylpentane
735. What are alcohols not used in?

a)wine

b)vinegar

c) + plastics

d)methylated spirits

736. What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?

a) hydration
b) hydrolysis

c) + esterification

d)polymerisation

737. What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

a) + CnH2n+1OH

b)CnH2nOH

c)CnH2n+2OH

d)CnH2n+1COOH

738. Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

a) + ethanoic acid

b)ethanol

c)butanoic acid

d)ethyl ethanoate

739. Which is true about ethanoic acid?

a)it has a higher boiling point than ethanol

b)it dissociates completely in water

c) + it dimerises in water

d)it reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

740. esters are ________.

a)made from alcohols and non-organic acids

b)used to make perfumes and flavorings

c) + poisonous

d)foul-smelling compounds

741. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

a)carbon monoxide and water

b)carbon and water


c) + carbon dioxide and water

d)carbon monoxide and hydrogen

742. what are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

a) + ethyl methanoate and water

b)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

c)methyl ethanoate and water

d)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

743. What is true about carboxylic acids?

a)carboxylic acids are strong acids

b) + carboxylic acids can react with metals

c)alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids

d)carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

744. esterification is a __________.

a)condensation reaction

b)irreversible reaction

c)addition reaction

d) + neutralization reaction

745. Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

a) + ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane

b)ethanol contains a hydroxyl group

c)ethanol is used as a fuel

d)ethanol is a solvent

746. What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

a)concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

b) + concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

c)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm


d)concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

747. In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

a)2 bond

b)3 bond

c) + 4 bond

d)5 bond

748. Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

a) + one σ bond, one π bond

b)two π bond, one π bond

c)one σ bond, two π bond

d)two σ bond, two π bond

749. Acetylene has a total of:

a) + one σ bond, two π bond

b)two σ bond, four π bond

c)three σ bond, two π bond

d)one σ bond, four π bond

750. In propene there are

a) + eight σ bond, one π bond

b)seven σ bond, two π bond

c)six σ bond, three π bond

d)nine σ bond

751. In propyne there are

a) + six σ bond, two π bond

b)seven σ bond, one π bond

c)six σ bond, one π bond


d)eight σ bond

752. 1-Buten -3-yne has

a)six σ bond, four π bond

b)seven σ bond, three π bond d)nine σ bond, one π bond

c) + eight σ bond, two π bond

d) 4 σ bond, 5 π bond

753. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH3CH2CH3

b)CH3C≡CH

c)CH2CH=CH2

d)CH2=CH-CH=CH2

754. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH4

b)H2N-CH2-NH2

c)H3C-OH

d)(CH3)3COH

755. When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

a) + 2 other atoms

b)4 other atoms

c)3 other atoms

d)5 other atoms

756. Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + C6H6 b)

c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
d) CH3CH=C=CH2

757. Which of the following is a planar molecule?

a)formaldehyde

b)acetone

c) + formic acid

d)acetic acid

758. What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

a)180o

b)120o

c) + 109.5o

d)115.5o

759.The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

a)60o

b) + 109.28o

c)120o

d)118.28o

760. The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

a)60o

b) + 120o

c)90o

d)180o

761. What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

a)1.20 Ǻ

) + 1.35 Ǻ

c)1.54 Ǻ

d)1.68 Ǻ
762. The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

a) + triple, duble, single

b)single, duble, triple

c)single, triple, duble

d) duble, triple, single.

763.Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

a)C-C < C=C < C≡C

b)C-C > C≡C > C=C

c)C≡C > C-C > C=C

d) + C≡C < C=C< C-C

764.Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

a)CH2 = CH2

b)CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d)

765.The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

a)CH2 = CH2

b) + CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d) CH2=CH-CH3

766. Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

a)ethyl alcohol

b)formaldehyde

c)diethyl ether

d) + 1,3-butadien
767. Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

a) + cis-1,2-dichloroetylene

b)o- dichlorobenzene

c)trans-1,2- dichloroetylene

d)p- dichlorobenzene

768. Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

a)CI2

b)CO2

c) + CCI4

d)CHCI3

769. Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

a) + carbon tetrachloride

b)chloromethane

c)dichloromethane

d)chloroform

770. Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

a) + CH3CI

b)CH3Br

c)CH3F

d)CH3I

771. Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

a)

b) +

c) d
d)

772. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

b) 1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol

c)+ 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
d) 2-chloro-3-methylpropan-3-ol

773. Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

a)

b)

b) +

d)

774. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 3-chlorobutan-3-ol

b 2-chlorobutan-3-ol

c) + 3-chlorobutan-2-ol

d) 2-chlorobutan-2-ol

775. Which is the correct name for ?

a) + propan-2-ol
b) butan-2-ol

c)propanol

d) butanol

776. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

a)

b) +

c)

d)

777.Which is the correct name for ?

a) ethoxyethane

b) + methoxyethane

c) ethoxybuthane

d) methoxymethane

778. Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

a) +

b)
c)

d)

779. Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

a)

c) +

d)

780. Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

a)+

b)

c)

d)

781.Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

a)
b)

c)+

d)

782. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol

b) 2-methoxy-1-methylpropane

c) 1-methoxy-2-methylpropane

d) + 2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

783. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

e)

c)

d) +
784. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol
b) b)2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
c) + 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol

d) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

785. Which is the correct name for ?

a)butanol

b)propanol

c) + propan-1-ol

d)butan-1-ol

786. Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

b)

c) +

d)propanol

787. Which is the correct name for ?

a)1-chlorobutan-3-ol
b)1-chlorobutan-2-ol

c) + 4-chlorobutan-2-ol

d)2-chlorobutan-3-ol

788.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a) +

b)

c)

d)

789.Which is the correct name for ?

a)3-chlorobutan-1-ol

b)1-chloropropan-3-ol

c) + 3-chloropropan-1-ol

d)1-chlorobutan-3-ol

790.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a)

b) +
c)

d)

791. Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

a) ClCH2CHClCOOH

b) CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH

c) + CH3CHClCHClCOOH

d)C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

792.Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

a)ketone

)aldehyde

c) + amine

d)ester

793.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)ester

b)amide

c)ketone

d) + carboxylic acid

794.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)amide

b)ketone

c)carboxylic acid

d) + ester
795. One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other
compounds is that in aldehydes and ketones

a)the carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other

carbonyl compounds.

b) the polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.

c) the molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.

d) + the carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

796. The carbonyl group is

a)found only in aldehydes and ketones.

b)produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.

c) + a functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.

d)a general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

797. All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true
except

a)The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.

b)The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.

c) + Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.

d) In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

798. Which molecule is formaldehyde?

a)+

b)

c)
d)

799. Which molecule is 2- butanone?

a)

c)

d)+

778. Which molecule is propanal?

a)

b)

c)+

d)

800. Which molecule is acetone?


a)

b)

c)

d) +

801. Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

a)ethyl methyl acetone

b)methyl propyl ketone

c) + 3-hexanone

d)propyl methyl ketone

802. Which molecule is a ketone?

a) +

b)

b)
d)

803. Which molecule is an aldehyde?

a)

b)

c)

d) +

804.The IUPAC name for acetone is

a) + 2-propanone.

b)dimethyl ketone.

c)1-propanone.

d)3-propanal.

805. The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

a)3-propanal.

b) + 2-propanone.

c)acetone.

d)1-propanone.
806. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

a)3- methyl 1 butanone.

b)2-methylbutanal.

c) + 3-methylbutanal.

d)isopentanal.

807. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

a)isobutyl acetone.

b)4 –methyl – 2- butanone.

c)2- methyl – 4- butanone.

d)4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

808. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)4-heptanone

b) + 2- methyl -3- hexanone

c)3-heptanone

d)isopropyl n-propyl ketone

809. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)isopentanal

b)2- methyl – 4- butanone

c)2- methyl- 1- butanone

d) + 3-methylbutanal

810. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?
a)3-octanone c)3- methyl -3-pentanone e)all are correct

b)2-butanone d)3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

811. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

a) 3-ethylpentanal

b) 4-methylpentanal

c)3- methyl- 2- pentanal

d) 2-methylpentanal

812. Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

a)They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded

to oxygen.

b) Most have distinctive odors.

c) They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.

d) They are polar.

813. All of the following are properties of acetone except

a)flammable. b)intoxicating. c)solvent for organic substances. d)nutrient.

814. Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

a)flavoring b)preservative c)hormone d)solvent

815. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CO-CH3 b)CH3-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

816. Which compound has the highest boiling point?

a)CH3-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

817. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CH2-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CH3 c)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

818. In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

a)H2. b)lactic acid. c)NADH. d)pyruvic acid.


819. All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

a)It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.

b)Its systematic name is ethanal.

c)Its common name is acetaldehyde.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

820. All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

a)Its systematic name is propanone.

b)Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone.

c)Its common name is acetone.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

821. The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is
methyl ethyl ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound
are ____ .

a)2-butanone; c)3-butanone;

b)2-propanone; d)3-butanone;

822. Tollens' reagent is used to

a)distinguish amines from aldehydes. c)reduce aldehydes.

b)distinguish aldehydes from ketones. d)reduce ketones.

823. Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

a)primary alcohol. b)secondary alcohol. c)carboxylic acid. d)ketone.

824. Oxidation of a ketone produces

a)an aldehyde b)a carboxylic acid c)a primary alcohol d)no reaction
825. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

a)Oxidation of ketones produces esters. c)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

b)Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +. d)Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

826. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

a)The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.

b)Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.

c)The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .

d)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

827. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a)pentanal b)3-pentanone c)2-pentanone d)pentanoic acid

828. Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

a)A silver wire dissolves.

b)A brick-red precipitate forms.

c)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.

d)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

829. Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

a)A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.

b)A red precipitate forms from a blue solution.

c)A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless.

d)A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

830. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

a)butane b)2-butanol c)1-butanol d)butanoic acid

831. What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?


a)butanoic acid b)butanal c)2-butanol d)no reaction

832. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a) c)

b) d)

833. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

a)an aldehyde b)a hemiacetal c)a carboxylic acid d)none, ketones don't oxidize.

834. What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

a) gold b) copper c) lead d) silver

835. Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

a)tertiary alcohol. b)carboxylic acid. c)secondary alcohol. d)primary alcohol.

836. Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

a)carboxylic acid. b)secondary alcohol. c)aldehyde. d)tertiary alcohol.

837. What is the product of reduction of butanal?

a)butanoic acid b)butane c)2-butanol d)1-butanol

838. What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

a)butanal b)1-butanol c)2-butanol d)butanoic acid

839.What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

a)3-methyl –2- pentanal c)3-methyl – 2-pentanol

b)2- methyl -3-pentanol d)3- methyl –2- pentene

840. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?


a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose

841.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5

842.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose

b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose

843. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose

844. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose

845. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-

a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose

846. Choose the keto triose-

a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose

847. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose

848.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers

849. All tests are negative for sucrose except-

a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone

850. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16

851. Galactose and Glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers


852. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-

a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers

853. What does the following equation represent?

α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose

a)Stereo isomerism b)Mutarotation c)Optical isomerism d)Epimerization

854. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose

855.Dulcitol is a -

a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugars d)Sugar alcohol

856. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose

857. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose

858. Invert sugar is-

a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

859. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine

860. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen

861. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose

862.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine

863. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone

864. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?


a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2

865. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde

866. Which of following is an anomeric pair?

a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose

b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

867. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid

868. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

a)The glucose residue is the β anomer.

b)The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.

c)C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

d)The compound is in its furanose form

869.The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

a)A purine nucleotide. b)A pyrimidine nucleotide. c)Adenosine. d)AMP

870.Functional Group of Alkane:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH
871. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:
a)H – C = O b) C – OH c)O = C – O – C d)None

872. Functional Group of Alkyl halide:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH

873. Functional Group of Alkene:


a)H – C = O b)C – OH c)C – X d)C=C

874. Functional Group of Alkyne:


a) b) - C≡N c)C – OH d)C≡C

875. Functional Group of Alcohol:


a)C – OH b)H – C = O c)C – X d)- C≡N

876. Functional Group of Ether:


a)H – C = O b) C – CO – C c) C – C d)C – X

877. Functional Group of Aldehyde:


a) b)C – CH = O c)C – X d)O = C – OH

878. Functional Group of Ketone:


a)C – CO - C b)C – X c)- C≡N d)O = C – OH

879. Functional Group of Carboxylic Acid:


a)O = C – OH b)C – X c)C – OH d)- C≡N

880. Functional Group of Amine:


a)C – NR – R’ b)O = C – OH c)H – C = O d)C – OH

881. Functional Group of Amide:


a)O = C – OH b)C – NR – R’ c)H – C = O d)HOC – NR – R’

882.Functional Group of Nitrile:


a)- C≡N b)O = C – OH c)C – NR – R’ d)HOC – NR – R’

883. Functional Group of Aromatic ring:


a) b)O = C – OH c)HOC – NR – R’ d)- C≡N

884. Amino acides are building blocks of:


a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers

885. Proteins are composed of:


a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers

886. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

887. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

888. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine


a) aliphatic b) aromatic c) heterocyclic d) complex

889. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest
a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4

890. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in


a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium
891. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in
a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium

892. How manyα-amine acidrests are in polypeptide


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

893. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)hydrofobic

894. Choose peptide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) -C-C-

895. Lactose is
a)monose b)unreducing disaccharide c)amine acid d)reducing disaccharide

896. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation b)reduction c)esterificationd)transamination

897. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of


a)aldose b)pyranose c)fructose d)furanose

898. Glicaric acids are produced under action of


a)mild oxidant b)strong reductant c)mildreductant d)strong oxidant

899. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside

900.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

901. Components of nucleotide


a)protein b)amine acid rest c)OH d)thymine

902.Monomeric link of protein


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

903.Unsaponified lipids are


a) mono-component b) di- component c) three-component d) poly-component

904.DNA contains
a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine
905. Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis
a)alcohols, carboxylicacids
b)carboxylicacids
c)alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

906. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

907.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

908.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

909.Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of


a)transamination b)oxidation c)reduction d)decarboxylation

910. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in


a)acidic medium b)neutral medium
c)basic medium d)any medium

911. How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d)more than 100

912. How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

913.Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins


a)coordination b)hydrofobic c)glycoside d)metallic

914.Choose disulphide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-

915.How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

916.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide

917.Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation c)esterification
b)reduction d)transamination

918.Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


a)transamination c)reduction
b)oxidation d)decarboxylation
919.Gliconic acids are produced under action of
a)mild oxidant c)mildreductant
b)strongreductant d)strong oxidant

920.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides


a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts

921.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

922.Components of nucleoside
a)phosphate group b)carbonyl group c)thymine d)sugar rest

923.Monomeric link of terpene


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

924. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

925. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

926.Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

927. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

928. Saponified lipids are


a)mono-component b)three-component c)without any component d) poly-component

929. RNA contains


a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

930. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

931. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar
932. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine
a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

933.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

934.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

935.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

936. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

937. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

938. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

939. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

940. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

941.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

942. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

943. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

944. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

945. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

946. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

947. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

948. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

949. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

950. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

951. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

952. Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

a)Rayon b)insulin c)gun cotton d)paper

953. Complex lipids form under hydrolysis

a)alcohols, carboxylic acids c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.

b)carboxylic acids d)alcohols

954. Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

955. Fatty acids are

a)unsaturated dicarboxylic acids c)aromatic carboxylic acids

b)long-chain alkanoic acids d)aromatic dicarboxylic acids

956. Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called

a)proteins b)terpenes c)carbohydrates d)soaps

957. soap is

a)a mixture of salts of fatty acids b)a salt of glycerol

c)a mixture of ethers d)a mixture of aromatic ethers

958. a wax is

a)a nonpolar solid c)a triacylglycerol

b)a long-chain alcohol d)none of these

959.Fats and oils are

a)monoesters of glycerol c)triesters of glycerol


b)diesters of glycerol d)diesters of glycol

960. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

a)more unsaturation c)a glycerol backbone

b)higher melting points d)longer fatty acids

961. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

a)12 carbons b)14 carbons c)16 carbons d)18 carbons

962. Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

a)hydrogenation b)saponification c)hydrolysis d)oxidation of double bonds

963. Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

a)Vanaspati ghee b)margarine c)both of these d)none of these

964. Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

a)saponification b)fermentation c)diazotization d)rancidification

965.Saponification of a fat

a)Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps c)is used in the production of detergents

b)produces glycerol and soap d)is used in the production of lactic acid

966. Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

a)Fats b)waxes c)soaps d)oils

967. The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

a)Iodine number b)octane number c)saponification number d)melting point

968. Zwitterion is
a)an ion that is positively charged in solution

b)an ion that is negatively charged in solution

c)a compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid

d)a carbohydrate with an electrical charge

969. A zwitterions has which of the following properties

a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these

970. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:


a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals

971. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds

972. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:

a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length

973. The isoelectric point of a protein is

a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface

b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges

c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions

d)none of these

974. Glycine is

a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH

b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH

975. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond

b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid

976. Proteins are

a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene

977. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I

978. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage

979. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure

980. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular


b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain

c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space

d)the presence or absence of an α-helix

981. The α-helix is a common form of

a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these

982. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization

983. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds

984. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols

985. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid

c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid

986. Nynhydring test is given by

a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes

987. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test

988. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is
called

a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test

989. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine

990. Monosaccharides are classified according to

a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule

b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes


d)all of the above

991. Which is a monosaccharide?

a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose

992. Which is a disaccharide?

a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose

993. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose

994. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light

b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate

c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group

d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

995. The principal sugar in blood is

a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose

996. Glucose cannot be classified as

a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide

997. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol

998. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

a)its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal c)it is oprtically active

b)it is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone d)it shows mutarotation

999. Common table sugar is

a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose

1000.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above

1001.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?


a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution

b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

1002. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose

1003. Starch

a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin

b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin


Exam tests on Chemistry.
Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.

1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) + General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) + Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a) + Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) + Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) + Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a) + Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) + Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) + Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) + Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a) + A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) + A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) + A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) + A process during which the heat Q = 0
14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?
a) + Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) + Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) + Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) + Adiabatic process

18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?


a) + Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs

19. The basic formula for Entropy;


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) + S = KlnW

20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a) + Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW
21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.
a) Q=∆U+A
b) + H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

22. Internal energy is called?


a) + Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a) + Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

24. Enthalpy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) + Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a) Internal energy
b) + Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

26. The heat transfer are divided into


a) + Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

27. What is the thermal conductivity?


a) + The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
28. What is the convection?
a) The material to conduct heat.
b) + Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

29. What is the radiation?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) + The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) + Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

31. What is the endothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) + Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

32. What is the exothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) + Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Endothermic reactions

34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Exothermic reactions

35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.


a) + ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) Q= ΔU+ W
d) + ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) + ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

38. System consisting of three phases is called


a) + heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

39. System consisting of one phase is called


a) heterogeneous
b) + homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

40. What is the heterogeneous system?


a) + System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

41. What is the homogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) + System consisting of one phase is called
42. What are the units of energy?
a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d) + joule

43. Spontaneous process occurs only

a) + without external energy


b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help

44. Internal energy is ……


a) + energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness

45. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a) + H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H

46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) A
b) G
c) + Qp
d) H

47. Find state parametre


a) Q
b) G
c) + T
d) H

48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) Q
b) G
c) + Qp
d) S
49. Find state parameter
a) Q
b) G
c) + v
d) H
50.For spontaneous processes
a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics

51. Chemical kinetics studies –

a) energy changes during chemical transformations.


b) + the rate of chemical reactions.
c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?


a) + Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction
53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) + Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular
54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) + Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?
a) + Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?


a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.

58. Enzymes is a substance that …

a) increase the rate of reaction


b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) + biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate

59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-


a) + Catalyst
c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor
d) Reducing agents.

60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

a) Catalyst
b) + Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?
a) + a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel
62. Irreversible reactions are called?
a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) + a change that cannot go back
c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution

63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?


a) + Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) + Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

65. A material that dissolves is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) + Soluble
d) Insoluble

66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) + Insoluble

67. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) + N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

68. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S


b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) + I2 → I • + I •
69. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?
a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b) + Cl2 → 2Cl
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

70. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

71. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

72. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) + CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

73. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH


b) + 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
74. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) + Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
75. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) + H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O
76. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?
a) + 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

77. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) + O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

78. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b) + 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

79. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) + 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) + 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

81. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) + HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

82. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) + 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl

83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
c) + Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
b) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
c) + Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a) + Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is


a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) + K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]

87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is


a) + K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) + backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants

89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a) + Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction

90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c) + Time
d)Temperature

91. A catalyst is a substance which


a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) + Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) + Active mass

93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

a) + Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite

94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

a) Unequal
b)Constant
c) + Equal
d) Increased

95. The law of mass action was enunciated by

a) + Guldberg and Waage


b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham

96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction


will

N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

a) + Increase the yield of NO


b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed
97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?

a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;

b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;

c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;

d) + the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;

b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;

c) + the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;

d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

a) + increases;

b) decreases;

c) remains the same;

d) approaches zero

100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;

b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;

c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;

d) + The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.


101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

a) decrease;

b) increase;

c) + remain the same;

d) approach zero

102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;

b) add a catalyst;

c) cool the reaction down;

d) + use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?

I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

a) II only;

b) III only;

c) I and II only;

d) + II and III only

Solutions.

104. Molarity is expressed as

a)grams/litre

b) litres/mole

c) + moles/litre

d) moles/1000 gm

105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in


a) + 1000 gm of the solvent

c)onelitre of the solution

b) one litre of the solvent

d) 22.4 litres of the solution

106. Normality is expressed as

a)moles/litre

b) + gm equivalents/litre

c)moles/1000 gm

d)gram/litre

107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

a) 1 N

b) 10 N

c) + 2.7 N

d) + 1.7 N

108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

a) + 13N
b) 0x1N
c) +1N
d) None

109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

a) 0x1
b) + 2.0
c) + 1.0
d) 0.4

110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

a) + 5.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) + 2.04 N
d) 0.35 N

111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?


a) 0.5 N
b) + 3.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) + 3.6 N

112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

a) +4N
b) + 47 N
c) N/2
d) N/4

113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is

a) + 4.6 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) + 3.6 N

114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

a) 4g
b) + 16 g
c) +1g
d) 10 g

115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) + 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M

116. The molarity of pure water is

a) + 5.6
b) + 55.6
c) 100
d) 18

117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

a) 1
b) + 10
c) 18
d) 100

118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

a) 1
b) +3
c) +9
d) 1.5

119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) + 1.0 M

120. What is the solution?


a) + a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
121. What is the solute?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) + component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
122. What is the solvent?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) + component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
123. What is the concentration?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) + amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

a) + Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

a) Solution
b) + Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) + Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) + Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?

a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.


b) + the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

129. Mass fraction is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) + percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction


neq msolute
a) C E = c) + =
V m solution

CM CEME
T= = msubstance•1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M • m solution

131.The molar concentration iscalled?

a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:


b) + the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

132. Molar concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration


neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution

nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance•1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) + d) M • m solution

134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?


a) + the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent

a) msolute c) + neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance•1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

137. The molal concentration is:


a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) + the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

138. Molal concentration is expressed in:

a) + mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration

a) + msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance•1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M • m solution

140. Find volume concentration


a) mass percent
b) + normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction

141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) + Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov

142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a) 98
b) 2
c) 32
d) + 49
143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid
a) 98
b) 2
c) + 32.6
d) 49
144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide
a) 98
b) + 37
c) 32
d) 49
145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by
a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) + theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation

146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

a) + diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution

147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

a) + high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature

148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an

a) base
b) + acid
c) salt
d) suspension

149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) + molarity

150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) + solution.
d) compound.

151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a) solute. c)solution.
b) + solvent. d) mixture.

152. Which of the following is not a solution?


a) + zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel

153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?


a) + alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene

154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?


a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d) + dental amalgam

155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?


a) + It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.

156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is


a) + concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.

157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b) + increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure

158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?


a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction
b) + Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction

159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) + 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution

160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a.) + hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride
161. Most salt become soluble in water as the
a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b) + temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.

162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a) + Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b) + Molality d)Mole fraction

164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity
c) + Dilution
b)Normality
d)Molality

165. In dilution of solution,


a) a solute is added to the solution.
b) + solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.

166. A 40% alcohol contains


a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b) + 40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

Colligative properties of solutions.

167. Solutions are:


а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c) + homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.
168. Solubility of solids depends upon:
a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) + all answers are right.

169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:


a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) + gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) + solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) + vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.

172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) + The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.

173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:


a) Hemolysis;
b) + Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.

174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:


a) + 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.

175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:


а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile solutes;
d) + boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) + concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.

177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:


а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) + 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:


a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure solvents;
b) + Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.

179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:


a) + The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.

180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:


a) + to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.

181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:


a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d) + A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:


a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) + Osmotic pressure.

183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:


a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
b) + 1.0×10-1osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.

184. Osmolarity is:


a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) + the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.

185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a) +  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:


a) + 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a) + the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.

188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise


a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect
189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution
a) increases
b) remains same
c) + Decreases
d) None of them
190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise
a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases

191. For spontaneous processes


a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0
192. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on
a) concentration
b) + nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute
193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) + molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate
194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + Hypertonic

195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) + hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + isotonic
197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) + isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) + osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) + cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) + ebuliometry
201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b) + Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure

202. Which involves the colligative properties?


a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c) + Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) + Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis

204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis
d) + Osmosis

205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) + Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Osmosis
d)Phagocytosis

206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on

a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) + Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only

207. Which one is a colligative property?

a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point

208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) + Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.

209. Which is not a colligative property?

a) + Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point

210. Which of the following is a colligative property?

a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point

211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules


b) + Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute
212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by

a) + Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis

213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) + Mole fraction of solute

214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

a) + An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion

215. When common salt is dissolved in water

a) M. p. of the solution increases


b) + B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

a) + Molecular wt. of solute


b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these

217. When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then


phenomenon taking place is called

a) + Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis

218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:


a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) + П / C = ST

219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

a)less than c) + greater than

b)the same as d) greater than or equal to

220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) + Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.

221. What happens during osmosis?


a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.

b) + Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.

c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.

d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.

222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.


b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.

c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) + The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increase

223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) + boiling point d) freezing point

224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

a) + electrolyte c) polar substance


b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance

225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as


a) + volatile
b)electrolyte
c) nonvolatile
d) nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.

Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

226. Acetic acid is weak because

a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) + It is slightly ionized
d) None of these

227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw
at this temperature will be

a) + 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5

228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) + 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9

229. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2%
ionized weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

a) 0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively


b) 1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
c) 2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
d) 3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

230. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

a) 10-12
b) + 10-2
c)10-4
d)10-13
231. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

a) 10-13
b) 1013
c) + 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010

232. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

a) 10
b) +7
c) 1
d) 14

233. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) + Between 6 and 7

234. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

a) 8
b) + 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1

235. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

236. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) + Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation

237. FeCl3 solution is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

238. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

a) Neutral
b) c)Strongly acidic
c) Weakly acidic

d) + Alkaline

239. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

a) + An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction

240. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) + Almost neutral

241. Which one of the following is acid salt?

a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) + NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4

242. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) + Na2HPO4

243. Which one is not an acid salt?

a) Na2H2PO4
b) + NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above

244. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?


a) NaCl
b) + NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4

245. Which one will not be hydrolysed?

a) + Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate

246. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?

a) + CH3COOK
b) KCl
c) NaNO3
d) d)K2SO4

247. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

a) Weakly acidic
b) + Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic

248. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

a) (NH4)2SO4
b) + Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4

249. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

a) A strong acid and strong base


b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) + A weak acid and strong base

250. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) + FeCl3
d) NaCN

251. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?

a) + NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN

252. A buffer solution changes its pH

a) Increase in pH
b) Decrease in pH
c) + No change in pH
d) No change in electrical conductivity

253. About buffer solution which in incorrect?

a) It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base


b) It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c) + It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d) All of the above

254. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

a) Strong acid and its salt of a weak base


b) Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c) + Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d) Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

255. Which is a buffer solution?

a) + CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl

256. Which of the following is a buffer?

a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) + NH4OH + NH4Cl

257. Which is not a buffer solution?

a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) + CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid

258. pH of blood is

a) Less than 6
b) + Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9
d) Greater than 10

259. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

a) + Acetic acid + Sodium acetate


b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All

260. Give name to positively charged particles:

а) radicals;
b) molecules;
c) anions;
d) + cations.

261. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a) NaNO2;
b) + NaHCO3;
c) Na2CO3;
d) KMnO4.
262. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) + Low water ionization constant.
263. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) + Ion product for water.
264. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M;
b) 0.001M;
c) + 0.1 M;
d) 1.0M.

265.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:


a) + Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.

266. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


а) Electrons donors;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) + Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

267. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl;
b) KHSO4/H2SO4;
c) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
d) + NH3 /NH4Cl.

268. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:


a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) + All answers are right.

269. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


а) + Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

270. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:


а) Electrons donor;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) + Protons acceptors.

271. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:


a) + pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.

272. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into


a) + oxides, acid, base, salt
b) oxides, base
c) Alkalis, salt, oxides
d) Ampholytes, Alkalis

273. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.
a) + hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

274. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) + hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

275. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a) + pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

276. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) + pH = 7

277. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7
b) + pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

278. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH>7
c) + pH ~7
d) pH = 7

279. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

280. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

281. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

282. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


A + ) acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

283. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a) acidic b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them
e
284. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

285. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

286. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a) + acidic
) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

287. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

288. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

289. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

290. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

291. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

292. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

ld) none of them

293. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

294. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite


a) acidic
b) + basic
c)
d) c)neutral
e) d) none of them
295. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide
a) 2
b) 11
c) + 13
d) 7
296. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide
a) 2
b) 10
c) 1
d) +13
297. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide
a) 2
b) + 13
c) 1
d) 7
298. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of
a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) + both A and B

299. PH can be kept constant with help of


a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) + buffer solution
d) super saturated solution

300. Buffers present in blood contain


a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) + all of them

301. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a) + aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis

302. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase
b) c)carbolic hydrase

c) + carbonic anhydrase

d) d)carbonic hydrase

303. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

a) hydrochloric acid only


b) + acetic acid only
c) sodium chloride or potassium acetate
d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

304. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a) oxide
b) ether
c) + salt
d) alcohol
305. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) + all of above
306. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) + KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
307. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) + neutralization
b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation

308. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a) AH
b) + HA
c) Ha
d) aH

309.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is


a) high
b) + low
c) same
d) constant
310. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid
b) concentration of water molecules
c ) pH of solution
d) + both A and B
311. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
a) concentration of acid
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) + both A and B

312. Ka is called
a) + acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant

313. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) + HNO2

314.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) + LiClO4
d) CsBr

315. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?


a) H2O
b) + KF
c) HF
d)HNO2

316.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) + HCN

317. A stronger base:

a) is also a stronger acid;

b) tastes sour;

c) + is also a stronger electrolyte;

d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution

318. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

a) water and a salt;

b) an acid and a base;

c) + a salt and hydrogen gas;

d) a nonmetal oxid

319. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

a) HCl;
b) H2CO3;

c) + KOH;

d) CH3CH2OH;

320. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

a) 1×10-11 M;

b) + 1×10-5 M;

c) 1×10-7 M;

d) 1×10-6M;

321. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H + ions. This
substance is:

a) KOH;

b)CH4

c) + H2SO4;

d) NH3

322. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

a) [H+] equals zero;

b) [H+] is less than [OH-];

c) [OH-] equals [H+];

d) + [H+] is greater than [OH-]

323. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

a) donate a proton;

b)donate an electron pair;


c) yield H+ ions;

d) + acceptor of protons.

324. What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 4

0.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

a) 100.0 mL;

b) 80.0 mL;

c) 40.0 mL;

d) + 20.0 mL

325. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

a) + increase;

b) remain the same;

c) decrease;

d) approach zero

326. Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

a) 1;

b) 7;

c) 10;

d) + 14.

327. The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

a) a single replacement;

b) the process of hydrolysis;

c) + a neutralization reaction;
d) a synthesis reaction;

328. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

a) A pH of 2 is three times as strong;

b) + A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;

c) A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

d) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as weak;

329. Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

a) chlorous acid; b) acetic acid;

c) + perchloricacid;

d) hypochlorous acid

330. Which of the following statements is true?

a) NaCl is a neutral salt; c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.

b) KOH is an acid; d) NaBr is basic salt.

331. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?

a) OH- and H2O; c) HCl and Cl-;

b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-; d) NH3 and NH4+;

332. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF; c) SO2 + H2O → H2SO3;

b) + 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2; d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

333. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;

b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;


c) HI is hydroiodic acid;

d) + HClO2 is chloric acid

334. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?

a) AgCl; b) PbBr2; c) Ca3(PO4)2; d) + Na2CO3

335. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:

a) + unsaturated; b) supersaturated; c) saturated; d) dilute

336. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate
and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a)Cl-; b) + 2Na+; c) CaCO3d) all of the substances above

337. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a) 1.5 m NaCl; c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;

b) 1.5 m AgCl; d) + 2.0 m CaCl2

338. Which equation is correctly balanced?

a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;

b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;

c) + 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;

d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;

Unit 2.

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.


339 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in
a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d) + H2S
340. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c) + H2O2 d)F2
341. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b) + KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
342. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d) + x=2 y=3 z=10
343. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b) + Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
344. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b) + H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2

345. An electrolyte is one


a)Which conducts electric current c) + Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above

346. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to


a)Dilution b) + number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution

347. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) + -3

348. Which of the following is an insulator?


a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) + Diamond d)Silicon

349. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O


a)X=4 y=6 b) + x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8

350. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O


a) + 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
351. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a) + F2
b)Cl2
c)Br2
d)I2

352. Oxidation involves


A) + Loss of electrons
b)Increase in the valency of negative part
c)Gain of electrons
d)Decrease in the valency of positive part

353. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

354. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a)-2
b) + -1
c) 0
d) -4

355. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a) + SO2
b)CaO
c)Al2O3
d)CrO3

356.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular
b) intramolecular
c) + disproportion
d) none of them

357.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a) CH3COONa
b) + C2H5OH
c)NaCl

d)KOH

358 Element accepting electrons is called


a) product
b) + oxidant
c) reactant
d) reductant

359.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F
b) + Cl
c)He
d)Na

360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:


a) + -3 to +5
b)-1 to +1
c)-3 to -5

d) -5 to +1

361.Strong electrolytes are those which


a)Dissolve readily in water
b)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
c)Conduct electricity
d) + Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

362.Which of the following conducts electricity?


a) crystal NaCl
b)diamond
c) + molten KBr
d)sulphur

363. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

364. Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode


a) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

365. Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

366. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:


a) + -1
b) -2
c)+4
d) 0

367. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:


a) +1
b) + -2
c)- 4
d) 0
368. Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode
a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

369. Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

370. In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation numbers
a) + intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) intramolecular
d) disproportion

371. In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed


a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) counter disproportion
d) + disproportion

372. Element loosing electrons is called


a) product
b) oxidant
c) reactant
d) + reductant

373. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a) + the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in terms
of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

374. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a) KMnO4→MnO2;
b) HNO2→NO2;

c) Cl2O→HCl;

d) + P→H3PO4.
375. Point out the correct statements:
a) + A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
b) A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
c) High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
d) Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

376. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1;
b) + 6;
c) 14;
d)3.

377. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

a) Mn(OH)2;

b) MnO42-;

c) + MnO2;

d) Mn2+.

378. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

a) Fe2O3 + HCl;

b) + FeCl3+H2S;

c) Fe+ HCl;

d) SO3+NaOH.

379. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

а) 2; b) + 5; c) 10; d) 3.

380. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


а) + accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.

381. Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:
a) Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
b) Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
c) Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
d) + Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

382. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) + 1-

383. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?a)
HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) + KClO4

384. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

a) Al; b) Fe; c) + Fe3+; d) Al3+

385. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

; a) + loses 1 electron b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton

386. . In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) + Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni

387. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) + 10
388. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

a) it allows ion migration; c) + it allows electron migration;

b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;

389. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) + F2; d) I2

390. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:

a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) + electrolysis; d) hydrolysis

Biogenic elements.

391. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

a) in molecule of cytochrome b

b) + in molecule of vitamin B12

c) in molecule of catalase

d) in molecule of vitamin B6

392) Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

a) enzyme catalase

b) + enzyme superoxide dismutase

c) cytochrome P450

d) glutathione peroxidase

393) Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

a) hypervitaminosis

b) + hypovitaminosis

c) avitaminosis

d) acidosis

394) Vitamin A deficiency can cause:


a) + xeroftalmia

b) increased blood coagulation

c) growth acceleration

d) anemia

395) The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

a) vitamin D

b) + vitamin B1

c) vitamin K

d) thiamine

396. ZnO is used as

a) protective

c) + both (a) & (b)

b) astringent

d) antidote

397. Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

a) oxidation

b) protein precipitate

c) halogenation

d) + all of the above

398. Hydrogen peroxide is used as

a) + antiseptic

b) acidifying agent

c) protective

d) antioxidant

399. KMnO4 solutions are used for

a) antibacterial
b) antifungal

c) + both of the above

d) antioxidant

400. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these

elements:

a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;

b) + H, P, S, C, O, N;

c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;

d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

401. Choose biogenic macroelement

a)Cu

b) + P

c)Br

d)As

402. Choose biogenic microelement


a) + Cu
b)S
c)Ca
d)Mg

403. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) + 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm

404. Six major biogenic elements :


a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
c) + Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.

405.Five minor biogenic elements:


a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) + Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

406. Trace elements:


a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) + Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

407. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12%
b) + 10-3– 10-5 %
c)10-9%
d) 10-2%

408. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a) + 10-2%
b) 10-9%
c) 10-3– 10-5 %

d) 10-7% - 10-12

409. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + Zn

410. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) + Fe
c) N
d) C

411. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + I

412. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) + P
b) Cl
c)Cu
d) I
Choose biogenic macroelement
a) Pb
b) +Ca
c) I
d) Ne

413. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) l
c) + O
d) Mn

414. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) + C
c)Cu
d) I

Complex compounds.

415. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:


a)+1
b) + +3
c)-1
d)-3

416. A coordination compound consists of


a) a metal ion and counterions
b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions
d) + a metal ion bound to one or more ligands

417. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:


a)0
b)+4
c) + +3
d)+6

418. Name the following coordination compound:


K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II)
b) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
c ) potassium cyanoferrate(II)
d) + potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
419. The coordination number is:
a) + The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex

420. Number of hem sections in mioglobin


a) + 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

421. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2


a) + cationic
b) anionic
c) monodentate
d) neutral

422. Ethylenediamine would be called


a) dentate
b) + bidentate
c) tridentate
d)tetradentate

423. Name the following coordination compound:


[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) + triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

424. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?


(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
(3) chloride, Cl- (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5
b)1, 5, 6
c) + 1, 6
d) 2, 3, 4, 5

Ca 3  Fe(CN)6 2
425. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0
b) 1+
c) 2+
d) + 3+

426. Number of hem sections in hemoglobin


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) + 4

427. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound


a) + central ion
b) ligands
c) outer sphere ions
d) all constituents

428.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements


a) does’tchang
b) increases
c) + decreasis
d) none

429.Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps


a) 0
b) 1
c) + 2 and more
d) always without steps

430. Dentantness of porfyrin


a) 2
b) + 4
c) 6
d) 5

431.Particles playing role of ligands are


a) positive ions
b) chelates
c) + negative ions
d) complex ions

432. A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its
formula.
a) [Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
b) [ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
c) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
d) + [CrCl2(H2O)4]

433. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?


a) +1
b) + +3
c) -2
d) 0

434. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?


a) carbonyl; b) nitro;
b)
c) acetate;
d) + oxalate.

435. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?


a) + [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
b) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
c) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

436. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?


a) + Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

437. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?


a) + Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper

438. Ligand «en» is an example of:


a) + bidentate ligand;
b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand;
d) hexadentate ligand.

439. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is


a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) + Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

440. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


a) cationic
b) + anionic
c) trigonal

d) neutral

441. Donor of electrons in coordination compound


a)central ion
b)outer sphere ions
c) + ligands
d) none

442. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements


a) doesn’t change
b) + increases
c) decreases
d) none of them

443.Coordination number of iron in hem


a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) + 6

444. Dentatness of EDTA


a) 2
b) 3

c) + 4
d) 6

445. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability


a) increases b) doesn’t change c) + decreases d) none of them

446. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) + donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

447. Particles playing role of central ion are


a) + positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions

448. Find ligand of weak field


a) + OH-
b) Au
c) CN-
d) Fe2+

449. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?


a) + Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)

450. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)


a) + K3[Fe(CN)6]
b) (CN)6[Fe K2]
c) Fe [K2(CN)6]
d) [FeK2(CN)6

451. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?


a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) + tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

452.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate


a) [(en)3Co]SO4
b) [SO4(en)3]Co
c) [Co(en)3SO4]
d) + [Co(en)3]SO4

453. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?


a) linear;

b) octahedral;

c) + tetrahedral;

d) trigonal

454. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) + electrostatic model

455. Find ligand of strong field


a) OH-
b) Au
c) Cl-
d) + NH3

456. Dentatness of ligand is


a) number of central ions
b) charge of central ion
c) + number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number
Unit 3.

Colloids.
457. Disperse systems consists of:

a) + dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
d) sol, gel

458. Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

a) dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) + coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
c) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
d) sol, gel

459. What is a disperse system?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

460. Coarse systems include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) Gel, suspensions.

461. What is the Emulsion?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

462. What is the suspension?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

463. What is the aerosol?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) + It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

464. Sols are:


a) gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) + blood, lymph.
c) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
d) Blood, jelly, marmalade.

465. Gels are:


a) + gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
c) blood, lymph.
d) blood, jelly, marmalade.

466. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:


a) medical products
b) colored glass
c) + pumice
d) fog

467. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:


a) Soil
b) + Moist soil
c) Rocks
d) fog

468. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) natural gas
b) + gas from oil droplets
c) smog
d) colored glass

469. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) natural gas
b) aerosols
c) + dust storms
d) pearl

470. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) Fizzy drinks, foam
b) + body fluids
c) pastes,mortar
d) smog

471. Colloidal solutions include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) saline solution in water

472. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:


a) cosmetic products
b) porous chocolate
c) + some alloys
d) fog

473. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

a) Dust in the air


b) Aerosol
c) Fog
d) + Does not exist

474. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) + Sols
b) Emulsion oil
c) Fizzy drinks
d) Fog

475. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

a) cream, milk
b) + foam
c) pastes
d) chocolate

476. Colloid particles have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 m
c) + 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -7 m

477. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) negative
b) + positive
c) without charge
d) zero

478. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
a) + Ba2+
b) H+
c) SO4 2-
d) H+

479. Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing


a) condensation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

480. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaCl
b) + Сa3(PO4)2
c) CaCl2
d) FeCl3

481. Optical property typical to colloid systems


a) reflection
b) absorption
c) + scattering
d) diffusion

482. Find optical property


a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) electroosmosis
d) + absorption
483. Emulsion is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) g/l

484. Powder is
a) l/s
b) l/l
c) s/l
d) + s/g

485. Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties


a) μ
b) η

c) + φ
d) ξ

486. Particles of coarse systems have sizes of


a) + greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -9 - 10 -7 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -9 m

487. Particles of true solutions have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) + less than 10 -7 m

488. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =


a) + positive
b) negative
c) without charge
d) zero

489. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) none
b) Cl-
c) SO4 2-
d) + Ba2+
490. Choose condensation method of colloids producing
a) coagulation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

491. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) none

492. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Ag Cl

c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) Ba(NO3) 2

493. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) PbS
d) Ba(NO3) 2

494. Optical property typical to coarse systems


a) reflection
b) scattering
c) + absorption
d) diffusion

495. Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one


a) absorption
c) Brownian movement
c) + osmosis

d) diffusion

496. Aerosol is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) s/g
497. Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties
a) μ

b) η

c) m

d) +

498. Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:
a) + Suspensions;
b) b) Electrolytes;
c) c) Molecular solutions;
d) d) Alloys.

499. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:


a) + Colloids;
b) b)Gas mixtures;
c) c) Saturated solutions
d) ; d) Alloys.

500. The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:


a) Coagulation;
b) + Tyndall effect;
b) c) Peptization;
c) d) Dialysis.

501. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:


a) Osmosis;
b) Diffusion;
c) + Brownian motion;

d) Coagulation .

502. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:


a) + Aerosol;
b) b) Emulsion;
c) c) Sol;
d) d) Foam.

503. Fog and smoke are:


a) + Aerosols;
b) b) Emulsions;
c)
d) c) Gels;
e) d) Foams.

504. Sol consists of:


a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) + Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;
d) liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid.

505. Stability of a disperse system is:


a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) + Constancy in time of its state and main properties.

506. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:


a) + Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.

507. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:


a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) + {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.

508. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
a) + Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.

509. The methods of cleaning colloidal solutions are:


a) Compensation dialysis; dialysis;
b) Condensation; crystallization;
c) Sublimation; distillation;
d) + Filtration; ultra filtration.

510. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:


a) N2;
b) H2O;
c) + CO2;
d) O2.

511. Aerosol is:


a) Powder;
b) Dust cloud;
c) Hairspray;
d)+ All answers are right.

512. Emulsion is:


a) + Milk;
b) b) Foam;
c) c) Jelly;
d) d) Fog.
513. Biological gel is:
a) + Cartilage;
b) air;
c) clouds;
d) river water.

514. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:


a) These are heterogeneous systems;
b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) + All answers are right.

515. Coarse disperse system is:


a) Solution;
b)Sol;

c 0+ Suspension;

d)Gel.

516. Chromatography is:


a) + The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

517. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:
a) + Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

518. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:


a) + Fog;
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.

519. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:
a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) + Size of particles;
d) Odor.

520. Emulsion is:


a) + Butter;
b) b) River ooze;
c) c) Stained glass;
d) d) Textile fabrics.

521. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:


a) + Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right

522. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
d) + On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

523. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

a) + Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.

524. Coagulation is:

a) Chaotic movement of particles;

b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;

c) Destruction of the native protein structure;

d) + The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby separate
from the continuous phase.

525. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

a) Viscosity, flowability;

b) + Opalescence, light absorption;

c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;

d) dissolution, swelling.

526. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

a) Opalescence;

b) Electrodialysis;

c) Light absorption;

d) + Electrophoresis and electroosmosis.

527. A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

a) Negatively charged;

b) Electro neutral;

c) Positively charged;
d) + Negatively and positively charged.

528. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

a) Diameter

b)Particle size

c)radius

d) + solubility

529. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

a) +suspension> colloidal > true solution

b)true solution > suspension > colloidal

c) suspension> colloidal = true solution

d) none of the above

530. Colloids can be purified by

a) peptization

b) coagulation

c) + dialysis

d) bredic arc method

531. which is a natural colloid?

a) sodium chloride

b)urea

c)cane sugar

d) + blood

532. Which one of the following is not a colloid

a) milk

b) blood

c)ice cream
d) + urea solution

533. Milk is a colloid in which

a) + a liquid is dispersed in liquid

b) a gas is dispersed in liquid

c) a solid is dispersed in liquid

d)some sugar is dispersed in water

534. an aerosol is a colloidal system of

a) aliquid dispersed in a solid

b) a gas dispersed in air

c) + a liquid dispersed in a gas

d)none of the above

535. Which of the following is a homogeneous system

a) muddy water b)bread c)concrete d) +a solution of sugar in water

536. Which of the following is an emulsifier?

a) + soap

b)water

c)oil

d)NaCl

537. Lyophobic colloids are

a) reversible colloids

b) + irreversible colloids

c)protective colloids

d)gum proteins

538. Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

a)condensation

c)diffusion through animal membrane


b)dialysis

d) + addition of an electrolyte

539. Colloidal solutions are not purified by

a) dialysis

b) electrodialysis

c) ultrafiltration

d) + electrophoresis

540. Suspensions are

a) + visible to naked eye

c) invisible under electron microscope

b) not visible by any means

d) invisible through microscope

541. Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

a) + gelatin

b) sulphur

c) gold

d) carbon

542. Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

a) lyophilic sol

b) + associated colloid

c) hydrophobic sol

d) emulsion

543. The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

a) + charge on their particles

b) a layer of medium of dispersion on their particles

c) the smaller size of their particles


d)the large size of their particles

544. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

a)the colloidal particles have positive charge

b)the colloidal particles have negative charge

c) + the colloidal particles are solvated

d) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

545. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

a)high concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained

b) + coagulation is reversible

c)viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water

d)the charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or
even zero

546. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

a)light scattered by colloidal particles

b)shape of the particle

c) + size of the particle

d)relative size

547. Light scattering takes place in

a)solution of electrolyte

b) electrodialysis

c) + colloidal solutions

d)electroplating

548.Maximum coagulation power is in

a)Na+

b)Ba2+

c)Al3+

d) + Sn4+
549. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

a)Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+

b)Cl- , SO42- , PO43-

c) + Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+

d)PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

550. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

a)NaCl solution

b) + starch solution

c)urea solution

d)FeCl3 solution

551. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

a)linear

b)curved

c) + zigzag

d)uncertain

552. The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

a)Photolysis

b) + dialysis

c)pyrolysis

d)peptisation

553. Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known
as

a)electrolysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)electrodyalysis

d)none of the above


554. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the
particles?

a)dialysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)sedimentation

d)ultrafiltration

555. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

a)prevent making of a colloid

b)stabilize the mixture

c) + stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization

d)enrich the aroma

556. Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

a)absorption

b)tyndall effect

c)flocculation

d) + paramagnetism

557. Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

a) + accumulates in the surface of the other substance

b) goes into the body of the other substance

c) remains close to the other substance

d) forms chemical bonds with other substences.

558. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?


a) + colloidal S
b)Colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold
d)colloidal platinum

559. As2S3 sol is


a)positive colloid
b) + negative colloid
c)neutral colloid
d)none of the above

560. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

a) + liquid dispersed in gas

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)gas dispersed in gas

d)solid dispersed in liquid

561. Which of the following is a colloid?

a)sugar solution

b)urea solution

c) + silicic acid

d)NaCl solution

562. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

a) smoke

b) ink

c) blood

d) + air

563. Milk is

a) fat dispersed in milk

b) + fat dispersed in water

c) water dispersed in fat

d) water dispersed in oil

564. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

a)solid is dispersed in liquid

b)liquid is dispersed in a solid

c) + gas is dispersed in a solid

d)solid is dispersed in a solid


565. Butter is a colloid formed when

a) fat is dispersed in water

b) fat globules are dispersed in water

c) + water is dispersed in fat

d) none of the above

566.Which of the following is not a colloid?

a) + chlorophyll

b) smoke

c) ruby glass

d) milk

567. Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

a)muddy water

b)bread

c)concrete

d) + a solution of sugar in water

568. A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

a)gel

b)homogeneous solution

c) + sol

d)aerosol

569. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

a) a sol

b) + a gel

c)an emulsion

d)a foam
570. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as

a) + foam

b)sol

c)aerosol

d)emulsion

571. Emulsifiers are generally

a)soap

b)synthetic detergents

c) + lyophilic sols

d)all of the above

572. Butter is

a) emulsion

b) aerosol

c) suspension

d) + none

573. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium
is termed as

a)aerosol

b) + gel

c)emulsion

d)foam

574. Which one of an example of gel?

a)soap

b)fog

c) + cheese

d)milk

575. Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called


a) aerosol

b) + cannot be prepared

c) gas aerosol

d) gasosol

576. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles
with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) + Surface
d) Size

577. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is
called

a)smoke

b) + clouds

c)jellies

d)emulsions

578. Milk is an example of

a) pure solution

b) + emulsion

c)gel

d)suspension

579. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

a)electro-osmosis

b)Brownian movement

c) + cataphoresis

d)dialysis

580. Tyndall effect will be observed in

a) + solution

b)precipitate
c)sol

d)vapour

581. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

a) + scattering of light

b)reflection of light

c)absorption of light

d)presence of electrically charged particles

582. The Brownian motion is due to

a)temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

b)attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

c) + impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

d)convective currents

583. The sky looks blue due to

a)dispersion effect

b) reflection

c)transmission

d) + scattering

584. The blue color of water in the sea is due to

a)refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water

b) + reflection of blue sky by sea water

c)scattering of blue light by water molecules

d)absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

585. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

a) + colloidal S

b)colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold

d)colloidal silver

586. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

a)dialysis

b) + Brownian movement

c)electro-osmosis

d)Tyndall effect

587. is an example of colloidal system of

a)solid dispersed in liquid

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)liquid dispersed in gas

d) + gas dispersed in gas

588. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

a)suspension

b)emulsion

c) + sugar solution

d)gold sol

589. Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

a)milk

b) + gum

c)fog

d)blood

590. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

a)suspension

b) + emulsion

c)gel
d)rtue solution

591. The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

a)dialysis

b) + addition of electrolytes

c)diffusion through animal membrane

d)condensation

592. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles
abruptly collected into spherical structures called _________
a) Ball
b) Sphere of ions
c) + Micelles
d) Dirt particle

593. _________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the
stationary liquid induced by an external field.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) + Electrophoresis

594. Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?


a) Minerals
b) Vitamins
c) + Proteins
d) Starch

595. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

a) Molecular colloid
b) + Associated colloid
c) Macromolecular colloid
d) Lyophillic colloid

596. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration


b) + Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
c) Aqueous solution of odium chloride
d) Aqueous solution of sugar
597. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

a) By addition of oppositely charged sol


b) By addition of an electrolyte
c) + By addition of lyophilic sol
d) By boiling

598. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

a) Coagulation
b) Electrolysis
c) Diffusion
d) + Peptisation

599. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+

a) Na2S
b) Na3PO4
c) Na2SO4
d) + NaCl

(extent of adsorption is directly proportional to the ease of liquification is directly proportional to


Tc)

600. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

a) Solid sol
b) Gel
c) Emulsion
d) + Sol

601. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison
to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles
____________

a) Exhibit enormous surface area


b) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
c) Form lyophilic colloids
d) + Are comparatively less in number

Unit 4

Organic compounds.

602. Which element is present in all organic compounds?


a) + carbon

b)nitrogen

c)oxygen

d)phosphorous

603.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

a) + low melting point

b)high melting point

c)soluble in polar solvents

d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents

604.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

a)slower because organic particles are ions

b) + slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

c)faster because organic particles are ions

d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

605.Which compounds are isomers?

a ) + 1-propanol and 2-propanol

b)methanol and methanal

c)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid

d)ethane and ethanol

606.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.

d) + Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.


607.Which polymers occur naturally?

a)starch and nylon

b) + starch and cellulose

c)protein and nylon

d)protein and plastic

608.What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?

a)butane

b)butene

c) + benzene

d)butyne

609. In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a
regular

a)pyramid

b) + tetrahedron

c)square

d)rectangle

610. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per
molecule?

a)C2H2 and C2H6

b)C2H2 and C3H6

c) + C4H8 and C2H4

d)C6H6 andC7H8

611. Which compound contain an alcohol group?

a) acetone

b) methanale

c) + methanol
d) dimethyl ether

612. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

a)water

b)oxygen

c) + carbon dioxide

d)sulfur dioxide

613. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + ethane

b)ethene

c)ethyne

d)ethanol

614. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

a)an addition reaction

b)a saponification reaction

b) + a substitution reaction

d)an esterification reaction

615. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

a)1

b)2

c)3

d) + 4

616. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

a)acids
b) + alcohols

c)esters

d)ethers

617. Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

a)2-methylpropane

b)2-methylbutane

c) + propane

d)butane

618. What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

a)ketone

b) + protein

c)ester

d)acid

619. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

a) + boiling points

b)melting points

c)triple points

d)saturation points

620. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3OH

b)CH3OCH3

c) + CH3COOH

d)CH3COOCH3

621. Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different


a)percentage compositions;

b)molecular masses;

c)molecular formulas;

d) + structural formulas.

622. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3 CH2 OH;

b)CH3 OCH3 ;

c) + CH3 COOH;

d)CH3COOCH3 .

623. Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one
additional carbon atom and

a) one hydrogen atom;

b) + two hydrogen atoms;

c)three hydrogen atoms;

d) four hydrogen atoms.

624. Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2 ;

b) C2 H4 ;

c) C3 H6 ;

d) + C3 H8 .

625. The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has
the same

a) + empirical formula;

b) general formula;

c) structural formula;

d) molecular formula.

626. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?
a) + methanol;

b) methane;

c) methyl methanoate;

d) methanoic acid.

627. A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

a) toluene;

b) + benzene;

c) butene;

d) pentene.

628. C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

a) + ddition;

b) substitution;

c) saponification;

d) esterification.

629. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

a) C3H7COCH3;

b)CH3COOC2H5;

c) + H5OC2H5;

d) CH3COOH.

630. What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

631.Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

a) + C2H6;
b) C3H6;

c) C4H6;

d) C6H6.

632. A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

a) carbon dioxide;

b) + water;

c) glycerol;

d) ethanol.

633.The general formula for the alkyne series is

a) CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) CnH2n+2;

d) + CnH2n-2.

634. Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

a) acetylene;

b) ethylene;

c) + toluene;

d) propene.

635.Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

a) + HCOOCH3;

b)CH3CH2COOH;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3COOCH3

636.Which compound is a member of the alkene series?

a) benzene;

b) toluene;
c) + acetylene;

d) ethane

637. All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

a) + single covalent;

b) double covalent;

c) triple covalent;

d) coordinate covalent

638.Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

a) C2H4;

b) C3H6;

c) C4H8;

d) + C5H10.

639.Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

a) an esterification reaction;

b) a neutralization reaction;

c) a saponification reaction;

d) + a fermentation reaction.

640.Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is
an example of _______ reaction.

a) + substitution;

b) addition;

c) polymerization;

d) fermentation.

641.In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

a) 11;
b) 11;

c) 3;

d) + 10

642.Which compound is an ester?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CHO;

c) + CH3COOCH3;

d) CH3COCH3.

643.The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

a) a polymer;

b) a soap;

c) an ester;

d) + an alcohol.

644.Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures

are called

a) + isomers;

b) isotopes;

c) allotropes;

d) homologs.

645.Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2

C2H4;

c) C5H8;

d) + C5H12.

646.CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with this

characteristic?
a) acetylene;
b) benzene;

c) + propane;

d) toluene.

647. A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

a) structural formula;

b) molecular formula

c) number of carbon atoms;

d) + number of hydrogen atoms.

648.Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CH2OH;

c) + CH3CH2COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH2OH.

649.The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

a) an acid;

b) an alcohol;

c) + an ester;

d) a hydrocarbon.

650.Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order,
has 1 more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

a) +4; b) 8; c) 3; d) 4.

651.Which molecular formula represents pentene?

a) C4H8;

b) C4H10;

c) + C5H10;

d) C5H12.
652.A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

a) propanol;

b) butanol;

c) pentanol

d) + glycerol.

653.Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

a) + organic acids;

b) esters;

c) alkynes;

d) alkanes.

654.Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

a) + C2H2;

b) C2H4;

c) C3H6;

d) C3H8.

655.Which formula represents an acid?

a) CH3COOCH3;

b) CH3OH;

c) + CH3COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH3.

656.Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and
formic acid. This type of reaction is called

a) fermentation;

b) + sterification;

c) saponification;

d) polymerization.
657. Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

a) + C3H6;

b) C2H6;

c) C2H2;

d) C6H6.

658. Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

a) tetrahedral;

b) planar triangular;

c) + linear;

d) bent.

659. Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

a) greater solubility in water;

b a tendency to form ions more readily;

b) more rapid reaction rates;

d) + lower melting points.

660. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

a) + -COOH;

b) -OR;

c) -CHO;

d) -NH2.

661. C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

a) substitution;

b) + addition;

c) polymerization;

d) esterification.

662. The isomers of propanol differ in


a) the number of carbon atoms;

b) the arrangement of the carbon atoms;

c) + molecular mass;

d) the position of functional group.

663. Which is the formula of an alcohol?

a) Ba(OH)2;

b) HCHO;

c) CH3COOH;

d) +C5H11OH.

664. C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) an organic acid;

d) + an alcohol.

665. Which compound can have isomers?

a) C2H4;

b) C2H2;

c) C2H6;

d) + C4H8.

666. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

a)polymerization;

b) + substitution;

c) addition;

d) esterification.

667.Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?


a) CCl2F2; b) C2H2;

c) + C2H5OH;

d) C2H5OC2H5.

668.Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

a) C3H8;

b) C3H7OH;

c) CH3COOH;

d) + CH3COOCH3.

669.Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

a) CCl4;

b) + C3H5(OH)3;

c) C6H6;

d) C6H12O6.

670.The structure of an alkene contains

a) only single bonds;

b) + a double bond;

c) two double bonds;

d) a triple bond.

671. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van
der Waals forces between the molecules

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

672.Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

a) CH4;
b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) + C4H10.

673.What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?

a) 6;

b) 3;

c) 8;

d) + 2.

674.In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?

a) + CH3COOH;

b) C3H5(OH)3;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3OH.

675.A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used

commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is

called

a) polymerization;

b) hydrogenation;

c) esterification;

d) + cracking.

676. Organic compounds must contain

a) oxygen;

b) nitrogen;

c) hydrogen;

d) + carbon.

677. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an
organic compound is a(an)

a) dihedral angle;

b) right angle;

c) + tetrahedral angle;

d) acute angle.

678. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an

organic molecule is known as a(an)

a) carboxyl group;

b) + functional group;

c) group;

d) alkyl group.

679.The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of

compounds that are

a) + molecular;

b) ionic;

c) polar;

d) atomic.

680.How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

a) 5;

b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 13.

681.The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two

adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

a) alkanes;
b) alkenes;

c) + alkynes;
d) benzenes.

682.Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated

hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

a) + contain multiple bonds;

b) have a greater molecular mass;

c) have tetrahedral bonds;

d) contain more atoms.

683.A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is

a) ethanol;

b) glycerol;

c) + ethylene glycol;

d) ethane.

684.A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

a) fat;

b) + polymer;

c) isomer;

d) monomer.

685.Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C2H4;

b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) C4H10.

686.How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?


a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

687.Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?

a) butane;

b) propane;

c) 1-chlorobutane;

d) + 1-chloropropane.

688.A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both

can produce

a) an ester;

b) + an alcohol;

c) an acid;

d) a soap.

689.Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C3H8;

b) C6H6;

c) C2H5OH;

d) C2H4O2.

690.Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) propane;

d) propyne.

691.CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as


a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) + an alcohol;

d) an organic acid.

692.Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

a) + benzene;
b) propyne;
c) methane;
d) ethanol.

693. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling

points

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

694. As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the

ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases

695. Which compound is most likely to react by addition?

a) CH4;

b) + C3H6;

c) C4H10;

d) C5H12.
696. Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

a) propanol;

b) + glycerol;

c) butanol;

d) pentanol.

697. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

a) + benzene;

b) propene;

c) pentene;

d) butene.

698. A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

a)alkene;

b) alkane;

c) + alkyne;

d) alkadiene.

699. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

a) aldehydes;

b) esters;

c) + polymers;

\d) ketones.

700. The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

a) + secondary alcohol;

c) tertiary alcohol;

d) dihydroxy alcohol.

701. What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

a) 10;
b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 4.

702. Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

a)butane;

b) + ethane;

c) pentane;

d) propane.

703. Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

a) C5H8;

) + C5H10;

c) C5H12;

d) C5H14.

704. The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

a) ionic;

b) coordinate covalent;

c) + covalent;

d) hydrogen.

705. As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the
number of double bonds per molecule

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

706.In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

a) + water;

b) carbon dioxide;
c) an acid;

d) a base.

707. Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

a) C2H5OH;

b) + C2H4(OH)2;

c) C3H5(OH)3;

d) C3H6(OH)2.

708. In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound

formed is

a) an ester;
b) ) a ketone;

c) an acid;

d) +an ether.

709.Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) ethene;

b) + ethane;

c) ethylene;

d) ethyne.

710. The compound C2H2 belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula

a)CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) + CnH2n-2;

d) CnH2n+2.

711. Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

a) Al(OH)3;

b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) Ca(OH)2;

d) + C2H4(OH)2.

712. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

a) + glycerol;

b) ethylene glycol;

c) propene;

d) propanoic acid.

713. Which organic compound is a ketone?

a) CH3OH;

) + H3COCH3;

c) CH3COOH;

d) CH3COOCH3.

714. Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

a) butane;

b) ethane;

c) + methane;

d) propane.

715. Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

a) oxidation;

b) + cracking;

c) Haber;

d) contact.

716. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular

forces have

a) + low melting points;

b) low vapor pressure;


c) high conductivity in solution;

d) high boiling points.

717. What is the formula for pentanol?

a) C5H12;

b) + C5H11OH;

c) C4H10;

d) C4H9OH.

718. Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) toluene;

d) butadiene.

719. Which compound contains a triple bond?

a) CH4;

b) + C2H2;

c) C3H6;

d) C4H10.

720. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

a)substitution;

b) oxidation;

c) addition polymerization;

d) + condensation, polymerization.

721. In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling

points by

a) the contact process;

b) the Haber process;


c) + fractional distillation;

d) cracking.

722.Organic acids are composed of a

a)C = O group at the end of the chain

b) COO– group

c) + C = O and COH group on the same carbon

d ) C = O and COH group on different carbons

723. Which of the following is a true statement?

a)ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an
oxidizing agent

b ) + aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent

c)ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol

d)organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

724. Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting

CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

a) an alcohol with an ether

b) a carboxylic acid with a ketone

c) + a carboxylic acid with an alcohol

d) a ketone with an aldehyde

725.The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

a) + ethylpropanoate

b) propylethanoate

c) propethanoate

d) none of the above

726. Which of the following is classified as an ether?

a)CH3CHOHCH3
b)CH2(OH)CH2CH3

c)CH3CH2CO

d) + CH3OCH3

727. Polymers are

a)molecules made of monomers

b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule

c)macromolecules

d) + all of the above

728. Classify this reaction:

CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

a) Chlorination

b) Oxidation

c) + Hydration

d) Elimination

729. The first member of the ketone family is:

a)Methanone

b) + Ethanone

c)Propanone

d) Butanone

730. Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

a) + Concentrated sulfuric acid

b) Dilute sulfuric acid

c) Water

d)None

731. How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

a) + The rotate at different rates


b) They have different colours

c) They have different melting/boiling points

d) They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

732. What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

a) PCl3 and an alcohol

b)HCl and an alcohol

c)HCl and an alcohol, under reflux

d) + Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

733.What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

a) A carboxylic acid

b) + A carboxylate salt

c) Water

d) Does not react

734. Name this molecule:

a) + 1,2-dimethylbutane

b) 3,4-dimethylbutane

c) hexane

d) 3-methylpentane
735. What are alcohols not used in?

a)wine

b)vinegar

c) + plastics

d)methylated spirits

736. What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?

a) hydration
b) hydrolysis

c) + esterification

d)polymerisation

737. What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

a) + CnH2n+1OH

b)CnH2nOH

c)CnH2n+2OH

d)CnH2n+1COOH

738. Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

a) + ethanoic acid

b)ethanol

c)butanoic acid

d)ethyl ethanoate

739. Which is true about ethanoic acid?

a)it has a higher boiling point than ethanol

b)it dissociates completely in water

c) + it dimerises in water

d)it reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

740. esters are ________.

a)made from alcohols and non-organic acids

b)used to make perfumes and flavorings

c) + poisonous

d)foul-smelling compounds

741. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

a)carbon monoxide and water

b)carbon and water


c) + carbon dioxide and water

d)carbon monoxide and hydrogen

742. what are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

a) + ethyl methanoate and water

b)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

c)methyl ethanoate and water

d)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

743. What is true about carboxylic acids?

a)carboxylic acids are strong acids

b) + carboxylic acids can react with metals

c)alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids

d)carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

744. esterification is a __________.

a)condensation reaction

b)irreversible reaction

c)addition reaction

d) + neutralization reaction

745. Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

a) + ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane

b)ethanol contains a hydroxyl group

c)ethanol is used as a fuel

d)ethanol is a solvent

746. What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

a)concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

b) + concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

c)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm


d)concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

747. In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

a)2 bond

b)3 bond

c) + 4 bond

d)5 bond

748. Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

a) + one σ bond, one π bond

b)two π bond, one π bond

c)one σ bond, two π bond

d)two σ bond, two π bond

749. Acetylene has a total of:

a) + one σ bond, two π bond

b)two σ bond, four π bond

c)three σ bond, two π bond

d)one σ bond, four π bond

750. In propene there are

a) + eight σ bond, one π bond

b)seven σ bond, two π bond

c)six σ bond, three π bond

d)nine σ bond

751. In propyne there are

a) + six σ bond, two π bond

b)seven σ bond, one π bond

c)six σ bond, one π bond


d)eight σ bond

752. 1-Buten -3-yne has

a)six σ bond, four π bond

b)seven σ bond, three π bond d)nine σ bond, one π bond

c) + eight σ bond, two π bond

d) 4 σ bond, 5 π bond

753. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH3CH2CH3

b)CH3C≡CH

c)CH2CH=CH2

d)CH2=CH-CH=CH2

754. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH4

b)H2N-CH2-NH2

c)H3C-OH

d)(CH3)3COH

755. When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

a) + 2 other atoms

b)4 other atoms

c)3 other atoms

d)5 other atoms

756. Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + C6H6 b)

c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
d) CH3CH=C=CH2

757. Which of the following is a planar molecule?

a)formaldehyde

b)acetone

c) + formic acid

d)acetic acid

758. What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

a)180o

b)120o

c) + 109.5o

d)115.5o

759.The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

a)60o

b) + 109.28o

c)120o

d)118.28o

760. The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

a)60o

b) + 120o

c)90o

d)180o

761. What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

a)1.20 Ǻ

) + 1.35 Ǻ

c)1.54 Ǻ

d)1.68 Ǻ
762. The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

a) + triple, duble, single

b)single, duble, triple

c)single, triple, duble

d) duble, triple, single.

763.Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

a)C-C < C=C < C≡C

b)C-C > C≡C > C=C

c)C≡C > C-C > C=C

d) + C≡C < C=C< C-C

764.Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

a)CH2 = CH2

b)CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d)

765.The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

a)CH2 = CH2

b) + CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d) CH2=CH-CH3

766. Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

a)ethyl alcohol

b)formaldehyde

c)diethyl ether

d) + 1,3-butadien
767. Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

a) + cis-1,2-dichloroetylene

b)o- dichlorobenzene

c)trans-1,2- dichloroetylene

d)p- dichlorobenzene

768. Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

a)CI2

b)CO2

c) + CCI4

d)CHCI3

769. Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

a) + carbon tetrachloride

b)chloromethane

c)dichloromethane

d)chloroform

770. Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

a) + CH3CI

b)CH3Br

c)CH3F

d)CH3I

771. Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

a)

b) +

c) d
d)

772. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

b) 1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol

c)+ 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
d) 2-chloro-3-methylpropan-3-ol

773. Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

a)

b)

b) +

d)

774. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 3-chlorobutan-3-ol

b 2-chlorobutan-3-ol

c) + 3-chlorobutan-2-ol

d) 2-chlorobutan-2-ol

775. Which is the correct name for ?

a) + propan-2-ol
b) butan-2-ol

c)propanol

d) butanol

776. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

a)

b) +

c)

d)

777.Which is the correct name for ?

a) ethoxyethane

b) + methoxyethane

c) ethoxybuthane

d) methoxymethane

778. Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

a) +

b)
c)

d)

779. Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

a)

c) +

d)

780. Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

a)+

b)

c)

d)

781.Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

a)
b)

c)+

d)

782. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol

b) 2-methoxy-1-methylpropane

c) 1-methoxy-2-methylpropane

d) + 2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

783. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

e)

c)

d) +
784. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol
b) b)2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
c) + 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol

d) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

785. Which is the correct name for ?

a)butanol

b)propanol

c) + propan-1-ol

d)butan-1-ol

786. Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

b)

c) +

d)propanol

787. Which is the correct name for ?

a)1-chlorobutan-3-ol
b)1-chlorobutan-2-ol

c) + 4-chlorobutan-2-ol

d)2-chlorobutan-3-ol

788.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a) +

b)

c)

d)

789.Which is the correct name for ?

a)3-chlorobutan-1-ol

b)1-chloropropan-3-ol

c) + 3-chloropropan-1-ol

d)1-chlorobutan-3-ol

790.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a)

b) +
c)

d)

791. Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

a) ClCH2CHClCOOH

b) CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH

c) + CH3CHClCHClCOOH

d)C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

792.Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

a)ketone

)aldehyde

c) + amine

d)ester

793.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)ester

b)amide

c)ketone

d) + carboxylic acid

794.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)amide

b)ketone

c)carboxylic acid

d) + ester
795. One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other
compounds is that in aldehydes and ketones

a)the carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other

carbonyl compounds.

b) the polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.

c) the molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.

d) + the carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

796. The carbonyl group is

a)found only in aldehydes and ketones.

b)produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.

c) + a functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.

d)a general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

797. All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true
except

a)The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.

b)The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.

c) + Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.

d) In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

798. Which molecule is formaldehyde?

a)+

b)

c)
d)

799. Which molecule is 2- butanone?

a)

c)

d)+

778. Which molecule is propanal?

a)

b)

c)+

d)

800. Which molecule is acetone?


a)

b)

c)

d) +

801. Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

a)ethyl methyl acetone

b)methyl propyl ketone

c) + 3-hexanone

d)propyl methyl ketone

802. Which molecule is a ketone?

a) +

b)

b)
d)

803. Which molecule is an aldehyde?

a)

b)

c)

d) +

804.The IUPAC name for acetone is

a) + 2-propanone.

b)dimethyl ketone.

c)1-propanone.

d)3-propanal.

805. The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

a)3-propanal.

b) + 2-propanone.

c)acetone.

d)1-propanone.
806. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

a)3- methyl 1 butanone.

b)2-methylbutanal.

c) + 3-methylbutanal.

d)isopentanal.

807. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

a)isobutyl acetone.

b)4 –methyl – 2- butanone.

c)2- methyl – 4- butanone.

d)4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

808. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)4-heptanone

b) + 2- methyl -3- hexanone

c)3-heptanone

d)isopropyl n-propyl ketone

809. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)isopentanal

b)2- methyl – 4- butanone

c)2- methyl- 1- butanone

d) + 3-methylbutanal

810. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?
a)3-octanone c)3- methyl -3-pentanone e)all are correct

b)2-butanone d)3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

811. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

a) 3-ethylpentanal

b) 4-methylpentanal

c)3- methyl- 2- pentanal

d) 2-methylpentanal

812. Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

a)They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded

to oxygen.

b) Most have distinctive odors.

c) They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.

d) They are polar.

813. All of the following are properties of acetone except

a)flammable. b)intoxicating. c)solvent for organic substances. d)nutrient.

814. Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

a)flavoring b)preservative c)hormone d)solvent

815. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CO-CH3 b)CH3-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

816. Which compound has the highest boiling point?

a)CH3-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

817. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CH2-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CH3 c)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

818. In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

a)H2. b)lactic acid. c)NADH. d)pyruvic acid.


819. All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

a)It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.

b)Its systematic name is ethanal.

c)Its common name is acetaldehyde.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

820. All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

a)Its systematic name is propanone.

b)Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone.

c)Its common name is acetone.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

821. The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is
methyl ethyl ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound
are ____ .

a)2-butanone; c)3-butanone;

b)2-propanone; d)3-butanone;

822. Tollens' reagent is used to

a)distinguish amines from aldehydes. c)reduce aldehydes.

b)distinguish aldehydes from ketones. d)reduce ketones.

823. Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

a)primary alcohol. b)secondary alcohol. c)carboxylic acid. d)ketone.

824. Oxidation of a ketone produces

a)an aldehyde b)a carboxylic acid c)a primary alcohol d)no reaction
825. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

a)Oxidation of ketones produces esters. c)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

b)Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +. d)Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

826. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

a)The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.

b)Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.

c)The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .

d)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

827. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a)pentanal b)3-pentanone c)2-pentanone d)pentanoic acid

828. Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

a)A silver wire dissolves.

b)A brick-red precipitate forms.

c)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.

d)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

829. Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

a)A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.

b)A red precipitate forms from a blue solution.

c)A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless.

d)A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

830. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

a)butane b)2-butanol c)1-butanol d)butanoic acid

831. What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?


a)butanoic acid b)butanal c)2-butanol d)no reaction

832. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a) c)

b) d)

833. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

a)an aldehyde b)a hemiacetal c)a carboxylic acid d)none, ketones don't oxidize.

834. What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

a) gold b) copper c) lead d) silver

835. Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

a)tertiary alcohol. b)carboxylic acid. c)secondary alcohol. d)primary alcohol.

836. Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

a)carboxylic acid. b)secondary alcohol. c)aldehyde. d)tertiary alcohol.

837. What is the product of reduction of butanal?

a)butanoic acid b)butane c)2-butanol d)1-butanol

838. What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

a)butanal b)1-butanol c)2-butanol d)butanoic acid

839.What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

a)3-methyl –2- pentanal c)3-methyl – 2-pentanol

b)2- methyl -3-pentanol d)3- methyl –2- pentene

840. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?


a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose

841.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5

842.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose

b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose

843. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose

844. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose

845. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-

a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose

846. Choose the keto triose-

a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose

847. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose

848.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers

849. All tests are negative for sucrose except-

a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone

850. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16

851. Galactose and Glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers


852. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-

a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers

853. What does the following equation represent?

α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose

a)Stereo isomerism b)Mutarotation c)Optical isomerism d)Epimerization

854. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose

855.Dulcitol is a -

a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugars d)Sugar alcohol

856. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose

857. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose

858. Invert sugar is-

a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

859. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine

860. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen

861. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose

862.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine

863. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone

864. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?


a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2

865. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde

866. Which of following is an anomeric pair?

a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose

b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

867. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid

868. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

a)The glucose residue is the β anomer.

b)The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.

c)C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

d)The compound is in its furanose form

869.The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

a)A purine nucleotide. b)A pyrimidine nucleotide. c)Adenosine. d)AMP

870.Functional Group of Alkane:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH
871. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:
a)H – C = O b) C – OH c)O = C – O – C d)None

872. Functional Group of Alkyl halide:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH

873. Functional Group of Alkene:


a)H – C = O b)C – OH c)C – X d)C=C

874. Functional Group of Alkyne:


a) b) - C≡N c)C – OH d)C≡C

875. Functional Group of Alcohol:


a)C – OH b)H – C = O c)C – X d)- C≡N

876. Functional Group of Ether:


a)H – C = O b) C – CO – C c) C – C d)C – X

877. Functional Group of Aldehyde:


a) b)C – CH = O c)C – X d)O = C – OH

878. Functional Group of Ketone:


a)C – CO - C b)C – X c)- C≡N d)O = C – OH

879. Functional Group of Carboxylic Acid:


a)O = C – OH b)C – X c)C – OH d)- C≡N

880. Functional Group of Amine:


a)C – NR – R’ b)O = C – OH c)H – C = O d)C – OH

881. Functional Group of Amide:


a)O = C – OH b)C – NR – R’ c)H – C = O d)HOC – NR – R’

882.Functional Group of Nitrile:


a)- C≡N b)O = C – OH c)C – NR – R’ d)HOC – NR – R’

883. Functional Group of Aromatic ring:


a) b)O = C – OH c)HOC – NR – R’ d)- C≡N

884. Amino acides are building blocks of:


a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers

885. Proteins are composed of:


a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers

886. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

887. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

888. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine


a) aliphatic b) aromatic c) heterocyclic d) complex

889. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest
a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4

890. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in


a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium
891. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in
a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium

892. How manyα-amine acidrests are in polypeptide


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

893. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)hydrofobic

894. Choose peptide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) -C-C-

895. Lactose is
a)monose b)unreducing disaccharide c)amine acid d)reducing disaccharide

896. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation b)reduction c)esterificationd)transamination

897. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of


a)aldose b)pyranose c)fructose d)furanose

898. Glicaric acids are produced under action of


a)mild oxidant b)strong reductant c)mildreductant d)strong oxidant

899. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside

900.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

901. Components of nucleotide


a)protein b)amine acid rest c)OH d)thymine

902.Monomeric link of protein


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

903.Unsaponified lipids are


a) mono-component b) di- component c) three-component d) poly-component

904.DNA contains
a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine
905. Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis
a)alcohols, carboxylicacids
b)carboxylicacids
c)alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

906. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

907.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

908.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

909.Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of


a)transamination b)oxidation c)reduction d)decarboxylation

910. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in


a)acidic medium b)neutral medium
c)basic medium d)any medium

911. How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d)more than 100

912. How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

913.Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins


a)coordination b)hydrofobic c)glycoside d)metallic

914.Choose disulphide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-

915.How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

916.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide

917.Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation c)esterification
b)reduction d)transamination

918.Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


a)transamination c)reduction
b)oxidation d)decarboxylation
919.Gliconic acids are produced under action of
a)mild oxidant c)mildreductant
b)strongreductant d)strong oxidant

920.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides


a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts

921.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

922.Components of nucleoside
a)phosphate group b)carbonyl group c)thymine d)sugar rest

923.Monomeric link of terpene


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

924. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

925. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

926.Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

927. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

928. Saponified lipids are


a)mono-component b)three-component c)without any component d) poly-component

929. RNA contains


a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

930. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

931. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar
932. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine
a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

933.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

934.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

935.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

936. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

937. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

938. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

939. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

940. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

941.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

942. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

943. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

944. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

945. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

946. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

947. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

948. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

949. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

950. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

951. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

952. Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

a)Rayon b)insulin c)gun cotton d)paper

953. Complex lipids form under hydrolysis

a)alcohols, carboxylic acids c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.

b)carboxylic acids d)alcohols

954. Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

955. Fatty acids are

a)unsaturated dicarboxylic acids c)aromatic carboxylic acids

b)long-chain alkanoic acids d)aromatic dicarboxylic acids

956. Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called

a)proteins b)terpenes c)carbohydrates d)soaps

957. soap is

a)a mixture of salts of fatty acids b)a salt of glycerol

c)a mixture of ethers d)a mixture of aromatic ethers

958. a wax is

a)a nonpolar solid c)a triacylglycerol

b)a long-chain alcohol d)none of these

959.Fats and oils are

a)monoesters of glycerol c)triesters of glycerol


b)diesters of glycerol d)diesters of glycol

960. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

a)more unsaturation c)a glycerol backbone

b)higher melting points d)longer fatty acids

961. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

a)12 carbons b)14 carbons c)16 carbons d)18 carbons

962. Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

a)hydrogenation b)saponification c)hydrolysis d)oxidation of double bonds

963. Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

a)Vanaspati ghee b)margarine c)both of these d)none of these

964. Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

a)saponification b)fermentation c)diazotization d)rancidification

965.Saponification of a fat

a)Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps c)is used in the production of detergents

b)produces glycerol and soap d)is used in the production of lactic acid

966. Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

a)Fats b)waxes c)soaps d)oils

967. The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

a)Iodine number b)octane number c)saponification number d)melting point

968. Zwitterion is
a)an ion that is positively charged in solution

b)an ion that is negatively charged in solution

c)a compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid

d)a carbohydrate with an electrical charge

969. A zwitterions has which of the following properties

a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these

970. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:


a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals

971. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds

972. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:

a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length

973. The isoelectric point of a protein is

a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface

b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges

c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions

d)none of these

974. Glycine is

a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH

b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH

975. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond

b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid

976. Proteins are

a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene

977. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I

978. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage

979. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure

980. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular


b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain

c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space

d)the presence or absence of an α-helix

981. The α-helix is a common form of

a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these

982. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization

983. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds

984. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols

985. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid

c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid

986. Nynhydring test is given by

a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes

987. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test

988. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is
called

a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test

989. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine

990. Monosaccharides are classified according to

a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule

b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes


d)all of the above

991. Which is a monosaccharide?

a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose

992. Which is a disaccharide?

a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose

993. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose

994. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light

b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate

c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group

d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

995. The principal sugar in blood is

a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose

996. Glucose cannot be classified as

a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide

997. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol

998. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

a)its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal c)it is oprtically active

b)it is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone d)it shows mutarotation

999. Common table sugar is

a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose

1000.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above

1001.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?


a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution

b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

1002. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose

1003. Starch

a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin

b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin


Amino acids
1. Amount of amino acid residues in proteins ranges from

a) 50-2000
b) 2000-4000
c) 4000-6000
d) 7000-10,000

2. Identify the wrong statement

a) Hemoglobin is a globular protein


b) Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein
c) Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water
d) Collagen is a fibrous protein

3. Which amino acid can form disulphide bonds?

a) Glycine.
b) Proline.
c) Glutamate.
d) Cysteine.

4. Which of the following is an example of monosaccharide?

a) Galactose
b) Sucrose
c) Lactose
d) Maltose

5. Which one of the following amino acids may be considered a hydrophobic amino acid at
physiological p H of 7.4

a) Isoleucine
b) Arginine
c) Aspartic acid
d) Threonine

6. Which of the following is an imino acid?

a) Alanine
b) Glycine
c) Proline

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Group#18
d) Serine

7. Which of the following carbohydrates is a triose?

a) Glucose
b) Ribose
c) Ribulose
d) Glyceraldehyde

8. Tertiary conformation of proteins is maintained by 3 types of bonds namely ionic,


hydrogen and

a) Sulfide
b) Disulfide
c) Covalent
d) Peptide

9. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Primary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
b) Secondary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three
dimensional structure
c) Three dimensional structure of a protein determines the function of a protein
d) Amino acid sequence is absolutely invariant for a particular protein

10. Native state of a protein can be disrupted by

a) Temperature
b) PH
c) Removal of water
d) Presence of hydrophilic surfaces

11. β-pleated sheets are the examples of

a) Primary structure
b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure
d) Quaternary structure

12. Sulfur atom of cysteine is involved in formation of

a) Sulfide group
b) Sulfhydryl group
c) Sulfite group
d) Sulphates

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Group#18
13. The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are

a) Aspartate and glutamate


b) Arginine and histidine
c) Cysteine and methionine
d) Proline and valine

14. Choose the correct category for milk protein casein out of the followings

a) Nucleoprotein
b) Phosphoprotein
c) Lipoprotein
d) Glycoprotein

15. Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following sugar units?

a) Glucose and fructose


b) Glucose and galactose
c) Glucose and sucrose
d) Glucose and ribose

16. Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the
physiological pH ?

a) Valine
b) Leucine
c) Isoleucine
d) None of the followings

17. Number of amino acids that have hydrophobic side chains are

a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10

18. Which out of the followings is not a fibrous protein?

a) Carbonic anhydrase
b) Collagen
c) Fibrinogen
d) Keratin

19. Which of the following most accurately describes how secondary structures in proteins
are stabilised?

a) Through ionic bonds operating between oppositely charged amino acid side chains.

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Group#18
b) Through covalent bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.
c) Through hydrogen bonds between different amino acid side chains.
d) Through hydrogen bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.

20. Which of the characteristics below apply to amino acid Glycine?

a) Optically inactive
b) Hydrophilic, basic and charged
c) Hydrophobic
d) Hydrophilic, acidic and charged

21. Which of the following is an example of disaccharide?

a) Glucose
b) Fructose
c) Galactose
d) Maltose

22. Which term below best defines the 'quaternary structure' of a protein?

a) The arrangement of two or more polypeptide subunits into a single functional


complex
b) The folding of the polypeptide backbone in three-dimensional space.
c) The interaction of amino acid side chains.
d) The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

23. In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in liver?

a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose

24. Mother of a mal nourished child has been instructed to include a complete protein in
diet for her child, which out of the followings proteins should be recommended?

a) Pulses
b) Wheat
c) Soy Protein
d) Milk

25. Hemoglobin is a

a) Monomer
b) Dimer
c) Trimer
d) Tetramer

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Group#18
26. Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of

a) Hemoglobin
b) Myoglobin
c) Insulin
d) Collagen 3- Some proteins contain

27. 1In 3° structure of proteins, folding and shaping is done by

a) Hydrophobic interactions
b) Polar interactions
c) Hydrogen bonding
d) None of the mentioned

28. Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid?

a) Serine
b) Threonine
c) Lysine
d) Histidine

29. In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants?

a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose

30. In maltose, between which of the following carbons there is a linkage?

a) C1, C2
b) C2, C3
c) C1, C4
d) C2, C4

31. Fructose and Glucose can be distinguished by

a) Selwinoff’s reagent
b) Benedict’s reagent
c) Fehling’s reagent
d) Barfoed’s reagent

32. Which of the following are the storage polysaccharides?

a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin

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d) Glucose

33. Bond formed between two amino acid molecules is

a) Peptide bond
b) Sulfur linkage
c) Ionic bond
d) Coordinate covalent bond

34. Which type of bonding is responsible for the secondary structure of proteins?

a) Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues.


b) Hydrogen bonding between the C=O and N-H groups of peptide bonds.
c) Peptide bonds between amino acids.
d) Salt bridges between charged side chains of amino acids

35. A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the
same chain is

a) Primary structure
b) α-helix
c) β-pleated sheets
d) Tertiary structure

36. Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

37. Which of the following are an example of epimers?

a) Glucose & Galactose


b) Glucose & Ribose
c) Mannose & Glucose
d) A&c

38. Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups

a) Phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan


b) Glycine, alanine, leucine
c) Lysine, arginine, histidine
d) Serine, threonine, cysteine

39. Polar amino acids are usually found

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Group#18
a) On surface of proteins
b) Inside core of proteins
c) At sides of proteins
d) Can be present anywhere in proteins

40. A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side
is

a) Primary structure
b) α-helix
c) β-pleated sheets
d) Tertiary structure

41. All of the below mentioned amino acids can participate in hydrogen bonding except
one

a) Serine
b) Cysteine
c) Threonine
d) Valine

42. Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?

a) Frederick Sanger
b) Mendel
c) Watson and Francis Crick
d) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

43. Which of the amino acids below is the uncharged derivative of an acidic amino acid?

a) Cystine
b) Tyrosine
c) Glutamine
d) Serine

44. A mutation has changed an isoleucine residue of a protein to Glutamic acid, which
statement best describes its location in a hydrophilic exterior

a) On the surface since it is hydrophilic in nature


b) In side the core of the protein since it is hydrophobic in nature
c) Any where inside or outside
d) Inside the core of protein since it has a polar but uncharged side chain

45. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

a) Cysteine
b) Asparagine

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Group#18
c) Glutamine
d) Phenylalanine

46. Which of the following statements about amino acids is correct?

a) Amino acids are classified according to the structures and properties of their side
chains.
b) Amino acids are uncharged at neutral pH.
c) Amino acids in proteins are mainly in the D-configuration.
d) Twenty four amino acids are commonly used in protein synthesis.

Buffer systems
1. For an acid buffer solution the pH is 3. The pH can be increased by

a) Increasing the concentration of salt


b) Increasing the concentration of acid
c) Decreasing the concentration of salt
d) Independent of concentration of acid & salt

2. Which of the following does not react with water?

a) Barium
b) Calcium
c) Beryllium
d) Strontium

3. NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is

a) Not a buffer solution with pH < 7


b) Not a buffer solution with pH > 7
c) A buffer solution with pH < 7
d) A buffer solution with pH > 7

4. Which among the following statements is true about the following chemical reaction?
3Fe(s) + 4H2 O → Fe3 O4 (s) + 4H2

a) Iron metal is getting reduced


b) Water is acting as a reducing agent
c) Water is acting as an oxidizing agent
d) Water is getting oxidized

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Group#18
5. Identify the products formed in the following reaction CH3 COOCH3 + H2 O → A + B

a) CH3 COOH and CH3 OH


b) CH3 COOOH and CH4
c) CO2 and C2 H6
d) No reaction

6. Which can act as buffer?

a) NH4 Cl + HCl
b) CH3 COOH + H2 CO3
c) 40ml of 0.1M NaCN + 20ml of 0.1M HCN
d) NaCl + NaOH

Carbohydrates
1. What is the storage form of carbohydrate in animals?

a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Starch

2. Where is glycogen stored?

a) In the kidney and liver


b) In the stomach and kidney
c) In the muscle and liver
d) In the muscle and stomach

3. In carbohydrates a special functional groups are present in the given following:

a) Alcohol & Carboxyl groups


b) Aldehyde & Ketone groups
c) Hydroxyl groups & Hydrogen groups
d) Carboxyl groups & Others

4. What best describes amylopectin?

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Group#18
a) Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
b) Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
c) Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
d) Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

5. What is the relationship between glucose, mannose and galactose?

a) They are isomers


b) They are epimers
c) They are ketoses
d) No relationship exists

6. Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the given….

a) Protein
b) Lipids
c) Carbohydrate
d) Vitamins

7. The end product of hydrolysis of “Starch” by amylase is …

a) Soluble starch
b) Glucose
c) Dextrins
d) Maltose

8. Fermentation is the degradation of complex organic substances into simpler ones by the
activity of living cells through the agency of ….

a) Acid
b) Alkali
c) Oxidizing substances
d) Enzymes (Zymase)

9. Glucose is a monosaccharide and is a

a) Hexose
b) Pentose
c) Furanose
d) Sucrose

10. Simplest carbohydrate is ….

a) Dihydroxy acetone
b) Glycerldehyde
c) Glucose
d) Gulose

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11. What best describes amylose?

a) Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages


b) Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
c) Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
d) Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

12. Examples of Epimers….

a) Glucose &Galactose
b) Glucose & Ribose
c) Mannose & Glucose
d) A&c

13. Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of …

a) L-type
b) D-type
c) DL-types
d) None of the above

14. Structure or shape of something is known as its

a) Structure
b) Morphology
c) Conformation
d) Shape

15. What is the major constituent of plant cell wall?

a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Starch

16. What forms the exoskeleton of anthropods?

a) Agarose
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Starch

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Chemical kinetics
1. Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) shifted to reactants, if:

a) Temperature will be increased


b) Pressure will be decreased
c) Concentration of ammonia will be decreased
d) Concentration of hydrogen will be increased.

2. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20


b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

3. Energy of activation for backward reaction is less than forward reaction for ________
reaction

a) Endothermic
b) Exothermic
c) Moderate
d) Fast

4. Rate of decomposition of H2O2 will increase if:

a) Temperature will be increased


b) Inhibitor will be added
c) Solvent will be added
d) Temperature will be decreased

5. With the highest rate of chemical reaction, next oxidation reaction will go:

a) Cu on air in standard conditions


b) Cu on pure O2 with temperature elevation
c) Mg on air in normal temperature
d) Mg on pure O2 with temperature elevation

6. For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, increasing of chemical rate of forward


reaction is IMPOSSIBLE if we’ll increase:

a) Temperature
b) Pressure

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Group#18
c) Concentration of hydrogen
d) Concentration of ammonia

7. The addition of a catalyst to the reaction system

a) Increases the rate of forward reaction only


b) Increases the rate of reverse reaction
c) Increases the rate of forward but decreases the rate of backward reaction
d) Increases the rate of forward as well as backward reaction equally

8. The substances that reduces the effectiveness of a catalyst are called

a) Promoters
b) Inhibitors
c) Poisoning catalysts
d) Pro-catalysts

9. When catalysts and reactants are in more than one phase it is

a) Homogeneous catalysis
b) Heterogeneous catalysis
c) Catalysis
d) Ea

10. For N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH process, decreasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

a) Shifting of equilibrium to reactants


b) Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction
c) Decreasing reaction rate for forward reaction
d) Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction

11. Greater the concentration of reactant

a) Greater will be dx/dt


b) Dx/dt will be moderate
c) Lesser will be dx/dt
d) Any of above

12. Increasing of concentration of reactants shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

a) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)


b) H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
c) Fe(s) + H2O(g) = FeO(s) + H2(g)
d) H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI

13. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

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Group#18
a) The point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;
b) The point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;
c) The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;
d) The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

14. To increase product’s yield of reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, one should:

a) Decrease pressure
b) Add catalyst
c) Increase concentration of hydrogen
d) Increase temperature

15. Activated complex is formed due to

a) Pressure
b) Ineffective collisions
c) Effective collision
d) Temperature

16. For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible,
if we’ll:

a) Decrease pressure
b) Decrease temperature
c) Increase concentration of CO2
d) Increase pressure

17. Sum of exponents of molar concentration is called

a) Order of reaction
b) Molecularity
c) Rate of reaction
d) Average of reaction

18. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

19. Each catalyst has

a) Specificity
b) Its own Ea
c) Special structure
d) All of above

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Group#18
20. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:

a) Solubility product constant (Ksp);


b) Acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) Molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) Molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

21. Which of the following will have very high rate of reaction?

a) Double decomposition reaction


b) Ionic reactions
c) Neutralization reaction
d) All of above

22. Increasing of temperature shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

a) N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH


b) 2NH3(g) = N2(g) +3H2(g)+ ΔH
c) 2H2(g) + O2 = 2H2O – H
d) СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

23. Rate of disappearance of reactant is equal to

a) Rate of reaction
b) Energy released during reaction
c) Rate of formation of product
d) A and b

24. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

25. A catalyst can not effect

a) Products
b) Chemical equilibrium
c) Reactants
d) Both a & b

26. On increasing the temperature the rate of reaction increases mainly because

a) The activation energy of the reaction increases


b) Concentration of the reacting molecules increases

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c) Collision frequency increases
d) None of these

27. Unit of rate of reaction is

a) Moles dm-3 sec-1


b) Moles sec-1
c) Moles dm-3
d) Mol-1 dm-3 sec-1

28. The value of activation energy is primarily determined by

a) Temperature
b) Effective collision
c) Concentration of reactants
d) Chemical nature of reactants and products

29. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

30. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

31. Which factor will effect on shifting of chemical equilibrium for reaction Fe3O4(s) +
4H2(g) = 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g):

a) Adding catalyst to system


b) Changing of pressure
c) Changing of Fe3O4 concentration
d) Increasing of hydrogen concentration

32. Radiations are absorbed in

a) Spectrophotometer method
b) Optical relation method
c) Dilatometric method
d) Refractometric method

33. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

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Group#18
a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

34. Rate of chemical reaction Mg with acetic acid will NOT increase, if we’ll:

a) Use Mg powder
b) Increase temperature
c) Decrease temperature
d) Add HI to system, as catalyst

35. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

36. When the reaction completes in more than one steps rate of reaction will be determined
by

a) Fast step
b) Slowest step
c) All steps
d) Molecularity of the reaction

37. In rate expression the concentration of reactants is negative. It shows

a) Concentration of reactant does not change


b) Concentration of product increases
c) Concentration of reactant decreases
d) Concentration of reactant increases

38. Equilibrium of process N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH shifted to product, if we’ll:

a) Increase pressure
b) Increase temperature
c) Decrease temperature
d) Decrease concentration of nitrogen

39. Biocatalytical proteins are

a) Enzymes
b) Lipids
c) Substrate
d) Any of above

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
40. Which statement is incorrect about catalyst

a) It is used in smaller amount


b) Decrease activation energy
c) Specific in action
d) It affects specific rate constant

41. Pressure changing will NOT effect for reaction:

a) FeO(s) + CO(g) = Fe(s) + CO2(g


b) H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
c) 2CO(g) + O2(g) = 2CO2(g)
d) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

42. Decreasing of pressure shifts equilibrium to products in case:

a) FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)


b) CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
c) H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
d) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

43. Rate of chemical reaction between gases with increase of pressure, in common:

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain the same
d) All of this is possible

44. For reaction C(s) + 2N2O(g) = 2N2(g) + CO2(g)- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is
possible, due these factors:

a) Increasing of pressure; decreasing of temperature


b) Decreasing of pressure; increasing N2O concentration
c) Increasing of pressure; decreasing CO2 concentration
d) Increasing of pressure; decreasing N2O concentration

45. Anything which increases rate of reaction without being involved in the reaction

a) Promoter
b) Inhibitor
c) Catalyst
d) All of the above

46. Energy required to form transition state is called

a) Ea
b) V

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Group#18
c) P.E
d) K.E

47. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O


b) 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) L2 → 2Cl

48. For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H process, increasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

a) Shifting of equilibrium to reactants


b) Increasing reaction rate for forward reaction
c) Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction
d) Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction

49. For reaction 2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2- ΔH shifting equilibrium to product is impossible, if


we’ll:

a) Decrease temperature
b) Increase pressure
c) Increase temperature
d) Increase concentration of oxygen

50. An enzyme has its specificity due to

a) Substrate
b) Temperature
c) Structure
d) Pressure

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Group#18
Colloids
1. Which method for the production of dispersions involves the formation of particles from
materials dissolved in true solutions?

a) Bottom-up
b) Top-down
c) Milling
d) High pressure homogenization

2. Is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary
liquid induced by an external field.

a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

3. Emulsion is:

a) Butter;
b) River ooze;
c) Stained glass;
d) Textile fabrics.

4. A suspension is formed from uniform particles of solid, of diameter 10 Mm, suspended


in a solvent. What is the best description of this system?

a) Monodisperse and coarse


b) Monodisperse and colloidal
c) Polydisperse and coarse
d) Polydisperse and colloidal

5. These following things are colloid properties, except...

a) Composed of 2 phase
b) Stable
c) Homogeneous
d) Can be filtered

6. Which one of the following systems has the smallest sized domains in its dispersed
phase?

a) Nanoemulsion

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
b) Coarse suspension
c) Coarse emulsion
d) Microemulsion

7. The scattering of light by coarse and colloidal dispersed systems is known as?

a) Contrast matching
b) DLVO theory
c) Tyndall effect
d) Creaming

8. An _________ is a sol with the continuous phase a gas. Fog is an _________ of water
droplets.

a) Aerosol
b) Emulsion
c) Agglomerate
d) Electrophoresis

9. Which one of the following dispersions does not have liquid continuous phase?

a) Nanosuspension
b) Microemulsion
c) Gel
d) Foam

10. How might solid sodium carbonate be obtained from sodium carbonate solution?

a) Centrifugation
b) Filtration
c) Evaporation
d) It cannot be extracted

11. Margarine is a colloid system of...

a) Foam
b) Emulsion
c) Aerosol
d) Solid emulsion

12. An _________ is a sol in which the suspended particles are liquid droplets and the
continuous phase is also a liquid. The 2 phases are immiscible, otherwise a solution would
form.

a) Aerosol
b) Emulsion
c) Agglomerate

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Electrophoresis

13. Is the charged field generated by charged particles moving in a stationary liquid.

a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

14. A _________ is a sol of solid particles scattered in a liquid. Foam is a colloidal system
in which gas bubbles dispersed in a liquid or solid.

a) Colloidal suspension
b) Streaming potential
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

15. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the
particles with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.

a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) Surface
d) Size

16. One of following substances that belongs to colloid system is....

a) Milk
b) Mineral water
c) Vinegar
d) Salty water

17. Light scattering in colloid system is known as..

a) Brownian Motion
b) Tyndall Effect
c) Coagulation
d) Electrophoresis

18. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

a) Prevent making of a colloid


b) Stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization
c) Stabilize the mixture
d) Enrich the aroma

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
19. In the DLVO theory of colloids, normal thermal motion may be sufficient to overcome
the energy barrier that leads to irreversible particle aggregation. The name of this energy
barrier is which one of the following?

a) Primary maximum
b) Secondary maximum
c) Primary minimum
d) Secondary minimum

20. What is the best description of blood?

a) Sol
b) Foam
c) Solution
d) Aerosol

21. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

a) Liquid dispersed in gas


b) Gas dispersed in gas
c) Solid dispersed in gas
d) Solid dispersed in liquid

22. Dispersed phase and dispersing medium of smoke are..

a) Solid in liquid
b) Liquid in solid
c) Solid in gas
d) Gas in solid

23. Which of the following sequences correctly describes the change in domain structure
as more oil is added to a water-in-oil emulsion?

a) Bicontinuous, spherical, cylinder-like


b) Spherical, cylinder-like, bicontinuous
c) Spherical, bicontinuous, cylinder-like
d) Cylinder-like, spherical, bicontinuous

24. Is the generation of an electric field by locomotion of the liquid along stationary
charged surfaces.

a) Colloidal suspension
b) Streaming potential
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
25. Which of the following is not a mechanism for the separation of a physically unstable
suspension of magnesium hydroxide in water?

a) Flocculation
b) Aggregation
c) Ostwald ripening
d) Hydrolysis

Complex compounds
1. Ligands which can form two coordinate bonds from each ion or molecule to transition
metal ion are known as

a) Ligands ions
b) Dentate ligands
c) Monodentate ligands
d) Bidentate ligands

2. Number of dative bonds to central metal ion is its

a) Oxidation number
b) Compound number
c) Co-ordination number
d) Dative number

3. Due to ligands' action of splitting color of transition metal compound, this change
occurs at

a) S-orbital
b) D-orbital
c) P-orbital
d) F-orbital

4. Ions which are produced from ligands are

a) Cation
b) Anion
c) Complex ion
d) Allofthem

5. Different ions will split up by different compounds to given of

a) Same colored complexes


b) Different colored complexes

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
c) Same density complexes
d) Same temperature complexes

Electrochemistry redox
reaction
Which process / equation pair occurs at the cathode when iron hinges are plated with
copper?

a) Reduction, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-


b) Reduction, Cu2+ + 2 e- Cu(s)
c) Oxidation, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
d) Oxidation, Cu2+ (aq) + 2 e- Cu(s)

2. In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the oxidizing agent.
(acidic solution)

a) Sn
b) Sn+2
c) MnO41
d) Mn

3. Number of reaction products always greater than number of reactants if it is:

a) Reaction of decomposition
b) Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
c) Reaction of substitution
d) Reaction of direct combination

4. What is the oxidation number of an As atom in AsO4-3(aq)?

a) +5
b) +9
c) +1
d) -7

5. In which reaction is the first substance acting as a reducing agent?

a) Chlorine + iron(II) chloride ---> iron(III) chloride


b) Copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ---> copper + water
c) Hydrochloric acid + magnesium oxide ---> magnesium chloride + water

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Carbon monoxide + zinc oxide ---> zinc + carbon dioxide

6. In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), __________ is


reduced.

a) N
b) NO21
c) Cr+6
d) Cr

7. Find an endothermic reaction:

a) N2 + Н2 = NH3- ΔH
b) SO2 + O2+ ΔH= SO3
c) С + О2 = СО2- ΔH
d) СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

8. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3 (acidic solution), __________ is


oxidized.

a) O
b) Ce
c) H2O2
d) Ce+4

9. In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, the coefficient of water is
________. (acidic solution)

a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

10. Which represents a reduction reaction?

a) AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3


b) AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
c) Cl2 + 2 e--> 2 Cl-
d) K -> K+ + e-

11. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31 (acidic solution), __________ is
oxidized.

a) H5IO6
b) N
c) I
d) NO

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
12. What is the oxidation number of an iron atom in Fe2O3?

a) +6
b) +3
c) -3
d) -2

13. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the
reducing agent.

a) O
b) Ce
c) H2O2
d) Ce+4

14. What is the oxidation of xenon in XeF6?

a) -6
b) -1
c) +6
d) -7

15. In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), _________ is the
reducing agent.

a) N
b) NO21
c) Cr+6
d) Cr

16. Which change is reduction?

a) A decrease in oxidation state


b) Gain of oxygen
c) Loss of electrons
d) Loss of hydrogen

17. What is the oxidation state of sulphur in SO3-2

a) -4
b) +2
c) +4
d) +6

18. Balance the following oxidation-reduction equation: Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq) Sn4+(aq) +


Ce3+(aq)

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq) Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
b) 2Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq) 2Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
c) 2Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq) 2Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)
d) Sn2+(aq) + 2Ce4+(aq) Sn4+(aq) + 2Ce3+(aq)

19. Magnesium displace lead ions from solution lead(II) sulfate. Which statement about this
reaction is true?

a) Lead (II) ions are oxidized.


b) Magnesium atoms are oxidised.
c) Lead (II) ions lose electrons.
d) Magnesium atoms gain electrons .

20. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), __________ is


reduced.

a) H5IO6
b) N
c) I
d) NO

21. In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the reducing agent.
(acidic solution)

a) Sn
b) Sn+2
c) MnO41
d) Mn

22. Hydrogen peroxide, H2O2 reacts with silver oxide according to the following equation/
Ag2O(s) + H2O2(l) = 2Ag(s) + H2O(l) + O2(g) in this reaction hydrogen peroxide behaves as

a) A catalyst
b) A dehydrating agent
c) An oxidising agent
d) A reducing agent

23. In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, the coefficient of water is ________.
(basic solution)

a) 1
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6

24. In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is reduced. (basic
solution)

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) F
b) CO2
c) F2
d) C

25. Which one of these reactions is heterogeneous?

a) CaO(s) + CO2(g) = CaCO3


b) KOH(sol) + HNO3(sol) = KNO3(sol) + H2O(l)
c) H2 + N2 = NH3
d) NH3 + O2 = N2 + H2O(g)

26. Which represents an oxidation reaction?

a) NaNO3 + KCl -> NaCl + KNO3


b) AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
c) Cl2 + 2e--> 2 Cl-
d) K -> K+ + e-

27. In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, _________ is the reducing agent.
(basic solution)

a) F
b) CO2
c) F2
d) C

28. What is the oxidation state of chromium in the CrO3-2

a) +3
b) -3
c) +6
d) -6

29. Which one of these reactions is redox reaction?

a) Аl + Сl2= АlСl3
b) ВаСО3 = ВаО + СО2
c) Ba(NO3)2 + K2SO4= BaSO4 + KNO3
d) СаСО3 = СаО + СО2

30. In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+22 (basic solution), _________ is the
oxidizing agent.

a) N
b) NO21
c) Cr+6

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Cr

31. Acidified potassium dichromate (VI) can be used to detect the presence of ethanol
vapour in the breach of a person who consumed alcohol. A color change from orange to
green is absolved if ethanol is present. This shows that ethanol is

a) An alkali
b) An indicator
c) An oxidizing agent
d) A reducing agent

32. In the electrolysis of water, which reaction occurs at the cathode?

a) 2 H2(g) + O2(g) 2 H2O(g)


b) 2 02-(aq) O2(g) + 4 e-
c) 2 H2O(l) 4 H+(aq) + 2 02-(aq)
d) 2 H+(aq) + 2 e- H2(g)

33. Which change is oxidation?

a) Gain of electrons
b) Gain of hydrogen
c) Loss of oxygen
d) Loss of electrons

34. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the
oxidizing agent.

a) H5IO6
b) N
c) I
d) NO

35. In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), the coefficient of
water is ________.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0

36. Which compound, when added to aqueous iron(II) sulphate, takes part in a redox
reaction?

a) Ammonia
b) Barium chloride
c) Acidified potassium manganate (VII)

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Sodium hydroxide

37. Find irreversible reaction:

a) H2 + N2 = NH3
b) NaOH + HCl = NaCl + H2O
c) SO2 + O2 = SO3
d) N2O4 = NO2

38. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), __________ is


reduced.

a) O
b) Ce
c) H2O2
d) Ce+4

39. Which one of these reactions is homogeneous?

a) K(s) + H2O(l) = KOH(sol) + H2(g)


b) N2(g) + H2(g) = NH3(g)
c) BaCl2(sol) + H2SO4(sol) =BaSO4(s) + 2HC1 (sol);
d) Fe + H2SO4 = FeSO4 + H2;

40. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the
reducing agent.

a) H5IO6
b) N
c) I
d) NO

41. Which of the following statements about corrosion are NOT true?

a) A car rusts because steel reacts with water and oxygen in the air.
b) When iron rusts electrons are lost from the metal.
c) Plating metal speeds up the oxidation process.
d) Adding zinc metal strips to iron metals prevents corrosion.

42. In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, __________ is oxidized. (acidic
solution)

a) Sn
b) Sn+2
c) MnO41
d) Mn

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
43. In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), the coefficient of
water is ________.

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

44. In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is oxidized. (basic
solution)

a) F
b) CO2
c) F2
d) C

45. The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is __.

a) +1
b) -1
c) +2
d) -2

46. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), the coefficient of
water is

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

47. In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the
oxidizing agent.

a) O
b) Ce
c) H2O2
d) Ce+4

48. Which of the following bases has the highest pKa value

a) NaOH
b) NaNO3
c) KNO3
d) KCl

49. Which one of the following substance is reducing agent?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Argon
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Carbon monoxide

50. In the balanced reaction Cr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2 (basic solution) __________ is
oxidized.

a) N
b) NO21
c) Cr+6
d) Cr

Hydrolysis
Salt whose dissociation produces equal amounts of two ions

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

2. Conjugate base of H3PO4

a) H3PO4
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

3. Reacts with H3O+ to form HPO42–

a) H3PO4
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

4. A solution with a pH of 12.0 is

a) Strongly acidic.
b) Weakly acidic
c) Weakly basic
d) Strongly basic

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
5. In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base
will react in a molar ratio of

a) One to one
b) One to one
c) Three to one
d) Three to three

6. A buffer solution could be prepared from

a) NaCl and HCl


b) NaOH and HCl
c) KC2H3O2 and HC2H3O2.
d) NaCN and KCN

7. What is the acids?

a) They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of
them oxygen.
b) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
c) They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid
residues
d) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

8. In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

a) H2SO4 and BaSO4


b) NaCl and NaOH
c) NH4Cl and KCl
d) HNO3 and KOH

9. Salt whose dissociation produces more positive ions than negative ions

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

10. PH = 7.00

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
11. Substance produced when HNO3 neutralizes NaOH

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

12. [H3O+] = 2.0 x 10–8 M

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

13. The pH of a buffered solution

a) Always equals 7.0.


b) May be acidic or basic depending on the buffer present.
c) Changes drastically when a small amount of acid is added
d) No correct response

14. What is the bases?

a) They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of
them oxygen
b) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and
hydroxyl group (OH)
c) They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
d) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

15. Substance which reacts with H2SO4 to produce K2SO4

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

16. Aqueous NH4Cl solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

17. What is the oxides?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one
of them oxygen
b) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
c) They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues.
d) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

18. In which of the following pairs of salts will both members of the pair hydrolyze in water
to give solutions that are basic?

a) NaCl and NaCN


b) NH4Cl and NH4NO3
c) KC2H3O2 and KCN
d) NaNO3 and Na2SO4

19. Monoprotic strong acid

a) HCl
b) HC2H3O2
c) H2C3H2O2
d) H2SO4

20. In which of the following pairings of compounds are both members of the pair strong
electrolytes?

a) NaOH and NaCl


b) NH3 and HCl
c) KOH and H2CO3
d) NaCN and HCN

21. Aqueous NaCl solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

22. PH = 2.30

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

23. Which of the following pairings of pH and hydronium ion concentration is correct?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) PH = 2.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 102
b) PH = 7.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 10–7
c) PH = 9.0; [H3O+] = 9 x 10–9
d) No correct response

24. Acid ionization constants give information about

a) The strengths of acids.


b) The number of nonacidic hydrogens present in acids.
c) Whether acids are polyprotic.
d) Whether acids can neutralize bases

25. In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

a) NaCl and NaOH


b) KNO3 and K2SO4
c) H3PO4 and (NH4)3PO4
d) More than one correct response

26. Which of the following statements about weak acids is correct?

a) Weak acids always contain C atoms


b) The percentage dissociation for weak acids is usually in the range of 40-60%.
c) Weak acid molecules readily lose their acidic hydrogen atoms.
d) No correct response

27. Acid which completely dissociates in solution to produce negative ions with a charge
of one

a) HCl
b) HC2H3O2
c) H2C3H2O2
d) H2SO4

28. In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?

a) HNO3 and HNO2


b) H2SO4 and H2SO3
c) HCl and HClO4
d) No correct response

29. Aqueous NaCN solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
30. In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base
will react in a molar ratio of

a) One to one
b) One to three.
c) Three to one
d) Three to three.

31. In which of the following salts would both the positive ion and the negative ion
hydrolyze when the salt is dissolved in water?

a) NaCl
b) NaCN
c) NH4Cl
d) No correct response

32. Inorganic compounds divided in to:

a) Simple, complex substances


b) Metals, nonmetals
c) Acid, base, salt, oxide
d) Metal, acid, simple substance

33. What is the salts?

a) They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of
them oxygen
b) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
c) They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid
residues
d) They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues

34. Which of the following statements concerning electrolytes is correct?

a) All strong acids are strong electrolytes


b) Some salts are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes.
c) Some molecular substances are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes
d) More than one correct response

35. [OH–] = 3.0 x 10–-6 M

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
36. In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?

a) H3PO4 and H2SO4


b) HCl and HNO3
c) H2CO3 and HBr
d) HC2H3O2 and HI

37. Which of the following does not describe an acidic solution?

a) The pH is less than 7.0


b) The [OH–] is greater than 1.0 x 10–7
c) The [H3O+] is greater than the [OH–]
d) The [OH–] is 6.0 x 10–10

38. Conjugate acid of HPO42–

a) H3PO4
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

39. If a solution is buffered at a pH of 8.0, then the addition of a small amount of acid will
cause the solution to have a pH of approximately

a) 6.0.
b) 7.0.
c) 8.0.
d) 9.0.

40. In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair weak acids?

a) H2SO4 and HC2H3O2


b) HNO3 and H2C4H4O6
c) HC2H3O2 and H3C6H5O7
d) H3PO4 and H2SiO3

41. If the pH of a solution of a salt is 5.0, the salt must be one which could be formed from
the neutralization of

a) A strong acid and a strong base.


b) A weak acid and a strong base.
c) A strong acid and a weak base.
d) HCl and NaOH.

42. The pH of a solution for which [OH–] = 1.0 x 10–6 is

a) 1.00

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
b) 8.00
c) 6.00
d) –6.00

43. Substance which reacts with NaOH to produce Na3PO4

a) KOH
b) NaNO3
c) H3PO4
d) K3PO4

44. Which of the following is a correct statement for a solution with a pH of 8.00?

a) The hydroxide ion concentration is greater than the hydronium ion concentration
b) The hydronium ion concentration is 8.0 M
c) The hydroxide ion concentration is 1.0 x 10–8 M
d) No correct response

45. Will form a buffer with PO43–

a) H3PO4
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

46. Diprotic weak acid

a) HCl
b) HClO4
c) H2SiO3
d) H2SO4

47. Which of the following equations represents an acid-base neutralization reaction?

a) H2SO4 + Zn ZnSO4 + H2
b) HNO3 + KOH KNO3 + H2O
c) Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaOH
d) No correct response

48. Aqueous NaOH solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
49. Which of the following is produced in the first step of the dissociation of the acid
H3PO4?

a) H3PO3
b) H2PO4–
c) HPO42–
d) PO43–

50. Aqueous HCl solution

a) An acidic solution
b) A basic solution
c) A neutral solution
d) A buffer solution

Ionization of water
Identify the triprotic acid from the following

a) Carbonic acid
b) Bicarbonate
c) Glycine
d) Phosphoric acid

2. Aqueous solution of the detergents are

a) Neutral
b) Acidic
c) Basic
d) Amphoteric

3. Which of the following is an isotonic solution?

a) 0.9% sodium chloride


b) 0.45% sodium chloride
c) Oceans
d) 10% dextrose in water

4. What is the concentration of OH– in a solution with a H+ concentration of 1.3×10-4 M?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) 7.7×10-10 M
b) 7.7×10-9 M
c) 7.7×10-11 M
d) 7.7×10-12 M

5. What is the factor that is responsible for salts like NaCl to dissolve in water easily?

a) Decrease in entropy
b) Increase in entropy
c) Increase in enthalpy
d) Decrease in enthalpy

6. What makes water a liquid at room temperature?

a) Hydrogen bonds between water molecules


b) Covalent bonding
c) Noncovalent interactions
d) Van der Waals forces of attraction

7. ΔG is negative for which of the following processes?

a) Melting of ice and evaporation of water


b) Oxidation of nitrogen
c) Oxidation of gold
d) Burning of chlorine

8. Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

a) Oceans
b) Freshwater habitats
c) 0.45% sodium chloride
d) Red blood cells placed in fresh water

9. ΔH is positive for which of the following processes?

a) Oxidation of nitrogen
b) Melting of ice and evaporation of water
c) Oxidation of gold
d) Burning of chlorine

10. Which of the following acids has the lowest pKa value?

a) Acetic acid
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Dil.HCl
d) Oxalic acid

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
11. Which of the following is a hypotonic solution?

a) 10% dextrose in water


b) 0.45% sodium chloride
c) 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
d) Oceans

12. The degree of ionization does not depend on?

a) Temperature
b) Current
c) Nature of solvent
d) Concentration

Lipids
Fatty acid synthesis takes place in

a) Mitochondria
b) Cellmembrane
c) Cytosol
d) Endoplasmicreticulum

2. Which substance is an electrolyte?

a) CH3OH
b) C6H12O6
c) H2O
d) KOH

3. Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule containing polar covalent bonds?

a) H2O
b) CCl4
c) NH3
d) H2

4. Condensed structural formula of Caproic acid is

a) CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
b) CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
c) CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
d) CH3-(CH2)16-COOH

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Group#18
5. The key enzyme in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis is

a) Acetyl CoA carboxylase


b) AMP activated proteinkinase
c) Proteinphosphatase
d) None of these

6. Which of following protects our heart and kidneys from injury?

a) Skin
b) Muscles
c) Lubricants
d) Fat

7. The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is

a) Ribose
b) Galactose
c) Mannose
d) Maltose

8. The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of

a) Diffusion
b) Effusion
c) Affusion
d) Coagulation

9. Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with

a) 2 double bonds
b) 3 double bonds
c) One double bond
d) None of these

10. Which formula represents a polar molecule?

a) H2
b) H2O
c) CO2
d) CCL4

11. Two hydrogen atoms form a hydrogen molecule when

a) One atom loses a valence electron to the other atom


b) One atom shares four electrons with the other atom
c) The two atoms collide and both atoms gain energy

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Group#18
d) The two atoms collide with sufficient energy to form a bond

12. Which kind of compound generally results when nonmetal atoms chemically combine
with metal atoms?

a) Hydrogen
b) Ionic
c) Covalent
d) Metallic

13. Micelles of fatty acids in water are organized such that the __________ faces the
solvent and the __________ are directed toward the interior

a) Carboxylic acid groups, hydrocarbon chains heads


b) Hydrophilicheads, hydrophobictails
c) Hydrocarbon chains, carboxylic acid groups
d) Both (a) and (b)

14. Atherosclerosis can cause blood

a) Thinning
b) Clotting
c) Thickening
d) Noneofthese

15. Storage polysaccharide made by animals is

a) Amylopectin
b) Glycogen
c) Cellulose
d) Collagen

16. Milk is deficient in which vitamins?

a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin B2
d) Vitamin K

17. The average pH of Urine is

a) 7.0
b) 6.0
c) 8.0
d) 0.0

18. Which compound has both ionic and covalent bonding?

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Group#18
a) CaCO3
b) CH2C12
c) CH3OH
d) C6H12O6

19. Derivatives of phosphatidic acid, which are composed of glycerol, fatty acids and
phosphoric acids are known as

a) Phospholipids
b) Acylghycerols
c) Triglycerides
d) Esters

20. Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

a) Lysosomes
b) Mitochondria
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Entoplasmic reticulum

21. Saliva contains all of the following except

a) Hormones
b) Amylase
c) Bacteria-killingenzymes
d) Antibodies

22. As sodium reacts with fluorine to form the compound NaF, each sodium atom will

a) Gain 1 electron
b) Gain 2 electrons
c) Lose 1 electron
d) Lose 2 electrons

23. Which statement describes a chemical change?

a) Alcohol evaporates.
b) Water vapor forms snowflakes.
c) Table salt (NaCl) is crushed into powder.
d) Glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen produce CO2 and H2O.

24. As a bond between a hydrogen atom and a sulfur atom is formed, electrons are

a) Shared to form an ionic bond


b) Shared to form a covalent bond
c) Transferred to form an ionic bond
d) Transferred to form a covalent bond

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Group#18
25. The glycosidic bond

a) In maltose is not hydrolyzed in lactose intolerant humans


b) In sucrose is hydrolyzed by bees
c) Joins glucose and fructose to form sucrose
d) Both (b) and (c)

26. Cholestrol is the precursor of

a) Steroid hormones
b) Vitamin A
c) Bile salts
d) Both (a) and (c)

27. Arachidonate has 20 carbon atoms with

a) 3 doublebonds
b) 2 doublebonds
c) 4 doublebonds
d) 8 doublebonds

28. Which formula correctly represents the compound calcium hydroxide?

a) CaOH
b) Ca2OH
c) CaOH2
d) Ca(OH)2

29. In human diet, all cholesterol comes from

a) Animal products
b) Vegetable products
c) Both A and B
d) None of these

30. Which compound has the least ionic character?

a) KCl
b) CaCl2
c) AlCl3
d) CCl4

31. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that a carbon atom can form?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 2

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Group#18
d) 4

32. Milk is deficient of which mineral?

a) Phosphorus
b) Sodium
c) Iron
d) Potassium

33. Greater number of carbon atoms in chain results in higher

a) Melting point
b) Boiling point
c) Freezing oint
d) Stability

34. Condensed structural formula of Palmitic acid is

a) CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
b) CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
c) CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
d) CH3-(CH2)16-COOH

35. A substance has a high melting point and conducts electricity in the liquid phase. This
substance is

a) Ne
b) Hg
c) NaCl
d) SiC

36. Humans are unable to digest

a) Starch
b) Complex carbohydrates
c) Denatured proteins
d) Cellulose

37. Which type of bond is found between atoms of solid cobalt?

a) Nonpolar covalent
b) Polar covalent
c) Metallic
d) Ionic

38. Lipids provide insulation against cold and hot weather to exoskeleton of insects in form
of

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Group#18
a) Cutin
b) Waxes
c) Cholesterol
d) Oil

39. Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?

a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Cytoplasm
d) Golgi apparatus

40. Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to

a) Phosphoenolpyruvate
b) AcetylCoA
c) Lactate
d) Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate

41. Which atom has the least attraction for the electrons in a bond between that atom and
an atom of hydrogen?

a) Carbon
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Fluorine

42. Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

a) Amylose
b) Cellobiose
c) Lactose
d) Noneofthese

43. Physical state of fat at room temperature is

a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Plasma

44. Which of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone
insulin?

a) Mn++
b) Mg++
c) Ca++

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Group#18
d) Zn++

45. Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) + energy
Which statement describes the energy changes in this reaction?

a) Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, only.


b) Energy is released as bonds are broken, only.
c) Energy is absorbed as bonds are broken, and energy is released as bonds are
formed.
d) Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, and energy is released as bonds are broken.

46. What occurs in order to break the bond in a Cl2 molecule?

a) Energy is absorbed.
b) Energy is released.
c) The molecule creates energy.
d) The molecule destroys energy.

47. How many ATPs are formed during complete oxidation of palmitate?

a) 35
b) 96
c) 129
d) 131

48. Oxidation of which substance in the body yields the most calories

a) Glucose
b) Glycogen
c) Protein
d) Lipids

49. Phospholipid contains

a) Hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails


b) Long water-soluble carbon chains
c) Positivelychargedfunctionalgroups
d) Both (b) and (c)

50. Which element is composed of molecules that each contain a multiple covalent bond?

a) Chlorine
b) Fluorine
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen

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Group#18
Miscellaneous
. Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:

a) It is basic in nature
b) It is acidic in nature
c) Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base
d) Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.

2. The value of Vant Hoff factor (i) = 2 is for:

a) Glucose
b) Sucrose
c) Calcium chloride
d) Sodium chloride

3. If the solvent boils at a temperature T1 and the solution at a temperature T2 , then the
elevation of boiling point is given by:

a) T1 + T2
b) T1 – T2
c) T2 – T1.
d) None of the above

4. Why pure water is very weak electrolyte?

a) It ionizes to a large extent


b) It ionizes to very small extent
c) It does not ionizes at all
d) It ionizes completely

5. Vapour pressure decreases with:

a) Increase in concentration of the solution.


b) Decrease in solute particles in the solution
c) Decrease in boiling point.
d) Increase in freezing point.

6. Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

a) Camphor
b) Petrol
c) Acetone
d) Acetanilide

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Group#18
7. In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.

a) Weak acid and strong base


b) Weak acid and weak base
c) Strong acid and strong base
d) Strong acid and weak base

8. When osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:

a) Equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute.
b) Equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.
c) Non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute
d) Non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute

9. The unit of Cryoscopic constant is:

a) Kelvin kg mol-1
b) Kelvin kg-1 mol-1
c) Kelvin kg mol+1
d) Kelvin kg+1 mol+1

10. NH3 and H20 can act as:

a) Lewis acid and Bronsted base


b) Lewis base and Bronsted acid
c) Lewis and Bronsted base
d) Lewis and Bronsted acid.

11. What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of
HOCl (ka = 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

a) 7.0
b) 3.2
c) 7.3
d) 4.5

12. Addition of a salt of weak acid and strong base to water would cause:

a) Increase in pH.
b) PH remains same.
c) Decrease in pH
d) None of these.

13. The concentration of a sparingly soluble salt in its saturated solution at a given
temperature is known as:

a) Solubility product

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Group#18
b) Solubility
c) Hydrolysis
d) Degree of hydrolysis

14. Precipitation of salt occurs if:

a) Ionic product = solubility product


b) Ionic product > solubility product
c) Ionic product < solubility product
d) None of these

15. The conjugate base of methyl alcohol is:

a) Hydroxyl ion
b) Methyl radical
c) Hydronium ion
d) Methoxide ion

16. Buffer of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?

a) Weak acid + weak base in water


b) Strong acid + strong base in water.
c) Weak acid + strong base in water.
d) Strong acid + weak base in water.

17. Molarity of a solution is expressed as:

a) The number of moles of a solute present in one litre of the solution


b) The number of moles of a solute present in 1000 gm of the solvent
c) The number of gram equivalent of solute present in one litre of solution
d) The ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute

18. Among the following which is a strong electrolyte and thus the best conductor of
electricity?

a) Sulphuric acid
b) Acetic acid
c) Boric acid
d) Phosphoric acids

19. Water molecule is a highly polar solvent due to:

a) Presence of two lone pair of electrons


b) Presence of three lone pair of electrons
c) Absence of lone pair of electrons
d) None of these

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Group#18
20. If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:

a) I=1
b) I>1
c) I=0
d) I<1

21. 10-4 M HCl solution at 298 K is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution will:

a) Lie between 8 and 9


b) Remain unchanged
c) Lie between 6 and 7
d) Equal to 7

22. The ionisation of a weak electrolyte increases when the concentration of the solution is
decreased. This relation is given by:

a) Ostwald’s law
b) Arrhenius equation
c) Nernst’s equation.
d) Law of mass action.

23. Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:

a) Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised


b) It has low molecular weight
c) Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.
d) It does not dissociates completely

24. NH4Cl and aq.NH3 will precipitate.

a) Cu2+
b) Fe3+
c) Na+
d) K+

25. Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

a) An increase in melting point of the liquid


b) A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.
c) A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid
d) No change in the boiling point of the liquid.

26. Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

a) Obeys Raoult’s law.


b) Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero

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Group#18
c) There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.
d) Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

27. Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength?

a) HCl < HBr < HI < HF


b) HF < HBr < HCl < HI
c) HI < HCl < HBr < HF
d) HF < HCl < HI < HBr.

28. Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?

a) Equimolar solutions
b) Equinormal solution
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

29. When acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:

a) Both (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.


b) Both (H+) and (OH) ions increases
c) (H+) increases and (OH-) decreases
d) (H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.

30. Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:

a) Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between
individual liquids
b) Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between
individual liquids.
c) Force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids
d) Force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.

31. Aqueous solution of potassium chlorate is:

a) Amphoteric
b) Neutral
c) Alkaline
d) Acidic

32. HCO3- acts as:

a) Acid
b) Base
c) Both acid and base
d) None of these

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Group#18
33. An acid is one that donates a proton. This theory was given by:

a) lewis
b) lowery-bronsted
c) arrhenius
d) ostwald

34. Which among the following is true? i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its
boiling point decreases. ii. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point
increases. iii. When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boil

a) I & iii
b) I & iv.
c) Ii & iii
d) Ii & iv

35. Addition of common salt in water causes

a) Increase in M.P of solution


b) Increase in B.P of solution
c) Decrease in B.P of solution
d) Decrease in both M.P & B.P

36. Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?

a) AgCl
b) BaSO4
c) CH3COOAg
d) None of these

37. Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of boiling point
c) Freezing point
d) Depression in freezing point.

38. Which of the following act as Bronsted acid?

a) HSO3-
b) HCO3-
c) Both a and b
d) None

39. Basicity of an acid is defined as number of replicable:

a) OH groups in its molecule

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Group#18
b) H atom in its molecule
c) Non-metal cations in its molecule
d) Non-metal anions in its molecule

40. Which among the following is not a property of buffer solution?

a) It has a definite PH.


b) PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.
c) PH remains constant on keeping for a long time
d) It does not has a definite PH

41. A buffer solution is one that contains:

a) A weak acid and its conjugate base


b) Strong base and its conjugate acid
c) Strong acid and its conjugate base
d) None of these

42. The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

a) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it


b) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non
electrolyte solute in it
c) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.
d) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

43. The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

a) Amount of solute
b) Nature of solute.
c) Amount of solvent
d) Nature of solvent

44. If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:

a) Weak electrolyte
b) Strong electrolyte
c) Strong base
d) None of these.

45. Addition of HCl will suppress the ionisation of:

a) Benzoic acid
b) Carbonic acid
c) Nitric acid
d) Both a and b

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Group#18
46. Vant Hoff’s eqution for solution is:

a) PV = n / RT
b) P = Vn / RT
c) PV = nRT
d) P = VnR / T

47. Which of the following pair of liquids are immiscible?

a) Acetone + water
b) Benzene + water.
c) Ethanol + water
d) Acetic acid + water

48. Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon
number of solute of particles present in the solution. ii. Relative lowering of vapour
pressure of a solution is equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-el

a) I
b) Ii
c) Both i & ii
d) None of the above

49. If ionic product < solubility product then the solution is:

a) Unsaturated
b) Just saturated.
c) Super saturated
d) None of these

50. Lewis acid is one that:

a) Accepts an electron pair


b) Donates a proton
c) Accepts a proton
d) Donates an electron pair

Miscellaneous 1
1. Sol consists of:

a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;


b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid

2. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:

a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) Size of particles;
d) Odor.

3. What is the Isothermal process?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const


b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

4. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:

a) Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.

5. Chromatography is:

a) The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;


b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

6. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

a) Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right

7. What is the convection?

a) The material to conduct heat.


b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

8. Coarse disperse system is:

a) Solution;

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Group#18
b) Suspension;
c) Sol;
d) Gel.

9. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?

a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a


liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a
gas;
d) On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

10. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

11. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:

a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;


b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.

12. The heat transfer are divided into

a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation


b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

13. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const


b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

14. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:

a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation


b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

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Group#18
15. Find the formula of Internal energy.

a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

16. Coagulation is:

a) Chaotic movement of particles;


b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;
c) Destruction of the native protein structure;
d) The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and
thereby separate from the continuous phase.

17. Stability of a disperse system is:

a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance


and viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) Constancy in time of its state and main properties.

18. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

a) Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.

19. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?

a) Julius Robert von Mayer


b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

20. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

a) Opalescence;
b) Light absorption;
c) Electrodialysis;
d) Electrophoresis and electroosmosis

21. Fog and smoke are:

a) Aerosols;

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Group#18
b) Emulsions;
c) Gels;
d) Foams

22. Biological gel is:

a) Cartilage;
b) Air;
c) Clouds;
d) River water

23. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy
d) Exothermic process

24. What is the Isobaric process?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const


b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

25. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?

a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

26. What is the Closed System?

a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings


b) Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

27. What is the adiabaticprocess?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const


b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

28. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

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Group#18
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

29. Thermodynamic processes may be:

a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation


b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

30. Aerosol is:

a) Powder;
b) Dust cloud;
c) Hairspray;
d) All answers are right.

31. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

32. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

a) Viscosity, flowability;
b) Opalescence, light absorption;
c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;
d) Dissolution, swelling.

33. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:

a) Osmosis;
b) Diffusion;
c) Brownian motion;
d) Coagulation .

34. The basic formula for Entropy;

a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW

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Group#18
35. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:

a) Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

36. What is the Open System?

a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings


b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

37. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components

a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

38. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:

a) N2;
b) H2O;
c) CO2;
d) O2.

39. What is the Isolated System?

a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings


b) Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

40. Enthalpy is called?

a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

41. What is the radiation?

a) The material to conduct heat.


b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).

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Group#18
d) None of them.

42. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?

a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

43. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:

a) Aerosol;
b) Emulsion;
c) Sol;
d) Foam

44. What is the thermal conductivity?

a) The material to conduct heat.


b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

45. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?

a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

46. Thermodynamics studies

a) General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.


b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

47. Internal energy is called?

a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

48. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:

a) Fog;

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Group#18
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.

49. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:

a) These are heterogeneous systems;


b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) All answers are right.

50. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:

a) Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;


b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.

Miscellaneous 2
1. The structure of an alkene contains

a) Only single bonds;


b) A double bond;
c) Two double bonds;
d) A triple bond.

2. Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

a) CCl4;
b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) C6H6;
d) C6H12O6.

3. For spontaneous processes?

a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) ∆H≤ 0

4. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called

a) Cryometry

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Group#18
b) Osmometry
c) PH-metry
d) Ebuliometry

5. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called

a) Hypotonic
b) Isoosmotic
c) Saturated
d) Isotonic

6. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called

a) Hypotonic
b) Isoosmotic
c) Saturated
d) Isotonic

7. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called

a) Hypotonic
b) Isoosmotic
c) Saturated
d) Isotonic

8. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise

a) Increases
b) Remains same
c) Decreases
d) No effect

9. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:

a) 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

10. Osmolarity is:

a) The molarity of particles in a solution;


b) The amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) Mass percentage concentration;
d) The concentration in parts per thousand.

11. Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?

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Group#18
a) Butane;
b) Propane;
c) 1-chlorobutane;
d) 1-chloropropane.

12. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by
their osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:

a) Concentrationofwater;
b) Concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) Concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) Concentration of electrolytes.

13. Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H4;
b) C2H6;
c) C3H8;
d) C4H10.

14. In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?

a) CH3COOH;
b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) CH3CH2OH;
d) CH3OH.

15. The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two
adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

a) Alkanes;
b) Alkenes;
c) Alkynes;
d) Benzenes.

16. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called

a) Cryometry
b) Osmometry
c) PH-metry
d) Ebuliometry

17. Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

a) Benzene;
b) Propene;
c) Propane;

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Group#18
d) Propyne.

18. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an organic
compound is a(an)

a) Dihedral angle;
b) Right angle;
c) Tetrahedral angle;
d) Acute angle.

19. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called

a) Hypotonic
b) Isoosmotic
c) Saturated
d) Hypertonic

20. What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?

a) 6
b) 2
c) 8
d) 4

21. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution

a) Increases
b) Remains same
c) Decreases
d) None of them

22. Organic compounds must contain

a) Oxygen;
b) Nitrogen;
c) Hydrogen;
d) Carbon.

23. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on

a) Concentration
b) Nature of solvent
c) Temperature
d) Nature of solute

24. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise

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Group#18
a) Increases
b) Remains same
c) Decreases
d) Increases then decreases

25. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:

a) To increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;


b) To add some electrolytes into a solution;
c) To add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) To increase temperature.

26. How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

a) 5
b) 8
c) 6
d) 13

27. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:

a) Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than
that of pure solvents;
b) Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of
pure solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.

28. Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:

a) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;


b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

29. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling
points

a) Decreases;
b) Increases;
c) Remains the same;
d) Decreases then increases.

30. CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as

a) A carbohydrate;
b) An ester;

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Group#18
c) An alcohol;
d) An organic acid.

31. Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C3H8;
b) C6H6;
c) C2H5OH;
d) C2H4O2.

32. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:

a) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that
of pure solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of
pure solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents.

33. A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is

a) Ethanol;
b) Glycerol;
c) Ethylene glycol;
d) Ethane.

34. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:

a) The number of the solute particles;


b) The chemical structure of solute;
c) Catalysts;
d) PH scale.

35. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:

a) 2.0×10-2osmol;
b) 1.0×10-1osmol;
c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
d) 5.0×10-3osmol.

36. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an


organic molecule is known as a(an)

a) Carboxyl group;
b) Functional group;
c) Group;

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Alkyl group.

37. How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

38. A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used
commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is called

a) Polymerization;
b) Hydrogenation;
c) Esterification;
d) Cracking.

39. Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated


hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

a) Contain multiple bonds;


b) Have a greater molecular mass;
c) Have tetrahedral bonds;
d) Contain more atoms.

40. A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both can
produce

a) An ester;
b) An alcohol;
c) An acid;
d) A soap.

41. A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

a) Fat;
b) Polymer;
c) Isomer;
d) Monomer.

42. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called

a) Cryometry
b) Osmometry
c) PH-metry
d) Ebuliometry

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Group#18
43. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:

a) Density;
b) Viscosity;
c) Molar mass;
d) Osmotic pressure.

44. The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of
compounds that are

a) Molecular;
b) Ionic;
c) Polar;
d) Atomic.

45. Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

a) CH4;
b) C2H6;
c) C3H8;
d) C4H10.

46. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:

a) TT= MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

47. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:

a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane


from a solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
from a truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane
from a pure water to a solution;
d) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable
membrane from a dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

48. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the
van der Waals forces between the molecules

a) Decreases;
b) Increases;
c) Remains the same;
d) Decreases then increases.

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
49. Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

a) Benzene;
b) Propyne;
c) Methane;
d) Ethanol.

50. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly


proportional to

a) Temperature
b) Molar fraction of solute
c) Molar fraction of solvent
d) Mixing rate

Miscellaneous 3
1. Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in

a) H2SO3
b) SO2
c) H2SO4
d) H2S

2. How many α-amine acidrests are in polypeptide

a) 01-10
b) 10-100
c) 100-200
d) More than 100

3. The strongest reducing agent is

a) HNO2
b) H2S
c) H2SO3
d) SnCl2

4. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O

a) X=2 y=4 z=10


b) X=2 y=6 z=5
c) X=2 y=3 z=8
d) X=2 y=3 z=10

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
5. Proteins are composed of:

a) 20 different amino acids


b) 15 different amino acids
c) 15 different aldehydes
d) 17 different ethers

6. Which of the following statements is true?

a) NaCl is a neutral salt;


b) KOH is an acid;
c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.
d) NaBr is basic salt.

7. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane

a) Essential
b) Non-essential
c) Semi- essential
d) None of these

8. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O

a) 10
b) 8
c) 5
d) 2

9. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O

a) X=4 y=6
b) X=8 y=3
c) X=8 y=6
d) X=3 y=8

10. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?

a) OH- and H2O;


b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-;
c) HCl and Cl-;
d) NH3 and NH4+;

11. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:

a) Unsaturated;
b) Supersaturated;

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Group#18
c) Saturated
d) Dilute

12. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?

a) AgCl;
b) PbBr2;
c) Ca3(PO4)2;
d) Na2CO3

13. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

a) F2
b) Cl2
c) Br2
d) I2

14. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;


b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;
c) HI is hydroiodic acid;
d) HClO2 is chloric acid

15. Which of the following is an insulator?

a) Graphite
b) Aluminium
c) Diamond
d) Silicon

16. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide

a) Coordination
b) Ionic
c) Hydrogen
d) Glycoside

17. Unsaponified lipids are

a) Mono-component
b) Di-component
c) Three-component
d) Poly-component

18. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) H2S
b) SO3
c) H2O2
d) F2

19. Glicaric acids are produced under action of

a) Mild oxidant
b) Strong reductant
c) Mildreductant
d) Strong oxidant

20. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of

a) Aldose
b) Pyranose
c) Fructose
d) Furanose

21. DNA contains

a) Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine


b) Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c) Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d) Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

22. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in

a) Acidic medium
b) Neutral medium
c) Basic medium
d) Any medium

23. Which equation is correctly balanced?

a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;
b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;
c) 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;
d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;

24. Functional Group of Ether:

a) H–C=O
b) C–O–C
c) C–C
d) C–X

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
25. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Esterification
d) Transamination

26. Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis

a) Alcohols, carboxylicacids
b) Carboxylicacids
c) Alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d) Alcohols

27. Amino acides are building blocks of:

a) Ketones
b) Aldehydes
c) Proteins
d) Ethers

28. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :

a) O3
b) KMnO4
c) H2O2
d) K2Cr2O7

29. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine

a) Aliphatic
b) Aromatic
c) Heterocyclic
d) Complex

30. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to

a) Dilution
b) Number of ions
c) Current density
d) Volume of the solution

31. An electrolyte is one

a) Which conducts electric current


b) Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current
c) Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent

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Group#18
d) None of the above

32. Functional Group of Ketone:

a) C-CO-C
b) C–X
c) C – OH
d) #NAME?

33. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides

a) Coordination
b) Ionic
c) Hydrogen
d) Hydrofobic

34. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest

a) C1
b) C2
c) C3
d) C4

35. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in

a) Acidic medium
b) Neutral medium
c) Basic medium
d) Any medium

36. Reduction involves

a) Loss of electrons
b) Gain of electrons
c) Increase in the valency of positive part
d) Decrease in the valency of negative part

37. Monomeric link of protein

a) Sugar rest
b) Isoprene
c) Amine acid rest
d) Ethylene

38. Functional Group of Amine:

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) C – NR – R’
b) O= C – OH
c) H–C=O
d) C – OH

39. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF;


b) 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2;
c) 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2
d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

40. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium
carbonate and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a) Cl-;
b) 2Na+;
c) CaCO3d
d) All of the substances above

41. Oxidation involves

a) Loss of electrons
b) Gain of electrons
c) Increase in the valency of negative part
d) Decrease in the valency of positive part

42. Functional Group of Amide:

O = C – OH

C – NR – R’

H–C=O

HOC – NR – R’

43. Functional Group of Nitrile:

- C≡N

O = C – OH

C – NR – R’

HOC – NR – R’

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
44. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:

a) -1/3
b) -1
c) +1
d) -3

45. Choose peptide bond

a) -CO-NH-
b) –S-S-
c) H2N–CH2–
d) -C-C-

46. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a) 1.5 m NaCl;
b) 1.5 m AgCl;
c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;
d) 2.0 m CaCl2

47. Lactose is

a) Monose
b) Unreducing disaccharide
c) Amine acid
d) Reducing disaccharide

48. Components of nucleotide

a) Protein
b) Amine acid rest
c) OH
d) Thymine

49. Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between
atoms

a) C5 and N1
b) C1 and N9
c) C3 and N9
d) C1 and N1

50. Functional Group of Aldehyde:

C – CO - C

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Group#18
C – CH = O

C–X

O = C – OH

Nucleic acid structure

1. What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—NH2?

a) Aldehyde
b) Amide
c) Amine
d) Carboxylic acid

2. What class of compound is butanone?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

3. What class of compound is methanol?

a) Ketone
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Alcohol

4. What class of compound is dopamine?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Amine

5. What class of compound is ethanamide?

a) Aldehyde

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
b) Ketone
c) Amide
d) Ester

6. What class of compound is butanal?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

7. What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—O—R’?

a) Aldehyde
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Ketone

8. Number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

9. Which of the following is the general formula for a phenol (alcohol on a benzene ring)?

a) Ar—OH
b) R—NH2
c) R—OH
d) R—O—R’

10. Which of the following is the general formula for an alcohol?

a) Ar—OH
b) R—NH2
c) R—OH
d) R—O—R’

11. What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–OH?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

12. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Organic halide
b) Alcohol
c) Phenol
d) Ether

13. What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–NH2?

a) Amide
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

14. What class of compound is methyl propanoate?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

15. Which of the following is a general formula for an amine?

a) Ar—OH
b) R—NH2
c) R—OH
d) R—O—R’

16. What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—OH?

a) Aldehyde
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Ketone

17. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–OH?

a) Organic halide
b) Alcohol
c) Phenol
d) Ether

18. What class of compound is the following: C6H5–OH?

a) Organic halide
b) Alcohol
c) Phenol
d) Ether

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
19. How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are there in the allene molecule, H2CCCH2?

a) Six σ bonds and two π bonds


b) Two σ bonds and six π bonds
c) Four σ bonds and four π bonds
d) Eight σ bonds and no π bonds

20. Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

21. What class of compound has the following general formula: Ar—C(=O)—H?

a) Aldehyde
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Ketone

22. Which of the following is a general formula for ether?

a) Ar—OH
b) R—NH2
c) R—OH
d) R—O—R’

23. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–H?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

24. Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?

a) Does not have a double stranded structure


b) Thymine is present
c) Does not obey Chargaff’s rule
d) The sugar contained in RNA is a ribose

25. What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—R’?

a) Aldehyde
b) Alkene
c) Carboxylic acid

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Ketone

26. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–NH2?

a) Organic halide
b) Amine
c) Phenol
d) Ether

27. What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–CH2–CH3?

a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ester

Nucleic acids
1. Nucleoside is a pyrimidine or purine base

a) Covalently bonded to a sugar


b) Ionically bonded to a sugar
c) Hydrogen bonded to a sugar
d) None of the above

2. Which of the following are not the components of RNA?

a) Thymine
b) Adenine
c) Guanine
d) Cytosine

3. A nucleotide is composed of

a) An acid, a base, and a sugar


b) A base, a sugar, and a phosphate
c) A base, and sugar
d) An acid, a sugar, and a phosphate

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
4. Building blocks of nucleic acids are

a) Nucleotides
b) Nucleosides
c) Amino acids
d) Histones

5. Oligonucleotides are formed from 2 to 10

a) Strands
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Nucleosides
d) Nucleotides

6. In gel electrophoresis,what fragments will move most quickly through a gel?

a) Large fragments
b) Small fragments
c) Large genome
d) Noneofthese

7. What term is used to describe the process by which proteins are synthesised from a
genetic code?

a) Reproduction
b) Replication
c) Translation
d) Transcription

8. Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following

a) Cytosine
b) Thymine
c) Uracil
d) Adenine

9. What is the composition of nucleoside?

a) A sugar + a phosphate
b) A base + a sugar
c) A base + a phosphate
d) A base + a sugar + phosphate

10. Which pair is a complementary base pair?

a) C-G
b) A-G

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
c) A-C
d) G-G

11. Phosphoric acid can be joined with OH group of a pentose sugar with help of

a) Phosphodiesterbond
b) Ionicbond
c) Covalentbond
d) Esterlinkage

12. Gene expression is activation of a gene to produce a specific __________ .

a) Protein
b) TRNA
c) Amino acid
d) DNA

13. To which of the following does guanine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

a) Adenine
b) Thymine
c) Cytosine
d) Guanine

14. The variable portion of DNA is the sequence of _

a) Phosphoric acids
b) Sugars
c) Bases
d) Phosphates

15. The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA

a) Connect the sugar to the base


b) Can be hydrolyzed by OH- ion
c) Stabilize Watson-Crick H-bonds
d) Are free to rotate over about 180°

16. Which of the following will not be found in DNA?

a) Thymine
b) Uracil
c) Adenine
d) Guanine

17. Which of the following statements is true?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Sugar component of a nucleotide is ribose
b) Sugar component of a nucleotide is deoxyribose
c) The bases in nucleotides are attached to a pentose sugar moiety by a glycosidic
linkage
d) The sugar molecule of the nucleotide is in L-configuration

18. The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is

a) Pentose
b) Hexose
c) Tetrose
d) Triose

19. To which of the following does thymine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

a) Adenine
b) Thymine
c) Cytosine
d) Guanine

20. According to Erwin Chargoff analysis, ratio of adenine and thiamine is

a) Equal
b) Unequal
c) Less
d) More

21. What term is used to describe the process by which DNA is copied to produce two
daughter DNA molecules?

a) Reproduction
b) Replication
c) Translation
d) Transcription

22. NAD is an abbreviation for

a) NicotineAbusiveDepartment
b) NicotineAvoidDirections
c) Nicotinamideadeninedinucleotide
d) Nicotinamidedinucleotide

23. A purine with an amine (NH2) group on the 6th carbon is

a) Adenine
b) Cytosine
c) Thymine

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Group#18
d) Guanine

24. What term is used to describe the process by which a segment of DNA is copied to
produce a molecule of messenger RNA?

a) Reproduction
b) Replication
c) Translation
d) Transcription

25. Which pyrimidine base contains an amino group at carbon 4?

a) Cytosine
b) Thymine
c) Uracil
d) Adenine

26. RNA is synthesized from DNA by process of

a) Translation
b) Transcription
c) Transgenic
d) Duplication

27. Nucleic acids

a) Are also called nucleotides


b) Do not contain purine
c) Are polymers
d) Do not contain uracil

28. What is the composition of nucleotide?

a) A sugar + a phosphate
b) A base + a sugar
c) A base + a phosphate
d) A base + a sugar + phosphate

29. Which of the following is a purine?

a) Cytosine
b) Adenine
c) Thymine
d) Uracil

30. The sugar in RNA is __________ , the sugar in DNA is __________

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Deoxyribose, ribose
b) Ribose, deoxyribose
c) Ribose, phosphate
d) Ribose, uracil

31. Scientist who first isolated nuclei of pus cells was

a) F.Sanger
b) M.steward
c) F.Miescher
d) A.Einstein

32. Nucleic acids can be analyzed experimentally by their

a) Molecular weight
b) Absorption of visible light
c) Absorption of uv light
d) None of these

33. Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by

a) Phosphodiester bond
b) Peptide bond
c) Ionic bond
d) Covalent bond

34. Which of the following is found on RNA but not DNA?

a) Uracil
b) Deoxyribose
c) Phosphate
d) Adenine

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
Organic compounds
1. For complex molecules, a chemist usually represents a molecule by

a) Molecular formula
b) Skeletal formula
c) Structural formula
d) B and c

2. Almost 95% of compounds are of carbon because it can form

a) Single bonds
b) Double bonds
c) Triple bonds
d) Multiple bonds

3. All proteins are made up of a side chain and

a) Alpha-amino acid.
b) Amine.
c) A nitrogen atom.
d) Peptide.

4. The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of octane is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

5. Assuming straight-chain compounds, which of the following will have the highest boiling
point?

a) C3H8
b) C7H16
c) C11H24
d) They all have the same boiling point

6. Which of the following is a polymer?

a) Cellulose
b) Polyethylene
c) Wool

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Group#18
d) All are polymers

7. In naming alkane stem tells about the

a) Number of hydrogen atoms


b) Number of oxygen atoms
c) Number of carbon atoms
d) Number of bonds

8. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Hexane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Octane

9. A hydrocarbon is an organic compound consisting of

a) Water and carbon.


b) Any number of elements as long as they include carbon and hydrogen.
c) Carbon and hydrogen.
d) Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

10. Organic chemistry is the study of

a) Any compound from any living thing.


b) Carbon-containing compounds that were formed by living things.
c) Any compound with carbon as the principal element.
d) Noneoftheabove.

11. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Hexane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Octane

12. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Butane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Decane

13. Supporting the idea that the origin of life was the result of natural processes is the fact
that

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Amino acids and other complex organic molecules have been found in meteorites and
comets.
b) In the laboratory amino acids, fatty acids, nitrogen bases, and other compounds can be
formed under simulated early Earth conditions.
c) The early Earth had oceans full of chemicals that may have been interacting to form
organic compounds.
d) All of the above are true.

14. Name the following compounds:

a) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
b) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylpenthane
c) 2-chloro-3-methylhexane
d) 2,3-dimethylbutane

15. A gasoline mixture of hydrocarbons that burns very rapidly has

a) A low octane number.


b) A high octane number.
c) Many branched chains.
d) Smaller hydrocarbon molecules.

16. Which of the following underlined atoms is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond
acceptor?

a) Amide nitrogen (RNHCOR')


b) Aniline nitrogen (ArNH2)
c) Amine nitrogen (RNH2)
d) Carboxylate oxygen (RCO 2-)

17. Which of the following functional groups is most likely to participate in a dipole-dipole
interaction?

a) Aromatic ring
b) Ketone
c) Alcohol
d) Alkene

18. Which of the following underlined protons is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond
donor?

a) Alcohol (ROH)
b) Amine (RNH2)
c) Phenol (ArOH)
d) Ammonium ion (RNH3+)

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
19. When wine "goes bad," the ethanol is converted into

a) CH3COOH.
b) CH3 OCH3.
c) CH3CH2OH.
d) CH3OH.

20. Name the following compounds:

a) 2,3-dimethylbutane
b) 1-bromo-3-methylpentane
c) 3-methylpentane
d) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

21. Name the following compounds:

a) 2,3-dimethylbutane
b) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
c) 3-methylpentane
d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

22. Name the following compounds:

a) 1-bromo-3-methylpentane
b) 3-methylpentane
c) 2-chloro-3-methylhexane
d) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

23. A hydrocarbon with two double covalent bonds between carbon atoms is a (an)

a) Alkane.
b) Alkene.
c) Alkyne.
d) Aromatic hydrocarbon.

24. Self-linking ability of carbon is called

a) Catenation
b) Sublimation
c) Hydrogenation
d) Carbonation

25. Fractional distillation

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Group#18
a) Is a basic process used in petroleum refining.
b) Involves heating crude oil and condensing the vapors at different temperatures.
c) When applied to crude oil can produce such products as gasoline, kerosene, and
lubricating oil stock.
d) All of the above are true.

26. Name the following compounds:

a) Cis-1-butene
b) 2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
c) Trans- ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
d) 3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

27. Organic compounds called isomers have

a) The same molecular formulas but different physical structures.


b) Different molecular formulas with the same physical structures.
c) Different molecular formulas with the same chemical properties.
d) Noneoftheabove.

28. As compared to its parent alkane, an alkyl radical contains

a) One less carbon


b) One less hydrogen
c) One more carbon
d) One more hydrogen

29. Only one benzene ring is present in compounds of

a) Aryl
b) Acryl
c) Carboxylic
d) Ketone

30. Two optical isomers are formed from carbon atoms to create bond

a) 4 atoms
b) 2 atoms
c) 1 atom
d) 3 atoms

31. An organic molecule with a general formula of ROH is a (an)

a) Ether.
b) Alcohol.
c) Organic acid.

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Group#18
d) Ester.

32. Organic compounds called aromatic hydrocarbons are compounds that

a) Have a wonderful odor.


b) Are based on the benzene rings structure.
c) Occur in nature with all carbons bonds saturated
d) Occur in nature with all carbon bonds unsaturated.

33. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Octane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Hexane

34. An organic molecule with a general formula of RCOOH is a (an)

a) Ester.
b) Organic acid.
c) Ketone.
d) Aldehyde.

35. Name the following compounds:

a) 2,3-dimethilhexane
b) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
c) 3-methylpentane
d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

36. Which of the following molecules has the highest carbon to hydrogen ratio?

a) Ethane
b) Ethane
c) Methane
d) Acetylene

37. The human body breaks down starches to

a) Monosaccharides.
b) Simple sugars.
c) Glucose.
d) Any of the above.

38. An alkane with 3 carbon atoms would have how many hydrogen atoms in the molecule?

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10

39. The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for

a) A reactive atom.
b) A separate functional group.
c) Any hydrocarbon group.
d) The right side of the molecule.

40. Element that is backbone of organic molecules is

a) Carbon
b) Hydrogen
c) Oxygen
d) All of them

41. Which of the following compounds cannot exist?

a) C2H3
b) C2H4
c) C3H8
d) C4H10

42. Rate of reaction of organic compounds is slow due to

a) Ionic bonding in them


b) Amphoteric nature
c) Covalent bonding
d) Coordinate covalent bonding

43. The direct reserve source of energy in the muscles of a human is

a) Glycol.
b) Glycerol.
c) Glycogen.
d) Dextrose.

44. Carbon can form many different compounds because it can

a) Make a molecule in the shape of a cube, tetrahedron, or cylinder.


b) Combine with other carbon atoms in addition to other elements
c) Combine with more metals than other elements.
d) Combine with more nonmetals than other elements.

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
45. The characteristic odor and taste of fruit such as bananas, oranges, and pineapples
comes from certain

a) Ketones.
b) Ethers.
c) Aldehydes.
d) Esters.

46. Name the following compounds:

a) 1-bromo-3-methylpentane
b) 2,3-dimethylbutane
c) 3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

47. Substances which are basis of human life on earth are

a) Atom
b) Molecules
c) Matter
d) Organic compounds

48. Fats and oils are esters formed from three fatty acids and glycerol into a (an)

a) Alpha-amino acid.
b) Polysaccharide.
c) Triglyceride.
d) Disaccharide.

49. Which of the following is not true about benzene?

a) It is a dark brown liquid in its natural state.


b) It does not mix with water.
c) It has a strong odor.
d) It can be used as a solvent.

50. Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

a) Hexane
b) Heptane
c) Pentane
d) Octane

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
Soloutions
1. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to molality if the
solution is

a) Concentrated
b) Dilute
c) Saturated solution
d) All of the above

2. The determination of correct molecular weight from Raoults law is applicable to

a) A volatile solute in dilute solution


b) A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solution
c) A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solute
d) Non volatile solute in a dilute solution

3. Water of crystallization can be removed by

a) Drying
b) Heating
c) Evaporation
d) All of the above

4. The molar concentration is called?

a) The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution


b) The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution
c) The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution
d) The mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

5. Which one of the following salt does not hydrolyzed

a) Na2SO4
b) AlCl3
c) CuSO4
d) NH4Cl

6. Concentration of solute molecule when they are in equilibrium with solid substance at
particular temperature is called

a) Saturated solution
b) Solubility

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Group#18
c) Unsaturated solution
d) Super saturated solution

7. Which of the following solutions of H2SO4 is more concentrated?

a) 1 Molar solution
b) 1 molal solution
c) 1 normal solution
d) All have same concentration

8. 58.5g of ofNaCl per 1 dm3 of solution of NaCl in water the concentration of solution will
be

0.1 M

1m

1M

0.1 N

9. Which has the minimum freezing point?

a) One MolalNaCI
b) One molal KCI solution
c) One molal CaCI2
d) One molal urea solution

10. The molal boiling point constant is the ration of the elevation of boiling point to

a) Molarity
b) Molality
c) More fraction of solvent
d) Mole fraction of solute

11. If the volume of solution is equal to sum of volumes of its all components then the
solution

a) Will be an ideal solution


b) Will be non-ideal solution
c) Will show deviations from Raoults law
d) Both b & c

12. Which of the following is an example of liquid in gas solution.

a) Opals
b) Dust particles in smoke

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
c) Paints
d) Fog

13. The compounds in which water molecules are added are called

a) Hydrated ions
b) Double salts
c) Hydrates
d) Complexes

14. Which of the following is not a colligative property?

a) Lowering of vapour pressure


b) Freezing point
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Elevation of polling point

15. The component of solution which is in smaller amount is called

a) Solvent
b) Solute
c) Phase
d) Ion

16. Solution of Na2SO4 will be

a) Basic
b) Acidic
c) Neutral
d) Cannot be predicted without data

17. Which of the following unit of concertration is independent of temperature?

a) Molarity
b) Molality
c) Mole fraction
d) All

18. Solution with maximum concentration of solute at given temperature is called

a) Super saturated solution


b) Unsaturated solution
c) Saturated solution
d) Dilute solution

19. Number of moles in 1 kg of solvent is called

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Normality
b) Molarity
c) Molality
d) Mole fraction

20. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is

a) Equal to the mole fraction of solvent


b) Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
c) Directly proportional to the mole fraction of solute
d) Both b & c

21. When common salt is dissolved in water?

a) Boiling point of water decrease


b) Boiling point of water increase
c) Boiling point of water remains same
d) None of the above

22. Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two compounds is called

a) Solution
b) Compound
c) Radical
d) Ion

23. Hydration is a process in which

a) Molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules


b) Ions are surrounded by solvent molecules
c) Both ions and molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
d) Both ions and molecules are surrounded by water molecules

24. 1 molar solution of glucose in water contains weight of glucose

a) 180g/dm3
b) 170g/dm3
c) 190g/dm3
d) 195g/dm3

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
Thermodynamics
1. The unit of energy in S.I. units is

a) Watt
b) Joule
c) Joule/s
d) Joule/m

2. In which ionic compound does the cation have the same number of electrons as the
anion?

a) LiF
b) NaCl
c) CaO
d) MgF2

3. At critical point the enthalpy of vaporisation is

a) Only dependent on temperature


b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Minimum

4. To which process does the term sublimation refer?

a) Solid to liquid
b) Liquid to solid
c) Solid to gas
d) Gas to solid

5. If the ∆H° for the reaction, 2 Mg (s) + 2 Cl2 (g) → 2 MgCl2 (s), is -1283.6 kJ, what is the
standard enthalpy of formation of magnesium chloride?

a) 0 kJ/mol
b) -320.9 kJ/mol
c) -641.8 kJ/mol
d) 1283.6 kJ/mol

6. Which of the following bonds is most polar?

a) B−O
b) B-F

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
c) C-O
d) C=O

7. A reaction has values of ∆H and ∆S which are both positive. The reaction

a) Is spontaneous
b) Spontaneity is temperature dependent
c) Has an increasing free energy
d) Is non-spontaneous

8. How are the boiling and freezing points of water affected by the addition of a soluble
salt?

a) The freezing and boiling points are both lowered.


b) The freezing and boiling points are both raised.
c) The freezing is lowered and the boiling point is raised.
d) The freezing is raised and the boiling point is lowered.

9. For a given substance, which of the following phase transitions is the most exothermic?

a) Solid → liquid
b) Gas → solid
c) Liquid → gas
d) Solid → gas

10. Of the following compounds, which one contains nitrogen in an oxidation state of +5?

a) NO2F
b) N2O3
c) NH4Cl
d) Mg3N2

11. An open system

a) Is a specified region where transfers of energy and/or mass take place


b) Cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings
c) Is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries
d) Has a mass transfer across its boundaries, and the mass within the system is not
necessarily

12. The following reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel at 200o C. CO(g)
+ 3 H2(g) → CH4(g) + H2O(g), ΔHo = −206 kJ Which of the following actions causes the
reaction to proceed from left to right in order to restore equilibri

a) Increasing the volume of the container, holding temperature constant


b) Adding some CH4 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
c) Adding some H2 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) Increasing the temperature, holding the pressure constant

13. Natural oils, such as vegetable oil, are converted into solid, edible fats by a process
called

a) Fusion
b) Hydrogenation
c) Crystallization
d) Saponification

14. When temperature is increased, the rate of a reaction also increases. This observation
is best explained by

a) An increase in the frequency of molecular collisions


b) A decrease in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
c) An increase in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
d) An increase in the fraction of molecules that have enough energy to react

15. For a reversible adiabatic process the change in entropy is

a) Zero
b) Minimum
c) Maximum
d) Infinite

16. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system

a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Specific volume
d) Heat

17. What is the formula of magnesium sulfate?

a) MgS
b) MgS2
c) Mg3S2
d) MgSO4

18. The internal energy of a substance depends on

a) Temperature
b) Volume
c) Pressure
d) Entropy

19. If ∆H value is less than zero than reaction will be

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Exothermic
b) Endothermic
c) May or may not be Exothormic or Endothermic
d) None of these

20. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?

a) HF
b) HCl
c) HBr
d) HI

21. What is the formula of the stable compound formed by magnesium and nitrogen?

a) MgN
b) Mg2N
c) Mg3N2
d) Mg2N3

22. A law which is applicable only to ideal vapours and liquids, that equates the equilibrium
partial pressures of a solution component in the coexisting phases, is known as

a) Henry's law
b) Joule's law
c) Fick's law
d) Roult's law

23. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is

a) Centigrade
b) Celsius
c) Farhenheit
d) Kelvin

24. The unit of length in S.I. units is

a) Meter
b) Centimeter
c) Kilometer
d) Millimeter

25. Which of the following is the strongest acid in water?

a) HBr
b) HOBrO2
c) HF
d) HI

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
26. In which of the following compounds does oxygen have the highest oxidation state?

a) CsO2
b) H2O
c) O2
d) OF2

27. What is the coefficient of O2 when the following equation is balanced? C10H8(s) + x
O2(g) → y CO2(g) + z H2O(l)

a) 1
b) 6
c) 7
d) 12

28. Whenever a system undergoes either a change in state or an energy or mass transfer at
a steady state, it is said to undergo

a) A change of state
b) A steady state transfer
c) A process
d) A thermodynamic change

29. Which of the following compounds will not undergo an acid-base (neutralization)
reaction with HClO4?

a) NaOH
b) Sr(OH)2
c) NH3
d) H2SO4

30. For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Infinite
d) Zero

31. For any reversible process, the change in entropy of the system and surroundings is

a) Zero
b) Minimum
c) Maximum
d) Infinite

32. A system consisting of more than one phase is known as

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Open system
b) Isolated system
c) Closed system
d) Heterogeneous system

33. The unit of mass in S.I. units is

a) Kilogram
b) Gram
c) Tonne
d) Quintal

34. Which of the following has the same number of electrons as a water molecule?

a) H2S
b) BH3
c) OH−
d) BeH2

35. The reaction below reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel. C6H12O6(s) = 2
C2H5OH(l) + 2 CO2(g), ∆Ho = −72 kJ Which of the following actions causes an increase in
the value of Kc? (i) adding some CO2(g) (ii) transferring the reactio

(i) only

(ii) only

(iii) only

None of the above

36. An open system is one in which

a) Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
b) Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
c) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
d) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

37. When the following equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients,
what is the coefficient of O2? NH3 + O2 → NO + H2O

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

38. An isolated system is one in which

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
a) Mas does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
b) Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
c) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
d) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

39. Second law of theromodynamics defines

a) Heat
b) Enthalpy
c) Internal energy
d) Entropy

40. Mixture of ice and water from a

a) Closed system
b) Open system
c) Isolated system
d) Heterogeneous system

41. Which of the following compounds displays only covalent bonding?

a) NH4OH
b) Li2O
c) HOCN
d) NaNO3

42. Which is true for a spontaneous endothermic process?

a) ∆H<0
b) ∆G<0
c) ∆S<0
d) ∆G>0

43. Which of the following is a product of the reaction between H2SO4(aq) and NaOH(aq)?

a) H2(g)
b) H+(aq)
c) H2O(l)
d) O2(g)

44. Which of the following is incorrect?

a) The pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressure of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
b) The entropy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the entropies of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
c) The internal energy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum f the internal energies of the
indicudual components taken each at the temperature and the volume of the mixture
d) None of the above

45. In an isothermal process

a) Temperature increases gradually


b) Volume remains constant
c) Change in internal energy is zero
d) Pressure remains constant

46. The unit of time in S.I. units is

a) Second
b) Minute
c) Hour
d) Day

47. Each of two identical containers holds one mole of CH4gas and one mole SO2 gas, all
at the same temperature. Which of following statements is true?

a) The SO2 gas has a higher pressure.


b) The CH4 gas has a greater density.
c) The SO2 molecules move, on average, faster than the CH4 molecules.
d) Deviations from ideal gas behaviour are smaller for the CH4 gas.

48. The heat of combustion of C(s) is −394 kJ/mol and that of CO(g) is −111 kJ/mol. What is
the enthalpy change for the reaction below? CO(g) → C(s) + ½ O2(g)

a) 505 kJ
b) 283 kJ
c) 111 kJ
d) −283 kJ

49. General gas equation is

a) PV=nRT
b) PV=mRT
c) PV=C
d) PV=KiRT

50. Which of the statements concerning the structure of benzene is false?

a) The double bonds oscillate rapidly back and forth between adjacent pairs of carbon
atoms.
b) The H-C-C angles are 120o
c) The carbon atoms form a flat hexagonal ring.

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
d) The oxidation state of carbon is −1.

Talha-Bin-Tariq
Group#18
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Question
23. 23 (1/24)
24. 24
Which of the following solutions of H2SO4 is more concentrated?

Options
1 Molar solution
1 molal solution
1 normal solution
All have same concentration

Which of the following unit of concertration is independent of temperature?

Options
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction
All

Which of the following is an example of liquid in gas solution.

Options
Opals
PrevDust particles in smoke
SkipPaints
NextFog

The molal boiling point constant is the ration of the elevation of boiling point to

Options
Molarity
Molality
More fraction of solvent
Mole fraction of solute

Which has the minimum freezing point?

Options
One MolalNaCI
One molal KCI solution
One molal CaCI2
One molal urea solution

Which of the following is not a colligative property?

Options
Lowering of vapour pressure
Freezing point
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of polling point

When common salt is dissolved in water?

Options
Boiling point of water decrease
Boiling point of water increase
Boiling point of water remains same
None of the above

Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two compounds is called

Options
Solution
Compound
Radical
Ion

The component of solution which is in smaller amount is called

Options
Solvent
Solute
Phase
Ion

Solution with maximum concentration of solute at given temperature is called

Options
Super saturated solution
Unsaturated solution
Saturated solution
Dilute solution

Number of moles in 1 kg of solvent is called

Options
Normality
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction

58.5g of ofNaCl per 1 dm3 of solution of NaCl in water the concentration of solution will be

Options
0.1 M
1m
1M
0.1 N

If the volume of solution is equal to sum of volumes of its all components then the solution

Options
Will be an ideal solution
Will be non-ideal solution
Will show deviations from Raoults law
Both b & c

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is

Options
Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
Directly proportional to the mole fraction of solute
Both b & c

Concentration of solute molecule when they are in equilibrium with solid substance at particular
temperature is called

Options
Saturated solution
Solubility
Unsaturated solution
Super saturated solution

The determination of correct molecular weight from Raoults law is applicable to

Options
A volatile solute in dilute solution
A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solution
A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solute
Non volatile solute in a dilute solution

The compounds in which water molecules are added are called

Options
Hydrated ions
Double salts
Hydrates
Complexes

Hydration is a process in which

Options
Molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
Ions are surrounded by solvent molecules
Both ions and molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
Both ions and molecules are surrounded by water molecules

Solution of Na2SO4 will be

Options
Basic
Acidic
Neutral
Cannot be predicted without data

1 molar solution of glucose in water contains weight of glucose

Options
180g/dm3
170g/dm3
190g/dm3
195g/dm3

Water of crystallization can be removed by

Options
Drying
Heating
Evaporation
All of the above

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to molality if the solution is

Options
Concentrated
Dilute
Saturated solution
All of the above

Which one of the following salt does not hydrolyzed

Options
Na2SO4
AlCl3
CuSO4
NH4Cl
The molar concentration is called?

Options
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution
The mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
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Question
23. 23 (1/101)
24. 24
Which
25. 25change is oxidation?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Gain
28 of electrons
29.Gain
29 of hydrogen
30.Loss
30 of oxygen
31.Loss
31 of electrons
32. 32
33. 33change is reduction?
Which
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.A 36
decrease in oxidation state
37. 37
Gain of oxygen
38. 38
39.Loss
39 of electrons
40.Loss
40 of hydrogen
41. 41
What
42. 42is the oxidation state of chromium in the CrO3-2
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.+345
46.-346
Prev
47. 47
Skip+6
48. 48
Next-6
49. 49
50. 50
Magnesium displace lead ions from solution lead(II) sulfate. Which statement about this reaction
51. 51
is true?
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Lead
54 (II) ions are oxidized.
55. 55
56.Magnesium
atoms are oxidised.
56
57.Lead
57 (II) ions lose electrons.
58.Magnesium
58 atoms gain electrons .
59. 59
Which
60. 60one of the following substance is reducing agent?
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.Argon
63
64.Oxygen
64
65. 65
66.Carbon
66 dioxide
67.Carbon
67 monoxide
68. 68
Which
69. 69compound, when added to aqueous iron(II) sulphate, takes part in a redox reaction?
70. 70
Options
71. 71
72.Ammonia
72
73.Barium
73 chloride
74.Acidified
74 potassium manganate (VII)
75.Sodium
75 hydroxide
76. 76
77. 77 potassium dichromate (VI) can be used to detect the presence of ethanol vapour in the
Acidified
78. 78of a person who consumed alcohol. A color change from orange to green is absolved if
breach
79. 79 is present. This shows that ethanol is
ethanol
80. 80
81. 81
Options
82.An82alkali
83. 83
An indicator
84. 84
85.An85oxidizing agent
86.A 86
reducing agent
87. 87
Which
88. 88of the following bases has the highest pKa value
89. 89
Options
90. 90
91.NaOH
91
92.NaNO3
92
93.KNO3
93
94.KCl
94
95. 95
96. 96
What is the oxidation state of sulphur in SO3-2
97. 97
98. 98
Options
99.-499
100. 100
+2
101. 101
+4
+6

In which reaction is the first substance acting as a reducing agent?

Options
Chlorine + iron(II) chloride ---> iron(III) chloride
Copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ---> copper + water
Hydrochloric acid + magnesium oxide ---> magnesium chloride + water
Carbon monoxide + zinc oxide ---> zinc + carbon dioxide

Hydrogen peroxide, H2O2 reacts with silver oxide according to the following equation/ Ag2O(s) +
H2O2(l) = 2Ag(s) + H2O(l) + O2(g) in this reaction hydrogen peroxide behaves as
Options
A catalyst
A dehydrating agent
An oxidising agent
A reducing agent

What is the oxidation number of an iron atom in Fe2O3?

Options
+6
+3
-3
-2

What is the oxidation of xenon in XeF6?

Options
-6
-1
+6
-7

What is the oxidation number of an As atom in AsO4-3(aq)?

Options
+5
+9
+1
-7

Which represents an oxidation reaction?

Options
NaNO3 + KCl -> NaCl + KNO3
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
Cl2 + 2e--> 2 Cl-
K -> K+ + e-

Which represents a reduction reaction?

Options
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
Cl2 + 2 e--> 2 Cl-
K -> K+ + e-

In the electrolysis of water, which reaction occurs at the cathode?

Options
2 H2(g) + O2(g)  2 H2O(g)
2 02-(aq)  O2(g) + 4 e-
2 H2O(l)  4 H+(aq) + 2 02-(aq)
2 H+(aq) + 2 e- H2(g)

Which process / equation pair occurs at the cathode when iron hinges are plated with copper?

Options
Reduction, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
Reduction, Cu2+ + 2 e- Cu(s)
Oxidation, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
Oxidation, Cu2+ (aq) + 2 e- Cu(s)

Balance the following oxidation-reduction equation: Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq)  Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)

Options
Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq)    Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
2Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq)    2Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
2Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq)    2Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)
Sn2+(aq) + 2Ce4+(aq)    Sn4+(aq) + 2Ce3+(aq)

The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is __.

Options
+1
-1
+2
-2

Which of the following statements about corrosion are NOT true?

Options
A car rusts because steel reacts with water and oxygen in the air.
When iron rusts electrons are lost from the metal.
Plating metal speeds up the oxidation process.
Adding zinc metal strips to iron metals prevents corrosion.

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, __________ is oxidized. (acidic solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the oxidizing agent. (acidic
solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the reducing agent. (acidic
solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, the coefficient of water is ________. (acidic
solution)

Options
0
2
4
8

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is oxidized. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is reduced. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, _________ is the reducing agent. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, the coefficient of water is ________. (basic
solution)

Options
1
4
3
6

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31 (acidic solution), __________ is oxidized.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the oxidizing agent.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), the coefficient of water is
________.

Options
5
4
3
2

In the balanced reaction Cr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2 (basic solution) __________ is oxidized.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+22 (basic solution), _________ is the oxidizing
agent.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), the coefficient of water is
________.

Options
1
2
3
0

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3 (acidic solution), __________ is oxidized.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the oxidizing agent.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), the coefficient of water is

Options
0
1
2
3

Which one of these reactions is heterogeneous?

Options
CaO(s) + CO2(g) = CaCO3
KOH(sol) + HNO3(sol) = KNO3(sol) + H2O(l)
H2 + N2 = NH3
NH3 + O2 = N2 + H2O(g)

Which one of these reactions is homogeneous?

Options
K(s) + H2O(l) = KOH(sol) + H2(g)
N2(g) + H2(g) = NH3(g)
BaCl2(sol) + H2SO4(sol) =BaSO4(s) + 2HC1 (sol);
Fe + H2SO4 = FeSO4 + H2;

Find an endothermic reaction:

Options
N2 + Н2 = NH3- ΔH
SO2 + O2+ ΔH= SO3
С + О2 = СО2- ΔH
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

Which one of these reactions is redox reaction?

Options
Аl + Сl2= АlСl3
ВаСО3 = ВаО + СО2
Ba(NO3)2 + K2SO4= BaSO4 + KNO3
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2

Find irreversible reaction:

Options
H2 + N2 = NH3
NaOH + HCl = NaCl + H2O
SO2 + O2 = SO3
N2O4 = NO2

Number of reaction products always greater than number of reactants if it is:

Options
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
Reaction of substitution
Reaction of direct combination

Number of reaction products always less than number of reactants if it is:

Options
Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
Reaction of direct combination
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of substitution

Redox reactions in inorganic chemistry are always:

Options
Reactions of decomposition
Reactions of exchange (metathesis)
Reactions of substitution
Reactions of direct combination

Redox reactions are cannot be:

Options
Reactions of substitution
Reactions of exchange
Reactions of decomposition
Reactions of direct combination
Reaction, that goes without changes in oxidation numbers of atoms in compound, is:

Options
Reaction of exchange
Reaction of direct combination
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of substitution

The exchange reaction goes between:

Options
Simple and complex substances
Two simple substances
Two complex substances;
It can be both pair of simple and pair of complex substances

The products of decomposition reaction are:

Options
Only simple substances
Only complex substances
Both: and simple substances, and complex substances
Simple substance and complex substance.

Find redox reaction of substitution:

Options
СаСO3 = СаO + СО2
Н2O2= Н2O + O2
Cu + O2 = CuO
NaHCO3 = Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

Find redox reaction of direct combination:

Options
SO2 + O2 = SO3
NO2 + Н2O= HNO3 + NO
Н2O2= Н2O + O2
SO2 + NaOH = NaHSO3

At the same time reaction CANNOT be:

Options
Reaction of exchange and redox reaction
Redox reaction and decomposition
Substitution and redox
Direct combination and redox

Reactions, that can be homogeneous, are:


Options
Only exchange reactions
Only direct combination reactions
Only decomposition reactions
Every single one of them and substitution reactions.

Choose most common requirement for reaction to be homogeneous:

Options
Products are in one phase
Reactants are in one phase
Reactants and product are both in same phase
Reactants and product are both in gaseous state

Find heterogeneous reactions:

Options
CaO(s) + CO2(s) = CaCO3(s)
CO(g) + O2(g) = CO2(g)
NO2(g) + H2O(l) + O2(g) = HNO3(l
SO3(l) + H2O(l) = H2SO4(l)

Find redox decomposition reaction:

Options
Cu(NO3)2(s) = CuO(s) + NO2(g) + O2(g)
SO3(g) = SO2(g) + O2(g)
NH4NO3(g) = N2O(g) + H2O
Cu + O2 = CuO

Choose the heterogeneous redox reaction:

Options
Na(s) + H2O(l) = NaOH(sol) + H2(g)
NO2(g) + CO(g) = N2(g) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + N2O(g) = N2(g) + H2O(g)
SO3(g) = SO2(g) + O2(g)

There are reactions for SO2 obtaining:

Options
FeS2(s) + O2(g) = Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g)
NaHSO3(sol) + HCl(sol) = NaCl(sol) + H2O(l) + SO3(g)
S(s) + O2(g) = SO2(g)
Fe2(SO4)3(s) = Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + O2(g)

Among them redox reactions are:

Options
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 3, 4

Choose half-reaction for reduction process:

Options
С0 – 4e = С+4
N+5 + 2e = N+3
H2 – 2e = 2H+1
2S-1 – 10e = 2S+4

Choose half-reaction for reduction process:

Options
H02 – 2e = 2H+1
O20 + 4e = 2O-2
N-3 -5e = N+2
2O-1 – 2e = O20

Find half-reaction, where atoms of nitrogen are acting as reduction agents:

Options
H02 + 2e = 2H-1
H02 – 2e = 2H+1
N+5 + 2e = N+3
N-3 -5e = N+2

Find half-reaction, where atoms of sulfur are acting as oxidation agents:

Options
S0 – 4e = S+4
S+6 + 8e = S-2
2S-1 – 10e = 2S+4
S+4 + 4e = S0

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of sulfur changes from -1 to +4:

Options
H2SO4 + Cu = CuSO4 + SO2 + H2O
FeS2 + O2 = Fe2O3 + SO2
H2S + O2 = SO2 + H2O
KHS + HCl = KCl + H2S

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of nitrogen changes from -3 to 0:

Options
NH3 + O2 = NO + H2O
NO2 + H2O + O2 = HNO3
NH4NO2 = N2 +H2O
NH4NO3 = N2O + H2O

Choose reaction where oxidation number of carbon atom is increasing:

Options
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 = CaCO3 + H2O
CaO + CO2 = CaCO3
CO + Fe2O3 = Fe + CO2
CO2 + Mg = Mg + C

Choose reaction where oxidation number of chlorine atom is increasing:

Options
Cl2 + Fe = FeCl3
KClO3 = KCl + O2
Cl2 + KI = KCl + I2
KCl + F2 = KF + Cl2

Which one is oxidation process?

Options
Cl2 → 2 ClO-
NO2- → NO
Cr2O72- → 2CrO42-
SO32-→ H2S

Which one is oxidation process?

Options
HPO42- → H2PO4-
SO32-→ H2S
MnO4- → MnO42-
Cr2O72- → 2Cr3+

Sulfur is reduction agent in reaction with:

Options
Cu
Cl
P
H2

Phosphorus is oxidation agent when reacts with:

Options
Ca
S
O2
Cl

Oxidation properties of halogens increasing from left to right in line:

Options
I2, F2, Cl2
I2, Cl2, F2
Br2, F2, Cl2
F2, Cl2, I2

Which substance in redox reaction maintains only reduction properties?

Options
Nitrogen
Sulfur
Sodium
Phosphorus

Strongest oxidation agent, among simple substances is:

Options
Oxygen
Fluorine
Nitrogen
Aurum

Oxidation properties of substances increasing from left to right in line:

Options
C, S, O2
O2, S, C
Si, F2, I2
P, O2,S

Coefficient “2” before SO2 should be placed in redox reaction:

Options
Ag + HNO3 = Ag2SO4 + SO2 + H2O
Cu + H2SO4 = CuSO4 + SO2 + H2O
SO2 + H2S = S + H2O
SO2 + O2 = SO3

In redox reactions, Ag + HNO3 = AgNO3 + NO + H2O Cu + HNO3 = Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O NO2 + O2
+ H2O = HNO3 Mg + HNO3 = Mg(NO3)2 + NH4NO3 + H2O coefficient “4” before HNO3 should be
placed

Options
2,3,4
1,2,3
1,2,4
1,3,4

In process S+6→S-2, sulfur atoms are:

Options
Lose their electrons, oxidize
Receive electrons, oxidize
Lose their electrons, reduce
Receive electrons, reduce

In process N-3→N+2, sulfur atoms are:

Options
Lose their electrons, oxidize
Lose their electrons, reduce
Receive electrons, oxidize
Receive electrons, reduce

For process S-2→S+4 corresponds reaction:

Options
2NaOH + SO2 = Na2SO3 + H2O
2H2S + O2 = 2H2O + 2S
2H2S + 3O2 = 2H2O + 2SO2
Cu + 2H2SO4 = CuSO4 + 2SO2 + 2H2O

Process PbS→PbSO4 corresponds to:

Options
S+4 – 2e = S+6
S-2 – 8e = S+6
S0 + 2e = S-2
S0 + 4e = S-4

Which process reflects by 2O-1 – 2e = O20?

Options
H2O = H2 + O2
CuS + O2 = CuO + SO2
H2O2 + PbS = H2O + PbSO4
H2O2 + KMnO4 + H2SO4 = O2 + MnSO4 + K2SO4 + H2O

Which pair of half-reactions correct for Cl2 + KOH = KCl + KClO3 + H2O?

Options
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 3e = Cl+3
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 7e = Cl+7
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 5e = Cl+5
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 + 5e = Cl+5
Under oxidation, oxidation number of atom is

Options
Will decrease
Will increase
Stay same
Can increase and decrease

Process of reduction occurs when:

Options
Neutral atoms transforms into cations
Neutral atoms transforms into anions
Positive charge of simple ion increases
Negative charge of simple ion increases

Find reaction where oxidation agent receives 5 electrons.

Options
MnO2 + 4H+ = Mn2+ + 4H2O
MnO4 + 8H+ = Mn2+ + 4H2O
N2 + 4OH- = 2NO + 2H2O
N2 + 4 H2O = 2NH2OH + 2OH-

Under reduction, oxidation number of atom is

Options
Willincrease
Will decrease
Stay same
Can increase and decrease

Process of oxidation occurs when:

Options
Neutral atoms transforms into cations
Neutral atoms transforms into anions
Positive charge of simple ion decreases
Negative charge of simple ion

Find reaction where water is oxidation agent:

Options
Cl2 + H2O = HCl + HClO3
Ca + H2O = Ca(OH)2 + H2
CaC2 + H2O = Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
NO2 + H2O + O2 = HNO3

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of nitrogen changes from 0 to -2:


Options
N2 + 4H2O = N2H4 + 4OH-
N2 + 4H2O = 2NH2OH + 2OH-
N2 + 6H+ = 2NH3
N2 + 8H+ = 2NH4+

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of chlorine changes from 0 to +7:

Options
HCl + 2H2O = ClO2 + 5H+
Cl2 + 6H2O = 2ClO3- + 12H+
Cl2 + 8H2O = 2ClO4- + 16H+
2HCl + H2O = Cl2O + 4H+

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of chromium changes from +6 to 0:

Options
CrO42- + 4H+ = CrO2- + 2H2O
CrO42- + 4H2O = Cr(OH)3 + 5OH-
Cr2O72- + 14H+ = 2Cr3+ + 7H2O
Cr2O42- + 8H+ = Cr + 4H2O

Find reaction where hydrogen peroxide is reduction agent:

Options
H2O2 + 2H+ = 2H2O
H2O2 = O2 + 2H+
PbS + H2O2 = PbSO4 + H2O
Na2SO3 + H2O2 = Na2SO4 + H2O

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of phosphorus changes from +3 to 0:

Options
H3PO3 + 2H+ = H3PO2 + H2O
H3PO4 + 4H+ = H3PO2 + 2H2O
5НСlО3 + 6Р = 6Н3РО4 + 5НСl
PO43- + 2H2O = HPO32- + 2OH-
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Question
23. 23 (1/58)
24. 24
In25.
which
25 of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.H3PO4
28 and H2SO4
29.HCl
29 and HNO3
30.H2CO3
30 and HBr
31.HC2H3O2
31
and HI
32. 32
In33. 33 of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair weak acids?
which
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.H2SO4
36 and HC2H3O2
37. 37
HNO3 and H2C4H4O6
38. 38
39.HC2H3O2
39 and H3C6H5O7
40.H3PO4
40 and H2SiO3
41. 41
Which
42. 42of the following is produced in the first step of the dissociation of the acid H3PO4?
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.H3PO3
45
46. 46
PrevH2PO4–
47. 47
SkipHPO42–
48. 48
NextPO43–
49. 49
50. ionization
Acid 50 constants give information about
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.The
53 strengths of acids.
54. 54
55.The
55 number of nonacidic hydrogens present in acids.
56.Whether
56 acids are polyprotic.
57.Whether
57 acids can neutralize bases
58. 58
In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

Options
H2SO4 and BaSO4
NaCl and NaOH
NH4Cl and KCl
HNO3 and KOH

In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base will react
in a molar ratio of

Options
One to one
One to three.
Three to one
Three to three.

A solution with a pH of 12.0 is

Options
Strongly acidic.
Weakly acidic
Weakly basic
Strongly basic

The pH of a solution for which [OH–] = 1.0 x 10–6 is

Options
1.00
8.00
6.00
–6.00

Which of the following does not describe an acidic solution?

Options
The pH is less than 7.0
The [OH–] is greater than 1.0 x 10–7
The [H3O+] is greater than the [OH–]
The [OH–] is 6.0 x 10–10

In which of the following pairs of salts will both members of the pair hydrolyze in water to give
solutions that are basic?

Options
NaCl and NaCN
NH4Cl and NH4NO3
KC2H3O2 and KCN
NaNO3 and Na2SO4

If the pH of a solution of a salt is 5.0, the salt must be one which could be formed from the
neutralization of

Options
A strong acid and a strong base.
A weak acid and a strong base.
A strong acid and a weak base.
HCl and NaOH.

If a solution is buffered at a pH of 8.0, then the addition of a small amount of acid will cause the
solution to have a pH of approximately

Options
6.0.
7.0.
8.0.
9.0.

A buffer solution could be prepared from

Options
NaCl and HCl
NaOH and HCl
KC2H3O2 and HC2H3O2.
NaCN and KCN

In which of the following pairings of compounds are both members of the pair strong
electrolytes?

Options
NaOH and NaCl
NH3 and HCl
KOH and H2CO3
NaCN and HCN

In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?

Options
HNO3 and HNO2
H2SO4 and H2SO3
HCl and HClO4
No correct response

Which of the following statements about weak acids is correct?

Options
Weak acids always contain C atoms
The percentage dissociation for weak acids is usually in the range of 40-60%.
Weak acid molecules readily lose their acidic hydrogen atoms.
No correct response

In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base will react
in a molar ratio of
Options
One to one
One to one
Three to one
Three to three

Which of the following equations represents an acid-base neutralization reaction?

Options
H2SO4 + Zn ZnSO4 + H2
HNO3 + KOH KNO3 + H2O
Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaOH
No correct response

In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

Options
NaCl and NaOH
KNO3 and K2SO4
H3PO4 and (NH4)3PO4
More than one correct response

Which of the following pairings of pH and hydronium ion concentration is correct?

Options
PH = 2.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 102
PH = 7.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 10–7
PH = 9.0; [H3O+] = 9 x 10–9
No correct response

Which of the following is a correct statement for a solution with a pH of 8.00?

Options
The hydroxide ion concentration is greater than the hydronium ion concentration
The hydronium ion concentration is 8.0 M
The hydroxide ion concentration is 1.0 x 10–8 M
No correct response

In which of the following salts would both the positive ion and the negative ion hydrolyze when
the salt is dissolved in water?

Options
NaCl
NaCN
NH4Cl
No correct response

The pH of a buffered solution

Options
Always equals 7.0.
May be acidic or basic depending on the buffer present.
Changes drastically when a small amount of acid is added
No correct response

Which of the following statements concerning electrolytes is correct?

Options
All strong acids are strong electrolytes
Some salts are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes.
Some molecular substances are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes
More than one correct response

Conjugate base of H3PO4

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Conjugate acid of HPO42–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Will form a buffer with PO43–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Reacts with H3O+ to form HPO42–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Diprotic weak acid

Options
HCl
HClO4
H2SiO3
H2SO4

Monoprotic strong acid

Options
HCl
HC2H3O2
H2C3H2O2
H2SO4

Acid which completely dissociates in solution to produce negative ions with a charge of one

Options
HCl
HC2H3O2
H2C3H2O2
H2SO4

Salt whose dissociation produces equal amounts of two ions

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance which reacts with H2SO4 to produce K2SO4

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance produced when HNO3 neutralizes NaOH

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance which reacts with NaOH to produce Na3PO4

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Salt whose dissociation produces more positive ions than negative ions

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

PH = 2.30

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

PH = 7.00

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

[H3O+] = 2.0 x 10–8 M

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

[OH–] = 3.0 x 10–-6 M

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaCl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaCN solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaOH solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NH4Cl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous HCl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Inorganic compounds divided in to:

Options
Simple, complex substances
Metals, nonmetals
Acid, base, salt, oxide
Metal, acid, simple substance

What is the oxides?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues.
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

What is the bases?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

What is the salts?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues

What is the acids?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen.
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

Complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them oxygen are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl group (OH) are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues are called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid residues are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Basic formula oxides?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula bases?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula salts?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula acids?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy
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Question (1/16)

Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the given….

Options
Protein
Lipids
Carbohydrate
Vitamins

In carbohydrates a special functional groups are present in the given following:

Options
Alcohol & Carboxyl groups
Aldehyde & Ketone groups
Hydroxyl groups & Hydrogen groups
Carboxyl groups & Others

Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of …

Options
L-type
PrevD-type
SkipDL-types
NextNone of the above

Simplest carbohydrate is ….

Options
Dihydroxy acetone
Glycerldehyde
Glucose
Gulose

Examples of Epimers….

Options
Glucose &Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
A&c
Fermentation is the degradation of complex organic substances into simpler ones by the activity
of living cells through the agency of ….

Options
Acid
Alkali
Oxidizing substances
Enzymes (Zymase)

The end product of hydrolysis of “Starch” by amylase is …

Options
Soluble starch
Glucose
Dextrins
Maltose

Structure or shape of something is known as its

Options
Structure
Morphology
Conformation
Shape

Glucose is a monosaccharide and is a

Options
Hexose
Pentose
Furanose
Sucrose

What is the relationship between glucose, mannose and galactose?

Options
They are isomers
They are epimers
They are ketoses
No relationship exists

What best describes amylose?

Options
Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

What best describes amylopectin?


Options
Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

What is the storage form of carbohydrate in animals?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch

Where is glycogen stored?

Options
In the kidney and liver
In the stomach and kidney
In the muscle and liver
In the muscle and stomach

What is the major constituent of plant cell wall?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch

What forms the exoskeleton of anthropods?

Options
Agarose
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch
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29. 29
Question (1/313)
30. 30
31. 31
Thermodynamics studies
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.General
34 laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
35.Energy
35 changes during chemical transformations.
36.The
36 rate of chemical reactions.
37.Chemical
37 processes that cause electrons to move.
38. 38
By39. 39
interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:
40. 40
Options
41. 41
42.Thermal
42 conductivity, Convection, Radiation
43.Heterogeneous,
43 homogeneous
44.Open,
44 Closed, Isolated
45.Isochoric,
45 Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
46. 46
What
47. 47is the Open System?
48. 48
Options
49. 49
50.Matter
50 and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
51.Energy
51 but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
52.Neither
52 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
53.Homogeneous
53 in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
54. 54
What
55. 55is the Closed System?
56. 56
Options
57. 57
Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
58. 58
Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
59. 59
PrevEnergy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
60. 60
Skip
61.Neither
61 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
Next
62. 62
What is the Isolated System?
63. 63
64. 64
Options
65.Matter
65 and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
66. 66
Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
67. 67
Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
68. 68
Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
69. 69
70. 70
Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
71. 71
72. 72
Options
73.Open
73 System
74.Closed
74 System
75.Isolated
75 System
76.Adiabatic
76 System
77. 77
Energy
78. 78but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
79. 79
Options
80. 80
81.Open
81 System
82.Closed
82 System
83.Isolated
83 System
84.Adiabatic
84 System
85. 85
Neither
86. 86 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
Open System
89. 89
90.Closed
90 System
91.Isolated
91 System
92.Adiabatic
92 System
93. 93
Thermodynamic processes may be:
94. 94
95. 95
Options
96. 96
Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
97. 97
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
98. 98
Open, Closed, Isolated
99. 99
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
100. 100
101. 101
What is the Isothermal process?
102. 102
103. 103
Options
104.A 104
process during which the temperature T = const
105.A 105
process during which the pressure P = const
106.A 106
process during which the specific volume v = const
107. 107
A process during which the heat Q = 0
108. 108
109. 109
What is the Isobaric process?
110. 110
Options
111. 111
112.A 112
process during which the temperature T = const
113.A 113
process during which the pressure P = const
114.A 114
process during which the specific volume v = const
115.A 115
process during which the heat Q = 0
116. 116
What
117. 117
is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?
118. 118
Options
119. 119
120.A 120
process during which the temperature T = const
121.A 121
process during which the pressure P = const
122.A 122
process during which the specific volume v = const
123.A 123
process during which the heat Q = 0
124. 124
What
125. 125
is the adiabaticprocess?
126. 126
Options
127. 127
128.A 128
process during which the temperature T = const
129.A 129
process during which the pressure P = const
130.A 130
process during which the specific volume v = const
131.A 131
process during which the heat Q = 0
132. 132
A133.
process
133 during which the temperature T = const is called?
134. 134
Options
135. 135
Isothermal process
136. 136
137.Isobaric
137 process
138.Isochoric
138 (or isometric) process
139.Adiabaticprocess
139
140. 140
A process during which the pressure P = const is called?
141. 141
142. 142
Options
143. 143
Isothermal process
144. 144
Isobaric process
145. 145
146.Isochoric
146 (or isometric) process
147.Adiabaticprocess
147
148. 148
A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?
149. 149
150. 150
Options
151.Isothermal
151 process
152. 152
Isobaric process
153. 153
Isochoric (or isometric) process
154. 154
Adiabaticprocess
155. 155
156.basic
The 156 formula for Entropy;
157. 157
Options
158. 158
159.Q=∆U+A
159
160.H=U+pV
160
161.∆U161
= U(final) – U(initial)
162.S 162
= KlnW
163. 163
164. 164movement of colloidal particles is:
Chaotic
165. 165
Options
166. 166
167.Osmosis;
167
168.Diffusion;
168
169.Brownian
169 motion;
170.Coagulation
170 .
171. 171
Find
172. the
172 formula of Internal energy.
173. 173
Options
174. 174
175.Q=∆U+A
175
176.H=U+pV
176
177.∆U177
= U(final) – U(initial)
178. 178
∆S = S(initial) - S(final)
179. 179
180. 180energy is called?
Internal
181. 181
Options
182. 182
183.Sum
183of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
184.Heat
184 flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
185.Reactions
185 accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
186.The
186rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
187. 187
Colloidal
188. 188 dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:
189. 189
Options
190. 190
191.Aerosol;
191
192.Emulsion;
192
193.Sol;
193
194.Foam
194
195. 195
Sum
196. of
196all potential and kinetic energies of all components
197. 197
Options
198. 198
Internal energy
199. 199
Enthalpy
200. 200
201.Entropy;
201
Exothermic
202. 202 process
203. 203
Fog and smoke are:
204. 204
205. 205
Options
206. 206
Aerosols;
207. 207
Emulsions;
208. 208
Gels;
209. 209
Foams
210. 210
211. 211 is called?
Enthalpy
212. 212
213. 213
Options
214.Sum
214of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
215.Heat
215 flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
216. 216
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
217. 217
The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
218. 218
219.consists
Sol 219 of:
220. 220
Options
221. 221
222.Liquid
222 droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
223.Solid
223 particles dispersed throughout a gas;
224.Solid
224 particles dispersed in a liquid;
225.Liquid
225 droplets dispersed throughout another liquid
226. 226
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
227. 227
228. 228
Options
229. 229
Internal energy
230. 230
231.Enthalpy
231
Entropy
232. 232
233.Exothermic
233 process
234. 234
Stability of a disperse system is:
235. 235
236. 236
Options
237. 237
Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and
238. 238
viscosity;
239. 239
Process of particles integration;
240. 240
Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
241. 241
242.Constancy
242 in time of its state and main properties.
243. 243
The heat transfer are divided into
244. 244
245. 245
Options
246.Thermal
246 conductivity, Convection, Radiation
247. 247
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
248. 248
Open, Closed, Isolated
249. 249
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
250. 250
251. 251 stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:
Aggregate
252. 252
Options
253. 253
254.Coalescing
254 of particles;
255.Sedimentation
255 of particles;
256.Destruction
256 of particles;
257. 257
Subdivision of particles.
258. 258
259. 259
What is the thermal conductivity?
260. 260
Options
261. 261
262.The
262material to conduct heat.
263.Heat
263 is transferred from one place to another.
264.The
264radiation transmitted even void (sun).
265.None
265 of them.
266. 266
What is the convection?
267. 267
268. 268
Options
269. 269
270.The
270material to conduct heat.
271.Heat
271 is transferred from one place to another.
272.The
272radiation transmitted even void (sun).
273.None
273 of them.
274. 274
The
275.structure
275 of ironic hydroxide sol:
276. 276
Options
277. 277
278.{m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
278
279.{m[BaSO4]
279 n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
280.{m[BaSO4]
280 n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
281.{m[Au]
281 n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.
282. 282
What is the radiation?
283. 283
284. 284
Options
285. 285
The material to conduct heat.
286. 286
287.Heat
287 is transferred from one place to another.
288.The
288radiation transmitted even void (sun).
289.None
289 of them.
290. 290
According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
291. 291
292. 292
Options
293. 293
Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
294. 294
Precipitate and water;
295. 295
Mixture of gases;
296. 296
297.Atoms
297 and ions.
298. 298
Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?
299. 299
300. 300
Options
301.Julius
301 Robert von Mayer
302.Rudolf
302 Clausius
303. 303
Mendeleev
304. 304
Gibbs
305. 305
306. 306 phase of sparkling drinks is:
Disperse
307. 307
Options
308. 308
309.N2;
309
310.H2O;
310
311.CO2;
311
312. 312
O2.
313. 313
Aerosol is:

Options
Powder;
Dust cloud;
Hairspray;
All answers are right.

Biological gel is:

Options
Cartilage;
Air;
Clouds;
River water

The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:

Options
These are heterogeneous systems;
Particles are visible with the naked eye;
They are easily besieged;
All answers are right.

Coarse disperse system is:

Options
Solution;
Suspension;
Sol;
Gel.

Chromatography is:

Options
The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
A type of disperse systems;
A continuous phase;
The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:

Options
Surface tension;
Surface energy;
Internal energy;
Heat of dissolution.

Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:

Options
Fog;
Dust;
Smoke;
Steam.

Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:

Options
Color;
Transparence;
Size of particles;
Odor.

Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

Options
Liquid;
Solid;
Gas;
All answers are right

What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?

Options
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a
liquid;
On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

Options
Coarse dispersed;
Colloidal;
Molecular;
True solution.

Coagulation is:

Options
Chaotic movement of particles;
Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;
Destruction of the native protein structure;
The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby
separate from the continuous phase.

Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

Options
Viscosity, flowability;
Opalescence, light absorption;
Diffusion, Brownian motion;
Dissolution, swelling.

Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

Options
Opalescence;
Light absorption;
Electrodialysis;
Electrophoresis and electroosmosis
A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

Options
Negatively charged;
Positively charged;
Electro neutral;
Negatively and positively charged.

Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

Options
Diameter
Particle size
Radius
Solubility

The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

Options
Suspension> colloidal > true solution
True solution > suspension > colloidal
Suspension> colloidal = true solution
None of the above

Colloids can be purified by

Options
Peptization
Coagulation
Dialysis
Bredic arc method

Which is a natural colloid?

Options
Sodium chloride
Urea
Cane sugar
Blood

Which one of the following is not a colloid

Options
Milk
Blood
Ice cream
Urea solution

Milk is a colloid in which

Options
A liquid is dispersed in liquid
A solid is dispersed in liquid
A gas is dispersed in liquid
Some sugar is dispersed in water

An aerosol is a colloidal system of

Options
A liquid dispersed in a solid
A liquid dispersed in a gas
A gas dispersed in air
None of the above

Which of the following is a homogeneous system

Options
Muddy water
Bread
Concrete
A solution of sugar in water

Which of the following is an emulsifier?

Options
Soap
Water
Oil
NaCl

Lyophobic colloids are

Options
Reversible colloids
Irreversible colloids
Protective colloids
Gum proteins

Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

Options
Condensation
Dialysis
Diffusion through animal membrane
Addition of an electrolyte

Colloidal solutions are not purified by

Options
Dialysis
Electrodialysis
Ultrafiltration
Electrophoresis

Suspensions are

Options
Visible to naked eye
Not visible by any means
Invisible under electron microscope
Invisible through microscope

Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

Options
Gelatin
Sulphur
Gold
Carbon

Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

Options
Lyophilic sol
Associated colloid
Hydrophobic sol
Emulsion

The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

Options
Charge on their particles
A layer of medium of dispersion on their particles
The smaller size of their particles
The large size of their particles

Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

Options
The colloidal particles have positive charge
The colloidal particles have negative charge
The colloidal particles are solvated
There are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

Options
High concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained
Coagulation is reversible
Viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water
The charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive,
negative, or even zero
When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

Options
Light scattered by colloidal particles
Size of the particle
Shape of the particle
Relative size

Light scattering takes place in

Options
Solution of electrolyte
Colloidal solutions
Electrodialysis
Electroplating

Maximum coagulation power is in

Options
Na+
Ba2+
Al3+
Sn4+

The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

Options
Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+
Cl- , SO42- , PO43-
Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+
PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

Options
NaCl solution
Starch solution
Urea solution
FeCl3 solution

Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

Options
Linear
Curved
Zigzag
Uncertain

The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

Options
Photolysis
Dialysis
Pyrolysis
Peptisation

Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known as

Options
Electrolysis
Electrophoresis
Electrodyalysis
None of the above

Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the particles?

Options
Dialysis
Electrophoresis
Sedimentation
Ultrafiltration

Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

Options
Absorption
Tyndall effect
Flocculation
Paramagnetism

Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

Options
Accumulates in the surface of the other substance
Goes into the body of the other substance
Remains close to the other substance
Forms chemical bonds with other substences.

Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

Options
Colloidal S
Colloidal antimony
Colloidal gold
Colloidal platinum

As2S3 sol is

Options
Positive colloid
Negative colloid
Neutral colloid
None of the above

Which of the following is a colloid?

Options
Sugar solution
Urea solution
Silicic acid
NaCl solution

Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

Options
Smoke
Ink
Blood
Air

Milk is

Options
Fat dispersed in milk
Fat dispersed in water
Water dispersed in fat
Water dispersed in oil

Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

Options
Solid is dispersed in liquid
Liquid is dispersed in a solid
Gas is dispersed in a solid
Solid is dispersed in a solid

What is the endothermic process?

Options
Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

What is the exothermic process?

Options
Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


Options
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
Open, Closed, Isolated
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
Endothermic reactions

Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

Options
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
Open, Closed, Isolated
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
Exothermic reactions

Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Q= ΔU+ W

Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
Q= ΔU+ W
ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Q= ΔU+ W

System consisting of three phases is called

Options
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Isolated
Open

System consisting of one phase is called

Options
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Isolated
Open

What is the heterogeneous system?

Options
System consisting of three phases is called
Heat is transferred from one place to another.
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
System consisting of one phase is called

What is the homogeneous system?

Options
System consisting of three phases is called
Heat is transferred from one place to another.
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
System consisting of one phase is called

What are the units of energy?

Options
Volta
Pascal
Liter
Joule

Spontaneous process occurs only

Options
Without external energy
At constant temperature
In forward direction
With external energy help

Internal energy is ……

Options
Energy of system at constant pressure
Gibbs energy
Energy of system at constant volume
Measure of systems randomness

Enthalpy is expressed by following

Options
H = U + pV
∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
H = G + TS
Qp = ∆H
Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Options
A
G
Qp
H

Find state parametre

Options
Q
G
T
H

Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Options
Q
G
Qp
S

Find state parameter

Options
Q
G
V
H

For spontaneous processes

Options
∆H ≥ 0
∆S ≤ 0
∆G ≥ 0
∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics studies –

Options
Energy changes during chemical transformations.
The rate of chemical reactions.
General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
Of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

Butter is a colloid formed when

Options
Fat is dispersed in water
Fat globules are dispersed in water
Water is dispersed in fat
None of the above

Which of the following is not a colloid?

Options
Chlorophyll
Smoke
Ruby glass
Milk

Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?

Options
Monomolecular
Dimolecular
Trimolecular
Radical reaction

Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

Options
Muddy water
Bread
Concrete
A solution of sugar in water

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

Options
Monomolecular
Radical reaction
Dimolecular
Trimolecular

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

Options
Monomolecular
Dimolecular
Radical reaction
Trimolecular

What is the Monomolecular reaction?

Options
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

What is theDimolecular Reaction?

Options
Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Conjugate reactions.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

What is theTrimolecular reaction?

Options
Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
Reactions proceeding simultaneously.

A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

Options
Gel
Homogeneous solution
Sol
Aerosol

Enzymes isais a substance that …

Options
Increase the rate of reaction
Decrease the rate of reaction
Biological catalyst of reaction
No effect on the reaction rate

If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

Options
A sol
A gel
An emulsion
A foam

A substance that increases the reaction rate-

Options
Catalyst
Indicator
Inhibitor
Reducing agents.

A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as


Options
Foam
Sol
Aerosol
Emulsion

A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

Options
Catalyst
Inhibitor
Enzymes
Indicator

Reversible reactions are called?

Options
A change that can go forwards or backwards
A change that cannot go back,
Process of substance dissolution
Reactions proceeding in parallel

Irreversible reactions are called?

Options
A change that can go forwards or backwards
A change that cannot go back,
Reactions proceeding in parallel
Process of substance dissolution

The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

The reactions that cannot go back is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

A material that dissolves is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

Which of these reactions are monomolecular

Options
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
I2 → I • + I •

Which of these reactions are monomolecula

Options
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
Cl2 → 2Cl
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2

Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

Options
CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

Which of these reactions are dimolecular

Options
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
2HI → H2 + I2
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

Which of these reactions are dimolecular.

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
Which of these reactions are dimolecula

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
N2O4 → 2NO2

Emulsifiers are generally

Options
Soap
Synthetic detergents
Lyophilic sols
All of the above

The equilibrium constant for the reaction? 2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):

Options
Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2];
Kc = [CO2] / [CO];
Kc = 1 / [CO2];
Kc = [CO] / [CO2]

What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?2NO + O2→2NO2

Options
Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction? N2 +3H2 =
2NH3

Options
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is

Options
K= [O2]
K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
K= [NaNO3 ]

Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is

Options
K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
K = [CO2 ]
K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?

Options
Backward
Forward
Won’t shifted
Towards reactants

The rate constant of a reactions depends on

Options
Temperature
Initial concentration of the reactants
Time of reaction
Extent of reaction

The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the

Options
Concentration of the reactant
Concentration of the product
Time
Temperature

A catalyst is a substance which

Options
Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
Supplies energy to the reaction

The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

Options
Stability
Molecular weight
Equivalent weight
Active mass

In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

Options
Same
Different
One side more
Not definite

Butter is

Options
Emulsion
Aerosol
Suspension
None

A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

Options
Unequal
Constant
Equal
Increased

The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium is
termed as

Options
Aerosol
Gel
Emulsion
Foam

The law of mass action was enunciated by

Options
Guldberg and Waage
Bodenstein
Berthlot
Graham

Which one of an example of gel?

Options
Soap
Fog
Cheese
Milk
According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction will
N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

Options
Increase the yield of NO
Decrease by yield of NO
Not effect on the yield of NO
Not help the reaction to proceed

Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called

Options
Aerosol
Cannot be prepared
Gas aerosol
Gasosol

Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g) Why is the reaction slower when a single
piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the same mass is used?

Options
The powdered zinc is more concentrated;
The single piece of zinc is more reactive;
The powdered zinc requires less activation energy;
The powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

Options
Increases
Decreases;
Remains the same;
Approaches zero

Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

Options
The number of moles of the reactants and products;
The potential energies of the reactants and products;
The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;
The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.

When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is called

Options
Smoke
Clouds
Jellies
Emulsions
Milk is an example of

Options
Pure solution
Emulsion
Gel
Suspension

The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

Options
Electro-osmosis
Brownian movement
Cataphoresis
Dialysis

Tyndall effect will be observed in

Options
Solution
Precipitate
Sol
Vapour

Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

Options
Scattering of light
Reflection of light
Absorption of light
Presence of electrically charged particles

The Brownian motion is due to

Options
Temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase
Attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles
Impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles
Convective currents

The sky looks blue due to

Options
Dispersion effect
Reflection
Transmission
Scattering

The blue color of water in the sea is due to

Options
Refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water
Reflection of blue sky by sea water
Scattering of blue light by water molecules
Absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

Which colloid is used in treating eye disease

Options
Colloidal S
Colloidal antimony
Colloidal gold
Colloidal silver

Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

Options
Dialysis
Brownian movement
Electro-osmosis
Tyndall effect

In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

Options
Suspension
Emulsion
Sugar solution
Gold sol

Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

Options
Milk
Gum
Fog
Blood

Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

Options
Suspension
Emulsion
Gel
Rtue solution

The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

Options
Dialysis
Addition of electrolytes
Diffusion through animal membrane
Condensation

As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles abruptly
collected into spherical structures called _________

Options
Ball
Sphere of ions
Micelles
Dirt particle

_________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary
liquid induced by an external field.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?

Options
Minerals
Vitamins
Proteins
Starch

At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

Options
Molecular colloid
Associated colloid
Macromolecular colloid
Lyophillic colloid

Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

Options
Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration
Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
Aqueous solution of odium chloride
Aqueous solution of sugar

Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

Options
By addition of oppositely charged sol
By addition of an electrolyte
By addition of lyophilic sol
By boiling
Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

Options
Coagulation
Electrolysis
Diffusion
Peptisation

Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+

Options
Na2S
Na3PO4
Na2SO4
NaCl

A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

Options
Solid sol
Gel
Emulsion
Sol

The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison to those
shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles ____________

Options
Exhibit enormous surface area
Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
Form lyophilic colloids
Are comparatively less in number

Which element is present in all organic compounds?

Options
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Phosphorous

Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

Options
Low melting point
High melting point
Soluble in polar solvents
Insoluble in nonpolar solvents

Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is
Options
Slower because organic particles are ions
Slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds
Faster because organic particles are ions
Faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

Which compounds are isomers?

Options
1-propanol and 2-propanol
Methanoic acid and ethanoic acid
Methanol and methanal
Ethane and ethanol

Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

Options
Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.
Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.
Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms
Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms

Which polymers occur naturally?

Options
Starch and nylon
Starch and cellulose
Protein and nylon
Protein and plastic

What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?

Options
Butane
Butene
Benzene
Butyne

In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a regular

Options
Pyramid
Tetrahedron
Square
Rectangle

In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per molecule?

Options
C2H2 and C2H6
C2H2 and C3H6
C4H8 and C2H4
C6H6 andC7H8

A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

Options
Decrease;
Increase
Remain the same;
Approach zero

Which compound contain an alcohol group?

Options
Acetone
Methanale
Methanol
Dimethyl ether

In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

Options
Make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;
Add a catalyst;
Cool the reaction down;
Use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

Options
Water
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
Sulfur dioxide

Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) +
Cl-(aq)

Options
II only;
III only;
I and II only;
II and III only

Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
Ethane
Ethene
Ethyne
Ethanol
Molarity is expressed as

Options
Grams/litre
Litres/mole
Moles/litre
Moles/1000 gm

Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in

Options
1000 gm of the solvent
Onelitre of the solution
One litre of the solvent
22.4 litres of the solution

What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

Options
An addition reaction
A substitution reaction
A saponification reaction
An esterification reaction

Normality is expressed as

Options
Moles/litre
Gm equivalents/litre
Moles/1000 gm
Gram/litre

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

Options
1
2
3
4

The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

Options
1N
10 N
1.7 N
0.83 N

Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

Options
Acids
Alcohols
Esters
Ethers

Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

Options
1N
0x1N
4N
None

Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

Options
2-methylpropane
2-methylbutane
Propane
Butane

The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

Options
0x1
1
4
0.4

Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

Options
2.04 N
0.49 N
0.98 N
0.35 N

What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

Options
Ketone
Protein
Ester
Acid

What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?

Options
0.5 N
1.0 N
2.0 N
3.0 N

During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

Options
Boiling points
Melting points
Triple points
Saturation points

Which compound is an organic acid?

Options
CH3OH
CH3OCH3
CH3COOH
CH3COOCH3

Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different

Options
Percentage compositions;
Molecular masses;
Molecular formulas;
Structural formulas.

Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

Options
2N
4N
N/2
N/4

Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one additional carbon
atom and

Options
One hydrogen atom;
Two hydrogen atoms;
Three hydrogen atoms;
Four hydrogen atoms.

The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is ?

Options
0.46 N
0.23 N
2.3 N
4.6 N
The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has the same

Options
Empirical formula;
General formula;
Structural formula;
Molecular formula.

The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

Options
4g
1g
2g
10 g

What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?

Options
Methanol;
Methane;
Methyl methanoate;
Methanoic acid.

Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

Options
0.05 M
0.2 M
0.1 M
0.4 M

A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

Options
Toluene;
Benzene;
Butene;
Pentene.

The molarity of pure water is

Options
55.6
50
100
18

C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

Options
Addition;
Substitution;
Saponification;
Esterification.

The number of moles in 180 g of water is

Options
1
10
18
100

The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

Options
C3H7COCH3;
CH3COOC2H5;
C2H5OC2H5;
CH3COOH.

The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

Options
1
2
3
1.5

What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

Options
1
2
3
4

Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

Options
C2H6;
C3H6;
C4H6;
C6H6.

A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

Options
Carbon dioxide;
Water;
Glycerol;
Ethanol.

The general formula for the alkyne series is

Options
CnHn;
CnH2n;
CnH2n+2;
CnH2n-2.

Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

Options
0.1 M
0.5 M
0.01 M
1.0 M

Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

Options
Acetylene;
Ethylene;
Toluene;
Propene

What is the solution?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

Options
HCOOCH3;
CH3CH2COOH;
CH3CH2OH;
CH3COOCH3

What is the solute?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which compound is a member of the alkene series?


Options
Benzene;
Toluene;
Acetylene;
Ethane

What is the solvent?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

Options
Single covalent;
Double covalent;
Triple covalent;
Coordinate covalent

What is the concentration?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

Options
C2H4;
C3H6;
C4H8;
C5H10

A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

Options
An esterification reaction;
A neutralization reaction;
A saponification reaction;
A fermentation reaction.

Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is an
example of _______ reaction.

Options
Substitution;
Addition;
Polymerization;
Fermentation.

In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

Options
11
10
3
8

Which compound is an ester?

Options
CH3COOH;
CH3CHO;
CH3COOCH3;
CH3COCH3.

The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

Options
A polymer;
A soap;
An ester;
An alcohol.

Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures are called

Options
Isomers;
Isotopes;
Allotropes;
Homologs.
Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

Options
Structural formula;
Molecular formula
Number of carbon atoms;
Number of hydrogen atoms.

Mass fraction is called?

Options
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

Options
CH3COOH;
CH3CH2OH;
CH3CH2COOH;
CH3CH2CH2OH

Mass fraction is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

Options
An acid;
An alcohol;
An ester;
A hydrocarbon

Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order, has 1
more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

Options
1
2
3
4

Molar concentration is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The molar concentration of equivalent is called?

Options
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The molal concentration is:

Options
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

Molal concentration is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

Find volume concentration

Options
Mass percent
Normality
Molality
Mass fraction

Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature

Options
Vant Hoff
Mendeleev
Arrhenius
Lomonosov

Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid

Options
98
2
32
49

Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid

Options
98
2
32.6
49

Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide

Options
98
37
32
49

“Activation energy” term is introduced by

Options
Coordination theory
Theory of valent bonds
Theory of active collisions
Theory of electrolytic dissociation
When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

Options
Diluted solution
Saturated solution
Concentrated solution
Unsaturated solution

Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

Options
High concentration
Low concentration
High temeprature
Low temeprature

One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by a/an

Options
Base
Acid
Salt
Suspension

Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is

Options
Molality
Percentage
Concentration
Molarity

A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a

Options
Colloid.
Suspension
Solution.
Compound.

Which molecular formula represents pentene?

Options
C4H8;
C4H10;
C5H10;
C5H12.

The dissolving medium in the solution is the

Options
Solute
Solution.
Solvent.
Mixture.

A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

Options
Propanol;
Butanol;
Pentanol;
Glycerol

Which of the following is not a solution?

Options
Zinc
Sterling silver
Brass
Stainless steel

Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

Options
Organic acids;
Esters;
Alkynes;
Alkanes.

What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?

Options
Alcohol
Water
Sugar
Kerosene

Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

Options
C2H2;
C2H4;
C3H6;
C3H8.

Which of these solutions is in solid phase?

Options
Tincture of iodine
Aerosol
Air-iodine solution
Dental amalgam

Which of the following is not a property of solution?

Options
It has a definite composition.
It has a homogeneous composition.
It is consist of a single phase.
It can be physically separated into its components.

A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is

Options
Concentrated.
Dilute.
Unsaturated.
Saturated.

Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?

Options
Increasing the temperature
Increasing the pressure
Increasing the volume
Decreasing the pressure

What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?

Options
Vaporization and condensation
Dissolution and crystallization
Oxidation and reduction
Dissociation and reduction

Which formula represents an acid?

Options
CH3COOCH3;
CH3OH;
CH3COOH;
CH3CH2CH3.

Which solutions has concentration of 1M?  The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g.  A solution
containing

Options
342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution
Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and formic
acid. This type of reaction is called

Options
Fermentation;
Esterification;
Saponification;
Polymerization.

Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent.  Which solute will dissolve in it?

Options
Hexane
Sodium carbonate
Ethanol
Potassium chloride

Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

Options
C3H6;
C2H6;
C2H2;
C6H6.

Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

Options
Tetrahedral;
Planar triangular;
Linear;
Bent.

Most salt become soluble in water as the

Options
Pressure is increased.
Temperature is increased.
Temperature is decreased.
Pressure is decreased.

It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.

Options
Percent by mass
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction

Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

Options
Greater solubility in water;
More rapid reaction rates;
A tendency to form ions more readily;
Lower melting points.

The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is

Options
Percent by mass
Molality
Molarity
Mole fraction

Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

Options
-COOH;
-OR;
-CHO;
#NAME?

It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.

Options
Molarity
Normality
Dilution
Molality

In dilution of solution,

Options
A solute is added to the solution.
)solvent is added to the solution
The amount of moles increases.
Volume of solution decreases.

C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

Options
Substitution;
Addition;
Polymerization;
Esterification.

A 40% alcohol contains

Options
40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

The isomers of propanol differ in

Options
The number of carbon atoms;
The arrangement of the carbon atoms;
Molecular mass;
The position of functional group.

Solutions are:

Options
Isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
Homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
Homogeneous systems which contain at least two components
Heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

Which is the formula of an alcohol?

Options
Ba(OH)2;
HCHO;
CH3COOH;
C5H11OH.

Solubility of solids depends upon:

Options
Temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents;
Pressure;
Heat of solution;
All answers are right.

C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

Options
A carbohydrate;
An ester;
An organic acid;
An alcohol.

In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:

Options
Liquid, transparent, colored;
Solid, liquid, turbid;
Gaseous, liquid, solid;
Liquid, turbid, colored.
Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number of solute particles and not
their nature. They are:

Options
Vapor pressure lowering;
Density;
Viscosity;
Diffusion.

Which compound can have isomers?

Options
C2H4;
C2H2;
C2H6;
C4H8.

The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the
solution is defined as:

Options
The Henry’s law;
The Sechenov equation;
The Ostvald’s dilution law;
The Paul’s principle.

C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

Options
Polymerization;
Substitution;
Addition;
Esterification.

An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:

Options
Hemolysis;
Plasmolysis;
Swelling;
Precipitation.

Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:

Options
0.01M sucrose;
0.01 M sodium phosphate;
0.01 М potassium chloride;
0.01 M sodium carbonate.

Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?


Options
CCl2F2;
C2H2;
C2H5OH;
C2H5OC2H5.

The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:

Options
Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure
solvents;
Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure
solvents;
Boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile
solutes;
Boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile
solutes.

Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

Options
C3H8;
C3H7OH;
CH3COOH;
CH3COOCH3.
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Question (1/12)

What is the concentration of OH– in a solution with a H+ concentration of 1.3×10-4 M?

Options
7.7×10-10 M
7.7×10-9 M
7.7×10-11 M
7.7×10-12 M

Identify the triprotic acid from the following

Options
Carbonic acid
Bicarbonate
Glycine
Phosphoric acid

Which of the following acids has the lowest pKa value?

Options
Acetic acid
PrevSulphuric acid
SkipDil.HCl
NextOxalic acid

The degree of ionization does not depend on?

Options
Temperature
Current
Nature of solvent
Concentration

Aqueous solution of the detergents are

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Amphoteric

What makes water a liquid at room temperature?

Options
Hydrogen bonds between water molecules
Covalent bonding
Noncovalent interactions
Van der Waals forces of attraction

ΔG is negative for which of the following processes?

Options
Melting of ice and evaporation of water
Oxidation of nitrogen
Oxidation of gold
Burning of chlorine

ΔH is positive for which of the following processes?

Options
Oxidation of nitrogen
Melting of ice and evaporation of water
Oxidation of gold
Burning of chlorine

What is the factor that is responsible for salts like NaCl to dissolve in water easily?

Options
Decrease in entropy
Increase in entropy
Increase in enthalpy
Decrease in enthalpy

Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

Options
Oceans
Freshwater habitats
0.45% sodium chloride
Red blood cells placed in fresh water

Which of the following is a hypotonic solution?

Options
10% dextrose in water
0.45% sodium chloride
5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
Oceans

Which of the following is an isotonic solution?

Options
0.9% sodium chloride
0.45% sodium chloride
Oceans
10% dextrose in water
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Question
23. 23 (1/50)
24. 24
Why
25. pure
25 water is very weak electrolyte?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.It28
ionizes to a large extent
29.It29
ionizes to very small extent
30.It30
does not ionizes at all
31.It31
ionizes completely
32. 32
33. 33molecule is a highly polar solvent due to:
Water
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Presence
36 of two lone pair of electrons
37. 37
Presence of three lone pair of electrons
38. 38
39.Absence
39 of lone pair of electrons
40.None
40 of these
41. 41
When
42. 42acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Both
45 (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.
46.Both
Prev 46 (H+) and (OH) ions increases
47. 47
Skip(H+) increases and (OH-) decreases
48. 48
Next(H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.
49. 49
50. 50of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?
Buffer

Options
Weak acid + weak base in water
Strong acid + strong base in water.
Weak acid + strong base in water.
Strong acid + weak base in water.

Which among the following is not a property of buffer solution?

Options
It has a definite PH.
PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.
PH remains constant on keeping for a long time
It does not has a definite PH

Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?

Options
AgCl
BaSO4
CH3COOAg
None of these

The concentration of a sparingly soluble salt in its saturated solution at a given temperature is
known as:

Options
Solubility product
Solubility
Hydrolysis
Degree of hydrolysis

If ionic product < solubility product then the solution is:

Options
Unsaturated
Just saturated.
Super saturated
None of these

Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength?

Options
HCl < HBr < HI < HF
HF < HBr < HCl < HI
HI < HCl < HBr < HF
HF < HCl < HI < HBr.

Lewis acid is one that:

Options
Accepts an electron pair
Donates a proton
Accepts a proton
Donates an electron pair

HCO3- acts as:

Options
Acid
Base
Both acid and base
None of these

Which of the following act as Bronsted acid?

Options
HSO3-
HCO3-
Both a and b
None

An acid is one that donates a proton. This theory was given by:

Options
Lewis
Lowery – Bronsted
Arrhenius
Ostwald

If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:

Options
Weak electrolyte
Strong electrolyte
Strong base
None of these.

NH4Cl and aq.NH3 will precipitate.

Options
Cu2+
Fe3+
Na+
K+

10-4 M HCl solution at 298 K is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution will:

Options
Lie between 8 and 9
Remain unchanged
Lie between 6 and 7
Equal to 7

The conjugate base of methyl alcohol is:

Options
Hydroxyl ion
Methyl radical
Hydronium ion
Methoxide ion

Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?

Options
Equimolar solutions
Equinormal solution
Both a and b
None of these

The ionisation of a weak electrolyte increases when the concentration of the solution is decreased.
This relation is given by:

Options
Ostwald’s law
Arrhenius equation
Nernst’s equation.
Law of mass action.

Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:

Options
Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised
It has low molecular weight
Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.
It does not dissociates completely

Aqueous solution of potassium chlorate is:

Options
Amphoteric
Neutral
Alkaline
Acidic

Precipitation of salt occurs if:

Options
Ionic product = solubility product
Ionic product > solubility product
Ionic product < solubility product
None of these

Addition of HCl will suppress the ionisation of:

Options
Benzoic acid
Carbonic acid
Nitric acid
Both a and b
Basicity of an acid is defined as number of replicable:

Options
OH groups in its molecule
H atom in its molecule
Non-metal cations in its molecule
Non-metal anions in its molecule

NH3 and H20 can act as:

Options
Lewis acid and Bronsted base
Lewis base and Bronsted acid
Lewis and Bronsted base
Lewis and Bronsted acid.

What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of HOCl (ka
= 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

Options
7.0
3.2
7.3
4.5

A buffer solution is one that contains:

Options
A weak acid and its conjugate base
Strong base and its conjugate acid
Strong acid and its conjugate base
None of these

In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.

Options
Weak acid and strong base
Weak acid and weak base
Strong acid and strong base
Strong acid and weak base

Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:

Options
It is basic in nature
It is acidic in nature
Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base
Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.

Addition of a salt of weak acid and strong base to water would cause:
Options
Increase in pH.
PH remains same.
Decrease in pH
None of these.

Among the following which is a strong electrolyte and thus the best conductor of electricity?

Options
Sulphuric acid
Acetic acid
Boric acid
Phosphoric acids

Molarity of a solution is expressed as:

Options
The number of moles of a solute present in one litre of the solution
The number of moles of a solute present in 1000 gm of the solvent
The number of gram equivalent of solute present in one litre of solution
The ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute

Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

Options
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of boiling point
Freezing point
Depression in freezing point.

Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

Options
Camphor
Petrol
Acetone
Acetanilide

Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

Options
Obeys Raoult’s law.
Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero
There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.
Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

Options
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in
it
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

Options
Amount of solute
Nature of solute.
Amount of solvent
Nature of solvent

The unit of Cryoscopic constant is:

Options
Kelvin kg mol-1
Kelvin kg-1 mol-1
Kelvin kg mol+1
Kelvin kg+1 mol+1

Vant Hoff’s eqution for solution is:

Options
PV = n / RT
P = Vn / RT
PV = nRT
P = VnR / T

When osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:

Options
Equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute.
Equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.
Non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute
Non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute

Which among the following is true? i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling
point decreases.  ii. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point increases.  iii.
When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point decreases.  iv. When vapour
pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point increases.

Options
I & iii
I & iv.
Ii & iii
Ii & iv

Vapour pressure decreases with:


Options
Increase in concentration of the solution.
Decrease in solute particles in the solution
Decrease in boiling point.
Increase in freezing point.

Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:

Options
Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between
individual liquids
Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between
individual liquids.
Force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids
Force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.

If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:

Options
I=1
I>1
I=0
I<1

Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon number of
solute of particles present in the solution.  ii. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is
equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-electrolyte solute.

Options
I
Ii
Both i & ii
None of the above

Addition of common salt in water causes

Options
Increase in M.P of solution
Increase in B.P of solution
Decrease in B.P of solution
Decrease in both M.P & B.P

The value of Vant Hoff factor (i) = 2 is for:

Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Calcium chloride
Sodium chloride
Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

Options
An increase in melting point of the liquid
A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.
A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid
No change in the boiling point of the liquid.

Which of the following pair of liquids are immiscible?

Options
Acetone + water
Benzene + water.
Ethanol + water
Acetic acid + water

If the solvent boils at a temperature T1 and the solution at a temperature T2 , then the elevation of
boiling point is given by:

Options
T1 + T2
T1 – T2
T2 – T1.
None of the above
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Question
23. 23 (1/119)
24. 24
The
25.unit
25 of temperature in S.I. units is
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Centigrade
28
29.Celsius
29
30.Farhenheit
30
31.Kelvin
31
32. 32
33.unit
The 33 of mass in S.I. units is
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Kilogram
36
37. 37
Gram
38. 38
39.Tonne
39
40.Quintal
40
41. 41
The
42.unit
42 of time in S.I. units is
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Second
45
46. 46
PrevMinute
47. 47
SkipHour
48. 48
NextDay
49. 49
50.unit
The 50 of length in S.I. units is
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Meter
53
54. 54
55.Centimeter
55
Kilometer
56. 56
57.Millimeter
57
58. 58
The
59.unit
59 of energy in S.I. units is
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Watt
62
63.Joule
63
64.Joule/s
64
65. 65
66.Joule/m
66
67. 67
General gas equation is
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
PV=nRT
71. 71
72.PV=mRT
72
73.PV=C
73
74.PV=KiRT
74
75. 75
An76.
open76 system is one in which
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Mass
79 does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
80.Neither
80 mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
81. 81
Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
82. 82
83.Mass
83 crosses the boundary but not the energy
84. 84
An isolated system is one in which
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
88.Mas
88 does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
89.Neither
89 mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
90.Both
90 energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
91.Mass
91 crosses the boundary but not the energy
92. 92
93. 93of the following quantities is not the property of the system
Which
94. 94
Options
95. 95
96.Pressure
96
97.Temperature
97
98. 98
Specific volume
99. 99
100.Heat
100
101. 101
Mixture
102. 102of ice and water from a
103. 103
Options
104. 104
105.Closed
105 system
106.Open
106 system
107.Isolated
107 system
108.Heterogeneous
108 system
109. 109
If110.
∆H 110
value is less than zero than reaction will be
111. 111
Options
112. 112
113.Exothermic
113
114.Endothermic
114
115. 115
116.May
116or may not be Exothormic or Endothermic
117.None
117 of these
118. 118
119. 119
Which is true for a spontaneous endothermic process?

Options
∆H<0
∆G<0
∆S<0
∆G>0

A reaction has values of ∆H and ∆S which are both positive. The reaction

Options
Is spontaneous
Spontaneity is temperature dependent
Has an increasing free energy
Is non-spontaneous

Whenever a system undergoes either a change in state or an energy or mass transfer at a steady
state, it is said to undergo

Options
A change of state
A steady state transfer
A process
A thermodynamic change

A law which is applicable only to ideal vapours and liquids, that equates the equilibrium partial
pressures of a solution component in the coexisting phases, is known as

Options
Henry's law
Joule's law
Fick's law
Roult's law

An open system

Options
Is a specified region where transfers of energy and/or mass take place
Cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings
Is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries
Has a mass transfer across its boundaries, and the mass within the system is not necessarily

A system consisting of more than one phase is known as

Options
Open system
Isolated system
Closed system
Heterogeneous system

Second law of theromodynamics defines

Options
Heat
Enthalpy
Internal energy
Entropy

The internal energy of a substance depends on

Options
Temperature
Volume
Pressure
Entropy

At critical point the enthalpy of vaporisation is

Options
Only dependent on temperature
Zero
Maximum
Minimum

For a reversible adiabatic process the change in entropy is

Options
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinite

For any reversible process, the change in entropy of the system and surroundings is

Options
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinite

For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

Options
Positive
Negative
Infinite
Zero

In an isothermal process

Options
Temperature increases gradually
Volume remains constant
Change in internal energy is zero
Pressure remains constant

Which of the following is incorrect?

Options
The pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressure of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
The entropy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the entropies of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
The internal energy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum f the internal energies of the
indicudual components taken each at the temperature and the volume of the mixture
None of the above

If the ∆H° for the reaction, 2 Mg (s) + 2 Cl2 (g) → 2 MgCl2 (s), is -1283.6 kJ, what is the standard
enthalpy of formation of magnesium chloride?

Options
0 kJ/mol
-320.9 kJ/mol
-641.8 kJ/mol
1283.6 kJ/mol

Which of the following compounds will not undergo an acid-base (neutralization) reaction with
HClO4?

Options
NaOH
Sr(OH)2
NH3
H2SO4

The reaction below reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel. C6H12O6(s) = 2 C2H5OH(l) + 2
CO2(g), ∆Ho = −72 kJ Which of the following actions causes an increase in the value of Kc? (i)
adding some CO2(g) (ii) transferring the reaction mixture to a vessel of larger volume (iii)
increasing the temperature

Options
(i) only
(ii) only
(iii) only
None of the above
What is the coefficient of O2 when the following equation is balanced? C10H8(s) + x O2(g) → y
CO2(g) + z H2O(l)

Options
1
6
7
12

Natural oils, such as vegetable oil, are converted into solid, edible fats by a process called

Options
Fusion
Hydrogenation
Crystallization
Saponification

Which of the following is the strongest acid in water?

Options
HBr
HOBrO2
HF
HI

The heat of combustion of C(s) is −394 kJ/mol and that of CO(g) is −111 kJ/mol. What is the enthalpy
change for the reaction below? CO(g) → C(s) + ½ O2(g)

Options
505 kJ
283 kJ
111 kJ
−283 kJ

How are the boiling and freezing points of water affected by the addition of a soluble salt?

Options
The freezing and boiling points are both lowered.
The freezing and boiling points are both raised.
The freezing is lowered and the boiling point is raised.
The freezing is raised and the boiling point is lowered.

In which ionic compound does the cation have the same number of electrons as the anion?

Options
LiF
NaCl
CaO
MgF2
Which of the following compounds displays only covalent bonding?

Options
NH4OH
Li2O
HOCN
NaNO3

When temperature is increased, the rate of a reaction also increases. This observation is best
explained by

Options
An increase in the frequency of molecular collisions
A decrease in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
An increase in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
An increase in the fraction of molecules that have enough energy to react

For a given substance, which of the following phase transitions is the most exothermic?

Options
Solid → liquid
Gas → solid
Liquid → gas
Solid → gas

The following reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel at 200o C. CO(g) + 3 H2(g) →
CH4(g) + H2O(g), ΔHo = −206 kJ Which of the following actions causes the reaction to proceed from
left to right in order to restore equilibrium?

Options
Increasing the volume of the container, holding temperature constant
Adding some CH4 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
Adding some H2 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
Increasing the temperature, holding the pressure constant

In which of the following compounds does oxygen have the highest oxidation state?

Options
CsO2
H2O
O2
OF2

What is the formula of the stable compound formed by magnesium and nitrogen?

Options
MgN
Mg2N
Mg3N2
Mg2N3
Which of the following bonds is most polar?

Options
B−O
B-F
C-O
C=O

When the following equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients, what is
the coefficient of O2? NH3 + O2 → NO + H2O

Options
2
3
4
5

Which of the statements concerning the structure of benzene is false?

Options
The double bonds oscillate rapidly back and forth between adjacent pairs of carbon atoms.
The H-C-C angles are 120o
The carbon atoms form a flat hexagonal ring.
The oxidation state of carbon is −1.

Of the following compounds, which one contains nitrogen in an oxidation state of +5?

Options
NO2F
N2O3
NH4Cl
Mg3N2

To which process does the term sublimation refer?

Options
Solid to liquid
Liquid to solid
Solid to gas
Gas to solid

Each of two identical containers holds one mole of CH4gas and one mole SO2 gas, all at the same
temperature. Which of following statements is true?

Options
The SO2 gas has a higher pressure.
The CH4 gas has a greater density.
The SO2 molecules move, on average, faster than the CH4 molecules.
Deviations from ideal gas behaviour are smaller for the CH4 gas.
Which of the following has the same number of electrons as a water molecule?

Options
H2S
BH3
OH−
BeH2

What is the formula of magnesium sulfate?

Options
MgS
MgS2
Mg3S2
MgSO4

Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?

Options
HF
HCl
HBr
HI

Which of the following is a product of the reaction between H2SO4(aq) and NaOH(aq)?

Options
H2(g)
H+(aq)
H2O(l)
O2(g)

Which of the following species is not linear?

Options
O3
HCN
C2H2
NNO

Which of the following compounds has the greatest ionic character?

Options
IBr
CsF
HI
HF

What is the oxidation state of Cr in Li2CrO4?


Options
−6
−2
0
+6

Which of the following statements about H2SO3, a diprotic acid, is true?

Options
There is just one lone pair on the sulfur atom
It is a strong acid.
The hydrogen atoms are bonded directly to the sulfur atom
The oxidation state of sulfur is +6.

Which statement is not correct for the reaction below? 2 NO(g) ↔ N2(g) + O2(g)

Options
At equilibrium, the forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates
Reaction to the left or to the right occurs spontaneously until the equilibrium state is reached.
Reducing the volume of the system has no effect on the equilibrium amounts of NO, N2 and O2
The equilibrium value of [N2 ] [O2 ] / [NO]2 is the same at all temperatures

Which of the following is an ionic compound?

Options
HOCN
NH4NO2
CH3NH2
SiO2

Select the correct ending to make the following a true statement. A catalyst ...

Options
Lowers the energy of the products
Induces an alternate reaction pathway with a higher activation energy
Increases the frequency of collisions between molecules
Is not consumed by the overall reaction although it may be temporarily changed

How many electrons are needed to fill the 4f subshell of an atom?

Options
Two
Six
Ten
Fourteen

Which of the following bonds is the most polar?

Options
H−O
C−N
H−C
O−N

Which of the following have three unpaired electrons in their ground electronic states?

Options
The third period atoms (Na to Ar)
The group 3 atoms (B to Tl)
The group 15 atoms (N to Bi)
N3− and P3−

Which of the following statements concerning the nitrate ion, NO3−, is incorrect?

Options
The ONO bond angles are all 120o.
One of the nitrogen-oxygen bonds is shorter than the other two nitrogen-oxygen bonds.
The nitrogen atom has a formal charge of +1.
It is nonpolar.

Electronegativity is a measure of

Options
The magnitude of the charge of an electron
The energy released when an electron is added to an atom
The energy required to remove an electron from an atom
The ability of an atom to draw electron density towards itself

Which of the following is the weakest acid in water?

Options
H2S
H2Se
H2Te
HBr

Which of the following is always true of a spontaneous process?

Options
The process is exothermic
The process does not involve any work
The entropy of the system increases
The internal energy of the system decreasis

The equation ΔH= ΔU+PΔ V is applicable

Options
Always
Only for constant pressure processes
Only for constant temperature processes
Only for constant volume processes

What occurs as two atoms of fluorine combine to become a molecule of fluorine?

Options
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed.
A bond is formed as energy is released
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed
A bond is broken as energy is released

To break a chemical bond, energy must be

Options
Absorbed
Destroyed
Produced
Released

As two chlorine atoms combine to form a molecule, energy is

Options
Absorbed
Released
Created
Destroyed

As energy is released during the formation of a bond, the stability of the chemical system
generally will

Options
Decrease
Increase
Remain the same
Absorbed

Which element has an atom with the greatest tendency to attract electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
Carbon
Chlorine
Silicon
Sulfur

Which term indicates how strongly an atom attracts the electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
Alkalinity
Atomic mass
Electronegativity
Activation energy

Which formula represents a substance with the greatest degree of ionic bonding?

Options
PBr3
MgBr2
NH3
CO

An ionic compound is formed when there is a reaction between the elements

Options
Strontium and chlorine
Hydrogen and chlorine
Nitrogen and oxygen
Sulfur and oxygen

Which type of bond is formed when electrons are transferred from one atom to another?

Options
Covalent
Ionic
Hydrogen
Metallic

Which compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds?

Options
CaCO3
PCl3
MgF2
CH2O

Which of the following solids has the highest melting point?

Options
H2O(s)
Na2O(s)
SO2(s)
CO2(s)

What is the total number of electron pairs shared between the two atoms in an O2 molecule?

Options
1
2
6
4
A molecular compound is formed when a chemical reaction occurs between atoms of

Options
Chlorine and sodium
Chlorine and yttrium
Oxygen and hydrogen
Oxygen and magnesium

Which characteristic is a property of molecular substances?

Options
Good heat conductivity
Good electrical conductivity
Low melting point
High melting point

Magnesium nitrate contains chemical bonds that are

Options
Covalent, only
Ionic, only
Both covalent and ionic
Neither covalent nor ionic

A solid substance is an excellent conductor of electricity. The chemical bonds in this substance are
most likely

Options
Ionic, because the valence electrons are shared between atoms
Ionic, because the valence electrons are mobile
Metallic, because the valence electrons are stationary
Metallic, because the valence electrons are mobile

Which substance contains metallic bonds?

Options
Hg(l )
H2O( l)
NaCl(s)
C6H12O6(s)

Silicon dioxide (SiO2) and diamonds are best described as

Options
Molecular substances with coordinate covalent bonding
Molecular substances with ionic bonding
Network solids with covalent bonding
Network solids with ionic bonding

Which compound has hydrogen bonding between its molecules?


Options
CH4
CaH2
KH
NH3

Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule?

Options
CH4
HCl
H2O
NH3

Which statement explains why a molecule of CH4 is nonpolar?

Options
The bonds between the atoms in a CH4 molecule are polar
The bonds between the atoms in a CH4 molecule are ionic
The geometric shape of a CH4 molecule distributes the charges symmetrically.
The geometric shape of a CH4 molecule distributes the charges asymmetrically

Hydrogen bonding is a type of

Options
Strong covalent bond
Weak ionic bond
Strong intermolecular force
Weak intermolecular force

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: Cl2 → Cl + Cl What occurs during this
reaction?

Options
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed
A bond is broken as energy is released
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed
A bond is formed as energy is released

Which statement describes what occurs as two atoms of bromine combine to become a molecule
of bromine?

Options
Energy is absorbed as a bond is formed
Energy is absorbed as a bond is broken
Energy is released as a bond is formed
Energy is released as a bond is broken

Which of these elements has an atom with the most stable outer electron configuration?
Options
Ne
Cl
Ca
Na

When a sodium atom reacts with a chlorine atom to form a compound, the electron configurations
of the ions forming the compound are the same as those in which noble gas atoms?

Options
Krypton and neon
Krypton and argon
Neon and helium
Neon and argon

Which element has an atom with the greatest attraction for electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
As
Bi
N
P

Based on electronegativity values, which type of elements tends to have the greatest attraction for
electrons in a bond?

Options
Metals
Metalloids
Nonmetals
Noble gases

Which bond is least polar?

Options
As–Cl
Bi–Cl
P–Cl
N–Cl

Which formula represents an ionic compound?

Options
H2
CH4
CH3OH
NH4 Cl

Which type of bond results when one or more valence electrons are transferred from one atom to
another?
Options
A hydrogen bond
An ionic bond
A nonpolar covalent bond
A polar covalent bond

Based on bond type, which compound has the highest melting point?

Options
CH3OH
C6H14
CaCl2
CCl4

The environment in which a system is studied is

Options
State function
Phase
Surrounding
State

Unit of heat in SI system is

Options
J
KCaL
Cal
Kg

Total energy of a system is

Options
P.E + K.E
P.E + heat energy
K.E + heat energy
P.E + mechanical energ

CuSO4 + Zn ZnSO4+Cu is

Options
Spontaneous reaction
Non-spontaneous reaction
Endothermic
Exothermic

State function the macroscopic property of system depends upon

Options
Path of reaction
Initial state
Initial and final state
Final state

When enthalpy formation of reactants is higher than product then reaction will be

Options
Endothermic
Spontaneous
Non-spontaneous
Exothermic

Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by

Options
Calorimeter
Manometer
Barometer
Manometer

Enthalpy of combustion for food fuel and other compounds can be measured accurately by

Options
Calorimeter
Bomb calorimeter
Thermometer
Manometerv

Most of thermodynamic parameters are

Options
System
Surrounding
Phase
State functions

Change in enthalpy (H) of a system can be calculated by following relationship

Options
∆H=∆E+P∆V
∆H=∆E-PV
∆H=∆E-q
∆H=∆E+q

Two fundamental ways to transfer energy are

Options
Pressure and temperature
Pressure and volume
Heat and work
Heat and volume

Which of the following processes has always ∆H = -ve

Options
Formation of compoun
Combustion
Dissolution of ionic compound
Dilution of a solution

A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?

Options
Isothermal process
Isobaric process
Isochoric (or isometric) process
Adiabatic process

Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?

Options
Julius Robert von Mayer
Rudolf Clausius
Vant Hoff
Gibbs

Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:

Options
Q=∆U+W
H=U+pV
∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
S = KlnW

Choose thermochemical reactions:

Options
2H2(g) + O2(g) = H2O(g)
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g) -180,8kJ
PbS + H2O2 = PbSO4 + H2O
Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 = BaSO4 + 2NaOH

Enthalpy of reaction depends on: 1.Physical state of substances 2.Chemical quantity of substances
3.Temperature 4.Nature of substances

Options
1,2,3
2,3,4
1,2,3,4
1,3,4

From reaction: CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g) – 157 kJ, find enthalpy of reaction, if m(CaCO3) = 1 kg.

Options
+1570
-1570
+785
-785

If ΔG>0, then process:

Options
Spontaneous
Nonspontaneous
Exothermic
Endothermic

If ΔG<0, then process:

Options
Spontaneous
Nonspontaneous
Exothermic
Endothermic

If ∆H>0, then process…

Options
Endothermic
Exothermic
Exergonic
Endergonic

If ∆H<0, then process…

Options
Endothermic
Exergonic
Exothermic
Endergonic
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23. 23 (1/127)
24. 24
As25.
compared
25 to its parent alkane, an alkyl radical contains
26. 26
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27. 27
28.One
28 less carbon
29.One
29 less hydrogen
30.One
30 more carbon
31.One
31 more hydrogen
32. 32
33. of
Rate 33reaction of organic compounds is slow due to
34. 34
35. 35
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36.Ionic
36 bonding in them
37. 37
Amphoteric nature
38. 38
39.Covalent
39 bonding
40.Coordinate
40 covalent bonding
41. 41
In42.
naming
42 alkane stem tells about the
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Number
45 of hydrogen atoms
46.Number
Prev 46 of oxygen atoms
47. 47
SkipNumber of carbon atoms
48. 48
NextNumber of bonds
49. 49
50. 50
Self-linking ability of carbon is called
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Catenation
53
54. 54
55.Sublimation
55
Hydrogenation
56. 56
57.Carbonation
57
58. 58
Almost
59. 5995% of compounds are of carbon because it can form
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Single
62 bonds
63.Double
63 bonds
64.Triple
64 bonds
65. 65
66.Multiple
66 bonds
67. 67
Only one benzene ring is present in compounds of
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
Aryl
71. 71
72.Acryl
72
73.Carboxylic
73
74.Ketone
74
75. 75
Substances
76. 76 which are basis of human life on earth are
77. 77
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78. 78
79.Atom
79
80.Molecules
80
81. 81
Matter
82. 82
83.Organic
83 compounds
84. 84
For complex molecules, a chemist usually represents a molecule by
85. 85
86. 86
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87. 87
88.Molecular
formula
88
89.Skeletal
89 formula
90.Structural
90 formula
91.B 91
and c
92. 92
93. optical
Two 93 isomers are formed from carbon atoms to create bond
94. 94
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95. 95
96.4 96
atoms
97.2 97
atoms
98. 98
1 atom
99. 99
100.3 100
atoms
101. 101
Element
102. 102that is backbone of organic molecules is
103. 103
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104. 104
105.Carbon
105
106.Hydrogen
106
107.Oxygen
107
108.All
108
of them
109. 109
110. 110chemistry is the study of
Organic
111. 111
Options
112. 112
113.Any
113compound from any living thing.
114.Carbon-containing
114 compounds that were formed by living things.
115. 115
116.Any
116compound with carbon as the principal element.
117.Noneoftheabove.
117
118. 118
119. 119can form many different compounds because it can
Carbon
120. 120
121. 121
Options
122.Make
122 a molecule in the shape of a cube, tetrahedron, or cylinder.
123. 123
Combine with other carbon atoms in addition to other elements
124. 124
125.Combine
125 with more metals than other elements.
126.Combine
126 with more nonmetals than other elements.
127. 127
A hydrocarbon is an organic compound consisting of

Options
Water and carbon.
Any number of elements as long as they include carbon and hydrogen.
Carbon and hydrogen.
Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

A hydrocarbon with two double covalent bonds between carbon atoms is a (an)

Options
Alkane.
Alkene.
Alkyne.
Aromatic hydrocarbon.

Organic compounds called isomers have

Options
The same molecular formulas but different physical structures.
Different molecular formulas with the same physical structures.
Different molecular formulas with the same chemical properties.
Noneoftheabove.

The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of octane is

Options
1
2
4
8

Organic compounds called aromatic hydrocarbons are compounds that

Options
Have a wonderful odor.
Are based on the benzene rings structure.
Occur in nature with all carbons bonds saturated
Occur in nature with all carbon bonds unsaturated.

A gasoline mixture of hydrocarbons that burns very rapidly has

Options
A low octane number.
A high octane number.
Many branched chains.
Smaller hydrocarbon molecules.

An organic molecule with a general formula of ROH is a (an)

Options
Ether.
Alcohol.
Organic acid.
Ester.

An organic molecule with a general formula of RCOOH is a (an)

Options
Ester.
Organic acid.
Ketone.
Aldehyde.

The characteristic odor and taste of fruit such as bananas, oranges, and pineapples comes from
certain

Options
Ketones.
Ethers.
Aldehydes.
Esters.

The human body breaks down starches to

Options
Monosaccharides.
Simple sugars.
Glucose.
Any of the above.

The direct reserve source of energy in the muscles of a human is

Options
Glycol.
Glycerol.
Glycogen.
Dextrose.
All proteins are made up of a side chain and

Options
Alpha-amino acid.
Amine.
A nitrogen atom.
Peptide.

Fats and oils are esters formed from three fatty acids and glycerol into a (an)

Options
Alpha-amino acid.
Polysaccharide.
Triglyceride.
Disaccharide.

Which of the following is a polymer?

Options
Cellulose
Polyethylene
Wool
All are polymers

Which of the following is not true about benzene?

Options
It is a dark brown liquid in its natural state.
It does not mix with water.
It has a strong odor.
It can be used as a solvent.

An alkane with 3 carbon atoms would have how many hydrogen atoms in the molecule?

Options
4
6
8
10

The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for

Options
A reactive atom.
A separate functional group.
Any hydrocarbon group.
The right side of the molecule.

When wine "goes bad," the ethanol is converted into


Options
CH3COOH.
CH3 OCH3.
CH3CH2OH.
CH3OH.

Which of the following compounds cannot exist?

Options
C2H3
C2H4
C3H8
C4H10

Assuming straight-chain compounds, which of the following will have the highest boiling point?

Options
C3H8
C7H16
C11H24
They all have the same boiling point

Fractional distillation

Options
Is a basic process used in petroleum refining.
Involves heating crude oil and condensing the vapors at different temperatures.
When applied to crude oil can produce such products as gasoline, kerosene, and lubricating oil
stock.
All of the above are true.

Which of the following molecules has the highest carbon to hydrogen ratio?

Options
Ethane
Ethane
Methane
Acetylene

Supporting the idea that the origin of life was the result of natural processes is the fact that

Options
Amino acids and other complex organic molecules have been found in meteorites and comets.
In the laboratory amino acids, fatty acids, nitrogen bases, and other compounds can be formed
under simulated early Earth conditions.
The early Earth had oceans full of chemicals that may have been interacting to form organic
compounds.
All of the above are true.

Which of the following underlined atoms is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond acceptor?
Options
Amide nitrogen (RNHCOR')
Aniline nitrogen (ArNH2)
Amine nitrogen (RNH2)
Carboxylate oxygen (RCO 2-)

Which of the following underlined protons is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond donor?

Options
Alcohol (ROH)
Amine (RNH2)
Phenol (ArOH)
Ammonium ion (RNH3+)

Which of the following functional groups is most likely to participate in a dipole-dipole


interaction?

Options
Aromatic ring
Ketone
Alcohol
Alkene

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Octane
Heptane
Pentane
Hexane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Butane
Heptane
Pentane
Decane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethilhexane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2-bromo-2-methylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylpenthane
2-chloro-3-methylhexane
2,3-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
2,3-dimethylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethylbutane
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
3-methylpentane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
3-methylpentane
2-chloro-3-methylhexane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:


Options
Cis-1-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
Trans- ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,2-dichloro-3-methylpenten
Trans- 4-ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,3-dimethyl-2-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methilpenthen
Trans- 4-chloro-6-methil-3-heptahe
3,3-dimethil-2-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
Trans- 4-chloro-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

Name the following compounds:


Options
5-methil-3-heptyne
4- pentyne
3-methil-2-hexyne
3-methyle-4-heptene

Name the following compounds:

Options
4-methil-3-heptyne
1- pentyne
3-methil-2-hexyne
4-chloro-1-butyne

Name the following compounds:

Options
5-methil-3-heptyne
4- pentyne
4-methil-2-hexyne
2-ethyl-3-pentyne

Name the following alcohols.

Options
4-methil-4-pentanol
2-butanol
1-propanol
2-methil-2-propanol

Name the following alcohols

Options
4-methil-2-pentanol
2-butanol
1-propanol
2-methil-2-propanol

Name the following aldehydes.

Options
Ethanol
Methanal
2-methylpropanal
Butanal

Name the following aldehydes.

Options
Butanal
2-methylpropanal
Methanol
Ethanol

Special name the following ketones.

Options
Acetone
Ethyl methyl ketone
Diethyl ketone
Proryl ketone

Special name the following ketones.

Options
Diethyl ketone
Acetone
Ethyl methyl ketone
Propyl ketone
Choose the following KETONES.

Options
2-butanon
3-pentanon
3-butanon
2-pentanon

Choose the following KETONES.

Options
3-pentanon
2-pentanon
3-butanon
2-butanon

Choose the following KETONES.

Options
3-pentanon
2-pentanon
4-pentanon
4-pentanon

Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
C2H2 ;
C2 H4 ;
C3 H6 ;
C3 H8 .

Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
C2H2;
C2H4;
C5H8;
C5H12.
CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with
thischaracteristic?

Options
Acetylene;
Benzene;
Propane;
Toluene.

A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

Options
Structural formula;
Number of carbon atoms;
Molecular formula
Number of hydrogen atoms.

The compound C2H2belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula

Options
CnHn;
CnH2n;
CnH2n-2;
CnH2n+2.

The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

Options
Less than
Greater than
The same as
Greater than or equal to

Two molecules that are isomers:

Options
Must contain the same functional groups
Often differ in the number of unsaturated bonds they possess
Have the same molecular formulas
Often have different masses

In which of the following kinds of organic compounds does a carbon atom bond ONLY to
hydrogen and other carbon atoms?

Options
Carbohydrates
Hydrocarbons
Fatty acids
Lipids
Glycogen is best defined as a:

Options
Storage form of lipids
Polymer of glucose
Storage form of glycerol
Polymer of lactose

Most biologically important atoms attempt to possess _____ electrons in their outermost energy
level

Options
N2
2
8
10

Which molecule does NOT have a polar covalent bond?

Options
H2O
H-Br
H-H
H-F

What chemical family does H2C=C=CH2 belong to?

Options
Alkane
Ether
Alkene
Alkyne

In the induced-fit model of enzyme action, a _______ must bind to the enzyme's______ for the
enzyme to perform its function.

Options
Catalyst; activation energy
Product; catalytic site
Product; active site
Substrate; active site

Which one of the following applies to a basic solution?

Options
High OH-
Low OH-
High H+
H+ = OH-
Which one of the four classes of biologically important molecules does CELLULOSE belong to?

Options
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Lipids

Amino acids are joined during a(n) __________ reaction and a(n) __________bond/linkage is formed.

Options
Hydrolysis; peptide
Condensation; amide
Neutralization; ether
Oxidation; ester

With respect to proteins, the primary structure refers to the:

Options
Helix or pleated sheet pattern of a polypeptide
Complex 3-dimensional folding pattern of a polypeptide
Interaction of more than one polypeptide chain
Ordered sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

With respect to proteins, the quaternary structure refers to the:

Options
Helix or pleated sheet pattern of a polypeptide
Complex 3-dimensional folding pattern of a polypeptide
Interaction of more than one polypeptide chain
Ordered sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

Complete the equation: glucose + fructose

Options
Maltose
Lactose
Sucrose
Cellulose

Which molecule would provide the most glucose upon hydrolysis?

Options
Galactose
Lactose
Starch
Amino acid

An athlete is tested at an Olympic event and STEROIDS are found in the bloodstream. Which class
of biologically important molecules are steroids related to?
Options
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Proteins
Lipids

Glucose + galactose produces:

Options
Lactose
Cellulose
Maltose
Sucrose

If the H from the OH group in CH3-OH is removed and replaced with a METHYL group, what
family will the molecule then belong to?

Options
Ether
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester

Which of the following is CORRECT for an exergonic reaction?

Options
More activation energy is needed than for an endergonic reaction
Less activation energy is needed than for an endergonic reaction
Products have more energy than reactants
Products have less energy than reactants

Hydrolysis is best described as the:

Options
Heating of a compound in order to drive off excess water and concentrate its volume
Breaking of a long-chain compound into subunits by adding water
Linking of two or more molecules by the removal of one or more water molecules
Constant removal of hydrogen atoms from the surface of a carbohydrate

Unlike triglycerides, phospholipid molecules:

Options
Have 1 lipid tail
Have 4 lipid tails
Have 2 lipid tails
Have 3 lipid tails

Which one of the following would convert a liquid fat to a solid fat:

Options
Add heat
Add hydrogen (hydrogenation)
Add carbon
Unsaturate it

Enzymes:

Options
Increase the rate of a chemical reaction
Are always stored in active form
Are always stored in active form
Raise activation energy

The exoskeleton of many insects is made of chitin which is a modified form of:

Options
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Protein
Nucleic acid

Electrons are shared unequally in a(n) _________ bond.

Options
Non polar covalent
Hydrogen
Ionic
Polar covalent

Myoglobin is an oxygen-carrying molecule in muscle. It consists of just one polypeptide chain.


Myoglobin lacks:

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

During the formation of the peptide bond which of the following takes place?

Options
Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Peptide bond is a

Options
Covalent bond
Ionic bond
Metallic bond
Hydrogen bond

A tripeptide has

Options
3 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds

The factor which does not affect pKa value of an amino acid is

Options
The loss of charge in the α-carboxyl and α-amino groups
The interactions with other peptide R groups
Other environmental factors
Molecular weight

The average molecular weight of an amino acid residue in a protein is about

Options
128
118
110
120

Which of the following is not the classified form of conjugated proteins?

Options
Lipoproteins
Glycoproteins
Metalloproteins
Complete proteins

Which part of the amino acid gives it uniqueness?

Options
Amino group
Carboxyl group
Side chain
None

Which of the following information is responsible to specify the three-dimensional shape of a


protein?
Options
The protein’s peptide bond
The protein’s amino acid sequence
The protein’s interaction with other polypeptides
The protein’s interaction with molecular chaperons

Unfolding of a protein can be termed as

Options
Renaturation
Denaturation
Oxidation
Reduction

What are the following is not a factor responsible for denaturation of proteins?

Options
PH change
Organic solvents
Heat
Charge

Which of the following structures is a 20:2 (Δ4,9) fatty acid?

Options
CH3(CH2)9CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)2COOH
CH3(CH2)2CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)9COOH
CH3(CH2)10CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CHCH2COOH
CH3CH2CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)10COOH

Which of the following is a characteristic of both triacylglycerols and glycerophospholipids?

Options
Both contain carboxyl groups and are amphipathic
Both contain fatty acids and are saponifiable
Both contain glycerol and ether bonds.
Both can be negatively charged at cellular pH.

Which is a characteristic of all the fatty acid components in this lipid?

Options
They all contain an unbranched carbon chain.
They all contain unconjugated cis double bonds.
They all are joined to glycerol through an ester bond.
They all are hydrophilic because they contain oxygen.

Based on its structural similarity to other lipids, this lipid most likely functions as

Options
A membrane component.
An energy storage molecule.
A sex hormone.
A vitamin required for vision. The structure of an animal cell membrane is analyzed.

Which would be a property of all the major types of lipids in this membrane?

Options
They would be saponifiable in base and hydrolyzed in acid.
They would have polar heads and non-polar tails.
They would be composed of five-carbon units.
They would be joined to each other through covalent bonds.

A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the
other side is called a(n)

Options
Nonpolar molecule.
Charged molecule.
Polar molecule.
Ion.

Which of the following is not a large biomolecule?

Options
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Ice
Nucleic acid

All of the following are examples of lipids except

Options
Oil.
Steroids.
Starch.
Candle wax.

Which molecules are most closely related to lipids?

Options
Amino acids
Fatty acids
Nucleotides
Sugars

The building blocks of most biomolecules contain the element

Options
Carbon.
Calcium.
Nitrogen.
Sodium.

Which of the following molecules are classified as carbohydrates?

Options
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Fats
Sugars

Polysaccharides are

Options
Carbohydrates.
Proteins.
Lipids
Nucleic acids.

Which of the following is a carbohydrate?

Options
ATP
Steroid
Wax
Sucrose

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to proteins?

Options
Amino acids
Monosaccharides
Nucleotides
Sugars

Long chains of amino acids are found in

Options
Carbohydrates.
Lipids.
Proteins.
Sugars.

The two types of nucleic acids are

Options
RNA and ATP.
DNA and RNA. .
DNA and ATP.
Nucleotides and ATP

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?

Options
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Fats
Sugars

Which of the following is not part of a nucleotide in a DNA molecule?

Options
Three phosphate groups
A base
A sugar
A phosphate group

The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)

Options
Active site.
Polar molecule.
Inactive site.
Substrate.

Ionic bonds form between particles that have

Options
Opposite charges.
No charges.
The same charge.
Neutral charges.

Attractions between water molecules are called

Options
Covalent bonds.
Polar bonds.
Ionic bonds.
Hydrogen bonds.
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Number of dative bonds to central metal ion is its


Options
Oxidation number
Compound number
Co-ordination number
Dative number

Ions which are produced from ligands are

Options
Cation
Anion
Complex ion
Allofthem

Different ions will split up by different compounds to given of

Options
Same colored complexes
PrevDifferent colored complexes
SkipSame density complexes
NextSame temperature complexes

Ligands which can form two coordinate bonds from each ion or molecule to transition metal ion
are known as

Options
Ligands ions
Dentate ligands
Monodentate ligands
Bidentate ligands

Due to ligands' action of splitting color of transition metal compound, this change occurs at

Options
S-orbital
D-orbital
P-orbital
F-orbital
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25. 25 expression of the Mass fraction
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62. 62 expression of the molar concentration equivalent
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98. 98of the following species is formed in the second step of the ionization of the triprotic acid
Which
99. 99
H3PO4?
100. 100
101. 101
Options
102. 102

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 3, 3-dimethylpentane

Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 3-ethyl-2-methylhexane

Options

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 1, 2-dichloro-3-methylheptane


Options

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 2,3-dimethylpentane

Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 4-methyl-4-ethyldecane

Options

Draw the structures for the following compounds: 2-chloro-3-methyl-2-butene

Options
Draw the structures for the following compounds: trans-3,4-dimethyl-2-penten

Options

Draw the structures for the following compounds: cis-3,4,6-trimethyl-3-heptene

Options
Draw the following alkynes.4-chloro-2-pentyne

Options

Draw the following alkynes. 3-propyl-1-hexyne

Options
Draw the following alkynes.1,4-dibromo-2-pentyne

Options

Draw the following alcohols. 4-methil-2-pentanol

Options
Draw the following alcohols. 2-methil-2-propanol

Options

Find the following aldehydes. 2-methylpropanal

Options
Special name the following ketones.

Options
Ethyl methyl ketone
Diethyl ketone
Acetone
Propyl ketone

Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol
1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol
2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
1-chloro-1-methylpropan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for


Options
3-chlorobutan-3-ol
2-chlorobutan-3-ol
3-chlorobutan-2-ol
2-chlorobutan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Propan-2-ol
Butan-2-ol
Propanol
Butanol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Ethoxyethane
Methoxyethane
Ethoxybuthane
Methoxymethane

Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

Options
Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

Options

Choose correct units for rate of chemical reaction:

Options
Mol/1*sec
Sec/mol*l
L/mol*sec
Mol/j*l

For 5 seconds molar concentration of substance A changed from 3,15mol/l to 3,00 mol/l. Find
average rate of reaction for A.

Options
0,01mol/l*sec
0,02mol/l*sec
0,03mol/l*sec
0,04mol/l*sec

For certain reaction, reaction rate is 0,0012 mol/l*sec. In mol/l*min rate of this reaction will be:

Options
2*10⁻⁵
4*10⁻⁵
0,072
0,036

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes under constant pressure, is
0,03 mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 2,0mol/l. Find time of reaction, if final concentration of
A is 0,8mol/l

Options
10
20
30
40

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,04mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 1,6mol/l. Find time of reaction, if A completely expends.
Options
40
30
20
10

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,04mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of AB is 1,8mol/l. Find time of reaction, when AB concentration
will be 2,2mol/l.

Options
40
30
20
10

Choose the following aldehydes. ethanal

Options

Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

Options
Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

Options

Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

Options
Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol
2-methoxy-1-methylpropane
1-methoxy-2-methylpropane
2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

Options
Which is the correct name for

Options
1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol
2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Butanol
Propanol
Propan-1-ol
Butan-1-ol

Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

Options
Which is the correct name for

Options
1-chlorobutan-3-ol
1-chlorobutan-2-ol
4-chlorobutan-2-ol
2-chlorobutan-3-ol

Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
3-chlorobutan-1-ol
3-chloropropan-1-ol
1-chloropropan-3-ol
1-chlorobutan-3-ol

Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

Options

Which molecule is formaldehyde?

Options

Which molecule is 2- butanone?

Options
Which molecule is propanal?

Options

Which molecule is acetone?

Options

Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

Options
Ethyl methyl acetone
Methyl propyl ketone
3-hexanone
Propyl methyl ketone

Which molecule is a ketone?

Options
Which molecule is an aldehyde?

Options

What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

Options
4-heptanone
2- methyl -3- hexanone
3-heptanone
Isopropyl n-propyl ketone

An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

Options
Weakly acidic
Weakly basic
Strongly acidic
Neither acidic nor basic

Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

Options
Functional Group of Aromatic compounds:

Options

Nail polish remover contains ?

Options
Benzene
Acetic acid
Acetone
Petroleum ether

The isotope atoms differ in ?

Options
Number of protons
Atomic number
Number of electrons
Atomic weight

Which is also called Stranger Gas ?

Options
Xenon
Neon
Argon
Nitrous oxide

The chemical used as a fixer in photography is ?

Options
Sodium thio sulphate
Sodium sulphate
Borax
Ammonium sulphate

Water drops are spherical because of ?

Options
Viscosity
Density
Polarity
Surface tension

Xide of Nitrogen used in medicine as anaesthetic is ?

Options
Nitrogen pentoxide
Nitrous oxide
Nitric oxide
Nitrogen dioxide

Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen?

Options
Cadmium
Lithium
Potassium
Sodium

The most electronegative element among the following is

Options
Sodium
Bromine
Fluorine
Oxygen

The metal used to recover copper from a solution of copper sulphate is ?

Options
Na
Ag
Hg
Fe

The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called ?

Options
Roasting
Calcinations
Smelting
Froth floatation

Which of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog ?

Options
Nitrogen oxides
Hydrocarbons
Methane
Ozone
The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is ?

Options
Ethane
Ethylene
Carbon dioxide
Acetylene

The main chemical constituent of clay is ?

Options
Aluminium silicate
Zeolites
Aluminium borosilicate
Silicon oxide

Sugars are converted in the liver into

Options
Glycogen
Vitamin
Monosaccharide
None of above

Which of the following gases is the most toxic?

Options
Carbon dioxide
Sulphur dioxide
Carbon monoxide
Acetic acid

Which of the following elements behave chemically both as a metal and a non metal?

Options
Boron
Carbon
Argon
Mercury

How many different oxides are formed by nitrogen ?

Options
Two
Three
Four
Five

The major component used in preparation of different types of glasses is :


Options
Sodium borate
Sodium silicate
Silica
Calcium silicate

What is metallurgy ?

Options
Process of extracting metal in pure form from its ore.
Process of creating alloys of metals.
Process of making metals live long.
None of above.

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,02mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 1,2mol/l. Find concentration of A after 10 seconds.

Options
0.4 mol/l
0.6 mol/l
0.8 mol/l
1.0 mol/l

Which have maximum number of isotopes ?

Options
Bromine
Aluminium
Polonium
Carbon

Which prefix is often used with scientific terms to indicate that something is the same, equal or
constant

Options
Iso
Mega
Meta
Quasi

Select the one which is not a mixture

Options
Air
Gasoline
LPG
Distilled water

Which one of the following best defines the word “allotropes”?


Options
Different structural forms of an element
A pair of substances that differ by H+
Elements that possess properties intermediate between those of metals and non-metals
Atoms of a given atomic number that have a specific number of neutrons

What is the formula of the compound formed between magnesium and oxygen?

Options
MgO
Mg2O2
Mg2O3
MgO2

Which one of the following statements concerning elements in the Periodic Table is correct?

Options
Elements of the same group all have the same number of electrons in the outermost occupied
electron shell.
Elements of Group 16 occur as cations in ionic compounds.
Oxides of elements in Groups 16 and 17 are basic.
The halogens (Group 17) are all gases at room temperature.

Which one of the following substances will form strong hydrogen bonds?

Options
HCOOH
CH3CN
CCl4
SiH4

Which one of the following statements regarding a catalyst is not correct?

Options
An enzyme is a catalyst that only binds certain substrates.
An enzyme is a protein that is a highly efficient catalyst for one or more chemical reactions in
a living system.
Catalysts increase the rate of a reaction by altering the mechanism, thereby increasing the
activation energy.
An enzyme is a catalyst

What happens when a catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium?

Options
The reaction follows an alternative pathway of lower activation energy.
The heat of reaction decreases.
The potential energy of the reactants decreases.
The potential energy of the products decreases.
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Number
25. 25 of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?
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1
2
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4

Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?

Options
1
2
3
4

Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?

Options
Does not have a double stranded structure
PrevThymine is present
SkipDoes not obey Chargaff’s rule
NextThe sugar contained in RNA is a ribose

Which of the following is the general formula for an alcohol?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is the general formula for a phenol (alcohol on a benzene ring)?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is a general formula for ether?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is a general formula for an amine?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

What class of compound has the following general formula: Ar—C(=O)—H?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—R’?

Options
Aldehyde
Alkene
Carboxylic acid
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—OH?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—O—R’?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—NH2?

Options
Aldehyde
Amide
Amine
Carboxylic acid

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–OH?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: C6H5–OH?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–NH2?

Options
Organic halide
Amine
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–H?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–CH2–CH3?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–OH?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–NH2?

Options
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is methanol?

Options
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Alcohol

What class of compound is butanal?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is methyl propanoate?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
What class of compound is butanone?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is ethanamide?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Amide
Ester

What class of compound is dopamine?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Amine

How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are there in the allene molecule, H2CCCH2?

Options
Six σ bonds and two π bonds
Two σ bonds and six π bonds
Four σ bonds and four π bonds
Eight σ bonds and no π bonds
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Question
23. 23 (1/128)
24. 24
Lipids
25. 25provide insulation against cold and hot weather to exoskeleton of insects in form of
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Cutin
28
29.Waxes
29
30.Cholesterol
30
31.Oil
31
32. 32
33. 33 number of carbon atoms in chain results in higher
Greater
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Melting
36 point
37. 37
Boiling point
38. 38
39.Freezing
39 oint
40.Stability
40
41. 41
Derivatives
42. 42 of phosphatidic acid, which are composed of glycerol, fatty acids and phosphoric acids
are known
43. 43 as
44. 44
Options
45. 45
46.Phospholipids
Prev 46
47. 47
SkipAcylghycerols
48. 48
NextTriglycerides
49. 49
Esters
50. 50
In51. 51 diet, all cholesterol comes from
human
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Animal
54 products
55. 55
56.Vegetable
products
56
57.Both
57 A and B
58.None
58 of these
59. 59
Condensed
60. 60 structural formula of Palmitic acid is
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
63
64.CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
64
65. 65
66.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
66
67.CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
67
68. 68
Condensed
69. 69 structural formula of Caproic acid is
70. 70
Options
71. 71
72.CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
72
73.CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
73
74.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
74
75.CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
75
76. 76
77. 77 state of fat at room temperature is
Physical
78. 78
79. 79
Options
80.Solid
80
81. 81
Liquid
82. 82
83.Gas
83
Plasma
84. 84
85. 85
Which
86. 86of following protects our heart and kidneys from injury?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
89.Skin
89
90.Muscles
90
91.Lubricants
91
92.Fat
92
93. 93
94. 94of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone insulin?
Which
95. 95
96. 96
Options
97.Mn++
97
98. 98
Mg++
99. 99
100.Ca++
100
101.Zn++
101
102. 102
Oxidation
103. 103 of which substance in the body yields the most calories
104. 104
Options
105. 105
106.Glucose
106
107.Glycogen
107
108.Protein
108
109. 109
Lipids
110. 110
111. is
Milk 111deficient in which vitamins?
112. 112
113. 113
Options
114.Vitamin
114 C
115. 115
116.Vitamin
116 A
117.Vitamin
117 B2
118. 118
119.Vitamin
119 K
120. 120
Milk is deficient of which mineral?
121. 121
122. 122
Options
123. 123
Phosphorus
124. 124
125.Sodium
125
126.Iron
126
127.Potassium
127
128. 128
Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?

Options
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Cytoplasm
Golgi apparatus

Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

Options
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Entoplasmic reticulum

The average pH of Urine is

Options
7.0
6.0
8.0
0.0

The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of

Options
Diffusion
Effusion
Affusion
Coagulation

The key enzyme in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis is

Options
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
AMP activated proteinkinase
Proteinphosphatase
None of these

Arachidonate has 20 carbon atoms with

Options
3 doublebonds
2 doublebonds
4 doublebonds
8 doublebonds

Fatty acid synthesis takes place in

Options
Mitochondria
Cellmembrane
Cytosol
Endoplasmicreticulum

Atherosclerosis can cause blood

Options
Thinning
Clotting
Thickening
Noneofthese

Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with

Options
2 double bonds
3 double bonds
One double bond
None of these

How many ATPs are formed during complete oxidation of palmitate?

Options
35
96
129
131

Humans are unable to digest

Options
Starch
Complex carbohydrates
Denatured proteins
Cellulose

Saliva contains all of the following except

Options
Hormones
Amylase
Bacteria-killingenzymes
Antibodies

Storage polysaccharide made by animals is

Options
Amylopectin
Glycogen
Cellulose
Collagen

The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is

Options
Ribose
Galactose
Mannose
Maltose

Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to

Options
Phosphoenolpyruvate
AcetylCoA
Lactate
Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate

Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

Options
Amylose
Cellobiose
Lactose
Noneofthese

Which substance is an electrolyte?

Options
CH3OH
C6H12O6
H2O
KOH
Which compound has both ionic and covalent bonding?

Options
CaCO3
CH2C12
CH3OH
C6H12O6

Which element is composed of molecules that each contain a multiple covalent bond?

Options
Chlorine
Fluorine
Hydrogen
Nitrogen

As a bond between a hydrogen atom and a sulfur atom is formed, electrons are

Options
Shared to form an ionic bond
Shared to form a covalent bond
Transferred to form an ionic bond
Transferred to form a covalent bond

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that a carbon atom can form?

Options
1
3
2
4

Which type of bond is found between atoms of solid cobalt?

Options
Nonpolar covalent
Polar covalent
Metallic
Ionic

Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule containing polar covalent bonds?

Options
H2O
CCl4
NH3
H2

Which formula represents a polar molecule?


Options
H2
H2O
CO2
CCL4

Two hydrogen atoms form a hydrogen molecule when

Options
One atom loses a valence electron to the other atom
One atom shares four electrons with the other atom
The two atoms collide and both atoms gain energy
The two atoms collide with sufficient energy to form a bond

Which statement describes a chemical change?

Options
Alcohol evaporates.
Water vapor forms snowflakes.
Table salt (NaCl) is crushed into powder.
Glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen produce CO2 and H2O.

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) + energy Which
statement describes the energy changes in this reaction?

Options
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, only.
Energy is released as bonds are broken, only.
Energy is absorbed as bonds are broken, and energy is released as bonds are formed.
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, and energy is released as bonds are broken.

What occurs in order to break the bond in a Cl2 molecule?

Options
Energy is absorbed.
Energy is released.
The molecule creates energy.
The molecule destroys energy.

Which atom has the least attraction for the electrons in a bond between that atom and an atom of
hydrogen?

Options
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Fluorine

Which compound has the least ionic character?


Options
KCl
CaCl2
AlCl3
CCl4

Which kind of compound generally results when nonmetal atoms chemically combine with metal
atoms?

Options
Hydrogen
Ionic
Covalent
Metallic

As sodium reacts with fluorine to form the compound NaF, each sodium atom will

Options
Gain 1 electron
Gain 2 electrons
Lose 1 electron
Lose 2 electrons

Which formula correctly represents the compound calcium hydroxide?

Options
CaOH
Ca2OH
CaOH2
Ca(OH)2

A substance has a high melting point and conducts electricity in the liquid phase. This substance is

Options
Ne
Hg
NaCl
SiC

A substance that does not conduct electricity as a solid but does conduct electricity when melted is
most likely classified as

Options
An ionic compound
A molecular compound
A metal
A nonmetal

Which formula represents a molecular solid?


Options
NaCl(s)
C6H12O6(s)
Cu(s)
KF(s)

What occurs when a coordinate covalent bond is formed between nitrogen and hydrogen in the
ammonium ion, NH4 + ?

Options
Hydrogen provides a pair of electrons to be shared with nitrogen.
Nitrogen provides a pair of electrons to be shared with hydrogen.
Hydrogen transfers a pair of electrons to nitrogen.
Nitrogen transfers a pair of electrons to hydrogen.

Which type of bond would be formed when a hydrogen ion (H+ ) reacts with an ammonia
molecule (NH3)?

Options
A coordinate covalent bond
A nonpolar covalent bond
A metallic bond
An ionic bond

Which element has a crystalline lattice composed of positive ions through which electrons flow
freely?

Options
Bromine
Calcium
Carbon
Sulfur

The high electrical conductivity of metals is primarily due to

Options
High ionization energies
Filled energy levels
Mobile electrons
High electronegativities

Which is an example of a network solid?

Options
SiC(s)
CO2(s)
AgNO3(s)
Ag(s)

Which compound is a network solid?


Options
SiO2
Na2O
H2O
CO2

Which compound is a poor conductor of heat and electricity and has a high melting point?

Options
SiO2
CO2
H2O
N2O

Which combination of atoms can form a polar covalent bond?

Options
H and Br
H and H
N and N
Na and Br

Which type of bond is formed between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom in CH3OH?

Options
Ionic
Electrovalent
Polar covalent
Nonpolar covalent

In a nonpolar covalent bond, electrons are

Options
Shared equally by two atoms
Shared unequally by two atoms
Transferred from one atom to another
Located in a mobile "sea" shared by many atoms

Which substance is correctly paired with its type of bonding?

Options
NaBr–nonpolar covalent
HCl–nonpolar covalent
NH3–polar covalent
Br2–polar covalent

Hexane (C6H14) and water do not form a solution. Which statement explains this phenomenon?

Options
Hexane is polar and water is nonpolar.
Hexane is ionic and water is polar.
Hexane is nonpolar and water is polar.
Hexane is nonpolar and water is ionic.

Which formula represents a polar molecule?

Options
Br2
CO2
CH4
NH3

Which of the following is the correct formula for propene?

Options
C4H10
C3H8
C4H8
C3H6

Which of these is the formula for an alkyne?

Options
C15H30
C10H18
C20H42
C30H64

Which of the following compounds has only single bonds?

Options
Octene
C3H4
C7H16
Decyne

Which of these is the formula for an alkene?

Options
C13H26
C19H36
C50H102
C14H30

Which of the following compounds does NOT exist?

Options
Acetylene
Methene
Nonyne
Cyclopentane

Acetylene is best described as

Options
The simplest alkyne.
An alkene with two carbon atoms.
An alkyne containing only one carbon atom.
More than one of the above

The formula for butane is

Options
C3H8
C4H10
C4H8
C3H10

Which of these is NOT an isomer of 2-heptene?

Options
1-heptene
Cycloheptane
3-heptene
2-heptyne

Ethanol is sometimes called

Options
Ethyl alcohol
Isopropyl alcohol
Butanol
Ethane

Which of these alcohols is incorrectly matched with its name?

Options
C7H15OH - heptanol
C10H21OH - decanol
C8H15OH - octanol
C9H19OH - nonyl alcohol

The general formula of monosaccharides is

Options
CnH2nOn
C2nH2On
CnH2O2n
CnH2nO2n

The general formula of polysaccharides is

Options
(C6H10O5)n
(C6H12O5)n
(C6H10O6)n
(C6H10O6)n

The aldose sugar is

Options
Glycerose
Ribulose
Erythrulose
Dihydoxyacetone

A triose sugar is

Options
Glycerose
Ribose
Erythrose
Fructose

A pentose sugar is

Options
Dihydroxyacetone
Ribulose
Erythrose
Glucose

The pentose sugar present mainly in the heart muscle is

Options
Lyxose
Ribose
Arabinose
Xylose

Vitamin C is required for the production and maintenance of:

Options
Collagen
Hormone
Ascorbic Acid
Red Blood Cells
Vitamin C deficiency is leads to:

Options
Scurvy
Cold
Cancer
Rickets

Which of the following is a function of Vitamin A in the body?

Options
Vision, bone and body growth
Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin
Normal cell development and reproduction
All of the above

Common food sources of Vitamin A are:

Options
Milk, eggs, butter, cheese, cream, and liver
White sugar, honey, and sugar cane
Broccoli, apricots, cantaloupe, carrots, sweet potato, spinach
Both A and C

Vitamin B-12 deficiency caused by lack of intrinsic factor is called:

Options
Pernicious anemia
Poor circulation of the red blood cells
Beri Beri
None of the above

What groups of people need additional Vitamin K?

Options
Premature newborns
People who do not have enough bile to absorb fat
Both A and B
None of the above answers

The vitamin Folate works together with to produce new red blood cells.

Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin B-12
None of the above

Which of the following is not a water soluble vitamin?


Options
Tocopherol
Pyridoxine
Pantothenic acid
Niacin

Which of the following is not a Fat-soluble vitamin?

Options
Calciferol
Retinoids
Tocopherol
Ascorbic acid

Which of the following Vitamin is also called as Pyridoxine?

Options
Vitamin B5
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B2

Which of the following is not included in fat soluble vitamins?

Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Vitamin B

How many types of vitamins are there?

Options
Two
Three
Four
Five

Which of the following statements is true about a peptide bond (RCONHR')?

Options
It is non planar.
It is capable of forming a hydrogen bond.
The cis configuration is favoured over the trans configuration.
Single bond rotation is permitted between nitrogen and the carbonyl

Which of the following statements is untrue about protein secondary structure?

Options
The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta turns are examples of protein secondary
structure.
The ability of peptide bonds to form intramolecular hydrogen bonds is important to secondary
structure
The steric influence of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.
The hydrophilic/hydrophobic character of amino acid residues is important to secondary
structure.

Identify which of the following terms refers to the arrangement of different protein subunits in a
multiprotein complex.

Options
Primarystructure
Secondarystructure
Tertiarystructure
Quaternarystructure

Identify which of the following terms refers to the overall three dimensional shape of a protein.

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving the residue
of the amino acid serine.

Options
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals interactions
None of the above

Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving the residue
of the amino acid valine.

Options
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals interactions
None of the above

What type of ring structure is present in structures A and B?


Options
Quinoline
Purine
Naphthalene
Pyrimidine

What type of structures are the compounds (i) - (iv)?

Options
Nucleic acids
Nucleotides
Nucleosides
Deoxyriboses

On which of the following molecules would you find a codon?

Options
Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
Small nuclear RNA

On which of the following molecules would you find an anticodon?

Options
Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
Small nuclear RNA

The amino acid that has hydrocarbon branch chain is:

Options
Lysine
Cysteine
Glutamic acid
Valine

Which of the following substances can give diesters:

Options
Lysine
Serine
Glycine
Alanine

Serine is:

Options
A monoamino–monocarboxylic aromatic acid
A monoamino–dicarboxylic acid
A diamino–monocarboxylic acid
A hydroxylated amino acid

In phosphorproteins, the phosphoric acid is bound to hydroxyl groups by bonds of type:

Options
Ether
Ionic
Carbonyl
Ester

The number of water molecules, eliminated when a molecule of heptapeptide is formed, is:

Options
5
6
7
8

The following substance contains 3 oxygen atoms in the molecule:

Options
Glycine
Valine
Lysine
Cysteine

Regarding pH, the following statement is true:

Options
When mixing an acid and a base, the mixture that results has the pH = 14.
The sum of pH values of substances in a solution is always equal to 14.
The add of small quantities of acid or base to a buffer solution does not change significantly its
pH.
The solution of a weak acid has high values of pH.

Regarding pH, the following statement is true:

Options
It is a parameter characterizing the strength of an acid or a base.
It is a characteristic of each acid or base.
It is a measure of the concentration of H in an aqueous solution.
It has different values if the substance is solid or gaseous.

Acids are chemical species able to:

Options
Give molecules
Give atoms
Give protons
Give molecular hydrogen

The formic acid has the following characteristic chemical property, unlike the other saturated
carboxylic acids:

Options
Is the weakest acid
Has reducing character
Has oxidant character
Sublimates easily

With Tollens reagent, aldehydes suffer a reaction of:

Options
Oxidation
Hydrogenation
Reduction
Condensation

What can result by the reduction of a ketone?

Options
A primary alcohol
A secondary alcohol
A carboxylic acid
A compound with a mixed function alcohol – ketone

What can result by the reduction of an aldehyde?

Options
A primary alcohol
A secondary alcohol
A carboxylic acid
A compound with a mixed function alcohol – aldehyde

Which of the following compounds reacts with an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide?

Options
Methane
Propanol
Phenol
Benzene

Which of the following is a branched chain hydrocarbon?

Options
Ethene
2-methyl-2-butene
2-butene
2-pentene

The linear alkanes cannot participate to reactions of:

Options
Addition
Dehydrogenation
Oxidation
Substitution

Which of the following substances: (I) naphthalene, (II) ethanol, (III) triolein, (IV) glucose, (V)
amylopectin, (VI) glutamic acid, does not dissolve in water?

Options
I, III, VI
I, III, V
II, IV, IV
I, IV

The separating process of the components of a mixture, based on the differences between the
boiling points of the components, is possible by:

Options
Extraction
Distillation
Sublimation
Crystallization

The separation process of a solid component of a mixture, based on its property to pass through
heating direct from the solid phase into the gaseous phase, without melting, is called:

Options
Crystallization
Decantation
Sublimation
Distillation

Which of the following substances presents only primary carbon atoms in its structure?

Options
Methane
Acetylene
Ethane
Propane

How many secondary carbon atoms contain the following hydrocarbon chain? СН3-СН2- СН2-
СН2- СН3

Options
N=5
N=3
N=0
N=2

The combustion of a hydrocarbon will produce mandatory:

Options
SO2
CO2
CO
SO3

Which one of the following will exhibit highest osmotic pressure at 25°C?

Options
KCl
Glucose.
Urea.
Calcium chloride.

Unit of molarity is:

Options
Kg / litre.
Mol / litre.
Gm / litre.
None of these.

Two solutions C and D are separated by a semi-permeable membrane. If liquid flows from D to C
then.

Options
Both have same concentration.
D is less concentrated than C.
D is more concentrated than C.
None of these.

When sugar is added to water, what is the change observed in boiling and freezing points of
water?

Options
Both boiling point and freezing point decreases.
Both boiling point and freezing point increases.
Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases.
Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases.

When a solute is dissolved in water it shows:

Options
Decrease in freezing point of water.
Decrease in boiling point of water.
Increase in vapour pressure of water.
All of the above.

The boiling point of Benzene, Ethanol, Octane and Pentane are 80°C, 78°C, 126°C and 36°C
respectively. Which of the following will show highest vapour pressure at room temperature.

Options
Benzene.
Octane.
Pentane.
Entahol.

Molecular weight of non-volatile and soluble solute can be determined by:

Options
Elevation of boiling point.
Depression in freezing point.
Lowering of vapour pressure.
Osmotic pressure.
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Which can act as buffer?

Options
NH4 Cl + HCl
CH3 COOH + H2 CO3
40ml of 0.1M NaCN + 20ml of 0.1M HCN
NaCl + NaOH

NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is

Options
Not a buffer solution with pH < 7
Not a buffer solution with pH > 7
A buffer solution with pH < 7
A buffer solution with pH > 7

For an acid buffer solution the pH is 3. The pH can be increased by

Options
Increasing the concentration of salt
PrevIncreasing the concentration of acid
SkipDecreasing the concentration of salt
NextIndependent of concentration of acid & salt

Which of the following does not react with water?

Options
Barium
Calcium
Beryllium
Strontium

Which among the following statements is true about the following chemical reaction? 3Fe(s) + 4H2
O → Fe3 O4 (s) + 4H2

Options
Iron metal is getting reduced
Water is acting as a reducing agent
Water is acting as an oxidizing agent
Water is getting oxidized

Identify the products formed in the following reaction CH3 COOCH3 + H2 O → A + B

Options
CH3 COOH and CH3 OH
CH3 COOOH and CH4
CO2 and C2 H6
No reaction
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Question
21. 21 (1/25)
22. 22
How
23. might
23 solid sodium carbonate be obtained from sodium carbonate solution?
24. 24
Options
25. 25
Centrifugation
Filtration
Evaporation
It cannot be extracted

What is the best description of blood?

Options
Sol
Foam
Solution
Aerosol

A suspension is formed from uniform particles of solid, of diameter 10 Mm, suspended in a


solvent. What is the best description of this system?
Prev
Options
Skip
Monodisperse and coarse
Next
Monodisperse and colloidal
Polydisperse and coarse
Polydisperse and colloidal

Which one of the following dispersions does not have liquid continuous phase?

Options
Nanosuspension
Microemulsion
Gel
Foam

Which one of the following systems has the smallest sized domains in its dispersed phase?

Options
Nanoemulsion
Coarse suspension
Coarse emulsion
Microemulsion

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the change in domain structure as more oil
is added to a water-in-oil emulsion?

Options
Bicontinuous, spherical, cylinder-like
Spherical, cylinder-like, bicontinuous
Spherical, bicontinuous, cylinder-like
Cylinder-like, spherical, bicontinuous

Which method for the production of dispersions involves the formation of particles from
materials dissolved in true solutions?

Options
Bottom-up
Top-down
Milling
High pressure homogenization

The scattering of light by coarse and colloidal dispersed systems is known as?

Options
Contrast matching
DLVO theory
Tyndall effect
Creaming

Which of the following is not a mechanism for the separation of a physically unstable suspension
of magnesium hydroxide in water?

Options
Flocculation
Aggregation
Ostwald ripening
Hydrolysis

In the DLVO theory of colloids, normal thermal motion may be sufficient to overcome the energy
barrier that leads to irreversible particle aggregation. The name of this energy barrier is which
one of the following?

Options
Primary maximum
Secondary maximum
Primary minimum
Secondary minimum

One of following substances that belongs to colloid system is....


Options
Milk
Mineral water
Vinegar
Salty water

Dispersed phase and dispersing medium of smoke are..

Options
Solid in liquid
Liquid in solid
Solid in gas
Gas in solid

Margarine is a colloid system of...

Options
Foam
Emulsion
Aerosol
Solid emulsion

Light scattering in colloid system is known as..

Options
Brownian Motion
Tyndall Effect
Coagulation
Electrophoresis

These following things are colloid properties, except...

Options
Composed of 2 phase
Stable
Homogeneous
Can be filtered

An _________ is a sol with the continuous phase a gas. Fog is an _________ of water droplets.

Options
Aerosol
Emulsion
Agglomerate
Electrophoresis

An _________ is a sol in which the suspended particles are liquid droplets and the continuous phase
is also a liquid. The 2 phases are immiscible, otherwise a solution would form.

Options
Aerosol
Emulsion
Agglomerate
Electrophoresis

A _________ is a sol of solid particles scattered in a liquid. Foam is a colloidal system in which gas
bubbles dispersed in a liquid or solid.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Streaming potential
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles with
each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.

Options
Magnitude
Shape
Surface
Size

Is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary liquid
induced by an external field.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Is the charged field generated by charged particles moving in a stationary liquid.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Is the generation of an electric field by locomotion of the liquid along stationary charged surfaces.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Streaming potential
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Emulsion is:
Options
Butter;
River ooze;
Stained glass;
Textile fabrics.

Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

Options
Prevent making of a colloid
Stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization
Stabilize the mixture
Enrich the aroma

Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

Options
Liquid dispersed in gas
Gas dispersed in gas
Solid dispersed in gas
Solid dispersed in liquid
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Question
23. 23 (1/46)
24. 24
Amount
25. 25 of amino acid residues in proteins ranges from
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.50-2000
28
29.2000-4000
29
30.4000-6000
30
31.7000-10,000
31
32. 32
33. 33
Polar amino acids are usually found
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.On36surface of proteins
37. 37
Inside core of proteins
38. 38
39.At39sides of proteins
40.Can
40 be present anywhere in proteins
41. 41
Sulfur
42. 42atom of cysteine is involved in formation of
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Sulfide
45 group
46.Sulfhydryl
Prev 46 group
SkipSulfite group
NextSulphates

Number of amino acids that have hydrophobic side chains are

Options
7
8
9
10

Bond formed between two amino acid molecules is

Options
Peptide bond
Sulfur linkage
Ionic bond
Coordinate covalent bond

A mutation has changed an isoleucine residue of a protein to Glutamic acid, which statement best
describes its location in a hydrophilic exterior

Options
On the surface since it is hydrophilic in nature
In side the core of the protein since it is hydrophobic in nature
Any where inside or outside
Inside the core of protein since it has a polar but uncharged side chain

Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of

Options
Hemoglobin
Myoglobin
Insulin
Collagen 3- Some proteins contain

Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the physiological pH ?

Options
Valine
Leucine
Isoleucine
None of the followings

Mother of a mal nourished child has been instructed to include a complete protein in diet for her
child, which out of the followings proteins should be recommended?

Options
Pulses
Wheat
Soy Protein
Milk

All of the below mentioned amino acids can participate in hydrogen bonding except one

Options
Serine
Cysteine
Threonine
Valine

Which out of the followings is not a fibrous protein?

Options
Carbonic anhydrase
Collagen
Fibrinogen
Keratin

Which one of the following amino acids may be considered a hydrophobic amino acid at
physiological p H of 7.4

Options
Isoleucine
Arginine
Aspartic acid
Threonine

Which of the characteristics below apply to amino acid Glycine?

Options
Optically inactive
Hydrophilic, basic and charged
Hydrophobic
Hydrophilic, acidic and charged

Which of the amino acids below is the uncharged derivative of an acidic amino acid?

Options
Cystine
Tyrosine
Glutamine
Serine

Choose the correct category for milk protein casein out of the followings

Options
Nucleoprotein
Phosphoprotein
Lipoprotein
Glycoprotein

Which of the following statements about amino acids is correct?

Options
Amino acids are classified according to the structures and properties of their side chains.
Amino acids are uncharged at neutral pH.
Amino acids in proteins are mainly in the D-configuration.
Twenty four amino acids are commonly used in protein synthesis.

Which type of bonding is responsible for the secondary structure of proteins?

Options
Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues.
Hydrogen bonding between the C=O and N-H groups of peptide bonds.
Peptide bonds between amino acids.
Salt bridges between charged side chains of amino acids

Which term below best defines the 'quaternary structure' of a protein?

Options
The arrangement of two or more polypeptide subunits into a single functional complex
The folding of the polypeptide backbone in three-dimensional space.
The interaction of amino acid side chains.
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

Which of the following most accurately describes how secondary structures in proteins are
stabilised?

Options
Through ionic bonds operating between oppositely charged amino acid side chains.
Through covalent bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.
Through hydrogen bonds between different amino acid side chains.
Through hydrogen bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.

Which amino acid can form disulphide bonds?

Options
Glycine.
Proline.
Glutamate.
Cysteine.

Which of the following statements is false?

Options
Primary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
Secondary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
Three dimensional structure of a protein determines the function of a protein
Amino acid sequence is absolutely invariant for a particular protein

Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?

Options
Frederick Sanger
Mendel
Watson and Francis Crick
Anton van Leeuwenhoek

Tertiary conformation of proteins is maintained by 3 types of bonds namely ionic, hydrogen and

Options
Sulfide
Disulfide
Covalent
Peptide

Hemoglobin is a

Options
Monomer
Dimer
Trimer
Tetramer

Native state of a protein can be disrupted by

Options
Temperature
PH
Removal of water
Presence of hydrophilic surfaces

Identify the wrong statement

Options
Hemoglobin is a globular protein
Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein
Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water
Collagen is a fibrous protein

1In 3° structure of proteins, folding and shaping is done by

Options
Hydrophobic interactions
Polar interactions
Hydrogen bonding
None of the mentioned

β-pleated sheets are the examples of

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the same
chain is

Options
Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure

A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side is

Options
Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure

Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups

Options
Phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan
Glycine, alanine, leucine
Lysine, arginine, histidine
Serine, threonine, cysteine

The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are

Options
Aspartate and glutamate
Arginine and histidine
Cysteine and methionine
Proline and valine

Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid?

Options
Serine
Threonine
Lysine
Histidine

Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

Options
Cysteine
Asparagine
Glutamine
Phenylalanine

Which of the following is an imino acid?

Options
Alanine
Glycine
Proline
Serine

Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is

Options
1
2
3
4

Which of the following are an example of epimers?

Options
Glucose & Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
A&c

Fructose and Glucose can be distinguished by

Options
Selwinoff’s reagent
Benedict’s reagent
Fehling’s reagent
Barfoed’s reagent

Which of the following is an example of monosaccharide?

Options
Galactose
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose

Which of the following is an example of disaccharide?

Options
Glucose
Fructose
Galactose
Maltose

In maltose, between which of the following carbons there is a linkage?

Options
C1, C2
C2, C3
C1, C4
C2, C4
Which of the following carbohydrates is a triose?

Options
Glucose
Ribose
Ribulose
Glyceraldehyde

Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following sugar units?

Options
Glucose and fructose
Glucose and galactose
Glucose and sucrose
Glucose and ribose

In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants?

Options
Glycogen
Starch
Dextrin
Cellulose

In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in liver?

Options
Glycogen
Starch
Dextrin
Cellulose

Which of the following are the storage polysaccharides?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Glucose
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Question
23. 23 (1/87)
24. 24
The
25.addition
25 of a catalyst to the reaction system
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Increases
28 the rate of forward reaction only
29.Increases
29 the rate of reverse reaction
30.Increases
30 the rate of forward but decreases the rate of backward reaction
31.Increases
31
the rate of forward as well as backward reaction equally
32. 32
On33. 33
increasing the temperature the rate of reaction increases mainly because
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.The
36 activation energy of the reaction increases
37. 37
Concentration of the reacting molecules increases
38. 38
39.Collision
39 frequency increases
40.None
40 of these
41. 41
The
42.value
42 of activation energy is primarily determined by
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Temperature
45
46. 46
PrevEffective collision
47. 47
SkipConcentration of reactants
48. 48
NextChemical nature of reactants and products
49. 49
50. of
Sum 50exponents of molar concentration is called
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Order
53 of reaction
54. 54
55.Molecularity
55
56. 56 of reaction
Rate
57.Average
57 of reaction
58. 58
In59.
rate59expression the concentration of reactants is negative. It shows
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Concentration
62 of reactant does not change
63.Concentration
63 of product increases
64.Concentration
64
of reactant decreases
65. 65
66.Concentration
66 of reactant increases
67. 67
Unit of rate of reaction is
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
Moles dm-3 sec-1
71. 71
72.Moles
72 sec-1
73.Moles
73 dm-3
74.Mol-1
74 dm-3 sec-1
75. 75
Rate
76. of
76disappearance of reactant is equal to
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Rate
79 of reaction
80.Energy
80 released during reaction
81. 81
Rate of formation of product
82. 82
83.A 83
and b
84. 84
Radiations are absorbed in
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
Spectrophotometer method
Optical relation method
Dilatometric method
Refractometric method

Activated complex is formed due to

Options
Pressure
Ineffective collisions
Effective collision
Temperature

Energy required to form transition state is called

Options
Ea
V
P.E
K.E

Which of the following will have very high rate of reaction?

Options
Double decomposition reaction
Ionic reactions
Neutralization reaction
All of above

Greater the concentration of reactant

Options
Greater will be dx/dt
Dx/dt will be moderate
Lesser will be dx/dt
Any of above

Anything which increases rate of reaction without being involved in the reaction

Options
Promoter
Inhibitor
Catalyst
All of the above

The substances that reduces the effectiveness of a catalyst are called

Options
Promoters
Inhibitors
Poisoning catalysts
Pro-catalysts

When catalysts and reactants are in more than one phase it is

Options
Homogeneous catalysis
Heterogeneous catalysis
Catalysis
Ea

Each catalyst has

Options
Specificity
Its own Ea
Special structure
All of above

Biocatalytical proteins are

Options
Enzymes
Lipids
Substrate
Any of above

A catalyst can not effect

Options
Products
Chemical equilibrium
Reactants
Both a & b

An enzyme has its specificity due to

Options
Substrate
Temperature
Structure
Pressure

When the reaction completes in more than one steps rate of reaction will be determined by

Options
Fast step
Slowest step
All steps
Molecularity of the reaction

Energy of activation for backward reaction is less than forward reaction for ________ reaction

Options
Endothermic
Exothermic
Moderate
Fast

Which statement is incorrect about catalyst

Options
It is used in smaller amount
Decrease activation energy
Specific in action
It affects specific rate constant

Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

Options
2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
Cl2 → 2Cl
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
2HI → H2 + I2
HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


Options
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
2HI → H2 + I2
L2 → 2Cl

Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

Options
The point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;
The point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;
The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;
The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous solutions:

Options
Solubility product constant (Ksp);
Acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
Molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
Molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) shifted to reactants, if:

Options
Temperature will be increased
Pressure will be decreased
Concentration of ammonia will be decreased
Concentration of hydrogen will be increased.

Rate of decomposition of H2O2 will increase if:

Options
Temperature will be increased
Inhibitor will be added
Solvent will be added
Temperature will be decreased

Rate of chemical reaction between gases with increase of pressure, in common:

Options
Increase
Decrease
Remain the same
All of this is possible

For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, increasing of chemical rate of forward reaction is
IMPOSSIBLE if we’ll increase:

Options
Temperature
Pressure
Concentration of hydrogen
Concentration of ammonia

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH shifted to product, if we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Decrease temperature
Decrease concentration of nitrogen

Which factor will effect on shifting of chemical equilibrium for reaction Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) = 3Fe(s)
+ 4H2O(g):

Options
Adding catalyst to system
Changing of pressure
Changing of Fe3O4 concentration
Increasing of hydrogen concentration

Rate of chemical reaction Mg with acetic acid will NOT increase, if we’ll:

Options
Use Mg powder
Increase temperature
Decrease temperature
Add HI to system, as catalyst

For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H process, increasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

Options
Shifting of equilibrium to reactants
Increasing reaction rate for forward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction
Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction

For N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH process, decreasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

Options
Shifting of equilibrium to reactants
Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for forward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction

For reaction 2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2- ΔH shifting equilibrium to product is impossible, if we’ll:

Options
Decrease temperature
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Increase concentration of oxygen

Pressure changing will NOT effect for reaction:

Options
FeO(s) + CO(g) = Fe(s) + CO2(g
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
2CO(g) + O2(g) = 2CO2(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

Decreasing of pressure shifts equilibrium to products in case:

Options
FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)
CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

Increasing of concentration of reactants shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
Fe(s) + H2O(g) = FeO(s) + H2(g)
H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI

Increasing of temperature shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
2NH3(g) = N2(g) +3H2(g)+ ΔH
2H2(g) + O2 = 2H2O – H
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Decrease pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase concentration of CO2
Increase pressure

For reaction C(s) + 2N2O(g) = 2N2(g) + CO2(g)- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is possible, due
these factors:

Options
Increasing of pressure; decreasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; increasing N2O concentration
Increasing of pressure; decreasing CO2 concentration
Increasing of pressure; decreasing N2O concentration

With the highest rate of chemical reaction, next oxidation reaction will go:

Options
Cu on air in standard conditions
Cu on pure O2 with temperature elevation
Mg on air in normal temperature
Mg on pure O2 with temperature elevation

To increase product’s yield of reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, one should:

Options
Decrease pressure
Add catalyst
Increase concentration of hydrogen
Increase temperature

For reaction SO2 + O2 = SO3 – H, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, due these factors:

Options
Increasing of pressure; Increasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; Decreasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; Increasing of temperature
Increasing of pressure; Decreasing of temperature

For reaction SO32-(sol) + H2O = HSO3- (sol)+ OH-(sol)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is
impossible, if we’ll:

Options
Add an acid
Add a water
Add an alkali
Increase temperature

Decreasing of volume will NOT shift equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3(sol)
H2SO3(sol) = H2O(l) + SO2(g)
2NH3(g) = N2(g) + 3H2(g)

Increasing of volume will shift equilibrium to products in case:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)
2C(s) + O2(g) = 2CO(g)
H2SO3(sol) = H2O(l) + SO2(g)
BaO(s) +CO2(g) = BaCO3(g)

If temperature is increased, then:

Options
Rate of exothermic as well as endothermic reactions is increases.
Rate of exothermic reactions is increases but decreases for endothermic reactions
Rate of endothermic reactions is increases but decreases for exothermic reactions
Rate of exothermic as well as endothermic reactions is decreases.

For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Decrease pressure
Increase H2CO3 concentration

Changing of concentration of A will NOT effecton rate of reaction:

Options
A(g) + B(g) = AB(g)
2A(g) + B(g) = A2B(g)
2A(s) + 2B(g) = 2AB(s)
A(g) + 2B(g) = AB2(g)

Rate of homogeneous exothermic reaction of ammonia synthesis CANNOT be increased, if we’ll

Options
Increase temperature
Use catalyst
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature

Choose the main reason of reaction rate elevation though temperature increase.

Options
Number of molecular collisions is increased
Activation energy is increased
Activation energy is decreased
Number of active molecules is increased

Addition of catalyst increases reaction rate due to:

Options
Activation energy is increased
Activation energy is decreased
Number of active molecules is decreased
Enthalpy of reaction is increased
Addition of catalyst increases reaction rate of:

Options
Only straight reaction
Only backward reaction
Both types: straight and backward reactions
For homogeneous reactions

When system moves to equilibrium…

Options
Rates of forward and backward reactions are increases.
Rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward decreases
Rate of backward reaction increases and rate forward of decreases
Rates of forward and backward reactions are decreases

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g), if temperature is increased, shifts to reactants.


Why?

Options
Because rate of backward reaction increases and rate forward of decreases
Rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward decreases
Rates of forward and backward reactions are increases, but in greater degree increases for
backward reaction
Rates of forward and backward reactions are decreases, but in greater degree decreases for
forward reaction

For reaction HNO2 + H2O = H3O+ + NO2 + ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease temperature
Increase temperature
Add to system some acid
Increase pressure

For reaction CO(g) + 2H2(g) = CH3OH(l)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease pressure
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Increase CO concentration

Increasing of pressure and decreasing of temperature separately will NOT shift equilibrium in
same direction:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H
2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2 – H
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H

Increasing of temperature and decreasing of pressure separately will shift equilibrium in same
direction:

Options
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl – H
2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2 – H
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl + ΔH

Industrial synthesis of sulfur oxide (VI) SO2 + O2 = SO3 – H is carried out at high temperaturein
order to:

Options
Shift equilibrium to right
Shift equilibrium to left
Increase rate of reaction
Decrease activation energy of process

For reaction 2HgO(s)= 2Hg(s) + O2(g)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Increase temperature
Increase pressure
Increase O2 concentration
Decrease temperature

For reaction FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)- ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if
we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase concentration of FeO
Increase concentration of H2O

Find correct statement:

Options
The higher activation energy of reaction, the higher reaction rate
The lower activation energy of reaction, the higher reaction rate
Reaction rate doesn’t depend on activation energy of reaction
Enthalpy of reaction depends on number of steps of reaction

How reaction rate changes for reaction Mg + 2HCl = MgCl2 + H2, if piece of Mg (1 g) will break into
1000 same blocs?

Options
Remain the same
Increase 10 times
Increase 100 times
Increase 1000 times

For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g), shifting equilibrium to products is impossible, if we’ll add
to system:

Options
Ammonia
HCl
N2
H2

For one-step reaction rate equation is v=kc(A2) That reaction is…

Options
B2(g) + A2(g) = 2AB
2B2(g) + A2 = 2B2A(g)
B(s) + A2(g) = BA2(g)
2BA2(g) + A2(g) = 2BA2(g)

Reaction rate of forward reaction A2(g) + 3B2(g) = 2AB3(g), that was found from concentration
changes of A, is 0,01mol/l*sec. Calculate reaction rate from concentrations of B2 and AB3:

Options
0,02 and 0,01
0,03 and -0,02
0,03 and 0,02
0,02 and 0,04

How many times rate of reaction A2(g) + B2(g) = 2AB(l) changes, if concentration of A2 increases
for 3 times.

Options
3
6
9
12

For reaction 2A2(g) + B2(g) = 2A2B(g), if concentration of A2 decreases for 3 times, how reaction
rate will change?

Options
Increase for 3 times
Decrease for 3 times
Increase for 9 times
Decrease for 9 times

How many times pressure should be increased, if we want speed up reaction A(g) + 2B(g) =
2AB2(g) for 125 times?
Options
5
25
100
125

For reaction A + B = AB, if pressureincreases for 4 times, how reaction rate will change?

Options
Remain the same
Increases for 8 times
Increases for 4 times
Increases for 16 times

Increasing concentration of A for 2 times will lead to reaction rate increasing for 4 times, in
reaction…

Options
A2(g) + B2(g) = 2AB(g)
A2(g) + B(s) = BA2(s)
2A2(g) = B(g)
2A2(s) = B(g) + 2C(g)

224.Volume of exuded H2, in reaction between Fe and H2SO4(sol), if piece of Fe (10g) will break in
125 cubes, increases for:

Options
2 times
5 times
15 times
125 times

Solvents can be…

Options
Liquid
Gaseous
Solid
Every one of these types

Solutions, in difference with pure substances…

Options
Homogeneous
Instable
Have constant composition
Can be colored or colorless

If in solution, in certain conditions, can be added an extra quantity of solute, then this solution
cannot be…
Options
Concentrated
Diluted
Saturated
Unsaturated

After addition an extra quantity of solute to solution, it did not dissolve. Then we can say, that
solution:

Options
Diluted
Concentrated
Saturated
Unsaturated

On solubility of solid substances in liquids doesn’t affect:

Options
Temperature
Nature of solute
Nature of solvent
Stirring

For reaction 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2 (g) - ΔH, shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease pressure
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase CO concentration
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5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
Question
27. 27 (1/285)
28. 28
Which
29. 29of the following statements is true?
30. 30
Options
31. 31
32.NaCl
32 is a neutral salt;
33.KOH
33 is an acid;
34.HCl
34 and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.
35.NaBr
35 is basic salt.
36. 36
37. 37
Functional Group of Ether:
38. 38
39. 39
Options
40.H40–C=O
41. 41
C–O–C
42. 42
43.C 43
–C
44.C 44
–X
45. 45
Which
46. 46pairing is not a set of conjugates?
47. 47
Options
48. 48
49.OH-
49 and H2O;
50.HC2H3O2
50 and C2H3O2-;
51.HCl
51 and Cl-;
52.NH3
52 and NH4+;
53. 53
54. 54
Functional
Prev Group of Aldehyde:
55. 55
Skip
56. 56
Options
Next
57.C 57
– CO - C
58. 58
C – CH = O
59. 59
60.C 60
–X
61.O61
= C – OH
62. 62
Which
63. 63reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?
64. 64
Options
65. 65
66.HF
66+ LiOH → H2O + LiF;
67.2HCl
67 + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2;
68. 68
2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2
69. 69
70.K2O
70 + H2O → 2KOH;
71. 71
Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?
72. 72
73. 73
Options
74. 74
75.KOH
75 is potassium hydroxide;
76.H2SO3
76 is sulfurous acid;
77.HI77is hydroiodic acid;
78.HClO2
78 is chloric acid
79. 79
80. 80salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?
Which
81. 81
Options
82. 82
83.AgCl;
83
84.PbBr2;
84
85. 85
Ca3(PO4)2;
86. 86
87.Na2CO3
87
88. 88
A 89.
solution
89 of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:
90. 90
91. 91
Options
92. 92
93.Unsaturated;
93
94.Supersaturated;
94
95.Saturated
95
96.Dilute
96
97. 97
98.net
The 98 ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate and
99.
sodium 99 chloride would include all of the following except:
100. 100
Options
101. 101
102.Cl-;
102
103.2Na+;
103
104. 104
CaCO3d
105. 105
106.All
106of the substances above
107. 107
Functional
108. 108 Group of Ketone:
109. 109
Options
110. 110
111.C-CO-C
111
112.C 112
–X
113.C 113
– OH
114.#NAME?
114
115. 115
Which
116. 116solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?
117. 117
Options
118. 118
119.1.5
119
m NaCl;
120.1.5
120
m AgCl;
121. 121
2.0 m C6H12O6;
122. 122
123.2.0 m CaCl2
123
124. 124
Functional Group of Amine:
125. 125
126. 126
Options
127. 127
128.C 128
– NR – R’
129.O129
= C – OH
130.H130
–C=O
131.C 131
– OH
132. 132
133. 133
Which equation is correctly balanced?
134. 134
Options
135. 135
136.Na136
+ Cl2 → 2NaCl;
137.CH4
137+ 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;
138. 138
2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;
139. 139
140.H2SO4
140 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;
141. 141
Functional
142. 142 Group of Amide:
143. 143
Options
144. 144
145.O145
= C – OH
146.C 146
– NR – R’
147.H147
–C=O
148.HOC
148– NR – R’
149. 149
150. 150has lowest oxidation number in
Sulphur
151. 151
Options
152. 152
153.H2SO3
153
154.SO2
154
155. 155
156.H2SO4
156
H2S
157. 157
158. 158
Functional
159. 159 Group of Nitrile:
160. 160
Options
161. 161
162.- C≡N
162
163.O163
= C – OH
164.C 164
– NR – R’
165.HOC
165– NR – R’
166. 166
167. 167
Amino acides are building blocks of:
168. 168
Options
169. 169
170.Ketones
170
171. 171
Aldehydes
172. 172
173.Proteins
173
Ethers
174. 174
175. 175
Which
176. 176of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
177. 177
Options
178. 178
179.H2S
179
180.SO3
180
181.H2O2
181
182.F2182
183. 183
184. 184 are composed of:
Proteins
185. 185
186. 186
Options
187.20187
different amino acids
188. 188
15 different amino acids
189. 189
190.15190
different aldehydes
191.17191
different ethers
192. 192
Which
193. 193of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
194. 194
Options
195. 195
196.O3196
197.KMnO4
197
198.H2O2
198
199.K2Cr2O7
199
200. 200
201.
In the201
redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
202. 202
203. 203
Options
204.X=2
204y=4 z=10
205. 205
X=2 y=6 z=5
206. 206
207.X=2
207y=3 z=8
208.X=2
208y=3 z=10
209. 209
Reduction
210. 210 involves
211. 211
Options
212. 212
213.Loss
213of electrons
214.Gain
214 of electrons
215.Increase
215 in the valency of positive part
216. 216
Decrease in the valency of negative part
217. 217
218. 218 type of α-amine acid - triptophane
Determine
219. 219
220. 220
Options
221.Essential
221
222.Non-essential
222
223. 223
Semi- essential
224. 224
225.None
225 of these
226. 226
Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine
227. 227
228. 228
Options
229. 229
Aliphatic
230. 230
231.Aromatic
231
232.Heterocyclic
232
233.Complex
233
234. 234
The
235.strongest
235 reducing agent is
236. 236
Options
237. 237
238.HNO2
238
239.H2S
239
240. 240
H2SO3
241. 241
242.SnCl2
242
243. 243
Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of sugar rest
244. 244
245. 245
Options
246. 246
247.C1247
248.C2248
249.C3249
250.C4250
251. 251
252. 252 acid exists in form of cation in
α-Amine
253. 253
Options
254. 254
255.Acidic
255 medium
256.Neutral
256 medium
257. 257
Basic medium
258. 258
259.Any
259medium
260. 260
An electrolyte
261. 261 is one
262. 262
Options
263. 263
264.Which
264 conducts electric current
265.Which
265 is capable of ionization by passing electric current
266.Which
266 dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
267.None
267 of the above
268. 268
269. 269 acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in
α-Amine
270. 270
Options
271. 271
272.Acidic
272 medium
273.Neutral
273 medium
274. 274
275.Basic
275 medium
276.Any
276medium
277. 277
278. 278
Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to
279. 279
280. 280
Options
281.Dilution
281
282. 282
Number of ions
283. 283
284.Current
284 density
285.Volume
285 of the solution

How many α-amine acidrests are in polypeptide

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:

Options
-1/3
-1
+1
-3

Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides

Options
Coordination
Ionic
Hydrogen
Hydrofobic

Which of the following is an insulator?

Options
Graphite
Aluminium
Diamond
Silicon

Choose peptide bond

Options
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
-C-C-

In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O

Options
X=4 y=6
X=8 y=3
X=8 y=6
X=3 y=8

Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O

Options
10
8
5
2

Lactose is

Options
Monose
Unreducing disaccharide
Amine acid
Reducing disaccharide

Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

Options
F2
Cl2
Br2
I2

Oxidation involves

Options
Loss of electrons
Gain of electrons
Increase in the valency of negative part
Decrease in the valency of positive part

Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

Options
Oxidation
Reduction
Esterification
Transamination
Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of

Options
Aldose
Pyranose
Fructose
Furanose

Glicaric acids are produced under action of

Options
Mild oxidant
Strong reductant
Mildreductant
Strong oxidant

Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide

Options
Coordination
Ionic
Hydrogen
Glycoside

Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms

Options
C5 and N1
C1 and N9
C3 and N9
C1 and N1

Components of nucleotide

Options
Protein
Amine acid rest
OH
Thymine

Monomeric link of protein

Options
Sugar rest
Isoprene
Amine acid rest
Ethylene

Unsaponified lipids are


Options
Mono-component
Di-component
Three-component
Poly-component

DNA contains

Options
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis

Options
Alcohols, carboxylicacids
Carboxylicacids
Alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

Determine type of α-amine acid - valine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of

Options
Transamination
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation

α-amine acid exists in form of anion in

Options
Acidic medium
Neutral medium
Basic medium
Any medium

How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is

Options
-2
-1
0
-4

The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:

Options
SO2
CaO
Al2O3
CrO3

In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers

Options
Intermolecular
Intramolecular
Disproportion
None of them

Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?

Options
CH3COONa
C2H5OH
NaCl
KOH

Element accepting electrons is called

Options
Product
Oxidant
Reactant
Reductant

One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:

Options
F
Cl
He
Na

The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:

Options
-3 to +5
-1 to +1
-3 to -5
-5 to +1

Strong electrolytes are those which

Options
Dissolve readily in water
Conduct electricity
Dissociate into ions at high dilution
Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

Which of the following conducts electricity?

Options
Crystal NaCl
Diamond
Molten KBr
Sulphur

How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at

Options
Anode
Cathode
Both A & B
The surface of the electrolyte solution

Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins

Options
Coordination
Hydrofobic
Glycoside
Metallic

Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Choose disulphide bond

Options
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
–C-C-

Oxidation Number of Halogens are:

Options
-1
-2
4
0
How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose

Options
1
2
3
4

Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:

Options
1
-2
-4
0

Sucrose is

Options
Monose
Unreducing disaccharide
Amine acid
Reducing disaccharide

Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by

Options
Oxidation
Reduction
Esterification
Transamination

Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


Options
Transamination
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation

In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation number

Options
Intermolecular
Double exchange
Intramolecular
Disproportion

In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed

Options
Intermolecular
Double exchange
Counter disproportion
Disproportion

Gliconic acids are produced under action of

Options
Mild oxidant
Strongreductant
Mildreductant
Strong oxidant

Element loosing electrons is called

Options
Product
Oxidant
Reactant
Reductant

Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides

Options
Glycozides
Acids
Polyols
Salts

Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms:

Options
C5 and N1
C1 and N9
C3 and N9
C1 and N1

Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:

Options
The interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
The heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
The scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
The study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems
in terms of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

Components of nucleoside

Options
Phosphate group
Carbonyl group
Thymine
Sugar rest

In what case there is an oxidation process:

Options
KMnO4→MnO2;
HNO2→NO2;
Cl2O→HCl;
P→H3PO4.

Monomeric link of terpene

Options
Sugar rest
Isoprene
Amine acid res
Ethylene

Point out the correct statements:

Options
A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl →
CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O

Options
1
6
14
3

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

Options
Mn(OH)2;
MnO42-;
MnO2;
Mn2+.

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

Options
Fe2O3 + HCl;
FeCl3+H2S;
Fe+ HCl;
SO3+NaOH.

Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction: KMnO4 + H2O2
+H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

Options
2
5
10
3

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:

Options
Accepts electrons;
Donates electrons;
Increases its oxidation number;
Decreases its concentration

Saponified lipids are

Options
Mono-component
Three-component
Without any component
Poly-component

Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consistsfromzinc consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:

Options
Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

Options
1+;
2+;
0;
1-;

RNA contains

Options
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?

Options
HCl;
KClO3;
HClO2;
KClO4

Simple lipids form under hydrolysis

Options
Alcohols, carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids
Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

Options
Al;
Fe3+
Fe3+Al3+;
Al3+ Fe3+;

Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine:

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

Options
Loses 1 electron;
Loses 1 proton;
Gains 1 electron;
Gains 1 proton

Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

Options
Cr;
Ni2+;
Cr3+;
Ni

Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

Options
2
3
5
10

Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

Options
It allows ion migration;
It allows neutron migration;
It allows electron migration;
It prevents ion migration;

Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

Options
Br2;
Cl2;
F2;
I2

Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is called:

Options
Neutralization;
Esterification;
Electrolysis;
Hydrolysis

Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

Options
In molecule of cytochrome b
In molecule of vitamin B12
In molecule of catalase
In molecule of vitamin B6

Determine type of α-amine acid - serine:

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

Options
Enzyme catalase
Enzyme superoxide dismutase
Cytochrome P450
Glutathione peroxidase

Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

Options
Hypervitaminosis
Hypovitaminosis
Avitaminosis
Acidosis

Determine type of α-amine acid – serine;

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Vitamin A deficiency can cause:

Options
Xeroftalmia
Increased blood coagulation
Growth acceleration
Anemia

The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin B1
Vitamin K
Thiamine

Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

ZnO is used as

Options
Protective
Astringent
Both (a) & (b)
Antidote

Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

Options
Oxidation
Halogenation
Protein precipitate
All of the above

Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine;

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Hydrogen peroxide is used as

Options
Antiseptic
Acidifying agent
Protective
Antioxidant

Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

KMnO4 solutions are used for

Options
Antibacterial
Antifungal
Both of the above
Antioxidant

Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these elements:

Options
C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;
H, P, S, C, O, N;
O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;
H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

Choose biogenic macroelement

Options
Cu
P
Br
As

Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar
Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Choose biogenic microelement

Options
Cu
S
Ca
Mg

Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

Options
Rayon
Insulin
Gun cotton
Paper

Complex lipids form under hydrolysis


Options
Alcohols, carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids
Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -3 cm
10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
Less than 10 -7 cm

Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

Options
1
2
3
4

Six major biogenic elements :

Options
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table

Fatty acids are

Options
Unsaturated dicarboxylic acids
Long-chain alkanoic acids
Aromatic carboxylic acids
Aromatic dicarboxylic acids

Five minor biogenic elements:

Options
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called


Options
Proteins
Terpenes
Carbohydrates
Soaps

Trace elements:

Options
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

Soap is

Options
A mixture of salts of fatty acids
A salt of glycerol
A mixture of ethers
A mixture of aromatic ethers

Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:

Options
10-7% - 10-12%
10-9%
10-3– 10-5 %
10-2%

Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:

Options
10-2%
10-3– 10-5 %
10-9%
10-7% - 10-12

Fats and oils are

Options
Monoesters of glycerol
Diesters of glycerol
Triesters of glycerol
Diesters of glycol

Choose biogenic microelement

Options
O
S
N
Zn

Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

Options
More unsaturation
Higher melting points
A glycerol backbone
Longer fatty acids

Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

Options
12 carbons
14 carbons
16 carbons
18 carbons

Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

Options
Hydrogenation
Saponification
Hydrolysis
Oxidation of double bonds

Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:

Options
1
3
-1
-3

Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

Options
Vanaspati ghee
Margarine
Both of these
None of these

Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

Options
Saponification
Fermentation
Diazotization
Rancidification

Saponification of a fat

Options
Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps
Produces glycerol and soap
Is used in the production of detergents
Is used in the production of lactic acid

Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

Options
Fats
Waxes
Soaps
Oils

The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

Options
Iodine number
Octane number
Saponification number
Melting point

Zwitterion is

Options
An ion that is positively charged in solution
An ion that is negatively charged in solution
A compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid
A carbohydrate with an electrical charge

A coordination compound consists of

Options
A metal ion and counterions
Ligands bound to counterions
A complex ion and counterions
A metal ion bound to one or more ligands

The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:

Options
0
4
3
6

A zwitterions has which of the following properties

Options
No net charge
A high melting point
Soluble in water
All of these

Name the following coordination compound: K4[Fe(CN)6]

Options
Name the following coordination compound: K4[Fe(CN)6]
Potassium cyanoferrate(II)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)

An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:

Options
Carbonion
Zwitterions
Carbonium ions
Free radicals

The coordination number is:

Options
The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
The number of positively charged particles in the complex

Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

Options
Carbonyl compounds
Amino acids
Phenols
Heterocyclic compounds

Number of hem sections in mioglobin

Options
1
2
3
4

The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric field is
known as its:

Options
Isoelectric point
Dipole moment
Iodine number
Wave length

Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2

Options
Cationic
Anionic
Monodentate
Neutral

The isoelectric point of a protein is

Options
The pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface
The pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges
The electric charge number under isothermal conditions
None of these

Glycine is

Options
NH2CH2COOH
NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2
NO2 CH2CH2 COOH
Br CH2 COOH

Ethylenediamine would be called

Options
Dentate
Bidentate
Tridentate
Tetradentate

Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

Options
Has no chiral carbon
Has a sulphur containing R group
Cannot form a peptide bond
Is an essential amino acid
Proteins are

Options
Polyamides
Polymers of ethylene
α-Aminocarboxylic acids
Polymers of propylene

The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

Options
C,H,O,P,S
N,C,H,O,I
N,S,C,H,O
C,H,O,S,I

Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

Options
Peptide linkage
Ester linkage
Ether linkage
α,β-Linkage

Name the following coordination compound: [Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3

Options
Triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
Triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
Triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
Amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

Which of the following are bidentate ligands? (1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide (2) ammonia,
NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2- (3) chloride, Cl- (6) en

Options
1, 4, 5
1, 5, 6
1, 6
2, 3, 4, 5

The primary structure of a protein refers to:


Options
Whether the protein is fibrous or globular
The amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain
The orientation of the amino acid side chains in space
The presence or absence of an α-helix

The α-helix is a common form of

Options
Primary structure
Tertiary structure
Secondary structure
None of these

What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?

Options
0
1+
2+
3+

Number of hem sections in hemoglobin

Options
1
2
3
4

The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

Options
Optical activity
Hydrogen bonding
Resonance
Delocalization

Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound

Options
Central ion
Ligands
Outer sphere ions
All constituents

Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements

Options
Does’tchang
Increases
Decreasis
None

The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

Options
Sulphur-sulphur linkages
Peptide bonding
Hydrogen bonding
Glycosidic bonds

Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps

Options
0
1
2 and more
Always without steps

Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

Options
Amino acids
Hydroxyl acids
Fatty acids
Alcohols

Dentantness of porfyrin

Options
2
3
4
5

Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

Options
Ammonia and carbon dioxide
Urea and uric acid
A mixture of amino acids
Glycogen and a fatty acid

Nynhydring test is given by

Options
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Alkanes
Alkenes

Particles playing role of ligands are

Options
Positive ions
Chelates
Negative ions
Complex ions

Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

Options
Ninhydrin test
Biuret test
Xanthoproteic tes
Tollens test

A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is called

Options
Xanthoproteic test
Ninhydring test
Biuret test
Million’s test

A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its formula.

Options
[Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
[Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
[ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
[CrCl2(H2O)4]

What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?

Options
1
3
-2
0

A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

Options
A protein
An amino acid
A monosaccharide
Pyridine

Monosaccharides are classified according to

Options
The number of carbon atoms in the molecule
Whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group
Their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes
All of the above

Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?

Options
Carbonyl;
Nitro;
Acetate;
Oxalate.

Which is a monosaccharide?

Options
Sucrose
Maltose
Galactose
Cellulose

Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride

Options
[Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
[(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
[(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
[Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

Which is a disaccharide?

Options
Glucose
Maltose
Fructose
Cellulose

Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

Options
Ribose
Fructose
Sucrose
Glucose
The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

Options
Indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light
Indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate
Indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group
Indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?

Options
Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?

Options
Tetraamminecopper(II)
Coppertetraammine (II)
Tetraammine(II)copper
Tetra(II)amminecopper

The principal sugar in blood is

Options
Fructose
Glucose
Sucrose
Galactose

Ligand «en» is an example of:

Options
Bidentate ligand;
Monodentate ligand;
Tridentate ligand;
Hexadentate ligand.

The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is

Options
Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


Options
Cationic
Anionic
Trigonal
Neutral

Donor of electrons in coordination compound

Options
Central ion
Outer sphere ions
Ligands
None

Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements

Options
Doesn’t change
Increases
Decreases
None of them

Coordination number of iron in hem

Options
2
3
5
6

Dentatness of EDTA

Options
2
3
4
6

With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability

Options
Increases
Doesn’t change
Decreases
None of them

Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of

Options
Rate of reaction
Donor-acceptor interaction
Protons number
Electrostatic model

Particles playing role of central ion are

Options
Positive ions
Neutral molecules
Negative ions
Complex ions

Find ligand of weak field

Options
OH-
Au
CN-
Fe2+

What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?

Options
Hexaaquacobalt(II)
Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
Cobalthexaaqua(II)

Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)

Options
K3[Fe(CN)6]
Fe [K2(CN)6]
(CN)6[Fe K2]
[FeK2(CN)6

What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?

Options
Tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
Chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
Tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
Tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate

Options
[(en)3Co]SO4
[Co(en)3SO4]
[SO4(en)3]Co
[Co(en)3]SO4

What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?

Options
Linear;
Tetrahedral;
Octahedral;
Trigonal

Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of

Options
Rate of reaction
Donor-acceptor interaction
Protons number
Electrostatic model

Find ligand of strong field

Options
OH-
Au
Cl-
NH3

Dentatness of ligand is

Options
Number of central ions
Charge of central ion
Number of bonds of ligand with central ion
Ion’s total number

Disperse systems consists of:

Options
Dispersion medium, dispersed phase
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
Sol, gel

Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

Options
Dispersion medium, dispersed phase
Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Sol, gel

Glucose cannot be classified as

Options
A hexose
An oligosaccharide
An aldose
A monosaccharide

What is a disperse system?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Coarse systems include

Options
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
Sol, gel
Gel, suspensions.

Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

Options
It is a reducing sugar
It is a disaccharide
It has a pyranose form
It is a polyalcohol

Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

Options
Its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal
It is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone
It is oprtically active
It shows mutarotation

What is the Emulsion?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Common table sugar is

Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Fructose
Maltose

Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

Options
Glucose
Fructose
Lactose
None of the above

Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?

Options
It is also called table sugar
It may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol
It reduces Fehling’s solution
It does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

What is the suspension?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

Options
Lactose
Sucrose
Maltose
Fructose

What is the aerosol?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Sols are:

Options
Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
Blood, lymph.
Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
Blood, jelly, marmalade.

Starch

Options
Is a trisaccharide
Is also called amylose
Is also called amylopectin
Is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin

Gels are:

Options
Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
Blood, lymph.
Blood, jelly, marmalade.

Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:

Options
Medical products
Colored glass
Pumice
Fog

Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:

Options
Soil
Moist soil
Rocks
Fog

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

Options
Natural gas
Gas from oil droplets
Smog
Colored glass

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:

Options
Natural gas
Aerosols
Dust storms
Pearl

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

Options
Fizzy drinks, foam
Body fluids
Pastes,mortar
Smog

Colloidal solutions include:

Options
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
Sol, gel
Saline solution in water

Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:

Options
Cosmetic products
Porous chocolate
Some alloys
Fog

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

Options
Dust in the air
Aerosol
Fog
Does not exist

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:

Options
Sols
Emulsion oil
Fizzy drinks
Fog

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

Options
Cream, milk
Foam
Pastes
Chocolate

Colloid particles have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -3 cm
10 -5 - 10 -3 m
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -7 m

Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =

Options
Negative
Positive
Without charge
Zero

Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

Options
Ba2+
H+
SO4 2-
H+

Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing

Options
Condensation
Change of solvent
Red-ox reaction
Peptization

Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate

Options
NaCl
Сa3(PO4)2
CaCl2
FeCl3

Optical property typical to colloid systems

Options
Reflection
Absorption
Scattering
Diffusion

Find optical property

Options
Diffusion
Osmosis
Electroosmosis
Absorption

Powder is

Options
L/s
L/l
S/l
S/g

Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties

Options
μ
η
φ
ξ

Particles of coarse systems have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -5 m
10 -9 - 10 -7 m
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -9 m

Particles of true solutions have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -5 m
10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -7 m
Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

Options
Positive
Negative
Without charge
Zero

Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =

Options
None
Cl-
SO4 2-
Ba2+

Choose condensation method of colloids producing

Options
Coagulation
Change of solvent
Red-ox reaction
Peptization

Optical property typical to coarse systems

Options
Reflection
Absorption
Scattering
Diffusion

Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one

Options
Absorption
Osmosis
Brownian movement
Diffusion

Aerosol is

Options
L/s
L/l
S/l
S/g

Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties


Options
μ
η
Md
λ

Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:

Options
Suspensions;
Electrolytes;
Molecular solutions;
Alloys

Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:

Options
Colloids;
Gas mixtures;
Saturated solutions;
Alloys.

The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:

Options
Coagulation;
Tyndall effect;
Peptization;
Dialysis
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20. 20
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22. 22
Question
23. 23 (1/328)
24. 24
Solutions
25. 25 which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity
26. 26 or osmolality. These concentration units express:
27. 27
Options
28. 28
29.Concentrationofwater;
29
30.Concentration
30 of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
31.Concentration
31 of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
32.Concentration
32
of electrolytes.
33. 33
34. 34organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?
Which
35. 35
36. 36
Options
37.CCl4;
37
38. 38
C3H5(OH)3;
39. 39
40.C6H6;
40
41.C6H12O6.
41
42. 42
Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:
43. 43
44. 44
Options
45. 45
46.3 46
Prev
% sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
47. 47
Skip0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
48. 48
Next0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
49. 49
20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.
50. 50
51.structure
The 51 of an alkene contains
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Only
54 single bonds;
55. 55
56.A 56
double bond;
57.Two
57 double bonds;
58.A 58
triple bond.
59. 59
Define
60. 60the Raoult’scryoscopic law:
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.Freezing
63 points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure
64. 64
solvents;
65.Freezing
65
points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
66. 66
solvents;
67. 67
68.Freezing
68 points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
69.Freezing
69 points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.
70. 70
The
71.first
71 Raoult’s Law is defined as:
72. 72
Options
73. 73
74.The
74 vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
75. 75
76.The
76 decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
77.The
77 vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of
pure 78
78. solvents;
79.The
79 vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure
80. 80
solvents.
81. 81
As82.
the82members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van der
Waals83forces between the molecules
83.
84. 84
85. 85
Options
86.Decreases;
86
87. 87
Increases;
88. 88
89.Remains
89 the same;
90.Decreases
90 then increases.
91. 91
In92.
order
92 to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:
93. 93
Options
94. 94
95.To95increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
96.To96add some electrolytes into a solution;
97.To97add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
98.To98increase temperature.
99. 99
100. 100
Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?
101. 101
102. 102
Options
103.CH4;
103
104. 104
C2H6;
105. 105
106.C3H8;
106
107.C4H10.
107
108. 108
What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?
109. 109
110. 110
Options
111. 111
112.6 112
113.2 113
114.8 114
115. 115
116.4 116
117. 117
118. 118is a spontaneous process defined as:
Osmosis
119. 119
Options
120. 120
121.A 121
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
122. 122
from a solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
123.A 123
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
124. 124
from a truesolution to a colloidal solution;
125. 125
A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane
126. 126
from a pure water to a solution;
127. 127
128.A 128
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
from a
129. 129dilute solution into a more concentrated one.
130. 130
In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?
131. 131
132. 132
Options
133. 133
134.CH3COOH;
134
C3H5(OH)3;
135. 135
136.CH3CH2OH;
136
137.CH3OH.
137
138. 138
A139. 139 in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used commercially
process
140.
to 140 the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is called
increase
141. 141
Options
142. 142
143.Polymerization;
143
144.Hydrogenation;
144
145. 145
Esterification;
146. 146
147.Cracking.
147
148. 148
Organic
149. 149compounds must contain
150. 150
Options
151. 151
152.Oxygen;
152
Nitrogen;
153. 153
154.Hydrogen;
154
155.Carbon.
155
156. 156
157.angle
The 157 formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an organic
158. 158 is a(an)
compound
159. 159
Options
160. 160
161.Dihedral
161 angle;
162.Right
162 angle;
163. 163
164.Tetrahedral
164 angle;
165.Acute
165 angle.
166. 166
A167.
specific
167 arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an organic
molecule
168. 168 is known as a(an)
Options
169. 169
170.Carboxyl
170 group;
171. 171
Functional group;
172. 172
173.Group;
173
174. 174 group.
Alkyl
175. 175
The
176.ability
176 of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of compounds that
are
177. 177
178. 178
Options
179. 179
180.Molecular;
180
181.Ionic;
181
182.Polar;
182
183.Atomic.
183
184. 184
185. many
How 185 carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?
186. 186
187. 187
Options
188.5 188
189. 189
8
190. 190
191.6 191
192.13192
193. 193
The
194.series
194 of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two adjacent
carbon
195. 195atoms is known as the
196. 196
Options
197. 197
198.Alkanes;
198
199.Alkenes;
199
200.Alkynes;
200
201.Benzenes.
201
202. 202
203. 203 reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated hydrocarbons
Addition
204. 204unsaturated hydrocarbons
because
205. 205
206. 206
Options
207.Contain
207 multiple bonds;
208. 208
Have a greater molecular mass;
209. 209
210.Have
210 tetrahedral bonds;
211.Contain
211 more atoms.
212. 212
A213.
dihydroxy
213 alcohol that is made from ethane is
214. 214
Options
215. 215
216.Ethanol;
216
217.Glycerol;
217
218.Ethylene
218 glycol;
219. 219
Ethane.
220. 220
A221.
long 221
chain protein is an example of a(an)
Options
222. 222
223.Fat;
223
224. 224
Polymer;
225. 225
226.Isomer;
226
Monomer.
227. 227
228. 228
Which
229. 229represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
230. 230
Options
231. 231
232.C2H4;
232
233.C2H6;
233
234.C3H8;
234
235.C4H10.
235
236. 236
237. many
How 237 double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?
238. 238
239. 239
Options
240.1 240
241. 241
2
242. 242
243.3 243
244.4 244
245. 245
Cryoscopy
246. 246 and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:
247. 247
Options
248. 248
249.Density;
249
250.Viscosity;
250
251.Molar
251 mass;
252.Osmotic
252 pressure.
253. 253
254.osmolarity
The 254 of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:
255. 255
256. 256
Options
257.2.0×10-2osmol;
257
258. 258
1.0×10-1osmol;
259. 259
260.3.0×10-2osmol;
260
261.5.0×10-3osmol.
261
262. 262
Osmolarity
263. 263 is:
264. 264
Options
265. 265
266.The
266molarity of particles in a solution;
267.The
267amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
268.Mass
268 percentage concentration;
269. 269
The concentration in parts per thousand.
270. 270
271. 271
Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?
272. 272
273. 273
Options
274.Butane;
274
275.Propane;
275
276.1-chlorobutane;
276
277. 277
278.1-chloropropane.
278
279. 279
Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:
280. 280
281. 281
Options
282. 282
TT= MRT;
283. 283
284.Tf284
= Kf Cm;
285.Tb285
= KbCm;
286.Tf286
=iKf Cm.
287. 287
A288.
fermentation
288 reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both can produce
289. 289
Options
290. 290
291.An291
ester;
292.An292
alcohol;
293. 293
An acid;
294. 294
295.A 295
soap.
296. 296
Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:
297. 297
298. 298
Options
299. 299
300.740-780
300 kPa;
301.140-240
301 kPa;
302.840-980
302 kPa;
303.60-70
303 kPa.
304. 304
305. 305 properties of solutions depend upon:
Colligative
306. 306
Options
307. 307
308.The
308number of the solute particles;
309.The
309chemical structure of solute;
310. 310
Catalysts;
311. 311
312.PH scale.
312
313. 313
Which
314. 314is a saturated hydrocarbon?
315. 315
Options
316. 316
317.C3H8;
317
318.C6H6;
318
319.C2H5OH;
319
320.C2H4O2.
320
321. 321
322. 322
Boiling point of solution with concentration rise
323. 323
Options
324. 324
325.Increases
325
326.Remains
326 same
327. 327
328.Decreases
328
No effect

Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution

Options
Increases
Remains same
Decreases
None of them

Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise

Options
Increases
Remains same
Decreases
Increases then decreases

For spontaneous processes?

Options
∆H ≥ 0
∆S ≤ 0
∆G ≥ 0
∆H≤ 0

Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on

Options
Concentration
Nature of solvent
Temperature
Nature of solute

Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional to

Options
Temperature
Molar fraction of solute
Molar fraction of solvent
Mixing rate

Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Hypertonic

Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry
Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Propane;
Propyne.

CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as

Options
A carbohydrate;
An ester;
An alcohol;
An organic acid.

Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

Options
Benzene;
Propyne;
Methane;
Ethanol.

As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling points

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases.

As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the ratio of carbon
atoms to hydrogen atoms

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases

The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the

Options
Nature of solute and solvent
Rate at which the gas dissolves
Temperature
Pressure

Which compound is most likely to react by addition?


Options
CH4;
C3H6;
C4H10;
C5H12.

Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

Options
Propanol;
Glycerol;
Butanol;
Pentanol.

Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Pentene;
Butene.

Which involves the colligative properties?

Options
Heating of solvent.
Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature
Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

Options
Alkene;
Alkane;
Alkyne;
Alkadiene.

Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

Options
Aldehydes;
Esters;
Polymers;
Ketones.

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration
is known as :

Options
Osmosis
Diffusion
Active Transport
Phagocytosis

The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

Options
Primary alcohol;
Secondary alcohol;
Tertiary alcohol;
Dihydroxy alcohol.

What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

Options
10
8
6
4

Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

Options
Butane;
Ethane;
Pentane;
Propane.

Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

Options
C5H8;
C5H10;
C5H12;
C5H14.

The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :

Options
Active Transport
Diffusion
Phagocytosis
Osmosis

The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

Options
Ionic;
Coordinate covalent;
Covalent;
Hydrogen.

The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
against the concentration gradient is known as :

Options
Active Transport
Diffusion
Osmosis
Phagocytosis

As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the number
of double bonds per molecule

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases.

In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

Options
Water;
Carbon dioxide;
An acid;
A base.

Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

Options
C2H5OH;
C2H4(OH)2;
C3H5(OH)3;
C3H6(OH)2.

In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound formed is

Options
An ester;
A ketone;
An acid;
An ether.

Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon

Options
Ethene;
Ethane;
Ethylene;
Ethyne.

Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

Options
Al(OH)3;
C3H5(OH)3;
Ca(OH)2;
C2H4(OH)2.

The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

Options
Glycerol;
Ethylene glycol;
Propene;
Propanoic acid.

Which organic compound is a ketone?

Options
CH3OH;
CH3COCH3;
CH3COOH;
CH3COOCH3.

Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

Options
Butane;
Ethane;
Methane;
Propane.

Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

Options
Oxidation;
Cracking;
Haber;
Contact.

Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular forces have

Options
Low melting points;
Low vapor pressure;
High conductivity in solution;
High boiling points.

What is the formula for pentanol?

Options
C5H12;
C5H11OH;
C4H10;
C4H9OH.

Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Toluene;
Butadiene

Colligative properties of the solution depend on

Options
Nature of solute
Nature of solvent
Number of particles present in the solution
Number of moles of solvent only

Which compound contains a triple bond?

Options
CH4;
C2H2;
C3H6;
C4H10.

Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

Options
Substitution;
Oxidation;
Addition polymerization;
Condensation, polymerization.

Which one is a colligative property?

Options
Boiling point
Vapour pressure
Osmotic pressure
Freezing point

In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling points by

Options
The contact process;
The Haber process;
Fractional distillation;
Cracking.

Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

Options
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of b.p.
Vapour pressure
Depression of f.p.

Which is not a colligative property?

Options
Freezing point
Lowering of vapour pressure
Depression of freezing point
Elevation of boiling point

Organic acids are composed of a

Options
C = O group at the end of the chain
COO– group
C = O and COH group on the same carbon
C = O and COH group on different carbons

Which of the following is a true statement?

Options
Ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
Aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
Ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol
Organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

Which of the following is a colligative property?

Options
Surface tension
Viscosity
Osmotic pressure
Boiling point

The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

Options
Solute molecules to the solvent molecules
Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law was
given by

Options
Raoult
Ostwald
Van’t Hoff
Lewis

According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

Options
Moles of solute
Mole fraction of solvent
Moles of solvent
Mole fraction of solute

A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

Options
An ideal solution
Non-ideal solution
Suspension
Emulsion

When common salt is dissolved in water

Options
M. p. of the solution increases
B. p. of the solution increases
B. p. of the solution decreases
Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

Options
Molecular wt. of solute
Molecular wt. of solvent
Molality of solute
None of these
When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then phenomenon
taking place is called

Options
Osmosis
Diffusion
Cataphoresis
Plasmolysis

The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

Options
П =ST/C
П = CT/S
П = SC/T
П / C = ST

Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

Options
An alcohol with an ether
A carboxylic acid with a ketone
A carboxylic acid with an alcohol
A ketone with an aldehyde

If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in 100mL water,
which of the following is true about solution A and B ?

Options
Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
None of them.

The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

Options
Ethylpropanoate
Propylethanoate
Propethanoate
None of the above

What happens during osmosis?

Options
Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.
Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.
Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.
Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.
Which of the following is classified as an ether?

Options
CH3CHOHCH3
CH2(OH)CH2CH3
CH2COCH3
CH3OCH3

According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

Options
The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.
The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.
The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increases.

Polymers are

Options
Molecules made of monomers
Molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule
Macromolecules
All of the above

In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?

Options
1000C
Boiling point
Melting point
Freezing point

Classify this reaction: CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

Options
Chlorination
Oxidation
Hydration
Elimination

A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

Options
Electrolyte
Nonelectrolyte
Polar substance
Nonpolar substance

The first member of the ketone family is:


Options
Methanone
Ethanone
Propanone
Butanone

A substance that vaporizes easily is known as

Options
Volatile
Nonvolatile
Electrolyte
Nonelectrolyte

Acetic acid is weak because

Options
It is unstable
It is an organic aliphatic acid
It is slightly ionized
None of these

Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

Options
Concentrated sulfuric acid
Dilute sulfuric acid
Water
None

At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw at
this temperature will be

Options
1x10-6
1x10-12
1x10-14
1x10-5

How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

Options
The rotate at different rates
They have different colours
They have different melting/boiling points
They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

Options
1.8 x 10-7
0.8 x 10-9
3.6 x 10-7
3.6 x 10-9

What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

Options
PCl3 and an alcohol
HCl and an alcohol
HCl and an alcohol, under reflux
Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

Options
A carboxylic acid
A carboxylate salt
Water
Does not react

The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2% ionized
weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

Options
0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively
1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

Options
10-Dec
10-Feb
10-Apr
Oct-13

The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

Options
Oct-13
1013
6.023 x 107
6.0233 x 1010

PH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

Options
10
7
1
14

Name this molecule:

Options
1,2-dimethylbutane
3,4-dimethylbutane
Hexane
3-methylpentane

The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

Options
8
-8
Between 7 and 8
Between 6 and 7

What are alcohols not used in?

Options
Wine
Vinegar
Plastics
Methylated spirits

Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

Options
8
1 x 10-7
7
1

An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Amphoteric

What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?


Options
Hydration
Hydrolysis
Esterification
Polymerisation

The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

Options
Acidic impurities
Ionization
Hydrolysis
Dissociation

What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

Options
CnH2n+1OH
CnH2nOH
CnH2n+2OH
CnH2n+1COOH

FeCl3 solution is

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Amphoteric

Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

Options
Ethanoic acid
Ethanol
Butanoic acid
Ethyl ethanoate

Which is true about ethanoic acid?

Options
It has a higher boiling point than ethanol
It dissociates completely in water
It dimerises in water
It reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

Options
Neutral
Weakly acidic
Strongly acidic
Alkaline

An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

Options
An acidic reaction
A neutral reaction
A basic reaction
Both acidic and basic reaction

Esters are ________.

Options
Made from alcohols and non-organic acids
Used to make perfumes and flavorings
Poisonous
Foul-smelling compounds

An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

Options
Faintly acidic
Fairly acidic
Faintly alkaline
Almost neutral

What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

Options
Carbon monoxide and water
Carbon and water
Carbon dioxide and water
Carbon monoxide and hydrogen

Which one of the following is acid salt?

Options
Na2S
Na2SO3
NaHSO3
Na2SO4

What are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

Options
Ethyl methanoate and water
CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen
Methyl ethanoate and water
CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

Options
Na2SO4
BiOCl
Pb(OH)Cl
Na2HPO4

What is true about carboxylic acids?

Options
Carboxylic acids are strong acids
Carboxylic acids can react with metals
Alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

Which one is not an acid salt?

Options
Na2H2PO4
NaH2PO2
NaH2PO3
None of the above

Esterification is a __________.

Options
Condensation reaction
Irreversible reaction
Addition reaction
Neutralization reaction

Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?

Options
NaCl
NH4Cl
KCl
Na2SO4

Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

Options
Ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane
Ethanol contains a hydroxyl group
Ethanol is used as a fuel
Ethanol is a solvent

Which one will not be hydrolysed?

Options
Potassium nitrate
Potassium cyanide
Potassium succinate
Potassium carbonate

What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

Options
Concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm
Concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis

Options
CH3COOK
NaNO3
KCl
K2SO4

In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

Options
2 bond
3 bond
4 bond
5 bond

Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

Options
(NH4)2SO4
Ba(NO3)2
CrCl3
CuSO4

Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

Options
One σ bond, one π bond
Two π bond, one π bond
One σ bond, two π bond
Two σ bond, two π bond
Acetylene has a total of:

Options
One σ bond, two π bond
Two σ bond, four π bond
Three σ bond, two π bond
One σ bond, four π bond

The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

Options
A strong acid and strong base
A strong acid and weak base
A weak acid and weak base
A weak acid and strong base

Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

Options
KNO3
NaOH
FeCl3
NaCN

In propene there are

Options
Eight σ bond, one π bond
Seven σ bond, two π bond
Six σ bond, three π bond
Nine σ bond

In propyne there are

Options
Six σ bond, two π bond
Seven σ bond, one π bond
Six σ bond, one π bond
Eight σ bond

1-Buten -3-yne has

Options
Six σ bond, four π bond
Seven σ bond, three π bond
Eight σ bond, two π bond
Nine σ bond, one π bond

Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is
Options
CH3CH2CH3
CH3C≡CH
CH2CH=CH2
CH2=CH-CH=CH2

Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is:

Options
CH4
H2N-CH2-NH2
H3C-OH
(CH3)3COH

When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

Options
2 other atoms
4 other atoms
3 other atoms
5 other atoms

Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

Options
C6H6
H2N-CH2-NH2
CH2=CH-CH=CH2
CH3CH=C=CH2

Which of the following is a planar molecule?

Options
Formaldehyde
Acetone
Formic acid
Acetic acid

What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

Options
180o
120o
109.5o
115.5o

The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

Options
60o
109.28o
120o
118.28o

The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

Options
60o
120o
90o
180o

What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

Options
1.20 Ǻ
1.35 Ǻ
1.54 Ǻ
1.68 Ǻ

The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

Options
Triple, duble, single
Single, duble, triple
Single, triple, duble
Duble, triple, single.

Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

Options
C-C < C=C < C≡C
C-C > C≡C > C=C
C≡C > C-C > C=C
C≡C < C=C< C-C

Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

Options
CH2 = CH2
CH3CH3
HC ≡ CH
CHCI3

The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

Options
CH2 = CH2
CH3CH3
HC ≡ CH
CHCI3

Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

Options
Ethyl alcohol
Formaldehyde
Diethyl ether
1,3-butadien

Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

Options
Cis-1,2-dichloroetylene
O- dichlorobenzene
Trans-1,2- dichloroetylene
P- dichlorobenzene

Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

Options
CI2
CO2
CCI4
CHCI3

Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

Options
Carbon tetrachloride
Chloromethane
Dichloromethane
Chloroform

Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

Options
CH3CI
CH3Br
CH3F
CH3I

Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

Options
ClCH2CHClCOOH
CH3CHClCHClCOOH
CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH
C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

Options
Ketone
Aldehyde
Amine
Ester

Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the same
carbon atom?

Options
Ester
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid

Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the same
carbon atom?

Options
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other compounds is
that in aldehydes and ketones

Options
The carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other
carbonyl compounds.
The polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.
The molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.
The carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

The carbonyl group is

Options
Found only in aldehydes and ketones.
Produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.
A functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.
A general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true except

Options
The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.
The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.
Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.
In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

The IUPAC name for acetone is

Options
2-propanone.
Dimethyl ketone
1-propanone.
3-propanal.

The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

Options
3-propanal.
2-propanone.
Acetone.
1-propanone.

Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid solution?

Options
NH4Cl
Al2(SO4)3
AgNO3
NaCN

The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

Options
3- methyl 1 butanone.
2-methylbutanal.
3-methylbutanal
Isopentanal

A buffer solution changes its pH

Options
Increase in pH
Decrease in pH
No change in pH
No change in electrical conductivity

The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

Options
Isobutyl acetone
2- methyl – 4- butanone
4 –methyl – 2- butanone.
4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

About buffer solution which in incorrect?

Options
It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base
It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
All of the above

Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

Options
3-octanone
2-butanone
3- methyl -3-pentanone all are correct
3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

Options
Strong acid and its salt of a weak base
Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

Which is a buffer solution?

Options
CH3COOH + CH3COONa
CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
CH3COOH + NH4Cl
NaOH + NaCl

Which of the following is a buffer?

Options
NaOH + CH3COONa
NaOH + Na2SO4
K2SO4 + H2SO4
NH4OH + NH4Cl

Which is not a buffer solution?

Options
NH4Cl + NH4OH
CH3COOH + CH3COONa
CH3COONa
Borax + Boric acid

Which of the following names does not fit a real compound

Options
3-ethylpentanal
4-methylpentanal
3- methyl- 2- pentanal
2-methylpentanal

PH of blood is

Options
Less than 6
Greater than 7 and less than 8
Greater than 8 and less than 9
Greater than 10

Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

Options
They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded
to oxygen.
Most have distinctive odors.
They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.
They are polar.

Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

Options
Acetic acid + Sodium acetate
Boric acid + Borax
Citric acid + Sodium citrate
All

All of the following are properties of acetone except

Options
Flammable.
Intoxicating.
Solvent for organic substances.
Nutrient.

Give name to positively charged particles:

Options
Radicals;
Molecules;
Anions;
Cations.
Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

Options
Flavoring
Preservative
Hormone
Solvent

What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?

Options
NaNO2;
NaHCO3;
Na2CO3;
KMnO4

Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

Options
CH3-CO-CH3
CH3-CHO
CH3-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:

Options
High heat capacity;
High polarity of molecules;
Lowfreezingpoint;
Low water ionization constant.

Which compound has the highest boiling point?

Options
CH3-CHO
CH3-CH2-CHO
CH3-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

Weak electrolytes are characterized by:

Options
Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
Ionic strength;
Concentration of a gas in a solution;
Ion product for water.

Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:


Options
0.01M
0.001M;
0.1 M;
1.0M.

Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:

Options
Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
Atmospheric pressure;
Boiling point;
Vapor pressure.

According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:

Options
Electrons donors;
Electrons acceptor
Protons donors;
Protons acceptors.

Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:

Options
KCl/HCl;
NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
KHSO4/H2SO4;
NH3 /NH4Cl.

Strong electrolytes are characterized by:

Options
Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
Ionization constant of water;
Acid ionization constant;
All answers are right.

Which compound has the lowest boiling point

Options
CH3-CH2-CHO
CH3-CH2-CH3
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

Options
H2.
Lactic acid.
NADH.
Pyruvic acid.

All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

Options
It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.
Its systematic name is ethanal.
Its common name is acetaldehyde.
Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:

Options
Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

Options
Its systematic name is propanone.
Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone
Its common name is acetone.
Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:

Options
Electrons donor;
Electrons acceptors;
Protons donors;
Protons acceptors.

The acid-base state of blood is determined of:

Options
PH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
POHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
PH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
Concentration of H+ and OH-.

Complex substances or compound classes are divided into

Options
Oxides, acid, base, salt
Oxides, base
Alkalis, salt, oxides
Ampholytes, Alkalis

Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.

Options
Hydroxide(OH -)
Hydrogen(H +)
Ammoniumcation(NH+4)
Hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is methyl ethyl
ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound are ____ .

Options
2-butanone;
2-propanone;
3-butanone;
3-butanone;

Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.

Options
Hydroxide(OH -)
Hydrogen(H +)
Ammoniumcation(NH+4)
(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

Tollens' reagent is used to

Options
Distinguish amines from aldehydes.
Reduce aldehydes.
Distinguish aldehydes from ketones.
Reduce ketones.

The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

Options
Primary alcohol.
Secondary alcohol.
Carboxylic acid.
Ketone.

The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

Oxidation of a ketone produces

Options
An aldehyde
A carboxylic acid
A primary alcohol
No reaction

The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

Options
Oxidation of ketones produces esters.
Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +.
Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?

Options
PH<7
PH>7
PH ~7
PH = 7

All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

Options
The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.
Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.
The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .
Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

Options
Pentanal
3-pentanone
2-pentanone
Pentanoic acid

Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

Options
A silver wire dissolves.
A brick-red precipitate forms.
The light blue color of the reagent disappears.
A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

Options
A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.
A red precipitate forms from a blue solution
A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless
A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

Options
Butane
2-butanol
1-butanol
Butanoic acid

What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?

Options
Butanoic acid
Butanal
2-butanol
No reaction

Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride

Options
Acidicb
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

Options
An aldehyde
A hemiacetal
A carboxylic acid
None, ketones don't oxidize

Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

Options
Gold
Copper
Lead
Silver

Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

Options
Tertiary alcohol.
Carboxylic acid
Secondary alcohol.
Primary alcohol.

Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

Options
Carboxylic acid.
Secondary alcohol
Aldehyde.
Tertiary alcohol.

Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the product of reduction of butanal?

Options
Butanoic acid
Butane
2-butanol
1-butanol

Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of them

What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

Options
Butanal
1-butanol
2-butanol
Butanoic acid

Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of them

What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

Options
3-methyl –2- pentanal
2- methyl -3-pentanol
3-methyl – 2-pentanol
3- methyl –2- pentene

Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?

Options
Galactose
Lactose
Maltose
Sucrose

Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

Options
CH3OH
C6H1206
C12H22O11
C6H12O5
Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

Options
Glucose and Glucose
Glucose and Galactose
Glucose and Fructose
Fructose and Galactose

PH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of

Options
Acid (H+-)
Conjugate base (-OH-)
Salt
Both A and Bswer D

PH can be kept constant with help of

Options
Saturated solution
Unsaturated solution
Buffer solution
Super saturated solution

In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

Options
Starch
Glycogen
Dextrins
Cellulose

Buffers present in blood contain


Options
HCO3-
Hemoglobin
H2PO4-
All of them

All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

Options
Glycogen
Inulin
Starch
Cellulose

Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings

Options
Sucrose
Ribulose
Fructose
Ribose

Choose the keto triose-

Options
Glyceraldehyde
Erythrose
Dihydroxyacetone
Arabinose

Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in

Options
Aerobic respiration
Anaerobic respiration
Transpiration
Photosynthesis

One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is

Options
Carbolic anhydrase
Carbonic anhydrase
Carbolic hydrase
Carbonic hydrase

A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

Options
Xylose
Lyxose
Xylulose
Aldose

Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer? acetic
acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

Options
Hydrochloric acid only
Sodium chloride or potassium acetate
Acetic acid only
Acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

Options
Epimers
Keto- Aldose Isomers
Anomers
Optical isomers

When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is

Options
Oxide
Ether
Salt
Alcohol

All tests are negative for sucrose except-

Options
Benedict
Seliwanoff
Barfoed
Osazone

When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are

Options
Salt
Water
Carbon dioxide
All of above

Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

Options
4
12
8
16

Salt among following is

Options
HCl
KCl
HNO3
H3PO4

Galactose and Glucose are-

Options
Epimers
Isomers
Anomers
Ketose- Aldose isomers

Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called

Options
Neutralization
Hydrogenation
Halogenation
Sublimation

The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around one carbon
atom are called-

Options
Optical isomers
Stereo isomers
Anomers
Epimers

Basic formula for monobasic acid is

Options
AH
HA
Ha
AH

Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is

Options
High
Low
Same
Constant

What does the following equation represent?    α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→  +19οβ- D glucose

Options
Stereo isomerism
Mutarotation
Optical isomerism
Epimerization

Value of Ka can be calculated by determining

Options
Concentration of acid
PH of solution
Concentration of water molecules
Both A and B

The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

Options
Glucose
Xylose
Lyxose
Fructose

Dulcitol is a -

Options
Sugar acid
Amino sugar
Deoxysugars
Sugar alcohol

Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

Options
Arabinose
Erythrose
Trehalose
Ribulose

A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

Options
Starch
Dextrin
Glycogen
Cellulose
PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing?

Options
Concentration of acid
Value of Ka
Water potential
Both A and B

Invert sugar is-

Options
Starch
Glucose
Fructose
Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

Ka is called

Options
Acid dissociation constant
Base dissociation constant
Avogadro constant
Salt dissociation constant

The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

Options
Hyaluronic acid
Cellulose
Chitin
Chondrosamine

Which one of the following is a weak acid?

Options
HNO3
HI
HBr
HNO2

Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

Options
Insulin
Dextrin
Cellulose
Glycogen

Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
Options
MgCl2
Ba(NO3)2
LiClO4
CsBr

A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

Options
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
Trehalose

Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?

Options
H2O
KF
HF
HNO2

The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

Options
Glucopyranose
Glucoside
Glucofuranose
Glucosamine

Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?

Options
HClO
CH3COOH
HF
HCN

A stronger base:

Options
Is also a stronger acid;
Is also a stronger electrolyte;
Tastes sour;
Yields fewer OH- ions in solution;

Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

Options
Benedict
Molisch
Seliwanoff
Osazone

Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?

Options
C3 H7O2N
C13H26O2
C6H12O6
C20H40O2

When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

Options
Water and a salt
An acid and a base;
A salt and hydrogen gas;
A nonmetal oxid

Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

Options
Ribose
Fructose
Glucose
Glyceraldehyde

A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution then
turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

Options
HCl;
H2CO3;
KOH;
CH3CH2OH;

Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

Options
1×10-11 M;
1×10-9 M;
1×10-7 M;
1×10-5 M;

Which of following is an anomeric pair?

Options
D-glucose and L-glucose
α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose
D-glucose and D-fructose
α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H+ ions. This
substance is:

Options
KOH;
CH4
H2SO4;
NH3

Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

Options
Glucuronate
Gluconate
Glucose
Muramic acid

Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

Options
H+] equals zero;
[OH-] equals [H+];
H+] is less than [OH-];
H+] is greater than [OH-

From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

Options
The glucose residue is the β anomer.
The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.
C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.
The compound is in its furanose form

According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

Options
Donate a proton;
Yield H+ ions;
Donate an electron pair;
Acceptor of protons.

The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

Options
A purine nucleotide
A pyrimidine nucleotide.
Adenosine
AMP

What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 40.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

Options
100.0 mL;
80.0 mL;
40.0 mL;
20.0 mL

Functional Group of Alkane:

Options
None
C–X
C=C
C – OH

As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

Options
Increase;
Decrease;
Remain the same;
Approach zero

Functional Group of Cycloalkane:

Options
H–C=O
C – OH
O=C–O–C
None

Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

Options
1
7
10
14

Functional Group of Alkyl halide:

Options
None
C–X
C=C
C – OH
The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

Options
A single replacement;
A neutralization reaction;
The process of hydrolysis;
A synthesis reaction;

How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

Options
A pH of 2 is three times as strong;
A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;
A pH of 2 is three times as weak;
A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

Functional Group of Alkyne:

Options
H–C=O
#NAME?
#NAME?
C≡C

Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

Options
Chlorous acid
Acetic acid;
Perchloricacid;
Hypochlorous acid

Functional Group of Alcohol:

Options
C – OH
H–C=O
C–X
C–X
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Options
NicotineAbusiveDepartment
NicotineAvoidDirections
Nicotinamideadeninedinucleotide
Nicotinamidedinucleotide

Phosphoric acid can be joined with OH group of a pentose sugar with help of

Options
Phosphodiesterbond
PrevIonicbond
SkipCovalentbond
NextEsterlinkage

RNA is synthesized from DNA by process of

Options
Translation
Transcription
Transgenic
Duplication

According to Erwin Chargoff analysis, ratio of adenine and thiamine is

Options
Equal
Unequal
Less
More

Nucleic acids

Options
Are also called nucleotides
Do not contain purine
Are polymers
Do not contain uracil

Which of the following will not be found in DNA?

Options
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine
Guanine

A nucleotide is composed of

Options
An acid, a base, and a sugar
A base, a sugar, and a phosphate
A base, and sugar
An acid, a sugar, and a phosphate

Oligonucleotides are formed from 2 to 10

Options
Strands
Hydrogen bonds
Nucleosides
Nucleotides

The variable portion of DNA is the sequence of _

Options
Phosphoric acids
Sugars
Bases
Phosphates

Which pair is a complementary base pair?

Options
C-G
A-G
A-C
G-G

Gene expression is activation of a gene to produce a specific __________ .

Options
Protein
TRNA
Amino acid
DNA

To which of the following does thymine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

Options
Adenine
Thymine
Cytosine
Guanine

What term is used to describe the process by which DNA is copied to produce two daughter DNA
molecules?

Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription

What term is used to describe the process by which a segment of DNA is copied to produce a
molecule of messenger RNA?

Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription

What term is used to describe the process by which proteins are synthesised from a genetic code?

Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription

To which of the following does guanine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

Options
Adenine
Thymine
Cytosine
Guanine

The sugar in RNA is __________ , the sugar in DNA is __________

Options
Deoxyribose, ribose
Ribose, deoxyribose
Ribose, phosphate
Ribose, uracil

Nucleoside is a pyrimidine or purine base

Options
Covalently bonded to a sugar
Ionically bonded to a sugar
Hydrogen bonded to a sugar
None of the above

In gel electrophoresis,what fragments will move most quickly through a gel?

Options
Large fragments
Small fragments
Large genome
Noneofthese

Which pyrimidine base contains an amino group at carbon 4?

Options
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine

The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA

Options
Connect the sugar to the base
Can be hydrolyzed by OH- ion
Stabilize Watson-Crick H-bonds
Are free to rotate over about 180°

Nucleic acids can be analyzed experimentally by their

Options
Molecular weight
Absorption of visible light
Absorption of uv light
None of these

A purine with an amine (NH2) group on the 6th carbon is

Options
Adenine
Cytosine
Thymine
Guanine

Which of the following is found on RNA but not DNA?

Options
Uracil
Deoxyribose
Phosphate
Adenine

Which of the following is a purine?

Options
Cytosine
Adenine
Thymine
Uracil

Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following

Options
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine

Which of the following are not the components of RNA?

Options
Thymine
Adenine
Guanine
Cytosine

Which of the following statements is true?

Options
Sugar component of a nucleotide is ribose
Sugar component of a nucleotide is deoxyribose
The bases in nucleotides are attached to a pentose sugar moiety by a glycosidic linkage
The sugar molecule of the nucleotide is in L-configuration
What is the composition of nucleoside?

Options
A sugar + a phosphate
A base + a sugar
A base + a phosphate
A base + a sugar + phosphate

What is the composition of nucleotide?

Options
A sugar + a phosphate
A base + a sugar
A base + a phosphate
A base + a sugar + phosphate

Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by

Options
Phosphodiester bond
Peptide bond
Ionic bond
Covalent bond

The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is

Options
Pentose
Hexose
Tetrose
Triose

Building blocks of nucleic acids are

Options
Nucleotides
Nucleosides
Amino acids
Histones
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Exam tests on Chemistry.


Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.

1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

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7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0
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14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs

19. The basic formula for Entropy;


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW

20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW

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21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

22. Internal energy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

24. Enthalpy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

26. The heat transfer are divided into


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

27. What is the thermal conductivity?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
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28. What is the convection?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

29. What is the radiation?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

31. What is the endothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

32. What is the exothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) Endothermic reactions

34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
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d) Exothermic reactions

35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) Q= ΔU+ W
d)ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

38. System consisting of three phases is called


a) heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

39. System consisting of one phase is called


a) heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

40. What is the heterogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

41. What is the homogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

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42. What are the units of energy?


a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d)joule

43. Spontaneous process occurs only

a) without external energy


b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help

44. Internal energy is ……


a) energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness

45. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a) H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H

46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) A b) G c) Qp d) H

47. Find state parametre


a) Q b) G c) T d) H

48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) Q b) G c) Qp d) S
49. Find state parameter
a) Q b) G c) v d) H
50.For spontaneous processes
a) ∆H ≥ 0 b) ∆S ≤ 0 c) ∆G ≥ 0 d) ∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics

51. Chemical kinetics studies –

a) energy changes during chemical transformations.


b) the rate of chemical reactions.
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c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?


a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction

53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular

54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?

a) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?


a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c)Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.
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58. Enzymes isais a substance that …

a) increase the rate of reaction


b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate

59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-


a) Catalyst c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor d) Reducing agents.

60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

a) Catalyst
b) Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?
a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel

62. Irreversible reactions are called?


a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution

63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

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65. A material that dissolves is called?
a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

67. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

68. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S


b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) I2 → I • + I •
69. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?
a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b) Cl2 → 2Cl
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

70. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

71. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl
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72. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

73. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
74. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
75. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

76. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

77. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

78. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

79. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
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c) 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

81. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

82. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl

83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3 c) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
2
b) Kc = [NH3] / [N2] [H2] d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2] c) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
2
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a)Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is (imp by group1)


a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]

87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is(imp by group1)


a) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]

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b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants

89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a) Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction

90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the(imp by group1)
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c)Time
d)Temperature

91. A catalyst is a substance which


a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) Active mass

93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

a) Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite

94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

a) Unequal b)Constant c)Equal d)Increased

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95. The law of mass action was enunciated by

a) Guldberg and Waage


b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham

96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction


will

N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

a) Increase the yield of NO


b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed

97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)


Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?

a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;

b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;

c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;

d) the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;

b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;

c) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;

d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases,
the rate of the reaction:

a) increases; b) decreases; c) remains the same; d) approaches zero

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100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;

b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;

c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;

d) The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.

101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:
(imp by group1)

a) decrease; b) increase; c) remain the same; d) approach zero

102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;

b) add a catalyst;

c) cool the reaction down;

d) use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?

I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

a) II only; b) III only; c) I and II only; d) II and III only

Solutions.

104. Molarity is expressed as

a)grams/litre b) litres/mole c)moles/litre d)moles/1000 gm

105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in

a)1000 gm of the solvent c)onelitre of the solution

b) one litre of the solvent d) 22.4 litres of the solution

106. Normality is expressed as

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a)moles/litre b)gm equivalents/litre c)moles/1000 gm d)gram/litre

107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

a) 1 N b) 10 N c) 1.7 N d) 0.83 N

108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

a) 1N
b) 0x1N
c) 4N
d) None

109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

a) 0x1
b) 1.0
c) 4.0
d) 0.4

110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

a) 2.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) 0.98 N
d) 0.35 N

111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?

a) 0.5 N
b) 1.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) 3.0 N

112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

a) 2N
b) 4N
c) N/2
d) N/4

113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is

a) 0.46 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) 4.6 N

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114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

a) 4g
b) 1g
c) 2g
d) 10 g

115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M

116. The molarity of pure water is

a) 55.6
b) 50
c) 100
d) 18

117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

a) 1
b) 10
c) 18
d) 100

118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1.5

119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) 1.0 M

120. What is the solution?


a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount

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c) component of a solution present in the greater amount


d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
121. What is the solute?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
122. What is the solvent?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
123. What is the concentration?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
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c) Solvent
d) Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?

a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.


b) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

129. Mass fraction is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction


neq msolute
a) CE = c) =
V msolution

CM CEME
T= = msubstance1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M  m solution

131.The molar concentration iscalled?

a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:


b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

132. Molar concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration


neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution

nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M  m solution

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134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?


a) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent

a) msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M  m solution

137. The molal concentration is:


a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

138. Molal concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration

a) msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M  m solution

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140. Find volume concentration
a) mass percent
b) normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction

141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov

142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a) 98 b) 2 c) 32 d) 49
143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid
a) 98 b) 2 c) 32.6 d) 49

144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide


a) 98 b) 37 c) 32 d) 49

145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by


a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation

146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

a) diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution

147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

a) high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature

148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an

a) base
b) acid

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c) salt
d) suspension

149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) molarity

150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) solution.
d) compound.

151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a) solute. c)solution.
b) solvent. d) mixture.

152. Which of the following is not a solution?


a) zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel

153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?


a) alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene

154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?


a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d)dental amalgam

155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?


a)It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.

156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is


a)concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.

157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b)increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure

158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?


a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction

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b) Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction

159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution

160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a.) hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride

161. Most salt become soluble in water as the


a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b)temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.

162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity c)Dilution
b)Normality d)Molality

165. In dilution of solution,


a) a solute is added to the solution.
b)solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.

166. A 40% alcohol contains


a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b)40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

Colligative properties of solutions.

167. Solutions are:


а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;

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b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c)homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

168. Solubility of solids depends upon:


a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) all answers are right.

169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:


a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.

172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.
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173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:


a) Hemolysis;
b) Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.

174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:


a) 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.

175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:


а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile
solutes;
d) boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.

177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:


а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

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178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:
a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure
solvents;
b) Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.

179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:


a) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.

180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:


a) to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.

181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:


a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d)A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

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182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:
a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) Osmotic pressure.

183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:


a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
-1
b) 1.0×10 osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.

184. Osmolarity is:


a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.

185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a)  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:


a) 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a) the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.

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188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise
a) increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect

189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution


a) increases
b) remains same
c) Decreases
d) None of them
190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise
a) increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases

191. For spontaneous processes


a) ∆H ≥ 0 b) ∆S ≤ 0 c) ∆G ≥ 0 d) ∆H≤ 0

192. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on


a) concentration
b) nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute
193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate

194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) Hypertonic

195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a) hypotonic

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b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b)Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure

202. Which involves the colligative properties?


a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c)Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis

204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis

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d) Osmosis

205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) Active Transport c) Diffusion
b) Osmosis d)Phagocytosis

206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on

a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only

207. Which one is a colligative property?

a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point

208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.

209. Which is not a colligative property?

a) Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point

210. Which of the following is a colligative property?

a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point

211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules


b) Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution

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d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by

a) Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis

213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) Mole fraction of solute

214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

a) An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion

215. When common salt is dissolved in water

a) M. p. of the solution increases


b) B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

a) Molecular wt. of solute


b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these

217. When a #solutionis separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then


phenomenon taking place is called ………………….(solute #correction)

a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis

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218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) П / C = ST

219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

a)less than c)greater than

b)the same as d) greater than or equal to

220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.

221. What happens during osmosis?


a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.

b) Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.

c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.

d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.

222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.


b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.

c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increases.

223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) boiling point d) freezing point

224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

a) electrolyte c) polar substance


b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance

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225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as

a) volatile c)electrolyte
b) nonvolatile d) nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.

Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

226. Acetic acid is weak because

a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) It is slightly ionized
d) None of these

227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw
at this temperature will be

a) 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5

228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9

229. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2%
ionized weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

a) 0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively


b) 1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
c) 2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
d) 3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

230. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

a) 10-12 b)10-2 c)10-4 d)10-13

231. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

a) 10-13

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b) 1013
c) 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010

232. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

a) 10
b) 7
c) 1
d) 14

233. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) Between 6 and 7

234. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

a) 8
b) 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1

235. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

236. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation

237. FeCl3 solution is

a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

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238. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

a) Neutral c)Strongly acidic


b) Weakly acidic d)Alkaline

239. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

a) An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction

240. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) Almost neutral

241. Which one of the following is acid salt?

a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4

242. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) Na2HPO4

243. Which one is not an acid salt?

a) Na2H2PO4
b) NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above

244. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?

a) NaCl
b) NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4

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245. Which one will not be hydrolysed?

a) Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate

246. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?

a) CH3COOK c)KCl
b) NaNO3 d)K2SO4

247. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

a) Weakly acidic
b) Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic

248. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

a) (NH4)2SO4
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4

249. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

a) A strong acid and strong base


b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) A weak acid and strong base

250. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) FeCl3
d) NaCN

251. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?

a) NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN

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252. A buffer solution changes its pH

a) Increase in pH
b) Decrease in pH
c) No change in pH
d) No change in electrical conductivity

253. About buffer solution which in incorrect?

a) It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base


b) It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c) It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d) All of the above

254. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

a) Strong acid and its salt of a weak base


b) Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c) Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d) Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

255. Which is a buffer solution?

a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl

256. Which of the following is a buffer?

a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) NH4OH + NH4Cl

257. Which is not a buffer solution?

a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid

258. pH of blood is

a) Less than 6
b) Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9

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d) Greater than 10

259. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

a) Acetic acid + Sodium acetate


b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All

260. Give name to positively charged particles:

а) radicals; b) molecules; c) anions; d) cations.

261. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a) NaNO2; b) NaHCO3; c) Na2CO3; d) KMnO4.
262. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) Low water ionization constant.
263. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) Ion product for water.
264. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M; b) 0.001M; c) 0.1 M; d) 1.0M.

265.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:


a)Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.

266. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


а) Electrons donors;

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b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

267. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl; c) KHSO4/H2SO4;
b) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4; d) NH3 /NH4Cl.

268. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:


a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) All answers are right.

269. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


а)Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

270. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:


а) Electrons donor;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

271. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:


a) pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.

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272. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into
a) oxides, acid, base, salt
b) oxides, base
c) Alkalis, salt, oxides
d) Ampholytes, Alkalis

273. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

274. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

275. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a)pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

276. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

277. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

278. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7 b) pH>7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

279. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride


a) acidicb) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

280. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutrald) none of theam

281. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutrald) none of theam

282. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

283. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a) acidicb) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

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e
284. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

285. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

286. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

287. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

288. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

289. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

290. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate Formatted: Indent: Hanging: 0.01"
a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

291. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate


a) acidicb) basic c) neutral d) none of them

292. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutrald) none of theam

293. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutrald) none of theam

294. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite


a) acidic b)basic c)neutral d) none of theam
295. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide
a) 2 b) 13 c) 1 d) 7
296. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide
a) 2 b) 13 c) 1 d) 7

297. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide


a) 2 b) 13 c) 1 d) 7

298. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of


a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) both A and Bswer D

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299. PH can be kept constant with help of


a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) buffer solution
d) super saturated solution

300. Buffers present in blood contain


a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) all of them

301. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a) aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis

302. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase c)carbolic hydrase

b) carbonic anhydrase d)carbonic hydrase

303. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

a) hydrochloric acid only c) acetic acid only


b) sodium chloride or potassium acetate d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

304. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a) oxide
b) ether
c) salt
d) alcohol
305. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) all of above
306. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
307. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) neutralization

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b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation

308. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a) AH
b) HA
c) Ha
d) aH

309.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is


a) high
b) low
c) same
d) constant
310. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid c)concentration of water molecules
b)pH of solution d)both A and B
311. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
a) concentration of acid
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) both A and B

312. Ka is called
a) acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant

313. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) HNO2

314.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) LiClO4
d) CsBr

315. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?


a) H2O
b) KF
c) HF
d)HNO2

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316.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) HCN

317. A stronger base:

a) is also a stronger acid; c) tastes sour;

b) is also a stronger electrolyte; d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution;

318. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

a) water and a salt; b) an acid and a base; c) a salt and hydrogen gas; d) a nonmetal oxid

319. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

a) HCl; b) H2CO3; c) KOH; d) CH3CH2OH;

320. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

a) 1×10-11 M; b)1×10-9 M; c) 1×10-7 M; d)1×10-5 M;

321. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H+ ions. This
substance is:

a) KOH; b)CH4 c) H2SO4; d) NH3

322. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

a) [H+] equals zero; c) [H+] is less than [OH-];

b) [OH-] equals [H+]; d) [H+] is greater than [OH-]

323. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

a) donate a proton; c)donate an electron pair;

b) yield H+ ions; d) acceptor of protons.

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324. What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 40.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

a) 100.0 mL; b) 80.0 mL; c) 40.0 mL; d) 20.0 mL

325. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

a) increase; c) remain the same;

b) decrease; d) approach zero

326. Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

a) 1; b) 7; c) 10; d) 14.

327. The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

a) a single replacement; c) the process of hydrolysis;

b) a neutralization reaction; d) a synthesis reaction;

328. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

a) A pH of 2 is three times as strong;

b) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;

c) A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

d) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as weak;

329. Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

a) chlorous acid; b) acetic acid; c) perchloricacid; d) hypochlorous acid

330. Which of the following statements is true?

a) NaCl is a neutral salt; c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.

b) KOH is an acid; d) NaBr is basic salt.

331. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates? WRONG OPTIONS

a) OH- and H2O; c) HCl and Cl-;

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b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-; d) NH3 and NH4+;

332. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF; c) SO2 + H2O → H2SO3;

b) 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2; d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

333. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;

b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;

c) HI is hydroiodic acid;

d) HClO2 is chloric acid

334. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?

a) AgCl; b) PbBr2; c) Ca3(PO4)2; d) Na2CO3

335. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:

a) unsaturated; b) supersaturated; c) saturated; d) dilute

336. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium
carbonate and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a)Cl-; b) 2Na+; c) CaCO3 d) all of the substances above

337. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a) 1.5 m NaCl; c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;

b) 1.5 m AgCl; d) 2.0 m CaCl2

338. Which equation is correctly balanced?

a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;

b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;

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c) 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;

d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;

Unit 2.

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.

339 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in


a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d)H2S
340. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c)H2O2 d)F2
341. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b)KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
342. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d)x=2 y=3 z=10
343. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b)Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
344. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b)H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2

345. An electrolyte is one


a)Which conducts electric current c)Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above

346. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to


a)Dilution b)number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution

347. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) -3

348. Which of the following is an insulator?


a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) Diamond d)Silicon

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349. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O
a)X=4 y=6 b)x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8

350. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O


a) 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
351. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a)F2 b)Cl2 c)Br2 d)I2

352. Oxidation involves


a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of negative part
b)Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of positive part

353. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a)Anode b)Cathode c)Both A & B d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

354. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a)-2 b) -1 c) 0 d) -4

355. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a)SO2 b)CaO c)Al2O3 d)CrO3

356.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular b) intramolecular c) disproportion d) none of them

357.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a) CH3COONa b)C2H5OH c)NaCl d)KOH

358 Element accepting electrons is called


a) product b) oxidant c) reactant d) reductant

359.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F b) Cl c)He d)Na

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360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:
a) -3 to +5 b)-1 to +1 c)-3 to -5 d) -5 to +1

361.Strong electrolytes are those which


a)Dissolve readily in water c)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
b)Conduct electricity d)Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

362.Which of the following conducts electricity?


a) crystal NaCl b)diamond c)molten KBr d)sulphur

363. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a)Anode b)Cathode c)Both A & B d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

364. Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

365. Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

366. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:


a) -1 b) -2 c)+4 d) 0

367. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:


a) +1 b) -2 c)- 4 d) 0

368. Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt
e) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

369. Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+

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b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

370. In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) counter disproportion
d) intramolecular
de) disproportion

371. In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed


a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) counter disproportion
d) disproportion

372. Element loosing electrons is called


a) product
b) oxidant
c) reactant
d) reductant

373. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a) the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in
terms of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

374. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a) KMnO4→MnO2; b) HNO2→NO2;

c) Cl2O→HCl; d) P→H3PO4.

375. Point out the correct statements:


a)A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
b) A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
c) High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
d) Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

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376. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1; b) 6; c) 14; d)3.

377. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

a) Mn(OH)2; b) MnO42-; c) MnO2; d) Mn2+.

378. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

a) Fe2O3 + HCl; b) FeCl3+H2S; c) Fe+ HCl; d) SO3+NaOH.

379. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

а) 2; b) 5; c) 10; d) 3.

380. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


а) accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.

381. Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consistsfromzinc consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:
a) Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
b) Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
c) Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
d) Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.
Formatted: Font: (Default) Times New
Roman, 12 pt, Bold
Formatted: Normal, Indent: Left: -0.2", First
382. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is: line: 0", Space After: 0 pt, Line spacing:
single
a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) 1-; e) 2-. Formatted: Indent: Left: -0.2", First line: 0"

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383. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?

a) HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) KClO4; e) CaCl2.

384. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

a) Al; b) Fe; c) Fe3+Al3+; d) Al3+ Fe3+; e) none of the above.

4. In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni; e) none of the above.

385. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

a) loses 1 electron; b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton

Formatted: Subtle Emphasis, Font: (Default)


+Body, 11 pt, Not Bold, Russian (Russia)

a) loses 1 electron; b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron;

d) gains 1 proton; e) gains 1 neutron.

3386. Which half reaction demonstrates conservation of mass and conservation of charge? Formatted: Indent: Left: -0.2", First line: 0"

a) Cl2 + e- → Cl1-; c) Cl2 → 2Cl1- + e-; Formatted: Justified, Indent: Left: -0.2", First
line: 0"

b) Cl2 + 2e- → Cl1-; d) Cl2 + e- → 2Cl1-; e) Cl2 + 2e- → 2Cl1-.. In the chemical cell Formatted: Font: Bold
2+ 3+
reaction 2Cr + 3Ni → 2Cr + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni

Formatted: Justified, Indent: Left: -0.2", First


line: 0"

387. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) 10; e) 15.

388. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

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a) it allows ion migration; c) it allows electron migration;

b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;

e) it prevents neutron migration.

389. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) F2; d) I2

390. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:

a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) electrolysis; d) hydrolysis

Biogenic elements.

391. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

a) in molecule of cytochrome b

b) in molecule of vitamin B12

c) in molecule of catalase

d) in molecule of vitamin B6

392) Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

a) enzyme catalase

b) enzyme superoxide dismutase

c) cytochrome P450

d) glutathione peroxidase

393) Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

a) hypervitaminosis

b) hypovitaminosis

c) avitaminosis

d) acidosis

394) Vitamin A deficiency can cause:

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a) xeroftalmia

b) increased blood coagulation

c) growth acceleration

d) anemia

395) The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

a) vitamin D

b) vitamin B1

c) vitamin K

d) thiamine

396. ZnO is used as

a) protective c) both (a) & (b)

b) astringent d) antidote

397. Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

a) oxidation c) protein precipitate

b) halogenation d) all of the above

398. Hydrogen peroxide is used as

a) antiseptic b) acidifying agent c) protective d) antioxidant

399. KMnO4 solutions are used for

a) antibacterial b) antifungal c) both of the above d) antioxidant

400. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these

elements:

a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;

b). H, P, S, C, O, N;

c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;

d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

401. Choose biogenic macroelement

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a)Cu b)P c)Br d)As

402. Choose biogenic microelement


a)Cu b)S c)Ca d)Mg

403. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm

404. Six major biogenic elements :


a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.

405.Five minor biogenic elements:


a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

406. Trace elements:


a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d)Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

407. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12% c) 10-3– 10-5 %
-9
b)10 % d) 10-2%

408. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a)10-2% c) 10-9%
-3 -5
b) 10 – 10 % d) 10-7% - 10-12

409. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O b) S c) N d) Zn

410. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O b) Fe c) N d) C

411. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O b) S c) N d) I

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412. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) P b) Cl c)Cu d) I

Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb b) Cl c) I d) Ca

413. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb b) l c) O d) Mn

414. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb b) C c)Cu d) I

Complex compounds.

415. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:


a)+1 b)+3 c)-1 d)-3

416. A coordination compound consists of


a) a metal ion and counterions b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions d) a metal ion bound to one or more ligands

417. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:


a)0 b)+4 c)+3 d)+6

418. Name the following coordination compound:


K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II) c) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
b) potassium cyanoferrate(II) d) potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)

419. The coordination number is:


a) The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex

420. Number of hem sections in mioglobin


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

421. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2


a) cationic b) anionic c) monodentate d) neutral

422. Ethylenediamine would be called


a) dentate b)bidentate c) tridentate d)tetradentate

423. Name the following coordination compound:

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[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

424. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?


(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
(3) chloride, Cl- (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5 b)1, 5, 6 c) 1, 6 d) 2, 3, 4, 5

Ca 3  Fe(CN)6 2
425. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0 b) 1+ c) 2+ d) 3+

426. Number of hem sections in hemoglobin


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

427. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound


a) central ion b) ligands c) outer sphere ions d) all constituents

428.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements


a) does’tchang b) increases c) decreasis d) none

429.Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps


a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 and more d) always without steps

430. Dentantness of porfyrin


a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

431.Particles playing role of ligands are


a) positive ions b) chelates c) negative ions d) complex ions

432. A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its
formula.
a) [Cl(H2O)4Cr2] c) [ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
b) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2] d) [CrCl2(H2O)4]

433. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?


a) +1 b) +3 c) -2 d) 0

434. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?


a) carbonyl; b) nitro; c) acetate; d) oxalate.

435. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?


a) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl c) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl

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b) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

436. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?


a) Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

437. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?


a) Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper

438. Ligand «en» is an example of:


a) bidentate ligand; b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand; d) hexadentate ligand.

439. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is


a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

440. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


a) cationic b) anionic c) trigonal d) neutral

441. Donor of electrons in coordination compound


a)central ion b)outer sphere ions c) ligands d) none

442. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements


a) doesn’t change b) increases c) decreases d) none of them

443.Coordination number of iron in hem


a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

444. Dentatness of EDTA


a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

445. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability


a) increases b) doesn’t change c) decreases d) none of them

446. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number

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d) electrostatic model

447. Particles playing role of central ion are


a) positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions

448. Find ligand of weak field


a) OH- b) Au c) CN- d) Fe2+

449. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?


a) Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)

450. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)


a) K3[Fe(CN)6] c) (CN)6[Fe K2]
b) Fe [K2(CN)6] d) [FeK2(CN)6

451. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?


a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

452.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate


a) [(en)3Co]SO4 c) [SO4(en)3]Co
b) [Co(en)3SO4] d) [Co(en)3]SO4

453. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?


a) linear; c) octahedral;

b) tetrahedral; d) trigonal

454. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

455. Find ligand of strong field


a) OH- b) Au c) Cl- d) NH3

456. Dentatness of ligand is


a) number of central ions
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b) charge of central ion
c) number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number

Unit 3.

Colloids.
457. Disperse systems consists of:

a) dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
d) sol, gel

458. Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

a) dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
c) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
d) sol, gel

459. What is a disperse system?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

460. Coarse systems include:


a) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) Gel, suspensions.

461. What is the Emulsion?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

462. What is the suspension?


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a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

463. What is the aerosol?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

464. Sols are:


a) gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) blood, lymph.
c) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
d) Blood, jelly, marmalade.

465. Gels are:


a) gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
c) blood, lymph.
d) blood, jelly, marmalade.

466. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:


a) medical products
b) colored glass
c) pumice
d) fog

467. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:


a) Soil
b) Moist soil
c) Rocks
d) fog

468. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) natural gas
b) gas from oil droplets

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c) smog
d) colored glass

469. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) natural gas
b) aerosols
c) dust storms
d) pearl

470. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) Fizzy drinks, foam
b) body fluids
c) pastes,mortar
d) smog

471. Colloidal solutions include:


a) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) saline solution in water

472. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:


a) cosmetic products
b) porous chocolate
c) some alloys
d) fog

473. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

a) Dust in the air


b) Aerosol
c) Fog
d) Does not exist

474. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) Sols
b) Emulsion oil
c) Fizzy drinks
d) Fog

475. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

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a) cream, milk
b) foam
c) pastes
d) chocolate

476. Colloid particles have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -7 m

477. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) negative
b) positive
c) without charge
d) zero

478. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
a) Ba2+ b) H+ c) SO4 2- d) H+

479. Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing


a) condensation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) peptization

480. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaCl
b) Сa3(PO4)2
c) CaCl2
d) FeCl3

481. Optical property typical to colloid systems


a) reflection
b) absorption
c) scattering
d) diffusion

482. Find optical property


a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) electroosmosis
d) absorption

483. Emulsion is

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a) l/s b) l/l c) s/l d) g/l

484. Powder is
a) l/s b) l/l c) s/l d) s/g

485. Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties


a) μ b) η c) φ d) ξ

486. Particles of coarse systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -9 - 10 -7 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -9 m

487. Particles of true solutions have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -7 m

488. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =


a) positive
b) negative
c) without charge
d) zero

489. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) none b) Cl- c) SO4 2- d) Ba2+

490. Choose condensation method of colloids producing


a) coagulation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) peptization

491. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaNO3 b) Fe(NO3)3 c) Ca(NO3 )2 d) none

492. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaNO3 b) Ag Cl c) Ca(NO3 )2 d) Ba(NO3) 2

493. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaNO3 b) Fe(NO3)3 c) PbS d) Ba(NO3) 2

494. Optical property typical to coarse systems


a) reflection c) scattering
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b) absorption d) diffusion

495. Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one


a) absorption c) Brownian movement
b) osmosis d) diffusion

496. Aerosol is
a) l/s b) l/l c) s/l d) s/g

497. Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties


a) μ b) η c) m d) λ

498. Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:
a) Suspensions; b) Electrolytes; c) Molecular solutions; d) Alloys.

499. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:


a) Colloids; b)Gas mixtures; c) Saturated solutions; d) Alloys.

500. The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:


a) Coagulation; b) Tyndall effect; c) Peptization; d) Dialysis.

501. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:


a) Osmosis; b) Diffusion; c) Brownian motion; d) Coagulation .

502. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:


a) Aerosol; b) Emulsion; c) Sol; d) Foam.

503. Fog and smoke are:


a) Aerosols; b) Emulsions; c) Gels; d) Foams.

504. Sol consists of:


a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;
d) liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid.

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505. Stability of a disperse system is:
a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and
viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) Constancy in time of its state and main properties.

506. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:


a) Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.

507. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:


a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.

508. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
a) Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.

509. The methods of cleaning colloidal solutions are:


a) Compensation dialysis; dialysis;
b) Condensation; crystallization;
c) Sublimation; distillation;
d) Filtration; ultra filtration.

510. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:


a) N2; b) H2O; c) CO2; d) O2.
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511. Aerosol is:


a) Powder; b) Dust cloud; c) Hairspray; d) All answers are right.

512. Emulsion is:


a) Milk; b) Foam; c) Jelly; d) Fog.

513. Biological gel is:


a) Cartilage; b) air; c) clouds; d) river water.

514. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:


a) These are heterogeneous systems;
b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) All answers are right.

515. Coarse disperse system is:


a) Solution; c)Sol;
b) Suspension; d)Gel.

516. Chromatography is:


a) The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

517. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:
a) Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

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518. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:
a) Fog;
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.

519. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:
a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) Size of particles;
d) Odor.

520. Emulsion is:


a) Butter; b) River ooze; c) Stained glass; d) Textile fabrics.

521. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:


a) Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right

522. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
d) On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

523. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

a) Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.

524. Coagulation is:


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a) Chaotic movement of particles;

b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;

c) Destruction of the native protein structure;

d) The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby separate
from the continuous phase.

525. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

a) Viscosity, flowability;

b) Opalescence, light absorption;

c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;

d) dissolution, swelling.

526. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

a) Opalescence; c) Electrodialysis;

b) Light absorption; d) Electrophoresis and electroosmosis.

527. A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

a) Negatively charged; c) Electro neutral;

b) Positively charged; d) Negatively and positively charged.

528. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

a) Diameter b)Particle size c)radius d)solubility

529. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

a) suspension> colloidal > true solution b)true solution > suspension > colloidal

c) suspension> colloidal = true solution d) none of the above

530. Colloids can be purified by

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a) peptization b) coagulation c) dialysis d) bredic arc method

531. which is a natural colloid?

a) sodium chloride b)urea c)cane sugar d) blood

532. Which one of the following is not a colloid

a) milk b) blood c)ice cream d) urea solution

533. Milk is a colloid in which

a) a liquid is dispersed in liquid c) a gas is dispersed in liquid

b) a solid is dispersed in liquid d)some sugar is dispersed in water

534. an aerosol is a colloidal system of

a) a liquid dispersed in a solid c) a gas dispersed in air

b) a liquid dispersed in a gas d)none of the above

535. Which of the following is a homogeneous system

a) muddy water b)bread c)concrete d)a solution of sugar in water

536. Which of the following is an emulsifier?

a) soap b)water c)oil d)NaCl

537. Lyophobic colloids are

a) reversible colloids b)irreversible colloids c)protective colloids d)gum proteins

538. Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

a)condensation c)diffusion through animal membrane

b)dialysis d)addition of an electrolyte

539. Colloidal solutions are not purified by

a) dialysis b) electrodialysis c) ultrafiltration d) electrophoresis

540. Suspensions are

a) visible to naked eye c) invisible under electron microscope

b) not visible by any means d) invisible through microscope

541. Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

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a) gelatin b) sulphur c) gold d) carbon

542. Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

a) lyophilic sol b) associated colloid c) hydrophobic sol d) emulsion

543. The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

a) charge on their particles

b) a layer of medium of dispersion on their particles

c) the smaller size of their particles

d)the large size of their particles

544. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

a)the colloidal particles have positive charge

b)the colloidal particles have negative charge

c) the colloidal particles are solvated

d) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

545. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

a)high concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained

b)coagulation is reversible

c)viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water

d)the charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or
even zero

546. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

a)light scattered by colloidal particles c)shape of the particle

b)size of the particle d)relative size

547. Light scattering takes place in

a)solution of electrolyte c)electrodialysis

b)colloidal solutions d)electroplating

548.Maximum coagulation power is in

a)Na+ b)Ba2+ c)Al3+ d)Sn4+


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549. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

a)Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+ b)Cl- , SO42- , PO43- c) Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+ d)PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

550. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

a)NaCl solution b)starch solution c)urea solution d)FeCl3 solution

551. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

a)linear b)curved c)zigzag d)uncertain

552. The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

a)Photolysis b)dialysis c)pyrolysis d)peptisation

553. Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known
as

a)electrolysis b)electrophoresis c)electrodyalysis d)none of the above

554. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the
particles?

a)dialysis b)electrophoresis c)sedimentation d)ultrafiltration

555. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

a)prevent making of a colloid c)stabilize the mixture

b) stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization d)enrich the aroma

556. Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

a)absorption b)tyndall effect c)flocculation d)paramagnetism

557. Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

a) accumulates in the surface of the other substance

b) goes into the body of the other substance

c) remains close to the other substance

d) forms chemical bonds with other substences.

558. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?


a)colloidal S b)Colloidal antimony c)colloidal gold d)colloidal platinum

559. As2S3 sol is


a)positive colloid b)negative colloid c)neutral colloid d)none of the above

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560. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

a)liquid dispersed in gas c)solid dispersed in gas

b)gas dispersed in gas d)solid dispersed in liquid

561. Which of the following is a colloid?

a)sugar solution b)urea solution c)silicic acid d)NaCl solution

562. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

a) smoke b) ink c) blood d) air

563. Milk is

a) fat dispersed in milk c) water dispersed in fat

b) fat dispersed in water d) water dispersed in oil

564. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

a)solid is dispersed in liquid c)gas is dispersed in a solid

b)liquid is dispersed in a solid d)solid is dispersed in a solid

565. Butter is a colloid formed when

a) fat is dispersed in water c) water is dispersed in fat

b) fat globules are dispersed in water d) none of the above

566.Which of the following is not a colloid?

a) chlorophyll b) smoke c) ruby glass d) milk

567. Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

a)muddy water c)concrete

b)bread d)a solution of sugar in water

568. A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

a)gel b)homogeneous solution c)sol d)aerosol

569. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

a) a sol b)a gel c)an emulsion d)a foam

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570. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as

a)foam b)sol c)aerosol d)emulsion

571. Emulsifiers are generally

a)soap b)synthetic detergents c) lyophilic sols d)all of the above

572. Butter is

a) emulsion b) aerosol c) suspension d) none

573. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium
is termed as

a)aerosol b)gel c)emulsion d)foam

574. Which one of an example of gel?

a)soap b)fog c)cheese d)milk

575. Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called

a) aerosol b)cannot be prepared c) gas aerosol d) gasosol

576. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles
with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) Surface
d) Size

577. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is
called

a)smoke b)clouds c)jellies d)emulsions

578. Milk is an example of

a) pure solution b)emulsion c)gel d)suspension

579. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

a)electro-osmosis b)Brownian movement c)cataphoresis d)dialysis

580. Tyndall effect will be observed in

a)solution b)precipitate c)sol d)vapour

581. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

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a)scattering of light c)absorption of light

b)reflection of light d)presence of electrically charged particles

582. The Brownian motion is due to

a)temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

b)attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

c)impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

d)convective currents

583. The sky looks blue due to

a)dispersion effect b) reflection c)transmission d)scattering

584. The blue color of water in the sea is due to

a)refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water

b)reflection of blue sky by sea water

c)scattering of blue light by water molecules

d)absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

585. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

a)colloidal S b)colloidal antimony c)colloidal gold d)colloidal silver

586. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

a)dialysis b)Brownian movement c)electro-osmosis d)Tyndall effect

587. is an example of colloidal system of

a)solid dispersed in liquid b)solid dispersed in gas

c)liquid dispersed in gas d)gas dispersed in gas

588. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

a)suspension b)emulsion c)sugar solution d)gold sol

589. Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

a)milk b)gum c)fog d)blood

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590. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

a)suspension b)emulsion c)gel d)True solution

591. The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

a)dialysis b)addition of electrolytes

c)diffusion through animal membrane d)condensation

592. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration (C.M.C.) soap particles
abruptly collected into spherical structures called _________
a) Ball
b) Sphere of ions
c) Micelles
d) Dirt particle

593. _________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the
stationary liquid induced by an external field.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

594. Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?


a) Minerals
b) Vitamins
c) Proteins
d) Starch

595. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

a) Molecular colloid
b) Associated colloid
c) Macromolecular colloid
d) Lyophillic colloid

596. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration


b) Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
c) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride
d) Aqueous solution of sugar

597. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

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a) By addition of oppositely charged sol
b) By addition of an electrolyte
c) By addition of lyophilic sol
d) By boiling

598. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

a) Coagulation
b) Electrolysis
c) Diffusion
d) Peptisation

599. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag +

a) Na2S
b) Na3PO4
c) Na2SO4
d) NaCl

600. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

a) Solid sol
b) Gel
c) Emulsion
d) Sol

601. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison
to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles
____________

a) Exhibit enormous surface area


b) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
c) Form lyophilic colloids
d) Are comparatively less in number

Unit 4

Organic compounds.

602. Which element is present in all organic compounds?

a) carbon b)nitrogen c)oxygen d)phosphorous

603.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

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a) low melting point c)soluble in polar solvents

b)high melting point d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents

604.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

a)slower because organic particles are ions

b) slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

c)faster because organic particles are ions

d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

605.Which compounds are isomers?

a) 1-propanol and 2-propanol c)methanol and methanal

b)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid d)ethane and ethanol

606.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.

d) Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.

607.Which polymers occur naturally?

a)starch and nylon

b) starch and cellulose

c)protein and nylon

d)protein and plastic

608.What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?

a)butane b)butene c)benzene d)butyne

609. In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a
regular

a)pyramid b)tetrahedron c)square d)rectangle

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610. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per
molecule?

a)C2H2 and C2H6 b)C2H2 and C3H6 c)C4H8 and C2H4 d)C6H6 andC7H8

611. Which compound contain an alcohol group?

a) acetone b) methanale c)methanol d) dimethyl ether

612. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

a)water b)oxygen c)carbon dioxide d)sulfur dioxide

613. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a)ethane b)ethene c)ethyne d)ethanol

614. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

a)an addition reaction c)a saponification reaction

b)a substitution reaction d)an esterification reaction

615. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

616. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

a)acids b)alcohols c)esters d)ethers

617. Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

a)2-methylpropane b)2-methylbutane c)propane d)butane

618. What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

a)ketone b)protein c)ester d)acid

619. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

a)boiling points b)melting points c)triple points d)saturation points

620. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3OH b)CH3OCH3 c)CH3COOH d)CH3COOCH3


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621. Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different

a)percentage compositions; c)molecular formulas;

b)molecular masses; d)structural formulas.

622. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3 CH2 OH; b)CH3 OCH3 ; c)CH3 COOH; d)CH3COOCH3 .

623. Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one
additional carbon atom and

a) one hydrogen atom; b)two hydrogen atoms;

c)three hydrogen atoms; d) four hydrogen atoms.

624. Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2 ; b) C2 H4 ; c) C3 H6 ; d) C3 H8 .

625. The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has
the same

a) empirical formula; b) general formula; c) structural formula; d) molecular formula.

626. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?

a) methanol; b) methane; c) methyl methanoate; d) methanoic acid.

627. A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

a) toluene; b) benzene; c) butene; d) pentene.

628. C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

a)addition; b) substitution; c) saponification; d) esterification.

629. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

a) C3H7COCH3; c) C2H5OC2H5;

b)CH3COOC2H5; d) CH3COOH.

630. What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

a) 1; b)2; c) 3; d) 4.

631.Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

a) C2H6; b) C3H6; c) C4H6; d) C6H6.

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632. A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

a) carbon dioxide; b) water; c) glycerol; d) ethanol.

633.The general formula for the alkyne series is

a) CnHn; b) CnH2n; c) CnH2n+2; d) CnH2n-2.

634. Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

a) acetylene; b) ethylene; c) toluene; d) propene.

635.Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

a) HCOOCH3; b)CH3CH2COOH; c) CH3CH2OH; d) CH3COOCH3

636.Which compound is a member of the alkene series?

a) benzene; b) toluene; c) acetylene; d) ethane

637. All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

a) single covalent; b) double covalent; c) triple covalent; d) coordinate covalent

638.Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

a) C2H4; b) C3H6; c) C4H8; d) C5H10.

639.Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

a) an esterification reaction; c) a saponification reaction;

b) a neutralization reaction; d) a fermentation reaction.

640.Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is
an example of _______ reaction.

a) substitution; b) addition; c) polymerization; d) fermentation.

641.In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

a) 11; b) 10; c) 3; d) 8.

642.Which compound is an ester?

a) CH3COOH; b) CH3CHO; c) CH3COOCH3; d) CH3COCH3.

643.The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and


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a) a polymer; b) a soap; c) an ester; d) an alcohol.

644.Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures

are called

a) isomers; b) isotopes; c) allotropes; d) homologs.

645.Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2; b) C2H4; c) C5H8; d) C5H12.

646.CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with this

characteristic?

a) acetylene; b) benzene; c) propane; d) toluene.

647. A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

a) structural formula; c) number of carbon atoms;

b) molecular formula d)number of hydrogen atoms.

648.Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

a) CH3COOH; b) CH3CH2OH; c) CH3CH2COOH; d) CH3CH2CH2OH.

649.The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

a) an acid; b) an alcohol; c) an ester; d) a hydrocarbon.

650.Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order,
has 1 more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

a) 1; b) 2; c) 3; d) 4.

651.Which molecular formula represents pentene?

a) C4H8; b) C4H10; c) C5H10; d) C5H12.

652.A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

a) propanol; b) butanol; c) pentanol; d) glycerol.

653.Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

a) organic acids; b) esters; c) alkynes; d) alkanes.

654.Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?


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a) C2H2; b) C2H4; c) C3H6; d) C3H8.

655.Which formula represents an acid?

a) CH3COOCH3; b) CH3OH; c) CH3COOH; d) CH3CH2CH3.

656.Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and
formic acid. This type of reaction is called

a) fermentation; b) esterification; c) saponification; d) polymerization.

657. Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

a) C3H6; b) C2H6; c) C2H2; d) C6H6.

658. Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

a) tetrahedral; b) planar triangular; c) linear; d) bent.

659. Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

a) greater solubility in water; c) a tendency to form ions more readily;

b) more rapid reaction rates; d) lower melting points.

660. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

a) -COOH; b) -OR; c) -CHO; d) -NH2.

661. C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

a) substitution; b) addition; c) polymerization; d) esterification.

662. The isomers of propanol differ in

a) the number of carbon atoms; c) molecular mass;

b) the arrangement of the carbon atoms; d) the position of functional group.

663. Which is the formula of an alcohol?

a) Ba(OH)2; b) HCHO; c) CH3COOH; d) C5H11OH.

664. C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

a) a carbohydrate; b) an ester; c) an organic acid; d) an alcohol.

665. Which compound can have isomers?

a) C2H4; b) C2H2; c) C2H6; d) C4H8.

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666. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

a)polymerization; b) substitution; c) addition; d) esterification.

667.Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?

a) CCl2F2; b) C2H2; c) C2H5OH; d) C2H5OC2H5.

668.Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

a) C3H8; b) C3H7OH; c) CH3COOH; d) CH3COOCH3.

669.Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

a) CCl4; b) C3H5(OH)3; c) C6H6; d) C6H12O6.

670.The structure of an alkene contains

a) only single bonds; b) a double bond; c) two double bonds; d) a triple bond.

671. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van
der Waals forces between the molecules

a) decreases; b) increases; c) remains the same; d) decreases then increases.

672.Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

a) CH4; b) C2H6; c) C3H8; d) C4H10.

673.What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?

a) 6; b) 2; c) 8; d) 4.

674.In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?

a) CH3COOH; b) C3H5(OH)3; c) CH3CH2OH; d) CH3OH.

675.A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used

commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is

called

a) polymerization; b) hydrogenation; c) esterification; d) cracking.

676. Organic compounds must contain

a) oxygen; b) nitrogen; c) hydrogen; d) carbon.

677. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an

organic compound is a(an)


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a) dihedral angle; b) right angle; c) tetrahedral angle; d) acute angle.

678. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an

organic molecule is known as a(an)

a) carboxyl group; b) functional group; c) group; d) alkyl group.

679.The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of

compounds that are

a) molecular; b) ionic; c) polar; d) atomic.

680.How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

a) 5; b) 8; c) 6; d) 13.

681.The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two

adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

a) alkanes; b) alkenes; c) alkynes; d) benzenes.

682.Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated

hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

a) contain multiple bonds; c) have tetrahedral bonds;

b) have a greater molecular mass; d) contain more atoms.

683.A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is

a) ethanol; b) glycerol; c) ethylene glycol; d) ethane.

684.A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

a) fat; b) polymer; c) isomer; d) monomer.

685.Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H4; b) C2H6; c) C3H8; d) C4H10.

686.How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?

a) 1; b) 2; c) 3; d) 4.

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687.Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?

a) butane; b) propane; c) 1-chlorobutane; d) 1-chloropropane.

688.A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both

can produce

a) an ester; b) an alcohol; c) an acid; d) a soap.

689.Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C3H8; b) C6H6; c) C2H5OH; d) C2H4O2.

690.Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

a) benzene; b) propene; c) propane; d) propyne.

691.CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as

a) a carbohydrate; b) an ester; c) an alcohol; d) an organic acid.

692.Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

a) benzene; b) propyne; c) methane; d) ethanol.

693. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling

points

a) decreases; b) increases; c) remains the same; d) decreases then increases.

694. As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the

ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms [Imp]

a) decreases; b) increases; c) remains the same; d) decreases then increases

695. Which compound is most likely to react by addition?

a) CH4; b) C3H6; c) C4H10; d) C5H12.

696. Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

a) propanol; b) glycerol; c) butanol; d) pentanol.

697. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

a) benzene; b) propene; c) pentene; d) butene.

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698. A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

a)alkene; b) alkane; c) alkyne; d) alkadiene.

699. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

a) aldehydes; b) esters; c) polymers; d) ketones.

700. The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

a) primary alcohol; b) secondary alcohol; c) tertiary alcohol; d) dihydroxy alcohol.

701. What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

a) 10; b) 8; c) 6; d) 4.

702. Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

a)butane; b) ethane; c) pentane; d) propane.

703. Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

a) C5H8; b) C5H10; c) C5H12; d) C5H14.

704. The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

a) ionic; b) coordinate covalent; c) covalent; d) hydrogen.

705. As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the
number of double bonds per molecule

a) decreases; b) increases; c) remains the same; d) decreases then increases.

706.In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

a)water; b) carbon dioxide; c) an acid; d) a base.

707. Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

a) C2H5OH; b) C2H4(OH)2; c) C3H5(OH)3; d) C3H6(OH)2.

708. In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound

formed is

a) an ester; b) a ketone; c) an acid; d) an ether.

709.Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) ethene; b) ethane; c) ethylene; d) ethyne.

710. The compound C2H2 belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula
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a)CnHn; b) CnH2n; c) CnH2n-2; d) CnH2n+2.

711. Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

a) Al(OH)3; b) C3H5(OH)3; c) Ca(OH)2; d) C2H4(OH)2.

712. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

a) glycerol; b) ethylene glycol; c) propene; d) propanoic acid.

713. Which organic compound is a ketone?

a) CH3OH; b) CH3COCH3; c) CH3COOH; d) CH3COOCH3.

714. Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

a) butane; b) ethane; c) methane; d) propane.

715. Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

a) oxidation; b) cracking; c) Haber; d) contact.

716. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular

forces have

a) low melting points; c) high conductivity in solution;

b) low vapor pressure; d) high boiling points.

717. What is the formula for pentanol?

a) C5H12; b) C5H11OH; c) C4H10; d) C4H9OH.

718. Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

a) benzene; b) propene; c) toluene; d) butadiene.

719. Which compound contains a triple bond?

a) CH4; b) C2H2; c) C3H6; d) C4H10.

720. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

a)substitution; b) oxidation; c) addition polymerization; d) condensation, polymerization.

721. In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling

points by

a) the contact process; b) the Haber process; c) fractional distillation; d) cracking.

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722.Organic acids are composed of a

a)C = O group at the end of the chain c) C = O and COH group on the same carbon

b) COO– group d ) C = O and COH group on different carbons

723. Which of the following is a true statement?

a)ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an
oxidizing agent

b ) aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent

c)ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol

d)organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

724. Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting

CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

a) an alcohol with an ether

b) a carboxylic acid with a ketone

c) a carboxylic acid with an alcohol

d) a ketone with an aldehyde

725.The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

a) ethylpropanoate c) propethanoate

b) propylethanoate d) none of the above

726. Which of the following is classified as an ether?

a)CH3CHOHCH3 c)CH3CH2CO

b)CH2(OH)CH2CH3 d)CH3OCH3

727. Polymers are

a)molecules made of monomers

b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule

c)macromolecules

d)all of the above

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728. Classify this reaction:

CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

a) Chlorination b) Oxidation c) Hydration d) Elimination

729. The first member of the ketone family is:

a)Methanone c)Propanone

b)Ethanone d) Butanone

730. Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

a) Concentrated sulfuric acid c) Water

b) Dilute sulfuric acid d)None

731. How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

a) The rotate at different rates

b) They have different colours

c) They have different melting/boiling points

d) They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

732. What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

a) PCl3 and an alcohol

b)HCl and an alcohol

c)HCl and an alcohol, under reflux

d) Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

733.What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

a) A carboxylic acid b) A carboxylate salt c) Water d) Does not react

734. Name this molecule:

a) 1,2-dimethylbutane

b) 3,4-dimethylbutane

c) hexane

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d) 3-methylpentane
735. What are alcohols not used in?

a)wine b)vinegar c)plastics d)methylated spirits

736. What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?

a)hydration c)esterification

b)hydrolysis d)polymerisation

737. What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

a)CnH2n+1OH c)CnH2n+2OH

b)CnH2nOH d)CnH2n+1COOH

738. Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

a)ethanoic acid c)butanoic acid

b)ethanol d)ethyl ethanoate

739. Which is true about ethanoic acid?

a)it has a higher boiling point than ethanol

b)it dissociates completely in water

c)it dimerises in water

d)it reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

740. esters are ________.

a)made from alcohols and non-organic acids

b)used to make perfumes and flavorings

c)poisonous

d)foul-smelling compounds

741. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

a)carbon monoxide and water

b)carbon and water

c)carbon dioxide and water

d)carbon monoxide and hydrogen


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742. what are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

a)ethyl methanoate and water

b)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

c)methyl ethanoate and water

d)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

743. What is true about carboxylic acids?

a)carboxylic acids are strong acids

b)carboxylic acids can react with metals

c)alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids

d)carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

744. esterification is a __________.

a)condensation reaction c)addition reaction

b)irreversible reaction d)neutralization reaction

745. Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

a)ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane

b)ethanol contains a hydroxyl group

c)ethanol is used as a fuel

d)ethanol is a solvent

746. What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

a)concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

b)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

c)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm

d)concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

747. In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

a)2 bond b)3 bond c)4 bond d)5 bond

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748. Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

a)one σ bond, one π bond c)one σ bond, two π bond

b)two π bond, one π bond d)two σ bond, two π bond

749. Acetylene has a total of:

a)one σ bond, two π bond c)three σ bond, two π bond

b)two σ bond, four π bond d)one σ bond, four π bond

750. In propene there are

a)eight σ bond, one π bond c)six σ bond, three π bond

b)seven σ bond, two π bond d)nine σ bond

751. In propyne there are

a)six σ bond, two π bond c)six σ bond, one π bond

b)seven σ bond, one π bond d)eight σ bond

752. 1-Buten -3-yne has

a)six σ bond, four π bond c)eight σ bond, two π bond

b)seven σ bond, three π bond d)nine σ bond, one π bond

753. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a)CH3CH2CH3 b)CH3C≡CH c)CH2CH=CH2 d)CH2=CH-CH=CH2

754. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) CH4 b)H2N-CH2-NH2 c)H3C-OH d)(CH3)3COH

755. When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

a)2 other atoms b)4 other atoms c)3 other atoms d)5 other atoms

756. Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) C6H6 b) b)

c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2 d) CH3CH=C=CH2

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757. Which of the following is a planar molecule?

a)formaldehyde b)acetone c)formic acid d)acetic acid

758. What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

a)180o b)120o c)109.5o d)115.5o

759.The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

a)60o b)109.28o c)120o d)118.28o

760. The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

a)60o b)120o c)90o d)180o

761. What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

a)1.20 Ǻ b)1.35 Ǻ c)1.54 Ǻ d)1.68 Ǻ

762. The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

a)triple, duble, single

b)single, duble, triple

c)single, triple, duble

d) duble, triple, single.

763.Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

a)C-C < C=C < C≡C b)C-C > C≡C > C=C

c)C≡C > C-C > C=C d)C≡C < C=C< C-C

764.Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

a)CH2 = CH2 b)CH3CH3 c)HC ≡ CH d)

765.The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

a)CH2 = CH2 b)CH3CH3 c)HC ≡ CH d)

766. Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

a)ethyl alcohol b)formaldehyde c)diethyl ether d)1,3-butadien

767. Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

a)cis-1,2-dichloroetylene c)trans-1,2- dichloroetylene

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b)o- dichlorobenzene d)p- dichlorobenzene

768. Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

a)CI2 b)CO2 c)CCI4 d)CHCI3

769. Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

a)carbon tetrachloride c)dichloromethane

b)chloromethane d)chloroform

770. Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

a)CH3CI b)CH3Br c)CH3F d)CH3I

771. Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

a) c)

b) d)

772. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

b) 1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol

c) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol

773. Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

a)

b)

c)

d)
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774. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 3-chlorobutan-3-ol c) 2-chlorobutan-3-ol

b)3-chlorobutan-2-ol d) 2-chlorobutan-2-ol

775. Which is the correct name for ?

a) propan-2-ol b) butan-2-ol c)propanol d) butanol

776. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

a) c)

b) d)

777.Which is the correct name for ?

a) ethoxyethane b) methoxyethane c) ethoxybuthane d) methoxymethane

778. Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

a) c)

b) d)

779. Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

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a) c)

b) d)

780. Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

a) c)

b) d)

781.Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

a) c)

b) d)

782. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol c) 1-methoxy-2-methylpropane

b) 2-methoxy-1-methylpropane d)2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

783. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

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d)

784. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol c) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
b) b)2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol d) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

785. Which is the correct name for ?

a)butanol b)propanol c)propan-1-ol d)butan-1-ol

786. Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

b) c) d)

787. Which is the correct name for ?

a)1-chlorobutan-3-ol c)4-chlorobutan-2-ol

b)1-chlorobutan-2-ol d)2-chlorobutan-3-ol

788.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

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a) c)

b) d)

789.Which is the correct name for ?

a)3-chlorobutan-1-ol c)1-chloropropan-3-ol

b)3-chloropropan-1-ol d)1-chlorobutan-3-ol

790.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a) c)

b) d)

791. Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

a) ClCH2CHClCOOH c) CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH

b) CH3CHClCHClCOOH d)C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

792.Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

a)ketone b)aldehyde c)amine d)ester

793.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)ester b)amide c)ketone d)carboxylic acid

794.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)amide b)ketone c)carboxylic acid d)ester

795. One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other
compounds is that in aldehydes and ketones

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a)the carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other

carbonyl compounds.

b) the polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.

c) the molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.

d) the carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

796. The carbonyl group is

a)found only in aldehydes and ketones.

b)produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.

c)a functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.

d)a general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

797. All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true
except

a)The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.

b)The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.

c)Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.

d) In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

798. Which molecule is formaldehyde?

a) b)

c) d)

799. Which molecule is 2- butanone?

a) b)

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c) d)

778. Which molecule is propanal?

a) b)

c) d)

800. Which molecule is acetone?

a) c)

b) d)

801. Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

a)ethyl methyl acetone c)3-hexanone

b)methyl propyl ketone d)propyl methyl ketone

802. Which molecule is a ketone?

a ) c)

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b) d)

803. Which molecule is an aldehyde?

a) c)

b) d)

804.The IUPAC name for acetone is

a)2-propanone. b)dimethyl ketone. c)1-propanone. d)3-propanal.

805. The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

a)3-propanal. b)2-propanone. c)acetone. d)1-propanone.

806. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

a)3- methyl 1 butanone. b)2-methylbutanal. c)3-methylbutanal. d)isopentanal.

807. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

a)isobutyl acetone. c)4 –methyl – 2- butanone.

b)2- methyl – 4- butanone. d)4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

808. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)4-heptanone b)2- methyl -3- hexanone

c)3-heptanone d)isopropyl n-propyl ketone

809. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

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a)isopentanal b)2- methyl – 4- butanone c)2- methyl- 1- butanone d)3-methylbutanal

810. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

a)3-octanone c)3- methyl -3-pentanone all are correct

b)2-butanone d)3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

811. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

a) 3-ethylpentanal

b) 4-methylpentanal

c)3- methyl- 2- pentanal

d) 2-methylpentanal

812. Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

a)They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded

to oxygen.

b) Most have distinctive odors.

c) They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.

d) They are polar.

813. All of the following are properties of acetone except

a)flammable. b)intoxicating. c)solvent for organic substances. d)nutrient.

814. Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

a)flavoring b)preservative c)hormone d)solvent

815. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CO-CH3 b)CH3-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

816. Which compound has the highest boiling point?

a)CH3-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

817. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

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a)CH3-CH2-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CH3 c)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

818. In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

a)H2. b)lactic acid. c)NADH. d)pyruvic acid.

819. All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

a)It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.

b)Its systematic name is ethanal.

c)Its common name is acetaldehyde.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

820. All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

a)Its systematic name is propanone.

b)Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone.

c)Its common name is acetone.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

821. The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is
methyl ethyl ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound
are ____ .

a)2-butanone; c)3-butanone;

b)2-propanone; d)3-butanone;

822. Tollens' reagent is used to

a)distinguish amines from aldehydes. c)reduce aldehydes.

b)distinguish aldehydes from ketones. d)reduce ketones.

823. Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a


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a)primary alcohol. b)secondary alcohol. c)carboxylic acid. d)ketone.

824. Oxidation of a ketone produces

a)an aldehyde b)a carboxylic acid c)a primary alcohol d)no reaction

825. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

a)Oxidation of ketones produces esters. c)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

b)Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +. d)Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

826. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

a)The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.

b)Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.

c)The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .

d)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

827. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a) pentanal b)3-pentanone c)2-pentanone d)pentanoic acid

828. Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

a)A silver wire dissolves.

b)A brick-red precipitate forms.

c)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.

d)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

829. Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

a)A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.

b)A red precipitate forms from a blue solution.

c)A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless.

d)A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

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830. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

a)butane b)2-butanol c)1-butanol d)butanoic acid

831. What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?

a)butanoic acid b)butanal c)2-butanol d)no reaction

832. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a) c)

b) d)

833. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

a)an aldehyde b)a hemiacetal c)a carboxylic acid d)none, ketones don't oxidize.

834. What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

a) gold b) copper c) lead d) silver

835. Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

a)tertiary alcohol. b)carboxylic acid. c)secondary alcohol. d)primary alcohol.

836. Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

a)carboxylic acid. b)secondary alcohol. c)aldehyde. d)tertiary alcohol.

837. What is the product of reduction of butanal?

a)butanoic acid b)butane c)2-butanol d)1-butanol

838. What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

a)butanal b)1-butanol c)2-butanol d)butanoic acid

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839.What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

a)3-methyl –2- pentanal c)3-methyl – 2-pentanol

b)2- methyl -3-pentanol d)3- methyl –2- pentene

840. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?

a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose

841.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5

842.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose

b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose

843. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose

844. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose

845. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-

a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose

846. Choose the keto triose-

a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose

847. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is- {RIBOSE}

a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose

848.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers

849. All tests are negative for sucrose except-

a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone

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850. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16

851. Galactose and Glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers

852. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-

a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers

853. What does the following equation represent?

α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose

a)Stereo isomerism b)Mutarotation c)Optical isomerism d)Epimerization

854. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose

855.Dulcitol is a -

a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugarsd)Sugar alcohol

856. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose

857. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose

858. Invert sugar is-

a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

859. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine

860. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen

861. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose

862.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-


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a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine

863. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone

864. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?

a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2

865. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde

866. Which of following is an anomeric pair?

a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose

b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

867. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid

868. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

a)The glucose residue is the β anomer.

b)The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.

c)C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

d)The compound is in its furanose form

869.The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

a)A purine nucleotide. b)A pyrimidine nucleotide. c)Adenosine. d)AMP

870.Functional Group of Alkane:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH
871. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:
a)H – C = O b) C – OH c)O = C – O – C d)None

872. Functional Group of Alkyl halide:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH

873. Functional Group of Alkene:


a)H – C = O b)C – OH c)C – X d)C=C

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874. Functional Group of Alkyne:
a) b) - C≡N c)C – OH d)C≡C

875. Functional Group of Alcohol:


a)C – OH b)H – C = O c)C – X d)- C≡N

876. Functional Group of Ether:


a)H – C = O b) C – CO – C c) C – C d)C – X

877. Functional Group of Aldehyde:


a) b)C – CH = O c)C – X d)O = C – OH

878. Functional Group of Ketone:


a)C – CO - C b)C – X c)- C≡N d)O = C – OH

879. Functional Group of Carboxylic Acid:


a)O = C – OH b)C – X c)C – OH d)- C≡N

880. Functional Group of Amine:


a)C – NR – R’ b)O = C – OH c)H – C = O d)C – OH

881. Functional Group of Amide:


a)O = C – OHb)C – NR – R’ c)H – C = O d)HOC – NR – R’

882.Functional Group of Nitrile:


a)- C≡N b)O = C – OH c)C – NR – R’ d)HOC – NR – R’

883. Functional Group of Aromatic ring:


a) b)O = C – OH c)HOC – NR – R’ d)- C≡N

884. Amino acides are building blocks of:


a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers

885. Proteins are composed of:


a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers

886. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

887. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

888. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine


a) aliphatic b) aromatic c) heterocyclic d) complex

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889. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest
a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4

890. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in


a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium

891. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in


a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium

892. How many α-amine acid rests are in polypeptide


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

893. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)hydrofobic

894. Choose peptide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) -C-C-

895. Lactose is
a)monose b)unreducing disaccharide c)amine acid d)reducing disaccharide

896. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation b)reduction c)esterificationd)transamination

897. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of ****
a)aldose b)pyranose c)fructose d)furanose

898. Glicaric acids are produced under action of


a)mild oxidant b)strong reductant c)mild reductant d)strong oxidant

899. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside

900.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

901. Components of nucleotide


a)protein b)amine acid rest c)OH d)thymine

902.Monomeric link of protein


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

903.Unsaponified lipids are


a) mono-component b) di-component c) three-component d) poly-component

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904.DNA contains
a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

905. Complex lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylicacids
b)carboxylicacids
c)alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

906. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

907.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

908.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

909.Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of


a)transamination b)oxidation c)reduction d) decarboxylation

910. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in


a)acidic medium b)neutral medium
c)basic medium d)any medium

911. How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d)more than 100

912. How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

913.Bonds stabilizing tertiary structure of proteins


a)coordination b)hydrofobic c)glycoside d)metallic

914.Choose disulphide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-

915.How many cheiral centres are in aldopentose


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

916.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide

917.Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by


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a)oxidation c)esterification
b)reduction d)transamination

918.Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


a)transamination c)reduction
b)oxidation d)decarboxylation

919.Gliconic acids are produced under action of


a)mild oxidant c)mild reductant
b)strong reductant d)strong oxidant

920.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides


a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts

921.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

922.Components of nucleoside
a)phosphate group b)carbonyl group c)thymine d)sugar rest

923.Monomeric link of terpene


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

924. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

925. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

926.Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

927. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

928. Saponified lipids are


a)mono-component b)three-component c)without any component d) poly-component

929. RNA contains


a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

930. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
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d)alcohols

931. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

932. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

933.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

934.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

935.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

936. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

937. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

938. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

939. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

940. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

941.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

942. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

943. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

944. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

945. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

946. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


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INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

947. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

948. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

949. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

950. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

951. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

952. Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

a)Rayon b)insulin c)gun cotton d)paper

953. Complex lipids form under hydrolysis

a)alcohols, carboxylic acids c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.

b)carboxylic acids d)alcohols

954. Number of cheiral centres in aldohexose

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

955. Fatty acids are

a)unsaturated dicarboxylic acids c)aromatic carboxylic acids

b)long-chain alkanoic acids d)aromatic dicarboxylic acids

956. Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called

a)proteins b)terpenes c)carbohydrates d)soaps

957. soap is

a)a mixture of salts of fatty acids b)a salt of glycerol

c)a mixture of ethers d)a mixture of aromatic ethers

958. a wax is

a)a nonpolar solid c)a triacylglycerol

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INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
b)a long-chain alcohol d)none of these

959.Fats and oils are

a)monoesters of glycerol c)triesters of glycerol

b)diesters of glycerol d)diesters of glycol

960. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

a)more unsaturation c)a glycerol backbone

b)higher melting points d)longer fatty acids

961. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

a)12 carbons b)14 carbons c)16 carbons d)18 carbons

962. Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

a)hydrogenation b)saponification c)hydrolysis d)oxidation of double bonds

963. Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

a)Vanaspati ghee b)margarine c)both of these d)none of these

964. Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

a)saponification b)fermentation c)diazotization d)rancidification

965.Saponification of a fat

a)Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps c)is used in the production of detergents

b)produces glycerol and soap d)is used in the production of lactic acid

966. Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

a)Fats b)waxes c)soaps d)oils

967. The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

a)Iodine number b)octane number c)saponification number d)melting point

968. Zwitterion is
a)an ion that is positively charged in solution

b)an ion that is negatively charged in solution

c)a compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid

d)a carbohydrate with an electrical charge


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969. A zwitterions has which of the following properties

a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these

970. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:

a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals

971. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds

972. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:

a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length

973. The isoelectric point of a protein is

a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface

b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges

c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions

d)none of these

974. Glycine is

a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH

b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH

975. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond

b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid

976. Proteins are

a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene

977. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I

978. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage

979. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:


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a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure

980. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular

b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain

c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space

d)the presence or absence of an α-helix

981. The α-helix is a common form of

a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these

982. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization

983. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds

984. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols

985. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid

c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid

986. Nynhydring test is given by

a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes

987. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test

988. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is
called

a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test

989. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine

990. Monosaccharides are classified according to


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a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule

b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes

d)all of the above

991. Which is a monosaccharide?

a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose

992. Which is a disaccharide?

a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose

993. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose

994. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light

b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate

c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group

d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

995. The principal sugar in blood is

a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose

996. Glucose cannot be classified as

a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide

997. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol

998. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

a)its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal c)it is oprtically active

b)it is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone d)it shows mutarotation

999. Common table sugar is

a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose

Chemistry Key By Group 1


INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
1000.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above

1001.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?

a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution

b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

1002. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose

1003. Starch

a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin

b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin

Docent Aitkeeva Ch.A.


9 October 2017

Chemistry Key By Group 1


Exam tests on Chemistry.
Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.

1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) + General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) + Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a) + Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) + Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) + Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a) + Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) + Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) + Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) + Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a) + A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) + A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) + A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) + A process during which the heat Q = 0
14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?
a) + Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) + Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) + Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) + Adiabatic process

18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?


a) + Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs

19. The basic formula for Entropy;


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) + S = KlnW

20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a) + Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW
21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.
a) Q=∆U+A
b) + H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

22. Internal energy is called?


a) + Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a) + Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

24. Enthalpy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) + Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a) Internal energy
b) + Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

26. The heat transfer are divided into


a) + Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

27. What is the thermal conductivity?


a) + The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
28. What is the convection?
a) The material to conduct heat.
b) + Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

29. What is the radiation?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) + The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) + Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

31. What is the endothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) + Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

32. What is the exothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) + Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Endothermic reactions

34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Exothermic reactions

35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.


a) + ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) Q= ΔU+ W
d) + ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) + ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

38. System consisting of three phases is called


a) + heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

39. System consisting of one phase is called


a) heterogeneous
b) + homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

40. What is the heterogeneous system?


a) + System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

41. What is the homogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) + System consisting of one phase is called
42. What are the units of energy?
a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d) + joule

43. Spontaneous process occurs only

a) + without external energy


b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help

44. Internal energy is ……


a) + energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness

45. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a) + H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H

46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) A
b) G
c) + Qp
d) H

47. Find state parametre


a) Q
b) G
c) + T
d) H

48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) Q

b) G
c) + Qp
d) S

49. Find state parameter


a) Q
b) G
c) + v

d) H

50.For spontaneous processes


a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0

c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics

51. Chemical kinetics studies –

a) energy changes during chemical transformations.


b) + the rate of chemical reactions.
c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?


a) + Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction

53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) + Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular

54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) + Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?
a) + Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?


a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.

58. Enzymes is a substance that …

a) increase the rate of reaction


b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) + biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate

59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-


a) + Catalyst
c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor
d) Reducing agents.

60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

a) Catalyst
b) + Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?
a) + a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel
62. Irreversible reactions are called?
a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) + a change that cannot go back
c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution

63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?


a) + Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) + Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

65. A material that dissolves is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) + Soluble
d) Insoluble

66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) + Insoluble

67. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) + N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

68. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S


b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) + I2 → I • + I •

69. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?


a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b) + Cl2 → 2Cl
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

70. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

71. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

72. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) + CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

73. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH


b) + 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
74. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) + Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
75. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) + H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O
76. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?
a) + 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

77. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) + O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

78. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b) + 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

79. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) + 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) + 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

81. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) + HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

82. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) + 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl

83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
c) + Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
b) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
c) + Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a) + Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is


a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) + K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]

87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is


a) + K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) + backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants

89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a) + Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction

90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c) + Time
d)Temperature

91. A catalyst is a substance which


a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) + Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) + Active mass

93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

a) + Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite

94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

a) Unequal
b)Constant
c) + Equal
d) Increased

95. The law of mass action was enunciated by

a) + Guldberg and Waage


b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham

96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction


will

N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

a) + Increase the yield of NO


b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed
97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?

a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;

b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;

c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;

d) + the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;

b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;

c) + the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;

d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

a) + increases;

b) decreases;

c) remains the same;

d) approaches zero

100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;

b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;

c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;

d) + The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.


101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

a) decrease;

b) increase;

c) + remain the same;

d) approach zero

102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;

b) add a catalyst;

c) cool the reaction down;

d) + use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?

I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

a) II only;

b) III only;

c) I and II only;

d) + II and III only

Solutions.

104. Molarity is expressed as

a)grams/litre

b) litres/mole

c) + moles/litre

d) moles/1000 gm

105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in


a) + 1000 gm of the solvent

c)onelitre of the solution

b) one litre of the solvent

d) 22.4 litres of the solution

106. Normality is expressed as

a)moles/litre

b) + gm equivalents/litre

c)moles/1000 gm

d)gram/litre

107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

a) 1 N

b) 10 N

c) + 2.7 N

d) + 1.7 N

108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

a) + 13N
b) 0x1N
c) +1N
d) None

109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

a) 0x1
b) + 2.0
c) + 1.0
d) 0.4

110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

a) + 5.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) + 2.04 N
d) 0.35 N

111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?


a) 0.5 N
b) + 3.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) + 3.6 N

112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

a) +4N
b) + 47 N
c) N/2
d) N/4

113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is

a) + 4.6 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) + 3.6 N

114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

a) 4g
b) + 16 g
c) +1g
d) 10 g

115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) + 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M

116. The molarity of pure water is

a) + 5.6
b) + 55.6
c) 100
d) 18

117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

a) 1
b) + 10
c) 18
d) 100

118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

a) 1
b) +3
c) +9
d) 1.5

119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) + 1.0 M

120. What is the solution?


a) + a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

121. What is the solute?


a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) + component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

122. What is the solvent?


a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) + component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

123. What is the concentration?


a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) + amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

a) + Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

a) Solution
b) + Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) + Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) + Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?

a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.


b) + the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

129. Mass fraction is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) + percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction


neq msolute
a) C E = c) + =
V m solution

CM CEME
T= = msubstance1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M  m solution

131.The molar concentration iscalled?

a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:


b) + the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

132. Molar concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration


neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution

nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance1000
MVsolution B=
b) + d) M  m solution

134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?


a) + the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.

136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent

a) msolute c) + neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance1000
MVsolution B=
b) d) M  m solution

137. The molal concentration is:


a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) + the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

138. Molal concentration is expressed in:

a) + mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration

a) + msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = ---------------------
Vsolution msubstance1000
MVsolution B=
b) d) M  m solution

140. Find volume concentration


a) mass percent
b) + normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction

141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) + Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov

142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a) 98
b) 2
c) 32

d) + 49

143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid


a) 98
b) 2

c) + 32.6
d) 49

144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide


a) 98
b) + 37
c) 32
d) 49

145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by


a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) + theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation

146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

a) + diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution

147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

a) + high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature

148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an

a) base
b) + acid
c) salt
d) suspension

149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) + molarity

150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) + solution.
d) compound.

151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a) solute. c)solution.
b) + solvent. d) mixture.

152. Which of the following is not a solution?


a) + zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel

153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?


a) + alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene

154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?


a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d) + dental amalgam

155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?


a) + It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.

156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is


a) + concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.

157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b) + increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure

158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?


a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction
b) + Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction

159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) + 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution

160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a.) + hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride
161. Most salt become soluble in water as the
a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b) + temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.

162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a) + Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b) + Molality d)Mole fraction

164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity
c) + Dilution
b)Normality
d)Molality

165. In dilution of solution,


a) a solute is added to the solution.
b) + solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.

166. A 40% alcohol contains


a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b) + 40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

Colligative properties of solutions.

167. Solutions are:


а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c) + homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.
168. Solubility of solids depends upon:
a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) + all answers are right.

169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:


a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) + gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) + solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) + vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.

172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) + The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.

173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:


a) Hemolysis;
b) + Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.

174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:


a) + 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.

175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:


а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile solutes;
d) + boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) + concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.

177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:


а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) + 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:


a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure solvents;
b) + Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.

179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:


a) + The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.

180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:


a) + to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.

181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:


a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d) + A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:


a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) + Osmotic pressure.

183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:


a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
b) + 1.0×10-1osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.

184. Osmolarity is:


a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) + the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.

185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a) +  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:


a) + 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a) + the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.

188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise


a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect

189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution


a) increases
b) remains same
c) + Decreases
d) None of them

190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise


a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases

191. For spontaneous processes


a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0

d) + ∆H≤ 0

192. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on


a) concentration
b) + nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute

193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) + molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate

194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + Hypertonic

195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) + hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + isotonic
197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) + isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) + osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry

199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) + cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry

200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) + ebuliometry

201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the


a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b) + Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure

202. Which involves the colligative properties?


a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c) + Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) + Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis

204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis
d) + Osmosis

205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) + Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Osmosis
d)Phagocytosis

206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on

a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) + Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only

207. Which one is a colligative property?

a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point

208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) + Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.

209. Which is not a colligative property?

a) + Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point

210. Which of the following is a colligative property?

a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point

211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules


b) + Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute
212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by

a) + Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis

213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) + Mole fraction of solute

214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

a) + An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion

215. When common salt is dissolved in water

a) M. p. of the solution increases


b) + B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

a) + Molecular wt. of solute


b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these

217. When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then


phenomenon taking place is called

a) + Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis

218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:


a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) + П / C = ST

219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

a)less than c) + greater than

b)the same as d) greater than or equal to

220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) + Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.

221. What happens during osmosis?


a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.

b) + Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.

c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.

d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.

222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.


b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.

c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) + The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increase

223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) + boiling point d) freezing point

224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

a) + electrolyte c) polar substance


b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance

225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as


a) + volatile
b)electrolyte
c) nonvolatile
d) nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.

Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

226. Acetic acid is weak because

a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) + It is slightly ionized
d) None of these

227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of K w
at this temperature will be

a) + 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5

228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) + 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9

229. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2%
ionized weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

a) 0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively


b) 1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
c) 2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
d) 3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

230. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

a) 10-12
b) + 10-2
c)10-4
d)10-13
231. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

a) 10-13
b) 1013
c) + 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010

232. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

a) 10
b) +7
c) 1
d) 14

233. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) + Between 6 and 7

234. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

a) 8
b) + 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1

235. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

236. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) + Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation

237. FeCl3 solution is

a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

238. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

a) Neutral
b) c)Strongly acidic
c) Weakly acidic

d) + Alkaline

239. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

a) + An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction

240. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) + Almost neutral

241. Which one of the following is acid salt?

a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) + NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4

242. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) + Na2HPO4

243. Which one is not an acid salt?

a) Na2H2PO4
b) + NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above

244. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?


a) NaCl
b) + NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4

245. Which one will not be hydrolysed?

a) + Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate

246. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?

a) + CH3COOK
b) KCl
c) NaNO3
d) d)K2SO4

247. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

a) Weakly acidic
b) + Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic

248. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

a) (NH4)2SO4
b) + Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4

249. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

a) A strong acid and strong base


b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) + A weak acid and strong base

250. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) + FeCl3
d) NaCN

251. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?

a) + NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN

252. A buffer solution changes its pH

a) Increase in pH
b) Decrease in pH
c) + No change in pH
d) No change in electrical conductivity

253. About buffer solution which in incorrect?

a) It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base


b) It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c) + It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d) All of the above

254. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

a) Strong acid and its salt of a weak base


b) Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c) + Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d) Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

255. Which is a buffer solution?

a) + CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl

256. Which of the following is a buffer?

a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) + NH4OH + NH4Cl

257. Which is not a buffer solution?

a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) + CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid

258. pH of blood is

a) Less than 6
b) + Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9
d) Greater than 10

259. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

a) + Acetic acid + Sodium acetate


b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All

260. Give name to positively charged particles:

а) radicals;
b) molecules;
c) anions;
d) + cations.

261. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a) NaNO2;
b) + NaHCO3;
c) Na2CO3;
d) KMnO4.
262. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) + Low water ionization constant.
263. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) + Ion product for water.
264. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M;
b) 0.001M;
c) + 0.1 M;
d) 1.0M.

265.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:


a) + Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.

266. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


а) Electrons donors;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) + Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

267. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl;
b) KHSO4/H2SO4;
c) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
d) + NH3 /NH4Cl.

268. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:


a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) + All answers are right.

269. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


а) + Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

270. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:


а) Electrons donor;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) + Protons acceptors.

271. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:


a) + pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.

272. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into


a) + oxides, acid, base, salt
b) oxides, base
c) Alkalis, salt, oxides
d) Ampholytes, Alkalis

273. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.
a) + hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

274. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) + hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

275. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a) + pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

276. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) + pH = 7

277. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7
b) + pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7

278. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH>7
c) + pH ~7
d) pH = 7

279. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

280. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them

281. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

282. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


A + ) acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

283. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a) acidic b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of them
e
284. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

285. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

286. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a) + acidic
) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

287. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

288. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

289. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate


a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

290. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

291. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral
d) none of them

292. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

ld) none of them

293. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate


a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral

d) none of them

294. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite


a) acidic
b) + basic
c)
d) c)neutral
e) d) none of them

295. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide


a) 2
b) 11
c) + 13
d) 7

296. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide


a) 2
b) 10
c) 1
d) +13

297. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide


a) 2
b) + 13
c) 1

d) 7
298. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of
a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) + both A and B

299. PH can be kept constant with help of


a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) + buffer solution
d) super saturated solution

300. Buffers present in blood contain


a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) + all of them

301. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a) + aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis

302. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase
b) c)carbolic hydrase

c) + carbonic anhydrase

d) d)carbonic hydrase

303. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

a) hydrochloric acid only


b) + acetic acid only
c) sodium chloride or potassium acetate
d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

304. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a) oxide
b) ether
c) + salt
d) alcohol
305. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) + all of above
306. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) + KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
307. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) + neutralization
b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation

308. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a) AH
b) + HA
c) Ha
d) aH

309.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of K a is


a) high
b) + low
c) same
d) constant
310. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid
b) concentration of water molecules
c ) pH of solution
d) + both A and B
311. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
a) concentration of acid
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) + both A and B

312. Ka is called
a) + acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant

313. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) + HNO2

314.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) + LiClO4
d) CsBr

315. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?


a) H2O
b) + KF
c) HF
d)HNO2

316.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) + HCN

317. A stronger base:

a) is also a stronger acid;

b) tastes sour;

c) + is also a stronger electrolyte;

d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution

318. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

a) water and a salt;

b) an acid and a base;

c) + a salt and hydrogen gas;

d) a nonmetal oxid

319. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

a) HCl;
b) H2CO3;

c) + KOH;

d) CH3CH2OH;

320. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

a) 1×10-11 M;

b) + 1×10-5 M;

c) 1×10-7 M;

d) 1×10-6M;

321. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H + ions. This
substance is:

a) KOH;

b)CH4

c) + H2SO4;

d) NH3

322. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

a) [H+] equals zero;

b) [H+] is less than [OH-];

c) [OH-] equals [H+];

d) + [H+] is greater than [OH-]

323. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

a) donate a proton;

b)donate an electron pair;


c) yield H+ ions;

d) + acceptor of protons.

324. What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 4

0.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

a) 100.0 mL;

b) 80.0 mL;

c) 40.0 mL;

d) + 20.0 mL

325. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

a) + increase;

b) remain the same;

c) decrease;

d) approach zero

326. Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH - ions?

a) 1;

b) 7;

c) 10;

d) + 14.

327. The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

a) a single replacement;

b) the process of hydrolysis;

c) + a neutralization reaction;
d) a synthesis reaction;

328. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

a) A pH of 2 is three times as strong;

b) + A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;

c) A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

d) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as weak;

329. Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

a) chlorous acid; b) acetic acid;

c) + perchloricacid;

d) hypochlorous acid

330. Which of the following statements is true?

a) NaCl is a neutral salt; c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.

b) KOH is an acid; d) NaBr is basic salt.

331. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?

a) OH- and H2O; c) HCl and Cl-;

b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-; d) NH3 and NH4+;

332. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF; c) SO2 + H2O → H2SO3;

b) + 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2 ; d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

333. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;

b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;


c) HI is hydroiodic acid;

d) + HClO2 is chloric acid

334. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?

a) AgCl; b) PbBr2; c) Ca3(PO4)2; d) + Na2CO3

335. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:

a) + unsaturated; b) supersaturated; c) saturated; d) dilute

336. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate
and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a)Cl-; b) + 2Na+; c) CaCO3d) all of the substances above

337. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a) 1.5 m NaCl; c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;

b) 1.5 m AgCl; d) + 2.0 m CaCl2

338. Which equation is correctly balanced?

a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;

b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;

c) + 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;

d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;

Unit 2.

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.


339 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in
a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d) + H2S
340. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c) + H2O2 d)F2
341. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b) + KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
342. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d) + x=2 y=3 z=10
343. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b) + Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
344. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b) + H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2

345. An electrolyte is one


a)Which conducts electric current c) + Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above

346. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to


a)Dilution b) + number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution

347. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) + -3

348. Which of the following is an insulator?


a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) + Diamond d)Silicon

349. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O


a)X=4 y=6 b) + x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8

350. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O


a) + 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
351. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a) + F2
b)Cl2
c)Br2
d)I2

352. Oxidation involves


A) + Loss of electrons
b)Increase in the valency of negative part
c)Gain of electrons
d)Decrease in the valency of positive part

353. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

354. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a)-2
b) + -1
c) 0
d) -4

355. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a) + SO2
b)CaO
c)Al2 O3
d)CrO3

356.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular
b) intramolecular
c) + disproportion
d) none of them

357.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a) CH3COONa
b) + C2H5OH
c)NaCl

d)KOH

358 Element accepting electrons is called


a) product
b) + oxidant
c) reactant
d) reductant

359.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F
b) + Cl
c)He
d)Na

360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:


a) + -3 to +5
b)-1 to +1
c)-3 to -5

d) -5 to +1

361.Strong electrolytes are those which


a)Dissolve readily in water
b)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
c)Conduct electricity
d) + Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

362.Which of the following conducts electricity?


a) crystal NaCl
b)diamond
c) + molten KBr
d)sulphur

363. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B

d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

364. Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode


a) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

365. Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

366. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:


a) + -1
b) -2
c)+4
d) 0

367. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:


a) +1
b) + -2
c)- 4
d) 0
368. Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode
a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

369. Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

370. In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation numbers
a) + intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) intramolecular
d) disproportion

371. In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed


a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) counter disproportion
d) + disproportion

372. Element loosing electrons is called


a) product
b) oxidant
c) reactant
d) + reductant

373. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a) + the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in terms
of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

374. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a) KMnO4→MnO2;
b) HNO2→NO2;

c) Cl2O→HCl;

d) + P→H3PO4.
375. Point out the correct statements:
a) + A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
b) A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt /s equation;
c) High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
d) Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

376. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1;
b) + 6;
c) 14;
d)3.

377. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO 4 in the presence of base?

a) Mn(OH)2;

b) MnO42-;

c) + MnO2;

d) Mn2+.

378. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

a) Fe2O3 + HCl;

b) + FeCl3+H2S;

c) Fe+ HCl;

d) SO3+NaOH.

379. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

а) 2; b) + 5; c) 10; d) 3.

380. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


а) + accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.

381. Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:
a) Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
b) Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
c) Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
d) + Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

382. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) + 1-

383. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?a)
HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) + KClO4

384. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

a) Al; b) Fe; c) + Fe3+; d) Al3+

385. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

; a) + loses 1 electron b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton

386. . In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) + Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni

387. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) + 10
388. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

a) it allows ion migration; c) + it allows electron migration;

b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;

389. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) + F2; d) I2

390. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:

a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) + electrolysis; d) hydrolysis

Biogenic elements.

391. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

a) in molecule of cytochrome b

b) + in molecule of vitamin B12

c) in molecule of catalase

d) in molecule of vitamin B6

392) Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

a) enzyme catalase

b) + enzyme superoxide dismutase

c) cytochrome P450

d) glutathione peroxidase

393) Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

a) hypervitaminosis

b) + hypovitaminosis

c) avitaminosis

d) acidosis

394) Vitamin A deficiency can cause:


a) + xeroftalmia

b) increased blood coagulation

c) growth acceleration

d) anemia

395) The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

a) vitamin D

b) + vitamin B1

c) vitamin K

d) thiamine

396. ZnO is used as

a) protective

c) + both (a) & (b)

b) astringent

d) antidote

397. Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

a) oxidation

b) protein precipitate

c) halogenation

d) + all of the above

398. Hydrogen peroxide is used as

a) + antiseptic

b) acidifying agent

c) protective

d) antioxidant

399. KMnO4 solutions are used for

a) antibacterial
b) antifungal

c) + both of the above

d) antioxidant

400. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these

elements:

a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;

b) + H, P, S, C, O, N;

c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;

d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

401. Choose biogenic macroelement

a)Cu

b) + P

c)Br

d)As

402. Choose biogenic microelement


a) + Cu
b)S
c)Ca
d)Mg

403. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) + 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm

404. Six major biogenic elements :


a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
c) + Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.

405.Five minor biogenic elements:


a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) + Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

406. Trace elements:


a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) + Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

407. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12%
b) + 10-3– 10-5 %
c)10-9%
d) 10-2%

408. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a) + 10-2%
b) 10-9%
c) 10-3– 10-5 %

d) 10-7% - 10-12

409. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + Zn

410. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) + Fe
c) N
d) C

411. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + I

412. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) + P
b) Cl
c)Cu
d) I
Choose biogenic macroelement
a) Pb
b) +Ca
c) I
d) Ne

413. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) l
c) + O
d) Mn

414. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb
b) + C
c)Cu
d) I

Complex compounds.

415. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:


a)+1
b) + +3
c)-1
d)-3

416. A coordination compound consists of


a) a metal ion and counterions
b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions
d) + a metal ion bound to one or more ligands

417. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:


a)0
b)+4
c) + +3
d)+6

418. Name the following coordination compound:


K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II)
b) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
c ) potassium cyanoferrate(II)
d) + potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
419. The coordination number is:
a) + The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex

420. Number of hem sections in mioglobin


a) + 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

421. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2


a) + cationic
b) anionic
c) monodentate
d) neutral

422. Ethylenediamine would be called


a) dentate
b) + bidentate
c) tridentate
d)tetradentate

423. Name the following coordination compound:


[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) + triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

424. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?


(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
(3) chloride, Cl- (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5
b)1, 5, 6
c) + 1, 6
d) 2, 3, 4, 5

Ca 3  Fe(CN)6 2
425. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0
b) 1+
c) 2+
d) + 3+

426. Number of hem sections in hemoglobin


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) + 4

427. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound


a) + central ion
b) ligands
c) outer sphere ions
d) all constituents

428.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements


a) does’tchang
b) increases
c) + decreasis
d) none

429.Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps


a) 0
b) 1
c) + 2 and more
d) always without steps

430. Dentantness of porfyrin


a) 2
b) + 4
c) 6
d) 5

431.Particles playing role of ligands are


a) positive ions
b) chelates
c) + negative ions
d) complex ions

432. A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its
formula.
a) [Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
b) [ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
c) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
d) + [CrCl2(H2O)4]

433. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?


a) +1
b) + +3
c) -2
d) 0

434. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?


a) carbonyl; b) nitro;
b)
c) acetate;
d) + oxalate.

435. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?


a) + [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
b) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
c) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

436. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?


a) + Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

437. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?


a) + Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper

438. Ligand «en» is an example of:


a) + bidentate ligand;
b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand;
d) hexadentate ligand.

439. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is


a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) + Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

440. Determine type of K 2[CuCl4 ] complex


a) cationic
b) + anionic
c) trigonal

d) neutral

441. Donor of electrons in coordination compound


a)central ion
b)outer sphere ions
c) + ligands
d) none

442. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements


a) doesn’t change
b) + increases
c) decreases
d) none of them

443.Coordination number of iron in hem


a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) + 6

444. Dentatness of EDTA


a) 2
b) 3

c) + 4
d) 6

445. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability


a) increases b) doesn’t change c) + decreases d) none of them

446. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) + donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

447. Particles playing role of central ion are


a) + positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions

448. Find ligand of weak field


a) + OH-
b) Au
c) CN-
d) Fe2+

449. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?


a) + Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)

450. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)


a) + K3[Fe(CN)6]
b) (CN)6[Fe K2]
c) Fe [K2(CN)6]
d) [FeK2(CN)6

451. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?


a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) + tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

452.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate


a) [(en)3Co]SO4
b) [SO4(en)3]Co
c) [Co(en)3SO4]
d) + [Co(en)3]SO4

453. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?


a) linear;

b) octahedral;

c) + tetrahedral;

d) trigonal

454. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) + electrostatic model

455. Find ligand of strong field


a) OH-
b) Au
c) Cl-
d) + NH3

456. Dentatness of ligand is


a) number of central ions
b) charge of central ion
c) + number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number
Unit 3.

Colloids.
457. Disperse systems consists of:

a) + dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
d) sol, gel

458. Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

a) dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) + coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
c) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
d) sol, gel

459. What is a disperse system?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

460. Coarse systems include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) Gel, suspensions.

461. What is the Emulsion?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

462. What is the suspension?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

463. What is the aerosol?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) + It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

464. Sols are:


a) gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) + blood, lymph.
c) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
d) Blood, jelly, marmalade.

465. Gels are:


a) + gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
c) blood, lymph.
d) blood, jelly, marmalade.

466. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:


a) medical products
b) colored glass
c) + pumice
d) fog

467. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:


a) Soil
b) + Moist soil
c) Rocks
d) fog

468. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) natural gas
b) + gas from oil droplets
c) smog
d) colored glass

469. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) natural gas
b) aerosols
c) + dust storms
d) pearl

470. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) Fizzy drinks, foam
b) + body fluids
c) pastes,mortar
d) smog

471. Colloidal solutions include:


a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) saline solution in water

472. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:


a) cosmetic products
b) porous chocolate
c) + some alloys
d) fog

473. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

a) Dust in the air


b) Aerosol
c) Fog
d) + Does not exist

474. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) + Sols
b) Emulsion oil
c) Fizzy drinks
d) Fog

475. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

a) cream, milk
b) + foam
c) pastes
d) chocolate

476. Colloid particles have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 m
c) + 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -7 m

477. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) negative
b) + positive
c) without charge
d) zero

478. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
a) + Ba2+
b) H+
c) SO4 2-
d) H+

479. Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing


a) condensation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

480. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaCl
b) + Сa3(PO4)2
c) CaCl2
d) FeCl3

481. Optical property typical to colloid systems


a) reflection
b) absorption
c) + scattering
d) diffusion

482. Find optical property


a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) electroosmosis
d) + absorption
483. Emulsion is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) g/l

484. Powder is
a) l/s
b) l/l
c) s/l
d) + s/g

485. Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties


a) μ
b) η

c) + φ
d) ξ

486. Particles of coarse systems have sizes of


a) + greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -9 - 10 -7 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -9 m

487. Particles of true solutions have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) + less than 10 -7 m

488. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =


a) + positive
b) negative
c) without charge
d) zero

489. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) none
b) Cl-
c) SO4 2-
d) + Ba2+
490. Choose condensation method of colloids producing
a) coagulation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

491. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) none

492. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Ag Cl

c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) Ba(NO3) 2

493. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) PbS
d) Ba(NO3) 2

494. Optical property typical to coarse systems


a) reflection
b) scattering
c) + absorption
d) diffusion

495. Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one


a) absorption
c) Brownian movement
c) + osmosis

d) diffusion

496. Aerosol is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) s/g
497. Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties
a) μ

b) η

c) m

d) +

498. Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:
a) + Suspensions;
b) b) Electrolytes;
c) c) Molecular solutions;
d) d) Alloys.

499. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:


a) + Colloids;
b) b)Gas mixtures;
c) c) Saturated solutions
d) ; d) Alloys.

500. The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:


a) Coagulation;
b) + Tyndall effect;
b) c) Peptization;
c) d) Dialysis.

501. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:


a) Osmosis;
b) Diffusion;
c) + Brownian motion;

d) Coagulation .

502. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:


a) + Aerosol;
b) b) Emulsion;
c) c) Sol;
d) d) Foam.

503. Fog and smoke are:


a) + Aerosols;
b) b) Emulsions;
c)
d) c) Gels;
e) d) Foams.

504. Sol consists of:


a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) + Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;
d) liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid.

505. Stability of a disperse system is:


a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) + Constancy in time of its state and main properties.

506. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:


a) + Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.

507. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:


a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3 -;
c) + {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2 - (n-x)K+}x- x K+.

508. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
a) + Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.

509. The methods of cleaning colloidal solutions are:


a) Compensation dialysis; dialysis;
b) Condensation; crystallization;
c) Sublimation; distillation;
d) + Filtration; ultra filtration.

510. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:


a) N2;
b) H2O;
c) + CO2;
d) O2.

511. Aerosol is:


a) Powder;
b) Dust cloud;
c) Hairspray;
d)+ All answers are right.

512. Emulsion is:


a) + Milk;
b) b) Foam;
c) c) Jelly;
d) d) Fog.
513. Biological gel is:
a) + Cartilage;
b) air;
c) clouds;
d) river water.

514. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:


a) These are heterogeneous systems;
b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) + All answers are right.

515. Coarse disperse system is:


a) Solution;
b)Sol;

c 0+ Suspension;

d)Gel.

516. Chromatography is:


a) + The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

517. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:
a) + Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

518. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:


a) + Fog;
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.

519. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:
a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) + Size of particles;
d) Odor.

520. Emulsion is:


a) + Butter;
b) b) River ooze;
c) c) Stained glass;
d) d) Textile fabrics.

521. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:


a) + Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right

522. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
d) + On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

523. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

a) + Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.

524. Coagulation is:

a) Chaotic movement of particles;

b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;

c) Destruction of the native protein structure;

d) + The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby separate
from the continuous phase.

525. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

a) Viscosity, flowability;

b) + Opalescence, light absorption;

c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;

d) dissolution, swelling.

526. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

a) Opalescence;

b) Electrodialysis;

c) Light absorption;

d) + Electrophoresis and electroosmosis.

527. A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

a) Negatively charged;

b) Electro neutral;

c) Positively charged;
d) + Negatively and positively charged.

528. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

a) Diameter

b)Particle size

c)radius

d) + solubility

529. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

a) +suspension> colloidal > true solution

b)true solution > suspension > colloidal

c) suspension> colloidal = true solution

d) none of the above

530. Colloids can be purified by

a) peptization

b) coagulation

c) + dialysis

d) bredic arc method

531. which is a natural colloid?

a) sodium chloride

b)urea

c)cane sugar

d) + blood

532. Which one of the following is not a colloid

a) milk

b) blood

c)ice cream
d) + urea solution

533. Milk is a colloid in which

a) + a liquid is dispersed in liquid

b) a gas is dispersed in liquid

c) a solid is dispersed in liquid

d)some sugar is dispersed in water

534. an aerosol is a colloidal system of

a) aliquid dispersed in a solid

b) a gas dispersed in air

c) + a liquid dispersed in a gas

d)none of the above

535. Which of the following is a homogeneous system

a) muddy water b)bread c)concrete d) +a solution of sugar in water

536. Which of the following is an emulsifier?

a) + soap

b)water

c)oil

d)NaCl

537. Lyophobic colloids are

a) reversible colloids

b) + irreversible colloids

c)protective colloids

d)gum proteins

538. Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

a)condensation

c)diffusion through animal membrane


b)dialysis

d) + addition of an electrolyte

539. Colloidal solutions are not purified by

a) dialysis

b) electrodialysis

c) ultrafiltration

d) + electrophoresis

540. Suspensions are

a) + visible to naked eye

c) invisible under electron microscope

b) not visible by any means

d) invisible through microscope

541. Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

a) + gelatin

b) sulphur

c) gold

d) carbon

542. Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

a) lyophilic sol

b) + associated colloid

c) hydrophobic sol

d) emulsion

543. The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

a) + charge on their particles

b) a layer of medium of dispersion on their particles

c) the smaller size of their particles


d)the large size of their particles

544. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

a)the colloidal particles have positive charge

b)the colloidal particles have negative charge

c) + the colloidal particles are solvated

d) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

545. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

a)high concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained

b) + coagulation is reversible

c)viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water

d)the charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or
even zero

546. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

a)light scattered by colloidal particles

b)shape of the particle

c) + size of the particle

d)relative size

547. Light scattering takes place in

a)solution of electrolyte

b) electrodialysis

c) + colloidal solutions

d)electroplating

548.Maximum coagulation power is in

a)Na+

b)Ba2+

c)Al3+

d) + Sn4+
549. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

a)Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+

b)Cl- , SO42- , PO43-

c) + Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+

d)PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

550. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

a)NaCl solution

b) + starch solution

c)urea solution

d)FeCl3 solution

551. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

a)linear

b)curved

c) + zigzag

d)uncertain

552. The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

a)Photolysis

b) + dialysis

c)pyrolysis

d)peptisation

553. Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known
as

a)electrolysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)electrodyalysis

d)none of the above


554. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the
particles?

a)dialysis

b) + electrophoresis

c)sedimentation

d)ultrafiltration

555. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

a)prevent making of a colloid

b)stabilize the mixture

c) + stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization

d)enrich the aroma

556. Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

a)absorption

b)tyndall effect

c)flocculation

d) + paramagnetism

557. Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

a) + accumulates in the surface of the other substance

b) goes into the body of the other substance

c) remains close to the other substance

d) forms chemical bonds with other substences.

558. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?


a) + colloidal S
b)Colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold
d)colloidal platinum

559. As2S3 sol is


a)positive colloid
b) + negative colloid
c)neutral colloid
d)none of the above

560. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

a) + liquid dispersed in gas

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)gas dispersed in gas

d)solid dispersed in liquid

561. Which of the following is a colloid?

a)sugar solution

b)urea solution

c) + silicic acid

d)NaCl solution

562. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

a) smoke

b) ink

c) blood

d) + air

563. Milk is

a) fat dispersed in milk

b) + fat dispersed in water

c) water dispersed in fat

d) water dispersed in oil

564. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

a)solid is dispersed in liquid

b)liquid is dispersed in a solid

c) + gas is dispersed in a solid

d)solid is dispersed in a solid


565. Butter is a colloid formed when

a) fat is dispersed in water

b) fat globules are dispersed in water

c) + water is dispersed in fat

d) none of the above

566.Which of the following is not a colloid?

a) + chlorophyll

b) smoke

c) ruby glass

d) milk

567. Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

a)muddy water

b)bread

c)concrete

d) + a solution of sugar in water

568. A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

a)gel

b)homogeneous solution

c) + sol

d)aerosol

569. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

a) a sol

b) + a gel

c)an emulsion

d)a foam
570. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as

a) + foam

b)sol

c)aerosol

d)emulsion

571. Emulsifiers are generally

a)soap

b)synthetic detergents

c) + lyophilic sols

d)all of the above

572. Butter is

a) emulsion

b) aerosol

c) suspension

d) + none

573. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium
is termed as

a)aerosol

b) + gel

c)emulsion

d)foam

574. Which one of an example of gel?

a)soap

b)fog

c) + cheese

d)milk

575. Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called


a) aerosol

b) + cannot be prepared

c) gas aerosol

d) gasosol

576. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles
with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) + Surface
d) Size

577. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is
called

a)smoke

b) + clouds

c)jellies

d)emulsions

578. Milk is an example of

a) pure solution

b) + emulsion

c)gel

d)suspension

579. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

a)electro-osmosis

b)Brownian movement

c) + cataphoresis

d)dialysis

580. Tyndall effect will be observed in

a) + solution

b)precipitate
c)sol

d)vapour

581. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

a) + scattering of light

b)reflection of light

c)absorption of light

d)presence of electrically charged particles

582. The Brownian motion is due to

a)temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

b)attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

c) + impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

d)convective currents

583. The sky looks blue due to

a)dispersion effect

b) reflection

c)transmission

d) + scattering

584. The blue color of water in the sea is due to

a)refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water

b) + reflection of blue sky by sea water

c)scattering of blue light by water molecules

d)absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

585. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

a) + colloidal S

b)colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold

d)colloidal silver

586. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

a)dialysis

b) + Brownian movement

c)electro-osmosis

d)Tyndall effect

587. is an example of colloidal system of

a)solid dispersed in liquid

b)solid dispersed in gas

c)liquid dispersed in gas

d) + gas dispersed in gas

588. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

a)suspension

b)emulsion

c) + sugar solution

d)gold sol

589. Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

a)milk

b) + gum

c)fog

d)blood

590. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

a)suspension

b) + emulsion

c)gel
d)rtue solution

591. The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

a)dialysis

b) + addition of electrolytes

c)diffusion through animal membrane

d)condensation

592. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles
abruptly collected into spherical structures called _________
a) Ball
b) Sphere of ions
c) + Micelles
d) Dirt particle

593. _________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the
stationary liquid induced by an external field.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) + Electrophoresis

594. Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?


a) Minerals
b) Vitamins
c) + Proteins
d) Starch

595. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

a) Molecular colloid
b) + Associated colloid
c) Macromolecular colloid
d) Lyophillic colloid

596. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration


b) + Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
c) Aqueous solution of odium chloride
d) Aqueous solution of sugar
597. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

a) By addition of oppositely charged sol


b) By addition of an electrolyte
c) + By addition of lyophilic sol
d) By boiling

598. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

a) Coagulation
b) Electrolysis
c) Diffusion
d) + Peptisation

599. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag +

a) Na2S
b) Na3PO4
c) Na2SO4
d) + NaCl

(extent of adsorption is directly proportional to the ease of liquification is directly proportional to


Tc)

600. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

a) Solid sol
b) Gel
c) Emulsion
d) + Sol

601. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison
to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles
____________

a) Exhibit enormous surface area


b) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
c) Form lyophilic colloids
d) + Are comparatively less in number

Unit 4

Organic compounds.

602. Which element is present in all organic compounds?


a) + carbon

b)nitrogen

c)oxygen

d)phosphorous

603.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

a) + low melting point

b)high melting point

c)soluble in polar solvents

d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents

604.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

a)slower because organic particles are ions

b) + slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

c)faster because organic particles are ions

d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

605.Which compounds are isomers?

a ) + 1-propanol and 2-propanol

b)methanol and methanal

c)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid

d)ethane and ethanol

606.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.

d) + Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.


607.Which polymers occur naturally?

a)starch and nylon

b) + starch and cellulose

c)protein and nylon

d)protein and plastic

608.What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C 6H6?

a)butane

b)butene

c) + benzene

d)butyne

609. In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a
regular

a)pyramid

b) + tetrahedron

c)square

d)rectangle

610. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per
molecule?

a)C2H2 and C2H6

b)C2H2 and C3H6

c) + C4H8 and C2H4

d)C6H6 andC7H8

611. Which compound contain an alcohol group?

a) acetone

b) methanale

c) + methanol
d) dimethyl ether

612. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

a)water

b)oxygen

c) + carbon dioxide

d)sulfur dioxide

613. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + ethane

b)ethene

c)ethyne

d)ethanol

614. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

a)an addition reaction

b)a saponification reaction

b) + a substitution reaction

d)an esterification reaction

615. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

a)1

b)2

c)3

d) + 4

616. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

a)acids
b) + alcohols

c)esters

d)ethers

617. Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

a)2-methylpropane

b)2-methylbutane

c) + propane

d)butane

618. What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

a)ketone

b) + protein

c)ester

d)acid

619. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

a) + boiling points

b)melting points

c)triple points

d)saturation points

620. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3OH

b)CH3OCH3

c) + CH3COOH

d)CH3COOCH3

621. Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different


a)percentage compositions;

b)molecular masses;

c)molecular formulas;

d) + structural formulas.

622. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3 CH2 OH;

b)CH3 OCH3 ;

c) + CH3 COOH;

d)CH3COOCH3 .

623. Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one
additional carbon atom and

a) one hydrogen atom;

b) + two hydrogen atoms;

c)three hydrogen atoms;

d) four hydrogen atoms.

624. Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2 ;

b) C2 H4 ;

c) C3 H6 ;

d) + C3 H8 .

625. The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has
the same

a) + empirical formula;

b) general formula;

c) structural formula;

d) molecular formula.

626. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?
a) + methanol;

b) methane;

c) methyl methanoate;

d) methanoic acid.

627. A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

a) toluene;

b) + benzene;

c) butene;

d) pentene.

628. C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

a) + ddition;

b) substitution;

c) saponification;

d) esterification.

629. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

a) C3H7COCH3;

b)CH3COOC2H5;

c) + H5OC2H5;

d) CH3COOH.

630. What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

631.Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

a) + C2H6;
b) C3H6;

c) C4H6;

d) C6H6.

632. A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

a) carbon dioxide;

b) + water;

c) glycerol;

d) ethanol.

633.The general formula for the alkyne series is

a) CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) CnH2n+2;

d) + CnH2n-2.

634. Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

a) acetylene;

b) ethylene;

c) + toluene;

d) propene.

635.Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

a) + HCOOCH3;

b)CH3CH2COOH;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3COOCH3

636.Which compound is a member of the alkene series?

a) benzene;

b) toluene;
c) + acetylene;

d) ethane

637. All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

a) + single covalent;

b) double covalent;

c) triple covalent;

d) coordinate covalent

638.Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

a) C2H4;

b) C3H6;

c) C4H8;

d) + C5H10.

639.Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

a) an esterification reaction;

b) a neutralization reaction;

c) a saponification reaction;

d) + a fermentation reaction.

640.Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is
an example of _______ reaction.

a) + substitution;

b) addition;

c) polymerization;

d) fermentation.

641.In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

a) 11;
b) 11;

c) 3;

d) + 10

642.Which compound is an ester?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CHO;

c) + CH3COOCH3;

d) CH3COCH3.

643.The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

a) a polymer;

b) a soap;

c) an ester;

d) + an alcohol.

644.Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures

are called

a) + isomers;

b) isotopes;

c) allotropes;

d) homologs.

645.Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2

C2H4;

c) C5H8;

d) + C5H12.

646.CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with this

characteristic?
a) acetylene;
b) benzene;

c) + propane;

d) toluene.

647. A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

a) structural formula;

b) molecular formula

c) number of carbon atoms;

d) + number of hydrogen atoms.

648.Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

a) CH3COOH;

b) CH3CH2OH;

c) + CH3CH2COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH2OH.

649.The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

a) an acid;

b) an alcohol;

c) + an ester;

d) a hydrocarbon.

650.Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order,
has 1 more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

a) +4; b) 8; c) 3; d) 4.

651.Which molecular formula represents pentene?

a) C4H8;

b) C4H10;

c) + C5H10;

d) C5H12.
652.A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

a) propanol;

b) butanol;

c) pentanol

d) + glycerol.

653.Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

a) + organic acids;

b) esters;

c) alkynes;

d) alkanes.

654.Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

a) + C2H2;

b) C2H4;

c) C3H6;

d) C3H8.

655.Which formula represents an acid?

a) CH3COOCH3;

b) CH3OH;

c) + CH3COOH;

d) CH3CH2CH3.

656.Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and
formic acid. This type of reaction is called

a) fermentation;

b) + sterification;

c) saponification;

d) polymerization.
657. Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

a) + C3H6;

b) C2H6;

c) C2H2;

d) C6H6.

658. Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

a) tetrahedral;

b) planar triangular;

c) + linear;

d) bent.

659. Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

a) greater solubility in water;

b a tendency to form ions more readily;

b) more rapid reaction rates;

d) + lower melting points.

660. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

a) + -COOH;

b) -OR;

c) -CHO;

d) -NH2.

661. C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

a) substitution;

b) + addition;

c) polymerization;

d) esterification.

662. The isomers of propanol differ in


a) the number of carbon atoms;

b) the arrangement of the carbon atoms;

c) + molecular mass;

d) the position of functional group.

663. Which is the formula of an alcohol?

a) Ba(OH)2;

b) HCHO;

c) CH3COOH;

d) +C5H11OH.

664. C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) an organic acid;

d) + an alcohol.

665. Which compound can have isomers?

a) C2H4;

b) C2H2;

c) C2H6;

d) + C4H8.

666. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

a)polymerization;

b) + substitution;

c) addition;

d) esterification.

667.Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?


a) CCl2F2; b) C2H2;

c) + C2H5OH;

d) C2H5OC2H5.

668.Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

a) C3H8;

b) C3H7OH;

c) CH3COOH;

d) + CH3COOCH3.

669.Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

a) CCl4;

b) + C3H5(OH)3;

c) C6H6;

d) C6H12O6.

670.The structure of an alkene contains

a) only single bonds;

b) + a double bond;

c) two double bonds;

d) a triple bond.

671. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van
der Waals forces between the molecules

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

672.Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

a) CH4;
b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) + C4H10.

673.What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?

a) 6;

b) 3;

c) 8;

d) + 2.

674.In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?

a) + CH3COOH;

b) C3H5(OH)3;

c) CH3CH2OH;

d) CH3OH.

675.A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used

commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is

called

a) polymerization;

b) hydrogenation;

c) esterification;

d) + cracking.

676. Organic compounds must contain

a) oxygen;

b) nitrogen;

c) hydrogen;

d) + carbon.

677. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an
organic compound is a(an)

a) dihedral angle;

b) right angle;

c) + tetrahedral angle;

d) acute angle.

678. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an

organic molecule is known as a(an)

a) carboxyl group;

b) + functional group;

c) group;

d) alkyl group.

679.The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of

compounds that are

a) + molecular;

b) ionic;

c) polar;

d) atomic.

680.How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

a) 5;

b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 13.

681.The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two

adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

a) alkanes;
b) alkenes;

c) + alkynes;
d) benzenes.

682.Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated

hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

a) + contain multiple bonds;

b) have a greater molecular mass;

c) have tetrahedral bonds;

d) contain more atoms.

683.A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is

a) ethanol;

b) glycerol;

c) + ethylene glycol;

d) ethane.

684.A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

a) fat;

b) + polymer;

c) isomer;

d) monomer.

685.Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C2H4;

b) C2H6;

c) C3H8;

d) C4H10.

686.How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?


a) 1;

b) + 2;

c) 3;

d) 4.

687.Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?

a) butane;

b) propane;

c) 1-chlorobutane;

d) + 1-chloropropane.

688.A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both

can produce

a) an ester;

b) + an alcohol;

c) an acid;

d) a soap.

689.Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) + C3H8;

b) C6H6;

c) C2H5OH;

d) C2H4O2.

690.Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) propane;

d) propyne.

691.CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as


a) a carbohydrate;

b) an ester;

c) + an alcohol;

d) an organic acid.

692.Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

a) + benzene;
b) propyne;
c) methane;
d) ethanol.

693. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling

points

a) decreases;

b) + increases;

c) remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

694. As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the

ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases

695. Which compound is most likely to react by addition?

a) CH4;

b) + C3H6;

c) C4H10;

d) C5H12.
696. Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

a) propanol;

b) + glycerol;

c) butanol;

d) pentanol.

697. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

a) + benzene;

b) propene;

c) pentene;

d) butene.

698. A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

a)alkene;

b) alkane;

c) + alkyne;

d) alkadiene.

699. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

a) aldehydes;

b) esters;

c) + polymers;

\d) ketones.

700. The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

a) + secondary alcohol;

c) tertiary alcohol;

d) dihydroxy alcohol.

701. What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

a) 10;
b) + 8;

c) 6;

d) 4.

702. Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

a)butane;

b) + ethane;

c) pentane;

d) propane.

703. Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

a) C5H8;

) + C5H10;

c) C5H12;

d) C5H14.

704. The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

a) ionic;

b) coordinate covalent;

c) + covalent;

d) hydrogen.

705. As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the
number of double bonds per molecule

a) decreases;

b) increases;

c) + remains the same;

d) decreases then increases.

706.In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

a) + water;

b) carbon dioxide;
c) an acid;

d) a base.

707. Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

a) C2H5OH;

b) + C2H4(OH)2;

c) C3H5(OH)3;

d) C3H6(OH)2.

708. In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound

formed is

a) an ester;
b) ) a ketone;

c) an acid;

d) +an ether.

709.Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) ethene;

b) + ethane;

c) ethylene;

d) ethyne.

710. The compound C2H2 belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula

a)CnHn;

b) CnH2n;

c) + CnH2n-2;

d) CnH2n+2.

711. Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

a) Al(OH)3;

b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) Ca(OH)2;

d) + C2H4(OH)2.

712. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

a) + glycerol;

b) ethylene glycol;

c) propene;

d) propanoic acid.

713. Which organic compound is a ketone?

a) CH3OH;

) + H3COCH3;

c) CH3COOH;

d) CH3COOCH3.

714. Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

a) butane;

b) ethane;

c) + methane;

d) propane.

715. Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

a) oxidation;

b) + cracking;

c) Haber;

d) contact.

716. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular

forces have

a) + low melting points;

b) low vapor pressure;


c) high conductivity in solution;

d) high boiling points.

717. What is the formula for pentanol?

a) C5H12;

b) + C5H11OH;

c) C4H10;

d) C4H9OH.

718. Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

a) benzene;

b) + propene;

c) toluene;

d) butadiene.

719. Which compound contains a triple bond?

a) CH4;

b) + C2H2;

c) C3H6;

d) C4H10.

720. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

a)substitution;

b) oxidation;

c) addition polymerization;

d) + condensation, polymerization.

721. In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling

points by

a) the contact process;

b) the Haber process;


c) + fractional distillation;

d) cracking.

722.Organic acids are composed of a

a)C = O group at the end of the chain

b) COO– group

c) + C = O and COH group on the same carbon

d ) C = O and COH group on different carbons

723. Which of the following is a true statement?

a)ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an
oxidizing agent

b ) + aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent

c)ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol

d)organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

724. Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting

CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

a) an alcohol with an ether

b) a carboxylic acid with a ketone

c) + a carboxylic acid with an alcohol

d) a ketone with an aldehyde

725.The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

a) + ethylpropanoate

b) propylethanoate

c) propethanoate

d) none of the above

726. Which of the following is classified as an ether?

a)CH3CHOHCH3
b)CH2(OH)CH2CH3

c)CH3CH2CO

d) + CH3OCH3

727. Polymers are

a)molecules made of monomers

b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule

c)macromolecules

d) + all of the above

728. Classify this reaction:

CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

a) Chlorination

b) Oxidation

c) + Hydration

d) Elimination

729. The first member of the ketone family is:

a)Methanone

b) + Ethanone

c)Propanone

d) Butanone

730. Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

a) + Concentrated sulfuric acid

b) Dilute sulfuric acid

c) Water

d)None

731. How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

a) + The rotate at different rates


b) They have different colours

c) They have different melting/boiling points

d) They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

732. What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

a) PCl3 and an alcohol

b)HCl and an alcohol

c)HCl and an alcohol, under reflux

d) + Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

733.What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

a) A carboxylic acid

b) + A carboxylate salt

c) Water

d) Does not react

734. Name this molecule:

a) + 1,2-dimethylbutane

b) 3,4-dimethylbutane

c) hexane

d) 3-methylpentane
735. What are alcohols not used in?

a)wine

b)vinegar

c) + plastics

d)methylated spirits

736. What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?

a) hydration
b) hydrolysis

c) + esterification

d)polymerisation

737. What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

a) + CnH2n+1OH

b)CnH2nOH

c)CnH2n+2OH

d)CnH2n+1COOH

738. Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

a) + ethanoic acid

b)ethanol

c)butanoic acid

d)ethyl ethanoate

739. Which is true about ethanoic acid?

a)it has a higher boiling point than ethanol

b)it dissociates completely in water

c) + it dimerises in water

d)it reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

740. esters are ________.

a)made from alcohols and non-organic acids

b)used to make perfumes and flavorings

c) + poisonous

d)foul-smelling compounds

741. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

a)carbon monoxide and water

b)carbon and water


c) + carbon dioxide and water

d)carbon monoxide and hydrogen

742. what are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

a) + ethyl methanoate and water

b)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

c)methyl ethanoate and water

d)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

743. What is true about carboxylic acids?

a)carboxylic acids are strong acids

b) + carboxylic acids can react with metals

c)alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids

d)carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

744. esterification is a __________.

a)condensation reaction

b)irreversible reaction

c)addition reaction

d) + neutralization reaction

745. Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

a) + ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane

b)ethanol contains a hydroxyl group

c)ethanol is used as a fuel

d)ethanol is a solvent

746. What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

a)concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

b) + concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

c)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm


d)concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

747. In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

a)2 bond

b)3 bond

c) + 4 bond

d)5 bond

748. Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

a) + one σ bond, one π bond

b)two π bond, one π bond

c)one σ bond, two π bond

d)two σ bond, two π bond

749. Acetylene has a total of:

a) + one σ bond, two π bond

b)two σ bond, four π bond

c)three σ bond, two π bond

d)one σ bond, four π bond

750. In propene there are

a) + eight σ bond, one π bond

b)seven σ bond, two π bond

c)six σ bond, three π bond

d)nine σ bond

751. In propyne there are

a) + six σ bond, two π bond

b)seven σ bond, one π bond

c)six σ bond, one π bond


d)eight σ bond

752. 1-Buten -3-yne has

a)six σ bond, four π bond

b)seven σ bond, three π bond d)nine σ bond, one π bond

c) + eight σ bond, two π bond

d) 4 σ bond, 5 π bond

753. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH3CH2CH3

b)CH3C≡CH

c)CH2CH=CH2

d)CH2=CH-CH=CH2

754. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + CH4

b)H2N-CH2-NH2

c)H3C-OH

d)(CH3)3COH

755. When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

a) + 2 other atoms

b)4 other atoms

c)3 other atoms

d)5 other atoms

756. Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) + C6H6 b)

c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
d) CH3CH=C=CH2

757. Which of the following is a planar molecule?

a)formaldehyde

b)acetone

c) + formic acid

d)acetic acid

758. What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

a)180o

b)120o

c) + 109.5o

d)115.5o

759.The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

a)60o

b) + 109.28o

c)120o

d)118.28o

760. The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

a)60o

b) + 120o

c)90o

d)180o

761. What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

a)1.20 Ǻ

) + 1.35 Ǻ

c)1.54 Ǻ

d)1.68 Ǻ
762. The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

a) + triple, duble, single

b)single, duble, triple

c)single, triple, duble

d) duble, triple, single.

763.Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

a)C-C < C=C < C≡C

b)C-C > C≡C > C=C

c)C≡C > C-C > C=C

d) + C≡C < C=C< C-C

764.Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

a)CH2 = CH2

b)CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d)

765.The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

a)CH2 = CH2

b) + CH3CH3

c)HC ≡ CH

d) CH2=CH-CH3

766. Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

a)ethyl alcohol

b)formaldehyde

c)diethyl ether

d) + 1,3-butadien
767. Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

a) + cis-1,2-dichloroetylene

b)o- dichlorobenzene

c)trans-1,2- dichloroetylene

d)p- dichlorobenzene

768. Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

a)CI2

b)CO2

c) + CCI4

d)CHCI3

769. Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

a) + carbon tetrachloride

b)chloromethane

c)dichloromethane

d)chloroform

770. Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

a) + CH3CI

b)CH3Br

c)CH3F

d)CH3I

771. Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

a)

b) +

c) d
d)

772. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

b) 1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol

c)+ 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
d) 2-chloro-3-methylpropan-3-ol

773. Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

a)

b)

b) +

d)

774. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 3-chlorobutan-3-ol

b 2-chlorobutan-3-ol

c) + 3-chlorobutan-2-ol

d) 2-chlorobutan-2-ol

775. Which is the correct name for ?

a) + propan-2-ol
b) butan-2-ol

c)propanol

d) butanol

776. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

a)

b) +

c)

d)

777.Which is the correct name for ?

a) ethoxyethane

b) + methoxyethane

c) ethoxybuthane

d) methoxymethane

778. Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

a) +

b)
c)

d)

779. Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

a)

c) +

d)

780. Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

a)+

b)

c)

d)

781.Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

a)
b)

c)+

d)

782. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol

b) 2-methoxy-1-methylpropane

c) 1-methoxy-2-methylpropane

d) + 2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

783. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

e)

c)

d) +
784. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol
b) b)2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
c) + 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol

d) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

785. Which is the correct name for ?

a)butanol

b)propanol

c) + propan-1-ol

d)butan-1-ol

786. Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

b)

c) +

d)propanol

787. Which is the correct name for ?

a)1-chlorobutan-3-ol
b)1-chlorobutan-2-ol

c) + 4-chlorobutan-2-ol

d)2-chlorobutan-3-ol

788.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a) +

b)

c)

d)

789.Which is the correct name for ?

a)3-chlorobutan-1-ol

b)1-chloropropan-3-ol

c) + 3-chloropropan-1-ol

d)1-chlorobutan-3-ol

790.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a)
b) +

c)

d)

791. Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

a) ClCH2CHClCOOH

b) CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH

c) + CH3CHClCHClCOOH

d)C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

792.Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

a)ketone

)aldehyde

c) + amine

d)ester

793.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)ester

b)amide

c)ketone

d) + carboxylic acid

794.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)amide

b)ketone
c)carboxylic acid

d) + ester

795. One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other
compounds is that in aldehydes and ketones

a)the carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other

carbonyl compounds.

b) the polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.

c) the molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.

d) + the carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

796. The carbonyl group is

a)found only in aldehydes and ketones.

b)produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.

c) + a functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.

d)a general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

797. All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true
except

a)The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.

b)The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.

c) + Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.

d) In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

798. Which molecule is formaldehyde?

a)+

b)
c)

d)

799. Which molecule is 2- butanone?

a)

c)

d)+

778. Which molecule is propanal?

a)

b)

c)+

d)
800. Which molecule is acetone?

a)

b)

c)

d) +

801. Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

a)ethyl methyl acetone

b)methyl propyl ketone

c) + 3-hexanone

d)propyl methyl ketone

802. Which molecule is a ketone?

a) +

b)
b)

d)

803. Which molecule is an aldehyde?

a)

b)

c)

d) +

804.The IUPAC name for acetone is

a) + 2-propanone.

b)dimethyl ketone.

c)1-propanone.

d)3-propanal.

805. The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

a)3-propanal.

b) + 2-propanone.
c)acetone.

d)1-propanone.

806. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

a)3- methyl 1 butanone.

b)2-methylbutanal.

c) + 3-methylbutanal.

d)isopentanal.

807. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

a)isobutyl acetone.

b)4 –methyl – 2- butanone.

c)2- methyl – 4- butanone.

d)4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

808. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)4-heptanone

b) + 2- methyl -3- hexanone

c)3-heptanone

d)isopropyl n-propyl ketone

809. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)isopentanal

b)2- methyl – 4- butanone

c)2- methyl- 1- butanone


d) + 3-methylbutanal

810. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

a)3-octanone c)3- methyl -3-pentanone e)all are correct

b)2-butanone d)3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

811. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

a) 3-ethylpentanal

b) 4-methylpentanal

c)3- methyl- 2- pentanal

d) 2-methylpentanal

812. Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

a)They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded

to oxygen.

b) Most have distinctive odors.

c) They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.

d) They are polar.

813. All of the following are properties of acetone except

a)flammable. b)intoxicating. c)solvent for organic substances. d)nutrient.

814. Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

a)flavoring b)preservative c)hormone d)solvent

815. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CO-CH3 b)CH3-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

816. Which compound has the highest boiling point?

a)CH3-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

817. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CH2-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CH3 c)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

818. In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by


a)H2. b)lactic acid. c)NADH. d)pyruvic acid.

819. All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

a)It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.

b)Its systematic name is ethanal.

c)Its common name is acetaldehyde.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

820. All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

a)Its systematic name is propanone.

b)Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone.

c)Its common name is acetone.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

821. The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is
methyl ethyl ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound
are ____ .

a)2-butanone; c)3-butanone;

b)2-propanone; d)3-butanone;

822. Tollens' reagent is used to

a)distinguish amines from aldehydes. c)reduce aldehydes.

b)distinguish aldehydes from ketones. d)reduce ketones.

823. Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

a)primary alcohol. b)secondary alcohol. c)carboxylic acid. d)ketone.

824. Oxidation of a ketone produces


a)an aldehyde b)a carboxylic acid c)a primary alcohol d)no reaction

825. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

a)Oxidation of ketones produces esters. c)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

b)Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +. d)Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

826. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

a)The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.

b)Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.

c)The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .

d)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

827. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a)pentanal b)3-pentanone c)2-pentanone d)pentanoic acid

828. Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

a)A silver wire dissolves.

b)A brick-red precipitate forms.

c)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.

d)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

829. Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

a)A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.

b)A red precipitate forms from a blue solution.

c)A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless.

d)A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

830. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

a)butane b)2-butanol c)1-butanol d)butanoic acid


831. What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?

a)butanoic acid b)butanal c)2-butanol d)no reaction

832. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a) c)

b) d)

833. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

a)an aldehyde b)a hemiacetal c)a carboxylic acid d)none, ketones don't oxidize.

834. What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

a) gold b) copper c) lead d) silver

835. Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

a)tertiary alcohol. b)carboxylic acid. c)secondary alcohol. d)primary alcohol.

836. Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

a)carboxylic acid. b)secondary alcohol. c)aldehyde. d)tertiary alcohol.

837. What is the product of reduction of butanal?

a)butanoic acid b)butane c)2-butanol d)1-butanol

838. What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

a)butanal b)1-butanol c)2-butanol d)butanoic acid

839.What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

a)3-methyl –2- pentanal c)3-methyl – 2-pentanol


b)2- methyl -3-pentanol d)3- methyl –2- pentene

840. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?

a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose

841.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5

842.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose

b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose

843. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose

844. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose

845. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-

a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose

846. Choose the keto triose-

a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose

847. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose

848.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers

849. All tests are negative for sucrose except-

a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone

850. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16


851. Galactose and Glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers

852. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-

a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers

853. What does the following equation represent?

α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose

a)Stereo isomerism b)Mutarotation c)Optical isomerism d)Epimerization

854. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose

855.Dulcitol is a -

a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugars d)Sugar alcohol

856. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose

857. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose

858. Invert sugar is-

a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

859. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine

860. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen

861. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose

862.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine

863. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?
a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone

864. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?

a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2

865. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde

866. Which of following is an anomeric pair?

a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose

b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

867. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid

868. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

a)The glucose residue is the β anomer.

b)The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.

c)C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

d)The compound is in its furanose form

869.The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

a)A purine nucleotide. b)A pyrimidine nucleotide. c)Adenosine. d)AMP

870.Functional Group of Alkane:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH
871. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:
a)H – C = O b) C – OH c)O = C – O – C d)None

872. Functional Group of Alkyl halide:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH

873. Functional Group of Alkene:


a)H – C = O b)C – OH c)C – X d)C=C

874. Functional Group of Alkyne:


a) b) - C≡N c)C – OH d)C≡C
875. Functional Group of Alcohol:
a)C – OH b)H – C = O c)C – X d)- C≡N

876. Functional Group of Ether:


a)H – C = O b) C – CO – C c) C – C d)C – X

877. Functional Group of Aldehyde:

a) b)C – CH = O c)C – X d)O = C – OH

878. Functional Group of Ketone:


a)C – CO - C b)C – X c)- C≡N d)O = C – OH

879. Functional Group of Carboxylic Acid:


a)O = C – OH b)C – X c)C – OH d)- C≡N

880. Functional Group of Amine:


a)C – NR – R’ b)O = C – OH c)H – C = O d)C – OH

881. Functional Group of Amide:


a)O = C – OH b)C – NR – R’ c)H – C = O d)HOC – NR – R’

882.Functional Group of Nitrile:


a)- C≡N b)O = C – OH c)C – NR – R’ d)HOC – NR – R’

883. Functional Group of Aromatic ring:


a) b)O = C – OH c)HOC – NR – R’ d)- C≡N

884. Amino acides are building blocks of:


a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers

885. Proteins are composed of:


a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers

886. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

887. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

888. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine


a) aliphatic b) aromatic c) heterocyclic d) complex

889. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest
a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4
890. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in
a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium

891. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in


a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium

892. How manyα-amine acidrests are in polypeptide


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

893. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)hydrofobic

894. Choose peptide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) -C-C-

895. Lactose is
a)monose b)unreducing disaccharide c)amine acid d)reducing disaccharide

896. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation b)reduction c)esterificationd)transamination

897. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of


a)aldose b)pyranose c)fructose d)furanose

898. Glicaric acids are produced under action of


a)mild oxidant b)strong reductant c)mildreductant d)strong oxidant

899. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside

900.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

901. Components of nucleotide


a)protein b)amine acid rest c)OH d)thymine

902.Monomeric link of protein


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

903.Unsaponified lipids are


a) mono-component b) di- component c) three-component d) poly-component

904.DNA contains
a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

905. Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis
a)alcohols, carboxylicacids
b)carboxylicacids
c)alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

906. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

907.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

908.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

909.Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of


a)transamination b)oxidation c)reduction d)decarboxylation

910. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in


a)acidic medium b)neutral medium
c)basic medium d)any medium

911. How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d)more than 100

912. How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

913.Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins


a)coordination b)hydrofobic c)glycoside d)metallic

914.Choose disulphide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-

915.How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

916.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide

917.Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation c)esterification
b)reduction d)transamination
918.Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called
a)transamination c)reduction
b)oxidation d)decarboxylation

919.Gliconic acids are produced under action of


a)mild oxidant c)mildreductant
b)strongreductant d)strong oxidant

920.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides


a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts

921.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

922.Components of nucleoside
a)phosphate group b)carbonyl group c)thymine d)sugar rest

923.Monomeric link of terpene


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

924. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

925. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

926.Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

927. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

928. Saponified lipids are


a)mono-component b)three-component c)without any component d) poly-component

929. RNA contains


a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

930. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols
931. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine
a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

932. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

933.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

934.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

935.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

936. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

937. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

938. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

939. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

940. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

941.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

942. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

943. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

944. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

945. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

946. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them
947. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine
a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

948. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

949. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

950. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

951. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

952. Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

a)Rayon b)insulin c)gun cotton d)paper

953. Complex lipids form under hydrolysis

a)alcohols, carboxylic acids c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.

b)carboxylic acids d)alcohols

954. Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

955. Fatty acids are

a)unsaturated dicarboxylic acids c)aromatic carboxylic acids

b)long-chain alkanoic acids d)aromatic dicarboxylic acids

956. Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called

a)proteins b)terpenes c)carbohydrates d)soaps

957. soap is

a)a mixture of salts of fatty acids b)a salt of glycerol

c)a mixture of ethers d)a mixture of aromatic ethers

958. a wax is

a)a nonpolar solid c)a triacylglycerol

b)a long-chain alcohol d)none of these


959.Fats and oils are

a)monoesters of glycerol c)triesters of glycerol

b)diesters of glycerol d)diesters of glycol

960. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

a)more unsaturation c)a glycerol backbone

b)higher melting points d)longer fatty acids

961. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

a)12 carbons b)14 carbons c)16 carbons d)18 carbons

962. Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

a)hydrogenation b)saponification c)hydrolysis d)oxidation of double bonds

963. Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

a)Vanaspati ghee b)margarine c)both of these d)none of these

964. Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

a)saponification b)fermentation c)diazotization d)rancidification

965.Saponification of a fat

a)Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps c)is used in the production of detergents

b)produces glycerol and soap d)is used in the production of lactic acid

966. Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

a)Fats b)waxes c)soaps d)oils

967. The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

a)Iodine number b)octane number c)saponification number d)melting point

968. Zwitterion is
a)an ion that is positively charged in solution

b)an ion that is negatively charged in solution

c)a compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid

d)a carbohydrate with an electrical charge

969. A zwitterions has which of the following properties


a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these

970. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:

a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals

971. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds

972. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:

a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length

973. The isoelectric point of a protein is

a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface

b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges

c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions

d)none of these

974. Glycine is

a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH

b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH

975. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond

b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid

976. Proteins are

a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene

977. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I

978. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage

979. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure


980. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular

b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain

c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space

d)the presence or absence of an α-helix

981. The α-helix is a common form of

a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these

982. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization

983. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds

984. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols

985. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid

c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid

986. Nynhydring test is given by

a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes

987. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test

988. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO 3 may turn yellow. This test is
called

a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test

989. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine

990. Monosaccharides are classified according to

a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule


b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes

d)all of the above

991. Which is a monosaccharide?

a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose

992. Which is a disaccharide?

a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose

993. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose

994. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light

b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate

c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group

d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

995. The principal sugar in blood is

a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose

996. Glucose cannot be classified as

a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide

997. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol

998. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

a)its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal c)it is oprtically active

b)it is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone d)it shows mutarotation

999. Common table sugar is

a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose

1000.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?


a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above

1001.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?

a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution

b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

1002. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose

1003. Starch

a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin

b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin


INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE

Exam tests on Chemistry.


Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.

1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume

4. What is the Closed System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

5. What is the Isolated System?


a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?


a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

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7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

11. What is the Isobaric process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?


a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0
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14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?


a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess

18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs

19. The basic formula for Entropy;


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW

20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) S = KlnW

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INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE

21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.


a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)

22. Internal energy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components


a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

24. Enthalpy is called?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure


a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process

26. The heat transfer are divided into


a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

27. What is the thermal conductivity?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
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28. What is the convection?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

29. What is the radiation?


a) The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.

30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?


a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs

31. What is the endothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

32. What is the exothermic process?


a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) Endothermic reactions

34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called


a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
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d) Exothermic reactions

35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) Q= ΔU+ W
d)ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:


a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W

38. System consisting of three phases is called


a) heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

39. System consisting of one phase is called


a) heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open

40. What is the heterogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

41. What is the homogeneous system?


a) System consisting of three phases is called
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called

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42. What are the units of energy?


a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d)joule

43. Spontaneous process occurs only

a) without external energy


b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help

44. Internal energy is ……


a) energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness

45. Enthalpy is expressed by following


a) H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H

46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) A b) G c) Qp d) H

47. Find state parametre


a) Q b) G c) T d) H

48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state


a) Q b) G c) Qp d) S
49. Find state parameter
a) Q b) G c) v d) H
50.For spontaneous processes
a) ∆H ≥ 0 b) ∆S ≤ 0 c) ∆G ≥ 0 d) ∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics

51. Chemical kinetics studies –

a) energy changes during chemical transformations.


b) the rate of chemical reactions.
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c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?


a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction

53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular

54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?

a) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?


a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.


b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c)Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.
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58. Enzymes isais a substance that …

a) increase the rate of reaction


b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate

59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-


a) Catalyst c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor d) Reducing agents.

60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

a) Catalyst
b) Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?
a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel

62. Irreversible reactions are called?


a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution

63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

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65. A material that dissolves is called?
a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?


a) Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

67. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

68. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S


b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) I2 → I • + I •
69. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?
a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
b) Cl2 → 2Cl
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

70. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

71. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl
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72. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr


b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

73. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH


b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
74. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
75. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

76. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

77. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

78. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

79. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
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c) 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

80. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

81. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

82. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl

83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3 c) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
2
b) Kc = [NH3] / [N2] [H2] d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?


2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2] c) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
2
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?


2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a)Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].

86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is (imp by group1)


a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]

87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is(imp by group1)


a) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]

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b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants

89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on


a) Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction

90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the(imp by group1)
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c)Time
d)Temperature

91. A catalyst is a substance which


a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) Active mass

93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

a) Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite

94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

a) Unequal b)Constant c)Equal d)Increased

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95. The law of mass action was enunciated by

a) Guldberg and Waage


b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham

96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction


will

N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

a) Increase the yield of NO


b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed

97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)


Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?

a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;

b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;

c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;

d) the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;

b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;

c) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;

d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases,
the rate of the reaction:

a) increases; b) decreases; c) remains the same; d) approaches zero

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100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;

b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;

c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;

d) The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.

101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:
(imp by group1)

a) decrease; b) increase; c) remain the same; d) approach zero

102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;

b) add a catalyst;

c) cool the reaction down;

d) use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?

I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

a) II only; b) III only; c) I and II only; d) II and III only

Solutions.

104. Molarity is expressed as

a)grams/litre b) litres/mole c)moles/litre d)moles/1000 gm

105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in

a)1000 gm of the solvent c)onelitre of the solution

b) one litre of the solvent d) 22.4 litres of the solution

106. Normality is expressed as

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a)moles/litre b)gm equivalents/litre c)moles/1000 gm d)gram/litre

107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

a) 1 N b) 10 N c) 1.7 N d) 0.83 N

108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

a) 1N
b) 0x1N
c) 4N
d) None

109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

a) 0x1
b) 1.0
c) 4.0
d) 0.4

110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

a) 2.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) 0.98 N
d) 0.35 N

111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?

a) 0.5 N
b) 1.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) 3.0 N

112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

a) 2N
b) 4N
c) N/2
d) N/4

113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is

a) 0.46 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) 4.6 N

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114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

a) 4g
b) 1g
c) 2g
d) 10 g

115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M

116. The molarity of pure water is

a) 55.6
b) 50
c) 100
d) 18

117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is

a) 1
b) 10
c) 18
d) 100

118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1.5

119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) 1.0 M

120. What is the solution?


a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount

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c) component of a solution present in the greater amount


d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
121. What is the solute?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
122. What is the solvent?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
123. What is the concentration?
a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
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c) Solvent
d) Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?

a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.


b) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

129. Mass fraction is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction


neq msolute
a) CE = c) =
V msolution

CM CEME
T= = msubstance1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M  m solution

131.The molar concentration iscalled?

a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:


b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

132. Molar concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration


neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution

nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M  m solution

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134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?


a) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent

a) msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M  m solution

137. The molal concentration is:


a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

138. Molal concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.

139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration

a) msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) d) M  m solution

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140. Find volume concentration
a) mass percent
b) normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction

141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature


a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov

142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid


a) 98 b) 2 c) 32 d) 49
143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid
a) 98 b) 2 c) 32.6 d) 49

144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide


a) 98 b) 37 c) 32 d) 49

145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by


a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation

146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

a) diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution

147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

a) high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature

148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an

a) base
b) acid

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c) salt
d) suspension

149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is


a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) molarity

150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a


a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) solution.
d) compound.

151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the


a) solute. c)solution.
b) solvent. d) mixture.

152. Which of the following is not a solution?


a) zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel

153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?


a) alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene

154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?


a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d)dental amalgam

155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?


a)It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.

156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is


a)concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.

157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b)increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure

158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?


a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction

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b) Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction

159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution

160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?


a.) hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride

161. Most salt become soluble in water as the


a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b)temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.

162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.


a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction

164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity c)Dilution
b)Normality d)Molality

165. In dilution of solution,


a) a solute is added to the solution.
b)solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.

166. A 40% alcohol contains


a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b)40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

Colligative properties of solutions.

167. Solutions are:


а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;

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b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c)homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

168. Solubility of solids depends upon:


a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) all answers are right.

169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:


a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number


of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.

172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.
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173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:


a) Hemolysis;
b) Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.

174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:


a) 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.

175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:


а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile
solutes;
d) boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.

176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.

177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:


а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

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178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:
a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure
solvents;
b) Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.

179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:


a) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.

180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:


a) to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.

181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:


a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d)A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

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182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:
a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) Osmotic pressure.

183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:


a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
-1
b) 1.0×10 osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.

184. Osmolarity is:


a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.

185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:


a)  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.

186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:


a) 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.

187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:


a) the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.

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188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise
a) increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect

189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution


a) increases
b) remains same
c) Decreases
d) None of them
190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise
a) increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases

191. For spontaneous processes


a) ∆H ≥ 0 b) ∆S ≤ 0 c) ∆G ≥ 0 d) ∆H≤ 0

192. Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on


a) concentration
b) nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute
193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate

194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) Hypertonic

195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic

196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called


a) hypotonic

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b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b)Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure

202. Which involves the colligative properties?


a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c)Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis

204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis

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d) Osmosis

205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) Active Transport c) Diffusion
b) Osmosis d)Phagocytosis

206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on

a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only

207. Which one is a colligative property?

a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point

208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.

209. Which is not a colligative property?

a) Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point

210. Which of the following is a colligative property?

a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point

211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules


b) Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution

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d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by

a) Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis

213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) Mole fraction of solute

214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

a) An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion

215. When common salt is dissolved in water

a) M. p. of the solution increases


b) B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

a) Molecular wt. of solute


b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these

217. When a #solutionis separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then


phenomenon taking place is called ………………….(solute #correction)

a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis

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218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) П / C = ST

219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

a)less than c)greater than

b)the same as d) greater than or equal to

220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.

221. What happens during osmosis?


a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.

b) Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.

c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.

d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.

222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.


b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.

c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increases.

223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) boiling point d) freezing point

224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

a) electrolyte c) polar substance


b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance

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225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as

a) volatile c)electrolyte
b) nonvolatile d) nonelectrolyte

Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.

Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.

226. Acetic acid is weak because

a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) It is slightly ionized
d) None of these

227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw
at this temperature will be

a) 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5

228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9

229. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2%
ionized weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

a) 0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively


b) 1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
c) 2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
d) 3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

230. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

a) 10-12 b)10-2 c)10-4 d)10-13

231. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

a) 10-13

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b) 1013
c) 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010

232. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

a) 10
b) 7
c) 1
d) 14

233. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) Between 6 and 7

234. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

a) 8
b) 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1

235. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

236. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation

237. FeCl3 solution is

a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

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238. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

a) Neutral c)Strongly acidic


b) Weakly acidic d)Alkaline

239. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

a) An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction

240. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) Almost neutral

241. Which one of the following is acid salt?

a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4

242. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) Na2HPO4

243. Which one is not an acid salt?

a) Na2H2PO4
b) NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above

244. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?

a) NaCl
b) NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4

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245. Which one will not be hydrolysed?

a) Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate

246. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?

a) CH3COOK c)KCl
b) NaNO3 d)K2SO4

247. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

a) Weakly acidic
b) Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic

248. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

a) (NH4)2SO4
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4

249. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

a) A strong acid and strong base


b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) A weak acid and strong base

250. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) FeCl3
d) NaCN

251. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?

a) NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN

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252. A buffer solution changes its pH

a) Increase in pH
b) Decrease in pH
c) No change in pH
d) No change in electrical conductivity

253. About buffer solution which in incorrect?

a) It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base


b) It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c) It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d) All of the above

254. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

a) Strong acid and its salt of a weak base


b) Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c) Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d) Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

255. Which is a buffer solution?

a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl

256. Which of the following is a buffer?

a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) NH4OH + NH4Cl

257. Which is not a buffer solution?

a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid

258. pH of blood is

a) Less than 6
b) Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9

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d) Greater than 10

259. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

a) Acetic acid + Sodium acetate


b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All

260. Give name to positively charged particles:

а) radicals; b) molecules; c) anions; d) cations.

261. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?


a) NaNO2; b) NaHCO3; c) Na2CO3; d) KMnO4.
262. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) Low water ionization constant.
263. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) Ion product for water.
264. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M; b) 0.001M; c) 0.1 M; d) 1.0M.

265.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:


a)Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.

266. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:


а) Electrons donors;

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b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

267. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl; c) KHSO4/H2SO4;
b) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4; d) NH3 /NH4Cl.

268. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:


a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) All answers are right.

269. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:


а)Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

270. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:


а) Electrons donor;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.

271. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:


a) pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.

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272. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into
a) oxides, acid, base, salt
b) oxides, base
c) Alkalis, salt, oxides
d) Ampholytes, Alkalis

273. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

274. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

275. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a)pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

276. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

277. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

278. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7 b) pH>7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7

279. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride


a) acidicb) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

280. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutrald) none of theam

281. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutrald) none of theam

282. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

283. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride


a) acidicb) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

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e
284. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

285. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

286. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

287. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

288. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

289. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

290. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate Formatted: Indent: Hanging: 0.01"
a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them

291. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate


a) acidicb) basic c) neutral d) none of them

292. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutrald) none of theam

293. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate


a) acidic b) basic c) neutrald) none of theam

294. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite


a) acidic b)basic c)neutral d) none of theam
295. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide
a) 2 b) 13 c) 1 d) 7
296. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide
a) 2 b) 13 c) 1 d) 7

297. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide


a) 2 b) 13 c) 1 d) 7

298. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of


a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) both A and Bswer D

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299. PH can be kept constant with help of


a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) buffer solution
d) super saturated solution

300. Buffers present in blood contain


a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) all of them

301. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in


a) aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis

302. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase c)carbolic hydrase

b) carbonic anhydrase d)carbonic hydrase

303. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

a) hydrochloric acid only c) acetic acid only


b) sodium chloride or potassium acetate d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

304. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is


a) oxide
b) ether
c) salt
d) alcohol
305. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) all of above
306. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
307. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) neutralization

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b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation

308. Basic formula for monobasic acid is


a) AH
b) HA
c) Ha
d) aH

309.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is


a) high
b) low
c) same
d) constant
310. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid c)concentration of water molecules
b)pH of solution d)both A and B
311. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
a) concentration of acid
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) both A and B

312. Ka is called
a) acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant

313. Which one of the following is a weak acid?


a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) HNO2

314.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) LiClO4
d) CsBr

315. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?


a) H2O
b) KF
c) HF
d)HNO2

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316.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) HCN

317. A stronger base:

a) is also a stronger acid; c) tastes sour;

b) is also a stronger electrolyte; d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution;

318. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

a) water and a salt; b) an acid and a base; c) a salt and hydrogen gas; d) a nonmetal oxid

319. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

a) HCl; b) H2CO3; c) KOH; d) CH3CH2OH;

320. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

a) 1×10-11 M; b)1×10-9 M; c) 1×10-7 M; d)1×10-5 M;

321. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H+ ions. This
substance is:

a) KOH; b)CH4 c) H2SO4; d) NH3

322. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

a) [H+] equals zero; c) [H+] is less than [OH-];

b) [OH-] equals [H+]; d) [H+] is greater than [OH-]

323. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

a) donate a proton; c)donate an electron pair;

b) yield H+ ions; d) acceptor of protons.

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324. What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 40.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

a) 100.0 mL; b) 80.0 mL; c) 40.0 mL; d) 20.0 mL

325. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

a) increase; c) remain the same;

b) decrease; d) approach zero

326. Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

a) 1; b) 7; c) 10; d) 14.

327. The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

a) a single replacement; c) the process of hydrolysis;

b) a neutralization reaction; d) a synthesis reaction;

328. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

a) A pH of 2 is three times as strong;

b) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;

c) A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

d) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as weak;

329. Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

a) chlorous acid; b) acetic acid; c) perchloricacid; d) hypochlorous acid

330. Which of the following statements is true?

a) NaCl is a neutral salt; c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.

b) KOH is an acid; d) NaBr is basic salt.

331. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates? WRONG OPTIONS

a) OH- and H2O; c) HCl and Cl-;

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b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-; d) NH3 and NH4+;

332. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?

a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF; c) SO2 + H2O → H2SO3;

b) 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2; d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;

333. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?

a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;

b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;

c) HI is hydroiodic acid;

d) HClO2 is chloric acid

334. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?

a) AgCl; b) PbBr2; c) Ca3(PO4)2; d) Na2CO3

335. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:

a) unsaturated; b) supersaturated; c) saturated; d) dilute

336. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium
carbonate and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a)Cl-; b) 2Na+; c) CaCO3 d) all of the substances above

337. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a) 1.5 m NaCl; c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;

b) 1.5 m AgCl; d) 2.0 m CaCl2

338. Which equation is correctly balanced?

a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;

b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;

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c) 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;

d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;

Unit 2.

Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.

339 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in


a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d)H2S
340. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c)H2O2 d)F2
341. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b)KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
342. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d)x=2 y=3 z=10
343. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b)Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
344. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b)H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2

345. An electrolyte is one


a)Which conducts electric current c)Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above

346. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to


a)Dilution b)number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution

347. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:


a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) -3

348. Which of the following is an insulator?


a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) Diamond d)Silicon

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349. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O
a)X=4 y=6 b)x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8

350. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O


a) 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
351. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a)F2 b)Cl2 c)Br2 d)I2

352. Oxidation involves


a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of negative part
b)Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of positive part

353. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a)Anode b)Cathode c)Both A & B d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

354. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is


a)-2 b) -1 c) 0 d) -4

355. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a)SO2 b)CaO c)Al2O3 d)CrO3

356.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular b) intramolecular c) disproportion d) none of them

357.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?


a) CH3COONa b)C2H5OH c)NaCl d)KOH

358 Element accepting electrons is called


a) product b) oxidant c) reactant d) reductant

359.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F b) Cl c)He d)Na

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360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:
a) -3 to +5 b)-1 to +1 c)-3 to -5 d) -5 to +1

361.Strong electrolytes are those which


a)Dissolve readily in water c)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
b)Conduct electricity d)Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

362.Which of the following conducts electricity?


a) crystal NaCl b)diamond c)molten KBr d)sulphur

363. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at


a)Anode b)Cathode c)Both A & B d)The surface of the electrolyte solution

364. Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

365. Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt

366. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:


a) -1 b) -2 c)+4 d) 0

367. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:


a) +1 b) -2 c)- 4 d) 0

368. Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt
e) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

369. Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell


a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+

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b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

370. In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) counter disproportion
d) intramolecular
de) disproportion

371. In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed


a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) counter disproportion
d) disproportion

372. Element loosing electrons is called


a) product
b) oxidant
c) reactant
d) reductant

373. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:


a) the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in
terms of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

374. In what case there is an oxidation process:


a) KMnO4→MnO2; b) HNO2→NO2;

c) Cl2O→HCl; d) P→H3PO4.

375. Point out the correct statements:


a)A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
b) A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
c) High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
d) Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

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376. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1; b) 6; c) 14; d)3.

377. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

a) Mn(OH)2; b) MnO42-; c) MnO2; d) Mn2+.

378. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

a) Fe2O3 + HCl; b) FeCl3+H2S; c) Fe+ HCl; d) SO3+NaOH.

379. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

а) 2; b) 5; c) 10; d) 3.

380. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:


а) accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.

381. Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consistsfromzinc consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:
a) Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
b) Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
c) Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
d) Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.
Formatted: Font: (Default) Times New
Roman, 12 pt, Bold
Formatted: Normal, Indent: Left: -0.2", First
382. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is: line: 0", Space After: 0 pt, Line spacing:
single
a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) 1-; e) 2-. Formatted: Indent: Left: -0.2", First line: 0"

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383. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?

a) HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) KClO4; e) CaCl2.

384. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

a) Al; b) Fe; c) Fe3+Al3+; d) Al3+ Fe3+; e) none of the above.

4. In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni; e) none of the above.

385. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

a) loses 1 electron; b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton

Formatted: Subtle Emphasis, Font: (Default)


+Body, 11 pt, Not Bold, Russian (Russia)

a) loses 1 electron; b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron;

d) gains 1 proton; e) gains 1 neutron.

3386. Which half reaction demonstrates conservation of mass and conservation of charge? Formatted: Indent: Left: -0.2", First line: 0"

a) Cl2 + e- → Cl1-; c) Cl2 → 2Cl1- + e-; Formatted: Justified, Indent: Left: -0.2", First
line: 0"

b) Cl2 + 2e- → Cl1-; d) Cl2 + e- → 2Cl1-; e) Cl2 + 2e- → 2Cl1-.. In the chemical cell Formatted: Font: Bold
2+ 3+
reaction 2Cr + 3Ni → 2Cr + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

a) Cr; b) Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni

Formatted: Justified, Indent: Left: -0.2", First


line: 0"

387. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) 10; e) 15.

388. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

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a) it allows ion migration; c) it allows electron migration;

b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;

e) it prevents neutron migration.

389. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) F2; d) I2

390. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:

a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) electrolysis; d) hydrolysis

Biogenic elements.

391. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

a) in molecule of cytochrome b

b) in molecule of vitamin B12

c) in molecule of catalase

d) in molecule of vitamin B6

392) Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

a) enzyme catalase

b) enzyme superoxide dismutase

c) cytochrome P450

d) glutathione peroxidase

393) Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

a) hypervitaminosis

b) hypovitaminosis

c) avitaminosis

d) acidosis

394) Vitamin A deficiency can cause:

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a) xeroftalmia

b) increased blood coagulation

c) growth acceleration

d) anemia

395) The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

a) vitamin D

b) vitamin B1

c) vitamin K

d) thiamine

396. ZnO is used as

a) protective c) both (a) & (b)

b) astringent d) antidote

397. Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

a) oxidation c) protein precipitate

b) halogenation d) all of the above

398. Hydrogen peroxide is used as

a) antiseptic b) acidifying agent c) protective d) antioxidant

399. KMnO4 solutions are used for

a) antibacterial b) antifungal c) both of the above d) antioxidant

400. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these

elements:

a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;

b). H, P, S, C, O, N;

c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;

d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

401. Choose biogenic macroelement

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a)Cu b)P c)Br d)As

402. Choose biogenic microelement


a)Cu b)S c)Ca d)Mg

403. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm

404. Six major biogenic elements :


a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.

405.Five minor biogenic elements:


a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

406. Trace elements:


a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d)Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

407. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12% c) 10-3– 10-5 %
-9
b)10 % d) 10-2%

408. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a)10-2% c) 10-9%
-3 -5
b) 10 – 10 % d) 10-7% - 10-12

409. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O b) S c) N d) Zn

410. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O b) Fe c) N d) C

411. Choose biogenic microelement


a) O b) S c) N d) I

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412. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) P b) Cl c)Cu d) I

Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb b) Cl c) I d) Ca

413. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb b) l c) O d) Mn

414. Choose biogenic macroelement


a) Pb b) C c)Cu d) I

Complex compounds.

415. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:


a)+1 b)+3 c)-1 d)-3

416. A coordination compound consists of


a) a metal ion and counterions b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions d) a metal ion bound to one or more ligands

417. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:


a)0 b)+4 c)+3 d)+6

418. Name the following coordination compound:


K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II) c) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
b) potassium cyanoferrate(II) d) potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)

419. The coordination number is:


a) The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex

420. Number of hem sections in mioglobin


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

421. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2


a) cationic b) anionic c) monodentate d) neutral

422. Ethylenediamine would be called


a) dentate b)bidentate c) tridentate d)tetradentate

423. Name the following coordination compound:

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[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

424. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?


(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
(3) chloride, Cl- (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5 b)1, 5, 6 c) 1, 6 d) 2, 3, 4, 5

Ca 3  Fe(CN)6 2
425. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0 b) 1+ c) 2+ d) 3+

426. Number of hem sections in hemoglobin


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

427. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound


a) central ion b) ligands c) outer sphere ions d) all constituents

428.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements


a) does’tchang b) increases c) decreasis d) none

429.Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps


a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 and more d) always without steps

430. Dentantness of porfyrin


a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

431.Particles playing role of ligands are


a) positive ions b) chelates c) negative ions d) complex ions

432. A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its
formula.
a) [Cl(H2O)4Cr2] c) [ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
b) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2] d) [CrCl2(H2O)4]

433. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?


a) +1 b) +3 c) -2 d) 0

434. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?


a) carbonyl; b) nitro; c) acetate; d) oxalate.

435. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?


a) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl c) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl

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b) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

436. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?


a) Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

437. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?


a) Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper

438. Ligand «en» is an example of:


a) bidentate ligand; b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand; d) hexadentate ligand.

439. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is


a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

440. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


a) cationic b) anionic c) trigonal d) neutral

441. Donor of electrons in coordination compound


a)central ion b)outer sphere ions c) ligands d) none

442. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements


a) doesn’t change b) increases c) decreases d) none of them

443.Coordination number of iron in hem


a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

444. Dentatness of EDTA


a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

445. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability


a) increases b) doesn’t change c) decreases d) none of them

446. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number

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d) electrostatic model

447. Particles playing role of central ion are


a) positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions

448. Find ligand of weak field


a) OH- b) Au c) CN- d) Fe2+

449. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?


a) Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)

450. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)


a) K3[Fe(CN)6] c) (CN)6[Fe K2]
b) Fe [K2(CN)6] d) [FeK2(CN)6

451. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?


a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

452.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate


a) [(en)3Co]SO4 c) [SO4(en)3]Co
b) [Co(en)3SO4] d) [Co(en)3]SO4

453. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?


a) linear; c) octahedral;

b) tetrahedral; d) trigonal

454. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of


a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model

455. Find ligand of strong field


a) OH- b) Au c) Cl- d) NH3

456. Dentatness of ligand is


a) number of central ions
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b) charge of central ion
c) number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number

Unit 3.

Colloids.
457. Disperse systems consists of:

a) dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
d) sol, gel

458. Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

a) dispersion medium, dispersed phase


b) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
c) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
d) sol, gel

459. What is a disperse system?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

460. Coarse systems include:


a) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) Gel, suspensions.

461. What is the Emulsion?

a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

462. What is the suspension?


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a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

463. What is the aerosol?


a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

464. Sols are:


a) gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) blood, lymph.
c) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
d) Blood, jelly, marmalade.

465. Gels are:


a) gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
c) blood, lymph.
d) blood, jelly, marmalade.

466. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:


a) medical products
b) colored glass
c) pumice
d) fog

467. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:


a) Soil
b) Moist soil
c) Rocks
d) fog

468. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) natural gas
b) gas from oil droplets

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c) smog
d) colored glass

469. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) natural gas
b) aerosols
c) dust storms
d) pearl

470. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:


a) Fizzy drinks, foam
b) body fluids
c) pastes,mortar
d) smog

471. Colloidal solutions include:


a) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) saline solution in water

472. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:


a) cosmetic products
b) porous chocolate
c) some alloys
d) fog

473. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

a) Dust in the air


b) Aerosol
c) Fog
d) Does not exist

474. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:


a) Sols
b) Emulsion oil
c) Fizzy drinks
d) Fog

475. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

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a) cream, milk
b) foam
c) pastes
d) chocolate

476. Colloid particles have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -7 m

477. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) negative
b) positive
c) without charge
d) zero

478. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
a) Ba2+ b) H+ c) SO4 2- d) H+

479. Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing


a) condensation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) peptization

480. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaCl
b) Сa3(PO4)2
c) CaCl2
d) FeCl3

481. Optical property typical to colloid systems


a) reflection
b) absorption
c) scattering
d) diffusion

482. Find optical property


a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) electroosmosis
d) absorption

483. Emulsion is

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a) l/s b) l/l c) s/l d) g/l

484. Powder is
a) l/s b) l/l c) s/l d) s/g

485. Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties


a) μ b) η c) φ d) ξ

486. Particles of coarse systems have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -9 - 10 -7 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -9 m

487. Particles of true solutions have sizes of


a) greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -7 m

488. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =


a) positive
b) negative
c) without charge
d) zero

489. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) none b) Cl- c) SO4 2- d) Ba2+

490. Choose condensation method of colloids producing


a) coagulation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) peptization

491. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaNO3 b) Fe(NO3)3 c) Ca(NO3 )2 d) none

492. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaNO3 b) Ag Cl c) Ca(NO3 )2 d) Ba(NO3) 2

493. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate


a) NaNO3 b) Fe(NO3)3 c) PbS d) Ba(NO3) 2

494. Optical property typical to coarse systems


a) reflection c) scattering
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b) absorption d) diffusion

495. Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one


a) absorption c) Brownian movement
b) osmosis d) diffusion

496. Aerosol is
a) l/s b) l/l c) s/l d) s/g

497. Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties


a) μ b) η c) m d) λ

498. Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:
a) Suspensions; b) Electrolytes; c) Molecular solutions; d) Alloys.

499. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:


a) Colloids; b)Gas mixtures; c) Saturated solutions; d) Alloys.

500. The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:


a) Coagulation; b) Tyndall effect; c) Peptization; d) Dialysis.

501. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:


a) Osmosis; b) Diffusion; c) Brownian motion; d) Coagulation .

502. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:


a) Aerosol; b) Emulsion; c) Sol; d) Foam.

503. Fog and smoke are:


a) Aerosols; b) Emulsions; c) Gels; d) Foams.

504. Sol consists of:


a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;
d) liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid.

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505. Stability of a disperse system is:
a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and
viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) Constancy in time of its state and main properties.

506. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:


a) Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.

507. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:


a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.

508. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
a) Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.

509. The methods of cleaning colloidal solutions are:


a) Compensation dialysis; dialysis;
b) Condensation; crystallization;
c) Sublimation; distillation;
d) Filtration; ultra filtration.

510. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:


a) N2; b) H2O; c) CO2; d) O2.
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511. Aerosol is:


a) Powder; b) Dust cloud; c) Hairspray; d) All answers are right.

512. Emulsion is:


a) Milk; b) Foam; c) Jelly; d) Fog.

513. Biological gel is:


a) Cartilage; b) air; c) clouds; d) river water.

514. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:


a) These are heterogeneous systems;
b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) All answers are right.

515. Coarse disperse system is:


a) Solution; c)Sol;
b) Suspension; d)Gel.

516. Chromatography is:


a) The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

517. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:
a) Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

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518. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:
a) Fog;
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.

519. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:
a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) Size of particles;
d) Odor.

520. Emulsion is:


a) Butter; b) River ooze; c) Stained glass; d) Textile fabrics.

521. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:


a) Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right

522. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
d) On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

523. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

a) Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.

524. Coagulation is:


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a) Chaotic movement of particles;

b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;

c) Destruction of the native protein structure;

d) The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby separate
from the continuous phase.

525. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

a) Viscosity, flowability;

b) Opalescence, light absorption;

c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;

d) dissolution, swelling.

526. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

a) Opalescence; c) Electrodialysis;

b) Light absorption; d) Electrophoresis and electroosmosis.

527. A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

a) Negatively charged; c) Electro neutral;

b) Positively charged; d) Negatively and positively charged.

528. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

a) Diameter b)Particle size c)radius d)solubility

529. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

a) suspension> colloidal > true solution b)true solution > suspension > colloidal

c) suspension> colloidal = true solution d) none of the above

530. Colloids can be purified by

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a) peptization b) coagulation c) dialysis d) bredic arc method

531. which is a natural colloid?

a) sodium chloride b)urea c)cane sugar d) blood

532. Which one of the following is not a colloid

a) milk b) blood c)ice cream d) urea solution

533. Milk is a colloid in which

a) a liquid is dispersed in liquid c) a gas is dispersed in liquid

b) a solid is dispersed in liquid d)some sugar is dispersed in water

534. an aerosol is a colloidal system of

a) a liquid dispersed in a solid c) a gas dispersed in air

b) a liquid dispersed in a gas d)none of the above

535. Which of the following is a homogeneous system

a) muddy water b)bread c)concrete d)a solution of sugar in water

536. Which of the following is an emulsifier?

a) soap b)water c)oil d)NaCl

537. Lyophobic colloids are

a) reversible colloids b)irreversible colloids c)protective colloids d)gum proteins

538. Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

a)condensation c)diffusion through animal membrane

b)dialysis d)addition of an electrolyte

539. Colloidal solutions are not purified by

a) dialysis b) electrodialysis c) ultrafiltration d) electrophoresis

540. Suspensions are

a) visible to naked eye c) invisible under electron microscope

b) not visible by any means d) invisible through microscope

541. Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

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a) gelatin b) sulphur c) gold d) carbon

542. Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

a) lyophilic sol b) associated colloid c) hydrophobic sol d) emulsion

543. The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

a) charge on their particles

b) a layer of medium of dispersion on their particles

c) the smaller size of their particles

d)the large size of their particles

544. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

a)the colloidal particles have positive charge

b)the colloidal particles have negative charge

c) the colloidal particles are solvated

d) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

545. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

a)high concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained

b)coagulation is reversible

c)viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water

d)the charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or
even zero

546. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

a)light scattered by colloidal particles c)shape of the particle

b)size of the particle d)relative size

547. Light scattering takes place in

a)solution of electrolyte c)electrodialysis

b)colloidal solutions d)electroplating

548.Maximum coagulation power is in

a)Na+ b)Ba2+ c)Al3+ d)Sn4+


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549. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

a)Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+ b)Cl- , SO42- , PO43- c) Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+ d)PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

550. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

a)NaCl solution b)starch solution c)urea solution d)FeCl3 solution

551. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

a)linear b)curved c)zigzag d)uncertain

552. The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

a)Photolysis b)dialysis c)pyrolysis d)peptisation

553. Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known
as

a)electrolysis b)electrophoresis c)electrodyalysis d)none of the above

554. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the
particles?

a)dialysis b)electrophoresis c)sedimentation d)ultrafiltration

555. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

a)prevent making of a colloid c)stabilize the mixture

b) stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization d)enrich the aroma

556. Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

a)absorption b)tyndall effect c)flocculation d)paramagnetism

557. Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

a) accumulates in the surface of the other substance

b) goes into the body of the other substance

c) remains close to the other substance

d) forms chemical bonds with other substences.

558. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?


a)colloidal S b)Colloidal antimony c)colloidal gold d)colloidal platinum

559. As2S3 sol is


a)positive colloid b)negative colloid c)neutral colloid d)none of the above

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560. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

a)liquid dispersed in gas c)solid dispersed in gas

b)gas dispersed in gas d)solid dispersed in liquid

561. Which of the following is a colloid?

a)sugar solution b)urea solution c)silicic acid d)NaCl solution

562. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

a) smoke b) ink c) blood d) air

563. Milk is

a) fat dispersed in milk c) water dispersed in fat

b) fat dispersed in water d) water dispersed in oil

564. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

a)solid is dispersed in liquid c)gas is dispersed in a solid

b)liquid is dispersed in a solid d)solid is dispersed in a solid

565. Butter is a colloid formed when

a) fat is dispersed in water c) water is dispersed in fat

b) fat globules are dispersed in water d) none of the above

566.Which of the following is not a colloid?

a) chlorophyll b) smoke c) ruby glass d) milk

567. Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

a)muddy water c)concrete

b)bread d)a solution of sugar in water

568. A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

a)gel b)homogeneous solution c)sol d)aerosol

569. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

a) a sol b)a gel c)an emulsion d)a foam

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570. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as

a)foam b)sol c)aerosol d)emulsion

571. Emulsifiers are generally

a)soap b)synthetic detergents c) lyophilic sols d)all of the above

572. Butter is

a) emulsion b) aerosol c) suspension d) none

573. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium
is termed as

a)aerosol b)gel c)emulsion d)foam

574. Which one of an example of gel?

a)soap b)fog c)cheese d)milk

575. Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called

a) aerosol b)cannot be prepared c) gas aerosol d) gasosol

576. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles
with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) Surface
d) Size

577. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is
called

a)smoke b)clouds c)jellies d)emulsions

578. Milk is an example of

a) pure solution b)emulsion c)gel d)suspension

579. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

a)electro-osmosis b)Brownian movement c)cataphoresis d)dialysis

580. Tyndall effect will be observed in

a)solution b)precipitate c)sol d)vapour

581. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

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a)scattering of light c)absorption of light

b)reflection of light d)presence of electrically charged particles

582. The Brownian motion is due to

a)temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

b)attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

c)impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

d)convective currents

583. The sky looks blue due to

a)dispersion effect b) reflection c)transmission d)scattering

584. The blue color of water in the sea is due to

a)refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water

b)reflection of blue sky by sea water

c)scattering of blue light by water molecules

d)absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

585. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

a)colloidal S b)colloidal antimony c)colloidal gold d)colloidal silver

586. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

a)dialysis b)Brownian movement c)electro-osmosis d)Tyndall effect

587. is an example of colloidal system of

a)solid dispersed in liquid b)solid dispersed in gas

c)liquid dispersed in gas d)gas dispersed in gas

588. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

a)suspension b)emulsion c)sugar solution d)gold sol

589. Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

a)milk b)gum c)fog d)blood

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590. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

a)suspension b)emulsion c)gel d)True solution

591. The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

a)dialysis b)addition of electrolytes

c)diffusion through animal membrane d)condensation

592. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration (C.M.C.) soap particles
abruptly collected into spherical structures called _________
a) Ball
b) Sphere of ions
c) Micelles
d) Dirt particle

593. _________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the
stationary liquid induced by an external field.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis

594. Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?


a) Minerals
b) Vitamins
c) Proteins
d) Starch

595. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

a) Molecular colloid
b) Associated colloid
c) Macromolecular colloid
d) Lyophillic colloid

596. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration


b) Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
c) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride
d) Aqueous solution of sugar

597. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

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a) By addition of oppositely charged sol
b) By addition of an electrolyte
c) By addition of lyophilic sol
d) By boiling

598. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

a) Coagulation
b) Electrolysis
c) Diffusion
d) Peptisation

599. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag +

a) Na2S
b) Na3PO4
c) Na2SO4
d) NaCl

600. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

a) Solid sol
b) Gel
c) Emulsion
d) Sol

601. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison
to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles
____________

a) Exhibit enormous surface area


b) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
c) Form lyophilic colloids
d) Are comparatively less in number

Unit 4

Organic compounds.

602. Which element is present in all organic compounds?

a) carbon b)nitrogen c)oxygen d)phosphorous

603.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

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a) low melting point c)soluble in polar solvents

b)high melting point d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents

604.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

a)slower because organic particles are ions

b) slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds

c)faster because organic particles are ions

d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

605.Which compounds are isomers?

a) 1-propanol and 2-propanol c)methanol and methanal

b)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid d)ethane and ethanol

606.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.

b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.

c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.

d) Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.

607.Which polymers occur naturally?

a)starch and nylon

b) starch and cellulose

c)protein and nylon

d)protein and plastic

608.What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?

a)butane b)butene c)benzene d)butyne

609. In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a
regular

a)pyramid b)tetrahedron c)square d)rectangle

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610. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per
molecule?

a)C2H2 and C2H6 b)C2H2 and C3H6 c)C4H8 and C2H4 d)C6H6 andC7H8

611. Which compound contain an alcohol group?

a) acetone b) methanale c)methanol d) dimethyl ether

612. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

a)water b)oxygen c)carbon dioxide d)sulfur dioxide

613. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a)ethane b)ethene c)ethyne d)ethanol

614. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

a)an addition reaction c)a saponification reaction

b)a substitution reaction d)an esterification reaction

615. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

616. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

a)acids b)alcohols c)esters d)ethers

617. Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

a)2-methylpropane b)2-methylbutane c)propane d)butane

618. What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

a)ketone b)protein c)ester d)acid

619. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

a)boiling points b)melting points c)triple points d)saturation points

620. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3OH b)CH3OCH3 c)CH3COOH d)CH3COOCH3


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621. Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different

a)percentage compositions; c)molecular formulas;

b)molecular masses; d)structural formulas.

622. Which compound is an organic acid?

a)CH3 CH2 OH; b)CH3 OCH3 ; c)CH3 COOH; d)CH3COOCH3 .

623. Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one
additional carbon atom and

a) one hydrogen atom; b)two hydrogen atoms;

c)three hydrogen atoms; d) four hydrogen atoms.

624. Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2 ; b) C2 H4 ; c) C3 H6 ; d) C3 H8 .

625. The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has
the same

a) empirical formula; b) general formula; c) structural formula; d) molecular formula.

626. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?

a) methanol; b) methane; c) methyl methanoate; d) methanoic acid.

627. A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

a) toluene; b) benzene; c) butene; d) pentene.

628. C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

a)addition; b) substitution; c) saponification; d) esterification.

629. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

a) C3H7COCH3; c) C2H5OC2H5;

b)CH3COOC2H5; d) CH3COOH.

630. What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

a) 1; b)2; c) 3; d) 4.

631.Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

a) C2H6; b) C3H6; c) C4H6; d) C6H6.

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632. A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

a) carbon dioxide; b) water; c) glycerol; d) ethanol.

633.The general formula for the alkyne series is

a) CnHn; b) CnH2n; c) CnH2n+2; d) CnH2n-2.

634. Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

a) acetylene; b) ethylene; c) toluene; d) propene.

635.Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

a) HCOOCH3; b)CH3CH2COOH; c) CH3CH2OH; d) CH3COOCH3

636.Which compound is a member of the alkene series?

a) benzene; b) toluene; c) acetylene; d) ethane

637. All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

a) single covalent; b) double covalent; c) triple covalent; d) coordinate covalent

638.Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

a) C2H4; b) C3H6; c) C4H8; d) C5H10.

639.Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

a) an esterification reaction; c) a saponification reaction;

b) a neutralization reaction; d) a fermentation reaction.

640.Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is
an example of _______ reaction.

a) substitution; b) addition; c) polymerization; d) fermentation.

641.In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

a) 11; b) 10; c) 3; d) 8.

642.Which compound is an ester?

a) CH3COOH; b) CH3CHO; c) CH3COOCH3; d) CH3COCH3.

643.The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and


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a) a polymer; b) a soap; c) an ester; d) an alcohol.

644.Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures

are called

a) isomers; b) isotopes; c) allotropes; d) homologs.

645.Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H2; b) C2H4; c) C5H8; d) C5H12.

646.CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with this

characteristic?

a) acetylene; b) benzene; c) propane; d) toluene.

647. A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

a) structural formula; c) number of carbon atoms;

b) molecular formula d)number of hydrogen atoms.

648.Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

a) CH3COOH; b) CH3CH2OH; c) CH3CH2COOH; d) CH3CH2CH2OH.

649.The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

a) an acid; b) an alcohol; c) an ester; d) a hydrocarbon.

650.Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order,
has 1 more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

a) 1; b) 2; c) 3; d) 4.

651.Which molecular formula represents pentene?

a) C4H8; b) C4H10; c) C5H10; d) C5H12.

652.A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

a) propanol; b) butanol; c) pentanol; d) glycerol.

653.Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

a) organic acids; b) esters; c) alkynes; d) alkanes.

654.Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?


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a) C2H2; b) C2H4; c) C3H6; d) C3H8.

655.Which formula represents an acid?

a) CH3COOCH3; b) CH3OH; c) CH3COOH; d) CH3CH2CH3.

656.Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and
formic acid. This type of reaction is called

a) fermentation; b) esterification; c) saponification; d) polymerization.

657. Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

a) C3H6; b) C2H6; c) C2H2; d) C6H6.

658. Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

a) tetrahedral; b) planar triangular; c) linear; d) bent.

659. Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

a) greater solubility in water; c) a tendency to form ions more readily;

b) more rapid reaction rates; d) lower melting points.

660. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

a) -COOH; b) -OR; c) -CHO; d) -NH2.

661. C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

a) substitution; b) addition; c) polymerization; d) esterification.

662. The isomers of propanol differ in

a) the number of carbon atoms; c) molecular mass;

b) the arrangement of the carbon atoms; d) the position of functional group.

663. Which is the formula of an alcohol?

a) Ba(OH)2; b) HCHO; c) CH3COOH; d) C5H11OH.

664. C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

a) a carbohydrate; b) an ester; c) an organic acid; d) an alcohol.

665. Which compound can have isomers?

a) C2H4; b) C2H2; c) C2H6; d) C4H8.

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666. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

a)polymerization; b) substitution; c) addition; d) esterification.

667.Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?

a) CCl2F2; b) C2H2; c) C2H5OH; d) C2H5OC2H5.

668.Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

a) C3H8; b) C3H7OH; c) CH3COOH; d) CH3COOCH3.

669.Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?

a) CCl4; b) C3H5(OH)3; c) C6H6; d) C6H12O6.

670.The structure of an alkene contains

a) only single bonds; b) a double bond; c) two double bonds; d) a triple bond.

671. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van
der Waals forces between the molecules

a) decreases; b) increases; c) remains the same; d) decreases then increases.

672.Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?

a) CH4; b) C2H6; c) C3H8; d) C4H10.

673.What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?

a) 6; b) 2; c) 8; d) 4.

674.In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?

a) CH3COOH; b) C3H5(OH)3; c) CH3CH2OH; d) CH3OH.

675.A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used

commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is

called

a) polymerization; b) hydrogenation; c) esterification; d) cracking.

676. Organic compounds must contain

a) oxygen; b) nitrogen; c) hydrogen; d) carbon.

677. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an

organic compound is a(an)


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a) dihedral angle; b) right angle; c) tetrahedral angle; d) acute angle.

678. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an

organic molecule is known as a(an)

a) carboxyl group; b) functional group; c) group; d) alkyl group.

679.The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of

compounds that are

a) molecular; b) ionic; c) polar; d) atomic.

680.How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?

a) 5; b) 8; c) 6; d) 13.

681.The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two

adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

a) alkanes; b) alkenes; c) alkynes; d) benzenes.

682.Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated

hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

a) contain multiple bonds; c) have tetrahedral bonds;

b) have a greater molecular mass; d) contain more atoms.

683.A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is

a) ethanol; b) glycerol; c) ethylene glycol; d) ethane.

684.A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

a) fat; b) polymer; c) isomer; d) monomer.

685.Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

a) C2H4; b) C2H6; c) C3H8; d) C4H10.

686.How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?

a) 1; b) 2; c) 3; d) 4.

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687.Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?

a) butane; b) propane; c) 1-chlorobutane; d) 1-chloropropane.

688.A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both

can produce

a) an ester; b) an alcohol; c) an acid; d) a soap.

689.Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) C3H8; b) C6H6; c) C2H5OH; d) C2H4O2.

690.Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

a) benzene; b) propene; c) propane; d) propyne.

691.CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as

a) a carbohydrate; b) an ester; c) an alcohol; d) an organic acid.

692.Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

a) benzene; b) propyne; c) methane; d) ethanol.

693. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling

points

a) decreases; b) increases; c) remains the same; d) decreases then increases.

694. As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the

ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms [Imp]

a) decreases; b) increases; c) remains the same; d) decreases then increases

695. Which compound is most likely to react by addition?

a) CH4; b) C3H6; c) C4H10; d) C5H12.

696. Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

a) propanol; b) glycerol; c) butanol; d) pentanol.

697. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

a) benzene; b) propene; c) pentene; d) butene.

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698. A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

a)alkene; b) alkane; c) alkyne; d) alkadiene.

699. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

a) aldehydes; b) esters; c) polymers; d) ketones.

700. The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

a) primary alcohol; b) secondary alcohol; c) tertiary alcohol; d) dihydroxy alcohol.

701. What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

a) 10; b) 8; c) 6; d) 4.

702. Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

a)butane; b) ethane; c) pentane; d) propane.

703. Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

a) C5H8; b) C5H10; c) C5H12; d) C5H14.

704. The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

a) ionic; b) coordinate covalent; c) covalent; d) hydrogen.

705. As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the
number of double bonds per molecule

a) decreases; b) increases; c) remains the same; d) decreases then increases.

706.In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

a)water; b) carbon dioxide; c) an acid; d) a base.

707. Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

a) C2H5OH; b) C2H4(OH)2; c) C3H5(OH)3; d) C3H6(OH)2.

708. In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound

formed is

a) an ester; b) a ketone; c) an acid; d) an ether.

709.Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

a) ethene; b) ethane; c) ethylene; d) ethyne.

710. The compound C2H2 belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula
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a)CnHn; b) CnH2n; c) CnH2n-2; d) CnH2n+2.

711. Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

a) Al(OH)3; b) C3H5(OH)3; c) Ca(OH)2; d) C2H4(OH)2.

712. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

a) glycerol; b) ethylene glycol; c) propene; d) propanoic acid.

713. Which organic compound is a ketone?

a) CH3OH; b) CH3COCH3; c) CH3COOH; d) CH3COOCH3.

714. Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

a) butane; b) ethane; c) methane; d) propane.

715. Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

a) oxidation; b) cracking; c) Haber; d) contact.

716. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular

forces have

a) low melting points; c) high conductivity in solution;

b) low vapor pressure; d) high boiling points.

717. What is the formula for pentanol?

a) C5H12; b) C5H11OH; c) C4H10; d) C4H9OH.

718. Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

a) benzene; b) propene; c) toluene; d) butadiene.

719. Which compound contains a triple bond?

a) CH4; b) C2H2; c) C3H6; d) C4H10.

720. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

a)substitution; b) oxidation; c) addition polymerization; d) condensation, polymerization.

721. In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling

points by

a) the contact process; b) the Haber process; c) fractional distillation; d) cracking.

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722.Organic acids are composed of a

a)C = O group at the end of the chain c) C = O and COH group on the same carbon

b) COO– group d ) C = O and COH group on different carbons

723. Which of the following is a true statement?

a)ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an
oxidizing agent

b ) aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent

c)ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol

d)organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

724. Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting

CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

a) an alcohol with an ether

b) a carboxylic acid with a ketone

c) a carboxylic acid with an alcohol

d) a ketone with an aldehyde

725.The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

a) ethylpropanoate c) propethanoate

b) propylethanoate d) none of the above

726. Which of the following is classified as an ether?

a)CH3CHOHCH3 c)CH3CH2CO

b)CH2(OH)CH2CH3 d)CH3OCH3

727. Polymers are

a)molecules made of monomers

b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule

c)macromolecules

d)all of the above

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728. Classify this reaction:

CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

a) Chlorination b) Oxidation c) Hydration d) Elimination

729. The first member of the ketone family is:

a)Methanone c)Propanone

b)Ethanone d) Butanone

730. Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

a) Concentrated sulfuric acid c) Water

b) Dilute sulfuric acid d)None

731. How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

a) The rotate at different rates

b) They have different colours

c) They have different melting/boiling points

d) They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

732. What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

a) PCl3 and an alcohol

b)HCl and an alcohol

c)HCl and an alcohol, under reflux

d) Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

733.What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

a) A carboxylic acid b) A carboxylate salt c) Water d) Does not react

734. Name this molecule:

a) 1,2-dimethylbutane

b) 3,4-dimethylbutane

c) hexane

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d) 3-methylpentane
735. What are alcohols not used in?

a)wine b)vinegar c)plastics d)methylated spirits

736. What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?

a)hydration c)esterification

b)hydrolysis d)polymerisation

737. What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

a)CnH2n+1OH c)CnH2n+2OH

b)CnH2nOH d)CnH2n+1COOH

738. Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

a)ethanoic acid c)butanoic acid

b)ethanol d)ethyl ethanoate

739. Which is true about ethanoic acid?

a)it has a higher boiling point than ethanol

b)it dissociates completely in water

c)it dimerises in water

d)it reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

740. esters are ________.

a)made from alcohols and non-organic acids

b)used to make perfumes and flavorings

c)poisonous

d)foul-smelling compounds

741. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

a)carbon monoxide and water

b)carbon and water

c)carbon dioxide and water

d)carbon monoxide and hydrogen


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742. what are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

a)ethyl methanoate and water

b)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

c)methyl ethanoate and water

d)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

743. What is true about carboxylic acids?

a)carboxylic acids are strong acids

b)carboxylic acids can react with metals

c)alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids

d)carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

744. esterification is a __________.

a)condensation reaction c)addition reaction

b)irreversible reaction d)neutralization reaction

745. Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

a)ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane

b)ethanol contains a hydroxyl group

c)ethanol is used as a fuel

d)ethanol is a solvent

746. What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

a)concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

b)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

c)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm

d)concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

747. In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

a)2 bond b)3 bond c)4 bond d)5 bond

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748. Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

a)one σ bond, one π bond c)one σ bond, two π bond

b)two π bond, one π bond d)two σ bond, two π bond

749. Acetylene has a total of:

a)one σ bond, two π bond c)three σ bond, two π bond

b)two σ bond, four π bond d)one σ bond, four π bond

750. In propene there are

a)eight σ bond, one π bond c)six σ bond, three π bond

b)seven σ bond, two π bond d)nine σ bond

751. In propyne there are

a)six σ bond, two π bond c)six σ bond, one π bond

b)seven σ bond, one π bond d)eight σ bond

752. 1-Buten -3-yne has

a)six σ bond, four π bond c)eight σ bond, two π bond

b)seven σ bond, three π bond d)nine σ bond, one π bond

753. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a)CH3CH2CH3 b)CH3C≡CH c)CH2CH=CH2 d)CH2=CH-CH=CH2

754. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) CH4 b)H2N-CH2-NH2 c)H3C-OH d)(CH3)3COH

755. When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

a)2 other atoms b)4 other atoms c)3 other atoms d)5 other atoms

756. Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

a) C6H6 b) b)

c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2 d) CH3CH=C=CH2

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757. Which of the following is a planar molecule?

a)formaldehyde b)acetone c)formic acid d)acetic acid

758. What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

a)180o b)120o c)109.5o d)115.5o

759.The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

a)60o b)109.28o c)120o d)118.28o

760. The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

a)60o b)120o c)90o d)180o

761. What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

a)1.20 Ǻ b)1.35 Ǻ c)1.54 Ǻ d)1.68 Ǻ

762. The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

a)triple, duble, single

b)single, duble, triple

c)single, triple, duble

d) duble, triple, single.

763.Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

a)C-C < C=C < C≡C b)C-C > C≡C > C=C

c)C≡C > C-C > C=C d)C≡C < C=C< C-C

764.Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

a)CH2 = CH2 b)CH3CH3 c)HC ≡ CH d)

765.The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

a)CH2 = CH2 b)CH3CH3 c)HC ≡ CH d)

766. Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

a)ethyl alcohol b)formaldehyde c)diethyl ether d)1,3-butadien

767. Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

a)cis-1,2-dichloroetylene c)trans-1,2- dichloroetylene

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b)o- dichlorobenzene d)p- dichlorobenzene

768. Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

a)CI2 b)CO2 c)CCI4 d)CHCI3

769. Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

a)carbon tetrachloride c)dichloromethane

b)chloromethane d)chloroform

770. Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

a)CH3CI b)CH3Br c)CH3F d)CH3I

771. Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

a) c)

b) d)

772. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

b) 1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol

c) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol

773. Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

a)

b)

c)

d)
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774. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 3-chlorobutan-3-ol c) 2-chlorobutan-3-ol

b)3-chlorobutan-2-ol d) 2-chlorobutan-2-ol

775. Which is the correct name for ?

a) propan-2-ol b) butan-2-ol c)propanol d) butanol

776. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

a) c)

b) d)

777.Which is the correct name for ?

a) ethoxyethane b) methoxyethane c) ethoxybuthane d) methoxymethane

778. Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

a) c)

b) d)

779. Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

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a) c)

b) d)

780. Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

a) c)

b) d)

781.Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

a) c)

b) d)

782. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol c) 1-methoxy-2-methylpropane

b) 2-methoxy-1-methylpropane d)2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

783. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

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d)

784. Which is the correct name for ?

a) 1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol c) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
b) b)2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol d) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

785. Which is the correct name for ?

a)butanol b)propanol c)propan-1-ol d)butan-1-ol

786. Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

a)

b) c) d)

787. Which is the correct name for ?

a)1-chlorobutan-3-ol c)4-chlorobutan-2-ol

b)1-chlorobutan-2-ol d)2-chlorobutan-3-ol

788.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

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a) c)

b) d)

789.Which is the correct name for ?

a)3-chlorobutan-1-ol c)1-chloropropan-3-ol

b)3-chloropropan-1-ol d)1-chlorobutan-3-ol

790.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

a) c)

b) d)

791. Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

a) ClCH2CHClCOOH c) CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH

b) CH3CHClCHClCOOH d)C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

792.Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

a)ketone b)aldehyde c)amine d)ester

793.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)ester b)amide c)ketone d)carboxylic acid

794.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the
same carbon atom?

a)amide b)ketone c)carboxylic acid d)ester

795. One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other
compounds is that in aldehydes and ketones

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a)the carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other

carbonyl compounds.

b) the polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.

c) the molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.

d) the carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

796. The carbonyl group is

a)found only in aldehydes and ketones.

b)produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.

c)a functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.

d)a general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

797. All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true
except

a)The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.

b)The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.

c)Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.

d) In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

798. Which molecule is formaldehyde?

a) b)

c) d)

799. Which molecule is 2- butanone?

a) b)

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c) d)

778. Which molecule is propanal?

a) b)

c) d)

800. Which molecule is acetone?

a) c)

b) d)

801. Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

a)ethyl methyl acetone c)3-hexanone

b)methyl propyl ketone d)propyl methyl ketone

802. Which molecule is a ketone?

a ) c)

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b) d)

803. Which molecule is an aldehyde?

a) c)

b) d)

804.The IUPAC name for acetone is

a)2-propanone. b)dimethyl ketone. c)1-propanone. d)3-propanal.

805. The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

a)3-propanal. b)2-propanone. c)acetone. d)1-propanone.

806. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

a)3- methyl 1 butanone. b)2-methylbutanal. c)3-methylbutanal. d)isopentanal.

807. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

a)isobutyl acetone. c)4 –methyl – 2- butanone.

b)2- methyl – 4- butanone. d)4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

808. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

a)4-heptanone b)2- methyl -3- hexanone

c)3-heptanone d)isopropyl n-propyl ketone

809. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

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a)isopentanal b)2- methyl – 4- butanone c)2- methyl- 1- butanone d)3-methylbutanal

810. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

a)3-octanone c)3- methyl -3-pentanone all are correct

b)2-butanone d)3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

811. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

a) 3-ethylpentanal

b) 4-methylpentanal

c)3- methyl- 2- pentanal

d) 2-methylpentanal

812. Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

a)They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded

to oxygen.

b) Most have distinctive odors.

c) They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.

d) They are polar.

813. All of the following are properties of acetone except

a)flammable. b)intoxicating. c)solvent for organic substances. d)nutrient.

814. Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

a)flavoring b)preservative c)hormone d)solvent

815. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

a)CH3-CO-CH3 b)CH3-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

816. Which compound has the highest boiling point?

a)CH3-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

817. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

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a)CH3-CH2-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CH3 c)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

818. In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

a)H2. b)lactic acid. c)NADH. d)pyruvic acid.

819. All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

a)It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.

b)Its systematic name is ethanal.

c)Its common name is acetaldehyde.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

820. All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

a)Its systematic name is propanone.

b)Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone.

c)Its common name is acetone.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

821. The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is
methyl ethyl ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound
are ____ .

a)2-butanone; c)3-butanone;

b)2-propanone; d)3-butanone;

822. Tollens' reagent is used to

a)distinguish amines from aldehydes. c)reduce aldehydes.

b)distinguish aldehydes from ketones. d)reduce ketones.

823. Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a


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a)primary alcohol. b)secondary alcohol. c)carboxylic acid. d)ketone.

824. Oxidation of a ketone produces

a)an aldehyde b)a carboxylic acid c)a primary alcohol d)no reaction

825. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

a)Oxidation of ketones produces esters. c)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

b)Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +. d)Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

826. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

a)The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.

b)Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.

c)The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .

d)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.

827. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a) pentanal b)3-pentanone c)2-pentanone d)pentanoic acid

828. Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

a)A silver wire dissolves.

b)A brick-red precipitate forms.

c)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.

d)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

829. Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

a)A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.

b)A red precipitate forms from a blue solution.

c)A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless.

d)A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

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830. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

a)butane b)2-butanol c)1-butanol d)butanoic acid

831. What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?

a)butanoic acid b)butanal c)2-butanol d)no reaction

832. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

a) c)

b) d)

833. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

a)an aldehyde b)a hemiacetal c)a carboxylic acid d)none, ketones don't oxidize.

834. What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

a) gold b) copper c) lead d) silver

835. Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

a)tertiary alcohol. b)carboxylic acid. c)secondary alcohol. d)primary alcohol.

836. Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

a)carboxylic acid. b)secondary alcohol. c)aldehyde. d)tertiary alcohol.

837. What is the product of reduction of butanal?

a)butanoic acid b)butane c)2-butanol d)1-butanol

838. What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

a)butanal b)1-butanol c)2-butanol d)butanoic acid

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839.What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

a)3-methyl –2- pentanal c)3-methyl – 2-pentanol

b)2- methyl -3-pentanol d)3- methyl –2- pentene

840. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?

a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose

841.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5

842.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose

b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose

843. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose

844. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose

845. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-

a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose

846. Choose the keto triose-

a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose

847. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is- {RIBOSE}

a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose

848.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers

849. All tests are negative for sucrose except-

a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone

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850. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16

851. Galactose and Glucose are-

a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers

852. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-

a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers

853. What does the following equation represent?

α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose

a)Stereo isomerism b)Mutarotation c)Optical isomerism d)Epimerization

854. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose

855.Dulcitol is a -

a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugarsd)Sugar alcohol

856. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose

857. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose

858. Invert sugar is-

a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

859. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine

860. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen

861. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose

862.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-


Chemistry Key By Group 1
INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine

863. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone

864. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?

a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2

865. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde

866. Which of following is an anomeric pair?

a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose

b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

867. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid

868. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

a)The glucose residue is the β anomer.

b)The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.

c)C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

d)The compound is in its furanose form

869.The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

a)A purine nucleotide. b)A pyrimidine nucleotide. c)Adenosine. d)AMP

870.Functional Group of Alkane:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH
871. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:
a)H – C = O b) C – OH c)O = C – O – C d)None

872. Functional Group of Alkyl halide:


a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH

873. Functional Group of Alkene:


a)H – C = O b)C – OH c)C – X d)C=C

Chemistry Key By Group 1


INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
874. Functional Group of Alkyne:
a) b) - C≡N c)C – OH d)C≡C

875. Functional Group of Alcohol:


a)C – OH b)H – C = O c)C – X d)- C≡N

876. Functional Group of Ether:


a)H – C = O b) C – CO – C c) C – C d)C – X

877. Functional Group of Aldehyde:


a) b)C – CH = O c)C – X d)O = C – OH

878. Functional Group of Ketone:


a)C – CO - C b)C – X c)- C≡N d)O = C – OH

879. Functional Group of Carboxylic Acid:


a)O = C – OH b)C – X c)C – OH d)- C≡N

880. Functional Group of Amine:


a)C – NR – R’ b)O = C – OH c)H – C = O d)C – OH

881. Functional Group of Amide:


a)O = C – OHb)C – NR – R’ c)H – C = O d)HOC – NR – R’

882.Functional Group of Nitrile:


a)- C≡N b)O = C – OH c)C – NR – R’ d)HOC – NR – R’

883. Functional Group of Aromatic ring:


a) b)O = C – OH c)HOC – NR – R’ d)- C≡N

884. Amino acides are building blocks of:


a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers

885. Proteins are composed of:


a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers

886. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

887. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

888. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine


a) aliphatic b) aromatic c) heterocyclic d) complex

Chemistry Key By Group 1


INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
889. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest
a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4

890. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in


a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium

891. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in


a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium

892. How many α-amine acid rests are in polypeptide


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

893. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)hydrofobic

894. Choose peptide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) -C-C-

895. Lactose is
a)monose b)unreducing disaccharide c)amine acid d)reducing disaccharide

896. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by


a)oxidation b)reduction c)esterificationd)transamination

897. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of ****
a)aldose b)pyranose c)fructose d)furanose

898. Glicaric acids are produced under action of


a)mild oxidant b)strong reductant c)mild reductant d)strong oxidant

899. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide


a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside

900.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

901. Components of nucleotide


a)protein b)amine acid rest c)OH d)thymine

902.Monomeric link of protein


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

903.Unsaponified lipids are


a) mono-component b) di-component c) three-component d) poly-component

Chemistry Key By Group 1


INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
904.DNA contains
a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

905. Complex lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylicacids
b)carboxylicacids
c)alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols

906. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

907.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

908.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

909.Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of


a)transamination b)oxidation c)reduction d) decarboxylation

910. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in


a)acidic medium b)neutral medium
c)basic medium d)any medium

911. How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d)more than 100

912. How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides


a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100

913.Bonds stabilizing tertiary structure of proteins


a)coordination b)hydrofobic c)glycoside d)metallic

914.Choose disulphide bond


a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-

915.How many cheiral centres are in aldopentose


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

916.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide

917.Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by


Chemistry Key By Group 1
INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
a)oxidation c)esterification
b)reduction d)transamination

918.Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


a)transamination c)reduction
b)oxidation d)decarboxylation

919.Gliconic acids are produced under action of


a)mild oxidant c)mild reductant
b)strong reductant d)strong oxidant

920.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides


a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts

921.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1

922.Components of nucleoside
a)phosphate group b)carbonyl group c)thymine d)sugar rest

923.Monomeric link of terpene


a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene

924. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

925. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

926.Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4


a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

927. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6


a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

928. Saponified lipids are


a)mono-component b)three-component c)without any component d) poly-component

929. RNA contains


a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

930. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis


a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Chemistry Key By Group 1
INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
d)alcohols

931. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

932. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

933.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

934.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

935.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

936. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

937. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

938. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

939. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

940. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

941.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

942. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

943. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

944. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

945. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

946. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine


Chemistry Key By Group 1
INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

947. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

948. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

949. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them

950. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine


a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar

951. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine


a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex

952. Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

a)Rayon b)insulin c)gun cotton d)paper

953. Complex lipids form under hydrolysis

a)alcohols, carboxylic acids c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.

b)carboxylic acids d)alcohols

954. Number of cheiral centres in aldohexose

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

955. Fatty acids are

a)unsaturated dicarboxylic acids c)aromatic carboxylic acids

b)long-chain alkanoic acids d)aromatic dicarboxylic acids

956. Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called

a)proteins b)terpenes c)carbohydrates d)soaps

957. soap is

a)a mixture of salts of fatty acids b)a salt of glycerol

c)a mixture of ethers d)a mixture of aromatic ethers

958. a wax is

a)a nonpolar solid c)a triacylglycerol

Chemistry Key By Group 1


INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
b)a long-chain alcohol d)none of these

959.Fats and oils are

a)monoesters of glycerol c)triesters of glycerol

b)diesters of glycerol d)diesters of glycol

960. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

a)more unsaturation c)a glycerol backbone

b)higher melting points d)longer fatty acids

961. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

a)12 carbons b)14 carbons c)16 carbons d)18 carbons

962. Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

a)hydrogenation b)saponification c)hydrolysis d)oxidation of double bonds

963. Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

a)Vanaspati ghee b)margarine c)both of these d)none of these

964. Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

a)saponification b)fermentation c)diazotization d)rancidification

965.Saponification of a fat

a)Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps c)is used in the production of detergents

b)produces glycerol and soap d)is used in the production of lactic acid

966. Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

a)Fats b)waxes c)soaps d)oils

967. The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

a)Iodine number b)octane number c)saponification number d)melting point

968. Zwitterion is
a)an ion that is positively charged in solution

b)an ion that is negatively charged in solution

c)a compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid

d)a carbohydrate with an electrical charge


Chemistry Key By Group 1
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969. A zwitterions has which of the following properties

a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these

970. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:

a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals

971. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds

972. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:

a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length

973. The isoelectric point of a protein is

a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface

b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges

c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions

d)none of these

974. Glycine is

a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH

b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH

975. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond

b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid

976. Proteins are

a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene

977. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I

978. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage

979. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:


Chemistry Key By Group 1
INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure

980. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular

b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain

c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space

d)the presence or absence of an α-helix

981. The α-helix is a common form of

a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these

982. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization

983. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds

984. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols

985. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid

c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid

986. Nynhydring test is given by

a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes

987. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test

988. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is
called

a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test

989. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine

990. Monosaccharides are classified according to


Chemistry Key By Group 1
INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule

b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group

c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes

d)all of the above

991. Which is a monosaccharide?

a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose

992. Which is a disaccharide?

a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose

993. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose

994. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light

b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate

c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group

d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

995. The principal sugar in blood is

a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose

996. Glucose cannot be classified as

a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide

997. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol

998. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

a)its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal c)it is oprtically active

b)it is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone d)it shows mutarotation

999. Common table sugar is

a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose

Chemistry Key By Group 1


INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
1000.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above

1001.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?

a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution

b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

1002. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose

1003. Starch

a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin

b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin

Docent Aitkeeva Ch.A.


9 October 2017

Chemistry Key By Group 1


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Question
23. 23 (1/24)
24. 24
Which of the following solutions of H2SO4 is more concentrated?

Options
1 Molar solution
1 molal solution
1 normal solution
All have same concentration

Which of the following unit of concertration is independent of temperature?

Options
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction
All

Which of the following is an example of liquid in gas solution.

Options
Opals
PrevDust particles in smoke
SkipPaints
NextFog

The molal boiling point constant is the ration of the elevation of boiling point to

Options
Molarity
Molality
More fraction of solvent
Mole fraction of solute

Which has the minimum freezing point?

Options
One MolalNaCI
One molal KCI solution
One molal CaCI2
One molal urea solution

Which of the following is not a colligative property?

Options
Lowering of vapour pressure
Freezing point
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of polling point

When common salt is dissolved in water?

Options
Boiling point of water decrease
Boiling point of water increase
Boiling point of water remains same
None of the above

Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two compounds is called

Options
Solution
Compound
Radical
Ion

The component of solution which is in smaller amount is called

Options
Solvent
Solute
Phase
Ion

Solution with maximum concentration of solute at given temperature is called

Options
Super saturated solution
Unsaturated solution
Saturated solution
Dilute solution

Number of moles in 1 kg of solvent is called

Options
Normality
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction

58.5g of ofNaCl per 1 dm3 of solution of NaCl in water the concentration of solution will be

Options
0.1 M
1m
1M
0.1 N

If the volume of solution is equal to sum of volumes of its all components then the solution

Options
Will be an ideal solution
Will be non-ideal solution
Will show deviations from Raoults law
Both b & c

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is

Options
Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
Directly proportional to the mole fraction of solute
Both b & c

Concentration of solute molecule when they are in equilibrium with solid substance at particular
temperature is called

Options
Saturated solution
Solubility
Unsaturated solution
Super saturated solution

The determination of correct molecular weight from Raoults law is applicable to

Options
A volatile solute in dilute solution
A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solution
A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solute
Non volatile solute in a dilute solution

The compounds in which water molecules are added are called

Options
Hydrated ions
Double salts
Hydrates
Complexes

Hydration is a process in which

Options
Molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
Ions are surrounded by solvent molecules
Both ions and molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
Both ions and molecules are surrounded by water molecules

Solution of Na2SO4 will be

Options
Basic
Acidic
Neutral
Cannot be predicted without data

1 molar solution of glucose in water contains weight of glucose

Options
180g/dm3
170g/dm3
190g/dm3
195g/dm3

Water of crystallization can be removed by

Options
Drying
Heating
Evaporation
All of the above

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to molality if the solution is

Options
Concentrated
Dilute
Saturated solution
All of the above

Which one of the following salt does not hydrolyzed

Options
Na2SO4
AlCl3
CuSO4
NH4Cl
The molar concentration is called?

Options
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution
The mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
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Question
23. 23 (1/101)
24. 24
Which
25. 25change is oxidation?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Gain
28 of electrons
29.Gain
29 of hydrogen
30.Loss
30 of oxygen
31.Loss
31 of electrons
32. 32
33. 33change is reduction?
Which
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.A 36
decrease in oxidation state
37. 37
Gain of oxygen
38. 38
39.Loss
39 of electrons
40.Loss
40 of hydrogen
41. 41
What
42. 42is the oxidation state of chromium in the CrO3-2
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.+345
46.-346
Prev
47. 47
Skip+6
48. 48
Next-6
49. 49
50. 50
Magnesium displace lead ions from solution lead(II) sulfate. Which statement about this reaction
51. 51
is true?
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Lead
54 (II) ions are oxidized.
55. 55
56.Magnesium
atoms are oxidised.
56
57.Lead
57 (II) ions lose electrons.
58.Magnesium
58 atoms gain electrons .
59. 59
Which
60. 60one of the following substance is reducing agent?
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.Argon
63
64.Oxygen
64
65. 65
66.Carbon
66 dioxide
67.Carbon
67 monoxide
68. 68
Which
69. 69compound, when added to aqueous iron(II) sulphate, takes part in a redox reaction?
70. 70
Options
71. 71
72.Ammonia
72
73.Barium
73 chloride
74.Acidified
74 potassium manganate (VII)
75.Sodium
75 hydroxide
76. 76
77. 77 potassium dichromate (VI) can be used to detect the presence of ethanol vapour in the
Acidified
78. 78of a person who consumed alcohol. A color change from orange to green is absolved if
breach
79. 79 is present. This shows that ethanol is
ethanol
80. 80
81. 81
Options
82.An82alkali
83. 83
An indicator
84. 84
85.An85oxidizing agent
86.A 86
reducing agent
87. 87
Which
88. 88of the following bases has the highest pKa value
89. 89
Options
90. 90
91.NaOH
91
92.NaNO3
92
93.KNO3
93
94.KCl
94
95. 95
96. 96
What is the oxidation state of sulphur in SO3-2
97. 97
98. 98
Options
99.-499
100. 100
+2
101. 101
+4
+6

In which reaction is the first substance acting as a reducing agent?

Options
Chlorine + iron(II) chloride ---> iron(III) chloride
Copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ---> copper + water
Hydrochloric acid + magnesium oxide ---> magnesium chloride + water
Carbon monoxide + zinc oxide ---> zinc + carbon dioxide

Hydrogen peroxide, H2O2 reacts with silver oxide according to the following equation/ Ag2O(s) +
H2O2(l) = 2Ag(s) + H2O(l) + O2(g) in this reaction hydrogen peroxide behaves as
Options
A catalyst
A dehydrating agent
An oxidising agent
A reducing agent

What is the oxidation number of an iron atom in Fe2O3?

Options
+6
+3
-3
-2

What is the oxidation of xenon in XeF6?

Options
-6
-1
+6
-7

What is the oxidation number of an As atom in AsO4-3(aq)?

Options
+5
+9
+1
-7

Which represents an oxidation reaction?

Options
NaNO3 + KCl -> NaCl + KNO3
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
Cl2 + 2e--> 2 Cl-
K -> K+ + e-

Which represents a reduction reaction?

Options
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
Cl2 + 2 e--> 2 Cl-
K -> K+ + e-

In the electrolysis of water, which reaction occurs at the cathode?

Options
2 H2(g) + O2(g)  2 H2O(g)
2 02-(aq)  O2(g) + 4 e-
2 H2O(l)  4 H+(aq) + 2 02-(aq)
2 H+(aq) + 2 e- H2(g)

Which process / equation pair occurs at the cathode when iron hinges are plated with copper?

Options
Reduction, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
Reduction, Cu2+ + 2 e- Cu(s)
Oxidation, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
Oxidation, Cu2+ (aq) + 2 e- Cu(s)

Balance the following oxidation-reduction equation: Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq)  Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)

Options
Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq)    Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
2Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq)    2Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
2Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq)    2Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)
Sn2+(aq) + 2Ce4+(aq)    Sn4+(aq) + 2Ce3+(aq)

The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is __.

Options
+1
-1
+2
-2

Which of the following statements about corrosion are NOT true?

Options
A car rusts because steel reacts with water and oxygen in the air.
When iron rusts electrons are lost from the metal.
Plating metal speeds up the oxidation process.
Adding zinc metal strips to iron metals prevents corrosion.

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, __________ is oxidized. (acidic solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the oxidizing agent. (acidic
solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the reducing agent. (acidic
solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, the coefficient of water is ________. (acidic
solution)

Options
0
2
4
8

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is oxidized. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is reduced. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, _________ is the reducing agent. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, the coefficient of water is ________. (basic
solution)

Options
1
4
3
6

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31 (acidic solution), __________ is oxidized.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the oxidizing agent.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), the coefficient of water is
________.

Options
5
4
3
2

In the balanced reaction Cr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2 (basic solution) __________ is oxidized.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+22 (basic solution), _________ is the oxidizing
agent.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), the coefficient of water is
________.

Options
1
2
3
0

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3 (acidic solution), __________ is oxidized.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the oxidizing agent.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), the coefficient of water is

Options
0
1
2
3

Which one of these reactions is heterogeneous?

Options
CaO(s) + CO2(g) = CaCO3
KOH(sol) + HNO3(sol) = KNO3(sol) + H2O(l)
H2 + N2 = NH3
NH3 + O2 = N2 + H2O(g)

Which one of these reactions is homogeneous?

Options
K(s) + H2O(l) = KOH(sol) + H2(g)
N2(g) + H2(g) = NH3(g)
BaCl2(sol) + H2SO4(sol) =BaSO4(s) + 2HC1 (sol);
Fe + H2SO4 = FeSO4 + H2;

Find an endothermic reaction:

Options
N2 + Н2 = NH3- ΔH
SO2 + O2+ ΔH= SO3
С + О2 = СО2- ΔH
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

Which one of these reactions is redox reaction?

Options
Аl + Сl2= АlСl3
ВаСО3 = ВаО + СО2
Ba(NO3)2 + K2SO4= BaSO4 + KNO3
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2

Find irreversible reaction:

Options
H2 + N2 = NH3
NaOH + HCl = NaCl + H2O
SO2 + O2 = SO3
N2O4 = NO2

Number of reaction products always greater than number of reactants if it is:

Options
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
Reaction of substitution
Reaction of direct combination

Number of reaction products always less than number of reactants if it is:

Options
Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
Reaction of direct combination
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of substitution

Redox reactions in inorganic chemistry are always:

Options
Reactions of decomposition
Reactions of exchange (metathesis)
Reactions of substitution
Reactions of direct combination

Redox reactions are cannot be:

Options
Reactions of substitution
Reactions of exchange
Reactions of decomposition
Reactions of direct combination
Reaction, that goes without changes in oxidation numbers of atoms in compound, is:

Options
Reaction of exchange
Reaction of direct combination
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of substitution

The exchange reaction goes between:

Options
Simple and complex substances
Two simple substances
Two complex substances;
It can be both pair of simple and pair of complex substances

The products of decomposition reaction are:

Options
Only simple substances
Only complex substances
Both: and simple substances, and complex substances
Simple substance and complex substance.

Find redox reaction of substitution:

Options
СаСO3 = СаO + СО2
Н2O2= Н2O + O2
Cu + O2 = CuO
NaHCO3 = Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

Find redox reaction of direct combination:

Options
SO2 + O2 = SO3
NO2 + Н2O= HNO3 + NO
Н2O2= Н2O + O2
SO2 + NaOH = NaHSO3

At the same time reaction CANNOT be:

Options
Reaction of exchange and redox reaction
Redox reaction and decomposition
Substitution and redox
Direct combination and redox

Reactions, that can be homogeneous, are:


Options
Only exchange reactions
Only direct combination reactions
Only decomposition reactions
Every single one of them and substitution reactions.

Choose most common requirement for reaction to be homogeneous:

Options
Products are in one phase
Reactants are in one phase
Reactants and product are both in same phase
Reactants and product are both in gaseous state

Find heterogeneous reactions:

Options
CaO(s) + CO2(s) = CaCO3(s)
CO(g) + O2(g) = CO2(g)
NO2(g) + H2O(l) + O2(g) = HNO3(l
SO3(l) + H2O(l) = H2SO4(l)

Find redox decomposition reaction:

Options
Cu(NO3)2(s) = CuO(s) + NO2(g) + O2(g)
SO3(g) = SO2(g) + O2(g)
NH4NO3(g) = N2O(g) + H2O
Cu + O2 = CuO

Choose the heterogeneous redox reaction:

Options
Na(s) + H2O(l) = NaOH(sol) + H2(g)
NO2(g) + CO(g) = N2(g) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + N2O(g) = N2(g) + H2O(g)
SO3(g) = SO2(g) + O2(g)

There are reactions for SO2 obtaining:

Options
FeS2(s) + O2(g) = Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g)
NaHSO3(sol) + HCl(sol) = NaCl(sol) + H2O(l) + SO3(g)
S(s) + O2(g) = SO2(g)
Fe2(SO4)3(s) = Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + O2(g)

Among them redox reactions are:

Options
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 3, 4

Choose half-reaction for reduction process:

Options
С0 – 4e = С+4
N+5 + 2e = N+3
H2 – 2e = 2H+1
2S-1 – 10e = 2S+4

Choose half-reaction for reduction process:

Options
H02 – 2e = 2H+1
O20 + 4e = 2O-2
N-3 -5e = N+2
2O-1 – 2e = O20

Find half-reaction, where atoms of nitrogen are acting as reduction agents:

Options
H02 + 2e = 2H-1
H02 – 2e = 2H+1
N+5 + 2e = N+3
N-3 -5e = N+2

Find half-reaction, where atoms of sulfur are acting as oxidation agents:

Options
S0 – 4e = S+4
S+6 + 8e = S-2
2S-1 – 10e = 2S+4
S+4 + 4e = S0

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of sulfur changes from -1 to +4:

Options
H2SO4 + Cu = CuSO4 + SO2 + H2O
FeS2 + O2 = Fe2O3 + SO2
H2S + O2 = SO2 + H2O
KHS + HCl = KCl + H2S

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of nitrogen changes from -3 to 0:

Options
NH3 + O2 = NO + H2O
NO2 + H2O + O2 = HNO3
NH4NO2 = N2 +H2O
NH4NO3 = N2O + H2O

Choose reaction where oxidation number of carbon atom is increasing:

Options
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 = CaCO3 + H2O
CaO + CO2 = CaCO3
CO + Fe2O3 = Fe + CO2
CO2 + Mg = Mg + C

Choose reaction where oxidation number of chlorine atom is increasing:

Options
Cl2 + Fe = FeCl3
KClO3 = KCl + O2
Cl2 + KI = KCl + I2
KCl + F2 = KF + Cl2

Which one is oxidation process?

Options
Cl2 → 2 ClO-
NO2- → NO
Cr2O72- → 2CrO42-
SO32-→ H2S

Which one is oxidation process?

Options
HPO42- → H2PO4-
SO32-→ H2S
MnO4- → MnO42-
Cr2O72- → 2Cr3+

Sulfur is reduction agent in reaction with:

Options
Cu
Cl
P
H2

Phosphorus is oxidation agent when reacts with:

Options
Ca
S
O2
Cl

Oxidation properties of halogens increasing from left to right in line:

Options
I2, F2, Cl2
I2, Cl2, F2
Br2, F2, Cl2
F2, Cl2, I2

Which substance in redox reaction maintains only reduction properties?

Options
Nitrogen
Sulfur
Sodium
Phosphorus

Strongest oxidation agent, among simple substances is:

Options
Oxygen
Fluorine
Nitrogen
Aurum

Oxidation properties of substances increasing from left to right in line:

Options
C, S, O2
O2, S, C
Si, F2, I2
P, O2,S

Coefficient “2” before SO2 should be placed in redox reaction:

Options
Ag + HNO3 = Ag2SO4 + SO2 + H2O
Cu + H2SO4 = CuSO4 + SO2 + H2O
SO2 + H2S = S + H2O
SO2 + O2 = SO3

In redox reactions, Ag + HNO3 = AgNO3 + NO + H2O Cu + HNO3 = Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O NO2 + O2
+ H2O = HNO3 Mg + HNO3 = Mg(NO3)2 + NH4NO3 + H2O coefficient “4” before HNO3 should be
placed

Options
2,3,4
1,2,3
1,2,4
1,3,4

In process S+6→S-2, sulfur atoms are:

Options
Lose their electrons, oxidize
Receive electrons, oxidize
Lose their electrons, reduce
Receive electrons, reduce

In process N-3→N+2, sulfur atoms are:

Options
Lose their electrons, oxidize
Lose their electrons, reduce
Receive electrons, oxidize
Receive electrons, reduce

For process S-2→S+4 corresponds reaction:

Options
2NaOH + SO2 = Na2SO3 + H2O
2H2S + O2 = 2H2O + 2S
2H2S + 3O2 = 2H2O + 2SO2
Cu + 2H2SO4 = CuSO4 + 2SO2 + 2H2O

Process PbS→PbSO4 corresponds to:

Options
S+4 – 2e = S+6
S-2 – 8e = S+6
S0 + 2e = S-2
S0 + 4e = S-4

Which process reflects by 2O-1 – 2e = O20?

Options
H2O = H2 + O2
CuS + O2 = CuO + SO2
H2O2 + PbS = H2O + PbSO4
H2O2 + KMnO4 + H2SO4 = O2 + MnSO4 + K2SO4 + H2O

Which pair of half-reactions correct for Cl2 + KOH = KCl + KClO3 + H2O?

Options
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 3e = Cl+3
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 7e = Cl+7
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 5e = Cl+5
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 + 5e = Cl+5
Under oxidation, oxidation number of atom is

Options
Will decrease
Will increase
Stay same
Can increase and decrease

Process of reduction occurs when:

Options
Neutral atoms transforms into cations
Neutral atoms transforms into anions
Positive charge of simple ion increases
Negative charge of simple ion increases

Find reaction where oxidation agent receives 5 electrons.

Options
MnO2 + 4H+ = Mn2+ + 4H2O
MnO4 + 8H+ = Mn2+ + 4H2O
N2 + 4OH- = 2NO + 2H2O
N2 + 4 H2O = 2NH2OH + 2OH-

Under reduction, oxidation number of atom is

Options
Willincrease
Will decrease
Stay same
Can increase and decrease

Process of oxidation occurs when:

Options
Neutral atoms transforms into cations
Neutral atoms transforms into anions
Positive charge of simple ion decreases
Negative charge of simple ion

Find reaction where water is oxidation agent:

Options
Cl2 + H2O = HCl + HClO3
Ca + H2O = Ca(OH)2 + H2
CaC2 + H2O = Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
NO2 + H2O + O2 = HNO3

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of nitrogen changes from 0 to -2:


Options
N2 + 4H2O = N2H4 + 4OH-
N2 + 4H2O = 2NH2OH + 2OH-
N2 + 6H+ = 2NH3
N2 + 8H+ = 2NH4+

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of chlorine changes from 0 to +7:

Options
HCl + 2H2O = ClO2 + 5H+
Cl2 + 6H2O = 2ClO3- + 12H+
Cl2 + 8H2O = 2ClO4- + 16H+
2HCl + H2O = Cl2O + 4H+

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of chromium changes from +6 to 0:

Options
CrO42- + 4H+ = CrO2- + 2H2O
CrO42- + 4H2O = Cr(OH)3 + 5OH-
Cr2O72- + 14H+ = 2Cr3+ + 7H2O
Cr2O42- + 8H+ = Cr + 4H2O

Find reaction where hydrogen peroxide is reduction agent:

Options
H2O2 + 2H+ = 2H2O
H2O2 = O2 + 2H+
PbS + H2O2 = PbSO4 + H2O
Na2SO3 + H2O2 = Na2SO4 + H2O

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of phosphorus changes from +3 to 0:

Options
H3PO3 + 2H+ = H3PO2 + H2O
H3PO4 + 4H+ = H3PO2 + 2H2O
5НСlО3 + 6Р = 6Н3РО4 + 5НСl
PO43- + 2H2O = HPO32- + 2OH-
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Question
23. 23 (1/58)
24. 24
In25.
which
25 of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.H3PO4
28 and H2SO4
29.HCl
29 and HNO3
30.H2CO3
30 and HBr
31.HC2H3O2
31
and HI
32. 32
In33. 33 of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair weak acids?
which
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.H2SO4
36 and HC2H3O2
37. 37
HNO3 and H2C4H4O6
38. 38
39.HC2H3O2
39 and H3C6H5O7
40.H3PO4
40 and H2SiO3
41. 41
Which
42. 42of the following is produced in the first step of the dissociation of the acid H3PO4?
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.H3PO3
45
46. 46
PrevH2PO4–
47. 47
SkipHPO42–
48. 48
NextPO43–
49. 49
50. ionization
Acid 50 constants give information about
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.The
53 strengths of acids.
54. 54
55.The
55 number of nonacidic hydrogens present in acids.
56.Whether
56 acids are polyprotic.
57.Whether
57 acids can neutralize bases
58. 58
In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

Options
H2SO4 and BaSO4
NaCl and NaOH
NH4Cl and KCl
HNO3 and KOH

In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base will react
in a molar ratio of

Options
One to one
One to three.
Three to one
Three to three.

A solution with a pH of 12.0 is

Options
Strongly acidic.
Weakly acidic
Weakly basic
Strongly basic

The pH of a solution for which [OH–] = 1.0 x 10–6 is

Options
1.00
8.00
6.00
–6.00

Which of the following does not describe an acidic solution?

Options
The pH is less than 7.0
The [OH–] is greater than 1.0 x 10–7
The [H3O+] is greater than the [OH–]
The [OH–] is 6.0 x 10–10

In which of the following pairs of salts will both members of the pair hydrolyze in water to give
solutions that are basic?

Options
NaCl and NaCN
NH4Cl and NH4NO3
KC2H3O2 and KCN
NaNO3 and Na2SO4

If the pH of a solution of a salt is 5.0, the salt must be one which could be formed from the
neutralization of

Options
A strong acid and a strong base.
A weak acid and a strong base.
A strong acid and a weak base.
HCl and NaOH.

If a solution is buffered at a pH of 8.0, then the addition of a small amount of acid will cause the
solution to have a pH of approximately

Options
6.0.
7.0.
8.0.
9.0.

A buffer solution could be prepared from

Options
NaCl and HCl
NaOH and HCl
KC2H3O2 and HC2H3O2.
NaCN and KCN

In which of the following pairings of compounds are both members of the pair strong
electrolytes?

Options
NaOH and NaCl
NH3 and HCl
KOH and H2CO3
NaCN and HCN

In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?

Options
HNO3 and HNO2
H2SO4 and H2SO3
HCl and HClO4
No correct response

Which of the following statements about weak acids is correct?

Options
Weak acids always contain C atoms
The percentage dissociation for weak acids is usually in the range of 40-60%.
Weak acid molecules readily lose their acidic hydrogen atoms.
No correct response

In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base will react
in a molar ratio of
Options
One to one
One to one
Three to one
Three to three

Which of the following equations represents an acid-base neutralization reaction?

Options
H2SO4 + Zn ZnSO4 + H2
HNO3 + KOH KNO3 + H2O
Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaOH
No correct response

In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

Options
NaCl and NaOH
KNO3 and K2SO4
H3PO4 and (NH4)3PO4
More than one correct response

Which of the following pairings of pH and hydronium ion concentration is correct?

Options
PH = 2.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 102
PH = 7.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 10–7
PH = 9.0; [H3O+] = 9 x 10–9
No correct response

Which of the following is a correct statement for a solution with a pH of 8.00?

Options
The hydroxide ion concentration is greater than the hydronium ion concentration
The hydronium ion concentration is 8.0 M
The hydroxide ion concentration is 1.0 x 10–8 M
No correct response

In which of the following salts would both the positive ion and the negative ion hydrolyze when
the salt is dissolved in water?

Options
NaCl
NaCN
NH4Cl
No correct response

The pH of a buffered solution

Options
Always equals 7.0.
May be acidic or basic depending on the buffer present.
Changes drastically when a small amount of acid is added
No correct response

Which of the following statements concerning electrolytes is correct?

Options
All strong acids are strong electrolytes
Some salts are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes.
Some molecular substances are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes
More than one correct response

Conjugate base of H3PO4

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Conjugate acid of HPO42–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Will form a buffer with PO43–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Reacts with H3O+ to form HPO42–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Diprotic weak acid

Options
HCl
HClO4
H2SiO3
H2SO4

Monoprotic strong acid

Options
HCl
HC2H3O2
H2C3H2O2
H2SO4

Acid which completely dissociates in solution to produce negative ions with a charge of one

Options
HCl
HC2H3O2
H2C3H2O2
H2SO4

Salt whose dissociation produces equal amounts of two ions

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance which reacts with H2SO4 to produce K2SO4

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance produced when HNO3 neutralizes NaOH

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance which reacts with NaOH to produce Na3PO4

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Salt whose dissociation produces more positive ions than negative ions

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

PH = 2.30

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

PH = 7.00

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

[H3O+] = 2.0 x 10–8 M

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

[OH–] = 3.0 x 10–-6 M

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaCl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaCN solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaOH solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NH4Cl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous HCl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Inorganic compounds divided in to:

Options
Simple, complex substances
Metals, nonmetals
Acid, base, salt, oxide
Metal, acid, simple substance

What is the oxides?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues.
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

What is the bases?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

What is the salts?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues

What is the acids?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen.
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

Complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them oxygen are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl group (OH) are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues are called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid residues are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Basic formula oxides?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula bases?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula salts?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula acids?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy
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Question (1/16)

Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the given….

Options
Protein
Lipids
Carbohydrate
Vitamins

In carbohydrates a special functional groups are present in the given following:

Options
Alcohol & Carboxyl groups
Aldehyde & Ketone groups
Hydroxyl groups & Hydrogen groups
Carboxyl groups & Others

Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of …

Options
L-type
PrevD-type
SkipDL-types
NextNone of the above

Simplest carbohydrate is ….

Options
Dihydroxy acetone
Glycerldehyde
Glucose
Gulose

Examples of Epimers….

Options
Glucose &Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
A&c
Fermentation is the degradation of complex organic substances into simpler ones by the activity
of living cells through the agency of ….

Options
Acid
Alkali
Oxidizing substances
Enzymes (Zymase)

The end product of hydrolysis of “Starch” by amylase is …

Options
Soluble starch
Glucose
Dextrins
Maltose

Structure or shape of something is known as its

Options
Structure
Morphology
Conformation
Shape

Glucose is a monosaccharide and is a

Options
Hexose
Pentose
Furanose
Sucrose

What is the relationship between glucose, mannose and galactose?

Options
They are isomers
They are epimers
They are ketoses
No relationship exists

What best describes amylose?

Options
Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

What best describes amylopectin?


Options
Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

What is the storage form of carbohydrate in animals?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch

Where is glycogen stored?

Options
In the kidney and liver
In the stomach and kidney
In the muscle and liver
In the muscle and stomach

What is the major constituent of plant cell wall?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch

What forms the exoskeleton of anthropods?

Options
Agarose
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch
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Question (1/313)
30. 30
31. 31
Thermodynamics studies
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.General
34 laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
35.Energy
35 changes during chemical transformations.
36.The
36 rate of chemical reactions.
37.Chemical
37 processes that cause electrons to move.
38. 38
By39. 39
interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:
40. 40
Options
41. 41
42.Thermal
42 conductivity, Convection, Radiation
43.Heterogeneous,
43 homogeneous
44.Open,
44 Closed, Isolated
45.Isochoric,
45 Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
46. 46
What
47. 47is the Open System?
48. 48
Options
49. 49
50.Matter
50 and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
51.Energy
51 but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
52.Neither
52 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
53.Homogeneous
53 in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
54. 54
What
55. 55is the Closed System?
56. 56
Options
57. 57
Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
58. 58
Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
59. 59
PrevEnergy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
60. 60
Skip
61.Neither
61 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
Next
62. 62
What is the Isolated System?
63. 63
64. 64
Options
65.Matter
65 and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
66. 66
Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
67. 67
Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
68. 68
Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
69. 69
70. 70
Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
71. 71
72. 72
Options
73.Open
73 System
74.Closed
74 System
75.Isolated
75 System
76.Adiabatic
76 System
77. 77
Energy
78. 78but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
79. 79
Options
80. 80
81.Open
81 System
82.Closed
82 System
83.Isolated
83 System
84.Adiabatic
84 System
85. 85
Neither
86. 86 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
Open System
89. 89
90.Closed
90 System
91.Isolated
91 System
92.Adiabatic
92 System
93. 93
Thermodynamic processes may be:
94. 94
95. 95
Options
96. 96
Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
97. 97
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
98. 98
Open, Closed, Isolated
99. 99
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
100. 100
101. 101
What is the Isothermal process?
102. 102
103. 103
Options
104.A 104
process during which the temperature T = const
105.A 105
process during which the pressure P = const
106.A 106
process during which the specific volume v = const
107. 107
A process during which the heat Q = 0
108. 108
109. 109
What is the Isobaric process?
110. 110
Options
111. 111
112.A 112
process during which the temperature T = const
113.A 113
process during which the pressure P = const
114.A 114
process during which the specific volume v = const
115.A 115
process during which the heat Q = 0
116. 116
What
117. 117
is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?
118. 118
Options
119. 119
120.A 120
process during which the temperature T = const
121.A 121
process during which the pressure P = const
122.A 122
process during which the specific volume v = const
123.A 123
process during which the heat Q = 0
124. 124
What
125. 125
is the adiabaticprocess?
126. 126
Options
127. 127
128.A 128
process during which the temperature T = const
129.A 129
process during which the pressure P = const
130.A 130
process during which the specific volume v = const
131.A 131
process during which the heat Q = 0
132. 132
A133.
process
133 during which the temperature T = const is called?
134. 134
Options
135. 135
Isothermal process
136. 136
137.Isobaric
137 process
138.Isochoric
138 (or isometric) process
139.Adiabaticprocess
139
140. 140
A process during which the pressure P = const is called?
141. 141
142. 142
Options
143. 143
Isothermal process
144. 144
Isobaric process
145. 145
146.Isochoric
146 (or isometric) process
147.Adiabaticprocess
147
148. 148
A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?
149. 149
150. 150
Options
151.Isothermal
151 process
152. 152
Isobaric process
153. 153
Isochoric (or isometric) process
154. 154
Adiabaticprocess
155. 155
156.basic
The 156 formula for Entropy;
157. 157
Options
158. 158
159.Q=∆U+A
159
160.H=U+pV
160
161.∆U161
= U(final) – U(initial)
162.S 162
= KlnW
163. 163
164. 164movement of colloidal particles is:
Chaotic
165. 165
Options
166. 166
167.Osmosis;
167
168.Diffusion;
168
169.Brownian
169 motion;
170.Coagulation
170 .
171. 171
Find
172. the
172 formula of Internal energy.
173. 173
Options
174. 174
175.Q=∆U+A
175
176.H=U+pV
176
177.∆U177
= U(final) – U(initial)
178. 178
∆S = S(initial) - S(final)
179. 179
180. 180energy is called?
Internal
181. 181
Options
182. 182
183.Sum
183of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
184.Heat
184 flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
185.Reactions
185 accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
186.The
186rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
187. 187
Colloidal
188. 188 dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:
189. 189
Options
190. 190
191.Aerosol;
191
192.Emulsion;
192
193.Sol;
193
194.Foam
194
195. 195
Sum
196. of
196all potential and kinetic energies of all components
197. 197
Options
198. 198
Internal energy
199. 199
Enthalpy
200. 200
201.Entropy;
201
Exothermic
202. 202 process
203. 203
Fog and smoke are:
204. 204
205. 205
Options
206. 206
Aerosols;
207. 207
Emulsions;
208. 208
Gels;
209. 209
Foams
210. 210
211. 211 is called?
Enthalpy
212. 212
213. 213
Options
214.Sum
214of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
215.Heat
215 flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
216. 216
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
217. 217
The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
218. 218
219.consists
Sol 219 of:
220. 220
Options
221. 221
222.Liquid
222 droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
223.Solid
223 particles dispersed throughout a gas;
224.Solid
224 particles dispersed in a liquid;
225.Liquid
225 droplets dispersed throughout another liquid
226. 226
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
227. 227
228. 228
Options
229. 229
Internal energy
230. 230
231.Enthalpy
231
Entropy
232. 232
233.Exothermic
233 process
234. 234
Stability of a disperse system is:
235. 235
236. 236
Options
237. 237
Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and
238. 238
viscosity;
239. 239
Process of particles integration;
240. 240
Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
241. 241
242.Constancy
242 in time of its state and main properties.
243. 243
The heat transfer are divided into
244. 244
245. 245
Options
246.Thermal
246 conductivity, Convection, Radiation
247. 247
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
248. 248
Open, Closed, Isolated
249. 249
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
250. 250
251. 251 stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:
Aggregate
252. 252
Options
253. 253
254.Coalescing
254 of particles;
255.Sedimentation
255 of particles;
256.Destruction
256 of particles;
257. 257
Subdivision of particles.
258. 258
259. 259
What is the thermal conductivity?
260. 260
Options
261. 261
262.The
262material to conduct heat.
263.Heat
263 is transferred from one place to another.
264.The
264radiation transmitted even void (sun).
265.None
265 of them.
266. 266
What is the convection?
267. 267
268. 268
Options
269. 269
270.The
270material to conduct heat.
271.Heat
271 is transferred from one place to another.
272.The
272radiation transmitted even void (sun).
273.None
273 of them.
274. 274
The
275.structure
275 of ironic hydroxide sol:
276. 276
Options
277. 277
278.{m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
278
279.{m[BaSO4]
279 n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
280.{m[BaSO4]
280 n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
281.{m[Au]
281 n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.
282. 282
What is the radiation?
283. 283
284. 284
Options
285. 285
The material to conduct heat.
286. 286
287.Heat
287 is transferred from one place to another.
288.The
288radiation transmitted even void (sun).
289.None
289 of them.
290. 290
According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
291. 291
292. 292
Options
293. 293
Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
294. 294
Precipitate and water;
295. 295
Mixture of gases;
296. 296
297.Atoms
297 and ions.
298. 298
Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?
299. 299
300. 300
Options
301.Julius
301 Robert von Mayer
302.Rudolf
302 Clausius
303. 303
Mendeleev
304. 304
Gibbs
305. 305
306. 306 phase of sparkling drinks is:
Disperse
307. 307
Options
308. 308
309.N2;
309
310.H2O;
310
311.CO2;
311
312. 312
O2.
313. 313
Aerosol is:

Options
Powder;
Dust cloud;
Hairspray;
All answers are right.

Biological gel is:

Options
Cartilage;
Air;
Clouds;
River water

The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:

Options
These are heterogeneous systems;
Particles are visible with the naked eye;
They are easily besieged;
All answers are right.

Coarse disperse system is:

Options
Solution;
Suspension;
Sol;
Gel.

Chromatography is:

Options
The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
A type of disperse systems;
A continuous phase;
The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:

Options
Surface tension;
Surface energy;
Internal energy;
Heat of dissolution.

Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:

Options
Fog;
Dust;
Smoke;
Steam.

Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:

Options
Color;
Transparence;
Size of particles;
Odor.

Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

Options
Liquid;
Solid;
Gas;
All answers are right

What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?

Options
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a
liquid;
On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

Options
Coarse dispersed;
Colloidal;
Molecular;
True solution.

Coagulation is:

Options
Chaotic movement of particles;
Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;
Destruction of the native protein structure;
The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby
separate from the continuous phase.

Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

Options
Viscosity, flowability;
Opalescence, light absorption;
Diffusion, Brownian motion;
Dissolution, swelling.

Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

Options
Opalescence;
Light absorption;
Electrodialysis;
Electrophoresis and electroosmosis
A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

Options
Negatively charged;
Positively charged;
Electro neutral;
Negatively and positively charged.

Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

Options
Diameter
Particle size
Radius
Solubility

The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

Options
Suspension> colloidal > true solution
True solution > suspension > colloidal
Suspension> colloidal = true solution
None of the above

Colloids can be purified by

Options
Peptization
Coagulation
Dialysis
Bredic arc method

Which is a natural colloid?

Options
Sodium chloride
Urea
Cane sugar
Blood

Which one of the following is not a colloid

Options
Milk
Blood
Ice cream
Urea solution

Milk is a colloid in which

Options
A liquid is dispersed in liquid
A solid is dispersed in liquid
A gas is dispersed in liquid
Some sugar is dispersed in water

An aerosol is a colloidal system of

Options
A liquid dispersed in a solid
A liquid dispersed in a gas
A gas dispersed in air
None of the above

Which of the following is a homogeneous system

Options
Muddy water
Bread
Concrete
A solution of sugar in water

Which of the following is an emulsifier?

Options
Soap
Water
Oil
NaCl

Lyophobic colloids are

Options
Reversible colloids
Irreversible colloids
Protective colloids
Gum proteins

Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

Options
Condensation
Dialysis
Diffusion through animal membrane
Addition of an electrolyte

Colloidal solutions are not purified by

Options
Dialysis
Electrodialysis
Ultrafiltration
Electrophoresis

Suspensions are

Options
Visible to naked eye
Not visible by any means
Invisible under electron microscope
Invisible through microscope

Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

Options
Gelatin
Sulphur
Gold
Carbon

Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

Options
Lyophilic sol
Associated colloid
Hydrophobic sol
Emulsion

The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

Options
Charge on their particles
A layer of medium of dispersion on their particles
The smaller size of their particles
The large size of their particles

Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

Options
The colloidal particles have positive charge
The colloidal particles have negative charge
The colloidal particles are solvated
There are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

Options
High concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained
Coagulation is reversible
Viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water
The charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive,
negative, or even zero
When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

Options
Light scattered by colloidal particles
Size of the particle
Shape of the particle
Relative size

Light scattering takes place in

Options
Solution of electrolyte
Colloidal solutions
Electrodialysis
Electroplating

Maximum coagulation power is in

Options
Na+
Ba2+
Al3+
Sn4+

The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

Options
Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+
Cl- , SO42- , PO43-
Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+
PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

Options
NaCl solution
Starch solution
Urea solution
FeCl3 solution

Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

Options
Linear
Curved
Zigzag
Uncertain

The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

Options
Photolysis
Dialysis
Pyrolysis
Peptisation

Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known as

Options
Electrolysis
Electrophoresis
Electrodyalysis
None of the above

Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the particles?

Options
Dialysis
Electrophoresis
Sedimentation
Ultrafiltration

Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

Options
Absorption
Tyndall effect
Flocculation
Paramagnetism

Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

Options
Accumulates in the surface of the other substance
Goes into the body of the other substance
Remains close to the other substance
Forms chemical bonds with other substences.

Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

Options
Colloidal S
Colloidal antimony
Colloidal gold
Colloidal platinum

As2S3 sol is

Options
Positive colloid
Negative colloid
Neutral colloid
None of the above

Which of the following is a colloid?

Options
Sugar solution
Urea solution
Silicic acid
NaCl solution

Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

Options
Smoke
Ink
Blood
Air

Milk is

Options
Fat dispersed in milk
Fat dispersed in water
Water dispersed in fat
Water dispersed in oil

Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

Options
Solid is dispersed in liquid
Liquid is dispersed in a solid
Gas is dispersed in a solid
Solid is dispersed in a solid

What is the endothermic process?

Options
Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

What is the exothermic process?

Options
Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


Options
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
Open, Closed, Isolated
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
Endothermic reactions

Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

Options
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
Open, Closed, Isolated
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
Exothermic reactions

Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Q= ΔU+ W

Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
Q= ΔU+ W
ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Q= ΔU+ W

System consisting of three phases is called

Options
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Isolated
Open

System consisting of one phase is called

Options
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Isolated
Open

What is the heterogeneous system?

Options
System consisting of three phases is called
Heat is transferred from one place to another.
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
System consisting of one phase is called

What is the homogeneous system?

Options
System consisting of three phases is called
Heat is transferred from one place to another.
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
System consisting of one phase is called

What are the units of energy?

Options
Volta
Pascal
Liter
Joule

Spontaneous process occurs only

Options
Without external energy
At constant temperature
In forward direction
With external energy help

Internal energy is ……

Options
Energy of system at constant pressure
Gibbs energy
Energy of system at constant volume
Measure of systems randomness

Enthalpy is expressed by following

Options
H = U + pV
∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
H = G + TS
Qp = ∆H
Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Options
A
G
Qp
H

Find state parametre

Options
Q
G
T
H

Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Options
Q
G
Qp
S

Find state parameter

Options
Q
G
V
H

For spontaneous processes

Options
∆H ≥ 0
∆S ≤ 0
∆G ≥ 0
∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics studies –

Options
Energy changes during chemical transformations.
The rate of chemical reactions.
General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
Of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

Butter is a colloid formed when

Options
Fat is dispersed in water
Fat globules are dispersed in water
Water is dispersed in fat
None of the above

Which of the following is not a colloid?

Options
Chlorophyll
Smoke
Ruby glass
Milk

Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?

Options
Monomolecular
Dimolecular
Trimolecular
Radical reaction

Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

Options
Muddy water
Bread
Concrete
A solution of sugar in water

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

Options
Monomolecular
Radical reaction
Dimolecular
Trimolecular

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

Options
Monomolecular
Dimolecular
Radical reaction
Trimolecular

What is the Monomolecular reaction?

Options
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

What is theDimolecular Reaction?

Options
Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Conjugate reactions.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

What is theTrimolecular reaction?

Options
Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
Reactions proceeding simultaneously.

A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

Options
Gel
Homogeneous solution
Sol
Aerosol

Enzymes isais a substance that …

Options
Increase the rate of reaction
Decrease the rate of reaction
Biological catalyst of reaction
No effect on the reaction rate

If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

Options
A sol
A gel
An emulsion
A foam

A substance that increases the reaction rate-

Options
Catalyst
Indicator
Inhibitor
Reducing agents.

A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as


Options
Foam
Sol
Aerosol
Emulsion

A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

Options
Catalyst
Inhibitor
Enzymes
Indicator

Reversible reactions are called?

Options
A change that can go forwards or backwards
A change that cannot go back,
Process of substance dissolution
Reactions proceeding in parallel

Irreversible reactions are called?

Options
A change that can go forwards or backwards
A change that cannot go back,
Reactions proceeding in parallel
Process of substance dissolution

The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

The reactions that cannot go back is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

A material that dissolves is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

Which of these reactions are monomolecular

Options
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
I2 → I • + I •

Which of these reactions are monomolecula

Options
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
Cl2 → 2Cl
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2

Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

Options
CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

Which of these reactions are dimolecular

Options
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
2HI → H2 + I2
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

Which of these reactions are dimolecular.

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
Which of these reactions are dimolecula

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
N2O4 → 2NO2

Emulsifiers are generally

Options
Soap
Synthetic detergents
Lyophilic sols
All of the above

The equilibrium constant for the reaction? 2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):

Options
Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2];
Kc = [CO2] / [CO];
Kc = 1 / [CO2];
Kc = [CO] / [CO2]

What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?2NO + O2→2NO2

Options
Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction? N2 +3H2 =
2NH3

Options
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is

Options
K= [O2]
K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
K= [NaNO3 ]

Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is

Options
K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
K = [CO2 ]
K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?

Options
Backward
Forward
Won’t shifted
Towards reactants

The rate constant of a reactions depends on

Options
Temperature
Initial concentration of the reactants
Time of reaction
Extent of reaction

The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the

Options
Concentration of the reactant
Concentration of the product
Time
Temperature

A catalyst is a substance which

Options
Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
Supplies energy to the reaction

The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

Options
Stability
Molecular weight
Equivalent weight
Active mass

In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

Options
Same
Different
One side more
Not definite

Butter is

Options
Emulsion
Aerosol
Suspension
None

A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

Options
Unequal
Constant
Equal
Increased

The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium is
termed as

Options
Aerosol
Gel
Emulsion
Foam

The law of mass action was enunciated by

Options
Guldberg and Waage
Bodenstein
Berthlot
Graham

Which one of an example of gel?

Options
Soap
Fog
Cheese
Milk
According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction will
N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

Options
Increase the yield of NO
Decrease by yield of NO
Not effect on the yield of NO
Not help the reaction to proceed

Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called

Options
Aerosol
Cannot be prepared
Gas aerosol
Gasosol

Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g) Why is the reaction slower when a single
piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the same mass is used?

Options
The powdered zinc is more concentrated;
The single piece of zinc is more reactive;
The powdered zinc requires less activation energy;
The powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

Options
Increases
Decreases;
Remains the same;
Approaches zero

Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

Options
The number of moles of the reactants and products;
The potential energies of the reactants and products;
The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;
The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.

When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is called

Options
Smoke
Clouds
Jellies
Emulsions
Milk is an example of

Options
Pure solution
Emulsion
Gel
Suspension

The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

Options
Electro-osmosis
Brownian movement
Cataphoresis
Dialysis

Tyndall effect will be observed in

Options
Solution
Precipitate
Sol
Vapour

Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

Options
Scattering of light
Reflection of light
Absorption of light
Presence of electrically charged particles

The Brownian motion is due to

Options
Temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase
Attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles
Impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles
Convective currents

The sky looks blue due to

Options
Dispersion effect
Reflection
Transmission
Scattering

The blue color of water in the sea is due to

Options
Refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water
Reflection of blue sky by sea water
Scattering of blue light by water molecules
Absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

Which colloid is used in treating eye disease

Options
Colloidal S
Colloidal antimony
Colloidal gold
Colloidal silver

Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

Options
Dialysis
Brownian movement
Electro-osmosis
Tyndall effect

In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

Options
Suspension
Emulsion
Sugar solution
Gold sol

Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

Options
Milk
Gum
Fog
Blood

Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

Options
Suspension
Emulsion
Gel
Rtue solution

The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

Options
Dialysis
Addition of electrolytes
Diffusion through animal membrane
Condensation

As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles abruptly
collected into spherical structures called _________

Options
Ball
Sphere of ions
Micelles
Dirt particle

_________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary
liquid induced by an external field.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?

Options
Minerals
Vitamins
Proteins
Starch

At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

Options
Molecular colloid
Associated colloid
Macromolecular colloid
Lyophillic colloid

Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

Options
Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration
Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
Aqueous solution of odium chloride
Aqueous solution of sugar

Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

Options
By addition of oppositely charged sol
By addition of an electrolyte
By addition of lyophilic sol
By boiling
Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

Options
Coagulation
Electrolysis
Diffusion
Peptisation

Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+

Options
Na2S
Na3PO4
Na2SO4
NaCl

A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

Options
Solid sol
Gel
Emulsion
Sol

The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison to those
shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles ____________

Options
Exhibit enormous surface area
Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
Form lyophilic colloids
Are comparatively less in number

Which element is present in all organic compounds?

Options
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Phosphorous

Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

Options
Low melting point
High melting point
Soluble in polar solvents
Insoluble in nonpolar solvents

Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is
Options
Slower because organic particles are ions
Slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds
Faster because organic particles are ions
Faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

Which compounds are isomers?

Options
1-propanol and 2-propanol
Methanoic acid and ethanoic acid
Methanol and methanal
Ethane and ethanol

Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

Options
Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.
Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.
Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms
Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms

Which polymers occur naturally?

Options
Starch and nylon
Starch and cellulose
Protein and nylon
Protein and plastic

What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?

Options
Butane
Butene
Benzene
Butyne

In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a regular

Options
Pyramid
Tetrahedron
Square
Rectangle

In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per molecule?

Options
C2H2 and C2H6
C2H2 and C3H6
C4H8 and C2H4
C6H6 andC7H8

A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

Options
Decrease;
Increase
Remain the same;
Approach zero

Which compound contain an alcohol group?

Options
Acetone
Methanale
Methanol
Dimethyl ether

In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

Options
Make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;
Add a catalyst;
Cool the reaction down;
Use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

Options
Water
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
Sulfur dioxide

Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) +
Cl-(aq)

Options
II only;
III only;
I and II only;
II and III only

Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
Ethane
Ethene
Ethyne
Ethanol
Molarity is expressed as

Options
Grams/litre
Litres/mole
Moles/litre
Moles/1000 gm

Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in

Options
1000 gm of the solvent
Onelitre of the solution
One litre of the solvent
22.4 litres of the solution

What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

Options
An addition reaction
A substitution reaction
A saponification reaction
An esterification reaction

Normality is expressed as

Options
Moles/litre
Gm equivalents/litre
Moles/1000 gm
Gram/litre

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

Options
1
2
3
4

The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

Options
1N
10 N
1.7 N
0.83 N

Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

Options
Acids
Alcohols
Esters
Ethers

Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

Options
1N
0x1N
4N
None

Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

Options
2-methylpropane
2-methylbutane
Propane
Butane

The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

Options
0x1
1
4
0.4

Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

Options
2.04 N
0.49 N
0.98 N
0.35 N

What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

Options
Ketone
Protein
Ester
Acid

What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?

Options
0.5 N
1.0 N
2.0 N
3.0 N

During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

Options
Boiling points
Melting points
Triple points
Saturation points

Which compound is an organic acid?

Options
CH3OH
CH3OCH3
CH3COOH
CH3COOCH3

Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different

Options
Percentage compositions;
Molecular masses;
Molecular formulas;
Structural formulas.

Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

Options
2N
4N
N/2
N/4

Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one additional carbon
atom and

Options
One hydrogen atom;
Two hydrogen atoms;
Three hydrogen atoms;
Four hydrogen atoms.

The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is ?

Options
0.46 N
0.23 N
2.3 N
4.6 N
The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has the same

Options
Empirical formula;
General formula;
Structural formula;
Molecular formula.

The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

Options
4g
1g
2g
10 g

What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?

Options
Methanol;
Methane;
Methyl methanoate;
Methanoic acid.

Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

Options
0.05 M
0.2 M
0.1 M
0.4 M

A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

Options
Toluene;
Benzene;
Butene;
Pentene.

The molarity of pure water is

Options
55.6
50
100
18

C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

Options
Addition;
Substitution;
Saponification;
Esterification.

The number of moles in 180 g of water is

Options
1
10
18
100

The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

Options
C3H7COCH3;
CH3COOC2H5;
C2H5OC2H5;
CH3COOH.

The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

Options
1
2
3
1.5

What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

Options
1
2
3
4

Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

Options
C2H6;
C3H6;
C4H6;
C6H6.

A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

Options
Carbon dioxide;
Water;
Glycerol;
Ethanol.

The general formula for the alkyne series is

Options
CnHn;
CnH2n;
CnH2n+2;
CnH2n-2.

Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

Options
0.1 M
0.5 M
0.01 M
1.0 M

Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

Options
Acetylene;
Ethylene;
Toluene;
Propene

What is the solution?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

Options
HCOOCH3;
CH3CH2COOH;
CH3CH2OH;
CH3COOCH3

What is the solute?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which compound is a member of the alkene series?


Options
Benzene;
Toluene;
Acetylene;
Ethane

What is the solvent?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

Options
Single covalent;
Double covalent;
Triple covalent;
Coordinate covalent

What is the concentration?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

Options
C2H4;
C3H6;
C4H8;
C5H10

A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

Options
An esterification reaction;
A neutralization reaction;
A saponification reaction;
A fermentation reaction.

Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is an
example of _______ reaction.

Options
Substitution;
Addition;
Polymerization;
Fermentation.

In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

Options
11
10
3
8

Which compound is an ester?

Options
CH3COOH;
CH3CHO;
CH3COOCH3;
CH3COCH3.

The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

Options
A polymer;
A soap;
An ester;
An alcohol.

Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures are called

Options
Isomers;
Isotopes;
Allotropes;
Homologs.
Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

Options
Structural formula;
Molecular formula
Number of carbon atoms;
Number of hydrogen atoms.

Mass fraction is called?

Options
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

Options
CH3COOH;
CH3CH2OH;
CH3CH2COOH;
CH3CH2CH2OH

Mass fraction is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

Options
An acid;
An alcohol;
An ester;
A hydrocarbon

Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order, has 1
more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

Options
1
2
3
4

Molar concentration is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The molar concentration of equivalent is called?

Options
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The molal concentration is:

Options
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

Molal concentration is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

Find volume concentration

Options
Mass percent
Normality
Molality
Mass fraction

Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature

Options
Vant Hoff
Mendeleev
Arrhenius
Lomonosov

Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid

Options
98
2
32
49

Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid

Options
98
2
32.6
49

Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide

Options
98
37
32
49

“Activation energy” term is introduced by

Options
Coordination theory
Theory of valent bonds
Theory of active collisions
Theory of electrolytic dissociation
When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

Options
Diluted solution
Saturated solution
Concentrated solution
Unsaturated solution

Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

Options
High concentration
Low concentration
High temeprature
Low temeprature

One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by a/an

Options
Base
Acid
Salt
Suspension

Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is

Options
Molality
Percentage
Concentration
Molarity

A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a

Options
Colloid.
Suspension
Solution.
Compound.

Which molecular formula represents pentene?

Options
C4H8;
C4H10;
C5H10;
C5H12.

The dissolving medium in the solution is the

Options
Solute
Solution.
Solvent.
Mixture.

A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

Options
Propanol;
Butanol;
Pentanol;
Glycerol

Which of the following is not a solution?

Options
Zinc
Sterling silver
Brass
Stainless steel

Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

Options
Organic acids;
Esters;
Alkynes;
Alkanes.

What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?

Options
Alcohol
Water
Sugar
Kerosene

Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

Options
C2H2;
C2H4;
C3H6;
C3H8.

Which of these solutions is in solid phase?

Options
Tincture of iodine
Aerosol
Air-iodine solution
Dental amalgam

Which of the following is not a property of solution?

Options
It has a definite composition.
It has a homogeneous composition.
It is consist of a single phase.
It can be physically separated into its components.

A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is

Options
Concentrated.
Dilute.
Unsaturated.
Saturated.

Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?

Options
Increasing the temperature
Increasing the pressure
Increasing the volume
Decreasing the pressure

What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?

Options
Vaporization and condensation
Dissolution and crystallization
Oxidation and reduction
Dissociation and reduction

Which formula represents an acid?

Options
CH3COOCH3;
CH3OH;
CH3COOH;
CH3CH2CH3.

Which solutions has concentration of 1M?  The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g.  A solution
containing

Options
342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution
Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and formic
acid. This type of reaction is called

Options
Fermentation;
Esterification;
Saponification;
Polymerization.

Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent.  Which solute will dissolve in it?

Options
Hexane
Sodium carbonate
Ethanol
Potassium chloride

Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

Options
C3H6;
C2H6;
C2H2;
C6H6.

Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

Options
Tetrahedral;
Planar triangular;
Linear;
Bent.

Most salt become soluble in water as the

Options
Pressure is increased.
Temperature is increased.
Temperature is decreased.
Pressure is decreased.

It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.

Options
Percent by mass
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction

Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

Options
Greater solubility in water;
More rapid reaction rates;
A tendency to form ions more readily;
Lower melting points.

The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is

Options
Percent by mass
Molality
Molarity
Mole fraction

Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

Options
-COOH;
-OR;
-CHO;
#NAME?

It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.

Options
Molarity
Normality
Dilution
Molality

In dilution of solution,

Options
A solute is added to the solution.
)solvent is added to the solution
The amount of moles increases.
Volume of solution decreases.

C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

Options
Substitution;
Addition;
Polymerization;
Esterification.

A 40% alcohol contains

Options
40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

The isomers of propanol differ in

Options
The number of carbon atoms;
The arrangement of the carbon atoms;
Molecular mass;
The position of functional group.

Solutions are:

Options
Isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
Homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
Homogeneous systems which contain at least two components
Heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

Which is the formula of an alcohol?

Options
Ba(OH)2;
HCHO;
CH3COOH;
C5H11OH.

Solubility of solids depends upon:

Options
Temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents;
Pressure;
Heat of solution;
All answers are right.

C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

Options
A carbohydrate;
An ester;
An organic acid;
An alcohol.

In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:

Options
Liquid, transparent, colored;
Solid, liquid, turbid;
Gaseous, liquid, solid;
Liquid, turbid, colored.
Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number of solute particles and not
their nature. They are:

Options
Vapor pressure lowering;
Density;
Viscosity;
Diffusion.

Which compound can have isomers?

Options
C2H4;
C2H2;
C2H6;
C4H8.

The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the
solution is defined as:

Options
The Henry’s law;
The Sechenov equation;
The Ostvald’s dilution law;
The Paul’s principle.

C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

Options
Polymerization;
Substitution;
Addition;
Esterification.

An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:

Options
Hemolysis;
Plasmolysis;
Swelling;
Precipitation.

Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:

Options
0.01M sucrose;
0.01 M sodium phosphate;
0.01 М potassium chloride;
0.01 M sodium carbonate.

Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?


Options
CCl2F2;
C2H2;
C2H5OH;
C2H5OC2H5.

The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:

Options
Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure
solvents;
Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure
solvents;
Boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile
solutes;
Boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile
solutes.

Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

Options
C3H8;
C3H7OH;
CH3COOH;
CH3COOCH3.
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Question (1/12)

What is the concentration of OH– in a solution with a H+ concentration of 1.3×10-4 M?

Options
7.7×10-10 M
7.7×10-9 M
7.7×10-11 M
7.7×10-12 M

Identify the triprotic acid from the following

Options
Carbonic acid
Bicarbonate
Glycine
Phosphoric acid

Which of the following acids has the lowest pKa value?

Options
Acetic acid
PrevSulphuric acid
SkipDil.HCl
NextOxalic acid

The degree of ionization does not depend on?

Options
Temperature
Current
Nature of solvent
Concentration

Aqueous solution of the detergents are

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Amphoteric

What makes water a liquid at room temperature?

Options
Hydrogen bonds between water molecules
Covalent bonding
Noncovalent interactions
Van der Waals forces of attraction

ΔG is negative for which of the following processes?

Options
Melting of ice and evaporation of water
Oxidation of nitrogen
Oxidation of gold
Burning of chlorine

ΔH is positive for which of the following processes?

Options
Oxidation of nitrogen
Melting of ice and evaporation of water
Oxidation of gold
Burning of chlorine

What is the factor that is responsible for salts like NaCl to dissolve in water easily?

Options
Decrease in entropy
Increase in entropy
Increase in enthalpy
Decrease in enthalpy

Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

Options
Oceans
Freshwater habitats
0.45% sodium chloride
Red blood cells placed in fresh water

Which of the following is a hypotonic solution?

Options
10% dextrose in water
0.45% sodium chloride
5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
Oceans

Which of the following is an isotonic solution?

Options
0.9% sodium chloride
0.45% sodium chloride
Oceans
10% dextrose in water
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Question
23. 23 (1/50)
24. 24
Why
25. pure
25 water is very weak electrolyte?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.It28
ionizes to a large extent
29.It29
ionizes to very small extent
30.It30
does not ionizes at all
31.It31
ionizes completely
32. 32
33. 33molecule is a highly polar solvent due to:
Water
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Presence
36 of two lone pair of electrons
37. 37
Presence of three lone pair of electrons
38. 38
39.Absence
39 of lone pair of electrons
40.None
40 of these
41. 41
When
42. 42acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Both
45 (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.
46.Both
Prev 46 (H+) and (OH) ions increases
47. 47
Skip(H+) increases and (OH-) decreases
48. 48
Next(H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.
49. 49
50. 50of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?
Buffer

Options
Weak acid + weak base in water
Strong acid + strong base in water.
Weak acid + strong base in water.
Strong acid + weak base in water.

Which among the following is not a property of buffer solution?

Options
It has a definite PH.
PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.
PH remains constant on keeping for a long time
It does not has a definite PH

Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?

Options
AgCl
BaSO4
CH3COOAg
None of these

The concentration of a sparingly soluble salt in its saturated solution at a given temperature is
known as:

Options
Solubility product
Solubility
Hydrolysis
Degree of hydrolysis

If ionic product < solubility product then the solution is:

Options
Unsaturated
Just saturated.
Super saturated
None of these

Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength?

Options
HCl < HBr < HI < HF
HF < HBr < HCl < HI
HI < HCl < HBr < HF
HF < HCl < HI < HBr.

Lewis acid is one that:

Options
Accepts an electron pair
Donates a proton
Accepts a proton
Donates an electron pair

HCO3- acts as:

Options
Acid
Base
Both acid and base
None of these

Which of the following act as Bronsted acid?

Options
HSO3-
HCO3-
Both a and b
None

An acid is one that donates a proton. This theory was given by:

Options
Lewis
Lowery – Bronsted
Arrhenius
Ostwald

If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:

Options
Weak electrolyte
Strong electrolyte
Strong base
None of these.

NH4Cl and aq.NH3 will precipitate.

Options
Cu2+
Fe3+
Na+
K+

10-4 M HCl solution at 298 K is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution will:

Options
Lie between 8 and 9
Remain unchanged
Lie between 6 and 7
Equal to 7

The conjugate base of methyl alcohol is:

Options
Hydroxyl ion
Methyl radical
Hydronium ion
Methoxide ion

Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?

Options
Equimolar solutions
Equinormal solution
Both a and b
None of these

The ionisation of a weak electrolyte increases when the concentration of the solution is decreased.
This relation is given by:

Options
Ostwald’s law
Arrhenius equation
Nernst’s equation.
Law of mass action.

Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:

Options
Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised
It has low molecular weight
Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.
It does not dissociates completely

Aqueous solution of potassium chlorate is:

Options
Amphoteric
Neutral
Alkaline
Acidic

Precipitation of salt occurs if:

Options
Ionic product = solubility product
Ionic product > solubility product
Ionic product < solubility product
None of these

Addition of HCl will suppress the ionisation of:

Options
Benzoic acid
Carbonic acid
Nitric acid
Both a and b
Basicity of an acid is defined as number of replicable:

Options
OH groups in its molecule
H atom in its molecule
Non-metal cations in its molecule
Non-metal anions in its molecule

NH3 and H20 can act as:

Options
Lewis acid and Bronsted base
Lewis base and Bronsted acid
Lewis and Bronsted base
Lewis and Bronsted acid.

What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of HOCl (ka
= 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

Options
7.0
3.2
7.3
4.5

A buffer solution is one that contains:

Options
A weak acid and its conjugate base
Strong base and its conjugate acid
Strong acid and its conjugate base
None of these

In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.

Options
Weak acid and strong base
Weak acid and weak base
Strong acid and strong base
Strong acid and weak base

Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:

Options
It is basic in nature
It is acidic in nature
Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base
Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.

Addition of a salt of weak acid and strong base to water would cause:
Options
Increase in pH.
PH remains same.
Decrease in pH
None of these.

Among the following which is a strong electrolyte and thus the best conductor of electricity?

Options
Sulphuric acid
Acetic acid
Boric acid
Phosphoric acids

Molarity of a solution is expressed as:

Options
The number of moles of a solute present in one litre of the solution
The number of moles of a solute present in 1000 gm of the solvent
The number of gram equivalent of solute present in one litre of solution
The ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute

Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

Options
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of boiling point
Freezing point
Depression in freezing point.

Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

Options
Camphor
Petrol
Acetone
Acetanilide

Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

Options
Obeys Raoult’s law.
Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero
There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.
Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

Options
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in
it
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

Options
Amount of solute
Nature of solute.
Amount of solvent
Nature of solvent

The unit of Cryoscopic constant is:

Options
Kelvin kg mol-1
Kelvin kg-1 mol-1
Kelvin kg mol+1
Kelvin kg+1 mol+1

Vant Hoff’s eqution for solution is:

Options
PV = n / RT
P = Vn / RT
PV = nRT
P = VnR / T

When osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:

Options
Equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute.
Equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.
Non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute
Non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute

Which among the following is true? i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling
point decreases.  ii. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point increases.  iii.
When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point decreases.  iv. When vapour
pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point increases.

Options
I & iii
I & iv.
Ii & iii
Ii & iv

Vapour pressure decreases with:


Options
Increase in concentration of the solution.
Decrease in solute particles in the solution
Decrease in boiling point.
Increase in freezing point.

Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:

Options
Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between
individual liquids
Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between
individual liquids.
Force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids
Force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.

If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:

Options
I=1
I>1
I=0
I<1

Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon number of
solute of particles present in the solution.  ii. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is
equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-electrolyte solute.

Options
I
Ii
Both i & ii
None of the above

Addition of common salt in water causes

Options
Increase in M.P of solution
Increase in B.P of solution
Decrease in B.P of solution
Decrease in both M.P & B.P

The value of Vant Hoff factor (i) = 2 is for:

Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Calcium chloride
Sodium chloride
Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

Options
An increase in melting point of the liquid
A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.
A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid
No change in the boiling point of the liquid.

Which of the following pair of liquids are immiscible?

Options
Acetone + water
Benzene + water.
Ethanol + water
Acetic acid + water

If the solvent boils at a temperature T1 and the solution at a temperature T2 , then the elevation of
boiling point is given by:

Options
T1 + T2
T1 – T2
T2 – T1.
None of the above
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Question
23. 23 (1/119)
24. 24
The
25.unit
25 of temperature in S.I. units is
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Centigrade
28
29.Celsius
29
30.Farhenheit
30
31.Kelvin
31
32. 32
33.unit
The 33 of mass in S.I. units is
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Kilogram
36
37. 37
Gram
38. 38
39.Tonne
39
40.Quintal
40
41. 41
The
42.unit
42 of time in S.I. units is
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Second
45
46. 46
PrevMinute
47. 47
SkipHour
48. 48
NextDay
49. 49
50.unit
The 50 of length in S.I. units is
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Meter
53
54. 54
55.Centimeter
55
Kilometer
56. 56
57.Millimeter
57
58. 58
The
59.unit
59 of energy in S.I. units is
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Watt
62
63.Joule
63
64.Joule/s
64
65. 65
66.Joule/m
66
67. 67
General gas equation is
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
PV=nRT
71. 71
72.PV=mRT
72
73.PV=C
73
74.PV=KiRT
74
75. 75
An76.
open76 system is one in which
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Mass
79 does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
80.Neither
80 mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
81. 81
Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
82. 82
83.Mass
83 crosses the boundary but not the energy
84. 84
An isolated system is one in which
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
88.Mas
88 does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
89.Neither
89 mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
90.Both
90 energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
91.Mass
91 crosses the boundary but not the energy
92. 92
93. 93of the following quantities is not the property of the system
Which
94. 94
Options
95. 95
96.Pressure
96
97.Temperature
97
98. 98
Specific volume
99. 99
100.Heat
100
101. 101
Mixture
102. 102of ice and water from a
103. 103
Options
104. 104
105.Closed
105 system
106.Open
106 system
107.Isolated
107 system
108.Heterogeneous
108 system
109. 109
If110.
∆H 110
value is less than zero than reaction will be
111. 111
Options
112. 112
113.Exothermic
113
114.Endothermic
114
115. 115
116.May
116or may not be Exothormic or Endothermic
117.None
117 of these
118. 118
119. 119
Which is true for a spontaneous endothermic process?

Options
∆H<0
∆G<0
∆S<0
∆G>0

A reaction has values of ∆H and ∆S which are both positive. The reaction

Options
Is spontaneous
Spontaneity is temperature dependent
Has an increasing free energy
Is non-spontaneous

Whenever a system undergoes either a change in state or an energy or mass transfer at a steady
state, it is said to undergo

Options
A change of state
A steady state transfer
A process
A thermodynamic change

A law which is applicable only to ideal vapours and liquids, that equates the equilibrium partial
pressures of a solution component in the coexisting phases, is known as

Options
Henry's law
Joule's law
Fick's law
Roult's law

An open system

Options
Is a specified region where transfers of energy and/or mass take place
Cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings
Is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries
Has a mass transfer across its boundaries, and the mass within the system is not necessarily

A system consisting of more than one phase is known as

Options
Open system
Isolated system
Closed system
Heterogeneous system

Second law of theromodynamics defines

Options
Heat
Enthalpy
Internal energy
Entropy

The internal energy of a substance depends on

Options
Temperature
Volume
Pressure
Entropy

At critical point the enthalpy of vaporisation is

Options
Only dependent on temperature
Zero
Maximum
Minimum

For a reversible adiabatic process the change in entropy is

Options
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinite

For any reversible process, the change in entropy of the system and surroundings is

Options
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinite

For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

Options
Positive
Negative
Infinite
Zero

In an isothermal process

Options
Temperature increases gradually
Volume remains constant
Change in internal energy is zero
Pressure remains constant

Which of the following is incorrect?

Options
The pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressure of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
The entropy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the entropies of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
The internal energy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum f the internal energies of the
indicudual components taken each at the temperature and the volume of the mixture
None of the above

If the ∆H° for the reaction, 2 Mg (s) + 2 Cl2 (g) → 2 MgCl2 (s), is -1283.6 kJ, what is the standard
enthalpy of formation of magnesium chloride?

Options
0 kJ/mol
-320.9 kJ/mol
-641.8 kJ/mol
1283.6 kJ/mol

Which of the following compounds will not undergo an acid-base (neutralization) reaction with
HClO4?

Options
NaOH
Sr(OH)2
NH3
H2SO4

The reaction below reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel. C6H12O6(s) = 2 C2H5OH(l) + 2
CO2(g), ∆Ho = −72 kJ Which of the following actions causes an increase in the value of Kc? (i)
adding some CO2(g) (ii) transferring the reaction mixture to a vessel of larger volume (iii)
increasing the temperature

Options
(i) only
(ii) only
(iii) only
None of the above
What is the coefficient of O2 when the following equation is balanced? C10H8(s) + x O2(g) → y
CO2(g) + z H2O(l)

Options
1
6
7
12

Natural oils, such as vegetable oil, are converted into solid, edible fats by a process called

Options
Fusion
Hydrogenation
Crystallization
Saponification

Which of the following is the strongest acid in water?

Options
HBr
HOBrO2
HF
HI

The heat of combustion of C(s) is −394 kJ/mol and that of CO(g) is −111 kJ/mol. What is the enthalpy
change for the reaction below? CO(g) → C(s) + ½ O2(g)

Options
505 kJ
283 kJ
111 kJ
−283 kJ

How are the boiling and freezing points of water affected by the addition of a soluble salt?

Options
The freezing and boiling points are both lowered.
The freezing and boiling points are both raised.
The freezing is lowered and the boiling point is raised.
The freezing is raised and the boiling point is lowered.

In which ionic compound does the cation have the same number of electrons as the anion?

Options
LiF
NaCl
CaO
MgF2
Which of the following compounds displays only covalent bonding?

Options
NH4OH
Li2O
HOCN
NaNO3

When temperature is increased, the rate of a reaction also increases. This observation is best
explained by

Options
An increase in the frequency of molecular collisions
A decrease in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
An increase in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
An increase in the fraction of molecules that have enough energy to react

For a given substance, which of the following phase transitions is the most exothermic?

Options
Solid → liquid
Gas → solid
Liquid → gas
Solid → gas

The following reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel at 200o C. CO(g) + 3 H2(g) →
CH4(g) + H2O(g), ΔHo = −206 kJ Which of the following actions causes the reaction to proceed from
left to right in order to restore equilibrium?

Options
Increasing the volume of the container, holding temperature constant
Adding some CH4 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
Adding some H2 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
Increasing the temperature, holding the pressure constant

In which of the following compounds does oxygen have the highest oxidation state?

Options
CsO2
H2O
O2
OF2

What is the formula of the stable compound formed by magnesium and nitrogen?

Options
MgN
Mg2N
Mg3N2
Mg2N3
Which of the following bonds is most polar?

Options
B−O
B-F
C-O
C=O

When the following equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients, what is
the coefficient of O2? NH3 + O2 → NO + H2O

Options
2
3
4
5

Which of the statements concerning the structure of benzene is false?

Options
The double bonds oscillate rapidly back and forth between adjacent pairs of carbon atoms.
The H-C-C angles are 120o
The carbon atoms form a flat hexagonal ring.
The oxidation state of carbon is −1.

Of the following compounds, which one contains nitrogen in an oxidation state of +5?

Options
NO2F
N2O3
NH4Cl
Mg3N2

To which process does the term sublimation refer?

Options
Solid to liquid
Liquid to solid
Solid to gas
Gas to solid

Each of two identical containers holds one mole of CH4gas and one mole SO2 gas, all at the same
temperature. Which of following statements is true?

Options
The SO2 gas has a higher pressure.
The CH4 gas has a greater density.
The SO2 molecules move, on average, faster than the CH4 molecules.
Deviations from ideal gas behaviour are smaller for the CH4 gas.
Which of the following has the same number of electrons as a water molecule?

Options
H2S
BH3
OH−
BeH2

What is the formula of magnesium sulfate?

Options
MgS
MgS2
Mg3S2
MgSO4

Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?

Options
HF
HCl
HBr
HI

Which of the following is a product of the reaction between H2SO4(aq) and NaOH(aq)?

Options
H2(g)
H+(aq)
H2O(l)
O2(g)

Which of the following species is not linear?

Options
O3
HCN
C2H2
NNO

Which of the following compounds has the greatest ionic character?

Options
IBr
CsF
HI
HF

What is the oxidation state of Cr in Li2CrO4?


Options
−6
−2
0
+6

Which of the following statements about H2SO3, a diprotic acid, is true?

Options
There is just one lone pair on the sulfur atom
It is a strong acid.
The hydrogen atoms are bonded directly to the sulfur atom
The oxidation state of sulfur is +6.

Which statement is not correct for the reaction below? 2 NO(g) ↔ N2(g) + O2(g)

Options
At equilibrium, the forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates
Reaction to the left or to the right occurs spontaneously until the equilibrium state is reached.
Reducing the volume of the system has no effect on the equilibrium amounts of NO, N2 and O2
The equilibrium value of [N2 ] [O2 ] / [NO]2 is the same at all temperatures

Which of the following is an ionic compound?

Options
HOCN
NH4NO2
CH3NH2
SiO2

Select the correct ending to make the following a true statement. A catalyst ...

Options
Lowers the energy of the products
Induces an alternate reaction pathway with a higher activation energy
Increases the frequency of collisions between molecules
Is not consumed by the overall reaction although it may be temporarily changed

How many electrons are needed to fill the 4f subshell of an atom?

Options
Two
Six
Ten
Fourteen

Which of the following bonds is the most polar?

Options
H−O
C−N
H−C
O−N

Which of the following have three unpaired electrons in their ground electronic states?

Options
The third period atoms (Na to Ar)
The group 3 atoms (B to Tl)
The group 15 atoms (N to Bi)
N3− and P3−

Which of the following statements concerning the nitrate ion, NO3−, is incorrect?

Options
The ONO bond angles are all 120o.
One of the nitrogen-oxygen bonds is shorter than the other two nitrogen-oxygen bonds.
The nitrogen atom has a formal charge of +1.
It is nonpolar.

Electronegativity is a measure of

Options
The magnitude of the charge of an electron
The energy released when an electron is added to an atom
The energy required to remove an electron from an atom
The ability of an atom to draw electron density towards itself

Which of the following is the weakest acid in water?

Options
H2S
H2Se
H2Te
HBr

Which of the following is always true of a spontaneous process?

Options
The process is exothermic
The process does not involve any work
The entropy of the system increases
The internal energy of the system decreasis

The equation ΔH= ΔU+PΔ V is applicable

Options
Always
Only for constant pressure processes
Only for constant temperature processes
Only for constant volume processes

What occurs as two atoms of fluorine combine to become a molecule of fluorine?

Options
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed.
A bond is formed as energy is released
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed
A bond is broken as energy is released

To break a chemical bond, energy must be

Options
Absorbed
Destroyed
Produced
Released

As two chlorine atoms combine to form a molecule, energy is

Options
Absorbed
Released
Created
Destroyed

As energy is released during the formation of a bond, the stability of the chemical system
generally will

Options
Decrease
Increase
Remain the same
Absorbed

Which element has an atom with the greatest tendency to attract electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
Carbon
Chlorine
Silicon
Sulfur

Which term indicates how strongly an atom attracts the electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
Alkalinity
Atomic mass
Electronegativity
Activation energy

Which formula represents a substance with the greatest degree of ionic bonding?

Options
PBr3
MgBr2
NH3
CO

An ionic compound is formed when there is a reaction between the elements

Options
Strontium and chlorine
Hydrogen and chlorine
Nitrogen and oxygen
Sulfur and oxygen

Which type of bond is formed when electrons are transferred from one atom to another?

Options
Covalent
Ionic
Hydrogen
Metallic

Which compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds?

Options
CaCO3
PCl3
MgF2
CH2O

Which of the following solids has the highest melting point?

Options
H2O(s)
Na2O(s)
SO2(s)
CO2(s)

What is the total number of electron pairs shared between the two atoms in an O2 molecule?

Options
1
2
6
4
A molecular compound is formed when a chemical reaction occurs between atoms of

Options
Chlorine and sodium
Chlorine and yttrium
Oxygen and hydrogen
Oxygen and magnesium

Which characteristic is a property of molecular substances?

Options
Good heat conductivity
Good electrical conductivity
Low melting point
High melting point

Magnesium nitrate contains chemical bonds that are

Options
Covalent, only
Ionic, only
Both covalent and ionic
Neither covalent nor ionic

A solid substance is an excellent conductor of electricity. The chemical bonds in this substance are
most likely

Options
Ionic, because the valence electrons are shared between atoms
Ionic, because the valence electrons are mobile
Metallic, because the valence electrons are stationary
Metallic, because the valence electrons are mobile

Which substance contains metallic bonds?

Options
Hg(l )
H2O( l)
NaCl(s)
C6H12O6(s)

Silicon dioxide (SiO2) and diamonds are best described as

Options
Molecular substances with coordinate covalent bonding
Molecular substances with ionic bonding
Network solids with covalent bonding
Network solids with ionic bonding

Which compound has hydrogen bonding between its molecules?


Options
CH4
CaH2
KH
NH3

Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule?

Options
CH4
HCl
H2O
NH3

Which statement explains why a molecule of CH4 is nonpolar?

Options
The bonds between the atoms in a CH4 molecule are polar
The bonds between the atoms in a CH4 molecule are ionic
The geometric shape of a CH4 molecule distributes the charges symmetrically.
The geometric shape of a CH4 molecule distributes the charges asymmetrically

Hydrogen bonding is a type of

Options
Strong covalent bond
Weak ionic bond
Strong intermolecular force
Weak intermolecular force

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: Cl2 → Cl + Cl What occurs during this
reaction?

Options
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed
A bond is broken as energy is released
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed
A bond is formed as energy is released

Which statement describes what occurs as two atoms of bromine combine to become a molecule
of bromine?

Options
Energy is absorbed as a bond is formed
Energy is absorbed as a bond is broken
Energy is released as a bond is formed
Energy is released as a bond is broken

Which of these elements has an atom with the most stable outer electron configuration?
Options
Ne
Cl
Ca
Na

When a sodium atom reacts with a chlorine atom to form a compound, the electron configurations
of the ions forming the compound are the same as those in which noble gas atoms?

Options
Krypton and neon
Krypton and argon
Neon and helium
Neon and argon

Which element has an atom with the greatest attraction for electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
As
Bi
N
P

Based on electronegativity values, which type of elements tends to have the greatest attraction for
electrons in a bond?

Options
Metals
Metalloids
Nonmetals
Noble gases

Which bond is least polar?

Options
As–Cl
Bi–Cl
P–Cl
N–Cl

Which formula represents an ionic compound?

Options
H2
CH4
CH3OH
NH4 Cl

Which type of bond results when one or more valence electrons are transferred from one atom to
another?
Options
A hydrogen bond
An ionic bond
A nonpolar covalent bond
A polar covalent bond

Based on bond type, which compound has the highest melting point?

Options
CH3OH
C6H14
CaCl2
CCl4

The environment in which a system is studied is

Options
State function
Phase
Surrounding
State

Unit of heat in SI system is

Options
J
KCaL
Cal
Kg

Total energy of a system is

Options
P.E + K.E
P.E + heat energy
K.E + heat energy
P.E + mechanical energ

CuSO4 + Zn ZnSO4+Cu is

Options
Spontaneous reaction
Non-spontaneous reaction
Endothermic
Exothermic

State function the macroscopic property of system depends upon

Options
Path of reaction
Initial state
Initial and final state
Final state

When enthalpy formation of reactants is higher than product then reaction will be

Options
Endothermic
Spontaneous
Non-spontaneous
Exothermic

Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by

Options
Calorimeter
Manometer
Barometer
Manometer

Enthalpy of combustion for food fuel and other compounds can be measured accurately by

Options
Calorimeter
Bomb calorimeter
Thermometer
Manometerv

Most of thermodynamic parameters are

Options
System
Surrounding
Phase
State functions

Change in enthalpy (H) of a system can be calculated by following relationship

Options
∆H=∆E+P∆V
∆H=∆E-PV
∆H=∆E-q
∆H=∆E+q

Two fundamental ways to transfer energy are

Options
Pressure and temperature
Pressure and volume
Heat and work
Heat and volume

Which of the following processes has always ∆H = -ve

Options
Formation of compoun
Combustion
Dissolution of ionic compound
Dilution of a solution

A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?

Options
Isothermal process
Isobaric process
Isochoric (or isometric) process
Adiabatic process

Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?

Options
Julius Robert von Mayer
Rudolf Clausius
Vant Hoff
Gibbs

Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:

Options
Q=∆U+W
H=U+pV
∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
S = KlnW

Choose thermochemical reactions:

Options
2H2(g) + O2(g) = H2O(g)
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g) -180,8kJ
PbS + H2O2 = PbSO4 + H2O
Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 = BaSO4 + 2NaOH

Enthalpy of reaction depends on: 1.Physical state of substances 2.Chemical quantity of substances
3.Temperature 4.Nature of substances

Options
1,2,3
2,3,4
1,2,3,4
1,3,4

From reaction: CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g) – 157 kJ, find enthalpy of reaction, if m(CaCO3) = 1 kg.

Options
+1570
-1570
+785
-785

If ΔG>0, then process:

Options
Spontaneous
Nonspontaneous
Exothermic
Endothermic

If ΔG<0, then process:

Options
Spontaneous
Nonspontaneous
Exothermic
Endothermic

If ∆H>0, then process…

Options
Endothermic
Exothermic
Exergonic
Endergonic

If ∆H<0, then process…

Options
Endothermic
Exergonic
Exothermic
Endergonic
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23. 23 (1/127)
24. 24
As25.
compared
25 to its parent alkane, an alkyl radical contains
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27. 27
28.One
28 less carbon
29.One
29 less hydrogen
30.One
30 more carbon
31.One
31 more hydrogen
32. 32
33. of
Rate 33reaction of organic compounds is slow due to
34. 34
35. 35
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36.Ionic
36 bonding in them
37. 37
Amphoteric nature
38. 38
39.Covalent
39 bonding
40.Coordinate
40 covalent bonding
41. 41
In42.
naming
42 alkane stem tells about the
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44. 44
45.Number
45 of hydrogen atoms
46.Number
Prev 46 of oxygen atoms
47. 47
SkipNumber of carbon atoms
48. 48
NextNumber of bonds
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Self-linking ability of carbon is called
51. 51
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53.Catenation
53
54. 54
55.Sublimation
55
Hydrogenation
56. 56
57.Carbonation
57
58. 58
Almost
59. 5995% of compounds are of carbon because it can form
60. 60
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61. 61
62.Single
62 bonds
63.Double
63 bonds
64.Triple
64 bonds
65. 65
66.Multiple
66 bonds
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Only one benzene ring is present in compounds of
68. 68
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70. 70
Aryl
71. 71
72.Acryl
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73.Carboxylic
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74.Ketone
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Substances
76. 76 which are basis of human life on earth are
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83.Organic
83 compounds
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For complex molecules, a chemist usually represents a molecule by
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87. 87
88.Molecular
formula
88
89.Skeletal
89 formula
90.Structural
90 formula
91.B 91
and c
92. 92
93. optical
Two 93 isomers are formed from carbon atoms to create bond
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95. 95
96.4 96
atoms
97.2 97
atoms
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1 atom
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100.3 100
atoms
101. 101
Element
102. 102that is backbone of organic molecules is
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105.Carbon
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106.Hydrogen
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107.Oxygen
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108.All
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of them
109. 109
110. 110chemistry is the study of
Organic
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113.Any
113compound from any living thing.
114.Carbon-containing
114 compounds that were formed by living things.
115. 115
116.Any
116compound with carbon as the principal element.
117.Noneoftheabove.
117
118. 118
119. 119can form many different compounds because it can
Carbon
120. 120
121. 121
Options
122.Make
122 a molecule in the shape of a cube, tetrahedron, or cylinder.
123. 123
Combine with other carbon atoms in addition to other elements
124. 124
125.Combine
125 with more metals than other elements.
126.Combine
126 with more nonmetals than other elements.
127. 127
A hydrocarbon is an organic compound consisting of

Options
Water and carbon.
Any number of elements as long as they include carbon and hydrogen.
Carbon and hydrogen.
Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

A hydrocarbon with two double covalent bonds between carbon atoms is a (an)

Options
Alkane.
Alkene.
Alkyne.
Aromatic hydrocarbon.

Organic compounds called isomers have

Options
The same molecular formulas but different physical structures.
Different molecular formulas with the same physical structures.
Different molecular formulas with the same chemical properties.
Noneoftheabove.

The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of octane is

Options
1
2
4
8

Organic compounds called aromatic hydrocarbons are compounds that

Options
Have a wonderful odor.
Are based on the benzene rings structure.
Occur in nature with all carbons bonds saturated
Occur in nature with all carbon bonds unsaturated.

A gasoline mixture of hydrocarbons that burns very rapidly has

Options
A low octane number.
A high octane number.
Many branched chains.
Smaller hydrocarbon molecules.

An organic molecule with a general formula of ROH is a (an)

Options
Ether.
Alcohol.
Organic acid.
Ester.

An organic molecule with a general formula of RCOOH is a (an)

Options
Ester.
Organic acid.
Ketone.
Aldehyde.

The characteristic odor and taste of fruit such as bananas, oranges, and pineapples comes from
certain

Options
Ketones.
Ethers.
Aldehydes.
Esters.

The human body breaks down starches to

Options
Monosaccharides.
Simple sugars.
Glucose.
Any of the above.

The direct reserve source of energy in the muscles of a human is

Options
Glycol.
Glycerol.
Glycogen.
Dextrose.
All proteins are made up of a side chain and

Options
Alpha-amino acid.
Amine.
A nitrogen atom.
Peptide.

Fats and oils are esters formed from three fatty acids and glycerol into a (an)

Options
Alpha-amino acid.
Polysaccharide.
Triglyceride.
Disaccharide.

Which of the following is a polymer?

Options
Cellulose
Polyethylene
Wool
All are polymers

Which of the following is not true about benzene?

Options
It is a dark brown liquid in its natural state.
It does not mix with water.
It has a strong odor.
It can be used as a solvent.

An alkane with 3 carbon atoms would have how many hydrogen atoms in the molecule?

Options
4
6
8
10

The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for

Options
A reactive atom.
A separate functional group.
Any hydrocarbon group.
The right side of the molecule.

When wine "goes bad," the ethanol is converted into


Options
CH3COOH.
CH3 OCH3.
CH3CH2OH.
CH3OH.

Which of the following compounds cannot exist?

Options
C2H3
C2H4
C3H8
C4H10

Assuming straight-chain compounds, which of the following will have the highest boiling point?

Options
C3H8
C7H16
C11H24
They all have the same boiling point

Fractional distillation

Options
Is a basic process used in petroleum refining.
Involves heating crude oil and condensing the vapors at different temperatures.
When applied to crude oil can produce such products as gasoline, kerosene, and lubricating oil
stock.
All of the above are true.

Which of the following molecules has the highest carbon to hydrogen ratio?

Options
Ethane
Ethane
Methane
Acetylene

Supporting the idea that the origin of life was the result of natural processes is the fact that

Options
Amino acids and other complex organic molecules have been found in meteorites and comets.
In the laboratory amino acids, fatty acids, nitrogen bases, and other compounds can be formed
under simulated early Earth conditions.
The early Earth had oceans full of chemicals that may have been interacting to form organic
compounds.
All of the above are true.

Which of the following underlined atoms is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond acceptor?
Options
Amide nitrogen (RNHCOR')
Aniline nitrogen (ArNH2)
Amine nitrogen (RNH2)
Carboxylate oxygen (RCO 2-)

Which of the following underlined protons is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond donor?

Options
Alcohol (ROH)
Amine (RNH2)
Phenol (ArOH)
Ammonium ion (RNH3+)

Which of the following functional groups is most likely to participate in a dipole-dipole


interaction?

Options
Aromatic ring
Ketone
Alcohol
Alkene

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Octane
Heptane
Pentane
Hexane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Butane
Heptane
Pentane
Decane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethilhexane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2-bromo-2-methylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylpenthane
2-chloro-3-methylhexane
2,3-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
2,3-dimethylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethylbutane
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
3-methylpentane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
3-methylpentane
2-chloro-3-methylhexane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:


Options
Cis-1-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
Trans- ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,2-dichloro-3-methylpenten
Trans- 4-ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,3-dimethyl-2-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methilpenthen
Trans- 4-chloro-6-methil-3-heptahe
3,3-dimethil-2-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
Trans- 4-chloro-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

Name the following compounds:


Options
5-methil-3-heptyne
4- pentyne
3-methil-2-hexyne
3-methyle-4-heptene

Name the following compounds:

Options
4-methil-3-heptyne
1- pentyne
3-methil-2-hexyne
4-chloro-1-butyne

Name the following compounds:

Options
5-methil-3-heptyne
4- pentyne
4-methil-2-hexyne
2-ethyl-3-pentyne

Name the following alcohols.

Options
4-methil-4-pentanol
2-butanol
1-propanol
2-methil-2-propanol

Name the following alcohols

Options
4-methil-2-pentanol
2-butanol
1-propanol
2-methil-2-propanol

Name the following aldehydes.

Options
Ethanol
Methanal
2-methylpropanal
Butanal

Name the following aldehydes.

Options
Butanal
2-methylpropanal
Methanol
Ethanol

Special name the following ketones.

Options
Acetone
Ethyl methyl ketone
Diethyl ketone
Proryl ketone

Special name the following ketones.

Options
Diethyl ketone
Acetone
Ethyl methyl ketone
Propyl ketone
Choose the following KETONES.

Options
2-butanon
3-pentanon
3-butanon
2-pentanon

Choose the following KETONES.

Options
3-pentanon
2-pentanon
3-butanon
2-butanon

Choose the following KETONES.

Options
3-pentanon
2-pentanon
4-pentanon
4-pentanon

Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
C2H2 ;
C2 H4 ;
C3 H6 ;
C3 H8 .

Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
C2H2;
C2H4;
C5H8;
C5H12.
CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with
thischaracteristic?

Options
Acetylene;
Benzene;
Propane;
Toluene.

A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

Options
Structural formula;
Number of carbon atoms;
Molecular formula
Number of hydrogen atoms.

The compound C2H2belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula

Options
CnHn;
CnH2n;
CnH2n-2;
CnH2n+2.

The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

Options
Less than
Greater than
The same as
Greater than or equal to

Two molecules that are isomers:

Options
Must contain the same functional groups
Often differ in the number of unsaturated bonds they possess
Have the same molecular formulas
Often have different masses

In which of the following kinds of organic compounds does a carbon atom bond ONLY to
hydrogen and other carbon atoms?

Options
Carbohydrates
Hydrocarbons
Fatty acids
Lipids
Glycogen is best defined as a:

Options
Storage form of lipids
Polymer of glucose
Storage form of glycerol
Polymer of lactose

Most biologically important atoms attempt to possess _____ electrons in their outermost energy
level

Options
N2
2
8
10

Which molecule does NOT have a polar covalent bond?

Options
H2O
H-Br
H-H
H-F

What chemical family does H2C=C=CH2 belong to?

Options
Alkane
Ether
Alkene
Alkyne

In the induced-fit model of enzyme action, a _______ must bind to the enzyme's______ for the
enzyme to perform its function.

Options
Catalyst; activation energy
Product; catalytic site
Product; active site
Substrate; active site

Which one of the following applies to a basic solution?

Options
High OH-
Low OH-
High H+
H+ = OH-
Which one of the four classes of biologically important molecules does CELLULOSE belong to?

Options
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Lipids

Amino acids are joined during a(n) __________ reaction and a(n) __________bond/linkage is formed.

Options
Hydrolysis; peptide
Condensation; amide
Neutralization; ether
Oxidation; ester

With respect to proteins, the primary structure refers to the:

Options
Helix or pleated sheet pattern of a polypeptide
Complex 3-dimensional folding pattern of a polypeptide
Interaction of more than one polypeptide chain
Ordered sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

With respect to proteins, the quaternary structure refers to the:

Options
Helix or pleated sheet pattern of a polypeptide
Complex 3-dimensional folding pattern of a polypeptide
Interaction of more than one polypeptide chain
Ordered sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

Complete the equation: glucose + fructose

Options
Maltose
Lactose
Sucrose
Cellulose

Which molecule would provide the most glucose upon hydrolysis?

Options
Galactose
Lactose
Starch
Amino acid

An athlete is tested at an Olympic event and STEROIDS are found in the bloodstream. Which class
of biologically important molecules are steroids related to?
Options
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Proteins
Lipids

Glucose + galactose produces:

Options
Lactose
Cellulose
Maltose
Sucrose

If the H from the OH group in CH3-OH is removed and replaced with a METHYL group, what
family will the molecule then belong to?

Options
Ether
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester

Which of the following is CORRECT for an exergonic reaction?

Options
More activation energy is needed than for an endergonic reaction
Less activation energy is needed than for an endergonic reaction
Products have more energy than reactants
Products have less energy than reactants

Hydrolysis is best described as the:

Options
Heating of a compound in order to drive off excess water and concentrate its volume
Breaking of a long-chain compound into subunits by adding water
Linking of two or more molecules by the removal of one or more water molecules
Constant removal of hydrogen atoms from the surface of a carbohydrate

Unlike triglycerides, phospholipid molecules:

Options
Have 1 lipid tail
Have 4 lipid tails
Have 2 lipid tails
Have 3 lipid tails

Which one of the following would convert a liquid fat to a solid fat:

Options
Add heat
Add hydrogen (hydrogenation)
Add carbon
Unsaturate it

Enzymes:

Options
Increase the rate of a chemical reaction
Are always stored in active form
Are always stored in active form
Raise activation energy

The exoskeleton of many insects is made of chitin which is a modified form of:

Options
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Protein
Nucleic acid

Electrons are shared unequally in a(n) _________ bond.

Options
Non polar covalent
Hydrogen
Ionic
Polar covalent

Myoglobin is an oxygen-carrying molecule in muscle. It consists of just one polypeptide chain.


Myoglobin lacks:

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

During the formation of the peptide bond which of the following takes place?

Options
Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Peptide bond is a

Options
Covalent bond
Ionic bond
Metallic bond
Hydrogen bond

A tripeptide has

Options
3 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds

The factor which does not affect pKa value of an amino acid is

Options
The loss of charge in the α-carboxyl and α-amino groups
The interactions with other peptide R groups
Other environmental factors
Molecular weight

The average molecular weight of an amino acid residue in a protein is about

Options
128
118
110
120

Which of the following is not the classified form of conjugated proteins?

Options
Lipoproteins
Glycoproteins
Metalloproteins
Complete proteins

Which part of the amino acid gives it uniqueness?

Options
Amino group
Carboxyl group
Side chain
None

Which of the following information is responsible to specify the three-dimensional shape of a


protein?
Options
The protein’s peptide bond
The protein’s amino acid sequence
The protein’s interaction with other polypeptides
The protein’s interaction with molecular chaperons

Unfolding of a protein can be termed as

Options
Renaturation
Denaturation
Oxidation
Reduction

What are the following is not a factor responsible for denaturation of proteins?

Options
PH change
Organic solvents
Heat
Charge

Which of the following structures is a 20:2 (Δ4,9) fatty acid?

Options
CH3(CH2)9CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)2COOH
CH3(CH2)2CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)9COOH
CH3(CH2)10CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CHCH2COOH
CH3CH2CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)10COOH

Which of the following is a characteristic of both triacylglycerols and glycerophospholipids?

Options
Both contain carboxyl groups and are amphipathic
Both contain fatty acids and are saponifiable
Both contain glycerol and ether bonds.
Both can be negatively charged at cellular pH.

Which is a characteristic of all the fatty acid components in this lipid?

Options
They all contain an unbranched carbon chain.
They all contain unconjugated cis double bonds.
They all are joined to glycerol through an ester bond.
They all are hydrophilic because they contain oxygen.

Based on its structural similarity to other lipids, this lipid most likely functions as

Options
A membrane component.
An energy storage molecule.
A sex hormone.
A vitamin required for vision. The structure of an animal cell membrane is analyzed.

Which would be a property of all the major types of lipids in this membrane?

Options
They would be saponifiable in base and hydrolyzed in acid.
They would have polar heads and non-polar tails.
They would be composed of five-carbon units.
They would be joined to each other through covalent bonds.

A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the
other side is called a(n)

Options
Nonpolar molecule.
Charged molecule.
Polar molecule.
Ion.

Which of the following is not a large biomolecule?

Options
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Ice
Nucleic acid

All of the following are examples of lipids except

Options
Oil.
Steroids.
Starch.
Candle wax.

Which molecules are most closely related to lipids?

Options
Amino acids
Fatty acids
Nucleotides
Sugars

The building blocks of most biomolecules contain the element

Options
Carbon.
Calcium.
Nitrogen.
Sodium.

Which of the following molecules are classified as carbohydrates?

Options
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Fats
Sugars

Polysaccharides are

Options
Carbohydrates.
Proteins.
Lipids
Nucleic acids.

Which of the following is a carbohydrate?

Options
ATP
Steroid
Wax
Sucrose

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to proteins?

Options
Amino acids
Monosaccharides
Nucleotides
Sugars

Long chains of amino acids are found in

Options
Carbohydrates.
Lipids.
Proteins.
Sugars.

The two types of nucleic acids are

Options
RNA and ATP.
DNA and RNA. .
DNA and ATP.
Nucleotides and ATP

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?

Options
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Fats
Sugars

Which of the following is not part of a nucleotide in a DNA molecule?

Options
Three phosphate groups
A base
A sugar
A phosphate group

The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)

Options
Active site.
Polar molecule.
Inactive site.
Substrate.

Ionic bonds form between particles that have

Options
Opposite charges.
No charges.
The same charge.
Neutral charges.

Attractions between water molecules are called

Options
Covalent bonds.
Polar bonds.
Ionic bonds.
Hydrogen bonds.
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Number of dative bonds to central metal ion is its


Options
Oxidation number
Compound number
Co-ordination number
Dative number

Ions which are produced from ligands are

Options
Cation
Anion
Complex ion
Allofthem

Different ions will split up by different compounds to given of

Options
Same colored complexes
PrevDifferent colored complexes
SkipSame density complexes
NextSame temperature complexes

Ligands which can form two coordinate bonds from each ion or molecule to transition metal ion
are known as

Options
Ligands ions
Dentate ligands
Monodentate ligands
Bidentate ligands

Due to ligands' action of splitting color of transition metal compound, this change occurs at

Options
S-orbital
D-orbital
P-orbital
F-orbital
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25. 25 expression of the Mass fraction
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Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration
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62. 62 expression of the molar concentration equivalent
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98. 98of the following species is formed in the second step of the ionization of the triprotic acid
Which
99. 99
H3PO4?
100. 100
101. 101
Options
102. 102

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 3, 3-dimethylpentane

Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 3-ethyl-2-methylhexane

Options

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 1, 2-dichloro-3-methylheptane


Options

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 2,3-dimethylpentane

Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 4-methyl-4-ethyldecane

Options

Draw the structures for the following compounds: 2-chloro-3-methyl-2-butene

Options
Draw the structures for the following compounds: trans-3,4-dimethyl-2-penten

Options

Draw the structures for the following compounds: cis-3,4,6-trimethyl-3-heptene

Options
Draw the following alkynes.4-chloro-2-pentyne

Options

Draw the following alkynes. 3-propyl-1-hexyne

Options
Draw the following alkynes.1,4-dibromo-2-pentyne

Options

Draw the following alcohols. 4-methil-2-pentanol

Options
Draw the following alcohols. 2-methil-2-propanol

Options

Find the following aldehydes. 2-methylpropanal

Options
Special name the following ketones.

Options
Ethyl methyl ketone
Diethyl ketone
Acetone
Propyl ketone

Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol
1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol
2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
1-chloro-1-methylpropan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for


Options
3-chlorobutan-3-ol
2-chlorobutan-3-ol
3-chlorobutan-2-ol
2-chlorobutan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Propan-2-ol
Butan-2-ol
Propanol
Butanol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Ethoxyethane
Methoxyethane
Ethoxybuthane
Methoxymethane

Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

Options
Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

Options

Choose correct units for rate of chemical reaction:

Options
Mol/1*sec
Sec/mol*l
L/mol*sec
Mol/j*l

For 5 seconds molar concentration of substance A changed from 3,15mol/l to 3,00 mol/l. Find
average rate of reaction for A.

Options
0,01mol/l*sec
0,02mol/l*sec
0,03mol/l*sec
0,04mol/l*sec

For certain reaction, reaction rate is 0,0012 mol/l*sec. In mol/l*min rate of this reaction will be:

Options
2*10⁻⁵
4*10⁻⁵
0,072
0,036

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes under constant pressure, is
0,03 mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 2,0mol/l. Find time of reaction, if final concentration of
A is 0,8mol/l

Options
10
20
30
40

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,04mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 1,6mol/l. Find time of reaction, if A completely expends.
Options
40
30
20
10

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,04mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of AB is 1,8mol/l. Find time of reaction, when AB concentration
will be 2,2mol/l.

Options
40
30
20
10

Choose the following aldehydes. ethanal

Options

Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

Options
Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

Options

Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

Options
Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol
2-methoxy-1-methylpropane
1-methoxy-2-methylpropane
2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

Options
Which is the correct name for

Options
1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol
2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Butanol
Propanol
Propan-1-ol
Butan-1-ol

Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

Options
Which is the correct name for

Options
1-chlorobutan-3-ol
1-chlorobutan-2-ol
4-chlorobutan-2-ol
2-chlorobutan-3-ol

Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
3-chlorobutan-1-ol
3-chloropropan-1-ol
1-chloropropan-3-ol
1-chlorobutan-3-ol

Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

Options

Which molecule is formaldehyde?

Options

Which molecule is 2- butanone?

Options
Which molecule is propanal?

Options

Which molecule is acetone?

Options

Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

Options
Ethyl methyl acetone
Methyl propyl ketone
3-hexanone
Propyl methyl ketone

Which molecule is a ketone?

Options
Which molecule is an aldehyde?

Options

What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

Options
4-heptanone
2- methyl -3- hexanone
3-heptanone
Isopropyl n-propyl ketone

An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

Options
Weakly acidic
Weakly basic
Strongly acidic
Neither acidic nor basic

Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

Options
Functional Group of Aromatic compounds:

Options

Nail polish remover contains ?

Options
Benzene
Acetic acid
Acetone
Petroleum ether

The isotope atoms differ in ?

Options
Number of protons
Atomic number
Number of electrons
Atomic weight

Which is also called Stranger Gas ?

Options
Xenon
Neon
Argon
Nitrous oxide

The chemical used as a fixer in photography is ?

Options
Sodium thio sulphate
Sodium sulphate
Borax
Ammonium sulphate

Water drops are spherical because of ?

Options
Viscosity
Density
Polarity
Surface tension

Xide of Nitrogen used in medicine as anaesthetic is ?

Options
Nitrogen pentoxide
Nitrous oxide
Nitric oxide
Nitrogen dioxide

Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen?

Options
Cadmium
Lithium
Potassium
Sodium

The most electronegative element among the following is

Options
Sodium
Bromine
Fluorine
Oxygen

The metal used to recover copper from a solution of copper sulphate is ?

Options
Na
Ag
Hg
Fe

The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called ?

Options
Roasting
Calcinations
Smelting
Froth floatation

Which of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog ?

Options
Nitrogen oxides
Hydrocarbons
Methane
Ozone
The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is ?

Options
Ethane
Ethylene
Carbon dioxide
Acetylene

The main chemical constituent of clay is ?

Options
Aluminium silicate
Zeolites
Aluminium borosilicate
Silicon oxide

Sugars are converted in the liver into

Options
Glycogen
Vitamin
Monosaccharide
None of above

Which of the following gases is the most toxic?

Options
Carbon dioxide
Sulphur dioxide
Carbon monoxide
Acetic acid

Which of the following elements behave chemically both as a metal and a non metal?

Options
Boron
Carbon
Argon
Mercury

How many different oxides are formed by nitrogen ?

Options
Two
Three
Four
Five

The major component used in preparation of different types of glasses is :


Options
Sodium borate
Sodium silicate
Silica
Calcium silicate

What is metallurgy ?

Options
Process of extracting metal in pure form from its ore.
Process of creating alloys of metals.
Process of making metals live long.
None of above.

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,02mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 1,2mol/l. Find concentration of A after 10 seconds.

Options
0.4 mol/l
0.6 mol/l
0.8 mol/l
1.0 mol/l

Which have maximum number of isotopes ?

Options
Bromine
Aluminium
Polonium
Carbon

Which prefix is often used with scientific terms to indicate that something is the same, equal or
constant

Options
Iso
Mega
Meta
Quasi

Select the one which is not a mixture

Options
Air
Gasoline
LPG
Distilled water

Which one of the following best defines the word “allotropes”?


Options
Different structural forms of an element
A pair of substances that differ by H+
Elements that possess properties intermediate between those of metals and non-metals
Atoms of a given atomic number that have a specific number of neutrons

What is the formula of the compound formed between magnesium and oxygen?

Options
MgO
Mg2O2
Mg2O3
MgO2

Which one of the following statements concerning elements in the Periodic Table is correct?

Options
Elements of the same group all have the same number of electrons in the outermost occupied
electron shell.
Elements of Group 16 occur as cations in ionic compounds.
Oxides of elements in Groups 16 and 17 are basic.
The halogens (Group 17) are all gases at room temperature.

Which one of the following substances will form strong hydrogen bonds?

Options
HCOOH
CH3CN
CCl4
SiH4

Which one of the following statements regarding a catalyst is not correct?

Options
An enzyme is a catalyst that only binds certain substrates.
An enzyme is a protein that is a highly efficient catalyst for one or more chemical reactions in
a living system.
Catalysts increase the rate of a reaction by altering the mechanism, thereby increasing the
activation energy.
An enzyme is a catalyst

What happens when a catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium?

Options
The reaction follows an alternative pathway of lower activation energy.
The heat of reaction decreases.
The potential energy of the reactants decreases.
The potential energy of the products decreases.
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Number
25. 25 of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
1
2
3
4

Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?

Options
1
2
3
4

Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?

Options
Does not have a double stranded structure
PrevThymine is present
SkipDoes not obey Chargaff’s rule
NextThe sugar contained in RNA is a ribose

Which of the following is the general formula for an alcohol?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is the general formula for a phenol (alcohol on a benzene ring)?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is a general formula for ether?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is a general formula for an amine?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

What class of compound has the following general formula: Ar—C(=O)—H?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—R’?

Options
Aldehyde
Alkene
Carboxylic acid
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—OH?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—O—R’?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—NH2?

Options
Aldehyde
Amide
Amine
Carboxylic acid

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–OH?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: C6H5–OH?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–NH2?

Options
Organic halide
Amine
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–H?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–CH2–CH3?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–OH?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–NH2?

Options
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is methanol?

Options
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Alcohol

What class of compound is butanal?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is methyl propanoate?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
What class of compound is butanone?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is ethanamide?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Amide
Ester

What class of compound is dopamine?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Amine

How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are there in the allene molecule, H2CCCH2?

Options
Six σ bonds and two π bonds
Two σ bonds and six π bonds
Four σ bonds and four π bonds
Eight σ bonds and no π bonds
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23. 23 (1/128)
24. 24
Lipids
25. 25provide insulation against cold and hot weather to exoskeleton of insects in form of
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Cutin
28
29.Waxes
29
30.Cholesterol
30
31.Oil
31
32. 32
33. 33 number of carbon atoms in chain results in higher
Greater
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Melting
36 point
37. 37
Boiling point
38. 38
39.Freezing
39 oint
40.Stability
40
41. 41
Derivatives
42. 42 of phosphatidic acid, which are composed of glycerol, fatty acids and phosphoric acids
are known
43. 43 as
44. 44
Options
45. 45
46.Phospholipids
Prev 46
47. 47
SkipAcylghycerols
48. 48
NextTriglycerides
49. 49
Esters
50. 50
In51. 51 diet, all cholesterol comes from
human
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Animal
54 products
55. 55
56.Vegetable
products
56
57.Both
57 A and B
58.None
58 of these
59. 59
Condensed
60. 60 structural formula of Palmitic acid is
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
63
64.CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
64
65. 65
66.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
66
67.CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
67
68. 68
Condensed
69. 69 structural formula of Caproic acid is
70. 70
Options
71. 71
72.CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
72
73.CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
73
74.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
74
75.CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
75
76. 76
77. 77 state of fat at room temperature is
Physical
78. 78
79. 79
Options
80.Solid
80
81. 81
Liquid
82. 82
83.Gas
83
Plasma
84. 84
85. 85
Which
86. 86of following protects our heart and kidneys from injury?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
89.Skin
89
90.Muscles
90
91.Lubricants
91
92.Fat
92
93. 93
94. 94of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone insulin?
Which
95. 95
96. 96
Options
97.Mn++
97
98. 98
Mg++
99. 99
100.Ca++
100
101.Zn++
101
102. 102
Oxidation
103. 103 of which substance in the body yields the most calories
104. 104
Options
105. 105
106.Glucose
106
107.Glycogen
107
108.Protein
108
109. 109
Lipids
110. 110
111. is
Milk 111deficient in which vitamins?
112. 112
113. 113
Options
114.Vitamin
114 C
115. 115
116.Vitamin
116 A
117.Vitamin
117 B2
118. 118
119.Vitamin
119 K
120. 120
Milk is deficient of which mineral?
121. 121
122. 122
Options
123. 123
Phosphorus
124. 124
125.Sodium
125
126.Iron
126
127.Potassium
127
128. 128
Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?

Options
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Cytoplasm
Golgi apparatus

Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

Options
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Entoplasmic reticulum

The average pH of Urine is

Options
7.0
6.0
8.0
0.0

The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of

Options
Diffusion
Effusion
Affusion
Coagulation

The key enzyme in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis is

Options
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
AMP activated proteinkinase
Proteinphosphatase
None of these

Arachidonate has 20 carbon atoms with

Options
3 doublebonds
2 doublebonds
4 doublebonds
8 doublebonds

Fatty acid synthesis takes place in

Options
Mitochondria
Cellmembrane
Cytosol
Endoplasmicreticulum

Atherosclerosis can cause blood

Options
Thinning
Clotting
Thickening
Noneofthese

Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with

Options
2 double bonds
3 double bonds
One double bond
None of these

How many ATPs are formed during complete oxidation of palmitate?

Options
35
96
129
131

Humans are unable to digest

Options
Starch
Complex carbohydrates
Denatured proteins
Cellulose

Saliva contains all of the following except

Options
Hormones
Amylase
Bacteria-killingenzymes
Antibodies

Storage polysaccharide made by animals is

Options
Amylopectin
Glycogen
Cellulose
Collagen

The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is

Options
Ribose
Galactose
Mannose
Maltose

Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to

Options
Phosphoenolpyruvate
AcetylCoA
Lactate
Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate

Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

Options
Amylose
Cellobiose
Lactose
Noneofthese

Which substance is an electrolyte?

Options
CH3OH
C6H12O6
H2O
KOH
Which compound has both ionic and covalent bonding?

Options
CaCO3
CH2C12
CH3OH
C6H12O6

Which element is composed of molecules that each contain a multiple covalent bond?

Options
Chlorine
Fluorine
Hydrogen
Nitrogen

As a bond between a hydrogen atom and a sulfur atom is formed, electrons are

Options
Shared to form an ionic bond
Shared to form a covalent bond
Transferred to form an ionic bond
Transferred to form a covalent bond

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that a carbon atom can form?

Options
1
3
2
4

Which type of bond is found between atoms of solid cobalt?

Options
Nonpolar covalent
Polar covalent
Metallic
Ionic

Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule containing polar covalent bonds?

Options
H2O
CCl4
NH3
H2

Which formula represents a polar molecule?


Options
H2
H2O
CO2
CCL4

Two hydrogen atoms form a hydrogen molecule when

Options
One atom loses a valence electron to the other atom
One atom shares four electrons with the other atom
The two atoms collide and both atoms gain energy
The two atoms collide with sufficient energy to form a bond

Which statement describes a chemical change?

Options
Alcohol evaporates.
Water vapor forms snowflakes.
Table salt (NaCl) is crushed into powder.
Glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen produce CO2 and H2O.

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) + energy Which
statement describes the energy changes in this reaction?

Options
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, only.
Energy is released as bonds are broken, only.
Energy is absorbed as bonds are broken, and energy is released as bonds are formed.
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, and energy is released as bonds are broken.

What occurs in order to break the bond in a Cl2 molecule?

Options
Energy is absorbed.
Energy is released.
The molecule creates energy.
The molecule destroys energy.

Which atom has the least attraction for the electrons in a bond between that atom and an atom of
hydrogen?

Options
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Fluorine

Which compound has the least ionic character?


Options
KCl
CaCl2
AlCl3
CCl4

Which kind of compound generally results when nonmetal atoms chemically combine with metal
atoms?

Options
Hydrogen
Ionic
Covalent
Metallic

As sodium reacts with fluorine to form the compound NaF, each sodium atom will

Options
Gain 1 electron
Gain 2 electrons
Lose 1 electron
Lose 2 electrons

Which formula correctly represents the compound calcium hydroxide?

Options
CaOH
Ca2OH
CaOH2
Ca(OH)2

A substance has a high melting point and conducts electricity in the liquid phase. This substance is

Options
Ne
Hg
NaCl
SiC

A substance that does not conduct electricity as a solid but does conduct electricity when melted is
most likely classified as

Options
An ionic compound
A molecular compound
A metal
A nonmetal

Which formula represents a molecular solid?


Options
NaCl(s)
C6H12O6(s)
Cu(s)
KF(s)

What occurs when a coordinate covalent bond is formed between nitrogen and hydrogen in the
ammonium ion, NH4 + ?

Options
Hydrogen provides a pair of electrons to be shared with nitrogen.
Nitrogen provides a pair of electrons to be shared with hydrogen.
Hydrogen transfers a pair of electrons to nitrogen.
Nitrogen transfers a pair of electrons to hydrogen.

Which type of bond would be formed when a hydrogen ion (H+ ) reacts with an ammonia
molecule (NH3)?

Options
A coordinate covalent bond
A nonpolar covalent bond
A metallic bond
An ionic bond

Which element has a crystalline lattice composed of positive ions through which electrons flow
freely?

Options
Bromine
Calcium
Carbon
Sulfur

The high electrical conductivity of metals is primarily due to

Options
High ionization energies
Filled energy levels
Mobile electrons
High electronegativities

Which is an example of a network solid?

Options
SiC(s)
CO2(s)
AgNO3(s)
Ag(s)

Which compound is a network solid?


Options
SiO2
Na2O
H2O
CO2

Which compound is a poor conductor of heat and electricity and has a high melting point?

Options
SiO2
CO2
H2O
N2O

Which combination of atoms can form a polar covalent bond?

Options
H and Br
H and H
N and N
Na and Br

Which type of bond is formed between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom in CH3OH?

Options
Ionic
Electrovalent
Polar covalent
Nonpolar covalent

In a nonpolar covalent bond, electrons are

Options
Shared equally by two atoms
Shared unequally by two atoms
Transferred from one atom to another
Located in a mobile "sea" shared by many atoms

Which substance is correctly paired with its type of bonding?

Options
NaBr–nonpolar covalent
HCl–nonpolar covalent
NH3–polar covalent
Br2–polar covalent

Hexane (C6H14) and water do not form a solution. Which statement explains this phenomenon?

Options
Hexane is polar and water is nonpolar.
Hexane is ionic and water is polar.
Hexane is nonpolar and water is polar.
Hexane is nonpolar and water is ionic.

Which formula represents a polar molecule?

Options
Br2
CO2
CH4
NH3

Which of the following is the correct formula for propene?

Options
C4H10
C3H8
C4H8
C3H6

Which of these is the formula for an alkyne?

Options
C15H30
C10H18
C20H42
C30H64

Which of the following compounds has only single bonds?

Options
Octene
C3H4
C7H16
Decyne

Which of these is the formula for an alkene?

Options
C13H26
C19H36
C50H102
C14H30

Which of the following compounds does NOT exist?

Options
Acetylene
Methene
Nonyne
Cyclopentane

Acetylene is best described as

Options
The simplest alkyne.
An alkene with two carbon atoms.
An alkyne containing only one carbon atom.
More than one of the above

The formula for butane is

Options
C3H8
C4H10
C4H8
C3H10

Which of these is NOT an isomer of 2-heptene?

Options
1-heptene
Cycloheptane
3-heptene
2-heptyne

Ethanol is sometimes called

Options
Ethyl alcohol
Isopropyl alcohol
Butanol
Ethane

Which of these alcohols is incorrectly matched with its name?

Options
C7H15OH - heptanol
C10H21OH - decanol
C8H15OH - octanol
C9H19OH - nonyl alcohol

The general formula of monosaccharides is

Options
CnH2nOn
C2nH2On
CnH2O2n
CnH2nO2n

The general formula of polysaccharides is

Options
(C6H10O5)n
(C6H12O5)n
(C6H10O6)n
(C6H10O6)n

The aldose sugar is

Options
Glycerose
Ribulose
Erythrulose
Dihydoxyacetone

A triose sugar is

Options
Glycerose
Ribose
Erythrose
Fructose

A pentose sugar is

Options
Dihydroxyacetone
Ribulose
Erythrose
Glucose

The pentose sugar present mainly in the heart muscle is

Options
Lyxose
Ribose
Arabinose
Xylose

Vitamin C is required for the production and maintenance of:

Options
Collagen
Hormone
Ascorbic Acid
Red Blood Cells
Vitamin C deficiency is leads to:

Options
Scurvy
Cold
Cancer
Rickets

Which of the following is a function of Vitamin A in the body?

Options
Vision, bone and body growth
Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin
Normal cell development and reproduction
All of the above

Common food sources of Vitamin A are:

Options
Milk, eggs, butter, cheese, cream, and liver
White sugar, honey, and sugar cane
Broccoli, apricots, cantaloupe, carrots, sweet potato, spinach
Both A and C

Vitamin B-12 deficiency caused by lack of intrinsic factor is called:

Options
Pernicious anemia
Poor circulation of the red blood cells
Beri Beri
None of the above

What groups of people need additional Vitamin K?

Options
Premature newborns
People who do not have enough bile to absorb fat
Both A and B
None of the above answers

The vitamin Folate works together with to produce new red blood cells.

Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin B-12
None of the above

Which of the following is not a water soluble vitamin?


Options
Tocopherol
Pyridoxine
Pantothenic acid
Niacin

Which of the following is not a Fat-soluble vitamin?

Options
Calciferol
Retinoids
Tocopherol
Ascorbic acid

Which of the following Vitamin is also called as Pyridoxine?

Options
Vitamin B5
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B2

Which of the following is not included in fat soluble vitamins?

Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Vitamin B

How many types of vitamins are there?

Options
Two
Three
Four
Five

Which of the following statements is true about a peptide bond (RCONHR')?

Options
It is non planar.
It is capable of forming a hydrogen bond.
The cis configuration is favoured over the trans configuration.
Single bond rotation is permitted between nitrogen and the carbonyl

Which of the following statements is untrue about protein secondary structure?

Options
The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta turns are examples of protein secondary
structure.
The ability of peptide bonds to form intramolecular hydrogen bonds is important to secondary
structure
The steric influence of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.
The hydrophilic/hydrophobic character of amino acid residues is important to secondary
structure.

Identify which of the following terms refers to the arrangement of different protein subunits in a
multiprotein complex.

Options
Primarystructure
Secondarystructure
Tertiarystructure
Quaternarystructure

Identify which of the following terms refers to the overall three dimensional shape of a protein.

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving the residue
of the amino acid serine.

Options
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals interactions
None of the above

Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving the residue
of the amino acid valine.

Options
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals interactions
None of the above

What type of ring structure is present in structures A and B?


Options
Quinoline
Purine
Naphthalene
Pyrimidine

What type of structures are the compounds (i) - (iv)?

Options
Nucleic acids
Nucleotides
Nucleosides
Deoxyriboses

On which of the following molecules would you find a codon?

Options
Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
Small nuclear RNA

On which of the following molecules would you find an anticodon?

Options
Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
Small nuclear RNA

The amino acid that has hydrocarbon branch chain is:

Options
Lysine
Cysteine
Glutamic acid
Valine

Which of the following substances can give diesters:

Options
Lysine
Serine
Glycine
Alanine

Serine is:

Options
A monoamino–monocarboxylic aromatic acid
A monoamino–dicarboxylic acid
A diamino–monocarboxylic acid
A hydroxylated amino acid

In phosphorproteins, the phosphoric acid is bound to hydroxyl groups by bonds of type:

Options
Ether
Ionic
Carbonyl
Ester

The number of water molecules, eliminated when a molecule of heptapeptide is formed, is:

Options
5
6
7
8

The following substance contains 3 oxygen atoms in the molecule:

Options
Glycine
Valine
Lysine
Cysteine

Regarding pH, the following statement is true:

Options
When mixing an acid and a base, the mixture that results has the pH = 14.
The sum of pH values of substances in a solution is always equal to 14.
The add of small quantities of acid or base to a buffer solution does not change significantly its
pH.
The solution of a weak acid has high values of pH.

Regarding pH, the following statement is true:

Options
It is a parameter characterizing the strength of an acid or a base.
It is a characteristic of each acid or base.
It is a measure of the concentration of H in an aqueous solution.
It has different values if the substance is solid or gaseous.

Acids are chemical species able to:

Options
Give molecules
Give atoms
Give protons
Give molecular hydrogen

The formic acid has the following characteristic chemical property, unlike the other saturated
carboxylic acids:

Options
Is the weakest acid
Has reducing character
Has oxidant character
Sublimates easily

With Tollens reagent, aldehydes suffer a reaction of:

Options
Oxidation
Hydrogenation
Reduction
Condensation

What can result by the reduction of a ketone?

Options
A primary alcohol
A secondary alcohol
A carboxylic acid
A compound with a mixed function alcohol – ketone

What can result by the reduction of an aldehyde?

Options
A primary alcohol
A secondary alcohol
A carboxylic acid
A compound with a mixed function alcohol – aldehyde

Which of the following compounds reacts with an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide?

Options
Methane
Propanol
Phenol
Benzene

Which of the following is a branched chain hydrocarbon?

Options
Ethene
2-methyl-2-butene
2-butene
2-pentene

The linear alkanes cannot participate to reactions of:

Options
Addition
Dehydrogenation
Oxidation
Substitution

Which of the following substances: (I) naphthalene, (II) ethanol, (III) triolein, (IV) glucose, (V)
amylopectin, (VI) glutamic acid, does not dissolve in water?

Options
I, III, VI
I, III, V
II, IV, IV
I, IV

The separating process of the components of a mixture, based on the differences between the
boiling points of the components, is possible by:

Options
Extraction
Distillation
Sublimation
Crystallization

The separation process of a solid component of a mixture, based on its property to pass through
heating direct from the solid phase into the gaseous phase, without melting, is called:

Options
Crystallization
Decantation
Sublimation
Distillation

Which of the following substances presents only primary carbon atoms in its structure?

Options
Methane
Acetylene
Ethane
Propane

How many secondary carbon atoms contain the following hydrocarbon chain? СН3-СН2- СН2-
СН2- СН3

Options
N=5
N=3
N=0
N=2

The combustion of a hydrocarbon will produce mandatory:

Options
SO2
CO2
CO
SO3

Which one of the following will exhibit highest osmotic pressure at 25°C?

Options
KCl
Glucose.
Urea.
Calcium chloride.

Unit of molarity is:

Options
Kg / litre.
Mol / litre.
Gm / litre.
None of these.

Two solutions C and D are separated by a semi-permeable membrane. If liquid flows from D to C
then.

Options
Both have same concentration.
D is less concentrated than C.
D is more concentrated than C.
None of these.

When sugar is added to water, what is the change observed in boiling and freezing points of
water?

Options
Both boiling point and freezing point decreases.
Both boiling point and freezing point increases.
Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases.
Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases.

When a solute is dissolved in water it shows:

Options
Decrease in freezing point of water.
Decrease in boiling point of water.
Increase in vapour pressure of water.
All of the above.

The boiling point of Benzene, Ethanol, Octane and Pentane are 80°C, 78°C, 126°C and 36°C
respectively. Which of the following will show highest vapour pressure at room temperature.

Options
Benzene.
Octane.
Pentane.
Entahol.

Molecular weight of non-volatile and soluble solute can be determined by:

Options
Elevation of boiling point.
Depression in freezing point.
Lowering of vapour pressure.
Osmotic pressure.
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Question (1/6)
Which can act as buffer?

Options
NH4 Cl + HCl
CH3 COOH + H2 CO3
40ml of 0.1M NaCN + 20ml of 0.1M HCN
NaCl + NaOH

NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is

Options
Not a buffer solution with pH < 7
Not a buffer solution with pH > 7
A buffer solution with pH < 7
A buffer solution with pH > 7

For an acid buffer solution the pH is 3. The pH can be increased by

Options
Increasing the concentration of salt
PrevIncreasing the concentration of acid
SkipDecreasing the concentration of salt
NextIndependent of concentration of acid & salt

Which of the following does not react with water?

Options
Barium
Calcium
Beryllium
Strontium

Which among the following statements is true about the following chemical reaction? 3Fe(s) + 4H2
O → Fe3 O4 (s) + 4H2

Options
Iron metal is getting reduced
Water is acting as a reducing agent
Water is acting as an oxidizing agent
Water is getting oxidized

Identify the products formed in the following reaction CH3 COOCH3 + H2 O → A + B

Options
CH3 COOH and CH3 OH
CH3 COOOH and CH4
CO2 and C2 H6
No reaction
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21. 21 (1/25)
22. 22
How
23. might
23 solid sodium carbonate be obtained from sodium carbonate solution?
24. 24
Options
25. 25
Centrifugation
Filtration
Evaporation
It cannot be extracted

What is the best description of blood?

Options
Sol
Foam
Solution
Aerosol

A suspension is formed from uniform particles of solid, of diameter 10 Mm, suspended in a


solvent. What is the best description of this system?
Prev
Options
Skip
Monodisperse and coarse
Next
Monodisperse and colloidal
Polydisperse and coarse
Polydisperse and colloidal

Which one of the following dispersions does not have liquid continuous phase?

Options
Nanosuspension
Microemulsion
Gel
Foam

Which one of the following systems has the smallest sized domains in its dispersed phase?

Options
Nanoemulsion
Coarse suspension
Coarse emulsion
Microemulsion

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the change in domain structure as more oil
is added to a water-in-oil emulsion?

Options
Bicontinuous, spherical, cylinder-like
Spherical, cylinder-like, bicontinuous
Spherical, bicontinuous, cylinder-like
Cylinder-like, spherical, bicontinuous

Which method for the production of dispersions involves the formation of particles from
materials dissolved in true solutions?

Options
Bottom-up
Top-down
Milling
High pressure homogenization

The scattering of light by coarse and colloidal dispersed systems is known as?

Options
Contrast matching
DLVO theory
Tyndall effect
Creaming

Which of the following is not a mechanism for the separation of a physically unstable suspension
of magnesium hydroxide in water?

Options
Flocculation
Aggregation
Ostwald ripening
Hydrolysis

In the DLVO theory of colloids, normal thermal motion may be sufficient to overcome the energy
barrier that leads to irreversible particle aggregation. The name of this energy barrier is which
one of the following?

Options
Primary maximum
Secondary maximum
Primary minimum
Secondary minimum

One of following substances that belongs to colloid system is....


Options
Milk
Mineral water
Vinegar
Salty water

Dispersed phase and dispersing medium of smoke are..

Options
Solid in liquid
Liquid in solid
Solid in gas
Gas in solid

Margarine is a colloid system of...

Options
Foam
Emulsion
Aerosol
Solid emulsion

Light scattering in colloid system is known as..

Options
Brownian Motion
Tyndall Effect
Coagulation
Electrophoresis

These following things are colloid properties, except...

Options
Composed of 2 phase
Stable
Homogeneous
Can be filtered

An _________ is a sol with the continuous phase a gas. Fog is an _________ of water droplets.

Options
Aerosol
Emulsion
Agglomerate
Electrophoresis

An _________ is a sol in which the suspended particles are liquid droplets and the continuous phase
is also a liquid. The 2 phases are immiscible, otherwise a solution would form.

Options
Aerosol
Emulsion
Agglomerate
Electrophoresis

A _________ is a sol of solid particles scattered in a liquid. Foam is a colloidal system in which gas
bubbles dispersed in a liquid or solid.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Streaming potential
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles with
each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.

Options
Magnitude
Shape
Surface
Size

Is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary liquid
induced by an external field.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Is the charged field generated by charged particles moving in a stationary liquid.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Is the generation of an electric field by locomotion of the liquid along stationary charged surfaces.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Streaming potential
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Emulsion is:
Options
Butter;
River ooze;
Stained glass;
Textile fabrics.

Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

Options
Prevent making of a colloid
Stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization
Stabilize the mixture
Enrich the aroma

Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

Options
Liquid dispersed in gas
Gas dispersed in gas
Solid dispersed in gas
Solid dispersed in liquid
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Question
23. 23 (1/46)
24. 24
Amount
25. 25 of amino acid residues in proteins ranges from
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.50-2000
28
29.2000-4000
29
30.4000-6000
30
31.7000-10,000
31
32. 32
33. 33
Polar amino acids are usually found
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.On36surface of proteins
37. 37
Inside core of proteins
38. 38
39.At39sides of proteins
40.Can
40 be present anywhere in proteins
41. 41
Sulfur
42. 42atom of cysteine is involved in formation of
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Sulfide
45 group
46.Sulfhydryl
Prev 46 group
SkipSulfite group
NextSulphates

Number of amino acids that have hydrophobic side chains are

Options
7
8
9
10

Bond formed between two amino acid molecules is

Options
Peptide bond
Sulfur linkage
Ionic bond
Coordinate covalent bond

A mutation has changed an isoleucine residue of a protein to Glutamic acid, which statement best
describes its location in a hydrophilic exterior

Options
On the surface since it is hydrophilic in nature
In side the core of the protein since it is hydrophobic in nature
Any where inside or outside
Inside the core of protein since it has a polar but uncharged side chain

Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of

Options
Hemoglobin
Myoglobin
Insulin
Collagen 3- Some proteins contain

Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the physiological pH ?

Options
Valine
Leucine
Isoleucine
None of the followings

Mother of a mal nourished child has been instructed to include a complete protein in diet for her
child, which out of the followings proteins should be recommended?

Options
Pulses
Wheat
Soy Protein
Milk

All of the below mentioned amino acids can participate in hydrogen bonding except one

Options
Serine
Cysteine
Threonine
Valine

Which out of the followings is not a fibrous protein?

Options
Carbonic anhydrase
Collagen
Fibrinogen
Keratin

Which one of the following amino acids may be considered a hydrophobic amino acid at
physiological p H of 7.4

Options
Isoleucine
Arginine
Aspartic acid
Threonine

Which of the characteristics below apply to amino acid Glycine?

Options
Optically inactive
Hydrophilic, basic and charged
Hydrophobic
Hydrophilic, acidic and charged

Which of the amino acids below is the uncharged derivative of an acidic amino acid?

Options
Cystine
Tyrosine
Glutamine
Serine

Choose the correct category for milk protein casein out of the followings

Options
Nucleoprotein
Phosphoprotein
Lipoprotein
Glycoprotein

Which of the following statements about amino acids is correct?

Options
Amino acids are classified according to the structures and properties of their side chains.
Amino acids are uncharged at neutral pH.
Amino acids in proteins are mainly in the D-configuration.
Twenty four amino acids are commonly used in protein synthesis.

Which type of bonding is responsible for the secondary structure of proteins?

Options
Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues.
Hydrogen bonding between the C=O and N-H groups of peptide bonds.
Peptide bonds between amino acids.
Salt bridges between charged side chains of amino acids

Which term below best defines the 'quaternary structure' of a protein?

Options
The arrangement of two or more polypeptide subunits into a single functional complex
The folding of the polypeptide backbone in three-dimensional space.
The interaction of amino acid side chains.
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

Which of the following most accurately describes how secondary structures in proteins are
stabilised?

Options
Through ionic bonds operating between oppositely charged amino acid side chains.
Through covalent bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.
Through hydrogen bonds between different amino acid side chains.
Through hydrogen bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.

Which amino acid can form disulphide bonds?

Options
Glycine.
Proline.
Glutamate.
Cysteine.

Which of the following statements is false?

Options
Primary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
Secondary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
Three dimensional structure of a protein determines the function of a protein
Amino acid sequence is absolutely invariant for a particular protein

Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?

Options
Frederick Sanger
Mendel
Watson and Francis Crick
Anton van Leeuwenhoek

Tertiary conformation of proteins is maintained by 3 types of bonds namely ionic, hydrogen and

Options
Sulfide
Disulfide
Covalent
Peptide

Hemoglobin is a

Options
Monomer
Dimer
Trimer
Tetramer

Native state of a protein can be disrupted by

Options
Temperature
PH
Removal of water
Presence of hydrophilic surfaces

Identify the wrong statement

Options
Hemoglobin is a globular protein
Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein
Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water
Collagen is a fibrous protein

1In 3° structure of proteins, folding and shaping is done by

Options
Hydrophobic interactions
Polar interactions
Hydrogen bonding
None of the mentioned

β-pleated sheets are the examples of

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the same
chain is

Options
Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure

A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side is

Options
Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure

Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups

Options
Phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan
Glycine, alanine, leucine
Lysine, arginine, histidine
Serine, threonine, cysteine

The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are

Options
Aspartate and glutamate
Arginine and histidine
Cysteine and methionine
Proline and valine

Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid?

Options
Serine
Threonine
Lysine
Histidine

Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

Options
Cysteine
Asparagine
Glutamine
Phenylalanine

Which of the following is an imino acid?

Options
Alanine
Glycine
Proline
Serine

Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is

Options
1
2
3
4

Which of the following are an example of epimers?

Options
Glucose & Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
A&c

Fructose and Glucose can be distinguished by

Options
Selwinoff’s reagent
Benedict’s reagent
Fehling’s reagent
Barfoed’s reagent

Which of the following is an example of monosaccharide?

Options
Galactose
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose

Which of the following is an example of disaccharide?

Options
Glucose
Fructose
Galactose
Maltose

In maltose, between which of the following carbons there is a linkage?

Options
C1, C2
C2, C3
C1, C4
C2, C4
Which of the following carbohydrates is a triose?

Options
Glucose
Ribose
Ribulose
Glyceraldehyde

Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following sugar units?

Options
Glucose and fructose
Glucose and galactose
Glucose and sucrose
Glucose and ribose

In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants?

Options
Glycogen
Starch
Dextrin
Cellulose

In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in liver?

Options
Glycogen
Starch
Dextrin
Cellulose

Which of the following are the storage polysaccharides?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Glucose
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22. 22
Question
23. 23 (1/87)
24. 24
The
25.addition
25 of a catalyst to the reaction system
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Increases
28 the rate of forward reaction only
29.Increases
29 the rate of reverse reaction
30.Increases
30 the rate of forward but decreases the rate of backward reaction
31.Increases
31
the rate of forward as well as backward reaction equally
32. 32
On33. 33
increasing the temperature the rate of reaction increases mainly because
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.The
36 activation energy of the reaction increases
37. 37
Concentration of the reacting molecules increases
38. 38
39.Collision
39 frequency increases
40.None
40 of these
41. 41
The
42.value
42 of activation energy is primarily determined by
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Temperature
45
46. 46
PrevEffective collision
47. 47
SkipConcentration of reactants
48. 48
NextChemical nature of reactants and products
49. 49
50. of
Sum 50exponents of molar concentration is called
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Order
53 of reaction
54. 54
55.Molecularity
55
56. 56 of reaction
Rate
57.Average
57 of reaction
58. 58
In59.
rate59expression the concentration of reactants is negative. It shows
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Concentration
62 of reactant does not change
63.Concentration
63 of product increases
64.Concentration
64
of reactant decreases
65. 65
66.Concentration
66 of reactant increases
67. 67
Unit of rate of reaction is
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
Moles dm-3 sec-1
71. 71
72.Moles
72 sec-1
73.Moles
73 dm-3
74.Mol-1
74 dm-3 sec-1
75. 75
Rate
76. of
76disappearance of reactant is equal to
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Rate
79 of reaction
80.Energy
80 released during reaction
81. 81
Rate of formation of product
82. 82
83.A 83
and b
84. 84
Radiations are absorbed in
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
Spectrophotometer method
Optical relation method
Dilatometric method
Refractometric method

Activated complex is formed due to

Options
Pressure
Ineffective collisions
Effective collision
Temperature

Energy required to form transition state is called

Options
Ea
V
P.E
K.E

Which of the following will have very high rate of reaction?

Options
Double decomposition reaction
Ionic reactions
Neutralization reaction
All of above

Greater the concentration of reactant

Options
Greater will be dx/dt
Dx/dt will be moderate
Lesser will be dx/dt
Any of above

Anything which increases rate of reaction without being involved in the reaction

Options
Promoter
Inhibitor
Catalyst
All of the above

The substances that reduces the effectiveness of a catalyst are called

Options
Promoters
Inhibitors
Poisoning catalysts
Pro-catalysts

When catalysts and reactants are in more than one phase it is

Options
Homogeneous catalysis
Heterogeneous catalysis
Catalysis
Ea

Each catalyst has

Options
Specificity
Its own Ea
Special structure
All of above

Biocatalytical proteins are

Options
Enzymes
Lipids
Substrate
Any of above

A catalyst can not effect

Options
Products
Chemical equilibrium
Reactants
Both a & b

An enzyme has its specificity due to

Options
Substrate
Temperature
Structure
Pressure

When the reaction completes in more than one steps rate of reaction will be determined by

Options
Fast step
Slowest step
All steps
Molecularity of the reaction

Energy of activation for backward reaction is less than forward reaction for ________ reaction

Options
Endothermic
Exothermic
Moderate
Fast

Which statement is incorrect about catalyst

Options
It is used in smaller amount
Decrease activation energy
Specific in action
It affects specific rate constant

Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

Options
2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
Cl2 → 2Cl
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
2HI → H2 + I2
HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


Options
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
2HI → H2 + I2
L2 → 2Cl

Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

Options
The point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;
The point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;
The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;
The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous solutions:

Options
Solubility product constant (Ksp);
Acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
Molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
Molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) shifted to reactants, if:

Options
Temperature will be increased
Pressure will be decreased
Concentration of ammonia will be decreased
Concentration of hydrogen will be increased.

Rate of decomposition of H2O2 will increase if:

Options
Temperature will be increased
Inhibitor will be added
Solvent will be added
Temperature will be decreased

Rate of chemical reaction between gases with increase of pressure, in common:

Options
Increase
Decrease
Remain the same
All of this is possible

For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, increasing of chemical rate of forward reaction is
IMPOSSIBLE if we’ll increase:

Options
Temperature
Pressure
Concentration of hydrogen
Concentration of ammonia

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH shifted to product, if we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Decrease temperature
Decrease concentration of nitrogen

Which factor will effect on shifting of chemical equilibrium for reaction Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) = 3Fe(s)
+ 4H2O(g):

Options
Adding catalyst to system
Changing of pressure
Changing of Fe3O4 concentration
Increasing of hydrogen concentration

Rate of chemical reaction Mg with acetic acid will NOT increase, if we’ll:

Options
Use Mg powder
Increase temperature
Decrease temperature
Add HI to system, as catalyst

For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H process, increasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

Options
Shifting of equilibrium to reactants
Increasing reaction rate for forward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction
Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction

For N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH process, decreasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

Options
Shifting of equilibrium to reactants
Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for forward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction

For reaction 2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2- ΔH shifting equilibrium to product is impossible, if we’ll:

Options
Decrease temperature
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Increase concentration of oxygen

Pressure changing will NOT effect for reaction:

Options
FeO(s) + CO(g) = Fe(s) + CO2(g
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
2CO(g) + O2(g) = 2CO2(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

Decreasing of pressure shifts equilibrium to products in case:

Options
FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)
CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

Increasing of concentration of reactants shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
Fe(s) + H2O(g) = FeO(s) + H2(g)
H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI

Increasing of temperature shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
2NH3(g) = N2(g) +3H2(g)+ ΔH
2H2(g) + O2 = 2H2O – H
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Decrease pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase concentration of CO2
Increase pressure

For reaction C(s) + 2N2O(g) = 2N2(g) + CO2(g)- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is possible, due
these factors:

Options
Increasing of pressure; decreasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; increasing N2O concentration
Increasing of pressure; decreasing CO2 concentration
Increasing of pressure; decreasing N2O concentration

With the highest rate of chemical reaction, next oxidation reaction will go:

Options
Cu on air in standard conditions
Cu on pure O2 with temperature elevation
Mg on air in normal temperature
Mg on pure O2 with temperature elevation

To increase product’s yield of reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, one should:

Options
Decrease pressure
Add catalyst
Increase concentration of hydrogen
Increase temperature

For reaction SO2 + O2 = SO3 – H, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, due these factors:

Options
Increasing of pressure; Increasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; Decreasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; Increasing of temperature
Increasing of pressure; Decreasing of temperature

For reaction SO32-(sol) + H2O = HSO3- (sol)+ OH-(sol)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is
impossible, if we’ll:

Options
Add an acid
Add a water
Add an alkali
Increase temperature

Decreasing of volume will NOT shift equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3(sol)
H2SO3(sol) = H2O(l) + SO2(g)
2NH3(g) = N2(g) + 3H2(g)

Increasing of volume will shift equilibrium to products in case:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)
2C(s) + O2(g) = 2CO(g)
H2SO3(sol) = H2O(l) + SO2(g)
BaO(s) +CO2(g) = BaCO3(g)

If temperature is increased, then:

Options
Rate of exothermic as well as endothermic reactions is increases.
Rate of exothermic reactions is increases but decreases for endothermic reactions
Rate of endothermic reactions is increases but decreases for exothermic reactions
Rate of exothermic as well as endothermic reactions is decreases.

For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Decrease pressure
Increase H2CO3 concentration

Changing of concentration of A will NOT effecton rate of reaction:

Options
A(g) + B(g) = AB(g)
2A(g) + B(g) = A2B(g)
2A(s) + 2B(g) = 2AB(s)
A(g) + 2B(g) = AB2(g)

Rate of homogeneous exothermic reaction of ammonia synthesis CANNOT be increased, if we’ll

Options
Increase temperature
Use catalyst
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature

Choose the main reason of reaction rate elevation though temperature increase.

Options
Number of molecular collisions is increased
Activation energy is increased
Activation energy is decreased
Number of active molecules is increased

Addition of catalyst increases reaction rate due to:

Options
Activation energy is increased
Activation energy is decreased
Number of active molecules is decreased
Enthalpy of reaction is increased
Addition of catalyst increases reaction rate of:

Options
Only straight reaction
Only backward reaction
Both types: straight and backward reactions
For homogeneous reactions

When system moves to equilibrium…

Options
Rates of forward and backward reactions are increases.
Rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward decreases
Rate of backward reaction increases and rate forward of decreases
Rates of forward and backward reactions are decreases

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g), if temperature is increased, shifts to reactants.


Why?

Options
Because rate of backward reaction increases and rate forward of decreases
Rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward decreases
Rates of forward and backward reactions are increases, but in greater degree increases for
backward reaction
Rates of forward and backward reactions are decreases, but in greater degree decreases for
forward reaction

For reaction HNO2 + H2O = H3O+ + NO2 + ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease temperature
Increase temperature
Add to system some acid
Increase pressure

For reaction CO(g) + 2H2(g) = CH3OH(l)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease pressure
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Increase CO concentration

Increasing of pressure and decreasing of temperature separately will NOT shift equilibrium in
same direction:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H
2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2 – H
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H

Increasing of temperature and decreasing of pressure separately will shift equilibrium in same
direction:

Options
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl – H
2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2 – H
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl + ΔH

Industrial synthesis of sulfur oxide (VI) SO2 + O2 = SO3 – H is carried out at high temperaturein
order to:

Options
Shift equilibrium to right
Shift equilibrium to left
Increase rate of reaction
Decrease activation energy of process

For reaction 2HgO(s)= 2Hg(s) + O2(g)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Increase temperature
Increase pressure
Increase O2 concentration
Decrease temperature

For reaction FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)- ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if
we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase concentration of FeO
Increase concentration of H2O

Find correct statement:

Options
The higher activation energy of reaction, the higher reaction rate
The lower activation energy of reaction, the higher reaction rate
Reaction rate doesn’t depend on activation energy of reaction
Enthalpy of reaction depends on number of steps of reaction

How reaction rate changes for reaction Mg + 2HCl = MgCl2 + H2, if piece of Mg (1 g) will break into
1000 same blocs?

Options
Remain the same
Increase 10 times
Increase 100 times
Increase 1000 times

For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g), shifting equilibrium to products is impossible, if we’ll add
to system:

Options
Ammonia
HCl
N2
H2

For one-step reaction rate equation is v=kc(A2) That reaction is…

Options
B2(g) + A2(g) = 2AB
2B2(g) + A2 = 2B2A(g)
B(s) + A2(g) = BA2(g)
2BA2(g) + A2(g) = 2BA2(g)

Reaction rate of forward reaction A2(g) + 3B2(g) = 2AB3(g), that was found from concentration
changes of A, is 0,01mol/l*sec. Calculate reaction rate from concentrations of B2 and AB3:

Options
0,02 and 0,01
0,03 and -0,02
0,03 and 0,02
0,02 and 0,04

How many times rate of reaction A2(g) + B2(g) = 2AB(l) changes, if concentration of A2 increases
for 3 times.

Options
3
6
9
12

For reaction 2A2(g) + B2(g) = 2A2B(g), if concentration of A2 decreases for 3 times, how reaction
rate will change?

Options
Increase for 3 times
Decrease for 3 times
Increase for 9 times
Decrease for 9 times

How many times pressure should be increased, if we want speed up reaction A(g) + 2B(g) =
2AB2(g) for 125 times?
Options
5
25
100
125

For reaction A + B = AB, if pressureincreases for 4 times, how reaction rate will change?

Options
Remain the same
Increases for 8 times
Increases for 4 times
Increases for 16 times

Increasing concentration of A for 2 times will lead to reaction rate increasing for 4 times, in
reaction…

Options
A2(g) + B2(g) = 2AB(g)
A2(g) + B(s) = BA2(s)
2A2(g) = B(g)
2A2(s) = B(g) + 2C(g)

224.Volume of exuded H2, in reaction between Fe and H2SO4(sol), if piece of Fe (10g) will break in
125 cubes, increases for:

Options
2 times
5 times
15 times
125 times

Solvents can be…

Options
Liquid
Gaseous
Solid
Every one of these types

Solutions, in difference with pure substances…

Options
Homogeneous
Instable
Have constant composition
Can be colored or colorless

If in solution, in certain conditions, can be added an extra quantity of solute, then this solution
cannot be…
Options
Concentrated
Diluted
Saturated
Unsaturated

After addition an extra quantity of solute to solution, it did not dissolve. Then we can say, that
solution:

Options
Diluted
Concentrated
Saturated
Unsaturated

On solubility of solid substances in liquids doesn’t affect:

Options
Temperature
Nature of solute
Nature of solvent
Stirring

For reaction 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2 (g) - ΔH, shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease pressure
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase CO concentration
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Question
27. 27 (1/285)
28. 28
Which
29. 29of the following statements is true?
30. 30
Options
31. 31
32.NaCl
32 is a neutral salt;
33.KOH
33 is an acid;
34.HCl
34 and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.
35.NaBr
35 is basic salt.
36. 36
37. 37
Functional Group of Ether:
38. 38
39. 39
Options
40.H40–C=O
41. 41
C–O–C
42. 42
43.C 43
–C
44.C 44
–X
45. 45
Which
46. 46pairing is not a set of conjugates?
47. 47
Options
48. 48
49.OH-
49 and H2O;
50.HC2H3O2
50 and C2H3O2-;
51.HCl
51 and Cl-;
52.NH3
52 and NH4+;
53. 53
54. 54
Functional
Prev Group of Aldehyde:
55. 55
Skip
56. 56
Options
Next
57.C 57
– CO - C
58. 58
C – CH = O
59. 59
60.C 60
–X
61.O61
= C – OH
62. 62
Which
63. 63reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?
64. 64
Options
65. 65
66.HF
66+ LiOH → H2O + LiF;
67.2HCl
67 + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2;
68. 68
2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2
69. 69
70.K2O
70 + H2O → 2KOH;
71. 71
Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?
72. 72
73. 73
Options
74. 74
75.KOH
75 is potassium hydroxide;
76.H2SO3
76 is sulfurous acid;
77.HI77is hydroiodic acid;
78.HClO2
78 is chloric acid
79. 79
80. 80salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?
Which
81. 81
Options
82. 82
83.AgCl;
83
84.PbBr2;
84
85. 85
Ca3(PO4)2;
86. 86
87.Na2CO3
87
88. 88
A 89.
solution
89 of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:
90. 90
91. 91
Options
92. 92
93.Unsaturated;
93
94.Supersaturated;
94
95.Saturated
95
96.Dilute
96
97. 97
98.net
The 98 ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate and
99.
sodium 99 chloride would include all of the following except:
100. 100
Options
101. 101
102.Cl-;
102
103.2Na+;
103
104. 104
CaCO3d
105. 105
106.All
106of the substances above
107. 107
Functional
108. 108 Group of Ketone:
109. 109
Options
110. 110
111.C-CO-C
111
112.C 112
–X
113.C 113
– OH
114.#NAME?
114
115. 115
Which
116. 116solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?
117. 117
Options
118. 118
119.1.5
119
m NaCl;
120.1.5
120
m AgCl;
121. 121
2.0 m C6H12O6;
122. 122
123.2.0 m CaCl2
123
124. 124
Functional Group of Amine:
125. 125
126. 126
Options
127. 127
128.C 128
– NR – R’
129.O129
= C – OH
130.H130
–C=O
131.C 131
– OH
132. 132
133. 133
Which equation is correctly balanced?
134. 134
Options
135. 135
136.Na136
+ Cl2 → 2NaCl;
137.CH4
137+ 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;
138. 138
2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;
139. 139
140.H2SO4
140 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;
141. 141
Functional
142. 142 Group of Amide:
143. 143
Options
144. 144
145.O145
= C – OH
146.C 146
– NR – R’
147.H147
–C=O
148.HOC
148– NR – R’
149. 149
150. 150has lowest oxidation number in
Sulphur
151. 151
Options
152. 152
153.H2SO3
153
154.SO2
154
155. 155
156.H2SO4
156
H2S
157. 157
158. 158
Functional
159. 159 Group of Nitrile:
160. 160
Options
161. 161
162.- C≡N
162
163.O163
= C – OH
164.C 164
– NR – R’
165.HOC
165– NR – R’
166. 166
167. 167
Amino acides are building blocks of:
168. 168
Options
169. 169
170.Ketones
170
171. 171
Aldehydes
172. 172
173.Proteins
173
Ethers
174. 174
175. 175
Which
176. 176of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
177. 177
Options
178. 178
179.H2S
179
180.SO3
180
181.H2O2
181
182.F2182
183. 183
184. 184 are composed of:
Proteins
185. 185
186. 186
Options
187.20187
different amino acids
188. 188
15 different amino acids
189. 189
190.15190
different aldehydes
191.17191
different ethers
192. 192
Which
193. 193of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
194. 194
Options
195. 195
196.O3196
197.KMnO4
197
198.H2O2
198
199.K2Cr2O7
199
200. 200
201.
In the201
redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
202. 202
203. 203
Options
204.X=2
204y=4 z=10
205. 205
X=2 y=6 z=5
206. 206
207.X=2
207y=3 z=8
208.X=2
208y=3 z=10
209. 209
Reduction
210. 210 involves
211. 211
Options
212. 212
213.Loss
213of electrons
214.Gain
214 of electrons
215.Increase
215 in the valency of positive part
216. 216
Decrease in the valency of negative part
217. 217
218. 218 type of α-amine acid - triptophane
Determine
219. 219
220. 220
Options
221.Essential
221
222.Non-essential
222
223. 223
Semi- essential
224. 224
225.None
225 of these
226. 226
Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine
227. 227
228. 228
Options
229. 229
Aliphatic
230. 230
231.Aromatic
231
232.Heterocyclic
232
233.Complex
233
234. 234
The
235.strongest
235 reducing agent is
236. 236
Options
237. 237
238.HNO2
238
239.H2S
239
240. 240
H2SO3
241. 241
242.SnCl2
242
243. 243
Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of sugar rest
244. 244
245. 245
Options
246. 246
247.C1247
248.C2248
249.C3249
250.C4250
251. 251
252. 252 acid exists in form of cation in
α-Amine
253. 253
Options
254. 254
255.Acidic
255 medium
256.Neutral
256 medium
257. 257
Basic medium
258. 258
259.Any
259medium
260. 260
An electrolyte
261. 261 is one
262. 262
Options
263. 263
264.Which
264 conducts electric current
265.Which
265 is capable of ionization by passing electric current
266.Which
266 dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
267.None
267 of the above
268. 268
269. 269 acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in
α-Amine
270. 270
Options
271. 271
272.Acidic
272 medium
273.Neutral
273 medium
274. 274
275.Basic
275 medium
276.Any
276medium
277. 277
278. 278
Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to
279. 279
280. 280
Options
281.Dilution
281
282. 282
Number of ions
283. 283
284.Current
284 density
285.Volume
285 of the solution

How many α-amine acidrests are in polypeptide

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:

Options
-1/3
-1
+1
-3

Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides

Options
Coordination
Ionic
Hydrogen
Hydrofobic

Which of the following is an insulator?

Options
Graphite
Aluminium
Diamond
Silicon

Choose peptide bond

Options
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
-C-C-

In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O

Options
X=4 y=6
X=8 y=3
X=8 y=6
X=3 y=8

Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O

Options
10
8
5
2

Lactose is

Options
Monose
Unreducing disaccharide
Amine acid
Reducing disaccharide

Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

Options
F2
Cl2
Br2
I2

Oxidation involves

Options
Loss of electrons
Gain of electrons
Increase in the valency of negative part
Decrease in the valency of positive part

Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

Options
Oxidation
Reduction
Esterification
Transamination
Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of

Options
Aldose
Pyranose
Fructose
Furanose

Glicaric acids are produced under action of

Options
Mild oxidant
Strong reductant
Mildreductant
Strong oxidant

Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide

Options
Coordination
Ionic
Hydrogen
Glycoside

Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms

Options
C5 and N1
C1 and N9
C3 and N9
C1 and N1

Components of nucleotide

Options
Protein
Amine acid rest
OH
Thymine

Monomeric link of protein

Options
Sugar rest
Isoprene
Amine acid rest
Ethylene

Unsaponified lipids are


Options
Mono-component
Di-component
Three-component
Poly-component

DNA contains

Options
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis

Options
Alcohols, carboxylicacids
Carboxylicacids
Alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

Determine type of α-amine acid - valine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of

Options
Transamination
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation

α-amine acid exists in form of anion in

Options
Acidic medium
Neutral medium
Basic medium
Any medium

How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is

Options
-2
-1
0
-4

The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:

Options
SO2
CaO
Al2O3
CrO3

In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers

Options
Intermolecular
Intramolecular
Disproportion
None of them

Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?

Options
CH3COONa
C2H5OH
NaCl
KOH

Element accepting electrons is called

Options
Product
Oxidant
Reactant
Reductant

One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:

Options
F
Cl
He
Na

The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:

Options
-3 to +5
-1 to +1
-3 to -5
-5 to +1

Strong electrolytes are those which

Options
Dissolve readily in water
Conduct electricity
Dissociate into ions at high dilution
Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

Which of the following conducts electricity?

Options
Crystal NaCl
Diamond
Molten KBr
Sulphur

How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at

Options
Anode
Cathode
Both A & B
The surface of the electrolyte solution

Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins

Options
Coordination
Hydrofobic
Glycoside
Metallic

Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Choose disulphide bond

Options
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
–C-C-

Oxidation Number of Halogens are:

Options
-1
-2
4
0
How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose

Options
1
2
3
4

Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:

Options
1
-2
-4
0

Sucrose is

Options
Monose
Unreducing disaccharide
Amine acid
Reducing disaccharide

Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by

Options
Oxidation
Reduction
Esterification
Transamination

Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


Options
Transamination
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation

In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation number

Options
Intermolecular
Double exchange
Intramolecular
Disproportion

In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed

Options
Intermolecular
Double exchange
Counter disproportion
Disproportion

Gliconic acids are produced under action of

Options
Mild oxidant
Strongreductant
Mildreductant
Strong oxidant

Element loosing electrons is called

Options
Product
Oxidant
Reactant
Reductant

Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides

Options
Glycozides
Acids
Polyols
Salts

Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms:

Options
C5 and N1
C1 and N9
C3 and N9
C1 and N1

Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:

Options
The interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
The heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
The scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
The study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems
in terms of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

Components of nucleoside

Options
Phosphate group
Carbonyl group
Thymine
Sugar rest

In what case there is an oxidation process:

Options
KMnO4→MnO2;
HNO2→NO2;
Cl2O→HCl;
P→H3PO4.

Monomeric link of terpene

Options
Sugar rest
Isoprene
Amine acid res
Ethylene

Point out the correct statements:

Options
A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl →
CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O

Options
1
6
14
3

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

Options
Mn(OH)2;
MnO42-;
MnO2;
Mn2+.

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

Options
Fe2O3 + HCl;
FeCl3+H2S;
Fe+ HCl;
SO3+NaOH.

Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction: KMnO4 + H2O2
+H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

Options
2
5
10
3

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:

Options
Accepts electrons;
Donates electrons;
Increases its oxidation number;
Decreases its concentration

Saponified lipids are

Options
Mono-component
Three-component
Without any component
Poly-component

Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consistsfromzinc consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:

Options
Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

Options
1+;
2+;
0;
1-;

RNA contains

Options
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?

Options
HCl;
KClO3;
HClO2;
KClO4

Simple lipids form under hydrolysis

Options
Alcohols, carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids
Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

Options
Al;
Fe3+
Fe3+Al3+;
Al3+ Fe3+;

Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine:

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

Options
Loses 1 electron;
Loses 1 proton;
Gains 1 electron;
Gains 1 proton

Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

Options
Cr;
Ni2+;
Cr3+;
Ni

Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

Options
2
3
5
10

Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

Options
It allows ion migration;
It allows neutron migration;
It allows electron migration;
It prevents ion migration;

Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

Options
Br2;
Cl2;
F2;
I2

Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is called:

Options
Neutralization;
Esterification;
Electrolysis;
Hydrolysis

Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

Options
In molecule of cytochrome b
In molecule of vitamin B12
In molecule of catalase
In molecule of vitamin B6

Determine type of α-amine acid - serine:

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

Options
Enzyme catalase
Enzyme superoxide dismutase
Cytochrome P450
Glutathione peroxidase

Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

Options
Hypervitaminosis
Hypovitaminosis
Avitaminosis
Acidosis

Determine type of α-amine acid – serine;

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Vitamin A deficiency can cause:

Options
Xeroftalmia
Increased blood coagulation
Growth acceleration
Anemia

The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin B1
Vitamin K
Thiamine

Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

ZnO is used as

Options
Protective
Astringent
Both (a) & (b)
Antidote

Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

Options
Oxidation
Halogenation
Protein precipitate
All of the above

Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine;

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Hydrogen peroxide is used as

Options
Antiseptic
Acidifying agent
Protective
Antioxidant

Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

KMnO4 solutions are used for

Options
Antibacterial
Antifungal
Both of the above
Antioxidant

Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these elements:

Options
C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;
H, P, S, C, O, N;
O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;
H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

Choose biogenic macroelement

Options
Cu
P
Br
As

Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar
Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Choose biogenic microelement

Options
Cu
S
Ca
Mg

Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

Options
Rayon
Insulin
Gun cotton
Paper

Complex lipids form under hydrolysis


Options
Alcohols, carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids
Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -3 cm
10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
Less than 10 -7 cm

Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

Options
1
2
3
4

Six major biogenic elements :

Options
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table

Fatty acids are

Options
Unsaturated dicarboxylic acids
Long-chain alkanoic acids
Aromatic carboxylic acids
Aromatic dicarboxylic acids

Five minor biogenic elements:

Options
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called


Options
Proteins
Terpenes
Carbohydrates
Soaps

Trace elements:

Options
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

Soap is

Options
A mixture of salts of fatty acids
A salt of glycerol
A mixture of ethers
A mixture of aromatic ethers

Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:

Options
10-7% - 10-12%
10-9%
10-3– 10-5 %
10-2%

Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:

Options
10-2%
10-3– 10-5 %
10-9%
10-7% - 10-12

Fats and oils are

Options
Monoesters of glycerol
Diesters of glycerol
Triesters of glycerol
Diesters of glycol

Choose biogenic microelement

Options
O
S
N
Zn

Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

Options
More unsaturation
Higher melting points
A glycerol backbone
Longer fatty acids

Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

Options
12 carbons
14 carbons
16 carbons
18 carbons

Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

Options
Hydrogenation
Saponification
Hydrolysis
Oxidation of double bonds

Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:

Options
1
3
-1
-3

Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

Options
Vanaspati ghee
Margarine
Both of these
None of these

Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

Options
Saponification
Fermentation
Diazotization
Rancidification

Saponification of a fat

Options
Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps
Produces glycerol and soap
Is used in the production of detergents
Is used in the production of lactic acid

Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

Options
Fats
Waxes
Soaps
Oils

The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

Options
Iodine number
Octane number
Saponification number
Melting point

Zwitterion is

Options
An ion that is positively charged in solution
An ion that is negatively charged in solution
A compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid
A carbohydrate with an electrical charge

A coordination compound consists of

Options
A metal ion and counterions
Ligands bound to counterions
A complex ion and counterions
A metal ion bound to one or more ligands

The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:

Options
0
4
3
6

A zwitterions has which of the following properties

Options
No net charge
A high melting point
Soluble in water
All of these

Name the following coordination compound: K4[Fe(CN)6]

Options
Name the following coordination compound: K4[Fe(CN)6]
Potassium cyanoferrate(II)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)

An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:

Options
Carbonion
Zwitterions
Carbonium ions
Free radicals

The coordination number is:

Options
The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
The number of positively charged particles in the complex

Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

Options
Carbonyl compounds
Amino acids
Phenols
Heterocyclic compounds

Number of hem sections in mioglobin

Options
1
2
3
4

The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric field is
known as its:

Options
Isoelectric point
Dipole moment
Iodine number
Wave length

Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2

Options
Cationic
Anionic
Monodentate
Neutral

The isoelectric point of a protein is

Options
The pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface
The pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges
The electric charge number under isothermal conditions
None of these

Glycine is

Options
NH2CH2COOH
NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2
NO2 CH2CH2 COOH
Br CH2 COOH

Ethylenediamine would be called

Options
Dentate
Bidentate
Tridentate
Tetradentate

Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

Options
Has no chiral carbon
Has a sulphur containing R group
Cannot form a peptide bond
Is an essential amino acid
Proteins are

Options
Polyamides
Polymers of ethylene
α-Aminocarboxylic acids
Polymers of propylene

The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

Options
C,H,O,P,S
N,C,H,O,I
N,S,C,H,O
C,H,O,S,I

Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

Options
Peptide linkage
Ester linkage
Ether linkage
α,β-Linkage

Name the following coordination compound: [Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3

Options
Triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
Triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
Triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
Amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

Which of the following are bidentate ligands? (1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide (2) ammonia,
NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2- (3) chloride, Cl- (6) en

Options
1, 4, 5
1, 5, 6
1, 6
2, 3, 4, 5

The primary structure of a protein refers to:


Options
Whether the protein is fibrous or globular
The amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain
The orientation of the amino acid side chains in space
The presence or absence of an α-helix

The α-helix is a common form of

Options
Primary structure
Tertiary structure
Secondary structure
None of these

What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?

Options
0
1+
2+
3+

Number of hem sections in hemoglobin

Options
1
2
3
4

The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

Options
Optical activity
Hydrogen bonding
Resonance
Delocalization

Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound

Options
Central ion
Ligands
Outer sphere ions
All constituents

Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements

Options
Does’tchang
Increases
Decreasis
None

The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

Options
Sulphur-sulphur linkages
Peptide bonding
Hydrogen bonding
Glycosidic bonds

Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps

Options
0
1
2 and more
Always without steps

Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

Options
Amino acids
Hydroxyl acids
Fatty acids
Alcohols

Dentantness of porfyrin

Options
2
3
4
5

Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

Options
Ammonia and carbon dioxide
Urea and uric acid
A mixture of amino acids
Glycogen and a fatty acid

Nynhydring test is given by

Options
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Alkanes
Alkenes

Particles playing role of ligands are

Options
Positive ions
Chelates
Negative ions
Complex ions

Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

Options
Ninhydrin test
Biuret test
Xanthoproteic tes
Tollens test

A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is called

Options
Xanthoproteic test
Ninhydring test
Biuret test
Million’s test

A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its formula.

Options
[Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
[Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
[ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
[CrCl2(H2O)4]

What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?

Options
1
3
-2
0

A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

Options
A protein
An amino acid
A monosaccharide
Pyridine

Monosaccharides are classified according to

Options
The number of carbon atoms in the molecule
Whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group
Their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes
All of the above

Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?

Options
Carbonyl;
Nitro;
Acetate;
Oxalate.

Which is a monosaccharide?

Options
Sucrose
Maltose
Galactose
Cellulose

Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride

Options
[Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
[(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
[(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
[Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

Which is a disaccharide?

Options
Glucose
Maltose
Fructose
Cellulose

Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

Options
Ribose
Fructose
Sucrose
Glucose
The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

Options
Indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light
Indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate
Indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group
Indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?

Options
Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?

Options
Tetraamminecopper(II)
Coppertetraammine (II)
Tetraammine(II)copper
Tetra(II)amminecopper

The principal sugar in blood is

Options
Fructose
Glucose
Sucrose
Galactose

Ligand «en» is an example of:

Options
Bidentate ligand;
Monodentate ligand;
Tridentate ligand;
Hexadentate ligand.

The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is

Options
Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


Options
Cationic
Anionic
Trigonal
Neutral

Donor of electrons in coordination compound

Options
Central ion
Outer sphere ions
Ligands
None

Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements

Options
Doesn’t change
Increases
Decreases
None of them

Coordination number of iron in hem

Options
2
3
5
6

Dentatness of EDTA

Options
2
3
4
6

With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability

Options
Increases
Doesn’t change
Decreases
None of them

Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of

Options
Rate of reaction
Donor-acceptor interaction
Protons number
Electrostatic model

Particles playing role of central ion are

Options
Positive ions
Neutral molecules
Negative ions
Complex ions

Find ligand of weak field

Options
OH-
Au
CN-
Fe2+

What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?

Options
Hexaaquacobalt(II)
Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
Cobalthexaaqua(II)

Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)

Options
K3[Fe(CN)6]
Fe [K2(CN)6]
(CN)6[Fe K2]
[FeK2(CN)6

What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?

Options
Tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
Chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
Tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
Tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate

Options
[(en)3Co]SO4
[Co(en)3SO4]
[SO4(en)3]Co
[Co(en)3]SO4

What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?

Options
Linear;
Tetrahedral;
Octahedral;
Trigonal

Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of

Options
Rate of reaction
Donor-acceptor interaction
Protons number
Electrostatic model

Find ligand of strong field

Options
OH-
Au
Cl-
NH3

Dentatness of ligand is

Options
Number of central ions
Charge of central ion
Number of bonds of ligand with central ion
Ion’s total number

Disperse systems consists of:

Options
Dispersion medium, dispersed phase
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
Sol, gel

Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

Options
Dispersion medium, dispersed phase
Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Sol, gel

Glucose cannot be classified as

Options
A hexose
An oligosaccharide
An aldose
A monosaccharide

What is a disperse system?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Coarse systems include

Options
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
Sol, gel
Gel, suspensions.

Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

Options
It is a reducing sugar
It is a disaccharide
It has a pyranose form
It is a polyalcohol

Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

Options
Its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal
It is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone
It is oprtically active
It shows mutarotation

What is the Emulsion?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Common table sugar is

Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Fructose
Maltose

Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

Options
Glucose
Fructose
Lactose
None of the above

Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?

Options
It is also called table sugar
It may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol
It reduces Fehling’s solution
It does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

What is the suspension?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

Options
Lactose
Sucrose
Maltose
Fructose

What is the aerosol?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Sols are:

Options
Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
Blood, lymph.
Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
Blood, jelly, marmalade.

Starch

Options
Is a trisaccharide
Is also called amylose
Is also called amylopectin
Is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin

Gels are:

Options
Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
Blood, lymph.
Blood, jelly, marmalade.

Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:

Options
Medical products
Colored glass
Pumice
Fog

Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:

Options
Soil
Moist soil
Rocks
Fog

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

Options
Natural gas
Gas from oil droplets
Smog
Colored glass

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:

Options
Natural gas
Aerosols
Dust storms
Pearl

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

Options
Fizzy drinks, foam
Body fluids
Pastes,mortar
Smog

Colloidal solutions include:

Options
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
Sol, gel
Saline solution in water

Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:

Options
Cosmetic products
Porous chocolate
Some alloys
Fog

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

Options
Dust in the air
Aerosol
Fog
Does not exist

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:

Options
Sols
Emulsion oil
Fizzy drinks
Fog

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

Options
Cream, milk
Foam
Pastes
Chocolate

Colloid particles have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -3 cm
10 -5 - 10 -3 m
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -7 m

Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =

Options
Negative
Positive
Without charge
Zero

Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

Options
Ba2+
H+
SO4 2-
H+

Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing

Options
Condensation
Change of solvent
Red-ox reaction
Peptization

Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate

Options
NaCl
Сa3(PO4)2
CaCl2
FeCl3

Optical property typical to colloid systems

Options
Reflection
Absorption
Scattering
Diffusion

Find optical property

Options
Diffusion
Osmosis
Electroosmosis
Absorption

Powder is

Options
L/s
L/l
S/l
S/g

Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties

Options
μ
η
φ
ξ

Particles of coarse systems have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -5 m
10 -9 - 10 -7 m
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -9 m

Particles of true solutions have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -5 m
10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -7 m
Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

Options
Positive
Negative
Without charge
Zero

Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =

Options
None
Cl-
SO4 2-
Ba2+

Choose condensation method of colloids producing

Options
Coagulation
Change of solvent
Red-ox reaction
Peptization

Optical property typical to coarse systems

Options
Reflection
Absorption
Scattering
Diffusion

Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one

Options
Absorption
Osmosis
Brownian movement
Diffusion

Aerosol is

Options
L/s
L/l
S/l
S/g

Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties


Options
μ
η
Md
λ

Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:

Options
Suspensions;
Electrolytes;
Molecular solutions;
Alloys

Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:

Options
Colloids;
Gas mixtures;
Saturated solutions;
Alloys.

The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:

Options
Coagulation;
Tyndall effect;
Peptization;
Dialysis
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9. 9
10. 10
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14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
Question
23. 23 (1/328)
24. 24
Solutions
25. 25 which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity
26. 26 or osmolality. These concentration units express:
27. 27
Options
28. 28
29.Concentrationofwater;
29
30.Concentration
30 of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
31.Concentration
31 of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
32.Concentration
32
of electrolytes.
33. 33
34. 34organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?
Which
35. 35
36. 36
Options
37.CCl4;
37
38. 38
C3H5(OH)3;
39. 39
40.C6H6;
40
41.C6H12O6.
41
42. 42
Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:
43. 43
44. 44
Options
45. 45
46.3 46
Prev
% sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
47. 47
Skip0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
48. 48
Next0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
49. 49
20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.
50. 50
51.structure
The 51 of an alkene contains
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Only
54 single bonds;
55. 55
56.A 56
double bond;
57.Two
57 double bonds;
58.A 58
triple bond.
59. 59
Define
60. 60the Raoult’scryoscopic law:
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.Freezing
63 points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure
64. 64
solvents;
65.Freezing
65
points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
66. 66
solvents;
67. 67
68.Freezing
68 points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
69.Freezing
69 points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.
70. 70
The
71.first
71 Raoult’s Law is defined as:
72. 72
Options
73. 73
74.The
74 vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
75. 75
76.The
76 decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
77.The
77 vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of
pure 78
78. solvents;
79.The
79 vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure
80. 80
solvents.
81. 81
As82.
the82members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van der
Waals83forces between the molecules
83.
84. 84
85. 85
Options
86.Decreases;
86
87. 87
Increases;
88. 88
89.Remains
89 the same;
90.Decreases
90 then increases.
91. 91
In92.
order
92 to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:
93. 93
Options
94. 94
95.To95increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
96.To96add some electrolytes into a solution;
97.To97add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
98.To98increase temperature.
99. 99
100. 100
Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?
101. 101
102. 102
Options
103.CH4;
103
104. 104
C2H6;
105. 105
106.C3H8;
106
107.C4H10.
107
108. 108
What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?
109. 109
110. 110
Options
111. 111
112.6 112
113.2 113
114.8 114
115. 115
116.4 116
117. 117
118. 118is a spontaneous process defined as:
Osmosis
119. 119
Options
120. 120
121.A 121
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
122. 122
from a solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
123.A 123
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
124. 124
from a truesolution to a colloidal solution;
125. 125
A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane
126. 126
from a pure water to a solution;
127. 127
128.A 128
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
from a
129. 129dilute solution into a more concentrated one.
130. 130
In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?
131. 131
132. 132
Options
133. 133
134.CH3COOH;
134
C3H5(OH)3;
135. 135
136.CH3CH2OH;
136
137.CH3OH.
137
138. 138
A139. 139 in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used commercially
process
140.
to 140 the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is called
increase
141. 141
Options
142. 142
143.Polymerization;
143
144.Hydrogenation;
144
145. 145
Esterification;
146. 146
147.Cracking.
147
148. 148
Organic
149. 149compounds must contain
150. 150
Options
151. 151
152.Oxygen;
152
Nitrogen;
153. 153
154.Hydrogen;
154
155.Carbon.
155
156. 156
157.angle
The 157 formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an organic
158. 158 is a(an)
compound
159. 159
Options
160. 160
161.Dihedral
161 angle;
162.Right
162 angle;
163. 163
164.Tetrahedral
164 angle;
165.Acute
165 angle.
166. 166
A167.
specific
167 arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an organic
molecule
168. 168 is known as a(an)
Options
169. 169
170.Carboxyl
170 group;
171. 171
Functional group;
172. 172
173.Group;
173
174. 174 group.
Alkyl
175. 175
The
176.ability
176 of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of compounds that
are
177. 177
178. 178
Options
179. 179
180.Molecular;
180
181.Ionic;
181
182.Polar;
182
183.Atomic.
183
184. 184
185. many
How 185 carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?
186. 186
187. 187
Options
188.5 188
189. 189
8
190. 190
191.6 191
192.13192
193. 193
The
194.series
194 of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two adjacent
carbon
195. 195atoms is known as the
196. 196
Options
197. 197
198.Alkanes;
198
199.Alkenes;
199
200.Alkynes;
200
201.Benzenes.
201
202. 202
203. 203 reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated hydrocarbons
Addition
204. 204unsaturated hydrocarbons
because
205. 205
206. 206
Options
207.Contain
207 multiple bonds;
208. 208
Have a greater molecular mass;
209. 209
210.Have
210 tetrahedral bonds;
211.Contain
211 more atoms.
212. 212
A213.
dihydroxy
213 alcohol that is made from ethane is
214. 214
Options
215. 215
216.Ethanol;
216
217.Glycerol;
217
218.Ethylene
218 glycol;
219. 219
Ethane.
220. 220
A221.
long 221
chain protein is an example of a(an)
Options
222. 222
223.Fat;
223
224. 224
Polymer;
225. 225
226.Isomer;
226
Monomer.
227. 227
228. 228
Which
229. 229represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
230. 230
Options
231. 231
232.C2H4;
232
233.C2H6;
233
234.C3H8;
234
235.C4H10.
235
236. 236
237. many
How 237 double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?
238. 238
239. 239
Options
240.1 240
241. 241
2
242. 242
243.3 243
244.4 244
245. 245
Cryoscopy
246. 246 and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:
247. 247
Options
248. 248
249.Density;
249
250.Viscosity;
250
251.Molar
251 mass;
252.Osmotic
252 pressure.
253. 253
254.osmolarity
The 254 of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:
255. 255
256. 256
Options
257.2.0×10-2osmol;
257
258. 258
1.0×10-1osmol;
259. 259
260.3.0×10-2osmol;
260
261.5.0×10-3osmol.
261
262. 262
Osmolarity
263. 263 is:
264. 264
Options
265. 265
266.The
266molarity of particles in a solution;
267.The
267amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
268.Mass
268 percentage concentration;
269. 269
The concentration in parts per thousand.
270. 270
271. 271
Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?
272. 272
273. 273
Options
274.Butane;
274
275.Propane;
275
276.1-chlorobutane;
276
277. 277
278.1-chloropropane.
278
279. 279
Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:
280. 280
281. 281
Options
282. 282
TT= MRT;
283. 283
284.Tf284
= Kf Cm;
285.Tb285
= KbCm;
286.Tf286
=iKf Cm.
287. 287
A288.
fermentation
288 reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both can produce
289. 289
Options
290. 290
291.An291
ester;
292.An292
alcohol;
293. 293
An acid;
294. 294
295.A 295
soap.
296. 296
Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:
297. 297
298. 298
Options
299. 299
300.740-780
300 kPa;
301.140-240
301 kPa;
302.840-980
302 kPa;
303.60-70
303 kPa.
304. 304
305. 305 properties of solutions depend upon:
Colligative
306. 306
Options
307. 307
308.The
308number of the solute particles;
309.The
309chemical structure of solute;
310. 310
Catalysts;
311. 311
312.PH scale.
312
313. 313
Which
314. 314is a saturated hydrocarbon?
315. 315
Options
316. 316
317.C3H8;
317
318.C6H6;
318
319.C2H5OH;
319
320.C2H4O2.
320
321. 321
322. 322
Boiling point of solution with concentration rise
323. 323
Options
324. 324
325.Increases
325
326.Remains
326 same
327. 327
328.Decreases
328
No effect

Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution

Options
Increases
Remains same
Decreases
None of them

Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise

Options
Increases
Remains same
Decreases
Increases then decreases

For spontaneous processes?

Options
∆H ≥ 0
∆S ≤ 0
∆G ≥ 0
∆H≤ 0

Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on

Options
Concentration
Nature of solvent
Temperature
Nature of solute

Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional to

Options
Temperature
Molar fraction of solute
Molar fraction of solvent
Mixing rate

Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Hypertonic

Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry
Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Propane;
Propyne.

CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as

Options
A carbohydrate;
An ester;
An alcohol;
An organic acid.

Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

Options
Benzene;
Propyne;
Methane;
Ethanol.

As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling points

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases.

As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the ratio of carbon
atoms to hydrogen atoms

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases

The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the

Options
Nature of solute and solvent
Rate at which the gas dissolves
Temperature
Pressure

Which compound is most likely to react by addition?


Options
CH4;
C3H6;
C4H10;
C5H12.

Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

Options
Propanol;
Glycerol;
Butanol;
Pentanol.

Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Pentene;
Butene.

Which involves the colligative properties?

Options
Heating of solvent.
Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature
Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

Options
Alkene;
Alkane;
Alkyne;
Alkadiene.

Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

Options
Aldehydes;
Esters;
Polymers;
Ketones.

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration
is known as :

Options
Osmosis
Diffusion
Active Transport
Phagocytosis

The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

Options
Primary alcohol;
Secondary alcohol;
Tertiary alcohol;
Dihydroxy alcohol.

What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

Options
10
8
6
4

Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

Options
Butane;
Ethane;
Pentane;
Propane.

Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

Options
C5H8;
C5H10;
C5H12;
C5H14.

The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :

Options
Active Transport
Diffusion
Phagocytosis
Osmosis

The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

Options
Ionic;
Coordinate covalent;
Covalent;
Hydrogen.

The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
against the concentration gradient is known as :

Options
Active Transport
Diffusion
Osmosis
Phagocytosis

As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the number
of double bonds per molecule

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases.

In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

Options
Water;
Carbon dioxide;
An acid;
A base.

Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

Options
C2H5OH;
C2H4(OH)2;
C3H5(OH)3;
C3H6(OH)2.

In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound formed is

Options
An ester;
A ketone;
An acid;
An ether.

Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon

Options
Ethene;
Ethane;
Ethylene;
Ethyne.

Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

Options
Al(OH)3;
C3H5(OH)3;
Ca(OH)2;
C2H4(OH)2.

The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

Options
Glycerol;
Ethylene glycol;
Propene;
Propanoic acid.

Which organic compound is a ketone?

Options
CH3OH;
CH3COCH3;
CH3COOH;
CH3COOCH3.

Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

Options
Butane;
Ethane;
Methane;
Propane.

Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

Options
Oxidation;
Cracking;
Haber;
Contact.

Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular forces have

Options
Low melting points;
Low vapor pressure;
High conductivity in solution;
High boiling points.

What is the formula for pentanol?

Options
C5H12;
C5H11OH;
C4H10;
C4H9OH.

Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Toluene;
Butadiene

Colligative properties of the solution depend on

Options
Nature of solute
Nature of solvent
Number of particles present in the solution
Number of moles of solvent only

Which compound contains a triple bond?

Options
CH4;
C2H2;
C3H6;
C4H10.

Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

Options
Substitution;
Oxidation;
Addition polymerization;
Condensation, polymerization.

Which one is a colligative property?

Options
Boiling point
Vapour pressure
Osmotic pressure
Freezing point

In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling points by

Options
The contact process;
The Haber process;
Fractional distillation;
Cracking.

Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

Options
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of b.p.
Vapour pressure
Depression of f.p.

Which is not a colligative property?

Options
Freezing point
Lowering of vapour pressure
Depression of freezing point
Elevation of boiling point

Organic acids are composed of a

Options
C = O group at the end of the chain
COO– group
C = O and COH group on the same carbon
C = O and COH group on different carbons

Which of the following is a true statement?

Options
Ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
Aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
Ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol
Organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

Which of the following is a colligative property?

Options
Surface tension
Viscosity
Osmotic pressure
Boiling point

The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

Options
Solute molecules to the solvent molecules
Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law was
given by

Options
Raoult
Ostwald
Van’t Hoff
Lewis

According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

Options
Moles of solute
Mole fraction of solvent
Moles of solvent
Mole fraction of solute

A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

Options
An ideal solution
Non-ideal solution
Suspension
Emulsion

When common salt is dissolved in water

Options
M. p. of the solution increases
B. p. of the solution increases
B. p. of the solution decreases
Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

Options
Molecular wt. of solute
Molecular wt. of solvent
Molality of solute
None of these
When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then phenomenon
taking place is called

Options
Osmosis
Diffusion
Cataphoresis
Plasmolysis

The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

Options
П =ST/C
П = CT/S
П = SC/T
П / C = ST

Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

Options
An alcohol with an ether
A carboxylic acid with a ketone
A carboxylic acid with an alcohol
A ketone with an aldehyde

If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in 100mL water,
which of the following is true about solution A and B ?

Options
Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
None of them.

The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

Options
Ethylpropanoate
Propylethanoate
Propethanoate
None of the above

What happens during osmosis?

Options
Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.
Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.
Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.
Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.
Which of the following is classified as an ether?

Options
CH3CHOHCH3
CH2(OH)CH2CH3
CH2COCH3
CH3OCH3

According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

Options
The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.
The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.
The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increases.

Polymers are

Options
Molecules made of monomers
Molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule
Macromolecules
All of the above

In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?

Options
1000C
Boiling point
Melting point
Freezing point

Classify this reaction: CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

Options
Chlorination
Oxidation
Hydration
Elimination

A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

Options
Electrolyte
Nonelectrolyte
Polar substance
Nonpolar substance

The first member of the ketone family is:


Options
Methanone
Ethanone
Propanone
Butanone

A substance that vaporizes easily is known as

Options
Volatile
Nonvolatile
Electrolyte
Nonelectrolyte

Acetic acid is weak because

Options
It is unstable
It is an organic aliphatic acid
It is slightly ionized
None of these

Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

Options
Concentrated sulfuric acid
Dilute sulfuric acid
Water
None

At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw at
this temperature will be

Options
1x10-6
1x10-12
1x10-14
1x10-5

How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

Options
The rotate at different rates
They have different colours
They have different melting/boiling points
They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

Options
1.8 x 10-7
0.8 x 10-9
3.6 x 10-7
3.6 x 10-9

What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

Options
PCl3 and an alcohol
HCl and an alcohol
HCl and an alcohol, under reflux
Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

Options
A carboxylic acid
A carboxylate salt
Water
Does not react

The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2% ionized
weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

Options
0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively
1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

Options
10-Dec
10-Feb
10-Apr
Oct-13

The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

Options
Oct-13
1013
6.023 x 107
6.0233 x 1010

PH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

Options
10
7
1
14

Name this molecule:

Options
1,2-dimethylbutane
3,4-dimethylbutane
Hexane
3-methylpentane

The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

Options
8
-8
Between 7 and 8
Between 6 and 7

What are alcohols not used in?

Options
Wine
Vinegar
Plastics
Methylated spirits

Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

Options
8
1 x 10-7
7
1

An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Amphoteric

What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?


Options
Hydration
Hydrolysis
Esterification
Polymerisation

The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

Options
Acidic impurities
Ionization
Hydrolysis
Dissociation

What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

Options
CnH2n+1OH
CnH2nOH
CnH2n+2OH
CnH2n+1COOH

FeCl3 solution is

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Amphoteric

Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

Options
Ethanoic acid
Ethanol
Butanoic acid
Ethyl ethanoate

Which is true about ethanoic acid?

Options
It has a higher boiling point than ethanol
It dissociates completely in water
It dimerises in water
It reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

Options
Neutral
Weakly acidic
Strongly acidic
Alkaline

An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

Options
An acidic reaction
A neutral reaction
A basic reaction
Both acidic and basic reaction

Esters are ________.

Options
Made from alcohols and non-organic acids
Used to make perfumes and flavorings
Poisonous
Foul-smelling compounds

An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

Options
Faintly acidic
Fairly acidic
Faintly alkaline
Almost neutral

What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

Options
Carbon monoxide and water
Carbon and water
Carbon dioxide and water
Carbon monoxide and hydrogen

Which one of the following is acid salt?

Options
Na2S
Na2SO3
NaHSO3
Na2SO4

What are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

Options
Ethyl methanoate and water
CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen
Methyl ethanoate and water
CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

Options
Na2SO4
BiOCl
Pb(OH)Cl
Na2HPO4

What is true about carboxylic acids?

Options
Carboxylic acids are strong acids
Carboxylic acids can react with metals
Alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

Which one is not an acid salt?

Options
Na2H2PO4
NaH2PO2
NaH2PO3
None of the above

Esterification is a __________.

Options
Condensation reaction
Irreversible reaction
Addition reaction
Neutralization reaction

Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?

Options
NaCl
NH4Cl
KCl
Na2SO4

Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

Options
Ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane
Ethanol contains a hydroxyl group
Ethanol is used as a fuel
Ethanol is a solvent

Which one will not be hydrolysed?

Options
Potassium nitrate
Potassium cyanide
Potassium succinate
Potassium carbonate

What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

Options
Concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm
Concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis

Options
CH3COOK
NaNO3
KCl
K2SO4

In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

Options
2 bond
3 bond
4 bond
5 bond

Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

Options
(NH4)2SO4
Ba(NO3)2
CrCl3
CuSO4

Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

Options
One σ bond, one π bond
Two π bond, one π bond
One σ bond, two π bond
Two σ bond, two π bond
Acetylene has a total of:

Options
One σ bond, two π bond
Two σ bond, four π bond
Three σ bond, two π bond
One σ bond, four π bond

The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

Options
A strong acid and strong base
A strong acid and weak base
A weak acid and weak base
A weak acid and strong base

Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

Options
KNO3
NaOH
FeCl3
NaCN

In propene there are

Options
Eight σ bond, one π bond
Seven σ bond, two π bond
Six σ bond, three π bond
Nine σ bond

In propyne there are

Options
Six σ bond, two π bond
Seven σ bond, one π bond
Six σ bond, one π bond
Eight σ bond

1-Buten -3-yne has

Options
Six σ bond, four π bond
Seven σ bond, three π bond
Eight σ bond, two π bond
Nine σ bond, one π bond

Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is
Options
CH3CH2CH3
CH3C≡CH
CH2CH=CH2
CH2=CH-CH=CH2

Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is:

Options
CH4
H2N-CH2-NH2
H3C-OH
(CH3)3COH

When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

Options
2 other atoms
4 other atoms
3 other atoms
5 other atoms

Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

Options
C6H6
H2N-CH2-NH2
CH2=CH-CH=CH2
CH3CH=C=CH2

Which of the following is a planar molecule?

Options
Formaldehyde
Acetone
Formic acid
Acetic acid

What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

Options
180o
120o
109.5o
115.5o

The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

Options
60o
109.28o
120o
118.28o

The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

Options
60o
120o
90o
180o

What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

Options
1.20 Ǻ
1.35 Ǻ
1.54 Ǻ
1.68 Ǻ

The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

Options
Triple, duble, single
Single, duble, triple
Single, triple, duble
Duble, triple, single.

Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

Options
C-C < C=C < C≡C
C-C > C≡C > C=C
C≡C > C-C > C=C
C≡C < C=C< C-C

Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

Options
CH2 = CH2
CH3CH3
HC ≡ CH
CHCI3

The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

Options
CH2 = CH2
CH3CH3
HC ≡ CH
CHCI3

Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

Options
Ethyl alcohol
Formaldehyde
Diethyl ether
1,3-butadien

Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

Options
Cis-1,2-dichloroetylene
O- dichlorobenzene
Trans-1,2- dichloroetylene
P- dichlorobenzene

Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

Options
CI2
CO2
CCI4
CHCI3

Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

Options
Carbon tetrachloride
Chloromethane
Dichloromethane
Chloroform

Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

Options
CH3CI
CH3Br
CH3F
CH3I

Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

Options
ClCH2CHClCOOH
CH3CHClCHClCOOH
CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH
C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

Options
Ketone
Aldehyde
Amine
Ester

Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the same
carbon atom?

Options
Ester
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid

Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the same
carbon atom?

Options
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other compounds is
that in aldehydes and ketones

Options
The carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other
carbonyl compounds.
The polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.
The molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.
The carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

The carbonyl group is

Options
Found only in aldehydes and ketones.
Produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.
A functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.
A general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true except

Options
The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.
The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.
Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.
In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

The IUPAC name for acetone is

Options
2-propanone.
Dimethyl ketone
1-propanone.
3-propanal.

The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

Options
3-propanal.
2-propanone.
Acetone.
1-propanone.

Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid solution?

Options
NH4Cl
Al2(SO4)3
AgNO3
NaCN

The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

Options
3- methyl 1 butanone.
2-methylbutanal.
3-methylbutanal
Isopentanal

A buffer solution changes its pH

Options
Increase in pH
Decrease in pH
No change in pH
No change in electrical conductivity

The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

Options
Isobutyl acetone
2- methyl – 4- butanone
4 –methyl – 2- butanone.
4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

About buffer solution which in incorrect?

Options
It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base
It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
All of the above

Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

Options
3-octanone
2-butanone
3- methyl -3-pentanone all are correct
3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

Options
Strong acid and its salt of a weak base
Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

Which is a buffer solution?

Options
CH3COOH + CH3COONa
CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
CH3COOH + NH4Cl
NaOH + NaCl

Which of the following is a buffer?

Options
NaOH + CH3COONa
NaOH + Na2SO4
K2SO4 + H2SO4
NH4OH + NH4Cl

Which is not a buffer solution?

Options
NH4Cl + NH4OH
CH3COOH + CH3COONa
CH3COONa
Borax + Boric acid

Which of the following names does not fit a real compound

Options
3-ethylpentanal
4-methylpentanal
3- methyl- 2- pentanal
2-methylpentanal

PH of blood is

Options
Less than 6
Greater than 7 and less than 8
Greater than 8 and less than 9
Greater than 10

Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

Options
They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded
to oxygen.
Most have distinctive odors.
They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.
They are polar.

Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

Options
Acetic acid + Sodium acetate
Boric acid + Borax
Citric acid + Sodium citrate
All

All of the following are properties of acetone except

Options
Flammable.
Intoxicating.
Solvent for organic substances.
Nutrient.

Give name to positively charged particles:

Options
Radicals;
Molecules;
Anions;
Cations.
Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

Options
Flavoring
Preservative
Hormone
Solvent

What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?

Options
NaNO2;
NaHCO3;
Na2CO3;
KMnO4

Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

Options
CH3-CO-CH3
CH3-CHO
CH3-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:

Options
High heat capacity;
High polarity of molecules;
Lowfreezingpoint;
Low water ionization constant.

Which compound has the highest boiling point?

Options
CH3-CHO
CH3-CH2-CHO
CH3-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

Weak electrolytes are characterized by:

Options
Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
Ionic strength;
Concentration of a gas in a solution;
Ion product for water.

Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:


Options
0.01M
0.001M;
0.1 M;
1.0M.

Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:

Options
Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
Atmospheric pressure;
Boiling point;
Vapor pressure.

According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:

Options
Electrons donors;
Electrons acceptor
Protons donors;
Protons acceptors.

Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:

Options
KCl/HCl;
NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
KHSO4/H2SO4;
NH3 /NH4Cl.

Strong electrolytes are characterized by:

Options
Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
Ionization constant of water;
Acid ionization constant;
All answers are right.

Which compound has the lowest boiling point

Options
CH3-CH2-CHO
CH3-CH2-CH3
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

Options
H2.
Lactic acid.
NADH.
Pyruvic acid.

All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

Options
It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.
Its systematic name is ethanal.
Its common name is acetaldehyde.
Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:

Options
Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

Options
Its systematic name is propanone.
Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone
Its common name is acetone.
Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:

Options
Electrons donor;
Electrons acceptors;
Protons donors;
Protons acceptors.

The acid-base state of blood is determined of:

Options
PH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
POHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
PH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
Concentration of H+ and OH-.

Complex substances or compound classes are divided into

Options
Oxides, acid, base, salt
Oxides, base
Alkalis, salt, oxides
Ampholytes, Alkalis

Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.

Options
Hydroxide(OH -)
Hydrogen(H +)
Ammoniumcation(NH+4)
Hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is methyl ethyl
ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound are ____ .

Options
2-butanone;
2-propanone;
3-butanone;
3-butanone;

Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.

Options
Hydroxide(OH -)
Hydrogen(H +)
Ammoniumcation(NH+4)
(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

Tollens' reagent is used to

Options
Distinguish amines from aldehydes.
Reduce aldehydes.
Distinguish aldehydes from ketones.
Reduce ketones.

The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

Options
Primary alcohol.
Secondary alcohol.
Carboxylic acid.
Ketone.

The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

Oxidation of a ketone produces

Options
An aldehyde
A carboxylic acid
A primary alcohol
No reaction

The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

Options
Oxidation of ketones produces esters.
Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +.
Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?

Options
PH<7
PH>7
PH ~7
PH = 7

All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

Options
The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.
Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.
The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .
Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

Options
Pentanal
3-pentanone
2-pentanone
Pentanoic acid

Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

Options
A silver wire dissolves.
A brick-red precipitate forms.
The light blue color of the reagent disappears.
A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

Options
A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.
A red precipitate forms from a blue solution
A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless
A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

Options
Butane
2-butanol
1-butanol
Butanoic acid

What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?

Options
Butanoic acid
Butanal
2-butanol
No reaction

Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride

Options
Acidicb
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

Options
An aldehyde
A hemiacetal
A carboxylic acid
None, ketones don't oxidize

Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

Options
Gold
Copper
Lead
Silver

Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

Options
Tertiary alcohol.
Carboxylic acid
Secondary alcohol.
Primary alcohol.

Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

Options
Carboxylic acid.
Secondary alcohol
Aldehyde.
Tertiary alcohol.

Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the product of reduction of butanal?

Options
Butanoic acid
Butane
2-butanol
1-butanol

Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of them

What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

Options
Butanal
1-butanol
2-butanol
Butanoic acid

Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of them

What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

Options
3-methyl –2- pentanal
2- methyl -3-pentanol
3-methyl – 2-pentanol
3- methyl –2- pentene

Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?

Options
Galactose
Lactose
Maltose
Sucrose

Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

Options
CH3OH
C6H1206
C12H22O11
C6H12O5
Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

Options
Glucose and Glucose
Glucose and Galactose
Glucose and Fructose
Fructose and Galactose

PH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of

Options
Acid (H+-)
Conjugate base (-OH-)
Salt
Both A and Bswer D

PH can be kept constant with help of

Options
Saturated solution
Unsaturated solution
Buffer solution
Super saturated solution

In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

Options
Starch
Glycogen
Dextrins
Cellulose

Buffers present in blood contain


Options
HCO3-
Hemoglobin
H2PO4-
All of them

All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

Options
Glycogen
Inulin
Starch
Cellulose

Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings

Options
Sucrose
Ribulose
Fructose
Ribose

Choose the keto triose-

Options
Glyceraldehyde
Erythrose
Dihydroxyacetone
Arabinose

Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in

Options
Aerobic respiration
Anaerobic respiration
Transpiration
Photosynthesis

One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is

Options
Carbolic anhydrase
Carbonic anhydrase
Carbolic hydrase
Carbonic hydrase

A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

Options
Xylose
Lyxose
Xylulose
Aldose

Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer? acetic
acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

Options
Hydrochloric acid only
Sodium chloride or potassium acetate
Acetic acid only
Acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

Options
Epimers
Keto- Aldose Isomers
Anomers
Optical isomers

When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is

Options
Oxide
Ether
Salt
Alcohol

All tests are negative for sucrose except-

Options
Benedict
Seliwanoff
Barfoed
Osazone

When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are

Options
Salt
Water
Carbon dioxide
All of above

Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

Options
4
12
8
16

Salt among following is

Options
HCl
KCl
HNO3
H3PO4

Galactose and Glucose are-

Options
Epimers
Isomers
Anomers
Ketose- Aldose isomers

Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called

Options
Neutralization
Hydrogenation
Halogenation
Sublimation

The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around one carbon
atom are called-

Options
Optical isomers
Stereo isomers
Anomers
Epimers

Basic formula for monobasic acid is

Options
AH
HA
Ha
AH

Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is

Options
High
Low
Same
Constant

What does the following equation represent?    α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→  +19οβ- D glucose

Options
Stereo isomerism
Mutarotation
Optical isomerism
Epimerization

Value of Ka can be calculated by determining

Options
Concentration of acid
PH of solution
Concentration of water molecules
Both A and B

The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

Options
Glucose
Xylose
Lyxose
Fructose

Dulcitol is a -

Options
Sugar acid
Amino sugar
Deoxysugars
Sugar alcohol

Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

Options
Arabinose
Erythrose
Trehalose
Ribulose

A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

Options
Starch
Dextrin
Glycogen
Cellulose
PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing?

Options
Concentration of acid
Value of Ka
Water potential
Both A and B

Invert sugar is-

Options
Starch
Glucose
Fructose
Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

Ka is called

Options
Acid dissociation constant
Base dissociation constant
Avogadro constant
Salt dissociation constant

The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

Options
Hyaluronic acid
Cellulose
Chitin
Chondrosamine

Which one of the following is a weak acid?

Options
HNO3
HI
HBr
HNO2

Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

Options
Insulin
Dextrin
Cellulose
Glycogen

Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
Options
MgCl2
Ba(NO3)2
LiClO4
CsBr

A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

Options
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
Trehalose

Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?

Options
H2O
KF
HF
HNO2

The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

Options
Glucopyranose
Glucoside
Glucofuranose
Glucosamine

Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?

Options
HClO
CH3COOH
HF
HCN

A stronger base:

Options
Is also a stronger acid;
Is also a stronger electrolyte;
Tastes sour;
Yields fewer OH- ions in solution;

Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

Options
Benedict
Molisch
Seliwanoff
Osazone

Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?

Options
C3 H7O2N
C13H26O2
C6H12O6
C20H40O2

When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

Options
Water and a salt
An acid and a base;
A salt and hydrogen gas;
A nonmetal oxid

Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

Options
Ribose
Fructose
Glucose
Glyceraldehyde

A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution then
turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

Options
HCl;
H2CO3;
KOH;
CH3CH2OH;

Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

Options
1×10-11 M;
1×10-9 M;
1×10-7 M;
1×10-5 M;

Which of following is an anomeric pair?

Options
D-glucose and L-glucose
α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose
D-glucose and D-fructose
α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H+ ions. This
substance is:

Options
KOH;
CH4
H2SO4;
NH3

Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

Options
Glucuronate
Gluconate
Glucose
Muramic acid

Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

Options
H+] equals zero;
[OH-] equals [H+];
H+] is less than [OH-];
H+] is greater than [OH-

From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

Options
The glucose residue is the β anomer.
The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.
C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.
The compound is in its furanose form

According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

Options
Donate a proton;
Yield H+ ions;
Donate an electron pair;
Acceptor of protons.

The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

Options
A purine nucleotide
A pyrimidine nucleotide.
Adenosine
AMP

What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 40.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

Options
100.0 mL;
80.0 mL;
40.0 mL;
20.0 mL

Functional Group of Alkane:

Options
None
C–X
C=C
C – OH

As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

Options
Increase;
Decrease;
Remain the same;
Approach zero

Functional Group of Cycloalkane:

Options
H–C=O
C – OH
O=C–O–C
None

Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

Options
1
7
10
14

Functional Group of Alkyl halide:

Options
None
C–X
C=C
C – OH
The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

Options
A single replacement;
A neutralization reaction;
The process of hydrolysis;
A synthesis reaction;

How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?

Options
A pH of 2 is three times as strong;
A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;
A pH of 2 is three times as weak;
A pH of 2 is three times as weak;

Functional Group of Alkyne:

Options
H–C=O
#NAME?
#NAME?
C≡C

Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?

Options
Chlorous acid
Acetic acid;
Perchloricacid;
Hypochlorous acid

Functional Group of Alcohol:

Options
C – OH
H–C=O
C–X
C–X
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23. 23 (1/34)
24. 24
Scientist
25. 25 who first isolated nuclei of pus cells was
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.F.Sanger
28
29.M.steward
29
30.F.Miescher
30
31.A.Einstein
31
32. 32
33. is
NAD 33an abbreviation for
34. 34
Options
NicotineAbusiveDepartment
NicotineAvoidDirections
Nicotinamideadeninedinucleotide
Nicotinamidedinucleotide

Phosphoric acid can be joined with OH group of a pentose sugar with help of

Options
Phosphodiesterbond
PrevIonicbond
SkipCovalentbond
NextEsterlinkage

RNA is synthesized from DNA by process of

Options
Translation
Transcription
Transgenic
Duplication

According to Erwin Chargoff analysis, ratio of adenine and thiamine is

Options
Equal
Unequal
Less
More

Nucleic acids

Options
Are also called nucleotides
Do not contain purine
Are polymers
Do not contain uracil

Which of the following will not be found in DNA?

Options
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine
Guanine

A nucleotide is composed of

Options
An acid, a base, and a sugar
A base, a sugar, and a phosphate
A base, and sugar
An acid, a sugar, and a phosphate

Oligonucleotides are formed from 2 to 10

Options
Strands
Hydrogen bonds
Nucleosides
Nucleotides

The variable portion of DNA is the sequence of _

Options
Phosphoric acids
Sugars
Bases
Phosphates

Which pair is a complementary base pair?

Options
C-G
A-G
A-C
G-G

Gene expression is activation of a gene to produce a specific __________ .

Options
Protein
TRNA
Amino acid
DNA

To which of the following does thymine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

Options
Adenine
Thymine
Cytosine
Guanine

What term is used to describe the process by which DNA is copied to produce two daughter DNA
molecules?

Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription

What term is used to describe the process by which a segment of DNA is copied to produce a
molecule of messenger RNA?

Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription

What term is used to describe the process by which proteins are synthesised from a genetic code?

Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription

To which of the following does guanine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?

Options
Adenine
Thymine
Cytosine
Guanine

The sugar in RNA is __________ , the sugar in DNA is __________

Options
Deoxyribose, ribose
Ribose, deoxyribose
Ribose, phosphate
Ribose, uracil

Nucleoside is a pyrimidine or purine base

Options
Covalently bonded to a sugar
Ionically bonded to a sugar
Hydrogen bonded to a sugar
None of the above

In gel electrophoresis,what fragments will move most quickly through a gel?

Options
Large fragments
Small fragments
Large genome
Noneofthese

Which pyrimidine base contains an amino group at carbon 4?

Options
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine

The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA

Options
Connect the sugar to the base
Can be hydrolyzed by OH- ion
Stabilize Watson-Crick H-bonds
Are free to rotate over about 180°

Nucleic acids can be analyzed experimentally by their

Options
Molecular weight
Absorption of visible light
Absorption of uv light
None of these

A purine with an amine (NH2) group on the 6th carbon is

Options
Adenine
Cytosine
Thymine
Guanine

Which of the following is found on RNA but not DNA?

Options
Uracil
Deoxyribose
Phosphate
Adenine

Which of the following is a purine?

Options
Cytosine
Adenine
Thymine
Uracil

Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following

Options
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine

Which of the following are not the components of RNA?

Options
Thymine
Adenine
Guanine
Cytosine

Which of the following statements is true?

Options
Sugar component of a nucleotide is ribose
Sugar component of a nucleotide is deoxyribose
The bases in nucleotides are attached to a pentose sugar moiety by a glycosidic linkage
The sugar molecule of the nucleotide is in L-configuration
What is the composition of nucleoside?

Options
A sugar + a phosphate
A base + a sugar
A base + a phosphate
A base + a sugar + phosphate

What is the composition of nucleotide?

Options
A sugar + a phosphate
A base + a sugar
A base + a phosphate
A base + a sugar + phosphate

Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by

Options
Phosphodiester bond
Peptide bond
Ionic bond
Covalent bond

The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is

Options
Pentose
Hexose
Tetrose
Triose

Building blocks of nucleic acids are

Options
Nucleotides
Nucleosides
Amino acids
Histones
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23. 23 (1/24)
24. 24
Which of the following solutions of H2SO4 is more concentrated?

Options
1 Molar solution
1 molal solution
1 normal solution
All have same concentration

Which of the following unit of concertration is independent of temperature?

Options
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction
All

Which of the following is an example of liquid in gas solution.

Options
Opals
PrevDust particles in smoke
SkipPaints
NextFog

The molal boiling point constant is the ration of the elevation of boiling point to

Options
Molarity
Molality
More fraction of solvent
Mole fraction of solute

Which has the minimum freezing point?

Options
One MolalNaCI
One molal KCI solution
One molal CaCI2
One molal urea solution

Which of the following is not a colligative property?

Options
Lowering of vapour pressure
Freezing point
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of polling point

When common salt is dissolved in water?

Options
Boiling point of water decrease
Boiling point of water increase
Boiling point of water remains same
None of the above

Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two compounds is called

Options
Solution
Compound
Radical
Ion

The component of solution which is in smaller amount is called

Options
Solvent
Solute
Phase
Ion

Solution with maximum concentration of solute at given temperature is called

Options
Super saturated solution
Unsaturated solution
Saturated solution
Dilute solution

Number of moles in 1 kg of solvent is called

Options
Normality
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction

58.5g of ofNaCl per 1 dm3 of solution of NaCl in water the concentration of solution will be

Options
0.1 M
1m
1M
0.1 N

If the volume of solution is equal to sum of volumes of its all components then the solution

Options
Will be an ideal solution
Will be non-ideal solution
Will show deviations from Raoults law
Both b & c

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is

Options
Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
Directly proportional to the mole fraction of solute
Both b & c

Concentration of solute molecule when they are in equilibrium with solid substance at particular
temperature is called

Options
Saturated solution
Solubility
Unsaturated solution
Super saturated solution

The determination of correct molecular weight from Raoults law is applicable to

Options
A volatile solute in dilute solution
A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solution
A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solute
Non volatile solute in a dilute solution

The compounds in which water molecules are added are called

Options
Hydrated ions
Double salts
Hydrates
Complexes

Hydration is a process in which

Options
Molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
Ions are surrounded by solvent molecules
Both ions and molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
Both ions and molecules are surrounded by water molecules

Solution of Na2SO4 will be

Options
Basic
Acidic
Neutral
Cannot be predicted without data

1 molar solution of glucose in water contains weight of glucose

Options
180g/dm3
170g/dm3
190g/dm3
195g/dm3

Water of crystallization can be removed by

Options
Drying
Heating
Evaporation
All of the above

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to molality if the solution is

Options
Concentrated
Dilute
Saturated solution
All of the above

Which one of the following salt does not hydrolyzed

Options
Na2SO4
AlCl3
CuSO4
NH4Cl
The molar concentration is called?

Options
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution
The mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
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Question
23. 23 (1/101)
24. 24
Which
25. 25change is oxidation?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Gain
28 of electrons
29.Gain
29 of hydrogen
30.Loss
30 of oxygen
31.Loss
31 of electrons
32. 32
33. 33change is reduction?
Which
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.A 36
decrease in oxidation state
37. 37
Gain of oxygen
38. 38
39.Loss
39 of electrons
40.Loss
40 of hydrogen
41. 41
What
42. 42is the oxidation state of chromium in the CrO3-2
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.+345
46.-346
Prev
47. 47
Skip+6
48. 48
Next-6
49. 49
50. 50
Magnesium displace lead ions from solution lead(II) sulfate. Which statement about this reaction
51. 51
is true?
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Lead
54 (II) ions are oxidized.
55. 55
56.Magnesium
atoms are oxidised.
56
57.Lead
57 (II) ions lose electrons.
58.Magnesium
58 atoms gain electrons .
59. 59
Which
60. 60one of the following substance is reducing agent?
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.Argon
63
64.Oxygen
64
65. 65
66.Carbon
66 dioxide
67.Carbon
67 monoxide
68. 68
Which
69. 69compound, when added to aqueous iron(II) sulphate, takes part in a redox reaction?
70. 70
Options
71. 71
72.Ammonia
72
73.Barium
73 chloride
74.Acidified
74 potassium manganate (VII)
75.Sodium
75 hydroxide
76. 76
77. 77 potassium dichromate (VI) can be used to detect the presence of ethanol vapour in the
Acidified
78. 78of a person who consumed alcohol. A color change from orange to green is absolved if
breach
79. 79 is present. This shows that ethanol is
ethanol
80. 80
81. 81
Options
82.An82alkali
83. 83
An indicator
84. 84
85.An85oxidizing agent
86.A 86
reducing agent
87. 87
Which
88. 88of the following bases has the highest pKa value
89. 89
Options
90. 90
91.NaOH
91
92.NaNO3
92
93.KNO3
93
94.KCl
94
95. 95
96. 96
What is the oxidation state of sulphur in SO3-2
97. 97
98. 98
Options
99.-499
100. 100
+2
101. 101
+4
+6

In which reaction is the first substance acting as a reducing agent?

Options
Chlorine + iron(II) chloride ---> iron(III) chloride
Copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ---> copper + water
Hydrochloric acid + magnesium oxide ---> magnesium chloride + water
Carbon monoxide + zinc oxide ---> zinc + carbon dioxide

Hydrogen peroxide, H2O2 reacts with silver oxide according to the following equation/ Ag2O(s) +
H2O2(l) = 2Ag(s) + H2O(l) + O2(g) in this reaction hydrogen peroxide behaves as
Options
A catalyst
A dehydrating agent
An oxidising agent
A reducing agent

What is the oxidation number of an iron atom in Fe2O3?

Options
+6
+3
-3
-2

What is the oxidation of xenon in XeF6?

Options
-6
-1
+6
-7

What is the oxidation number of an As atom in AsO4-3(aq)?

Options
+5
+9
+1
-7

Which represents an oxidation reaction?

Options
NaNO3 + KCl -> NaCl + KNO3
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
Cl2 + 2e--> 2 Cl-
K -> K+ + e-

Which represents a reduction reaction?

Options
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
Cl2 + 2 e--> 2 Cl-
K -> K+ + e-

In the electrolysis of water, which reaction occurs at the cathode?

Options
2 H2(g) + O2(g)  2 H2O(g)
2 02-(aq)  O2(g) + 4 e-
2 H2O(l)  4 H+(aq) + 2 02-(aq)
2 H+(aq) + 2 e- H2(g)

Which process / equation pair occurs at the cathode when iron hinges are plated with copper?

Options
Reduction, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
Reduction, Cu2+ + 2 e- Cu(s)
Oxidation, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
Oxidation, Cu2+ (aq) + 2 e- Cu(s)

Balance the following oxidation-reduction equation: Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq)  Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)

Options
Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq)    Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
2Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq)    2Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
2Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq)    2Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)
Sn2+(aq) + 2Ce4+(aq)    Sn4+(aq) + 2Ce3+(aq)

The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is __.

Options
+1
-1
+2
-2

Which of the following statements about corrosion are NOT true?

Options
A car rusts because steel reacts with water and oxygen in the air.
When iron rusts electrons are lost from the metal.
Plating metal speeds up the oxidation process.
Adding zinc metal strips to iron metals prevents corrosion.

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, __________ is oxidized. (acidic solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the oxidizing agent. (acidic
solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the reducing agent. (acidic
solution)

Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn

In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, the coefficient of water is ________. (acidic
solution)

Options
0
2
4
8

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is oxidized. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is reduced. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, _________ is the reducing agent. (basic solution)

Options
F
CO2
F2
C

In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, the coefficient of water is ________. (basic
solution)

Options
1
4
3
6

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31 (acidic solution), __________ is oxidized.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the oxidizing agent.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO

In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), the coefficient of water is
________.

Options
5
4
3
2

In the balanced reaction Cr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2 (basic solution) __________ is oxidized.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+22 (basic solution), _________ is the oxidizing
agent.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr

In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), the coefficient of water is
________.

Options
1
2
3
0

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3 (acidic solution), __________ is oxidized.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), __________ is reduced.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the oxidizing agent.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.

Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4

In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), the coefficient of water is

Options
0
1
2
3

Which one of these reactions is heterogeneous?

Options
CaO(s) + CO2(g) = CaCO3
KOH(sol) + HNO3(sol) = KNO3(sol) + H2O(l)
H2 + N2 = NH3
NH3 + O2 = N2 + H2O(g)

Which one of these reactions is homogeneous?

Options
K(s) + H2O(l) = KOH(sol) + H2(g)
N2(g) + H2(g) = NH3(g)
BaCl2(sol) + H2SO4(sol) =BaSO4(s) + 2HC1 (sol);
Fe + H2SO4 = FeSO4 + H2;

Find an endothermic reaction:

Options
N2 + Н2 = NH3- ΔH
SO2 + O2+ ΔH= SO3
С + О2 = СО2- ΔH
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

Which one of these reactions is redox reaction?

Options
Аl + Сl2= АlСl3
ВаСО3 = ВаО + СО2
Ba(NO3)2 + K2SO4= BaSO4 + KNO3
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2

Find irreversible reaction:

Options
H2 + N2 = NH3
NaOH + HCl = NaCl + H2O
SO2 + O2 = SO3
N2O4 = NO2

Number of reaction products always greater than number of reactants if it is:

Options
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
Reaction of substitution
Reaction of direct combination

Number of reaction products always less than number of reactants if it is:

Options
Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
Reaction of direct combination
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of substitution

Redox reactions in inorganic chemistry are always:

Options
Reactions of decomposition
Reactions of exchange (metathesis)
Reactions of substitution
Reactions of direct combination

Redox reactions are cannot be:

Options
Reactions of substitution
Reactions of exchange
Reactions of decomposition
Reactions of direct combination
Reaction, that goes without changes in oxidation numbers of atoms in compound, is:

Options
Reaction of exchange
Reaction of direct combination
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of substitution

The exchange reaction goes between:

Options
Simple and complex substances
Two simple substances
Two complex substances;
It can be both pair of simple and pair of complex substances

The products of decomposition reaction are:

Options
Only simple substances
Only complex substances
Both: and simple substances, and complex substances
Simple substance and complex substance.

Find redox reaction of substitution:

Options
СаСO3 = СаO + СО2
Н2O2= Н2O + O2
Cu + O2 = CuO
NaHCO3 = Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

Find redox reaction of direct combination:

Options
SO2 + O2 = SO3
NO2 + Н2O= HNO3 + NO
Н2O2= Н2O + O2
SO2 + NaOH = NaHSO3

At the same time reaction CANNOT be:

Options
Reaction of exchange and redox reaction
Redox reaction and decomposition
Substitution and redox
Direct combination and redox

Reactions, that can be homogeneous, are:


Options
Only exchange reactions
Only direct combination reactions
Only decomposition reactions
Every single one of them and substitution reactions.

Choose most common requirement for reaction to be homogeneous:

Options
Products are in one phase
Reactants are in one phase
Reactants and product are both in same phase
Reactants and product are both in gaseous state

Find heterogeneous reactions:

Options
CaO(s) + CO2(s) = CaCO3(s)
CO(g) + O2(g) = CO2(g)
NO2(g) + H2O(l) + O2(g) = HNO3(l
SO3(l) + H2O(l) = H2SO4(l)

Find redox decomposition reaction:

Options
Cu(NO3)2(s) = CuO(s) + NO2(g) + O2(g)
SO3(g) = SO2(g) + O2(g)
NH4NO3(g) = N2O(g) + H2O
Cu + O2 = CuO

Choose the heterogeneous redox reaction:

Options
Na(s) + H2O(l) = NaOH(sol) + H2(g)
NO2(g) + CO(g) = N2(g) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + N2O(g) = N2(g) + H2O(g)
SO3(g) = SO2(g) + O2(g)

There are reactions for SO2 obtaining:

Options
FeS2(s) + O2(g) = Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g)
NaHSO3(sol) + HCl(sol) = NaCl(sol) + H2O(l) + SO3(g)
S(s) + O2(g) = SO2(g)
Fe2(SO4)3(s) = Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + O2(g)

Among them redox reactions are:

Options
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 3, 4

Choose half-reaction for reduction process:

Options
С0 – 4e = С+4
N+5 + 2e = N+3
H2 – 2e = 2H+1
2S-1 – 10e = 2S+4

Choose half-reaction for reduction process:

Options
H02 – 2e = 2H+1
O20 + 4e = 2O-2
N-3 -5e = N+2
2O-1 – 2e = O20

Find half-reaction, where atoms of nitrogen are acting as reduction agents:

Options
H02 + 2e = 2H-1
H02 – 2e = 2H+1
N+5 + 2e = N+3
N-3 -5e = N+2

Find half-reaction, where atoms of sulfur are acting as oxidation agents:

Options
S0 – 4e = S+4
S+6 + 8e = S-2
2S-1 – 10e = 2S+4
S+4 + 4e = S0

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of sulfur changes from -1 to +4:

Options
H2SO4 + Cu = CuSO4 + SO2 + H2O
FeS2 + O2 = Fe2O3 + SO2
H2S + O2 = SO2 + H2O
KHS + HCl = KCl + H2S

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of nitrogen changes from -3 to 0:

Options
NH3 + O2 = NO + H2O
NO2 + H2O + O2 = HNO3
NH4NO2 = N2 +H2O
NH4NO3 = N2O + H2O

Choose reaction where oxidation number of carbon atom is increasing:

Options
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 = CaCO3 + H2O
CaO + CO2 = CaCO3
CO + Fe2O3 = Fe + CO2
CO2 + Mg = Mg + C

Choose reaction where oxidation number of chlorine atom is increasing:

Options
Cl2 + Fe = FeCl3
KClO3 = KCl + O2
Cl2 + KI = KCl + I2
KCl + F2 = KF + Cl2

Which one is oxidation process?

Options
Cl2 → 2 ClO-
NO2- → NO
Cr2O72- → 2CrO42-
SO32-→ H2S

Which one is oxidation process?

Options
HPO42- → H2PO4-
SO32-→ H2S
MnO4- → MnO42-
Cr2O72- → 2Cr3+

Sulfur is reduction agent in reaction with:

Options
Cu
Cl
P
H2

Phosphorus is oxidation agent when reacts with:

Options
Ca
S
O2
Cl

Oxidation properties of halogens increasing from left to right in line:

Options
I2, F2, Cl2
I2, Cl2, F2
Br2, F2, Cl2
F2, Cl2, I2

Which substance in redox reaction maintains only reduction properties?

Options
Nitrogen
Sulfur
Sodium
Phosphorus

Strongest oxidation agent, among simple substances is:

Options
Oxygen
Fluorine
Nitrogen
Aurum

Oxidation properties of substances increasing from left to right in line:

Options
C, S, O2
O2, S, C
Si, F2, I2
P, O2,S

Coefficient “2” before SO2 should be placed in redox reaction:

Options
Ag + HNO3 = Ag2SO4 + SO2 + H2O
Cu + H2SO4 = CuSO4 + SO2 + H2O
SO2 + H2S = S + H2O
SO2 + O2 = SO3

In redox reactions, Ag + HNO3 = AgNO3 + NO + H2O Cu + HNO3 = Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O NO2 + O2
+ H2O = HNO3 Mg + HNO3 = Mg(NO3)2 + NH4NO3 + H2O coefficient “4” before HNO3 should be
placed

Options
2,3,4
1,2,3
1,2,4
1,3,4

In process S+6→S-2, sulfur atoms are:

Options
Lose their electrons, oxidize
Receive electrons, oxidize
Lose their electrons, reduce
Receive electrons, reduce

In process N-3→N+2, sulfur atoms are:

Options
Lose their electrons, oxidize
Lose their electrons, reduce
Receive electrons, oxidize
Receive electrons, reduce

For process S-2→S+4 corresponds reaction:

Options
2NaOH + SO2 = Na2SO3 + H2O
2H2S + O2 = 2H2O + 2S
2H2S + 3O2 = 2H2O + 2SO2
Cu + 2H2SO4 = CuSO4 + 2SO2 + 2H2O

Process PbS→PbSO4 corresponds to:

Options
S+4 – 2e = S+6
S-2 – 8e = S+6
S0 + 2e = S-2
S0 + 4e = S-4

Which process reflects by 2O-1 – 2e = O20?

Options
H2O = H2 + O2
CuS + O2 = CuO + SO2
H2O2 + PbS = H2O + PbSO4
H2O2 + KMnO4 + H2SO4 = O2 + MnSO4 + K2SO4 + H2O

Which pair of half-reactions correct for Cl2 + KOH = KCl + KClO3 + H2O?

Options
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 3e = Cl+3
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 7e = Cl+7
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 5e = Cl+5
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 + 5e = Cl+5
Under oxidation, oxidation number of atom is

Options
Will decrease
Will increase
Stay same
Can increase and decrease

Process of reduction occurs when:

Options
Neutral atoms transforms into cations
Neutral atoms transforms into anions
Positive charge of simple ion increases
Negative charge of simple ion increases

Find reaction where oxidation agent receives 5 electrons.

Options
MnO2 + 4H+ = Mn2+ + 4H2O
MnO4 + 8H+ = Mn2+ + 4H2O
N2 + 4OH- = 2NO + 2H2O
N2 + 4 H2O = 2NH2OH + 2OH-

Under reduction, oxidation number of atom is

Options
Willincrease
Will decrease
Stay same
Can increase and decrease

Process of oxidation occurs when:

Options
Neutral atoms transforms into cations
Neutral atoms transforms into anions
Positive charge of simple ion decreases
Negative charge of simple ion

Find reaction where water is oxidation agent:

Options
Cl2 + H2O = HCl + HClO3
Ca + H2O = Ca(OH)2 + H2
CaC2 + H2O = Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
NO2 + H2O + O2 = HNO3

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of nitrogen changes from 0 to -2:


Options
N2 + 4H2O = N2H4 + 4OH-
N2 + 4H2O = 2NH2OH + 2OH-
N2 + 6H+ = 2NH3
N2 + 8H+ = 2NH4+

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of chlorine changes from 0 to +7:

Options
HCl + 2H2O = ClO2 + 5H+
Cl2 + 6H2O = 2ClO3- + 12H+
Cl2 + 8H2O = 2ClO4- + 16H+
2HCl + H2O = Cl2O + 4H+

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of chromium changes from +6 to 0:

Options
CrO42- + 4H+ = CrO2- + 2H2O
CrO42- + 4H2O = Cr(OH)3 + 5OH-
Cr2O72- + 14H+ = 2Cr3+ + 7H2O
Cr2O42- + 8H+ = Cr + 4H2O

Find reaction where hydrogen peroxide is reduction agent:

Options
H2O2 + 2H+ = 2H2O
H2O2 = O2 + 2H+
PbS + H2O2 = PbSO4 + H2O
Na2SO3 + H2O2 = Na2SO4 + H2O

Choose reaction, where oxidation number of phosphorus changes from +3 to 0:

Options
H3PO3 + 2H+ = H3PO2 + H2O
H3PO4 + 4H+ = H3PO2 + 2H2O
5НСlО3 + 6Р = 6Н3РО4 + 5НСl
PO43- + 2H2O = HPO32- + 2OH-
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Question
23. 23 (1/58)
24. 24
In25.
which
25 of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.H3PO4
28 and H2SO4
29.HCl
29 and HNO3
30.H2CO3
30 and HBr
31.HC2H3O2
31
and HI
32. 32
In33. 33 of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair weak acids?
which
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.H2SO4
36 and HC2H3O2
37. 37
HNO3 and H2C4H4O6
38. 38
39.HC2H3O2
39 and H3C6H5O7
40.H3PO4
40 and H2SiO3
41. 41
Which
42. 42of the following is produced in the first step of the dissociation of the acid H3PO4?
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.H3PO3
45
46. 46
PrevH2PO4–
47. 47
SkipHPO42–
48. 48
NextPO43–
49. 49
50. ionization
Acid 50 constants give information about
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.The
53 strengths of acids.
54. 54
55.The
55 number of nonacidic hydrogens present in acids.
56.Whether
56 acids are polyprotic.
57.Whether
57 acids can neutralize bases
58. 58
In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

Options
H2SO4 and BaSO4
NaCl and NaOH
NH4Cl and KCl
HNO3 and KOH

In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base will react
in a molar ratio of

Options
One to one
One to three.
Three to one
Three to three.

A solution with a pH of 12.0 is

Options
Strongly acidic.
Weakly acidic
Weakly basic
Strongly basic

The pH of a solution for which [OH–] = 1.0 x 10–6 is

Options
1.00
8.00
6.00
–6.00

Which of the following does not describe an acidic solution?

Options
The pH is less than 7.0
The [OH–] is greater than 1.0 x 10–7
The [H3O+] is greater than the [OH–]
The [OH–] is 6.0 x 10–10

In which of the following pairs of salts will both members of the pair hydrolyze in water to give
solutions that are basic?

Options
NaCl and NaCN
NH4Cl and NH4NO3
KC2H3O2 and KCN
NaNO3 and Na2SO4

If the pH of a solution of a salt is 5.0, the salt must be one which could be formed from the
neutralization of

Options
A strong acid and a strong base.
A weak acid and a strong base.
A strong acid and a weak base.
HCl and NaOH.

If a solution is buffered at a pH of 8.0, then the addition of a small amount of acid will cause the
solution to have a pH of approximately

Options
6.0.
7.0.
8.0.
9.0.

A buffer solution could be prepared from

Options
NaCl and HCl
NaOH and HCl
KC2H3O2 and HC2H3O2.
NaCN and KCN

In which of the following pairings of compounds are both members of the pair strong
electrolytes?

Options
NaOH and NaCl
NH3 and HCl
KOH and H2CO3
NaCN and HCN

In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?

Options
HNO3 and HNO2
H2SO4 and H2SO3
HCl and HClO4
No correct response

Which of the following statements about weak acids is correct?

Options
Weak acids always contain C atoms
The percentage dissociation for weak acids is usually in the range of 40-60%.
Weak acid molecules readily lose their acidic hydrogen atoms.
No correct response

In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base will react
in a molar ratio of
Options
One to one
One to one
Three to one
Three to three

Which of the following equations represents an acid-base neutralization reaction?

Options
H2SO4 + Zn ZnSO4 + H2
HNO3 + KOH KNO3 + H2O
Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaOH
No correct response

In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?

Options
NaCl and NaOH
KNO3 and K2SO4
H3PO4 and (NH4)3PO4
More than one correct response

Which of the following pairings of pH and hydronium ion concentration is correct?

Options
PH = 2.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 102
PH = 7.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 10–7
PH = 9.0; [H3O+] = 9 x 10–9
No correct response

Which of the following is a correct statement for a solution with a pH of 8.00?

Options
The hydroxide ion concentration is greater than the hydronium ion concentration
The hydronium ion concentration is 8.0 M
The hydroxide ion concentration is 1.0 x 10–8 M
No correct response

In which of the following salts would both the positive ion and the negative ion hydrolyze when
the salt is dissolved in water?

Options
NaCl
NaCN
NH4Cl
No correct response

The pH of a buffered solution

Options
Always equals 7.0.
May be acidic or basic depending on the buffer present.
Changes drastically when a small amount of acid is added
No correct response

Which of the following statements concerning electrolytes is correct?

Options
All strong acids are strong electrolytes
Some salts are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes.
Some molecular substances are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes
More than one correct response

Conjugate base of H3PO4

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Conjugate acid of HPO42–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Will form a buffer with PO43–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Reacts with H3O+ to form HPO42–

Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–

Diprotic weak acid

Options
HCl
HClO4
H2SiO3
H2SO4

Monoprotic strong acid

Options
HCl
HC2H3O2
H2C3H2O2
H2SO4

Acid which completely dissociates in solution to produce negative ions with a charge of one

Options
HCl
HC2H3O2
H2C3H2O2
H2SO4

Salt whose dissociation produces equal amounts of two ions

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance which reacts with H2SO4 to produce K2SO4

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance produced when HNO3 neutralizes NaOH

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Substance which reacts with NaOH to produce Na3PO4

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

Salt whose dissociation produces more positive ions than negative ions

Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4

PH = 2.30

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

PH = 7.00

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

[H3O+] = 2.0 x 10–8 M

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

[OH–] = 3.0 x 10–-6 M

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaCl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaCN solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NaOH solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous NH4Cl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Aqueous HCl solution

Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution

Inorganic compounds divided in to:

Options
Simple, complex substances
Metals, nonmetals
Acid, base, salt, oxide
Metal, acid, simple substance

What is the oxides?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues.
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

What is the bases?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

What is the salts?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues

What is the acids?

Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen.
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.

Complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them oxygen are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl group (OH) are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues are called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid residues are
called?

Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids

Basic formula oxides?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula bases?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula salts?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy

Basic formula acids?

Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy
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Question (1/16)

Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the given….

Options
Protein
Lipids
Carbohydrate
Vitamins

In carbohydrates a special functional groups are present in the given following:

Options
Alcohol & Carboxyl groups
Aldehyde & Ketone groups
Hydroxyl groups & Hydrogen groups
Carboxyl groups & Others

Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of …

Options
L-type
PrevD-type
SkipDL-types
NextNone of the above

Simplest carbohydrate is ….

Options
Dihydroxy acetone
Glycerldehyde
Glucose
Gulose

Examples of Epimers….

Options
Glucose &Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
A&c
Fermentation is the degradation of complex organic substances into simpler ones by the activity
of living cells through the agency of ….

Options
Acid
Alkali
Oxidizing substances
Enzymes (Zymase)

The end product of hydrolysis of “Starch” by amylase is …

Options
Soluble starch
Glucose
Dextrins
Maltose

Structure or shape of something is known as its

Options
Structure
Morphology
Conformation
Shape

Glucose is a monosaccharide and is a

Options
Hexose
Pentose
Furanose
Sucrose

What is the relationship between glucose, mannose and galactose?

Options
They are isomers
They are epimers
They are ketoses
No relationship exists

What best describes amylose?

Options
Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

What best describes amylopectin?


Options
Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages

What is the storage form of carbohydrate in animals?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch

Where is glycogen stored?

Options
In the kidney and liver
In the stomach and kidney
In the muscle and liver
In the muscle and stomach

What is the major constituent of plant cell wall?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch

What forms the exoskeleton of anthropods?

Options
Agarose
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch
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Question (1/313)
30. 30
31. 31
Thermodynamics studies
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.General
34 laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
35.Energy
35 changes during chemical transformations.
36.The
36 rate of chemical reactions.
37.Chemical
37 processes that cause electrons to move.
38. 38
By39. 39
interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:
40. 40
Options
41. 41
42.Thermal
42 conductivity, Convection, Radiation
43.Heterogeneous,
43 homogeneous
44.Open,
44 Closed, Isolated
45.Isochoric,
45 Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
46. 46
What
47. 47is the Open System?
48. 48
Options
49. 49
50.Matter
50 and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
51.Energy
51 but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
52.Neither
52 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
53.Homogeneous
53 in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
54. 54
What
55. 55is the Closed System?
56. 56
Options
57. 57
Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
58. 58
Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
59. 59
PrevEnergy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
60. 60
Skip
61.Neither
61 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
Next
62. 62
What is the Isolated System?
63. 63
64. 64
Options
65.Matter
65 and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
66. 66
Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
67. 67
Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
68. 68
Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
69. 69
70. 70
Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
71. 71
72. 72
Options
73.Open
73 System
74.Closed
74 System
75.Isolated
75 System
76.Adiabatic
76 System
77. 77
Energy
78. 78but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
79. 79
Options
80. 80
81.Open
81 System
82.Closed
82 System
83.Isolated
83 System
84.Adiabatic
84 System
85. 85
Neither
86. 86 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
Open System
89. 89
90.Closed
90 System
91.Isolated
91 System
92.Adiabatic
92 System
93. 93
Thermodynamic processes may be:
94. 94
95. 95
Options
96. 96
Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
97. 97
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
98. 98
Open, Closed, Isolated
99. 99
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
100. 100
101. 101
What is the Isothermal process?
102. 102
103. 103
Options
104.A 104
process during which the temperature T = const
105.A 105
process during which the pressure P = const
106.A 106
process during which the specific volume v = const
107. 107
A process during which the heat Q = 0
108. 108
109. 109
What is the Isobaric process?
110. 110
Options
111. 111
112.A 112
process during which the temperature T = const
113.A 113
process during which the pressure P = const
114.A 114
process during which the specific volume v = const
115.A 115
process during which the heat Q = 0
116. 116
What
117. 117
is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?
118. 118
Options
119. 119
120.A 120
process during which the temperature T = const
121.A 121
process during which the pressure P = const
122.A 122
process during which the specific volume v = const
123.A 123
process during which the heat Q = 0
124. 124
What
125. 125
is the adiabaticprocess?
126. 126
Options
127. 127
128.A 128
process during which the temperature T = const
129.A 129
process during which the pressure P = const
130.A 130
process during which the specific volume v = const
131.A 131
process during which the heat Q = 0
132. 132
A133.
process
133 during which the temperature T = const is called?
134. 134
Options
135. 135
Isothermal process
136. 136
137.Isobaric
137 process
138.Isochoric
138 (or isometric) process
139.Adiabaticprocess
139
140. 140
A process during which the pressure P = const is called?
141. 141
142. 142
Options
143. 143
Isothermal process
144. 144
Isobaric process
145. 145
146.Isochoric
146 (or isometric) process
147.Adiabaticprocess
147
148. 148
A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?
149. 149
150. 150
Options
151.Isothermal
151 process
152. 152
Isobaric process
153. 153
Isochoric (or isometric) process
154. 154
Adiabaticprocess
155. 155
156.basic
The 156 formula for Entropy;
157. 157
Options
158. 158
159.Q=∆U+A
159
160.H=U+pV
160
161.∆U161
= U(final) – U(initial)
162.S 162
= KlnW
163. 163
164. 164movement of colloidal particles is:
Chaotic
165. 165
Options
166. 166
167.Osmosis;
167
168.Diffusion;
168
169.Brownian
169 motion;
170.Coagulation
170 .
171. 171
Find
172. the
172 formula of Internal energy.
173. 173
Options
174. 174
175.Q=∆U+A
175
176.H=U+pV
176
177.∆U177
= U(final) – U(initial)
178. 178
∆S = S(initial) - S(final)
179. 179
180. 180energy is called?
Internal
181. 181
Options
182. 182
183.Sum
183of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
184.Heat
184 flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
185.Reactions
185 accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
186.The
186rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
187. 187
Colloidal
188. 188 dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:
189. 189
Options
190. 190
191.Aerosol;
191
192.Emulsion;
192
193.Sol;
193
194.Foam
194
195. 195
Sum
196. of
196all potential and kinetic energies of all components
197. 197
Options
198. 198
Internal energy
199. 199
Enthalpy
200. 200
201.Entropy;
201
Exothermic
202. 202 process
203. 203
Fog and smoke are:
204. 204
205. 205
Options
206. 206
Aerosols;
207. 207
Emulsions;
208. 208
Gels;
209. 209
Foams
210. 210
211. 211 is called?
Enthalpy
212. 212
213. 213
Options
214.Sum
214of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
215.Heat
215 flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
216. 216
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
217. 217
The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
218. 218
219.consists
Sol 219 of:
220. 220
Options
221. 221
222.Liquid
222 droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
223.Solid
223 particles dispersed throughout a gas;
224.Solid
224 particles dispersed in a liquid;
225.Liquid
225 droplets dispersed throughout another liquid
226. 226
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
227. 227
228. 228
Options
229. 229
Internal energy
230. 230
231.Enthalpy
231
Entropy
232. 232
233.Exothermic
233 process
234. 234
Stability of a disperse system is:
235. 235
236. 236
Options
237. 237
Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and
238. 238
viscosity;
239. 239
Process of particles integration;
240. 240
Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
241. 241
242.Constancy
242 in time of its state and main properties.
243. 243
The heat transfer are divided into
244. 244
245. 245
Options
246.Thermal
246 conductivity, Convection, Radiation
247. 247
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
248. 248
Open, Closed, Isolated
249. 249
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
250. 250
251. 251 stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:
Aggregate
252. 252
Options
253. 253
254.Coalescing
254 of particles;
255.Sedimentation
255 of particles;
256.Destruction
256 of particles;
257. 257
Subdivision of particles.
258. 258
259. 259
What is the thermal conductivity?
260. 260
Options
261. 261
262.The
262material to conduct heat.
263.Heat
263 is transferred from one place to another.
264.The
264radiation transmitted even void (sun).
265.None
265 of them.
266. 266
What is the convection?
267. 267
268. 268
Options
269. 269
270.The
270material to conduct heat.
271.Heat
271 is transferred from one place to another.
272.The
272radiation transmitted even void (sun).
273.None
273 of them.
274. 274
The
275.structure
275 of ironic hydroxide sol:
276. 276
Options
277. 277
278.{m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
278
279.{m[BaSO4]
279 n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
280.{m[BaSO4]
280 n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
281.{m[Au]
281 n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.
282. 282
What is the radiation?
283. 283
284. 284
Options
285. 285
The material to conduct heat.
286. 286
287.Heat
287 is transferred from one place to another.
288.The
288radiation transmitted even void (sun).
289.None
289 of them.
290. 290
According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
291. 291
292. 292
Options
293. 293
Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
294. 294
Precipitate and water;
295. 295
Mixture of gases;
296. 296
297.Atoms
297 and ions.
298. 298
Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?
299. 299
300. 300
Options
301.Julius
301 Robert von Mayer
302.Rudolf
302 Clausius
303. 303
Mendeleev
304. 304
Gibbs
305. 305
306. 306 phase of sparkling drinks is:
Disperse
307. 307
Options
308. 308
309.N2;
309
310.H2O;
310
311.CO2;
311
312. 312
O2.
313. 313
Aerosol is:

Options
Powder;
Dust cloud;
Hairspray;
All answers are right.

Biological gel is:

Options
Cartilage;
Air;
Clouds;
River water

The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:

Options
These are heterogeneous systems;
Particles are visible with the naked eye;
They are easily besieged;
All answers are right.

Coarse disperse system is:

Options
Solution;
Suspension;
Sol;
Gel.

Chromatography is:

Options
The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
A type of disperse systems;
A continuous phase;
The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.

Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:

Options
Surface tension;
Surface energy;
Internal energy;
Heat of dissolution.

Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:

Options
Fog;
Dust;
Smoke;
Steam.

Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:

Options
Color;
Transparence;
Size of particles;
Odor.

Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

Options
Liquid;
Solid;
Gas;
All answers are right

What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?

Options
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a
liquid;
On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.

Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:

Options
Coarse dispersed;
Colloidal;
Molecular;
True solution.

Coagulation is:

Options
Chaotic movement of particles;
Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;
Destruction of the native protein structure;
The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby
separate from the continuous phase.

Optical properties of dispersed systems are:

Options
Viscosity, flowability;
Opalescence, light absorption;
Diffusion, Brownian motion;
Dissolution, swelling.

Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:

Options
Opalescence;
Light absorption;
Electrodialysis;
Electrophoresis and electroosmosis
A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:

Options
Negatively charged;
Positively charged;
Electro neutral;
Negatively and positively charged.

Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of

Options
Diameter
Particle size
Radius
Solubility

The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order

Options
Suspension> colloidal > true solution
True solution > suspension > colloidal
Suspension> colloidal = true solution
None of the above

Colloids can be purified by

Options
Peptization
Coagulation
Dialysis
Bredic arc method

Which is a natural colloid?

Options
Sodium chloride
Urea
Cane sugar
Blood

Which one of the following is not a colloid

Options
Milk
Blood
Ice cream
Urea solution

Milk is a colloid in which

Options
A liquid is dispersed in liquid
A solid is dispersed in liquid
A gas is dispersed in liquid
Some sugar is dispersed in water

An aerosol is a colloidal system of

Options
A liquid dispersed in a solid
A liquid dispersed in a gas
A gas dispersed in air
None of the above

Which of the following is a homogeneous system

Options
Muddy water
Bread
Concrete
A solution of sugar in water

Which of the following is an emulsifier?

Options
Soap
Water
Oil
NaCl

Lyophobic colloids are

Options
Reversible colloids
Irreversible colloids
Protective colloids
Gum proteins

Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?

Options
Condensation
Dialysis
Diffusion through animal membrane
Addition of an electrolyte

Colloidal solutions are not purified by

Options
Dialysis
Electrodialysis
Ultrafiltration
Electrophoresis

Suspensions are

Options
Visible to naked eye
Not visible by any means
Invisible under electron microscope
Invisible through microscope

Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

Options
Gelatin
Sulphur
Gold
Carbon

Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of

Options
Lyophilic sol
Associated colloid
Hydrophobic sol
Emulsion

The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

Options
Charge on their particles
A layer of medium of dispersion on their particles
The smaller size of their particles
The large size of their particles

Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because

Options
The colloidal particles have positive charge
The colloidal particles have negative charge
The colloidal particles are solvated
There are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.

Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?

Options
High concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained
Coagulation is reversible
Viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water
The charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive,
negative, or even zero
When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

Options
Light scattered by colloidal particles
Size of the particle
Shape of the particle
Relative size

Light scattering takes place in

Options
Solution of electrolyte
Colloidal solutions
Electrodialysis
Electroplating

Maximum coagulation power is in

Options
Na+
Ba2+
Al3+
Sn4+

The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order

Options
Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+
Cl- , SO42- , PO43-
Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+
PO43-, SO42-,Cl-

Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by

Options
NaCl solution
Starch solution
Urea solution
FeCl3 solution

Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are

Options
Linear
Curved
Zigzag
Uncertain

The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as

Options
Photolysis
Dialysis
Pyrolysis
Peptisation

Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known as

Options
Electrolysis
Electrophoresis
Electrodyalysis
None of the above

Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the particles?

Options
Dialysis
Electrophoresis
Sedimentation
Ultrafiltration

Which one of the following is not represented by sols?

Options
Absorption
Tyndall effect
Flocculation
Paramagnetism

Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance

Options
Accumulates in the surface of the other substance
Goes into the body of the other substance
Remains close to the other substance
Forms chemical bonds with other substences.

Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

Options
Colloidal S
Colloidal antimony
Colloidal gold
Colloidal platinum

As2S3 sol is

Options
Positive colloid
Negative colloid
Neutral colloid
None of the above

Which of the following is a colloid?

Options
Sugar solution
Urea solution
Silicic acid
NaCl solution

Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?

Options
Smoke
Ink
Blood
Air

Milk is

Options
Fat dispersed in milk
Fat dispersed in water
Water dispersed in fat
Water dispersed in oil

Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which

Options
Solid is dispersed in liquid
Liquid is dispersed in a solid
Gas is dispersed in a solid
Solid is dispersed in a solid

What is the endothermic process?

Options
Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

What is the exothermic process?

Options
Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called

Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?


Options
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
Open, Closed, Isolated
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
Endothermic reactions

Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

Options
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
Open, Closed, Isolated
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
Exothermic reactions

Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Q= ΔU+ W

Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
Q= ΔU+ W
ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)

Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:

Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Q= ΔU+ W

System consisting of three phases is called

Options
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Isolated
Open

System consisting of one phase is called

Options
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Isolated
Open

What is the heterogeneous system?

Options
System consisting of three phases is called
Heat is transferred from one place to another.
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
System consisting of one phase is called

What is the homogeneous system?

Options
System consisting of three phases is called
Heat is transferred from one place to another.
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
System consisting of one phase is called

What are the units of energy?

Options
Volta
Pascal
Liter
Joule

Spontaneous process occurs only

Options
Without external energy
At constant temperature
In forward direction
With external energy help

Internal energy is ……

Options
Energy of system at constant pressure
Gibbs energy
Energy of system at constant volume
Measure of systems randomness

Enthalpy is expressed by following

Options
H = U + pV
∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
H = G + TS
Qp = ∆H
Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Options
A
G
Qp
H

Find state parametre

Options
Q
G
T
H

Indicate which function isn’t function of state

Options
Q
G
Qp
S

Find state parameter

Options
Q
G
V
H

For spontaneous processes

Options
∆H ≥ 0
∆S ≤ 0
∆G ≥ 0
∆H≤ 0

Chemical kinetics studies –

Options
Energy changes during chemical transformations.
The rate of chemical reactions.
General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
Of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

Butter is a colloid formed when

Options
Fat is dispersed in water
Fat globules are dispersed in water
Water is dispersed in fat
None of the above

Which of the following is not a colloid?

Options
Chlorophyll
Smoke
Ruby glass
Milk

Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?

Options
Monomolecular
Dimolecular
Trimolecular
Radical reaction

Which of the following is a homogeneous system?

Options
Muddy water
Bread
Concrete
A solution of sugar in water

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?

Options
Monomolecular
Radical reaction
Dimolecular
Trimolecular

Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:

Options
Monomolecular
Dimolecular
Radical reaction
Trimolecular

What is the Monomolecular reaction?

Options
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.

What is theDimolecular Reaction?

Options
Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Conjugate reactions.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.

What is theTrimolecular reaction?

Options
Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
Reactions proceeding simultaneously.

A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as

Options
Gel
Homogeneous solution
Sol
Aerosol

Enzymes isais a substance that …

Options
Increase the rate of reaction
Decrease the rate of reaction
Biological catalyst of reaction
No effect on the reaction rate

If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as

Options
A sol
A gel
An emulsion
A foam

A substance that increases the reaction rate-

Options
Catalyst
Indicator
Inhibitor
Reducing agents.

A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as


Options
Foam
Sol
Aerosol
Emulsion

A substance that decrease the reactionrate-

Options
Catalyst
Inhibitor
Enzymes
Indicator

Reversible reactions are called?

Options
A change that can go forwards or backwards
A change that cannot go back,
Process of substance dissolution
Reactions proceeding in parallel

Irreversible reactions are called?

Options
A change that can go forwards or backwards
A change that cannot go back,
Reactions proceeding in parallel
Process of substance dissolution

The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

The reactions that cannot go back is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

A material that dissolves is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?

Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble

Which of these reactions are monomolecular

Options
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
I2 → I • + I •

Which of these reactions are monomolecula

Options
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
Cl2 → 2Cl
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2

Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

Options
CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

Which of these reactions are dimolecular

Options
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
2HI → H2 + I2
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

Which of these reactions are dimolecular.

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
Which of these reactions are dimolecula

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
N2O4 → 2NO2

Emulsifiers are generally

Options
Soap
Synthetic detergents
Lyophilic sols
All of the above

The equilibrium constant for the reaction? 2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):

Options
Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2];
Kc = [CO2] / [CO];
Kc = 1 / [CO2];
Kc = [CO] / [CO2]

What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?2NO + O2→2NO2

Options
Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]

Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction? N2 +3H2 =
2NH3

Options
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2

Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is

Options
K= [O2]
K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
K= [NaNO3 ]

Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is

Options
K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
K = [CO2 ]
K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]

In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?

Options
Backward
Forward
Won’t shifted
Towards reactants

The rate constant of a reactions depends on

Options
Temperature
Initial concentration of the reactants
Time of reaction
Extent of reaction

The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the

Options
Concentration of the reactant
Concentration of the product
Time
Temperature

A catalyst is a substance which

Options
Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
Supplies energy to the reaction

The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their

Options
Stability
Molecular weight
Equivalent weight
Active mass

In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

Options
Same
Different
One side more
Not definite

Butter is

Options
Emulsion
Aerosol
Suspension
None

A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are

Options
Unequal
Constant
Equal
Increased

The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium is
termed as

Options
Aerosol
Gel
Emulsion
Foam

The law of mass action was enunciated by

Options
Guldberg and Waage
Bodenstein
Berthlot
Graham

Which one of an example of gel?

Options
Soap
Fog
Cheese
Milk
According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction will
N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal

Options
Increase the yield of NO
Decrease by yield of NO
Not effect on the yield of NO
Not help the reaction to proceed

Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called

Options
Aerosol
Cannot be prepared
Gas aerosol
Gasosol

Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g) Why is the reaction slower when a single
piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the same mass is used?

Options
The powdered zinc is more concentrated;
The single piece of zinc is more reactive;
The powdered zinc requires less activation energy;
The powdered zinc has a greater surface area.

As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:

Options
Increases
Decreases;
Remains the same;
Approaches zero

Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

Options
The number of moles of the reactants and products;
The potential energies of the reactants and products;
The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;
The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.

When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is called

Options
Smoke
Clouds
Jellies
Emulsions
Milk is an example of

Options
Pure solution
Emulsion
Gel
Suspension

The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as

Options
Electro-osmosis
Brownian movement
Cataphoresis
Dialysis

Tyndall effect will be observed in

Options
Solution
Precipitate
Sol
Vapour

Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

Options
Scattering of light
Reflection of light
Absorption of light
Presence of electrically charged particles

The Brownian motion is due to

Options
Temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase
Attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles
Impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles
Convective currents

The sky looks blue due to

Options
Dispersion effect
Reflection
Transmission
Scattering

The blue color of water in the sea is due to

Options
Refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water
Reflection of blue sky by sea water
Scattering of blue light by water molecules
Absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules

Which colloid is used in treating eye disease

Options
Colloidal S
Colloidal antimony
Colloidal gold
Colloidal silver

Random motion of colloidal particles is known as

Options
Dialysis
Brownian movement
Electro-osmosis
Tyndall effect

In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?

Options
Suspension
Emulsion
Sugar solution
Gold sol

Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?

Options
Milk
Gum
Fog
Blood

Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is

Options
Suspension
Emulsion
Gel
Rtue solution

The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is

Options
Dialysis
Addition of electrolytes
Diffusion through animal membrane
Condensation

As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles abruptly
collected into spherical structures called _________

Options
Ball
Sphere of ions
Micelles
Dirt particle

_________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary
liquid induced by an external field.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?

Options
Minerals
Vitamins
Proteins
Starch

At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________

Options
Molecular colloid
Associated colloid
Macromolecular colloid
Lyophillic colloid

Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

Options
Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration
Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
Aqueous solution of odium chloride
Aqueous solution of sugar

Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

Options
By addition of oppositely charged sol
By addition of an electrolyte
By addition of lyophilic sol
By boiling
Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by

Options
Coagulation
Electrolysis
Diffusion
Peptisation

Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+

Options
Na2S
Na3PO4
Na2SO4
NaCl

A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________

Options
Solid sol
Gel
Emulsion
Sol

The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison to those
shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles ____________

Options
Exhibit enormous surface area
Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
Form lyophilic colloids
Are comparatively less in number

Which element is present in all organic compounds?

Options
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Phosphorous

Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

Options
Low melting point
High melting point
Soluble in polar solvents
Insoluble in nonpolar solvents

Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is
Options
Slower because organic particles are ions
Slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds
Faster because organic particles are ions
Faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds

Which compounds are isomers?

Options
1-propanol and 2-propanol
Methanoic acid and ethanoic acid
Methanol and methanal
Ethane and ethanol

Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

Options
Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.
Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.
Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms
Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms

Which polymers occur naturally?

Options
Starch and nylon
Starch and cellulose
Protein and nylon
Protein and plastic

What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?

Options
Butane
Butene
Benzene
Butyne

In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a regular

Options
Pyramid
Tetrahedron
Square
Rectangle

In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per molecule?

Options
C2H2 and C2H6
C2H2 and C3H6
C4H8 and C2H4
C6H6 andC7H8

A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:

Options
Decrease;
Increase
Remain the same;
Approach zero

Which compound contain an alcohol group?

Options
Acetone
Methanale
Methanol
Dimethyl ether

In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:

Options
Make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;
Add a catalyst;
Cool the reaction down;
Use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.

The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and

Options
Water
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
Sulfur dioxide

Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) +
Cl-(aq)

Options
II only;
III only;
I and II only;
II and III only

Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
Ethane
Ethene
Ethyne
Ethanol
Molarity is expressed as

Options
Grams/litre
Litres/mole
Moles/litre
Moles/1000 gm

Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in

Options
1000 gm of the solvent
Onelitre of the solution
One litre of the solvent
22.4 litres of the solution

What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?

Options
An addition reaction
A substitution reaction
A saponification reaction
An esterification reaction

Normality is expressed as

Options
Moles/litre
Gm equivalents/litre
Moles/1000 gm
Gram/litre

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?

Options
1
2
3
4

The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is

Options
1N
10 N
1.7 N
0.83 N

Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?

Options
Acids
Alcohols
Esters
Ethers

Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is

Options
1N
0x1N
4N
None

Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?

Options
2-methylpropane
2-methylbutane
Propane
Butane

The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is

Options
0x1
1
4
0.4

Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is

Options
2.04 N
0.49 N
0.98 N
0.35 N

What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

Options
Ketone
Protein
Ester
Acid

What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?

Options
0.5 N
1.0 N
2.0 N
3.0 N

During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their

Options
Boiling points
Melting points
Triple points
Saturation points

Which compound is an organic acid?

Options
CH3OH
CH3OCH3
CH3COOH
CH3COOCH3

Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different

Options
Percentage compositions;
Molecular masses;
Molecular formulas;
Structural formulas.

Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is

Options
2N
4N
N/2
N/4

Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one additional carbon
atom and

Options
One hydrogen atom;
Two hydrogen atoms;
Three hydrogen atoms;
Four hydrogen atoms.

The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is ?

Options
0.46 N
0.23 N
2.3 N
4.6 N
The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has the same

Options
Empirical formula;
General formula;
Structural formula;
Molecular formula.

The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is

Options
4g
1g
2g
10 g

What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?

Options
Methanol;
Methane;
Methyl methanoate;
Methanoic acid.

Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be

Options
0.05 M
0.2 M
0.1 M
0.4 M

A compound with the formula C6 H6 is

Options
Toluene;
Benzene;
Butene;
Pentene.

The molarity of pure water is

Options
55.6
50
100
18

C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.

Options
Addition;
Substitution;
Saponification;
Esterification.

The number of moles in 180 g of water is

Options
1
10
18
100

The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of

Options
C3H7COCH3;
CH3COOC2H5;
C2H5OC2H5;
CH3COOH.

The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is

Options
1
2
3
1.5

What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?

Options
1
2
3
4

Which compound is a member of the alkane series?

Options
C2H6;
C3H6;
C4H6;
C6H6.

A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

Options
Carbon dioxide;
Water;
Glycerol;
Ethanol.

The general formula for the alkyne series is

Options
CnHn;
CnH2n;
CnH2n+2;
CnH2n-2.

Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is

Options
0.1 M
0.5 M
0.01 M
1.0 M

Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?

Options
Acetylene;
Ethylene;
Toluene;
Propene

What is the solution?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?

Options
HCOOCH3;
CH3CH2COOH;
CH3CH2OH;
CH3COOCH3

What is the solute?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which compound is a member of the alkene series?


Options
Benzene;
Toluene;
Acetylene;
Ethane

What is the solvent?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

Options
Single covalent;
Double covalent;
Triple covalent;
Coordinate covalent

What is the concentration?

Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent

Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?

Options
C2H4;
C3H6;
C4H8;
C5H10

A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

Options
An esterification reaction;
A neutralization reaction;
A saponification reaction;
A fermentation reaction.

Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is an
example of _______ reaction.

Options
Substitution;
Addition;
Polymerization;
Fermentation.

In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is

Options
11
10
3
8

Which compound is an ester?

Options
CH3COOH;
CH3CHO;
CH3COOCH3;
CH3COCH3.

The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

Options
A polymer;
A soap;
An ester;
An alcohol.

Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures are called

Options
Isomers;
Isotopes;
Allotropes;
Homologs.
Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?

Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration

A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

Options
Structural formula;
Molecular formula
Number of carbon atoms;
Number of hydrogen atoms.

Mass fraction is called?

Options
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.

Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?

Options
CH3COOH;
CH3CH2OH;
CH3CH2COOH;
CH3CH2CH2OH

Mass fraction is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as

Options
An acid;
An alcohol;
An ester;
A hydrocarbon

Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order, has 1
more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?

Options
1
2
3
4

Molar concentration is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The molar concentration of equivalent is called?

Options
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

The molal concentration is:

Options
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

Molal concentration is expressed in:

Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.

Find volume concentration

Options
Mass percent
Normality
Molality
Mass fraction

Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature

Options
Vant Hoff
Mendeleev
Arrhenius
Lomonosov

Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid

Options
98
2
32
49

Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid

Options
98
2
32.6
49

Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide

Options
98
37
32
49

“Activation energy” term is introduced by

Options
Coordination theory
Theory of valent bonds
Theory of active collisions
Theory of electrolytic dissociation
When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as

Options
Diluted solution
Saturated solution
Concentrated solution
Unsaturated solution

Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in

Options
High concentration
Low concentration
High temeprature
Low temeprature

One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by a/an

Options
Base
Acid
Salt
Suspension

Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is

Options
Molality
Percentage
Concentration
Molarity

A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a

Options
Colloid.
Suspension
Solution.
Compound.

Which molecular formula represents pentene?

Options
C4H8;
C4H10;
C5H10;
C5H12.

The dissolving medium in the solution is the

Options
Solute
Solution.
Solvent.
Mixture.

A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?

Options
Propanol;
Butanol;
Pentanol;
Glycerol

Which of the following is not a solution?

Options
Zinc
Sterling silver
Brass
Stainless steel

Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

Options
Organic acids;
Esters;
Alkynes;
Alkanes.

What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?

Options
Alcohol
Water
Sugar
Kerosene

Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

Options
C2H2;
C2H4;
C3H6;
C3H8.

Which of these solutions is in solid phase?

Options
Tincture of iodine
Aerosol
Air-iodine solution
Dental amalgam

Which of the following is not a property of solution?

Options
It has a definite composition.
It has a homogeneous composition.
It is consist of a single phase.
It can be physically separated into its components.

A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is

Options
Concentrated.
Dilute.
Unsaturated.
Saturated.

Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?

Options
Increasing the temperature
Increasing the pressure
Increasing the volume
Decreasing the pressure

What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?

Options
Vaporization and condensation
Dissolution and crystallization
Oxidation and reduction
Dissociation and reduction

Which formula represents an acid?

Options
CH3COOCH3;
CH3OH;
CH3COOH;
CH3CH2CH3.

Which solutions has concentration of 1M?  The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g.  A solution
containing

Options
342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution
Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and formic
acid. This type of reaction is called

Options
Fermentation;
Esterification;
Saponification;
Polymerization.

Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent.  Which solute will dissolve in it?

Options
Hexane
Sodium carbonate
Ethanol
Potassium chloride

Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?

Options
C3H6;
C2H6;
C2H2;
C6H6.

Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?

Options
Tetrahedral;
Planar triangular;
Linear;
Bent.

Most salt become soluble in water as the

Options
Pressure is increased.
Temperature is increased.
Temperature is decreased.
Pressure is decreased.

It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.

Options
Percent by mass
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction

Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

Options
Greater solubility in water;
More rapid reaction rates;
A tendency to form ions more readily;
Lower melting points.

The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is

Options
Percent by mass
Molality
Molarity
Mole fraction

Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?

Options
-COOH;
-OR;
-CHO;
#NAME?

It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.

Options
Molarity
Normality
Dilution
Molality

In dilution of solution,

Options
A solute is added to the solution.
)solvent is added to the solution
The amount of moles increases.
Volume of solution decreases.

C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.

Options
Substitution;
Addition;
Polymerization;
Esterification.

A 40% alcohol contains

Options
40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.

The isomers of propanol differ in

Options
The number of carbon atoms;
The arrangement of the carbon atoms;
Molecular mass;
The position of functional group.

Solutions are:

Options
Isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
Homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
Homogeneous systems which contain at least two components
Heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.

Which is the formula of an alcohol?

Options
Ba(OH)2;
HCHO;
CH3COOH;
C5H11OH.

Solubility of solids depends upon:

Options
Temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents;
Pressure;
Heat of solution;
All answers are right.

C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as

Options
A carbohydrate;
An ester;
An organic acid;
An alcohol.

In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:

Options
Liquid, transparent, colored;
Solid, liquid, turbid;
Gaseous, liquid, solid;
Liquid, turbid, colored.
Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number of solute particles and not
their nature. They are:

Options
Vapor pressure lowering;
Density;
Viscosity;
Diffusion.

Which compound can have isomers?

Options
C2H4;
C2H2;
C2H6;
C4H8.

The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the
solution is defined as:

Options
The Henry’s law;
The Sechenov equation;
The Ostvald’s dilution law;
The Paul’s principle.

C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?

Options
Polymerization;
Substitution;
Addition;
Esterification.

An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:

Options
Hemolysis;
Plasmolysis;
Swelling;
Precipitation.

Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:

Options
0.01M sucrose;
0.01 M sodium phosphate;
0.01 М potassium chloride;
0.01 M sodium carbonate.

Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?


Options
CCl2F2;
C2H2;
C2H5OH;
C2H5OC2H5.

The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:

Options
Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure
solvents;
Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure
solvents;
Boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile
solutes;
Boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile
solutes.

Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?

Options
C3H8;
C3H7OH;
CH3COOH;
CH3COOCH3.
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Question (1/12)

What is the concentration of OH– in a solution with a H+ concentration of 1.3×10-4 M?

Options
7.7×10-10 M
7.7×10-9 M
7.7×10-11 M
7.7×10-12 M

Identify the triprotic acid from the following

Options
Carbonic acid
Bicarbonate
Glycine
Phosphoric acid

Which of the following acids has the lowest pKa value?

Options
Acetic acid
PrevSulphuric acid
SkipDil.HCl
NextOxalic acid

The degree of ionization does not depend on?

Options
Temperature
Current
Nature of solvent
Concentration

Aqueous solution of the detergents are

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Amphoteric

What makes water a liquid at room temperature?

Options
Hydrogen bonds between water molecules
Covalent bonding
Noncovalent interactions
Van der Waals forces of attraction

ΔG is negative for which of the following processes?

Options
Melting of ice and evaporation of water
Oxidation of nitrogen
Oxidation of gold
Burning of chlorine

ΔH is positive for which of the following processes?

Options
Oxidation of nitrogen
Melting of ice and evaporation of water
Oxidation of gold
Burning of chlorine

What is the factor that is responsible for salts like NaCl to dissolve in water easily?

Options
Decrease in entropy
Increase in entropy
Increase in enthalpy
Decrease in enthalpy

Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

Options
Oceans
Freshwater habitats
0.45% sodium chloride
Red blood cells placed in fresh water

Which of the following is a hypotonic solution?

Options
10% dextrose in water
0.45% sodium chloride
5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
Oceans

Which of the following is an isotonic solution?

Options
0.9% sodium chloride
0.45% sodium chloride
Oceans
10% dextrose in water
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Question
23. 23 (1/50)
24. 24
Why
25. pure
25 water is very weak electrolyte?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.It28
ionizes to a large extent
29.It29
ionizes to very small extent
30.It30
does not ionizes at all
31.It31
ionizes completely
32. 32
33. 33molecule is a highly polar solvent due to:
Water
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Presence
36 of two lone pair of electrons
37. 37
Presence of three lone pair of electrons
38. 38
39.Absence
39 of lone pair of electrons
40.None
40 of these
41. 41
When
42. 42acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Both
45 (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.
46.Both
Prev 46 (H+) and (OH) ions increases
47. 47
Skip(H+) increases and (OH-) decreases
48. 48
Next(H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.
49. 49
50. 50of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?
Buffer

Options
Weak acid + weak base in water
Strong acid + strong base in water.
Weak acid + strong base in water.
Strong acid + weak base in water.

Which among the following is not a property of buffer solution?

Options
It has a definite PH.
PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.
PH remains constant on keeping for a long time
It does not has a definite PH

Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?

Options
AgCl
BaSO4
CH3COOAg
None of these

The concentration of a sparingly soluble salt in its saturated solution at a given temperature is
known as:

Options
Solubility product
Solubility
Hydrolysis
Degree of hydrolysis

If ionic product < solubility product then the solution is:

Options
Unsaturated
Just saturated.
Super saturated
None of these

Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength?

Options
HCl < HBr < HI < HF
HF < HBr < HCl < HI
HI < HCl < HBr < HF
HF < HCl < HI < HBr.

Lewis acid is one that:

Options
Accepts an electron pair
Donates a proton
Accepts a proton
Donates an electron pair

HCO3- acts as:

Options
Acid
Base
Both acid and base
None of these

Which of the following act as Bronsted acid?

Options
HSO3-
HCO3-
Both a and b
None

An acid is one that donates a proton. This theory was given by:

Options
Lewis
Lowery – Bronsted
Arrhenius
Ostwald

If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:

Options
Weak electrolyte
Strong electrolyte
Strong base
None of these.

NH4Cl and aq.NH3 will precipitate.

Options
Cu2+
Fe3+
Na+
K+

10-4 M HCl solution at 298 K is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution will:

Options
Lie between 8 and 9
Remain unchanged
Lie between 6 and 7
Equal to 7

The conjugate base of methyl alcohol is:

Options
Hydroxyl ion
Methyl radical
Hydronium ion
Methoxide ion

Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?

Options
Equimolar solutions
Equinormal solution
Both a and b
None of these

The ionisation of a weak electrolyte increases when the concentration of the solution is decreased.
This relation is given by:

Options
Ostwald’s law
Arrhenius equation
Nernst’s equation.
Law of mass action.

Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:

Options
Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised
It has low molecular weight
Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.
It does not dissociates completely

Aqueous solution of potassium chlorate is:

Options
Amphoteric
Neutral
Alkaline
Acidic

Precipitation of salt occurs if:

Options
Ionic product = solubility product
Ionic product > solubility product
Ionic product < solubility product
None of these

Addition of HCl will suppress the ionisation of:

Options
Benzoic acid
Carbonic acid
Nitric acid
Both a and b
Basicity of an acid is defined as number of replicable:

Options
OH groups in its molecule
H atom in its molecule
Non-metal cations in its molecule
Non-metal anions in its molecule

NH3 and H20 can act as:

Options
Lewis acid and Bronsted base
Lewis base and Bronsted acid
Lewis and Bronsted base
Lewis and Bronsted acid.

What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of HOCl (ka
= 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?

Options
7.0
3.2
7.3
4.5

A buffer solution is one that contains:

Options
A weak acid and its conjugate base
Strong base and its conjugate acid
Strong acid and its conjugate base
None of these

In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.

Options
Weak acid and strong base
Weak acid and weak base
Strong acid and strong base
Strong acid and weak base

Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:

Options
It is basic in nature
It is acidic in nature
Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base
Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.

Addition of a salt of weak acid and strong base to water would cause:
Options
Increase in pH.
PH remains same.
Decrease in pH
None of these.

Among the following which is a strong electrolyte and thus the best conductor of electricity?

Options
Sulphuric acid
Acetic acid
Boric acid
Phosphoric acids

Molarity of a solution is expressed as:

Options
The number of moles of a solute present in one litre of the solution
The number of moles of a solute present in 1000 gm of the solvent
The number of gram equivalent of solute present in one litre of solution
The ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute

Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

Options
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of boiling point
Freezing point
Depression in freezing point.

Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

Options
Camphor
Petrol
Acetone
Acetanilide

Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

Options
Obeys Raoult’s law.
Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero
There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.
Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

Options
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in
it
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

Options
Amount of solute
Nature of solute.
Amount of solvent
Nature of solvent

The unit of Cryoscopic constant is:

Options
Kelvin kg mol-1
Kelvin kg-1 mol-1
Kelvin kg mol+1
Kelvin kg+1 mol+1

Vant Hoff’s eqution for solution is:

Options
PV = n / RT
P = Vn / RT
PV = nRT
P = VnR / T

When osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:

Options
Equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute.
Equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.
Non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute
Non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute

Which among the following is true? i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling
point decreases.  ii. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point increases.  iii.
When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point decreases.  iv. When vapour
pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point increases.

Options
I & iii
I & iv.
Ii & iii
Ii & iv

Vapour pressure decreases with:


Options
Increase in concentration of the solution.
Decrease in solute particles in the solution
Decrease in boiling point.
Increase in freezing point.

Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:

Options
Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between
individual liquids
Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between
individual liquids.
Force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids
Force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.

If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:

Options
I=1
I>1
I=0
I<1

Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon number of
solute of particles present in the solution.  ii. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is
equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-electrolyte solute.

Options
I
Ii
Both i & ii
None of the above

Addition of common salt in water causes

Options
Increase in M.P of solution
Increase in B.P of solution
Decrease in B.P of solution
Decrease in both M.P & B.P

The value of Vant Hoff factor (i) = 2 is for:

Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Calcium chloride
Sodium chloride
Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

Options
An increase in melting point of the liquid
A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.
A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid
No change in the boiling point of the liquid.

Which of the following pair of liquids are immiscible?

Options
Acetone + water
Benzene + water.
Ethanol + water
Acetic acid + water

If the solvent boils at a temperature T1 and the solution at a temperature T2 , then the elevation of
boiling point is given by:

Options
T1 + T2
T1 – T2
T2 – T1.
None of the above
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Question
23. 23 (1/119)
24. 24
The
25.unit
25 of temperature in S.I. units is
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Centigrade
28
29.Celsius
29
30.Farhenheit
30
31.Kelvin
31
32. 32
33.unit
The 33 of mass in S.I. units is
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Kilogram
36
37. 37
Gram
38. 38
39.Tonne
39
40.Quintal
40
41. 41
The
42.unit
42 of time in S.I. units is
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Second
45
46. 46
PrevMinute
47. 47
SkipHour
48. 48
NextDay
49. 49
50.unit
The 50 of length in S.I. units is
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Meter
53
54. 54
55.Centimeter
55
Kilometer
56. 56
57.Millimeter
57
58. 58
The
59.unit
59 of energy in S.I. units is
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Watt
62
63.Joule
63
64.Joule/s
64
65. 65
66.Joule/m
66
67. 67
General gas equation is
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
PV=nRT
71. 71
72.PV=mRT
72
73.PV=C
73
74.PV=KiRT
74
75. 75
An76.
open76 system is one in which
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Mass
79 does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
80.Neither
80 mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
81. 81
Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
82. 82
83.Mass
83 crosses the boundary but not the energy
84. 84
An isolated system is one in which
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
88.Mas
88 does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
89.Neither
89 mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
90.Both
90 energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
91.Mass
91 crosses the boundary but not the energy
92. 92
93. 93of the following quantities is not the property of the system
Which
94. 94
Options
95. 95
96.Pressure
96
97.Temperature
97
98. 98
Specific volume
99. 99
100.Heat
100
101. 101
Mixture
102. 102of ice and water from a
103. 103
Options
104. 104
105.Closed
105 system
106.Open
106 system
107.Isolated
107 system
108.Heterogeneous
108 system
109. 109
If110.
∆H 110
value is less than zero than reaction will be
111. 111
Options
112. 112
113.Exothermic
113
114.Endothermic
114
115. 115
116.May
116or may not be Exothormic or Endothermic
117.None
117 of these
118. 118
119. 119
Which is true for a spontaneous endothermic process?

Options
∆H<0
∆G<0
∆S<0
∆G>0

A reaction has values of ∆H and ∆S which are both positive. The reaction

Options
Is spontaneous
Spontaneity is temperature dependent
Has an increasing free energy
Is non-spontaneous

Whenever a system undergoes either a change in state or an energy or mass transfer at a steady
state, it is said to undergo

Options
A change of state
A steady state transfer
A process
A thermodynamic change

A law which is applicable only to ideal vapours and liquids, that equates the equilibrium partial
pressures of a solution component in the coexisting phases, is known as

Options
Henry's law
Joule's law
Fick's law
Roult's law

An open system

Options
Is a specified region where transfers of energy and/or mass take place
Cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings
Is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries
Has a mass transfer across its boundaries, and the mass within the system is not necessarily

A system consisting of more than one phase is known as

Options
Open system
Isolated system
Closed system
Heterogeneous system

Second law of theromodynamics defines

Options
Heat
Enthalpy
Internal energy
Entropy

The internal energy of a substance depends on

Options
Temperature
Volume
Pressure
Entropy

At critical point the enthalpy of vaporisation is

Options
Only dependent on temperature
Zero
Maximum
Minimum

For a reversible adiabatic process the change in entropy is

Options
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinite

For any reversible process, the change in entropy of the system and surroundings is

Options
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinite

For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

Options
Positive
Negative
Infinite
Zero

In an isothermal process

Options
Temperature increases gradually
Volume remains constant
Change in internal energy is zero
Pressure remains constant

Which of the following is incorrect?

Options
The pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressure of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
The entropy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the entropies of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
The internal energy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum f the internal energies of the
indicudual components taken each at the temperature and the volume of the mixture
None of the above

If the ∆H° for the reaction, 2 Mg (s) + 2 Cl2 (g) → 2 MgCl2 (s), is -1283.6 kJ, what is the standard
enthalpy of formation of magnesium chloride?

Options
0 kJ/mol
-320.9 kJ/mol
-641.8 kJ/mol
1283.6 kJ/mol

Which of the following compounds will not undergo an acid-base (neutralization) reaction with
HClO4?

Options
NaOH
Sr(OH)2
NH3
H2SO4

The reaction below reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel. C6H12O6(s) = 2 C2H5OH(l) + 2
CO2(g), ∆Ho = −72 kJ Which of the following actions causes an increase in the value of Kc? (i)
adding some CO2(g) (ii) transferring the reaction mixture to a vessel of larger volume (iii)
increasing the temperature

Options
(i) only
(ii) only
(iii) only
None of the above
What is the coefficient of O2 when the following equation is balanced? C10H8(s) + x O2(g) → y
CO2(g) + z H2O(l)

Options
1
6
7
12

Natural oils, such as vegetable oil, are converted into solid, edible fats by a process called

Options
Fusion
Hydrogenation
Crystallization
Saponification

Which of the following is the strongest acid in water?

Options
HBr
HOBrO2
HF
HI

The heat of combustion of C(s) is −394 kJ/mol and that of CO(g) is −111 kJ/mol. What is the enthalpy
change for the reaction below? CO(g) → C(s) + ½ O2(g)

Options
505 kJ
283 kJ
111 kJ
−283 kJ

How are the boiling and freezing points of water affected by the addition of a soluble salt?

Options
The freezing and boiling points are both lowered.
The freezing and boiling points are both raised.
The freezing is lowered and the boiling point is raised.
The freezing is raised and the boiling point is lowered.

In which ionic compound does the cation have the same number of electrons as the anion?

Options
LiF
NaCl
CaO
MgF2
Which of the following compounds displays only covalent bonding?

Options
NH4OH
Li2O
HOCN
NaNO3

When temperature is increased, the rate of a reaction also increases. This observation is best
explained by

Options
An increase in the frequency of molecular collisions
A decrease in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
An increase in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
An increase in the fraction of molecules that have enough energy to react

For a given substance, which of the following phase transitions is the most exothermic?

Options
Solid → liquid
Gas → solid
Liquid → gas
Solid → gas

The following reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel at 200o C. CO(g) + 3 H2(g) →
CH4(g) + H2O(g), ΔHo = −206 kJ Which of the following actions causes the reaction to proceed from
left to right in order to restore equilibrium?

Options
Increasing the volume of the container, holding temperature constant
Adding some CH4 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
Adding some H2 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
Increasing the temperature, holding the pressure constant

In which of the following compounds does oxygen have the highest oxidation state?

Options
CsO2
H2O
O2
OF2

What is the formula of the stable compound formed by magnesium and nitrogen?

Options
MgN
Mg2N
Mg3N2
Mg2N3
Which of the following bonds is most polar?

Options
B−O
B-F
C-O
C=O

When the following equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients, what is
the coefficient of O2? NH3 + O2 → NO + H2O

Options
2
3
4
5

Which of the statements concerning the structure of benzene is false?

Options
The double bonds oscillate rapidly back and forth between adjacent pairs of carbon atoms.
The H-C-C angles are 120o
The carbon atoms form a flat hexagonal ring.
The oxidation state of carbon is −1.

Of the following compounds, which one contains nitrogen in an oxidation state of +5?

Options
NO2F
N2O3
NH4Cl
Mg3N2

To which process does the term sublimation refer?

Options
Solid to liquid
Liquid to solid
Solid to gas
Gas to solid

Each of two identical containers holds one mole of CH4gas and one mole SO2 gas, all at the same
temperature. Which of following statements is true?

Options
The SO2 gas has a higher pressure.
The CH4 gas has a greater density.
The SO2 molecules move, on average, faster than the CH4 molecules.
Deviations from ideal gas behaviour are smaller for the CH4 gas.
Which of the following has the same number of electrons as a water molecule?

Options
H2S
BH3
OH−
BeH2

What is the formula of magnesium sulfate?

Options
MgS
MgS2
Mg3S2
MgSO4

Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?

Options
HF
HCl
HBr
HI

Which of the following is a product of the reaction between H2SO4(aq) and NaOH(aq)?

Options
H2(g)
H+(aq)
H2O(l)
O2(g)

Which of the following species is not linear?

Options
O3
HCN
C2H2
NNO

Which of the following compounds has the greatest ionic character?

Options
IBr
CsF
HI
HF

What is the oxidation state of Cr in Li2CrO4?


Options
−6
−2
0
+6

Which of the following statements about H2SO3, a diprotic acid, is true?

Options
There is just one lone pair on the sulfur atom
It is a strong acid.
The hydrogen atoms are bonded directly to the sulfur atom
The oxidation state of sulfur is +6.

Which statement is not correct for the reaction below? 2 NO(g) ↔ N2(g) + O2(g)

Options
At equilibrium, the forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates
Reaction to the left or to the right occurs spontaneously until the equilibrium state is reached.
Reducing the volume of the system has no effect on the equilibrium amounts of NO, N2 and O2
The equilibrium value of [N2 ] [O2 ] / [NO]2 is the same at all temperatures

Which of the following is an ionic compound?

Options
HOCN
NH4NO2
CH3NH2
SiO2

Select the correct ending to make the following a true statement. A catalyst ...

Options
Lowers the energy of the products
Induces an alternate reaction pathway with a higher activation energy
Increases the frequency of collisions between molecules
Is not consumed by the overall reaction although it may be temporarily changed

How many electrons are needed to fill the 4f subshell of an atom?

Options
Two
Six
Ten
Fourteen

Which of the following bonds is the most polar?

Options
H−O
C−N
H−C
O−N

Which of the following have three unpaired electrons in their ground electronic states?

Options
The third period atoms (Na to Ar)
The group 3 atoms (B to Tl)
The group 15 atoms (N to Bi)
N3− and P3−

Which of the following statements concerning the nitrate ion, NO3−, is incorrect?

Options
The ONO bond angles are all 120o.
One of the nitrogen-oxygen bonds is shorter than the other two nitrogen-oxygen bonds.
The nitrogen atom has a formal charge of +1.
It is nonpolar.

Electronegativity is a measure of

Options
The magnitude of the charge of an electron
The energy released when an electron is added to an atom
The energy required to remove an electron from an atom
The ability of an atom to draw electron density towards itself

Which of the following is the weakest acid in water?

Options
H2S
H2Se
H2Te
HBr

Which of the following is always true of a spontaneous process?

Options
The process is exothermic
The process does not involve any work
The entropy of the system increases
The internal energy of the system decreasis

The equation ΔH= ΔU+PΔ V is applicable

Options
Always
Only for constant pressure processes
Only for constant temperature processes
Only for constant volume processes

What occurs as two atoms of fluorine combine to become a molecule of fluorine?

Options
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed.
A bond is formed as energy is released
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed
A bond is broken as energy is released

To break a chemical bond, energy must be

Options
Absorbed
Destroyed
Produced
Released

As two chlorine atoms combine to form a molecule, energy is

Options
Absorbed
Released
Created
Destroyed

As energy is released during the formation of a bond, the stability of the chemical system
generally will

Options
Decrease
Increase
Remain the same
Absorbed

Which element has an atom with the greatest tendency to attract electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
Carbon
Chlorine
Silicon
Sulfur

Which term indicates how strongly an atom attracts the electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
Alkalinity
Atomic mass
Electronegativity
Activation energy

Which formula represents a substance with the greatest degree of ionic bonding?

Options
PBr3
MgBr2
NH3
CO

An ionic compound is formed when there is a reaction between the elements

Options
Strontium and chlorine
Hydrogen and chlorine
Nitrogen and oxygen
Sulfur and oxygen

Which type of bond is formed when electrons are transferred from one atom to another?

Options
Covalent
Ionic
Hydrogen
Metallic

Which compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds?

Options
CaCO3
PCl3
MgF2
CH2O

Which of the following solids has the highest melting point?

Options
H2O(s)
Na2O(s)
SO2(s)
CO2(s)

What is the total number of electron pairs shared between the two atoms in an O2 molecule?

Options
1
2
6
4
A molecular compound is formed when a chemical reaction occurs between atoms of

Options
Chlorine and sodium
Chlorine and yttrium
Oxygen and hydrogen
Oxygen and magnesium

Which characteristic is a property of molecular substances?

Options
Good heat conductivity
Good electrical conductivity
Low melting point
High melting point

Magnesium nitrate contains chemical bonds that are

Options
Covalent, only
Ionic, only
Both covalent and ionic
Neither covalent nor ionic

A solid substance is an excellent conductor of electricity. The chemical bonds in this substance are
most likely

Options
Ionic, because the valence electrons are shared between atoms
Ionic, because the valence electrons are mobile
Metallic, because the valence electrons are stationary
Metallic, because the valence electrons are mobile

Which substance contains metallic bonds?

Options
Hg(l )
H2O( l)
NaCl(s)
C6H12O6(s)

Silicon dioxide (SiO2) and diamonds are best described as

Options
Molecular substances with coordinate covalent bonding
Molecular substances with ionic bonding
Network solids with covalent bonding
Network solids with ionic bonding

Which compound has hydrogen bonding between its molecules?


Options
CH4
CaH2
KH
NH3

Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule?

Options
CH4
HCl
H2O
NH3

Which statement explains why a molecule of CH4 is nonpolar?

Options
The bonds between the atoms in a CH4 molecule are polar
The bonds between the atoms in a CH4 molecule are ionic
The geometric shape of a CH4 molecule distributes the charges symmetrically.
The geometric shape of a CH4 molecule distributes the charges asymmetrically

Hydrogen bonding is a type of

Options
Strong covalent bond
Weak ionic bond
Strong intermolecular force
Weak intermolecular force

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: Cl2 → Cl + Cl What occurs during this
reaction?

Options
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed
A bond is broken as energy is released
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed
A bond is formed as energy is released

Which statement describes what occurs as two atoms of bromine combine to become a molecule
of bromine?

Options
Energy is absorbed as a bond is formed
Energy is absorbed as a bond is broken
Energy is released as a bond is formed
Energy is released as a bond is broken

Which of these elements has an atom with the most stable outer electron configuration?
Options
Ne
Cl
Ca
Na

When a sodium atom reacts with a chlorine atom to form a compound, the electron configurations
of the ions forming the compound are the same as those in which noble gas atoms?

Options
Krypton and neon
Krypton and argon
Neon and helium
Neon and argon

Which element has an atom with the greatest attraction for electrons in a chemical bond?

Options
As
Bi
N
P

Based on electronegativity values, which type of elements tends to have the greatest attraction for
electrons in a bond?

Options
Metals
Metalloids
Nonmetals
Noble gases

Which bond is least polar?

Options
As–Cl
Bi–Cl
P–Cl
N–Cl

Which formula represents an ionic compound?

Options
H2
CH4
CH3OH
NH4 Cl

Which type of bond results when one or more valence electrons are transferred from one atom to
another?
Options
A hydrogen bond
An ionic bond
A nonpolar covalent bond
A polar covalent bond

Based on bond type, which compound has the highest melting point?

Options
CH3OH
C6H14
CaCl2
CCl4

The environment in which a system is studied is

Options
State function
Phase
Surrounding
State

Unit of heat in SI system is

Options
J
KCaL
Cal
Kg

Total energy of a system is

Options
P.E + K.E
P.E + heat energy
K.E + heat energy
P.E + mechanical energ

CuSO4 + Zn ZnSO4+Cu is

Options
Spontaneous reaction
Non-spontaneous reaction
Endothermic
Exothermic

State function the macroscopic property of system depends upon

Options
Path of reaction
Initial state
Initial and final state
Final state

When enthalpy formation of reactants is higher than product then reaction will be

Options
Endothermic
Spontaneous
Non-spontaneous
Exothermic

Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by

Options
Calorimeter
Manometer
Barometer
Manometer

Enthalpy of combustion for food fuel and other compounds can be measured accurately by

Options
Calorimeter
Bomb calorimeter
Thermometer
Manometerv

Most of thermodynamic parameters are

Options
System
Surrounding
Phase
State functions

Change in enthalpy (H) of a system can be calculated by following relationship

Options
∆H=∆E+P∆V
∆H=∆E-PV
∆H=∆E-q
∆H=∆E+q

Two fundamental ways to transfer energy are

Options
Pressure and temperature
Pressure and volume
Heat and work
Heat and volume

Which of the following processes has always ∆H = -ve

Options
Formation of compoun
Combustion
Dissolution of ionic compound
Dilution of a solution

A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?

Options
Isothermal process
Isobaric process
Isochoric (or isometric) process
Adiabatic process

Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?

Options
Julius Robert von Mayer
Rudolf Clausius
Vant Hoff
Gibbs

Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:

Options
Q=∆U+W
H=U+pV
∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
S = KlnW

Choose thermochemical reactions:

Options
2H2(g) + O2(g) = H2O(g)
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g) -180,8kJ
PbS + H2O2 = PbSO4 + H2O
Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 = BaSO4 + 2NaOH

Enthalpy of reaction depends on: 1.Physical state of substances 2.Chemical quantity of substances
3.Temperature 4.Nature of substances

Options
1,2,3
2,3,4
1,2,3,4
1,3,4

From reaction: CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g) – 157 kJ, find enthalpy of reaction, if m(CaCO3) = 1 kg.

Options
+1570
-1570
+785
-785

If ΔG>0, then process:

Options
Spontaneous
Nonspontaneous
Exothermic
Endothermic

If ΔG<0, then process:

Options
Spontaneous
Nonspontaneous
Exothermic
Endothermic

If ∆H>0, then process…

Options
Endothermic
Exothermic
Exergonic
Endergonic

If ∆H<0, then process…

Options
Endothermic
Exergonic
Exothermic
Endergonic
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23. 23 (1/127)
24. 24
As25.
compared
25 to its parent alkane, an alkyl radical contains
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27. 27
28.One
28 less carbon
29.One
29 less hydrogen
30.One
30 more carbon
31.One
31 more hydrogen
32. 32
33. of
Rate 33reaction of organic compounds is slow due to
34. 34
35. 35
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36.Ionic
36 bonding in them
37. 37
Amphoteric nature
38. 38
39.Covalent
39 bonding
40.Coordinate
40 covalent bonding
41. 41
In42.
naming
42 alkane stem tells about the
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44. 44
45.Number
45 of hydrogen atoms
46.Number
Prev 46 of oxygen atoms
47. 47
SkipNumber of carbon atoms
48. 48
NextNumber of bonds
49. 49
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Self-linking ability of carbon is called
51. 51
52. 52
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53.Catenation
53
54. 54
55.Sublimation
55
Hydrogenation
56. 56
57.Carbonation
57
58. 58
Almost
59. 5995% of compounds are of carbon because it can form
60. 60
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61. 61
62.Single
62 bonds
63.Double
63 bonds
64.Triple
64 bonds
65. 65
66.Multiple
66 bonds
67. 67
Only one benzene ring is present in compounds of
68. 68
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70. 70
Aryl
71. 71
72.Acryl
72
73.Carboxylic
73
74.Ketone
74
75. 75
Substances
76. 76 which are basis of human life on earth are
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79.Atom
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Matter
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83.Organic
83 compounds
84. 84
For complex molecules, a chemist usually represents a molecule by
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87. 87
88.Molecular
formula
88
89.Skeletal
89 formula
90.Structural
90 formula
91.B 91
and c
92. 92
93. optical
Two 93 isomers are formed from carbon atoms to create bond
94. 94
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95. 95
96.4 96
atoms
97.2 97
atoms
98. 98
1 atom
99. 99
100.3 100
atoms
101. 101
Element
102. 102that is backbone of organic molecules is
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104. 104
105.Carbon
105
106.Hydrogen
106
107.Oxygen
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108.All
108
of them
109. 109
110. 110chemistry is the study of
Organic
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112. 112
113.Any
113compound from any living thing.
114.Carbon-containing
114 compounds that were formed by living things.
115. 115
116.Any
116compound with carbon as the principal element.
117.Noneoftheabove.
117
118. 118
119. 119can form many different compounds because it can
Carbon
120. 120
121. 121
Options
122.Make
122 a molecule in the shape of a cube, tetrahedron, or cylinder.
123. 123
Combine with other carbon atoms in addition to other elements
124. 124
125.Combine
125 with more metals than other elements.
126.Combine
126 with more nonmetals than other elements.
127. 127
A hydrocarbon is an organic compound consisting of

Options
Water and carbon.
Any number of elements as long as they include carbon and hydrogen.
Carbon and hydrogen.
Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

A hydrocarbon with two double covalent bonds between carbon atoms is a (an)

Options
Alkane.
Alkene.
Alkyne.
Aromatic hydrocarbon.

Organic compounds called isomers have

Options
The same molecular formulas but different physical structures.
Different molecular formulas with the same physical structures.
Different molecular formulas with the same chemical properties.
Noneoftheabove.

The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of octane is

Options
1
2
4
8

Organic compounds called aromatic hydrocarbons are compounds that

Options
Have a wonderful odor.
Are based on the benzene rings structure.
Occur in nature with all carbons bonds saturated
Occur in nature with all carbon bonds unsaturated.

A gasoline mixture of hydrocarbons that burns very rapidly has

Options
A low octane number.
A high octane number.
Many branched chains.
Smaller hydrocarbon molecules.

An organic molecule with a general formula of ROH is a (an)

Options
Ether.
Alcohol.
Organic acid.
Ester.

An organic molecule with a general formula of RCOOH is a (an)

Options
Ester.
Organic acid.
Ketone.
Aldehyde.

The characteristic odor and taste of fruit such as bananas, oranges, and pineapples comes from
certain

Options
Ketones.
Ethers.
Aldehydes.
Esters.

The human body breaks down starches to

Options
Monosaccharides.
Simple sugars.
Glucose.
Any of the above.

The direct reserve source of energy in the muscles of a human is

Options
Glycol.
Glycerol.
Glycogen.
Dextrose.
All proteins are made up of a side chain and

Options
Alpha-amino acid.
Amine.
A nitrogen atom.
Peptide.

Fats and oils are esters formed from three fatty acids and glycerol into a (an)

Options
Alpha-amino acid.
Polysaccharide.
Triglyceride.
Disaccharide.

Which of the following is a polymer?

Options
Cellulose
Polyethylene
Wool
All are polymers

Which of the following is not true about benzene?

Options
It is a dark brown liquid in its natural state.
It does not mix with water.
It has a strong odor.
It can be used as a solvent.

An alkane with 3 carbon atoms would have how many hydrogen atoms in the molecule?

Options
4
6
8
10

The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for

Options
A reactive atom.
A separate functional group.
Any hydrocarbon group.
The right side of the molecule.

When wine "goes bad," the ethanol is converted into


Options
CH3COOH.
CH3 OCH3.
CH3CH2OH.
CH3OH.

Which of the following compounds cannot exist?

Options
C2H3
C2H4
C3H8
C4H10

Assuming straight-chain compounds, which of the following will have the highest boiling point?

Options
C3H8
C7H16
C11H24
They all have the same boiling point

Fractional distillation

Options
Is a basic process used in petroleum refining.
Involves heating crude oil and condensing the vapors at different temperatures.
When applied to crude oil can produce such products as gasoline, kerosene, and lubricating oil
stock.
All of the above are true.

Which of the following molecules has the highest carbon to hydrogen ratio?

Options
Ethane
Ethane
Methane
Acetylene

Supporting the idea that the origin of life was the result of natural processes is the fact that

Options
Amino acids and other complex organic molecules have been found in meteorites and comets.
In the laboratory amino acids, fatty acids, nitrogen bases, and other compounds can be formed
under simulated early Earth conditions.
The early Earth had oceans full of chemicals that may have been interacting to form organic
compounds.
All of the above are true.

Which of the following underlined atoms is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond acceptor?
Options
Amide nitrogen (RNHCOR')
Aniline nitrogen (ArNH2)
Amine nitrogen (RNH2)
Carboxylate oxygen (RCO 2-)

Which of the following underlined protons is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond donor?

Options
Alcohol (ROH)
Amine (RNH2)
Phenol (ArOH)
Ammonium ion (RNH3+)

Which of the following functional groups is most likely to participate in a dipole-dipole


interaction?

Options
Aromatic ring
Ketone
Alcohol
Alkene

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Octane
Heptane
Pentane
Hexane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane

Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

Options
Butane
Heptane
Pentane
Decane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethilhexane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2-bromo-2-methylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylpenthane
2-chloro-3-methylhexane
2,3-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
2,3-dimethylbutane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
2,3-dimethylbutane
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
3-methylpentane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:

Options
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
3-methylpentane
2-chloro-3-methylhexane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane

Name the following compounds:


Options
Cis-1-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
Trans- ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,2-dichloro-3-methylpenten
Trans- 4-ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,3-dimethyl-2-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methilpenthen
Trans- 4-chloro-6-methil-3-heptahe
3,3-dimethil-2-octane

Name the following compounds:

Options
Cis-2-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
Trans- 4-chloro-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,6-dimethyl-4-octane

Name the following compounds:


Options
5-methil-3-heptyne
4- pentyne
3-methil-2-hexyne
3-methyle-4-heptene

Name the following compounds:

Options
4-methil-3-heptyne
1- pentyne
3-methil-2-hexyne
4-chloro-1-butyne

Name the following compounds:

Options
5-methil-3-heptyne
4- pentyne
4-methil-2-hexyne
2-ethyl-3-pentyne

Name the following alcohols.

Options
4-methil-4-pentanol
2-butanol
1-propanol
2-methil-2-propanol

Name the following alcohols

Options
4-methil-2-pentanol
2-butanol
1-propanol
2-methil-2-propanol

Name the following aldehydes.

Options
Ethanol
Methanal
2-methylpropanal
Butanal

Name the following aldehydes.

Options
Butanal
2-methylpropanal
Methanol
Ethanol

Special name the following ketones.

Options
Acetone
Ethyl methyl ketone
Diethyl ketone
Proryl ketone

Special name the following ketones.

Options
Diethyl ketone
Acetone
Ethyl methyl ketone
Propyl ketone
Choose the following KETONES.

Options
2-butanon
3-pentanon
3-butanon
2-pentanon

Choose the following KETONES.

Options
3-pentanon
2-pentanon
3-butanon
2-butanon

Choose the following KETONES.

Options
3-pentanon
2-pentanon
4-pentanon
4-pentanon

Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
C2H2 ;
C2 H4 ;
C3 H6 ;
C3 H8 .

Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?

Options
C2H2;
C2H4;
C5H8;
C5H12.
CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with
thischaracteristic?

Options
Acetylene;
Benzene;
Propane;
Toluene.

A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

Options
Structural formula;
Number of carbon atoms;
Molecular formula
Number of hydrogen atoms.

The compound C2H2belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula

Options
CnHn;
CnH2n;
CnH2n-2;
CnH2n+2.

The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.

Options
Less than
Greater than
The same as
Greater than or equal to

Two molecules that are isomers:

Options
Must contain the same functional groups
Often differ in the number of unsaturated bonds they possess
Have the same molecular formulas
Often have different masses

In which of the following kinds of organic compounds does a carbon atom bond ONLY to
hydrogen and other carbon atoms?

Options
Carbohydrates
Hydrocarbons
Fatty acids
Lipids
Glycogen is best defined as a:

Options
Storage form of lipids
Polymer of glucose
Storage form of glycerol
Polymer of lactose

Most biologically important atoms attempt to possess _____ electrons in their outermost energy
level

Options
N2
2
8
10

Which molecule does NOT have a polar covalent bond?

Options
H2O
H-Br
H-H
H-F

What chemical family does H2C=C=CH2 belong to?

Options
Alkane
Ether
Alkene
Alkyne

In the induced-fit model of enzyme action, a _______ must bind to the enzyme's______ for the
enzyme to perform its function.

Options
Catalyst; activation energy
Product; catalytic site
Product; active site
Substrate; active site

Which one of the following applies to a basic solution?

Options
High OH-
Low OH-
High H+
H+ = OH-
Which one of the four classes of biologically important molecules does CELLULOSE belong to?

Options
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Lipids

Amino acids are joined during a(n) __________ reaction and a(n) __________bond/linkage is formed.

Options
Hydrolysis; peptide
Condensation; amide
Neutralization; ether
Oxidation; ester

With respect to proteins, the primary structure refers to the:

Options
Helix or pleated sheet pattern of a polypeptide
Complex 3-dimensional folding pattern of a polypeptide
Interaction of more than one polypeptide chain
Ordered sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

With respect to proteins, the quaternary structure refers to the:

Options
Helix or pleated sheet pattern of a polypeptide
Complex 3-dimensional folding pattern of a polypeptide
Interaction of more than one polypeptide chain
Ordered sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

Complete the equation: glucose + fructose

Options
Maltose
Lactose
Sucrose
Cellulose

Which molecule would provide the most glucose upon hydrolysis?

Options
Galactose
Lactose
Starch
Amino acid

An athlete is tested at an Olympic event and STEROIDS are found in the bloodstream. Which class
of biologically important molecules are steroids related to?
Options
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Proteins
Lipids

Glucose + galactose produces:

Options
Lactose
Cellulose
Maltose
Sucrose

If the H from the OH group in CH3-OH is removed and replaced with a METHYL group, what
family will the molecule then belong to?

Options
Ether
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester

Which of the following is CORRECT for an exergonic reaction?

Options
More activation energy is needed than for an endergonic reaction
Less activation energy is needed than for an endergonic reaction
Products have more energy than reactants
Products have less energy than reactants

Hydrolysis is best described as the:

Options
Heating of a compound in order to drive off excess water and concentrate its volume
Breaking of a long-chain compound into subunits by adding water
Linking of two or more molecules by the removal of one or more water molecules
Constant removal of hydrogen atoms from the surface of a carbohydrate

Unlike triglycerides, phospholipid molecules:

Options
Have 1 lipid tail
Have 4 lipid tails
Have 2 lipid tails
Have 3 lipid tails

Which one of the following would convert a liquid fat to a solid fat:

Options
Add heat
Add hydrogen (hydrogenation)
Add carbon
Unsaturate it

Enzymes:

Options
Increase the rate of a chemical reaction
Are always stored in active form
Are always stored in active form
Raise activation energy

The exoskeleton of many insects is made of chitin which is a modified form of:

Options
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Protein
Nucleic acid

Electrons are shared unequally in a(n) _________ bond.

Options
Non polar covalent
Hydrogen
Ionic
Polar covalent

Myoglobin is an oxygen-carrying molecule in muscle. It consists of just one polypeptide chain.


Myoglobin lacks:

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

During the formation of the peptide bond which of the following takes place?

Options
Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Peptide bond is a

Options
Covalent bond
Ionic bond
Metallic bond
Hydrogen bond

A tripeptide has

Options
3 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds

The factor which does not affect pKa value of an amino acid is

Options
The loss of charge in the α-carboxyl and α-amino groups
The interactions with other peptide R groups
Other environmental factors
Molecular weight

The average molecular weight of an amino acid residue in a protein is about

Options
128
118
110
120

Which of the following is not the classified form of conjugated proteins?

Options
Lipoproteins
Glycoproteins
Metalloproteins
Complete proteins

Which part of the amino acid gives it uniqueness?

Options
Amino group
Carboxyl group
Side chain
None

Which of the following information is responsible to specify the three-dimensional shape of a


protein?
Options
The protein’s peptide bond
The protein’s amino acid sequence
The protein’s interaction with other polypeptides
The protein’s interaction with molecular chaperons

Unfolding of a protein can be termed as

Options
Renaturation
Denaturation
Oxidation
Reduction

What are the following is not a factor responsible for denaturation of proteins?

Options
PH change
Organic solvents
Heat
Charge

Which of the following structures is a 20:2 (Δ4,9) fatty acid?

Options
CH3(CH2)9CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)2COOH
CH3(CH2)2CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)9COOH
CH3(CH2)10CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CHCH2COOH
CH3CH2CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)10COOH

Which of the following is a characteristic of both triacylglycerols and glycerophospholipids?

Options
Both contain carboxyl groups and are amphipathic
Both contain fatty acids and are saponifiable
Both contain glycerol and ether bonds.
Both can be negatively charged at cellular pH.

Which is a characteristic of all the fatty acid components in this lipid?

Options
They all contain an unbranched carbon chain.
They all contain unconjugated cis double bonds.
They all are joined to glycerol through an ester bond.
They all are hydrophilic because they contain oxygen.

Based on its structural similarity to other lipids, this lipid most likely functions as

Options
A membrane component.
An energy storage molecule.
A sex hormone.
A vitamin required for vision. The structure of an animal cell membrane is analyzed.

Which would be a property of all the major types of lipids in this membrane?

Options
They would be saponifiable in base and hydrolyzed in acid.
They would have polar heads and non-polar tails.
They would be composed of five-carbon units.
They would be joined to each other through covalent bonds.

A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the
other side is called a(n)

Options
Nonpolar molecule.
Charged molecule.
Polar molecule.
Ion.

Which of the following is not a large biomolecule?

Options
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Ice
Nucleic acid

All of the following are examples of lipids except

Options
Oil.
Steroids.
Starch.
Candle wax.

Which molecules are most closely related to lipids?

Options
Amino acids
Fatty acids
Nucleotides
Sugars

The building blocks of most biomolecules contain the element

Options
Carbon.
Calcium.
Nitrogen.
Sodium.

Which of the following molecules are classified as carbohydrates?

Options
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Fats
Sugars

Polysaccharides are

Options
Carbohydrates.
Proteins.
Lipids
Nucleic acids.

Which of the following is a carbohydrate?

Options
ATP
Steroid
Wax
Sucrose

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to proteins?

Options
Amino acids
Monosaccharides
Nucleotides
Sugars

Long chains of amino acids are found in

Options
Carbohydrates.
Lipids.
Proteins.
Sugars.

The two types of nucleic acids are

Options
RNA and ATP.
DNA and RNA. .
DNA and ATP.
Nucleotides and ATP

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?

Options
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Fats
Sugars

Which of the following is not part of a nucleotide in a DNA molecule?

Options
Three phosphate groups
A base
A sugar
A phosphate group

The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)

Options
Active site.
Polar molecule.
Inactive site.
Substrate.

Ionic bonds form between particles that have

Options
Opposite charges.
No charges.
The same charge.
Neutral charges.

Attractions between water molecules are called

Options
Covalent bonds.
Polar bonds.
Ionic bonds.
Hydrogen bonds.
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Number of dative bonds to central metal ion is its


Options
Oxidation number
Compound number
Co-ordination number
Dative number

Ions which are produced from ligands are

Options
Cation
Anion
Complex ion
Allofthem

Different ions will split up by different compounds to given of

Options
Same colored complexes
PrevDifferent colored complexes
SkipSame density complexes
NextSame temperature complexes

Ligands which can form two coordinate bonds from each ion or molecule to transition metal ion
are known as

Options
Ligands ions
Dentate ligands
Monodentate ligands
Bidentate ligands

Due to ligands' action of splitting color of transition metal compound, this change occurs at

Options
S-orbital
D-orbital
P-orbital
F-orbital
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25. 25 expression of the Mass fraction
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62. 62 expression of the molar concentration equivalent
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98. 98of the following species is formed in the second step of the ionization of the triprotic acid
Which
99. 99
H3PO4?
100. 100
101. 101
Options
102. 102

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 3, 3-dimethylpentane

Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 3-ethyl-2-methylhexane

Options

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 1, 2-dichloro-3-methylheptane


Options

Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 2,3-dimethylpentane

Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 4-methyl-4-ethyldecane

Options

Draw the structures for the following compounds: 2-chloro-3-methyl-2-butene

Options
Draw the structures for the following compounds: trans-3,4-dimethyl-2-penten

Options

Draw the structures for the following compounds: cis-3,4,6-trimethyl-3-heptene

Options
Draw the following alkynes.4-chloro-2-pentyne

Options

Draw the following alkynes. 3-propyl-1-hexyne

Options
Draw the following alkynes.1,4-dibromo-2-pentyne

Options

Draw the following alcohols. 4-methil-2-pentanol

Options
Draw the following alcohols. 2-methil-2-propanol

Options

Find the following aldehydes. 2-methylpropanal

Options
Special name the following ketones.

Options
Ethyl methyl ketone
Diethyl ketone
Acetone
Propyl ketone

Which of the following is propan-1-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol
1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol
2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
1-chloro-1-methylpropan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for


Options
3-chlorobutan-3-ol
2-chlorobutan-3-ol
3-chlorobutan-2-ol
2-chlorobutan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Propan-2-ol
Butan-2-ol
Propanol
Butanol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Ethoxyethane
Methoxyethane
Ethoxybuthane
Methoxymethane

Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?

Options
Which of the following is ethoxyethane?

Options

Choose correct units for rate of chemical reaction:

Options
Mol/1*sec
Sec/mol*l
L/mol*sec
Mol/j*l

For 5 seconds molar concentration of substance A changed from 3,15mol/l to 3,00 mol/l. Find
average rate of reaction for A.

Options
0,01mol/l*sec
0,02mol/l*sec
0,03mol/l*sec
0,04mol/l*sec

For certain reaction, reaction rate is 0,0012 mol/l*sec. In mol/l*min rate of this reaction will be:

Options
2*10⁻⁵
4*10⁻⁵
0,072
0,036

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes under constant pressure, is
0,03 mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 2,0mol/l. Find time of reaction, if final concentration of
A is 0,8mol/l

Options
10
20
30
40

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,04mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 1,6mol/l. Find time of reaction, if A completely expends.
Options
40
30
20
10

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,04mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of AB is 1,8mol/l. Find time of reaction, when AB concentration
will be 2,2mol/l.

Options
40
30
20
10

Choose the following aldehydes. ethanal

Options

Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?

Options
Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?

Options

Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

Options
Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol
2-methoxy-1-methylpropane
1-methoxy-2-methylpropane
2-methoxy-2-methylpropane

Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-1-ol?

Options
Which is the correct name for

Options
1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol
2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

Which is the correct name for

Options
Butanol
Propanol
Propan-1-ol
Butan-1-ol

Which of the following is 4-methylpentan-1-ol?

Options
Which is the correct name for

Options
1-chlorobutan-3-ol
1-chlorobutan-2-ol
4-chlorobutan-2-ol
2-chlorobutan-3-ol

Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

Options

Which is the correct name for

Options
3-chlorobutan-1-ol
3-chloropropan-1-ol
1-chloropropan-3-ol
1-chlorobutan-3-ol

Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?

Options

Which molecule is formaldehyde?

Options

Which molecule is 2- butanone?

Options
Which molecule is propanal?

Options

Which molecule is acetone?

Options

Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?

Options
Ethyl methyl acetone
Methyl propyl ketone
3-hexanone
Propyl methyl ketone

Which molecule is a ketone?

Options
Which molecule is an aldehyde?

Options

What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

Options
4-heptanone
2- methyl -3- hexanone
3-heptanone
Isopropyl n-propyl ketone

An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is

Options
Weakly acidic
Weakly basic
Strongly acidic
Neither acidic nor basic

Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

Options
Functional Group of Aromatic compounds:

Options

Nail polish remover contains ?

Options
Benzene
Acetic acid
Acetone
Petroleum ether

The isotope atoms differ in ?

Options
Number of protons
Atomic number
Number of electrons
Atomic weight

Which is also called Stranger Gas ?

Options
Xenon
Neon
Argon
Nitrous oxide

The chemical used as a fixer in photography is ?

Options
Sodium thio sulphate
Sodium sulphate
Borax
Ammonium sulphate

Water drops are spherical because of ?

Options
Viscosity
Density
Polarity
Surface tension

Xide of Nitrogen used in medicine as anaesthetic is ?

Options
Nitrogen pentoxide
Nitrous oxide
Nitric oxide
Nitrogen dioxide

Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen?

Options
Cadmium
Lithium
Potassium
Sodium

The most electronegative element among the following is

Options
Sodium
Bromine
Fluorine
Oxygen

The metal used to recover copper from a solution of copper sulphate is ?

Options
Na
Ag
Hg
Fe

The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called ?

Options
Roasting
Calcinations
Smelting
Froth floatation

Which of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog ?

Options
Nitrogen oxides
Hydrocarbons
Methane
Ozone
The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is ?

Options
Ethane
Ethylene
Carbon dioxide
Acetylene

The main chemical constituent of clay is ?

Options
Aluminium silicate
Zeolites
Aluminium borosilicate
Silicon oxide

Sugars are converted in the liver into

Options
Glycogen
Vitamin
Monosaccharide
None of above

Which of the following gases is the most toxic?

Options
Carbon dioxide
Sulphur dioxide
Carbon monoxide
Acetic acid

Which of the following elements behave chemically both as a metal and a non metal?

Options
Boron
Carbon
Argon
Mercury

How many different oxides are formed by nitrogen ?

Options
Two
Three
Four
Five

The major component used in preparation of different types of glasses is :


Options
Sodium borate
Sodium silicate
Silica
Calcium silicate

What is metallurgy ?

Options
Process of extracting metal in pure form from its ore.
Process of creating alloys of metals.
Process of making metals live long.
None of above.

Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,02mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 1,2mol/l. Find concentration of A after 10 seconds.

Options
0.4 mol/l
0.6 mol/l
0.8 mol/l
1.0 mol/l

Which have maximum number of isotopes ?

Options
Bromine
Aluminium
Polonium
Carbon

Which prefix is often used with scientific terms to indicate that something is the same, equal or
constant

Options
Iso
Mega
Meta
Quasi

Select the one which is not a mixture

Options
Air
Gasoline
LPG
Distilled water

Which one of the following best defines the word “allotropes”?


Options
Different structural forms of an element
A pair of substances that differ by H+
Elements that possess properties intermediate between those of metals and non-metals
Atoms of a given atomic number that have a specific number of neutrons

What is the formula of the compound formed between magnesium and oxygen?

Options
MgO
Mg2O2
Mg2O3
MgO2

Which one of the following statements concerning elements in the Periodic Table is correct?

Options
Elements of the same group all have the same number of electrons in the outermost occupied
electron shell.
Elements of Group 16 occur as cations in ionic compounds.
Oxides of elements in Groups 16 and 17 are basic.
The halogens (Group 17) are all gases at room temperature.

Which one of the following substances will form strong hydrogen bonds?

Options
HCOOH
CH3CN
CCl4
SiH4

Which one of the following statements regarding a catalyst is not correct?

Options
An enzyme is a catalyst that only binds certain substrates.
An enzyme is a protein that is a highly efficient catalyst for one or more chemical reactions in
a living system.
Catalysts increase the rate of a reaction by altering the mechanism, thereby increasing the
activation energy.
An enzyme is a catalyst

What happens when a catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium?

Options
The reaction follows an alternative pathway of lower activation energy.
The heat of reaction decreases.
The potential energy of the reactants decreases.
The potential energy of the products decreases.
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Question
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Number
25. 25 of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
1
2
3
4

Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?

Options
1
2
3
4

Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?

Options
Does not have a double stranded structure
PrevThymine is present
SkipDoes not obey Chargaff’s rule
NextThe sugar contained in RNA is a ribose

Which of the following is the general formula for an alcohol?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is the general formula for a phenol (alcohol on a benzene ring)?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is a general formula for ether?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

Which of the following is a general formula for an amine?

Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’

What class of compound has the following general formula: Ar—C(=O)—H?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—R’?

Options
Aldehyde
Alkene
Carboxylic acid
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—OH?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—O—R’?

Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone

What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—NH2?

Options
Aldehyde
Amide
Amine
Carboxylic acid

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–OH?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: C6H5–OH?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3?

Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–NH2?

Options
Organic halide
Amine
Phenol
Ether

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–H?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–CH2–CH3?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–OH?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–NH2?

Options
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is methanol?

Options
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Alcohol

What class of compound is butanal?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is methyl propanoate?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
What class of compound is butanone?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

What class of compound is ethanamide?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Amide
Ester

What class of compound is dopamine?

Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Amine

How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are there in the allene molecule, H2CCCH2?

Options
Six σ bonds and two π bonds
Two σ bonds and six π bonds
Four σ bonds and four π bonds
Eight σ bonds and no π bonds
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Question
23. 23 (1/128)
24. 24
Lipids
25. 25provide insulation against cold and hot weather to exoskeleton of insects in form of
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Cutin
28
29.Waxes
29
30.Cholesterol
30
31.Oil
31
32. 32
33. 33 number of carbon atoms in chain results in higher
Greater
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Melting
36 point
37. 37
Boiling point
38. 38
39.Freezing
39 oint
40.Stability
40
41. 41
Derivatives
42. 42 of phosphatidic acid, which are composed of glycerol, fatty acids and phosphoric acids
are known
43. 43 as
44. 44
Options
45. 45
46.Phospholipids
Prev 46
47. 47
SkipAcylghycerols
48. 48
NextTriglycerides
49. 49
Esters
50. 50
In51. 51 diet, all cholesterol comes from
human
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Animal
54 products
55. 55
56.Vegetable
products
56
57.Both
57 A and B
58.None
58 of these
59. 59
Condensed
60. 60 structural formula of Palmitic acid is
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
63
64.CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
64
65. 65
66.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
66
67.CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
67
68. 68
Condensed
69. 69 structural formula of Caproic acid is
70. 70
Options
71. 71
72.CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
72
73.CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
73
74.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
74
75.CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
75
76. 76
77. 77 state of fat at room temperature is
Physical
78. 78
79. 79
Options
80.Solid
80
81. 81
Liquid
82. 82
83.Gas
83
Plasma
84. 84
85. 85
Which
86. 86of following protects our heart and kidneys from injury?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
89.Skin
89
90.Muscles
90
91.Lubricants
91
92.Fat
92
93. 93
94. 94of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone insulin?
Which
95. 95
96. 96
Options
97.Mn++
97
98. 98
Mg++
99. 99
100.Ca++
100
101.Zn++
101
102. 102
Oxidation
103. 103 of which substance in the body yields the most calories
104. 104
Options
105. 105
106.Glucose
106
107.Glycogen
107
108.Protein
108
109. 109
Lipids
110. 110
111. is
Milk 111deficient in which vitamins?
112. 112
113. 113
Options
114.Vitamin
114 C
115. 115
116.Vitamin
116 A
117.Vitamin
117 B2
118. 118
119.Vitamin
119 K
120. 120
Milk is deficient of which mineral?
121. 121
122. 122
Options
123. 123
Phosphorus
124. 124
125.Sodium
125
126.Iron
126
127.Potassium
127
128. 128
Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?

Options
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Cytoplasm
Golgi apparatus

Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

Options
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Entoplasmic reticulum

The average pH of Urine is

Options
7.0
6.0
8.0
0.0

The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of

Options
Diffusion
Effusion
Affusion
Coagulation

The key enzyme in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis is

Options
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
AMP activated proteinkinase
Proteinphosphatase
None of these

Arachidonate has 20 carbon atoms with

Options
3 doublebonds
2 doublebonds
4 doublebonds
8 doublebonds

Fatty acid synthesis takes place in

Options
Mitochondria
Cellmembrane
Cytosol
Endoplasmicreticulum

Atherosclerosis can cause blood

Options
Thinning
Clotting
Thickening
Noneofthese

Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with

Options
2 double bonds
3 double bonds
One double bond
None of these

How many ATPs are formed during complete oxidation of palmitate?

Options
35
96
129
131

Humans are unable to digest

Options
Starch
Complex carbohydrates
Denatured proteins
Cellulose

Saliva contains all of the following except

Options
Hormones
Amylase
Bacteria-killingenzymes
Antibodies

Storage polysaccharide made by animals is

Options
Amylopectin
Glycogen
Cellulose
Collagen

The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is

Options
Ribose
Galactose
Mannose
Maltose

Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to

Options
Phosphoenolpyruvate
AcetylCoA
Lactate
Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate

Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

Options
Amylose
Cellobiose
Lactose
Noneofthese

Which substance is an electrolyte?

Options
CH3OH
C6H12O6
H2O
KOH
Which compound has both ionic and covalent bonding?

Options
CaCO3
CH2C12
CH3OH
C6H12O6

Which element is composed of molecules that each contain a multiple covalent bond?

Options
Chlorine
Fluorine
Hydrogen
Nitrogen

As a bond between a hydrogen atom and a sulfur atom is formed, electrons are

Options
Shared to form an ionic bond
Shared to form a covalent bond
Transferred to form an ionic bond
Transferred to form a covalent bond

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that a carbon atom can form?

Options
1
3
2
4

Which type of bond is found between atoms of solid cobalt?

Options
Nonpolar covalent
Polar covalent
Metallic
Ionic

Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule containing polar covalent bonds?

Options
H2O
CCl4
NH3
H2

Which formula represents a polar molecule?


Options
H2
H2O
CO2
CCL4

Two hydrogen atoms form a hydrogen molecule when

Options
One atom loses a valence electron to the other atom
One atom shares four electrons with the other atom
The two atoms collide and both atoms gain energy
The two atoms collide with sufficient energy to form a bond

Which statement describes a chemical change?

Options
Alcohol evaporates.
Water vapor forms snowflakes.
Table salt (NaCl) is crushed into powder.
Glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen produce CO2 and H2O.

Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) + energy Which
statement describes the energy changes in this reaction?

Options
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, only.
Energy is released as bonds are broken, only.
Energy is absorbed as bonds are broken, and energy is released as bonds are formed.
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, and energy is released as bonds are broken.

What occurs in order to break the bond in a Cl2 molecule?

Options
Energy is absorbed.
Energy is released.
The molecule creates energy.
The molecule destroys energy.

Which atom has the least attraction for the electrons in a bond between that atom and an atom of
hydrogen?

Options
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Fluorine

Which compound has the least ionic character?


Options
KCl
CaCl2
AlCl3
CCl4

Which kind of compound generally results when nonmetal atoms chemically combine with metal
atoms?

Options
Hydrogen
Ionic
Covalent
Metallic

As sodium reacts with fluorine to form the compound NaF, each sodium atom will

Options
Gain 1 electron
Gain 2 electrons
Lose 1 electron
Lose 2 electrons

Which formula correctly represents the compound calcium hydroxide?

Options
CaOH
Ca2OH
CaOH2
Ca(OH)2

A substance has a high melting point and conducts electricity in the liquid phase. This substance is

Options
Ne
Hg
NaCl
SiC

A substance that does not conduct electricity as a solid but does conduct electricity when melted is
most likely classified as

Options
An ionic compound
A molecular compound
A metal
A nonmetal

Which formula represents a molecular solid?


Options
NaCl(s)
C6H12O6(s)
Cu(s)
KF(s)

What occurs when a coordinate covalent bond is formed between nitrogen and hydrogen in the
ammonium ion, NH4 + ?

Options
Hydrogen provides a pair of electrons to be shared with nitrogen.
Nitrogen provides a pair of electrons to be shared with hydrogen.
Hydrogen transfers a pair of electrons to nitrogen.
Nitrogen transfers a pair of electrons to hydrogen.

Which type of bond would be formed when a hydrogen ion (H+ ) reacts with an ammonia
molecule (NH3)?

Options
A coordinate covalent bond
A nonpolar covalent bond
A metallic bond
An ionic bond

Which element has a crystalline lattice composed of positive ions through which electrons flow
freely?

Options
Bromine
Calcium
Carbon
Sulfur

The high electrical conductivity of metals is primarily due to

Options
High ionization energies
Filled energy levels
Mobile electrons
High electronegativities

Which is an example of a network solid?

Options
SiC(s)
CO2(s)
AgNO3(s)
Ag(s)

Which compound is a network solid?


Options
SiO2
Na2O
H2O
CO2

Which compound is a poor conductor of heat and electricity and has a high melting point?

Options
SiO2
CO2
H2O
N2O

Which combination of atoms can form a polar covalent bond?

Options
H and Br
H and H
N and N
Na and Br

Which type of bond is formed between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom in CH3OH?

Options
Ionic
Electrovalent
Polar covalent
Nonpolar covalent

In a nonpolar covalent bond, electrons are

Options
Shared equally by two atoms
Shared unequally by two atoms
Transferred from one atom to another
Located in a mobile "sea" shared by many atoms

Which substance is correctly paired with its type of bonding?

Options
NaBr–nonpolar covalent
HCl–nonpolar covalent
NH3–polar covalent
Br2–polar covalent

Hexane (C6H14) and water do not form a solution. Which statement explains this phenomenon?

Options
Hexane is polar and water is nonpolar.
Hexane is ionic and water is polar.
Hexane is nonpolar and water is polar.
Hexane is nonpolar and water is ionic.

Which formula represents a polar molecule?

Options
Br2
CO2
CH4
NH3

Which of the following is the correct formula for propene?

Options
C4H10
C3H8
C4H8
C3H6

Which of these is the formula for an alkyne?

Options
C15H30
C10H18
C20H42
C30H64

Which of the following compounds has only single bonds?

Options
Octene
C3H4
C7H16
Decyne

Which of these is the formula for an alkene?

Options
C13H26
C19H36
C50H102
C14H30

Which of the following compounds does NOT exist?

Options
Acetylene
Methene
Nonyne
Cyclopentane

Acetylene is best described as

Options
The simplest alkyne.
An alkene with two carbon atoms.
An alkyne containing only one carbon atom.
More than one of the above

The formula for butane is

Options
C3H8
C4H10
C4H8
C3H10

Which of these is NOT an isomer of 2-heptene?

Options
1-heptene
Cycloheptane
3-heptene
2-heptyne

Ethanol is sometimes called

Options
Ethyl alcohol
Isopropyl alcohol
Butanol
Ethane

Which of these alcohols is incorrectly matched with its name?

Options
C7H15OH - heptanol
C10H21OH - decanol
C8H15OH - octanol
C9H19OH - nonyl alcohol

The general formula of monosaccharides is

Options
CnH2nOn
C2nH2On
CnH2O2n
CnH2nO2n

The general formula of polysaccharides is

Options
(C6H10O5)n
(C6H12O5)n
(C6H10O6)n
(C6H10O6)n

The aldose sugar is

Options
Glycerose
Ribulose
Erythrulose
Dihydoxyacetone

A triose sugar is

Options
Glycerose
Ribose
Erythrose
Fructose

A pentose sugar is

Options
Dihydroxyacetone
Ribulose
Erythrose
Glucose

The pentose sugar present mainly in the heart muscle is

Options
Lyxose
Ribose
Arabinose
Xylose

Vitamin C is required for the production and maintenance of:

Options
Collagen
Hormone
Ascorbic Acid
Red Blood Cells
Vitamin C deficiency is leads to:

Options
Scurvy
Cold
Cancer
Rickets

Which of the following is a function of Vitamin A in the body?

Options
Vision, bone and body growth
Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin
Normal cell development and reproduction
All of the above

Common food sources of Vitamin A are:

Options
Milk, eggs, butter, cheese, cream, and liver
White sugar, honey, and sugar cane
Broccoli, apricots, cantaloupe, carrots, sweet potato, spinach
Both A and C

Vitamin B-12 deficiency caused by lack of intrinsic factor is called:

Options
Pernicious anemia
Poor circulation of the red blood cells
Beri Beri
None of the above

What groups of people need additional Vitamin K?

Options
Premature newborns
People who do not have enough bile to absorb fat
Both A and B
None of the above answers

The vitamin Folate works together with to produce new red blood cells.

Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin B-12
None of the above

Which of the following is not a water soluble vitamin?


Options
Tocopherol
Pyridoxine
Pantothenic acid
Niacin

Which of the following is not a Fat-soluble vitamin?

Options
Calciferol
Retinoids
Tocopherol
Ascorbic acid

Which of the following Vitamin is also called as Pyridoxine?

Options
Vitamin B5
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B2

Which of the following is not included in fat soluble vitamins?

Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Vitamin B

How many types of vitamins are there?

Options
Two
Three
Four
Five

Which of the following statements is true about a peptide bond (RCONHR')?

Options
It is non planar.
It is capable of forming a hydrogen bond.
The cis configuration is favoured over the trans configuration.
Single bond rotation is permitted between nitrogen and the carbonyl

Which of the following statements is untrue about protein secondary structure?

Options
The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta turns are examples of protein secondary
structure.
The ability of peptide bonds to form intramolecular hydrogen bonds is important to secondary
structure
The steric influence of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.
The hydrophilic/hydrophobic character of amino acid residues is important to secondary
structure.

Identify which of the following terms refers to the arrangement of different protein subunits in a
multiprotein complex.

Options
Primarystructure
Secondarystructure
Tertiarystructure
Quaternarystructure

Identify which of the following terms refers to the overall three dimensional shape of a protein.

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving the residue
of the amino acid serine.

Options
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals interactions
None of the above

Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving the residue
of the amino acid valine.

Options
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals interactions
None of the above

What type of ring structure is present in structures A and B?


Options
Quinoline
Purine
Naphthalene
Pyrimidine

What type of structures are the compounds (i) - (iv)?

Options
Nucleic acids
Nucleotides
Nucleosides
Deoxyriboses

On which of the following molecules would you find a codon?

Options
Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
Small nuclear RNA

On which of the following molecules would you find an anticodon?

Options
Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
Small nuclear RNA

The amino acid that has hydrocarbon branch chain is:

Options
Lysine
Cysteine
Glutamic acid
Valine

Which of the following substances can give diesters:

Options
Lysine
Serine
Glycine
Alanine

Serine is:

Options
A monoamino–monocarboxylic aromatic acid
A monoamino–dicarboxylic acid
A diamino–monocarboxylic acid
A hydroxylated amino acid

In phosphorproteins, the phosphoric acid is bound to hydroxyl groups by bonds of type:

Options
Ether
Ionic
Carbonyl
Ester

The number of water molecules, eliminated when a molecule of heptapeptide is formed, is:

Options
5
6
7
8

The following substance contains 3 oxygen atoms in the molecule:

Options
Glycine
Valine
Lysine
Cysteine

Regarding pH, the following statement is true:

Options
When mixing an acid and a base, the mixture that results has the pH = 14.
The sum of pH values of substances in a solution is always equal to 14.
The add of small quantities of acid or base to a buffer solution does not change significantly its
pH.
The solution of a weak acid has high values of pH.

Regarding pH, the following statement is true:

Options
It is a parameter characterizing the strength of an acid or a base.
It is a characteristic of each acid or base.
It is a measure of the concentration of H in an aqueous solution.
It has different values if the substance is solid or gaseous.

Acids are chemical species able to:

Options
Give molecules
Give atoms
Give protons
Give molecular hydrogen

The formic acid has the following characteristic chemical property, unlike the other saturated
carboxylic acids:

Options
Is the weakest acid
Has reducing character
Has oxidant character
Sublimates easily

With Tollens reagent, aldehydes suffer a reaction of:

Options
Oxidation
Hydrogenation
Reduction
Condensation

What can result by the reduction of a ketone?

Options
A primary alcohol
A secondary alcohol
A carboxylic acid
A compound with a mixed function alcohol – ketone

What can result by the reduction of an aldehyde?

Options
A primary alcohol
A secondary alcohol
A carboxylic acid
A compound with a mixed function alcohol – aldehyde

Which of the following compounds reacts with an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide?

Options
Methane
Propanol
Phenol
Benzene

Which of the following is a branched chain hydrocarbon?

Options
Ethene
2-methyl-2-butene
2-butene
2-pentene

The linear alkanes cannot participate to reactions of:

Options
Addition
Dehydrogenation
Oxidation
Substitution

Which of the following substances: (I) naphthalene, (II) ethanol, (III) triolein, (IV) glucose, (V)
amylopectin, (VI) glutamic acid, does not dissolve in water?

Options
I, III, VI
I, III, V
II, IV, IV
I, IV

The separating process of the components of a mixture, based on the differences between the
boiling points of the components, is possible by:

Options
Extraction
Distillation
Sublimation
Crystallization

The separation process of a solid component of a mixture, based on its property to pass through
heating direct from the solid phase into the gaseous phase, without melting, is called:

Options
Crystallization
Decantation
Sublimation
Distillation

Which of the following substances presents only primary carbon atoms in its structure?

Options
Methane
Acetylene
Ethane
Propane

How many secondary carbon atoms contain the following hydrocarbon chain? СН3-СН2- СН2-
СН2- СН3

Options
N=5
N=3
N=0
N=2

The combustion of a hydrocarbon will produce mandatory:

Options
SO2
CO2
CO
SO3

Which one of the following will exhibit highest osmotic pressure at 25°C?

Options
KCl
Glucose.
Urea.
Calcium chloride.

Unit of molarity is:

Options
Kg / litre.
Mol / litre.
Gm / litre.
None of these.

Two solutions C and D are separated by a semi-permeable membrane. If liquid flows from D to C
then.

Options
Both have same concentration.
D is less concentrated than C.
D is more concentrated than C.
None of these.

When sugar is added to water, what is the change observed in boiling and freezing points of
water?

Options
Both boiling point and freezing point decreases.
Both boiling point and freezing point increases.
Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases.
Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases.

When a solute is dissolved in water it shows:

Options
Decrease in freezing point of water.
Decrease in boiling point of water.
Increase in vapour pressure of water.
All of the above.

The boiling point of Benzene, Ethanol, Octane and Pentane are 80°C, 78°C, 126°C and 36°C
respectively. Which of the following will show highest vapour pressure at room temperature.

Options
Benzene.
Octane.
Pentane.
Entahol.

Molecular weight of non-volatile and soluble solute can be determined by:

Options
Elevation of boiling point.
Depression in freezing point.
Lowering of vapour pressure.
Osmotic pressure.
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Which can act as buffer?

Options
NH4 Cl + HCl
CH3 COOH + H2 CO3
40ml of 0.1M NaCN + 20ml of 0.1M HCN
NaCl + NaOH

NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is

Options
Not a buffer solution with pH < 7
Not a buffer solution with pH > 7
A buffer solution with pH < 7
A buffer solution with pH > 7

For an acid buffer solution the pH is 3. The pH can be increased by

Options
Increasing the concentration of salt
PrevIncreasing the concentration of acid
SkipDecreasing the concentration of salt
NextIndependent of concentration of acid & salt

Which of the following does not react with water?

Options
Barium
Calcium
Beryllium
Strontium

Which among the following statements is true about the following chemical reaction? 3Fe(s) + 4H2
O → Fe3 O4 (s) + 4H2

Options
Iron metal is getting reduced
Water is acting as a reducing agent
Water is acting as an oxidizing agent
Water is getting oxidized

Identify the products formed in the following reaction CH3 COOCH3 + H2 O → A + B

Options
CH3 COOH and CH3 OH
CH3 COOOH and CH4
CO2 and C2 H6
No reaction
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Question
21. 21 (1/25)
22. 22
How
23. might
23 solid sodium carbonate be obtained from sodium carbonate solution?
24. 24
Options
25. 25
Centrifugation
Filtration
Evaporation
It cannot be extracted

What is the best description of blood?

Options
Sol
Foam
Solution
Aerosol

A suspension is formed from uniform particles of solid, of diameter 10 Mm, suspended in a


solvent. What is the best description of this system?
Prev
Options
Skip
Monodisperse and coarse
Next
Monodisperse and colloidal
Polydisperse and coarse
Polydisperse and colloidal

Which one of the following dispersions does not have liquid continuous phase?

Options
Nanosuspension
Microemulsion
Gel
Foam

Which one of the following systems has the smallest sized domains in its dispersed phase?

Options
Nanoemulsion
Coarse suspension
Coarse emulsion
Microemulsion

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the change in domain structure as more oil
is added to a water-in-oil emulsion?

Options
Bicontinuous, spherical, cylinder-like
Spherical, cylinder-like, bicontinuous
Spherical, bicontinuous, cylinder-like
Cylinder-like, spherical, bicontinuous

Which method for the production of dispersions involves the formation of particles from
materials dissolved in true solutions?

Options
Bottom-up
Top-down
Milling
High pressure homogenization

The scattering of light by coarse and colloidal dispersed systems is known as?

Options
Contrast matching
DLVO theory
Tyndall effect
Creaming

Which of the following is not a mechanism for the separation of a physically unstable suspension
of magnesium hydroxide in water?

Options
Flocculation
Aggregation
Ostwald ripening
Hydrolysis

In the DLVO theory of colloids, normal thermal motion may be sufficient to overcome the energy
barrier that leads to irreversible particle aggregation. The name of this energy barrier is which
one of the following?

Options
Primary maximum
Secondary maximum
Primary minimum
Secondary minimum

One of following substances that belongs to colloid system is....


Options
Milk
Mineral water
Vinegar
Salty water

Dispersed phase and dispersing medium of smoke are..

Options
Solid in liquid
Liquid in solid
Solid in gas
Gas in solid

Margarine is a colloid system of...

Options
Foam
Emulsion
Aerosol
Solid emulsion

Light scattering in colloid system is known as..

Options
Brownian Motion
Tyndall Effect
Coagulation
Electrophoresis

These following things are colloid properties, except...

Options
Composed of 2 phase
Stable
Homogeneous
Can be filtered

An _________ is a sol with the continuous phase a gas. Fog is an _________ of water droplets.

Options
Aerosol
Emulsion
Agglomerate
Electrophoresis

An _________ is a sol in which the suspended particles are liquid droplets and the continuous phase
is also a liquid. The 2 phases are immiscible, otherwise a solution would form.

Options
Aerosol
Emulsion
Agglomerate
Electrophoresis

A _________ is a sol of solid particles scattered in a liquid. Foam is a colloidal system in which gas
bubbles dispersed in a liquid or solid.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Streaming potential
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles with
each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.

Options
Magnitude
Shape
Surface
Size

Is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary liquid
induced by an external field.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Is the charged field generated by charged particles moving in a stationary liquid.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Is the generation of an electric field by locomotion of the liquid along stationary charged surfaces.

Options
Colloidal suspension
Streaming potential
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis

Emulsion is:
Options
Butter;
River ooze;
Stained glass;
Textile fabrics.

Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to

Options
Prevent making of a colloid
Stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization
Stabilize the mixture
Enrich the aroma

Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of

Options
Liquid dispersed in gas
Gas dispersed in gas
Solid dispersed in gas
Solid dispersed in liquid
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Question
23. 23 (1/46)
24. 24
Amount
25. 25 of amino acid residues in proteins ranges from
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.50-2000
28
29.2000-4000
29
30.4000-6000
30
31.7000-10,000
31
32. 32
33. 33
Polar amino acids are usually found
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.On36surface of proteins
37. 37
Inside core of proteins
38. 38
39.At39sides of proteins
40.Can
40 be present anywhere in proteins
41. 41
Sulfur
42. 42atom of cysteine is involved in formation of
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Sulfide
45 group
46.Sulfhydryl
Prev 46 group
SkipSulfite group
NextSulphates

Number of amino acids that have hydrophobic side chains are

Options
7
8
9
10

Bond formed between two amino acid molecules is

Options
Peptide bond
Sulfur linkage
Ionic bond
Coordinate covalent bond

A mutation has changed an isoleucine residue of a protein to Glutamic acid, which statement best
describes its location in a hydrophilic exterior

Options
On the surface since it is hydrophilic in nature
In side the core of the protein since it is hydrophobic in nature
Any where inside or outside
Inside the core of protein since it has a polar but uncharged side chain

Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of

Options
Hemoglobin
Myoglobin
Insulin
Collagen 3- Some proteins contain

Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the physiological pH ?

Options
Valine
Leucine
Isoleucine
None of the followings

Mother of a mal nourished child has been instructed to include a complete protein in diet for her
child, which out of the followings proteins should be recommended?

Options
Pulses
Wheat
Soy Protein
Milk

All of the below mentioned amino acids can participate in hydrogen bonding except one

Options
Serine
Cysteine
Threonine
Valine

Which out of the followings is not a fibrous protein?

Options
Carbonic anhydrase
Collagen
Fibrinogen
Keratin

Which one of the following amino acids may be considered a hydrophobic amino acid at
physiological p H of 7.4

Options
Isoleucine
Arginine
Aspartic acid
Threonine

Which of the characteristics below apply to amino acid Glycine?

Options
Optically inactive
Hydrophilic, basic and charged
Hydrophobic
Hydrophilic, acidic and charged

Which of the amino acids below is the uncharged derivative of an acidic amino acid?

Options
Cystine
Tyrosine
Glutamine
Serine

Choose the correct category for milk protein casein out of the followings

Options
Nucleoprotein
Phosphoprotein
Lipoprotein
Glycoprotein

Which of the following statements about amino acids is correct?

Options
Amino acids are classified according to the structures and properties of their side chains.
Amino acids are uncharged at neutral pH.
Amino acids in proteins are mainly in the D-configuration.
Twenty four amino acids are commonly used in protein synthesis.

Which type of bonding is responsible for the secondary structure of proteins?

Options
Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues.
Hydrogen bonding between the C=O and N-H groups of peptide bonds.
Peptide bonds between amino acids.
Salt bridges between charged side chains of amino acids

Which term below best defines the 'quaternary structure' of a protein?

Options
The arrangement of two or more polypeptide subunits into a single functional complex
The folding of the polypeptide backbone in three-dimensional space.
The interaction of amino acid side chains.
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

Which of the following most accurately describes how secondary structures in proteins are
stabilised?

Options
Through ionic bonds operating between oppositely charged amino acid side chains.
Through covalent bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.
Through hydrogen bonds between different amino acid side chains.
Through hydrogen bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.

Which amino acid can form disulphide bonds?

Options
Glycine.
Proline.
Glutamate.
Cysteine.

Which of the following statements is false?

Options
Primary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
Secondary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
Three dimensional structure of a protein determines the function of a protein
Amino acid sequence is absolutely invariant for a particular protein

Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?

Options
Frederick Sanger
Mendel
Watson and Francis Crick
Anton van Leeuwenhoek

Tertiary conformation of proteins is maintained by 3 types of bonds namely ionic, hydrogen and

Options
Sulfide
Disulfide
Covalent
Peptide

Hemoglobin is a

Options
Monomer
Dimer
Trimer
Tetramer

Native state of a protein can be disrupted by

Options
Temperature
PH
Removal of water
Presence of hydrophilic surfaces

Identify the wrong statement

Options
Hemoglobin is a globular protein
Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein
Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water
Collagen is a fibrous protein

1In 3° structure of proteins, folding and shaping is done by

Options
Hydrophobic interactions
Polar interactions
Hydrogen bonding
None of the mentioned

β-pleated sheets are the examples of

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the same
chain is

Options
Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure

A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side is

Options
Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure

Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups

Options
Phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan
Glycine, alanine, leucine
Lysine, arginine, histidine
Serine, threonine, cysteine

The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are

Options
Aspartate and glutamate
Arginine and histidine
Cysteine and methionine
Proline and valine

Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid?

Options
Serine
Threonine
Lysine
Histidine

Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

Options
Cysteine
Asparagine
Glutamine
Phenylalanine

Which of the following is an imino acid?

Options
Alanine
Glycine
Proline
Serine

Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is

Options
1
2
3
4

Which of the following are an example of epimers?

Options
Glucose & Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
A&c

Fructose and Glucose can be distinguished by

Options
Selwinoff’s reagent
Benedict’s reagent
Fehling’s reagent
Barfoed’s reagent

Which of the following is an example of monosaccharide?

Options
Galactose
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose

Which of the following is an example of disaccharide?

Options
Glucose
Fructose
Galactose
Maltose

In maltose, between which of the following carbons there is a linkage?

Options
C1, C2
C2, C3
C1, C4
C2, C4
Which of the following carbohydrates is a triose?

Options
Glucose
Ribose
Ribulose
Glyceraldehyde

Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following sugar units?

Options
Glucose and fructose
Glucose and galactose
Glucose and sucrose
Glucose and ribose

In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants?

Options
Glycogen
Starch
Dextrin
Cellulose

In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in liver?

Options
Glycogen
Starch
Dextrin
Cellulose

Which of the following are the storage polysaccharides?

Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Glucose
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Question
23. 23 (1/87)
24. 24
The
25.addition
25 of a catalyst to the reaction system
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Increases
28 the rate of forward reaction only
29.Increases
29 the rate of reverse reaction
30.Increases
30 the rate of forward but decreases the rate of backward reaction
31.Increases
31
the rate of forward as well as backward reaction equally
32. 32
On33. 33
increasing the temperature the rate of reaction increases mainly because
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.The
36 activation energy of the reaction increases
37. 37
Concentration of the reacting molecules increases
38. 38
39.Collision
39 frequency increases
40.None
40 of these
41. 41
The
42.value
42 of activation energy is primarily determined by
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Temperature
45
46. 46
PrevEffective collision
47. 47
SkipConcentration of reactants
48. 48
NextChemical nature of reactants and products
49. 49
50. of
Sum 50exponents of molar concentration is called
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Order
53 of reaction
54. 54
55.Molecularity
55
56. 56 of reaction
Rate
57.Average
57 of reaction
58. 58
In59.
rate59expression the concentration of reactants is negative. It shows
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Concentration
62 of reactant does not change
63.Concentration
63 of product increases
64.Concentration
64
of reactant decreases
65. 65
66.Concentration
66 of reactant increases
67. 67
Unit of rate of reaction is
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
Moles dm-3 sec-1
71. 71
72.Moles
72 sec-1
73.Moles
73 dm-3
74.Mol-1
74 dm-3 sec-1
75. 75
Rate
76. of
76disappearance of reactant is equal to
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Rate
79 of reaction
80.Energy
80 released during reaction
81. 81
Rate of formation of product
82. 82
83.A 83
and b
84. 84
Radiations are absorbed in
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
Spectrophotometer method
Optical relation method
Dilatometric method
Refractometric method

Activated complex is formed due to

Options
Pressure
Ineffective collisions
Effective collision
Temperature

Energy required to form transition state is called

Options
Ea
V
P.E
K.E

Which of the following will have very high rate of reaction?

Options
Double decomposition reaction
Ionic reactions
Neutralization reaction
All of above

Greater the concentration of reactant

Options
Greater will be dx/dt
Dx/dt will be moderate
Lesser will be dx/dt
Any of above

Anything which increases rate of reaction without being involved in the reaction

Options
Promoter
Inhibitor
Catalyst
All of the above

The substances that reduces the effectiveness of a catalyst are called

Options
Promoters
Inhibitors
Poisoning catalysts
Pro-catalysts

When catalysts and reactants are in more than one phase it is

Options
Homogeneous catalysis
Heterogeneous catalysis
Catalysis
Ea

Each catalyst has

Options
Specificity
Its own Ea
Special structure
All of above

Biocatalytical proteins are

Options
Enzymes
Lipids
Substrate
Any of above

A catalyst can not effect

Options
Products
Chemical equilibrium
Reactants
Both a & b

An enzyme has its specificity due to

Options
Substrate
Temperature
Structure
Pressure

When the reaction completes in more than one steps rate of reaction will be determined by

Options
Fast step
Slowest step
All steps
Molecularity of the reaction

Energy of activation for backward reaction is less than forward reaction for ________ reaction

Options
Endothermic
Exothermic
Moderate
Fast

Which statement is incorrect about catalyst

Options
It is used in smaller amount
Decrease activation energy
Specific in action
It affects specific rate constant

Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

Which of these reactions are monomolecular?

Options
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl

Which of these reactions are dimolecular?

Options
2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
Cl2 → 2Cl
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

Options
2HI → H2 + I2
HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O

Which of these reactions are trimolecular?


Options
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
2HI → H2 + I2
L2 → 2Cl

Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?

Options
The point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;
The point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;
The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;
The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.

Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous solutions:

Options
Solubility product constant (Ksp);
Acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
Molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
Molarboiling-point constant (Kb).

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) shifted to reactants, if:

Options
Temperature will be increased
Pressure will be decreased
Concentration of ammonia will be decreased
Concentration of hydrogen will be increased.

Rate of decomposition of H2O2 will increase if:

Options
Temperature will be increased
Inhibitor will be added
Solvent will be added
Temperature will be decreased

Rate of chemical reaction between gases with increase of pressure, in common:

Options
Increase
Decrease
Remain the same
All of this is possible

For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, increasing of chemical rate of forward reaction is
IMPOSSIBLE if we’ll increase:

Options
Temperature
Pressure
Concentration of hydrogen
Concentration of ammonia

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH shifted to product, if we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Decrease temperature
Decrease concentration of nitrogen

Which factor will effect on shifting of chemical equilibrium for reaction Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) = 3Fe(s)
+ 4H2O(g):

Options
Adding catalyst to system
Changing of pressure
Changing of Fe3O4 concentration
Increasing of hydrogen concentration

Rate of chemical reaction Mg with acetic acid will NOT increase, if we’ll:

Options
Use Mg powder
Increase temperature
Decrease temperature
Add HI to system, as catalyst

For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H process, increasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

Options
Shifting of equilibrium to reactants
Increasing reaction rate for forward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction
Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction

For N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH process, decreasing of temperature will NOT lead to:

Options
Shifting of equilibrium to reactants
Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for forward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction

For reaction 2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2- ΔH shifting equilibrium to product is impossible, if we’ll:

Options
Decrease temperature
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Increase concentration of oxygen

Pressure changing will NOT effect for reaction:

Options
FeO(s) + CO(g) = Fe(s) + CO2(g
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
2CO(g) + O2(g) = 2CO2(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

Decreasing of pressure shifts equilibrium to products in case:

Options
FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)
CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)

Increasing of concentration of reactants shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
Fe(s) + H2O(g) = FeO(s) + H2(g)
H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI

Increasing of temperature shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
2NH3(g) = N2(g) +3H2(g)+ ΔH
2H2(g) + O2 = 2H2O – H
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH

For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Decrease pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase concentration of CO2
Increase pressure

For reaction C(s) + 2N2O(g) = 2N2(g) + CO2(g)- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is possible, due
these factors:

Options
Increasing of pressure; decreasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; increasing N2O concentration
Increasing of pressure; decreasing CO2 concentration
Increasing of pressure; decreasing N2O concentration

With the highest rate of chemical reaction, next oxidation reaction will go:

Options
Cu on air in standard conditions
Cu on pure O2 with temperature elevation
Mg on air in normal temperature
Mg on pure O2 with temperature elevation

To increase product’s yield of reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, one should:

Options
Decrease pressure
Add catalyst
Increase concentration of hydrogen
Increase temperature

For reaction SO2 + O2 = SO3 – H, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, due these factors:

Options
Increasing of pressure; Increasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; Decreasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; Increasing of temperature
Increasing of pressure; Decreasing of temperature

For reaction SO32-(sol) + H2O = HSO3- (sol)+ OH-(sol)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is
impossible, if we’ll:

Options
Add an acid
Add a water
Add an alkali
Increase temperature

Decreasing of volume will NOT shift equilibrium to reactants in case:

Options
CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3(sol)
H2SO3(sol) = H2O(l) + SO2(g)
2NH3(g) = N2(g) + 3H2(g)

Increasing of volume will shift equilibrium to products in case:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)
2C(s) + O2(g) = 2CO(g)
H2SO3(sol) = H2O(l) + SO2(g)
BaO(s) +CO2(g) = BaCO3(g)

If temperature is increased, then:

Options
Rate of exothermic as well as endothermic reactions is increases.
Rate of exothermic reactions is increases but decreases for endothermic reactions
Rate of endothermic reactions is increases but decreases for exothermic reactions
Rate of exothermic as well as endothermic reactions is decreases.

For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Decrease pressure
Increase H2CO3 concentration

Changing of concentration of A will NOT effecton rate of reaction:

Options
A(g) + B(g) = AB(g)
2A(g) + B(g) = A2B(g)
2A(s) + 2B(g) = 2AB(s)
A(g) + 2B(g) = AB2(g)

Rate of homogeneous exothermic reaction of ammonia synthesis CANNOT be increased, if we’ll

Options
Increase temperature
Use catalyst
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature

Choose the main reason of reaction rate elevation though temperature increase.

Options
Number of molecular collisions is increased
Activation energy is increased
Activation energy is decreased
Number of active molecules is increased

Addition of catalyst increases reaction rate due to:

Options
Activation energy is increased
Activation energy is decreased
Number of active molecules is decreased
Enthalpy of reaction is increased
Addition of catalyst increases reaction rate of:

Options
Only straight reaction
Only backward reaction
Both types: straight and backward reactions
For homogeneous reactions

When system moves to equilibrium…

Options
Rates of forward and backward reactions are increases.
Rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward decreases
Rate of backward reaction increases and rate forward of decreases
Rates of forward and backward reactions are decreases

Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g), if temperature is increased, shifts to reactants.


Why?

Options
Because rate of backward reaction increases and rate forward of decreases
Rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward decreases
Rates of forward and backward reactions are increases, but in greater degree increases for
backward reaction
Rates of forward and backward reactions are decreases, but in greater degree decreases for
forward reaction

For reaction HNO2 + H2O = H3O+ + NO2 + ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease temperature
Increase temperature
Add to system some acid
Increase pressure

For reaction CO(g) + 2H2(g) = CH3OH(l)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease pressure
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Increase CO concentration

Increasing of pressure and decreasing of temperature separately will NOT shift equilibrium in
same direction:

Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H
2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2 – H
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H

Increasing of temperature and decreasing of pressure separately will shift equilibrium in same
direction:

Options
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl – H
2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2 – H
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl + ΔH

Industrial synthesis of sulfur oxide (VI) SO2 + O2 = SO3 – H is carried out at high temperaturein
order to:

Options
Shift equilibrium to right
Shift equilibrium to left
Increase rate of reaction
Decrease activation energy of process

For reaction 2HgO(s)= 2Hg(s) + O2(g)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll:

Options
Increase temperature
Increase pressure
Increase O2 concentration
Decrease temperature

For reaction FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)- ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if
we’ll:

Options
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase concentration of FeO
Increase concentration of H2O

Find correct statement:

Options
The higher activation energy of reaction, the higher reaction rate
The lower activation energy of reaction, the higher reaction rate
Reaction rate doesn’t depend on activation energy of reaction
Enthalpy of reaction depends on number of steps of reaction

How reaction rate changes for reaction Mg + 2HCl = MgCl2 + H2, if piece of Mg (1 g) will break into
1000 same blocs?

Options
Remain the same
Increase 10 times
Increase 100 times
Increase 1000 times

For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g), shifting equilibrium to products is impossible, if we’ll add
to system:

Options
Ammonia
HCl
N2
H2

For one-step reaction rate equation is v=kc(A2) That reaction is…

Options
B2(g) + A2(g) = 2AB
2B2(g) + A2 = 2B2A(g)
B(s) + A2(g) = BA2(g)
2BA2(g) + A2(g) = 2BA2(g)

Reaction rate of forward reaction A2(g) + 3B2(g) = 2AB3(g), that was found from concentration
changes of A, is 0,01mol/l*sec. Calculate reaction rate from concentrations of B2 and AB3:

Options
0,02 and 0,01
0,03 and -0,02
0,03 and 0,02
0,02 and 0,04

How many times rate of reaction A2(g) + B2(g) = 2AB(l) changes, if concentration of A2 increases
for 3 times.

Options
3
6
9
12

For reaction 2A2(g) + B2(g) = 2A2B(g), if concentration of A2 decreases for 3 times, how reaction
rate will change?

Options
Increase for 3 times
Decrease for 3 times
Increase for 9 times
Decrease for 9 times

How many times pressure should be increased, if we want speed up reaction A(g) + 2B(g) =
2AB2(g) for 125 times?
Options
5
25
100
125

For reaction A + B = AB, if pressureincreases for 4 times, how reaction rate will change?

Options
Remain the same
Increases for 8 times
Increases for 4 times
Increases for 16 times

Increasing concentration of A for 2 times will lead to reaction rate increasing for 4 times, in
reaction…

Options
A2(g) + B2(g) = 2AB(g)
A2(g) + B(s) = BA2(s)
2A2(g) = B(g)
2A2(s) = B(g) + 2C(g)

224.Volume of exuded H2, in reaction between Fe and H2SO4(sol), if piece of Fe (10g) will break in
125 cubes, increases for:

Options
2 times
5 times
15 times
125 times

Solvents can be…

Options
Liquid
Gaseous
Solid
Every one of these types

Solutions, in difference with pure substances…

Options
Homogeneous
Instable
Have constant composition
Can be colored or colorless

If in solution, in certain conditions, can be added an extra quantity of solute, then this solution
cannot be…
Options
Concentrated
Diluted
Saturated
Unsaturated

After addition an extra quantity of solute to solution, it did not dissolve. Then we can say, that
solution:

Options
Diluted
Concentrated
Saturated
Unsaturated

On solubility of solid substances in liquids doesn’t affect:

Options
Temperature
Nature of solute
Nature of solvent
Stirring

For reaction 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2 (g) - ΔH, shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll

Options
Decrease pressure
Increase pressure
Decrease temperature
Increase CO concentration
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13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
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17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
Question
27. 27 (1/285)
28. 28
Which
29. 29of the following statements is true?
30. 30
Options
31. 31
32.NaCl
32 is a neutral salt;
33.KOH
33 is an acid;
34.HCl
34 and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.
35.NaBr
35 is basic salt.
36. 36
37. 37
Functional Group of Ether:
38. 38
39. 39
Options
40.H40–C=O
41. 41
C–O–C
42. 42
43.C 43
–C
44.C 44
–X
45. 45
Which
46. 46pairing is not a set of conjugates?
47. 47
Options
48. 48
49.OH-
49 and H2O;
50.HC2H3O2
50 and C2H3O2-;
51.HCl
51 and Cl-;
52.NH3
52 and NH4+;
53. 53
54. 54
Functional
Prev Group of Aldehyde:
55. 55
Skip
56. 56
Options
Next
57.C 57
– CO - C
58. 58
C – CH = O
59. 59
60.C 60
–X
61.O61
= C – OH
62. 62
Which
63. 63reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?
64. 64
Options
65. 65
66.HF
66+ LiOH → H2O + LiF;
67.2HCl
67 + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2;
68. 68
2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2
69. 69
70.K2O
70 + H2O → 2KOH;
71. 71
Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?
72. 72
73. 73
Options
74. 74
75.KOH
75 is potassium hydroxide;
76.H2SO3
76 is sulfurous acid;
77.HI77is hydroiodic acid;
78.HClO2
78 is chloric acid
79. 79
80. 80salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?
Which
81. 81
Options
82. 82
83.AgCl;
83
84.PbBr2;
84
85. 85
Ca3(PO4)2;
86. 86
87.Na2CO3
87
88. 88
A 89.
solution
89 of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:
90. 90
91. 91
Options
92. 92
93.Unsaturated;
93
94.Supersaturated;
94
95.Saturated
95
96.Dilute
96
97. 97
98.net
The 98 ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate and
99.
sodium 99 chloride would include all of the following except:
100. 100
Options
101. 101
102.Cl-;
102
103.2Na+;
103
104. 104
CaCO3d
105. 105
106.All
106of the substances above
107. 107
Functional
108. 108 Group of Ketone:
109. 109
Options
110. 110
111.C-CO-C
111
112.C 112
–X
113.C 113
– OH
114.#NAME?
114
115. 115
Which
116. 116solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?
117. 117
Options
118. 118
119.1.5
119
m NaCl;
120.1.5
120
m AgCl;
121. 121
2.0 m C6H12O6;
122. 122
123.2.0 m CaCl2
123
124. 124
Functional Group of Amine:
125. 125
126. 126
Options
127. 127
128.C 128
– NR – R’
129.O129
= C – OH
130.H130
–C=O
131.C 131
– OH
132. 132
133. 133
Which equation is correctly balanced?
134. 134
Options
135. 135
136.Na136
+ Cl2 → 2NaCl;
137.CH4
137+ 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;
138. 138
2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;
139. 139
140.H2SO4
140 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;
141. 141
Functional
142. 142 Group of Amide:
143. 143
Options
144. 144
145.O145
= C – OH
146.C 146
– NR – R’
147.H147
–C=O
148.HOC
148– NR – R’
149. 149
150. 150has lowest oxidation number in
Sulphur
151. 151
Options
152. 152
153.H2SO3
153
154.SO2
154
155. 155
156.H2SO4
156
H2S
157. 157
158. 158
Functional
159. 159 Group of Nitrile:
160. 160
Options
161. 161
162.- C≡N
162
163.O163
= C – OH
164.C 164
– NR – R’
165.HOC
165– NR – R’
166. 166
167. 167
Amino acides are building blocks of:
168. 168
Options
169. 169
170.Ketones
170
171. 171
Aldehydes
172. 172
173.Proteins
173
Ethers
174. 174
175. 175
Which
176. 176of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
177. 177
Options
178. 178
179.H2S
179
180.SO3
180
181.H2O2
181
182.F2182
183. 183
184. 184 are composed of:
Proteins
185. 185
186. 186
Options
187.20187
different amino acids
188. 188
15 different amino acids
189. 189
190.15190
different aldehydes
191.17191
different ethers
192. 192
Which
193. 193of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
194. 194
Options
195. 195
196.O3196
197.KMnO4
197
198.H2O2
198
199.K2Cr2O7
199
200. 200
201.
In the201
redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
202. 202
203. 203
Options
204.X=2
204y=4 z=10
205. 205
X=2 y=6 z=5
206. 206
207.X=2
207y=3 z=8
208.X=2
208y=3 z=10
209. 209
Reduction
210. 210 involves
211. 211
Options
212. 212
213.Loss
213of electrons
214.Gain
214 of electrons
215.Increase
215 in the valency of positive part
216. 216
Decrease in the valency of negative part
217. 217
218. 218 type of α-amine acid - triptophane
Determine
219. 219
220. 220
Options
221.Essential
221
222.Non-essential
222
223. 223
Semi- essential
224. 224
225.None
225 of these
226. 226
Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine
227. 227
228. 228
Options
229. 229
Aliphatic
230. 230
231.Aromatic
231
232.Heterocyclic
232
233.Complex
233
234. 234
The
235.strongest
235 reducing agent is
236. 236
Options
237. 237
238.HNO2
238
239.H2S
239
240. 240
H2SO3
241. 241
242.SnCl2
242
243. 243
Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of sugar rest
244. 244
245. 245
Options
246. 246
247.C1247
248.C2248
249.C3249
250.C4250
251. 251
252. 252 acid exists in form of cation in
α-Amine
253. 253
Options
254. 254
255.Acidic
255 medium
256.Neutral
256 medium
257. 257
Basic medium
258. 258
259.Any
259medium
260. 260
An electrolyte
261. 261 is one
262. 262
Options
263. 263
264.Which
264 conducts electric current
265.Which
265 is capable of ionization by passing electric current
266.Which
266 dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
267.None
267 of the above
268. 268
269. 269 acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in
α-Amine
270. 270
Options
271. 271
272.Acidic
272 medium
273.Neutral
273 medium
274. 274
275.Basic
275 medium
276.Any
276medium
277. 277
278. 278
Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to
279. 279
280. 280
Options
281.Dilution
281
282. 282
Number of ions
283. 283
284.Current
284 density
285.Volume
285 of the solution

How many α-amine acidrests are in polypeptide

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:

Options
-1/3
-1
+1
-3

Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides

Options
Coordination
Ionic
Hydrogen
Hydrofobic

Which of the following is an insulator?

Options
Graphite
Aluminium
Diamond
Silicon

Choose peptide bond

Options
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
-C-C-

In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O

Options
X=4 y=6
X=8 y=3
X=8 y=6
X=3 y=8

Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O

Options
10
8
5
2

Lactose is

Options
Monose
Unreducing disaccharide
Amine acid
Reducing disaccharide

Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

Options
F2
Cl2
Br2
I2

Oxidation involves

Options
Loss of electrons
Gain of electrons
Increase in the valency of negative part
Decrease in the valency of positive part

Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

Options
Oxidation
Reduction
Esterification
Transamination
Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of

Options
Aldose
Pyranose
Fructose
Furanose

Glicaric acids are produced under action of

Options
Mild oxidant
Strong reductant
Mildreductant
Strong oxidant

Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide

Options
Coordination
Ionic
Hydrogen
Glycoside

Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms

Options
C5 and N1
C1 and N9
C3 and N9
C1 and N1

Components of nucleotide

Options
Protein
Amine acid rest
OH
Thymine

Monomeric link of protein

Options
Sugar rest
Isoprene
Amine acid rest
Ethylene

Unsaponified lipids are


Options
Mono-component
Di-component
Three-component
Poly-component

DNA contains

Options
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis

Options
Alcohols, carboxylicacids
Carboxylicacids
Alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

Determine type of α-amine acid - valine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of

Options
Transamination
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation

α-amine acid exists in form of anion in

Options
Acidic medium
Neutral medium
Basic medium
Any medium

How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is

Options
-2
-1
0
-4

The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:

Options
SO2
CaO
Al2O3
CrO3

In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers

Options
Intermolecular
Intramolecular
Disproportion
None of them

Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?

Options
CH3COONa
C2H5OH
NaCl
KOH

Element accepting electrons is called

Options
Product
Oxidant
Reactant
Reductant

One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:

Options
F
Cl
He
Na

The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:

Options
-3 to +5
-1 to +1
-3 to -5
-5 to +1

Strong electrolytes are those which

Options
Dissolve readily in water
Conduct electricity
Dissociate into ions at high dilution
Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions

Which of the following conducts electricity?

Options
Crystal NaCl
Diamond
Molten KBr
Sulphur

How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides

Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100

In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at

Options
Anode
Cathode
Both A & B
The surface of the electrolyte solution

Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins

Options
Coordination
Hydrofobic
Glycoside
Metallic

Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Choose disulphide bond

Options
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
–C-C-

Oxidation Number of Halogens are:

Options
-1
-2
4
0
How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose

Options
1
2
3
4

Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:

Options
1
-2
-4
0

Sucrose is

Options
Monose
Unreducing disaccharide
Amine acid
Reducing disaccharide

Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt

Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by

Options
Oxidation
Reduction
Esterification
Transamination

Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell

Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn

Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called


Options
Transamination
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation

In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation number

Options
Intermolecular
Double exchange
Intramolecular
Disproportion

In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed

Options
Intermolecular
Double exchange
Counter disproportion
Disproportion

Gliconic acids are produced under action of

Options
Mild oxidant
Strongreductant
Mildreductant
Strong oxidant

Element loosing electrons is called

Options
Product
Oxidant
Reactant
Reductant

Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides

Options
Glycozides
Acids
Polyols
Salts

Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms:

Options
C5 and N1
C1 and N9
C3 and N9
C1 and N1

Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:

Options
The interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
The heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
The scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
The study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems
in terms of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.

Components of nucleoside

Options
Phosphate group
Carbonyl group
Thymine
Sugar rest

In what case there is an oxidation process:

Options
KMnO4→MnO2;
HNO2→NO2;
Cl2O→HCl;
P→H3PO4.

Monomeric link of terpene

Options
Sugar rest
Isoprene
Amine acid res
Ethylene

Point out the correct statements:

Options
A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl →
CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O

Options
1
6
14
3

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 2

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?

Options
Mn(OH)2;
MnO42-;
MnO2;
Mn2+.

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?

Options
Fe2O3 + HCl;
FeCl3+H2S;
Fe+ HCl;
SO3+NaOH.

Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction: KMnO4 + H2O2
+H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O

Options
2
5
10
3

Indicate name of terpenes at n = 6

Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene

An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:

Options
Accepts electrons;
Donates electrons;
Increases its oxidation number;
Decreases its concentration

Saponified lipids are

Options
Mono-component
Three-component
Without any component
Poly-component

Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consistsfromzinc consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:

Options
Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.

The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:

Options
1+;
2+;
0;
1-;

RNA contains

Options
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine

Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?

Options
HCl;
KClO3;
HClO2;
KClO4

Simple lipids form under hydrolysis

Options
Alcohols, carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids
Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:

Options
Al;
Fe3+
Fe3+Al3+;
Al3+ Fe3+;

Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine:

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:

Options
Loses 1 electron;
Loses 1 proton;
Gains 1 electron;
Gains 1 proton

Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?

Options
Cr;
Ni2+;
Cr3+;
Ni

Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:

Options
2
3
5
10

Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine


Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

Options
It allows ion migration;
It allows neutron migration;
It allows electron migration;
It prevents ion migration;

Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?

Options
Br2;
Cl2;
F2;
I2

Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is called:

Options
Neutralization;
Esterification;
Electrolysis;
Hydrolysis

Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:

Options
In molecule of cytochrome b
In molecule of vitamin B12
In molecule of catalase
In molecule of vitamin B6

Determine type of α-amine acid - serine:

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:

Options
Enzyme catalase
Enzyme superoxide dismutase
Cytochrome P450
Glutathione peroxidase

Reduced intake of vitamins causes:

Options
Hypervitaminosis
Hypovitaminosis
Avitaminosis
Acidosis

Determine type of α-amine acid – serine;

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Vitamin A deficiency can cause:

Options
Xeroftalmia
Increased blood coagulation
Growth acceleration
Anemia

The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:

Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin B1
Vitamin K
Thiamine

Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

ZnO is used as

Options
Protective
Astringent
Both (a) & (b)
Antidote

Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be

Options
Oxidation
Halogenation
Protein precipitate
All of the above

Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine;

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Hydrogen peroxide is used as

Options
Antiseptic
Acidifying agent
Protective
Antioxidant

Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

KMnO4 solutions are used for

Options
Antibacterial
Antifungal
Both of the above
Antioxidant

Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these elements:

Options
C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;
H, P, S, C, O, N;
O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;
H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

Choose biogenic macroelement

Options
Cu
P
Br
As

Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar
Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine

Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them

Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine:

Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar

Choose biogenic microelement

Options
Cu
S
Ca
Mg

Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex

Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?

Options
Rayon
Insulin
Gun cotton
Paper

Complex lipids form under hydrolysis


Options
Alcohols, carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids
Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols

Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -3 cm
10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
Less than 10 -7 cm

Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose

Options
1
2
3
4

Six major biogenic elements :

Options
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table

Fatty acids are

Options
Unsaturated dicarboxylic acids
Long-chain alkanoic acids
Aromatic carboxylic acids
Aromatic dicarboxylic acids

Five minor biogenic elements:

Options
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities

Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called


Options
Proteins
Terpenes
Carbohydrates
Soaps

Trace elements:

Options
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.

Soap is

Options
A mixture of salts of fatty acids
A salt of glycerol
A mixture of ethers
A mixture of aromatic ethers

Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:

Options
10-7% - 10-12%
10-9%
10-3– 10-5 %
10-2%

Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:

Options
10-2%
10-3– 10-5 %
10-9%
10-7% - 10-12

Fats and oils are

Options
Monoesters of glycerol
Diesters of glycerol
Triesters of glycerol
Diesters of glycol

Choose biogenic microelement

Options
O
S
N
Zn

Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:

Options
More unsaturation
Higher melting points
A glycerol backbone
Longer fatty acids

Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing

Options
12 carbons
14 carbons
16 carbons
18 carbons

Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by

Options
Hydrogenation
Saponification
Hydrolysis
Oxidation of double bonds

Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:

Options
1
3
-1
-3

Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives

Options
Vanaspati ghee
Margarine
Both of these
None of these

Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:

Options
Saponification
Fermentation
Diazotization
Rancidification

Saponification of a fat

Options
Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps
Produces glycerol and soap
Is used in the production of detergents
Is used in the production of lactic acid

Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?

Options
Fats
Waxes
Soaps
Oils

The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its

Options
Iodine number
Octane number
Saponification number
Melting point

Zwitterion is

Options
An ion that is positively charged in solution
An ion that is negatively charged in solution
A compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid
A carbohydrate with an electrical charge

A coordination compound consists of

Options
A metal ion and counterions
Ligands bound to counterions
A complex ion and counterions
A metal ion bound to one or more ligands

The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:

Options
0
4
3
6

A zwitterions has which of the following properties

Options
No net charge
A high melting point
Soluble in water
All of these

Name the following coordination compound: K4[Fe(CN)6]

Options
Name the following coordination compound: K4[Fe(CN)6]
Potassium cyanoferrate(II)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)

An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:

Options
Carbonion
Zwitterions
Carbonium ions
Free radicals

The coordination number is:

Options
The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
The number of positively charged particles in the complex

Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?

Options
Carbonyl compounds
Amino acids
Phenols
Heterocyclic compounds

Number of hem sections in mioglobin

Options
1
2
3
4

The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric field is
known as its:

Options
Isoelectric point
Dipole moment
Iodine number
Wave length

Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2

Options
Cationic
Anionic
Monodentate
Neutral

The isoelectric point of a protein is

Options
The pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface
The pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges
The electric charge number under isothermal conditions
None of these

Glycine is

Options
NH2CH2COOH
NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2
NO2 CH2CH2 COOH
Br CH2 COOH

Ethylenediamine would be called

Options
Dentate
Bidentate
Tridentate
Tetradentate

Glycine is a unique amino acid because it

Options
Has no chiral carbon
Has a sulphur containing R group
Cannot form a peptide bond
Is an essential amino acid
Proteins are

Options
Polyamides
Polymers of ethylene
α-Aminocarboxylic acids
Polymers of propylene

The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:

Options
C,H,O,P,S
N,C,H,O,I
N,S,C,H,O
C,H,O,S,I

Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?

Options
Peptide linkage
Ester linkage
Ether linkage
α,β-Linkage

Name the following coordination compound: [Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3

Options
Triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
Triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
Triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
Amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride

The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

Which of the following are bidentate ligands? (1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide (2) ammonia,
NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2- (3) chloride, Cl- (6) en

Options
1, 4, 5
1, 5, 6
1, 6
2, 3, 4, 5

The primary structure of a protein refers to:


Options
Whether the protein is fibrous or globular
The amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain
The orientation of the amino acid side chains in space
The presence or absence of an α-helix

The α-helix is a common form of

Options
Primary structure
Tertiary structure
Secondary structure
None of these

What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?

Options
0
1+
2+
3+

Number of hem sections in hemoglobin

Options
1
2
3
4

The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of

Options
Optical activity
Hydrogen bonding
Resonance
Delocalization

Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound

Options
Central ion
Ligands
Outer sphere ions
All constituents

Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements

Options
Does’tchang
Increases
Decreasis
None

The double helical structure of DNA is held together by

Options
Sulphur-sulphur linkages
Peptide bonding
Hydrogen bonding
Glycosidic bonds

Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps

Options
0
1
2 and more
Always without steps

Upon hydrolysis, proteins give

Options
Amino acids
Hydroxyl acids
Fatty acids
Alcohols

Dentantness of porfyrin

Options
2
3
4
5

Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces

Options
Ammonia and carbon dioxide
Urea and uric acid
A mixture of amino acids
Glycogen and a fatty acid

Nynhydring test is given by

Options
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Alkanes
Alkenes

Particles playing role of ligands are

Options
Positive ions
Chelates
Negative ions
Complex ions

Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?

Options
Ninhydrin test
Biuret test
Xanthoproteic tes
Tollens test

A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is called

Options
Xanthoproteic test
Ninhydring test
Biuret test
Million’s test

A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its formula.

Options
[Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
[Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
[ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
[CrCl2(H2O)4]

What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?

Options
1
3
-2
0

A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is

Options
A protein
An amino acid
A monosaccharide
Pyridine

Monosaccharides are classified according to

Options
The number of carbon atoms in the molecule
Whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group
Their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes
All of the above

Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?

Options
Carbonyl;
Nitro;
Acetate;
Oxalate.

Which is a monosaccharide?

Options
Sucrose
Maltose
Galactose
Cellulose

Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride

Options
[Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
[(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
[(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
[Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]

Which is a disaccharide?

Options
Glucose
Maltose
Fructose
Cellulose

Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

Options
Ribose
Fructose
Sucrose
Glucose
The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide

Options
Indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light
Indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate
Indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group
Indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate

What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?

Options
Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine

What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?

Options
Tetraamminecopper(II)
Coppertetraammine (II)
Tetraammine(II)copper
Tetra(II)amminecopper

The principal sugar in blood is

Options
Fructose
Glucose
Sucrose
Galactose

Ligand «en» is an example of:

Options
Bidentate ligand;
Monodentate ligand;
Tridentate ligand;
Hexadentate ligand.

The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is

Options
Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)

Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex


Options
Cationic
Anionic
Trigonal
Neutral

Donor of electrons in coordination compound

Options
Central ion
Outer sphere ions
Ligands
None

Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements

Options
Doesn’t change
Increases
Decreases
None of them

Coordination number of iron in hem

Options
2
3
5
6

Dentatness of EDTA

Options
2
3
4
6

With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability

Options
Increases
Doesn’t change
Decreases
None of them

Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of

Options
Rate of reaction
Donor-acceptor interaction
Protons number
Electrostatic model

Particles playing role of central ion are

Options
Positive ions
Neutral molecules
Negative ions
Complex ions

Find ligand of weak field

Options
OH-
Au
CN-
Fe2+

What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?

Options
Hexaaquacobalt(II)
Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
Cobalthexaaqua(II)

Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)

Options
K3[Fe(CN)6]
Fe [K2(CN)6]
(CN)6[Fe K2]
[FeK2(CN)6

What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?

Options
Tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
Chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
Tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
Tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride

Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate

Options
[(en)3Co]SO4
[Co(en)3SO4]
[SO4(en)3]Co
[Co(en)3]SO4

What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?

Options
Linear;
Tetrahedral;
Octahedral;
Trigonal

Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of

Options
Rate of reaction
Donor-acceptor interaction
Protons number
Electrostatic model

Find ligand of strong field

Options
OH-
Au
Cl-
NH3

Dentatness of ligand is

Options
Number of central ions
Charge of central ion
Number of bonds of ligand with central ion
Ion’s total number

Disperse systems consists of:

Options
Dispersion medium, dispersed phase
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
Sol, gel

Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

Options
Dispersion medium, dispersed phase
Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Sol, gel

Glucose cannot be classified as

Options
A hexose
An oligosaccharide
An aldose
A monosaccharide

What is a disperse system?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Coarse systems include

Options
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
Sol, gel
Gel, suspensions.

Which of the following statements is false about glucose?

Options
It is a reducing sugar
It is a disaccharide
It has a pyranose form
It is a polyalcohol

Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?

Options
Its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal
It is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone
It is oprtically active
It shows mutarotation

What is the Emulsion?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Common table sugar is

Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Fructose
Maltose

Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?

Options
Glucose
Fructose
Lactose
None of the above

Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?

Options
It is also called table sugar
It may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol
It reduces Fehling’s solution
It does not reduce Tollens’ reagent

What is the suspension?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is

Options
Lactose
Sucrose
Maltose
Fructose

What is the aerosol?

Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.

Sols are:

Options
Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
Blood, lymph.
Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
Blood, jelly, marmalade.

Starch

Options
Is a trisaccharide
Is also called amylose
Is also called amylopectin
Is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin

Gels are:

Options
Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
Blood, lymph.
Blood, jelly, marmalade.

Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:

Options
Medical products
Colored glass
Pumice
Fog

Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:

Options
Soil
Moist soil
Rocks
Fog

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

Options
Natural gas
Gas from oil droplets
Smog
Colored glass

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:

Options
Natural gas
Aerosols
Dust storms
Pearl

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

Options
Fizzy drinks, foam
Body fluids
Pastes,mortar
Smog

Colloidal solutions include:

Options
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
Sol, gel
Saline solution in water

Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:

Options
Cosmetic products
Porous chocolate
Some alloys
Fog

Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:

Options
Dust in the air
Aerosol
Fog
Does not exist

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:

Options
Sols
Emulsion oil
Fizzy drinks
Fog

Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

Options
Cream, milk
Foam
Pastes
Chocolate

Colloid particles have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -3 cm
10 -5 - 10 -3 m
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -7 m

Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =

Options
Negative
Positive
Without charge
Zero

Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

Options
Ba2+
H+
SO4 2-
H+

Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing

Options
Condensation
Change of solvent
Red-ox reaction
Peptization

Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate

Options
NaCl
Сa3(PO4)2
CaCl2
FeCl3

Optical property typical to colloid systems

Options
Reflection
Absorption
Scattering
Diffusion

Find optical property

Options
Diffusion
Osmosis
Electroosmosis
Absorption

Powder is

Options
L/s
L/l
S/l
S/g

Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties

Options
μ
η
φ
ξ

Particles of coarse systems have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -5 m
10 -9 - 10 -7 m
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -9 m

Particles of true solutions have sizes of

Options
Greater than 10 -5 m
10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -7 m
Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

Options
Positive
Negative
Without charge
Zero

Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =

Options
None
Cl-
SO4 2-
Ba2+

Choose condensation method of colloids producing

Options
Coagulation
Change of solvent
Red-ox reaction
Peptization

Optical property typical to coarse systems

Options
Reflection
Absorption
Scattering
Diffusion

Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one

Options
Absorption
Osmosis
Brownian movement
Diffusion

Aerosol is

Options
L/s
L/l
S/l
S/g

Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties


Options
μ
η
Md
λ

Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:

Options
Suspensions;
Electrolytes;
Molecular solutions;
Alloys

Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:

Options
Colloids;
Gas mixtures;
Saturated solutions;
Alloys.

The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:

Options
Coagulation;
Tyndall effect;
Peptization;
Dialysis
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15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
Question
23. 23 (1/328)
24. 24
Solutions
25. 25 which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity
26. 26 or osmolality. These concentration units express:
27. 27
Options
28. 28
29.Concentrationofwater;
29
30.Concentration
30 of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
31.Concentration
31 of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
32.Concentration
32
of electrolytes.
33. 33
34. 34organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?
Which
35. 35
36. 36
Options
37.CCl4;
37
38. 38
C3H5(OH)3;
39. 39
40.C6H6;
40
41.C6H12O6.
41
42. 42
Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:
43. 43
44. 44
Options
45. 45
46.3 46
Prev
% sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
47. 47
Skip0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
48. 48
Next0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
49. 49
20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.
50. 50
51.structure
The 51 of an alkene contains
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Only
54 single bonds;
55. 55
56.A 56
double bond;
57.Two
57 double bonds;
58.A 58
triple bond.
59. 59
Define
60. 60the Raoult’scryoscopic law:
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.Freezing
63 points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure
64. 64
solvents;
65.Freezing
65
points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
66. 66
solvents;
67. 67
68.Freezing
68 points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
69.Freezing
69 points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.
70. 70
The
71.first
71 Raoult’s Law is defined as:
72. 72
Options
73. 73
74.The
74 vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
75. 75
76.The
76 decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
77.The
77 vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of
pure 78
78. solvents;
79.The
79 vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure
80. 80
solvents.
81. 81
As82.
the82members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van der
Waals83forces between the molecules
83.
84. 84
85. 85
Options
86.Decreases;
86
87. 87
Increases;
88. 88
89.Remains
89 the same;
90.Decreases
90 then increases.
91. 91
In92.
order
92 to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:
93. 93
Options
94. 94
95.To95increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
96.To96add some electrolytes into a solution;
97.To97add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
98.To98increase temperature.
99. 99
100. 100
Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?
101. 101
102. 102
Options
103.CH4;
103
104. 104
C2H6;
105. 105
106.C3H8;
106
107.C4H10.
107
108. 108
What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?
109. 109
110. 110
Options
111. 111
112.6 112
113.2 113
114.8 114
115. 115
116.4 116
117. 117
118. 118is a spontaneous process defined as:
Osmosis
119. 119
Options
120. 120
121.A 121
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
122. 122
from a solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
123.A 123
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
124. 124
from a truesolution to a colloidal solution;
125. 125
A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane
126. 126
from a pure water to a solution;
127. 127
128.A 128
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
from a
129. 129dilute solution into a more concentrated one.
130. 130
In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?
131. 131
132. 132
Options
133. 133
134.CH3COOH;
134
C3H5(OH)3;
135. 135
136.CH3CH2OH;
136
137.CH3OH.
137
138. 138
A139. 139 in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used commercially
process
140.
to 140 the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is called
increase
141. 141
Options
142. 142
143.Polymerization;
143
144.Hydrogenation;
144
145. 145
Esterification;
146. 146
147.Cracking.
147
148. 148
Organic
149. 149compounds must contain
150. 150
Options
151. 151
152.Oxygen;
152
Nitrogen;
153. 153
154.Hydrogen;
154
155.Carbon.
155
156. 156
157.angle
The 157 formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an organic
158. 158 is a(an)
compound
159. 159
Options
160. 160
161.Dihedral
161 angle;
162.Right
162 angle;
163. 163
164.Tetrahedral
164 angle;
165.Acute
165 angle.
166. 166
A167.
specific
167 arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an organic
molecule
168. 168 is known as a(an)
Options
169. 169
170.Carboxyl
170 group;
171. 171
Functional group;
172. 172
173.Group;
173
174. 174 group.
Alkyl
175. 175
The
176.ability
176 of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of compounds that
are
177. 177
178. 178
Options
179. 179
180.Molecular;
180
181.Ionic;
181
182.Polar;
182
183.Atomic.
183
184. 184
185. many
How 185 carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?
186. 186
187. 187
Options
188.5 188
189. 189
8
190. 190
191.6 191
192.13192
193. 193
The
194.series
194 of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two adjacent
carbon
195. 195atoms is known as the
196. 196
Options
197. 197
198.Alkanes;
198
199.Alkenes;
199
200.Alkynes;
200
201.Benzenes.
201
202. 202
203. 203 reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated hydrocarbons
Addition
204. 204unsaturated hydrocarbons
because
205. 205
206. 206
Options
207.Contain
207 multiple bonds;
208. 208
Have a greater molecular mass;
209. 209
210.Have
210 tetrahedral bonds;
211.Contain
211 more atoms.
212. 212
A213.
dihydroxy
213 alcohol that is made from ethane is
214. 214
Options
215. 215
216.Ethanol;
216
217.Glycerol;
217
218.Ethylene
218 glycol;
219. 219
Ethane.
220. 220
A221.
long 221
chain protein is an example of a(an)
Options
222. 222
223.Fat;
223
224. 224
Polymer;
225. 225
226.Isomer;
226
Monomer.
227. 227
228. 228
Which
229. 229represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
230. 230
Options
231. 231
232.C2H4;
232
233.C2H6;
233
234.C3H8;
234
235.C4H10.
235
236. 236
237. many
How 237 double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?
238. 238
239. 239
Options
240.1 240
241. 241
2
242. 242
243.3 243
244.4 244
245. 245
Cryoscopy
246. 246 and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:
247. 247
Options
248. 248
249.Density;
249
250.Viscosity;
250
251.Molar
251 mass;
252.Osmotic
252 pressure.
253. 253
254.osmolarity
The 254 of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:
255. 255
256. 256
Options
257.2.0×10-2osmol;
257
258. 258
1.0×10-1osmol;
259. 259
260.3.0×10-2osmol;
260
261.5.0×10-3osmol.
261
262. 262
Osmolarity
263. 263 is:
264. 264
Options
265. 265
266.The
266molarity of particles in a solution;
267.The
267amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
268.Mass
268 percentage concentration;
269. 269
The concentration in parts per thousand.
270. 270
271. 271
Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?
272. 272
273. 273
Options
274.Butane;
274
275.Propane;
275
276.1-chlorobutane;
276
277. 277
278.1-chloropropane.
278
279. 279
Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:
280. 280
281. 281
Options
282. 282
TT= MRT;
283. 283
284.Tf284
= Kf Cm;
285.Tb285
= KbCm;
286.Tf286
=iKf Cm.
287. 287
A288.
fermentation
288 reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both can produce
289. 289
Options
290. 290
291.An291
ester;
292.An292
alcohol;
293. 293
An acid;
294. 294
295.A 295
soap.
296. 296
Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:
297. 297
298. 298
Options
299. 299
300.740-780
300 kPa;
301.140-240
301 kPa;
302.840-980
302 kPa;
303.60-70
303 kPa.
304. 304
305. 305 properties of solutions depend upon:
Colligative
306. 306
Options
307. 307
308.The
308number of the solute particles;
309.The
309chemical structure of solute;
310. 310
Catalysts;
311. 311
312.PH scale.
312
313. 313
Which
314. 314is a saturated hydrocarbon?
315. 315
Options
316. 316
317.C3H8;
317
318.C6H6;
318
319.C2H5OH;
319
320.C2H4O2.
320
321. 321
322. 322
Boiling point of solution with concentration rise
323. 323
Options
324. 324
325.Increases
325
326.Remains
326 same
327. 327
328.Decreases
328
No effect

Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution

Options
Increases
Remains same
Decreases
None of them

Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise

Options
Increases
Remains same
Decreases
Increases then decreases

For spontaneous processes?

Options
∆H ≥ 0
∆S ≤ 0
∆G ≥ 0
∆H≤ 0

Colligative property of solution of non- electrolyte doesn’t depend on

Options
Concentration
Nature of solvent
Temperature
Nature of solute

Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional to

Options
Temperature
Molar fraction of solute
Molar fraction of solvent
Mixing rate

Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Hypertonic

Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called

Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry

Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called

Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry
Which molecule will have a single pi bond?

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Propane;
Propyne.

CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as

Options
A carbohydrate;
An ester;
An alcohol;
An organic acid.

Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

Options
Benzene;
Propyne;
Methane;
Ethanol.

As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling points

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases.

As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the ratio of carbon
atoms to hydrogen atoms

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases

The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the

Options
Nature of solute and solvent
Rate at which the gas dissolves
Temperature
Pressure

Which compound is most likely to react by addition?


Options
CH4;
C3H6;
C4H10;
C5H12.

Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?

Options
Propanol;
Glycerol;
Butanol;
Pentanol.

Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Pentene;
Butene.

Which involves the colligative properties?

Options
Heating of solvent.
Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature
Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.

A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an

Options
Alkene;
Alkane;
Alkyne;
Alkadiene.

Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

Options
Aldehydes;
Esters;
Polymers;
Ketones.

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration
is known as :

Options
Osmosis
Diffusion
Active Transport
Phagocytosis

The compound 2-propanol is classified as a

Options
Primary alcohol;
Secondary alcohol;
Tertiary alcohol;
Dihydroxy alcohol.

What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?

Options
10
8
6
4

Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?

Options
Butane;
Ethane;
Pentane;
Propane.

Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?

Options
C5H8;
C5H10;
C5H12;
C5H14.

The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :

Options
Active Transport
Diffusion
Phagocytosis
Osmosis

The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally

Options
Ionic;
Coordinate covalent;
Covalent;
Hydrogen.

The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
against the concentration gradient is known as :

Options
Active Transport
Diffusion
Osmosis
Phagocytosis

As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the number
of double bonds per molecule

Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases.

In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and

Options
Water;
Carbon dioxide;
An acid;
A base.

Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?

Options
C2H5OH;
C2H4(OH)2;
C3H5(OH)3;
C3H6(OH)2.

In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound formed is

Options
An ester;
A ketone;
An acid;
An ether.

Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon

Options
Ethene;
Ethane;
Ethylene;
Ethyne.

Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?

Options
Al(OH)3;
C3H5(OH)3;
Ca(OH)2;
C2H4(OH)2.

The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is

Options
Glycerol;
Ethylene glycol;
Propene;
Propanoic acid.

Which organic compound is a ketone?

Options
CH3OH;
CH3COCH3;
CH3COOH;
CH3COOCH3.

Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?

Options
Butane;
Ethane;
Methane;
Propane.

Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?

Options
Oxidation;
Cracking;
Haber;
Contact.

Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular forces have

Options
Low melting points;
Low vapor pressure;
High conductivity in solution;
High boiling points.

What is the formula for pentanol?

Options
C5H12;
C5H11OH;
C4H10;
C4H9OH.

Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?

Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Toluene;
Butadiene

Colligative properties of the solution depend on

Options
Nature of solute
Nature of solvent
Number of particles present in the solution
Number of moles of solvent only

Which compound contains a triple bond?

Options
CH4;
C2H2;
C3H6;
C4H10.

Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

Options
Substitution;
Oxidation;
Addition polymerization;
Condensation, polymerization.

Which one is a colligative property?

Options
Boiling point
Vapour pressure
Osmotic pressure
Freezing point

In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling points by

Options
The contact process;
The Haber process;
Fractional distillation;
Cracking.

Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?

Options
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of b.p.
Vapour pressure
Depression of f.p.

Which is not a colligative property?

Options
Freezing point
Lowering of vapour pressure
Depression of freezing point
Elevation of boiling point

Organic acids are composed of a

Options
C = O group at the end of the chain
COO– group
C = O and COH group on the same carbon
C = O and COH group on different carbons

Which of the following is a true statement?

Options
Ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
Aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
Ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol
Organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone

Which of the following is a colligative property?

Options
Surface tension
Viscosity
Osmotic pressure
Boiling point

The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of

Options
Solute molecules to the solvent molecules
Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law was
given by

Options
Raoult
Ostwald
Van’t Hoff
Lewis

According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to

Options
Moles of solute
Mole fraction of solvent
Moles of solvent
Mole fraction of solute

A mixture of benzene and toluene forms

Options
An ideal solution
Non-ideal solution
Suspension
Emulsion

When common salt is dissolved in water

Options
M. p. of the solution increases
B. p. of the solution increases
B. p. of the solution decreases
Both m. p. and b. p. decreases

Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to

Options
Molecular wt. of solute
Molecular wt. of solvent
Molality of solute
None of these
When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then phenomenon
taking place is called

Options
Osmosis
Diffusion
Cataphoresis
Plasmolysis

The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:

Options
П =ST/C
П = CT/S
П = SC/T
П / C = ST

Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3

Options
An alcohol with an ether
A carboxylic acid with a ketone
A carboxylic acid with an alcohol
A ketone with an aldehyde

If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in 100mL water,
which of the following is true about solution A and B ?

Options
Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
None of them.

The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is

Options
Ethylpropanoate
Propylethanoate
Propethanoate
None of the above

What happens during osmosis?

Options
Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.
Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.
Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.
Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.
Which of the following is classified as an ether?

Options
CH3CHOHCH3
CH2(OH)CH2CH3
CH2COCH3
CH3OCH3

According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?

Options
The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.
The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.
The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increases.

Polymers are

Options
Molecules made of monomers
Molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule
Macromolecules
All of the above

In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?

Options
1000C
Boiling point
Melting point
Freezing point

Classify this reaction: CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH

Options
Chlorination
Oxidation
Hydration
Elimination

A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)

Options
Electrolyte
Nonelectrolyte
Polar substance
Nonpolar substance

The first member of the ketone family is:


Options
Methanone
Ethanone
Propanone
Butanone

A substance that vaporizes easily is known as

Options
Volatile
Nonvolatile
Electrolyte
Nonelectrolyte

Acetic acid is weak because

Options
It is unstable
It is an organic aliphatic acid
It is slightly ionized
None of these

Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?

Options
Concentrated sulfuric acid
Dilute sulfuric acid
Water
None

At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw at
this temperature will be

Options
1x10-6
1x10-12
1x10-14
1x10-5

How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?

Options
The rotate at different rates
They have different colours
They have different melting/boiling points
They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions

One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is

Options
1.8 x 10-7
0.8 x 10-9
3.6 x 10-7
3.6 x 10-9

What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?

Options
PCl3 and an alcohol
HCl and an alcohol
HCl and an alcohol, under reflux
Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl

What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?

Options
A carboxylic acid
A carboxylate salt
Water
Does not react

The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2% ionized
weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).

Options
0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively
1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively

The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is

Options
10-Dec
10-Feb
10-Apr
Oct-13

The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

Options
Oct-13
1013
6.023 x 107
6.0233 x 1010

PH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately

Options
10
7
1
14

Name this molecule:

Options
1,2-dimethylbutane
3,4-dimethylbutane
Hexane
3-methylpentane

The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is

Options
8
-8
Between 7 and 8
Between 6 and 7

What are alcohols not used in?

Options
Wine
Vinegar
Plastics
Methylated spirits

Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

Options
8
1 x 10-7
7
1

An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Amphoteric

What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?


Options
Hydration
Hydrolysis
Esterification
Polymerisation

The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to

Options
Acidic impurities
Ionization
Hydrolysis
Dissociation

What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?

Options
CnH2n+1OH
CnH2nOH
CnH2n+2OH
CnH2n+1COOH

FeCl3 solution is

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Amphoteric

Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.

Options
Ethanoic acid
Ethanol
Butanoic acid
Ethyl ethanoate

Which is true about ethanoic acid?

Options
It has a higher boiling point than ethanol
It dissociates completely in water
It dimerises in water
It reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water

Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is

Options
Neutral
Weakly acidic
Strongly acidic
Alkaline

An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show

Options
An acidic reaction
A neutral reaction
A basic reaction
Both acidic and basic reaction

Esters are ________.

Options
Made from alcohols and non-organic acids
Used to make perfumes and flavorings
Poisonous
Foul-smelling compounds

An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is

Options
Faintly acidic
Fairly acidic
Faintly alkaline
Almost neutral

What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?

Options
Carbon monoxide and water
Carbon and water
Carbon dioxide and water
Carbon monoxide and hydrogen

Which one of the following is acid salt?

Options
Na2S
Na2SO3
NaHSO3
Na2SO4

What are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid

Options
Ethyl methanoate and water
CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen
Methyl ethanoate and water
CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen

Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?

Options
Na2SO4
BiOCl
Pb(OH)Cl
Na2HPO4

What is true about carboxylic acids?

Options
Carboxylic acids are strong acids
Carboxylic acids can react with metals
Alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds

Which one is not an acid salt?

Options
Na2H2PO4
NaH2PO2
NaH2PO3
None of the above

Esterification is a __________.

Options
Condensation reaction
Irreversible reaction
Addition reaction
Neutralization reaction

Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?

Options
NaCl
NH4Cl
KCl
Na2SO4

Which is false about the formation of ethanol?

Options
Ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane
Ethanol contains a hydroxyl group
Ethanol is used as a fuel
Ethanol is a solvent

Which one will not be hydrolysed?

Options
Potassium nitrate
Potassium cyanide
Potassium succinate
Potassium carbonate

What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?

Options
Concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm
Concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius

Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis

Options
CH3COOK
NaNO3
KCl
K2SO4

In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form

Options
2 bond
3 bond
4 bond
5 bond

Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution

Options
(NH4)2SO4
Ba(NO3)2
CrCl3
CuSO4

Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:

Options
One σ bond, one π bond
Two π bond, one π bond
One σ bond, two π bond
Two σ bond, two π bond
Acetylene has a total of:

Options
One σ bond, two π bond
Two σ bond, four π bond
Three σ bond, two π bond
One σ bond, four π bond

The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from

Options
A strong acid and strong base
A strong acid and weak base
A weak acid and weak base
A weak acid and strong base

Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?

Options
KNO3
NaOH
FeCl3
NaCN

In propene there are

Options
Eight σ bond, one π bond
Seven σ bond, two π bond
Six σ bond, three π bond
Nine σ bond

In propyne there are

Options
Six σ bond, two π bond
Seven σ bond, one π bond
Six σ bond, one π bond
Eight σ bond

1-Buten -3-yne has

Options
Six σ bond, four π bond
Seven σ bond, three π bond
Eight σ bond, two π bond
Nine σ bond, one π bond

Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is
Options
CH3CH2CH3
CH3C≡CH
CH2CH=CH2
CH2=CH-CH=CH2

Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is:

Options
CH4
H2N-CH2-NH2
H3C-OH
(CH3)3COH

When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to

Options
2 other atoms
4 other atoms
3 other atoms
5 other atoms

Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is

Options
C6H6
H2N-CH2-NH2
CH2=CH-CH=CH2
CH3CH=C=CH2

Which of the following is a planar molecule?

Options
Formaldehyde
Acetone
Formic acid
Acetic acid

What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?

Options
180o
120o
109.5o
115.5o

The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is

Options
60o
109.28o
120o
118.28o

The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is

Options
60o
120o
90o
180o

What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?

Options
1.20 Ǻ
1.35 Ǻ
1.54 Ǻ
1.68 Ǻ

The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:

Options
Triple, duble, single
Single, duble, triple
Single, triple, duble
Duble, triple, single.

Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?

Options
C-C < C=C < C≡C
C-C > C≡C > C=C
C≡C > C-C > C=C
C≡C < C=C< C-C

Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?

Options
CH2 = CH2
CH3CH3
HC ≡ CH
CHCI3

The carbon-carbon length is maximum in

Options
CH2 = CH2
CH3CH3
HC ≡ CH
CHCI3

Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?

Options
Ethyl alcohol
Formaldehyde
Diethyl ether
1,3-butadien

Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?

Options
Cis-1,2-dichloroetylene
O- dichlorobenzene
Trans-1,2- dichloroetylene
P- dichlorobenzene

Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

Options
CI2
CO2
CCI4
CHCI3

Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

Options
Carbon tetrachloride
Chloromethane
Dichloromethane
Chloroform

Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

Options
CH3CI
CH3Br
CH3F
CH3I

Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?

Options
ClCH2CHClCOOH
CH3CHClCHClCOOH
CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH
C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH

Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?

Options
Ketone
Aldehyde
Amine
Ester

Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the same
carbon atom?

Options
Ester
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid

Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the same
carbon atom?

Options
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester

One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other compounds is
that in aldehydes and ketones

Options
The carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other
carbonyl compounds.
The polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.
The molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.
The carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.

The carbonyl group is

Options
Found only in aldehydes and ketones.
Produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.
A functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.
A general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.

All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true except

Options
The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.
The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.
Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.
In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.

The IUPAC name for acetone is

Options
2-propanone.
Dimethyl ketone
1-propanone.
3-propanal.

The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is

Options
3-propanal.
2-propanone.
Acetone.
1-propanone.

Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid solution?

Options
NH4Cl
Al2(SO4)3
AgNO3
NaCN

The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is

Options
3- methyl 1 butanone.
2-methylbutanal.
3-methylbutanal
Isopentanal

A buffer solution changes its pH

Options
Increase in pH
Decrease in pH
No change in pH
No change in electrical conductivity

The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is

Options
Isobutyl acetone
2- methyl – 4- butanone
4 –methyl – 2- butanone.
4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

About buffer solution which in incorrect?

Options
It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base
It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
All of the above

Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

Options
3-octanone
2-butanone
3- methyl -3-pentanone all are correct
3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone

Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?

Options
Strong acid and its salt of a weak base
Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
Strong acid and its salt of a strong base

Which is a buffer solution?

Options
CH3COOH + CH3COONa
CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
CH3COOH + NH4Cl
NaOH + NaCl

Which of the following is a buffer?

Options
NaOH + CH3COONa
NaOH + Na2SO4
K2SO4 + H2SO4
NH4OH + NH4Cl

Which is not a buffer solution?

Options
NH4Cl + NH4OH
CH3COOH + CH3COONa
CH3COONa
Borax + Boric acid

Which of the following names does not fit a real compound

Options
3-ethylpentanal
4-methylpentanal
3- methyl- 2- pentanal
2-methylpentanal

PH of blood is

Options
Less than 6
Greater than 7 and less than 8
Greater than 8 and less than 9
Greater than 10

Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?

Options
They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded
to oxygen.
Most have distinctive odors.
They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.
They are polar.

Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is

Options
Acetic acid + Sodium acetate
Boric acid + Borax
Citric acid + Sodium citrate
All

All of the following are properties of acetone except

Options
Flammable.
Intoxicating.
Solvent for organic substances.
Nutrient.

Give name to positively charged particles:

Options
Radicals;
Molecules;
Anions;
Cations.
Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?

Options
Flavoring
Preservative
Hormone
Solvent

What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?

Options
NaNO2;
NaHCO3;
Na2CO3;
KMnO4

Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

Options
CH3-CO-CH3
CH3-CHO
CH3-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:

Options
High heat capacity;
High polarity of molecules;
Lowfreezingpoint;
Low water ionization constant.

Which compound has the highest boiling point?

Options
CH3-CHO
CH3-CH2-CHO
CH3-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

Weak electrolytes are characterized by:

Options
Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
Ionic strength;
Concentration of a gas in a solution;
Ion product for water.

Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:


Options
0.01M
0.001M;
0.1 M;
1.0M.

Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:

Options
Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
Atmospheric pressure;
Boiling point;
Vapor pressure.

According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:

Options
Electrons donors;
Electrons acceptor
Protons donors;
Protons acceptors.

Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:

Options
KCl/HCl;
NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
KHSO4/H2SO4;
NH3 /NH4Cl.

Strong electrolytes are characterized by:

Options
Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
Ionization constant of water;
Acid ionization constant;
All answers are right.

Which compound has the lowest boiling point

Options
CH3-CH2-CHO
CH3-CH2-CH3
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by

Options
H2.
Lactic acid.
NADH.
Pyruvic acid.

All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except

Options
It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.
Its systematic name is ethanal.
Its common name is acetaldehyde.
Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.

Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:

Options
Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.

All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except

Options
Its systematic name is propanone.
Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone
Its common name is acetone.
Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3

According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:

Options
Electrons donor;
Electrons acceptors;
Protons donors;
Protons acceptors.

The acid-base state of blood is determined of:

Options
PH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
POHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
PH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
Concentration of H+ and OH-.

Complex substances or compound classes are divided into

Options
Oxides, acid, base, salt
Oxides, base
Alkalis, salt, oxides
Ampholytes, Alkalis

Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.

Options
Hydroxide(OH -)
Hydrogen(H +)
Ammoniumcation(NH+4)
Hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is methyl ethyl
ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound are ____ .

Options
2-butanone;
2-propanone;
3-butanone;
3-butanone;

Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.

Options
Hydroxide(OH -)
Hydrogen(H +)
Ammoniumcation(NH+4)
(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)

Tollens' reagent is used to

Options
Distinguish amines from aldehydes.
Reduce aldehydes.
Distinguish aldehydes from ketones.
Reduce ketones.

The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

Options
Primary alcohol.
Secondary alcohol.
Carboxylic acid.
Ketone.

The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

Oxidation of a ketone produces

Options
An aldehyde
A carboxylic acid
A primary alcohol
No reaction

The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will be?

Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7

All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except

Options
Oxidation of ketones produces esters.
Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +.
Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.

The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?

Options
PH<7
PH>7
PH ~7
PH = 7

All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except

Options
The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.
Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.
The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .
Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?

Options
Pentanal
3-pentanone
2-pentanone
Pentanoic acid

Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?

Options
A silver wire dissolves.
A brick-red precipitate forms.
The light blue color of the reagent disappears.
A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

Options
A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.
A red precipitate forms from a blue solution
A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless
A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride


Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the product of oxidation of butanal?

Options
Butane
2-butanol
1-butanol
Butanoic acid

What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?

Options
Butanoic acid
Butanal
2-butanol
No reaction

Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride

Options
Acidicb
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?

Options
An aldehyde
A hemiacetal
A carboxylic acid
None, ketones don't oxidize

Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?

Options
Gold
Copper
Lead
Silver

Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Reduction of an aldehyde produces a

Options
Tertiary alcohol.
Carboxylic acid
Secondary alcohol.
Primary alcohol.

Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)

Options
Carboxylic acid.
Secondary alcohol
Aldehyde.
Tertiary alcohol.

Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

What is the product of reduction of butanal?

Options
Butanoic acid
Butane
2-butanol
1-butanol

Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of them

What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?

Options
Butanal
1-butanol
2-butanol
Butanoic acid

Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of them

What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?

Options
3-methyl –2- pentanal
2- methyl -3-pentanol
3-methyl – 2-pentanol
3- methyl –2- pentene

Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?

Options
Galactose
Lactose
Maltose
Sucrose

Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam

Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam

Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

Options
CH3OH
C6H1206
C12H22O11
C6H12O5
Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide

Options
2
13
1
7

Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

Options
Glucose and Glucose
Glucose and Galactose
Glucose and Fructose
Fructose and Galactose

PH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of

Options
Acid (H+-)
Conjugate base (-OH-)
Salt
Both A and Bswer D

PH can be kept constant with help of

Options
Saturated solution
Unsaturated solution
Buffer solution
Super saturated solution

In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

Options
Starch
Glycogen
Dextrins
Cellulose

Buffers present in blood contain


Options
HCO3-
Hemoglobin
H2PO4-
All of them

All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

Options
Glycogen
Inulin
Starch
Cellulose

Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings

Options
Sucrose
Ribulose
Fructose
Ribose

Choose the keto triose-

Options
Glyceraldehyde
Erythrose
Dihydroxyacetone
Arabinose

Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in

Options
Aerobic respiration
Anaerobic respiration
Transpiration
Photosynthesis

One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is

Options
Carbolic anhydrase
Carbonic anhydrase
Carbolic hydrase
Carbonic hydrase

A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

Options
Xylose
Lyxose
Xylulose
Aldose

Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer? acetic
acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride

Options
Hydrochloric acid only
Sodium chloride or potassium acetate
Acetic acid only
Acetic acid or hydrochloric acid

α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

Options
Epimers
Keto- Aldose Isomers
Anomers
Optical isomers

When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is

Options
Oxide
Ether
Salt
Alcohol

All tests are negative for sucrose except-

Options
Benedict
Seliwanoff
Barfoed
Osazone

When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are

Options
Salt
Water
Carbon dioxide
All of above

Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-

Options
4
12
8
16

Salt among following is

Options
HCl
KCl
HNO3
H3PO4

Galactose and Glucose are-

Options
Epimers
Isomers
Anomers
Ketose- Aldose isomers

Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called

Options
Neutralization
Hydrogenation
Halogenation
Sublimation

The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around one carbon
atom are called-

Options
Optical isomers
Stereo isomers
Anomers
Epimers

Basic formula for monobasic acid is

Options
AH
HA
Ha
AH

Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is

Options
High
Low
Same
Constant

What does the following equation represent?    α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→  +19οβ- D glucose

Options
Stereo isomerism
Mutarotation
Optical isomerism
Epimerization

Value of Ka can be calculated by determining

Options
Concentration of acid
PH of solution
Concentration of water molecules
Both A and B

The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

Options
Glucose
Xylose
Lyxose
Fructose

Dulcitol is a -

Options
Sugar acid
Amino sugar
Deoxysugars
Sugar alcohol

Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

Options
Arabinose
Erythrose
Trehalose
Ribulose

A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

Options
Starch
Dextrin
Glycogen
Cellulose
PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing?

Options
Concentration of acid
Value of Ka
Water potential
Both A and B

Invert sugar is-

Options
Starch
Glucose
Fructose
Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

Ka is called

Options
Acid dissociation constant
Base dissociation constant
Avogadro constant
Salt dissociation constant

The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-

Options
Hyaluronic acid
Cellulose
Chitin
Chondrosamine

Which one of the following is a weak acid?

Options
HNO3
HI
HBr
HNO2

Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?

Options
Insulin
Dextrin
Cellulose
Glycogen

Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
Options
MgCl2
Ba(NO3)2
LiClO4
CsBr

A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-

Options
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
Trehalose

Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?

Options
H2O
KF
HF
HNO2

The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

Options
Glucopyranose
Glucoside
Glucofuranose
Glucosamine

Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?

Options
HClO
CH3COOH
HF
HCN

A stronger base:

Options
Is also a stronger acid;
Is also a stronger electrolyte;
Tastes sour;
Yields fewer OH- ions in solution;

Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?

Options
Benedict
Molisch
Seliwanoff
Osazone

Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?

Options
C3 H7O2N
C13H26O2
C6H12O6
C20H40O2

When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:

Options
Water and a salt
An acid and a base;
A salt and hydrogen gas;
A nonmetal oxid

Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

Options
Ribose
Fructose
Glucose
Glyceraldehyde

A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution then
turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?

Options
HCl;
H2CO3;
KOH;
CH3CH2OH;

Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:

Options
1×10-11 M;
1×10-9 M;
1×10-7 M;
1×10-5 M;

Which of following is an anomeric pair?

Options
D-glucose and L-glucose
α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose
D-glucose and D-fructose
α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H+ ions. This
substance is:

Options
KOH;
CH4
H2SO4;
NH3

Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

Options
Glucuronate
Gluconate
Glucose
Muramic acid

Which is true about a solution that is acidic?

Options
H+] equals zero;
[OH-] equals [H+];
H+] is less than [OH-];
H+] is greater than [OH-

From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:

Options
The glucose residue is the β anomer.
The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.
C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.
The compound is in its furanose form

According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:

Options
Donate a proton;
Yield H+ ions;
Donate an electron pair;
Acceptor of protons.

The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:

Options
A purine nucleotide
A pyrimidine nucleotide.
Adenosine
AMP

What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 40.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?

Options
100.0 mL;
80.0 mL;
40.0 mL;
20.0 mL

Functional Group of Alkane:

Options
None
C–X
C=C
C – OH

As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:

Options
Increase;
Decrease;
Remain the same;
Approach zero

Functional Group of Cycloalkane:

Options
H–C=O
C – OH
O=C–O–C
None

Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?

Options
1
7
10
14

Functional Group of Alkyl halide:

Options
None
C–X
C=C
C – OH
The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:

Options
A single replacement;
A neutralization reaction;
The pro

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