UD11T4105- NAVIGATION II- Bridge Equipment, Watch Keeping & Met

UNIT 2. Conduct of vessels in any condition of visibility and insight of one another ( Rule 1-18)

Choose the best option.

1. COLREGs shall apply to all vessels upon
A. High seas
B. All waters connected therewith navigable by sea going vessels
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B
2. Who is responsible to comply with the COLREGs?
A. Master
B. Bridge rating
C. Officer
D. All of the above
3. Which of the following is CORRECT?
A. One should observe the rules stated in COLREGs
B. One should comply with the rules stated in COLREGs as well as any necessary
precautions
C. One should observe precautions as required by ordinary practice of seamen
D. One should observe precautions as required by ordinary practice of seamen or by
the special circumstances of the case

4. The term ‘vessel’ includes

A. Water craft
B. Non-displacement craft
C. WIG & Seaplanes
D. All of the above
5. The term’ sailing vessel’ means any vessel under sail provided
A. Propelling machinery is used
B. Propelling machinery , if fitted is not used
C. Square rigged sail is used
D. Propelling machinery is not fitted
6. Which of the following vessel is ‘vessel engaged in fishing’ ?
Any vessel fishing with
I. Nets
II. Lines
III. Trawls
IV. Trolling lines
A. I,II
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I,II, IV

7. The word ’seaplane’ includes any aircraft designed to

A. Fly over water
B. Manoeuvre on the water
 C. Fly in close proximity to the surface by utilizing surface -effect action
D. Remain underwater
8. Which of the following is “vessel not under command’?
A. Cable laying ship
B. Dredger
C. Mine clearance vessel
D. Sailing vessel becalmed
9. The NUC vessel is unable to manoeuvre as required by COLREGs due to
A. Exceptional circumstances
B. Nature of her work
C. Mine clearance vessel
D. Her draft
10. A vessel engaged in the launching or recovery of aircraft is
A. NUC
B. RAM
C. WIG
D. CBD
11. The term ‘CBD’ means a power driven vessel because of her draft in relation to the available
depth and _______________ of navigable water is severely restricted in her ability to deviate
from the course she is following.
A. Length
B. Beam
C. Width
D. Spread
12. Which of the following vessel is ‘underway’?
A. At anchor
B. At berth
C. Aground
D. Making way
13. The term ‘restricted visibility’ means any condition in which visibility is restricted by -------
I. Fog
II. Mist
III. Falling Snow
IV. Heavy rainstorm
V. Sandstorms
A. I,II
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV
D. All of the above
14. Rule 5- Lookout is applicable to
A. Power driven vessel
B. NUC
C. RAM
D. Every vessel
15. The lookout has to be kept by
A. Sight
B. Hearing
C. Sight as well as hearing
 D. Sight and hearing as well as by all other available means
16. Which of the following is/are CORRECT with respect to lookout ?
I. Maintain lookout by radar and AIS in all kind of visibility
II. Post extra lookout in restricted visibility
III. Early detection of target is not necessary to make early judgment
A. I
B. II
C. I,II
D. I,II & III
17. ‘ Safe speed’ must be observed
A. In restricted visibility
B. In dense traffic
C. In fishing traffic
D. At all times
18. The rule of ‘Safe speed ‘is applicable to
A. Power driven vessel
B. Sailing vessels
C. CBDs
D. Every vessel
19. The rule of safe speed suggests that a vessel shall proceed at such a speed that
I. she can take effective action to avoid collision
II. be stopped within an appropriate distance
III. make own judgment of what is safe speed

A. I
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,II,III
20. In determining the safe speed, most important factor to be considered by all vessels is
A. State of visibility
B. Over all length
C. Tonnage
D. State of wind
21. Which of the following factors are considered to determine safe speed by all vessels?
I. State of visibility
II. Traffic density
III. Manoeuvrability
IV. Background light
V. State of wind , sea and current
VI. Daft
VII. Proximity of navigational hazard
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,II,III,IV, V, VI
D. All of the above
22. Risk of collision exists if
I. Compass bearing of an approaching vessel does not appreciably change
II. Approaching a very large vessel or tow , even if there is appreciable bearing change
 III. Approaching a vessel at close range , even if there is appreciable bearing change
A. I
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,II,III
23. When determining risk of collision, if there is any doubt, it ______________.
A. Shall be deemed to exist
B. May exist
C. Does not exist
D. Should be confirmed with other vessel on VHF
24. Which of the following is/are CORRECT for determining risk of collision?
I. Use radar including long range scanning
II. Use radar plotting or equivalent systematic observation of detected objects
III. Make assumptions on the scanty radar information
A. I
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,II, III
25. Action taken to avoid collision shall be
I. Positive
II. Made in ample time
III. With due regard to the observance of good seamanship
A. I
B. II
C. I,II
D. I,II, III
26. Which of the following is/are CORRECT with respect to action to avoid collision ?
I. Any alteration of course should be large enough to be readily apparent to another
vessel
II. Avoid small alteration of course
III. Small alteration of speed
A. I
B. II
C. I,II
D. II,III
27. If there is sufficient sea room, alteration of course alone may be most effective action to
avoid close quarter situation, provided
A. It is made in in good time
B. It is substantial
C. It does not result in another close quarter situation
D. All of the above
28. Which of the following is /are CORRECT with respect to action to be taken to avoid collision?
I. Action to avoid collision with another vessel shall result in passing a safe distance
II. The effectiveness of action taken shall be carefully checked until other vessel is finally
passed and clear
III. If necessary a vessel shall slacken her speed
IV. If necessary a vessel shall take all way off by stopping or revering he means of
propulsion
 A. I
B. II,II
C. I,II, II
D. I,II,III,IV
29. A vessel proceeding along the course of a narrow channel shall keep
A. As near to the outer limit which lies on her port side as is safe and practicable.
B. As near to the inner limit which lies on her starboard side as is safe and practicable.
C. As near to the outer limit which lies on her starboard side as is safe and practicable
D. As near to the centre of the channel as is safe and practicable
30. Which of the following vessels shall not impede the passage of a vessel which can safely
navigate only within a narrow channel or fairway?
A. Fishing vessel
B. Sailing vessel
C. Vessel less than 20 m in length & Sailing vessel
D. CBD
31. A vessel engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of_____________ navigating within
narrow channel or fairway.
A. CBD
B. Sailing vessel
C. Power driven vessel
D. Any vessel
32. In a narrow channel or fairway, if a vessel intends to overtake from starboard side, following
signal(s) to be sounded to indicate the intention to vessel being over taken
A. One short blast
B. Two short blasts
C. Two prolonged and one short blasts
D. Two prolonged and two short blasts
33. A vessel nearing a bend or area of narrow channel or fairway where other vessel may be
obscured by an intervening obstruction shall navigate with particular alertness and caution and
sound following signals to indicate her presence.
A. One short blast
B. One prolonged blast
C. Two prolonged blasts
D. One prolonged and one short blast
34. Which of the following are related to TSS?
I. Vessels must proceed in appropriate traffic lane
II. Vessels must proceed in the general direction of traffic flow
III. Keep clear of traffic separation line or zone
A. I
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,II, III
35. Which of the following are CORRECT for joining/leaving a traffic lane in TSS?
I. Normally, join or leave at the termination of the lane
II. If joining or leaving from either side, shall do so as at as small an angle to the general
direction of traffic flow as practicable.
III. Join or leave at right angle to the general direction of traffic flow
IV. Join or leave after making a large alteration.
 A. I, III
B. I, II, III
C. I, II,
D. I, II, III,IV
36. A vessel shall so far as practicable,
I. Avoid crossing traffic lanes
II. If obliged to do so shall cross at small angle
III. If obliged to do so shall cross at right angles
A. I,II
B. II,III
C. I, III
D. I, II, III
37. Which of the following are CORRECT for inshore traffic zone?
I. Do not use inshore traffic zone when a vessel can safely navigate within adjacent TSS
II. A vessel may use inshore traffic zone when enroute to or from a port situated within
the inshore traffic zone
III. A vessel may use inshore traffic zone when enroute to or from offshore installation or
structure situated within the inshore traffic zone
IV. A vessel may use inshore traffic zone when enroute to or from pilot station situated
within the inshore traffic zone
V. A vessel may use inshore traffic to avoid immediate danger
A. I,II
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV
D. All of the above
38. Which of the following vessels can use inshore traffic zone?
A. Vessel less than 20 m
B. SV
C. Both A & B
D. FV
39. A vessel shall not enter a separation zone or cross a separation line except
I. in case of emergency to avoid immediate danger
II. When crossing traffic lane (s)
III. a vessel joining or leaving a lane
IV. to engage in fishing
A. I, IV
B. I,II, IV
C. I,II, III
D. I,II,III, IV
40. Which of the following are CORRECT for TSS?
I. Exercise caution when navigating in areas near the termination of TSS
II. Avoid anchoring in TSS or in areas near its terminations
III. Avoid by wide margin if not using the TSS
A. I,II
B. I, III
C. II,III
D. I,II,III
41. Which of the following vessel(s) shall not impede the safe passage of a power driven vessel
following a traffic lane?
A. Sailing vessel
B. Vessel less than 20 m
C. Both A & B
D. Vessel engaged in fishing
42. A vessel engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of the following vessel following a
traffic lane in TSS?
A. Any vessel
B. Sailing vessel
C. Vessel less than 20 m
D. Power driven vessel
43. Which of the following RAM vessels are exempted from complying rule 10 of TSS?
I. A vessel engaged in operation for the maintenance of safety of navigation
II. A vessel engaged in an operation for the laying servicing or picking up a submarine cable
III. A vessel engaged in dredging operation
A. I,II
B. I,III
C. II,III
D. I,II,III
44. Which of the following are related to overtaking situation insight of one another ?
I. Any vessel overtaking any other shall keep out of the vessel being overtaken.
II. A vessel is deemed to be overtaking when she is able to see the stern light but neither of
her sidelights
III. If in doubt whether overtaking, assume that this is the case and act accordingly
A. I,II
B. I,III
C. II,III
D. I,II,III
45. If an overtaking vessel advances so as to cross the line of two points abaft the beam, the
vessel
A. Remains overtaking vessel until she is finally passed and clear
B. Becomes a crossing vessel
C. Is overtaking or crossing depending upon the situation
D. Is neither overtaking nor crossing

46. The rule 14- Head-on situation is applicable to which of the following vessels ?
A. Any vessel
B. Sailing vessel
C. Fishing vessel
D. Power driven vessel
47. When two power-driven vessels are meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses, so as
to involve risk of collision, each shall alter her course to
I. Port
II. Starboard
III. Port or Starboard depending upon the situation
A. I
B. II
 C. III
D. None of these
48. The head-on situation between two power-driven vessels will exist when at night both can see
the following lights of each other
I. Masthead lights
II. Sidelights
III. Stern lights
A. I
B. I,II
C. I,III
D. I,II,III
49. Which of the following are related to head-on situation between two power-driven vessels
insight of one another?
I. If the vessels are in doubt, assume that situation exists and ac accordingly
II. Each vessel shall alter her course to starboard so that each shall pass port to
port
III. Each shall pass starboard side of the other
A. I
B. I,II
C. I,III
D. III
50. When two power-driven vessels insight of one another are crossing so as to involve risk of
collision, following action are required ?
I. The vessel which has the other on her own starboard side shall keep out of
the way
II. Give-way vessel shall avoid crossing ahead of the other vessel
III. The give-way vessel shall take early and positive action
A. I
B. I,II
C. I,III
D. I,II,III
51. Which of the following are CORRECT for vessels in sight of one another ?
I. The give-way vessel shall take early and substantial action to keep well clear
II. The stand-on vessel shall maintain her course and speed
III. The stand-on vessel may take action by her manoeuvre alone as soon as it becomes
apparent that give -way vessel is not taking action
IV. The stand-on vessel shall if the circumstances of the case admit, not alter her course to
port for a vessel on her port side
A. I,II
B. II,III
C. I,II,III
D. All of the above
52. A power-driven vessel underway shall keep out of the way of
I. NUC
II. RAM
III. FV
IV. SV
V. CBD
 A. I,II,III
B. I,II,IV
C. I,II, II, IV
D. I,II, III, IV
53. A sailing vessel underway shall keep out of the way of
I. NUC
II. RAM
III. FV
IV. CBD
A. I,II
B. I,III
C. I,II,III
D. I,II,III,IV
54. A vessel engaged in fishing when underway shall keep out of the way of
I. NUC
II. RAM
III. SV
IV. CBD
A. I,II
B. I,III
C. I,II,III
D. I,II,III,IV
55. Any vessel other than following shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a CBD.
A. NUC
B. RAM
C. Both NUC & RAM
D. FV
56. A seaplane in general shall keep well clear of the following vessels.
A. NUC
B. RAM
C. Power-driven vessel
D. All other vessels
57. A WIG craft when taking off, landing and inflight near the surface shall keep well clear of
A. NUC
B. SV
C. RAM
D. All other vessels
58. A seaplane/WIG shall avoid impeding the navigation of any vessel
A. within TSS
B. within Narrow channel
C. Anywhere
D. Near Port area
59. A vessel less than 20 m shall not impede the safe passage of a______________ when following
the lane.
A. NUC
B. RAM
C. Power-driven
D. SV
60. A vessel engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of any vessel
A. Within TSS & Narrow Channel
B. Within Narrow channel
C. Within TSS
D. Anywhere
 UD11T4105 NAVIGATION II: BRIDGE EQUIPMENT, WATCHKEEPING &
METEOROLOGY

Unit No.4 – METEOROLOGY

4.9 SKETCH AND EXPLAIN THE WORKING OF BAROGRAPH, HYGROMETER,

Stevenson’s screen, whirling psychrometer, anemometer and

SEA WATER TEMPERATURE BUCKET.

1. Identify the above figure of the meteorological instrument?

A) Mercury Barometer
B) Gold slide Barometer
C) Barograph
D) Anemometer

Option (C)
2. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-1?

A) Drum
B) Pen arm
C) Pen release lever
D) Orifice

Option (A)

3. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-2?

A) Drum
B) Pen arm
C) Pen release lever
D) Orifice

Option (B)

4. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-3?

A) Drum
B) Pen arm
C) Orifice
D) Pen release lever

Option (D)

5. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-4?

A) Drum
B) Pen arm
C) Orifice
D) Pen release lever

Option (C)
6. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-5?

A) Drum
B) Pen arm
C) Orifice
D) Pen release lever

Option (C)

7. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-6?

A) Adjustment
B) Pivot
C) Rigid joint
D) Oil

Option (A)

8. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-7?

A) Rigid joint
B) Oil
C) Pivot
D) Adjustment

Option (C)

9. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-8?

A) Oil
B) Pivot
C) Adjustment
D) Rigid joint

Option (D)
10. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-9?

A) Pivot
B) Oil
C) Adjustment
D) Rigid joint

Option (B)

11. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-10?

A) Brass cylinder
B) Pivot
C) Vacuum chamber
D) Gate suspension

Option (A)

12. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-11?

A) Brass cylinder
B) Pivot
C) Vacuum chamber
D) Gate suspension

Option (C)

13. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-12?

A) Brass cylinder
B) Pivot
C) Vacuum chamber
D) Gate suspension

Option (D)
14. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-13?

A) Brass cylinder
B) Pivot
C) Vacuum chamber
D) Gate suspension

Option (B)

15. Which of the following statement is true for Barograph?

A) A barograph is a recording aneroid barometer.

B) It gives continuous record of pressure on a paper chart.
C) The purpose of a barograph is to record the pressure tendency, which would
be impossible to observe from a normal barometer.
D) All of the above

Option (D)

16. A chart with a continuous barograph trace is called a ___________.

A) Barogram
B) Angiogram
C) Sonogram
D) Picogram

Option (A)

17. The revolving drum of a Barograph is normally driven by a clockwork

mechanism at a uniform speed of ___________.

A) One rotation per hour

B) One rotation per day
C) One rotation per week
D) One rotation per month

Option (C)
18. The revolving drum of a Barograph requires ___________ winding.

A) Daily
B) Hourly
C) Monthly
D) Weekly

Option (D)

19. The chart of a Barograph is replaced/changed _________.

A) every hour
B) every week
C) daily
D) monthly

Option (B)

20. The Barograph is so adjusted so as to allow for ____________.

A) Prismatic error
B) Error of perpendicularity
C) Index error and height of eye error
D) Side error

Option (C)

21. The Barograph is always set to _________.

A) UTC
B) Ship's time
C) IST
D) US time

Option (A)

22. The pen of the Barograph should be washed with water or cleaned with
___________ about once a month to ensure that the trace is thin, clear and
even.

A) Ethanol
B) Kerosene
C) Acetone
D) Methylated spirit
 Option (D)

23. The vacuum chamber of the Barograph is immersed in a ________ cylinder of

oil.

A) Copper
B) Brass
C) Aluminium
D) Nickel

Option (B)

24. What is the primary purpose of the oil in the cylinder of the Barograph?

A) To prevent the cylinder from corrosion.

B) To prevent the vacuum chamber from corrosion.
C) To dampen the movement of the stylus.
D) To dampen the movement of the vacuum chamber.

Option (C)

25. The instrument used to determine both relative humidity and dew point
temperature is called a __________.

A) Pyrometer
B) Anemometer
C) Hydrometer
D) Hygrometer

Option (D)

26. The type usually used on board ships is __________hygrometer.

A) Mason’s
B) Aspiration
C) Capacitive and Resistive
D) Hair-tension

Option (A)
27. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-1?

A) Cistern
B) Stevenson screen
C) Muslin and wick
D) Dry bulb thermometer

Option (B)

28. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-2?

A) Cistern
B) Stevenson screen
C) Muslin and wick
D) Dry bulb thermometer

Option (A)

29. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-3?

A) Cistern
B) Stevenson screen
C) Muslin and wick
D) Dry bulb thermometer
 Option (C)

30. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-4?

A) Cistern
B) Stevenson screen
C) Muslin and wick
D) Dry bulb thermometer

Option (D)

31. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-5?

A) Wet bulb thermometer

B) Stevenson screen
C) Muslin and wick
D) Dry bulb thermometer

Option (A)

32. The extra length of the strands of wick of the hygrometer is immersed in a
cistern of ___________.

A) Mineral water
B) Distilled water
C) Sea water
D) Ethyl alcohol

Option (B)

33. The muslin of the hygrometer always remains damp, water is drawn upwards,
from the cistern through the strands of the wick. This happens because of the
____________.

A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Surface tension
D) Capillary action

Option (D)
34. Hygrometers should be fitted at about ________ above the deck for the
convenience of the observer.

A) 2.0 m
B) 3.0 m
C) 1.5 m
D) 1.0 m

Option (C)

35. When using a Whirling psychrometer, the instrument should be swung for at
least _______.

A) 2 minutes
B) 1 minutes
C) 3 minutes
D) 1.5 minutes

Option (A)

36. When using a Whirling psychrometer, the rate of evaporation reaches a

maximum at about _______ wind speed and any further increase of wind speed
does not make any appreciable change.

A) 6 knots
B) 7 knots
C) 8 knots
D) 9 knots

Option (B)

37. The instrument that measures wind speed is the _________.

A) Hygrometer
B) Gold slide Barometer
C) Barograph
D) Anemometer

Option (D)
38. _____________ is the instrument used to measure sea water temperature.

A) Hygrometer
B) gold slide Barometer
C) Sea water temperature bucket
D) Anemometer

Option (C)

39. The body of the Sea water temperature bucket is _________.

A) Rubberized
B) Vulcanized
C) made up of aluminium
D) made up of copper

Option (A)

40. The Anemometer measures ___________ wind speed and direction.

A) True
B) Apparent
C) Exact
D) Virtual

Option (B)
 UD11T4105 NAVIGATION II: BRIDGE EQUIPMENT, WATCHKEEPING &
METEOROLOGY

Unit No.4 – METEOROLOGY

4.8 DESCRIBE THE PROPERTIES OF WATER VAPOUR IN THE ATMOSPHERE AND DEFINE
SPECIFIC, ABSOLUTE AND RELATIVE HUMIDITY. EXPLAIN SATURATION, DEW
POINT AND OUTLINE KNOWLEDGE OF HYDROLOGICAL CYCLE (EVAPORATION,
CONDENSATION AND PRECIPITATION).

1. Water vapour exists in all ________ forms of water.

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) four

Option (C)

2. Water Vapour is a potent _____________.

A) Green House gas

B) source of Ozone
C) source of Oxygen
D) source of Hydrogen

Option (A)

3. Which of the following statement is true for Water vapour?

A) It strongly adsorbs a portion of the earth’s outgoing radiant energy.

B) It strongly absorbs a portion of the earth’s outgoing radiant energy.
C) It does not absorb earth’s outgoing radiant energy.
D) It scatters earth’s outgoing radiant energy.

Option (B)
4. Which of the following statement is true for Water vapour?

A) It scatters earth’s outgoing radiant energy.

B) It is the least variable gas in atmosphere.
C) Over desert & polar regions the concentration is more as compared to its
concentrations over warm, steamy tropics.
D) Over desert & polar regions the concentration (mere fraction) is less as
compared to its concentrations over warm, steamy tropics (about 4 %).

Option (D)

5. Water vapour is an absorber of _____________.

A) infrared radiation
B) UV radiation
C) Visible light
D) Cosmic rays

Option (A)

6. Which of the following statement is true for Water vapour?

A) Water vapor creates a green- house effect that helps maintain a life
sustaining climate on Earth.
B) Water vapour is a greenhouse gas and contribute towards the global warming
of the Earth.
C) It is the most variable gas in atmosphere.
D) All of the above.

Option (D)

7. Water vapour takes ________Calories to evaporate a gram of water.

A) 490
B) 500
C) 540
D) 600

Option (C)
8. Any parcel of air that is fully saturated is called ______ air or ________ air.

A) dry, unsaturated
B) wet, unsaturated
C) dry, saturated
D) wet, saturated

Option (D)

9. Any parcel of air that is not fully saturated is called ______ air.

A) Dry
B) Unsaturated
C) Wet
D) Humid

Option (A)

10. The state of air at any moment in respect of water vapour content is called the
____________ of the atmosphere.

A) Absolute humidity
B) Humidity
C) Relative humidity
D) Specific humidity

Option (B)

11. _______________ is the actual amount of water vapour in a parcel of air.

A) Absolute humidity
B) Humidity
C) Relative humidity
D) Specific humidity

Option (A)
12. Absolute humidity is expressed as _________.

A) Kg/m2
B) gm/m2
C) Kg/m3
D) gm/m3

Option (D)

13. ______________ is the ratio between the amount of water vapour actually in
the air and the amount that it can absorb before becoming saturated, at the
same temperature.

A) Absolute humidity
B) Humidity
C) Relative humidity
D) Specific humidity

Option (C)

14. Relative Humidity % = ____________?

A) (Present quantity of water vapour) X 100

(Max. possible at 100O C)

B) (Present quantity of water vapour) X 100

(Max. possible at that temperature)

C) (Present quantity of water vapour) X 100

(Max. possible at 37O C)

D) (Present quantity of water vapour) X 100

(Max. possible at 60O C)

Option (B)
15. ________________ is defined as the ratio of mass of water vapour to the mass
of moist air.

A) Absolute humidity
B) Humidity
C) Relative humidity
D) Specific humidity

Option (D)

16. If a sample of air was relatively cooled, its relative humidity would steadily
increase i.e., the air would become relatively more moist. At some temperature,
the air would become wet i.e., its relative humidity would become 100%. The air
is then said to be __________ and the temperature at which this occurs is called
the _____________ temperature of that sample of air.

A) saturated, dew point

B) saturated, critical point
C) unsaturated, dew point
D) unsaturated, critical point

Option (A)

17. Dew point of a sample of air would depend on its _________ & ___________.

A) atmospheric pressure, Specific humidity

B) temperature, Specific humidity
C) temperature, relative humidity
D) atmospheric pressure, relative humidity

Option (C)

18. Both relative humidity and dew point of air are found by using a ___________
or a whirling psychrometer and then consulting meteorological tables – dry bulb
reading on one axis and the difference between wet & dry readings on the other
axis.

A) Hydrometer
B) Hygrometer
C) Pyrometer
D) Barometer

Option (B)
19. The difference between wet & dry readings also called ___________.

A) Difference
B) Depression
C) depression of dry bulb
D) depression of wet bulb

Option (D)

20. The Earth's water is always in movement, and the water cycle, also known as
the ________________, describes the continuous movement of water on, above,
and below the surface of the Earth.

A) hydrological cycle
B) life cycle
C) weather cycle
D) ecology cycle

Option (A)

21. There are __________ main stages in water cycle.

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

Option (B)

22. ____________ is transformation of water into vapour, accelerated if the air is

warm and dry.

A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Sublimation
D) Precipitation

Option (A)
23. ______________is transformation of water vapor into water.

A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Sublimation
D) Precipitation

Option (B)

24. Which of the following statement is true for Condensation?

A) During condensation latent heat is given off to the surroundings.

B) Condensation occurs if air is cooled below its dew point.
C) Condensation takes place through adiabatic cooling when air rises.
D) All of the above.

Option (D)

25. ____________ is any form of water, either liquid or solid (rain or snow) that
falls from clouds and reaches the ground.

A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Precipitation
D) Sublimation

Option (C)

26. Which of the following is not a form of Precipitation?

A) Mist
B) Rain
C) Snow
D) Sleet

Option (A)
27. With respect to the above figure, identify the cycle numbered-1?

A) hydrological cycle
B) life cycle
C) weather cycle
D) ecology cycle

Option (A)

28. With respect to the above figure, identify the item numbered-2?

A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Precipitation
D) Sublimation

Option (B)

29. With respect to the above figure, identify the item numbered-3?

A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Precipitation
D) Sublimation

Option (A)
30. With respect to the above figure, identify the item numbered-4?

A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Precipitation
D) Sublimation

Option (C)
 UD11T4105 NAVIGATION II: BRIDGE EQUIPMENT, WATCHKEEPING &
METEOROLOGY

Unit No.4 – METEOROLOGY

4.7 DESCRIBE ENVIRONMENTAL LAPSE RATE, INVERSION AND DIURNAL, SEASONAL

AND GEOGRAPHICAL VARIATION OF TEMPERATURE.

1. What does " ELR ", stands for in Meteorology?

A) Electronic Lab Reporting

B) Earth Leakage Relay
C) Environmental lapse rate
D) Emergency Locking Retractor

Option (C)

2. The rate at which air temp decreases with ___________ is called Environmental
Lapse Rate.

A) Height
B) Depth
C) Length
D) Breadth

Option (A)

3. The average standard lapse rate is about _______ deg Celsius per 1000 m of rise.

A) 10
B) 6.5
C) 5
D) 7.5

Option (B)

4. Any parcel of air that is fully saturated is called ______ air or ________ air.

A) dry, unsaturated
B) wet, unsaturated
C) dry, saturated
D) wet, saturated
 Option (D)

5. Any parcel of air that is not fully saturated is called ______ air.

A) Dry
B) Unsaturated
C) Wet
D) Humid

Option (A)

6. ___________ change of temperature of a parcel of air is the change in its

temperature due to increase or decrease of its volume, without any exchange of
_______ from the surroundings.

A) Isentropic, heat
B) Isenthalpic, heat
C) Adiabatic, heat
D) Isobaric, heat

Option (C)

7. The Environmental Lapse Rate can be further divided into _______ parts.

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

Option (A)

8. What does " DALR ", stands for in Meteorology?

A) Debt and Loan Restructuring

B) Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate
C) Division of Adult Learning and Rehabilitation
D) Digital Audio Legal Recorder

Option (B)
 9. What does " SALR ", stands for in Meteorology?

A) Section of Atherosclerosis and Lipoprotein Research

B) Senior Logistics Aviation Representative
C) South African Law Reports
D) Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate

Option (D)

10. The value of DALR is _______ degrees Celsius per Km?

A) 10
B) 6.5
C) 5
D) 7.5

Option (A)

11. The value of SALR is _______ degrees Celsius per Km?

A) 10
B) 6.5
C) 5
D) 7.5

Option (C)

12. SALR is _______ DALR.

A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to
D) greater than equal to

Option (B)

13. The value of SALR is less at _______.

A) Poles
B) 45O latitude
C) 60 O latitude
D) Equator

Option (D)
14. The value of SALR is more at _______.

A) Poles
B) 45O latitude
C) 60 O latitude
D) Equator

Option (A)

15. In the troposphere, the temperature of air normally ________ as height

increases.

A) rises unsteadily
B) rises steadily
C) falls steadily
D) falls unsteadily

Option (C)

16. Name the phenomenon, in which the temperature increases with height instead
of falling?

A) Temperature inversion.
B) Isothermal layer
C) Adiabatic inversion
D) Isentropic inversion

Option (A)

17. Name the phenomenon, in which the temperature remains constant with height?

A) Temperature inversion.
B) Isothermal layer
C) Adiabatic inversion
D) Isentropic inversion

Option (B)
18. The atmospheric temperature reaches its maximum at about _______ hours
local time.

A) 1500
B) 1300
C) 1200
D) 1400

Option (D)

19. The atmospheric temperature reaches its minimum at about _______ after
sunrise.

A) 15 minutes
B) 20 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 60 minutes

Option (C)

20. Diurnal range of air temperature over _______ is large whereas over _______,
it is very small.

A) land, sea
B) sea, land
C) land, sky
D) sea, sky

Option (A)
 UD11T4105 NAVIGATION II: BRIDGE EQUIPMENT, WATCHKEEPING &
METEOROLOGY

Unit No.4 – METEOROLOGY

4.5 DESCRIBE THE NATURE OF SOLAR RADIATION (REFLECTION, ABSORPTION AND

SCATTERING).

4.6 EXPLAIN HEAT EXCHANGE PROCESSES (CONDUCTION, CONVECTION AND

RADIATION).

1. _________ radiation is radiant energy emitted by a sun as a result of its nuclear

fusion reactions.

A) Cosmic
B) Nuclear
C) Solar
D) Electromagnetic

Option (C)

2. Which is the most dominant band in Solar spectrum?

A) Visible light
B) UV light
C) Infrared light
D) Cosmic rays

Option (A)

3. The process of Photosynthesis is made possible because of the __________ of the

Solar spectrum.

A) UV light
B) Visible light
C) Infrared light
D) Cosmic rays

Option (B)
4. Solar radiation is commonly measured with a ____________.

A) Thermometer
B) Sphygmomanometer
C) Barometer
D) Pyranometer

Option (D)

5. All celestial bodies emit electromagnetic waves of very ________ wavelength

which travel through space with the velocity of _______.

A) small, light
B) small, sound
C) large, light
D) large, sound

Option (A)

6. The sun, being a very hot body, emits __________ wave radiation.

A) Medium
B) Long
C) Short
D) very large

Option (C)

7. The Earth, being a much cooler body, emits _________wave radiation.

A) Medium
B) Long
C) Short
D) very short

Option (B)

8. The Earth’s atmosphere on a clear (cloudless) day is _____________ to

incoming solar radiation.

A) highly translucent
B) nearly opaque
C) nearly translucent
D) nearly transparent
 Option (D)

9. Scattering, Reflection and _________ are three of the things that happen during
Insolation.

A) Convection
B) Absorption
C) Greenhouse effect
D) Goldilocks effect

Option (B)

10. Which of these factors are responsible for variation in Insolation?

(1) The angle of inclination of the sun’s rays

(2) The length of the day

(3) The transparency of the atmosphere

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 2 and 3 only

Option (C)

11. In what form is solar energy is radiated from the sun?

A) Ultraviolet Radiation
B) Infrared radiation
C) Electromagnetic waves
D) Transverse waves

Option (C)
12. The Sun's heat is slightly depleted through ____________ by cloud and water
vapour and ____________ by dust particles in its passage through the
atmosphere. Also, part of the radiation is ___________ by cloud top and by the
earth’s surface itself.

A) absorption, scattering, reflected

B) scattering, reflected, absorption
C) reflected, absorption, scattering
D) adsorption, scattering, reflected

Option (A)

13. The literature of heat transfer generally recognizes distinct modes of heat
transfer. How many modes are there?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Five

Option (C)

14. Consider system A at uniform temperature t and system B at another uniform

temperature T (t > T). Let the two systems be brought into contact and be
thermally insulated from their surroundings but not from each other. Energy will
flow from system A to system B because of

A) Temperature difference
B) Energy difference
C) Mass difference
D) Volumetric difference

Option (A)
 “Look at the above figure carefully and answer the question that
follows.”

15. Identify the heat exchange process numbered- 1?

A) Absorption
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Radiation

Option (D)

16. Identify the heat exchange process numbered- 2?

A) Absorption
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Radiation

Option (C)

17. Identify the heat exchange process numbered- 3?

A) Absorption
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Radiation

Option (B)
18. What causes heat, or the transfer of energy from one object to another?

A) Differences in temperature
B) Differences in pressure
C) Differences in humidity
D) Differences in wind

Option (A)

19. A metal spoon becomes hot after being left in a pan of boiling water. The hot
spoon is an example of…

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection

Option (B)

20. A metal spoon becomes hot after being left in a pot of boiling water. The boiling
water is an example of....

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection

Option (C)

21. Which type of heat transfer is least effective in heating Earth's atmosphere?

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection

Option (B)

22. Earth receives energy from the sun through which method of heat transfer?

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
 Option (A)

23. You can feel the heat from a hot spoon before you actually touch it. This is an
example of....

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection

Option (A)

24. Which process involves mass movement within a substance?

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection

Option (C)

25. Ironing a shirt is an example of __________.

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection

Option (B)

26. A huge rock at the mountain gets really hot because of __________.

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection

Option (A)
27. Transfer of thermal energy through space is an example of _________.

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection

Option (A)

28. We get sunburned due to the _______ from the Sun.

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection

Option (A)

29. Walking on the sand alongside a beach, bare feet is an example of __________.

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection

Option (B)

30. Warm air rises and cold air sinks demonstrates which type of heat exchange
process?

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection

Option (C)

31. When a frying pan is touching the stove which is on, what kind of heat transfer
is it?

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
 Option (B)

32. What is the definition of CONVECTION?

A) When heat transfers through waves.

B) When heat transfers from objects that are touching.
C) movement in a gas or liquid in which the warmer parts move up and the
colder parts move down
D) Heat traveling from the sun

Option (C)

33. The Gulf Stream is a current that brings warm ocean water from the south to
the north. What type of heat transfer is this?

A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection

Option (C)

34. What is the definition of CONDUCTION?

A) When heat is transferred from objects like rays of light or

electromagnetically.
B) A hot liquid or air that expands, becomes less dense, and rises or becomes
more dense, and sinks.
C) When heat transfers through the heater or AC in your house.
D) When heat transfers from objects that are touching.

Option (D)

35. Near the ceiling of a room the air is warmer. The warm air rises because of…

A) Convection
B) Radiation
C) Conduction
D) Reflection

Option (A)
36. __________ is the transference of heat from one place to another through
space, without the necessity of any intervening medium.

A) Convection
B) Radiation
C) Conduction
D) Reflection

Option (B)

37. _____________ is the name given to all forms of energy received by the earth,
from the sun.

A) Scattering
B) Absorption
C) Insolation
D) Desolation

Option (C)
UD11T4105 NAVIGATION II: BRIDGE EQUIPMENT, WATCHKEEPING &
METEOROLOGY

Unit No.4 – METEOROLOGY

4.3 EXPLAIN ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE, PRESSURE GRADIENT, BAROMETRIC

TENDENCY, ISOBAR, AND THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN ATMOSPHERIC
PRESSURE AND HEIGHT ABOVE SEA LEVEL.

4.4 SKETCH AND EXPLAIN THE WORKING OF ANEROID BAROMETER.

1. Earth is surrounded by a cover of air called

A) Gravity
B) Energy
C) Atmosphere
D) Ozone

Option (C)

2. _____________ is simply the mass of air above a given level or the force which
a column of air exerts on unit area of the earth's surface.

A) Atmospheric Pressure
B) Pressure
C) Gravity
D) Potential energy

Option (A)

3. Which of the following statement is true?

A) Atmospheric pressure increases with increasing height

B) Atmospheric pressure decreases with increasing height
C) Atmospheric pressure does not change with the height.
D) Atmospheric pressure remains constant at all places and does not depend upon
height.

Option (B)
 4. The formula to define atmospheric pressure, P = _________.

A) ⍴gh2
B) 3⍴gh
C) 5/2⍴gh
D) ⍴gh

Option (D)

5. The formula to define atmospheric pressure, contains ⍴ which is _________.

A) the mean density of the air in the column

B) the humidity of the air in the column
C) atmospheric pressure
D) the dew point of the air in the column

Option (A)

6. The formula to define atmospheric pressure, contains ' g ' which is _________.

A) Avogadro constant
B) Planck constant
C) acceleration due to gravity
D) universal gravity constant

Option (C)

7. The formula to define atmospheric pressure, contains ' h ' which is _________.

A) Planck constant
B) the relative humidity of the air in the column
C) the humidity of the air in the column
D) height of the air column

Option (D)

8. What is the instrument called that measures air pressure?

A) Anemometer
B) Barometer
C) Stevenson screen
D) Whirling psychrometer

Option (B)
 9. Low pressure will usually bring what kind of weather?

A) Stormy
B) Sunny
C) Light winds
D) Calm

Option (A)

10. High pressure will usually bring what kind of weather?

A) Stormy
B) Strong winds
C) Cloudy
D) Good

Option (D)

11. On a weather fax or weather map, the atmospheric pressure is expressed in

_______.

A) Centibars
B) Pascal
C) Millibars
D) Kilopascal

Option (C)

12. An _________ is a line drawn on a weather map joining all places of same
atmospheric pressure.

A) Isallobar
B) Isobar
C) Isotherm
D) Isogonic

Option (B)

13. For uniformity worldwide, isobars are drawn at _______mb intervals.

 A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Option (D)

14. Where consecutive isobars are very far apart, isobars are drawn at ______ mb
intervals.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Option (B)

15. Which of the following statement is true?

A) Isobars are smooth lines curving gently.

B) Isobars cross each other.
C) Isobars meet with each other.
D) Isobar is a line drawn on a weather map joining all places of different
atmospheric pressure.

Option (A)

16. When we compute the amount of pressure change that occurs over a given
distance, we have the ___________.

A) relative humidity
B) atmospheric pressure
C) pressure gradient
D) barometric tendency

Option (C)
17. If the distance between consecutive isobars is small, the pressure gradient is
said to be high or steep (strong) pressure gradient indicating __________.

A) calm seas
B) sunny
C) light winds
D) high/strong winds

Option (D)

18. If the distance between consecutive isobars is large, the pressure gradient is
said to be small or gentle (weak) pressure gradient- indicating __________.

A) light winds
B) cloudy
C) high/strong winds
D) stormy seas

Option (A)

19. A characteristic term used in weather coding to denote the shape of the trace of
the barograph during the three hours preceding the time of observation, also
known as ____________.

A) relative humidity
B) barometric tendency
C) atmospheric pressure
D) pressure gradient

Option (B)

20. Lines termed as ___________ are drawn on the chart which join points having
the same pressure tendency.

A) Isotherm
B) Isobar
C) Isallobars
D) Isogonic

Option (C)
21. Use the above table to find the Dew point temperature, if dry bulb thermometer
shows 30O C and wet bulb thermometer shows 27 O C.

A) 25 O C
B) 30 O C
C) 27 O C
D) 26 O C

Option (D)

22. Use the above table to find the Dew point temperature, if dry bulb thermometer
shows 28O C and wet bulb thermometer shows 26 O C.

A) 25 O C
B) 30 O C
C) 27 O C
D) 26 O C

Option (A)
 23. Use the above table to find the Dew point temperature, if dry bulb thermometer
shows 26 O C and wet bulb thermometer shows 25 O C.

A) 25 O C
B) 30 O C
C) 27 O C
D) 26 O C

Option (A)

24. Use the above table to find the Dew point temperature, if dry bulb thermometer
shows 28 O C and wet bulb thermometer shows 24 O C.

A) 25 O C
B) 30 O C
C) 22 O C
D) 26 O C

Option (C)

25. Use the above table to find the Dew point temperature, if dry bulb thermometer
shows 26 O C and wet bulb thermometer shows 21 O C.

A) 17 O C
B) 18 O C
C) 19 O C
D) 16 O C

Option (B)

26. What is the meaning of the word Aneroid?

A) in vacuum
B) With liquid
C) Without liquid
D) Without gas

Option (C)

“Look at the below figure carefully, and answer the question that
follows.”
27. Identify the above instrument?

A) Aneroid barometer
B) Mercury barometer
C) Anemometer
D) Whirling psychrometer

Option (A)

28. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-1?

A) Pivot
B) Rigid Joints
C) Fine Chain
D) Dial Pointer

Option (D)
29. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-2?

A) Pivot
B) Rigid Joints
C) Fine Chain
D) Dial Pointer

Option (C)

30. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-3?

A) Pivot
B) Rigid Joints
C) Fine Chain
D) Dial Pointer

Option (B)

31. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-4?

A) Pivot
B) Rigid Joints
C) Fine Chain
D) Dial Pointer

Option (A)

32. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-5?

A) Pivot
B) Rigid Joints
C) Hair Spring
D) Dial Pointer

Option (C)

33. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-6?

A) Adjustment
B) Spring
C) Hair Spring
D) Vacuum Chamber

Option (D)
34. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-7?

A) Adjustment
B) Spring
C) Hair Spring
D) Vacuum Chamber

Option (B)

35. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-8?

A) Adjustment
B) Spring
C) Hair Spring
D) Vacuum Chamber

Option (A)

36. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-9?

A) Pivot
B) Rigid Joints
C) Lever System
D) Dial Pointer

Option (C)

37. The Vacuum chamber of the Aneroid barometer is made up of _______.

A) very thick metal

B) very thin metal
C) very thin rubber
D) very thick rubber

Option (B)

38. Which of the following best describes the properties of the vacuum chamber of
Aneroid barometer?

A) It has non-elastic effect.

B) It is very heavy.
C) It is very rigid.
D) It has an elastic effect.
 Option (D)

39. Which of the following statement is true for Aneroid barometer?

A) It is used to find Dew point temperature.

B) The larger the vacuum chamber, the greater the accuracy of the Aneroid
barometer.
C) The smaller the vacuum chamber, the greater the accuracy of the Aneroid
barometer.
D) It is made up of very thick rubber.

Option (B)

40. How many errors are present in the Aneroid barometer?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Option (B)

41. Which of the following is Error of an Aneroid barometer?

A) Index error
B) Side error
C) Prismatic error
D) Error of perpendicularity

Option (A)

42. The reading obtained by an Aneroid barometer without applying correction, is

the reading at the _________.

A) 10m below the sea

B) deck level
C) bridge level
D) sea level

Option (C)
43. Name the error caused by imperfect elasticity of the vacuum chamber of an
Aneroid barometer?

A) Error of perpendicularity
B) Side error
C) Height correction
D) Index error

Option (D)

44. Height correction of an Aneroid barometer, in mb= Height above sea level in
metres / _______?

A) 5
B) 10
C) 100
D) 50

Option (B)

45. Height correction of an Aneroid barometer, is always _________.

A) Added
B) Subtracted
C) Multiplied
D) Divided

Option (A)

46. The atmospheric pressure shown on the weather fax or map is the pressure at
__________.

A) 10m below the sea

B) deck level
C) bridge level
D) sea level

Option (D)
UD11T4105 NAVIGATION II: BRIDGE EQUIPMENT, WATCHKEEPING &
METEOROLOGY

Unit No.4 – METEOROLOGY

4.1 Describe the composition of the earth’s atmosphere.

4.2 DEFINE TROPOSPHERE, TROPOPAUSE, STRATOSPHERE, STRATOPAUSE,

MESOSPHERE, MESOPAUSE AND THERMOSPHERE.

1. The Earth's atmosphere mainly consists of _________.

A) Oxygen
B) Argon
C) Nitrogen
D) Carbon-di-oxide

Option (C)

2. _____________ is the science of the atmosphere. A study of the atmosphere

and atmospheric phenomena as well as the atmosphere’s interaction with the
earth’s surface, oceans, and life in general.

A) Meteorology
B) Oncology
C) Oceanology
D) Metrology

Option (A)

3. The Percentage of the Nitrogen in the Earth's atmosphere is about________.

A) 21%
B) 78%
C) 1%
D) 49%

Option (B)
4. The Percentage of the Oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere is about________.

A) 78%
B) 1%
C) 49%
D) 21%

Option (D)

5. The Percentage of the CO2 in the Earth's atmosphere is about________.

A) 78%
B) 1%
C) 49%
D) 21%

Option (B)

6. The maximum concentration of the Water vapour is in the _________.

A) Sub-tropical Region
B) Tropical Region
C) Equatorial region
D) Polar region

Option (C)

7. ___________ are mainly responsible for Global warming.

A) Argon
B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
D) CO2 and Water vapour

Option (D)

8. Which of the following is a Greenhouse gas?

A) CO2
B) Argon
C) Nitrogen
D) Oxygen

Option (A)
 9. Which of the following statement is true?

A) CO2 is highly insoluble in water.

B) CO2 is highly soluble in water.
C) CO2 is highly reactive in water.
D) CO2 is harmful for aquatic life.

Option (B)

10. ___________is the source of all clouds and precipitation.

A) Water vapour
B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Argon

Option (A)

11. _______________exists in all three states of matter and plays a significant role
in the earth’s heat-energy balance.

A) Nitrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Argon
D) Water vapour

Option (D)

12. Water vapour releases large amount of heat, called __________when it changes
from vapor into liquid or ice.

A) Desolation
B) Insolation
C) latent heat
D) specific heat

Option (C)

13. Ozone contains _________ atoms of Oxygen.

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
 Option (B)

14. Ozone is efficient absorber of ___________ and protects life forms on Earth.

A) UV radiation
B) infrared radiation
C) cosmic radiation
D) beta ray’s radiation

Option (A)

15. Ozone content is low over the ________.

A) 30O latitude N
B) 45O latitude N
C) Pole
D) Equator

Option (D)

16. Ozone content is high over __________.

A) Latitudes north of 45 Deg N

B) Latitudes north of 20 Deg N
C) Latitudes north of 50 Deg N
D) Equator

Option (C)

17. What is the Freezing temperature of water?

A) 373 O Kelvin
B) 273 O Kelvin
C) -273 O Kelvin
D) -373 O Kelvin

Option (B)

18. What is the Boiling temperature of water?

A) 373 O Kelvin
B) 273 O Kelvin
C) -273 O Kelvin
D) -373 O Kelvin
 Option (A)

19. What is the S.I. units of air temperature?

A) Newton and pound

B) Degrees Fahrenheit and Degrees Celsius
C) Degrees Fahrenheit and Degrees Kelvin
D) Degrees Celsius and Degrees Kelvin

Option (D)

20. What is the atmosphere?

A) A layer of fluids surrounding an object.

B) The air around the Earth.
C) A cloud of gas that allows us to breathe.
D) A layer of oxygen that surrounds a planet or moon.

Option (B)

“Look at the above figure carefully and answer the question that
follows.”
21. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -1?

A) Stratosphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Troposphere
D) Thermosphere

Option (C)

22. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -2?

A) Troposphere
B) Tropopause
C) Stratopause
D) Mesopause

Option (B)

23. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -3?

A) Mesosphere
B) Troposphere
C) Thermosphere
D) Stratosphere

Option (D)

24. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -4?

A) Stratopause
B) Tropopause
C) Mesopause
D) Stratosphere

Option (A)
25. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -5?

A) Stratosphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Troposphere
D) Thermosphere

Option (B)

26. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -6?

A) Stratopause
B) Tropopause
C) Mesopause
D) Mesosphere

Option (C)

27. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -7?

A) Stratosphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Troposphere
D) Thermosphere

Option (D)

28. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -8?

A) 8 to 16 Km above Sea Level

B) About 80 Km above Sea Level
C) About 50 Km above Sea Level
D) Over 200 Km above Sea Level

Option (A)
29. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -9?

A) 8 to 16 Km above Sea Level

B) About 80 Km above Sea Level
C) About 50 Km above Sea Level
D) Over 200 Km above Sea Level

Option (C)

30. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -10?

A) 8 to 16 Km above Sea Level

B) About 80 Km above Sea Level
C) About 50 Km above Sea Level
D) Over 200 Km above Sea Level

Option (B)

31. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -11?

A) 8 to 16 Km above Sea Level

B) About 80 Km above Sea Level
C) About 50 Km above Sea Level
D) Over 200 Km above Sea Level

Option (D)

32. What is the correct order of earth's atmospheric layers from bottom to top?

A) Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere

B) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere,
C) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere
D) Troposphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere

Option (C)
33. Which layer of the atmosphere has the highest density of gas molecules?

A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere

Option (A)

34. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere

Option (B)

35. In which layer do virtually all-weather phenomena take place?

A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere

Option (A)

36. In which layer do auroras (e.g. northern lights) occur?

A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere

Option (D)

37. What frequencies of electromagnetic radiation are absorbed by the earth's ozone
layer?

A) Infrared light.
B) Radio waves.
C) Ultraviolet light.
D) Microwaves.
 Option (C)

38. The Earth's atmosphere is divided into

A) 5 layers
B) 6 layers
C) 7 layers
D) 8 layers

Option (A)

39. What is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere?

A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere

Option (A)

40. Mesopause is the transitional zone that separates _____________.

A) Exosphere and Thermosphere

B) Mesosphere and Stratosphere
C) Stratosphere and Thermosphere
D) Mesosphere and Thermosphere

Option (D)

41. What is the coldest layer in the atmosphere?

A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere

Option (C)

42. What is the hottest layer in the atmosphere?

A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
 Option (D)

43. What happens to temperature as you go higher in the troposphere?

A) It gets hotter
B) It gets colder
C) It stays the same
D) It is always changing

Option (B)

44. What does the ozone layer do?

A) It protects us from meteors.

B) It protects us from violent solar flares.
C) It protects us from ultra violet radiation.
D) It helps us breathe.

Option (C)

45. The Troposphere extends to a height of about _____Km above the poles and
about ______Km above the equator.

A) 8, 16
B) 16, 8
C) 8, 50
D) 16, 50

Option (A)
4.1 Atmosphere
1. The earth’s atmosphere consists of

A) Nitrogent

B) Oxygen

C) Carbon dioxide

D) All of the above

Option D

2. What is the approximate percntage of nitrogen found in the atmosphere?

A) 25

B) 50

C) 78

D) 88

Option C

3. Which of the following is CORRECT for atmosphere?

Although atmoshere extends upwards for many hundreds of kilometers, almost 99% of the atmosphere
lies within _________ km of earth’s surface.

A) 5

B) 10

C) 20

D) 30

Option D

4. Which of the following options are related to atmosphere?

P) The atmosphere forms a thin blanket of air

Q) The atmoshre constantly shields the surface and its inhabitants from
the sun’s dangerous ultraviolet radiant energy,
R) There is no definite upper limit to the atmosphere;
S) It becomes thinner and thinner, eventually merging with empty
space.

A) P ,Q
B)Q,R
C) P,Q, R
D) All of the above
Option D
5. Where does lie the maximum concetration of water vapuours?
A) At poles
B) At 45 degree latitides North or South
C) At equatotr
D)