F3 (Set K & L) Oic & MGT

Republic of the Philippines
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

Manila
BOARD FOR MARINE DECK OFFICERS

----------------------------------------------------------------------
F3 – CONTROLLING THE OPERATION OF THE SHIP SET K
AND CARE FOR PERSONS ON BOARD
Ship Business Management and Maritime Laws Care of Persons
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. Use pencil No. 2 only. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. _______ governs the interpretation of the 1995 STCW convention.
A. Geneva convention C. Hague rules
B. Hague-visky rules D. Vienna convention
2.
_______ provides the basic legal requirements of the 1995 STCW
convention.
A. resolutions
B. regulations
C. national law of state signatory to the convention
D. articles
3.
A buoyant line of a buoyant rescue quoit in a life raft should not
less than:
A. 45 m C. 30 m
B. 40 m D. 35 m
4.
A ship can be detained in port if the port state control officer
(PSCO) believes that the watchkeeping standards are not being
maintained. ________is the particular provisions of the 1995 STCW
convention that empowers the PCSO to effect such detention.
A. regulation I/7 C. regulation I/2
B. regulation I/8 D. regulation I/4
5.
A survey is conducted annually on the:
A. all of these C. bridge equipment
B. machinery D. watertight doors
6.
After a reasonable lapse of time on a missing ship, the loss is:
A. Presumed overall loss C. presumed loss
B. Constructive total loss D. presumed total loss
7.
All life saving equipment shall not be damaged in storage of a
temperature under solas 74 convention:
A. -40 C to +80 C C. -10 C to +40 C
B. -20 C to +40 C D. -30 C to +65 C
8.
All non-containerized foreign cargoes imported, exported or
transshipped through a government-owned wharf shall be charged:
A. Port dues on the basis of the total metric or revenue
tonnage
B. Dockage fee on the basis of the total metric or revenue
tonnage
C. Wharfage fee on the basis of the total metric or revenue
tonnage
D. All of these
9.
Any overloaded ship maybe detained without prejudice to any legal
proceedings until she:
A. ceases to be overload C. pay the fine
B. has been surveyed D. has sailed from port
10.
Are there any exception from OPA 90?
1
A. yes, transit passage through US waters to a non US port
B. yes, if a vessel calls at US port for short stay
C. no exemptions
D. none of these
11.
As amended, chapter I of the STCW 1978 contains the:
A. regulations C. code
B. general provisions D. recommendations
12.
As Master, you wanted to dismiss a 3/Engr who committed 5 major
offenses and communicated this with the Company. However the
Company said the 3/Engr cannot be dismissed. Which of the
following statement is TRUE?
I. the company has the right to dismiss any of the crew
II. the Master has the right to dismiss any of the crew upon
approval of the Company
III. both company and the Master has the right to dismiss any of
the crew
IV. only the Master has the power to dismiss any of the crew
A. I only C. III only
B. II only D. IV only
13.
At intervals of not more than________, on board training in the
use of davit-launched life rafts shall take place on every ship
fitted with such appliances.
A. 5 months C. 3 months
B. 4 months D. 6 months
14.
Basically there are three stages in the task of organizing a
training program. Which of the following stages in NOT involved?
A. Disposal stage C. Monitoring stage
B. Preparation stage D. Implementation stage
15.
Blaming difficulties on someone or something else is called ____.
A. Anxiety C. avoidance
B. Aggression D. projection
16.
Continued professional competence under the STCW Convention for
the revalidation of certificates, is established by:
I. approved seagoing service, performing functions appropriate
to the certificate held for a period of at least one year
during the preceding five years
II. having performed functions considered to be equivalent to
the seagoing experience
III. passing an approval test
A. I & II C. I & III
B. II & III D. I, II, III
17.
Dockage at berth is charged to which of the following, that berth
at any port of call per GRT per calendar day or fraction thereof
provided that maximum of 50,000 GRT shall be used, at a government
port US$0.039/GRT; at a private port officially registered with
PPA US$0.020/GRT or fraction thereof.
I. vessels engaged in foreign trade
II. vessels engaged in barter trade
III. vessels engaged in domestic trade
A. I & II C. I only
B. I & III D. all of these
18.
Every ship shall take such measures for ships its flag as are
necessary to ensure safety at sea with regard to the following,
inter alia, except:
A. the maintenance of communications
B. the hull and machinery
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C. the use of signals
D. prevention of collisions
19.
Expenses incurred by or on behalf of the assured for the safety of
subject matter insured, other than general average and salvage
charges are called ______.
A. Particular expenses C. particular average
B. Particular charges D. assumed expenses
20.
Fitness for duty was established and enforce under regulation
_______ of STCW 78 as amended.
A. VIII/1 C. XI-1
B. IX/1 D. XII-1
21.
For vessel not complying with time charter speed, a charter may
claim against the charter hire. This is called:
A. under-performance claim C. under speed claim
B. breach of agreement D. deviation from contract
22.
How many loadlines are considered permanent where weather
conditions are similar throughout the year?
A. Two C. four
B. Three D. five during summer
23.
Idle vessels occupying dockside berth at any government port
despite a shifting order from the Port Manager or his authorized
representative to give way to an incoming vessel shall be assessed
a charge of _____.
A. 300% of applicable dockage fee for foreign vessels
B. 200% of applicable dockage fee for foreign vessels
C. 50% on top of applicable dockage fee for foreign vessels per
day
D. 30% on top of applicable dockage fee for foreign vessels per
day
24.
If the Master is primary concerned with requisition, provisions
and drydock, under which of the following is the vessel chartered?
A. Time charter C. bareboat charter
B. Voyage charter D. demise charter
25.
In a charter party, if work is carried out during the excepted
days, actual hours of work only count as laytime and is termed:
A. Unless used C. unless worked
B. Unless finished D. unless done
26.
In a loadline mark, what do you call the distance from the center
of the ring to the upper edge of the deck line?
A. summer freeboard C. tropical freeboard
B. fresh water freeboard D. saltwater freeboard
27.
In developing a curriculum of a training program, which of the
following General Job Objectives should come FIRST?
A. Determine program content
B. Design programs to satisfy training needs
C. Evaluate alternative instructional methods
D. Establish behavioral or learning objectives for programs
28.
In the Philippines, Administration according to the STCW
Convention is the:
A. Maritime Training Council C. Ched/Tesda
B. Marina D. All of these
29.
In the use of simulators, what is mandatory in the context of the
STCW’95 Convention?
I. Radar
II. Arpa
3
III. Ship Simulator and Bridge Teamwork
B. II only D. I & II
30.
Inflatable liferafts required on Philippine flag vessels is
determined on the:
A. safety construction certificate
B. certificate of inspection
C. safety equipment certificate
D. loadline certificate
International conventions concerned with maritime law will
31.
normally NOT be made by which of the following organization?

A. Committee Maritime International (CMI)
B. International Maritime Organization (IMO)
C. International Labor Organization (ILO)
D. World Trade Organization (WTO)
32.
Its output dealt mainly with the requirements for tankers to
comply with legislation concerning SBTs, CBTs and COW:
A. Marpol 78 protocol C. Marpol 73 convention
B. ICPPS D. OPA 90
Marina Circular No. 171 mandated that all Masters and Chief Mates
33.
employed in Philippine Flag vessels of less than 500 GRT and

plying domestic trades must take recurrency training every _____
years.
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5
34.
Master and Deck department are contained in ____ of the STCW’95.
A. Chapter V C. Chapter III
B. Chapter IV D. Chapter II
Per classification society, all ships and their machinery must be
35.
surveyed at prescribed intervals or special survey normally being

held at:
A. 1 year interval C. 2 years interval
B. 4 years interval D. 3 years interval
36.
Prevention of pollution by sewage and prevention of pollution by
garbage were addressed by:
A. Marpol 73 convention C. OPA 90
B. Marpol 78 convention D. ICPPS
Radio Communication and Radio Personnel are contained in ____ of
37.
the STCW’95.
A. Chapter IV C. Chapter VI
B. Chapter V D. Chapter VII
38.
Tangible results should redound to the organization when the
training is completed is called:
A. Skill objectives C. Job Behavior Objectives
B. Ultimate Value Objectives D. Knowledge Objectives
The adoption of RA 8544 was in:
39.
A. 1998 B. 1999 C. 1997 D. 1995

40.
The amendment 2 (2001) of the present STCW code was adopted by the
Maritime Safety Committee on:
A. January 2000 C. February 1998
B. February 1999 D. December 1998
The amendment 2 (2001) of the STCW code was entered into force on:
41.
A. 01 January 2003 C. 01 January 2002

B. 01 February 2003 D. 01 February 2002
42.
The bill of lading must include, inter alia, the following
4
particulars EXCEPT:
A. The basis of liability
B. The statement, if applicable, that the goods shall or may be
carried on deck
C. The date or the period of delivery of the goods at the port
of discharge
D. Any increase limit or limits of liability where agreed
43.
The cargo space which is normally available for cargo including
lawful deck capacity is called:
A. Full capacity C. bale capacity
B. Cubic capacity D. full reach and burden
44.
The chapter of the 1995 STCW convention that concerns the master
and deck department is:
A. V C. II
B. III D. IV
45.
The classification of infectious substances is:
A. Class 1 C. class 2
B. class 6.2 D. class 3
46.
The classification of substances that is liable to spontaneous
combustion is:
A. class 4.3 C. class 4.2
B. class 4.5 D. class 4.4
47.
The factor to be considered in mixing residue/water mixtures
containing different substances is:
A. Reactivity C. compatibility
B. Ventilation D. discharge
48.
The failure to meet or maintain safe manning requirements is
punishable under what section and Chapter of R.A 9295?
A. Section 16, Chapter VI C. Section 17, Chapter VI
B. Section 18, Chapter VI D. Section 16, chapter VI
49.
The failure to meet or maintain safe manning requirements is
punishable under what section and Chapter of R.A 9295?
A. Section 16, Chapter VI C. Section 17, Chapter VI
B. Section 18, Chapter VI D. Section 16, chapter VI
50.
The grabline of lifebuoy shuold not be less than:
A. 9.5 mm in diameter C. 7.5 mm in diameter
B. 8.5 mm in diameter D. 6.5 mm in diameter
51.
The International Life Saving Alliance Code was made mandatory by
SOLAS on:
A. July 1, 1995 C. July 1, 1997
B. July 1, 1996 D. July 1, 1998
52.
The Master dismissed an OOW without notice due to intoxication
while on watch at sea. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The OOW has a good chance to win court case
B. The Master may lose a legal battle, he did not follow
grievance procedure
C. The OOW should have been given a fair trial by the Master
before dismissal
D. All of these
53.
The minimum responsibilities and liabilities as well as the
maximum rights and immunities of ocean carriers are contained in:
A. Visby Rules C. Hague-Visby Rules
B. Hague Rules D. Hamburg Rules
54.
The minimum safe manning requirement as provided for in Chapter
XVIII of PMMRR is assessed on case to case basis:
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I. upon request of the Company
II. upon request of the vessel subject to approval of the Company
III. upon request of the Chaterer
B. II only D. I or II
55.
The parachute flare ejected by the rocket as states prescribes
shall have a burning period of not less than:
A. 30 seconds C. 20 seconds
B. 40 seconds D. 50 seconds
56.
The proper agency tasked to impose fines/fees for violation of the
International Convention on STCW as amended is the ____.
A. MARINA
B. Board of Marine Inquiry
C. Maritime Training Council
D. Board of Marine Deck Officers/Marine Engineers
57.
The refusal to accept or carry any passenger or cargo without just
cause is punishable under what section and chapter of R.A 9295?
A. Section 16, chapter VI C. Section 17, Chapter VI
B. Section 18, Chapter VI D. Section 19, Chapter VI
58.
The revision of Marpol Annex II by IMO took effect on _____.
A. Jan. 1, 2007 C. July 1, 2006
B. Sept. 1 2006 D. Jan. 1, 2006
59.
The speed of a self-propelled ship move through the water to be
considered enroute should be at least ____.
A. 4 knots C. 6 knots
B. 5 knots D. 7 knots
60.
The Training Record Book (TRB) shall be used by Deck Cadets for
attaining experience in applying the knowledge provided in college
and covers the required training for ____.
A. Bachelorship in Marine Transportation
B. Officer In charge in Navigational Watch
C. STCW’95 requirements
D. Taking the examination for OIC
61.
Theoretically non-earning spaces, gross tonnage less deducted is
called:
A. registered tonnage C. net tonnage
B. deadweight D. under deck tonnage
62.
This is a clause in a C/P to prove that a clause was due to an
accident from natural causes, but without human intervention and
could have not been prevented by any amount of care and foresight:
A. act of God C. perils of the seas
B. force majeure D. forces of nature
63.
This is known as a payment of penalty for a ship’s delay after the
expiration of lay days due to some fault of the charterer or his
agent.
A. demurrage C. volatility
B. miscibility D. penalty fee
64.
This is known as the 1988 solas protocol:
A. International conference on seafarer’s certification
B. international conference on safety management
C. international conference on pollution prevention
D. international conference on tanker safety
65.
To determine training needs, which of the following ways is used
that may possibly be of help to the personnel concerned?
A. Brainstorming C. Survey
6
B. Observation D. Testing
66.
Under article 5 of ILO convention no. 180. the maximum hours of
work in any 24 hrs. period shall not exceed:
A. 08 hrs C. 14 hrs
B. 12 hrs D. 16 hrs
67.
Under article 5 of ILO convention no. 180. the minimum hours of
rest for any 24 hrs. period shall not exceed:
A. 08 hrs C. 12 hrs
B. 10 hrs D. 14 hrs
68.
Under chapter III of SOLAS 74. the Maritime Safety adopted the
International Life-Saving Appliance Code on:
A. June 1996 C. June 1998
B. June 1997 D. June 1999
69.
Under OPA 90, how many barrels of oily waste should shipboard
pollution containers at least have?
A. 12 C. 30
B. 50 D. 20
70.
Under OPA 90, what can lead to “unlimited liability”?
A. willful conduct, gross negligence, violation of federal
safety and notification requirements
B. only willful conduct
C. only gross negligence
D. one of these
71.
Under Reg. 1/11 of the STCW’95 every master, officer holding a
certificate issued under any chapter of the STCW Convention other
than Chapter VI, who is serving at sea or intends to return to sea
after a period ashore, shall in order to qualify for seagoing
service shall be required at intervals not exceeding 5 years to:
I. meet the standards of medical fitness particularly eyesight
and hearing
II. establish continued professional competence
III. have taken all necessary training prescribed by the
Administration
A. I & II C. I only
B. I, II, III D. II only
72.
Under regulation 1/11 of the STCW’95 an Operations Manager of a
manning agency has been updating himself with approved courses
required under Reg. 1/11 during 5 years, passed an approved test
given by PRC. Is he entitled for revalidation of his certificate?
I. yes, because he met the requirements of Reg. 1/11
II. No, because he has no approved seagoing experience for at
least one year during the preceding 5 years
A. I only C. either I or II
B. II only D. neither I nor II
73.
Under the STCW convention _______ deals with passenger ships other
than roro passenger ships.
A. reg. V/4 C. reg. V/3
B. reg. V/2 D. reg. V/5
74.
Under the STCW convention, _________would apply to masters and
chief mates who have sailed on tankers of 500 GRT or more.
A. reg. II/2, V/1 C. reg. II/3, V/1
B. reg. II/1, V/1 D. reg. II/4, V/1
75.
Under what ILO convention concerns the validity of the PEME if not
deployed is 90 days. This under what ILO convention?
A. ILO no. 86 sec. 9 C. ILO no. 73 sec. 9
B. ILO no.108 sec. 9 D. ILO no.165 sec. 9
7
76.
Under which category are substances which are bio accumulated and
liable to produce a hazard to aquatic life or human health?
A. Category A C. Category C
B. Category B D. Category D
77.
Under which category are substances which are practically non-
toxic to aquatic life?
A. Category A C. Category C
B. Category B D. Category D
78.
Vessels for drydocking or repair at any duly authorized drydocking
shipyard facilities shall be exempted from ____.
A. Port dues C. wharfage fee
B. Dockage/usage fee D. all of these
79.
VRP means:
A. vessel response plan C. vessel requirement plan
B. vessel report plan D. vessels reporting procedure
80.
Watchkeeping is contained in ____ of the STCW’95.
A. Chapter V C. Chapter VII
B. Chapter VI D. Chapter VIII
81.
What does the arabic number if reference to the regulation I/6
stands for:
A. chapter C. regulation
B. article D. resolution
82.
What does the roman numeral stand for in reference to the
regulation II/2?
A. regulation C. resolution
B. article D. chapter
83.
What hazard is associated with the water washing of the cargo
tanks and slop tanks containing residues of certain substances
which may produce dangerous reaction?
A. Viscosity C. static electricity
B. Reactivity D. incompatibility
84.
What is the proper agency tasked to impose administrative
fines/fees for violation of the International Convention on STCW
as amended?
A. MARINA
B. Board of Marine Inquiry
C. Maritime Training Council
D. Board of Marine Deck Officers/Marine Engineers
85.
What makes the OPA 90 different from other internationally
recognized laws?
A. federal responsibility for cleaning up
B. federal responsibility for response
C. the possibility of unlimited liability
D. the possibility of limited liability
86.
What would you call the statements of expectations and desired
outcomes reflecting the philosophy, broad direction and general
purposes of an education/training system?
A. Educational Aims
B. Instructional objective
C. Educational Objectives
D. Specific Instructional Objectives
87.
When a vessel is delivered under time charter a certificate of
delivery is drawn up which contains the following EXCEPT:
A. Date and time of delivery
B. Date and place of delivery
8
C. Quantity of bunkers onboard at the time of delivery
D. Quantity of water for boilers
88.
When grain is bought the seller guarantees the condition on
arrival, hence, seawater damage enroute is at his own risk. These
terms are called:
A. rye terms C. bulk terms
B. grain terms D. malt terms
89.
When the vessel is under time charter, the Master is primary
concerned with:
A. Demurrage
B. Laytime and dispatch money
C. Requisition, provision and drydock
D. Ship’s complement, stores and provisions
90.
Where each trainee should be given the opportunity to learn in the
way best suited to him is called ____.
A. Graduated Sequence C. Perceived purpose
B. Individual differentiation D. Appropriate Practice
91.
Which act replace the PD 97?
A. RA 8544 C. RA 8534
B. RA 8454 D. RA 8455
92.
Which chapter contain the general provisions of the STCW’95?
A. Chapter I C. Chapter III
B. Chapter II D. Chapter IV
93.
Which Chapter of the STCW’95 contain alternative certification?
A. Chapter IV C. Chapter VI
B. Chapter V D. Chapter VII
94.
Which of following falls under category 2?
A. Vessels whose travel time between ports exceed 12 hours
B. Vessels whose travel time between ports is less than 12
hours
C. Vessels whose travel time between ports is less than 4 hours
D. Vessels whose travel time between ports exceed 6 hours but
not more than 12 hrs
95.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The company can dismiss any of the crew
B. Only the Master can dismiss any of the crew
C. The Master can dismiss any of the crew if the grievance
procedure has been followed
D. The Master can say dismissal is legal when the dismissed
crew has been given fair trial and properly documented
96.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Only the Master can dismiss any of the crew, not the Company
B. The Master can dismiss any of the crew if the grievance
procedure has been followed
C. Dismissal is legal when the dismissed crew has been given
him a fair trial and properly documented
D. All of these
97.
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
A. Only the Master can dismiss any member of the crew
B. Only the company can dismiss a Master
C. The master can dismiss a crew without notice if he thinks
the crew is an immediate threat to the safety of the ship,
crew or environment
D. All of these
98.
Which preceded RA 8544?
9
A. PD 97 C. PD 96
B. PD 98 D. PD 95
99.
Which survey for oil tanker of 150 GRT or more is conducted at
intervals not exceeding 30 months?
A. periodical C. special owners
B. intermediate D. class
100.
Yachts/pleasure crafts from 6 GRT up to 100 GRT calling at
government ports shall be liable to the payment of domestic
dockage fee at _____.
A. P0.40 per GRT/calendar day or fraction thereof
A. P4.00 per GRT/calendar day or fraction thereof
C. P40.00 per calendar day
D. P40.00 per GRT/calendar day or fraction thereof
Good Luck and God Bless Your Exam!
SBR: 3XK-8OM-3
10
Republic of the Philippines
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila
BOARD FOR MARINE DECK OFFICERS

----------------------------------------------------------------------
F3 – CONTROLLING THE OPERATION OF THE SHIP SET L
AND CARE FOR PERSONS ON BOARD
Ship Business Management and Maritime Laws Care of Persons
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. Use pencil No. 2 only. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A shipowner intending to register his ship under philippine
registry must secure first:
A. ship’s identification number
B. call sign
C. previous registry certificate
D. certificate of inspection
2. A sound classroom management practice is:
A. Avoid establishing routines; routines make your students
robots
B. Apply rules and policies on a case to case basis.
C. Apply reactive approach to discipline.
D. Establish routines for all daily needs and tasks.
3.
As regards training and drills requirement of OPA 90, COTP can
request:
A. unannounced drills at anytime
B. participation in all announced drills
C. maximum one drill a year
D. minimum one drill every six months
4.
At present, how many classification societies are accredited by
MARINA?
A. one C. three
B. two D. four
5.
At the lifeboat station, the following shall be done except:
A. enter the lifeboat when ordered by the lifeboat commander
B. do not enter lifeboat without orders
C. help facilitate for the immediate lowering of lifeboat
D. lifeboat is not entered while still cradled unless to carry
out preparations
6.
EDI means:
A. Electronic data interpretation
B. Electronic data intelligence
C. Electronic data interchange
D. Electronic data intercommunication
7.
Fire fighting exercise is to be held on board the vessel at least:
A. every 3 months C. monthly
B. bi-monthly D. weekly
8.
How often is the periodical inspection carried out after
endorsement of a loadline certificate?
A. within 2 months before and after each year of issue
B. within 2 months before or after each year of issue
C. within 3 months before or after each year of issue
D. within 3 months before or after 2nd year of issue
9.
If you are to prepare for survey bilge pumping and drainage
1
B. call sign
arrangement, communication between bridges and engine room, means
of escape, what certificate is due for renewal?
A. cargo ship safety construction certificate
B. cargo ship safety equipment certificate
C. certificate of seaworthiness
D. loadline certificate
10. In developing scientific thinking and problem-solving skills,
which activity will be most appropriate?
A. Role play C. Buzz groups
B. Brainstorming D. Inquiry group discussions
11.
In most cases the resettlement of refugees rescued at sea is
arranged through the auspices of:
A. IMO C. UNESCO
B. UNO-R D. UNHCR
12.
OIC of navigational watch on ships of 500 GRT or more shall hold
an appropriate certificate in accordance with _______of the STCW
as amended.
A. Reg. II/1 C. Reg. II/3
B. Reg. II/2 D. Reg. II/4
13. On IQ test which of the following is WRONG?
A. measures fixed potential
B. can be enriched by environmental experiences.
C. measures current performance
D. Can be advanced by maturational changes
14. On what theory is a teacher’s belief based that every learner can
be helped to achieve his full potential and functions effectively
in society when we satisfy his needs?
A. Cognitive psychology C. Humanistic psychology
B. Behaviorist theory D. S-R theories
15.
OOPT as described by OPA 90 is:
A. A fire squad
B. An emergency team that is drilled in general emergency and
rescue task
C. An emergency team that is drilled in pollution prevention
tasks
D. The attack squad in a fire fighting team
16.
OPA 90 is applicable to which of the following vessels?
A. tanker vessels only regardless whether with cargo or no
cargo of oil
B. bulk carriers with oil cargoes
C. tanker vessels carrying oil and other dangerous cargoes
D. all types of vessels
17.
Partial survey on a passenger ship shall be made:
A. When at sea C. after a repair
B. before periodical surveys D. after an accident
18.
Passenger ships should be surveyed periodically every:
A. 24 months C. 18 months
B. 6 months D. 12 months
19.
Port district officers in Luzon Island are:
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5
20.
RA 8544 was adopted in:
2
B. call sign
A. 1998 C. 1999
B. 1997 D. 1996
21.
Regulation ¼ Par. 93 of PMMRR/97, defines:
A. Short international voyages
B. near coastal voyage
C. major inter-island routes
D. asian trade routes
22.
Republic act 9592 is known as the:
A. Philippine merchant marine officers act
B. Domestic shipping development act
C. PRC modernization act
D. Migrant worker act
23.
Risks covered by P & I:
I. Protection risks, personal injury claims
II. Protection risks, vessel and other property
III. Indemnity risks
B. II only D. I, II and III
24.
Ships engaged in the domestic trade carrying 500 to 2000
passengers and having 12 hours or less voyage duration shall
carry:
A. one medical practitioner and a nurse
B. one medical practitioner and a midwife
C. one registered nurse or midwife
D. one medical practitioner
25. Students shall identify the strengths and weaknesses of an event.
What shall they use?
A. Compare/Contrast matrix C. Affinity diagrams
B. Cycle D. Plus/delta evaluation
26.
The _______replaced the PD 97.
A. RA 8455 C. RA 8454
B. RA 8544 D. RA 8545
27. The advantage of point system of grading is:
A. It is qualitative
B. It does away with establishing clear distinctions among
students
C. It emphasizes learning not objectivity of scoring
D. It is precise
28.
The age limit requirement for vessels in order that it will be
exempted from VAT upon importation is:
A. 15 years for passenger vessels
B. 10 years for cargo vessels
C. 5 years for tankers
D. 3 years for high-speed passenger crafts
29.
The Cebu Port Authority was created into law on:
A. 26 January 1995 C. 26 June 1997
B. 26 January 1993 D. 26 June 1992
30. The following are processes of creative thinking EXCEPT:
A. Curiosity C. Imagination
B. Originality D. "Inside the box" thinking
31. The functions that are associated with the left brain are:
A. Verbal, visual, intuitive
3
B. call sign
B. Verbal, logical, intuitive
C. Verbal, logical, detail-oriented
D. Verbal, intuitive, detail-oriented
32. The instructional material closest to direct experience is:
A. Film showing C. Dramatization
B. Field trip D. Simulation
33. The LEAST brain-compatible is ______.
A. Detecting error in the computer program
B. Encoding a paragraph with speed and accuracy
C. Explaining how the CPU can function like the brain
D. Making a flowchart of a computer process
34.
The legal rights of Filipino seafarers from two primary sources:
the migrant workers and overseas Filipino act of 1995 and the:
A. overseas workers welfare act of 1987, as amended
B. POEA contract of employment
C. overseas Filipino workers legal and compensation act
D. migrant Filipino workers act of 1995
35.
The periodical inspection in connection with the ship’s loadline
certificate is held:
A. 3 months after the anniversary date of the completion of
initial survey
B. within 3 months period of the date of owners request for
such inspection
C. before the anniversary date of the completion of the initial
survey
D. within 3 months of the anniversary date of the completion of
the initial survey
36. The recent educational development relating with perrenialism is:
A. Individualizing the learning experience and activities
B. Suiting the strategies to the students' learning styles
C. Exercising the students' higher order thinking skills (HOTS)
D. having drills and rote activities that develop learning
habits
37. The role(s) that a teacher play when he sets desirable learning
activities for the individual learner and takes the responsibility
of matching available resources with the needs of each learner
is/are:
A. Counselor and consultant of learning
B. Abstractor and supervisor of learning
C. Manager of the teaching-learning process
D. Scholar and director of learning
38. The teaching method intended primarily for skill and concept
mastery by way of practice is:
A. Project C. Drill
B. Supervised study D. Review
39.
The top priority if an incident occurs in the US waters as
required by OPA 90 is:
A. protection of wildlife
B. protection of environment
C. prevention of oil pollution
D. safety of ship and crew
40.
This term means that separate calculations are to be made for
loading and discharging and anytime saved in one operation is to
4
B. call sign
be set against any excess time used in the other.
A. to reverse C. to average
B. to equalize D. to balance
41. To be useful in research, it is BEST to:
A. select,classify, and summarize them
B. see if they withstand the test of time
C. use all original facts
D. gather additional facts for comparison
42. To diagnose student’s difficulties in written communication
skills. Which should be used?
A. Short written response C. Oral reports
B. Performance task D. Teacher observation
43.
To include operations managers in decisions for the disposition of
information and possible job modification an organization is
attempting to facilitate:
A. participation C. user orientation
B. communication D. new challenge
44.
Under MARINA, which formulates, develops and maintains information
systems to support promotion, development, regulation and
supervision activities of the authority and monitoring systems on
the implementation of plans, programs, policies and guidelines.
A. monitoring office
B. management information systems office
C. regulatory and supervisory office
D. promotion and development office
45.
Under RA 8981, the chairperson of the professional regulation
commission.
I. shall be at least 40 years of age
II. Has had at least 5 years of executive and management
experience
A. I and II C. II only
B. I only D. neither I nor II
46.
Under RA 9295, all domestic ship operators shall have the
_______to provide and sustain safe, reliable, efficient and
economic passenger or cargo service, or both.
A. authority
B. seaworthiness
C. stability requirements
D. financial capacity
47.
Under the revised PMMRR, ships carrying 500 or more passengers and
with travel time exceeding 12 hours, shall identify a cabin can be
converted into an emergency isolation room when need arises.
A. regulation 1/12
B. regulation 1/11
C. regulation 1/10
D. regulation 1/9
48.
Under what government agency is the Philippine ports authority?
A. bureau of customs
B. philippine coast guard
C. philippine port management
D. department of transportation and communication
49.
Under which circumstance would a master effect the filing of sea
protest?
5
B. call sign
A. when there is misconduct among the crew
B. when there is heavy weather and there is suspicion damage on
vessel or cargo
C. if the vessel unable to comply with the voyage charter
D. if there is suspicion of pilferage of cargo by crew
50. What do we encourage our trainees to think creatively?
A. Do "outside-the-box" thinking
B. To criticize the unreasonable
C. To question the illogical
D. Think "within the box"
51. What does concurrent validity require?
A. peer consultation C. correlation study
B. item difficulty D. item analysis
52. What does TOS is test construction mean?
A. Table of Specifications C. Term of Specifications
B. Table of Specific Test Items D. Table of Specifics
53.
What ILO convention/recommendations require the competent
authority to closely supervise all enlistment and employment and
to license or otherwise regulate private enlistment and employment
services, which operate within its territory?
A. enlistment and employment of seafarers convention, 1991
B. recruitment and placement of seafarers convention, 1996
C. continuity of employment (seafarers) convention, 1976
D. employment of seafarers, technical development
recommendation ‘70
54.
What should the master do when a defect in the ship is discovered?
A. he should initiate corrective actions
B. contact the P & I club and wait for inspection
C. initiate protective measures to avoid the defect from being
discovered by the charterers
D. wait for the advice from the ship owners
55. When a teacher connects the new lesson to the one just completed
so that the student may gain a holistic view of the subject, what
psychological principle is invoked?
A. Conceptualization C. Stimulation
B. Recognition D. Apperception
56. When a teacher gives indigenous achievement test to his 25
students, consisting of 50 items, and wants to classify his
students’ performance based on the test result, what is the
appropriate measure of central tendency?
A. Mean C. Mode
B. Median D. Any of the above
57.
When was the International Life Saving Alliance Code made
mandatory by Solas?
A. July 1, 1996 C. July 1, 1998
B. July 1, 1997 D. July 1, 1995
58. Which does not affect the variability of test scores?
A. Test items that every examinee gets correctly
B. Test items that are a bit difficult
C. Test items that are a bit easy
D. Test items that are moderate in difficulty
59. Which has its strength immediate feedback?
6
B. call sign
A. Laboratory method
B. Computer-assisted instruction
C. Group dynamics
D. Process approach
60. Which is most effective with social development in mind?
A. Puzzle
B. Computer-assisted instruction
C. Cooperative learning
D. Games
61.
Which is responsible for the markings on loadlines of Phil. Flag
vessels?
A. accredited international classification societies
B. maritime industry authority
C. phil. coast guard
D. phil. Register of shipping
62. Which is the concluding part of the three-level approach?
A. Facts level C. Concepts level
B. Experiential level D. Value level
63.
Which law created the Philippine Port Authority?
A. PD 97 C. RA 8544
B. PD 857 D. RA 8992
64. Which of the following are steps of the goal-oriented
instructional model arranged in order?
A. pre-assessment, specification of objectives, instruction,
evaluation
B. pre-assessment, specification of objectives, motivation,
instruction
C. specification of objectives, instruction, pre-assessment,
evaluation
D. specification of objectives, pre-assessment, instruction,
evaluation
65. Which of the following has a stronger diagnostic value?
A. Restricted and non-restricted essay test
B. Non-restricted essay test
C. Restricted essay test
D. Multiple Choice test
66. Which of the following is FALSE on collaborative learning?
A. Success of the group depends on one diligent student
B. Each student is held accountable for what is to be learned
C. Students' social skills are necessary
D. The members of the group have face-to-face interaction
67. Which of the following is supportive of the development of
creative thinking?
A. Judgmental atmosphere C. Authoritarian teacher
B. Convergent questions D. Brainstorming technique
68. Which of the following is TRUE to norm-reference testing?
A. Comparing individual's performance to the average performance
of a group
B. Determining tasks that reflect instructional objectives
C. Constructing test items in term of instructional objective
D. Identifying an acceptable level of mastery in advance
69. Which of the following is/are supportive of the development of
7
B. call sign
creative thinking?
A. Authoritarian teacher C. Brainstorming technique
B. Convergent questions D. Judgmental atmosphere
70. Which of the following questions demands the highest level of
thinking?
A. How should you present a report in class?
B. Was the student reporting well done? Support your answer.
C. What steps are followed in class reporting?
D. What conditions must be met for reporting method to be
effective?
71. Which of the following will a “mastery learner” learns best from?
A. debates C. dramas
B. roleplaying D. drill
72.
Which P & I insurance cover, covers physical damage to or loss of
vessel and equipment?
A. hull & machinery C. hull & freight interest
B. loss of hire D. war insurance
73.
Which protection risk is caused by P & I?
I. Liabilities relating to death and personal injury
II. Liabilities relating to wreck removal and pollution
A. I only C. both I and II
B. II only D. neither I or II
74.
Which statement regarding P & I insurance is incorrect?
A. P & I insurance includes strike insurance
B. a charterer can become a member of a P & I Club
C. the owners of entered ships are called members
D. P & I insurance includes third party liability
75.
Which survey is conducted on every oil tanker of 150 GRT or more
at intervals not exceeding 30 months?
A. special C. intermediate
B. owner’s D. charterer’s
76.
Which survey is required of a ship for inspection of equipment to
ensure that the ship complies with the requirements of the
PMMRR/97?
A. initial survey
B. intermediate survey
C. renewal survey
D. special survey
77. Which will promote more class interaction?
A. Asking rhetorical questions
B. Focusing on convergent questions
C. Asking the question before calling on a student to answer
D. Rejecting wrong answers
78. With objectives in the affective domain in mind, under what level
does “developing a consistent philosophy of life” fail?
A. Characterization C. Responding
B. Organization D. Valuing
79.
With regards with OPA 90, what is the main purpose of the oil
transfer procedure safety meeting?
A. to coordinate operation, safety and emergency routines
B. to advice the loading of the operation
C. to advice the loading mater of the vessel safety routines
8
B. call sign
D. all of these purposes are correct
80.
Your vessel collided with another vessel. Which sequence of
actions should the master do FIRST?
A. establish contact with another vessel
B. obtain the other vessel’s name, call sign and nationality
C. inquire if the other vessel need any assistance
D. establish damage extend on own vessel
81.
Your vessel collided with another vessel. Which should the master
give first priority?
A. alert owners
B. establish damage extent on own vessel
C. evaluate the need of assistance
D. evaluate the need for assistance from a rescue coordination
center
82.
A good classroom manager has “eyes on the back of her head”. This
means that the effective teacher:
A. gives penetrating looks to his students
B. is aware of all actions and activities in the classroom
C. has eye contact with his students
D. looks ate his students from head to toe when he expresses
legitimate anger
83.
Below is a list of methods used to establish the reliability of
the instrument. Which method is questioned for its reliability due
practice and familiarity?
A. Equivalent forms C. Split half
B. Test-retest D. Kuder Richardson
84.
One gives a quiz to his class after teaching a lesson. What does
he give?
A. Summative test C. Diagnostic test
B. Formative test D. Performance test
85.
Perrenialism advocates for the development of the cognitive
faculties. Which of the following teacher objective laps higher
mental functioning?
A. Compare and contrast butterflies from moths
B. Sequence the figures of the butterfly life cycle
C. Name the different stages a butterfly goes through
D. Label the parts of the butterfly on the paper
86.
PRC uses a “Multiple Choice Type” test in the licensure
examination. Which of the following is the LEAST likely reason why
PRC uses this type of test?
A. It is an objective type of test
B. It is a type that requires extended answers with “open-
minded” questions
C. Multiple choice type of tests measure knowledge more
accurately than any other kind of tests.
D. Multiple choice type of test are generally considered to be
more fair than any other type of tests
87.
Student B claims: “I cannot see perfections but I long for it so
it must be real”. Under which group can he be classified?
A. Realist C. Idealist
B. Empiricist D. Pragmatist
88.
The “self-expressive learner” learns best from:
A. drills
9
B. call sign
B. activities that enlighten and enhance like myths and human
achievement
C. lectures
D. personal expression and personal encounters
89.
These are training methods EXCEPT:
A. case study C. one-on-one
B. brainstorming D. debate
90. To be useful in research, it is BEST to:
A. select,classify, and summarize them
B. see if they withstand the test of time
C. use all original facts
D. gather additional facts for comparison
91. To diagnose student’s difficulties in written communication
skills. Which should be used?
A. Short written response C. Oral reports
B. Performance task D. Teacher observation
92.
What would you call the psychological mechanism of blaming
difficulties on someone or something else?
A. Projection C. Aggression
B. Avoidance D. Anxiety
93.
Which individualized teaching method makes use of workbooks,
teaching machines or computers?
A. Discovery method C. Project method
B. Inquiry D. Programmed instruction
94.
Which is (are) NOT supportive of the development of creative
thinking?
A. Open classroom atmosphere C. Divergent questions
B. Authoritarian teacher D. Authoritative teacher
95.
Which is a characteristic of developmentally inappropriate
practice type of education?
A. Experimental learning
B. Highly structured, teacher-directed lessons
C. Contextual learning
D. Integrated learning skills
96.
Which is supportive of the development of creative thinking?
A. Brainstorming technique C. Authoritarian teacher
B. Convergent questions D. Judgmental atmosphere
97.
Which may work against collaborative teaching?
A. “knee-to-knee” seat arrangement by group
B. Establishment of mutual goals
C. Homogeneous grouping
D. Joint rewards
98.
Which would BEST define the term “Assessment”?
A. It is the process of obtaining and comparing evidence of
competence with the standards
B. To examine the evidence presented by the candidates and
decide whether there is sufficient evidence to enable a
judgment of the candidates
C. To provide sufficient, reliable and verifiable evidence to
enable an assessor to be satisfied that the candidate has the
ability to work in accordance with the standards required in
the employment.
10
B. call sign
D. None of these statement will best define the term
“assessment”
99.
With individualized teaching strategies as point of reference,
which does not belong to the group?
A. Demonstrating method C. Independent study
B. Journal writing D. Computed-assisted instruction
100.
With the linguistically intelligent group in mind, which activity
is least effect?
A. Manipulatives C. Deductives reasonings
B. Debates D. Concept maps
Tips in Taking the Board Exam:
1. Read and listen to all directions carefully prior taking the exam.
2. Read and analyze all questions. Leave the more difficult questions and answer the easier one first.
3. If the question is not familiar, try to answer it by process of elimination.
4. Check all your answers prior transferring them to the answer sheet.
5. Never leave any question blank. Avoid erasures.
Good Luck and God Bless You!
SBR: 3XL-8OM-3
11

F3 (Set K & L) Oic & MGT

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Republic of the Philippines

PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

BOARD FOR MARINE DECK OFFICERS

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following

normally NOT be made by which of the following organization?

employed in Philippine Flag vessels of less than 500 GRT and

surveyed at prescribed intervals or special survey normally being

A. 1998 B. 1999 C. 1997 D. 1995

A. 01 January 2003 C. 01 January 2002

BOARD FOR MARINE DECK OFFICERS

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following

Tips in Taking the Board Exam:

Good Luck and God Bless You!

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