ICLTE Mock Exam

1. A six year planning document that formalizes and ranks PPA’s identified in the PDPFP, and
matches the prioritized project list with the investment financing capacity of the province in an
iterative manner.
a. Provincial Development Fund
b. Public Expenditure Management Program
c. Provincial Development and Investment Program
d. Project Evaluation and Development Plan

2. The current year slice of the PDIP-the Annual Investment Program(AIP)- constitutes the indicative
yearly expenditure requirements of the Province PPA’s to be integrated to:
a. Annual Investment Program c. Annual Expenditure Program
b. Annual Procurement Plan d. Annual Budget

3. The following are the benefits of a PDIP?

I. Improves the coordination of development investments with the PDPFP
II. Provides a structured mechanism for development investment decision making at the
provincial level
III. Serves as a key provincial financial management tool
IV. Improves credit rating
V. Improves provincial administration
VI. Promotes intra-provincial cooperation
a. I,II,III,IV,V,VI
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,II,III

4. While the set of guidelines may be applied to derive a PDIP for any number of years, it is
specifically designed for a six-year period. Why is it deemed appropriate?
a. Because it requires more detailed financial and economic studies
b. Because t provide pointers for the packaging of project proposals for PDIP projects to be
funded from external sources.
c. Because it corresponds to two-terms of the Provincial Governor and can be synchronized
within the six-year coverage of national plan documents.
d. Because it is a combined technical and political process

5. Which of the following is not considered a Public Investments called “hard assets”
a. Community Centers and other buildings
b. Human Resources Program
c. Roads, Bridges and slaughter houses
d. Water and wastewater treatment plants, major construction equipment

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6. It is achieved by aligning, rationalizing or reconciling development investments at the regional
level with those at the national level on the one hand, and ensuring that provincial, city and
municipal development investments take the RDIP into consideration.
a. Horizontal Gap Bridging
b. Integration of the development investment
c. Vertical Integration
d. Consistency of Project, Plans and Activities

7. Which of the following are the Steps in PDIP Process?

I. Establish PDIP Policies
II. Develop and define the prioritization approach
III. Formalize and rank the list of development investment project
IV. Analyze the investment financing capacity analysis
V. Develop the PDIP financing plan and finalize the investment schedule
VI. Legally adopt the PDIP
VII. Identification of areas for complementation of PPA’s between the province and its
component cities/municipalities
VIII.Update the PDIP
a. All of these c. All of these except V and VI
b. All of these except I and II d. All of these except VIII

8. It is an iterative or repetitive process involving adjustments in the investment requirement side

or in the funding capability side or in both.
a. Raising Process c. Matching Process
b. Re-allocating Process d. Targeting Process

9. In approaching revenue mobilization for PDIP spending, Provinces should keep as first priority?
a. Increasing the local tax base by improved mapping and assessment procedures
b. Enactment of enabling laws to tap new sources of local revenue and provide
greater flexibility to establish cost-effective tax and fee rates.
c. Permit and clearance fee rate should be sufficient to cover the actual cost of the
evaluation of permit applications and the issuance of the required permits and
clearances.
d. To collect revenues that are due from the existing tax and service fee structure.

10. The 1991 LGC provides LGUs with powerful resource mobilization tools.
a. Land based Tools, Community Activity-based tools, Infrastructure-based tools,
Debt-based tools, and revenue sharing tools.
b. Land based Tools, Community Activity-based tools, Infrastructure-based tools,
Debt-based tools.
c. Land based Tools, Community Activity-based tools, Infrastructure-based tools.
d. Land based Tools, Community Activity-based tools, Debt-based tools, and
revenue sharing tools.

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11. A BOT-type of project financing maybe considered for PDIP Projects where the province, except?
a. To grow in importance in the coming years.
b. Has no sufficient funds available for the counterpart or equity requirements.
c. Wants to maximize private sector participation
d. Wants to avoid political pressures in the setting of rates as well as in the use of
the facility to be financed.

12. A direct loan from private or government financing institutions may be considered for the
financing of projects where the province, except:
a. Does not have the capability of the means to engage financial Advisors to
prepare the feasibility studies and related project packaging requirements.
b. Is willing to pay higher interest rates and be subjected to less flexible loan terms.
c. Wants full borrowing predictability arising from fixed loan terms of interest rate
and regular annual repayment periods.
d. Select Investment financing strategy.
e. Intends to use the loan proceeds to finance vital infrastructure or development
projects that are not self-liquidating or directly income generating.

13. A municipal bond float may be considered for the financing of projects where the province,
except:
a. Has the capability or the means to engage financial advisors to prepare the
required feasibility studies
b. As a guide in selecting mode of credit financing.
c. Wants to have the option of taking advantage of anticipated downward trends in
interest rates
d. Wants to maximize their discretion in the design of the project as well as the
financing terms, especially the repayment period.

14. There is however, some leeway to fine tune the investment schedule in terms of timing and
staging based on the following considerations, except:
a. Projects should be phased so as to take maximum advantage of alternative
financing opportunities
b. Certain projects may be coordinated and combined during the implementation
to maximize cost savings and minimize inconvenience and disruptions.
c. Promotion and self-reliance
d. Adequate time must be provided for preparing plans and specifications,
arranging, financing, and the public competitive bidding process.

15. Factors that PDIP allocations may change over time, except:
a. It is a ready six-year development investment
b. Anticipated funding may not materialize
c. Emergencies and unanticipated circumstances may result in allocating financial
resources to projects not listed in the PDIP
d. New development investment needs may be identified by the PDPFP

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16. Which of the following is not an Analytic Hierarchy Process(AHP)?
a. It enables decision-makers to derive ratio scale priorities or weights as opposed to
arbitrarily assigning them.
b. It was develop by Dr. Jessie Saaty at the Wharton School of Business and published as a
Book in 1990
c. It is designed to reflect the way people actually think and is a powerful and flexible
decision-making process to help people set priorities and make decisions.
d. It allows decision makers to model a complex problem in a hierarchical structure showing
the relationship of the goal, objectives and alternatives.

17. Which is not a principle and axioms of the Analytical Hierarchy Process?
a. Comparative Judgment
b. Hierarchic composition or synthesis of priorities
c. Decomposition
d. Constituents

18. The following are the disadvantageous of the Analytical Hierarchy Process, except?
a. It overcomes the problems with weights and scores approaches
b. Weights or priorities are not arbitrarily assigned
c. The belief that their ideas are adequately represented for the outcome to match these
expectation
d. It does not demand perfect consistency.

19. There are several causes of inconsistencies in the Analytical Hierarchy Process, which is not?
a. Actual lack of consistency in whatever is being modeled
b. Lack of Information
c. Imbalance Environment
d. Lack of concentration during the judgment process

20. It is based on a structured process for collecting knowledge from a group of experts through a
series of questionnaires interspersed with controlled opinion and feedback.
a. Historical Data Process
b. Controlled Feedback Mechanism
c. Delphi Method
d. Analytical Hierarchy Process

21. The following are the key features necessary in defining a procedure as a ”Delphi”, except?
a. Generalist c. Iteration
b. Anonymity d. Controlled Feedback

22. The difference between operating revenues and expenditures?

a. Operating Expenditures c. Operating Balance
b. Operating Revenues d. Capital Balance

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23. The difference between capital revenues and expenditures?
a. Capital Revenues(positive balance) c. Capital Revenues(negative balance)
b. Capital Expenditures(negative balance) d. Capital Investment Balance(Capital deficit)

24. Which of the following is not an indicator of effectiveness in the collection efficiency for real
property and franchise tax?
a. Total Revenue Collected/Annual Revenue Collection Target
b. Amount of additional Taxes Collected/Additional Taxes Assessed
c. Amount of Tax Arrears Recovered/Total Amount of Tax Arrears at the beginning of a year
d. Number of Taxpayers/Number of Employees

25. Which of the following is not an indicator of efficiency in the collection efficiency for real
property and franchise tax?
a. Number of Taxpayers/Number of Employees
b. Administrative Costs/total Revenue Collected for taxes
c. Per Capita Local Revenues
d. Total cost of operations and maintenance/Total Revenue for so-called economic
enterprises

26. Which of the following is not a characteristics of USER FEES?

a. Service must be supplied on a group basis
b. Benefits accrue to an individual and can be withheld from individuals who refuse to pay
c. Costs can be passed on to ultimate beneficiaries and the amount of use can be measured
d. Competition would result in improved efficiency and fees can result in rationing or
balancing usage patterns

27. Characteristics of Taxes as Cost Recovery Tools, which one is not among the list?
a. Benefits accrue to the community at large and cannot be withheld from individuals who
refuse to pay
b. The service is a merit good-to be provided to all regardless of ability to pay and the
amount of use is difficult or impossible to measure
c. Service can be supplied to an individual
d. Government is not competing with the private sector and unable to affect usage patterns

28. When should a subsidy be provided by the government, Except?

a. Some of the benefits from the service accrue to only few individuals
b. The LGU wants to stimulate demand for the service
c. Enforcement of the charge at full cost would result in widespread evasion
d. The service is used primarily by low-income household

29. Which is not a key financial issues to consider in deciding whether or not to borrow?

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 a. Determine which of the proposed projects can generate future revenues to repay all or
part of the loan. Economic enterprises such as markets, commercial centers, and
slaughterhouses generate future revenues
b. Analyze the LGUs ability to repay borrowed money in future years from its own budget.
Determination of the ability to pay must consider statutory debt ceilings imposed by the
1991 LGC
c. Know and understand all the terms of the loan like loan disbursement schedule, interest
rate, repayment period and schedule including a so-called grace period on principal and
interest, and their potential impact on the LGUs budget
d. Explore the use of more financially effective means of financing investments such as LGU
savings, beneficiary/mandatory contributions like land grabbing and forced labor
contributions, congressional grants and other local and foreign grants.

30. Debt Service ceiling computation for LGUs

Statement 1: Debt service ceiling is computed in accordance with Sec. 325b of the 1991 LGC,
which is 20% of Annual Regular Income for the Current Year

Statement 2: Annual Regular Income for the Current Year = Average of Locally sourced Income
for the past four years + Current Year IRA as estimated by the DBM.

Statement 3: Debt Service Ceiling for the Current Year = 0.20 Annual Regular Income for the
current year

Statement 4: Net Debt Service ceiling for the current year = Debt Service Ceiling for the current
year – Debt Service for existing loans

a. All Statements are False c. True False, True, False

b. All Statements are True d. False, True, True, False

31. It is a credit market options/scheme and variants which project proponent finances, constructs,
operates, and maintains an infrastructure facility over fixed term, charging user/toll fees, rentals
and charges to enable proponent to recover investment, earn and cover operating and
maintenance expenses. Ownership of facility is transferred to the LGU at the end of a fixed term.
a. Build-Lease-Transfer(BLT) c. Build-Transfer(BT)
b. Build-Operate Transfer(BOT) d. Build-Own-Operate(BOO)

32. Eligibility criteria for BOT Projects, except:

a. Strictly packages to ensure that potential risk will be out
b. Project must be profitable – project’s rate of return should exceed cost of capital needed
to finance project
c. Project must have dependable and continuous revenue streams
d. There must be establish market for the products or services

33. It is a written promise to pay a specified amount or maturity value, at a future date in equal
payments at a specified interest rate, at equal intervals until the redemption date issued by LGUs
to fund priority revenue-generating or revenue anticipating projects.

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 a. Local Government Unit Bonds b. Municipal Bonds
b. Bond Flotation d. Provincial Government Bonds

34. The following are the entities involved in the municipal bond flotation, except:
a. Bond holders or Investors
b. Underwriter-Seller of Bonds
c. Trustee Bank- Fund custodian, fund manager, paying agent
d. Broker

35. Which of the following is not part of principles of the Public Expenditure Management(PEM)
Framework?
a. Allocate efficiency or the alignment of provincial spending allocations within their
priorities
b. Fiscal Discipline or spending within means
c. Operational Efficiency or getting value for money
d. Economic Discipline and Proper allocation of government funds

36. It starts when the time the governor presents the proposal budget to the Sanggunian for the
review. The Committee on Appropriation Sanggunian then deliberate on the proposed executive
budget.
a. Budget Preparation c. Budget Execution
b. Budget Accountability d. Budget Legislation

37. Once the budget is passed into an appropriation ordinance and approved by the reviewing
authority, the budget enters the budget execution phase. It consists of the following, except:
a. The appointment of the appropriation and the release of the advice of allotment by the
Budget Officer who essentially defines which part of the appropriation the spending units
can use at which time
b. The commitment of expenditures at the spending units/contract or incur future
obligations to pay acquisition of goods and services that they need to perform their
functions and release of spending authorization
c. Determination of sectoral/departmental expenditure ceilings
d. The disbursement of funds as the province pays for goods and services upon delivery by
suppliers

38. It is the last phase of social budget. It covers the recording, reporting, and audit of estimated of
actual income and expenditures and the evaluation of provincial physical and financial
accomplishments vis a vis targets.
a. Budget Preparation c. Budget Legislation
b. Budget Accountability d. Budget Execution

39. Weaknesses that undermine public sector performance, except one

a. No links between policy making, planning and budgeting
b. Good Planning

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 c. Little relationship between budget as formulated and budget as executed, unreliability in
the flow of budgeted funds to implementing units
d. Poor expenditure control and inadequate funding of operations and maintenance

40. Budget preparation process includes the following, except one:

a. Cash Flow Forecasting
b. Analysis of revenue and expenditure trend and composition
c. Formulation of Multi-Year revenue estimates
d. Determination of departmental expenditure ceiling

41. Budget legislation process includes the following, except one:

a. Budget review matrix for budgetary requirements
b. Budget review matrix for budgetary limitations
c. Diagnostic questions for checking consistency of budget proposal with AIP
d. Analysis of revenue expenditure trend and composition

42. The basic objectives of a good public expenditure management system are, except:
a. Fiscal Discipline c. Operational Efficiency
b. Hierarchical Control d. Allocative Efficiency

43. This calls for matching of the demand for government spending with the available resources in
the aggregate in order to ensure that the province’s fiscal position is sustainable in the medium-
term. It requires to come up with honest and good forecasts of revenues and practice good
expenditure control.
a. Fiscal Discipline c. Operational Efficiency
b. Hierarchical Control d. Allocative Efficiency

44. This refers to the alignment of government’s spending allocation with their policies and priorities.
It requires that provinces allocate their resources in a strategic manner so that the budget system
reallocates resources
a. Fiscal Discipline c. Operational Efficiency
b. Hierarchical Control d. Allocative Efficiency

45. This calls on spending units to deliver goods and services in a manner that is efficient by finding
the right combination of inputs so that any given output is produced in the least costly manner
and economical by acquiring quality inputs at the lowest cool.
a. Fiscal Discipline c. Operational Efficiency
b. Hierarchical Control d. Allocative Efficiency

46. It is the issuance of a directive from the Local Chief Executive to mark the beginning of the
budget preparation period for the local government.
a. Local budget Call c. Budget Legislation
b. Budget Preparation d. Budget Accountability

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47. If actual collections from Real Property Tax(RPT) of Masbate Province in 2014 is P23.8 million and
total provincial income for the year is P693.5 million. Compute the percentage share of RPT in
total provincial revenue?
a. 3.34% b. 3.13% c. 3.14% d. 3.43%
48 to 51: If actual collections from the Basic RPT of Province of Masbate (Proceeds goes to its
General Fund) are as follows:
2010 = P10.12 million
2011 = P 6.88 million
2012 = P 6.97 million
2013 = P 8.99 million
2014 = P 9.35 million

48. Compute the Growth rate 2013 – 2014?

a. 4.00% c. 6.00%
b. 5.00% d. 7.00%

49. Compute the geometric average growth rate between 2010 and 2014?
a. 2.65% c. 2.25%
b. 1.96% d. 2.01%

50. Compute the geometric average growth rate between 2012 and 2014?
a. 15.48% c. 14.58%
b. 15.84% d. 14.54%

51. Compute the arithmetic average growth rate between 2012-2014?

a. 14.69% c. 14.94%
b. 16.49% d. 16.94%

52. Given the following data for Masbate Province:

Total Health expenditure in 2013 = P200.8 million
Total Population in 2013 = 1.2 million
Requirement: Compute the per capita health expenditure in 2013?

a. P163.7 c. P176.3
b. P173.6 d. P167.3

53. Given the following data for Masbate Province:

Total Health expenditure in 2013 = P200.8 million
Total Population in 2013 = 1.2 million
Per Capita Health Expenditure in 2013 = P167.3
GNP IPI in 2013 = 394.96
Requirement: Compute the Real per capita health expenditure in 2013?
a. P42.36 c. P46.32
b. P43.26 d. P46.36

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54. If the estimated IRA of Masbate Province in 2005 is P617.25 million, and if the growth rate of BIR
revenues in province years is:
2003-2002 = 7.81%
2004-2003 = 10.07% and if the estimated growth rate of BIR Revenues between 2004 and 2005
based on the BESF is 2005-2004 = 16.81%. Compute the estimated IRA for the budget year 2006
and the two outer years of 2007 and 2008 as projected:
a. 2006 = 665.46 million; 2007 = 732.44 million and 2008 = 855.56 million
b. 2006 = 732.44 million; 2007 = 855.56 million and 2008 = 947.32 million
c. 2006 = 665.46 million; 2007 = 855.56 million and 2008 = 947.32 million
d. 2006 = 665.44 million; 2007 = 947.32 million and 2008 = 855.56 million

55. The Local Government Code provides for statutory and contractual obligations to be
appropriated for debt service.
a. Not to exceed 20% of the net disposable income
b. Not to exceed 20% of the locally sourced income
c. Not to exceed 20% of the regular income
d. Not to exceed 20% of the non-traditional sourced income

56. Provinces, cities and municipalities shall provide aid to component barangays
a. Not to exceed P1,000 per barangay
b. Not less than P1,000 per barangay
c. Not less than P10,000 per barangay
d. Not less than P100,000 per barangay

57. Under Section 324 of the LGC, how much shall be set aside as an annual lump-sum appropriation
for unforeseen expenditures from occurrence of calamities out of the total estimated regular
sourced income
a. Five Percent c. More than Five percent
b. Not less than five percent d. More or less Five percent

58. Under Sec 287 of the LGC, how much must be appropriated for development projects?
a. No less than 20% of Internal Revenue Allotment
b. No less than 20% of the total Sourced Income
c. No less than 20% of the Locally Sourced Income
d. No less than 20% of the Net disposable Income

59. The Local Government Code provides limitations on the budget for personal services of an LGU?
a. Not to exceed 45% in all 1st to 6th classes of Provinces, Cities and Municipalities
b. Not to exceed 55% in all 1st to 6th classes of Provinces, Cities and Municipalities
c. Not to exceed 45% in the case of 1 st Class Provinces, Cities and Municipalities; and 55% in
the case of 4th to 6th class Provinces, Cities and Municipalities.
d. Not to exceed 55% in the case of 1 st Class Provinces, Cities and Municipalities; and 45% in
the case of 4th to 6th class Provinces, Cities and Municipalities.

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60. The annual appropriation for discretionary purposes of the Local Chief Executive on the actual
receipts derived from the basic real property tax.
a. More or less 2% of the actual receipt from the Real Property Tax
b. Not to exceed 2% of the actual receipts from the Real Property Tax
c. Not to exceed 2% of the Total Gross Income
d. Not to exceed 2% of the Internal Revenue Allotment

61. It involves the release and the actual disbursement of funds appropriated for the performance of
functions and undertaking of projects and activities.
a. Budget Call c. Budget Preparation
b. Budget Execution d. Budget Authorization

62. It is an approach wherein citizens, through CSOs, are allowed to take part in the process of
allocation of public resources.
a. Participatory Budgeting c. Zero-Based Budgeting
b. Bottom-Up Budgeting d. Cash Basis Budgeting

63. It is an authorization made by ordinance, directing the payment of goods and services from local
government funds under specified conditions or for specific purposes.
a. Allotment c. Obligation
b. Disbursement d. Appropriation

64. It is an authorization issued by the LCE to a Department/Office of the LGU which allows it to incur
obligations for specified amounts within its appropriations.
a. Allotment c. Obligation
b. Disbursement d. Appropriation

65. The specific amount within the allotment which is committed to be paid by the LGU for any
lawful expenditure made by an accountable officer for and in behalf of the LGU.
a. Allotment c. Obligation
b. Disbursement d. Appropriation

66. The control device used in the allotment system which includes the imposition of reserves, non-
release of unprogrammed funds, the earmarking of funds for clearance and the withholding of
funds for later release to provide for any shortfall in the collection of anticipated revenues.
a. Cash Program c. Physical Performance Targets
b. Local Budget Matrix d. Cash Backup

67. The control device used in the allotment system which incorporates the uses of cash flow
schedules
a. Cash Program c. Physical Performance Targets
b. Local Budget Matrix d. Cash Backup

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68. It is an authorization issued by the LCE to a Department/Office of the LGU which allows it to incur
obligations for specified amounts within its appropriations.
c. Allotment c. Obligation
d. Disbursement d. Appropriation

69. If the share of January in the total RPT collections of the City of Masbate in the last 5 years are as
follows:
2010 = 0.1344 2013 = 0.1233
2011 = 0.1098 2014 = 0.1085
2012 = 0.1103
Compute the average share of January in Total Collections for the year in the last 5 years
a. 0.1317 c. 0.1713
b. 0.1173 d. 0.1731

70. Compute the Cash Flow Forecast for January, 2015 if the estimated RPT Revenues for the City of
Legaspi for the budget year 2015 is P16.89 million and the average share of the month of January
in the last 5 years is 0.1173
a. 1.89 c. 1.08
b. 1.98 d. 1.09

71. Compute the adjusted annual income estimated for RPT for the year 2015. If the actual year-to-
date collections of RPT for the City of Ligao for October 2015 are P14.02 million and if the
average share of collections from January to October in the last 5 years is 0.8580
a. 16.43 c. 14.63
b. 16.34 d. 13.64

72. It involves the accurate recording and reporting of LGUs income and expenditures and the
evaluation of LGUs Physical and financial performance.
a. Budget Accountability c. Budget Cut
b. Budget Call d. Budget Appropriation

73. It is a contractual agreement into by an LGU with a private sector entity authorizing the latter to
finance, construct, operate and maintain a facility in-exchange for giving the private sector entity
the authority to charge user fees or receive compensation from government.
a. Private Public Partnership c. Private Sector Participation
b. Private Owned Industry d. Public Revenue Source

74. The following are LGU’s benefits/advantages of the Private Sector Participation, except:
a. Delegation of responsibility and risk though various modalities of private public participation
b. Guaranteed cost, flexible financing including the use of private capital
c. Cost-effective design, construction and/or operation of project
d. It supplants the inefficiencies of the LGUs in delivery basic services to the constituency

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75. Internal control provides reasonable assurance that, in pursuit of the entity’s mission, the
following general objectives are achieved, except:
a. It will address risks and prosecute the perpetrators
b. Executing orderly, ethical, economical, efficient and effective operations
c. Fulfilling accountability obligations
d. Complying with applicable laws and regulations
76. Defined in the operations as not wasteful or extravagant, right cost, right price, right time, right
quality, right quantity
a. Ethical c. Effective
b. Economical d. Efficient

77. It is defined in operations as doing things right given available inputs and specified timeframe to
deliver given quantity and quality of outputs.
a. Ethical c. Effective
b. Economical d. Efficient

78. It is defined as doing the right things to achieve objectives.

a. Ethical c. Effective
b. Economical d. Efficient

79. It is defined in operations as complying with norms of conduct and conformity with RA
6713(Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees)
a. Ethical c. Effective
b. Economical d. Efficient

80. This consists of the organizational structure, as well as the management and personnel set-up of
an LGU. It provides the framework within which the activities of an LGU are planned, executed,
controlled and reviewed. It considers key areas of authority and responsibility and the
appropriate lines of reporting.
a. Integral process c. Plan of Organization
b. Coordinated methods and measures d. Risk Assessment

81. These are control process that are implemented, and comprise the policies, rules and regulations
in every LGU management system that support and become integral to the operations.
a. Integral process c. Plan of Organization
b. Coordinated methods and measures d. Risk Assessment

82. A category of risks that LGUs might be confronted as regards to the risks in the achievement of
development goals, such as policymaking and planning being weekly linked to budgeting.
a. Strategic Risks c. Operational Risks
b. Commercial Risks d. Technical Risks

83. A category of risks to stable commercial relationships, such as failure to meet contractual
obligations.

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 a. Strategic Risks c. Operational Risks
b. Commercial Risks d. Technical Risks

84. A risks to core business activities, such as inadequate human resources or natural disasters.
a. Strategic Risks c. Operational Risks
b. Compliance Risks d. Technical Risks
85. A risks to meeting regulatory obligations such as weak understanding of laws, regulations,
managerial policies and operating process.
a. Strategic Risks c. Operational Risks
b. Compliance Risks d. Technical Risks

86. It is the evaluation of managerial controls and operations performance, and the determination of
the degree of compliance with laws, regulations, managerial policies, accountability measures,
ethical standards and contractual obligations.
a. Risk Management c. Internal Audit
b. External Audit d. Risk Assessment

87. The following are the three main types of audit, except:
a. Operations Audit c. Independent Audit
b. Compliance Audit d. Management Audit

88. It is a separate evaluation of the degree of compliance with laws, regulations, managerial
policies, and operating procedures in the LGU, including compliance with accountability
measures, ethical standards and contractual obligations.
a. Operations Audit c. Independent Audit
b. Compliance Audit d. Management Audit

89. It is a separate evaluation of the outcome, output, process and input to determine whether
government operations, programs, and projects are effective, efficient, ethical, and economical,
including compliance with laws, regulations, managerial policies, accountability measures, and
contractual obligations.
a. Operations Audit c. Independent Audit
b. Compliance Audit d. Management Audit

90. Which is not a key stakeholders of the Internal Audit Service(IAS)?

a. Sanggunian c. Commission on Audit
b. Valued Taxpayer d. Local Chief Executive

91. Which is not an Internal Audit Principles and Standards?

a. Professional Competence c. Efficiency and Effectiveness
b. Objectivity and Impartiality d. Authority and Confidentiality

92. Which of the following is not part of the internal audit planning and process?
a. Strategic Planning c. Conceptualization

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 b. Annual Work Planning d. Audit Engagement Planning

93. Internal Audit Process is divided into four phases, which one is not?
a. Audit Conceptualization c. Audit Engagement planning
b. Audit Execution d. Audit Reporting

94. How is Project Evaluation Development helps improve the effectiveness of public expenditure?
a. By recommending simple methodologies that can qualify as best solution
b. By requiring the resources greater than the amount computed
c. By sourcing out externally the cost of the project
d. By screening out projects that do not meet the stated goals and by screening out that may
conflict with other goals of the LGU

95. Project Evaluation and Development help improves the allocative efficiency of public expenditure
by, except:
a. By screening out redundant projects
b. By screening out projects that meet the goals but at very high cost
c. By prioritizing projects that do not meet priority development goals of the LGU
d. By prioritizing projects that create enabling conditions for other projects

96. It is the process of examining how well a project meets the objective for which it has been
designed
a. Feasibility Study c. Compact Study
b. Evaluation d. Examination

97. It pertains to the whole gamut of analysis carried out to determine if the project can be
implemented, can achieve the desired goals and more importantly, if it will result in net benefits.
a. Feasibility Study c. Compact Study
b. Monitoring Process d. Impact Evaluation

98. It is similar to the feasibility study in terms of the principles and steps followed. The difference
lies in the depth and, therefore, accuracy of the analysis. This is largely due to the short duration
of time allowed.
a. Pre-feasibility Study c. Feasibility Study
b. Project Appraisal d. Compact Study

99. It is similar to the feasibility study in terms of the steps followed. Often, however, the parties
responsible for financing the project are the ones that conduct the appraisal. This, being the case,
the interest is in verifying the assumptions used in the earlier feasibility study.
a. Pre-feasibility Study c. Feasibility Study
b. Project Appraisal d. Compact Study

100. It refers to the time span over which the project is able to generate benefits(or earnings) and
influence development or economic behavior. This is determined by the rate of depreciation

15
 subject to operations and maintenance schemes, and obsolescence when new(and better)
technologies become available.
a. Depreciated Life c. Economic Life
b. Discount Rate d. Opportunity Life

101. Suppose Jeckoy, your friend wants to borrow from you the amount of P150,000.00 with a
promise to be paid back after 1 year. Will you satisfied with a repayment of exactly P150,000.00?
a. Yes, because word of honor is more important than earning
b. No, because the money lent to a friend is not for business
c. Yes, because friendship is immeasurable
d. No, if you are a businessman, you could have invested it somewhere profitable and
earned of 20%. With this in mind, you can lend the amount of P125,000 now and agree
to accept payment P150,000.00 a year from now

102. Assume you are not a businessman and are unlikely to undertake investments. What is the
alternative for you to lend a certain amount money to your friend to be paid one year thereafter
at an amount P150,000.00
a. Lend a friend P100,000 and let him pay P150,000 a year after
b. Do not lend money to such friend, instead put that to a cash vault or safe for future use
c. Lend a friend P150,000.00 interest free
d. Place the money in a bank where it will earn the savings rate. Even better, you can
purchase government bonds with a maturity of one year. If the bonds promise an
interest earning at 7% then you can allow your friend to borrow P140,186.91 now in
exchange for the promised repayment of P150,000 a year hence

103. It is the price at which the good or service is being bought and sold at the end-user’s
market(as opposed to farmgate). We also sometimes refer to this as financial price.
a. Market Value c. Economic Price
b. Market Price d. Asking Price

104. It reflects the value that society places on the good or service with due consideration for its
scarcity and relative importance, absent market distortions. For instance, there is consideration
as to whether the inputs are sourced domestically or imported, or whether the outputs are
marketed only within the country or are exported. If they are traded in the international market,
then procuring them (in the case of project inputs) or supplying them (in the case of project
outputs) will affect the country’s foreign exchange situation.
a. Market Price c. Economic Price
b. Asking Price d. Assessed Value

105. The cost of one kilo of fresh tomatoes, when sold in the farm in Masbate is only P20. When
sold in the wet market in Cubao it is P50. Assuming that the tomatoes come from Bulacan.
a. Economic Price is P20; Market Price is P50
b. Economic Price is P50; Asking Price is P20
c. Economic Price is P50; Market Price is P20

16
 d. Asking Price is P20; Market Price is P50

106. Compute the present value of this revenue stream if a project is expected to generate
revenues beginning Year 2 until Year 5. Every year the revenue amounts to P100,000. Assume a
discount rate of 15% that is at Year 0.
a. 75,614.37 c. 49,717.67
b. 248,258.99 d. 65,751.62
107. If operations and maintenance of the project after we have an idea of the cost of investment,
operations and maintenance as well as the potential revenue of the project and the project
cannot be sustained, either from project revenues or subsidies from the LGU, as financial advisor
of the LCE, what would you advice?
a. Continue the project as it only differs in cash inflow and outflows
b. Continue the project because it is the strategic option to reduce poverty
c. The project should be undertaken provided the cost should be partly borne by those who
will be benefited of the project
d. The project investment should not be undertaken

108. Leadership is _________________

a. A group that achieves goals
b. The function of influencing a group towards the achievement of goals
c. The process of influencing a group toward the achievement of goals
d. Directing a group towards the achievement of goals

109. Which of the following is not true concerning the difference between managers and leaders?
a. Managers are appointed
b. Leaders can influence beyond formal authority
c. Managers influence through informal means
d. Leaders may be appointed

110. Persons who are able to influence others and who possess managerial authority are termed
__________?
a. Managers c. Visionaries
b. Organizers d. Leaders

111. Leadership ___________________________

a. Has a requirement of at least five members to be led
b. Has only been studied since the early twentieth century
c. Research has shown that it cannot be developed
d. Is based on management direction

112. Early leadership trait research sought ______________________

a. To clarify the need for leadership traits
b. Characteristics that might differentiate leaders from non-leaders
c. Identification of traits that leaders could use

17
 d. Found the traits status of leaders

113. All of the following are leadership styles, except _________________

a. Laissez-Faire c. Accommodating
b. Autocratic d. Democratic

114. A high-spirited leader achieved ___________________________

a. High group task performance and satisfaction more frequently than one who rated low
on either dimension or both
b. High group task performance and satisfaction more frequently than one who rated low
on either dimension or both on the short run
c. Moderator group task performance and satisfaction more frequently than one who rated
low on either dimension or both on the long run
d. Low group task performance and satisfaction more frequently than one who rated low on
either dimension or both

115. The following benefits occur in a department where effective delegation is practiced?
a. Increase staff motivation
b. Increased employee confidence
c. Enhanced staff capability
d. All of the above

116. Following the introduction of a significant change initiative, which of the following staff
behaviors is considered unacceptable and must be dealt with immediately?
a. Advocate c. Saboteur
b. Promoter d. Negotiator

117. Good management practice for successfully implementing a dramatic change initiative
includes?
a. Be evasive and avoid answering any employee questions and concerns
b. Limit any information provided to staff about the change
c. Deal severely with any resistance to the change initiative
d. Introduce the change to staff in advance and explain the reason and need for the change

118. Research has shown that what people do not want from their leaders is?
a. Direction c. Hope
b. Vision d. Dominance

119. An effective way to reduce resistance to change in an organization is to?

a. Do regular follow up with individuals affected by the change
b. Get individuals affected by the change involved in implementing the change
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

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120. Bernard is described as an autocratic leader. Which of the following statements would
illustrate his attitude towards the employees in his department?
a. Most employees are motivated by responsibility and a desire to learn
b. Most employees only work to satisfy their higher order needs
c. Most staff are unable to perform well unless provided with detailed instruction
d. Most employees enjoy the responsibility and challenge of work

121. Which of the following statements about Leadership is correct?

a. Leaders are born not made
b. Most leaders tend to be far above average in terms of intelligence
c. People want their leaders to have all the answers
d. Leadership is the ability to influence the opinions, attitude and behavior of others

122. Which of the following statements is true regarding stress in the workplace?
a. Levels of stress are generally decreasing in the workplace
b. Stress can trigger increased performance
c. Stress is always caused by ambiguous, uncertain situations
d. Management’s main objectives is to eliminate stress in the workplace

123. What is the basis on the conduct of the Basic Competency on Local Treasury
Examination(BCLTE), Intermediate Competency on Local Treasury Examination(ICLTE), and
Advance Competency on Local Treasury Examination(ACLTE), Intermediate Competency
a. BLGF Office Order No. 053-20016
b. CSC-Examination Announcement No. 02-2017
c. DOF-Department Order No. 052-2017
d. DOF-Department Order No. 053-2016

124. What is the Acronym of SEAL Program?

a. Standard Examination and Assessment of Local Treasury
b. Standard Examination and Assessment of Local Treasury Services
c. Standard Examination and Assessment for Local Treasury
d. Standard Examination and Assessment for Local Treasury Services

125. Provisions of the Local Government Code(LGC) of 1991 that mandates the Secretary of
Finance to appoint local treasurers and assistant treasurers of all provinces, cities and
municipalities across the country.
a. Sec 400 & Sec 401 c. Sec 470 & Sec 471
b. Sec 401 & Sec 402 d. Sec 402 & Sec 403

126. Local Treasurers and Assistants are regarded as local fiscal managers, and they ought to be
professionals discharging their official duties and responsibilities with, except:
a. Highest degree of excellence and efficiency
b. Qualified and competent Local Treasurers
c. Professionalism

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 d. Skills Orientation and Technical Competencies

127. The following Government Agencies that are responsible in the development,
institutionalization, conduct and administration of standardized examinations, assessment and
intervention programs for local treasury services, except:
a. Professional Regulations Commission
b. Department of Finance
c. Bureau of Local Government Finance(BLGF)
d. Civil Service Commission(CSC)

128. Goals of the DOF towards the establishment of SEAL Program, except:
a. Continuing professional education
b. Develop a corps of competent and qualified local treasury officials
c. Demonstrate and perform their functions with the highest degree of excellence
d. Integrity and professionalism

129. SEAL program consists of three level consists of the following, except:
a. Basic Competencies on Local Treasury
b. Advance Competencies on Local Treasury
c. Consultancy Competencies on Local Treasury
d. Intermediate Competencies on Local Treasury

130. These are the basic or general set of tactical-operational competencies, except:
a. Operationally knows the applicable laws, rules and regulations, operationally familiar
with the compliance requirements of documented policies, processes, transactions and
procedures; Performs key functions according to prescribed systems and frameworks.
b. Effectively delivers the key performance commitments/indicators; Provides support,
advice and guidance to personnel within the treasury function; coordinates with various
units with complimentary functions.
c. Demonstrate effective analytical and communication skills, ethical conduct and ability to
build relationships with key stakeholders; Knowledgeable about the current development
that affect or influence local treasury
d. None of the above

131. SEAL 1 Certification is applicable to all, except:

a. Provincial and Assistant Treasurer
b. City and Assistant Treasurer
c. Municipal and Asst. Municipal Treasurer
d. None of the Above

132. The second level of certification focuses on managerial-strategic abilities, except:

a. Sets goals and objectives according to the thrusts and priorities of the DOF, BLGF and the
Local government he/she serves. Plans the effective use of resources to achieve the goals
and objectives. Knows Data Analytics and the practical application thereof to drive

20
 change and improvement in local treasury operations, targets and performance
commitments.
b. Conceptualizes, designs, and proposes valuable programs and projects. Ensures effective
implementation of program, activities and projects relative to local treasury by
identifying and assessing them. Institute internal control mechanisms to mitigate risks in
the LGU, in general and in the local treasury office, in particular.
c. Motivates staff in the performance of tasks in line with the strategic performance
management system. Influences key stakeholders, both internally and externally relative
to local treasury functions. Manages change where necessary.
d. None of the above

133. The SEAL 2 Certification is primarily intended for the following, except:
a. Local Treasurers and Asst. Treasurers in the 1 st Class Provinces, Cities and Municipalities
b. Local Treasurers and Asst. Treasurers in the 2nd Class Provinces, Cities and Municipalities
c. Local Treasurers and Asst. Treasurers in the 3rd Class Provinces, Cities and Municipalities
d. Local Treasurers and Asst. Treasurers in the 4 th Class Provinces, Cities and Municipalities

134. The SEAL 3 Certification is suited for Treasurers and Asst. Treasurers, except
a. Special 1st Class Cities c. 1st Income Class Provinces
b. Highly Urbanized Cities d. None of the Above

135. 1st Statement: The qualifications set under 470 and 471 of the LGC shall not be a requirement
in applying for the SEAL examination.
2nd Statement: The BCLTE shall not be open to any interested applicant who intends to join
the local treasury services.
a. First Statement is True, While Second Statement is False
b. First Statement is False, While Second Statement is True
c. Both Statements are True
d. Both Statements are False

136. 1st Statement: For the SEAL 2, the SEAL 1(BCLTE) certification shall not be a pre-requisite
2nd Statement: For the SEAL 3, ACLTE shall be separately set up and directly handled by the
DOF and the BLGF, and it shall only be open to those who have been certified under SEAL
2(ICLTE)
a. First Statement is True, While Second Statement is False
b. First Statement is False, While Second Statement is True
c. Both Statements are True
d. Both Statements are False

137. The Competency areas/subjects to be examined under SEAL 1(BCLTE) are the following,
except:
I. Management of Local Treasury Services

21
 II. Mobilization of Resources(Principles of Taxation, Real Property Tax Collection,
Business and Other Local Taxes, Fees and Charges, and Local Economic Enterprises
and LGU Financing
III. Management of Intern-Government and Other Fund Transfers
IV. Preparation and Analysis of Treasury-Related Reports
V. Safekeeping of Local Funds and Records
VI. Coordinating and Communicating Local Treasury Matters with Stakeholders
VII. Management of other Public Financial Management areas, Local Budgeting cycle,
Irregular, Unnecessary, Excessive, Extravagant and Unconscionable Expenditures and
External Audit Processes and Opinion
VIII. General Ability Test, and General Information, Adherence to Code of Conduct and
Ethical Standards for Public Officials/Employees, and Anti-Red Tape Act
a. I,II,III,IV,V c. I,II,III,IV,V ,VI,VII
b. I,II,III,IV,V,VI d. I,II,III,IV,V,VI,VII,VIII

138. The weight for SEAL 1 Certification given to a candidate in selection and evaluating
recommendees for appointment.
a. 20% c. 25%
b. 30% d. 35%

139. The weight for SEAL 2 Certification given to a candidate in selection and evaluating
recommendees for appointment.
a. 20% c. 25%
b. 30% d. 35%

140. The weight for SEAL 3 Certification given to a candidate in selection and evaluating
recommendees for appointment.
a. 20% c. 25%
b. 30% d. 35%

141. 1st Statement: Effective June 2018, all designations and extension of designations shall only
be issued to SEAL 1(BCLTE) certified and recommended designees of the Local Chief Executive.
a. First Statement is True, While Second Statement is False
b. First Statement is False, While Second Statement is True
c. Both Statements are True
d. Both Statements are False

142. The following are the responsibilities of the BLGF towards the SEAL Program, except:
a. Provide the necessary support and assistance towards the full attainment of the goals
and sustainability of the SEAL Program
b. The DOF and the BLGF or any of its officials or employees shall conduct, authorize or
participate in any review activities related to the SEAL examinations.
c. Issue Clarificatory guidelines and adjustments in the benchmarks for each competency
category, manage the subject areas, adjust the competency standards for each SEAL,

22
 update the criteria for selection and evaluation for appointment of Treasurers and
assistant of LGUs pursuant to Section 5(a) hereof, and coordinate with the CSC, as may
be necessary, subject to the direct, supervision and approval of the Undersecretary of
Revenue Operations Group.
d. Shall develop, deliver and institutionalize interventions and technical assistance, such as
Training, continuing professional education, among others, in partnership with the
academe, higher education institutions, and reputable training institutions and providers.
143. The Examination Fee/s for review of the Program shall be:
a. Charge to the government
b. Borne by the concerned applicant
c. Charge to the Offices where the examinee is assigned
d. Charge to the Head of Office where the examinee is assigned

144. All incumbent appointed Local Treasurers and Assistant Treasurers, who enjoy the security of
tenure, are not required to obtain the SEAL 1(BCLTE) Certification.
a. True, since it will not affect their employment status
b. True, even if the incumbent Treasurer fails in the BCLTE, he/she will not be removed
c. False, incumbents are encouraged to obtain the SEAL
d. False, incumbents are required to maintain their status

145. When is the effectivity of the Department Order establishing the Standardized Examination
and Assessment for Local Treasury Services(SEAL)
a. Immediately upon its publication in the Official Gazette or in a newspaper of nationwide
circulation.
b. Fifteen days upon the issuance hereof
c. Thirty days upon the issuance hereof
d. 15 days upon publication of the Official Gazette

146. Basis on the SEAL Program of the DOF and BLGF to become a Civil Service Eligibility
examination.
a. DOF Resolution No. 13-2016 c. DOF Resolution No. 14-2016
b. CSC Resolution No. 1701330 d. CSC Order No. 144-2017

147. This is a promotional test only open to all DOF-BLGF incumbents who took and passed the
BCLTE conducted last December, 2015
a. BCLTE c. ACLTE
b. ICLTE d. Career Professional

148. Basis for the conferment of the CSC Local Treasurers Eligibility to the Local Treasurers who
passed the BCLTE in December 2015.
a. DOF Resolution No. 13-2016 c. DOF Resolution No. 14-2016
b. CSC Resolution No. 1701330 d. CSC Order No. 144-2017

149. Any form of cheating in any civil service examination is a violation of what Law?

23
 a. RA 7160 c. RA 9416
b. RA 9646 d. E.O. 32

150. The Civil Service Eligibility resulting from passing the BCLTE shall be called, ____________, it
is a second level eligibility, which is only appropriate for appointment to Local Treasurer and Asst.
Local Treasurer positions, and to positions under the Financial Services, that do not require the
practice of profession and are not covered by BAR/Board or Special Laws.
a. Career Service Professional c. Local Treasurer eligibility
b. Career Service Sub-Professional d. Local Treasury Eligibility

151. An applicant for the BCLTE who is holding a dual citizenship under RA 9225 may be accepted
provided he/she shall submit:
a. Certification of Retention/Re-acquisition of Philippine Citizenship
b. Certification as to the Citizenship
c. Repatriation
d. Passport

152. An applicant for the BCLTE with pending Administrative or Criminal cases may be:
a. Not accepted because their eligibility will be forfeited upon judgment on their cases
b. Not accepted because they are not of Good Moral Character
c. Accepted and shall be conferred the eligibility if they successful pass the exam. However,
without prejudice to the outcome of the case
d. Provisionally accepted but they will not be conferred with the eligibility until there is final
judgment over the case

153. It is a collection of all the individuals or times under consideration in a statistical study.
a. Statistic c. Population
b. Sample d. Data

154. A part of the population from which information is collected

a. Statistic c. Population
b. Sample d. Data

155. A numerical characteristic of the population

a. Statistic c. Analysis
b. Data d. Parameter

156. A numerical characteristic of the sample

a. Statistic c. Population
b. Sample d. Data

157. A characteristic or attribute of persons or objects that can assume different values for
different persons or objects
a. Sample c. Variable

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 b. Analysis d. Data

158. The following are measures of central tendency, except:

a. Average c. Median
b. Mean d. Mode

159. The measures of location, except:

a. Percentiles c. Deciles
b. Quartiles d. Average

160. Which is not a measure of Dispersion

a. Percentiles c. Standard Deviation
b. Variance and Coefficient of Variation d. Range

161. Compute the Mean assuming Region V(Bicol) has and cities with the following revenues:
Iriga City = P479.60M Naga City = P1,064.78M
Legazpi City = P894.02M Sorsogon City = P 657.52M
Ligao City = P532.14M Tabaco City = P 502.90M
Masbate City = P473.16M
a. P532.14M c. P768.97M
b. P657.73M d. P479.60M

162. Using the illustration in No. 160, Compute the Median Value
a. 657.52 c. 502.90
b. 532.14 d. 517.52

163. It is the prediction, projection, or estimate of some future activity, event or occurrence based
on information from the past.
a. Anticipating c. Forecasting
b. Projecting d. Budgeting

164. The following are types of forecast, which none is not?

a. Demand Forecast c. Technological forecast
b. Integrated Forecast d. Economic Forecast

165. An ordered sequence of values of a variable at equally spaced time intervals-daily, weekly,
monthly, quarterly, semestral, annual.
a. Calendar c. Structure
b. Scheduler d. Time Series

166. It accounts for the fact that data point taken over time may have an internal structure(such
as autocorrelation, trend or seasonal variation) that should be accounted for:
a. Calendar c. Time Series

25
 b. Scheduler d. Time Series Analysis

167. Which does not refer to growth rate?

a. It is the speed at which a variable is growing
b. It is for demonstration purposes
c. It can be understood as “by what part of the value of a variable in the previous
year did that variable increase to reach its value in the current year.”
d. It is a type of percentage, which quantifies the change of a variable over a period
of time

168. Assume that in 2015 Annual Regular income of LGU A is P1,500,000,000.00 while in 2016
P2,000,000.00. Compute the growth rate for 2016.
a. 10% c. 30%
b. 20% d. 33.3%

169. Which one is not a pillar or building blocks of fiscal decentralization?

a. Fiscal decentralization and Allocating Revenue sources
b. Assigning of Expenditure Responsibilities and designing Intergovernmental transfers
c. Structuring sub-national borrowing/debt
d. None of the Above

170. Basic principles in allocating revenue sources, except:

a. Revenue Potential
b. Economic Efficiency and Equity
c. Administrative Feasibility and Political Acceptability
d. None of the Above

171. Which is not a principle in assignment of expenditure responsibilities?

a. Administrative Feasibility and Political Acceptability
b. Efficiency Criteria/Subsidiary Principle
c. Service of Benefit Area and Size & Diversity
d. Economies of scale and cultural values

172. It refers to the public finance dimension of intergovernmental relations. It specifically

addresses the reform of the system of revenue source and expenditure functions transfers from
the central to sub-national governments.
a. Designing Intergovernmental transfers c. Allocating Revenue
b. Fiscal Decentralization d. Assignment of Expenditure

173. The following are the categories of the Local Government Financial Performance Monitoring
System(LGFPMS), except:
a. Revenue Generation Capacity c. Expenditures Rigidity
b. Debt Carrying Capacity of LGU d. None of the Above

26
174. The BLGF Central Office target-setting process will only cover key LGU Local Revenue sources
that is presently the subject of the existing BLGF revenue target-setting system, except:
a. Amusement Tax c. Business Tax
b. Fees, Charges and Economic Enterprise d. Real Property Tax

175. Forecasts of two key central government transfers to LGUs are expected to be provided by
the Department of Budget and Management(DBM)
a. Internal Revenue Allotment(IRA)
b. Shares in National Wealth and other National Taxes
c. Both A and B
d. None of the Above

176. The other revenue items will be left to the Local Treasurers to forecast their own since they
are highly dependent on local practices and cash management patterns.
a. True c. Partly Not True
b. Not True d. False

177. Which of the following is not part of the LGU Revenue Target Setting Process?
a. Systematically develop a single set of LGU-level revenue targets to serve as the revenue
basis of the annual LGU budget process
b. The results of the process to be useful to the LGU budget process, the final revenue
targets should be ready by the time of the budget call
c. The process starts with the generation of a financial and economic model-based set of
initial LGU-level forecasts by the BLGF Central Office sent out to the LGU and to the
regional offices.
d. None of the Above

178. What is the consideration used in computing the revenue targets based on Department
Order No. 006-2015?
a. Total Current Collectibles plus delinquencies for the last 2 years
b. Total current Collectibles multiplied by 80% add Cumulative five-year delinquencies
multiplied by 35%
c. Total Assessed Value multiplied by 2% RPT/SEF
d. Total Assessed Value multiplied by 2% RPT/SEF plus delinquencies

179. The typical cost behavior patterns can be classified as follows, except:
a. Fixed Costs c. Actual Costs
b. Variable costs d. Mixed Costs

180. The government body who approves the Local Project above P200 million before bidding and
contracts prepared before issuance of notice of award?
a. NEDA-Investment Coordination Committee c. Municipal Development Council
b. Provincial Development Council d. Regional Development Council

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181. In evaluating debt proposals, as financial advisor of the LCE, what likely would recommend
you for an option.
a. Refinancing existing loans at disadvantageous rates
b. High risk and the risks would impact the LGU
c. Choose borrowings that offer the best mix between low cost and low risk and compare
borrowing proposals using a common base as closely as possible
d. Higher borrowing costs for poor reputation of making late payments
182. An accounting method use in eSRE reporting, where all revenues shall be recognized when
paid
a. Accrual Basis c. Fund Balance
b. Cash Basis d. Modified Accrual Basis

183. It is the legislative authorization containing the new annual appropriations authorized by
Congress in specific amount for the implementation of programs and activities of departments
and offices of government for a given year which comes into effect when the President approves
and signs the Bill.
a. National Budget c. General Appropriations Act
b. Annual Budget d. People’s Budget

184. Which of the following is not a system for allocating National government transfer to Local
Government Units?
a. Formula-based block grants(IRA)
b. Fees and Charges
c. Origin-based share of national government revenues
d. Ad Hoc categorical grants

185. A report being prepared to provide information on the total approved budget. Total released
allotments, obligations incurred, and the unused balance of the appropriations. It also provides
vital information about the financial condition, cash inflows and outflows, and the results of
operations of national government agencies.
a. Annual Financial Report c. Statement of Income and
Expenses
b. Statement of government Equity d. Balance Sheet

186. The data mining technique that is used to uncover pattern in data is __________________.
a. Data Bagging c. Data Booting
b. Data Dredging d. Data Merging

187. ____________________ approach is used ideally to ask data analysis question

a. Find only one solution for particular problem
b. Find out answer from dataset without asking questions
c. Find out the questions which is to be answered
d. None of the above

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188. ___________________ is generally referred to as data fishing.
a. Data Bagging c. Data Booting
b. Data Dredging d. Data Merging

189. Which of the following holds true?

a. Representing data in a form which were mortals can understand and get valuable insights in
as much as it is an art.
b. Data cleaning focuses on prediction based on knowing properties leased from the training
data
c. Data machine learning focuses on prediction based on known properties leased from the
training data
d. None of the Above

190. ____________ approach should be used if you can’t fix the variable.
a. Randomize c. Generalize it
b. Non-stratify it d. None of the Above

191. A documentary requirement for a local government availing for a financing/loan facility to be
obtained from the BLGF
a. BLGF Certification of the LGU
b. Certification as to the Debt Service Capacity of the LGU
c. BLGF Certification of the LGU
d. Monetary Board Opinion

192. It evaluates the project proposal for consistency with its Local Development Plan and the
Annual Investment Program
a. NEDA c. Regional Development Council
b. Local Disaster Reduction Risk Management d. Local Development Council

193. A law creating the Metropolitan Development Authority(MMDA)

a. RA 7924 c. RA 9646
b. RA 7160 d. EO 392

194. A Tax is said to be unreasonable when it is, except:

a. Unjust c. Equitable
b. Excessive d. Oppressive or Confiscatory

195. Checks remittances and verifies accountable forms of collectors/tellers Consolidates

collections and remits to the Treasurer/Cashier. Prepares Report of Collection and Deposits.
a. Collector/Teller c. Accountant
b. Liquidating Officer d. Treasurer

29
196. Prepare the JEV based on individual checks/voucher; sign “Prepared By” portion (approved
by Chief Accountant), and record JEV in the Check Disbursements Journal. Post monthly to the
General Ledger/Subsidiary Ledgers.
a. Collector/Teller c. Accountant
b. Liquidating Officer d. Treasurer

197. Refers to the overall cash effect of the various activities of the LGU(Inflows-Outflows). If the
cash inflow is greater than the cash outflow, there is an increase in cash, vice versa.
a. Net Increase in Cash
b. Net Increase in Cash from investing activities
c. Cash at the beginning of the period
d. Net increase in Cash from investing activities

198. It is the process of exercising or directing influence over the activities of an object, organism
or a system.
a. Concepts c. Policies
b. Elements d. Controls

199. They are designed to prevent the adverse actions or risk from occurring.
a. General Controls c. Preventive Controls
b. Corrective Controls d. Detective Controls

200. They are designed to detect an error or adverse event after it occurs but within a reasonable
time to permit correction and through awareness of the problem, help prevents other errors
from occurring.
a. Control Procedures c. General Controls
b. Detective Controls d. Corrective Controls

30