15-06-2022 OYMO

CODE-E
Phase-1
Online

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 Term Exam for NEET – 2023 Time 3 Hr. 20 Min.

Test - 3 (Objective)
Physics : Electric Charges & Field, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance: Introduction, electrostatic
potential, potential due to a point charge, potential due to an electric dipole, potential due to a
system of charges, Equipotential surfaces, Calculating field from potential, Potential energy of a
system of charges, Potential energy in an external field
Chemistry : The Solid State, Solutions
Botany : Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Zoology : Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION-A 2. A charge q1 = +1C and q2 = –4C are fixed at a
separation of 1 m. Where should we place the
1. Which one of the following pattern of electric lines
of force is not possible under static conditions? third charge q, so that the entire system is in
equilibrium?

(1) (2)
(1) 1 m to the right of q1

(2) 1 m to the left of q2

(3) 2 m to the left of q1

(3) (4)
(4) 1 m to the left of q1

(1)
Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_P1_Code-E) One Year Medical - 2023

3. The figure shows some of the electric field lines

corresponding to an electric field. The figure (3)
suggests

(4)

(1) EA > EB > EC (2) EA = EB = EC

8. For the given figure the direction of electric field
(3) EA = EC > EB (4) EA = EC < EB
at point A will be (Given that AB = BC = CA)
4. If electric field lines are as shown in figure. Then

(1) |q1| < |q2| (2) |q1| = |q2|

(3) |q1| > |q2| (4) 7|q1| = 5|q2|
(1) Towards AL
5. Electric field is given as E = 10iˆ + jˆ + kˆ. The (2) Towards AY
electric flux through a surface of area of 200 units
(3) Towards AX
in x-y plane is
(1) 800 units (2) 300 units (4) Towards AZ
(3) 400 units (4) 200 units 9. The infinite number of charges each equal to q,
6. Eight charges (each q) are placed at the vertices are placed along the x-axis at x = 1, x = 2, x = 4,
of a regular cube of side a. The electrostatic x = 8, x = 16 and so on. The electric field at origin
potential energy of the configuration is:  1 
O due to this set of these charges is  k = 
 4  0 
28 q 2
(1)
40 a

q2  12 4 
(2)  12 + + 
40a  2 3

q2  12 4 
(3) 2
12 – +  3
4a  2 3 (1) kq (2) kq
4
28 q 2
(4) 4 4
40 a2 (3) kq (4) kq
3 9
7. Two charges q and –q are kept at points A and B.
10. The electric flux emerging through the closed
let V be the potential at any point on the line
joining A and B. The correct variation of V along surface S1 shown in figure which intersects the
the AB is spherical conductor S, due to the presence of a
positive charge very near to conductor is

(1)

(2)
(1) Positive (2) Negative
(3) Zero (4) None of these

(2)
One Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_P1_Code-E)

11. A charge Q is placed inside a cube. The total 17. An electron of mass m and charge e is
electric flux passing through all the six faces of accelerated from rest through a potential
the cube is difference V in vacuum. Its final speed will be
Q Q 2eV eV
(1) (2) (1) (2)
60 80 m m
4Q Q eV eV
(3) (4)
0 0 (3) (4)
2m m
12. The flux of electric field due to these charges 18. Electric field due to a short dipole at a distance r
through the surface S is from its centre at equatorial line is proportional to
(1) r–1 (2) r–2
(3) r–3 (4) r–4
19. Net electric flux emerging out for the Gaussian
surface S is
−q q
(1) (2)
0 0
3q 5q
(3) (4)
0 0
13. Two infinite plane sheets, separated by a q
distance d have equal and opposite uniform (1) Zero (2) 3 2
0
charge density . Electric field at a point between
the sheet is q q
(3) (4) −
 0 0
(1) Zero (2)
0 20. Number of electrons in 10 C charge is
 2 (1) 625 × 1012 (2) 62.5 × 1012
(3) (4)
20 0 (3) 6.25 × 1012 (4) 0.625 × 1012
14. If electric flux is coming out from Gaussian 21. If 109 electrons move out of a body to another
surface then the surface will contain body every second, then time required to get a
(1) Negative charge total charge of 6.4 C on other body
(2) Positive charge (1) 4 × 103 s (2) 2 × 103 s
(3) Either positive and negative charge (3) 2 × 104 s (4) 4 × 104 s
(4) Zero charge 22. An isolated charge q1 of mass m is suspended
15. If E1 be the electric field strength of a short freely by a thread of length l. Another charge q2 is
brought near it (r > > l). When q1 is in equilibrium,
dipole at point on its axial line, and E2 that on the
equatorial line at the same distance from centre tension in the thread will be
of dipole, then
(1) E1 = 2 E2 (2) E1  E2  0

(3) E1 + 2E2 = 0 (4) All of these

16. A thin wire is bent in the form of a complete ring (1) mg (2) <mg
of radius R and charge Q. It is placed in y-z plane (3) >mg (4) 2mg
with centre at origin. The position of a point
23. Which of the following property is not exhibited by
where electric field is maximum
a stationary charge?
R R
(1) x =  (2) x =  (1) Conservation of charge
2 2 2
(2) Producing magnetic field
R R
(3) x =  (4) x =  (3) Quantization of charge
3 2 (4) Producing electric field

(3)
Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_P1_Code-E) One Year Medical - 2023

24. Charge of a conducting body cannot be changed 30. If the flux of the electric field through a closed
when surface is zero, then
(1) Electrons are removed from it (1) The electric field must be zero everywhere on
the closed surface
(2) It is touched to any other neutral conducting
(2) The electric field must be uniform throughout
body the closed surface
(3) It is taken closer to a charged conductor in (3) The total charge inside the surface must be
vacuum zero
(4) Electrons are supplied to it (4) Both (2) & (3)
25. A body can be negatively charged by 31. A hollow cylinder closed on both sides has a
charge q at it’s centre. If  is the electric flux
(1) Giving excess of electrons to it associated with curved surface B. The flux linked
(2) Removing some electrons from it with the plane surface A will be
(3) Giving some protons to it
(4) Removing some neutrons from it
26. A body can have a charge of
q 1 q 
(1) 0.32 × 10–20 C (2) 0.32 × 10–21 C (1) − (2) − 
0 2  0 
(3) 0.48 × 10–18 C (4) 0.64 × 10–19 C
q 
27. Two identical balls carrying charges +5 C and (3) (4)
20 3
–2 C attracts each other with force F in air. After
keeping them into contact they are placed at 32. A charge Q is divided in two parts Q1 and Q2 and
same distance in water (r = 81) the new force these charges are placed at a distance R. There
will be maximum repulsion between them when
will be
Q Q 3Q
9 (1) Q1 = Q2 = (2) Q1 = , Q2 =
(1) F (2) F 2 4 4
40
Q 2Q Q 5Q
4F F (3) Q1 = , Q2 = (4) Q1 = , Q2 =
(3) (4) 3 3 6 6
90 360
33. The maximum electric field at a point on the axis
28. A proton is fixed at origin. Another proton is of a uniformly charged ring is E0. At how many
r point on the axis will the magnitude of electric
released from rest from a point at distance E0
2 field be
from origin. Taking charge on proton as e and 2
mass as m. Find the speed of proton at a (1) 1 (2) 2
distance 2r from origin. (3) 3 (4) 4
34. In figure two points A and B are located in a
e2 e2 uniform electric field. Potential difference
(1) (2)
40 rm 60 rm VB – VA is

2e 2 3e 2
(3) (4)
60 rm 40 rm

29. Two oppositely charged conducting bodies are

brought into contact. (1) Positive (2) Negative
(1) Mass can be transferred from one to another (3) Zero (4) Cannot be predicted
(2) Charge can be transferred from one to 35. Force between a short electric dipole and a point
another charge is proportional to
(3) Both mass and charge gets transferred (1) r –1 (2) r –2
(4) None of these (3) r –3 (4) r –4

(4)
One Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_P1_Code-E)

SECTION-B 43. The number of electric lines of force that radiate

outwards from one coulomb of charge in vacuum
36. There is a solid sphere of radius R having is
uniformly distributed charge. The expression of (1) 0.61 × 109 (2) 1.13 × 1010
electric field E (inside the sphere) at distance r (3) 0.61 × 1011 (4) 1.13 × 1011
from center of sphere is
1
44. The SI unit of is (0 = electric permittivity of
KQ KQ 0
(1) 2 (2)
r r free space)

(3)
KQr
(4)
KQr C2 N m2
(1) (2)
R3 R2 N m2 C2
37. Net force on a dipole in an uniform external
N C2 C2
electric field will be (3) (4)
(1) Maximum when dipole is parallel to electric m2 Nm
field 45. Electric field due to an infinite conducting sheet
varies with distance x from sheet as
(2) Maximum when dipole is perpendicular to
electric field (1) E  x0 (2) E  x–1

(3) Zero (3) E  x–2 (4) E  x1

46. A charge q is moved from A to B in the region of
(4) Depending on the orientation of dipole in
electric field a fixed short dipole P . The work done on the
charge (Assuming gravity free space)
38. The dimension of electric dipole moment is
(1) [LTA] (2) [MLA]
(3) [MLT–2] (4) [ALT2]
39. Two point charges of +3 C and +4 C repel
each other with a force of 12 N. If each is given
an additional charge of –6 C, the new force
between them will become Pq Pq
(1) (2)
(1) 24 N (2) 6 N 40 r 3 20 r 3
(3) 4 N (4) 3 N Pq
(3) Zero (4)
40. The electric field in the direction vertically 0 r 3
downward is acting on a particle of mass
48 × 10–20 kg and a charge equivalent to two 47. Two point charges –q and 2q are placed at
distance a. Find ratio of magnitude of electric
electrons. If weight is balanced at an instant,
potential to magnitude of electric field at a point
electric field strength is [take g = 10 ms–2] middle of –q and 2q
(1) 1.5 N/C (2) 3 N/C
a a
(3) 15 N/C (4) 30 N/C (1) (2)
4 6
41. Insulators are those which has
a a
(1) Less number of free electrons (3) (4)
2 3
(2) More number of free electrons
48. Charge Q is uniformly distributed over the length
(3) Excess of protons of rod of length L. The electric potential at a point
(4) Less number of protons which is at distance a from rod (as shown) is
42. The magnitude of electric force experienced by a
charged particle in an electric field depends on
(1) Mass of the particle Q L+a Q
(1) ln (2)
40 L  a  40 (L + a)
(2) Charge of the particle
(3) Neither mass nor charge of particle Q Q L+a
(3) (4) ln 
(4) Both mass and charge of the particle 40 a 40 L  L 

(5)
Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_P1_Code-E) One Year Medical - 2023

49. Graph showing variation of electric potential due 50. Two charges +q and –q each of mass m are
to uniformly charged spherical shell is (r is revolving in a circle of radius R under mutual
distance from centre of shell) electrostatic force. The kinetic energy of system
is
q2
(1)
40 R
(1) (2)
q2
(2)
8 0 R
q2
(3)
32 0 R
(3) (4) q2
(4)
16 0 R

CHEMISTRY

x and y as per above graph respectively, are

SECTION-A
(1) Tf and Tb (2) Tb and Tf
51. In an aqueous solution of HCl mole fraction of
HCl is 0.2. Weight of solvent present per total (3) Kb and Kf (4) Kf and Kb
mole of solution is
55. 20 ml CHCl3 and 30 ml CH3COCH3 are mixed to
(1) 7.2 g (2) 14.4 g prepare a solution. Volume of resulting solution
(3) 3.6 g (4) 1.8 g may be
52. Vapour pressure of a binary solution of two
(1) 50 ml (2) 54 ml
volatile components A and B is given by
PT = 100 + 200 XA. Which statement is not true (3) 48 ml (4) 60 ml
for given solution? 56. Henry’s constant of CO2 (g) in water at 25°C is
(1) Component A is more volatile than B 1.6 × 104 atm. Number of molecules of CO2(g)
(2) Boiling point of A is lower than B dissolved per 1000 ml water at 0.2 atm pressure
(3) Enthalpy of vaporization of A is smaller than of CO2 is
B
(1) 41.8 NA (2) 6.94 NA
(4) Less amount of A will go in vapour phase
than B (3) 6.94 × 10–4 NA (4) 41.8 × 10–4 NA
53. Which set of thermodynamic parameters are 57. If 0.2 mol NaCl is added in 2 mol water, then
correct for an ideal solution? vapour pressure of solution is (vapour pressure of
(1) VSol > 0, GSol > 0 and HSol > 0 pure water is 760 torr)
(2) VSol < 0, GSol > 0 and HSol < 0 (1) 633.33 torr (2) 690.90 torr
(3) VSol = 0, GSol < 0 and HSol = 0 (3) 345.45 torr (4) 316.67 torr
(4) VSol > 0, GSol > 0 and HSol < 0 58. Which of the following statement is correct
54. Consider the vapour phase diagram for the regarding the solubility of gas in water?
aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute.
(1) Solubility increases with increase in
temperature
(2) A more polar gas will be less soluble
(3) Solubility increases with increase in pressure
(4) Solubility is always endothermic process

(6)
One Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_P1_Code-E)

59. When solution of Ni2+(aq) and NH3(aq) combine 65. An electron trapped in an anion site in a crystal is
following products are obtained called
+
(1) F-centre (2) Frenkel defect
Ni2+ + 2NH3 + 2H2O ⎯⎯
→ Ni(OH)2  + 2NH4
(3) Schottky defect (4) Impurity defect
(Green ppt)
66. In the primitive unit cell, the constituent particles
→ [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2+ + 2OH−
Ni(OH)2 + 6NH3 ⎯⎯ are present at the
(Deep blue colour)
(1) Corners of the unit cell
(2) Body centre of the unit cell
(3) Face centres of the unit cell
(4) Edge centres of the unit cell
67. Crystalline solids are
(1) Isotropic and supercooled liquids
(2) Anisotropic and supercooled liquids
Compartment in which green and then deep blue (3) Isotropic and long range ordered
colour will appear is (4) Anisotropic and long range ordered
(1) Only I (2) Only II 68. An ionic solid A+ B– crystallises as a bcc
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II structure. The distance between cation and anion
60. Identify pair of solutions which shows positive in the lattice is 338 pm. The edge length of cell is
deviation from Raoult’s law (1) 292.7 pm (2) 338 pm
(1) C6H6 + C6H5CH3 (3) 507 pm (4) 390.3 pm
(2) CH3COCH3 + CS2 69. The close packing order of cubic lattice in the
(3) CH3COCH3 + CHCl3 order
(4) HNO3 + H2O (1) FCC > BCC > SCC (2) FCC < BCC < SCC
61. A metal crystallises in FCC arrangement with the (3) BCC > FCC > SCC (4) BCC < FCC < SCC
edge length 862 pm. What is the distance 70. Elements of 14th group when doped with those of
between two nearest atoms? 15th group work as
(1) 406 pm (2) 707 pm (1) n-type semiconductors
(3) 862 pm (4) 609.6 pm (2) p-type semiconductors
62. If the distance between cation and anion in rock
(3) Superconductors
salt structure is 265 pm, the edge length of the
unit cell will be (4) Insulators

(1) 265 pm (2) 795 pm 71. The percentage occupied space in SC, BCC,
FCC respectively are
(3) 132.5 pm (4) 530 pm
(1) 52%, 68%, 74% (2) 68%, 52%, 74%
63. Total volume of atoms present in FCC unit cell of
a metal with radius r is (3) 74%, 52%, 68% (4) 74%, 68%, 52%

12 3 16 3 72. The second nearest neighbours of Cs+ in CsCl

(1) r (2) r system are
3 3
(1) 8 Cl– (2) 6 Cs+
20 3 24 3
(3) r (4) r (3) 12 Cs+ (4) 24 Cl–
3 3
64. The edge length of the unit cell of NaCl is 0.564 73. Crystal system having edge length a  b  c and
nm. What is the density of NaCl crystal? inter-axial angles       90° is called
(1) 3.89 g/cm3 (2) 2.16 g/cm3 (1) Monoclinic (2) Triclinic
(3) 3 g/cm3 (4) 1.82 g/cm3 (3) Orthorhombic (4) Hexagonal

(7)
Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_Code-E_Phase-1) One Year Medical - 2023
 (2) Ferromagnetic substance
74. What are coordination number of Na and O–2 in
Na2O respectively? (3) Non-magnetic substance
(1) 4, 4 (2) 4, 8 (4) Ferrimagnetic substance
(3) 8, 4 (4) 8, 8 84. Which one of the following crystals does not
75. Crystals which are good conductor of electricity exhibit Frenkel defect?
and heat are known as (1) AgBr (2) AgCl
(1) Ionic crystals (2) Covalent crystals (3) CsCl (4) ZnS
(3) Metallic crystals (4) Molecular crystals 85. In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four
76. The effective number of octahedral void in CCP other carbon atoms tetrahedrally, alternate
structure is tetrahedral void occupied by carbon atoms. The
(1) 0 (2) 1 number of carbon atoms per unit cell is
(3) 2 (4) 4 (1) 4 (2) 6
77. In which of the following pairs of structures, (3) 8 (4) 12
tetrahedral as well as octahedral voids are
SECTION-B
found?
(1) BCC and FCC 86. If 0.2 mol urea is added into 1000 g water then
(2) HCP and simple cubic boiling point of solution is

(3) HCP and CCP (Kb (water) = 0.52 K molal–1)

(4) BCC and HCP (1) 373.104 K (2) 100.104 K

78. Which is incorrect statement? (3) 127.29 K (4) 372.896 K
(1) In NaCl structure, tetrahedral voids are 87. Match List-I with List-II and choose correct option.
unoccupied (Assuming complete dissociation of electrolyte)
(2) In ZnS structure, octahedral voids are List-I List-II
unoccupied
(Solute in (van’t Hoff factor)
(3) In CaF2 structure, all tetrahedral voids are water)
occupied
a. NaCl (i) 1
(4) In Na2O structure, all tetrahedral voids are
unoccupied b. Glucose (ii) 2
79. In a cubic crystal system atoms ‘A’ occupy all the
c. MgCl2 (iii) 3
corners and face centres, ‘B’ occupies all
tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound is d. AlCl3 (iv) 4
(1) A4B3 (2) AB2 (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) A2B3 (4) AB3 (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
80. The most symmetrical crystal system is
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) Monoclinic (2) Rhombohedral
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) Tetragonal (4) Cubic
88. If in the solution the A-B interactions are stronger
81. In which of the following crystals the anion has than A-A and B-B interactions then which among
maximum coordination number? the following is incorrect regarding A-B solution?
(1) NaCl (2) ZnS
(1) Hmix < 0
(3) CaF2 (4) Na2O
(2) PA  PA XA
82. The number of tetrahedral void(s) present on one
of the body diagonal in CCP structure is (3) Vmix < 0
(1) 8
(3) 1
(2) 4
(4) 2
(
(4) Ptotal = PA X A + PB XB )
83. Fe3O4 is an example of 89. The solution showing negative deviation from
(1) Diamagnetic substance Raoult’s Law is

(8)
One Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_P1_Code-E)

(1) Chlorobenzene and bromobenzene 94. 31 g of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) is mixed with
(2) Ethanol and water 500 g of water. Freezing point of the solution is
(Kf of water is 1.86 K Kg mol–1)
(3) n-hexane and n-Heptane
(1) –2.79°C (2) –1.86°C
(4) Phenol and aniline
(3) –3.72°C (4) –0.93°C
90. Relative lowering of vapour pressure is given by
95. The solution having lesser osmotic pressure than
(n is moles of solute, N is moles of solvent)
the reference solution is called
n n+N (1) Isotonic solution (2) Hypotonic solution
(1) (2)
N+n n (3) Hypertonic solution (4) Ideal solution
N–n n 96. van’t Hoff factor of Hg2Cl2 in its aqueous solution
(3) (4)
n N–n will be (Hg2Cl2 is 80% ionised in solution)
91. The graph represents (1) 3.6 (2) 2.6
(3) 4.6 (4) 1.6
97. Which of the following gas does not obey Henry’s
law when dissolved in water?
(1) He (2) Ne
(3) O2 (4) NH3
98. If same amount of a compound (non-electrolyte)
is dissolved in 1 kg of each of the given solvents,
(1) Ideal solution then depression is freezing point is maximum for

(2) Maximum boiling azeotrope Solvent Kf/K kg mol–1

(3) Non-ideal solution having negative deviation Water 1.86
(4) Non-ideal solution having positive deviation Ethanol 1.99
92. Colligative property among the following is
Cyclohexane 20.00
(1) Boiling point
Benzene 5.12
(2) Freezing point
(1) Water (2) Ethanol
(3) Vapour pressure
(3) Cyclohexane (4) Benzene
(4) Osmotic pressure
99. Statement-I: Effective number of atoms in ccp is
93. Molal depression constant is calculated by (R and
4.
M1 are gas constant and molar mass of solvent;

Tf → freezing point of solvent) Statement-II: Packing fraction of hcp is
3 2
R  M1  Tf
(1) K f = Choose correct option.
1000   fusH
(1) Both statement I and II are true
R  M1  Tf2 (2) Both statement I and II are false
(2) K f =
1000   fusH (3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
 fusH  1000 (4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) K f =
R  M1  Tf 100. Which among the following will have the highest
osmotic pressure?
 fusH  1000 (1) 0.05 M urea solution
(4) K f =
R  M1  Tf2 (2) 0.01 M urea solution
(3) 0.01 M glucose solution
(4) 0.001 M glucose solution

(9)
Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_Code-E_Phase-1) One Year Medical - 2023

BOTANY

SECTION-A 107. Both Chara and Marchantia

(1) Have motile male and motile female gametes
101. Choose the incorrect statement among the (2) Are monoecious
following
(3) Have multicellular sex organs
(1) Crow and parrot has different life spans
(4) Have antheridiophore
(2) Mango has shorter life span as compared to 108. Read the following statements.
peepal
Statement-I: In a few algae, fusing gametes are
(3) Life span is not specific trait of organism morphologically distinct type.
(4) No individual is immortal except unicelled Statement-II: In angiosperms, the pollen grains
organisms are the carrier of male gametes.
102. Asexual reproduction Choose the correct option.
(1) Is uniparental (1) Only statement-I is incorrect
(2) Only statement-II is correct
(2) Can involve gametic fusion
(3) Both the statement are correct
(3) Involves syngamy
(4) Both the statement are incorrect
(4) Is a complex process
109. If the chromosome number in meiocyte of apple
103. Select the wrongly matched pair. is 34, what will be the chromosome number in its
(1) Buds : Hydra gamete?
(2) Budding : Yeast (1) 51 (2) 34
(3) Conidia : Penicillium (3) 17 (4) 12
110. Select the incorrect match.
(4) Zoospore : Non-motile spore
(1) Fertilized ovule : Seed
104. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. the plant
also called “Terror of Bengal”. (2) Pericarp : Fruit wall
(3) Embryo : Progenitor of the next
(1) It drains oxygen from water body, like pond
generation
(2) It was introduced in India because of its
(4) Angiosperms : Isogametes
beautiful flowers
111. The two lobes of a typical anther are attached to
(3) Fast growth of this plant promotes growth of each other by a band of sterile tissue called
fishes (1) Theca (2) Connective
(4) It is found growing in standing water (3) Sporangium (4) Axis
105. Mark odd one w.r.t. monocarpic plant. 112. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. anther wall
(1) Wheat (2) Bamboo layers.
(3) Henbane (4) Jackfruit (1) Epidermis is outermost and single layered
(2) Endothecium helps in dehiscence of anther
106. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option. (3) Middle layer degenerates at maturity

[A] Sexual reproduction involves meiosis and (4) Tapetal cells are without nucleus
syngamy. 113. Mark the incorrect one w.r.t. pollen grains.
[B] Sexual reproduction is a rapid, elaborate and (1) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients
complex process. (2) Pollen grains of wheat remain viable for 30
minutes
(1) Only [A] is correct
(3) Pollen grains can be stored for years in liquid
(2) Only [B] is correct nitrogen for use in plant breeding
(3) Both [A] and [B] are correct (4) Pollen viability does not depend on
(4) Both [A] and [B] are incorrect temperature

(10)
One Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_P1_Code-E)

114. Select the incorrect match. 119. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option.
(1) Megasporangium : Ovule
(A) An ovary has many ovules in orchids.
(2) Vegetative cell of : Has many small
(B) In 60% flowering plants, shedding of pollen
pollen grain nuclei grain takes place at three-celled stage.
(3) Generative cell : Spindle shaped (1) Only (A) is incorrect
pollen grain (2) Only (B) is incorrect
(4) Microspore : First cell of male (3) Both (A) and (B) are correct
gametophyte gametophyte
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect
115. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. exine of 120. Mark the odd one w.r.t. ploidy level.
pollen grain. (1) Funicle
(1) It has taxonomic significance (2) Megaspore mother cell
(2) It is made up of sporopollenin (3) Embryo sac
(3) It has prominent aperture called germ pores (4) Nucellus
(4) It is the inner layer of sporoderm 121. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. angiosperm.
116. A typical angiosperm anther is (1) Egg cell : Shows cytoplasmic
(1) Bilobed with each lobe have two theca (2) Co-operative : Filiform apparatus
(2) Tetralobed with each lobe have four theca cells

(3) Bilobed with each lobe have four theca (3) Intine of : Cellulose and
pollen pectin
(4) Tetragonal structure with two microsporangia
(4) Secondary : Haploid
117. Read the following statements and state them nucleus
true (T) or false (F) and choose the correct
122. An angiospermic plant has 12 chromosomes in
option.
its root cells. The number of chromosomes
A. Pollen grains are generally about 25-50 present in its integument and endosperm will be
micrometers in diameter. respectively
B. Ploidy level of the cells in microspore tetrad is (1) 18 and 6 (2) 6 and 18
haploid. (3) 12 and 18 (4) 12 and 6
A B 123. Date palm and papaya permit
(1) F F (1) Autogamy but not geitonogamy
(2) T F (2) Geitonogamy but not autogamy
(3) T T (3) Geitonogamy as well as xenogamy
(4) F T (4) Xenogamy only
118. Read the following statements. 124. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma in
a single cucurbit plant is
(i) Monosporic embryo sac is the most common
type of embryo sac in angiospermic plants. (1) Xenogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(ii) Usually functional megaspore is present at
the chalazal end. (3) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
(iii) In 80% flowering plants, a single megaspore (4) Autogamy and xenogamy
forms an embryo sac. 125. Presence of large feathery stigma in flowers is a
characteristic feature of _________ pollinated
(iv) The gynoecium of Papaver is apocarpous.
flowers.
The correct statements w.r.t. angiosperms are
Fill in the blank with correct option.
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(1) Water (2) Wind
(3) (i) and (iv) only (4) (i), (iii) and (iv) (3) Insect (4) Wasp

(11)
Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_Code-E_Phase-1) One Year Medical - 2023
126. An ovule is a small structure attached to the 132. Choose an incorrect statement w.r.t.
placenta by means of stalk called megasporogenesis in angiosperms.
(1) Hilum (2) Funicle (1) Megaspore mother cell contains prominent
(3) Chalaza (4) Integument nucleus

127. Read the following statements and choose the (2) Megaspore mother cell undergoes
correct option. reductional division to form megaspore tetrad
(3) Four megaspore mother cells take part in
(A) The proximal end of filament of stamen
development of female gametophyte
remains attached to thalamus or the petal of
the flower. (4) Megaspore mother cell contains dense
cytoplasm
(B) A group of compactly arranged homogenous
cells occupies the centre of each 133. Select the incorrect match.
microsporangium is called sporogenous (1) Helper cells : Characterised by
tissue. filiform apparatus
(1) Only (A) is correct
(2) Vegetative cell : Abundant food
(2) Both (A) and (B) are is incorrect of pollen grain reserve
(3) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(3) Central cell : Largest cell of
(4) Only (A) is incorrect embryo sac
128. The plant which came into India as a contaminant
(4) Synergid cell : Has two nuclei
with wheat causes ‘pollen allergy’ is
134. Which of the following adaptations in flower does
(1) Amaranthus (2) Parthenium
not favour self-pollination?
(3) Chenopodium (4) Hibiscus
(1) Bisexuality (2) Cleistogamy
129. Pollen grains are viable for several months in
(3) Dioecy (4) Homogamy
members of
135. Long, ribbon-like pollen grains is a feature of
(1) Leguminosae and Poaceae
(1) Maize (2) Water lily
(2) Rosaceae and Poaceae
(3) Sea-grass (4) Water hyacinth
(3) Poaceae and Liliaceae
SECTION-B
(4) Solanaceae and Rosaceae
136. Find the incorrect match.
130. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) Fertilisation : Syngamy
correct option w.r.t. flowering plants.
(2) Zygote : Most vital link that ensures
(i) Carpels are free from each other in Michelia.
continuity of species
(ii) Megasporangia arise from the placenta.
(3) Isogamete : Cladophora
(iii) Hilum is the junction between micropyle and
(4) Pollen sac : Megasporangium
funicle.
137. How many nuclei in a mature embryo sac are
(iv) Wheat contains a single ovule in its ovary.
separately surrounded by walls?
The correct statements are.
(1) Eight
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(2) Six
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) Five
131. The egg apparatus of angiospermic embryo sac
(4) Three
consists of
138. Find the incorrect match.
(1) Two synergids and one antipodal cell
(1) Offset : Water hyacinth
(2) Two antipodals and one synergid
(2) Leaf bud : Bryphyllum
(3) Two polar nuclei and one egg cell
(3) Rhizome : Ginger
(4) Two synergids and one egg cell
(4) Sucker : Potato

(12)
One Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_P1_Code-E)

139. Choose the correct option w.r.t. monoecious 146. Read the following statements and state True(T)
plants. or False(F).
(1) Maize and papaya [A] Angiosperms exhibit double fertilisation
(2) Cucurbits and coconut because two fusion events occur in the
embryo sac.
(3) Date palm and papaya
[B] Development of endosperm precedes
(4) Coconut and date palm
development of the embryo in angiosperms.
140. Bulbil is a vegetative propagule of
[C] Embryos of monocotyledons have a single
(1) Banana (2) Agave cotyledon.
(3) Ginger (4) Sugarcane [D] Apomixis is found only in some dicots in
141. Choose the correct option w.r.t. organisms that which seeds do not have embryo.
show clear-cut distinction among different phases Select the correct option.
of life. [A] [B] [C] [D]
(1) Wheat, Mango (1) T T F F
(2) Wheat, Rice (2) F T F F
(3) Radish, Apple (3) T T T F
(4) Carrot, Jackfruit (4) F F F T
142. In monocot seed the embryonal axis has the 147. Function of filiform apparatus is to
radical and root cap enclosed in an (1) Recognise the suitable pollen at stigma
undifferentiated sheath called
(2) Stimulate division of generative cell
(1) Hypocotyl
(3) Produce nectar and attract pollinator
(2) Coleoptile
(4) Guide the entry of pollen tube
(3) Coleorrhiza
148. Choose the incorrect statement.
(4) Epicotyl
(1) In many algae and fungi, there is shift from
143. Which of the following layers of anther wall asexual to sexual reproduction before the
nourishes the developing pollen grains? onset of unfavourable conditions
(1) Middle layer (2) Development of embryo from zygote is called
(2) Endothecium embryogeny
(3) Sporogenous tissue (3) Homogametes are morphologically distinct
(4) Tapetum type of gametes

144. The parasitic plant that contains large number of (4) Meiocytes are specialised cells which
seeds in its fruits is undergo meiosis

(1) Orobanche 149. Select the correct option w.r.t. pistil of Papaver.
(1) It is multicarpellary
(2) Date palm
(2) It is bicarpellary
(3) Papaya
(3) it does not have any carpel
(4) Citrus
(4) It is sterile whorl of flower
145. Select the common characteristic for wind and
water pollinated flowers? 150. Some seeds are called perispermic seeds
because they have
(1) Female flower with very long pedicel
(1) Persistent integument
(2) Flowers with well exposed stamens
(2) Very soft seed coat
(3) Mucilagenous covering around pollen grain
(3) Persistent nucellus
(4) Flowers are not very colourful and do not
produce nectar (4) Antipodal cell at micropylar end

(13)
Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_Code-E_Phase-1) One Year Medical - 2023

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A C : Sexual reproduction in organisms generally

involve the fusion of gametes from two
151. The approximate life span of parrot is
different species.
(1) 15 years (2) 140 years
(1) A and B only (2) B and C only
(3) 60 years (4) 20 years
(3) A and C only (4) A, B and C
152. Select the incorrect statement from the
160. The testis in the human male is enclosed in a
following.
protective pouch called
(1) The period from birth to natural death of an
(1) Scrotum (2) Isthmus
organism represents its life span.
(2) Reproduction is a biological process in which (3) Tunica media (4) Pleura
an organism gives rise to young ones 161. Cell division is itself a mode of reproduction in
different to itself. (1) Hydra (2) Spongilla
(3) Haploid parent produces gametes by mitotic (3) Amoeba (4) Rana
division.
162. Post-fertilisation events include
(4) Old age ultimately leads to death.
(1) Formation of gametes or gametogenesis
153. The end of juvenile phase marks the beginning of
(2) Gamete transfer
(1) Vegetative phase (2) Reproductive phase
(3) Formation of embryo from zygote
(3) Senescence (4) Death
(4) Syngamy
154. How many chromosomes are present in gamete
163. The normal temperature of human testis is
of dog?
around
(1) 78 (2) 38
(1) 39°C (2) 37°C
(3) 19 (4) 39
(3) 38°C (4) 35°C
155. Oestrus cycle occurs in females of
164. The length of testis in an adult human male is
(1) Primate mammals about
(2) Non-primate mammals (1) 4-5 cm (2) 2-3 cm
(3) Monkey and apes (3) 4-5 mm (4) 2-3 mm
(4) Invertebrates
165. The first movements of the foetus and
156. Which of the following is not a seasonal breeder? appearance of hair on head are usually observed
a. Humans b. birds during the_____ of pregnancy
c. Dogs Choose the option to fill the blank correctly.
Select the correct option. (1) 3rd month (2) 5th month
(1) a only (2) a and b only (3) 7th month (4) 1st month
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c 166. Correct sequence of path of sperm in the human
157. Multiple fission can be observed in male reproductive tract is
(1) Amoeba (2) Yeast (1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testes → Vasa
(3) Euglena (4) Hydra efferentia → Epididymis
158. Exogenous budding as a means of asexual (2) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia →
reproduction occurs in Rete testes → Epididymis
(1) Rana (2) Hydra (3) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testes →
(3) Aurelia (4) Amoeba Epididymis → Vasa efferentia
159. Read the following statements and select the (4) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia →
correct option. Epididymis → Rete testes
A : Life spans of organisms are not necessarily 167. Select the odd one w.r.t. paired male accessory
correlated with their sizes. glands.
B : Clones are the result of asexual (1) Prostate gland (2) Seminal vesicle
reproduction. (3) Bulbourethral gland (4) Cowper’s gland

(14)
One Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_P1_Code-E)

168. Internal fertilisation occurs in all of the following 177. The duct that opens at the nipple of mammary
animals, except gland is
(1) Scoliodon (2) Lizard (1) Mammary duct (2) Ampulla
(3) Frog (4) Pigeon (3) Lactiferous duct (4) Mammary tubule
169. Which of the following is found in post-ovulatory 178. Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due
phase of menstrual cycle? to significant increase in a hypothalamic hormone
(1) Tertiary follicle (2) Secondary follicle named
(3) Graffian follicle (4) Corpus luteum (1) GnRH (2) FSH
170. Read the statements A and B carefully. (3) LH (4) PRH
A : Leydig cells synthesize and secrete testicular 179. Middle piece of sperm possesses numerous ‘X’
hormones called androgens into the blood. that provides energy required for its motility.
B : Leydig cells majorly line the seminiferous Select the correct option for ‘X’.
tubules. (1) Nucleus (2) Mitochondria
Choose the correct option. (3) Centriole (4) Acrosome
(1) Both the statement A and B are correct. 180. A normal human ejaculates 200-300 million
(2) Both the statement A and B are incorrect. sperms per ejaculation. For normal fertility, at
(3) Only statement A is correct. least what percentage of sperms must have
(4) Only statement B is correct. normal shape and size?
171. In the human ovary, which of the following (1) 40% (2) 60%
structure is responsible to release ovum? (3) 20% (4) 75%
(1) Primary follicle 181. The type of follicle in the human ovary which
(2) Secondary follicle contains the secondary oocyte is
(3) Tertiary follicle (1) Primary follicle (2) Secondary follicle
(4) Mature graffian follicle (3) Graafian follicle (4) Corpus luteum
172. In humans, fallopian tubes are mainly the site of 182. Menstruation occurs due to fall in the level of
(1) Gametogenesis (2) Fertilisation (1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone
(3) Ejaculation (4) Embryogenesis (3) Cortisol (4) Prolactin
173. Copulatory structure in human female is 183. The number of primary follicles left in each ovary
(1) Vagina (2) Cervix at the time of puberty is around
(3) Fallopian tubes (4) Isthmus (1) 60,000–80,000 (2) 1,20,000–1,60,000
174. The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is (3) 1 million–2 million (4) 6000–8000
(1) Infundibulum (2) Ampulla 184. Identify the labelled structure ‘X’ in the given
(3) Isthmus (4) Cervix diagram of sectional view of ovary.

175. Clitoris is considered as a part of

(1) External genitalia in male
(2) Vagina
(3) External genitalia in female
(4) Cervix
176. The outermost layer of uterine wall among the (1) Primary follicle (2) Tertiary follicle
following is (3) Graafian follicle (4) Corpus luteum
(1) Myometrium 185. The luteal phase in 28 days of menstrual cycle
(2) Endometrium lasts for about
(3) Perimetrium (1) 6–8 days (2) 16–18 days
(4) Isthmus (3) 14 days (4) 3–5 days

(15)
Term Exam Test - 1 (OYMO_Code-E_Phase-1) One Year Medical - 2023
SECTION-B 193. The term cleavage refers to
186. Which of the following hormone attains two peaks (1) Embedding of blastocyst in endometrium
during menstrual cycle in human females? (2) Mitotic divisions in zygote
(1) Estrogen (2) FSH (3) Release of hormones from placenta
(3) LH (4) Progesterone (4) Check of polyspermy
187. Pre-ovulatory surge of which hormone mainly 194. FSH acts on _____ and stimulate secretion of
induces rupture of Graafian follicle for ovulation? some factors required for spermiogenesis
(1) Progesterone (2) Estrogen Select the correct option to fill in the blank to
(3) LH (4) FSH complete the statements.

188. Which of the following events occurs just after (1) Leydig cells
follicular phase of menstrual cycle? (2) Spermatocytes
(1) Shedding of the endometrium (3) Sertoli cells
(2) Decline in level of progesterone (4) Interstitial cells
(3) Rupturing of Graafian follicle 195. In humans, the entry of sperm into the secondary
oocyte
(4) Rise in levels of FSH
(1) Promotes the polyspermy
189. In the absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum
degenerates that causes (2) Causes degeneration of corona radiata
(1) Increase in levels of oestrogen (3) Causes completion of meiosis I and release
of first polar body
(2) Fall in progesterone levels
(4) Is responsible for release of second polar
(3) Fall in FSH level
body
(4) Rupturing of Graffian follicles 196. The foetus develops limbs and digits by the end
190. In a female, oogonia are____ cells that increase of
in number by____ (1) 3rd week (2) 8th week
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (3) 20th week (4) 34th week
respectively.
197. Which of the following is given to induce labour?
(1) Diploid and mitosis (2) Diploid and meiosis
(1) Oxytocin (2) Prolactin
(3) Haploid and meiosis (4) Haploid and mitosis
(3) Oestrogen (4) Progesterone
191. The menstrual phase in human females is just
198. The average duration of human pregnancy is
followed by the
about
(1) Follicular phase (2) Luteal phase
(1) 7 months (2) 12 months
(3) Secretory phase (4) Ovulatory phase
(3) 5 months (4) 9 months
192. First polar body released during oogenesis differs
199. How many spermatozoa will be produced from
from second polar body in two secondary spermatocytes?
a. Ploidy (1) Two (2) Three
b. Number of chromosomes contained in (3) Four (4) Eight
nucleus
200. Vigorous contractions of the uterus at the end of
c. Time of release pregnancy causes expulsion of the foetus. This
Select the correct option. process of delivery of the foetus is called
(1) a only (2) b and c only (1) Parturition (2) Lactation
(3) c only (4) a and c only (3) Implantation (4) Gestation

❑ ❑ ❑

(16)