Engineeiing ｓ･ｲｾ｣ｳ＠ Examination-20f ｾ＠

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Test Booklet Ser ies

Serial No.
l TEST BOOKLET
ELECTRI CAL ENGINEERING PAPER- II

[Time Allowed : '/Wo Hours

A
( Maximum Marks : 200 J

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I. When a transfo rmer is first energiz ed, the 5.
transient current during first few cycles is :
(a) Less than full load current
(b) Equal to full load current
(c) Equal to no load current
(d) Much higher than full load current
2. For power transfo rmers of larger ratings,
the tapping s are located in the middle
portion of the winding to :
(a) Increase the break-d own strengt h of 6.
the windin g insulati on
(b) Enable better cooling of the windings
(c) Enable better di stributi on of inter-
tum voltage
(d) Reduc e the mecha nical forces
affecting tbe winding s during short-
circuits
3. Tappin gs are normal ly provide d on the
high voltage winding of a transformer only,
because :
(a) lt has larger number of turns which
allows smooth er variation of voltage 7.
(b) It has to handle low current s
(c) It is easily accessi ble physically
(d) It has larger number of turns, has to
handle low currents and is also easily
accessi ble physically
4. Short ci rcuit test is perform ed on a
transfo rm er with a certain impres sed
voltage at rated frequency. If the short 8.
circuit test is now performed with the same
magnitude of impressed voltage , but at a
frequency higher than the rated frequency,
then tbe magnit ude of current :
(a) And power- factor will both increas e
(b) Will decreas e but the power factor
will increas e
(c) Will increas e, but power factor will
decreas e
(d) And power factor will both decrease
2 (Contd. )
0
The impeda nce of a 6/Y, II 000 V/400 V,
transfo rmer of capacit y I 00 kVA, on its
name plate data base is (0.02 + j0.07) p.u.
The ohmic impeda nce p.u. phase referred
to the prirhary (II 000 V) side is :
(a) (0.02 + j 0.07) Q
{b) (0.55 + j 1.925) Q
(c) (42 + j 147) Q
(d) (72.6 + j 254.1) Q
A 2000 kVA, single-p hase transfo rmer is
in circuit continu ously. For 8 hours in a
day, the load is 160 kW at 0.8 pf. For
6 hours, the load is 80 kW at unity pf and
for the period remain ing out of 24 hours,
it runs on no-load. If the full-load copper
losses are 3.02 k W, the total copper losses
in 24 hours are :
(a) 35.62 kW
(b) 24.16 kW
(c) 11.46 kW
(d) 38.40 kW
A 50 kVA transfo rmer has a core loss of
500 W and full-load core loss of 900 W.
The load at which the effici e ncy is
maximu m is:
(a) 27.45 kVA
(b) 37.75 kVA
(c) 45.5 kVA
(d) 47.5 kVA
For a two-winding power transformer, with
the effects of the no- load current being
neglected, the ' Voltage Regula tion' can
be zero at load, when the load power-
factor is :
(a) Lagging only
(b) Leadin g only
(c) Either lagging or leading , depend ing
upon power rating of tbe transfor mer
(d) Unity
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 9. The ratio of primary/secondary voltages 12. Two single-phase 100 kVA transformers,
is 2 : I. The saving in terms of weig ht of each having different leakage impedances
copper required if an autot ransf orme r is
are connected in parallel. When a load of
used instead of a two-winding transformer
150 kVA at 0.8 power factor lagging is
will be :
applied :
(a) 95%
(a) Both trans form ers will operate at
(b) 66.7%
power factor more than 0.8 lagging
(c) 50%
(b) Both trans form ers will opera te at
(d) 33 .3%
power factor less than 0.8 lagging
I 0. Cons ider the follo wing state ment s (c) One of the transformers will operate
concerning the utility of mesh-connected
at power factor more than 0.8 lagging
tertiary winding,s in star-star transformers :
and other will operate at power factor
I. It is used to supp ress harm onic
less than 0.8 lagging
voltages
(d) Both trans form ers will opera te at
2. It is used to allow flow of earth fault
identical powe r factors
current for operation of protective
devices 13. A triangular mmf wave is produced in
3. It facilitates supply of singl e-pha se the air-gap of an electric machine. Such
loads a wave is produced by :
4. It provides low-reactance paths for
(a) Stator of an induction machine
zero sequence currents
(b) Rotor of a synchronous machine
Whic h of these statements are corre ct ?
(c) Stator of a de machine
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) (d) Rotor of a de machine
I. 2 and 3 only
(c) I, 2 and 4 only 14. At 1200 rpm the induced emf of a de
(d) 3 and 4 only machine is 200 V. For an armature current

II . The most essential condition for parallel of 15 A the elect roma gneti c torqu e

operation of two 1-41 transformers is that produced would be :

they should have the same : (a) 23.8 N-m
(a) kVA rating (b) 238 N-m
(b) Percentage impedance (c) 2000 N-m
(c) Polarity (d) 3000 N-m
(d) Voltage ratio

3 (Contd.)
0

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15. A 4-pole lap wound de generator has a 18. Consider the following statements :
developed power of P watt and voltage The armature reaction mmf in a de machine
of E volt. Two adjacent brushes of the is :
machine are removed as they are worn
I. Stationary with respect to the field
out. If the machine oper ates with the
poles
remaining brushes, the developed voltage
and power that can be obtained frQm the 2. Rotating with respect to the field poles
machine are : 3. Rotating with respect to the arn1ature
(a) E and P Which of these statements are correct ?
(b) E/2 and P/2 (a) I, 2 and 3
(c) E and P/4 (b) l and 2 only
(d) E and P/2
(c) 1 and 3 only
16. A 6-pole de armature has simplex lap- (d) 2 and 3 only
connected 720 conductors, 3 turns per coil
and 4 coil-sides per slot. Determine the 19. In case of de motor, maximum mechanical
number of slots in the armature and state pow er is deve lope d when back emf
whether equalizers can be employed or equals :
not. (a) The applied voltage
(a) 60 slots and Not Possible (b) Half the applied voltage
(b) 30 slots and Possible
(c) One third of the applied voltage
(c) 60 slots and Possible
(d) Double the applied voltage
(d) 30 slots and Not Possi ble
20. The induced emf of a de machine running
17. Oetennine the flux per pole for 6-po1e de
at 750 rpm is ｾＲＰ＠ V. The percentage
machine havi ng 240 wave conn ected
increase in field flux for generating an
conductors, which generates an open circuit
voltage of 500 volt, which is running at induced emf of 250 V at 700 rpm would
1000 rpm. be :
(a) 0.129 Wb (a) 7%
(b) 0.021 Wb (b) 11.25%
(c) 0.042 Wb (c) 21.7%
(d) 7 mWb (d) 42.4%

4 (Con td.)
0

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21 . 1be speed of a sepamtely excited de motor
is varied by varying the armature voltage
in the range zero to base speed and by
varying the field current above the base
speed. It is suitable for constan1 :
(a) Torque drive at all speeds
(b) Power drive at all speeds
(c) Torque drive till base speed and
constant power drive beyond base
speed
(d) Power drive till base speed and
constant torque drive beyond base
speed
22. A de shunt motor is required to drive a
constant power load at rated speed while
drawing rated armature current. Neglecting
satumtion and all machine losses, if both
the terminal voltage and the field current
of the machine are halved then :
(a) The speed becomes 2 pu but armature
current remains at I pu
(b) The speed remains at I pu but
armature current becomes 2 pu
(c) Both speed and armature current
become 2 pu
(d) Both speed and armature current
remain at I pu
23. The de series motor is best s uited for
traction work, because :
(a) Torque is proportional to the square
of armature current and speed is
inversely proportional to torque
(b) Torque is proportional to the square
of armature current and speed is
directly proportional to torque
(c) Both torque and speed are
proportional to the square of armature
current
(d) Torque is proportional to armature
current and speed is inversely
proportional to torque
5 (Contd.)
0
24. A 3-phase synchronous motor with constant
excitation is driving a certain load drawing
electric power from inftnite bus at leading
power factor. If the shaft load decreases :
(a) The power angle decreases while
power factor increases
(b) The power angle increases while
power factor decreases
(c) Both power angle and power factor
increase
(d) Both power angle and power factor
decrease
25. The maximum power delivered by 1500 kW.
3-phase, star-connected, 4 kV, 48 pole
50 Hz synchronous motor, with
synchronous reactance of 4 n per phase
and unity power factor :
(a) 4271.2 kW
.(b) 3505 kW
(c) 1206.1 kW
(d) 2078 kW
26. Consider the following statements
regarding synchronous machines :
I. When a synchronous motor is over-
excited, its back emf is greater than
the supply voltage
2. When a synchronous motor is over-
excited, its power factor is leading
3. Synchronous motor is used as
capacitor where load is so large that
construction of a static capacitor is
impractical
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and 2 only
(b) I and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) I, 2 and 3
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27. In TV transmission, picture signal is 30. A binary channel with capacity of 36 kbitsl
amplitude modulated and sound signal is sec is available for PCM voice
frequency modulated. This is done transmission. If signal is band limited to
3.2 kHz, then the appropriate values of
because :
quantizing level L and the sampling
(a) It is not possib le to frequency frequency respectively are :
modulate the picture signal (a) 32 and 3.6 kHz
(b) 64 and 7.2 kHz
(b) Band width requirement is minimized
(c) 64 and 3.6 kHz
(c) Sound signal is more susceptible to
(d) 32 and 7.2 kHz
noise than picture signal
31. A 8-bit AID convertor is used over a span
(d) Synchronization of picture frames
of zero to 2.56 V. l11e binary representation
becomes easier of 1.0 V signal is :
(a) Oil 001 00
28. A system has a receiver noise resistance
(b) 011 100 01
of 50 Q. It is connected to an antenna
(c) 101 001 Ol
with an output resistance of 50 Q. The (d) 101 000 10
noise figure of the system is :
32. RF carrier 10 kV at I MHz is amplitude
(a) modulated and modulation index is 0.6.
(b) 2 Peak voltage of the signal is :
(a) 600 kV
(c) 50
(b) 1200 kV
(d) 10 I
(c) 6 kV
(d) 10 kV
29. The power gain of an antenna using
paraboloid reflector is directly proportional 33. Output data ratio of a 8-bit PCM-TDM
to : system sampling 24 voice channels,
comparing these using 11-law at the rate
(a) Mouth diameter of 8 kHz and with a I frame alignment
(b) Wavelength word, is :

(c) Aperture ratio (a) 1.2 X I 06 bits/sec

(b) 1.4 )( l 06 bits/sec
(d) Square of aperture ratio
(c) 1.6 X I 0 6 bits/sec
(d) 1.8 X l 06 bits/sec

6 (Contd.)
0

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34. 24 voice channels are sampled uniformly 38. The incremental cost characteristics of two
at a rate of 8 kHz and then time division generators delivering 200 MW are as
multiplexed. Tite sampling process uses follows :
flat-top samples with 1 llS duration. The
multiplexi ng operation includes provision dF.
- 2 = l.6+0.02P2
of synchronization by adding an exua pulse dP2
of I llS duration. The spacing between For economic operation the generation P
successive pulses of the multiplexe d signal 1
and P2 should be :
is :
(a) 100 MW and 100 MW
(a) 4 llS
(b) 6 llS (b) 80 MW and 120 MW
(c) 7.2 llS (c) 200 MW and 100 MW
(d) 8.4 llS (d) 120 MW and 80 MW

35. A signal is passed through a LPF with 39. No load test was conducted on a three
cut-off frequency I 0 kHz. The minimum phase induction motor at different input
sampling frequency is :
voltages and the input power obtained was
(a) 5kHz
plotted against the input voltage. The inter-
(b) 10kHz
(c) 20kHz section of the extrapolat ed curve on the
(d) 30kHz Y-axis, would give :
(a) Rated core loss
36. The main advantage of time division
multiplex ing (TDM) over frequency (b) Windage and friction loss
division multiplexi ng (FDM) is that it : (c) Rated copper loss
(a) Requires less bandwidth
(d) Rated core loss and Windage and
(b) Requires less power
friction loss
(c) Requires simple c ircuitry
(d) Provide better signal-to-n oise ratio
40.. A power generating station has a maximum
37. The advantage of hydro-elec tric power demand of lOOO MW. The annual load
station over thermal power station is : factor is 75% and plant capacity factor is
(a) The initial cost of hydro-ele ctric
60%. Calculate the reserve capacity.
power station is low
(b) The operating cost of hydro-elec tric (a) 250 MW
power station is low (b) 500 MW
(c) Hydro-el ectric power station can (c) 750 MW
supply the power throughout the year
(d) Hydro-ele ctric power station can be (d) 1250 MW
constructed at the place where the
energy is required

7 (Contd.)
0

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41. In order to have lower cost of power 43. The locus of constant received power is
generation : a circle of radius :
(a) The load factor and diversity factor
should be low
(b) The load factor and diversity factor
should be high

(c) The load factor should be low but

diversity factor should be high

(d) The load factor should be high but

diversity factor should be low

42. Consider the following statements :

The calculation performed using short line
44. Consi der the follow ing statem ents
approximate model instead of nomin al-n
regarding convergence of the Newton-
model for a medium length transmission
Raphson procedure :
line delivering lagging load at a given
I. It does not converge to a root when
receiving end voltage always results in
the second differential coefficient
higher : changes sign
I. Sending end current 2. It is preferred when the graph of (X)
2. Sending end power is nearly horizontal where it crosses
3. Regulation the X-axis

4. Efficiency 3. It is used to solve algebraic and

Which of these statements are correct ? transcendental equations

Which of these statements are correc t ?
(a) I and 2 only
(a) I, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) I, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) l, 3 and 4
(d) I and 3 only

8 (Contd.)
D

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45. The Positive, Negative and Zero sequence
per unit impedances of two generators
connected in parallel are X 1 = 0 . 12,
X2 = 0.096 and ｾ＠ = 0.036 pu. For a
L-G fault at generator terminals (with
I pu voltage) the positive sequence current
will be :
(a) 7.936 pu
(b) 11.936 pu
(c) 10.936 pu
(d) 8.936 pu
49. A large ac generator supplying power to
an infinite bus is suddenly short-circuited
at its terminals. Assuming the prime-mover
input and the voltage behind the transient
reactance to remain constant immediately
after the fault, the acceleration of the
generator rotor is :
(a) Inversely proportional to the moment
of inertia of the machine

46. A 50 MVA, II kV, 3-phase generator has (b) Inversely proportional to the square
a stored energy of 400 M .J. Its inertia of the voItage
constant is :
(c) Directly proportional to the square
(a) 4
(b) 8 of the short-circuit current
(c) 2 (d) Directly proportional to the short-
(d) 16 circuit power

47. The steady state stability lim it of a

synchronous machine connected to infinite
50. The regions of operation of a MOSFET
bus is 2.2 pu. Infinite bus voltage is I pu to work as a linear resistor and linear
and synchronous machine voltage is amplifier are :
1.1 pu. The transfer reactance between
generator and infinite bus is : (a) Cut-off and saturation respectively
(a) j 0.5 (b) Triode and Cut-off respectively
(b) - j 0.5
(c) Triode and saturation respectively
(c) j 1.0
(d) -j 1.0 (d) Saturation and Triode respectively

48. Two identical synchronous machines 51. In a BJT, leo = Iceo = 2 1-1A. Given
having same inertia constant are connected
u = 0.99, the value of lcEO is :
in parallel and swinging together. The
effective inertia constant is 4 MJ/MVA. (a) 2 I-lA
Then each machine has an inert ia constant
(b) 99 I-lA
of:
(a) 2 MJ/MVA (c) 198 1-1A
(b) 4 MJ/MVA (d) 200 1-1A
(c) 8 MJ/MVA
(d) 16 MJIMVA

(Contd.)
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52. The 6 V ｚｾｮ･ｲ＠ diode shown in figure has 54. In a synchronous machine the rotor speed
zero Zener resistance and a knee current becomes more than the synchronous speed
of 5 rnA. The minimum value of R, so during hunting, the damping bars develop :
that the voltage across it does not fall (a) Synchronous motor torque
below 6 Vis : (b) DC motor torque
500 (c) Induction motor torque
(d) Induction generator torque

10 v- :- 6V r:\-' R 55. A full-wave rectifier using centre tapped

L
transformer and a bridge rectifier usc
similar diodes and have equal no load
output voltage. Under equal load conditions :
(a) 1.2 kQ
(a) Output of bridge rectifier will be less
(b) son than that of the other
(c) son (b) Output of bridge n.'Ctifier will be more
(d) Zero
than that of the other

53. The following statements refer to an n (c) Output voltage of both will be exactly
channel F ET operated in the active equal
region : (d) Output voltage of anyone may be
I. The gate voltage Vos reverse biases more than that of the other
the junction
2. The drain voltage V00 is negative ｾｩｴｨ＠ 56. A signal may have frequency components
respect to the source which lie in the range of 0.001 Hz to
3. The current in the n channel is due
I 0 Hz. Which one of the following types
to electrons
of couplings should be chosen in a
4. Increasing th e reverse bias Vos
increases the cross section for multistage amplifier designed to amplify
conduction the signal ?
Which of these statements are correct ? (a) RC coupling
(a) I and 2 (b) Direct coupI ing
(b) l and 3
(c) Transformer coupling
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Double tuned transformer
(d) 3 and 4

10 (Contd.}
0
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57. A feedback amplifier is designed with an
amplifier gain of -1000 and feedback of
13 = - 0.1. If the amplifier had a gain change
of 20% due to temperature, the change in
gain of the feedback amplifier is :
(a) 10%
(b) 5%
(c) 0.2%
(d) 0.01%
58. A signal V.,sin (wt + ') is applied to an
amplifier whose gain A is independent of
frequency. The amplifier wi II preserve the
form of the input signal (though with a
delay) if the phase shift ' is :
(a) Constant
(b) Inversely proportional to frequency
(c) Proponional to frequency
(d) Proponional to the square of the
frequency
59. In any function · where micro phone,
amplifier and speakers are used often one
would hear a humming sound, which
increases in volume gradually. This is due
to :
(a) Positive feedback between micro-
phone and speaker
(b) Negative feedback between micro-
phone and speaker
(c) Inadequate frequency response of
amplifier
(d) Noise pickup (50 Hz) from power
supply
II
0
60. The effect of current shunt feedback in
an amplifier is to :
(a) Increase the input resistance and
decrease the output resistance
(b) Increase both input and output
resistance
(c) Decrease both input and output
resistance
(d) Decrease the input resistance and
increase the output resistance
61. An amplifier circuit has an overall current
gain of -100 and an input resistance of
I 0 kQ with a load resistance of I kO.
The overall voltage gain of the amplifier
is :
(a) 5 dB
(b) 10 dB
(c) 20 dB
(d) 40 dB
62. A 4-pole induction motor (main) and a
6-pole motor (auxiliary) are connected in
cumulative cascade. Frequency in the
secondary winding of the auxiliary motor
is observed to be I Hz. For a supply
frequency of 50 Hz the speed of the cascade
set is :
(a) 1485 rpm
(b) 990 rpm
(c) 608 rpm
(d) 588 rpm
(Contd.)
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63. An operational amplifier is connected in 67. Which of the following is correct for a
voltage follower configuration. Input given gated D-type flip flop ?
to this circuit is 3 sin I0 31tt. Compute the (a) The output is either SET or RESET
slew rate of operational amplifier. as soon as the D input goes HIGH
(a) 6n x I0-3 V/j.tsec
or LOW
(b) 31t X J0· 3 Vf!lSeC
(b) The output complement follows the
(c) J.Sn x 10"3 V/j.isec
(d) 1t x 10· 3 VIv.sec input when enabled
(c) Only one of the inputs can be HIGH
64. An OPAMP has a common mode gain of
at a time
0.01 and a differential mode gain of JQS
Its common mode rejection ratio would (d) The output toggles if one of the inputs
be: is held HIGH
(a) 10"'
(b) J0-3 68. Latches constructed with NOR and NAND
(c) I 0 3 gates tend to remain in the latched
(d) 107 condition due to which configuration
feature ?
65. An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 VＯｾｊｳＮ＠
(a) Asynchronous operation
The largest sine wave output voltage
possible at a frequency of I MHz is : (b) Low input voltage
(a) 10 nV (c) Gate impedance
(b) 5 v (d) Cross coupling

(c) ｾｶ＠ 69. How is the speed-power product of a logic

1t
family determined ?
(d) .l....v (a) The propagation delay in s is
21t
multiplied by the power dissipation
66. Consider the following statements : in mW
I. Astable multi vibrator can be used for (b) The propagation delay in ms is
generating square wave multiplied by the power dissipation
2. Bistable multivibrator can be used in mW
for storing binary information (c) The propagation delay in ns is
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct? multiplied by the power dissipation
(a) I only
in mW
(b) 2 only
(d) The propagation delay in ns is
(c) Both 1 and 2
multiplied by the power dissipation
(d) Neither I nor 2
in W
12 (Contd.)
0
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70. The integrated injection logic has higher 73. The Boolean expression :
density of integration Lhan TTL because
F = A+B+C+A+ B+C+
it :
(a) Does not require transistors wilh high A+B+C + ABC
current gain and hence they have · reduces to :
smaller geometry (a) A
(b) Uses bipolar transistor (b) B
(c) Does not requi re isolation diffusion (c) C
(d) Uses dynamic logic instead of static (d) A+ B + C
logic
74. When the output of a tri-state shift register
71. Consider the following statements : is disabled, the output level is placed in
A Darlington emitter-follower circuit js a:
sometimes used in output stage of a TfL (a) Float state
gate in order to : (b) Low state
I. Increase its 10 L (c) High impedance state
2. Reduce its 10 " (d) Float state and a high impedance state
3. Increase speed of operation
4. Reduce power dissipation 75. A programmable ROM has a decoder at
the input and :
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ?
(a) Both these blocks being fully
(a) I and 3
programmable
(b) 2 and 4 (b) Both these blocks being partially
(c) 3 only programmable
(d) I only (c) Only the latter block being pro-
grammable
72. For the box shown the output D is true if
(d) Only the former block being pro-
and only if a majority of the inputs are
grammable
true.
76. Synchronous counters eliminate the delay
A--.1 problems encountered with asynchronous
Input 8 -
(ripple) counter because the :
-+1 1---. D Output
(a) Input clock pulses are applied only
to the first and the last s tages
(b) Input clock pulses are applied only
The Boolean function for the output is : to the last stage
(a) D = ABC + ABC + ABC (c) Jnput clock pulses are not used to
(b) D = ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC activate any of the counter stages
(c) D =ABC + AB + AC + BC (d) Input clock pulses are applied simul-
(d) D = ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC taneously

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77. In a 8085 microprocessor system with
memory mapped 1/0, which of the
following is true ?
(a) Devices have 8-bit address line
(b) Devices are accessed using lN and
OUT instructions
(c) There can be maximum of256 input
devices and 256 output devices
(d) Arithmetic and logic operations can
be directly performed with the 110
data
80. According to Flynn's classification, which
architecture is of only theoretical interest
and no practical system bas been developed
based on it ?
(a) Single Instruction Single Data (SISD)
(b) Single Instruction Multiple Da ta
(SIMD)
(c) Multiple Instruction Single Data
(MISD)
(d) Multiple Instruction Multiple Data
(MIMD)

78. Consider the following statements : 81 . What is the content of accumulator of

8085 11P after the execution ofXRI FO H
Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
instruction ?
I. Perfom1s arithmetic operations
(a) Only the upper nibble of accumulator
2. Performs comparisons is complemented
3. Communicates with I/0 devices (b) Only the lower nibble is complemented
4. Keeps watch on the system (c) Only the upper nibble is reset to zero
Which of these statements are correct ? (d) Only the lower nibble is reset to zero

(a) I, 2, 3 and 4 82. A software delay subroutine is written as

(b) I, 2 and 3 only given below :
(c) I and 2 only DELAY : MVl H, 255 D
(d) 3 and 4 only MVI L, 255 D
LOOP: OCR L
79. The 8085 programming manual says that JNZ LOOP
it takes seven T states to fetch and execute DCR H
the MOV instruction. If the system clock JNZ LOOP
has a frequency of2.5 MHz, how long is How many times OCR L instruction will
an instruction cycle ? be executed ?
(a) 2.8 s (a) 255
(b) 2.5 ns (b) 510
(c) 2.8 ns (c) 65025

(d) 2.8 11S (d) 65279

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83. The content of Accumulator are 7 OH. 86. Find the content of the ac<:umulator after
Initially all flags are zero. What will be the execution of the fo llowing program :
va lues of Cy and S after executing MVI A, FO H
instruction RLC ? ORJ FF H
(a) Cy = 0 and S = 0 XRI FO H
(b) Cy = I and S =I (a) OOH
(b) FOH
(c) Cy • I and S =0
(c) OFH
(d) Cy = 0 and S = I
(d) FFH
84. The difference between 8085 instructions
87. It is desired to multipl y the numbers
RST n and PCHL is :
OA H by OB H and s tore the result in the
(a) RST n is equivalent to a sub-routine accumulator. Tbe numbers are available
call while PCHL is equivalent to in registers B and C respectively. A pan
unconditional branch of the 8085 program for this purpose is
given below :
(b) RST n uses direct addressing while
MVI A, OOH
PCHL uses register indirect addressing
Loop; ............... .
(c) RST n is a software interrupt while
PCHL simulates a hardware interrupt
(d) RST n resets the processor while
HLT END
PCH L restarts the processor
The sequence of in struction to complete
the program would be :
85. The following program starts at location
(a) JNZ LOOP; ADD B; OCR C
OIOOH
(b) ADD B; JNZ LOOP; DCR C
LXI SP, OOFF
(c) DCR C; JNZ LOOP; ADD B
LXI H, 0701
(d) ADD B; DC R C; JNZ LOOP
MVJ A, 20H
88. Assume that the Accumulat or and the
SUB M
register C of 8085 microprocessor contain
The content of accumulator when the respectively FO H and OF H initially. What
program counter reaches 0 I 07 H is : will be the content of Accumulator after
(a) 20 H execution of instruction ADD C ?
(b) 02 H (a) 00 H

(c) 00 H (b) FF H
(c) EF H
(d) FF H
(d) FE H

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89. Cycle-stealing mode of DMA operation 92. A microprocessor based safety control
involves : system installed in a nuclear power plant
(a) OMA controller takes over the must be stress tested under which of the
address, data and control buses while following conditions ?
a block of data is transferred between I. Ageing due to radiation
memory and an 110 device
2. Thermal stresses
(b) While the J.1P is executing a program
3. Seismic vibration
an interface circuit takes over control
4. Inadequate nuclear reactor coolant
of the address, data and control buses
(a) I and 2 only
when not in use by the J.1P
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) Data transfer takes place between the
(c) l, 2 and 3 only
110 device and memory during every
(d) I, 2, 3 and 4
alternate clock cycle
(d) The DMA controller waits for the 93. A carrier wave of frequency 2.5 GHz
J.1P to finish execution of the p rogram amplitude is modulated with two
and then takes over the bus.es modulating frequencies equal to I kHz
and 2 kHz. The modulated wave will have
90. In a microprocessor based system, DMA
the total bandwidth :
facility is required to increase the speed
(a) 6kHz
of the data transfer between the :
(a) Microprocessor and the memory (b) 2kHz

(b) Microprocessor and the 110 devices (c) 4kHz

(c) Memory and the 110 devices (d) 3 kHz

(d) Memory and register 94. In a frequency modulation system,

maximum frequency deviation allowed is
91 . 110 mapped system identify their input/
1000 and modulating frequency is I kHz.
output devices by giving them an :
Determine modulation index J3.
(a) 8 bit port number
(a) 2
(b) 16 bit port number
(b) 2000
(c) 8 bit buffer number
(c) I
(d) 16 bit buffer number
(d) 1000

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95. In an Amplitude Modulated (AM) wave 99. A thyristor has internal power ､ｩｳｰ｡ｴｯｾ＠
with I 00% modulatio n (m), the carrier is of 40 W and is operated at an ambient
suppresse d. The percentag e of power temperature of20°C. 1f thermal resistance
saving wi II be : is 1.6• C/W, the junction temperatu re is :
(a) 100% (a) 114" C
(b) 50%
(b) t64•c
(c) 25%
(c) 94° C
(d) 66.7% (d) 84° c

96. The Nyquist sampling interval, for the 100. Consider the following statements :
signal sinc(700t) + sinc(500t) is : I. A synchrono us motor has no starting
I torque but when started it always runs
(a) -sec at a fixed speed
350
2 . A single-pha se reluctance motor is
1t not self-starting even if paths for eddy
(b) - sec
350 currents are provided in the rotor
3. A single-pha se hysteresis motor is
I
(c) - sec self-startin g
700
Which of these statement(s) isfare correct ?
1t (a) I, 2 and 3
(d) - sec
175 (b) I only
(c) I and 2 only
97. A I 000-W carrier is amplitude-modulated (d) 2 and 3 only
and has a side-band power of 300 W. The
depth of modulatio n is : 101. Con side r the following statemen ts
(a) 0.255 regarding Thyristor :
(b) 0.545 I . It conducts when forward biased and
positive current flows through the gate
{c) 0.775
2 . It conducts when forward biased and
(d) 0.95 negative current flows through the
gate
98. The value of the capacity reactance
obtainable from a reactance FET whose 3. It commutat es when reverse biased
and negative current flows through
g., is 12 ms when the gate-to-so urce
the gate
I 4. ft eommutat es when the gate current
resistance is of the reactance of the
9 is withdrawn
gate-to-drain capacitor at ITequency 5 MHz Which of these statement(s) isfare correct ?
is :
(a) I, 2 and 3
(a) 650 Q
(b) I and 2 only
(b) 750 Q
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 775 n
(d) I only
(d) soo n
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I 02. The averag e output of a semi-c onvert er 105. A 3-phase converter feeds a pure resistance
load at a firing angle of a = 60°. The
connected to a 120 V, SO Hz supply and
. It average value of curren t flowing in the
timng angle of 2 is :
load is I 0 A. If a very large inductance is
(a) 54.02 V connected in the load circuit, then the :
(b) 56.02 v (a) Average value of current will remain
(c) 108.04 V as lOA
(b) Average value of current will become
(d) Zero
greater than I0 A

I 03. Compute the ripple factor of a single phase
full wave rectifier with load resistance
RL • 10 kQ. Forwa rd bias dynam ic
resistance of diodes used is I 00 Q. The
rms voltage across secondary windin g is
330 v.
(a) 4.82
(b) 1.21
(c) 0.482
(d) 0.812
I 04. A 3-phase semi-c onvert er is feeding a
separately excite d de motor at consta nt
(c) Average value of current will become
less than I0 A
(d) Trend of variati on of curren t cannot
be predicted unless the exact value
of the inductance connected is known
106. A PWM switching schem e is used with a
three phase inverter to :
(a) Reduc e the total harmonic distortion
with modest filtering
(b) Minimize the load on the DC side
(c) Increase the life of the batteries
(d) Reduc e low order harmo nics and
increase high order harmonics
I 07. Consider the following statem ents :

field curren t. The motor can operat e in Swi tched mode power suppli es are
prefer red over the contin uous types,
the following condition :
because they are
(a) Speed positive, torque positiv e I. Suitable for use in both ac and de
(b) Speed positive or negative, torque 2. More efficient ·
positive 3. Suitable for low-power circuits
4. Suitable for high-p ower circuits
(c) Speed positiv e, torque positiv e or
negative Which of these statem ents are correc t ?
(a) I and 2
(d) Speed positive or negative, torque
(b) I and 3
positive or negative
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

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Directions :- I 09. Statement (I) I n large de motors
which drive reversing
Each of the neKt THIRTEEN ( JJ) items
rolls of a steel mill and
consists of two statements, one labeled as the in the geoerators which
'Statement (I)' and the other as ' Statement (II)'. supply them. large
fluctuations of currents
You are to eKamine these two statements
cause higher voltages
carefully and select the answers to these items being induced in the
using the codes given below : coils located between
adjacent commutator
Codes: segments. This may
result in the so called
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (11) are
' flash-over ' between
individually true and Statement (II) is the adjacent brushes,
correct explanation of Statement (I) causing a heavy short-
circuit.
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
Statement (11) To counteract the
individuall y true bu t Statement (II) possibilities of a 'flash-
is N OT the co r rect explanati on of over', a 'compensating
winding', which is
Statement (I)
embedded in the slots
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is . on the pole -faces, is
connected in series
false
with the a rmat ure
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is winding, and which
supplies an mmf that
true
magne tizes in the
opposite direction to
108. Statement (I) Large power tra ns- that of the armature
former testing under mmf.
full load current is not
110. Statement (I) The direct-on- line
possible.
(DOL) starter is used
Statement (ll) Short circuit test of to start a s mall de
transformer gives motor.
indication of copper Statement (II) DOL starter limits
loss. initial current drawn
by the armature circuit

(Contd.)

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Ill. Statement (I) Tower to ground 115. Statement (I) Partial memmy address
impedanc e must be decoding can result in
simplified decoding
kept high.
logic.
Statement (II) High impedanc e
Statement (II) Partial decoding causes
produces high voltage
many-to-one mapping
at the insulator disc. of addresses to memory
location.
112. Statement (I) No compensa tion is
needed in HVDC lines, 116. Statement (I} In AM syste m the
unlike EHV-AC system modulati on index
where series and/or (0 < m < 1) should be
shunt compensation is high.
required. Statement (fl) The higher the value
of m the greater is the
Statement (II) ｃ ｨ｡ｲｧｩ ｾ ｮｧ＠ current is
power 10 the s ide
absent in HVDC
bands.
system.

I I 7. Statement (I) The total power in the

113. Statement (I) In push-pull operation original carrier signal
one transistor conducts is redistributed between
only for negative half all the components of
cycle and other for the spectrum of the
positive l1alf cycle. frequency -modulate d
signal.
Statement (II) Class-B power ampli-
fier is fixed in cutoff, Statement (II) The amplitude of the
carrier and the FM signal
which gives non-
remain unchanged.
distorted output.

I 18. Statement (I) MOSFETs are intrin-

114. Statement (I) Program counter is a
sically faster than bi-
register that contains
polar devices.
the address of the next
ins truction to be Statement {II) MOSFETs have excess
executed. minority carrier.

Statement (U) rR (Instruction Register)

is not accessible to
programm er.

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I 19. Statem ent (I) The output current of a 120. Statem ent (I) A forwar d de-to-d e
current source invener conver ter require s a
remains constan t irres- minimu m load at the
pectivc of load. output.
Statement (II) The load voltage m Statement (If) Without minimum load
CSI depend s on the excess output voltage
load impeda nce. can be produced."

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