AITS 2223 CRT I JEEA LD Paper 1

FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

JEE (Advanced)-2023
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – I
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 26-04-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
 The test consists of total 54 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 –06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46): This section contains TWELVE (12) Matching List Type Questions.
Each question has FOUR statements in List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II
entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which, ONLY ONE of
these four options is correct answer.
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2
Physics PART – I
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)

This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
1. The electric field intensity, potential and rate of heat generation per a
unit length are E, V and H at a section distant “a” from left end of a
conical shaped conductor connected to a battery of emf E, as
shown. Find correct options:
(A) H (B) V
E a
(C) E (D) H
a a
2. The radius of the circular loop is ‘a’. Magnetic field is increasing  S  

at the constant rate is . Magnetic field is confined to a
cylindrical region and axis of magnetic field coincides with the
axis of the loop. Resistance per unit length of the wire of loop is
. Choose the correct option (s) P R
a   
(A) Current in the loop PQRS is anticlockwise
2
a
(B) Current in the loop PQRS is clockwise Q
   
(C) Current in the wire PR is zero
a
(D) Current in the wire PR is
2
3. A point object is placed at 30 cm from a convex glass lens (g = 3/2) of focal length 20 cm. The
final image of object will be formed at infinity if
(A) Another concave lens of focal length 60 cm is placed in contact with the previous lens.
(B) The whole system is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 4/3
(C) Another convex lens of focal length 60 cm is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the first lens
(D) The whole system is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 9/8.
4. An arbitrary conductor (grounded) is kept at same distance from a
point charge ‘Q’. Which of the following options are correct?
(A) The magnitude of total charge on the surface of conductor will Q
always be less than Q.
(B) The magnitude of total charge on the surface of conductor can
be greater than or equal to Q. depending on its geometry.
(C) Net charge on the conductor with always be negative, but on
some points on its surface, charge can be positive.
(D) Net charge on the conductor will always be negative and there
can’t be any point on its surface, where charge is positive.
3 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023
5. In a chamber of volume 70 litre, a gas is filled at initial temperature of 77°C and pressure
4.155  105 N/m2. The gas does 8077.5 Joule work by providing heat by a source of constant
power 100 watt for 1 minute and the temperature of the gas decreases by 10°C. Given that gas
constant R = 8.31 J/mole°K. Then
(A) Gas in the chamber is mono atomic (B) Gas in the chamber is diatomic
(C) No. of moles of gas in the chamber is 8 (D) No. of moles of gas in the chamber is 10
6. Lower disc is fixed at its centre, and upper disc is doing pure A Y
rolling over it. Which of the following are correct? 1, 1
 X
 ( R  2R2 )2  ˆ P
(A) a A  (21R1   2R2 )iˆ  12R1  1 1 j C
 R1  R 2  R1
m R1
(B) KE of the upper disc is 312R12  222R22  412R1R2  PA  PC 
4 2
 2 ,  2
(C) L upper disc about O
3  ˆ
  m1R12  m2R22  mR1R2 (1  2 ) ( k) O
 2 
  R2
(D) L upper disc about A  L disc about C
(Given mass of upper disc = m)
[1, 2 : Angular speed of both discs respectively
1, 2 : Angular acceleration of both discs respectively]

This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
7. A wire carrying a 10A current is bent to pass through y

various sides of a cube of side 10cm as shown in figure. A

magnetic field B  (2iˆ  3jˆ  k)
ˆ T is present in the region.
(Take the mass of cube 50gm). Match list-I with list-II)
ListI ListII
(I) magnitude of force on the loop (P) 150  10 2 (SI unit)
(II) magnitude of magnetic moment of loop (Q) 20 10 1 (SI unit)
(III) magnitude of torque on the loop (R) 13  10 2 (SI unit)
(IV) magnitude of acceleration of loop (S) zero
(A) I  S, II  P, III  Q, IV  S (B) I  P, II  S, III  Q, IV  S
(C) I  S, II  P, III  S, IV  Q (D) I  P, II  Q, III  R, IV  S
8. A double slit interference pattern is produced on a screen, as shown in the figure, using
monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm. Point P is the location of the central bright fringe, that
is produced when light waves arrive in phase without any path difference. A choice of three strips
A, B and C of transparent materials with different thicknesses and refractive indices is available,
as shown in the table. These are placed over one or both of the slits, singularly or in conjunction,
causing the interference pattern to be shifted across the screen from the original pattern. In the
list-I, how the strips have been placed, is mentioned whereas in the list–II, order of the fringe at
point P on the screen that will be produced due to the placement of the strip(s), is shown.
Correctly match both the list.
Film A B C
Slit I Thickness (in m) 5 1.5 0.25
Refractive index 1.5 2.5 2
P
Slit II
screen
List–I List–II
(I) Only strip B is placed over slit-I (P) First bright
(II) Strip A is placed over slit-I and strip C is placed over slit – II (Q) Fourth dark
(III) Strip A is placed over slit-I and strip B and strip C are placed (R) Fifth dark
over slit – II in conjunction.
(IV) Strip A and strip C are placed over slit-I (in conjunction) and (S) Central bright
strip B is placed over slit – II
(A) I-R; II-R; III-S; IV-P (B) I-P; II-Q; III-R; IV-S
(C) I-R; II-R; III-P; IV-S (D) I-P; II-Q; III-S; IV-P
9. Figure shows the path of an ice skater beginning from rest at A to rest at M. The heavy dots along
the path indicate the position of the skater every 2s. On the curved path the shown approximate
directions and magnitudes for the tangential and centripetal acceleration of several points by
arrows.
Note: For the given problem if tangential acceleration at two successive points on curve is zero
then it is zero in the entire path between them.
L
K
M
I
H
D E
G
B F
ListI ListII (Region or Point)

(I) Constant speed (P) A to C
(II) No tangential acceleration (Q) D to G
(III) Variable velocity (R) I to J
(IV) Variable magnitude of centripetal acceleration (S) E to G
(T) No where
(A) (I)  (Q, R, S); (II)  (Q, R, S); (III)  (P, Q, R, S); (IV)  (P, Q, R)
(B) (I)  (R, S); (II)  (R, S); (III)  (Q, R, S); (IV)  (Q, R)
(C) (I)  (Q, R); (II)  (Q, R); (III)  (P, Q, R); (IV)  (P, Q)
(D) (I)  (Q, S); (II)  (Q, S); (III)  (P, S); (IV)  (P, R)
10. A conducting sphere of radius a is placed inside a thin

conducting shell of radius 4a. Now a dielectric shell of inner C D
radius 2a and outer radius 3a is placed between sphere B
and shell concentrically. A is the outer surface of the A
sphere, B is the inner surface of the dielectric shell, C is the
a
outer surface of dielectric shell and D is the inner surface of
conducting shell. The charge +q is given to the outer 2a
surface of sphere A.
3a
4a
List –I List –II

(I) Surface A (P) Charge is –q
(II) Surface B (Q) Charge is +q
 1
(III) Surface C (R) Charge is +q  1  
 k
 1
(IV) Surface D (S) Charge is  q  1  
 k
(A) I – S; II – Q; III – R; IV – P (B) I – Q; II – S; III – R; IV – P
(C) I – P; II – R; III – S; IV – Q (D) I – Q; II – R; III – P; IV – S
Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)

This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
11. A small piece of cesium metal ( = 1.9 eV) is kept at a distance of 20 cm from a large metal plate
having a charge density of 1.0  10–9 C/m2 on surface facing the cesium piece. A monochromatic
light of wavelength 400 nm is incident on the cesium piece. Ratio of maximum to minimum kinetic
of the photoelectron reaching the large metal plate is given by k. Then find k.
12. Electromagnetic radiation whose electric component varies with time as

E = C1 (C2  C3 cos t ) cos 0 t , here C1 , C 2 and C3 are constants, is incident on lithium and
19
librates photoelectrons. If the kinetic energy of most energetic electrons be 0.592 × 10 J.
15 14
Given that 0 = 3.6 × 10 rad/sec and  = 6 × 10 rad/sec. Find out the work function of
34
lithium in eV (take planks constant h = 6.6 × 10 MKS).
13. A railway tank wagon with its 2m diameter and 6m long horizontal cylindrical body, half full of
petrol is driven around a curve of radius 100 m, at a speed of 8.33 m/s. The curve runs smoothly
into a straight track and the train maintains a constant speed. If value of nf is 2.3. Find the value
of ‘n’. neglect viscosity and consider petrol as a solid semi cylinder sliding inside the tank. Given:
–1
tan (0.07)  4°.
14. Light of wavelength 1800 Å ejects photoelectrons from a plane of a metal whose work function is
2 eV. If a uniform magnetic field of 5  10–5 tesla is applied parallel to plate, what would be the
radius of the path (in metre) followed by electrons ejected normally from the plate with maximum
energy.
15. In a YDSE experiment, the two slits are covered with a Screen
transparent membrane of negligible thickness which
allows light to pass through it but does not allow water. water
A glass slab of thickness t = 0.41 mm and refractive
w = 4/3 S1
index g = 1.5 is placed in front of one of the slits as d t =30°
shown in the figure. The separation between the slits is
d = 0.30 mm. The entire space to the left of the slits is g
s
filled with water of refractive index w = 4/3. A coherent S2
D
light of intensity I and absolute wavelength  = 5000A°
is being incident on the slits making an angle 30° with
horizontal. If screen is placed at a distance D = 1m
from the slits, then find the distance of central maxima
from O (in cm).
16. A mass M is supported by a massless and inextensible string wound

round a uniform cylinder of mass M and diameter 2R. With what M
acceleration in cm/s2 shall the mass fall when released from rest?
(Given g = 981 cms–2)
17. Four identical mass less rods are connected by hinged joints to form a A
rhombus of side length 5 3 . Rods can rotate freely about the joints. The
joints B and D are connected by a mass less spring of relaxed length L L
7.5 3 . The system is suspended vertically with a load of mass M

B D
attached at C (see figure). In equilibrium the rods form an angle of 30°
with the vertical. Find time period of small oscillations of the load. L L
8 2
18. The bulk modulus of rubber is 9.8  10 N/m . To what depth (in mere) a rubber ball be taken in a
lake so that its volume is decreased by 0.1%?
Chemistry PART – II

19. Correct statement is/are

Br2 Br2
(A) cis  2  butene 
CCl4
 Meso compound (B) Trans-2-butene 
CCl4
 racemic mixture
Cl2
(D) 
h
 3-monochloro products
ColdKMnO4
(C) cis-2-butene 
 Meso Compound
20. 1.22 g of C6H5 COOH is added in two different solvents:

(i) In 100 g CH3 COCH3 ; b  0.17,K b  1.7Kg  K / mol
(ii) In 100 gC6H6 ; Tb  0.13,K b  2.6Kg  K / mol
Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) Apparent molecular weight of C6H5 COOH in both the solvents is equal.
(B) Apparent molecular weight of C6H5 COOH in both the solvents is not equal.
(C) C6H5 COOH dimerizes in benzene
(D) C6H5 COOH remains in monomeric form in acetone.
21. White phosphorus (P4) undergoes redox reaction with:

(A) CS2 (B) Hot NaOH solution
(C) Chlorine gas (D) Molten sodium metal
22. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

h
(A) Angular momentum of electron in 3rd Bohr’s orbit is   .

(B) 4 moles of H-atoms are present in 40g allene
(C) The value of (n  l  m) for last electron of Na is 3 in its ground state electronic configuration.
12
(D) The number of electrons in the nucleus of 6 C is 6.
23. Which is/are correct statement about following equilibrium



N2 O 4  g 
 2NO2  g , H   ve
(A) Degree of dissociation increases when temperature increases
(B) Vapour density of gaseous mixture decreases when temperature increase
(C) Partial pressure of both N2 O4 and NO2 decreases when Helium gas added is added at
constant pressure
(D) Partial pressure of N2 O4 increases when N2 O4 is added
24. Which of the following complex(s) exhibit structural isomerism:

2
(A) Ir  ONO 3 H2 O 3  (B) Ir NO3 H2O 5 
(C) Co  ox H2O  4  Br (D) PdBrCl  NH3  4  SO4

answer.
25. Match the List-I and List-II.

List-I (compounds) List – II
(characteristics)
(I) NO2 (P) Acidic anhydride
(II) XeF2 (Q) Fluoride acceptor
(III) OCl2 (R) Reduces acidic character of HF
(IV) BF3 (S) Aqueous solution has oxidizing
character
(A) I-S, II-Q, III-P, IV–R (B) I-S, II-R, III-P, IV–Q
(C) I-P, II-Q, III-S, IV–R (D) I-P, II-R, III–Q, IV–S
26. Complete the following reactions identify the major products and apply a chemical test to
distinguish between following pairs:
List- I List – II
(Chemical test) (Pairs)
(I) Na-Metal (P) J and M
(II) NaOI (Q) J and K
(III) 2, 4-DNP (R) K and M
(IV) NaHSO3 (S) L and M
Reactions are as follows:
(A) I-R, II-Q, III-P, IV–S (B) I-S, II-P, III-Q, IV–R
(C) I-Q, II-P, III-R, IV–S (D) I-P, II-Q, III–S, IV–R

List- I List-II
(Solution) (Property)
(I) 0.1 molal of urea (P) Tb  0.25º C
(II) 0.1 molar NaCl(aq) at 25ºC (Q)   4.89 atm
(III) 0.1 mole PhOH added to 1 kg benzene (R) Tf = 0.2
(l)
(IV) 0.1 mole PhOH  K a  1010  added to (S) Relative lowering = 0.18% in vapour
pressure
1 kg water
K  Kg 5K  Kg 2K  Kg 2.5  Kg
[Given:  K b  water  0.5 ,  K f C H  , K f  water  , K b  C H 
mol 6 8
mol mol 6 8
mol.
(A) I-Q, II-R, III-P, IV–S (B) I-Q, II-S, III-S, IV–P
(C) I-R, II-S, III-P, IV–Q (D) I-R, II-Q, III–P, IV–S

List- I List – II
(Ionic Compound) (Void occupied)
(I) NaCl (P) 100% tetrahedral voids
occupied
(II) ZnS (Q) 50% Tetrahedral voids
occupied
(III) CsCl (R) Octahedral voids occupied
(IV) CaF2 (S) Cubic void occupied
(A) I-R, II-Q, III-S, IV–P (B) I-Q, II-R, III-S, IV–P
(C) I-R, II-Q, III-P, IV–S (D) I-Q, II-S, III–P, IV–S

29. How many isomeric aldol condensation products are formed in the given reaction?
aqueous
Ethyl methyl ketone 
potash
?
30.
Calculate (X + Y)
31. A compact car gets 20 miles per litre on the highway. Gasoline contains 84% carbon by mass
and has a density of 0.80 g/ml. The mass of CO2 produced (in g) during a 50 mile-trips is
32. Calculate potential (in V) of the cell:

Cu|Mn(s)| MnCl2 (0.001 M), HCl (0.01M)| O2(0.25 bar) Pt | Cu. Given Eº – 1.185 V for the Mn2+|
Mn couple and 1.229 V for the O2| H2O, H+ couple. (2.303 RT/F = 0.06, log 2 = 0.3)
33. X = number nitrogeneous compounds more basic than
–18
34. The nucleidic ratio of 13 H to 11H a sample of water is 8.0 × 10 :1. Tritium undergoes decay with
a half-life period of 12.3 years. How many tritium atoms would 0.9 mg of such a sample contains
36.9 years after the original sample is collected? (NA = 6 × 1023)
35. The approximate percentage of vacant space in a Silicon cubic cell having crystal structure
similar to diamond (round off to nearest integral value)
36. The rate constant for the decomposition of ozone following second-order kinetics is 5 × 10–4 l
mol–1 s–1 at a certain temperature. The rate of reaction (in terms of number of molecules
decomposed per ml per minute, when concentration of ozone is 2 × 10–8M, is (NA = 6 × 1023)
Mathematics PART – III

1
37. If z be a complex number such that 5z   3 and arg  z   , then cos2 can be
z
11 1
(A) (B)
20 10
1 13
(C) (D)
20 20
38. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true ?

(A) ratio of radius of circumcircle to radius of incircle of an isosceles right angled triangle is 2  1
(B) Ratio of radius of circumcircle to radius of incircle of a right angled triangle having angles in
AP is 3  1
(C) Ratio of radius of circumcircle to radius of incride of in a regular hexagon is 2 : 3
(D) Radius of ex-circle of an equilateral triangle is twice the radius of circum-circle
dy
39. If 2x + 2y = 2x + y, find
dx
2y
(A)  (B) 1 2y
2x
(C)
1
(D)
 
2x 1  y 2
1  2x 2 y
1  2 
x
40. If C1, x2 + y2 = (3  2 2)2 be circle. PA and PB are pair of tangents on C1 where P is any point on
the director circle of C1, then the radius of the smallest circle which touches C1 externally and also
the two tangents PA and PB is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
    5   5   7 
41. If     ,  such that f()  tan      cos    18   tan    9  have maximum and
 9 36   18     
minimum value as l1 and l2 respectively, then
11 3  2 2
(A) l1  (B) l2 
3 2
2 2 1 11
(C) l2  (D) l1 
2 2 3
42. Two particles start from the same point (2, -1), one moving 2 units along the line x + y = 1 and the
other 5 units along x – 2y = 4. If the particles move towards increasing y, then their new position
will be
(A) (2 - 2, 2 –1) (B) (25 + 2, 5 – 1)
(C) (2 + 2, 2 + 1) (D) (25 - 2, 5 –1)

answer.
43. Match the list–I & list–II

List–I List–II
z
Let z, ,  be complex numbers such that |z| = || = 4 and   ,
(I) 16  z (P) 0
then Re() is equal to
(II) If x = p + iq is a complex number such that x 2 = 3 + 4i and (Q) 3
x 3  2  11i where i  1, then (p + q) is equal to
(III) Number of complex numbers z satisfying the equation z  iz 2 , where (R) 4
i  1 is equal to
(IV) 3z  9  7i (S) 2
If z  C satisfies |z + 2 – i| = 5 then the maximum value of
4
is equal to
(T) 5
(A) I  Q; II R; III  T; IV  P (B) I  P; II Q; III  R; IV  T
(C) I  P; II T; III  Q; IV  R (D) I  P; II R; III  Q; IV  T

List–I List–II
Poonam flipped a fair coin five times. In the first three flips, the
coins came up heads exactly twice and in the last three flips, the 3
(I) (P)
coin also came up heads exactly twice. The probability that the 4
third flip was heads, is
(II) A box contains 10 transistors of which 2 are defective. Transistors (Q) 2
are drawn one by one without replacement unless a non-defective 5
one is chosen. The probability that atmost 3 transistors are drawn,
is
(III) A box contains 1 black and 1 white ball. A ball is drawn randomly (R) 4
and replaced in the box with an additional ball of the same colour, 5
then a second ball is drawn randomly from the box containing 3
balls. The probability that the first drawn ball was white given that
at least one of the two balls drawn was white, is
(IV) Let P(A) = 0.7 and P(B) = 0.3. Let Bc denotes the complement of (S) 2
the event B. Then the smallest value of P(A  Bc) is 3
(T) 1
(A) I  R; II T; III  P; IV  Q (B) I  R; II S; III  P; IV  Q
(C) I  R; II P; III  Q; IV  S (D) I  R; II T; III  Q; IV  S
45. Match the list–I & list–II.

List–I List–II
x
1
Let f(x) is a continuous function. If f(1) = 1 and  t.f  2x  t  dt  tan1  x 2 
0
2
(I) 2
(P) 0
then the value of 4 f  x  dx is equal to
1
(II) 2009 2009 (Q) 1

Let f  x     x  r  , then the value of the definite integral  f  x dx is
r 1 1
equal to
(III) ln10
e x ex  1 a (R) 2
If 0 ex  8 dx has the value of equal to (a – b) then b equals
(IV) Suppose g is the inverse function of a differentiable function f and G(x) = (S) 3
1 1
. If f(4) = 2 and f '  4   then (G’(2))2 equals
g x 16
(T) 4
(A) I  T; II P; III  Q; IV  S (B) I  S; II T; III  Q; IV  R
(C) I  S; II P; III  T; IV  Q (D) I  S; II R; III  T; IV  P

List–I List–II
 x3 /5 if x  1
Let f  x   then the number of critical points on the
(I) 3
   x  2  if x  1 (P) 5
graph of the function is
(II) Number of real solution of the equation, log2 2 x   x  1 log2 x  6  2x, is (Q) 4
(III) The number of values of c such that the straight line 3x + 4y = c touches (R) 3
x4
the curve  x  y is
2
(IV) x2 (S) 2
If f  x     t  1 dt, 1  x  2, then global maximum value of f(x) is
x
(T) 1
(A) I  R; II T; III  P; IV  S (B) I  Q; II P; III  R; IV  T
(C) I  P; II Q; III  T; IV  R (D) I  R; II S; III  T; IV  Q

ai
47. If ai, i = 1, 2, 3, 4 be four real numbers of the same sign, then the minimum value of a j
, i, j 
{1, 2, 3, 4}, i  j, is
48. Let N = N  3a 2b 5c where a, b and c are natural numbers and  N  0. Where {.} denotes
fraction part function. Also f  x   x3  px2  qx  8 and f(x) = 0 has the roots a, b and c and g(x)
is inverse of f(x), then area bounded by y = g(x), x = 8 and y = 0 is :
30
49. The value of r for which Cr .20 C0 30 Cr 1.20 C1  ...  30 C0 .20 Cr is maximum, is :
50. The equations of the sides AB, BC, CA of a triangle ABC are x + 2y = 0, x + py = q, x – y = 3
respectively. The point P is (2, 3). If P is the orthocentre, then p + q =
 1 2 
1 b  a 1
51. Consider two matrices A   3 1  and B    where a, b  domain of function
 1 2  a 1 2
2 1  x  3 
f(x) =  log2 sin  .
  5 
If a, b  I (set of all integers) then the number of ordered pairs (a, b), is
[Note: Tr.(P) denotes of the trace of square matrix P and adj. (P) denotes the adjoint matrix of
square matrix P.]
52. Let function f satisfies

f  x  f '  x   f   x  .f '  x  x  R,f  0   3
Find f(x) f(–x)+ 2
53. If 3 cos x  sin x  2, for x  0,4 , Number of values of x can be n, find n+12 ?
54. There are four boxes A1, A2, A3 and A4. Box Ai has i cards and on each card a number is printed,
the numbers are from 1 to i, A box is selected randomly, the probability of selection of box
i
A i is and then a card is drawn. Let Ei represents the event that a card with number ‘i’ is
10
drawn, then
  A 
90  P  3   is equal to :
  E2  

AITS 2223 CRT I JEEA LD Paper 1

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FIITJEE

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

 The test consists of total 54 questions.

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)

2. The radius of the circular loop is ‘a’. Magnetic field is increasing  S  

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)

7. A wire carrying a 10A current is bent to pass through y

ListI ListII (Region or Point)

10. A conducting sphere of radius a is placed inside a thin

List –I List –II

Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)

12. Electromagnetic radiation whose electric component varies with time as

16. A mass M is supported by a massless and inextensible string wound

7.5 3 . The system is suspended vertically with a load of mass M

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)

19. Correct statement is/are

20. 1.22 g of C6H5 COOH is added in two different solvents:

21. White phosphorus (P4) undergoes redox reaction with:

22. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

23. Which is/are correct statement about following equilibrium

24. Which of the following complex(s) exhibit structural isomerism:

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)

25. Match the List-I and List-II.

27. Match the List-I and List-II.

28. Match the List-I and List-II.

Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)

32. Calculate potential (in V) of the cell:

33. X = number nitrogeneous compounds more basic than

Mathematics PART – III

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)

38. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true ?

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)

43. Match the list–I & list–II

44. Match the list–I & list–II

45. Match the list–I & list–II.

(II) 2009 2009 (Q) 1

46. Match the list–I & list–II

Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)

52. Let function f satisfies

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