Year 5, Sem IX MCQ Unit 4

Subject Code : AR6901
Subject Title : SPECIFICATIONS AND ESTIMATION
Unit IV DETAILED ESTIMATE 10

Deriving detailed quantity estimates for various items of work of a building. Like
earthwork excavation, brick work, plain cement concrete, Reinforced cement concrete
works, wood work, iron works, plastering, painting, flooring, weathering course for a
single storied building.
1. To make out an estimate for a work the following data are necessary-Drawing,
Specification and ___________
a) materials
b) rates
c) labours
d) transportation
Answer: b
Explanation: The rates per unit of various items of work, the rates of various materials to
be used in the construction, and the wages of different category of labour, skilled or
unskilled as mason, carpenter, mazdoor, bhishti etc. available for preparing estimate.
2. _________________ is required for preliminary studies of various aspects of a

work or project.
a) Supplementary Estimate
b) Plinth Area Estimate
c) Revised Estimate
d) Abstract Estimate
Answer: d
Explanation: to decide the financial position and policy for administrative sanction by the
competent administrative authority. In case of commercial projects as irrigation projects
as irrigation projects, residential building projects and similar projects which earn revenue
income, the probable income may be worked out.
3. Approximate cost of a hostel building for 100 students @Rs.10000/- per student
works out as Rs. 10 lakhs.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Approx. cost of a bed hospital @ Rs.50000/- per bed comes to Rs.50 lakhs.
Approx. cost of a barrack of 10 bays @10000/- per bay comes to Rs.1 lakh.
4. Per kilometre basis depending on the nature of road, for 10 km of a state highway
approx. cost @ Rs. 50000/- per 1 km works out as Rs. 5 lakh.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Per kilometre basis depending on the nature of road, for 10 km of a state
highway approx. cost @ Rs. 500000/- per 1 km works out as Rs. 50 lakh.
5. The approx. cost of 10 km length of irrigation channel of 3 cu m per sec. capacity

@ Rs.70000/- per km works out as Rs.7 lakh.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: For an irrigation project having a commanded area 2000 hectares, approx.
cost @ Rs.1000/- per hectare comes to Rs.20 lakhs.
6. Approx. cost of a bridge of 3 spans of 50 m each span @Rs.30000/- per running

m of span comes to 3*50*30000 = Rs. 45 lakhs.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Per running metre of span depending on the roadway, nature and depth of
foundation, type of structure, etc. For small culverts approx. cost may also be per number
of culverts of different spans.
7. Approximate cost of sewerage project for a population of one lakh@ Rs. 10/-
head works out as Rs. 10 lakh.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Approximate cost of sewerage project for a population of one lakh@ Rs. 100/-
head works out as Rs. 100 lakhs.
8. Cube rate estimate is less accurate as compared to the plinth area estimate as
the height of the building is also compared.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
Explanation: Cube rate estimate is most accurate as compared to the plinth area estimate
as the height of the building is also compared.
9. For storeyed building plinth area estimate is not prepared for each storey
separately.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: For storeyed building plinth area estimate is prepared for each storey
separately.
10. __________ is prepared on the basis of plinth area of building, the rate being
deducted from the cost of similar building having similar specification, heights and
construction, in the locality.
a) Cube Rate Estimate
b) Supplementary Estimate
c) Maintenance Estimate
d) Plinth Area Estimate
Answer: d
Explanation: Plinth area estimate is calculated by finding the plinth area of the building
and multiplying by the plinth area rate. The plinth area should be calculated for the
covered area by taking external dimension of the building at the floor level.
11. ________________ is the amount provided in the estimate and bill of quantities
for some specialised work to be done by a specialised firm; whose details are not
known at the time of preparing estimate.
a) Prime cost
b) Provisional sum
c) Capital cost
d) Building cost index
Answer: b
Explanation: The work like installation of refrigerating machine; installation of lift, air
conditioning, etc., for which full information and details may not be known at the time of
preparing estimate and entering into contract and are require to be installed by a
specialised firm, a sum.
12. In this method approx. total length of walls is found in running metre and this
total length multiplied by the rate per running metre of wall gives a fairly accurate
cost.
a) Annual repair
b) Item rate estimate
c) Approximate quantity method estimate
d) Cubical content estimate
Answer: c
Explanation: For this method the structure may be divided into two parts viz. Foundation
including plinth and Superstructure.
13. _______________ estimate is a detailed estimate and is prepared to maintain

the structure or work in proper order and safe condition.
a) Supplementary and revised estimate
b) Maintenance estimate
c) Item rate estimate
d) Revised estimate
Answer: b
Explanation: For building; this includes white washing, colour washing, painting, minor
repairs etc. For road works the A.R. estimate provides for patch repairing, renewals,
repair of culverts, etc.
14. A large work or project may consists of several building or small works and each
of these work is known as ___________
a) sub-work
b) sub-project
c) sub-head
d) sub-construction
Answer: a
Explanation: Detailed estimate of each sub-work is prepared separately and accounts of
expenditure are kept sub-work wise.
15. The term ______________ is used to denote a procedure of costing or valuing

an item of work on the basis of actual labourers and materials required.
a) prime cost
b) hour-work
c) day-work
d) sub-work
Answer: c
Explanation: Certain items of work which cannot be measured as- a design in the plaster
work, front architectural finish of a building, work under water, etc. are valued and paid by
‘day work’. In such cases the schedule of rates of materials and different classes of
labourers likely to be engaged in th work should be included in the tender and in contract
agreement.
16. Which estimate is expected to be least accurate?
A. Preliminary estimate
B. Plinth area estimate
C. Detailed estimate
D. Revised estimate
Answer B. Plinth area estimate
17. A revised estimate is usually prepared when the original estimate has exceeded
by more than
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 10%
D. 100%
Answer C. 10%
18. The person who enjoys the estimate right is called a
A. Lesser
B. Lesse
C. Dominant owner
D. Servient owner
Answer D. Servient owner
19. Annual repair estimate is usually not allowed to exceed
A. 10% of capital cost
B. 5% of capital cost
C. 2% of capital cost
D. 5% of capital cost
Answer C. 2% of capital cost
20. Which of the following is necessarily an accurate estimate?
A. Plinth area estimate
B. Cubical content estimate
C. Revised estimate
D. None of the above
Answer B. Cubical content estimate
21. The estimated time required to complete an activity is known as
A. Duration
B. Restraint
C. Constraint
D. Float
Answer- D. Float
22. Estimate for electric wiring that is light, fan, plug points etc. is usually made in
terms of
A. Total power at mains in KW
B. Amperage of every point
C. Type of points
D. Number of points
Answer- A. Total power at mains in KW
23. The most reliable estimate is
A. Detailed estimate
B. Preliminary estimate
C. Plinth area estimate
D. Cube rate estimate
Answer- C. Plinth area estimate
24. Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area estimate
A. Wall thickness
B. Verandah area
C. W.C. area
D. Courtyard area
Answer- B. Verandah area
25. The main factor to be considered while preparing a detailed estimate is
A. Quantity of the materials
B. Vanilability of materials
C. Transportation
D. All of the above
Answer- C. Transportation
26. Of the total estimated cost of a building, electrification usually amounts for
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 8%
D. 15%
Answer- C. 8%
27. Of the total estimated cost of a building sanitation and water supply works
usually amount for
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 8%
D. 15%
Answer- C. 8%
28. Due to change in price level, a revised estimate is prepared if the sanctioned
estimate exceeds
A. 2%
B. 2.5%
C. 4%
D. 5%
Answer- D. 5%
29. The useful liveable area of a building is also known as
A. Carpet area
B. Circulation area
C. Floor area
D. Plinth area
Answer- B. Circulation area
30. Careful taking up or down and removing carefully a structure without damage is
termed as
A. Dismantling
B. Breaking
C. Rescheduling
D. Direction
Answer- A. Dismantling
31. The life of a structure with brickwork in a lime or cement is taken as

A. 100 years
B. 35 years
C. 50 years
D. 25 years
Answer- C. 50 years
32. The life of teakwood doors and windows is usually take as
A. 100 years
B. 80 years
C. 75 years
D. 40 years
Answer- B. 80 years
33. The duet metal work is measured in
A. Running metres
B. Square metre on the basis of surface area
C. Cubic Metres
D. Kilograms
Answer- C. Cubic Metres
34. First class over burnt bricks are usually preferred for
A. Foundation
B. Super structure
C. Roofing
D. Road construction
Answer- C. Roofing
35. In a detailed estimate the provision for contingencies is, usually
A. 1%
B. 3% to 5%
C. 10%
D. 12% to 15%
Answer- A. 1%
36. Besides standard length and width of a corrugated sheet, one important
dimension usually considered is
A. Pitch of corrugation
B. Depth of corrugation
C. Shape of corrugation
D. Gauge of the material
Answer- A. Pitch of corrugation
37. The expected life of cement concrete floor is taken as
A. 100 years
B. 75 years
C. 50 years
D. 20 years
Answer- B. 75 years
38. The measurement is made in a square metre in case of
A. Cement concrete in foundation
B. R.C.C. structure
C. Hollow concrete block wall
D. None of the above
Answer- A. Cement concrete in foundation
39. The approximate cost of a building of cubic content of 400 cu m@ Rs.180/- per
cu m is __________
a) Rs. 92000/-
b) Rs. 12000/-
c) Rs. 72000/-
d) Rs. 42000/-
Answer: c
Explanation: Cube rate estimate is most accurate as compared to the plinth area estimate
as the height of the building is also compared.
40. The carpet area of an office building may be 60% to 75% of plinth area of the
building with a target of 75%.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The planners should aim to achieve a target of 75% of the plinth area. The
carpet area of residential building may be 50% to 65% of the plinth area of building with a
target of 65%.
41. Which of the following data is not required to prepare an estimate?

a) Amplitude
b) Drawings
c) Specifications
d) Rates
Answer: a
Explanation: For preparing an estimate, data such as drawings, detailed specifications,
rates, etc. is required. The drawings needed to prepare the estimate include plans,
sections, elevations, etc.
42. Estimating is the technique of calculating the various quantities and is needed for
controlling the expenditure during the execution of the work.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Estimating is the process of calculating the various quantities and their cost
in the building construction. It is needed for controlling the expenditure during the
execution of the work.
43. The process of working out the cost per unit of each item is known as
_________
a) Work
b) Sheet
c) Data
d) Analysis
Answer: c
Explanation: The preparation of a detailed estimate comprises of working out quantities of
different items of work and then determining the cost of each item. The process of
working out the cost per unit of each item is known as data.
44. While fixing rate per unit of an item, the quantity of materials and labour
needed for one unit of an item are strictly per __________
a) Special Data Book
b) Standard Data Book
c) Special Data Record
d) Specific Data Record
Answer: b
Explanation: While fixing rate per unit of an item, the quantity of materials and labour
needed for one unit of an item are strictly per the Standard Data Book. However, the
rates of labour and materials are obtained from the current standard scheduled of rates.
45. In the case of works which require some special types of equipment, an amount
of ______ percent of the estimated cost is given.
a) 1-2
b) 5-9
c) 12-18
d) 16-20
Answer: a
Explanation: In the case of works that require some special types of equipment, an amount
of 1-2 percent of the estimated cost is given. While preparing a detailed estimate, it is
also important to select a suitable site of work to reduce damage during the loading and
unloading of materials.
46. Which of the following is not a method used for preparing approximate
estimates?
a) Cubical contents method
b) Unit base method
c) Plinth area method
d) Cylindrical base method
Answer: d
Explanation: There are various methods used for preparing approximate estimates. These
are the plinth area method, unit base method and cubical contents method. An
approximate estimate is needed for studying various aspects of the work of the project.
47. In the plinth area method, the cost of construction is computed by the
multiplication of ________
a) Plinth length and rate
b) Plinth breadth and rate
c) Plinth area and plinth area rate
d) Plinth volume and plinth length rate
Answer: c
Explanation: In the plinth area method, the cost of construction is computed by the
multiplication of plinth area and plinth area rate. This area is calculated by multiplying the
length and the breadth.
48. As per IS 3861-1966, which of the following areas should not be included while
calculating the plinth area of a building?
a) Porches of non-cantilever type
b) Area of barsati at terrace level
c) Area of walls at floor level
d) Area of lofts
Answer: d
Explanation: As per IS 3861-1966, the areas which should be included while calculating the
plinth area of a building are porches of non-cantilever type, area of barsati at terrace
level, area of walls at floor level, etc. However, the area of lofts should not be included.
49. For the preparation of approximate estimates, cubical contents method is more
accurate than the unit base method and plinth area method.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: For the preparation of approximate estimates, cubical contents method is
more accurate than the unit base method and plinth area method. Cubical contents method
is usually used for multi-storeyed buildings.
50. In the cubical contents method, the cost of a structure is computed by the
multiplication of total cubic contents and _______
a) Area of building
b) Volume of building
c) Local cubic rate
d) Length of building
Answer: c
Explanation: The cost of a structure in the cubical contents method is determined by the
multiplication of total cubic contents with the local cubic rate. Therefore, the cost of the
building is calculated by multiplying the volume of buildings with the rate per unit volume.
51. Which of the following is not a method of working out quantities like earthwork
and brickwork in plinth?
a) Long wall-short wall method
b) Centre line method
c) Thick wall – thin wall method
d) Partly centre line and short wall method
Answer: d
Explanation: There are various methods that are used to work out quantities like
earthwork, foundation concrete, etc. Some of these methods are the long wall-short wall
method, partly centre line and short wall method and centre line method.
52. In long wall-short wall method, the wall along the length of the room is said to
be the short wall.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In long wall-short wall method, the wall along the length of the room is
considered as the long wall. While the short wall is the one which is normal to the long wall.
53. To get the quantities, the lengths found using the long wall-short wall method are
multiplied with _________
a) Width
b) Weight
c) Thickness
d) Breadth and depth
Answer: d
Explanation: To get the quantities, the lengths found using the long wall-short wall method
are multiplied with breadth and depth. In this method, the centre line lengths of the
individual walls are calculated first to get the length of the short wall and the long wall.
54. In long wall-short wall method, the length of the long wall is calculated after the
addition of _________ to its centre line length at each end.
a) Breadth
b) Half breadth
c) Height
d) Half-height
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of the long wall in long wall-short wall method is determined after
adding half breadth to its centre line length at each end. While the length of the short
wall is determined by subtracting half breadth at each end from its centre line length.
55. In long wall-short wall method, the length of the short wall generally increases
from earthwork to brickwork in the superstructure.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In long wall-short wall method, the length of the long wall generally increases
from earthwork to brickwork in the superstructure. However, that of the short wall
decreases.
56. The centre line method is suitable for walls having ________
a) Different cross-sections
b) Similar cross-sections
c) Same weights
d) Same materials
Answer: b
Explanation: The centre line method is suitable for walls having similar cross-sections. The
estimates prepared using the centre line method are the quickest and accurate.
57. In partly centre line and partly cross wall method, the centre line method is
applied to _______
a) External walls
b) Internal walls
c) Thick walls
d) Thin walls
Answer: a
Explanation: Partly centre line and partly cross wall method is adopted when the external
wall has one thickness and the internal walls have different thicknesses. In such a method,
the centre line method is applied to the external walls and the long wall-short wall method
is applied to the internal walls.
58. In earthwork calculations, the average horizontal distance between the centre of
deposition and the centre of excavation is known as ___________
a) Lift
b) Flooring
c) Lead
d) Embankment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In earthwork calculations, the average horizontal distance between the
centre of deposition and the centre of excavation is known as lead. Its unit is 50 m.
59. In earthwork calculations, how many lifts are to be paid to the contractor when
the earth is to be lifted for 4.5 metres?
a) Four
b) Eight
c) Twelve
d) Sixteen
Answer: a
Explanation: In earthwork calculations, the unit of lift is 2 metres for the first lift and
one extra lift for every 1 metre. Therefore, when the earth is to be lifted for 4.5 metres,
four lifts are to be paid to the contractor. For the first 2 metres, one lift is needed and
for the rest 2.5 metres, three more lifts are required which sums up to a total four lifts.
60. Which of the following is not a lumpsum item in the estimate?

a) Architectural features
b) Water supply and sanitary arrangements
c) Masonry items
d) Electrical installations
Answer: c
Explanation: While preparing an estimate, items other than civil engineering items are
referred to as L.S. items or lumpsum items. Some of the lumpsum items in the estimate
are the architectural features, electrical installations, water supply and sanitary
arrangements, etc.
61. Single units work such as doors and windows are expressed in ________
a) numbers
b) metres
c) m2
d) m3
Answer: a
Explanation: Single units work such as doors and windows are expressed in numbers. The
units of measurement are generally classified basis on their nature, size and shape.
62. Work consisting of linear measurements like fencing which involve lengths is
measured in __________
a) Kilograms
b) Running metres
c) m2
d) m3
Answer: b
Explanation: Work consisting of linear measurements like fencing which involve lengths is
measured in running metres. Other works which involve length are cornice, handrail, etc.
63. Works like whitewashing and plastering are measured in ________

a) m2
b) Metres
c) Litres
d) m3
Answer: a
Explanation: Works like whitewashing and plastering are measured in m2. These works
consist of areal surface measurements and involve area and hence these are measured in
square metres.
64. Works like earthwork and cement concrete are measured in ________
a) Square metres
b) Metres
c) Litres
d) Cubic metres
Answer: d
Explanation: Works like earthwork and cement concrete are measured in cubic metres.
These works contain cubical contents and involve volumes and hence these are measured in
m3.
65. Unit of measurement for damp proof course is ____________

a) Sqm
b) Cum
c) Number
d) Kg
Answer: a
Explanation: Unit of measurement for the damp proof course is sqm. While, the unit of
measurement of brickwork in foundation, plinth, superstructure and arches is cum.
66. Unit of measurement of iron holdfasts in steelwork is ___________
a) Sqm
b) Number
c) Metres
d) Quintal
Answer: d
Explanation: Unit of measurement of iron holdfasts and iron railing in steelwork is quintal.
However, the unit of measurement of grills in steelwork is sqm.
67. Unit of measurement of asbestos cement sheet roofing is __________

a) Sqm
b) Kilograms
c) Metres
d) Number
Answer: a
Explanation: Unit of measurement of asbestos cement sheet roofing is sqm and its unit of
payment is per sqm. Unit of measurement of centering and shuttering formwork is also
sqm.
68. Unit of measurement of rainwater pipe is ________

a) Cum
b) Litres
c) Number
d) Running metres
Answer: d
Explanation: Unit of measurement of rainwater pipe is running metres. The unit of payment
of rainwater pipes is per RM.
69. The unit of measurement of pointing, painting and varnishing (no. of coats
specified) is cum.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The unit of measurement of pointing, painting and varnishing (no. of coats
specified) is sqm. The unit of payment is per sqm.
70. The rules for measurement of all items are described in _______
a) IS-1993
b) IS-1896
c) IS-1200
d) IS-1987
Answer: c
Explanation: The rules for measurement of all items are described in IS-1200. It is
specified that in booking, the order should be in sequence of length, breadth and height.
71. As per the rules for measurement of items, it is specified that the areas should
be measured to the nearest ________
a) 0.1 sq m
b) 0.25 sq m
c) 0.01 sq m
d) 0.85 sq m
Answer: c
Explanation: As per the rules for the measurement of items, it is specified that the areas
should be measured to the nearest 0.01 sq m. It is also specified that the cubic contents
should be measured to the nearest 0.01 cum.
72. The rates of materials used for government works are approved by _________
a) Executive Board
b) SDO
c) Elective Board
d) Board of Chief Engineers
Answer: d
Explanation: The Board of Chief Engineers approves the rates of materials used for
government works. However, every year, these are fixed by the Superintendent Engineer.
73. The quantity of sand required for RCC (1:2:4) for 15 cubic metres of work is
___________
a) 4.76 m3
b) 10.32 m3
c) 8.43 m3
d) 6.51 m3
Answer: d
Explanation: Approximately 1.52 m3 of dry concrete is required for 1 m3 of wet concrete.
The quantity of sand required for RCC (1:2:4) for 15 cubic metres of work is [2/(1+2+4)] x
1.52 x 15 m3 i.e. 6.51 m3.
74. The quantity of coarse aggregate required for RCC (1:3:6) for 20 cubic metres
of work is ________
a) 18.24 m3
b) 15.23 m3
c) 24.87 m3
d) 32.45 m3
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio 1:3:6 is for cement, sand and coarse aggregate. Therefore, the
quantity of coarse aggregate required for RCC (1:3:6) for 20 cubic metres of work is
[6/(1+3+6)] x 1.52 x 20 m3 i.e. 18.24 m3.
75. Calculate the number of cement bags required for RCC (1:2:4) for 15 m3 of work.
a) 24.6
b) 38.9
c) 56.7
d) 93.8
Answer: d
Explanation: The quantity of cement required is [1/(1+2+4)] x 1.52 x 15 m3 i.e. 3.257 m3. SP
weight of concrete is 1440 kg/m3 and the weight of one cement bag is 50 kg. Therefore,
the number of cement bags required for RCC (1:2:4) for 15 m3 of work is 3.257 x 1440/50
= 93.8 bags.
AR6702 - HUMAN SETTLEMENTS PLANNING
UNIT – IV
Multiple Choice Questions
UNIT IV - URBAN PLANNING AND URBAN RENEWAL
Scope and Content of Master plan – planning area, land use plan and
Zoning regulations –zonal plan – need, linkage to master plan and land use
plan – planned unit development (PUD) –need, applicability and
development regulations - Urban Renewal Plan – Meaning,
Redevelopment, Rehabilitation and Conservation – JNNURM – case studies.
1. What is urban renewal?
a) Urban decay.
b) Development of slums.
c) Bad quality of living.
d) A program of land re-development in a city.
2. What id urban decay?
a) Process by which a previously functioning city, or part of city, falls into disrepair and decrepitude.
b) poverty.
c) Cities.
d) Urban (cities) and decay (mould).
3. Jawaharlal Nehru Urban Renewal Missionis a
a) Massive city modernization scheme.

b) Reforms and fast track development.
c) Improvement in urban Governance and management.
d) Development of infrastructure projects.
4. Blight is a
a) Area with untidy and ill ventilated residence.

b) Part of urban or rural in deterioration.
c) Associated with slums.
d) City will be in centre.
5. Which one of the following is the urban redevelopment policy
a) High degree of loss of efficiency.

b) Restore the area to its original functions.
c) Reuse of cleared land.
d) Brining new functions.
6. Which one of the following takes place in strategies of urban renewal
a) Rebuilding
b) Clearance.
c) Conservation.
d) All the above.
7. What is the period of industrial revolution
a) 1939 – 1945.
b) 1760 – 1820.
c) 1760 -1945.
d) 1939 - 1820.
8. Zoning is defined as
a) Non division of settlement into zones.

b) Development of zones and district.
c) Division of settlement into zones.
d) Agreement of zones.
9. What is rehabilitation?
a) Clearing and reuse of land.

b) Repairing and remodelling.
c) Preventing.
d) All the above.
10. Duration of Jawaharlal Nehru Urban Renewal Mission
a) 3 years.
b) 4 years.
c) 8 years.
d) 7 years.
11. The purpose of master plan is to promote growth and guide over a perspective of ……….
a) 5-10 years
b) 20-25years
c) 1-2 years
d) 4years
12. A development plan should contain……..
a) Vision and Mission

b) Development Proposals
c) Implementation Plan
d) All the above
13. CBD faces problems on
a) Traffic congestion
b) Accidents
c) Road services
d) None of the above
14. In India, idea of preparation and development plan have flourished after ….
a) 1915
b) 1945
c) 1930
d) 1975
15. DCR COMPRISES OF
a) Zoning regulations
b) Building byelaws
c) Layout rules
d) All the above
16. To account the problem of existing planning system of urban development in India, the UDPFI(Urban Development
plan Formulation and Implementation) guidelines were coined by
a) ITPI
b) JNNURM
c) ISO
d) NCRPB
17. Zones in which only one kind of activities are to be carried such as manufacturing are called
a) catchment zones
b) business zones
c) economic zones
d) none
18. The houses in which layout, construction and appearance have not been altered are termed as
a) Un changed Traditional Dwellings

b) Changed Traditional Dwellings
c) Traditional Dwellings
d) None
19. The massive city modernization scheme is to improve the quality of life and infrastructure in the cites, what is the
mission termed as
a) ITPI
b) JNNURM
c) ISO
d) NCRPB
20. Treatment and the provision for urgently needed facilities in the urban area or at least land for it comes under which
benefit?
a) Social benefit
b) Economic benefit
c) Physical benefit
d) None of the above
21. Urban planning includes
a) Land
b) Environment
c) Infrastructure
d) All the above
22. Duration of master plan after issuing the draft plan?
a) 10 months
b) 8 months
c) 4 months
d) a year
23. DCR comprises of
a) zoning regulations
b) building byelaws
c) layout rules
d) all the above
24. Cities that eligible for JNNURM
a) Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Kolkata
d) All the above
25. Expand JNNURM
1) Jawaharalal Nehru national Urban renewal mission
2) Jawaharalal Nehru national under renewal mission
Only 1 b) only 2 c) 1 or 2 d) neither 1 nor 2
26. The Interim Master plan is prepared by
a) Local Authority
b) ITPI
c) Planning Authority
d) UDPFI
27. A Village is the centre for many of the activities of its countryside, that the town is the centre for an area within a
radius of about
a) 10 to 15 kms
b) 70 to 90 kms
c) 5 to 10 kms
d) 30 to 45 kms
28. Which has caused certain towns to grow very rapidly without organic relation to countryside and the services have
tended to concentrate in a few centres.
a) Gated Community development

b) Industrial Revolution
c) Redevelopment of Slums
d) Commercial Enhancement
29. Each town works as a service centre for the neighbouring area; it is the seat of which integration for the area around
it.
a) State Integration
b) Local Integration
c) Community Integration
d) Regional Integration
30. Indian Master Plan approach is fundamentally guided by the
a) British Town Planning legislation

b) Urban Development Plan Formulation and Implementation
c) Institute of Town Planners, India
d) Local Authority
31. Any area or a part of urban or rural in deterioration is called
a) Slum
b) Blighted area
c) Central area
d) Obsolescent area
32. The term Central Business District is used to denote the important zone of which category
a) Industrial Zone
b) Public Zone
c) Commercial Zone
d) Residential Zone
33. Which one is not the aspect that constitute the Urban Renewal
a) Redevelopment
b) Conservation
c) Rehabilitation
d) Physical Obsolescence
34. Provision of Urgently needed facilities in the urban area will come under the category of
a) Social Benefits
b) Physical Benefits
c) Cultural Benefits
d) Economic Benefits
35. The duration of the Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) is
a) 10 years
b) 13 years
c) 4 years
d) 7 years
36. Is conservation and Preservation being one of the strategies of Urban Renewal?
a) Yes
b) No
37. The rapid development of transport has been found to be inadequate for the growing needs of the automobiles?
a) False
b) True
38. What is the provision for detailed development of specific areas in the proposal of master plan?
a) Architectural features
b) Ring roads
c) Housing and civic amenities
d) Transportation
39. Does the civic survey help the government sanction to prepare the scheme?
a) Yes
b) No
40. What are the two aspects that should be found while collecting the data for the preparation of government
sanction?
a) Social aspect
b) Economic aspect
c) Positive and Negative aspect
d) Civic aspect
41. What is the time period for the local authority to forward the final scheme to the government?
a) One Year
b) Three months
c) Two years
d) Six months
42. Regional Planning aims at reducing the level of people between
a) Urban life
b) Countryside
c) Rural life
d) Urban and Rural Life
43. Is that possible to decide the hierarchy of the human settlement only with the Population?
a) Yes
b) No
44. Which programme is essential for the rehabilitation of city and to remove the congestion of traffic?
a) Urban decay
b) CBD
c) Urban Renewal
d) PUD
45. What are the measures to control the reuse of land and the buildings?
a) Administrative
b) Rehabilitation
c) City development
d) Socio-economic
46. What is the other term used for comprehensive development plan?
a) Land-Use Planning
b) Economic Development
c) Master Planning
d) Environmental Planning
47. The reasons for the need of urban renewal:
a) Physical obsolescence
b) Economic losses
c) Social imbalances
d) All of the above
48. The objective of the development plan is to provide:
a) Attaining Economic Equality and Social Justice and redressing Imbalances in the Economy
b) Necessary details and intended actions in the form of strategies and physical proposals for
development of the Urban centre
c) To alter the pattern of resources, use and to intensify such use in such a fashion as to achieve certain
socially desirable goals.
d) Examine issues and address the anticipated effects of future growth and development on air quality,
water quality and natural resources.
49. The aim of JNNURM:
a) Encourage reforms and fast track planned development of identified cities

b) Promote large scale, unified land development
c) To remove congestion of traffic, or demolish useless buildings
d) To identify new schemes/ projects for implementation
50. Objectives of zonal planning:
a) To protect amenity value and hence property

b) To provide adequate light and air
c) To encourage the most appropriate use of land
d) All of the above
51.What do you mean by Blighted area?
a) Socially disorganized area

b) Unused land
c) Deteriorated urban/rural area
d) Uninhabited area
52. Benefits of Urban renewal:
a) Physical benefits
b) Social benefits
c) Economic benefits
d) All of the above
53. Social benefits of Urban renewal:
a) Uplift the status of slum dwellers

b) Provision for urgently needed facilities
c) Rearrangement of an obsolete street system
d) Enhancement of utilities
54. According to the guidelines prepared by ITPI(Institute of Town Planners of India) which of these are not the set of
inter-related plans?
a) Perspective plan
b) Development plan
c) Annual plan
d) Master plan
55. Which one amongst the following is the correct full form of ACA?
a) Additional Central Assistance
b) Affordable Care Alliance
c) Additional Care Assistance
d) Achievement in Central Alliance.
56. Aims of redevelopment policy include:
a) Reuse of cleared land.

b) Removal of existing building
c) Use of open land that was interspersed among the improved building and possibly land also and latter
may be required for street widening, commercial uses etc.
d) All of the above
57. What type of document is Development plan?
a) Financial Reports and Documents

b) Statutory document
c) Auditor’s report
d) Non-Statutory document
58. What are the 3 aspects of urban renewal?
a) Redevelopment, Rehabilitation, Conservation

b) Reconstruction, Slum clearance, Construction
c) Reformation, Reconstruction, Rehabilitation
d) Restoration, Conservation, Retribution.
59. Which of these are not goals of Urban renewal
a) Urban settlement
b) Financial adequacy of government
c) Allotment or reservation of land
d) Traffic and transportation
60. Which is of the city is not identified under JNNURM
a) Mysore.
b) Shimla
c) Nagpur
d) Bangalore
61. Which of these are not promoted by PUD?
a) A mixture of both land uses and dwelling types with at least one of the land uses being regional in
nature.
b) The clustering of residential land uses providing public and common open spaces.
c) Encouraging reforms and fast track planned development of identified cities.
d) Increased administrative discretion to a local professional planning staff while setting aside present
land use regulations and rigid flat approval processes.
62. Which of these are not the Urban basic services of the poor?
a) Slum rehabilitation
b) Water supply
c) Housing
d) Schemes
63. What is the full form for CBD?
a) Central Business District

b) Contemporary Business District
c) Contemporary Business Development
d) None of the Above
64. Which is of these is not included the strategies of Urban Renewal.
a) Economic Upgradation
b) Blight
c) Clearance
d) Environmental Protection
65. Which of these is not a JNNURM project?
a) Urban Renewal
b) Development of roadway network
c) Preservation of water bodies
d) Storm water drains
66. As per the Urban and Regional Development Plan Formulation and Implementation (URDPFI) guidelines, the plan
period considered in a ‘Perspective plan’ is
a) 1-10 years
b) 11-15 years
c) 20-30 years
d) 35-45 years
67. JNNURM stands for
a) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renovation Mission

b) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Redevelopment Mission
c) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Rehabilitation Mission
d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
68. PUD is a type of
a) City Development and Regulatory Process

b) Building Development and also a Regulatory Process
c) Building Redevelopment and Conservation
d) Building Redevelopment and Rehabilitation
67. JNNURM was a
a) Urban Redevelopment Scheme

b) Massive City Modernization Scheme
c) City Modernization and Redevelopment Scheme
d) Delhi Redevelopment Scheme
68. DCR stands for
a) Department of Conservation and Recreation

b) Department Control Regulations
c) Development Control Regulations
d) Development,Conservation and Recreation
69. ‘Area based development’ and ‘Pan city development’ are part of
a) Atal Innovation Mission

b) Smart City Mission
c) Swachh Bharat Mission
d) Digital India Mission
70. Which one of the following is NOT a land use zone?
a) Industrial Zone
b) Agricultural Zone
c) Heritage Zone
d) Commercial Zone
71. IHSDP stands for
a) InternationalHousing Scheme andDevelopment Programme

b) IntegratedHousing Scheme andDevelopment Programme
c) International Housing and Slum Development Programme
d) Integrated Housing and Slum Development Programme
72. The duration of the JNNURM mission is
a) 5 years
b) 7 years
c) 3 years
d) 10 years
73. Which one of the following is NOT a group of general benefits of Urban Renewal?
a) Industrial benefits
b) Physical benefits
c) Social benefits
d) Economic benefits
74. What is CRZ
a) Central regulation Zone

b) Coastal Regulation Zone
c) Coastal regional Zone
d) Central Regional Zone
75. Important Central commercial Zone where the commercial function is the predominant function are called as
a) Central Business District

b) Central commercial zone
c) Business district
d) Central zone
76. Indian Master Plan approach was fundamentally guided by the _______Town Planning legislations.
a) American
b) french
c) Greek
d) British
AR6903 PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE AND ETHICS
Max. Marks: 50 Unit-IV Duration: 1 Hr.
1. The Arbitration Act came into force on?

a. 1947
b. 1954
c. 1996
d. 1966
2. Which are the correct methods of ADR?

a. Legislation, Arbitration and Negotiation
b. Negotiation, Legislation and Mediation
c. Arbitration, Negotiation, Conciliation and Mediation
d. Legislation and Mediation
3. How many arbitrators are normally appointed by the parties in an arbitration?

a. Parties are free to determine the number of arbitrators provided that such number
shall not be even number.
b. Parties are free to determine the number of arbitrators provided that such number shall not
be odd number.
c. Only sole arbitrator should be appointed
d. None of the above
4. What’s an arbitrator’s role?

a. Sit and talk
b. Acts like a judge
c. Acts like a jury
d. Acts like a police officer
5. Which are the correct disadvantages of Arbitration?

a. Legal point, Flexible, Fees expensive and Delays
b. Fees expensive, Legal point, Delays and Limited appeal
c. Limited appeal and Its Quick
d. Flexible
6. What does ADR actually stand for?

a. Alternative desperate resolution
b. Alternative despite resolution
c. Alternative dispute resolution
d. Additional dispute resolution
7. The term “Arbitration Agreement “comes under-

a. Chapter I
b. Chapter II
c. Chapter III
d. Chapter IV
8. Which of the following is the most Accurate description of arbitration?

a. An informal meeting between the parties involving a discussion as to how the issue may be
resolved.
b. An adjudicative process where the parties submit their dispute, for a binding decision,
to an impartial tribunal.
c. A meeting between the parties where an impartial third party facilitates discussions
d. None of the options given is correct.
9. Arbitral tribunal has no jurisdiction to issue-

a. Interim award.
b. Award.
c. Winding up orders.
d. Ex-parte Orders.
10. Arbitration is a legal process

a. Difference relating to their mutual rights and obligations
b. Difference relating to intoxication

c. Difference relating to drugs
d. Difference relating to sexual assault
11. Advantages of Arbitration

a. Less time consuming
b. More time consuming
c. Time pass
d. Wastage of time
12. Execution of a domestic arbitral award is governed by:

a. Section 34
b. Section 36
c. Section 35
d. Section 14s
13. Architects Interpretation

a. Clause no 4
b. Clause no 5
c. Clause no 6
d. Clause no 7
14. Sub-contractors
a. Clause no 20
b. Clause no 24
c. Clause no 26
d. Clause no 28
15. Extension of time to contractor

a. Clause no 35
b. Clause no 37
c. Clause no 39
d. Clause no 40
16. Which one of the following is not a valid method for creating easements?
a. Implied creation of an easement by necessity incorrect
b. Implied creation of an easement by common intention incorrect
c. Implied creation of an easement under a constructive trust correct
d. Express grant/reservation of an easement in a deed
17. In case of three arbitrators, the ‘Third arbitrator’ shall act as:
a. An umpire
b. A Presiding Arbitrator
c. Sole arbitrator
d. Assistant Arbitrator
18. A sum directed to be paid by an arbitral award shall carry interest of

a. 6% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
b. 12% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
c. 18% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
d. 24% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
19. An arbitral award

a. Has to be in writing but need not be signed
b. Has to be in writing and signed by the members of the arbitral tribunal
c. May be oral
d. May be in writing but no signature required
20. After the arbitral award is made, each party shall be delivered
a. The original award
b. A signed copy of the award
c. A photocopy of the award
d. An unsigned copy of the award.
21. Recourse to a Court against an Arbitral Award may be made only if.
a. party to the dispute is not happy with the award
b. Even number of arbitrators were appointed by the parties
c. A party was unable to present his case
d. The party is not satisfied with the award passed
22. The Indian Easements Act came into force on

a. 1892
b. 1882
c. 1792
d. 1872
23. Easement is an offshoot of the law of

a. property
b. limitation
c. specific relief
d. contract
24. Which of the following is not an example of an easement?

a. A right of way over a neighbor’s land.
b. A right to light.
c. A right to park your car on another's land
d. The right of a postman to cross your land to deliver post.
25. For Easement: which is false statement

a. The grant of an easement is not a transfer of ownership
b. The transfer of Property Act has no application to the creation of an easement.
c. Both “a” and “b” are right
d. Both “a” and “b” are wrong
26. A written statement of the reasons for the challenge to the arbitral tribunal has to be sent within
a. 15 days of becoming aware of the constitution or the reasons
b. 30 days of becoming aware of the constitution or the reasons
c. 14 days of becoming aware of the constitution or the reasons
d. 60 days of becoming aware of the constitution or the reasons
27. One whose enjoyment is continual without the act of man

a. Discontinuous easement
b. Continuous easement
c. Apparent easement
d. Permanent easement
28. The one who enjoys the easement and to whom it attaches is called
a. Servient estate.
b. Dominant estate.
c. Servient tenement.
d. Dominant tenement.
29. If a property owner conveys their land in a way that deprives them of access to the remainder of
the property, they have by implications an
a. Easement in gross
b. Easement appurtenant
c. Easement of necessity
d. Easement by prescription
30. The enjoyment of the easement should be without

a. Violence
b. Stealth.
c. Permission.
d. All of the above.
31. Easement by grant may be created

a. expressly
b. impliedly
c. by presumption
d. All of the above
32. If anna sells a parcel of her land to Jamal but in the deed includes an easement allowing her to
continue using the driveway that traverses his parcel to access the highway, the easement is
created by
a. Restriction
b. Grant
c. Reservation
d. Right of way
33. The Copyright Act came into force on?

a. 1952
b. 1955
c. 1957
d. 1962
34. The term of copyright for an author lasts how long?

a. The life of the author
b. The life of the author plus 60 years
c. 95 years
d. 75 years
35. Copyright law applies to forms of expression contained in

a. Song lyrics and musical compositions
b. Sculptures and paintings

c. Dramatic and literary works
d. All of the above
36. Which of the following is NOT a necessary criterion for protection of the copyright holder?
a. The work is of a type that is protected under the CDPA 1988
b. The work does not have to be produced in a tangible form - e.g. thoughts qualify
c. The work satisfies the requirement of originality.
d. The owner/creator is a British citizen / the work was first published in the UK
37. The remedies available for infringement of copyright does NOT include which of the following:
a. Injunction
b. Account of profits
c. Rectification
d. Damages
38. Which of the following would NOT allow protection through copyright?
a. Ideas
b. Music and broadcasts
c. Typological arrangements of published editions
d. Dramatic productions
39. Which of the following will allow for a patent to be successfully applied?
a. A new dramatic art
b. The presentation of information
c. An invention that would not have been obvious to someone with skill and experience
in the area
d. A new form of doing business
40. The intentional copying of a registered design constitutes which ONE of the following?
a. No breach of the owner's rights
b. An offence under equity
c. A criminal offence
d. A civil offence
41. The Patent Act came into force on?

a. 1790
b. 1970
c. 1890
d. 1990
42. The owner of a patent can grant licenses:

a. To registered companies only
b. To individuals only
c. To anyone
d. To anyone, but only after taking permission from the Controller General of Patents, Designs
and Trade Marks
43. Indian Patent system has

a. Pre-grant opposition
b. Post-grant opposition
c. Both (a) & (b)
44. Infringement of Copyright Comes under which section

a. Section 45
b. Section 55
c. Section 60
d. Section 65
45. The Consumer Act came into force on?

a. 1896
b. 1986
c. 1886
d. 1996
46. Consumer Protection Act is significant to

a. Immovable Goods
b. Movable Goods
c. Particular Goods and Services
d. All goods and services
47. Which Section of the Consumer Protection Act states about 'unfair trade practice'
a. Section 2(1)(d)
b. Section 2(1)(r)
c. Section 2(2)(r)
d. Section 2(1)(b)
48. As per Consumer Protection Act 'unfair trade practice' includes (i) falsely represents that the
goods/services are of a particular standard, quality or grade (ii) falsely represents any re-
built, second-hand, renovated, reconditioned or old goods as new goods (iii) represents that
the goods or services have sponsorship, approval, performance, characteristics, accessories,
uses or benefits which such goods or services do not have Codes: then the seller manipulates
the price, it is known as
a. (i) & (ii)
b. (i) & (iii)
c. (ii) & (iii)

d. (i), (ii) & (iii)
49. What was the cause of the rise of consumer movement?

a. The movement started to help consumers to form a group to protest against price rise.
b. The movement grew out of consumers dissatisfaction due to unfair practices of sellers.
c. The movement grew out of the satisfaction enjoyed by the consumers for fair practices of
the sellers.
d. The movement was started to help the sellers to promote their own interest and cheat
consumers.
50. When the authority allots a site or constructs a house for the benefit of common man, it is much as
a service by a private builder or a contractor, if the service is defective or it is not what was
promised, then it would be as ______________________ defined in the act
a. Caveat Emptor
b. Unfair trade practices
c. Restricted trade practices
AR6911 Urban Design 1
UNIT IV – ISSUES OF URBAN SPACE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Jane Jacobs advocated citizen ownership of streets through the now-famous idea of
A. eyes on the street

B. cars on the street
C. pedestrians on the street
2. -------------- refers to a cluster of ideas about place and identity in the fields of geography, urban planning,
urban design, landscape architecture, environmental psychology, and urban sociology/ecological sociology.
A. Place making
B. Place realm
C. Place identity
3. Methodologies for understanding place identity primarily involve --------------- techniques, such as
interviewing, participant observation, discourse analysis and mapping a range of physical elements.
A. Quantitative
B. Qualitative
C. Contemporary
4. ------------- includes redevelopment, conservation and rehabilitation.

A. Urban renewal
B. Urban sprawl
C. Urban decay
5. The process which involves clearance of property and the building of new structures according to a definite
pre-conceived plan is called
A. Redevelopment
B. Rehabilitation
C. Clearance
6. The process of withdrawal or redistribution of basic urban units, usually people or functions from previous
centre of concentration is
A. Reproduction
B. Revitalisation
C. Urban Decentralisation
7. The population congestion leading to unbearable living conditions, which is the root cause of planning a
renewal programme is due to
A. Urban decay
B. Urban agglomeration
C. Urban change
8. Deindustrialization is a characteristic of
A. Urban decay
B. Urban agglomeration
C. Urban change
UNIT 4 – ISSUES OF URBAN SPACE

9. Reimaging and reinvent public spaces as the heart of every community is

A. Place identity
B. Place making
C. Place realm
10. Attributes of successful public spaces include

A. They are accessible and well connected to other important places in the area.
B. They are uncomfortable and project a blighted image.
C. They are scarcely populated environments.
11. The process of adding value and meaning to the public realm through community-based revitalization
projects rooted in local values, history, culture and natural environment is
A. Place identity
B. Place making
C. Place realm
12. The concepts behind Place making originated in the

A. 1940s
B. 1950s
C. 1960s
13. The ------------ of a place by noting its connections to the surroundings, including the visual links.
A. Comfort
B. accessibility
C. sociability
14. Which of these is not a benefit of place making?

A. Better environmental quality
B. Greater community organization
C. Increases need for cars and parking
15. ------------- is the full range of our inherited traditions, monuments, objects, and culture.
A. Identity
B. Heritage
C. Culture
16. It is both tangible and intangible, in the sense that ideas and memories of songs, recipes, language, dances,
and many other elements of who we are and how we identify ourselves -are as important as historical buildings
and archaeological sites. This is an aspect of
A. Identity
B. Heritage
C. Culture

17. The term ‘conservation’ refers to

A. heritage protection
B. keeping a place in its existing state with a minimum of interference
C. involving certain adaptive changes
18. ‘Conservation’ also has the meaning to conserve for ---------------------

A. History
B. Sustainability
C. Identity
19. -------------- refers to a cluster of ideas about place and identity in the fields of geography, urban planning,
urban design, landscape architecture, environmental psychology, and urban sociology/ecological sociology.
A. Place identity
B. Place making
C. Place realm
20. Place identity is sometimes referred to as

A. deliberative planning
B. heritage significance
C. Urban character
21. Place identity has become a significant issue in the last ------------- years in urban planning and design.
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
22. The migration of a population from populated towns and cities to low density residential development over
more and more rural land is
A. Sub Urban decay
B. Sub Urban blight
C. Sub Urban sprawl
23. The centers of urban development have really made people want to stop settling in city centres and want to
venture further out to the sub urban areas. This is majorly because of
A. Lack of Urban Planning
B. Improved Infrastructure
C. Lower Land Rates
24. The effects of urban sprawl include

A. Social and Environmental
B. Private and Economic
C. Public and Environmental

25. --------------- is the study of the form of human settlements and the process of their formation and
transformation.
A. Morphology
B. Evolution
C. History
26. Generic urbanism describes a

A. specific, identity-lacking urban landscape
B. non-specific, identity-lacking urban landscape
C. None of the above
27. The city that has no specific reference points, either to its history or its residents, rather it responds to urban
stereotypes and hence it turns cities into yet another commodity, interchangeable from one another is known as
A. Generic city
B. Identic City
C. Specific city
28. The idea of Generic City was formulated by

A. Le Corbusier
B. I M Pei
C. Rem Koolhaas
29. An area in social life where individuals can come together to freely discuss and identify societal problems,
and through that discussion influence political action is called
A. Public realm
B. Place making
C. Place Identity
30. Urbanization is an outcome of both population growth and migration.

A. True
B. False
31. As the globalization process also have influence over our society, there is an emergence of the new concept
of
A. Gated Communities
B. Privatization of Public Realm
C. Real estate
32. A field of business activity dealing with land and buildings for providing value added services in developing
residential, commercial, institutional and integrated projects and related infrastructure is
A. Gated Communities
B. Privatization of Public Realm
C. Real estate

33. Urban Design in the Real Estate Development Process interprets urban design as a ---------------- activity.
A. Public realm
B. Place making
C. Place Identity
34. The combination of urban design and ------------- objectives produces urban environments in which people can
live, work, learn, play and recreate; all within a short walk or a transit ride.
A. Zoning
B. Transportation
C. Public Realm
35. How many types of Land Use Zoning are prevalent?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
36. Defining land use zones by the level of permitted intensity, such as the number of residential units per unit
of surface or allowed commercial surface is called
A. Functional zoning
B. Form-based zoning
C. Intensity zoning
37. Defining zones according to their physical characteristics, mostly from a urban identity perspective such as
the down-town area is called
A. Functional zoning
B. Form-based zoning
C. Intensity zoning
38. The term ------------------ means international integration.

A. Globalization
B. Technology
C. Digital age
39. The rural-urban interface and a landing ground for rural residents migrating to cities are
A. Periurban areas
B. Semiurban areas
C. Urban Areas
40. The hard component in Urban Planning refers to

A. Built environment
B. Infrastructure facilities
C. Landscape design

41. Cities became conceptualized as complex, jumbled, messy and incoherent assemblies of rough
juxtapositions. This is incoherence in Urban Design.
A. True
B. False
42. The application of sustainability and resilient principles to the design, planning, and administration/operation
of cities is
A. Environmental Urbanism
B. Sustainable Urbanism
C. Ecological Urbanism
43. Green urbanism is another common term for

A. Environmental Urbanism
B. Sustainable Urbanism
C. Ecological Urbanism
44. The concept introduced by E. O. Wilson referring to the connection between humans and other living
systems is known as
A. Bio Mimicry
B. Bio Climatic
C. Biophilia
45. The involvement of people in the creation and management of their built and natural environments is called
A. Community Participation
B. Community development
C. Community bonding
46. The activity of community participation is based on the principle

A. To promote a sense of community by bringing together people who share common goals
B. The planning system is meant to reflect the general wishes of the local community
C. The built and natural environments work better if citizens are active and involved in its creation and
management
47. Catalytic redevelopment is a holistic approach, not a clean-slate approach, to revitalizing the urban fabric.
A. Urban renewal
B. Urban catalyst
C. Redevelopment
48. The ------------- provides an idea how cities can manage sprawl and haphazard highway development by creating
successful mass transit systems.
A. Community Participation
B. Urban Regeneration
C. Transit Metropolis
49. To promote a sense of community by bringing together people who share common goals. Participation
should be
A. active and direct
B. passive and indirect
C. None of the above

50. In an effort to reduce mounting traffic congestion problems and improve environmental conditions, a number
of Chinese mega-cities, including Beijing and Shenzhen, have embraced the ------------- model for guiding urban
growth and public-transport investment decisions.
A. Urban renewal
B. Transit Metropolis
C. Idea of Catalyst
ANSWER KEY
1. A 30. A
2. C 31. C
3. B 32. C
4. A 33. B
5. A 34. B
6. C 35. B
7. B 36. C
8. A 37. B
9. B 38. A
10. A 39. A
11. B 40. A
12. C 41. A
13. B 42. B
14. C 43. B
15. B 44. C
16. B 45. A
17. A 46. C
18. B 47. B
19. A 48. C
20. C 49. A
21. A 50. B
22. C
23. C
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. A
28. C
29. A

AR6010 ADVANCE STRUCTURE
1. In Tensile structure, Load bearing capacity is achieved through?

a. Compression stress
b. Bending stress
c. Tension stress
2. A Tensile membrane structure is most often used as a ?

a. Facade
b. Roof
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. Wall
3. Tensile Membrane Structure Materials are?

a. ETFE
b. PTFE
c. PVC
d. All the above
4. What shapes can be achieved in Tensile fabric structure?

a. Conical
b. Barrel vault
c. Hypar
d. All the above
5. What is the strength of a Tensile fabric structure?

a. Maximum Strength of the membrane is 8 tones/linear meter
b. Maximum Strength of the membrane is 10 tones/linear meter
c. Maximum Strength of the membrane is 12 tones/linear meter
d. Maximum Strength of the membrane is 14 tones/linear meter
6. ETFE means?
a. Ether tetra fluoroethylene
b. Ethylene tetra fluorine
c. Ethylene tetra fluoride
d. Ethylene tetra fluoroethylene
7. PTFE means?
a. Polytetrafluoroethylene
b. Polytetrafluorine
c. Polytetrafluoride
d. Polytetrafluaraethylene
8. PTFE varies in translucency, with light transmission commonly ranging from?

a. 10-15%
b. 12-15%
c. 7-15%
d. 8-15%
9. ETFE varies in translucency, with light transmission commonly ranging from?

a. 70-75 %.
b. 80-85%.
c. 90-95%.
d. 65-70%.
10. Tensile fabric structure has good

a. Thermal Performance
b. Acoustic
c. Light transmission
d. All the above
11. Tensile structure maintenance cost will be

a. Low
b. medium
c. high
12. Life span of Tensile structure will be

a. 10-15 Years
b. 15-20 Years
c. 20-25 years
d. 25years above
13. Which are the correct disadvantages of Tensile structure?

a. Unique design
b. Light weight
c. No rigidity
d. Environmentally sensitive
14. Which are the correct advantages of Tensile structure?

a. Light weight nature
b. Loss of tension is dangerous for stability
c. Thermal vault limit use
d. Load transfer on fabric structure
15. Characteristic of tensile structure had

a. Economically and attractively span only small distances
b. Expensive and attractively span large distances
c. Economically and attractively span large distances
d. Expensive and attractively span only small distances
16. The fabric itself it generally very thin, approximately __mm thick?
a. 1 mm
b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm
d. 4 mm
17. Singly curved surfaces in tensile structure are called as

a. Monoclastic
b. Synclastic
c. Anticlastic
18. The centers of curvature are on the opposing sides of the surface are called as
a. Monoclastic
b. Synclastic
c. Anticlastic
19. The centers of curvature are on the same side of the surface are called as
a. Monoclastic
b. Synclastic
c. Anticlastic
20. Tensile structure use in.

a. Car parking Structure
b. Facades
c. Sports stadium roof
d. All the above
21. The Weight of the fabric is _______ of a conventional steel roof?

a. 1/20 th
b. 1/25 th
c. 1/30 th
d. 1/35 th
22. which is the low-cost fabric in Tensile structure

a. PVC coated polyester fabric
b. PTFE coated Fiber glass
c. ETFE copolymer of Ethylene
d. HDPE
23. Light transmission in ETFE up to?

a. 80%
b. 85%
c. 90%
d. 95%
24. The Tensile strength of ETFE can be

a. as much as 18% greater than PTFE
b. as much as 28% greater than PTFE.
c. as much as 8% greater than PTFE.
d. as much as 38% greater than PTFE.
25. PTFE is built from

a. PTFE is constructed from carbon and fluorine atoms
b. PTFE is constructed from Hydrogen and fluoride atoms
c. PTFE is constructed from carbon and fluoride atoms
d. PTFE is constructed from carbon and Hydrogen atoms
26. Which part will require more cost for making tensile structure?
a. Design
b. Membrane and Fabrication
c. Installation
d. Equipment
27. Membrane structure that are stabilized by pressure of compressed air is called as
a. Tensile structure
b. Cable structure
c. Pneumatic structure
d. Fabric structure
28. What are the types in pneumatic structure?

a. Air supported structure
b. Air inflated structure
c. Both (a) & (b)
29. What is meant by Air supported structure?

a. Supporting frames consist of air under high pressure.
b. They have air higher than the atmospheric pressure supporting the envelope.
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above.
30. Which will not come under General characteristic of pneumatic structure?
a. Light weight
b. Large span
c. Take more time to erect and dis mantle
d. Economy
31. Which are the correct Disadvantages of Pneumatic structure?

a. Portability
b. Need for the continuous maintenance of excess pressure in the envelope.
c. Covers large span without internal supports.
d. Rapid assembly and have low initial and operating cost.
32. Which are the correct Advantages of Tensile structure?

a. Relatively short service life
b. Cannot reach the insulation values
c. Rapid assembly and have low initial and operating cost.
d. Continuous operation to maintain pressure
33. Pneumatic structure best suited for?

a. Small Construction
b. Large Construction
c. Temporary construction
d. Both (a) & (c)
34. Envelope material used in pneumatic structure

a. Fiber Glass
b. ETFE & Polyster
c. Nylon
d. All of the above
35. Pneumatic structure use?

a. Positive pressure only
b. Negative pressure only
c. Positive pressure or negative pressure.
36. Types of surface curvature in pneumatic structures

a. Singly curved
b. Doubly curved in the same direction or synclastics
c. Doubly curved in the opposite direction or anticlastics
d. All the above
37. In Pneumatic structure positive pressure system membrane is always curve_____________ &
negative pressure system membrane is always curve______________?
a. Both outward
b. Both inward
c. Outward & Inward
d. Inward & Outward
38. In pneumatic structure, for bigger structure they use?

a. Reinforcing cable or nets
b. Anchor materials
c. Steel cables
d. All the above
39. The word “Pneumatic “derived from the ________ word, means Breath of air?
a. Roman
b. Greek
c. Latin
40. Choose the correct name for image (a)& (b)
a. Air supported structures

b. Air inflated structure & Air supported structure
c. Air supported structure & Air inflated structure
41. Cable structure resist external loads by __________

a. Compression
b. Shear
c. Tension
42. Cables can be made of

a. Mild steel
b. High strength steel
c. Stainless steel
d. All the above
43. The assumptions for the calculations are done for the cables. In that one of the assumptions is that
the cable is
a. Extensible
b. Non-flexible
c. Flexible
d. Static
44. The shape of a suspended cable under its own weight is called as
a. Parabolic
b. Circular
c. Catenary
d. All the above
45. The assumptions for the calculations are done for the cables. In that one of the assumptions is that
the cable is flexible and the other is that the cable is ___________
a. Extensible
b. Non-flexible
c. Inextensible
d. Static
46. The tensile force acting on the cable is in which direction w.r.t the cable?
a. Perpendicular
b. Parallel
c. Tangential
d. At an angle of 2 radians
47. The shape of cable under transverse uniformly distributed load is

a. Parabolic
b. Catenary
c. Circular
d. Triangular
48. Due to which property the cable, it offers no resistance to bending?

a. Extensible property.
b. Flexible property.
c. Non flexible property.
d. Static property.
49. The various points in the cable is facing a ____________ tensile force
a. Constant
b. variable
c. Insufficient
d. Non
50. Cable takes a shape of a ____________ when is subjected to loadings.

a. Helix
b. Line
c. Spring
d. Complex figure
AR6015 SUSTAINBLE PLANNING & ARCHITECTURE
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION TYPE- EACH CARRY ONE MARK 50X1=50 MARKS
1. LEED is the internationally accepted rating system for
a. Green Buildings c. Fire resistant buildings
b. Intelligent buildings d. Tall buildings
2. Organizations namely STACO, UNSCC and ISO are associated with,
a. Environmental planning c. Modular co-ordination
b. Landscape Architecture d. Urban design
3. GRIHA is a rating for Green buildings given by
a. The Energy Research Institute c. Development Alternatives
b. Bureau of Energy Efficiency d. Ministry of power
4. Match the Safety Color codes,
A. Blue 1.Biodegradable waste
B. Green 2. Fire protection equipment
C. Red 3. Recyclable waste
D. Yellow 4. Stumbling against hazards
5. Radiation standards
a. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 b. A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1 c.A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5 d.A-1, B-5, C-2, D-4
5. Identify which is NOT a green building rating system
a. LEED b. CASBEE c. ENERGY BUILD d. BREEAM
6. BEES is an acronym for
a. Building for Environmental and Economic Sustainability
b. Built Environment and Ecological Society
c. Building for Energy and Environment Sustainability
d. Built Environment and Engg Services
7. Out of the following, the maximum points in the LEED (new construction) rating
system can be earned through
a. Sustainable sites c. Water efficiency
b. Materials and Resources d. Energy and Atmosphere
1|MCQ – 2020-2021
8. Excellence in Design for Greater Efficiency (EDGE) programme DOES NOT focus on
a. Lower carbon emission c. greater resource efficiency
b. Cost effectiveness d. Labour safety
9. Minimum points required for GRIHA certification is
a. 35 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60
10. Associate the green rating system in Group-I with the respective country in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
a. CASBEE 1 UAE
b. Green Mark 2 China
c. GRIHA 3 Japan
d. Estidama 4 Singapore
5 India
(A) a-2, b-4, c-5, d-1 (B) a-4, b-1, c-5, d-2
(C) a-3, b-5, c-1, d-2 (D) a-3, b-4, c-5, d-1
11. Which of the following is not a benefit of Green building?
a. Reduces or eliminates negative impacts on the natural environment
b. Preserves natural resources
c. Improves quality of life
d. Increase the carbon footprint of buildings
e. Generates less green house gases
12. What types of features can be incorporated to make a ‘building green’?
a. Efficient use of energy, water and natural resources
b. Use of renewable energy sources
c. Population and waste reduces features
d. All the above
e. None of these
13. How can u reduce water consumption in a green building?
a. Install low-flow toilets c. Rainwater harvesting
b. Greywater recycling d. All the above
2|MCQ – 2020-2021
14. One of the most important aspects of the design of a Green Building is the
implementation of low impact, renewable and sustainable energy sources. Which of
the following is not an ideal energy source for a Green Building?
a. Natural gas c. wind
b. Solar d. Biomass
15. An example of an alternative building material to concrete that has a lower
environmental impact is:
a. Recycled plastic c. Earth bags
b. Wooden piers d. All the above
16. Which flooring option would be the most eco-friendly and have the lowest
environmental impact?
a. Cork c. Tile
b. Concrete d. Bamboo
17. What is the name for an area that has not been developed, compacted, or cleared
that could support open space, habitat, or natural hydrology?
a. Greenfield c. Bottleneck
b. Brownfield d. Blackfield
18. When the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) refers to "green building" it
intends that construction and renovation be:
a. Time efficient c. resource efficient
b. Cost efficient
19. A building which utilizes solar energy such as solar film effectively ________ heat
gain during the winter and ________ heat gain during the summer.
a. increases; reduces c. reduces; increases
b. reduces; reduces
20. Which of the following is not a local voluntary programme benchmarking building
performance?
a. Building Environmental Assessment Method (BEAM).
b. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED).
c. Hong Kong Energy Efficiency Registration Scheme for Buildings (HKEERSB).
3|MCQ – 2020-2021
21. LEED is a building rating system developed and maintained by:

a. The New Jersey Board of Public Utilities
b. The US Department of Energy
c. The US Environmental Protection Agency
d. The US Green Building Council
22. A building energy management system (BEMS) is a computer that controls all major
building equipment such as heating, ventilation, and air conditioning units, elevators,
lighting, etc.
a. True b. False
23. Which of the following are required in order to achieve LEED certification?
a. Satisfy All Prerequisites and Earn All Possible Credits
b. Satisfy Half of the Prerequisites and Earn 20 Credits
c. Satisfy Half of the Prerequisites and Earn All Possible Credits
d. Satisfy All Prerequisites and Earn a Minimum Number of Credits
24. If you have earned 55 credits, which level of LEED certification have you achieved?
a. Certified c. Silver
b. Platinum d. Diamond
25. How many points are possible to earn in the Innovation in Design category?
a. 2 b. 10 c.24 d. 6
26. Name the chapters in LEED rating system?
a. Sustainable Site d. water efficiency
b. Energy & Atmosphere e. Indoor Environment Quality / Material & Resources
c. None of these f. All the above
27. If you have completed all of the LEED prerequisites and earned 81 credits, what level
of LEED certification have you earned?
a. Bronze b. Platinum c.LEED Certified d. Gold
28. Who can become IGBC members
a. Architect c. Builders
b. Consult d. All the above
29. Which area should not be considered in calculation of fees?
4|MCQ – 2020-2021
a. Open area c. Parking area

b. Lift area d. Service area
30. How long does IGCB take to perform preliminary review?
a. 60 working days c. 7 working days
b. 30 working days d. 24 hours
31. Name the largest consumers of water in a typical building?
a. Irrigation c. Toilets
b. Ac make up water d. All the above
32. Which of the following is not the purpose of a green building?
a. To reduce use of water c. To minimize damage of the environment
b. Re-use of waste materials d. None of the above
33. Where is India's first green building located?
a. ITC Green Centre, Gurgaon
b. CII – Sohrabji Green Business Centre, Hyderabad
c. Wipro Technologies, Gurgaon
d. Suzlon one Earth, Pune
34. Which of the following is not an economic benefit for a green building?
a. 20 – 30 % energy used c. 20 – 30 % less water used
b. Enhance asset value d. None of the above
35. Which of the following is not a green building component?
a. Water efficiency c. Material efficiency
b. Design efficiency d. None of the above
36. What is the minimum % of potable water quantity is to be reduced to achieve the
credit on water efficiency in air conditioning systems?
a. 50% b. 35% c. 25% d.40%
37. How to reduce amount of waste water generated in a building?
a. Use STP treated water c. low flow fixtures
b. Reduce potable water use for building sewage by 50% d. All the above
5|MCQ – 2020-2021
38. Associate the buildings in Group-I with the green rating system in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
a. ITC Green Centre, Gurgaon 1. IGBC
b. Suzlon One Earth, Pune 2. BREEM
c. Central Bank of Ireland 3. LEED
d. Godrej green building 4. GRIHA
(A) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1 (B) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 (C) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 (D) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
39. If you have completed all of the LEED prerequisites and earned 81 credits, what level
of LEED certification have you earned?
a. Bronze c. Platinum
b. LEED Certified d. Gold
40. If you have earned 55 credits, which level of LEED certification have you achieved?
c. Certified c. Silver
d. Platinum d. Diamond
41. Match the LEED rated buildings in India GROUP I with their certification in GROUP II
Group-I Group-II
a. Wipro Technologies, Gurgaon 1. Sliver
b. World Bank, Chennai 2. Platinum
c. NEG Micon, Chennai 3. Certified
d. GMR aero tower 4. Gold
(A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 (B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 (C) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 (D) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
42. What is the minimum distance between site and wet land?
a. 115’ b. 100’ c. 125’ d. 105’
43. If a project achieves “Gold” rating in pre certification, can it apply for Platinum in
final certification?
a. Yes b. No
44. Which is the materials that would be considered construction waste?
a. Brick b. Glass c. cement bags d. None of these
6|MCQ – 2020-2021
45. What is the average recycled content % of steel and glass?

a. 30-35% b.15-20% c. 20-25% d. 10-15%
46. Mention the innovations in a green building?
a. Green education c. Green house keeping
b. Car pooling. d. All of these
47. CFL is good replacement for?
a. Incandescent bulbs c. LED
b. Halogens d. None of these
48. Which are major consumers of energy in a building?
a. AC b. light c. power equipments d. All the above
49. What is LPD stand for?
a. Low Probability of Detection c. Light Point Defect
b. Light power density d. Landing Platform Dock
50. Match the LEED rated sections in GROUP I with their points in GROUP II
Group-I Group-II
a. Sustainable Sites 1. 10
b. Materials and Resources 2. 15
c. Energy and Atmosphere 3. 26
d. Water Efficiency 4. 35
e. Indoor Environmental Quality 5. 14
(A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-5, e-3 (C) a-3, b-5, c-4, d-1, e-2
(B) a-3, b-4, c-5, d-2, e-1 (D) a-5, b-4, c-2, d-1, e-3
*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*
7|MCQ – 2020-2021

Year 5, Sem IX MCQ Unit 4

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Subject Code : AR6901

Subject Title : SPECIFICATIONS AND ESTIMATION

Unit IV DETAILED ESTIMATE 10

2. _________________ is required for preliminary studies of various aspects of a

5. The approx. cost of 10 km length of irrigation channel of 3 cu m per sec. capacity

6. Approx. cost of a bridge of 3 spans of 50 m each span @Rs.30000/- per running

13. _______________ estimate is a detailed estimate and is prepared to maintain

15. The term ______________ is used to denote a procedure of costing or valuing

16. Which estimate is expected to be least accurate?

B. Plinth area estimate

Answer B. Plinth area estimate

18. The person who enjoys the estimate right is called a

Answer D. Servient owner

19. Annual repair estimate is usually not allowed to exceed

A. 10% of capital cost

Answer C. 2% of capital cost

20. Which of the following is necessarily an accurate estimate?

A. Plinth area estimate

B. Cubical content estimate

D. None of the above

Answer B. Cubical content estimate

21. The estimated time required to complete an activity is known as

A. Total power at mains in KW

B. Amperage of every point

Answer- A. Total power at mains in KW

23. The most reliable estimate is

C. Plinth area estimate

D. Cube rate estimate

Answer- C. Plinth area estimate

Answer- B. Verandah area

25. The main factor to be considered while preparing a detailed estimate is

A. Quantity of the materials

D. All of the above

29. The useful liveable area of a building is also known as

Answer- B. Circulation area

31. The life of a structure with brickwork in a lime or cement is taken as

32. The life of teakwood doors and windows is usually take as

33. The duet metal work is measured in

B. Square metre on the basis of surface area

Answer- C. Cubic Metres

35. In a detailed estimate the provision for contingencies is, usually

D. Gauge of the material

Answer- A. Pitch of corrugation

37. The expected life of cement concrete floor is taken as

38. The measurement is made in a square metre in case of

A. Cement concrete in foundation

C. Hollow concrete block wall

D. None of the above

Answer- A. Cement concrete in foundation

41. Which of the following data is not required to prepare an estimate?

60. Which of the following is not a lumpsum item in the estimate?

63. Works like whitewashing and plastering are measured in ________

65. Unit of measurement for damp proof course is ____________

67. Unit of measurement of asbestos cement sheet roofing is __________

68. Unit of measurement of rainwater pipe is ________

UNIT IV - URBAN PLANNING AND URBAN RENEWAL

2. What id urban decay?

3. Jawaharlal Nehru Urban Renewal Missionis a

a) Massive city modernization scheme.

a) Area with untidy and ill ventilated residence.

5. Which one of the following is the urban redevelopment policy

a) High degree of loss of efficiency.

6. Which one of the following takes place in strategies of urban renewal

7. What is the period of industrial revolution