E Tortang 12okt Ut

Történelem angol nyelven emelt szint
Javítási-értékelési útmutató 1112
2012. október 17.
TÖRTÉNELEM
ANGOL NYELVEN
EMELT SZINTŰ ÍRÁSBELI

ÉRETTSÉGI VIZSGA
●
ÉRETTSÉGI VIZSGA
JAVÍTÁSI-ÉRTÉKELÉSI
ÚTMUTATÓ
EMBERI ERŐFORRÁSOK
MINISZTÉRIUMA
Történelem angol nyelven — emelt szint Javítási-értékelési útmutató
Guide to the evaluation of the essays

The paper should be corrected using the following symbols, and in a colour different from
that used by the candidate.
1. Correct answer 9
2. Missing part √
3. Not closely connected to topic [ ]
4. Unnecessary part that cannot be evaluated (crossed out)
5. Grave mistake in the content (underlined)
6. Meaningless, unclear text, logical problems (underlined) ∼∼∼∼∼∼
7. Inaccurate use of English (underlined) …………
8. Grave spelling or punctuation mistake (underlined)
Under each task, on the left-hand side of a box you can find the number of maximum
points that can be given. Write the total (added-up) number of points achieved by the
candidate in one task into the right-hand side of this box.
The sub-points given for the sub-tasks should also be written on the test paper(s).
Only the solutions provided in the key can be accepted, and the maximum number of
points for each task should not be disregarded. The detailed key indicates if (parts of)
alternative answers, i.e. reasoning, can differ from the ones that are provided in the key.
I. Correcting and evaluating short-answer tasks
The basis for evaluation is that the answers provided in the key must always be
accepted.
Scoring
Correct answer/ or part of an answer: 0.5 or 1 point (according to the key)

Incorrect answer: 0 points
Missing answer: 0 points
0.5 points can only be given where the key specifically allows for it.
Points allocated to individual parts of a task cannot be further subdivided.
When adding up the sub points for a task, points should not be rounded up or down, e.g.
3.5 should be left as 3.5.
When scoring tasks with answers consisting of several elements or parts:

• when 2 points can be given and the answer consists of two parts, each correct part can be
awarded 1 point,
• when 1 point can be given and the answer consists of two parts, each correct part can be
rewarded with 0.5 points.
In the case of open-ended questions (e.g. reasoning, text analysis) any answer that has the
same content as the answer provided in the key should be accepted. (This is why solutions for
these tasks begin with 'E.g.')
írásbeli vizsga 1112 2 / 25 2012. október 17.

In the case of tasks where the candidate has had to choose the correct answer from among
several options, e.g. to decide if a statement is true or false, no points can be given to a
candidate who has underlined or marked more than one of the options. If a specific number of
elements are required in one answer and the candidate provides more that this number of
elements, then they must be evaluated in the order in which they are written.
Extra points cannot be given.
Points cannot be subtracted for incorrect or missing answers.
If the total of short-answer tasks is a round number, nothing needs to be done, if it is
not, it should be rounded up according to the mathematical rules (e.g. 23.5 points should
be rounded up to 24 points).
The names of persons, topographical data and concepts which are in the national curricula
can only be evaluated if they are spelled correctly.
The key must be followed in all circumstances, except in very special cases, the reason for
which must be explained in writing.
II. Correcting and evaluating longer, essay-type questions

1. Choosing the right tasks
Altogether four tasks can be evaluated:
two short and two long essays, which must all be about different periods, with at least
two of them dealing with Hungarian history, and at least one with world history.
Evaluating the paper when the essay questions were not chosen correctly
If the candidate chose four tasks but disregarded the guidelines for choosing the right
essay length or period, etc.
• the task(s) that would bring the fewest points should be disregarded so that the total
score is as high as possible
• the task (or those two or three tasks) that are chosen correctly and that would bring the
highest number of points to the candidate should be evaluated and scored
If a candidate started working on more than four tasks, but his or her final choice of
tasks is not indicated properly, and there are four tasks that were chosen correctly, then the
task that comes earliest in the test booklet should be evaluated, followed by those two that
were correctly chosen. For example these can be tasks 13, 16, 17, 20. or 14, 16, 17, 20.
If the candidate starts working on more than four tasks, but s/he has not chosen at least
four tasks correctly, then those or that one should be evaluated that were correctly chosen, and
which would bring the highest number of points.
If the candidate starts working on all the tasks but has failed to indicate which four s/he
would like evaluated, then, according to the instructions to the test, tasks 13, 16, 19, 22.
should be evaluated.
2. Evaluating the tasks

When evaluating the tasks, the following should be taken into consideration:
a) understanding of the task
b) proper and relevant content
c) logical overall structure and accurate language
The essay-type questions should be evaluated using the key, which contains specific
guidelines for evaluating the content and the skills that are required.

a) Scoring of ’understanding of the task’:

When evaluating whether the candidate has understood the task properly, consider the
following:
• Identifying the task (period, topic): did the candidate write about the problem, topic,
and period in question?
• Keeping to the topic, emphasizing the main points: did the candidate focus on the
main point of the question?
• Content value, complexity: how complex and relevant are the reasoning and the
statements?
• Variety and efficiency of skills used: did the candidate use the sources, and did s/he
state the main points and draw the conclusion properly?
First of all decide whether the candidate can be given any points at all (out of the
maximum 4 or 8 points) for ‘understanding of the task’. If not, the total number of points
achieved for that task can only be 0 too.
For shorter, problem-solving essay tasks

4 points can only be given if the candidate has fully and correctly understood the problem,
and his/her answer is proportionate, logical and focused. The candidate uses the sources to
draw important conclusions; the ratio of specific and general statements is balanced.
3 points can be given if the candidate deals with the whole scope of the problem,
understands it correctly, but the answer is unbalanced or not focused.
2 points can be given if the problem is only partially dealt with, and, although the sources
are used, no main conclusions are drawn from them.
1 point can be given if at least one of the statements of the candidate proves that s/he has
understood the problem, but most of the answer does not focus on identifying or discussing
the problem task.
0 points can be given if the candidate has not understood the task or has completely
misunderstood it, does not use the sources and his/her statements are not relevant to the
problem.
For longer, analysis-type essay tasks

7-8 points can only be given if the candidate has fully and correctly understood the
problem, and his/her answer is proportionate, logical and focussed. The candidate uses the
sources to draw important conclusions; the ratio of specific and general statements is
balanced.
4-6 points can be given if the candidate deals with the whole scope of the problem, and has
understood it correctly, but the answer is unbalanced and not focussed.
2-3 points can be given if the problem is only partially dealt with, and, although the
sources are used, no main conclusions are drawn from them..
1 point can be given if at least one of the statements of the candidate proves that s/he has
understood the problem, but most of the answer does not focus on identifying or discussing
the problem task.
0 points can be given if the candidate has not understood the task or has completely
misunderstood it, does not use the sources, and his/her statements are not relevant to the
problem.

b) Scoring ‘skills and content’
In the key the skills and competences a candidate has to show are marked with the letter
‘S’, while the description of what is required in terms of content is marked with the letter ‘C’.
Naturally, there is a close relationship between these two aspects of scoring, since the
skills can only be realised and evaluated through (the study of) content.
Usually one or two elements of content correspond to a skill or competence in the case
of the shorter problem-solving essay tasks, whereas in the case of the longer, analysis-type
essay tasks two or three elements will be involved, especially in the part where the causes of
an event are to be identified.
If the key identifies only one element of content as belonging to a skill, then the
number of points given for skills and contents must be the same. (E.g. in the case of short-
answer tasks only 0, 2 or 4 points can be awarded for the criteria Location: era and place and
Use of special vocabulary and the same points can be awarded for Location: era and place in
longer, essay-type tasks.)
If the key provides several content entries for a skill, certain points cannot be
awarded because of the close connection between them (e.g. 1 or 4 points cannot be awarded
for Use of sources and 1 or 5 points cannot be awarded for Describing the reasons behind an
event in short answer tasks, while in the case of longer, essay-type questions 1 or 4 points
cannot be awarded for Use of special vocabulary, 1 or 6 points cannot be awarded for Use of
sources and 1 or 7 points cannot be awarded for Describing the reasons behind an event).
As a general rule, follow the guidelines below when scoring the ‘skills and content’
section:
Scoring ‘Skills’ (‘S’)
2 points can be given if the score for content belonging to skill is relatively high (more than
50 percent of the maximum points)
1 point can be given if the candidate achieved at least 1 point for content and there are no
grave mistakes (incorrect facts or statements)
0 points can be given if the candidate does not get any points for content and his/her
answer contains a grave mistake.
The examples (E.g.) provided in the contents section show what can be accepted as good
answers. Most of the elements of content have two parts: identifying the period and the
topic; using concrete and abstract concepts; listing (identifying and presenting) and
interpretation (conclusion). If the answer fails to include both of these pairs, then of course it
means that the score should be halved too, leaving 1 point instead of the maximum 2.
Obviously in the case of the content other combinations of elements can be accepted, besides
those provided in the key, especially in the case of lists and conclusions. Sometimes the key
uses the word ‘or’ when listing several good examples, but not all correct answers are listed
here, so these are not the only ones that can be accepted.
Scoring ‘Contents’ (‘C’)
2 points can be given if sufficient accurate information is included, the analysis refers
properly and adequately to the sources (author, intentions, conditions, etc.); identifies
several typical causes and results, and/or mentions people who are involved in the historical
events.

1 point can be given if insufficient and not very relevant information, conclusions, or
statements, and only few (and not very typical) data are included.
0 points can be given if no data are provided, relationships between events are not
identified, or the statements are incorrect.
c) Scoring ’structure and accuracy’
For shorter, problem-solving essay tasks
2 points can be given if the text is structured and well-built of clear sentences, without
grave spelling or punctuation mistakes.
1 point can be given if the text contains several grammar and spelling mistakes.
0 points can be given if the text is merely an outline, an incoherent set of sentences.
For longer, analysis-type essay tasks
7-8 points can be given if the text is logically structured, coherent and well-built of clear
sentences, suits the content, with detailed and varied statements, and without spelling,
punctuation or grammar mistakes.
4-6 points can be given if the text is not very logically structured, but contains clear
sentences; some of the statements are simple, one-sided, and there are some minor spelling,
punctuation or grammar mistakes.
2-3 points can be given if the text contains clear sentences but is poorly structured, lacks
the right proportions, and is incomplete (e.g. the introductory, body or concluding
paragraph is missing). The statements are simplified, one-sided, with errors in the use of
language.
1 point can be given if the text contains sentences, but without textual or contextual
coherence, and with grave spelling, punctuation and grammar mistakes.
0 points can be given if the answer is merely an outline made up of words, rather than
sentences.
3. The length of essay-type tasks
It is one of the fundamental writing skills to be able to express one’s thoughts within the
limits specified by the task. The candidate may finish writing in the blank space below the
dotted lines, and this part of his/her answer can also be evaluated. In the case of short tasks,
this cannot be more than ca. 2-3 lines, while in the case of long tasks, ca. 4-5 lines.
4. The steps in evaluating the essay-type tasks

1. Study the key for the task.
2. Study the evaluation guide above.
3. Check whether the candidate has chosen the tasks correctly.
4. Read the candidate’s essay at least twice.
5. Give the various scores using the guides for scoring.
6. Add up the scores that will give the total number of points, then divide it by 3 or 4 to
get the exam points.

7. Do not round the scores for the tasks up or down.

8. Add up the exam points of the four essays. If the total is
- a round number, nothing needs to be done;
- not a round number, it should be rounded up or down according to the
applicable mathematical rule (e.g. 23.33 points will be rounded down to 23
points; 23.5 or 23.66 points will be rounded up to 24 points).
III. How to calculate the final score of the exam paper

Add up the scores for the first and second parts (I and II).
Tables for evaluating and scoring the tasks
Short essay tasks
Maximum Achieved
Criteria
Points
Understanding of task 4
Location: era and place 4
Use of special vocabulary 4
Use of sources 6
Describing the reasons behind an event 8
Structure, accuracy 2
Total 28
DIVIDED BY 4
Exam points 7
Long essay tasks
Maximum Achieved
Criteria
Points
Understanding of task 8
Location: era and place 4
Use of special vocabulary 6
Use of sources 10
Describing the reasons behind an event 12
Structure, accuracy 8
Total 48
DIVIDED BY3
Exam points 16

I SHORT ANSWER TASKS
1 Ancient Rome (Total: 4 points)

a) (0.5 points for each correct item)
Name: Hannibal
Ancient state: Carthage (Also acceptable: Punic Empire)
b) (1 point)
c) (0.5 points for each correct item)

The starting year of the war: 218 B.C.
The finishing year of the war: 201 B.C.
d) (1 point)
C)
2 Mediaeval scholarship (Total: 4 points)

a) (1 point)
Faith (religion or theology) and science (the intellect) are compatible, or the idea of the dual
truth (faith/theology and science) or the precedence of faith/theology as opposed to science.
(Any other, essentially similar answers composed in the candidate’s own words are also
acceptable. A quote from the source is not acceptable.)
b) (1 point)
Scholasticism (Also acceptable: Thomism)
c) (1 point)
Aristotle (Also acceptable: Plato)
d) (0.5 points for each correct item)
13th century
Dominican order
3 Mediaeval Hungarian military history (0.5 points for each correct item, total: 5 points)
a)
A) Nicopolis; 1396
B) Muhi; 1241
C) Augsburg (Also acceptable: Lechfeld); 955
D) Nándorfehérvár; 1456
b) Béla IV; 1235
4 The Reformation and the Counter-reformation (Total: 4 points)

A) Reformed or Calvinist
B) (Roman) Catholic
C) Evangelical or Lutheran
D) 1517

b) (0.5 points for each correct item)

E) Switzerland
F) Spain
c) (1 point)
Protestant
5 Hungary in the 18th century (Total: 4 points)

A) low duty
B) high duty
b) (1 point)
C) taxpaying nobility
c) (1 point)
Habsburg Empire
d) (1 point)
Maria Theresa
6 18th-19th-century French history (0.5 points for each correct item, total: 5 points)
a) B), D), A), C)
b)
Crimean War: Napoleon III
Franco-Prussian War, 1870: Napoleon III
French Revolution, 1789: Louis XVI
Russian campaign: Napoleon (I) or Napoleon Bonaparte
c) Alsace and Lorraine or Alsace-Lorraine (0.5 points can be awarded only if both regions
are listed.)
d) Prussia or Kingdom of Prussia or North German Confederation
7 The April laws (0.5 points for each correct item, total: 4 points)
a) True
b) False
c) False
d) False
e) False
f) True
g) False
h) True
8 20th-century world history (0.5 points for each correct item, total: 3 points)
a) GULAG / Gulag
b) iron curtain
c) ghetto
d) détente (Also acceptable: easing of strained relations)
e) Holocaust
f) relocation or deportation
9 Hungary between the two world wars (Total: 3 points)

a) B, D, C, A (correct order: 1 point)
b) A (0.5 points)

c) (1 point)
Mihály Károlyi
d) (0.5 points)
President of the Republic (Also acceptable: Head of State)
10 20th-century Hungarian politicians (1 point for each correct row, total: 4 points)
The letter of the The person connected to The political function The number
source the period which is of the person of the photo
described in the source
text
A) János Kádár Secretary General of 4.
the Central Committee
of the Hungarian
Socialist Workers’
Party
B) Imre Nagy Minister of Agriculture 2.
C) Árpád Göncz President of the 1.

Republic
D) Mátyás Rákosi General Secretary of 3.

the Hungarian Workers’
Party
11 The European Union (0.5 points for each correct item, total: 2 points)
a)
A) Yugoslavia
B) Soviet Union
C) Czechoslovakia
b) (Mikhail) Gorbachev
12 Post-1990 Hungarian society (Total: 2 points)

a) (0.5 points)
The rate of employment is higher among people with a better education or the rate of
employment is lower among people with less education (Any similar answers are also
acceptable.)
b) (0.5 points)
in Budapest
c) (0.5 points for each correct item)
Any two items in the list below:
the crisis of the socialist system,
many people lost their jobs because of the regime change (new economic situation),
more unskilled workers lost their jobs,
a lower level of education may lead to losing one’s job,
regional differences,
negative discrimination
(Any similar answers are also acceptable.)

II LONGER, ESSAY-TYPE TASKS

13 Ancient Greek religion (short)
Criteria Skills and content Points
The candidate presents the principal features of ancient Greek
religion and religious cults.
Understanding
Using the sources the candidate refers to some essential 0–4
of task
connections (e.g. polytheism, personified gods, the links
between the world of the gods and the world of people).
S The candidate locates the era and the place of the events. 0–4
[neither 1
Location: era C The candidate states that the religion presented here spread point nor
and place throughout the Greek world, or s/he says that the gods lived on 3 points
Mount Olympus. can be
awarded]
S The candidate correctly uses the general and the specific 0–4
concepts related to the period. [neither 1
Use of special point nor
C The candidate uses the following general terms and topic-
vocabulary 3 points
related special vocabulary, e.g. religion, god, polytheism, can be
mythology. awarded]
S The candidate includes the information provided by the

sources in his or her essay and draws conclusions from them.
C E.g.: the candidate states the names of some of the gods or
s/he says that Zeus was the king of the gods and that the
religion of the ancient Greek was polytheistic. 0–6
C E.g.: the candidate mentions the characteristics of gods [neither 1
implied by the sources (e.g. vengefulness, jealousy), and s/he point nor
Use of sources 4 points
makes a relevant statement in connection with this (e.g. the can be
Greeks attributed human sentiments to their gods, their gods awarded]
physically resembled people, the gods maintained contact with
the human world, the world of the gods and the world of the
humans were not clearly separated, the gods personified natural
phenomena and various aspects of human life).
S The candidate presents the characteristic features of the
world of the Greek gods and religious cults and s/he explores in
what ways religion was present in ancient Greeks’ lives.
C E.g.: the candidate states that the lives of the gods were
recorded in the mythology and s/he makes a relevant statement
about the world of the gods (e.g. the gods lived on Mount
Olympus, the gods were immortal).
C E.g.: the candidate states that religion was part of everyday 0–8
Describing the [neither 1
life and s/he makes a statement about religious practice/the point nor
reasons behind
cults (e.g. the characteristics of the temples, the presentation of 5 points
an event can be
offerings, open-air ceremonies, the lack of a permanent awarded]
priesthood, each polis had its patron god) or s/he mentions the
location of some important shrines (e.g. Delphi, Dodona,
Olympia) and s/he identifies their importance (e.g. oracle,
athletic competitions).
C E.g.: the candidate states that each polis followed the same
religion and s/he says that this constituted a cementing force in
the fragmented world of ancient Greece.

The essay consists of complete sentences and has a logical

Structure, clear
structure. There are no grave spelling, punctuation or grammar 0–2
language
mistakes.
Total for this task 28
Exam points 7
14 Louis XIV (long)

The candidate presents Louis XIV’s absolutist government.
S/he presents the theoretical foundations of absolutism.
Understanding Through Louis XIV’s reign s/he presents what absolutist
0–8
of task government was in practice.
The candidate uses and interprets the sources in his or her essay
and draws conclusions from them.
0–4
S The candidate locates the era and the place of the events. [neither
Location: era C The candidate states that Louis XIV reigned in France in the 1 point
nor 3
and place 17th and 18th centuries, and s/he says that the royal court was in points
Versailles. can be
awarded]
concepts related to the period. [neither
Use of special C The candidate uses the following general terms correctly: 1 point
nor 4
vocabulary e.g. state, power, economy, army, court. points
C The candidate uses topic-related special vocabulary correctly: can be
e.g. absolutism, mercantilism, Protestant, Catholic. awarded]
S The candidate includes the information provided by the sources

in his or her essay and draws conclusions from it.
C E.g.: the candidate states that according to absolutist theory
the power of the monarch originates from God, and s/he says
that royal power was unlimited or the monarch’s decisions
were unquestionable.
C E.g.: the candidate states another idea from Bossuet’s
writing (e.g. according to the absolutist state theory the
monarch rules his nation as a father), and s/he makes a relevant
statement on the basis of this (e.g. the monarch uses his 0–10
[neither
unlimited fatherly power to bring happiness to his people, the 1 point
Use of sources monarch as a single person represents the interests of society). nor 6
C E.g.: the candidate states that Louis XIV built the centre of points
can be
his power in Versailles, and s/he makes a relevant statement in awarded]
connection with the palaces (e.g. the pomp served to
emphasise the divine origin/infiniteness of royal power, it was
a model for other absolutist monarchs).
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that a significant number of
Huguenots fled the country, and s/he makes a relevant statement
in connection with this (e.g. they settled primarily in the
protestant countries of Europe, this practically meant the re-
catholicisation of France, which caused a significant economic
decline).

S The candidate presents Louis XIV’s government and

identifies the characteristics of absolutism through it.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that Louis XIV did not call an
assembly of the estates, or the protestants (Huguenots) lost
their rights (by the revocation of the Edict of Nantes) and s/he
says that he continued the work of building the absolutist state,
which his predecessors had started.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that Louis XIV governed
through councils (and state secretaries and ministers, or by the
officials appointed to head the departements), and s/he says
that when appointing state officials, the most important criteria
were expertise and loyalty to the monarch, or through this he
lessened the influence of the nobility. 0–12
[neither
Describing the C E.g.: the candidate mentions one of the principal features of 1 point
reasons behind mercantilist economic policy, and s/he says how this was nor 7
an event connected to absolutist government (e.g. it constituted points
can be
significant state intervention in the economy, and this created awarded]
the financial basis of strong royal power) or s/he says that in
the second half of the reign of Louis XIV the state debt
increased significantly, and s/he mentions the principal causes
of this (Versailles, army, wars).
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that Louis XIV had a large and
modern mercenary army, and s/he says that France was the
leading power of Europe at the time or s/he says that Louis XIV
was called the Sun King in reference to his great power, and s/he
says that France became the model absolutist state during his
reign.
C The candidate makes independent statements and supports his
or her essay with good analytical skills.
The candidate’s essay consists of sentences, which are clear and
unambiguous.
Structure, The analysis is an organized text serving the logical discussion of
0–8
clear language the content.
The candidate’s statements demonstrate accurate analytical skills.
There are no grave spelling, punctuation or grammar mistakes.
Exam points 16
15 19th-century liberalism (short)

The candidate focuses on a presentation of the characteristics
of 19th-century liberalism and s/he outlines the circumstances
Understanding of its birth.
0–4
of task Using the sources the candidate refers to some essential
connections and the candidate identifies the most significant
features of liberalism.

[neither 1
Location: era C E.g. the candidate states that the idea of liberalism was born point nor
and place in Western Europe and that its birth can be dated in the 18th 3 points
and19th centuries (the Enlightenment). can be
awarded]
vocabulary 3 points
related special vocabulary (e.g. idea, liberty, individual, liberal, can be
equality, tolerance, right to vote). awarded]

sources in his or her essay and draws conclusions from it.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the liberal idea allows for
different opinions and lifestyles, and s/he says that the basis of
tolerance is the idea of liberty or the limitation of liberty is the 0–6
respect for the other person’s liberty. [neither 1
C E.g.: the candidate stresses the fact that one of the main point nor
components of liberalism is the declaration of equal rights, can be
equality between people (granting the right to vote, equality awarded]
between men and women), and s/he says that liberalism does
not believe in communities being founded on traditions and a
strong state or liberalism considers the role of the individual
and rationalism important.
S The candidate reveals the background of the birth of
liberalism and s/he outlines the main characteristics of liberal
principles.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the birth of liberalism was
connected to the ideas of the enlightenment, and s/he says that
the French revolution and the Napoleonic wars helped the 0–8
Describing the spread of these ideas. [neither 1
C E.g.: the candidate mentions some other feature of liberalism point nor
reasons behind 5 points
an event (e.g. the connection between liberty and responsibility, its can be
relations with executive power, the limitation of the role of the awarded]
state), and s/he explains the underlying theory or an instance of
practical realisation.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that liberalism favours free
competition, and s/he makes a relevant statement in connection
with this (e.g. the strengthening capitalism motivated this).
Structure, clear
language
mistakes.
Exam points 7

16 The problems of the developing countries (long)

The candidate presents the demographic boom which has been
characteristic of the developing countries and the problems
connected to it through the example of India.
Understanding
The candidate identifies the causes and the consequences of the 0–8
of task
demographic boom.
[neither
C The candidate states that the demographic boom started in 1 point
Location: era
the second half of the 20th century in most of the developing nor 3
and place points
world (in India) and s/he understands the global
can be
consequences of this. awarded]
S The candidate correctly uses the general and the specific
concepts related to the period. 0–6
[neither
C The candidate uses the following general terms correctly: 1 point
Use of special
e.g. population, city, education, food supply. nor 4
vocabulary points
C The candidate uses topic-related special vocabulary correctly:
can be
e.g. Third World (developing countries), demographic boom, awarded]
global problem.
C E.g.: the candidate states that the population of India has
been rapidly growing since World War II (or the declaration
of independence) (approximately tripled or quadrupled
between 1947 and 2010), and s/he says that this phenomenon
is called demographic boom.
C E.g.: the candidate states that despite their decreasing
number, there are still significantly more births than deaths,
which are also in decline, and s/he says that this is why 0–10
natural population growth is high or s/he mentions that in [neither
2010 the death rate was slightly lower, but the birth rate was 1 point
Use of sources nor 6
significantly higher in India than in the European Union, and points
s/he says that India has a young expanding society. can be
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that public transport is often awarded]
overcrowded in developing countries, and s/he says that the
development of the infrastructure cannot match the pace of
fast population growth or this often contributes to mass
accidents.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that in the developing world the
number of hospital beds per one thousand population is
significantly lower than in the European Union, and s/he says
that the standard of health care is generally lower than in the
developed world.

S The candidate presents the typical problems of the

developing countries in connection with overpopulation and
s/he identifies its consequences and significance.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the rapid population
growth led to the creation of multi-million metropolises,
ands/he mentions a characteristic feature or consequence of
this (e.g. the existence of shanty towns on the outskirts of
these cities).
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that most of the countries of
the developing world cannot supply their growing
populations with sufficient food (or drinking water) and s/he
says what sort of problems famine and malnutrition (and the 0–12
lack of drinking water) may contribute to (e.g. epidemics and [neither
Describing the 1 point
famines).
reasons behind nor 7
C E.g.: the candidate mentions a further consequence of the points
an event
overpopulation that is characteristic of developing countries can be
(e.g. in connection with education or the management of the awarded]
workforce), and s/he says what kind of problems this can
lead to (e.g. the high rate of illiterate people or an unskilled
and low-paid workforce).
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the problems of the
developing world have a global effect (e.g. due to migration
and global epidemics) or s/he mentions briefly the North-South
opposition, and s/he says that the developed countries (through
international organisations) make efforts to help the developing
countries.
C The candidate makes independent statements and supports
his or her essay with good analytical skills.
unambiguous.
The analysis is an organized text serving the logical discussion
Structure, clear
of the content. 0–8
language
The candidate’s statements demonstrate accurate analytical
skills.
Exam points 16
17 Charles Robert’s economic reforms (short)

The candidate focuses on presenting Charles Robert’s efforts at
increasing treasury income and their effects and on analysing
Understanding the sources in the task.
0–4
connections and reveals the background of the economic
decisions.

0–4
S The candidate locates the era and the place of the events. [neither 1
Location: era point nor
C E.g. the candidate states that Charles Robert reigned in
and place 3 points
Hungary between 1301/1308 and 1342. can be
awarded]
vocabulary 3 points
related special vocabulary, e.g. tax, duty, royal duty, gate-tax, can be
thirtieth tax, golden coin(age). awarded]

sources in his or her essay and draws conclusions from them.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that Charles Robert guaranteed
the freedom of trade in a certificate or the tradesmen had pay 0–6
[neither 1
duties, and s/he mentions the general effect of this (trade point nor
Use of sources
development, increase in royal revenue). 4 points
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that Charles Robert introduced can be
awarded]
the gate-tax, and s/he says that its role was to replace the
revenue lost in money exchange [lucrum camerae] or serfs paid
it by plot/gate.
S The candidate presents the background of the economic
policy decisions and s/he outlines the general effect of the
measures.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions the changes which affected
royal revenues from the mines (division of revenues from the
mines, the termination of forced land exchanges) and s/he
makes a relevant statement in connection with this (e.g. it
increased the mining of precious metals and as a result it was in
the interest of the landlords to open mines).
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that Charles Robert minted 0–8
golden forints and s/he makes a relevant statement in point nor
reasons behind
connection with this (e.g. it contributed to the increasing trade 5 points
an event can be
traffic, the stable currency improved the economic prestige of awarded]
the Kingdom of Hungary, and one of the preconditions for this
was the development of gold mining).
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the economic reforms were
made possible by the development of the production of goods
and money use, and s/he says that the measures were aimed at
increasing royal revenues or s/he says that the consolidation of
royal power was a precondition of introducing the reforms and
s/he says that the economic reforms were introduced in the
second half of the king’s reign.
Structure, clear
language
mistakes.
Exam points 7

18 The foreign policy of Sigismund of Luxembourg (long)

The candidate presents Sigismund of Luxembourg’s foreign
policy and mentions the factors which influenced foreign
policy.
The candidate presents the characteristic features of
Sigismund’s anti-Turkish policy and mentions the decisions and
Understanding factors which determined the monarch’s Turkish policy.
0–8
of task The answer concisely presents the schism in the western church
and the Hussite movement and s/he outlines the basic features
and the background of the measures brought in connection with
them.
C The candidate states that Sigismund of Luxembourg [neither
Location: era reigned in Hungary between 1387 and 1437 and s/he 1 point
nor 3
and place mentions the geographical and chronological connections of points
foreign policies (e.g. Nicopolis, 1396; the war with the can be
Hussites in Bohemia). awarded]
[neither
Use of special
e.g. campaign, emperor, church, army. nor 4
vocabulary
C The candidate uses topic-related special vocabulary correctly: points
can be
e.g. schism, Hussitism, council, heretic, system of border awarded]
castles.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that Sigismund fought a battle
with the Turks at Nicopolis and s/he says that the
international army suffered a crushing defeat.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that Sigismund wanted to
strengthen his army by introducing the obligation of landed 0–10
[neither
noblemen to provide soldiers based on the number of serfs’ 1 point
Use of sources plots. S/he also says that this was based on the number of nor 6
serfs or the military reform did not achieve its intended aim. points
can be
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the Hussite movement awarded]
evolved during the reign of Sigismund and s/he says that
Sigismund took a firm stance against it or the Council of
Constance was in part called to eliminate the heretical
movement.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions the western schism and s/he
says that Sigismund was successful in dealing with this issue.
S The candidate identifies the principal causes of Sigismund 0–12
of Luxembourg’s foreign policy measures and s/he presents [neither
Describing the
the international background and special connections of his 1 point
decisions. points
an event
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the defeat at Nicopolis can be
was partly due to the superiority of the Turkish forces and awarded]

s/he says that after this event Sigismund made defence his
priority (system of border castles in the south and the
creation of a buffer zone) or s/he says that the anti-Turkish
struggle would have served the defence of Christian Europe
as well as the Kingdom of Hungary and s/he says that the
lack of cooperation weakened the anti-Turkish stance.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that Sigismund was not only
King of Hungary, but also acquired the crown of Bohemia
and the title of Holy Roman Emperor, and s/he says that he
tried to use his increased influence to solve the problems
Europe was facing.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the questions of the
western schism and Hussitism appeared as parallel issues at
the Council of Constance, and s/he says that an attempt was
made to restrain the Hussite heresy by sentencing Jan Hus or
Sigismund’s personal qualities (e.g. his good diplomatic
sense) helped him deal with these problems.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that Sigismund’s foreign policy
can be judged as partly successful (e.g. the system of border
castles was efficient for a certain period and the elimination of
the Hussite movement was a success after the initial
difficulties), and s/he says that despite his efforts, the creation
of an effective anti-Turkish army failed or reforms in the
Catholic church were not introduced.
unambiguous.
Structure, clear
language
skills.
Exam points 16
19 The settlement of the Germans (short)

The candidate presents the settlement of the Germans
(Swabians) in Hungary as well as its causes and consequences.
Understanding
Using the sources the candidate refers to some essential 0–4
of task
connections (e.g. the political and economic objectives of the
court and the decreasing proportion of Hungarians).

S The candidate locates the era and the place of the events.
C E.g. the candidate states that the settlement of Germans 0–4
occurred in the 18th century and s/he mentions a geographical [neither 1
Location: era point nor
feature of the settlement (settlements were scattered in different
and place 3 points
parts of the country or s/he names some of the regions where can be
large numbers of settlers arrived (e.g. around Buda, the awarded]
southern Transdanubia, Temesköz).
vocabulary 3 points
related special vocabulary, e.g. population, catholic, German, can be
serf, settlement. awarded]

C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the settlers received
allowances (exemption from taxes for a specific period, 0–6
exemption from providing free accommodation for soldiers and [neither 1
free transport as required by the landlord), ands/he says that point nor
this worked as an incentive for settlement. can be
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the settlers received awarded]
construction materials or houses specially built for their use
and plots of land, and s/he says that the settlement was
conducted in an organised fashion.
S The candidate presents the characteristic features of the
settlement of the Swabians, s/he identifies its causes and its
demographic and ethnic consequences.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the German settlers were
Catholics and s/he says that their settlement partly served the
interests of the court (e.g. the reinforcement of the population
loyal to the court, the control of Protestantism). 0–8
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the settlements were in the point nor
reasons behind
interest of both the court and the landlords and s/he says that 5 points
an event can be
tax revenues increased as a result or the settlement was awarded]
motivated by the significant population decrease in the period
of the Turkish conquest and recent wars.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the settlements contributed
to a growing population in the 18th-century and s/he says that as
a result the proportion of Hungarians within the total population
decreased.
Structure, clear
language
mistakes.
Exam points 7

20 Society under the Dual Monarchy (long)

The candidate presents the leading sections of Hungarian
society in the period of the Dual Monarchy.
The candidate presents the most important characteristics of
the great landowning aristocracy and the high bourgeoisie.
Understanding
The candidate shows the duality in the structure of 0–8
of task
Hungarian society through his/her presentation of the two
sections (traditional sections – modern bourgeois society).
S The candidate locates the era and the place of the events.
C The candidate states that the presented social conditions 0–4
were prevalent in the second half of the 19th century and the [neither
Location: era first half of the 20th century or s/he mentions the 1 point
nor 3
and place chronological boundaries of the dual monarchy (1867-1918). points
S/he has a clear idea of where members of the presented can be
sections of society lived (e.g. mansions in the countryside, awarded]
palaces in Budapest, blocks of flats, villas).
concepts related to the period. [neither
Use of special C The candidate uses the following general terms correctly: 1 point
nor 4
vocabulary e.g. society, large estate, economy. points
C The candidate uses topic-related special vocabulary correctly: can be
e.g. high bourgeoisie, member of the high nobility, assimilation. awarded]

C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the great landowning
aristocracy made up a very small section of society (they
owned 0.2% of lands), and s/he says that they owned
enormous estates compared to their number (almost one third
of cultivated lands).
C E.g.: the candidate mentions the characteristic
circumstances of the great landowning aristocracy (mansion
and park, large library) and s/he says that their glamorous 0–10
lifestyle was mostly made possible by their inherited fortunes [neither
or a certain degree of isolation from the rest of the society 1 point
was typical of them. points
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the high bourgeoisie can be
typically lived in large blocks of flats or s/he mentions a awarded]
characteristic feature of their living quarters based on the
sources (e.g. many of them lived in Andrássy út, the largest
flats were on the first floor, some flats even had a bathroom),
and s/he says that their glamorous lifestyle was made
possible by their income from their economic activities.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that some of the most important
families of the high bourgeoisie received a baronial title and
s/he says that loyalty to the Crown was a precondition of this,
and, initially, belonging to a Christian church as well or this

attested to the survival of feudal traditions (the high bourgeoisie

tried to join the great landowning aristocracy in this way).
S The candidate presents the great landowning aristocracy
and the high bourgeoisie and also mentions their economic,
social and political role.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions a general feature of
Hungarian society in the period of the Dual Monarchy and
s/he explains how this was manifested regarding the leading
sections of society (e.g. the duality of the old and the new
aristocracy, the great landowning aristocracy either hadn’t
gone through bourgeois transformation or only to a lesser
degree and the high bourgeoisie imitated certain elements of
the great landowners’ lifestyle.).
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the members of the great
landowning aristocracy belonged to families of the high
nobility (dukes, counts and barons) and s/he says that they
made up a closed circle (they were relatives) or they held on
to their leading role in the political life. 0–12
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that members of the high [neither
Describing the 1 point
bourgeoisie were merchants or owners of banks, factories
and mines and s/he says that their rise was connected to the points
an event
development of industry and commerce or s/he mentions that can be
the members of the high bourgeoisie were in control of the awarded]
country’s economic life and s/he says that they could
influence political decisions as well.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that members of both leading
sections of society were the owners of great wealth and s/he
says that this made a glamorous lifestyle possible for them
(foreign trips, hunting, sponsorship of the arts) or s/he mentions
some feature of the great landowners’ farm management (large
estates functioning as capitalist factories, entail, membership of
management boards), ands/he says that they tried to maintain
their lifestyle by adapting to the changes of the period or s/he
mentions that most members of the high bourgeoisie were Jews
(or Germans) and s/he says that they were characterised by an
ambition to be assimilated.
unambiguous.
Structure, clear
language
skills.
Exam points 16

21 The cultural policies of the 1920s (short)

The candidate focuses on a presentation of the internal and
foreign policy connections of Hungarian cultural policies and
Understanding an analysis of the sources in the task.
0–4
connections and s/he reveals the background of some typical
connections.
[neither 1
Location: era C E.g. the candidate mentions that the cultural policy decisions point nor
and place were made in post-Trianon Hungary and s/he examines the 3 points
question in the period of the 1920s (the Horthy era). can be
awarded]
vocabulary 3 points
related special vocabulary, e.g. education, cultural policy, can be
cultural supremacy, revision. awarded]

C E.g.: the candidate mentions that Kunó Klebelsberg, the
renowned minister of culture and religion of the period,
considered cultural policy a kind of defence issue as well, and 0–6
[neither 1
s/he says that the goal was to raise the nation intellectually and point nor
Use of sources
culturally or this was connected to revisionist objectives. 4 points
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that one of the important aims can be
awarded]
of a school education was to educate physically able young
people, who were ready for military service, and s/he says that
out-of-school movements had an outstanding role (scouts, the
levente movement).
S The candidate presents the internal and foreign policy
objectives of the cultural policy decisions and s/he outlines the
most prominent consequences of the measures.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the so-called “cultural
supremacy” theory is connected to the person of Kunó
Klebelsberg and s/he mentions some fundamental aspect of this
(e.g. raising the Hungarian nation and restoring its former
standing can be achieved only by raising its cultural standards).
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that education was connected to 0–8
the revisionist movement and s/he says that due to the point nor
reasons behind
limitations of the peace treaty (the size of the armed forces and 5 points
an event can be
the defence budget) the cultural ministry took over tasks in awarded]
foreign policy and defence (this is why the central budget gave
significant support to education).
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the measures introduced by
Kunó Klebelsberg were implemented in the fields of education
and culture in Hungary, and s/he says that his measures had a
favourable effect on education in Hungary and cultural standards
in general or s/he names at least two concrete measures (e.g. the
programme of public elementary schools, the reform of

secondary education, the foundation of universities, the

foundation of Hungarian cultural and scientific institutes in
Hungary and abroad).
Structure, clear
language
mistakes.
Exam points 7
22 Economic system change (long)

The candidate focuses on the main characteristics of the
economic transformation of the Hungarian economy after the
regime change.
In his/her answer the candidate concisely presents the
circumstances of the economic transformation and s/he
Understanding
mentions the causes and the background of the changes. 0–8
of task
The candidate identifies the most significant elements of the
economic transformation and s/he mentions the typical
consequences of the economic changes.
[neither
C The candidate states that prior to the regime change 1 point
Location: era
Hungary belonged to the Soviet Union’s sphere of interest, nor 3
and place
and s/he mentions that the regime change occurred in 1989- points
can be
1990. awarded]
[neither
Use of special
e.g. economy, property, commerce, consumer price. nor 4
vocabulary points
C The candidate uses topic-related special vocabulary correctly:
can be
e.g. regime change, market economy, private property, gross awarded]
national product, foreign trade, inflation, privatisation.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that private property gained a
central role (public property received a secondary role) and
s/he says that the regime change brought about some 0–10
fundamental changes in property ownership. [neither
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that after the system change 1 point
consumer prices rose steeply, and s/he says that the price points
increases mostly affected the energy sector and services. can be
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the former economic awarded]
partners (Soviet Union, Comecon) were replaced by new
markets (Germany, Western Europe) and s/he says that
foreign trade partners changed significantly.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the real value of incomes

fell significantly and s/he says that the system change was
accompanied by a serious drop in the economic output of the
country.
S The candidate reveals the main causes of the economic
changes and s/he presents the background of the economic
transformation as well as its principal consequences.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the disappearance of the
bipolar world (the end of Soviet influence) and the end of the
Kádár system had a great effect on the transformation of
economic relations, and s/he says that the conditions of a
market economy were created with the regime change in
Hungary.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the process of
privatisation was decisive factor in the transformation of the
property ownership structure and s/he says that this had 0–12
[neither
Describing the significant social consequences (loss of employment, 1 point
reasons behind growing differences in people’s financial situation). nor 7
an event C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the disappearance of the points
can be
old institutions (Comecon) also affected the selection of new awarded]
foreign trade destinations and s/he says that the new
directions in foreign trade were related to Hungary’s western
orientation.
C E.g.: the candidate mentions that the transformation, which
was brought about by the regime change, resulted in a serious
drop in economic output and s/he says that the economic
difficulties affected both the living conditions of Hungarian
society and the political decisions of the governments after the
regime change.
unambiguous.
Structure, clear
language
skills.
Exam points 16

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Történelem angol nyelven emelt szint

Javítási-értékelési útmutató 1112

2012. október 17.

EMELT SZINTŰ ÍRÁSBELI

Guide to the evaluation of the essays

I. Correcting and evaluating short-answer tasks

Correct answer/ or part of an answer: 0.5 or 1 point (according to the key)

When scoring tasks with answers consisting of several elements or parts:

írásbeli vizsga 1112 2 / 25 2012. október 17.

II. Correcting and evaluating longer, essay-type questions

2. Evaluating the tasks

írásbeli vizsga 1112 3 / 25 2012. október 17.

a) Scoring of ’understanding of the task’:

For shorter, problem-solving essay tasks

For longer, analysis-type essay tasks

írásbeli vizsga 1112 4 / 25 2012. október 17.

b) Scoring ‘skills and content’

Scoring ‘Skills’ (‘S’)

Scoring ‘Contents’ (‘C’)

írásbeli vizsga 1112 5 / 25 2012. október 17.

c) Scoring ’structure and accuracy’

For shorter, problem-solving essay tasks

For longer, analysis-type essay tasks

3. The length of essay-type tasks

4. The steps in evaluating the essay-type tasks

írásbeli vizsga 1112 6 / 25 2012. október 17.

7. Do not round the scores for the tasks up or down.

III. How to calculate the final score of the exam paper

Tables for evaluating and scoring the tasks

Short essay tasks

Long essay tasks

írásbeli vizsga 1112 7 / 25 2012. október 17.

I SHORT ANSWER TASKS

1 Ancient Rome (Total: 4 points)

c) (0.5 points for each correct item)

2 Mediaeval scholarship (Total: 4 points)

4 The Reformation and the Counter-reformation (Total: 4 points)

írásbeli vizsga 1112 8 / 25 2012. október 17.

b) (0.5 points for each correct item)

5 Hungary in the 18th century (Total: 4 points)

9 Hungary between the two world wars (Total: 3 points)

írásbeli vizsga 1112 9 / 25 2012. október 17.

B) Imre Nagy Minister of Agriculture 2.

C) Árpád Göncz President of the 1.

D) Mátyás Rákosi General Secretary of 3.

12 Post-1990 Hungarian society (Total: 2 points)

írásbeli vizsga 1112 10 / 25 2012. október 17.

II LONGER, ESSAY-TYPE TASKS

S The candidate includes the information provided by the

írásbeli vizsga 1112 11 / 25 2012. október 17.

The essay consists of complete sentences and has a logical

14 Louis XIV (long)

S The candidate includes the information provided by the sources

írásbeli vizsga 1112 12 / 25 2012. október 17.

S The candidate presents Louis XIV’s government and

15 19th-century liberalism (short)

írásbeli vizsga 1112 13 / 25 2012. október 17.

S The candidate includes the information provided by the

írásbeli vizsga 1112 14 / 25 2012. október 17.

16 The problems of the developing countries (long)

írásbeli vizsga 1112 15 / 25 2012. október 17.

S The candidate presents the typical problems of the

17 Charles Robert’s economic reforms (short)