MCQs on Indian Penal Code (With

Answers)
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Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) and answers on Indian
Penal Code especially compiled for School, College and Law
Students!
1. The motive under section 81 of IPC should be:
A. prevention of harm to person
B. prevention of harm to property
C. both (a) and (b)
D. either (a) or (b).
Ans. D
2. ‘Infancy’ as an exception has been provided under:
A. section 80
B. section 81
C. section 82
D. section 84.
Ans. C
3. Section 82 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence
which is done by a child under:
A. six years of age
B. seven years of age
C. nine years of age
D. ten years of age.
Ans. B
4. Section 82 of IPC enunciates:
A. a presumption of fact
B. a rebuttable presumption of law
C. a conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
D. none of the above.
Ans. C
5. A person is stated to be partially incapax under section 83,
IPC if he is aged:
A. above seven years and under twelve years
B. above seven years and under ten years
C. above seven years and under sixteen years
D. above seven years and under eighteen years.
Ans. A
6. Section 83 of IPC lays down:
A. a presumption of fact
B. an inconclusive or rebuttable presumption of law
C. conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
D. irrebuttable presumption of fact.
Ans. B
7. Section 82 of IPC lays down the rule of:
A. wholly incapax
B. partially incapax
C. both (a) & (b)
D. either (a) or (b).
Ans. A
8. Under section 82 & section 83 of IPC an offence is
punishable if it is done by a child:
A. of below seven years of age
B. of above seven years of age but below twelve years if he has not
attained sufficient maturity and understanding
C. of above seven years of age but below twelve years having attained
sufficient maturity and understanding
D. all the above.
Ans. C
9. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched:
A. Mens Rea – R. v. Prince
B. Necessity – D.P.P. v. Beard
C. Insanity – Mc’Naughten case
D. Intoxication – Basudeo v. State of Pepsu.
Ans. C
10. The maxim ‘actus non facit rea nisi mens sit rea’ means:
A. crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
B. there can be no crime without a guilty mind
C. crime is the result of guilty mind
D. criminal mind leads to crime.
Ans. B
11. “In every statute, mens rea is to be implied unless the
contrary is shown.”:
This view was expressed in-
A. Sherras v. De Rutzen
B. R. v. Dudley & Stephen
C. Harding v. Price
D. R. v. Prince.
Ans. A
12. Which of the following is correct for the aforesaid:
I. The physical aspect of crime is actus reas.
II. The mental aspect of crime is mens rea.
III. The motive is the desire to commit crime
A. I & II are correct but III is not correct
B. only II & III
C. only II & III
D. all the above.
Ans. D
13. Section 84 of IPC provides for:
A. medical insanity
B. legal insanity
C. moral insanity
D. unsoundness of mind of any kind.
Ans. B
14. Irresistible impulse is a defence:
A. in India
B. in England
C. in India and England both
D. neither in India nor in England.
Ans. D
15. A hangman who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the
order of the court is exempt from criminal liability by virtue
of:
A. section 77 of IPC
B. section 78 of IPC
C. section 79 of IPC
D. section 76 of IPC.
Ans. B
16. Insanity as a defence means that a person at the time of
doing an act, by reason of unsoundness of mind is incapable
of knowing:
A. the nature of the act
B. that what he is doing is wrong
C. that what he is doing is contrary to law
D. either (a) or (b) or (c).
Ans. D
17. Which of the following is correct:
A. the burden of proof that the accused was not insane at the time of
commission of offence is on the prosecution
B. the burden of proving that the accused was insane at the time of
commission of offence is on the accused
C. there is a rebuttable presumption of fact that accused was insane at
the time of commission of the offence
D. it is a matter of inference to be drawn by the court on the facts
proved by the prosecution.
Ans. B
18. For unsoundness of mind, the impairment of the
cognitive faculty of mind to escape criminal liability:
A. must be total
B. must be partial
C. both (a) & (b)
D. none of the above.
Ans. A
19. Intoxication as defence is contained in:
A. section 85 of IPC
B. section 86 of IPC
C. section 87 of IPC
D. both (a) & (b).
Ans. D
20. For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability,
the degeneration of mental faculties:
A. must be total
B. must be partial
C. both (a) & (b)
D. only (b) above is correct & (a) is incorrect.
Ans. A
21. For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability,
the intoxication:
A. can be self-administered
B. administered against his will or knowledge
C. should not be self-administered
D. all the above.
Ans. B
22. In cases where the act involves a specific mens rea, in
cases of intoxication under section 86 of IPC:
A. the existence of mens rea is presumed
B. the specific mens rea is not presumed
C. the specific mens rea depends upon the attending circumstances &
the degree of intoxication
D. none of the above.
Ans. C
23. The doctrine ‘volenti nonfit injuria’ is contained in:
A. section 87 of IPC
B. section 88 of IPC
C. section 89 of IPC
D. all the above.
Ans. D
24. The defence of ‘consent’ applies to:
A. private wrongs
B. public wrongs
C. both (a) & (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. A
25. The defence of ‘consent’ is restrictive in its applicability
in cases involving:
A. alienable rights
B. inalienable rights
C. both (a) &(b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. B
26. The defence of ‘consent’ is not available in cases of:
A. consent to cause death
B. consent to cause grievous hurt
C. both (a) & (b)
D. either (a) or (b).
Ans. C
27. Operation of consent to all offences, short of causing
death intentionally, has been extended under:
A. section 88 of IPC
B. section 90 of IPC
C. section 91 of IPC
D. section 87 of IPC.
Ans. A
28. Under section 89 the consent in respect of infants under
12 years of age or persons of unsound mind:
A. can be given by their guardians without any restriction
B. can be given by the guardian subject to restrictions mutually agreed
upon
C. can be given by the guardians subject to restrictions imposed by law
D. all the above.
Ans. C
29. The consent is not a valid consent under section 90:
A. if given under a fear of injury or misconception of fact
B. if given by a person of unsound mind
C. if given by a child below 12 years of age
D. all the above.
Ans. D
30. Consent given under compulsion arising out of threat of
injury:
A. excuses the causing of death
B. excuses causing of any offence against the state punishable with
death
C. both (a) & (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. D
31. The maxim ‘de minimus non curat lex’ means:
A. law would not take action on small & trifling matter
B. law does not ignore any act which causes the slightest harm
C. law would not take action in serious matters
D. all the above.
Ans. A
32. The principle ‘de minimus non curat lex’ is contained in:
A. section 92 of IPC
B. section 93 of IPC
C. section 94 of IPC
D. section 95 of IPC.
Ans. D
33. The right of private defence is contained in:
A. section 94 of IPC
B. section 95 of IPC
C. section 96 of IPC
D. section 98 of IPC.
Ans. C
34. The right to private defence is based on the natural
instinct of:
A. self-preservation
B. self-respect
C. self-sufficiency
D. self-reliance.
Ans. A
35. The right to private defence is:
A. unrestricted
B. subject to restriction contained in section 99 of IPC
C. subject to restrictions contained in Chapter IV of IPC
D. subject to restrictions contained in any other provision of IPC.
Ans. B
36. Right to private defence is:
A. available under all circumstances
B. available where there is time to have the recourse to the protection
of public authorities
C. available where there is no time to have recourse to the protection
of public authorities
D. all of the above.
Ans. C
37. The law on private defence in India:
A. is the same as in England
B. is narrower than the one in England
C. is wider than the one in England
D. none of the above.
Ans. C
38. The right to private defence is available with respect to:
A. harm to body
B. harm to movable property
C. harm to immovable property
D. all the above.
Ans. D
39. Under section 98 right to private defence also is
available against a:
A. person of unsound mind
B. person who does not have maturity of understanding
C. both (a) & (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. C
40. Every person has a right of private defence of his own
body and the body of any other person against any offence
affecting the human body, has been provided:
A. under section 96 of IPC
B. under section 97 of IPC
C. under section 98 of IPC
D. under section 99 of IPC.
Ans. B
41. Under Article 32 a writ petition can be made to the
Supreme Court by a person who himself has suffered only.
Under which of the following, a relative or friend of a person
aggrieved can file a writ petition:
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Certiorari
D. all of the above.
Ans. A
42. The right guaranteed under Article 32 can be suspended:
A. by the Parliament
B. by the State Legislature
C. by the Supreme Court of India
D. when proclamation of emergency is in operation.
Ans. D
43. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article 32 are
subject to the rule of Res judicata except:
A. Quo Warranto
B. Habeas Corpus
C. Certiorari
D. Prohibition.
Ans. B
44. The right given by Article 32:
A. cannot be abrogated by the Act of Legislature
B. cannot be abrogated unless the Constitution itself is amended
C. can be altered by the State Legislature
D. none of the above.
Ans. B
45. The Supreme Court has power under Article 32 to issue
directions or orders or writs in the nature of habeas corpus,
mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari:
A. only when there is a question of enforcement of a fundamental right
B. when there is a question of internal disputes among communal
groups
C. when there is a question of election disputes
D. when there is a question of riotous situation.
Ans. A
46. Under which one of the following cases the traditional
rule of filing petition only by the person aggrieved except in
the case of habeas corpus is relaxed:
A. Trilokchand Moichand v. H.B. Munshi
B. Joginder Nath v. UOI
C. Rabindranath Bose v. UOI
D. Upendra Baxi v. State of UP.
Ans. D
47. Under Article 32:
A. time limit can be imposed on filing of petitions and so the Indian
Limitation Act applies
B. there is no lower and upper limit. The party aggrieved must move
the court at the earliest possible time and it is the discretion of the
court to decide whether it is reasonable delay or not.
C. time limit can be imposed by council of ministers
D. all of the above.
Ans. B
48. According to Article 30 ‘minorities’ have the right for the
administration of educational institutions:
A. which have been established by them only
B. which not necessarily have not been established by them but belong
to their religion or language
C. Article 30 does not speak about minority but deals with Scheduled
Tribes only
D. none of the above.
Ans. B
49. According to Articles 25 and 26, what constitutes an
essential part of religion or religious practice is to be
decided by the court on the basis of:
A. doctrines of particular religion
B. by referendum
C. by majority
D. by convening a religious meeting.
Ans. A
50. The fundamental rights as envisaged under Articles 12-
35 are:
A. absolutely flexible
B. can be amended
C. not justiciable
D. cannot be amended at all.
Ans. B
51. Right of disabled employee as equal citizens not to be
defeated by their superiors and they have no right to defeat
their lawful rights:
A. Sunil Poddar v. Union Bank of India
B. Mani v. State of Tamil Nadu
C. Bhagwan Dass v. Punjab State Electricity Board
D. None of the above.
Ans. C
52. In the case of People’s Union for democratic Rights v.
UOI:
A. non-payment of minimum wages is violative of Article 21
B. the decision in this case did not hearld for right to live with basic
human dignity
C. Article 21 does not envisage right to live with human dignity
D. none of the above.
Ans. A
53. The protection given to the accused under Article 20(3)
against compulsion ‘to be witness’ also includes ordinary
documentary and testimonial evidence:
A. the protection given under Article 20(3) is not attracted by the
above statement
B. the protection given under Article 20(3) is attracted by the above
statement
C. witness means other than an accused to whom protection is not
given
D. none of the above.
Ans. B
54. In case of A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras, the
Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was found conflicting with
the two Articles:
A. Articles 14 and 17
B. Articles 19 and 21
C. Articles 23 and 25
D. Articles 23 and 32.
Ans. B
55. Which section of Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was
declared ultra vires by the Supreme Court in case of A.K.
Gopalan v. State of Madras:
A. Article 17
B. Article 11
C. Article 14
D. Article 19.
Ans. C
56. In a Calcutta case, Manager of a Bank took security for
overdraft from the customer and caused the security to be
entered into the books of the banks. The Manager shortly
afterwards returned the security to the customer before
satisfaction of the overdraft. The fact of return of security
was mentioned in the books of accounts.
A. The Manager acted dishonesty under Section 24
B. The customer acted of dishonesty under Section 24
C. both the Manager and the customer acted dishonestly under Section
24
D. Neither of them is guilty
Ans. C
57. One Mrs. Komai bought a car on the name of her
daughter, Kiran, who is a minor, and got the insurance
policy transferred on her name (Mrs. Komal). The car met
with an accident on two counts and she file for a claim on
both the counts, from the insurance agency. She
acknowledged the receipt of the money as Kiran. The
insurance company her prosecuted under Section 467 of the
IPC alleging fraud on the appellant’s part?
A. Mrs. Komal is guilty of forgery because she made the insurance
company believed that she is Kiran
B. Mrs. Komal is not guilty of forgery because the said deceit did not
secure her any advantage as the entire transaction was that of Mrs.
Komal
C. Mrs. Komal is guilty of forgery because she signed all the papers in
the name of Kiran
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. B
58. Dishonest misappropriation of property, knowing that it
was in possession of a deceased person at his death and that
it has not since been in the possession of any person legally
entitled to it is dealt under-
A. Section 402 of IPC
B. Section 403 of IPC
C. Section 404 of IPC
D. Section 405 of IPC
Ans. C
59. 148 Criminal breach of trust is dealt under-
A. Section 406 of IPC
B. Section 407 of IPC
C. Section 408 of IPC
D. Section 409 of IPC
Ans. A
60. Which of the following is false of Section 34 of the Indian
Penal Code?
A.it is only a rule of evidence
B. it does not create a distinct offence
C. lays down principle of liability
D. it is a penal provision
Ans. D
61. In a case P, a married lady was found in a pool of blood
and lying on the ground. On the way to hospital in
ambulance she breathed her last. It transpired in the
evidence that when P was seated outside her jhuggi, her
brother came near her and challenged as to why she made a
complaint against her own brother R to the police, Her other
brother R and Sharma too came. There was an altercation
wherein Sharma stabbed her to death. Which of the
following is true regarding this particular case?
A. As to the vicarious liability of R & C, that the accused Sharma was
not carrying an open knife in his hand and there was no evidence to
show that this fact was in the knowledge of the other accused.
B. Sharma had not given any call to his brothers that P should be
stabbed to death. Otherwise all the accused had not come together and
for that reason it is difficult to assume that all had a prior meeting of
mind to cause the death of their sister.
C. The words used by C were to teach P a lesson for making false
accusations. Keeping in view the close relationship, it is difficult to
assume that all of them had shared the common intention to kill P.
Under these circumstances, there is no reason to rope C and R by aid
of Section 34, IPC and they were acquitted.
D. All of them
Ans. D
62. Belonging to gang of persons associated for the purpose
of habitually committing dacoity is dealt under-
A. Section 398 of IPC
B. Section 399 of IPC
C. Section 400 of IPC
D. Section 401 of IPC
Ans. C
63. Buying or obtaining possession of a minor for the same
purposes is dealt under-
A. Section 371 of IPC
B. Section 372 of IPC
C. Section 373 of IPC
D. Section 374 of IPC
Ans. C
64. Which of the following does not attract Section 34 of the
IPC?
A. the accused husband killed his wife and threw her dead body into
the well to the knowledge of co- accused. As yet co-accused took the
false plea that on date and hour incident the deceased was present in
the house.
B. the accused was involved in looting the victims in broad daylight on
the main public road. Main accused indulged in looting but co-accused
was simply standing nearby.
C. Driver and cleaner of a bus when form a common intention to kill
the deceased and in pursuance of the plan kill him and take away the
sale proceeds of the grain sold by him
D. all of them except the co-accused in B.
Ans. D
65. Habitual dealing in salves is dealt under-
A. Section 371 of IPC
B. Section 372 of IPC
C. Section 373 of IPC
D. Section 374 of IPC
Ans. A
66. Which of the following is false of Section 34 and Section
149 of the IPC?
A. S. 34 does not by itself create any specific offence whereas S. 149
does so
B. Some active participation in crime is required in S. 34 while it is not
needed in S. 149
C. S. 34 speaks of common intention while S. 149 contemplates
common object
D. S. 34 requires at least five persons who must share the common
intention while S. 149 requires at least two persons to share the
common intention
Ans. D
67. A attacks Z under such circumstances of grave provoca-
tion that his killing of Z would be only culpable homicide not
amounting to murder. B, having ill-will towards Z, and
intending to kill him and not having been subject to the
provocation, assists A in killing Z. Which of the following
judgment under Section 38 of IPC applies to A and B?
A. A is guilty of culpable homicide and B is guilty of murder
B. B is guilty of culpable homicide and A is guilty of murder
C. Both A and B are guilty of culpable homicide
D. Both A and B are guilty of murder
Ans. A
68. The basic principle which runs through Section 32 to 38
of IPC is that:
A. in certain circumstances some part of the act is attributed to a
person who may have performed only a fractional part of it.
B. in certain circumstances an entire act is attributed to a person who
may have performed only a fractional part of it.
C. in certain circumstances an entire act is attributed to a person who
may have performed the whole of it.
D. in certain circumstances no act is attributed to a person who may
have performed only a fractional part of it.
Ans. B
69. Abetment of any offence, if the act abetted is committed
in consequence, and where no express provision is made for
its punishment is dealt under-
A. Section 109 of IPC
B. Section 110 of IPC
C. Section 111 of IPC
D. Section 112 of IPC
Ans. A
70. A quarrel arose between C on the one side and A and B
on the other. C abused A, whereupon A struck him with a
stick, and B struck him down with an axe on the head. He
also received two other wounds with the axe on the other
parts of the body. Any one of the three axe wounds was
sufficient enough to cause death, especially the one on the
head.
A. C is guilty for voluntarily provoking the attack while B is guilty of
culpable homicide
B. A is guilty of culpable homicide, while B is guilty of voluntarily
causing hurt
C. B is guilty of culpable homicide, while A is guilty of voluntarily
causing hurt
D. Both A and B are guilty of culpable homicide
Ans. C
71. All about ‘intention’ is true except one:
A. is a state of mind
B. is an objective element
C. rarely susceptible to proof
D. always a matter of inference
Ans. B
72. The word ‘illegal’ is applicable to everything:
A. which is an offence
B. which is prohibited by law
C. which furnishes ground for civil action
D. all of them
Ans. D
73. Several persons assemble at the door of the house of one
K and the appellant struck a blow with a kencha which fell
on the left thigh of a workman working in the house of one K
whom the appellant and others wanted to attack, and as the
appellant struck at the very first person who opened the
door and that was how that came to receive the injury.
A. every person is guilty of vicarious liability excluding the appellant
B. only the appellant is to be convicted for the said injury
C. none is guilty of vicarious liability
D. none of them
Ans. B
74. Abetment of any offence when one act is abetted and a
different act is done; subject to proviso is dealt under-
A. Section 109 of IPC
B. Section 110 of IPC
C. Section 111 of IPC
D. Section 112 of IPC
Ans. C
75. In a case the accused was convicted u/s. 325 I.P.C. and
was sentenced by trial Court to two months R.I. with fine of
Rs. 500 for offence under S. 325 I.P.C. The trial pended for
seven long years.
A. the sentence is improper for an offence under Section 325 I.P.C
B. the sentence is proper and appropriate
C. the accused should be sentenced to fine and imprisonment till the
rising of Court
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
76. A gives Z fifty strokes with a stick. Here A may have
committed the offence of voluntarily causing hurt to Z by the
whole beating and also by each of the blows which make up
the whole beating. As per Section 71 of IPC which of the
following should be the punishment?
A. A is liable for every blow and should be imprisoned for fifty years
one for each blow
B. A is only liable for blows he delivered on the victim
C. A is liable to one punishment for the whole beating
D. A should be separately punished for beating and delivering blows
Ans. C
77. Abetment of any offence, punishable with death or
imprisonment for life, if the offence be not committed in
consequence of the abetment is dealt under-
A. Section 115 of IPC
B. Section 116 of IPC
C. Section 117 of IPC
D. Section 118 of IPC
Ans. A
78. Abetting the commission of an offence by the public or by
more than ten persons is dealt under-
A. Section 117 of IPC
B. Section 118 of IPC
C. Section 119 of IPC
D. Section 120 of IPC
Ans. A
79. Concealing a design to commit an offence punishable
with imprisonment, if offence be committed if the offence be
not committed is dealt under-
A. Section 119 of IPC
B. Section 120 of IPC
C. Section 121 of IPC
D. Section 122 of IPC
Ans. B
80. In which of the following death sentence is awarded?
A. Waging war against the Government of India
B. Abetting mutiny actually committed
C. Murder
D. All of them
Ans. D
81. Which of the following is true about imprisonment?
A. it is characterised by hard labour
B. it is characterised by confinement to jail
C. is subject to the kind of imprisonment
D. all of them
Ans. D
82. Abetment of an offence, punishable with death or
imprisonment for life if an act, which causes harm to be
done in consequence of the abetment is dealt under-
A. Section 115 of IPC
B. Section 116 of IPC
C. Section 117 of IPC
D. Section 118 of IPC
Ans. A
83. Abetting the commission of an offence by the public or
by more than ten persons is dealt under-
A. Section 117 of IPC
B. Section 118 of IPC
C. Section 119 of IPC
D. Section 120 of IPC
Ans. A
84. What is the minimum term of imprisonment in case of,
at the time of attempting robbery or dacoity, the offender is
armed with any deadly weapon, he is punished with
imprisonment of not less than:
A. four years under Section 397, IPC
B. five years under Section 397, IPC
C. six years under Section 397, IPC
D. seven years under Section 397, IPC
Ans. D
85. Which of the following Section of the IPC has not been
omitted?
A. Section 56
B. Section 57
C. Section 58
D. Section 59
Ans. B
86. Which of the following Section of the IPC has been
repealed?
A. Section 60
B. Section 61
C. Section 62
D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans. D
87. Which of the following Section of the IPC deals with
solitary confinement?
A. Section 71
B. Section 72
C. Section 73
D. Section 74
Ans. C
88. Whoever is a party to a criminal conspiracy other than a
criminal conspiracy to commit an offence punishable is
dealt under-
A. Section 118B of IPC
B. Section 119B of IPC
C. Section 120B of IPC
D. Section 121B of IPC
Ans. C
89. Conspiring to commit certain offences against the State
is dealt under-
A. Section 120A of IPC
B. Section 121A of IPC
C. Section 122A of IPC
D. Section 123A of IPC
Ans. B
90. Concealing with intent to facilitate a design to wage war
is dealt under-
A. Section 120 of IPC
B. Section 121 of IPC
C. Section 122 of IPC
D. Section 123 of IPC
Ans. D
91. A is beating Z and Y jumps in to stop the beating. In the
process A intentionally strikes Y. As per Section 71 of IPC
which of the following should be the punishment?
A. A is liable to one punishment for voluntarily causing hurt to Z and
to another for the blow given to Y
B. A is liable to one punishment for voluntarily causing hurt only to Z
C. A is liable to one punishment for voluntarily causing hurt only to Y
D. None of them
Ans. A
92. In a case the accused who was a widower led a homely
life with his 12-year-old son, nephew and unmarried
daughter. The accused suffered from no insanity. One day
the accused accompanied by his son went with an axe in his
hand to woods to gather siadi leaves. Sometimes after his
nephew who had been working in the field discovered the
accused sleeping under a tree with the blood stained axe
beside him. There was no trace of the son of the accused.
Later his son was found hacked to death. It transpired in
evidence that the accused for the time being was seized of a
state of mind in which he visualised that a tiger was going to
pounce on him and as such mistaking his son as the tiger he
cut him into pieces.
A. the accused is lying and is guilty of culpable homicide
B. it was mistake and the accused had no intention of causing the
death of his son whom he dearly loved.
C. the accused is not his sound frame of mind
D. none of them
Ans. B
93. A, the captain of a steam vessel, suddenly and without
any fault or negligence on his part, finds himself in such a
position that before he can stop his vessel, he must
inevitably run down a boat B, with twenty to thirty
passengers on board, unless he changes the course of his
vessel, and that by changing his course, he must incur risk of
running down a boat C with only two passengers on board,
which he may possibly clear. Here if A alters his course
without any intention to run down the boat C and in good
faith for the purpose of avoiding the danger to the
passengers in boat B. But in the course of this action A runs
down boat C.
A. A is guilty
B. A is not guilty of any offence
C. A did not intentionally run down boat C
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. B
94. A accused of murder, alleges that by reason of
unsoundness of mind, he did not know the nature of the act.
A. The burden of proof is on the police
B. The burden of proof is on A
C. The burden of proof is on the Court
D. None of them
Ans. B
95. The accused without any provocation caught hold of the
legs of a 7 year old child and dashed his head thrice in quick
succession resulting in the death of the boy. Immediately
after the occurrence the accused ran away. The accused
pleaded insanity in defence.
A. the offence falls under Clause (iii) of Section 300, IPC
B. the offence falls under Clause (iv) of Section 300, IPC
C. the offence falls under Clause (v) of Section 300, IPC
D. the offence falls under Clause (vi) of Section 300, IPC
Ans. B
96. A, a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is
likely to cause the death of Z, who suffers under painful
complaint, but not intending to cause Z’s death, and
intending, in good faith, for Z’s benefit, performs the
operation with Z’s consent.
A. A is guilty of culpable homicide
B. A deliberately caused the Z’s death
C. A is not guilty of any offence
D. None of them
Ans. C
97. Assaulting or obstructing public servant when
suppressing riot, etc. is dealt under-
A. Section 150 of IPC
B. Section 151 of IPC
C. Section 152 of IPC
D. Section 153 of IPC
Ans. C
98. Knowingly carrying arms in any procession or
organizing or holding or taking part in any mass drill or
mass training with arms is dealt under-
A. Section 151AA of IPC
B. Section 152AA of IPC
C. Section 153AA of IPC
D. Section 154AA of IPC
Ans. C
99. If committed in a place of public worship, etc. is dealt
under-
A. Section 152B of IPC
B. Section 153B of IPC
C. Section 154B of IPC
D. Section 155B of IPC
Ans. B
100. Harbouring persons hired for an unlawful assembly is
dealt under-
A. Section 157 of IPC
B. Section 158 of IPC
C. Section 159 of IPC
D. Section 160 of IPC
Ans. A
101. ‘Sedition’ as offence was held constitutionally valid in
Kedar Nath v. State of Bihar, AIR 1962 SC 955 us dealt
under-
A. Section 124 A of IPC
B. Section 128 of IPC
C. Section 136 of IPC
D. Section 138 of IPC
Ans. A
102. Public servant disobeying a direction of the law with
intent to cause is dealt under-
A. Section 164 of IPC
B. Section 165 of IPC
C. Section 166 of IPC
D. Section 167 of IPC
Ans. C
103. Public servant unlawfully engaging in trade is dealt
under-
A. Section 166 of IPC
B. Section 167 of IPC
C. Section 168 of IPC
D. Section 169 of IPC
Ans. C
104. Personating public servant is dealt under-
A. Section 169 of IPC
B. Section 170 of IPC
C. Section 171 of IPC
D. Section 172 of IPC
Ans. B
105. Bribery is dealt under-
A. Section 167 E of IPC
B. Section 168 E of IPC
C. Section 169 E of IPC
D. Section 171 E of IPC
Ans. D
106. Personation at an election is dealt under-
A. Section 171 F of IPC
B. Section 172 F of IPC
C. Section 173 F of IPC
D. Section 174 F of IPC
Ans. A
107. Wantonly giving provocation with intent to cause riot, if
rioting be not committed is dealt under-
A. Section 151 of IPC
B. Section 152 of IPC
C. Section 153 of IPC
D. Section 154 of IPC
Ans. C
108. Z is thrown from his horse and is insensible. A, a
surgeon, finds out that Z requires to be trepanned. A, not
intending Z’s death, but in good faith for Z’s benefit,
performs the trepan before Z recovers his power of judging
for himself.
A. A has committed offence
B. A has committed no offence
C. A has committed culpable homicide
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans. B
109. Mr. V, an appellant is an owner of a house in City A. The
wife of the first respondent Y, was tenant of a part of the
first floor in that house. On January 17, 1966, one R a
servant of the appellant, called the wife of the first
respondent a thief and Halkat. On the following day, the first
respondent slapped R on his face which was followed by
heated exchange of abusive words and between the first
respondent and the appellant’s husband.
The first respondent was annoyed and threw at the appellant’s
husband a file of papers. The file did not hit the appellant’s husband,
but it hit the elbow of the appellant causing a scratch. The appellant
lodged information to the police complaining that the first respondent
had committed a house trespass in order to the committing of an
offence punishable with imprisonment, had thrown a shoe at her and
had slapped her servant R.
During the course of the investigation the appellant and R refused to
be examined at a public hospital, claiming that a private medical
practitioner had certified that the appellant had suffered from
bleeding incision.
As a judge of the case you would:
A. convict the accused under Section 95 of the IPC
B. acquit the accused under Section 95 of the IPC
C. fine the appellant under Section 95 of the IPC
D. Both (A) and the (C)
Ans. C
110. The accused shot dead his father who was abusing his
mother and was going to cut her throat. The accused:
A. acted with vindictive feelings
B. acted so due to the imminent danger to his mother’s life
C. is not guilty
D. (B) and (C)
Ans. D
111. Criminal intimidation by anonymous communication or
having taken precaution to conceal whence the threat comes
is dealt under-
A. Section 506 of IPC
B. Section 507 of IPC
C. Section 508 of IPC
D. Section 509 of IPC
Ans. B
112. The people of the village S having assembled proceeded
to cut the bandh. People of the village K resisted but were
turned back. Meanwhile a large crowd collected on both
sides, armed with lathis, spears and garases. People of K
seeing that the people of S were not likely to listen to their
remonstrance, proceeded in a body to prevent the cutting of
the bandh to drive them away. There was one man from
village S who received fatal injuries and died.
A. the action is well within the bounds of the right to private defence of
person and property
B. the conviction of the accused under Section 302 of the IPC, cannot
be sustained
C. neither (A) nor (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans. D
113. Person for whose benefit or on whose behalf a riot takes
place not using all lawful means to prevent it is dealt under-
A. Section 155 of IPC
B. Section 156 of IPC
C. Section 157 of IPC
D. Section 158 of IPC
Ans. A
114. G’s party was engaged in the peaceful pursuit of worship
at their own takhat was busy attending to the Puja for the
Nepali pilgrim. At that point of time they were not members
of an unlawful assembly. It was the party of A who left their
place and came to G’s takhat, presumably raising a dispute
over the offerings made by the Nepali pilgrim. They came
armed with deadly weapons and one of them inflicted a
severe blow on the S and G’s side which resulted in his death
and others received as many as 27 serious injuries.
A. G’s party exercise the right to self defence
B. Both G and A’s party cannot claim the right to self defence
C. A’s party had full intention of causing harm
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
115. Criminal intimidation by anonymous communication or
having taken precaution to conceal whence the threat comes
is dealt under-
A. Section 506 of IPC
B. Section 507 of IPC
C. Section 508 of IPC
D. Section 509 of IPC
Ans. B
2 Marks Qus:

Grievous hurt: 320. Grievous hurt

The following kinds of hurt only are designated as "grievous":--

Firstly.-- Emasculation.
Secondly.-- Permanent privation of the sight of either eye.
Thirdly.-- Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear,
Fourthly.-- Privation of any member or joint.
Fifthly.-- Destruction or permanent impairing of the powers
of any member or joint.
Sixthly.-- Permanent disfiguration of the head or face.
Seventhly.-- Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth.

Abetment: The definition of abetment under Section 107, IPC requires a person to abet
the commission of an offence. This abetment may occur in any of the three methods that the
provision prescribes.
The Section says that abetment basically takes place when a person abets the doing of a thing by:
(1) instigating a person to do that thing; or
(2) engaging with another person (or persons) in a conspiracy to do that thing; or
(3) intentionally aiding a person to do that thing.
When any of these requirements exists, the offence of abetment is complete. Sometimes a person
may commit more than one of these three circumstances in a single offence.

Difference between abetment and criminal

conspiracy
The following points highlights the difference between abetment and criminal
conspiracy:

1. The number of persons committing an offence varies in an abetment

and a conspiracy. In an abetment, one person influences, provokes
another to commit an illegal act whereas in a conspiracy two or more
persons enter into an agreement to commit that offence.
2. The offence of conspiracy is substantive whereas abetment is not on its
own a substantive offence.
 3. Abetment is defined under Section 107 of the IPC. Whereas criminal
conspiracy is defined under Section 120-A of the IPC.
4. To be tried for abetment, the person must have committed the act of
aiding or instigating, or helping the principal offender. But, in the case
of a conspiracy, it is irrespective of the commission of the offence. The
prosecution can try a person for having the agreement and the
knowledge of the act.
5. The parties to a conspiracy are called conspirators. But in the case of
abetment, there are two persons called the abettor and the principal
offender.
6. Abettor is not a principal offender whereas a conspirator (accused) is a
principal offender.
7. Based on the stretch of the offence committed, the magistrate whether
to award bail to the accused.
8. Abetment can be done in three ways whereas conspiracy is a method
of abetment.
9. It can be said that abetment is the genus, whereas conspiracy is a
species.
10. The concept of criminal conspiracy has a wider jurisdiction in most
cases than of abetment.
Abetment Criminal conspiracy

Parties to abetment are abettor and principal offender Parties to a conspiracy are called conspirators

It is defined under Section 107 of the Indian Penal It is defined under Section 120- A of the Indian
Code, 1860 Penal Code

Abettor is not the principal offender A conspirator is the principal offender

Abetment is the Genus Conspiracy is the species

It is a substantive offence It is not a substantive offence

Abettor may not get the same punishment as the All the conspirators in a case, get the same
principal offender punishment