S umm at ive

ASSES S M E N T S
Teacher ’s Manual
with Student Reproducibles
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ISBN-13: 978-0-328-99047-4
ISBN-10:     0-328-99047-7
1 18
 Contents
BASELINE TEST
Overview and Description of the Baseline Test .............................................................. T4
How to Administer and Score a Fluency Test ................................................................. T5
Administering and Scoring the Baseline Test ................................................................. T9
Informing Instruction ........................................................................................................T10
Baseline Test Directions ..................................................................................................T11
Baseline Test Student Record Chart ...............................................................................T15
Baseline Test Item Analysis Chart ...................................................................................T16
Interpreting Baseline Test Results ..................................................................................T17
Baseline Test Answer Key ................................................................................................T19

Baseline Test ........................................................................................................................ 1

UNIT, MIDDLE-OF-YEAR, AND END-OF-YEAR TESTS

Overview and Description of Unit, Middle-of-Year, and End-of-Year Tests .................T21
Administering and Scoring the Tests ..............................................................................T22
Writing Rubric ...................................................................................................................T23
Informing Instruction ........................................................................................................T24
Unit, Middle-of-Year, and End-of-Year Tests Item Analysis Charts ..............................T27
Unit, Middle-of-Year, and End-of-Year Tests Student Record Chart ............................T41
Class Record Chart ..........................................................................................................T42
Optional – Fluency Checks or Running Records ...........................................................T43
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Unit, Middle-of-Year, and End-of-Year Tests Answer Key ............................................T61

Unit 1 Test ............................................................................................................................. 9

Unit 2 Test ........................................................................................................................... 23
Unit 3 Test ........................................................................................................................... 37
Middle-of-Year Test ........................................................................................................... 51
Unit 4 Test ........................................................................................................................... 73
Unit 5 Test ........................................................................................................................... 87
End-of-Year Test ...............................................................................................................101

Summative Assessments T3
Overview and Description of the Baseline Test
OVERVIEW
This Teacher’s Manual provides information for administering and scoring the Baseline Test
for Grade 4. Following the teacher pages in this manual, you will find a blackline version of the
Baseline Test. Detailed information about other assessment materials and procedures associated
with myView Literacy may be found in the Assessment Guide.

DESCRIPTION OF THE BASELINE TEST

You may wish to begin the school year with the Baseline Test. The Grade 4 Baseline Test is
designed to help you determine students’ instructional needs at the beginning of the school year
and to establish a “starting point” for each student. You can use the results of the Baseline Test to
identify individuals who are on grade level, those who need more support, and those who could
benefit from additional challenge. This feedback can help you scaffold your instruction during
both whole-group and small-group lessons so that all students experience success.
The Baseline Test may be used in addition to or instead of other baseline-type tests or tools, such
as GRADE™, AIMSweb®, or district baseline tests. The Baseline Test is aligned to the Common
Core State Standards. Approximately half of the items will test the previous grade’s standards to
determine if students have retained what they have learned. The other half of the items will test
the current grade level’s standards.
Baseline Test Features:
• a group-administered Vocabulary Test consisting of 10 multiple-choice items
• a group-administered Reading Comprehension Test consisting of 3 selections and
15 multiple-choice items
• an optional Fluency Test (individually administered)

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T4 Summative Assessments
 How to Administer and Score a Fluency Test
A fluency test measures a student’s reading rate, or the number of words correctly read per
minute (wcpm), on grade-level text the student has not seen before. Although the speed at which
a student reads is part of determining fluency, it is not the only measure. When students read
fluently, they read aloud as they would speak conversationally. Appropriate expression, prosody,
reading rate, and comprehension are all part of reading fluently.
Prior to administering a fluency test, review fluency test procedures with the student. Explain that
the purpose of the fluency test is to understand more about how the student reads.
Administer the fluency test individually so you can record student data. Give the student a copy of
the Student Copy of the selection for the test and make a copy of the Teacher Copy for yourself.
The Teacher Copy has a scale of running numbers to make it easier for you to know how many
words the student reads during the fluency check, while the Student Copy does not have running
numbers. Write the student’s name and the test date at the top of your copy of the selection. This
will help you compare data on future tests. Have a watch or clock available for timing the reading.
Have the student read the text aloud. Do not have the student read the title as part of the fluency
reading; it is not included in the running word count. You may want to record audio of the
student’s reading for later evaluation. Stop the student at exactly one minute and note precisely
where he or she stopped.
As the student reads orally, mark any errors he or she makes during the reading on your copy
of the text (see the chart on page T6). Count the total number of words the student reads in a
minute. Subtract any words he or she reads incorrectly. Record the words correct per minute on
the test.
The formula is: total # of words read – # of errors = words correct per minute (wcpm).
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Summative Assessments T5
HOW TO IDENTIFY ERRORS
Based upon the selection on page T7, the chart below shows the kinds of errors to look for as a
student reads aloud and the notations to use to mark the errors.

READING ERROR NOTATIONS

Omission
The student omits words or I think that I have the best job in the world.
word parts.
Substitution
The student substitutes my
You must work very hard, but the job is rewarding.
words or parts of words for
the words in the text.
Insertion
had
The student inserts words or
I wanted to work as a park ranger since I was young.
parts of words that are not ^
in the text.
Mispronunciation/
Misreading was
One of the best parts of my job is the independence I enjoy.
The student pronounces or
reads a word incorrectly.
Hesitation H
The student hesitates over a I lead tours on my own, and some nights I get to sleep in a cabin
word and the teacher in the woods with only the bears and owls around me!
provides the word.
Self-correction sc
The student reads a word To get a job like mine, you must study geology, forestry, or
incorrectly but then corrects another earth science.
the error.

Notes
• If the student hesitates over a word, wait several seconds before telling him or her what the Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

word is.
• If a student makes the same error more than once, count it as only one error.
• Self-correction is not counted as an actual error. However, writing “SC” over the word or
words will help you identify words that give the student some difficulty.

T6 Summative Assessments
 SAMPLE FLUENCY TEST
Here is the selection marked as shown on the chart on the previous page. As the student reads
the selection aloud to you, mark errors. Have the student read for exactly one minute, and then
mark the last word he or she reads.

Student Name: Shawna

_________________________________________ Date: 9/24/2018
___________________

My Life as a Park Ranger

I think that I have the best job in the world. I am a park ranger. 16
sc
To get a job like mine, you must study geology, forestry, or 28
my
another earth science. You must work very hard, but the job is 40
rewarding. I enjoy working outdoors and sharing the wonders of 50
nature with the visitors to my beautiful park. One of the best parts 63
was H
of my job is the independence I enjoy. I lead tours on my own, 77
and some nights I get to sleep in a cabin in the woods with only 92
the bears and owls around me! 98
had
I wanted to work as a park ranger since I was young. At first, I did 114
^
not know if I would be /able to do it. My grades in science were not 130
always the best. But I was determined. Camping, hiking, and 140
canoeing every summer filled my heart with joy. I believed that 151
working in a park would be a dream come true. 161
This is my fifth year working as a park ranger. I’ve worked at three 175
different parks around the state. I’ve learned so much about fish, 186
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trees, and all kinds of wildlife. Some weekends, I help young 197
campers reach their campsites on the far side of the lake. Once 209
I even taught a family how to pitch a tent. Not everyone knows 222
how to make a fire or paddle a canoe. I feel like I make a real 238
difference when I help park visitors enjoy the outdoors more. 248
The best part of my job is helping people discover new ways 260
to experience the amazing outdoors! 265
120 – 5 = 115

Summative Assessments T7
INTERPRETING FLUENCY TEST RESULTS
The following chart shows published norms for oral reading fluency.

FALL WINTER SPRING

GRADE %ILE
wcpm wcpm wcpm
90 153 168 184
75 125 143 160
4 50 94 120 133
25 75 95 105
10 60 71 83

Copyright © 2017. Behavioral Research and Teaching. All rights reserved.

If a student’s reading rate is low, your notes on the student’s errors may help you determine why
the rate is low. Poor decoding skills indicate the need for explicit instruction and additional
practice in foundational reading skills. A lack of fluency may indicate a lack of exposure to models
of fluent oral reading. It may also mean the student is not reading enough material at his or her
reading level.

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T8 Summative Assessments
 Administering and Scoring the Baseline Test
ADMINISTERING THE BASELINE TEST
Prior to administering the test, review test-taking procedures with students. Explain to students
that the purpose of the test is to understand more about the words they know and how well they
understand what they read.
Explain to students that they will take the test independently. Students will follow the directions
and then circle answers to the questions on the test. Be sure students understand how to mark
their answers.
The Vocabulary and Reading Comprehension subtests of the Baseline Test can be administered
to the entire group in one sitting. Modify the directions as needed based on how you decide to
administer the test.
Follow the procedures for administering a fluency test (page T5) to administer an optional fluency
test to an individual.

SCORING THE GRADE 4 BASELINE TEST

Make a copy of the Baseline Test Student Record Chart on page T15 for each student. For
the group-administered subtests (Vocabulary, Reading Comprehension), use the Answer Key
provided on pages T19–T20 to mark each item correct or incorrect. Multiple-choice questions
are scored 0 (incorrect) or 1 (correct). Record students’ scores on the Baseline Test Student
Record Chart.
Each test should be scored both by subtest and by total test because both types of scores will be
useful in interpreting test results and informing instruction for each student.
The individually administered optional fluency test is considered separately. There is a space on
the Student Record Chart to record the student’s fluency rate.
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Summative Assessments T9
Informing Instruction
The results of the Baseline Test are intended to inform instruction. The Baseline Test will help you
identify students who are on grade level, students who need more support, and students who
could benefit from additional challenge at the beginning of the year. The data provided by the test
will help determine student areas of strength as well as areas of need. This information can help
inform small-group and individual instruction.
Specific literacy skills are assessed during the course of this test. These are skills that students
should use and master. Test results can help teachers identify which core skills students
understand and which will require additional practice or reteaching. Teachers can use this data
to group students of similar needs together during small-group instruction and mini-lessons.
Remember that grouping should be fluid and that students will perform best in different grouping
situations throughout the year based on performance.
Teachers can evaluate test-taking skills while students take the test. The information gathered
from observing students during testing can provide teachers the opportunity to help students
become better test takers.
Student data can be captured throughout the course of the year through the use of the myView
Literacy program and through ongoing assessments in the program. By comparing results,
teachers identify areas of student growth throughout the year as well as continued areas of need.
This provides important data when determining interventions that might help a student, what
interventions have been successful, and what interventions need to be modified. Teachers may
want to share areas of growth with students to boost confidence and acknowledge strong effort
throughout the program.

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T10 Summative Assessments

 Baseline Test Directions
GRADE 4 BASELINE TEST
The Grade 4 Baseline Test includes three parts. The first two parts are designed for group
administration. The last part, Fluency, is optional and designed for individual administration.
The chart below shows the number of items in each part of the test. The Baseline Test is
not intended to be timed. Allow as much time as needed for students to complete the test.
However, for planning purposes, the chart below shows the estimated time required for
administering each part.

Part Number of Items Estimated Time (minutes)

Vocabulary 10 12
Reading Comprehension 15 23
Total 25 items 35 minutes

Fluency (optional) 1 selection 1

The group-administered Baseline Test can be administered in one sitting. Or, you may wish to
administer Vocabulary in one session and Reading Comprehension in another session. Use your
professional judgment to determine the method of administration that best suits the needs of
your students.
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Summative Assessments T11

VOCABULARY DIRECTIONS
Items 1–10 are vocabulary questions. They test grade-appropriate words that students
should know.
Have students turn to page 1. Explain to students that for each item, they will choose the best
answer.
Have students read the directions and answer items 1–10 on their own.

READING COMPREHENSION DIRECTIONS

Have students turn to page 3. Items 11–25 are reading comprehension questions. They test
students on what they have read in the selections.
Explain to students that they will read three selections and answer questions about them.
Tell students they should read each selection and answer the questions that follow before moving
on to the next selection.
Have students read the directions, selections, and items 11–25 on their own.

(OPTIONAL) FLUENCY TEST DIRECTIONS

A fluency test measures a student’s reading rate, or the number of words correctly read per
minute (wcpm), on grade-level text the student has not seen before. This optional test is to
be administered one-on-one to individual students. For detailed instructions on administering
a fluency test, see pages T5–T8 of this manual. The teacher copy of the fluency test appears
on page T13. The student copy appears on page T14.

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T12 Summative Assessments

 Grade 4 Fluency Selection Teacher Copy

Student Name: ____________________________________________ Date: ___________________

Wildlife Helper
Simon rushed home from school. As he approached the porch of 11
his house, he spotted a small grayish ball of fur. Looking carefully, 23
he recognized the sleeping form of a baby raccoon. Simon knew 34
that wild baby animals were rarely abandoned and wondered what 44
had happened. 46
Because the raccoon was a wild animal and could bite, Simon did 58
not approach it. He watched and waited to see some sign of its mother. 72
Seeing none, he quietly backed up and crept into the house. 83
Simon told his mother about the raccoon, and she suggested calling 94
the wildlife center. Animals who were sick, injured, or too young to 106
care for themselves were often taken there. 113
The volunteer at the center told Simon to keep searching for the mother. 126
If she did not return soon, an animal control officer would come pick up 140
the baby raccoon. 143
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There was no sign of the mother as dusk approached. Simon called 155
the center again. When the animal control officers arrived, they very 166
carefully placed the baby into a small cage. They told Simon the 178
raccoon would be well cared for at the center. As soon as it was strong 193
enough, it would be released back into the wild. 202

Summative Assessments T13

Grade 4 Fluency Selection Student Copy

Wildlife Helper
Simon rushed home from school. As he approached the porch of
his house, he spotted a small grayish ball of fur. Looking carefully,
he recognized the sleeping form of a baby raccoon. Simon knew
that wild baby animals were rarely abandoned and wondered what
had happened.

Because the raccoon was a wild animal and could bite, Simon did
not approach it. He watched and waited to see some sign of its mother.
Seeing none, he quietly backed up and crept into the house.

Simon told his mother about the raccoon, and she suggested calling
the wildlife center. Animals who were sick, injured, or too young to
care for themselves were often taken there.

The volunteer at the center told Simon to keep searching for the mother.
If she did not return soon, an animal control officer would come pick up
the baby raccoon.

There was no sign of the mother as dusk approached. Simon called

the center again. When the animal control officers arrived, they very Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

carefully placed the baby into a small cage. They told Simon the
raccoon would be well cared for at the center. As soon as it was strong
enough, it would be released back into the wild.

T14 Summative Assessments

 Baseline Test Student Record Chart
Student Name

TEST SECTION SCORE NOTES/OBSERVATIONS

Vocabulary /10

Reading Comprehension /15

Fluency Test WCPM:

(individually administered,
optional) _________________
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Summative Assessments T15

Baseline Test Item Analysis Chart
BASELINE SECTION ITEMS ITEM FOCUS/SKILL DOK LEVEL CCSS
1 Vocabulary DOK 2 L.3.4.d
2 Vocabulary DOK 2 L.3.4.b
3 Vocabulary DOK 2 L.3.4.a
4 Vocabulary DOK 2 L.3.4.a
5 Vocabulary DOK 2 L.3.5
Vocabulary
6 Vocabulary DOK 2 L.4.4.a
7 Vocabulary DOK 2 L.4.4.a
8 Vocabulary DOK 2 L.4.4.b
9 Vocabulary DOK 2 L.4.4.b
10 Vocabulary DOK 2 L.4.5
11 Analyze Plot and Structure DOK 2 RL.4.3
12 Analyze Plot and Structure DOK 2 RL.4.3
13 Infer Multiple Themes DOK 2 RL.4.2
14 Analyze Characters DOK 2 RL.4.3
Understanding Literary
15 DOK 2 RL.4.6
Devices: Point of View
16 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 2 RI.3.2
17 Analyze Argument DOK 2 RI.3.1
Reading Comprehension
18 Explain Author’s Purpose DOK 2 RI.3.6
19 Analyze Argument DOK 2 RI.3.1
20 Analyze Voice DOK 2 RI.3.1
21 Identify Main Idea and Details DOK 2 RI.4.2
22 Summarize Text DOK 2 RI.4.3
23 Inferences DOK 2 RI.4.1
24 Author’s Purpose DOK 2 RI.3.2
25 Analyze Figurative Language DOK 2 L.4.5
Fluency (Optional) RF.4.4
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T16 Summative Assessments

 Interpreting Baseline Test Results
The primary purpose of the Baseline Test is to help determine the instructional needs of students
at the beginning of the year. To interpret Baseline Test scores, you should consider a student’s
score on each subtest and on the total test. This will help you interpret students’ strengths and
areas of need.
The initial baseline for a student should not be based exclusively on the Baseline Test score.
All other available information about a student should be considered as well. The Baseline
Test should be viewed as one assessment of student performance. Regular, ongoing formative
assessment, as well as observation of student performance, will provide the best data on the
skills and abilities of a student.
It is recommended that you compare the Baseline Test results for each student only with the
scores of other students in your class. This will allow you to inform future instruction by examining
general trends in your students’ grade-level knowledge and abilities.
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Summative Assessments T17

You may wish to use the following guidelines to help determine how best to help improve
students’ areas of need and build upon students’ areas of strength.

Students who score more than 90% on the Baseline Test might benefit from:
• regular instruction during whole-class time
• options for advanced learners during small-group time, independent investigative work, and
challenging content and activities
• being matched with text appropriate for advanced learners through leveled readers
• being grouped with other advanced learners into a book club and reading authentic trade
books that match their reading level and interests

Students who score between 60% and 89% on the Baseline Test might benefit from:
• regular instruction during whole-class time
• on-level work during small-group time
• myFocus Readers to practice word-reading skills
• being matched with text appropriate for on-level learners through leveled readers
• being grouped with other on-level learners into a book club and reading authentic trade
books that match their reading level and interests

Students who score below 60% on the Baseline Test might benefit from:
• regular instruction during whole-class time
• intervention activities during small-group time, more scaffolding, more practice with critical
skills, and more opportunities to respond
• myFocus Readers to practice word-reading skills
• being matched with text appropriate for developing learners through leveled readers
• receiving more frequent additional support and intensive instruction

For all students, use flexible grouping options and formative assessment, such as Quick Checks,
to monitor progress and inform and differentiate instruction throughout the year.
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T18 Summative Assessments

 Baseline Test Answer Key

Name

Vocabulary 6 What does the word desert mean in the following sentence?

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. The cowboy decided to desert his post and return to the bunkhouse.
1 Read the dictionary entry for the 3 What is the meaning of the A go to
word surrender. underlined word? B leave
I decided to devote all of C stay at
surrender \suh-'ren-der\ verb my energy to working on my D return to
science project.
1. to yield to the power of another  7 What does the word show mean in the following sentence?
A cause
2. to give oneself up 3. to yield or
resign a position 4. to give up or B give We watched a show on the stage.
abandon  C lose A book
D move B carriage
Which definition best matches C messenger
4 I asked her to make the
the way surrender in used in the D performance
lemonade, but she couldn’t
following sentence?
find the . 8 Susie was filled with when she passed her test.
He will surrender the office of A change
club president if the students A arrangement
B picture B disappointment
vote against him.
C pitcher C excitement
A Definition 1
D racket D improvement
B Definition 2
C Definition 3 5 What does the word lead mean 9 If the team wins today, their advance to the playoffs is .
D Definition 4 in the following sentence?
A atomic
2 If you move over here, you will He tried out for the lead in the B audience
be more . school play. C autograph
A careful A metal D automatic
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B comfortable B directions
10 Mom went to buy groceries because the kitchen cupboard was
C excitement C the most important role
.
D unable D the inner part of a pencil
A bare
B bear
C made
D maid

Baseline Test 1 2 Baseline Test

11 By the end of the selection, what can the reader conclude about Mary 16 A main idea of the selection is that children who cook —
and Josephine? A are learning a valuable skill
A They didn’t enjoy each other’s company. B understand how to read recipes
B They never saw each other again after the voyage. C are good at solving math problems
C Since they were both unhappy, they were glad when the trip ended. D become frustrated at making mistakes
D Since they became good friends, they probably enjoyed the rest of
17 Who is the audience of this selection?
their trip.
A Teachers
12 Why is the historical setting important to the plot of the story? B Children and parents
A Women were not permitted to travel alone. C Parents who hate to cook
B Mary was unsure about traveling in small boats. D Children who know how to cook
C Travel by ship was the only way to cross the Atlantic Ocean.
18 The author wrote this selection most likely to —
D Other types of travel cost more than Mary’s mother could afford.
A describe to parents how to cook a meal
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13 Which of the following is the theme, or message, of the story? B encourage children to eat healthier meals
A Never travel alone. C teach the reader how to measure ingredients
B Don’t let fear hold you back. D convince families to spend time cooking together
C Traveling by ship can be boring.
19 What claim does the author make in paragraph 1?
D Don’t be nervous about making new friends.
A Having valuable life skills helps children learn to cook.
14 What change takes place in Mary during the trip? B A healthy lifestyle leads to valuable life skills for children.
A She grew sad and cried each day. C Learning to cook is a good way to keep children at home.
B She became angry with her mother. D Children who learn to cook learn life skills and have healthier lives.
C She met Josephine and was less afraid.
20 What details does the author use in paragraph 2 to persuade the reader?
D She became more dependent on her mother.
A Parents should let their children help cook dinner
15 What is the point of view of the narrator? B Cooks have to practice patience and be careful
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A First person C Cooking can be frustrating

B Third person D You can learn ways not to do it again
C Second person
D First person at the beginning and third person at the end

4 Baseline Test 6 Baseline Test

Summative Assessments T19

BASELINE TEST ANSWER KEY

21 The details in paragraph 3 support the main idea that seahorses —

A are an endangered fish
B are dangerous sea hunters
C use their eyes more than other fish
D use their unique abilities to survive

22 What is the best summary of paragraph 5?

A The female seahorse lays the eggs and cares for them until
they hatch.
B The male seahorse carries over a thousand baby seahorses in
his pouch.
C The male and female seahorses work together to care for their eggs
before they hatch.
D The male seahorse has an unusual way of caring for eggs. The male
seahorse carries many eggs in his pouch.

23 By the end of the selection, the reader can infer that seahorses —
A are common
B are endangered
C are difficult to train
D are unusual creatures

24 By organizing paragraph 3 using cause and effect, the author is able

to explain —
A why seahorses are in danger
B what seahorses do when they attack
C how seahorses can protect themselves
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D the surroundings where seahorses hide themselves

25 What is an example of alliteration in paragraph 6?

A seahorses are so small
B very delicate
C as a pet
D you’re a trained professional

8 Baseline Test

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T20 Summative Assessments

 Overview and Description of Unit,
Middle-of-Year, and End-of-Year Tests
OVERVIEW
This Teacher’s Manual provides information for administering and scoring the Unit, Middle-of-
Year, and End-of-Year Tests for Grade 4. Following the teacher pages in this manual, you will find
blackline masters of the student tests. Detailed information about other assessment materials and
procedures associated with myView Literacy may be found in the Assessment Guide.

DESCRIPTION OF UNIT, MIDDLE-OF-YEAR, AND END-OF-YEAR TESTS

The Unit Tests are designed to assess students’ progress in Reading Comprehension, Word
Study, Conventions, and Writing at the end of each unit. All items test content that has been
taught within the unit and all items are aligned to the Common Core State Standards. Some items
also help prepare students for technology-enhanced items they may encounter on computer-
based tests. Selections and questions in the Unit Tests become progressively more difficult from
Unit 1 to Unit 5 to reflect the increasing sophistication of materials students are able to handle.
The Middle-of-Year and End-of-Year Tests follow the same design as the Unit Tests, but contain
more items. The Middle-of-Year Test assesses material from the first three units. The End-of-Year
Test assesses material from all five units.
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Summative Assessments T21

Administering and Scoring the Tests
ADMINISTERING THE TESTS
Each test consists of four parts:
• Reading Comprehension
• Word Study
• Conventions
• Writing
These tests are designed to be administered in a whole-group setting. They may be delivered in
one sitting, or you may opt to administer parts of the test in two or more sittings. For example,
you might have students complete the Reading Comprehension, Word Study, and Conventions
sections on Day One and the Writing section on Day Two.
Take time to review the purpose of the test and test-taking procedures with students prior to
administering a test. Students should know how to show their answers (such as circling answer
choices for multiple-choice questions) and the expectations for completing the test.
These tests are not intended to be timed. Allow ample time for all students to complete the tests
at their own pace.

SCORING THE TESTS

Use the Answer Key provided on pages T61–T80. The Answer Key indicates the correct answer
for each item.
Individual student responses to writing prompts may be scored by using the writing rubric on
page T23.
To make scoring easier, copy and use the following charts as needed:
• the Student Record Chart, on page T41, for recording a student’s individual scores on a Unit,
Middle-of-Year, or End-of-Year Test.
• the Class Record Chart, on page T42, for recording test scores for all students for Unit,
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T22 Summative Assessments

 Writing Rubric
LANGUAGE AND
SCORE FOCUS ORGANIZATION DEVELOPMENT CONVENTIONS
VOCABULARY
Text is clearly Text is well- Text includes Text uses precise, Text has correct
focused on a organized with a thorough and relevant, and grammar,
topic or idea and logical structure/ effective details, accurate language usage, spelling,
4 is developed sequence and clear description, and/or domain- capitalization, and
throughout. transitions. dialogue, evidence, specific vocabulary. punctuation.
and/or text
features.
Text is mostly Text is organized Text includes Text uses mostly Text has a few
focused on a with a mostly adequate use of precise, relevant, conventions errors
topic or idea logical structure/ details, description, and accurate but is mostly clear
3
and developed sequence but dialogue, evidence, language and/or and coherent.
throughout. may lack effective and/or text domain-specific
transitions. features. vocabulary.
Text may Text is somewhat Text includes few Text may use Text has
occasionally lose unclear or difficult details and minimal overly general conventions errors
focus or lack to follow and may description, or imprecise/ that may affect
2 development. lack transitions. dialogue, evidence, inaccurate clarity.
and/or text language and/or
features. domain-specific
vocabulary.
Text is unfocused, Text has little Text includes few Text uses Text is hard to
confusing, or or no structure or no details, little vague, unclear, follow because of
too short. or sequence of or no description, or confusing frequent errors.
1
events. dialogue, evidence, language.
and/or text
features.
0 The text gets no credit if it does not demonstrate adequate command of the traits of the mode of writing.
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Summative Assessments T23

Informing Instruction
INTERPRETING TEST RESULTS
A student’s score on a Unit, Middle-of-Year, or End-of-Year Test provides only one set of data
related to a student’s progress and should be interpreted in conjunction with other assessments
and the teacher’s observations. However, a low score on one or more parts of a test probably
indicates a need for closer review of the student’s performance and perhaps additional
instruction.

INFORMING INSTRUCTION
The Unit, Middle-of-Year, and End-of-Year Tests can help inform instruction. The scores can help
identify students’ areas of strength and areas of need in the categories of reading comprehension,
word study, conventions, and writing. Data provided by the assessments can help teachers
determine which students might benefit from additional intervention. This data can be used to
guide individual and small-group instruction in the classroom.

FURTHER ANALYSIS OF RESULTS

All items on the Unit, Middle-of-Year, and End-of-Year Tests are aligned to skills and the Common
Core State Standards. By identifying which items a student answered incorrectly and referring
to the Item Analysis Charts, you may be able to determine specific areas in which the student
needs additional help. For example, if the student answers six questions incorrectly, four of
which are based on interpreting literary elements such as plot and character, you may want to
plan additional instruction for the student in this area. While the Unit, Middle-of-Year, and End-of-
Year Tests do not provide sufficient content coverage of individual skills to be truly “diagnostic,”
students’ performance patterns can often provide useful clues about particular strengths and
weaknesses.

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T24 Summative Assessments

 ASSISTING ENGLISH LANGUAGE LEARNERS
The Unit, Middle-of-Year, and End-of-Year Tests not only provide teachers with a way to measure
students’ progress throughout the year, they also provide an opportunity for teachers to help
English language learners (ELLs) become familiar with the linguistic patterns and structures they
will encounter while taking various tests, including state tests. The format of these tests is similar
to the format of other tests students may encounter, with similar direction lines, question stems,
and answer formats.
High-stakes tests are typically designed and normed for proficient speakers of English. By
providing opportunities for students to become familiar with the formats and language of tests,
teachers can assist English language learners in obtaining results that reflect students’ learning
of the content rather than their aptitude for comprehending test language and formats. Teachers
can use specific strategies to prepare English language learners for assessment. Using these
strategies on the Unit, Middle-of-Year, and End-of-Year Tests will increase students’ comfort
levels and success with assessment tools such as the state tests.

INSTRUCTIONAL STRATEGIES TO PREPARE ELLS FOR FORMAL

ASSESSMENTS
• Preteach the “language of tests” encountered in directions and test items, including:
– Question words, such as who, what, which, where, when, why, and how
– Emphasis words and phrases, such as not, except, most likely, probably, major, both,
neither, either, most, and least
– Action words and phrases, such as explain, describe, discuss, persuade, support your
answer, and cite evidence
Words such as both and not may seem simple, but their uses in test questions often prove
otherwise. ELLs need help in seeing how such words frame and constrain ideas expressed in
the sentences in which they appear.
• Familiarize students with basic test formats such as the lettering of selected-response answer
choices and the division of questions into Part A and Part B. By providing opportunities for
ELLs to become familiar with the structure and language of formal assessments, you enable
them to demonstrate their learning of the content rather than their ability to decipher test
language and formats.
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• Teach the use of context clues to interpret the meanings of unfamiliar terms.
• Highlight and discuss routinely the academic language, vocabulary, syntax, text structures,
and text types encountered in trade books and textbooks.
• Provide regular opportunities for meaningful oral language experiences in which ELLs discuss
important topics and perform the activities required on tests, such as explaining, describing,
and stating and supporting opinions. Encourage them to use vocabulary that will support
academic language development.

Summative Assessments T25

• Coach students in oral and written retelling and summarization so that they develop a “sense”
of text types, features, conventions, and organization. ELLs relate to the concrete nature of
informational text, and summarization of such text helps to familiarize them with common text
structures, such as sequence, description, classification, compare and contrast, cause and
effect, and problem and solution.
• Read aloud, think aloud, and model purposeful and strategic behaviors of effective readers,
speakers, and writers of English.

APPROPRIATE TEST ACCOMMODATIONS FOR ELLS

As you consider making accommodations for ELLs in your class, keep in mind that the ultimate
goal is for these students to be able to handle mainstream assessments, terminology, and
instruction on their own. Any accommodations you provide should be considered stepping
stones to students’ eventual successful encounter with mainstream teaching and testing
conditions. In providing test accommodations, it is important not to compromise the intent of the
assessments.
It is never appropriate to read aloud the reading selections or the comprehension and vocabulary
questions in English or translate them into students’ first languages. These practices alter the
constructs of the tests. Reading comprehension assessments are designed to measure both
word recognition and understanding, so reading aloud or translating actually changes the intent
of the tests.
Appropriate accommodations might include the following:
• Provide additional testing time.
• Allow frequent or extended breaks, dividing tests into multiple sessions as needed.
• Administer tests at times most beneficial to students.
• Administer tests in small groups or in one-on-one settings that are comfortable and familiar
to students.
• Read aloud test directions in English or in students’ first languages and repeat as often as
necessary.
• Simplify the language and sentence structure of test directions. Clarify phrases such as “use
information from the selection,” “which of the following,” and “write in response.” When
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possible, model the tasks and provide verbal directions in simple English.
• Request that students restate test directions in their own words to ensure they understand
what to do.
• Encourage students to draw pictures to help demonstrate their thinking and learning.
Following the administration of each assessment, note which accommodations you used and the
degree to which they were beneficial. Then interpret test scores with that information in mind. As
ELLs progress in their English language skills and become more comfortable with testing, it is
important to reconsider which accommodations you use.

T26 Summative Assessments

 Unit, Middle-of-Year, and End-of-Year Tests
Item Analysis Charts
GRADE 4, UNIT 1 TEST

UNIT SECTION ITEMS ITEM FOCUS/SKILL DOK LEVEL CCSS

1 Explain Author's Purpose DOK 2 RI.4.1

2 Explain Author's Purpose DOK 2 RI.4.1
3 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 2 RI.4.2
4 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 2 RI.4.1
5 Analyze Text Structure DOK 2 RI.4.5
Reading Comprehension
6 Analyze Main Ideas and Details DOK 2 RI.4.1
7 Analyze Text Features DOK 2 RI.4.7
8 Analyze Text Structure DOK 2 RI.4.7
9 Analyze Main Ideas and Details DOK 2 RI.4.2
10 Analyze Text Structure DOK 2 RI.4.1
11 Suffixes -ed, -ing, -s, -er, -est DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
12 Suffixes -ed, -ing, -s, -er, -est DOK 3 RF.4.3.a
13 Suffixes -ity, -ty, -ic, -ment DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
14 Suffixes -ity, -ty, -ic, -ment DOK 3 RF.4.3.a
15 Syllable Pattern VCe DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
Word Study
1 16 Syllable Pattern VCe DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
17 Vowel Teams and Digraphs DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
18 Vowel Teams and Digraphs DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
19 Prefixes mis-, en-, em- DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
20 Prefixes mis-, en-, em- DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
21 Subjects and Predicates DOK 2 L.4.1.f
22 Subjects and Predicates DOK 2 L.4.1.f
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23 Compound Subjects and Predicates DOK 2 L.4.1

24 Compound Subjects and Predicates DOK 3 L.4.1
25 Complete Sentences DOK 2 L.4.1.f
Conventions
26 Complete Sentences DOK 3 L.4.1.f
27 Fix Run-On Sentences DOK 2 L.4.1.f
28 Fix Run-On Sentences DOK 2 L.4.1.f
29 Fix Sentence Fragments DOK 2 L.4.1.f
30 Fix Sentence Fragments DOK 2 L.4.1.f
Writing Prompt Personal Narrative DOK 3 W.4.4

Summative Assessments T27

GRADE 4, UNIT 1 myFOCUS REMEDIATION OPPORTUNITIES

ITEM NUMBER REMEDIATION

1 Lesson 38
2 Lesson 38
3 Lesson 31
4 Lesson 31
5 Lesson 28
6 Lesson 31
7 Lesson 29
8 Lesson 29
9 Lesson 31
10 Lesson 29
11 Lesson 4
12 Lesson 4
13 Lesson 4
14 Lesson 4
15 Lesson 3
16 Lesson 3
17 Lesson 2
18 Lesson 2
19 Lesson 4
20 Lesson 4
21 Lesson 47
22 Lesson 47
23 Lesson 47
24 Lesson 47
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25 Lesson 47
26 Lesson 47
27 Lesson 47
28 Lesson 47
29 Lesson 47
30 Lesson 47
Prompt Lesson 43

T28 Summative Assessments

 GRADE 4, UNIT 2 TEST

UNIT SECTION ITEMS ITEM FOCUS/SKILL DOK LEVEL CCSS

1 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 2 RI.4.2
2 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 3 RI.4.2
3 Analyze Text Structure DOK 2 RI.4.5
4 Analyze Text Structure DOK 2 RI.4.5
Reading 5 Synthesize Information DOK 2 RI.4.1
Comprehension 6 Synthesize Information DOK 2 RI.4.1
7 Analyze Plot and Setting DOK 2 RL.4.3
8 Analyze Plot and Setting DOK 2 RL.4.3
9 Explain Poetic Language and Elements DOK 3 RL.4.5
10 Explain Poetic Language and Elements DOK 2 RL.4.5
11 Plurals DOK 3 L.4.1
12 Plurals DOK 2 L.4.1
13 Vowel Diphthongs DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
14 Vowel Diphthongs DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
15 Irregular Plurals DOK 3 L.4.2.d
Word Study
2 16 Irregular Plurals DOK 2 L.4.2
17 Greek Roots bio, phon, scope, graph, meter, tele DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
18 Greek Roots bio, phon, scope, graph, meter, tele DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
19 Latin Roots terr, rupt, tract, aqua, dict DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
20 Latin Roots terr, rupt, tract, aqua, dict DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
21 Compound Sentences DOK 2 L.4.2.c
22 Compound Sentences DOK 2 L.4.2.c
23 Complex Sentences DOK 2 L.4.1
24 Complex Sentences DOK 2 L.4.1
25 Common and Proper Nouns DOK 2 L.4.2.a
Conventions
26 Common and Proper Nouns DOK 3 L.4.2.a
27 Singular and Plural Nouns DOK 3 L.4.1
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28 Singular and Plural Nouns DOK 2 L.4.1

29 Subject-Verb Agreement DOK 2 L.4.1
30 Subject-Verb Agreement DOK 2 L.4.1
Writing Prompt Informational DOK 3 W.4.2

Summative Assessments T29

GRADE 4, UNIT 2 myFOCUS REMEDIATION OPPORTUNITIES

ITEM NUMBER REMEDIATION

1 Lesson 31
2 Lesson 31
3 Lesson 29
4 Lesson 29
5 Lessons 29, 37
6 Lessons 29, 37
7 Lessons 24–25
8 Lessons 24–25
9 Lesson 18
10 Lesson 18
11 Lesson 1
12 Lesson 1
13 Lesson 2
14 Lesson 2
15 Lesson 1
16 Lesson 1
17 Lesson 12
18 Lesson 12
19 Lesson 12
20 Lesson 12
21 Lesson 47
22 Lesson 47
23 Lesson 47
24 Lesson 47
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25 Lesson 48
26 Lesson 48
27 Lesson 48
28 Lesson 48
29 Lesson 47
30 Lesson 47
Prompt Lesson 44

T30 Summative Assessments

 GRADE 4, UNIT 3 TEST

UNIT SECTION ITEMS ITEM FOCUS/SKILL DOK LEVEL CCSS

1 Analyze Characters DOK 2 RL.4.3
2 Analyze Characters DOK 2 RL.4.3
3 Analyze Plot and Setting DOK 2 RL.4.3
4 Analyze Plot and Setting DOK 2 RL.4.3
5 Compare and Contrast Point of View DOK 2 RL.4.6
Reading Comprehension
6 Compare and Contrast Point of View DOK 2 RL.4.6
7 Examine Poetic Elements DOK 3 RL.4.5
8 Examine Poetic Elements DOK 2 RL.4.5
9 Explain Author's Purpose DOK 2 RL.4.1
10 Explain Author's Purpose DOK 2 RL.4.1
Related Words (Base Words and
11 DOK 2 RF.4.3
Suffixes)
Related Words (Base Words and
12 DOK 3 RF.4.3
Suffixes)
13 r-Controlled Vowels DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
14 r-Controlled Vowels DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
Word Study
3 15 Final Stable Syllables -le, -tion, -sion DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
16 Final Stable Syllables -le, -tion, -sion DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
17 Syllable Patterns V/CV and VC/V DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
18 Syllable Patterns V/CV and VC/V DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
19 Silent Letters DOK 3 RF.4.3.a
20 Silent Letters DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
21 Prepositions and Prepositional Phrases DOK 2 L.4.1.e
22 Prepositions and Prepositional Phrases DOK 2 L.4.1.e
23 Subject-Verb Agreement DOK 3 L.4.1
24 Subject-Verb Agreement DOK 2 L.4.1
25 Irregular Verbs DOK 3 L.4.1
Conventions
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26 Irregular Verbs DOK 2 L.4.1

27 Progressive Verb Tenses DOK 2 L.4.1.b
28 Progressive Verb Tenses DOK 2 L.4.1.b
29 Auxiliary Verbs DOK 2 L.4.1.c
30 Auxiliary Verbs DOK 2 L.4.1.c
Writing Prompt Fiction DOK 3 W.4.4

Summative Assessments T31

GRADE 4, UNIT 3 myFOCUS REMEDIATION OPPORTUNITIES

ITEM NUMBER REMEDIATION

1 Lesson 23
2 Lesson 23
3 Lessons 24–25
4 Lessons 24–25
5 Lesson 26
6 Lesson 26
7 Lesson 18
8 Lesson 18
9 Lesson 38
10 Lesson 38
11 Lessons 2–4
12 Lessons 2–4
13 Lesson 3
14 Lesson 3
15 Lesson 3
16 Lesson 3
17 Lesson 3
18 Lesson 3
19 Lessons 2–3
20 Lessons 2–3
21 Lesson 50
22 Lesson 50
23 Lesson 47
24 Lesson 47
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25 Lesson 48
26 Lesson 48
27 Lesson 48
28 Lesson 48
29 Lesson 48
30 Lesson 48
Prompt Lesson 43

T32 Summative Assessments

 GRADE 4, MIDDLE-OF-YEAR TEST

MOY SECTION ITEMS ITEM FOCUS/SKILL DOK LEVEL CCSS

1 Analyze Plot and Setting DOK 2 RL.4.3
2 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 2 RI.4.2
3 Explain Author's Purpose DOK 2 L.4.5
4 Explain Author's Purpose DOK 2 RL.4.1
5 Analyze Text Structure DOK 2 RL.4.5
6 Analyze Text Structure DOK 2 RI.4.5
7 Analyze Text Features DOK 2 RI.4.1
Reading 8 Synthesize Information DOK 3 RI.4.1
Comprehension 9 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 2 RI.4.2
10 Explain Author's Purpose DOK 2 RI.4.1
11 Analyze Plot and Setting DOK 2 RL.4.3
12 Compare and Contrast Point of View DOK 2 RL.4.6
Examine Poetic Language and
13 DOK 2 L.4.5
Elements
14 Examine Poetic Elements DOK 3 RL.4.1
15 Analyze Characters DOK 2 RL.4.3
16 Suffixes -ity, -ty, -ic, -ment DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
17 Prefixes mis-, en-, em- DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
18 Plurals DOK 3 RF.4.3.a
19 Irregular plurals DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
20 Vowel Diphthongs DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
21 Vowel Teams and Digraphs DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
22 r-Controlled Vowels DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
Word Study 23 Silent Letters DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
24 Related Words DOK 3 RF.4.3.a
25 Final Stable Syllables -le, -tion, -sion DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
26 Suffixes -ed, -ing, -s, -er, -est DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
27 Greek Roots bio, phon, scope, graph DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
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28 Syllable Pattern VCe DOK 2 RF.4.3.a

29 Syllable Patterns V/CV and VC/V DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
30 Latin Roots terr, rupt, tract, aqua, dict DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
31 Compound Subjects and Predicates DOK 2 L.4.1
32 Subjects and Predicates DOK 2 L.4.1
33 Complete Sentences DOK 2 L.4.1
34 Fix Sentence Fragments DOK 3 L.4.1.f
Conventions 35 Progressive Verb Tenses DOK 2 L.4.1
36 Run-ons DOK 2 L.4.1.f
37 Subject-Verb Agreement DOK 2 L.4.1
38 Subject-Verb Agreement DOK 2 L.4.1
39 Compound Sentences DOK 2 L.4.1

Summative Assessments T33

EOY SECTION ITEMS ITEM FOCUS/SKILL DOK LEVEL CCSS
40 Proper Nouns DOK 2 L.4.1
41 Plural Nouns DOK 2 L.4.1
42 Irregular verbs DOK 2 L.4.1
43 Prepositions DOK 2 L.4.1.e
44 Auxiliary Verbs DOK 3 L.4.1
45 Complex Sentences DOK 2 L.4.1
Writing Prompt Personal Narrative DOK 3 W.4.3

GRADE 4, MOY myFOCUS REMEDIATION OPPORTUNITIES

ITEM NUMBER REMEDIATION ITEM NUMBER REMEDIATION

1 Lessons 24–25 25 Lesson 3
2 Lesson 31 26 Lesson 4
3 Lesson 27 27 Lesson 12
4 Lesson 28 28 Lesson 3
5 Lesson 38 29 Lesson 3
6 Lesson 38 30 Lesson 12
7 Lesson 29 31 Lessons 47, 50
8 Lesson 29 32 Lessons 47, 50
9 Lesson 29 33 Lesson 47
10 Lesson 31
34 Lesson 47
11 Lesson 23
35 Lesson 47
12 Lessons 24–25
36 Lesson 47
13 Lesson 27
37 Lesson 48
14 Lesson 18
38 Lesson 47
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16 Lesson 11 39 Lesson 47

17 Lesson 4 40 Lesson 47
18 Lesson 1 41 Lesson 48
19 Lesson 1 42 Lesson 48
20 Lesson 2 43 Lesson 48
21 Lesson 2 44 Lesson 50
22 Lesson 3 45 Lesson 48
23 Lesson 2
Prompt Lesson 43
24 Lessons 2–4

T34 Summative Assessments

 GRADE 4, UNIT 4 TEST

UNIT SECTION ITEMS ITEM FOCUS/SKILL DOK LEVEL CCSS

1 Analyze Characters DOK 2 RL.4.3
2 Analyze Characters DOK 2 RL.4.3
3 Infer Theme DOK 2 RL.4.2
4 Infer Theme DOK 2 RL.4.2
Reading 5 Explain Elements of a Play DOK 2 RL.4.5
Comprehension 6 Explain Elements of a Play DOK 2 RL.4.5
7 Infer Theme DOK 2 RL.4.2
8 Infer Theme DOK 2 RL.4.2
9 Analyze Myths DOK 3 RL.4.9
10 Analyze Myths DOK 2 RL.4.9
11 Greek and Latin Prefixes auto, anti, trans, amphi DOK 3 L.4.4.b
12 Greek and Latin Prefixes auto, anti, trans, amphi DOK 2 L.4.4.b
13 Suffixes -able, -ible DOK 3 L.4.4.b
14 Suffixes -able, -ible DOK 2 L.4.4.b
15 Syllable Pattern V V DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
Word Study
4 16 Syllable Pattern V V DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
17 Prefixes im-, in-, ir- DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
18 Prefixes im-, in-, ir- DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
19 Homophones DOK 2 L.4.1.g
20 Homophones DOK 2 L.4.1.g
21 Pronouns DOK 2 L.4.1.a
22 Pronouns DOK 2 L.4.1.a
23 Adjectives DOK 3 L.4.1
24 Adjectives DOK 2 L.4.1
25 Adverbs DOK 2 L.4.1
Conventions
26 Adverbs DOK 2 L.4.1
27 Comparative Adjectives DOK 2 L.4.1
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28 Comparative Adjectives DOK 2 L.4.1

29 Superlative Adjectives DOK 3 L.4.1
30 Superlative Adjectives DOK 2 L.4.1
Writing Prompt Opinion DOK 3 W.4.1

Summative Assessments T35

GRADE 4, UNIT 5 myFOCUS REMEDIATION OPPORTUNITIES

ITEM NUMBER REMEDIATION

1 Lesson 23
2 Lesson 23
3 Lesson 22
4 Lesson 22
5 Lesson 18
6 Lesson 18
7 Lesson 22
8 Lesson 22
9 Lesson 16
10 Lesson 16
11 Lesson 11
12 Lesson 11
13 Lesson 4
14 Lesson 4
15 Lesson 3
16 Lesson 3
17 Lesson 4
18 Lesson 4
19 Lesson 10
20 Lesson 10
21 Lesson 50
22 Lesson 50
23 Lesson 49
24 Lesson 49
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25 Lesson 49
26 Lesson 49
27 Lesson 49
28 Lesson 49
29 Lesson 49
30 Lesson 49
Prompt Lesson 45

T36 Summative Assessments

 GRADE 4, UNIT 5 TEST

UNIT SECTION ITEMS ITEM FOCUS/SKILL DOK LEVEL CCSS

1 Analyze Text Features DOK 2 RI.4.7
2 Analyze Text Features DOK 2 RI.4.7
3 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 3 RI.4.2
4 Analyze Argument DOK 2 RI.4.8
Reading 5 Analyze Argument DOK 2 RI.4.8
Comprehension 6 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 3 RI.4.2
7 Explain Ideas DOK 2 RI.4.3
8 Explain Ideas DOK 2 RI.4.3
9 Explain Events (cause and effect) DOK 2 RI.4.3
10 Explain Events (cause and effect) DOK 2 RI.4.3
11 Latin Roots gener DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
12 Latin Roots port DOK 3 RF.4.3.a
13 Suffixes -en, -ent, -ence DOK 2 L.4.4.b
14 Suffixes -en, -ent, -ence DOK 2 L.4.4.b
15 Syllable Pattern VCCCV DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
Word Study
5 16 Syllable Pattern VCCCV DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
17 Prefixes dis-, over-, non-, under- DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
18 Prefixes dis-, over-, non-, under- DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
19 Word Parts astro-, sub-, inter-, fore- DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
20 Word Parts astro-, sub-, inter-, fore- DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
21 Relative Adverbs DOK 3 L.4.1.a
22 Relative Adverbs DOK 2 L.4.1.a
23 Capitalization Rules DOK 2 L.4.2.a
24 Capitalization Rules DOK 2 L.4.2.a
25 Capitalizing Titles DOK 2 L.4.2.a
Conventions
26 Capitalizing Titles DOK 2 L.4.2.a
27 Comma Rules (Compound Sentences) DOK 2 L.4.2.c
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28 Comma Rules (Compound Sentences) DOK 2 L.4.2.c

29 Punctuating Dialogue DOK 3 L.4.2.b
30 Punctuating Dialogue DOK 2 L.4.2.b
Writing Prompt Poetry DOK 3 W.4.3

Summative Assessments T37

GRADE 4, UNIT 5 myFOCUS REMEDIATION OPPORTUNITIES

ITEM NUMBER REMEDIATION

1 Lesson 36
2 Lesson 36
3 Lesson 31
4 Lesson 30
5 Lesson 30
6 Lesson 31
7 Lesson 33
8 Lesson 33
9 Lessons 29, 33
10 Lessons 29, 33
11 Lesson 12
12 Lesson 12
13 Lesson 4
14 Lesson 4
15 Lesson 3
16 Lesson 3
17 Lesson 11
18 Lesson 11
19 Lesson 11
20 Lesson 11
21 Lesson 49
22 Lesson 49
23 Lesson 51
24 Lesson 51
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25 Lesson 51
26 Lesson 51
27 Lesson 51
28 Lesson 51
29 Lesson 51
30 Lesson 51
Prompt Lesson 43

T38 Summative Assessments

 GRADE 4, END-OF-YEAR TEST

EOY SECTION ITEMS ITEM FOCUS/SKILL DOK LEVEL CCSS

1 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 2 RI.4.2
2 Analyze Text Structure DOK 2 RI.4.5
3 Analyze Text Structure DOK 2 RI.4.1
4 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 2 RI.4.3
5 Inferences DOK 2 RI.4.1
6 Analyze Plot and Setting DOK 2 RL.4.3
7 Analyze Plot and Setting DOK 2 RL.4.3
Reading
8 Explain Poetic Language and Elements DOK 2 RL.4.5
Comprehension
9 Explain Poetic Language and Elements DOK 3 RL.4.5
10 Analyze Characters DOK 2 RL.4.3
11 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 2 RI.4.2
12 Analyze Main Idea and Details DOK 3 RI.4.2
13 Analyze Text Features DOK 2 RI.4.7
14 Analyze Argument DOK 2 RI.4.8
15 Analyze Argument DOK 2 RI.4.8
16 Plurals DOK 2 L.4.1
17 Vowel Diphthongs DOK 3 L.4.1
18 Plurals DOK 2 L.4.1
19 Greek Roots bio, phon, scope, graph, meter, tele DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
20 Latin Roots port DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
21 Suffixes -en, -ent, -ence DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
22 Syllable Pattern VCCCV DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
Word Study 23 Prefixes dis-, over-, non-, under- DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
24 Word Parts sub-, inter-, fore- DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
25 Word Parts sub-, inter-, fore- DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
26 Vowel Teams and Digraphs DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
27 Syllable Pattern VV DOK 2 RF.4.3.a
28 Prefixes dis-, over-, non-, under- DOK 3 RF.4.3.a
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29 Plurals DOK 2 RF.4.3

30 Irregular Plurals DOK 2 RF.4.3
31 Relative Adverbs DOK 2 L.4.1
32 Capitalizing Titles DOK 2 L.4.2.b
33 Comma Rules DOK 2 L.4.1
34 Punctuating Dialogue DOK 2 L.4.2.b
Conventions 35 Compound Sentences DOK 2 L.4.2.c
36 Complex Sentences DOK 2 L.4.1.f
37 Common and Proper Nouns DOK 2 L.4.2.a
38 Prepositions DOK 2 L.4.1
39 Singular and Plural Nouns DOK 2 L.4.1

Summative Assessments T39

EOY SECTION ITEMS ITEM FOCUS/SKILL DOK LEVEL CCSS
40 Relative Adverbs DOK 3 L.4.1
41 Subject-Verb Agreement I DOK 2 L.4.1
42 Capitalizing Titles DOK 2 L.4.2.a
43 Comma Rules DOK 2 L.4.2.c
44 Comparative Adjectives DOK 2 L.4.1
45 Complex Sentences DOK 2 L.4.1.f
Writing Prompt Personal Narrative DOK 3 W.4.10

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T40 Summative Assessments

 Unit, Middle-of-Year, and End-of-Year Tests
Student Record Chart
Student Name
READING
TEST WORD STUDY CONVENTIONS WRITING
COMPREHENSION

Unit 1 /10 /10 /10

Notes/Observations:

Unit 2 /10 /10 /10

Notes/Observations:

Unit 3 /10 /10 /10

Notes/Observations:

Middle-of-Year /15 /15 /15

Unit 4 /10 /10 /10

Notes/Observations:
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Unit 5 /10 /10 /10

Notes/Observations:

End-of-Year /15 /15 /15

Notes/Observations:

Summative Assessments T41

Class Record Chart
Middle- End-
Student Name Unit 1 Unit 2 Unit 3 Unit 4 Unit 5
of-Year of-Year
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
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24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.

T42 Summative Assessments

 Optional – Fluency Checks or Running Records
ADMINISTERING A FLUENCY TEST
A fluency test measures a student’s reading rate, or the number of words correctly read per
minute (wcpm), on grade-level text the student has not seen before. Although the speed at which
a student reads is part of determining fluency, it is not the only measure. When students read
fluently, they read aloud as they would speak conversationally. Appropriate expression, prosody,
reading rate, and comprehension are all part of reading fluently.
Prior to administering a fluency test, review fluency test procedures with the student. Explain that
the purpose of the fluency test is to understand more about how the student reads.
Administer the fluency test individually so you can record student data. Give the student a copy of
the Student Copy of the selection for the test and make a copy of the Teacher Copy for yourself.
The Teacher Copy has a scale of running numbers to make it easier for you to know how many
words the student reads during the fluency check, while the Student Copy does not have running
numbers. Write the student’s name and the test date at the top of your copy of the selection. This
will help you compare data on future tests. Have a watch or clock available for timing the reading.
Have the student read the text aloud. Do not have the student read the title as part of the fluency
reading; it is not included in the running word count. You may want to record audio of the
student’s reading for later evaluation. Stop the student at exactly one minute and note precisely
where he or she stopped.
As the student reads orally, mark any errors he or she makes during the reading on your copy
of the text (see the chart on page T44). Count the total number of words the student reads in a
minute. Subtract any words he or she reads incorrectly. Record the words correct per minute on
the test.
The formula is: total # of words read – # of errors = words correct per minute (wcpm).
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

Summative Assessments T43

HOW TO IDENTIFY ERRORS
Based upon the selection on page T45, the chart below shows the kinds of errors to look for as a
student reads aloud and the notations to use to mark the errors.

READING ERROR NOTATIONS

Omission
The student omits words or I think that I have the best job in the world.
word parts.
Substitution
The student substitutes my
You must work very hard, but the job is rewarding.
words or parts of words for
the words in the text.
Insertion
The student inserts words or had
I wanted to work as a park ranger since I was young.
parts of words that are not ^
in the text.
Mispronunciation/
Misreading was
One of the best parts of my job is the independence I enjoy.
The student pronounces or
reads a word incorrectly.
Hesitation
H
The student hesitates over a I lead tours on my own, and some nights I get to sleep in a cabin
word and the teacher in the woods with only the bears and owls around me!
provides the word.
Self-correction sc
The student reads a word To get a job like mine, you must study geology, forestry, or
incorrectly but then corrects another earth science.
the error.

Notes
• If the student hesitates over a word, wait several seconds before telling him or her what the Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

word is.
• If a student makes the same error more than once, count it as only one error.
• Self-correction is not counted as an actual error. However, writing “SC” over the word or
words will help you identify words that give the student some difficulty.

T44 Summative Assessments

 SAMPLE FLUENCY TEST
Here is the selection marked as shown on the chart on the previous page. As the student reads
the selection aloud to you, mark errors. Have the student read for exactly one minute, and then
mark the last word he or she reads.

Student Name: Shawna

_________________________________________ Date: 9/24/2018
___________________

My Life as a Park Ranger

I think that I have the best job in the world. I am a park ranger. 16
sc
To get a job like mine, you must study geology, forestry, or 28
my
another earth science. You must work very hard, but the job is 40
rewarding. I enjoy working outdoors and sharing the wonders of 50
nature with the visitors to my beautiful park. One of the best parts 63
was H
of my job is the independence I enjoy. I lead tours on my own, 77
and some nights I get to sleep in a cabin in the woods with only 92
the bears and owls around me! 98
had
I wanted to work as a park ranger since I was young. At first, I did 114
^
not know if I would be /able to do it. My grades in science were not 130
always the best. But I was determined. Camping, hiking, and 140
canoeing every summer filled my heart with joy. I believed that 151
working in a park would be a dream come true. 161
This is my fifth year working as a park ranger. I’ve worked at three 175
different parks around the state. I’ve learned so much about fish, 186
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trees, and all kinds of wildlife. Some weekends, I help young 197
campers reach their campsites on the far side of the lake. Once 209
I even taught a family how to pitch a tent. Not everyone knows 222
how to make a fire or paddle a canoe. I feel like I make a real 238
difference when I help park visitors enjoy the outdoors more. 248
The best part of my job is helping people discover new ways 260
to experience the amazing outdoors! 265
120 – 5 = 115

Summative Assessments T45

INTERPRETING FLUENCY TEST RESULTS
The following chart shows published norms for oral reading fluency.

FALL WINTER SPRING

GRADE %ILE
wcpm wcpm wcpm
90 153 168 184
75 125 143 160
4 50 94 120 133
25 75 95 105
10 60 71 83
Copyright © 2017. Behavioral Research and Teaching. All rights reserved.

If a student’s reading rate is low, your notes on the student’s errors may help you determine why
the rate is low. Poor decoding skills indicate the need for explicit instruction and additional
practice in foundational reading skills. A lack of fluency may indicate a lack of exposure to models
of fluent oral reading. It may also mean the student is not reading enough material at his or her
reading level.

HOW TO TAKE A RUNNING RECORD

A Running Record is an assessment of oral reading accuracy and oral reading fluency. A student’s
reading accuracy is determined by an analysis of the errors a student makes. Reading fluency
is based on reading rate (the number of words per minute) and the degree to which the student
reads with a “natural flow.”
A Running Record may be taken using any reading selection at any time. However, the most valid
and reliable assessment fulfills these requirements: (1) the text is appropriate to the student’s
reading level and interest, and (2) the text is unfamiliar to the student. The selections in this
section are well suited for use as either a Fluency Test or a Running Record because they fit these
requirements. For additional oral reading accuracy and fluency checks that involve a Running
Record, you may choose other selections from grade-level appropriate texts.
The Running Record may be used to verify instructional decisions suggested by other Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

assessments. It may also be used to identify a student’s particular strengths and weaknesses
in reading and language development. In addition, the Running Record may be administered
periodically throughout the year as a means of monitoring student progress.
Measuring oral reading accuracy and oral reading fluency may be accomplished in a single
reading, but two different operations are required. The guidelines on pages T47 and T48 explain
how to determine each measurement.

T46 Summative Assessments

 HOW TO MEASURE ORAL READING ACCURACY
1. Choose an appropriate grade-level text of about 200 to 300 words, or use those selections
that have been provided for use as a Fluency Test.
2. Make copies of the text—one of the Student Copy for the student and one of the Teacher
Copy for you. If the text appears in a book, you may have the student read the text from
the book.
3. Give the text to the student and have the student read the text aloud. (You may want to record
audio of the student’s reading for later evaluation. This approach can be especially helpful if
you are timing the student’s reading or conducting other assessments at the same time.)
4. Your hand should always be “running” on your copy of the text. Put a checkmark above every
word the student reads correctly. Mark any errors the student makes during the reading (see
the explanation of reading errors for Fluency Tests beginning on page T44).
5. Count the total number of errors the student makes and find the percentage score that
reflects the number of errors.
6. If you are using a text from a different source, use this formula to get a percentage score:
Total # of words minus # of errors
× 100 = percentage score
Total # of words
Example: Suppose a student reads a text of 110 words and makes 6 errors.
104 words
110 − 6 = = 0.945 × 100 = 94.5% (round to 95%)
110
The percentage score indicates the student’s oral reading accuracy (percentage of words in
the selection read correctly).
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Summative Assessments T47

HOW TO MEASURE READING RATE
Reading rate is generally defined as number of words per minute (wpm). To determine the reading
rate, follow steps 1–3 as described on page T47. Note the exact time when the student begins
reading and the time when he or she finishes.
To calculate the number of words per minute, use the formula below:
Total # of words read
× 60 = words per minute
# of seconds
Example: Suppose the student reads a selection of 120 words in 90 seconds.
120
= 1.33 (round to the nearest hundredth)
90
1.33 × 60 = 79.8 words per minute (round to 80 wpm)

INTERPRETING THE RESULTS

For oral reading accuracy, use the following criteria:
• A student who reads 98%–100% of the words correctly is reading at an independent level
and may need more challenging texts.
• A student who reads 91%–97% of the words correctly is reading at an instructional level and
will likely benefit from guided on-level instruction in similarly-leveled texts.
• A student who reads with an accuracy of 90% or less is reading at a frustration level and
may benefit most from targeted instruction at a lower reading level as part of a
comprehensive plan that includes scaffolding of grade-level text as well.
For any student whose Running Record results are not clearly definitive, we recommend
administering additional individual assessments, such as classroom observations and anecdotal
records.
On the following pages you will find selections that may be used for either fluency or running
record tests. Both a Teacher Copy and a Student Copy have been provided.

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T48 Summative Assessments

 Grade 4 Unit 1 Fluency Selection Teacher Copy

Student Name: ____________________________________________ Date: ___________________

Ready for a Rabbit

Luisa was so excited! She had been asking for a pet rabbit since she 14
was a little girl. Now she was nine, and her parents agreed that since 28
their apartment was small, a rabbit would be the perfect-sized pet. 39
However, Luisa needed to show her parents that she could handle 50
the responsibility of caring for a living thing. 58

At first, Luisa’s parents gave her a cactus. This was easy! It didn’t 71
need a lot of water, but it did need direct sunlight. She moved the 85
cactus around the apartment where it would receive enough sun, 95
depending on the season. 99
When that proved successful, they gave her two goldfish. They were 110
bright orange with shiny scales. She named them Humpty and Dumpty, 121
and they were healthy, happy fish. She sprinkled food flakes in their 133
bowl every day and scrubbed the fishbowl clean every two weeks. 144
It was a challenging job, but she enjoyed watching how happy the fish 157
seemed with sparkling clean water and a clear bowl. 166

Luisa’s parents agreed that she could now handle a rabbit. 176
After they purchased the cage, hay, and water bottle, they would 187
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go to the local animal shelter and select the perfect pet rabbit! 199

Summative Assessments T49

Grade 4 Unit 1 Fluency Selection Student Copy

Ready for a Rabbit

Luisa was so excited! She had been asking for a pet rabbit since she
was a little girl. Now she was nine, and her parents agreed that since
their apartment was small, a rabbit would be the perfect-sized pet.
However, Luisa needed to show her parents that she could handle
the responsibility of caring for a living thing.
At first, Luisa’s parents gave her a cactus. This was easy! It didn’t
need a lot of water, but it did need direct sunlight. She moved the
cactus around the apartment where it would receive enough sun,
depending on the season.
When that proved successful, they gave her two goldfish. They were
bright orange with shiny scales. She named them Humpty and Dumpty,
and they were healthy, happy fish. She sprinkled food flakes in their
bowl every day and scrubbed the fishbowl clean every two weeks.
It was a challenging job, but she enjoyed watching how happy the fish
seemed with sparkling clean water and a clear bowl.
Luisa’s parents agreed that she could now handle a rabbit. After they
purchased the cage, hay, and water bottle, they would go to the local
animal shelter and select the perfect pet rabbit! Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

T50 Summative Assessments

 Grade 4 Unit 2 Fluency Selection Teacher Copy

Student Name: ____________________________________________ Date: ___________________

Reaching the Finish Line

Riley disliked playing sports. Any mention of football, soccer, 9
or even kickball, and Riley changed the subject. 17
So, when Travis asked Riley if he was interested in joining the 29
school’s running club, Riley told Travis he was not. 38
Travis kept asking. He told Riley all he had to do was run—he didn’t 53
even have to run fast. 58
Riley agreed to attend one practice, but as he told Travis, it would be 72
his first and last. 76
At the first practice, Riley couldn’t run for more than a few minutes 89
at a time. The coach told him it was alright to walk if he needed to. 105
Riley decided he would give the running club another chance. 115
The second practice was easier—Riley jogged for half the practice 126
and walked the last half. By the sixth practice, Riley was jogging for 139
the whole practice. 142
The coach informed the students that there was a two-mile race the 154
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following week. Riley immediately shook his head, but Travis assured 164
him it would be fine. 169
At the race, Riley anxiously waited for the buzzer. Then everyone 180
started to run. Riley felt pretty good in the beginning but then started 193
slowing down. Travis jogged next to him and cheered him on. Riley 205
huffed and puffed and put one foot in front of the other. Before he 219
knew it, he was looking down at the finish line. He had finished the 233
entire two miles! 236
Summative Assessments T51
Grade 4 Unit 2 Fluency Selection Student Copy

Reaching the Finish Line

Riley disliked playing sports. Any mention of football, soccer,
or even kickball, and Riley changed the subject.

So, when Travis asked Riley if he was interested in joining the

school’s running club, Riley told Travis he was not.

Travis kept asking. He told Riley all he had to do was run—he didn’t
even have to run fast.

Riley agreed to attend one practice, but as he told Travis, it would be

his first and last.

At the first practice, Riley couldn’t run for more than a few minutes
at a time. The coach told him it was alright to walk if he needed to.
Riley decided he would give the running club another chance.

The second practice was easier—Riley jogged for half the practice
and walked the last half. By the sixth practice, Riley was jogging for
the whole practice.

The coach informed the students that there was a two-mile race the
following week. Riley immediately shook his head, but Travis assured
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

him it would be fine.

At the race, Riley anxiously waited for the buzzer. Then everyone
started to run. Riley felt pretty good in the beginning but then started
slowing down. Travis jogged next to him and cheered him on. Riley
huffed and puffed and put one foot in front of the other. Before he
knew it, he was looking down at the finish line. He had finished the
entire two miles!

T52 Summative Assessments

 Grade 4 Unit 3 Fluency Selection Teacher Copy

Student Name: ____________________________________________ Date: ___________________

Maya the Poet

Maya handed Aunt Caroline a piece of paper, explaining that it 11
was a poem for Maya’s mom. She waited anxiously for her 22
aunt’s opinion. Was it good enough? 28

After some careful thought, Aunt Caroline spoke. She said the 38
poem was beautiful, but she gently pointed out that Maya was 49
not the author—someone else was. 55

Maya tried to hide her disappointment. She had struggled to find 66

the perfect poem. She wanted her mother to know how much she 78
was loved, and Maya was certain that this poem would do just that. 91

Then Aunt Caroline suggested that Maya write an original poem. 101
Maya was hesitant about this because she did not think she was 113
a “real” poet. 116

However, Aunt Caroline was certain that if Maya searched deep 126
inside her own heart and wrote down the words from there, she 138
would end up with an amazing poem. 145
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Maya returned to her bedroom. She thought and thought and 155
scribbled down words that came into her mind. Then she began 166
connecting ideas together. Finally, lines began pouring out like 175
a fountain onto her paper. The perfect words to describe what 186
Maya’s mom meant to her filled the page. It was a poem, a lovely 200
poem indeed—one that would truly make her mom feel appreciated. 211

Summative Assessments T53

Grade 4 Unit 3 Fluency Selection Student Copy

Maya the Poet

Maya handed Aunt Caroline a piece of paper, explaining that it
was a poem for Maya’s mom. She waited anxiously for her
aunt’s opinion. Was it good enough?

After some careful thought, Aunt Caroline spoke. She said the
poem was beautiful, but she gently pointed out that Maya was
not the author—someone else was.

Maya tried to hide her disappointment. She had struggled to find

the perfect poem. She wanted her mother to know how much she
was loved, and Maya was certain that this poem would do just that.

Then Aunt Caroline suggested that Maya write an original poem.

Maya was hesitant about this because she did not think she was
a “real” poet.

However, Aunt Caroline was certain that if Maya searched deep

inside her own heart and wrote down the words from there, she
would end up with an amazing poem.

Maya returned to her bedroom. She thought and thought and

Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

scribbled down words that came into her mind. Then she began
connecting ideas together. Finally, lines began pouring out like
a fountain onto her paper. The perfect words to describe what
Maya’s mom meant to her filled the page. It was a poem, a lovely
poem indeed—one that would truly make her mom feel appreciated.

T54 Summative Assessments

 Grade 4 Unit 4 Fluency Selection Teacher Copy

Student Name: ____________________________________________ Date: ___________________

The Pack Rat

The North American trade rat, or woodrat, is an unusual animal. 11
Also known as a pack rat, this small rodent collects many different 23
items to build its nest. Twigs, branches, and plant parts are often 35
used, but it will take almost anything it can find. The trade rat gets 49
its name from the way it “trades” one item for another—if a trade rat 64
takes something, it will leave something of similar value behind. 74
These rodents are known to take things from humans. Toys, mittens, 85
and even soda cans have been found in a trade rat’s nest! 97

The North American trade rat lives mostly in desert regions of the 109
United States and Mexico. Although the desert has extreme 118
temperatures, trade rats’ nests are insulated. The nests keep the rats 129
cool in the summer and warm in the winter. The rats often use cactus 143
parts in and around the nest because the needles keep dangerous 154
animals such as coyotes and snakes from entering. The trade rat eats 166
nuts, seeds, and leafy plants. 171
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People sometimes have trouble with trade rats because they can 181
get into places such as attics and car engines. If a trade rat creeps 195
inside a car engine, it may leave twigs and leaves under the hood, 208
or it may chew through wires. 214

While these small animals are cute, they sure can cause a lot 226
of damage! 228

Summative Assessments T55

Grade 4 Unit 4 Fluency Selection Student Copy

The Pack Rat

The North American trade rat, or woodrat, is an unusual animal.
Also known as a pack rat, this small rodent collects many different
items to build its nest. Twigs, branches, and plant parts are often
used, but it will take almost anything it can find. The trade rat gets
its name from the way it “trades” one item for another—if a trade rat
takes something, it will leave something of similar value behind.
These rodents are known to take things from humans. Toys, mittens,
and even soda cans have been found in a trade rat’s nest!

The North American trade rat lives mostly in desert regions of the
United States and Mexico. Although the desert has extreme
temperatures, trade rats’ nests are insulated. The nests keep the rats
cool in the summer and warm in the winter. The rats often use cactus
parts in and around the nest because the needles keep dangerous
animals such as coyotes and snakes from entering. The trade rat eats
nuts, seeds, and leafy plants.

People sometimes have trouble with trade rats because they can
get into places such as attics and car engines. If a trade rat creeps Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

inside a car engine, it may leave twigs and leaves under the hood,
or it may chew through wires.

While these small animals are cute, they sure can cause a lot
of damage!

T56 Summative Assessments

 Grade 4 Unit 5 Fluency Selection Teacher Copy

Student Name: ____________________________________________ Date: ___________________

Living in an Earthship
An earthship is a house made of mostly recycled materials such as 12
old tires and plastic soda bottles. The house depends on natural 23
resources for water and energy. 28

To build the house’s frame, tires are stacked on top of one another. 41
Then they are filled with dirt. This gives the house insulation, which 53
helps it stay cool in the summer and warm in the winter. The tires 67
are held together with cement and are covered with plaster. This gives 79
the walls a smooth appearance. 84
With large windows on the south side of the house, the sun heats it 98
during the winter months when the sun is at its lowest point. If the 112
floors are made of brick, the sun’s heat will be absorbed by the floor 126
for additional warmth. 129
Most earthships have solar panels, which absorb sunlight and store 139
the sun’s energy in solar batteries that provide electricity for the house. 151
As for water, gutters are installed along the length of the house’s 163
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

roof, which is slanted at an angle for the water to run off. When it 178
rains, the water is collected into special barrels that will hold it for 191
future use. The water is filtered for drinking and cooking. Used water 203
is not wasted either. It can be used again to water trees and plants. 217
Would you live in an earthship? 223

Summative Assessments T57

Grade 4 Unit 5 Fluency Selection Student Copy

Living in an Earthship
An earthship is a house made of mostly recycled materials such as
old tires and plastic soda bottles. The house depends on natural
resources for water and energy.

To build the house’s frame, tires are stacked on top of one another.
Then they are filled with dirt. This gives the house insulation, which
helps it stay cool in the summer and warm in the winter. The tires
are held together with cement and are covered with plaster. This gives
the walls a smooth appearance.

With large windows on the south side of the house, the sun heats it
during the winter months when the sun is at its lowest point. If the
floors are made of brick, the sun’s heat will be absorbed by the floor
for additional warmth.

Most earthships have solar panels, which absorb sunlight and store
the sun’s energy in solar batteries that provide electricity for the house.

As for water, gutters are installed along the length of the house’s
roof, which is slanted at an angle for the water to run off. When it
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.
rains, the water is collected into special barrels that will hold it for
future use. The water is filtered for drinking and cooking. Used water
is not wasted either. It can be used again to water trees and plants.

Would you live in an earthship?

T58 Summative Assessments

 Grade 4 End-of-Year Fluency Selection Teacher Copy

Student Name: ____________________________________________ Date: ___________________

Buddy Holly
Charles Hardin Holley was born on September 7, 1936, in the small 12
town of Lubbock, Texas. He later became known as Buddy Holly, 23
an accomplished singer, songwriter, and musician. He played 31
different types of music such as country and blues, but was best 43
known for his rock-and-roll songs. 48

When he was a child, Buddy began to play a number of different 61

musical instruments, such as the guitar and banjo. He was comfortable 72
in front of an audience and began performing at an early age. 84
His earliest performances were for his classmates at school. 93

Buddy started his first band, Buddy & Bob, with a friend from school. 106
They played small concerts whenever they could. They even performed 116
with Elvis Presley, another famous singer. 122

Buddy Holly’s next band was called The Crickets. They eventually 132
became famous for some of the earliest rock-and-roll music. “That’ll 142
Be the Day,” “Peggy Sue,” and “Everyday” were some of Buddy’s most 154
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popular songs. His music had an effect on many people. Even now, 166
many musicians say Buddy’s songs affected them. 173

Buddy Holly died in an accident on February 3, 1959. He was only 22. 187
Although Buddy died young, his music continues to live on in the hearts 200
and minds of many people. Buddy became part of The Rock and Roll 213
Hall of Fame in 1986. His songs are still played on the radio to this day. 229

Summative Assessments T59

Grade 4 End-of-Year Fluency Selection Student Copy

Buddy Holly
Charles Hardin Holley was born on September 7, 1936, in the small
town of Lubbock, Texas. He later became known as Buddy Holly,
an accomplished singer, songwriter, and musician. He played
different types of music such as country and blues, but was best
known for his rock-and-roll songs.

When he was a child, Buddy began to play a number of different

musical instruments, such as the guitar and banjo. He was comfortable
in front of an audience and began performing at an early age.
His earliest performances were for his classmates at school.

Buddy started his first band, Buddy & Bob, with a friend from school.
They played small concerts whenever they could. They even performed
with Elvis Presley, another famous singer.

Buddy Holly’s next band was called The Crickets. They eventually
became famous for some of the earliest rock-and-roll music. “That’ll
Be the Day,” “Peggy Sue,” and “Everyday” were some of Buddy’s most
popular songs. His music had an effect on many people. Even now,
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.
many musicians say Buddy’s songs affected them.

Buddy Holly died in an accident on February 3, 1959. He was only 22.

Although Buddy died young, his music continues to live on in the hearts
and minds of many people. Buddy became part of The Rock and Roll
Hall of Fame in 1986. His songs are still played on the radio to this day.

T60 Summative Assessments

 Unit, Middle-of-Year, and End-of-Year Tests
Answer Key UNIT 1 ANSWER KEY
Name

8 President Johnson died in 1973, just a few years after retiring. But 3 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.
Lady Bird lived another 35 years. She continued to work on important
issues. In 1982, she and actress Helen Hayes started the National Part A
Wildflower Research Center in Austin, Texas. The center is one of The author includes the detail about “Lady Bird’s Bill” to show —
Lady Bird’s most important environmental achievements. A she was a popular First Lady
9 Lady Bird thought beauty was good for the soul. “Ugliness is so grim,” B she cared about other people
she said. “A little beauty, something that is lovely, I think, can help C she was involved in building highways
create harmony. . . .” She credited her Aunt Effie for “opening her spirit D she was interested in environmental laws
to beauty” when she was just a child.
Part B
What can the reader infer about how the answer in Part A relates
1 The main purpose of this selection is to —
to Lady Bird’s National Wildflower Research Center?
A compare Lady Bird Johnson with other presidents’ wives
A Lady Bird’s talent for business made the center successful.
B explain how important it is to take care of the environment
B Lady Bird’s interest in the environment led her to start the center.
C show that Lady Bird Johnson was a successful businesswoman
C Lady Bird’s talent for politics led her to be president of the center.
D describe the life of the thirty-sixth First Lady of the United States
D Lady Bird’s interest in journalism caused her to report on the center.
2 How does paragraph 7 support the author’s purpose?
4 Read this excerpt from paragraph 7 of “Lady Bird Johnson.”
A It explains how Lady Bird came to be the First Lady.
Underline the two sentences that show that Lady Bird worked
B It explains why Lady Bird decided to study journalism.
closely with her husband.
C It explains what Lady Bird did while she was First Lady.
D It explains how Lady Bird viewed her husband and his advisors. As First Lady, Lady Bird was unique. Many first ladies before
her had been advisors to their husbands, but Lady Bird took
her position as First Lady to another level. She worked on
projects and issues of importance to her and the President.
She worked to make America more beautiful. She worked to
help women and children and to preserve the environment.
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5 Paragraph 3 is similar to paragraph 9 because they both —

A discuss Lady Bird’s mother
B discuss Lady Bird’s Aunt Effie
C describe Lady Bird’s abilities as a businesswoman
D describe Lady Bird’s passion for beauty and the environment

10 Unit 1 Test Unit 1 Test 11

Name

6 It takes a lot of planning and a lot of special equipment to make the trip. 7 Based on the information in the diagram, at what altitude are climbers first
Besides clothing, food, water, sleeping bags, and tents, climbers pack in danger of becoming sick?
mountain-climbing gear. This includes ropes, special clamps, and ice A 8,000 feet
axes. Climbers also take oxygen canisters and altitude sickness pills. B 17,700 feet
7 Most climbers travel in teams and are accompanied by Sherpas. Sherpas C 19,900 feet
are local people who serve as guides, provide meals, and help carry D 29,029 feet
supplies. They are used to the high altitude and are familiar with the
climbing route. 8 Which sentence from the selection is illustrated by the diagram?
8 The climb is done in stages. This allows climbers to get used to the A No one had ever reached Everest’s summit until 1953.
altitude as they go up the mountain. Today’s climbers make the climb in B Everest is full of deep canyons, cracks, ice walls, snow drifts, and
about forty days. They travel from 1,400 to 3,200 feet between camps. sharp, loose rocks.
The diagram below shows the path climbers follow to reach the summit. C Winds can reach two hundred miles per hour.
9 Since 1953, more than four thousand people have climbed Mount D They travel from 1,400 to 3,200 feet between camps.
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Everest. Some of them have even climbed it multiple times. Everest

9. This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.
remains a highlight and high point of many climbers’ lives.
Part A
Summit
EVEREST (29,029 ft) What does the selection communicate about Sherpas?
A They enjoy cooking for mountain climbers.
Camp IV
(26,000 ft) Camp III B They sell equipment to mountain climbers.
(24,500 ft)
Camp II C They are not bothered by harsh weather conditions.
(21,300 ft)
D They are better suited to climb Mount Everest than non-locals.
Camp I
(19,900 ft)
Part B
Which detail from the passage best supports your answer in Part A?
Base Camp A Temperatures can range from 100°F to —80°F. (paragraph 3)
(17,700 ft)
Risk of Altitude
B It takes a lot of planning and a lot of special equipment to make the
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

Sickness
(8,000 ft)
trip. (paragraph 6)
6 Circle the two details that support the idea that climbers take risks when C [Sherpas] serve as guides, provide meals, and help carry supplies.
they climb Mount Everest. (paragraph 7)
Climbers first reached the summit in 1953. D They are used to the high altitude and are familiar with the climbing
Everest is full of canyons and cracks. route. (paragraph 7)
Without enough oxygen, climbers can become sick.
Sherpas help carry supplies.
Today the climb takes about forty days.

Unit 1 Test 13 14 Unit 1 Test

Summative Assessments T61

 Name

10. This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B. Word Study
Part A Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
What text structure does the author use to organize paragraph 2? 11 Which suffix shows that an action is happening now?
A cause and effect A -er
B chronological order B -ed
C description C -ing
D compare and contrast D -est
Part B 12 Circle the two words that can be used to make a comparison.
The author uses that text structure in paragraph 2 mainly to show — tasted
A who climbed Mount Everest first tastier
B why it took so long to climb Mount Everest tasting
C how many people have climbed Mount Everest tastiest
D why people first became interested in climbing Mount Everest
13 Which suffix can be added to amuse to make a word that means “the
action of being amused”?
A -ic
B -ty
C -ity
D -ment
14 Match each word with the suffix that can be added to create a new word.
history -ty
develop -ity
festive -ic
loyal -ment
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15 Which of the following words is an example of the VCe syllable pattern
with a long vowel sound and a silent e?
A asked
B ferns
C justice
D place

Unit 1 Test 15 16 Unit 1 Test

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Name

16 Read the sentence. Conventions

My friend Sal’s nickname is Duck because she loves to float in the lake! Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
Which of the following words is an example of the VCe syllable pattern?
21 Which of the following sentences contains both a complete subject and a
A friend complete predicate?
B float A My friend ran.
C the B Played soccer.
D lake C Went to school.
17 Which of the following words contains a vowel team? D The dark forest.
A lamp 22 Read the sentence.
B main Mr. Hill’s class played a game.
C winter
The complete predicate in the sentence is —
D recent
A Mr. Hill’s
18 Which two of the following sentences contain an underlined word with a B Mr. Hill’s class
consonant digraph? C played
A Tim went to the lake for vacation. D played a game
B He found a shell on the beach. Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.
23 Underline the compound subject in the following sentence.
C He carefully put it in a pail.
Bella and Tom will have hurry to get to the market before it closes.
D On the road home, he held the pail.
E At home, Tim put his find in his treasure chest. 24 Read the sentence.
19 The prefix en- in enlarge means — On our fishing trip, we paddled across the lake and caught ten big fish.
A to move The underlined words can be described as —
B to give less to A a noun phrase
C to cause to be B a prepositional phrase
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D to stay the same C a compound subject

D a compound predicate
20 Read the sentence.
I was mistaken for my cousin. 25 An example of a complete sentence is —
The prefix mis- helps the reader understand that the word mistaken A At the city park.
means — B Susan is a good student.
A correct in belief C My favorite television programs.
B without care D Is the tall captain of the team.
C wrongly identified
D having the same appearance
Unit 1 Test 17 18 Unit 1 Test

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T62 Summative Assessments

 Name

26 Underline the two complete sentences in the following paragraph.

Tina and Lili planned to go to the movies and get ice cream. After the
movie. Forgot her money borrowed some. Not enough for movie and ice
cream. They went home after the movie.

27 Which sentence is NOT a run-on sentence?

A Kim left early the ball game was over.
B Sara jumped up Simon stayed at his desk.
C Carlos finished his report and went to the playground.
D Cynthia and Lucy made soup Lucy’s mom made the salad.

28 Which sentence is correct?

A I love to play softball, I like my team.
B His uncle is a teacher he teaches science.
C Linda has an uncle in England, and he invited her to visit.
D My sister enjoys walking in the park she also loves snow cones.

29 Which sentence is NOT a fragment?

A After waiting all day for the mail to come.
B Decided to go home and play with his sister.
C Decided to make a cake, with his dad and his sisters.
D After making three baskets, the boy helped his team win.

30 A student wants to change the sentence below to make it complete.

My mother .
To complete the sentence, the student should add the words —
A who is nice
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B and my father
C planning to go
D left for the meeting

Unit 1 Test 19
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Summative Assessments T63

UNIT 2 ANSWER KEY
Name

1 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B. 4 Which statement shows cause and effect?
A Polar bears have big, padded paws.
Part A
B The bald eagle’s gripping strength is stronger than a human’s.
What is a main idea of the selection?
C Because horses have hooves, they are able to get started quickly.
A An animal’s feet help it to run fast.
D A lion is a powerful runner with padded feet and retractable claws.
B An animal’s feet help it survive in its habitat.
C An animal’s feet are often a bad match for its habitat. 5 The elephant and the lion are alike because they both can —
D An animal’s feet are designed for grabbing prey. A move quietly
B grab prey quickly
Part B
C weigh several tons
Which detail from the selection supports your answer in Part A?
D outrun smaller, faster animals
A The lion has small, padded paws.
B The bald eagle is an effective prey. 6 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.
C The duck’s feet are not great for walking. Part A
D The polar bear’s paws protect it from the cold.
The reader can conclude that —
2 Read paragraph 3. A all animals are natural swimmers
B only large animals can survive in the wild
The elephant is another large animal with big, cushioned feet. It is C animals in cold environments are strongest
lucky to have them. When you weigh between six and eight tons and D animals are adapted to live in a variety of environments
are on your feet most of the day, it is helpful to have good, shock-
absorbing support. The padding on an elephant’s feet also helps it Part B
move silently across the land. Which sentence from the selection supports your answer
in Part A?
Underline the two sentences that include details to support the idea that A Some kinds of animal feet are described here.
an elephant’s feet help it to move quietly and comfortably.
B It is lucky to have them.
3 One way the polar bear is similar to the lion is that it has — C ...even though its feet are not great for walking, they are ideal for
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

A hairy claws swimming.

B hard paws D Talons are like claws.
C padded paws
D retractable claws

24 Unit 2 Test Unit 2 Test 25

Name

Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question. 8 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

This is a poem about raccoons—animals that are loved by some and disliked Part A
by others. Raccoons are pointy-faced, furry creatures with what looks like a What is the setting of the poem “Five Little Bandits”?
black mask across their cheeks and eyes. They are found throughout the A a big city
United States. Their natural habitat is in places near woods and streams, but
B a desert
they have adapted to suburban and urban environments as well.
C a cozy house
Five Little Bandits D a wilderness area

by Buffy Silverman Part B

Which line from the poem supports your answer in Part A?
Five little bandits
peering out a hole. A “Beware! A bear!”
The first one said, B then scooped another treat.
“Let’s take a moonlit stroll.” C Oooooh went the wind
D “Let’s take a moonlit stroll.”
5 The second one sniffed.
“I smell crayfish over there.” 9 Draw lines from the left column to the right column to match the three
The third one stopped. lines that end with words that rhyme.
“Beware! A bear!” Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.
Five little bandits “Beware! A bear!”
The fourth one pounced
peering out a hole.
“Let’s take a moonlit stroll.”
10 and caught a fish to eat.
The fifth one slapped,
“I smell crayfish over there.” The fifth one slapped,
then scooped another treat.
then scooped another treat.
Oooooh went the wind
The fourth one pounced
through the cool, dark night,
and caught a fish to eat. Oooooh went the wind
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

15 and the five little bandits

sloshed out of sight.

7 Which of the following happens first in “Five Little Bandits”?

A One of the bandits suggests taking a stroll.
B One of the bandits sniffs and smells crayfish.
C One of the bandits pounces and catches a fish.
D One of the bandits sees a bear and tells the others.

26 Unit 2 Test Unit 2 Test 27

T64 Summative Assessments

 Name

10 Read line 13 from the poem. 14 Which of the following words includes the vowel diphthong sound oi?
A beautiful
Oooooh went the wind B build
C poor
The poet uses the figurative language to show that the — D voyage
A moon was out
15 Read the following singular nouns.
B wind was blowing
goose deer mouse sheep
C bandits were hungry
tooth moose life scissors
D bear was about to attack
To make each noun plural, decide whether it needs a change in spelling or
whether the plural is spelled the same as its singular form. Write each word
Word Study in the correct box.
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
11 Read the following words. On the lines below, write the four words that 1. plural spelling changes 2. plural spelling the same as singular
need -es added to make them plural. goose mouse tooth life deer sheep moose scissors
system monkey speech sash
class ax pearl shark 16 Which of the following plural words is spelled correctly?
A oxes
speech sash class ax
B echos
12 The correct plural form of the word factory is — C shelfs
A factorys D children
B factores
17 Read the following sentence.
C factories
The captain of the submarine peered through the periscope.
D factoryes
The root of periscope is —
13 Read the following words. On the lines below, write the two words that A per
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

have the same sound as ou in the word about. B peri
snow allowing your C scope
without you though D ope
allowing without

28 Unit 2 Test Unit 2 Test 29

Name

18 The meaning of the root phon in the word phonograph is — Conventions

A sound Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
B viewing
21 Read the following sentence.
C far or distant
D written or drawn Its feet are not great for walking, but they are ideal for swimming.

19 The Latin root rupt helps the reader determine that the word abruptly The joining word but is used to combine these two simple sentences to
means — show —
A softly or gently A a contrast in how the duck travels
B gradually or slowly B that a duck can walk and swim equally well
C suddenly or unexpectedly C that travel for a duck is more comfortable when it is walking
D cautiously or patiently D that neither walking nor swimming is easy for a duck

20 In paragraph 6 of “Animal Feet,” the Latin root tract helps the reader 22 Read the following sentences from paragraph 6 of “Animal Feet.”
determine that the word retract means to —
Padding lets the lion sneak up quietly on its prey.
A say aloud
Its long claws allow it to grab prey quickly.
B draw back or in
C change The correct way to make these two sentences a compound sentence is —
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D allow A Padding lets the lion sneak up quietly on its prey, its long claws allow
it to grab prey quickly.
B Padding lets the lion sneak up quietly on its prey, or its long claws
allow it to grab prey quickly.
C Padding lets the lion sneak up quietly on its prey, nor its long claws
allow it to grab prey quickly.
D Padding lets the lion sneak up quietly on its prey, and its long claws
allow it to grab prey quickly.
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

23 What is the correct way to combine the following two simple sentences to
form a complex sentence?
The elephant is large.
The elephant is lucky to have big, cushioned feet.
A When the elephant is large, it is lucky to have big, cushioned feet.
B The elephant is large, when it is lucky to have big, cushioned feet.
C Because the elephant is large, it is lucky to have big, cushioned feet.
D The elephant is large, because it is lucky to have big, cushioned feet.

30 Unit 2 Test Unit 2 Test 31

Summative Assessments T65

 Name

24 Read the following sentence. 29 Which of the following sentences uses correct subject-verb agreement?
The school bus picks up students after the final bell rings. A The animals walks many miles across the land.
Which words make up the independent clause in this sentence? B A messenger leave a package by the door.
A The school bus picks C That gentleman goes to work every day on the train.
B The school bus picks up students D Slowly the mule climb the hill with its load.
C picks up students after the final bell rings
30 What change should be made to the following sentence?
D after the final bell rings
The dog barks at the delivery person, but the owner make his
25 Which word in the sentence below should be capitalized? dog behave.
Pablo Juarez and his mother, Cristina, were excited to travel to Mexico A Change delivery to Delivery.
city from Arizona for the first time. B Change make to makes.
A his C Change the period to a question mark.
B mother D The sentence should not be changed.
C city
D time

26 Read the following sentence. Writing

My neighbor, Mrs. Simpson, said I could borrow her book called Read the “Animals in the Wild” passage set.
Treasure Island after I leave my school, Kennedy Elementary.
Source 1: Giraffes in Africa
Write the common nouns on the lines.
1 Have you ever seen a giraffe up close? Perhaps you have visited a zoo or
neighbor book school an animal sanctuary, and you have seen giraffes there. What do you think
of when you picture a giraffe? Their long necks? Their long legs?
27 Write each word in the correct column based on how the word is made plural.
paragraph business eagle enemy penny bush 2 Giraffes are fascinating animals! Not only are they the tallest living land
animal, but they are also the largest ruminant. A ruminant is an animal that
add -s add -es Change y to i and add -es eats plants and digests the food in its stomach, which has multiple
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

compartments. Common ruminants include giraffes, cows, antelopes,

paragraph business enemy
and deer.
eagle bush penny
3 Giraffes love the leaves from acacia trees. Giraffes can eat up to 75
28 Which of the following words requires a spelling change instead of
pounds of food each day! Acacia leaves are most of this food. Acacia
adding -s to make it plural?
trees are well-known landmarks on a savanna. The savanna is a common
A nephew
ecosystem in Africa. It is an open grassland that also has lots of shrubs
B woman
and trees.
C stallion
D thorn

32 Unit 2 Test Unit 2 Test 33

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T66 Summative Assessments

 UNIT 3 ANSWER KEY
Name

1 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B. 4 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A Part A
What does the narrator’s mother first give her daughter that sparks a What setting is revealed in paragraph 8?
lifelong interest? A The narrator is in New York City.
A dance lessons B The narrator is in London, England.
B a ballet book C The narrator is in Johannesburg, South Africa.
C ballet shoes D The narrator is traveling between Paris and Berlin.
D a trip to New York
Part B
Part B What does this setting reveal about the narrator?
The narrator’s mother shows that she supports her daughter’s interest in A The narrator prefers to dance in the United States.
dance by — B The narrator performs the same routine no matter where she goes.
A reading to her C The narrator prefers Johannesburg to London and Berlin.
B dancing with her D The narrator is eager to learn new moves from other dancers.
C enrolling her in classes
5 Which sentence from the selection best shows that the narrator is
D watching her performances
speaking from a first person point of view?
2 The narrator feels disappointed when she — A The book had drawings of different dance positions.
A is not accepted to a company B Dancers can express feelings and ideas through movement.
B is unable to learn the dance positions C Each time I got a call like that, I felt like my dream might not come true.
C is forced to give up her summers for dance classes D It is always wonderful to perform for people and to see works by
D discovers that dance companies are located in Europe dancers from other countries.

3 Write the correct element of plot next to the sentence from the selection.

rising action climax resolution

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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

climax The voice at the other end said I had been accepted.
rising action By the time I entered kindergarten, dance was part of my life.
resolution I’ve been with the company for several years.

38 Unit 3 Test Unit 3 Test 39

Name

From the Pen of Walt Whitman 7 Read the following lines from Walt Whitman’s poem “I Hear America Singing”.
Circle two different words that are repeated to have an effect on the reader.
compiled by Deloris Selinsky
“I hear America singing, the varied carols I hear.
I am the poet of the woman the same as the man,
Each singing what belongs to him or her and to none else. . .”
And I say it is as great to be a woman as to be a man,
And I say there is nothing greater than the mother of men. . . 8 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.
I think I could turn and live with animals, they are so placid and Part A
self-contain’d, In the poem “Miracles,” what is the meaning of the line “Every cubic inch
I stand and look at them long and long. of space is a miracle”?
They do not sweat and whine about their condition. . .
A To the poet, every bit of space is amazing.
(from “Song of Myself”)
B The poet enjoys measuring space with a ruler.
I dream’d in a dream I saw a city invincible to the attacks of the C For the poet, it is difficult to have one’s own space.
whole of the rest of the earth, D The poet can make miracles happen in small spaces.
I dream’d that was the new city of Friends.
(from “I Dream’d in a Dream”) Part B
What type of figurative language does the poet use to produce the
To me every hour of the light and dark is a miracle, meaning in Part A?
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Every cubic inch of space is a miracle,

A Simile
Every square yard of the surface of the earth is spread with
the same, B Rhyme
Every foot of the interior swarms with the same. C Metaphor
(from “Miracles”) D Repetition

I hear America singing, the varied carols I hear. 9 The author includes details in paragraph 1 of “Discovering Walt Whitman”
Each singing what belongs to him or her and to none else. . . to show that —
(from “I Hear America Singing”) A Karem had enjoyed the field trip
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

B the teacher liked Whitman’s poems

6 Which sentence from “Discovering Walt Whitman” shows that the C riding the bus made Karem feel sleepy
selection is told from a third person point of view? D Karem’s English class took many field trips
A “I’d like you to choose one of them to interpret...” 10 The author wrote “Discovering Walt Whitman” most likely to —
B Next, he read the lines from “I Dream’d in a Dream.” A inform the reader about Whitman’s birthplace
C “I like this too. It shows that Whitman admired America—he saw it as B persuade the reader that Whitman is the best poet
a place where people could live in friendship.”
C explain to the reader why Karem did not like poetry
D “I like how Whitman felt about the American people—how he found
D show the reader that Whitman’s poetry is meaningful
music in the voices of everyone.”

Unit 3 Test 41 42 Unit 3 Test

Summative Assessments T67

 Name

Word Study 16 Circle the two words that have a final stable syllable.
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. people pollute confuse humble decorate

11 The base word manage means “to control.” This helps the reader 17 Which of the following words is correctly divided into syllables?
understand the related word manager means a person who is — A cub/ic
A lost B rep/ort
B in charge C mo/ment
C skillful at work D des/erve
D operating a machine
18 Which of the following words is correctly divided into syllables?
12 Circle the three pairs of words that have related base words. A le/mon
stiff/stiffen B met/er
obey/object C un/ite
glow/gleam D sal/ad
wise/wisdom
19 Read the following sentence. Circle the two words that contain
courage/encouragement
silent letters.
13 Which of the following word pairs with r-controlled vowels has the I know that it is important to learn to write well.
same sound?
A dirt/herd 20 The sentence that contains a word with a silent b is —
B guard/turn A The planets orbit around the sun.
C shirt/before B I got my umbrella from the hall closet.
D format/thermal C He held the string in place with his thumb.
D I began to tremble at the thought of walking home in the dark.
14 Which of the following words uses the r-controlled ar vowel sound?
A sure
B start
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

C hear
D cared

15 Which of the following final stable syllable words is divided correctly?

A ve/hi/cle
B de/cis/ion
C con/nect/ion
D gen/er/ati/on

Unit 3 Test 43 44 Unit 3 Test

Name

Conventions 26 Read the following sentence.

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. My cousin know how to ride a bike.

21 Which sentence uses a preposition to show time? Which of the following words is the past tense of the irregular verb know?
A He ran home after the soccer game. A know
B Their opponents were in the red uniforms. B knew
C He raced down the field to make the goal. C knewed
D Coach called him over to the sideline to rest. D knowed

22 Which sentence uses a preposition to show direction? 27 Read the following sentence.
A We left during the storm. The student is trying the science experiment.
B His car was parked around the corner. To change the sentence from the present progressive tense to past
C She placed her new book with her old one. progressive tense, change the underlined words to —
D Our teacher graded our tests before we left. A will try
B has tried
23 Underline the two sentences in the paragraph below that do NOT show
C was trying
subject-verb agreement.
D will be trying
Walt Whitman was a poet and journalist. He was born on May 31, 1819,
in West Hills, New York. He are one of America’s most famous poets. 28 The sentence that shows the future progressive tense is — Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.
He created a style of poetry called free verse. Many people believes his A Simon is studying more to get better grades.
poetry represents the freedoms found in America. Whitman worked as B Simon was studying more to get better grades.
a volunteer nurse during the Civil War. He continued writing poetry his
C Simon will be studying more to get better grades.
whole life. Whitman died on March 26, 1892, in Camden, New Jersey.
D Simon has been studying more to get better grades.
24 Which sentence uses the verb be correctly?
29 Which of the following auxiliary verbs can indicate a command?
A I is excited that we are going to the movie.
A may
B I am excited that we are going to the movie.
B shall
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

C I are excited that we are going to the movie.

C can
D I were excited that we are going to the movie.
D could
25 Circle the three regular verbs that require -ed to be added to make them
30 How does this sentence need to be changed?
past tense.
Our teacher asked us if we may please push in our chairs before leaving.
go fix fall walk jump stand
A Change asked to asking
B Change if to that
C Change may to would
D Change chairs to chaires
Unit 3 Test 45 46 Unit 3 Test

T68 Summative Assessments

 MIDDLE-OF-YEAR ANSWER KEY
Name

1 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B. 3 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.
Part A What is the conflict in the selection?
Part A Which statement best explains the main idea of the selection?
A Ana’s mother gets a new job offer in Madrid.
A It is important to accept a new job offer.
B Ana and her sister do not want to leave Madrid.
B Living in America is just like living in Spain.
C Ana and her sister are tired of visiting art museums.
C Madrid is a much nicer place to live than Austin.
D Ana has a difficult time expressing her feelings.
D New experiences can be both scary and enjoyable.
Part B How is the plot conflict resolved?
Part B Which sentence from the selection best supports your answer in
A Ana and her family decide to move to a different part of Spain. Part A?
B Ana’s mother decides not to accept the new job offer. A It was November when my mom told us that we were moving from our
C Ana’s mother moves to Texas, but Ana and her sister do not. home in Madrid, Spain, to America.
D Ana and her sister enjoy experiencing new things in Texas. B “It’s a job offer that I just can’t refuse,” my mom continued gently.
2 Why does the narrator use a simile at the end of paragraph 8? C It was hotter than Madrid when we first arrived in Austin.
A To show that it is her birthday D We missed the historic buildings of Madrid, like the Royal Palace, but
B To explain why she does not like Austin there were new buildings to learn about.
C To explain things that she misses about Madrid 4 The narrator wrote this selection to —
D To show that she likes experiencing new things A explain why she does not like change
B convince readers to move to a new place
C describe her experience of living somewhere new
D tell readers why it is important to go to art museums

5 The narrator organizes the beginning of paragraph 8 by —

A contrasting Austin with Madrid
B explaining why art museums are important
C listing the reasons it is hard to move to a new country
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D showing all the ways that Spain is similar to America

52 Middle-of-Year Test Middle-of-Year Test 53

Name

6 Read these sentences from the second selection: 9 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Its isolation helps protect animals and plants from many diseases Part A Which statement best explains the main idea of the selection
that affect other places. As a result, unique wildlife can be found about Australia?
in Australia. A Most of Australia’s animals are cute and friendly.
B Australia is one of the smallest countries on the planet.
These sentences are an example of which type of structure? C Many people travel to Australia to see all of the islands.
A Cause and effect D Australia’s geography has helped unique wildlife live there.
B Chronological order Part B Which sentence from the selection supports your answer in Part A?
C Problem and solution A It is also Earth’s smallest continent.
D Compare and contrast
B Australia is often called an island because it is surrounded by water,
7 Why are bold words included in both of the selections? but it is actually made of more than 8,000 islands.
A To show important terms that the author defines C Its isolation helps protect animals and plants from many diseases that
B To tell the reader about the author’s favorite facts affect other places.
C To give key facts about living in cold or warm places D Kangaroos and koalas are probably the most well-known.
D To help the reader understand why animals are important 10 The author wrote the selection about Iceland most likely to —
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8 Organize the following details to show whether they describe Iceland or A convince readers to move to Iceland
Australia. Write the words in the correct column. B give facts about Iceland’s geography and history
Details: smallest continent, many domestic animals, many unique wild C compare Iceland with other large countries in Europe
animals, made of many islands, one small island, small human population D explain why Iceland is the best place to live in Europe

Iceland Australia

many domestic animals smallest continent

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one small island many unique wild animals

small human population made of many islands

Middle-of-Year Test 55 56 Middle-of-Year Test

Summative Assessments T69

 Name

9 His mother smiled. “I used to think that way,” she said. “But then I 12 Who tells this story?
read a poem by Emily Dickinson that made me want to plant tulips. A Caleb
I can show you the poem on my phone.” B The tulip
10 Caleb looked over her shoulder and read the poem: C A narrator
D Caleb’s mother
THE TULIP
She slept beneath a tree 13 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.
Remembered but by me.
Part A In the poem “The Tulip,” the ground is compared to a —
I touched her cradle mute;
A tree
She recognized the foot,
5 Put on her red suit, — B foot
And see! C cradle
D red suit
11 “What does mute mean?” Caleb asked.
12 “It means ‘silent,’” his mother said. “The tulip bulb is in a silent cradle Part B This is an appropriate comparison because –
because the bulb is underground. But then she blooms.” Caleb looked A the bulb was planted beneath a tree
at his mother’s joyful face, and he couldn’t help smiling along with her. B the ground crushes the bulb like a foot
13 “So, it’s a secret that only we know about?” he said. His mother C the bulb sleeps in the ground
nodded. Caleb liked that idea. He liked the idea of a secret bulb D the bulb was planted in red soil
sleeping beneath the winter ground that would eventually turn into
something beautiful.
14 “Okay,” he said. “Let’s start digging these holes!”

11 Fill in the circles to outline the plot of the selection by putting the events in
the correct plot order.
Conflict Rising Climax Resolution
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Action
Caleb expresses doubt about the
A B C D
tulip bulbs.
Caleb starts digging holes. E F G H
Caleb’s mother tells him to come
I J K L
outside.
Caleb likes the idea of the secret
M N O P
bulbs.

58 Middle-of-Year Test Middle-of-Year Test 59

Name

14 Read the poem “The Tulip” from the story. Underline the two lines that Word Study
rhyme with the last line of the poem. Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
She slept beneath a tree
Remembered but by me. 16 Which word means “a chore or duty to take care of”?
I touched her cradle mute; A respond
She recognized the foot, B respondent
Put on her red suit, — C responsibility
And see! D responsiveness

15 What do paragraphs 13 and 14 show about Caleb? 17 The prefix mis- helps you determine that the word miscalculate means to —
A He likes to garden, but only in winter. A calculate well
B Digging in the cold ground makes Caleb frustrated. B calculate a lot
C The idea of sharing a secret makes Caleb excited to garden. C calculate the best
D Caleb is confused by the idea that the tulip is quietly sleeping. D calculate incorrectly

18 On the lines below, write the four words that need only the letter -s added
to make them plural.
day quality potato time flower party wish key
day time flower key Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

19 Fill in the circles to identify how each singular noun is made plural.

Add -s Add -es Change the last

letter and add -es
toothbrush A B C
wolf D E F
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family G H I
planet J K L
branch M N O

20 The word with the same vowel sound as plow is —

A touch
B snow
C shout
D know

60 Middle-of-Year Test Middle-of-Year Test 61

T70 Summative Assessments

 Name

21 Draw a circle around the underlined word that contains a vowel digraph. 26 Match the suffix to what it is used to show.
The boy told a tale about how grapes grow and become raisins.
-s a comparison of two things
22 Which of the following words is spelled correctly? -ed a comparison of three or more things
A absird
-er an action takes place in the present
B absurd
C thirmal -est an action takes place in the past
D thurmal 27 Which word has the same root as the word biology?
23 In which of the following words is the letter k silent? A economy
A khaki B biosphere
B kayak C bibliography
C knitting D technology
D kindness 28 Which of the following words is an example of the VCe syllable pattern?
24 The base word participate means “to join in.” This helps the reader A little
understand that the related word participant means — B tear
A watcher C make
B teacher D startle
C member 29 Which of the following words is correctly divided into syllables?
D student A magi/c
25 Which of the following words does not have a final stable syllable? B fro/zen
A decide C ta/le/nt
B illusion D ener/ge/tic
C middle 30 Read the following information about the word subterranean.
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D transition

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This helps the reader understand that the word subterranean means —

from the Latin sub-, meaning “below,” + terra, meaning “earth”

A full of dirt
B underground
C without sound
D misunderstood

62 Middle-of-Year Test Middle-of-Year Test 63

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Name

Conventions 35 Which sentence does not require a change?

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. A Anita is learning about fossils.
B Anita were learning about fossils.
31 Which sentence has a compound subject?
C Anita will be learned about fossils.
A I wanted to go shopping at the new store.
D Anita has been learned about fossils.
B Cindy and I were too late to catch the bus.
C Tony wanted to go to dinner and then a movie. 36 Which of the following is a run-on sentence?
D Clara’s friends were not interested in the game. A It was cold and rainy during the first day of the vacation.
B The day was sunny and bright we went to the beach.
32 Which sentence is written correctly?
C We could not agree on a restaurant, so we ordered pizza.
A They is very tired.
D The students were going on a field trip to the art museum.
B We are ready to go.
C You is a very good friend. 37 Underline the verb that makes correct subject-verb agreement in each
D He tell me the test is hard. sentence.
The dog bark/barks.
33 Which of the following is a complete sentence?
The moon rise/rises.
A Living for the moment.
The students learn/learns.
B Helping others feel better.
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C Working hard brings rewards. 38 Which of the following sentences is written correctly?
D Wondering where my brother hid. A His cats is playing with a ball.
B Alexa’s mother are a great cook.
34 Underline the two sentence fragments in the following paragraph.
C Ana and her friends sees a movie.
My sister and I wanted to go to the movies. We were not sure which D Taylor’s dogs were small and cute.
kind of movie to see. A comedy or a drama. We decided to ask our
mom. Knowing that she could help us figure it out. However, she told 39 Read the following sentences.
us we had to clean our rooms first! She waited for the train. The train was late.
The best way to make these two sentences a compound sentence is —
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

A She waited for the train, the train was late.

B She waited for the train, or the train was late.
C She waited for the train, so the train was late.
D She waited for the train, but the train was late.

64 Middle-of-Year Test Middle-of-Year Test 65

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Summative Assessments T71

 Name

40 Draw a circle around the underlined word that should be capitalized in the 45 Which change should be made in the following sentence?
sentence below. Because I did not hear my alarm I was late getting up and late for school.
Last summer, I went to Rapid city, South Dakota, on a family vacation. A Insert a comma after alarm
41 Which of the following plural nouns is written correctly? B Change was to were
A lifes C Insert a comma after up
B oxes D No change should be made.
C teeth
D meese

42 Which of the following verbs is written correctly?

A given
B leaved
C becomed
D beginned

43 Read the following sentence.

Before I am allowed to watch television after dinner, I have to help my
brother put the dirty dishes in the dishwasher.
The underlined words can be described as —
A a noun phrase
B a prepositional phrase
C the compound subject
D the compound predicate

44 Underline the two auxiliary, or helping, verbs in the sentence below.

My mom says I must clean my room before I can play outside.
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66 Middle-of-Year Test Middle-of-Year Test 67

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T72 Summative Assessments

 UNIT 4 ANSWER KEY
Name

6 A few blocks later, Janice and her mother ran into Victoria, a girl from 3 In paragraph 7, what theme can the reader infer?
their neighborhood. Janice asked Victoria if she noticed anything A Tricking friends is never nice.
different about her. Victoria didn’t notice anything either. B Big surprises are not much fun.
7 Later that night, as Janice walked into the backyard for the party, a C Hide the truth from friends as much as possible.
strong breeze blew her hat off, and everyone could see her new D Having a secret can be fun, even if it only lasts a short time.
haircut! All of her friends were delighted with her surprise. Her secret
was over, but it was fun while it lasted. 4 What is one theme in the selection?
A People make difficult decisions every day.
1 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B. B Every person should surprise their friends.
C The best part of surprising others is planning the surprise.
Part A Based on paragraph 4, the character trait that best describes
D Having fun with your friends is the most important thing in life.
Janice is —
A adventurous Directions: Read the myths. Then answer the questions that follow.
B careful
C happy Maui and the Sun
D surprised (MAUI and his two brothers sit on the beach, cooking dinner. The sun
Part B Which sentence from the selection supports your answer in Part A? goes down. MAUI stands up.)
A Her mother agreed that it would certainly surprise everyone, and they 1 MAUI: The sun moves too fast across the sky! It goes down when I’m
went inside. trying to eat! Why can’t we control the sun? I am going to make the
B An hour later, Janice’s hair was transformed. sun slow down!
C Janice’s mother took off her hat and gave it to Janice to wear so she 2 BROTHER #1: The sun is much too powerful. We cannot control it.
wouldn’t give away the surprise on the way home. 3 BROTHER #2: Maui, you might be the strongest person on the island,
D Surprises were fun, but organizing them was even more exciting! but you’re not strong enough to control the sun.
4 MAUI: I will catch the sun and make it move slower. Then the people
2 In paragraph 3, Janice makes a decision to change her look. Underline
will have more time during the day to hunt, eat, and do their chores.
two sentences that tell why Janice decides to change her hair.
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I am sure I can do it!
(MAUI and his brothers make a long rope. MAUI lassos the rope around
Janice and her mother walked past a beauty salon and looked
the sun. With the rope, MAUI is able to control the sunrise and sunset.
inside. Janice noticed a young woman who had just finished
Now people can do chores, hunt, and eat dinner before the sun sets.)
getting her hair cut. It was cut in a style she had seen in fashion
magazines. Known as a “bob,” it was short with the hair only down
to the woman’s ears. Janice had long hair that went all the way
down her back. When she danced, her hair got in the way. In the
summertime, Janice’s hair made her feel warm.

74 Unit 4 Test Unit 4 Test 75

Name

The Sun Dancer 6 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A In “Maui and the Sun,” what information do the stage

1 Once upon a time, there lived a great warrior who was also the best
directions provide?
dancer around. Everyone feared this great warrior’s strength but loved
to watch him dance. A Maui’s tone of voice
2 A mighty king in a faraway land heard of the warrior’s dancing and B Brother #1’s ideas about the sun
challenged him to a dancing competition—for while the great warrior C The setting and the characters’ actions
was the best dancer where he lived, the king was the best dancer in D Brother #2’s description of how strong Maui is
his kingdom. The great warrior accepted the king’s challenge. The
Part B Which sentence from the selection supports your answer in Part A?
king said that if the warrior won, he would give him a beautiful throne
in the sky. A MAUI and his two brothers sit on the beach, cooking dinner.
B I am going to make the sun slow down!
3 People from all around gathered to watch the great warrior and the
king. First, the king danced a routine that put a chill in the air. He C Maui, you might be the strongest person on the island, but you’re not
was graceful, slow, and cold. Then, the great warrior started his strong enough to control the sun.
routine, which made the entire crowd cheer and scream in approval. D I will catch the sun and make it move slower.
He danced with great emotion, and his body movements created a 7 What is a theme of “Maui and the Sun”?
great heat. Everyone agreed that the warrior won the contest. True to
A Nature can be unpredictable and unfair to people.
his word, the king gave the warrior a beautiful throne in the sky.
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B Having time to do chores is more important than having fun.

4 The great warrior still sits in his throne, sharing his heat with the world,
C Even the strongest person in the world cannot control nature.
and we call him the sun.
D The impossible can become possible if one believes in oneself.

5 What do the words that follow characters’ names in paragraphs 1–4 of 8 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.
“Maui and the Sun” represent?
Part A What is a theme of “The Sun Dancer”?
A Words that the characters speak
A The sun is a source of joy for people.
B The characters’ internal thoughts
B It is better to be graceful than strong.
C A script for a narrator to read aloud
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

C A mighty king always gets what he wants.

D Stage directions for characters’ actions
D Fast beats slow every time.

Part B Which detail in paragraph 3 of “The Sun Dancer” supports your

answer in Part A?
A The king defeated the warrior easily.
B The king’s dance was graceful, cold, and slow.
C The people watched and appreciated both dances.
D The crowd screamed their approval of the warrior dance.

76 Unit 4 Test Unit 4 Test 77

Summative Assessments T73

 Name

9 Place an X on the two lines that show how “The Sun Dancer” is different Word Study
from “Maui and the Sun.” In “The Sun Dancer” — Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
people watch a contest X
11 Draw a line to match each of the following words with the correct
the sun does not dance meaning.
people try to control the sun antisocial seeing through
the sun moves too fast transparent against being with people
people celebrate the warmth of the sun X amphitheater a stage viewed from both sides
10 Which sentence best describes what happens to Maui in “Maui and the 12 The prefix trans- in the word transmit means —
Sun” and the great warrior in “The Sun Dancer”?
A in
A Maui loses, but the great warrior wins.
B before
B Maui wins, but the great warrior loses.
C against
C Maui and the great warrior lose.
D across
D Maui and the great warrior win.
13 Write -able or -ible on each line to show which suffix should be added to
the word to form an adjective meaning “capable of being” or “deserving.”
love -able divide -ible
favor -able reverse -ible
14 Which word is spelled correctly?
A valuible
B tolerable
C exciteable
D impossable
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

15 Which word is correctly divided into syllables?

A poet/ry
B dual/it/y
C triu/mph
D di/a/gram

78 Unit 4 Test Unit 4 Test 79

Name

16 Which division of the word material is correct? Conventions

A mat/er/ial Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
B ma/ter/ial
21 Read the following sentence.
C mat/er/i/al
She insists on doing her homework by .
D ma/ter/i/al
Which of the following pronouns completes the sentence?
17 Which of the following words contains the correct prefix? A itself
A inproper B myself
B imsignificant C herself
C irdescribable D themselves
D irresponsible
22 Read the following sentence.
18 Fill in the circles to identify which prefix can be added to which base word. After Mom and Dad went to the movie, Mom and Dad decided to buy
im- in- ir- ice cream.
The pronoun that correctly replaces Mom and Dad is —
justice A B C
A we
patient D E F
B you
regular G H I C she Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.
capable J K L D they
mature M N O 23 Circle the three superlative adjectives.
19 Which sentence uses a homophone correctly? darker cheapest most reasonable
A The queen took the thrown in 1958. purest more thankful more revolutionary
B Bill took the elevator instead of the stares.
24 Read the following sentence.
C The guide lead the climbers up the mountain trail.
D The students went to their assigned desks at the bell. He is than his sister.
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

Which comparative adjective correctly completes the sentence?

20 Read the following sentence.
A busy
After a short , the teacher out the second part B strangest
of the test.
C more stubborn
The correct pair of words to complete the sentence is —
D most energetic
A break/past
B brake/past
C break/passed
D brake/passed
80 Unit 4 Test Unit 4 Test 81

T74 Summative Assessments

 Name

25 Read the following sentence. 29 Underline the two sentences from the following paragraph that contain
Anna quickly slammed the door. incorrect superlative adjectives.
Which word modifies the verb? John chose the most small pencil out of his pencil case. He liked
A Anna using a pencil until it would no longer write. John’s sister thinks this
habit is the most crazy thing. Their mom has a box of new pencils in
B quickly
the drawer.
C slammed
D door 30 Read the following sentence.
Mr. Brown’s class made the most fancy poster for the competition.
26 Read the following sentence in which an adverb is used to modify another
What change should be made in this sentence?
adverb.
A Change Mr. Brown to Mr Brown
The lion moved very quietly through the open field.
B Change made to making
Which word modifies quietly?
C Change most fancy to fanciest
A lion
D Change for to about
B moved
C very
D through Writing
Read the “Community Giving” passage set.
27 Which sentence is correct?
A I wore sandals, so I was chillier than she was. Source 1: Giving on a Tuesday
B Sue is brillianter than Roger when it comes to science. 1 Many people around the world know the importance of being charitable
C After mowing the lawn, Tim was tireder than he thought. and generous. To be charitable means to be kind and giving to others.
D The driver warned us to be cautiouser on the slick road. Giving Tuesday is a global organization that started in the United States in
2012. Giving Tuesday is celebrated on the Tuesday after the Thanksgiving
28 Read the following sentence. holiday in the United States. On this day every year, people around the
That dog has good manners than the other dog. world are encouraged to give back to causes that matter to them. It is
Which comparative adjective should replace good? known as a global day of giving. One of the goals of the Giving Tuesday
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

A best organization is to build a more generous world.
B better 2 More than 150 countries across the globe participated in Giving Tuesday
C gooder in 2018. More than $400 million was donated to various nonprofit
D goodest organizations and charities that year. In Singapore, Giving Tuesday is very
popular. As a result, the nation decided to extend the day into a week-
long celebration called Giving Week.

82 Unit 4 Test Unit 4 Test 83

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Summative Assessments T75

UNIT 5 ANSWER KEY
Name

Bike Share Ridership in the U.S. 4 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

The number of bike share riders in some cities more than doubled Part A Based on the information in “Bike Sharing,” with which statement
between 2011 and 2016.
would the author agree?
20
18 Key A Bicycling on city streets can be dangerous.
16 Capital Bike Share B Cities should replace stolen or broken bikes.
Riders (Millions)

14 (Washington, D.C.)
C Large cities are unsafe for bike sharing programs.
12 Citi Bike (Miami)
10 Hubway (Boston) D Bike sharing will be too expensive for many people.
Citi Bike
8
(New York City) Part B What does the author state would solve the problem in Part A?
6
4 A building separate roads for bike-sharing programs
2 B adding bike lanes that only bicyclists are allowed to use
0
2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 C encouraging drivers to slow down around the bike riders
Year D closing all the streets at certain times of the day for bicyclists

5 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.
1 What can the reader learn from the text above the graph?
A Bike sharing became less popular after 2011. Part A The author includes the final paragraph most likely to persuade
B The number of bike share riders has stayed the same. readers that —
C Both large cities and small towns have bike-sharing programs. A owning a bike is expensive
D Bike sharing became significantly more popular between 2011 B buying a bike is a good way to keep healthy
and 2016. C bike sharing has benefits and should be in all cities
D riding a bike to work is faster and safer than driving
2 According to the graph, which city had the largest number of total bike
share riders in 2016? Part B Which sentence from the selection gives a reason that supports
A Miami the author’s claim?
B Boston A In a number of cities across the world, people can rent bicycles.
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

C New York City B For example, when Paris first started bike sharing, many of the bikes
D Washington, D.C. were stolen or broken.
C When drivers aren’t used to sharing the road with a lot of bike riders,
3 Underline the two sentences in paragraph 1 that provide details explaining
accidents can happen.
how bike sharing works.
D Biking is good exercise and is not expensive.
In a number of cities across the world, people can rent bicycles. This is
called bike sharing. Bike sharing is very popular. When people bike share,
they borrow a bike. When they are finished with it, they return the bike,
and then someone else uses it.

88 Unit 5 Test Unit 5 Test 89

Name

Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question. 7 Which detail does the author use in paragraph 3 to explain the idea that
people have been visiting hot springs for a long time?
Hot Springs A The United States has several hot springs.
1 The core, or center, of our planet is very hot. In some places on Earth, B Jefferson visited hot springs over 200 years ago.
cracks carry heat from the Earth’s core into small bodies of water on C Some hot springs in Colorado are a higher temperature.
the Earth’s surface. The water is like a natural, hot bathtub called a D Saratoga Springs are some of the most well–known hot springs
hot spring. in the world.
2 Many people believe that soaking in a hot spring can be good for your 8 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.
health. For example, soaking in a hot spring may help sore muscles.
Soaking in a hot spring can also help people relax. They find the Part A Based on the information in the selection, what makes hot
warm water soothing. People have found comfort in hot springs for a springs hot?
long time. A minerals
3 Some of the best hot springs in the world are located in the United B the sun
States. In Dunton Springs, Colorado, there are five different hot C volcanoes
springs that can get as hot as 106°F. In Hot Springs, Virginia, the D Earth’s core
Jefferson Pools are named after Thomas Jefferson, the third president
of the United States. He visited the springs over two centuries ago. Part B Which sentence from the selection best supports your answer in
Saratoga Springs, New York, is home to the Roosevelt Mineral Baths, Part A? Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.
some of the most well-known hot springs in the world. A In some places on Earth, cracks carry heat from the Earth’s core into
4 Iceland, a small country northeast of North America, is also known for small bodies of water on the Earth’s surface.
hot springs. Over 400,000 people visit Iceland’s Blue Lagoon hot B The water is like a natural, hot bathtub called a hot spring.
springs every year. People travel worldwide just to visit different hot C People have found comfort in hot springs for a long time.
springs, like the Pamukkale Hot Springs in Turkey or the Hot Water D Saratoga Springs, New York, is home to the Roosevelt Mineral Baths,
Beach in New Zealand. some of the most well-known hot springs in the world.
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

6 Underline the two details that support the main idea that hot springs are
beneficial to a person’s health.

A hot spring may help sore muscles. People travel worldwide to visit
hot springs. Soaking in a hot spring may help people relax. Thomas
Jefferson visited hot springs. Hot springs can get as hot as 106°F.

90 Unit 5 Test Unit 5 Test 91

T76 Summative Assessments

 Name

9 In paragraph 2, the author states that the effects of soaking in a hot spring 13 Which suffix can be added to the base word confide by dropping the
include feeling — final e to create a noun that means “the condition or action of feeling
A unwell sure of one’s self”?
B less sore A -en
C less relaxed B -ed
D more energetic C -ing
D -ence
10 Based on the information in the selection, what can the reader infer about
why so many people travel to visit the Blue Lagoon hot springs? 14 Which suffix can be added to the word tight to mean “to become
A It is easy to get to them. tighter”?
B They are inexpensive to visit. A -ed
C People are interested in their health benefits. B -en
D Iceland is the only place hot springs exist. C -ing
D -ence
Word Study 15 Circle the two VCCCV words that are correctly divided into syllables.
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
arc/tic play/ground
11 Which two of the following words share the same root as the fort/ress empha/size
word generous?
frig/hten fr/eckle
A gentle
B genius 16 The correct way to divide disgrace into syllables is —
A di/sgrace
C general
B disg/race
D generation
C dis/grace
E energy
D disgra/ce
12 Read the following sentences. Place an X next to the two sentences that
17 Which prefix can be combined with the word appreciated to make a word
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

contain a word that shares a root with the word supportable.
that means “less appreciated”?
We should clear the table after supper. A dis-
B non-
The polite man offered me his poncho.
C over-
X I will transport the cake to the party myself. D under-

I was able to repair the broken pencil before the test.

X The portable building was set up at the construction site.

92 Unit 5 Test Unit 5 Test 93

Name

18 Which prefix can be combined with the word trust to make a word that Conventions
means “opposite of trust”? Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
A dis-
B non- 21 Read the following sentences. Place an X next to the two sentences that
need the relative adverb where to complete them.
C over-
The teacher knew the principal was happy.
D under-
X Mother asked him the pancake griddle was.
19 Which word part can be added to merge to make a word that means X Timothy wanted to know the party would be.
“under the surface”? The student wondered his backpack was wet.
A sub-
22 Which sentence is correct?
B fore-
A Her eyes filled with tears when she cried.
C inter-
B Thomas closed the door why it began to rain.
D astro-
C My uncle knows when the garden hose is kept.
20 Read the following information about the origin of the word interrupt. D The librarian told the students why she put the books.

from the Latin inter- + rumpere (meaning “to burst”) 23 Which sentence is correct?
A Our neighbor is Japanese.
This information helps the reader know that the word interrupt means —
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B Our spanish class is taking a field trip.

A to go in front of something
C My sister is learning to speak german.
B to move underneath something
D The Spanish american war did not last long.
C to start the process of doing something
D to cause a break in the process of something 24 Which sentence is correct?
A While we were there, we visited a small Village.
B On our Summer Vacation we went to Guatemala.
C Our guide showed us the Mayan ruins near the village.
D The rough terrain and hot weather in guatemala made travel difficult.
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

94 Unit 5 Test Unit 5 Test 95

Summative Assessments T77

 Name

25 Which sentence is correct? 29 Read the following dialogue. Place an X next to two sentences that have
A Aesop was a greek writer who lived around 600 B.C. underlined phrases containing a punctuation error.
B One famous fable he is credited with writing is “The Tortoise and the Hare.” My father helped us plant a garden.
C He is believed to have written many Fables that are still enjoyed today. X My sister asked, “Why are we planting this now”?
D In this story, A Hare tries unsuccessfully to outsmart A Tortoise “We can grow vegetables in the fall since we live in a warm
in a race. climate,” Dad said.
26 Which book title is capitalized correctly? “What kinds of vegetables can we grow?” I asked.
A Little women X “Well, grab those seed packets, Dad said, “and I’ll show you!”
B Because Of Winn Dixie
C The Wonderful Wizard of Oz 30 How does this sentence need to be changed?
D the Mouse and the Motorcycle “Excuse me, Mrs. Watson,” I said “I think you dropped this envelope.”
A Change “Excuse to Excuse,
27 Which compound sentence is punctuated correctly?
B Change Watson,” to Watson,
A I don’t expect to eat a salad nor, do I want dessert.
C Change said to said,
B I have to earn money for a new bike, so I will be working Saturday.
D Change envelope.” to envelope.
C Mom said she wanted to leave early so she packed the car already.
D We will stop at the grocery store but, first we must pick up your sister.

28 What is the best way to combine the sentences below?

The student took notes. She typed them after class.
A The student took notes for, she typed them after class.
B The student took notes but she typed them after class.
C The student took notes yet, she typed them after class.
D The student took notes, and she typed them after class.
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

96 Unit 5 Test Unit 5 Test 97

Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

T78 Summative Assessments

 END-OF-YEAR ANSWER KEY
Name

1 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B. 4 How do a male parrot’s feathers help him to stay safe?
A They help him blend in with the rain forest.
Part A What is the main idea of the selection?
B They scare away predators, such as hawks.
A Birds are able to see many different colors.
C They create a large shadow that tricks predators.
B Birds can change their color based on the food they eat.
D They make a parrot look larger and more dangerous.
C Some birds use colors to disguise themselves from hawks.
D Male birds are more colorful than female birds for different reasons. 5 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part B Which details support the main idea of the selection? Part A By the end of the selection, the reader can infer that male birds —
A attracting a mate; guarding territory; staying safe from predators A have many disadvantages compared to female birds
B exciting; beautiful; more interesting B create the nest in which baby birds are hatched
C singing; flashing dazzling colors; fighting C rely on their colors as an important part of survival
D changing from red to orange; searching for food; eating plants D face many dangers when trying to select the ideal mate

2 Which of the following best describes the structure the author uses for Part B Which sentence from the selection best supports your answer in
the selection? Part A?
A Cause and effect A Usually, male birds have bright colors, while females do not.
B Stating fact and opinion B A female wants a mate who can bring good food to her and their
C Question-and-answer format chicks.
D Presenting a series of brief stories C Once the male bird has a family, he must protect it.
D For example, male parrots are brightly colored for protection from
3 Which sentences from the selection support the idea that a male’s color
hawks.
shows that he can get food for his family?
A For example, the male Blackburnian Warbler is a bird with orange-
yellow feathers. This color comes, in part, from eating the best plants.
B Once the male bird has a family, he must protect it. Male sunbirds use
color to keep their nesting areas safe from other males.
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

C They flash these dazzling colors whenever another male comes near.
The flashing says, “Stay out! A male already lives here and will fight for
this nest.”
D For example, male parrots are brightly colored for protection from
hawks. When the males fly around searching for food for their families,
they are in danger from hawks.

102 End-of-Year Test End-of-Year Test 103

Name

6 Fill in the circles to outline the plot of the passage by putting the events in 9 Which words does the author use to show that “The Map” is set
the correct plot order. outdoors? Circle the two words.
Conflict Climax Resolution grass hiking

Dad insisted he did not need a map. A B C clue group

Dad had the map out and was time circles

D E F
finding the path back to camp.
10 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.
All three of us realized we were
G H I Part A What do the details in paragraph 4 of “Camping with Dad”
going in circles.
emphasize about the narrator’s father?
7 How does the setting of “Camping with Dad” affect the plot of A He is often forgetful and careless.
the selection?
B He knows his way in the woods quite well.
A The unfamiliar setting makes it possible for the characters to get lost.
C He has never gone camping in the woods before.
B The numerous settings allow the characters to have many adventures.
D He feels sure he can find his way back on his own.
C The comfortable setting adds a happy mood to the story, suggesting
everyone is safe. Part B How does the narrator’s father change during the passage?
D The unusual setting allows for humorous situations, which cause the A He allows the children to lead the way.
characters to laugh. B He realizes he needs help in finding the way.
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C He decides never to go camping again.

8 Which line does the author of “The Map” use to show that the group
is lost? D He promises to be more careful in the future.
A Tall in the sky so blue,
B They started out on one path,
C First sure, but then in doubt.
D It might just be the right time now
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

End-of-Year Test 105 106 End-of-Year Test

Summative Assessments T79

 Name

11 Which sentence best describes the author’s claim in this selection? 14 Which sentence from the selection supports the idea that an allowance
A Allowances help parents save money. might encourage a child to do an unpopular task?
B Children should receive allowances. A That way, kids can earn the things they want through work.
C Allowances are more helpful for adults than for children. B Getting an allowance teaches kids how to manage money.
D Children do not learn the value of money if they receive an allowance. C A child may take his or her dirty clothes to the laundry basket if this
chore pays off.
12 Select the two sentences that show problems presented in the selection.
D A child who earns an allowance can save money for things such as
X Kids do not know how to save money. video games.
X Kids sometimes do not want to do their chores.
15 Why is paragraph 2 important to the author’s argument?
Kids have extra cash when they earn money from chores.
A It encourages parents to use allowances to help get chores done.
Parents do not have to pay for as much if their kids have money.
B It proves that allowances can motivate children to do difficult jobs.
Young children understand that they need money to buy things.
C It suggests that an allowance may help children learn how to
13 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B. save money.
D It shows ways that allowances can help children learn the job of
Part A What does the chart show? accomplishing something.
A It shows how much money children can save by having an allowance.
B It shows how much money children should charge their parents for
individual chores.
C It shows possible allowances and chores to earn those allowances
at different ages.
D It shows one way that allowances can help children understand the
cost of objects.

Part B How does the chart support the main idea of the selection?
A It proves children can learn to save their money.
B It suggests fun ways for children to do their chores.
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

C It suggests age-appropriate chores to earn an allowance.

D It proves that children need money to spend as they please.

108 End-of-Year Test End-of-Year Test 109

Name

Word Study 21 The word lighten means to —

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. A make lighter
B turn on a light
16 Which word best completes the sentence?
C make a light brighter
We watched three on television last night.
D shine light on one spot
A show
B showes 22 Which two words have the same VCCCV pattern as the word transform?
C showing A electronic
D shows B insect
C partner
17 Which words have the same sound as the ou sound in house? Circle the
D fever
two words.
E excited
brown stew
enjoy vault 23 Which word means the same as “to believe that someone does not always
loud world share true information”?
A distrust
18 Which of the following words shows the plural form of the word tooth? B nonsense
A teeth C overwrite
B tooth Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.
D underdone
C toothes
D tooths 24 The word astronomy means the study of —
A oceans
19 Which of the following words refers to a “tool to look at something B planes
quite small”?
C space
A micrometer
D weather
B micron
25 Which word has a word part that means “below”?
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

C microscope
D microwave A astronaut
B forefather
20 What does the root word port in the word portable tell you about
C interrupt
the word?
D submarine
A It is a place to rest.
B It relates to water.
C It involves movement.
D It is found on a map.

110 End-of-Year Test End-of-Year Test 111

T80 Summative Assessments

 Name

26 Which word has the same sound as the oo sound in food? Conventions
A author Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
B chew
31 Read the following sentence.
C soil
I listened to music while I did my homework.
D wood
The underlined word can best be described as a(n) —
27 Which word that has the same VV pattern as the word diary? A plural noun
A danger B irregular verb
B meander C relative adverb
C spelling D comparative adjective
D wonderful
32 The article ten ways to study for a test helped me study.
28 Which words below can be used to explain a situation “when an object is What is the correct way to write the title in the sentence above?
not seen”? Circle the two words. A Ten Ways to Study for a Test
disappear overdue B Ten Ways To Study For A Test
disaster overlook C “Ten Ways to Study for a Test”
nonfiction underdone D TEN WAYS TO STUDY FOR A TEST
29 Which sentence below uses the correct form of a plural noun? 33 Which sentence has correct punctuation?
A The hockey team had only childs on it. A Greg shouted, “Watch out!”
B The bicycleses were on sale yesterday. B “When do we need to leave,” I asked?
C The outfielders played well during the game. C “That is my favorite type of dog”, Ines said.
D The mooses walked along the trail in the woods. D Markel said “The test has been moved to Thursday.”
30 Fill in the circles to identify how each singular noun is made plural. 34 Which punctuation mark is missing from the blank space in the
following sentence?
Add -s Add -es Spelling change
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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

Sara spends weekends playing soccer_ and she spends every
and add -es Wednesday playing guitar.
sandwich A B C A comma
life D E F B period
C semicolon
factory G H I
D question mark
asteroid J K L
marsh M N O

112 End-of-Year Test End-of-Year Test 113

Name

35 Which two compound sentences contain correct punctuation? 38 Circle the word in the following sentence that is a preposition.
A Halley’s Comet is a well-known comet, but, it is not the only comet in David went to the beach.
the solar system.
39 What is the correct spelling of watch as a plural noun?
B I watched the meteor shower last night, and I counted thirty-five
meteors in one hour. A watches
C Mars is often called the red planet and Mars gets this nickname, B watchs
because of the rust in its soil. C watchses
D The moon appears to change shape during the month, yet the moon’s D watchess
changes are caused by reflected sunlight.
40 Read the following sentence.
E Saturn is the planet known for its rings but, it is not the only planet
Tomorrow, we to the museum and see an exhibit about space.
with rings.
Which word or group of words best completes this sentence? Circle the
36 Read the following sentence. word or group of words.
After soccer practice I came home and completed my homework go had went
which took thirty minutes. will go will be going
What is the correct way to write this sentence?
went will have gone
A After soccer practice, I came home and completed my homework
which, took thirty minutes.
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41 Underline the word that completes each sentence with correct

B After soccer practice, I came home, and completed my homework subject-verb agreement.
which took thirty minutes. My friends enjoys /enjoy walking together.
C After soccer practice, I came home, and completed my homework,
My brother and I am /are looking forward to our beach trip.
which took thirty minutes.
D After soccer practice, I came home and completed my homework, Our cat and dog plays /play together in the yard every night.
which took thirty minutes.

37 Which sentence below shows correct capitalization?

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Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

A I watched a game between the houston rockets and

dallas mavericks.
B I watched a game between the houston Rockets and
dallas Mavericks.
C I watched a game between the Houston Rockets and
Dallas Mavericks.
D I watched a game between the Houston Rockets And
Dallas Mavericks.

114 End-of-Year Test End-of-Year Test 115

Summative Assessments T81

 42 I read the book my favorite summer vacation for my book project.
Which of the following shows the correct capitalization for the
underlined title?
A My favorite Summer vacation
B My favorite summer vacation
C my Favorite Summer Vacation
D My Favorite Summer Vacation

43 Which sentence is correct?

A I want to go for a hike but, I want to swim first.
B I want to go for a hike, but I want, to swim first.
C I want to go for a hike but, I want to swim, first.
D I want to go for a hike, but I want to swim first.

44 Which sentence is correct?

A The lion is the larger type of five wild cats at the zoo.
B The book I read last week is more long than the book I read this week.
C The sun sets later in the day on the first day of summer than on the
first day of winter.
D The baseball team played more good this past season than they did
the past five seasons.

45 In order to make sure we could play basketball correctly the officials made
sure the basketball hoop was ten feet tall.
Which change needs to be made to the sentence above?
A Add a comma after In order
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B Add a comma after correctly

C Change basketball to Basketball
D Change feet to foot

116 End-of-Year Test

Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

T82 Summative Assessments

 Name

Vocabulary
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
1 Read the dictionary entry for the 3 What is the meaning of the
word surrender. underlined word?
I decided to devote all of
surrender \suh-'ren-der\ verb my energy to working on my
science project.
1. to yield to the power of another 
A cause
2. to give oneself up 3. to yield or
resign a position 4. to give up or B give
abandon  C lose
D move
Which definition best matches
4 I asked her to make the
the way surrender in used in the
lemonade, but she couldn’t
following sentence?
find the .
He will surrender the office of A change
club president if the students
B picture
vote against him.
C pitcher
A Definition 1
D racket
B Definition 2
C Definition 3 5 What does the word lead mean
D Definition 4 in the following sentence?

2 If you move over here, you will He tried out for the lead in the
be more . school play.
A careful A metal
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B comfortable B directions
C excitement C the most important role
D unable D the inner part of a pencil

Baseline Test 1
6 What does the word desert mean in the following sentence?

The cowboy decided to desert his post and return to the bunkhouse.
A go to
B leave
C stay at
D return to

7 What does the word show mean in the following sentence?

We watched a show on the stage.

A book
B carriage
C messenger
D performance

8 Susie was filled with when she passed her test.

A arrangement
B disappointment
C excitement
D improvement

9 If the team wins today, their advance to the playoffs is .

A atomic
B audience
C autograph
D automatic Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

10 Mom went to buy groceries because the kitchen cupboard was

.
A bare
B bear
C made
D maid

2 Baseline Test
 Name

Reading Comprehension
Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Crossing the Atlantic

1 One day, Mary’s mother announced that she and Mary were to take a
ship to visit her relatives across the Atlantic Ocean.
2 It was 1910, and the only way to travel from New York to England was
by ship. The trip would take about five days, and Mary was nervous
about staying on a ship for that long. Mary had only been on fishing
boats around the harbor, but her mother told her that the ship was
big and the journey would be fun.
3 When Mary and her mother arrived at the harbor, other passengers
were already boarding the ship. Once they boarded, Mary and her
mother found their room and unpacked their trunk. Soon, the ship
began to move, and Mary refused to leave the room. Her mother
explained that looking around the ship might make Mary feel more
comfortable. Mary wasn’t sure, but she was also a little curious, so
she agreed.
4 Mary went up to the deck and looked out on the dark ocean. She
heard the sound of waves crashing against the ship. While Mary
stared out at the ocean, a young woman joined her and introduced
herself as Josephine. She told Mary it was her first time on a steam
ship, too, and that she thought the trip would be long and boring.
Mary told Josephine that her mother had said the journey would
be exciting. Josephine thought about this for a moment and then
suggested they explore the ship together. They walked around the
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ship, discovering all it had to offer. They visited the dancing room
and listened to music and played card games with some other ladies
on the deck. Soon, both Mary and Josephine felt at home. The two
became great friends and spent the rest of the journey together.

Baseline Test 3
11 By the end of the selection, what can the reader conclude about Mary
and Josephine?
A They didn’t enjoy each other’s company.
B They never saw each other again after the voyage.
C Since they were both unhappy, they were glad when the trip ended.
D Since they became good friends, they probably enjoyed the rest of
their trip.

12 Why is the historical setting important to the plot of the story?

A Women were not permitted to travel alone.
B Mary was unsure about traveling in small boats.
C Travel by ship was the only way to cross the Atlantic Ocean.
D Other types of travel cost more than Mary’s mother could afford.

13 Which of the following is the theme, or message, of the story?

A Never travel alone.
B Don’t let fear hold you back.
C Traveling by ship can be boring.
D Don’t be nervous about making new friends.

14 What change takes place in Mary during the trip?

A She grew sad and cried each day.
B She became angry with her mother.
C She met Josephine and was less afraid.
D She became more dependent on her mother.

15 What is the point of view of the narrator? Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

A First person
B Third person
C Second person
D First person at the beginning and third person at the end

4 Baseline Test
 Name

Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Kids in the Kitchen

1 Cooking at home is a great way for kids to learn valuable life skills. It
is also an important part of a healthy lifestyle. That’s why kids should
learn how to cook.
2 Parents should let their children help cook dinner. Cooks have to
practice patience and be careful. It is important for children to develop
these skills early in life. Cooking can be frustrating, and little things
can go wrong in the kitchen. Children should learn not to get too
frustrated at their mistakes. Instead, they can learn from their mistakes
and do better the next time. For example, if you burn a casserole in
the oven once, you can learn ways not to do it again.
3 Cooking is also a great way to practice math skills. In the kitchen,
children can practice the math they are learning in school. For
instance, cooking will give them an opportunity to use fractions in real
life. They will also learn the important difference between types of
measurement units, such as a cup and a teaspoon.
4 Lastly, cooking can teach children about living a healthy lifestyle. In
the kitchen, children can learn the importance of fresh vegetables
and fruit. They can make their own salads, learn the health benefits
of certain foods, and develop an understanding of a balanced diet.
Experts think cooking at home is an important part of healthy lifestyle.
Children who cook at home grow into adults who cook at home.
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Baseline Test 5
16 A main idea of the selection is that children who cook —
A are learning a valuable skill
B understand how to read recipes
C are good at solving math problems
D become frustrated at making mistakes

17 Who is the audience of this selection?

A Teachers
B Children and parents
C Parents who hate to cook
D Children who know how to cook

18 The author wrote this selection most likely to —

A describe to parents how to cook a meal
B encourage children to eat healthier meals
C teach the reader how to measure ingredients
D convince families to spend time cooking together

19 What claim does the author make in paragraph 1?

A Having valuable life skills helps children learn to cook.
B A healthy lifestyle leads to valuable life skills for children.
C Learning to cook is a good way to keep children at home.
D Children who learn to cook learn life skills and have healthier lives.

20 What details does the author use in paragraph 2 to persuade the reader?
A Parents should let their children help cook dinner
B Cooks have to practice patience and be careful Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

C Cooking can be frustrating

D You can learn ways not to do it again

6 Baseline Test
 Name

Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Seahorses
1 Seahorses are small fish that live in warm, shallow water. They do
not look like most other fishes and can be easily recognized by their
shape. Seahorses have long necks and noses, and long, strong tails
that hang downward.
2 Because of their shape and small fins, seahorses are not good
swimmers. They spend much of their lives in shallow water among
sea grass and corals. There, they can remain hidden from predators.
3 Seahorses have great eyesight and can move each eye separately.
That means seahorses can look forward and backward at the same
time. This is helpful for hunting and avoiding predators. Another way
seahorses can hide from enemies is to change colors and blend into
their surroundings.
4 Seahorses eat all day long. They wrap their tails around a piece of
seagrass or coral. Then, they use their long noses like food vacuums
to suck up their food. They can eat more than three thousand tiny
shrimp in just one day!
5 Perhaps the most unique part of seahorse life, however, is how they
care for their eggs. A male seahorse carries the eggs around in his
pouch and takes care of the eggs until they hatch. Some types of
seahorses can hold over a thousand eggs in their pouches!
6 Because seahorses are so small, they’re very delicate. You shouldn’t
keep a seahorse as a pet unless you’re a trained professional.
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

Baseline Test 7
21 The details in paragraph 3 support the main idea that seahorses —
A are an endangered fish
B are dangerous sea hunters
C use their eyes more than other fish
D use their unique abilities to survive

22 What is the best summary of paragraph 5?

A The female seahorse lays the eggs and cares for them until
they hatch.
B The male seahorse carries over a thousand baby seahorses in
his pouch.
C The male and female seahorses work together to care for their eggs
before they hatch.
D The male seahorse has an unusual way of caring for eggs. The male
seahorse carries many eggs in his pouch.

23 By the end of the selection, the reader can infer that seahorses —
A are common
B are endangered
C are difficult to train
D are unusual creatures

24 By organizing paragraph 3 using cause and effect, the author is able

to explain —
A why seahorses are in danger
B what seahorses do when they attack
C how seahorses can protect themselves Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

D the surroundings where seahorses hide themselves

25 What is an example of alliteration in paragraph 6?

A seahorses are so small
B very delicate
C as a pet
D you’re a trained professional

8 Baseline Test
 Name

Reading Comprehension
Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Lady Bird Johnson

1 She was small in size but a giant in every other way. She was a
successful businesswoman and a mother. She cared about the
environment, fought for equal rights, and supported women.
She was Claudia “Lady Bird” Johnson, thirty-sixth First Lady of the
United States.
2 Lady Bird was born in 1912 in Karnack, Texas. She got the nickname
“Lady Bird” as a child, and it stuck.
3 Lady Bird’s father was a cotton grower and a businessman. Her
mother was a stay-at-home mom who died in 1918 when Lady Bird
was only six years old. After her mother’s death, Lady Bird’s Aunt Effie
stepped in to help raise her.
4 Lady Bird was always a good student. She studied history and
journalism in college. After graduating in 1934, she met Lyndon B.
Johnson. They fell in love and got married three months later.
5 Lyndon Johnson began a career in politics after marrying Lady Bird.
Meanwhile, Lady Bird bought a small Texas radio station with money
left to her by her mother. In time, her business grew.
6 Lyndon Johnson served as Vice President of the United States under
President John F. Kennedy from 1961 to 1963. In November 1963,
President Kennedy was killed. Lyndon Johnson became the
thirty-sixth President and Lady Bird became First Lady.
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7 As First Lady, Lady Bird was unique. Many first ladies before her had
been advisors to their husbands, but Lady Bird took her position as
First Lady to another level. She worked on projects and issues of
importance to her and the President. She worked to make America
more beautiful. She worked to help women and children and to
preserve the environment. She even helped pass important laws.
When the President signed the Highway Beautification Act of 1965, he
handed the pen to his wife. Many people called it “Lady Bird’s Bill.”

Unit 1 Test 9
 8 President Johnson died in 1973, just a few years after retiring. But
Lady Bird lived another 35 years. She continued to work on important
issues. In 1982, she and actress Helen Hayes started the National
Wildflower Research Center in Austin, Texas. The center is one of
Lady Bird’s most important environmental achievements.
9 Lady Bird thought beauty was good for the soul. “Ugliness is so grim,”
she said. “A little beauty, something that is lovely, I think, can help
create harmony. . . .” She credited her Aunt Effie for “opening her spirit
to beauty” when she was just a child.

1 The main purpose of this selection is to —

A compare Lady Bird Johnson with other presidents’ wives
B explain how important it is to take care of the environment
C show that Lady Bird Johnson was a successful businesswoman
D describe the life of the thirty-sixth First Lady of the United States

2 How does paragraph 7 support the author’s purpose?

A It explains how Lady Bird came to be the First Lady.
B It explains why Lady Bird decided to study journalism.
C It explains what Lady Bird did while she was First Lady.
D It explains how Lady Bird viewed her husband and his advisors.

Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

10 Unit 1 Test
 Name

3 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A
The author includes the detail about “Lady Bird’s Bill” to show —
A she was a popular First Lady
B she cared about other people
C she was involved in building highways
D she was interested in environmental laws

Part B
What can the reader infer about how the answer in Part A relates
to Lady Bird’s National Wildflower Research Center?
A Lady Bird’s talent for business made the center successful.
B Lady Bird’s interest in the environment led her to start the center.
C Lady Bird’s talent for politics led her to be president of the center.
D Lady Bird’s interest in journalism caused her to report on the center.

4 Read this excerpt from paragraph 7 of “Lady Bird Johnson.”

Underline the two sentences that show that Lady Bird worked
closely with her husband.

As First Lady, Lady Bird was unique. Many first ladies before
her had been advisors to their husbands, but Lady Bird took
her position as First Lady to another level. She worked on
projects and issues of importance to her and the President.
She worked to make America more beautiful. She worked to
help women and children and to preserve the environment.
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

5 Paragraph 3 is similar to paragraph 9 because they both —

A discuss Lady Bird’s mother
B discuss Lady Bird’s Aunt Effie
C describe Lady Bird’s abilities as a businesswoman
D describe Lady Bird’s passion for beauty and the environment

Unit 1 Test 11
Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Climbing Mount Everest

1 Mount Everest is one of the highest peaks on Earth. The lofty
mountain, which lies between Tibet and Nepal, stands 29,029 feet
above sea level. That’s five and a half miles high. Rising high into the
atmosphere, it is as close to space as a person can get on Earth.
2 No one had ever reached Everest’s summit until 1953. The first to
climb the mountain was a pair of hikers, Sir Edmund Hillary, a New
Zealander, and Tenzing Norgay. Norgay was a Sherpa, a local guide
from Nepal. The trek took them seven weeks!
3 Why would it take so long to hike five and a half miles? First, that’s more
than five miles of climbing, not five miles on a flat surface. Second, the
mountain is dangerous. Everest is full of deep canyons, cracks, ice walls,
snow drifts, and sharp, loose rocks. Third, its weather is not comfortable.
Temperatures can range from 100°F to —80°F. Winds can reach two
hundred miles per hour. Oxygen, which humans need in order to live,
decreases at higher mountain heights. At Everest’s top, the oxygen level
is less than thirty percent of what it is at sea level. Without enough
oxygen, climbers can become sick and have trouble continuing to hike.
4 Despite its dangers, the mountain attracts hundreds of climbers every
year. Why do so many people want to try the difficult climb?
5 There are many reasons climbers attempt Mt. Everest. Some cannot
resist the temptation of attempting such a difficult climb. Others are
curious about the beauty and spectacular view from Earth’s highest
point. Others may wish to experience the adventure of exploring one Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

of Earth’s less-traveled frontiers.

12 Unit 1 Test
 Name

6 It takes a lot of planning and a lot of special equipment to make the trip.
Besides clothing, food, water, sleeping bags, and tents, climbers pack
mountain-climbing gear. This includes ropes, special clamps, and ice
axes. Climbers also take oxygen canisters and altitude sickness pills.
7 Most climbers travel in teams and are accompanied by Sherpas. Sherpas
are local people who serve as guides, provide meals, and help carry
supplies. They are used to the high altitude and are familiar with the
climbing route.
8 The climb is done in stages. This allows climbers to get used to the
altitude as they go up the mountain. Today’s climbers make the climb in
about forty days. They travel from 1,400 to 3,200 feet between camps.
The diagram below shows the path climbers follow to reach the summit.
9 Since 1953, more than four thousand people have climbed Mount
Everest. Some of them have even climbed it multiple times. Everest
remains a highlight and high point of many climbers’ lives.

Summit
EVEREST (29,029 ft)

Camp IV
(26,000 ft) Camp III
(24,500 ft)
Camp II
(21,300 ft)

Camp I
(19,900 ft)

Base Camp
(17,700 ft)
Risk of Altitude
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

Sickness
(8,000 ft)

6 Circle the two details that support the idea that climbers take risks when
they climb Mount Everest.
Climbers first reached the summit in 1953.
Everest is full of canyons and cracks.
Without enough oxygen, climbers can become sick.
Sherpas help carry supplies.
Today the climb takes about forty days.

Unit 1 Test 13
7 Based on the information in the diagram, at what altitude are climbers first
in danger of becoming sick?
A 8,000 feet
B 17,700 feet
C 19,900 feet
D 29,029 feet

8 Which sentence from the selection is illustrated by the diagram?

A No one had ever reached Everest’s summit until 1953.
B Everest is full of deep canyons, cracks, ice walls, snow drifts, and
sharp, loose rocks.
C Winds can reach two hundred miles per hour.
D They travel from 1,400 to 3,200 feet between camps.

9. This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A
What does the selection communicate about Sherpas?
A They enjoy cooking for mountain climbers.
B They sell equipment to mountain climbers.
C They are not bothered by harsh weather conditions.
D They are better suited to climb Mount Everest than non-locals.

Part B
Which detail from the passage best supports your answer in Part A?
A Temperatures can range from 100°F to —80°F. (paragraph 3)
B It takes a lot of planning and a lot of special equipment to make the Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

trip. (paragraph 6)
C [Sherpas] serve as guides, provide meals, and help carry supplies.
(paragraph 7)
D They are used to the high altitude and are familiar with the climbing
route. (paragraph 7)

14 Unit 1 Test
 Name

10. This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A
What text structure does the author use to organize paragraph 2?
A cause and effect
B chronological order
C description
D compare and contrast

Part B
The author uses that text structure in paragraph 2 mainly to show —
A who climbed Mount Everest first
B why it took so long to climb Mount Everest
C how many people have climbed Mount Everest
D why people first became interested in climbing Mount Everest
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

Unit 1 Test 15
Word Study
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
11 Which suffix shows that an action is happening now?
A -er
B -ed
C -ing
D -est
12 Circle the two words that can be used to make a comparison.
tasted
tastier
tasting
tastiest
13 Which suffix can be added to amuse to make a word that means “the
action of being amused”?
A -ic
B -ty
C -ity
D -ment
14 Match each word with the suffix that can be added to create a new word.
history -ty
develop -ity
festive -ic
loyal -ment Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

15 Which of the following words is an example of the VCe syllable pattern

with a long vowel sound and a silent e?
A asked
B ferns
C justice
D place

16 Unit 1 Test
 Name

16 Read the sentence.

My friend Sal’s nickname is Duck because she loves to float in the lake!
Which of the following words is an example of the VCe syllable pattern?
A friend
B float
C the
D lake

17 Which of the following words contains a vowel team?

A lamp
B main
C winter
D recent

18 Which two of the following sentences contain an underlined word with a

consonant digraph?
A Tim went to the lake for vacation.
B He found a shell on the beach.
C He carefully put it in a pail.
D On the road home, he held the pail.
E At home, Tim put his find in his treasure chest.
19 The prefix en- in enlarge means —
A to move
B to give less to
C to cause to be
Rights Reserved.
Reserved.

D to stay the same

All Rights

20 Read the sentence.

LLC. All
Company LLC.

I was mistaken for my cousin.

Learning Company

The prefix mis- helps the reader understand that the word mistaken
means —
Savvas Learning

A correct in belief
© Savvas

B without care
Copyright ©
Copyright

C wrongly identified
D having the same appearance
Unit 1 Test 17
Conventions
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
21 Which of the following sentences contains both a complete subject and a
complete predicate?
A My friend ran.
B Played soccer.
C Went to school.
D The dark forest.

22 Read the sentence.

Mr. Hill’s class played a game.
The complete predicate in the sentence is —
A Mr. Hill’s
B Mr. Hill’s class
C played
D played a game

23 Underline the compound subject in the following sentence.

Bella and Tom will have hurry to get to the market before it closes.

24 Read the sentence.

On our fishing trip, we paddled across the lake and caught ten big fish.
The underlined words can be described as —
A a noun phrase
B a prepositional phrase
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C a compound subject
D a compound predicate

25 An example of a complete sentence is —

A At the city park.
B Susan is a good student.
C My favorite television programs.
D Is the tall captain of the team.

18 Unit 1 Test
 Name

26 Underline the two complete sentences in the following paragraph.

Tina and Lili planned to go to the movies and get ice cream. After the
movie. Forgot her money borrowed some. Not enough for movie and ice
cream. They went home after the movie.

27 Which sentence is NOT a run-on sentence?

A Kim left early the ball game was over.
B Sara jumped up Simon stayed at his desk.
C Carlos finished his report and went to the playground.
D Cynthia and Lucy made soup Lucy’s mom made the salad.

28 Which sentence is correct?

A I love to play softball, I like my team.
B His uncle is a teacher he teaches science.
C Linda has an uncle in England, and he invited her to visit.
D My sister enjoys walking in the park she also loves snow cones.

29 Which sentence is NOT a fragment?

A After waiting all day for the mail to come.
B Decided to go home and play with his sister.
C Decided to make a cake, with his dad and his sisters.
D After making three baskets, the boy helped his team win.

30 A student wants to change the sentence below to make it complete.

My mother .
To complete the sentence, the student should add the words —
A who is nice
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B and my father
C planning to go
D left for the meeting

Unit 1 Test 19
Writing
Read the “Benefits of Kindness” passage set.
Source 1: Kindness Matters
1 Mr. Chin is a senior citizen who lives next door to my family. Mr. Chin and
his wife are so gracious to the people in our neighborhood. Not only do
they wave to everyone who walks or drives by, they check in on my family
when any one of us is sick and ask me how school is going. On school
days when I walk to the bus stop with my dad, I see Mr. Chin walk to the
end of his driveway to pick up the newspaper. Last week, I noticed that
Mr. Chin was using a cane. I had never seen him walk with a cane before.
I wondered what had happened.

2 When I saw Mr. Chin walk with his cane again, I came up with an idea. On
my way to the bus stop each morning, I can deliver Mr. Chin’s newspaper
to his front door. The next day, I was elated to find the newspaper still on
the ground at the end of Mr. Chin’s driveway. On my way to the bus stop
with my dad, I walked over to the end of the driveway, picked up the
newspaper, and placed it on his front stoop.

3 Later that day, Mr. Chin came outside when I was walking home. I could
tell he was appreciative because he said, “Thank you for bringing the
newspaper to my front stoop, Jenny! You are incredibly kind.” I guess he
must have seen me through his window that morning. I am thrilled that
I found a way to help him!

Source 2: Lend a Helping Hand

Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.
1 I exclaimed, “Be careful, Carmen!” I am sure that my classmate Carmen
knows the rules, but when she crossed the street without looking both
ways, I was concerned.

2 My teacher, Mrs. Leavington, assigns a leadership role to her students

each week. The roles include passing out materials for class activities,
acting as a student safety officer, and organizing the books on the
bookshelf. This week, I was assigned student safety officer, which is the
leadership role that I have been looking forward to all year!

20 Unit 1 Test
 Name

I was given a safety vest, a whistle, and a STOP sign. Mrs. Leavington told
me that I would be assisting Mr. Jacobs, one of our school’s safety
officers.

3 On my first day as a student safety officer, I helped Mr. Jacobs patrol the
bus area before and after school. I will never forget what Mr. Jacobs said
to the students getting off the bus that morning. He announced, “Hello
and good morning, students! This week, Lucas will be helping me with
bus duty and recess. Be sure to listen to him, and don’t forget to tell him
‘Thank you!’ for his hard work.” That was so neat!

4 Michael, who is my best friend’s little brother, was worried he was going
to miss the bus after school yesterday, so he ran from the playground to
the bus area. When I saw Michael running, I told the bus driver to wait for
him. Before Michael got on the bus, I reminded him that it is unsafe to run
like that when he is outside the playground boundaries. Michael thanked
me for the reminder and said he would not run like that again.

5 What a great week! I helped Carmen, Michael, and many other students.
I am excited to see what role Mrs. Leavington assigns me next week.

Source 3: Giving Back

1 I am a pediatrician, or children’s doctor, at Cloudsville Family Medical
Center. My children, Max and Molly, graduated from Cloudsville High
School a few years ago. Now, they are in college.

2 The town holds special memories for my family. When Max and Molly
were little, they loved grocery shopping with me at Sunshine, our local
food market. They also loved participating in sports and activities. Molly
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

took painting classes at Impressions, our local art studio.

3 As a pediatrician, I help young children and their families every day.

My patients range from one day old to eighteen years old. Although my
work keeps me busy, I found I had extra time after my children left for
college. I decided to give back to the places that had been special to us.

Unit 1 Test 21
4 Sunshine is selling new, healthful food items that are very nutritional for
children. I give a monthly presentation to the shoppers at Sunshine about
the benefits of these healthful foods. The manager at Sunshine told me that
these items are in high demand at the store. That is great news!

5 Impressions, our local art studio, offers classes and helps artists create
different works of art that the studio owners sell in their store. I asked them if
I could volunteer to make artwork that I would donate to the young patients
at Cloudsville Family Medical Center. The art studio, parents, and children all
love the idea. It is so rewarding to give back to the friendly people of this
wonderful town!

Writing Prompt
Each passage describes the benefits of being kind to others or giving back to
our communities. Write a personal narrative about a time in your life when you
were kind to others. Use the passages to help you write in first-person point of
view, compose a setting, and include relevant details.
Manage your time carefully so that you can
• read the passages;
• plan your response;
• write your response; and
• revise and edit.
Be sure to include
• an introduction that describes the characters and the setting;
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.
• relevant details about a clear sequence of events; and
• a conclusion that wraps up the personal narrative.
Your response should be a narrative that includes multiple paragraphs. Write
your response on a separate sheet of paper.

22 Unit 1 Test
 Name

Reading Comprehension
Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Animal Feet
1 Different animals have different kinds of feet, and the shape and
structure of their feet help them survive in the places they live. Some
kinds of animal feet are described here.
2 The polar bear is a large animal that has big, padded paws and long
claws. Its cushioned feet are slightly webbed, with hair between the
toes. Its paws protect the bear from the cold and act like snowshoes,
allowing it to walk across deep snow without sinking in too far. The
hair on its paws keeps it from slipping on the ice.
3 The elephant is another large animal with big, cushioned feet. It is
lucky to have them. When you weigh between six and eight tons and
are on your feet most of the day, it is helpful to have good, shock-
absorbing support. The padding on an elephant’s feet also helps it
move silently across the land.
4 A duck waddles on two webbed feet, and even though its feet are not
great for walking, they are ideal for swimming. When a duck lands in
water, it uses its feet to paddle through the water.
5 The horse is well suited for running across the open prairie. Instead of
feet with toes, horses have hard hooves. Because horses have
hooves, they are able to get started quickly and run fast across
large spaces.
6 The lion is a powerful runner that can hunt down prey—even a fleet-
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

footed gazelle. The lion has large, padded paws with long claws that
can retract, or move in and out of a part of the lion’s toes. Padding
lets the lion sneak up quietly on its prey. Its long claws allow it to grab
prey quickly.
7 Another effective predator is the bald eagle, because it has powerful,
sharp talons. Talons are like claws. It uses its talons to grab prey and
carry it away. An eagle’s gripping strength is stronger than a human’s.
A bald eagle can pluck a giant fish right out of the water.

Unit 2 Test 23
1 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A
What is a main idea of the selection?
A An animal’s feet help it to run fast.
B An animal’s feet help it survive in its habitat.
C An animal’s feet are often a bad match for its habitat.
D An animal’s feet are designed for grabbing prey.

Part B
Which detail from the selection supports your answer in Part A?
A The lion has small, padded paws.
B The bald eagle is an effective prey.
C The duck’s feet are not great for walking.
D The polar bear’s paws protect it from the cold.

2 Read paragraph 3.

The elephant is another large animal with big, cushioned feet. It is

lucky to have them. When you weigh between six and eight tons and
are on your feet most of the day, it is helpful to have good, shock-
absorbing support. The padding on an elephant’s feet also helps it
move silently across the land.

Underline the two sentences that include details to support the idea that
an elephant’s feet help it to move quietly and comfortably.
3 One way the polar bear is similar to the lion is that it has — Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

A hairy claws
B hard paws
C padded paws
D retractable claws

24 Unit 2 Test
 Name

4 Which statement shows cause and effect?

A Polar bears have big, padded paws.
B The bald eagle’s gripping strength is stronger than a human’s.
C Because horses have hooves, they are able to get started quickly.
D A lion is a powerful runner with padded feet and retractable claws.

5 The elephant and the lion are alike because they both can —
A move quietly
B grab prey quickly
C weigh several tons
D outrun smaller, faster animals

6 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A
The reader can conclude that —
A all animals are natural swimmers
B only large animals can survive in the wild
C animals in cold environments are strongest
D animals are adapted to live in a variety of environments

Part B
Which sentence from the selection supports your answer
in Part A?
A Some kinds of animal feet are described here.
B It is lucky to have them.
C ...even though its feet are not great for walking, they are ideal for
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

swimming.
D Talons are like claws.

Unit 2 Test 25
Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

This is a poem about raccoons—animals that are loved by some and disliked
by others. Raccoons are pointy-faced, furry creatures with what looks like a
black mask across their cheeks and eyes. They are found throughout the
United States. Their natural habitat is in places near woods and streams, but
they have adapted to suburban and urban environments as well.

Five Little Bandits

by Buffy Silverman
Five little bandits
peering out a hole.
The first one said,
“Let’s take a moonlit stroll.”

5 The second one sniffed.

“I smell crayfish over there.”
The third one stopped.
“Beware! A bear!”
The fourth one pounced

10 and caught a fish to eat.

The fifth one slapped,
then scooped another treat.
Oooooh went the wind
through the cool, dark night,
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15 and the five little bandits

sloshed out of sight.

7 Which of the following happens first in “Five Little Bandits”?

A One of the bandits suggests taking a stroll.
B One of the bandits sniffs and smells crayfish.
C One of the bandits pounces and catches a fish.
D One of the bandits sees a bear and tells the others.

26 Unit 2 Test
 Name

8 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A
What is the setting of the poem “Five Little Bandits”?
A a big city
B a desert
C a cozy house
D a wilderness area

Part B
Which line from the poem supports your answer in Part A?
A “Beware! A bear!”
B then scooped another treat.
C Oooooh went the wind
D “Let’s take a moonlit stroll.”

9 Draw lines from the left column to the right column to match the three
lines that end with words that rhyme.

Five little bandits “Beware! A bear!”

peering out a hole.
“Let’s take a moonlit stroll.”

“I smell crayfish over there.” The fifth one slapped,

then scooped another treat.
The fourth one pounced
and caught a fish to eat. Oooooh went the wind
Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

Unit 2 Test 27
10 Read line 13 from the poem.

Oooooh went the wind

The poet uses the figurative language to show that the —

A moon was out
B wind was blowing
C bandits were hungry
D bear was about to attack

Word Study
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
11 Read the following words. On the lines below, write the four words that
need -es added to make them plural.
system monkey speech sash
class ax pearl shark
speech sash class ax

12 The correct plural form of the word factory is —

A factorys
B factores
C factories
D factoryes

13 Read the following words. On the lines below, write the two words that Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

have the same sound as ou in the word about.

snow allowing your
without you though
allowing without

28 Unit 2 Test
 Name

14 Which of the following words includes the vowel diphthong sound oi?
A beautiful
B build
C poor
D voyage

15 Read the following singular nouns.

goose deer mouse sheep
tooth moose life scissors
To make each noun plural, decide whether it needs a change in spelling or
whether the plural is spelled the same as its singular form. Write each word
in the correct box.

1. plural spelling changes 2. plural spelling the same as singular

goose mouse tooth life deer sheep moose scissors

16 Which of the following plural words is spelled correctly?

A oxes
B echos
C shelfs
D children

17 Read the following sentence.

The captain of the submarine peered through the periscope.
The root of periscope is —
A per
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B peri
C scope
D ope

Unit 2 Test 29
18 The meaning of the root phon in the word phonograph is —
A sound
B viewing
C far or distant
D written or drawn

19 The Latin root rupt helps the reader determine that the word abruptly
means —
A softly or gently
B gradually or slowly
C suddenly or unexpectedly
D cautiously or patiently

20 In paragraph 6 of “Animal Feet,” the Latin root tract helps the reader
determine that the word retract means to —
A say aloud
B draw back or in
C change
D allow

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30 Unit 2 Test
 Name

Conventions
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
21 Read the following sentence.

Its feet are not great for walking, but they are ideal for swimming.
The joining word but is used to combine these two simple sentences to
show —
A a contrast in how the duck travels
B that a duck can walk and swim equally well
C that travel for a duck is more comfortable when it is walking
D that neither walking nor swimming is easy for a duck

22 Read the following sentences from paragraph 6 of “Animal Feet.”

Padding lets the lion sneak up quietly on its prey.

Its long claws allow it to grab prey quickly.
The correct way to make these two sentences a compound sentence is —
A Padding lets the lion sneak up quietly on its prey, its long claws allow
it to grab prey quickly.
B Padding lets the lion sneak up quietly on its prey, or its long claws
allow it to grab prey quickly.
C Padding lets the lion sneak up quietly on its prey, nor its long claws
allow it to grab prey quickly.
D Padding lets the lion sneak up quietly on its prey, and its long claws
allow it to grab prey quickly.
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23 What is the correct way to combine the following two simple sentences to
form a complex sentence?
The elephant is large.
The elephant is lucky to have big, cushioned feet.
A When the elephant is large, it is lucky to have big, cushioned feet.
B The elephant is large, when it is lucky to have big, cushioned feet.
C Because the elephant is large, it is lucky to have big, cushioned feet.
D The elephant is large, because it is lucky to have big, cushioned feet.

Unit 2 Test 31
24 Read the following sentence.
The school bus picks up students after the final bell rings.
Which words make up the independent clause in this sentence?
A The school bus picks
B The school bus picks up students
C picks up students after the final bell rings
D after the final bell rings

25 Which word in the sentence below should be capitalized?

Pablo Juarez and his mother, Cristina, were excited to travel to Mexico
city from Arizona for the first time.
A his
B mother
C city
D time

26 Read the following sentence.

My neighbor, Mrs. Simpson, said I could borrow her book called
Treasure Island after I leave my school, Kennedy Elementary.
Write the common nouns on the lines.
neighbor book school

27 Write each word in the correct column based on how the word is made plural.
paragraph business eagle enemy penny bush

add -s add -es Change y to i and add -es Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

paragraph business enemy

eagle bush penny

28 Which of the following words requires a spelling change instead of

adding -s to make it plural?
A nephew
B woman
C stallion
D thorn

32 Unit 2 Test
 Name

29 Which of the following sentences uses correct subject-verb agreement?

A The animals walks many miles across the land.
B A messenger leave a package by the door.
C That gentleman goes to work every day on the train.
D Slowly the mule climb the hill with its load.

30 What change should be made to the following sentence?

The dog barks at the delivery person, but the owner make his
dog behave.
A Change delivery to Delivery.
B Change make to makes.
C Change the period to a question mark.
D The sentence should not be changed.

Writing
Read the “Animals in the Wild” passage set.

Source 1: Giraffes in Africa

1 Have you ever seen a giraffe up close? Perhaps you have visited a zoo or
an animal sanctuary, and you have seen giraffes there. What do you think
of when you picture a giraffe? Their long necks? Their long legs?

2 Giraffes are fascinating animals! Not only are they the tallest living land
animal, but they are also the largest ruminant. A ruminant is an animal that
eats plants and digests the food in its stomach, which has multiple
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compartments. Common ruminants include giraffes, cows, antelopes,

and deer.

3 Giraffes love the leaves from acacia trees. Giraffes can eat up to 75
pounds of food each day! Acacia leaves are most of this food. Acacia
trees are well-known landmarks on a savanna. The savanna is a common
ecosystem in Africa. It is an open grassland that also has lots of shrubs
and trees.

Unit 2 Test 33
4 Giraffes are well-adapted for living on a savanna. Many plant-eating
animals in Africa compete for the small plants and grass on the savanna.
Since giraffes have long necks, they have the tall acacia trees all to
themselves.

5 The neck of a giraffe is a common discussion topic among scientists.

Giraffe necks are unique because they are so long. The neck of a giraffe
weighs almost 600 pounds (272 kilograms)! A giraffe has seven bones in
its neck just like a human has. Each neck bone in a giraffe’s body is more
than 10 inches (25.4 centimeters) long! That is almost equal to the length
of a sheet of paper.

6 These long necks do not stop giraffes from running fast. If a giraffe needs
to escape a predator, such as a lion or a crocodile, it can run up to 35
miles (56 kilometers) per hour. The legs of a giraffe are approximately 6
feet (1.8 meters) long! Giraffes rely on their long necks for food and rely on
their long legs for safety and protection.

Source 2: Animals in the Rainforest

1 What comes to mind when you hear the word rainforest? Do you picture
the lush greenery? Perhaps you think of a toucan or a monkey? From
toucans to monkeys to frogs, rainforests throughout the world are home to
about half of all of Earth’s animal species.

2 Rainforests are rich in biodiversity, meaning they have a wide variety of

animal species. For example, scientists estimate that there may be as
many as 2.5 million species of insects in the Amazon rainforest. Many
scientists believe that there is a broad variety of animals in rainforests Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

because rainforests are the oldest type of environment on Earth. Some

rainforests in Southeast Asia have been around for about 100 million
years!

3 There are two main types of rainforests – tropical and temperate. Tropical
rainforests are in warm, wet climates near the equator. These areas receive
lots of rainfall each year. Temperate rainforests are in areas with more
seasonal changes and wider temperature ranges compared to tropical
rainforests. Temperate rainforests receive lots of rain each year, too.

34 Unit 2 Test
 Name

4 Well-known animals that live in tropical rainforests throughout the world

include toucans, monkeys, and frogs. Toucans are birds with large beaks.
The large beaks help toucans squash the berries and fruits found in the
rainforest. Different types of monkeys live in the rainforest, including
howler monkeys and spider monkeys. Monkeys eat fruits off of tall trees in
a rainforest. A rainforest’s warm, moist environment makes it a perfect
habitat for frogs and other amphibians.

5 Rainforests are also home to some very unique animals. The capybara is
the largest rodent in the world and lives near rivers in rainforests. The
Amazon River dolphin, also known as a boto, is a pink dolphin that lives in
the freshwater rivers in South America’s rainforests.

6 The many animals of tropical and temperate rainforests protect

themselves from predators in different ways. Some animals rely on their
coloring to blend into the environment. Others, like insects, use their small
size to hide from predators. Wouldn’t you love to see all these unique
plants and animals?

Source 3: Travel to Everglades National Park

1 Florida is a southern state in the United States of America. The southern
region of Florida is home to the Everglades. The Everglades is one of the
world’s largest tropical wetlands. A wetland is an area of land that is
covered by water or saturated with water most of the year. In 1947, part of
the Everglades was protected and became Everglades National Park.

2 Now that you know a little history about Everglades National Park, let’s
dive into what you can do while you are here. It is such a unique area!
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Everglades National Park is known for its diversity of plant and animal life.
You will see many different types of plants and animals during your visit.

3 The park is home to roughly 300 different species of fish. Fishing is one
of the park’s most common activities. You can also kayak and canoe
through the marshes, mangrove forests, and open waters of the park.

Unit 2 Test 35
4 Visit the bike areas at Shark Valley. Take a walk along the Anhinga Trail. If
you visit Shark Valley and the Anhinga Trail in the spring, you may see river
otters enjoying a meal. River otters eat fish, frogs, and turtles.

5 If you visit Everglades National Park for an extended period of time, you
can camp on site and enjoy all that the park has to offer! Campgrounds
are available at the park. If you come to the park through the Homestead
entrance, you can set up camp at Long Pine Key Campground or
Flamingo Campground. You can access many walking and biking trails
near the campgrounds. The next morning, take a canoe on a pond. You
just might see some beautiful birds of the Everglades, including roseate
spoonbills and wood storks.

6 From interesting wildlife to pretty scenery and many fun activities,

adventure awaits you at Everglades National Park!

Writing Prompt
Write a brief travel article about one of the places described in the passages
and the wild animals that live there. Use information from the passages in
your article.
Manage your time carefully so that you can:
• read the passages;
• plan your response;
• write your response; and
• revise and edit.
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Remember to include
• an introduction with a clear main idea that entices the audience to
read more;
• different types of details that are relevant to the destination;
• a logical organization with transition words; and
• a conclusion that sums up the information.
Your response should include multiple paragraphs. Write your travel article on
a separate sheet of paper.

36 Unit 2 Test
 Name

Reading Comprehension
Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Born to Dance
1 My mother says I was born to dance, and it certainly seems that way.
2 When I was just three years old, my mother gave me a book about a
ballet dancer. The book had drawings of different dance positions.
3 I would try to put my body into the shapes I saw in the pictures, and it
wasn’t long before I was able to copy most of the basic moves of ballet.
4 Mom recognized that I had a real talent for dance, so she enrolled me
in a ballet class for toddlers. In the class, we learned to move to music —
plus we learned to bend, sway, leap, and skip. We learned to tell
stories through our bodies with dance. Dancers can express feelings
and ideas through movement.
5 By the time I entered kindergarten, dance was part of my life. Mom
even took me on an overnight trip to a children’s ballet workshop in
New York City. I took dance lessons throughout twelve years of
school, and when I went to college, I majored in dance. During the
summers, I took classes with different dance companies. It was
my hope to join one of them.
6 My dream was realized a year after I graduated from college, but it was
not without a struggle. I spent a year trying out for different dance groups,
and it was an exhausting experience. At tryouts, you do your best. Then,
you wait for a phone call and hope the voice at the end will give you good
news. Instead, I got a series of calls saying I had not made it. Each time
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I got a call like that, I felt like my dream might not come true.
7 Finally, one amazing day in May, I got the call I’d been hoping for. The
voice at the other end said I had been accepted. I should show up for
work on Monday in New York City.
8 I’ve been with the company for several years. I am currently traveling on
a world tour. Last month we performed in London, Paris, and Berlin. This
week, I am in Johannesburg, South Africa. I can’t wait to show the
audience my latest routine. I hope I can watch some African dance
performances while I’m here, too. Maybe I’ll learn a few new moves!

Unit 3 Test 37
1 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A
What does the narrator’s mother first give her daughter that sparks a
lifelong interest?
A dance lessons
B a ballet book
C ballet shoes
D a trip to New York

Part B
The narrator’s mother shows that she supports her daughter’s interest in
dance by —
A reading to her
B dancing with her
C enrolling her in classes
D watching her performances

2 The narrator feels disappointed when she —

A is not accepted to a company
B is unable to learn the dance positions
C is forced to give up her summers for dance classes
D discovers that dance companies are located in Europe

3 Write the correct element of plot next to the sentence from the selection.

rising action climax resolution Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

climax The voice at the other end said I had been accepted.
rising action By the time I entered kindergarten, dance was part of my life.
resolution I’ve been with the company for several years.

38 Unit 3 Test
 Name

4 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A
What setting is revealed in paragraph 8?
A The narrator is in New York City.
B The narrator is in London, England.
C The narrator is in Johannesburg, South Africa.
D The narrator is traveling between Paris and Berlin.

Part B
What does this setting reveal about the narrator?
A The narrator prefers to dance in the United States.
B The narrator performs the same routine no matter where she goes.
C The narrator prefers Johannesburg to London and Berlin.
D The narrator is eager to learn new moves from other dancers.

5 Which sentence from the selection best shows that the narrator is
speaking from a first person point of view?
A The book had drawings of different dance positions.
B Dancers can express feelings and ideas through movement.
C Each time I got a call like that, I felt like my dream might not come true.
D It is always wonderful to perform for people and to see works by
dancers from other countries.
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Unit 3 Test 39
Directions: Read the selections. Then answer each question.

Discovering Walt Whitman

1 Karem climbed onto the yellow school bus and took a seat. It had been
a good day. His English class had just finished an interesting visit to
Walt Whitman’s birthplace.
2 When all the students were settled in their seats on the bus, Ms. Blatz
passed out an assignment sheet.
3 “All right, class,” she said. “Here are some lines from Walt Whitman’s
poems. I’d like you to choose one to interpret and report on. Think
about the message, and ask yourself—what does it tell you about
Whitman’s attitude toward America and its people?”
4 Karem read the lines from “Song of Myself.”
5 “I like this,” he thought. “It shows that Whitman believed women and
men were equal.”
6 Next, he read the lines from “I Dream’d in a Dream.”
7 “I like this too. It shows that Whitman admired America—he saw it as
a place where people could live in friendship.”
8 Then, he read “Miracles.”
9 “These lines show his ideas about living,” he thought. “He celebrated
every moment of his day.”
10 It was a long ride back to school. As Karem thought about the poetry,
he started getting sleepy, and it wasn’t long before he dozed off. He
dreamed of Whitman’s words.
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11 Karem woke with a start as the bus pulled up in front of the school.
For a second, he wasn’t sure where he was, but then some lines came
back to him.
12 “I hear America singing, the varied carols I hear. Each singing what
belongs to him or her and to none else. . .”
13 “That’s it!” he thought. “I’m going to write about ‘I Hear America
Singing.’ I like how Whitman felt about the American people—how he
found music in the voices of everyone.”

40 Unit 3 Test
 Name

From the Pen of Walt Whitman

compiled by Deloris Selinsky
I am the poet of the woman the same as the man,
And I say it is as great to be a woman as to be a man,
And I say there is nothing greater than the mother of men. . .
I think I could turn and live with animals, they are so placid and
self-contain’d,
I stand and look at them long and long.
They do not sweat and whine about their condition. . .
(from “Song of Myself”)
I dream’d in a dream I saw a city invincible to the attacks of the
whole of the rest of the earth,
I dream’d that was the new city of Friends.
(from “I Dream’d in a Dream”)
To me every hour of the light and dark is a miracle,
Every cubic inch of space is a miracle,
Every square yard of the surface of the earth is spread with
the same,
Every foot of the interior swarms with the same.
(from “Miracles”)
I hear America singing, the varied carols I hear.
Each singing what belongs to him or her and to none else. . .
(from “I Hear America Singing”)
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6 Which sentence from “Discovering Walt Whitman” shows that the

selection is told from a third person point of view?
A “I’d like you to choose one of them to interpret...”
B Next, he read the lines from “I Dream’d in a Dream.”
C “I like this too. It shows that Whitman admired America—he saw it as
a place where people could live in friendship.”
D “I like how Whitman felt about the American people—how he found
music in the voices of everyone.”

Unit 3 Test 41
7 Read the following lines from Walt Whitman’s poem “I Hear America Singing”.
Circle two different words that are repeated to have an effect on the reader.

“I hear America singing, the varied carols I hear.

Each singing what belongs to him or her and to none else. . .”

8 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.
Part A
In the poem “Miracles,” what is the meaning of the line “Every cubic inch
of space is a miracle”?
A To the poet, every bit of space is amazing.
B The poet enjoys measuring space with a ruler.
C For the poet, it is difficult to have one’s own space.
D The poet can make miracles happen in small spaces.

Part B
What type of figurative language does the poet use to produce the
meaning in Part A?
A Simile
B Rhyme
C Metaphor
D Repetition

9 The author includes details in paragraph 1 of “Discovering Walt Whitman”

to show that —
A Karem had enjoyed the field trip
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B the teacher liked Whitman’s poems
C riding the bus made Karem feel sleepy
D Karem’s English class took many field trips

10 The author wrote “Discovering Walt Whitman” most likely to —

A inform the reader about Whitman’s birthplace
B persuade the reader that Whitman is the best poet
C explain to the reader why Karem did not like poetry
D show the reader that Whitman’s poetry is meaningful

42 Unit 3 Test
 Name

Word Study
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
11 The base word manage means “to control.” This helps the reader
understand the related word manager means a person who is —
A lost
B in charge
C skillful at work
D operating a machine

12 Circle the three pairs of words that have related base words.
stiff/stiffen
obey/object
glow/gleam
wise/wisdom
courage/encouragement

13 Which of the following word pairs with r-controlled vowels has the
same sound?
A dirt/herd
B guard/turn
C shirt/before
D format/thermal

14 Which of the following words uses the r-controlled ar vowel sound?

A sure
B start
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C hear
D cared

15 Which of the following final stable syllable words is divided correctly?

A ve/hi/cle
B de/cis/ion
C con/nect/ion
D gen/er/ati/on

Unit 3 Test 43
16 Circle the two words that have a final stable syllable.
people pollute confuse humble decorate

17 Which of the following words is correctly divided into syllables?

A cub/ic
B rep/ort
C mo/ment
D des/erve

18 Which of the following words is correctly divided into syllables?

A le/mon
B met/er
C un/ite
D sal/ad

19 Read the following sentence. Circle the two words that contain
silent letters.
I know that it is important to learn to write well.

20 The sentence that contains a word with a silent b is —

A The planets orbit around the sun.
B I got my umbrella from the hall closet.
C He held the string in place with his thumb.
D I began to tremble at the thought of walking home in the dark.

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44 Unit 3 Test
 Name

Conventions
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
21 Which sentence uses a preposition to show time?
A He ran home after the soccer game.
B Their opponents were in the red uniforms.
C He raced down the field to make the goal.
D Coach called him over to the sideline to rest.

22 Which sentence uses a preposition to show direction?

A We left during the storm.
B His car was parked around the corner.
C She placed her new book with her old one.
D Our teacher graded our tests before we left.

23 Underline the two sentences in the paragraph below that do NOT show
subject-verb agreement.
Walt Whitman was a poet and journalist. He was born on May 31, 1819,
in West Hills, New York. He are one of America’s most famous poets.
He created a style of poetry called free verse. Many people believes his
poetry represents the freedoms found in America. Whitman worked as
a volunteer nurse during the Civil War. He continued writing poetry his
whole life. Whitman died on March 26, 1892, in Camden, New Jersey.

24 Which sentence uses the verb be correctly?

A I is excited that we are going to the movie.
B I am excited that we are going to the movie.
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C I are excited that we are going to the movie.

D I were excited that we are going to the movie.

25 Circle the three regular verbs that require -ed to be added to make them
past tense.
go fix fall walk jump stand

Unit 3 Test 45
26 Read the following sentence.
My cousin know how to ride a bike.
Which of the following words is the past tense of the irregular verb know?
A know
B knew
C knewed
D knowed

27 Read the following sentence.

The student is trying the science experiment.
To change the sentence from the present progressive tense to past
progressive tense, change the underlined words to —
A will try
B has tried
C was trying
D will be trying

28 The sentence that shows the future progressive tense is —

A Simon is studying more to get better grades.
B Simon was studying more to get better grades.
C Simon will be studying more to get better grades.
D Simon has been studying more to get better grades.

29 Which of the following auxiliary verbs can indicate a command?

A may
B shall Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

C can
D could

30 How does this sentence need to be changed?

Our teacher asked us if we may please push in our chairs before leaving.
A Change asked to asking
B Change if to that
C Change may to would
D Change chairs to chaires
46 Unit 3 Test
 Name

Writing
Read the “Communication Through Art” passage set.

Source 1: Poetry Journals

1 “It’s hard to believe that we have been journaling for six weeks now!”
recalled Brittany as she placed her poetry journal in her backpack.

2 Lisha agreed with Brittany. “Yes, the time has flown by. My favorite part
about our poetry journals is that we can express how we feel using any
type of poetry. Brittany, I know you like to write haikus. Jordan, what’s
your favorite type of poetry?”

3 “I have been using a lot of metaphors in couplets,” Jordan proclaimed

proudly.

4 Brittany, Lisha, and Jordan are students in my class that have really taken
a liking to our weekly poetry journals. Brittany likes detailed descriptions.
I think that’s why she likes writing haikus so much. Lisha is a bit shy, yet
she is very expressive in her weekly journals and is quite an excellent
writer. Just the other day, I overheard Lisha tell Jordan that she wants to
become a children’s author. Jordan is very friendly and likes to talk a lot.
Before we started the poetry journals, all three were struggling to write
poetry.

5 Last year, I attended a poetry workshop. I met other elementary school

teachers there, and we discussed ways to incorporate poetry into our
classrooms. I got a great idea from a 4th grade teacher named Ms. Patel.
On Fridays, Ms. Patel asks her students to journal about how their week
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was, including how they felt during the week. When I asked her for more
details about this assignment, she said, “Each week, I give students a list
of some types of poetry. They can pick a type of poem to use in their
journal. They need to express how they felt about the week using the type
of poetry they picked. The next week, they pick a different type of poem.”

6 What a great idea! I asked Ms. Patel if I could try the activity in my
classroom. “You sure can!” she replied. “I love sharing poetry activities. I
think it will be a fun way for your students to practice their poetry writing.”
Of course, I thanked Ms. Patel for the great idea, too.

Unit 3 Test 47
Source 2: Connecting Through Abstract Art
1 Last week, Mr. Wells, my art teacher, taught us about abstract art. He told
us that abstract art is creative art without a subject that incorporates the
use of shapes, lines, and colors. This week, we are learning about a form
of abstract art called expressionism. In class, Mr. Wells said, “Abstract art,
especially expressionism, is a form of art that allows artists to portray
what they feel or think, rather than what they see. In what ways do you
express how you feel?”

2 I enjoy playing basketball in gym class and playing the trombone in band,
but I also like to paint in art class; however, I had never painted an
expressionist painting before. That night, after I finished my homework, I
brainstormed about what I wanted to paint in art class the next day.
Lately, I have had a lot of fun with my new friend, Lee, so I decided to
express how much fun I have when I meet new friends.

3 After I finished my masterpiece, I couldn’t wait to share it with Lee and my

mom. My mom and my friend Lee are some of the most important people
in my life.

4 “What do you think I painted?” I asked my mom when she got home from
work the next day.

5 “I see that you have many bright colors, like orange, sky blue, and yellow.
I think whoever is in this painting is very happy,” my mom said
thoughtfully. “Is there supposed to be a person in this painting?”

6 Just as she asked me that question, the doorbell rang. “I’ll get it!” I
exclaimed. “Thanks for coming over, Lee! My mom and I were just talking Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

about what I painted, and she asked if there is a person in my painting.

What are your thoughts?”

7 After he studied the painting, Lee replied, “I think it’s a neat painting, but I
don’t see a person.”

8 “Exactly! There isn’t a person in my painting. This is an abstract form of

art called expressionism in which you paint how you feel. I have so much
fun playing basketball with you, Lee. I enjoy getting to know new friends,
and I wanted to express that in my painting.”

48 Unit 3 Test
 Name

9 “You succeeded at that. This is a fantastic painting, Derrick! You are quite
talented,” replied my mom.

Source 3: The Beauty of a Sunset

1 The dictionary defines a sunset as “the apparent descent of the sun below
the horizon.” I define a sunset as the most beautiful work of art. What
comes to mind when you think of a sunset? Perhaps you saw a
magnificent sunset while on vacation, or you get excited when the sun is
about to set and anticipate what colors will appear.

2 Bright orange, hot pink, vibrant red, even some bold purples and blues –
these are just some of the colors that appear in a breathtaking sunset. I
think some people believe that art is limited to drawings and paintings. I’m
here to tell you that a sunset is one of the most beautiful artistic creations!
The sunset that I saw last week on vacation was fantastic!

3 Last week, my mom, my dad, my brother Omar, my sister Denise, and I

went to visit my aunt Maria and my uncle Jose. They live on a lake with a
great beach. Every afternoon on vacation, while my little sister Denise took
a nap, I would go to the beach to swim with Uncle Jose and Omar.

4 One day, Uncle Jose said, “Let’s take a picnic basket to the beach today. I
think it would be great if we could eat dinner on the beach and watch the
sun set tonight.”

5 “Uncle Jose, that’s a wonderful idea,” I replied with excitement. I asked

my dad if everyone in the family could come. “I would love to join you,
Noah! However, Mom and Aunt Maria need to stay at the house since
Denise needs to go to bed soon.”
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6 After dinner, we sat on the sand and looked to the sky. First, a bright
orange color painted the sky. Then, we saw streaks of hot pink across the
bright orange sky, followed by larger streaks of purple that radiated
through the clouds.

7 It was almost as if a painting was created before our eyes! This was the
best vacation ever thanks to the memorable sunset and Uncle Jose’s
suggestion to stay a little longer on the beach.

Unit 3 Test 49
 Writing Prompt
Each passage describes a different way in which people communicate. Write a
realistic fiction story that features a way that people communicate through a
form of art, such as poetry or painting. Use a character, a setting, and other
information from the passages in your realistic fiction story.
Manage your time carefully so that you can:
• read the passages;
• plan your response;
• write your response; and
• revise and edit.
Remember to include
• realistic characters and a realistic setting;
• a plot with a believable series of events;
• first-person or third-person point of view; and
• believable dialogue between the characters.
Your realistic fiction story should include multiple paragraphs. Write your
response in the space provided.

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50 Unit 3 Test
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Reading Comprehension
Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Coming to America
1 It was November when my mom told us that we were moving from our
home in Madrid, Spain, to America.
2 “Austin is a wonderful city in Texas!” she exclaimed, trying to cheer us
up. “The weather will be nice this time of year. It will be similar to here.”
3 My sister and I were not worried about the weather. We were worried
about leaving all of our friends and family. Texas was so far away!
4 “It’s a job offer that I just can’t refuse,” my mom continued gently. “And
my brother lives there. There are a lot of art museums there, just like
here. It will be a new adventure that we can all experience together!”
5 My mom loved doing new things and exploring new places, but my
sister and I loved living in Madrid. The realization that we had to leave
it all behind to move to a new country was very hard for us both.
6 “Mom,” I said after some silent moments had passed, “do we have
to go?”
7 “Yes, Ana,” she said. “I know you’re worried now, but I promise it will be
a place that you will learn to love as much as you love Madrid.”
8 It was hotter than Madrid when we first arrived in Austin. The city was
also far more modern than Madrid had been, which my sister and I
both found interesting. My mom took us to different art galleries, and
we got to see people playing music! Although we weren’t in the same
classroom, my sister and I went to the same school, and everyone
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was very friendly. All the new things to see felt a little like finding a
surprise gift addressed to you each morning.
9 We missed the historic buildings of Madrid, like the Royal Palace,
but we learned about new buildings. My sister and I never ran out of
things to tell our friends back in Madrid. My mom was happy, too,
which helped us be happy on our new adventure. Now we get to visit
the Gulf of Mexico, where the water is warm enough to swim in even
in December!

Middle-of-Year Test 51
1 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.
Part A What is the conflict in the selection?
A Ana’s mother gets a new job offer in Madrid.
B Ana and her sister do not want to leave Madrid.
C Ana and her sister are tired of visiting art museums.
D Ana has a difficult time expressing her feelings.

Part B How is the plot conflict resolved?

A Ana and her family decide to move to a different part of Spain.
B Ana’s mother decides not to accept the new job offer.
C Ana’s mother moves to Texas, but Ana and her sister do not.
D Ana and her sister enjoy experiencing new things in Texas.

2 Why does the narrator use a simile at the end of paragraph 8?

A To show that it is her birthday
B To explain why she does not like Austin
C To explain things that she misses about Madrid
D To show that she likes experiencing new things

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52 Middle-of-Year Test
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3 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A Which statement best explains the main idea of the selection?
A It is important to accept a new job offer.
B Living in America is just like living in Spain.
C Madrid is a much nicer place to live than Austin.
D New experiences can be both scary and enjoyable.

Part B Which sentence from the selection best supports your answer in
Part A?
A It was November when my mom told us that we were moving from our
home in Madrid, Spain, to America.
B “It’s a job offer that I just can’t refuse,” my mom continued gently.
C It was hotter than Madrid when we first arrived in Austin.
D We missed the historic buildings of Madrid, like the Royal Palace, but
there were new buildings to learn about.

4 The narrator wrote this selection to —

A explain why she does not like change
B convince readers to move to a new place
C describe her experience of living somewhere new
D tell readers why it is important to go to art museums

5 The narrator organizes the beginning of paragraph 8 by —

A contrasting Austin with Madrid
B explaining why art museums are important
C listing the reasons it is hard to move to a new country
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D showing all the ways that Spain is similar to America

Middle-of-Year Test 53
Directions: Read the two selections. Then answer each question.

Iceland
1 Iceland is an island in the North Atlantic Ocean. It is a unique place to
live. There are volcanoes, rugged mountains, and large glaciers. The
people on this island rely on animals to help them thrive.
2 The majority of Iceland’s animals are domestic. Domestic animals are
not wild. They are raised by humans. Early settlers in Iceland learned
that farming and raising animals could help them survive. Eventually,
raising animals meant more than just having food to eat. Icelandic
sheep, for example, are a very important part of Iceland’s history.
These animals were brought over from Norway when Iceland was first
settled. During World War I, much of Europe needed to get wool from
Icelandic sheep. This helped Iceland become a modern, wealthy
nation. Today, there are about 800,000 sheep in Iceland. That is more
than twice the number of people who live there!

Australia
1 Australia is located in the Southern Hemisphere in the Pacific Ocean.
It is a country with over 24 million people. It is also Earth’s smallest
continent. But a continent of about 3 million square miles doesn’t
seem small! Australia is often called an island because it is surrounded
by water, but it is actually made of more than 8,000 islands. Its
isolation helps protect animals and plants from many diseases
that affect other places. As a result, unique wildlife can be found
in Australia. Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

2 There are very large cities along the coast of Australia. However, much
of the inland area, called the outback, is a desert. It is here that many
of Australia’s animals can be found. Kangaroos and koalas are
probably the most well-known. Both of these mammals are
marsupials, which means that after their young are born, they are
nursed in a pouch on the mother’s belly. Not all of Australia’s animals
are cute and cuddly. Australia has more venomous snakes than any
other continent. There are also freshwater crocodiles, which are not
found anywhere else in the world.
54 Middle-of-Year Test
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6 Read these sentences from the second selection:

Its isolation helps protect animals and plants from many diseases
that affect other places. As a result, unique wildlife can be found
in Australia.

These sentences are an example of which type of structure?

A Cause and effect
B Chronological order
C Problem and solution
D Compare and contrast

7 Why are bold words included in both of the selections?

A To show important terms that the author defines
B To tell the reader about the author’s favorite facts
C To give key facts about living in cold or warm places
D To help the reader understand why animals are important

8 Organize the following details to show whether they describe Iceland or

Australia. Write the words in the correct column.
Details: smallest continent, many domestic animals, many unique wild
animals, made of many islands, one small island, small human population

Iceland Australia

many domestic animals smallest continent

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one small island many unique wild animals

small human population made of many islands

Middle-of-Year Test 55
9 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A Which statement best explains the main idea of the selection
about Australia?
A Most of Australia’s animals are cute and friendly.
B Australia is one of the smallest countries on the planet.
C Many people travel to Australia to see all of the islands.
D Australia’s geography has helped unique wildlife live there.

Part B Which sentence from the selection supports your answer in Part A?
A It is also Earth’s smallest continent.
B Australia is often called an island because it is surrounded by water,
but it is actually made of more than 8,000 islands.
C Its isolation helps protect animals and plants from many diseases that
affect other places.
D Kangaroos and koalas are probably the most well-known.

10 The author wrote the selection about Iceland most likely to —

A convince readers to move to Iceland
B give facts about Iceland’s geography and history
C compare Iceland with other large countries in Europe
D explain why Iceland is the best place to live in Europe

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56 Middle-of-Year Test
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Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

The Secrets Underground

1 Caleb’s mother loved gardening. For as long as he could remember,
Caleb could always find his mother in their tiny backyard, making
every effort to get flowers to grow in the cold northern climate. Caleb
did not share his mother’s love of flowers. He liked being inside where
it was warm and cozy, and he would much rather play video games
than worry about watering plants.
2 It was a sunny, cold day in October when his mother called
him outside.
3 “Come help me plant these tulips,” his mother said with a big smile
on her face. “The weather is delightful, and we’ve never tried to raise
tulips before. It will be an adventure!”
4 Caleb did not care about tulips. He was in the middle of an intense
game that he had been trying to beat for weeks, and he did not see
how digging in the dirt would be at all helpful. Caleb’s mother noticed
his hesitation.
5 “If you don’t help me, then I’m going to take away that game system,”
she said with a stern look on her face.
6 Caleb sighed. “Fine,” he mumbled as he knelt down next to her.
“What do I do?”
7 His mother ignored his tone and explained enthusiastically, “These
are tulip bulbs. We’ll plant them here because this area gets the most
sun. First, we’ll loosen the soil and dig holes using this gardening fork,
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then we’ll make sure each hole is about ten inches deep, and lastly we
will put the bulbs in, pointy side up. By next May, we’ll have beautiful
blooms! We won’t know until then what color the flowers will be.
Won’t it be a fun surprise?”
8 Caleb was not sure. “You mean you bought these brown bulbs
without even knowing what the flowers will look like, and we have to
wait until May? What is the point of that?”

Middle-of-Year Test 57
 9 His mother smiled. “I used to think that way,” she said. “But then I
read a poem by Emily Dickinson that made me want to plant tulips.
I can show you the poem on my phone.”
10 Caleb looked over her shoulder and read the poem:

THE TULIP
She slept beneath a tree
Remembered but by me.
I touched her cradle mute;
She recognized the foot,
5 Put on her red suit, —
And see!
11 “What does mute mean?” Caleb asked.
12 “It means ‘silent,’” his mother said. “The tulip bulb is in a silent cradle
because the bulb is underground. But then she blooms.” Caleb looked
at his mother’s joyful face, and he couldn’t help smiling along with her.
13 “So, it’s a secret that only we know about?” he said. His mother
nodded. Caleb liked that idea. He liked the idea of a secret bulb
sleeping beneath the winter ground that would eventually turn into
something beautiful.
14 “Okay,” he said. “Let’s start digging these holes!”

11 Fill in the circles to outline the plot of the selection by putting the events in
the correct plot order.
Conflict Rising Climax Resolution
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Action
Caleb expresses doubt about the
A B C D
tulip bulbs.
Caleb starts digging holes. E F G H
Caleb’s mother tells him to come
I J K L
outside.
Caleb likes the idea of the secret
M N O P
bulbs.

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12 Who tells this story?

A Caleb
B The tulip
C A narrator
D Caleb’s mother

13 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A In the poem “The Tulip,” the ground is compared to a —

A tree
B foot
C cradle
D red suit

Part B This is an appropriate comparison because –

A the bulb was planted beneath a tree
B the ground crushes the bulb like a foot
C the bulb sleeps in the ground
D the bulb was planted in red soil
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Middle-of-Year Test 59
14 Read the poem “The Tulip” from the story. Underline the two lines that
rhyme with the last line of the poem.
She slept beneath a tree
Remembered but by me.
I touched her cradle mute;
She recognized the foot,
Put on her red suit, —
And see!

15 What do paragraphs 13 and 14 show about Caleb?

A He likes to garden, but only in winter.
B Digging in the cold ground makes Caleb frustrated.
C The idea of sharing a secret makes Caleb excited to garden.
D Caleb is confused by the idea that the tulip is quietly sleeping.

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60 Middle-of-Year Test
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Word Study
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
16 Which word means “a chore or duty to take care of”?
A respond
B respondent
C responsibility
D responsiveness

17 The prefix mis- helps you determine that the word miscalculate means to —
A calculate well
B calculate a lot
C calculate the best
D calculate incorrectly

18 On the lines below, write the four words that need only the letter -s added
to make them plural.
day quality potato time flower party wish key
day time flower key

19 Fill in the circles to identify how each singular noun is made plural.

Add -s Add -es Change the last

letter and add -es
toothbrush A B C
wolf D E F
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family G H I
planet J K L
branch M N O

20 The word with the same vowel sound as plow is —

A touch
B snow
C shout
D know

Middle-of-Year Test 61
21 Draw a circle around the underlined word that contains a vowel digraph.
The boy told a tale about how grapes grow and become raisins.

22 Which of the following words is spelled correctly?

A absird
B absurd
C thirmal
D thurmal

23 In which of the following words is the letter k silent?

A khaki
B kayak
C knitting
D kindness

24 The base word participate means “to join in.” This helps the reader
understand that the related word participant means —
A watcher
B teacher
C member
D student

25 Which of the following words does not have a final stable syllable?
A decide
B illusion
C middle
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D transition

62 Middle-of-Year Test
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26 Match the suffix to what it is used to show.

-s a comparison of two things

-ed a comparison of three or more things
-er an action takes place in the present
-est an action takes place in the past

27 Which word has the same root as the word biology?

A economy
B biosphere
C bibliography
D technology

28 Which of the following words is an example of the VCe syllable pattern?

A little
B tear
C make
D startle

29 Which of the following words is correctly divided into syllables?

A magi/c
B fro/zen
C ta/le/nt
D ener/ge/tic

30 Read the following information about the word subterranean.

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This helps the reader understand that the word subterranean means —

from the Latin sub-, meaning “below,” + terra, meaning “earth”

A full of dirt
B underground
C without sound
D misunderstood

Middle-of-Year Test 63
Conventions
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
31 Which sentence has a compound subject?
A I wanted to go shopping at the new store.
B Cindy and I were too late to catch the bus.
C Tony wanted to go to dinner and then a movie.
D Clara’s friends were not interested in the game.

32 Which sentence is written correctly?

A They is very tired.
B We are ready to go.
C You is a very good friend.
D He tell me the test is hard.

33 Which of the following is a complete sentence?

A Living for the moment.
B Helping others feel better.
C Working hard brings rewards.
D Wondering where my brother hid.

34 Underline the two sentence fragments in the following paragraph.

My sister and I wanted to go to the movies. We were not sure which

kind of movie to see. A comedy or a drama. We decided to ask our
mom. Knowing that she could help us figure it out. However, she told
us we had to clean our rooms first!
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64 Middle-of-Year Test
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35 Which sentence does not require a change?

A Anita is learning about fossils.
B Anita were learning about fossils.
C Anita will be learned about fossils.
D Anita has been learned about fossils.

36 Which of the following is a run-on sentence?

A It was cold and rainy during the first day of the vacation.
B The day was sunny and bright we went to the beach.
C We could not agree on a restaurant, so we ordered pizza.
D The students were going on a field trip to the art museum.

37 Underline the verb that makes correct subject-verb agreement in each

sentence.
The dog bark/barks.
The moon rise/rises.
The students learn/learns.

38 Which of the following sentences is written correctly?

A His cats is playing with a ball.
B Alexa’s mother are a great cook.
C Ana and her friends sees a movie.
D Taylor’s dogs were small and cute.

39 Read the following sentences.

She waited for the train. The train was late.
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The best way to make these two sentences a compound sentence is —

A She waited for the train, the train was late.
B She waited for the train, or the train was late.
C She waited for the train, so the train was late.
D She waited for the train, but the train was late.

Middle-of-Year Test 65
40 Draw a circle around the underlined word that should be capitalized in the
sentence below.
Last summer, I went to Rapid city, South Dakota, on a family vacation.
41 Which of the following plural nouns is written correctly?
A lifes
B oxes
C teeth
D meese

42 Which of the following verbs is written correctly?

A given
B leaved
C becomed
D beginned

43 Read the following sentence.

Before I am allowed to watch television after dinner, I have to help my
brother put the dirty dishes in the dishwasher.
The underlined words can be described as —
A a noun phrase
B a prepositional phrase
C the compound subject
D the compound predicate

44 Underline the two auxiliary, or helping, verbs in the sentence below.

My mom says I must clean my room before I can play outside. Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

66 Middle-of-Year Test
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45 Which change should be made in the following sentence?

Because I did not hear my alarm I was late getting up and late for school.
A Insert a comma after alarm
B Change was to were
C Insert a comma after up
D No change should be made.
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Middle-of-Year Test 67
Writing
Read the “Trying Something New” passage set.

Source 1: Playing the Cello

1 When I am happy, music makes me happier and when I am sad, music
makes me feel better. Since I enjoy listening to music, I decided to take
my love of music one step further. A few months ago, at the start of the
school year, I decided to join our school’s orchestra.

2 I’ll never forget the night I shared the news with my family. My dad was
making his famous lasagna, my little brother Joseph was finishing a
puzzle, and my mom had just come home from work. When everyone sat
down to eat dinner, I made my announcement. “I have decided to join the
school orchestra this year!” I said cheerfully.

3 “What instrument are you going to play?” asked Joseph with much
anticipation.

4 “I want to play the cello or the violin,” I replied with some uncertainty.

5 My mom chimed in, “You could always follow in the footsteps of your dad
and play the cello!”

6 “Yes, Mark, I can teach you all there is to know about the cello!” exclaimed
my dad.

7 It was on that evening that I made the decision to play the cello, and ever
since I have been practicing for at least 30 minutes each day. Now that I
have been playing for five months and practicing every day, Mr. Nelson, Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

my orchestra teacher, said that I can play a solo at our next concert.

8 “What if I get nervous and miss some of my notes?” I asked Mr. Nelson.

9 Mr. Nelson replied, “Mark, it’s okay to be nervous. I suggest that you
practice an extra 15 minutes each night. Also, you and I can work together
after school if you are still nervous.”

10 “Thank you, Mr. Nelson! I will let you know if I am still nervous after I
practice a bit more.”

68 Middle-of-Year Test
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11 At the concert two weeks later, there was loud applause after my solo. As
it turns out, I did a great job! I was a little nervous, but with the extra
practice, Mr. Nelson’s help, and the support from my family, I felt much
better.

Source 2: A New Chef in the Family

1 Today is my birthday, which means I’m officially old enough now to help
prepare dinners. My mom said that I can decide what we are cooking for
dinner tonight since it’s my special day. She says planning and making
dinner every night can be a challenge, so she’s grateful to have the extra
help. I wonder what challenges, if any, I will encounter.

2 We stopped by the grocery store after soccer practice. All day, I had been
thinking about what I wanted to make for my special birthday dinner.
Macaroni and cheese and chicken are some of my favorite foods, so I
think I’d like pasta with chicken in it. “I know some of the ingredients. We
need chicken and noodles. I don’t know what else I should put in the
pasta,” I told my mom.

3 “How about we add some cheese in your pasta? What about a

vegetable?” Mom suggested.

4 “Nolan and I love onions, and we both like parmesan cheese. I know we
need parmesan cheese, but we have onions at home,” I replied.

5 As we began to prepare the meal, my mom asked, “What should we do

first, Anna?”
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6 “Let’s cook the chicken,” I replied quite confidently.

7 “We could cook the chicken; however, it takes approximately fifteen

minutes to boil the water and cook the pasta. While the pasta is cooking,
we could cook the chicken and prepare everything else,” Mom explained.

8 After I got the pasta cooking, it was time to sauté the onions. “Mom, have
you seen the onions? I thought we had some,” I said as I frantically
searched the pantry and the refrigerator.

Middle-of-Year Test 69
9 After she finished scouring the kitchen, she replied, “It looks like we don’t
have any. The pasta will still be delicious without them, and you will still
have a great birthday dinner. In the future, we should check whether we
have ingredients at home before we go to the store.”

Source 3: Trying Tennis

1 Basketball is fast-paced, high energy, and lots of fun. It’s also a
competitive team sport. The feeling I get when I make a basket is
awesome, but the feeling I get when my team wins is indescribable. I have
played basketball since I was a little girl. My dad tells me stories of how I
used to cry when I was little if I wasn’t holding a ball. I was meant to play
this game.

2 This year, I am the point guard for the girls basketball team at school. We
have won eight of our last ten games, and just last weekend we beat the
Wolves from Valley View School. The Valley View Wolves are the best girls
basketball team around, so it was an important game for us to win. Go
Eagles!

3 On my walk to class the other day, my best friend Jacqueline asked me

our team’s secret to success. “We practice every day, we communicate
with each other, and we treat our teammates like we would treat our
friends and family,” I replied.

4 Jacqueline suggested I try tennis when basketball season is over.

Jacqueline is on a tennis team at our town’s recreational center, and she
has a coach that gives her lessons each week. I am a little nervous about
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trying tennis since basketball is what I know and what I love.

5 While I wait for basketball season to finish, Jacqueline said her coach can
give me three trial lessons to see if I like the sport. So far, I have had one
lesson and while it was fun, I learned that there are many rules and
different types of shots. There are also different ways a player should
stand when they return a shot.

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6 I know there are rules in basketball, along with different types of shots and
ways to stand, but it’s all second nature to me now. I’ll start practicing
tennis once basketball season is over. One day, I hope I will like tennis as
much as I like basketball.

Writing Prompt
Each passage describes a time when the narrator tried doing something new.
Write a personal narrative about a time when you tried doing something new.
Use the passages to help you write in first-person point of view, compose a
setting, and include relevant details.

Use your time carefully so that you can

• read the passages;
• plan your writing;
• write your response; and
• revise and edit.
Remember to
• organize your writing in a logical way;
• try to include some facts and evidence from the passages;
• use details to develop your writing; and
• think carefully about the words you choose.
Your response should be a personal narrative with multiple paragraphs. Write
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your response on a separate sheet of paper.

Middle-of-Year Test 71
 Name

Reading Comprehension
Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Janice and Her Bob

1 It was the morning of Janice’s birthday, and she was excited for her
party later that evening. She wanted to do something that would
surprise all her friends, but she wasn’t sure what. After she finished
her breakfast, Janice decided to take a walk with her mother and
figure out a plan.
2 The year was 1964, and Janice’s neighborhood in New York was
bustling. There were people everywhere, running in and out of stores.
Janice walked past a clothes shop with stylish dresses in the
window—did she want to surprise everybody with a new dress?
Janice stopped for a moment, but then her mother reminded her she
had enough dresses.
3 Janice and her mother walked past a beauty salon and looked inside.
Janice noticed a young woman who had just finished getting her hair
cut. It was cut in a style she had seen in fashion magazines. Known as
a “bob,” it was short with the hair only down to the woman’s ears.
Janice had long hair that went all the way down her back. When she
danced, her hair got in the way. In the summertime, Janice’s hair
made her feel warm. She decided that she wanted a bob—that would
surprise everybody!
4 She asked her mother what she thought about a short haircut. Her
mother agreed that it would certainly surprise everyone, and they went
inside. An hour later, Janice’s hair was transformed. Janice’s mother took
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off her hat and gave it to Janice to wear so she wouldn’t give away the
surprise on the walk home. Janice and her mother were having a great
time. Surprises were fun, but organizing them was even more exciting!
5 Shortly after leaving the salon, Janice and her mother bumped into
Janice’s friend Mary from school. Janice asked her if she noticed
anything different. Mary looked at Janice but just said “Not really.”

Unit 4 Test 73
 6 A few blocks later, Janice and her mother ran into Victoria, a girl from
their neighborhood. Janice asked Victoria if she noticed anything
different about her. Victoria didn’t notice anything either.
7 Later that night, as Janice walked into the backyard for the party, a
strong breeze blew her hat off, and everyone could see her new
haircut! All of her friends were delighted with her surprise. Her secret
was over, but it was fun while it lasted.

1 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A Based on paragraph 4, the character trait that best describes

Janice is —
A adventurous
B careful
C happy
D surprised

Part B Which sentence from the selection supports your answer in Part A?
A Her mother agreed that it would certainly surprise everyone, and they
went inside.
B An hour later, Janice’s hair was transformed.
C Janice’s mother took off her hat and gave it to Janice to wear so she
wouldn’t give away the surprise on the way home.
D Surprises were fun, but organizing them was even more exciting!

2 In paragraph 3, Janice makes a decision to change her look. Underline

two sentences that tell why Janice decides to change her hair. Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

Janice and her mother walked past a beauty salon and looked
inside. Janice noticed a young woman who had just finished
getting her hair cut. It was cut in a style she had seen in fashion
magazines. Known as a “bob,” it was short with the hair only down
to the woman’s ears. Janice had long hair that went all the way
down her back. When she danced, her hair got in the way. In the
summertime, Janice’s hair made her feel warm.

74 Unit 4 Test
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3 In paragraph 7, what theme can the reader infer?

A Tricking friends is never nice.
B Big surprises are not much fun.
C Hide the truth from friends as much as possible.
D Having a secret can be fun, even if it only lasts a short time.

4 What is one theme in the selection?

A People make difficult decisions every day.
B Every person should surprise their friends.
C The best part of surprising others is planning the surprise.
D Having fun with your friends is the most important thing in life.

Directions: Read the myths. Then answer the questions that follow.

Maui and the Sun

(MAUI and his two brothers sit on the beach, cooking dinner. The sun
goes down. MAUI stands up.)
1 MAUI: The sun moves too fast across the sky! It goes down when I’m
trying to eat! Why can’t we control the sun? I am going to make the
sun slow down!
2 BROTHER #1: The sun is much too powerful. We cannot control it.
3 BROTHER #2: Maui, you might be the strongest person on the island,
but you’re not strong enough to control the sun.
4 MAUI: I will catch the sun and make it move slower. Then the people
will have more time during the day to hunt, eat, and do their chores.
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I am sure I can do it!

(MAUI and his brothers make a long rope. MAUI lassos the rope around
the sun. With the rope, MAUI is able to control the sunrise and sunset.
Now people can do chores, hunt, and eat dinner before the sun sets.)

Unit 4 Test 75
 The Sun Dancer
1 Once upon a time, there lived a great warrior who was also the best
dancer around. Everyone feared this great warrior’s strength but loved
to watch him dance.
2 A mighty king in a faraway land heard of the warrior’s dancing and
challenged him to a dancing competition—for while the great warrior
was the best dancer where he lived, the king was the best dancer in
his kingdom. The great warrior accepted the king’s challenge. The
king said that if the warrior won, he would give him a beautiful throne
in the sky.
3 People from all around gathered to watch the great warrior and the
king. First, the king danced a routine that put a chill in the air. He
was graceful, slow, and cold. Then, the great warrior started his
routine, which made the entire crowd cheer and scream in approval.
He danced with great emotion, and his body movements created a
great heat. Everyone agreed that the warrior won the contest. True to
his word, the king gave the warrior a beautiful throne in the sky.
4 The great warrior still sits in his throne, sharing his heat with the world,
and we call him the sun.

5 What do the words that follow characters’ names in paragraphs 1–4 of

“Maui and the Sun” represent?
A Words that the characters speak
B The characters’ internal thoughts
C A script for a narrator to read aloud Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

D Stage directions for characters’ actions

76 Unit 4 Test
 Name

6 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A In “Maui and the Sun,” what information do the stage

directions provide?
A Maui’s tone of voice
B Brother #1’s ideas about the sun
C The setting and the characters’ actions
D Brother #2’s description of how strong Maui is

Part B Which sentence from the selection supports your answer in Part A?
A MAUI and his two brothers sit on the beach, cooking dinner.
B I am going to make the sun slow down!
C Maui, you might be the strongest person on the island, but you’re not
strong enough to control the sun.
D I will catch the sun and make it move slower.

7 What is a theme of “Maui and the Sun”?

A Nature can be unpredictable and unfair to people.
B Having time to do chores is more important than having fun.
C Even the strongest person in the world cannot control nature.
D The impossible can become possible if one believes in oneself.

8 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A What is a theme of “The Sun Dancer”?

A The sun is a source of joy for people.
B It is better to be graceful than strong.
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C A mighty king always gets what he wants.

D Fast beats slow every time.

Part B Which detail in paragraph 3 of “The Sun Dancer” supports your

answer in Part A?
A The king defeated the warrior easily.
B The king’s dance was graceful, cold, and slow.
C The people watched and appreciated both dances.
D The crowd screamed their approval of the warrior dance.

Unit 4 Test 77
9 Place an X on the two lines that show how “The Sun Dancer” is different
from “Maui and the Sun.” In “The Sun Dancer” —
people watch a contest X
the sun does not dance
people try to control the sun
the sun moves too fast
people celebrate the warmth of the sun X
10 Which sentence best describes what happens to Maui in “Maui and the
Sun” and the great warrior in “The Sun Dancer”?
A Maui loses, but the great warrior wins.
B Maui wins, but the great warrior loses.
C Maui and the great warrior lose.
D Maui and the great warrior win.

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78 Unit 4 Test
 Name

Word Study
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
11 Draw a line to match each of the following words with the correct
meaning.
antisocial seeing through
transparent against being with people
amphitheater a stage viewed from both sides

12 The prefix trans- in the word transmit means —

A in
B before
C against
D across

13 Write -able or -ible on each line to show which suffix should be added to
the word to form an adjective meaning “capable of being” or “deserving.”
love -able divide -ible
favor -able reverse -ible
14 Which word is spelled correctly?
A valuible
B tolerable
C exciteable
D impossable
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15 Which word is correctly divided into syllables?

A poet/ry
B dual/it/y
C triu/mph
D di/a/gram

Unit 4 Test 79
16 Which division of the word material is correct?
A mat/er/ial
B ma/ter/ial
C mat/er/i/al
D ma/ter/i/al

17 Which of the following words contains the correct prefix?

A inproper
B imsignificant
C irdescribable
D irresponsible

18 Fill in the circles to identify which prefix can be added to which base word.

im- in- ir-

justice A B C
patient D E F
regular G H I
capable J K L
mature M N O

19 Which sentence uses a homophone correctly?

A The queen took the thrown in 1958.
B Bill took the elevator instead of the stares.
C The guide lead the climbers up the mountain trail.
D The students went to their assigned desks at the bell. Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

20 Read the following sentence.

After a short , the teacher out the second part
of the test.
The correct pair of words to complete the sentence is —
A break/past
B brake/past
C break/passed
D brake/passed
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Conventions
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
21 Read the following sentence.
She insists on doing her homework by .
Which of the following pronouns completes the sentence?
A itself
B myself
C herself
D themselves

22 Read the following sentence.

After Mom and Dad went to the movie, Mom and Dad decided to buy
ice cream.
The pronoun that correctly replaces Mom and Dad is —
A we
B you
C she
D they

23 Circle the three superlative adjectives.

darker cheapest most reasonable
purest more thankful more revolutionary

24 Read the following sentence.

He is than his sister.
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Which comparative adjective correctly completes the sentence?

A busy
B strangest
C more stubborn
D most energetic

Unit 4 Test 81
25 Read the following sentence.
Anna quickly slammed the door.
Which word modifies the verb?
A Anna
B quickly
C slammed
D door

26 Read the following sentence in which an adverb is used to modify another

adverb.
The lion moved very quietly through the open field.
Which word modifies quietly?
A lion
B moved
C very
D through

27 Which sentence is correct?

A I wore sandals, so I was chillier than she was.
B Sue is brillianter than Roger when it comes to science.
C After mowing the lawn, Tim was tireder than he thought.
D The driver warned us to be cautiouser on the slick road.

28 Read the following sentence.

That dog has good manners than the other dog.
Which comparative adjective should replace good? Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

A best
B better
C gooder
D goodest

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29 Underline the two sentences from the following paragraph that contain
incorrect superlative adjectives.
John chose the most small pencil out of his pencil case. He liked
using a pencil until it would no longer write. John’s sister thinks this
habit is the most crazy thing. Their mom has a box of new pencils in
the drawer.
30 Read the following sentence.
Mr. Brown’s class made the most fancy poster for the competition.
What change should be made in this sentence?
A Change Mr. Brown to Mr Brown
B Change made to making
C Change most fancy to fanciest
D Change for to about

Writing
Read the “Community Giving” passage set.

Source 1: Giving on a Tuesday

1 Many people around the world know the importance of being charitable
and generous. To be charitable means to be kind and giving to others.
Giving Tuesday is a global organization that started in the United States in
2012. Giving Tuesday is celebrated on the Tuesday after the Thanksgiving
holiday in the United States. On this day every year, people around the
world are encouraged to give back to causes that matter to them. It is
known as a global day of giving. One of the goals of the Giving Tuesday
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organization is to build a more generous world.

2 More than 150 countries across the globe participated in Giving Tuesday
in 2018. More than $400 million was donated to various nonprofit
organizations and charities that year. In Singapore, Giving Tuesday is very
popular. As a result, the nation decided to extend the day into a week-
long celebration called Giving Week.

Unit 4 Test 83
3 Giving Tuesday started as a way people could give back to their
community and various organizations during the holiday season. Now the
day has become a global phenomenon due to social media and the
Internet. On Giving Tuesday 2017, non-profits, schools, businesses, and
individuals from all 50 states donated close to $274 million online.

4 Many companies partner with the Giving Tuesday organization to support

its mission and values. Some companies even match the donations that
come in on Giving Tuesday. In 2018, a social networking service said it
would match up to $7 million in donations on Giving Tuesday. Later that
day, the social networking service announced that the match had been
reached within seconds after the offer went live on the Internet.

5 Donations in the form of money are important on Giving Tuesday.

However, there are other ways to give back on that day. People around
the world are encouraged to spend time volunteering. Giving back to
communities near and far is a great way to spread kindness and
generosity.

Source 2: Food Banks and Food Drives

1 About 37 million people in America struggle with hunger. Feeding America
is an organization that was formed in 1979 by John van Hengel in
response to an increase in food banks around the country.

2 A food bank gives food directly to those who need it. There are two
common types of food banks. One is called the “front line” model, and the
other is the “warehouse” model. In a “front line” model, the food bank
gives food directly to those who are hungry. In a “warehouse” model, the Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

food bank provides food to food pantries and soup kitchens.

3 Feeding America helps in many ways. One way is through food recovery.
Lots of food is wasted. Each year, 52 billion pounds of safe food from
manufacturers, farms, grocery stores, and restaurants goes into landfills.
Feeding America works with these groups to gather the food before it
goes to waste.

84 Unit 4 Test
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4 People who want to host a food drive can contact their local food bank.
Then, the food bank gives advice. The people help with food safety, items
safe for the bank to accept, and when food is most needed. This helps the
food bank sort and inspect the items that were donated. Feeding America
has a network of food banks nationwide. These food banks distribute
approximately 4.3 billion meals yearly.

5 Another organization is the United Nations’ World Food Program. This

program aims to address hunger and food security on a global scale. Each
year, the World Food Program assists approximately 87 million people in
83 countries. The organization focuses on delivering food assistance in
emergencies. For example, they support countries in conflict where
people are three times more likely to be hungry.

6 These organizations, along with the support from local communities, work
hard to solve the global hunger crisis.

Source 3: Welcome Group

1 Welcoming America helps to increase the diversity of communities in
America. The organization works with local governments and
organizations in communities across the country. As a result, more than
150 communities in the United States have built a welcoming plan to help
all residents love where they live. Welcoming America believes that all
people are important contributors to society. They believe that all people
can impact the success of a community.

2 Welcoming International is a program developed by the Welcoming

America organization. The international program helps to build
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relationships in communities worldwide. These communities help

immigrants and refugees feel at home. Welcoming International also works
with local governments and community leaders. They help to create
standards to welcome people into an area.

Unit 4 Test 85
3 Welcoming new people adds to the strength and uniqueness of that
community. The community is also more likely to be inclusive. To be
inclusive means to allow all kinds of people to belong to something. A
more inclusive community is more likely to be diverse. A diverse culture is
an exciting and vibrant one. Also, more jobs may be created. If more jobs
are created, then the community’s economy will be stronger.

4 There are many ways that you can help new people feel welcome in your
school and community. When you first meet new people, you can smile
and introduce yourself. You can ask where they lived before and how they
like the new community. You can ask what hobbies and interests they
have. Then you can suggest an activity that they might like based on their
hobbies and interests. You can also invite them to an activity that you do.
Being friendly and showing that you care are great ways to welcome
someone new.

Writing Prompt
Write an opinion essay about what people should do to help others in your
community. Use information from the passages in your essay.

Use your time carefully so that you can

• read each passage carefully;
• plan your writing;
• write your response; and
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• revise and edit.

Remember to include
• an introduction that states your opinion clearly;
• facts and evidence from the passages; and
• a logical organization.
Your opinion essay should be a multi-paragraph essay. Write your response
on a separate sheet of paper.

86 Unit 4 Test
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Reading Comprehension
Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Bike Sharing
What Is Bike Sharing?
1 In a number of cities across the world, people can rent bicycles. This
is called bike sharing. Bike sharing is very popular. When people bike
share, they borrow a bike. When they are finished with it, they return
the bike, and then someone else uses it.
Learning from the Past
2 In 2009, New York City wanted to start bike sharing. First, New York
City officials decided to learn from cities that already had bike sharing.
They were concerned about the program not being successful. People
who lived in New York City were also concerned. They thought there
would be too many people riding bikes on the streets. The people that
wanted to start the program did research on bike sharing in many cities,
including Paris. They wanted to see how these other cities made their
programs work. For example, when Paris first started bike sharing,
many of the bikes were stolen or broken. New York City officials knew
they would have to have locks on their bikes that people could not
break.
Safety First
3 When Paris first started its bike sharing program, there were many
accidents involving bicyclists. New York and other cities learned from
Paris’s mistakes. When drivers aren’t used to sharing the road with a
lot of bike riders, accidents can happen. That’s why New York City
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added bike lanes when it started its bike sharing program. Bike lanes
are a part of the road that is marked for only bicyclists to use. This
makes the streets safer for bike riders.
Why Your City Needs Bike Sharing
4 Bike sharing is a healthy way to travel. Biking is good exercise and is
not expensive. If you can’t afford a bike or are just visiting a new city,
bike sharing is safe and fun. Every city should have bike sharing.

Unit 5 Test 87
 Bike Share Ridership in the U.S.
The number of bike share riders in some cities more than doubled
between 2011 and 2016.
20
18 Key
16 Capital Bike Share
Riders (Millions)

14 (Washington, D.C.)
12 Citi Bike (Miami)
10 Hubway (Boston)
Citi Bike
8
(New York City)
6
4
2
0
2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016
Year

1 What can the reader learn from the text above the graph?
A Bike sharing became less popular after 2011.
B The number of bike share riders has stayed the same.
C Both large cities and small towns have bike-sharing programs.
D Bike sharing became significantly more popular between 2011
and 2016.

2 According to the graph, which city had the largest number of total bike
share riders in 2016?
A Miami
B Boston
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C New York City
D Washington, D.C.

3 Underline the two sentences in paragraph 1 that provide details explaining

how bike sharing works.
In a number of cities across the world, people can rent bicycles. This is
called bike sharing. Bike sharing is very popular. When people bike share,
they borrow a bike. When they are finished with it, they return the bike,
and then someone else uses it.

88 Unit 5 Test
 Name

4 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A Based on the information in “Bike Sharing,” with which statement

would the author agree?
A Bicycling on city streets can be dangerous.
B Cities should replace stolen or broken bikes.
C Large cities are unsafe for bike sharing programs.
D Bike sharing will be too expensive for many people.

Part B What does the author state would solve the problem in Part A?
A building separate roads for bike-sharing programs
B adding bike lanes that only bicyclists are allowed to use
C encouraging drivers to slow down around the bike riders
D closing all the streets at certain times of the day for bicyclists

5 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A The author includes the final paragraph most likely to persuade
readers that —
A owning a bike is expensive
B buying a bike is a good way to keep healthy
C bike sharing has benefits and should be in all cities
D riding a bike to work is faster and safer than driving

Part B Which sentence from the selection gives a reason that supports
the author’s claim?
A In a number of cities across the world, people can rent bicycles.
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B For example, when Paris first started bike sharing, many of the bikes
were stolen or broken.
C When drivers aren’t used to sharing the road with a lot of bike riders,
accidents can happen.
D Biking is good exercise and is not expensive.

Unit 5 Test 89
Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Hot Springs
1 The core, or center, of our planet is very hot. In some places on Earth,
cracks carry heat from the Earth’s core into small bodies of water on
the Earth’s surface. The water is like a natural, hot bathtub called a
hot spring.
2 Many people believe that soaking in a hot spring can be good for your
health. For example, soaking in a hot spring may help sore muscles.
Soaking in a hot spring can also help people relax. They find the
warm water soothing. People have found comfort in hot springs for a
long time.
3 Some of the best hot springs in the world are located in the United
States. In Dunton Springs, Colorado, there are five different hot
springs that can get as hot as 106°F. In Hot Springs, Virginia, the
Jefferson Pools are named after Thomas Jefferson, the third president
of the United States. He visited the springs over two centuries ago.
Saratoga Springs, New York, is home to the Roosevelt Mineral Baths,
some of the most well-known hot springs in the world.
4 Iceland, a small country northeast of North America, is also known for
hot springs. Over 400,000 people visit Iceland’s Blue Lagoon hot
springs every year. People travel worldwide just to visit different hot
springs, like the Pamukkale Hot Springs in Turkey or the Hot Water
Beach in New Zealand.

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6 Underline the two details that support the main idea that hot springs are
beneficial to a person’s health.

A hot spring may help sore muscles. People travel worldwide to visit
hot springs. Soaking in a hot spring may help people relax. Thomas
Jefferson visited hot springs. Hot springs can get as hot as 106°F.

90 Unit 5 Test
 Name

7 Which detail does the author use in paragraph 3 to explain the idea that
people have been visiting hot springs for a long time?
A The United States has several hot springs.
B Jefferson visited hot springs over 200 years ago.
C Some hot springs in Colorado are a higher temperature.
D Saratoga Springs are some of the most well–known hot springs
in the world.

8 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A Based on the information in the selection, what makes hot

springs hot?
A minerals
B the sun
C volcanoes
D Earth’s core

Part B Which sentence from the selection best supports your answer in
Part A?
A In some places on Earth, cracks carry heat from the Earth’s core into
small bodies of water on the Earth’s surface.
B The water is like a natural, hot bathtub called a hot spring.
C People have found comfort in hot springs for a long time.
D Saratoga Springs, New York, is home to the Roosevelt Mineral Baths,
some of the most well-known hot springs in the world.
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Unit 5 Test 91
9 In paragraph 2, the author states that the effects of soaking in a hot spring
include feeling —
A unwell
B less sore
C less relaxed
D more energetic

10 Based on the information in the selection, what can the reader infer about
why so many people travel to visit the Blue Lagoon hot springs?
A It is easy to get to them.
B They are inexpensive to visit.
C People are interested in their health benefits.
D Iceland is the only place hot springs exist.

Word Study
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
11 Which two of the following words share the same root as the
word generous?
A gentle
B genius
C general
D generation
E energy

12 Read the following sentences. Place an X next to the two sentences that Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

contain a word that shares a root with the word supportable.

We should clear the table after supper.

The polite man offered me his poncho.

X I will transport the cake to the party myself.

I was able to repair the broken pencil before the test.

X The portable building was set up at the construction site.

92 Unit 5 Test
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13 Which suffix can be added to the base word confide by dropping the
final e to create a noun that means “the condition or action of feeling
sure of one’s self”?
A -en
B -ed
C -ing
D -ence

14 Which suffix can be added to the word tight to mean “to become
tighter”?
A -ed
B -en
C -ing
D -ence
15 Circle the two VCCCV words that are correctly divided into syllables.

arc/tic play/ground
fort/ress empha/size
frig/hten fr/eckle

16 The correct way to divide disgrace into syllables is —

A di/sgrace
B disg/race
C dis/grace
D disgra/ce

17 Which prefix can be combined with the word appreciated to make a word
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that means “less appreciated”?

A dis-
B non-
C over-
D under-

Unit 5 Test 93
18 Which prefix can be combined with the word trust to make a word that
means “opposite of trust”?
A dis-
B non-
C over-
D under-

19 Which word part can be added to merge to make a word that means
“under the surface”?
A sub-
B fore-
C inter-
D astro-

20 Read the following information about the origin of the word interrupt.

from the Latin inter- + rumpere (meaning “to burst”)

This information helps the reader know that the word interrupt means —
A to go in front of something
B to move underneath something
C to start the process of doing something
D to cause a break in the process of something

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94 Unit 5 Test
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Conventions
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.

21 Read the following sentences. Place an X next to the two sentences that
need the relative adverb where to complete them.
The teacher knew the principal was happy.
X Mother asked him the pancake griddle was.
X Timothy wanted to know the party would be.
The student wondered his backpack was wet.
22 Which sentence is correct?
A Her eyes filled with tears when she cried.
B Thomas closed the door why it began to rain.
C My uncle knows when the garden hose is kept.
D The librarian told the students why she put the books.

23 Which sentence is correct?

A Our neighbor is Japanese.
B Our spanish class is taking a field trip.
C My sister is learning to speak german.
D The Spanish american war did not last long.

24 Which sentence is correct?

A While we were there, we visited a small Village.
B On our Summer Vacation we went to Guatemala.
C Our guide showed us the Mayan ruins near the village.
D The rough terrain and hot weather in guatemala made travel difficult.
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Unit 5 Test 95
25 Which sentence is correct?
A Aesop was a greek writer who lived around 600 B.C.
B One famous fable he is credited with writing is “The Tortoise and the Hare.”
C He is believed to have written many Fables that are still enjoyed today.
D In this story, A Hare tries unsuccessfully to outsmart A Tortoise
in a race.

26 Which book title is capitalized correctly?

A Little women
B Because Of Winn Dixie
C The Wonderful Wizard of Oz
D the Mouse and the Motorcycle

27 Which compound sentence is punctuated correctly?

A I don’t expect to eat a salad nor, do I want dessert.
B I have to earn money for a new bike, so I will be working Saturday.
C Mom said she wanted to leave early so she packed the car already.
D We will stop at the grocery store but, first we must pick up your sister.

28 What is the best way to combine the sentences below?

The student took notes. She typed them after class.
A The student took notes for, she typed them after class.
B The student took notes but she typed them after class.
C The student took notes yet, she typed them after class.
D The student took notes, and she typed them after class.
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96 Unit 5 Test
 Name

29 Read the following dialogue. Place an X next to two sentences that have
underlined phrases containing a punctuation error.
My father helped us plant a garden.
X My sister asked, “Why are we planting this now”?
“We can grow vegetables in the fall since we live in a warm
climate,” Dad said.
“What kinds of vegetables can we grow?” I asked.
X “Well, grab those seed packets, Dad said, “and I’ll show you!”

30 How does this sentence need to be changed?

“Excuse me, Mrs. Watson,” I said “I think you dropped this envelope.”
A Change “Excuse to Excuse,
B Change Watson,” to Watson,
C Change said to said,
D Change envelope.” to envelope.
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Unit 5 Test 97
 Writing
Read the “Family, Friends, and Water” passage set.

Source 1: Ocean Beach Fun

My family visits twice a year
A place I wish that we lived near
Ocean Beach, here we come
Ready to have some fun in the sun

5 We drove long hours through day and night

Just to see this beautiful sight
When we arrived, we were in awe
Of the beautiful beach that we saw

The sun and sand are everywhere

10 The waves crashing like a fanfare
The amusement park offers rides and games galore
Oh, how I love the ocean shore

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98 Unit 5 Test
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Source 2: Where Go the Boats?

Dark brown is the river,
Golden is the sand.
It flows along forever,
With trees on either hand.

5 Green leaves a-floating,

Castles of the foam,
Boats of mine a-boating—
Where will all come home?

On goes the river

10 And out past the mill,
Away down the valley,
Away down the hill.

Away down the river,

A hundred miles or more,
15 Other little children
Shall bring my boats ashore.
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Unit 5 Test 99
 Source 3: At the Seaside
When I was down beside the sea,
A wooden spade they gave to me
To dig the sandy shore.
My holes were hollow like a cup,
5 In every hole the sea came up,
Till it could hold no more.

Writing Prompt
Each poem describes people enjoying bodies of water. Use one of the poems
as a basis to write a poem about a time you visited a pool, lake, or another
body of water with your family or friends.
Use your time carefully so that you can
• read each poem;
• plan your writing;
• write your poem; and
• revise and edit.
Remember to include
• poetic elements;
• ideas and inspiration from the sources;
• stanzas that organize your poem in a logical way; and
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• descriptive words about people enjoying water.

Your poem should include multiple stanzas. Write your poem on a separate
sheet of paper.

100 Unit 5 Test

 Name

Reading Comprehension
Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Why Are Male Birds So Colorful?

1 Seeing a bright red bird outside your window is exciting. Its flashy
red color is beautiful and more interesting than dull brown feathers.
Usually, male birds have bright colors, while females do not. Why
is this?
2 Scientists identify three main reasons why male birds are so colorful.
The first is to attract a mate, the second is to help guard their
territories, and the third is to stay safe from predators.
3 Some studies show that females use the brightness of a male’s colors
to judge his health and strength. For example, the male Blackburnian
Warbler is a bird with orange-yellow feathers. This color comes, in
part, from eating the best plants. A female wants a mate who can
bring good food to her and their chicks. The brighter the colors, the
better the mate. To attract a female, the male warbler shows off the
orange of his throat as he sings.
4 Once the male bird has a family, he must protect it. Male sunbirds use
color to keep their nesting areas safe from other males. They have red
tufts of feathers on their bodies. They flash these dazzling colors
whenever another male comes near. The flashing says, “Stay out! A
male already lives here and will fight for this nest.”
5 Lastly, males may sport bright colors to stay safe. For example, male
parrots are brightly colored for protection from hawks. When the
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males fly around searching for food for their families, they are in
danger from hawks. Their bright green color helps them blend in with
leaves of the rain forest so they cannot be easily seen.

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1 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A What is the main idea of the selection?

A Birds are able to see many different colors.
B Birds can change their color based on the food they eat.
C Some birds use colors to disguise themselves from hawks.
D Male birds are more colorful than female birds for different reasons.

Part B Which details support the main idea of the selection?

A attracting a mate; guarding territory; staying safe from predators
B exciting; beautiful; more interesting
C singing; flashing dazzling colors; fighting
D changing from red to orange; searching for food; eating plants

2 Which of the following best describes the structure the author uses for
the selection?
A Cause and effect
B Stating fact and opinion
C Question-and-answer format
D Presenting a series of brief stories

3 Which sentences from the selection support the idea that a male’s color
shows that he can get food for his family?
A For example, the male Blackburnian Warbler is a bird with orange-
yellow feathers. This color comes, in part, from eating the best plants.
B Once the male bird has a family, he must protect it. Male sunbirds use
color to keep their nesting areas safe from other males. Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

C They flash these dazzling colors whenever another male comes near.
The flashing says, “Stay out! A male already lives here and will fight for
this nest.”
D For example, male parrots are brightly colored for protection from
hawks. When the males fly around searching for food for their families,
they are in danger from hawks.

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4 How do a male parrot’s feathers help him to stay safe?

A They help him blend in with the rain forest.
B They scare away predators, such as hawks.
C They create a large shadow that tricks predators.
D They make a parrot look larger and more dangerous.

5 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A By the end of the selection, the reader can infer that male birds —
A have many disadvantages compared to female birds
B create the nest in which baby birds are hatched
C rely on their colors as an important part of survival
D face many dangers when trying to select the ideal mate

Part B Which sentence from the selection best supports your answer in
Part A?
A Usually, male birds have bright colors, while females do not.
B A female wants a mate who can bring good food to her and their
chicks.
C Once the male bird has a family, he must protect it.
D For example, male parrots are brightly colored for protection from
hawks.
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End-of-Year Test 103

Directions: Read the selections. Then answer each question.

Camping with Dad

1 It was supposed to be a simple camping trip. We were going to do
some hiking, tell stories by the campfire, and sleep in tents. What
could go wrong?
2 Dad, my brother Alex, and I had just started our hike when Dad
spotted a lone bald eagle soaring overhead.
3 “Let’s follow it!” said Dad. Alex and I tramped behind him. It seemed
like we had been following the eagle for hours, when finally, the
powerful bird faded into the distance.
4 “Which way back?” I asked. Dad smiled and told us he knew just
where to go—he led the way. After a while, Alex and I started to give
each other some worried looks. Dad just kept going.
5 “Dad, how about looking at the map in your pocket?” Alex asked.
6 “I don’t need a silly map. I’ve got this!” Dad insisted as he led the way.
7 Then, we ran into a small pond and a tall grassy area…again! That
was when all three of us realized we were going in circles.
8 “Um…Dad, about that map,” said Alex. But there was no need,
because Dad already had the map out and was finding us a path
back to camp. Alex and I giggled and waited quietly for Dad to lead
the way.

The Map
On a day when the sun stands Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

Tall in the sky so blue,

There is a lost group in the grass
That does not have a clue.
5 They started out on one path,
First sure, but then in doubt.
It might just be the right time now
To take their hiking map out!

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6 Fill in the circles to outline the plot of the passage by putting the events in
the correct plot order.
Conflict Climax Resolution
Dad insisted he did not need a map. A B C
Dad had the map out and was
D E F
finding the path back to camp.
All three of us realized we were
G H I
going in circles.

7 How does the setting of “Camping with Dad” affect the plot of
the selection?
A The unfamiliar setting makes it possible for the characters to get lost.
B The numerous settings allow the characters to have many adventures.
C The comfortable setting adds a happy mood to the story, suggesting
everyone is safe.
D The unusual setting allows for humorous situations, which cause the
characters to laugh.

8 Which line does the author of “The Map” use to show that the group
is lost?
A Tall in the sky so blue,
B They started out on one path,
C First sure, but then in doubt.
D It might just be the right time now
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End-of-Year Test 105

9 Which words does the author use to show that “The Map” is set
outdoors? Circle the two words.
grass hiking
clue group
time circles

10 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A What do the details in paragraph 4 of “Camping with Dad”

emphasize about the narrator’s father?
A He is often forgetful and careless.
B He knows his way in the woods quite well.
C He has never gone camping in the woods before.
D He feels sure he can find his way back on his own.

Part B How does the narrator’s father change during the passage?
A He allows the children to lead the way.
B He realizes he needs help in finding the way.
C He decides never to go camping again.
D He promises to be more careful in the future.

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Directions: Read the selection. Then answer each question.

Allowances Teach Kids About Money

1 Children as young as six years old understand that it takes money to
buy things. Why not give children an allowance so they can truly learn
the value of money? That way, kids can earn the things they want
through work. Children benefit by having extra cash from chores.
Parents benefit because kids do dishes, take out garbage, and more.
2 Getting an allowance teaches kids how to manage money. Children
aren’t born knowing how to save. This is a skill that must be learned.
Children can learn to manage money by saving their allowance until
they have enough to buy something they want.
3 A second reason for an allowance is to encourage children to do chores
they may not enjoy doing. Some chores are less interesting than others,
and sometimes kids do not want to do their chores. A child may take his
or her dirty clothes to the laundry basket if this chore pays off.
4 Finally, parents are usually glad to pay for activities or clothes,
but they may not want to pay for items that are not necessities. A
child who earns an allowance can save money for things such as
video games.
5 Teaching children about money is important. If you agree, then
consider paying your child an allowance.

Possible Allowance by Child’s Age

Child’s Age Weekly Allowance Examples of Chores
Feed pet, vacuum room, fold laundry, put
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7 $2 away dishes, help parent prepare food,

empty indoor trash cans
All chores from above, wash dishes, rake
8 $3 leaves, dust, weed flowers, organize
cabinets, sweep/mop

End-of-Year Test 107

11 Which sentence best describes the author’s claim in this selection?
A Allowances help parents save money.
B Children should receive allowances.
C Allowances are more helpful for adults than for children.
D Children do not learn the value of money if they receive an allowance.

12 Select the two sentences that show problems presented in the selection.
X Kids do not know how to save money.
X Kids sometimes do not want to do their chores.
Kids have extra cash when they earn money from chores.
Parents do not have to pay for as much if their kids have money.
Young children understand that they need money to buy things.

13 This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B.

Part A What does the chart show?

A It shows how much money children can save by having an allowance.
B It shows how much money children should charge their parents for
individual chores.
C It shows possible allowances and chores to earn those allowances
at different ages.
D It shows one way that allowances can help children understand the
cost of objects.

Part B How does the chart support the main idea of the selection?
A It proves children can learn to save their money.
B It suggests fun ways for children to do their chores. Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

C It suggests age-appropriate chores to earn an allowance.

D It proves that children need money to spend as they please.

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14 Which sentence from the selection supports the idea that an allowance
might encourage a child to do an unpopular task?
A That way, kids can earn the things they want through work.
B Getting an allowance teaches kids how to manage money.
C A child may take his or her dirty clothes to the laundry basket if this
chore pays off.
D A child who earns an allowance can save money for things such as
video games.

15 Why is paragraph 2 important to the author’s argument?

A It encourages parents to use allowances to help get chores done.
B It proves that allowances can motivate children to do difficult jobs.
C It suggests that an allowance may help children learn how to
save money.
D It shows ways that allowances can help children learn the job of
accomplishing something.
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End-of-Year Test 109

Word Study
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
16 Which word best completes the sentence?
We watched three on television last night.
A show
B showes
C showing
D shows

17 Which words have the same sound as the ou sound in house? Circle the
two words.
brown stew
enjoy vault
loud world

18 Which of the following words shows the plural form of the word tooth?
A teeth
B tooth
C toothes
D tooths

19 Which of the following words refers to a “tool to look at something

quite small”?
A micrometer
B micron
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C microscope
D microwave

20 What does the root word port in the word portable tell you about
the word?
A It is a place to rest.
B It relates to water.
C It involves movement.
D It is found on a map.

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21 The word lighten means to —

A make lighter
B turn on a light
C make a light brighter
D shine light on one spot

22 Which two words have the same VCCCV pattern as the word transform?
A electronic
B insect
C partner
D fever
E excited

23 Which word means the same as “to believe that someone does not always
share true information”?
A distrust
B nonsense
C overwrite
D underdone

24 The word astronomy means the study of —

A oceans
B planes
C space
D weather

25 Which word has a word part that means “below”?

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A astronaut
B forefather
C interrupt
D submarine

End-of-Year Test 111

26 Which word has the same sound as the oo sound in food?
A author
B chew
C soil
D wood

27 Which word that has the same VV pattern as the word diary?
A danger
B meander
C spelling
D wonderful

28 Which words below can be used to explain a situation “when an object is

not seen”? Circle the two words.
disappear overdue
disaster overlook
nonfiction underdone

29 Which sentence below uses the correct form of a plural noun?

A The hockey team had only childs on it.
B The bicycleses were on sale yesterday.
C The outfielders played well during the game.
D The mooses walked along the trail in the woods.

30 Fill in the circles to identify how each singular noun is made plural.

Add -s Add -es Spelling change Copyright © Savvas Learning Company LLC. All Rights Reserved.

and add -es

sandwich A B C
life D E F
factory G H I
asteroid J K L
marsh M N O

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Conventions
Directions: Choose the best answer to each question.
31 Read the following sentence.
I listened to music while I did my homework.
The underlined word can best be described as a(n) —
A plural noun
B irregular verb
C relative adverb
D comparative adjective

32 The article ten ways to study for a test helped me study.

What is the correct way to write the title in the sentence above?
A Ten Ways to Study for a Test
B Ten Ways To Study For A Test
C “Ten Ways to Study for a Test”
D TEN WAYS TO STUDY FOR A TEST

33 Which sentence has correct punctuation?

A Greg shouted, “Watch out!”
B “When do we need to leave,” I asked?
C “That is my favorite type of dog”, Ines said.
D Markel said “The test has been moved to Thursday.”

34 Which punctuation mark is missing from the blank space in the

following sentence?
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Sara spends weekends playing soccer_ and she spends every

Wednesday playing guitar.
A comma
B period
C semicolon
D question mark

End-of-Year Test 113

35 Which two compound sentences contain correct punctuation?
A Halley’s Comet is a well-known comet, but, it is not the only comet in
the solar system.
B I watched the meteor shower last night, and I counted thirty-five
meteors in one hour.
C Mars is often called the red planet and Mars gets this nickname,
because of the rust in its soil.
D The moon appears to change shape during the month, yet the moon’s
changes are caused by reflected sunlight.
E Saturn is the planet known for its rings but, it is not the only planet
with rings.

36 Read the following sentence.

After soccer practice I came home and completed my homework
which took thirty minutes.
What is the correct way to write this sentence?
A After soccer practice, I came home and completed my homework
which, took thirty minutes.
B After soccer practice, I came home, and completed my homework
which took thirty minutes.
C After soccer practice, I came home, and completed my homework,
which took thirty minutes.
D After soccer practice, I came home and completed my homework,
which took thirty minutes.

37 Which sentence below shows correct capitalization?

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A I watched a game between the houston rockets and
dallas mavericks.
B I watched a game between the houston Rockets and
dallas Mavericks.
C I watched a game between the Houston Rockets and
Dallas Mavericks.
D I watched a game between the Houston Rockets And
Dallas Mavericks.

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38 Circle the word in the following sentence that is a preposition.

David went to the beach.

39 What is the correct spelling of watch as a plural noun?

A watches
B watchs
C watchses
D watchess

40 Read the following sentence.

Tomorrow, we to the museum and see an exhibit about space.
Which word or group of words best completes this sentence? Circle the
word or group of words.
go had went
will go will be going
went will have gone

41 Underline the word that completes each sentence with correct

subject-verb agreement.
My friends enjoys /enjoy walking together.
My brother and I am /are looking forward to our beach trip.
Our cat and dog plays /play together in the yard every night.
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End-of-Year Test 115

42 I read the book my favorite summer vacation for my book project.
Which of the following shows the correct capitalization for the
underlined title?
A My favorite Summer vacation
B My favorite summer vacation
C my Favorite Summer Vacation
D My Favorite Summer Vacation

43 Which sentence is correct?

A I want to go for a hike but, I want to swim first.
B I want to go for a hike, but I want, to swim first.
C I want to go for a hike but, I want to swim, first.
D I want to go for a hike, but I want to swim first.

44 Which sentence is correct?

A The lion is the larger type of five wild cats at the zoo.
B The book I read last week is more long than the book I read this week.
C The sun sets later in the day on the first day of summer than on the
first day of winter.
D The baseball team played more good this past season than they did
the past five seasons.

45 In order to make sure we could play basketball correctly the officials made
sure the basketball hoop was ten feet tall.
Which change needs to be made to the sentence above?
A Add a comma after In order
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B Add a comma after correctly
C Change basketball to Basketball
D Change feet to foot

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Writing
Read the “Memorable Adventures” passage set.

Source 1: Lindsey Vonn’s Success

1 Alpine skiing is downhill skiing with skis on snow-covered slopes. Since
1936, alpine skiing has been an event at the Winter Olympic Games.
Lindsey Vonn is a former American alpine skier. Since 2008, she has won
four women’s International Ski Federation (FIS) World Cup championships.
She is also the all-time leader in women’s FIS World Cup race victories
with a total of 82 wins.

2 Vonn is also an Olympian. At the 2010 Olympic Winter Games, she

became the USA’s first ever women’s downhill Olympic champion. Overall,
Vonn won three medals at the Olympic Winter Games.

3 Vonn started skiing at the age of three. She officially entered into ski races
at the age of seven. At age 16, she attended her first FIS World Cup. At
the age of 17, she competed in the 2002 Winter Olympics. Many of her
victories at the World Cup and Olympics were between 2008 and 2012.

4 Throughout her skiing career, Vonn suffered multiple injuries. Some of her
injuries required surgery. She recovered from many of the injuries rather
quickly and continued to compete. However, in the last eight months of
her career, she had three surgeries. She decided to retire from the sport at
the age of 34.

5 Since she retired, Vonn has dedicated her time to The Lindsey Vonn
Foundation. The foundation was established to provide academic and
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sports scholarships to students. It also helps children discover their

strengths and develop the courage to be successful in their lives. The
foundation receives donations to help determined children create stable
and secure lives. Vonn also hosts a camp that focuses on increasing
confidence in young girls.

6 Vonn’s success has gained her recognition on and off the slopes. She is a
classic example of a superstar athlete who has become an empowering
and charitable icon worldwide.

End-of-Year Test 117

Source 2: Dr. Ellen Ochoa and Outer Space
1 Dr. Ellen Ochoa is an engineer, a former Director of the Johnson Space
Center, and a former NASA astronaut. Dr. Ochoa was born in Los Angeles,
California in 1958. As a young girl, she was interested in music, math, and
science. She studied physics at San Diego State University. Then, she
earned a master’s degree and doctoral degree in electrical engineering
from Stanford University.

2 After graduating from college, she worked at a research laboratory and

studied optics. The field of optics looks at the interaction between light
and matter. Dr. Ochoa invented machines that could “see” and identify
objects. In 1988, Dr. Ochoa joined NASA as a research engineer at Ames
Research Center in California. At the research center, Dr. Ochoa
developed computer systems for space missions.

3 In 1990, Dr. Ochoa was accepted into NASA’s astronaut program. She
was the first Hispanic woman to travel to space. She completed four
missions between 1991 and 1999. On her missions, Dr. Ochoa studied the
Sun’s effect on Earth’s climate.

4 In 2013, Dr. Ochoa became the director of Johnson Space Center in

Houston, Texas. She was the second female director and the first Hispanic
director of the center. She held the position of director of Johnson Space
Center from January 2013 through May 2018. As a director, Dr. Ochoa
helped to maximize the use of the International Space Station. She also
helped develop the Orion spacecraft for future missions. Dr. Ochoa also
advocated for increased diversity and inclusion within the workforce at
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Johnson Space Center.

5 During her career, Dr. Ochoa received many awards from organizations,
professional societies, and schools. She was awarded the NASA
Distinguished Service Medal. This is the highest honor that one can
receive at NASA. She also received the NASA Presidential Distinguished
Rank Award. This award is given to senior executives in the federal
government.

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Source 3: Jane Goodall Loves Animals

1 Dr. Jane Goodall is a primatologist. A primatologist is a scientist who
studies primates. Dr. Goodall was born in 1934 in London. She developed
a love for animals after her father gave her a life-like toy chimpanzee
named Jubilee. Throughout her childhood, she was curious about animals
and how they behave in their natural habitat.

2 In the early 1960s, Dr. Goodall took a research trip to Gombe Stream
National Park in Tanzania. Tanzania is a country in Africa. While at Gombe
Stream National Park, she observed chimpanzees in the wild.
Chimpanzees are primates that are native to the forests and savannas
of Africa.

3 Dr. Goodall spent 50 years conducting research on chimpanzees. She did

most of her research at Gombe Stream National Park. She discovered that
chimpanzees can make and use tools. The chimpanzees use the tools to
get food and other resources. She also discovered that chimpanzees eat
both plants and animals. Originally, it was believed that chimpanzees only
ate plants. Since she lived among the chimpanzees, Dr. Goodall was able
to observe their social and family life, including their communication and
language.

4 Sadly, Dr. Goodall also discovered that the survival of chimpanzees was
at risk as a result of habitat destruction. Also, people known as traffickers
were illegally buying, selling, and trading chimpanzees. The traffickers
would use them as pets or as performers in shows. To raise awareness
and increase species conservation, Dr. Goodall started the Jane Goodall
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Institute in 1977. The institute aims to educate, conserve, and protect the
natural world and the species that live in it.

5 Dr. Goodall focuses on animal conservation and preserving wildlife for

future generations. She speaks out against the use of chimpanzees in
medical research. She has received many awards from governments,
nonprofit organizations, universities, and professional organizations. These
awards are for the efforts she has made to observe and protect all species.
Her research paved the way for a greater understanding of chimpanzees
and improved the relationships that exist between humans and animals.

End-of-Year Test 119

 Writing Prompt
Each passage is a biography of an individual who has experienced some
memorable adventures in their lifetime. Write a personal narrative about a
memorable adventure in your life.

Use your time carefully so that you can

• read each passage;
• plan your writing;
• write your response; and
• revise and edit.
Remember to include
• an introduction that introduces the characters and the setting;
• ideas and inspiration from the sources;
• relevant details about a clear sequence of events; and
• a conclusion that wraps up the personal narrative.
Your personal narrative should be a multiparagraph essay. Write your response
on a separate sheet of paper.

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120 End-of-Year Test