NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

1. 5.
If energy (E), velocity (v) and time (T) are chosen as theA block A of mass m rests on a horizontal table. A light
1

fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula of surface string connected to it passes over a frictionless pulley at the
tension will be: edge of the table and from its other end, another block B of
-2
1. [Ev T ]-1 mass m2 is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction
-1
2. [Ev T ]-2 between the block and the table is μ . When the block A is
k

-2 -2 sliding on the table, the tension in the string is:

3. [Ev T ]
4. [E-2v-1T-3] ( m2 +μk m1 ) g

2. 1. ( m1 +m2 )

A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 10 kmph and 2. ( m2 −μk m1 ) g

a ship B 100 km South of A, is moving Northwards with a ( m1 +m2 )

speed of 10 kmph. The time after which the distance3.

m1 m2 ( 1−μk ) g

( m1 +m2 )
between them becomes the shortest is: m1 m2 ( 1+μk )

1. 0 h 4. m1 +m2
g

2. 5 h
3. 5√2h
4. 10√2h 6.
Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants kP and
kQ, such that kP> kQ. They are stretched, first by the same
3. amount (case a), then by the same force (case b). The work
A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motiondone by the springs W and W are related as, in case (a)
P Q
such that its velocity varies according to v(x)  = βx and case (b), respectively.
−2n

where, β and n are constants and x is the position of the

particle. The acceleration of the particle as a function of x is 1.  W   =  W  ;  W   >  W
P Q P Q

given by- 2.  W   =  W  ;  W   =  W
P Q P Q
1. −2nβ x 2 −2n−1

3.  W   >  W  ;  W   <  W
P Q P Q
2. −2nβ x 2 −4n−1

4.  W   <  W  ;  W   <  W
3. −2β x 2 −2n+1 P Q P Q

4. −2nβ x 2 −4n+1

7.
A block of mass 10 kg, moving in the x-direction with a
4.
constant speed of 10 ms-1 is subjected to a retarding force F
Three blocks A, B, and C of masses 4 kg, 2 kg, and 1 kg = 0.1x J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m. Its final
respectively, are in contact on a frictionless surface, as K.E. will be:
shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4kg block,
then the contact force between A and B is: 1. 475 J
2. 450 J
3. 275 J
4. 250 J

1. 2N
8.
2. 6N A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a
constant power k watts. If the particle starts from rest, the
3. 8N
force on the particle at time t is
4. 18N 1. √ mk
t
−1
/2

2. √mkt −1
/2

3. √2mkt −1
/2

4. √mkt
1

2
−1
/2

Page: 1
 NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

9. 12.
Two particles of masses m1, m2 move with initial velocitiesThree identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius r
u1 and u2. On collision, one of the particles get excited toare placed as shown in the figure. Consider an axis XX',
which is touching two shells and passing through the
higher level, after absorbing energy E. If final velocities of
diameter of the third shell. The moment of inertia of the
particles be v1 and v2, then we must have
system consisting of these three spherical shells about the
XX' axis is:
1.

2.

3.

4.

10. 1. mr11 2

A rod of weight w is supported by two parallel knife 2. 3mr 2

edges A and B and is in equilibrium in a horizontal 3. mr 16 2

5
position. The knives are at a distance d from each other. 4. 4mr 2

The Centre of mass of the rod is at distance x from A.

The normal reaction on A is:
1.  
wx

d
13.
wd
Kepler's third law states that square of the period of
2.  
x revolution (T) of a planet around the sun, is proportional to
3.  
w ( d−x )
the third power of average distance r between the sun and
planet i.e. T2= Kr3, here K is constant. If the masses of the
x

w ( d−x )
4.  
d
sun and planet are M and m respectively, then as per
Newton's law of gravitation, the force of attraction between
11.
them is F = , here G is gravitational constant. The
GMm

A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal plane r

2

with velocity v0 at a radius R0. The mass is attached to arelation between G and K is described as:
2
string that passes through a smooth hole in the plane as 1. GK = 4π
shown. 2. GMK = 4π2
3. K = G
4. K = I

14.
Two spherical bodies of masses M and 5M and radii R
and 2R are released in free space with initial separation
between their centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each
other due to gravitational force only, then the distance
covered by the smaller body before the collision is:
The tension in the string is increased gradually and finally m
moves in a circle of radius . The final value of the kinetic 1. 2.5 R
R0

energy is: 2. 4.5 R

1. mv 2
0
3. 7.5 R
2. mv1

4
2
0

3. 2mv 2 4. 1.5 R
0

4. 1

2
mv
2
0

Page: 2
 NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

15. 19.
On observing light from three different stars P, Q, and R, itThe figure below shows two paths that may be taken by gas
was found that the intensity of the violet colour is maximum to go from state A to state C.
in the spectrum of P, the intensity of the green colour is
maximum in the spectrum of R and the intensity of the red
colour is maximum in the spectrum of Q. If TP, TQ and
TR are the respective absolute temperatures of P, Q, and R,
then it can be concluded from the above observations that:
1. TP> TQ> TR
2. TP> TR> TQ
3. TP< TR< TQ
4. TP< TQ< TR
16.
The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The
compressibility of water is 45.4 x 10-11 Pa-1 and density of In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system, and in-
water is 103kg/m 3. What fractional compression of water process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system. The heat
will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean? absorbed by the system in the process AC will be:
1. 0.8 x 10 -2

2. 1.0 X 10-2 1. 380 J

2. 500 J
3. 1.2 x 10-2
3. 460 J
4. 1.4 x 10-2 4. 300 J
17.
The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at temperatures
100 °C and 110 °C. The rate of heat flow in the rod is found20.
to be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 200
A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of η = 1
as a heat
°C and 210 °C, the rate of heat flow will be: 10

1. 44.0 J/s engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the

2. 16.8 J/s system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the
3. 8.0 J/s reservoir at a lower temperature is:
4. 4.0 J/s
18. 1. 100 J
A wind with a speed of 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof of a2. 99 J
3. 90 J
house. The area of the roof is 250 m2. Assuming that the
4. 1 J
pressure inside the house is atmospheric pressure, the force
exerted by the wind on the roof and the direction of the force
will be: (ρ =  1. 2  kg /m )
air
3

1. 4 x 105 N, downwards
2. 4 x 105 N, upwards
3. 2.4 X 105 N, upwards
4. 2.4 X 105 N, downwards

Page: 3
 NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

21. 25.
One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transitionThe fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length
from A to B along a path AB as shown in the figure. 20 cm is equal to the second overtone of an organ pipe open
at both ends. The length of the organ pipe open at both ends
is:

1. 80 cm
2. 100 cm
3. 120 cm
4. 140 cm

26.
The change in internal energy of the gas during the transitionA parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected
is: to a cell of emf V and then disconnected from it. A dielectric
slab of dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air gap of
1. 20 kJ the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following is
2. - 20 kJ incorrect?
3. 20 J
4. -12 kJ 1. The potential difference between the plates decreases K
times

22. 2. The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times

in terms of degrees of 3. The change in energy stored is CV ( − 1)
1 2 1
Cp
The ratio of the specific heats Cv
= γ 2 K

freedom(n) is given by: 4. The charge on the capacitor is not conserved

27.
1. (1 + ) 1

n
The electric field in a certain region is acting radially
2. (1 + n
)
outward and is given by E = Aa. A charge contained in a
3
sphere of radius 'a' centered at the origin of the field will be
3. (1 + 2

n
) given by
2
1.  4πεo Aa
4. (1 + n

2
)
2
2.  εo Aa
23. 3

When two displacements represented by y1 =asin(ωt) and 3.  4πε Aa o

3
y2 =bcos(ωt) are superimposed, the motion is: 4.  ε Aa o

1. not a simple harmonic

2. simple harmonic with amplitude a 28.
b
A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 8Ω. The
3. simple harmonic with amplitude √a + b 2 2

resistance that must be connected in series with the wire and

( a+b )
4. simple harmonic with amplitude 2
an accumulator of emf 2V, so as to get a potential gradient 1
24. mV per cm on the wire is
A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its 1. 32 Ω
velocities at distances x1 and x2 from the mean position are 2. 40 Ω
v1 and v2, respectively. Its time period is: 3. 44 Ω
4. 48 Ω
2 2
x +x

1.2π√ 1

2
2

2
v +v
1 2

2 2
x −x
2. 2π√ 2

2
1

2
v −v
1 2

2 2
v +v
3. 2π√ 1

2
2

2
x +x
1 2

2 2
v −v

4. 2π√
1 2

2 2
x −x
1 2

Page: 4
 NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

29. 32.
A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5 R and 3R An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes n
respectively as shown in the figure. When some potentialrotations per second. The magnetic field produced at the
difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter centre has a magnitude
readings are VA, VB and VC respectively.
Then, (1)μ0ne/2πr

(2)zero

(3)n2e/r
1. VA = VB = VC
2. VA ≠ VB = VC
3. VA = VB ≠ VC (4)μ0ne/2r
4. VA ≠ VB ≠ VC
30.
33.
Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section, a
A conducting square frame of side 'a' and a long straight
constant potential difference is applied. The quantity which
wire carrying current I are located in the same plane as
remains constant along the conductor is :
shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a
1. current density
constant velocity 'v'. The emf induced in the frame will be
2. current
proportional to:
3. drift velocity
4. electric field
31.
A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in
adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are very long and
parallel to X -axis while semicircular portion of radius R is
lying in Y –Z plane. Magnetic field at point O is

1. 1

x
2

2. 1

2
( 2x−a )

3. 1

2
( 2x+a )

4. 1

( 2x−a ) ( 2x+a )

1. B =

2. B = -

3. B = -

4. B =

Page: 5
 NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

34. 38.
A resistance ' R' draws power 'P' when connected to an AC In a double-slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and
source. If an inductance is now placed in series with thethe screen is placed 1 m away. Monochromatic light of
resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes 'Z'wavelength 500nm is used. What will be the width of each
the power drawn will be slit for obtaining ten maxima of double-slit within the central
maxima of a single-slit pattern?
1. 0.2 mm
1. 2. 0.1 mm
3. 0.5 mm
4. 0.02 mm
2.

39.
3. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of
4. P the material of the prism is cot(A /2). The angle of minimum
deviation is :
1. 180° - 3A
2. 180° - 2A
35.
3. 90° - A
Radiation of energy 'E' falls normally on a perfectly
4. 180° + 2A
reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface
is (c = velocity of light) :
40.
1. E

c
A certain metallic surface is illuminated with
2. 2E

c monochromatic light of wavelength λ.The stopping potential

3. 2E

c
2
for photoelectric current for this light is 3V0. If the same
4.
E

2
surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2λ, the
stopping potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for this
c

surface for the photoelectric effect is

36. 1. 6λ
Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses (refractive 2. 4λ
index = 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20cm are 3.
λ

placed with their convex surfaces in contact at centre. The 4. λ

6
intervening space is filled with the oil of refractive index 1.7.
The focal length of the combination is :
1. -20 cm
2. -25 cm
3. -50 cm
4. 50 cm

37.
For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength,
'λ'diffraction is produced by a single slit whose width 'a' is

much greater than the wavelength of the light. If 'D' is the

distance of the screen from the slit, the width of the central
maxima will be
1. 2Dλ

2. Dλ

3. Da

4. 2Da

Page: 6
 NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

41. 44.
Which of the following figures represent the variation of theIf in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10 V is applied
particle momentum and the associated de-Broglieas shown,
wavelength?

1. then the output across RL will be:

1.
2.

2.

3. 3.

4.

4. 45.
Which logic gate is represented by the following
combination of logic gates?
42.
Consider 3rd orbit of He+ (Helium), using non-relativistic
approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be (given Z
= 2 and h (Planck's constant)= 6.6 x 10-34 J-s)
1. 2.92 x106 m/s
2. 1.46 x106 m/s
3. 0.73 x106 m/s
4. 3.0 x108 m/s
43. 1. OR
If the radius of Al nucleus is taken to be RAl, then the radius 2. NAND
of Te 125
53
nucleus is near. 3. AND
1
4. NOR
1. (
3
53

13
) RAl
46.
2. 5
RAl
Which of the following species contains equal number of σ
3
and π bonds?
3. 3

5
RAl
1. HCO −

4. ( 13

53
)RAl 2. XeO 4

3. (CN) 2

4. CH2(CN)2

Page: 7
 NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

47. 52.
Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation
The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of of iron?
electrons. In which order do their radii increase? 1. Rusting of iron sheets
+ 2+ 2. Decolourisation of blue CuSO4 solution by iron
1.   Ar   <  K   <   Ca

2+ +
3. Formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe
2.   Ca   <   Ar   <  K

2+ +
4. Liberation of H2 from steam by iron a high temperature
3.   Ca   <  K   <   Ar

+ 2+
4.  K   < Ar   <   Ca

48. 53.
Which of the following biologically important ions is also a
constituent of sodium pump? Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and
isostructural?
1. Ca2+
2. Mg2+ 1. CO ,   SO
2− 2−

3 3

3. K +
2. ClO ,   CO − 2−

4. Fe2+
3 3

49. 3. SO ,   NO
2−

3
−

"Metals are usually not found as nitrates in their ores". Out

of the following two (I and II) 4. ClO ,   SO −

3
2−

reasons which is/are true for the above observation? 54.

Which of the following options represents the correct bond
I . Metal nitrates are highly unstable. order?
1. O < O < O
2+

2
2
+

II. Metal nitrates are highly soluble in water. 2.

− +
O >  O2 < O
2 2

1. I and II are true

2. I and II are false 3. O < O < O
2
+

2
2+

3. I is false but II is true 4. O < O < O

2+ + −

2 2 2
4. I is true but II is false 55.
50. Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some properties
Solubility of the alkaline earth's metal sulphates in water in common. Which property is shown by one of these
decreases in the sequence compounds, but not by the other?
1. Mg>Ca>Sr>Ba 1. Forms' acid-rain
2. Ca>Sr>Ba>Mg 2. Is a reducing agent
3. Sr>Ca>Mg>Ba 3. Is soluble in water
4. Ba>Mg>Sr>Cr 4. Is used as a food-preservative

51. 56.
Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following
pairs of elements have nearly same atomic radii? (Numbers
in the parenthesis are atomic numbers).
1. Ti (22) and Zr (40)
2. Zr (40) and Nb (41) Treatment of cyclopentanone with methyl
3. Zr (40) and Hf (72) lithium gives which of the following species?
4. Zr (40) and Ta (73) (1) Cyclopentanonyl cation
(2) Cyclopentanonyl radical
(3) Cyclopentanonyl biradical
(4) Cyclopentanonyl anion

Page: 8
 NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

57. 62.
Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal solution?
Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of
the following? 1.
1. NO 2
2.
2. NO −
2
3.
3. NO +

4.
2

4. NO 3
−

58.
63.
Magnetic moment 2.84 BM is given by (At. no. Ni = 28, A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in the ratio of 1
Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27) : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two gases in the
2+ mixture?
1.   Ni
3+
1. 1:4
2.   Ti
2. 4:1
3. 16:1
2+
3.   Cr

4.   Co
2+
4. 2:1
59.
Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes
64.
with ammonia. Which of the following will not give test for
A given metal crystallizes out with a cubic structure having
chloride ions with silver nitrate at 25 °C?
edge length of 361 pm. If there are four metal atoms in one
unit cell, what is the radius of one atom?
1. CoCl3. 3NH3
1. 40 pm
2. CoCl3. 4NH3 2. 127 pm
3. CoCl3. 5NH3 3. 80 pm
4. CoCl3. 6NH3 4. 108 pm
65.
60.
When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a
Which of these statements about [Co(CN)6]3- is true? reaction, its half-life period is not affected. The order of the
1. [Co(CN)6]3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in areaction is
low-spin configuration. 1. zero
2. first
2. [Co(CN)6]3- has four unpaired electrons and will be ina3. second
low-spin configuration. 4. more than zero but less than first
3. [Co(CN)6]3- has four unpaired electrons and will be ina66.
high-spin configuration. If the value of an equilibrium constant for a particular
12
4. [Co(CN)6]3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in areaction is 1.6 x 10 , then at equilibrium the system will
contain
high-spin configuration. 1. all reactants
2. mostly reactants
3. mostly products
61. 4. similar amounts of reactants and products
The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from67.
the slope of which of the following graphs? A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like
1. ln K vs T hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical energy is
2. ln vs T
K

T
known as
3. ln K vs I
1. fuel cell
T
2. electrolytic cell
4. ln   vs  
T I

K T 3. dynamo
4. Ni-Cd cell

Page: 9
 NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

68. 73.
The boiling point of 0.2 mol kg solution of X in water is The KSP of Ag2CrO4, AgCl, AgBr and Agl are respectively,
-1
greater than equimolal solution of Y in water. Which one of 1.1 x 10-12, 1.8 x 10-10, 5.0 x 10-13, 8.3 x 10-17. Which one
the following statements is true in this case? of the following salts will precipitate last if AgN03 solution
1. X is undergoing dissociation in water. is added to the solution containing equal moles ofNaCl,
2. Molecular mass of X is greater than the molecular mass of NaBr, Nal and Na Cr0 ?
2 4
Y.
1. Agl
3. Molecular mass of X is less he molecular mass of y.
2. AgCl
4. Y is undergoing dissociation in water while X undergoes
3. AgBr
no change.
4. Ag2CrO4

69.
Which one of the following electrolytes has the same value 74.
of van't Hoff factor (i) as that of Al2(SO4)3 (if all are 100% Which property of colloidal solution is independent of
charge on the colloidal particles?
ionized)?
1. Coagulation
1. K2SO4
2. Electrophoresis
2. K3[Fe(CN)6] 3. Electroosmosis
3. Al(NO3)3 4. Tyndall effect
4. K4[Fe(CN)6]
70.
75.
The number of d -electrons in Fe2+ (z = 26) is not equal to
Which of the following statements is correct for a reversible
the number of electrons in which one of the following?
process in a state of equilibrium?
1. s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
1. ΔG = - 2.30RT log K
2. p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)
2. ΔG = 2.30RT log K
3. d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
4. p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10) 3. ΔGo = - 2.30RT log K
4. ΔGo = 2.30RT log K
76.
71. Bithional is generally added to the soaps as an additive to
function as a/an
The correct order of bond order in the following species 1. softener
is 2. dryer
3. buffering agent
1. O > O > O
2+ + −

2 2 2
4. antiseptic
2. O < O < O
2+

2
−

2
+

3. O +

2
> O
−

2
< O
2+

2 77.
The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic
4. O < O > O
−

2
+

2
2+

2 medium produces
1. p-aminophenol
2. azoxybenzene
72. 3. azobenzene
The angular momentum of electrons in d orbital is equal to 4. aniline
1. √6 h
2. √2 h
3. 2√3 h
4. 0 h

Page: 10
 NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

78. 81.
In Duma's method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.25g of an The reaction of C6H5CH =CHCH3 with HBr produces
organic compound gave 40 mL of nitrogen collected at 300
K temperature and 725 mm pressure. If the aqueous tension 1. C H CH CH CH
6 5 2 3

at 300 K is 25 mm, the percentage of nitrogen in the |

compound is Br

1. 17.36
2. C H CH CH CH
2. 18.20 6 5 2
|
3

3. 16.76 Br

4. 15.76
3. C H CH CH CH Br
6 5 2 2 2

79.

In which of the following compounds, the C—Cl bond

ionization shall give most stable carbonium ion?
4.

1.

82.
A single compound of the structure is

2.

obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the following cyclic

compounds?
3.

1.

4.
2.

80.
The reaction,
CH3 CH3
3.
| |

CH3 − C − ONa + CH3 CH2 Cl −−−→ CH3 − C − O − CH2 − CH3

| − NaCl |

CH3 CH3

4.
is called
1. Williamson synthesis
2. Williamson continuous etherification process
3. Etard reaction
4. Gatterman-Koch reaction

Page: 11
 NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

83. 86.
What is the product formed when cyclopentanone reacts The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as below has
with methyl lithium?
1. Cyclopentanonyl anion
2. Cyclopentanonyl cation
3. Cyclopentanonyl radical
4. Cyclopentanonyl biradical
1. 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
2. 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
84. 3. 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
Consider the following compounds 4. 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond

87.
Given,

hyperconjugation occurs in
1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and III

Which of the given compounds can exhibit tautomerism?

85. 1. l and ll
Which of the following is the most correct electron
displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take place? 2. l and lll
3. ll and lll
4. l, ll and lll

1.

2.

3.

4.

Page: 12
 NEET 2015 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

88. 90.
Given,
(I)
The total number of pi- bond electrons in the following
structure is

(II)

1. 4
2. 8
3. 12
4. 16

(III)

91.
An organic compound X having molecular formula C5H10O
yields phenyl hydrazone and gives negative response to the
iodoform test and Tollen's test. It produces n-pentane on
reduction. X could be
1. pentanal
The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be2. 2-pentanone
in the order as 3. 3-pentanone
1. I > II > III 4. n-amyl alcohol
2. III > II > I
3. II > III > I
4. II > I > III 92.
Which one of the following matches is correct?
89.
Biodegradable polymer which can be produced from glycine
and aminocaproic acid is
1. nylon 2-nylon 6
2. PHBV
3. buna-N
4. nylon-6, 6

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

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93. 99.
Read the following five statements (I to V) and select the
option with all correct statements.
I. Mosses and lichens are the first organisms to colonise a
bare rock. is the
II. Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte. floral formula of
III. Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM. 1. Allium
IV. Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas2. Sesbania
in pteridophytes it is sporophytic. 3. Petunia
V. In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are4. Brassica
present within sporangia located on sporophyte.
1. I, III and IV
2. II, III and IV
3. I, IV and V 100.
4. II, III and V A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of
94. :
In which of the following gametophyte is not independent (1) Scattered vascular bundles
free-living? (2) Vasculature without cambium
1. Funaria (3) Cambium sandwiched between phloem and xylem along
2. Marchantia the radius
3. Pteris (4) Open vascular bundles
4. Pinus 101.
Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of
1. tulip
2. lndigofera
95. 3. Aloe
Which one of the following statements is wrong? 4. tomato
1. Algin and carrageenan are products of algae 102.
2. Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria Perigynous flowers are found in
3. Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food 1. guava
4. Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae 2. cucumber
3. China rose
4. rose
96. 103.
The guts of cow and buffalo possess Leaves become modified into spines in
1. Fucus sp 1. Opuntia
2. Chlorella sp 2. pea
3. methanogens 3. onion
4. cyanobacteria 4. silk cotton
104.
The structures that are formed by stacking of organised
97. flattened membranous sack in the chloroplasts are
Male gametes are flagellated in 1. cristae
1. Polysiphonia 2. grana
2. Anabaena 3. stroma lamellae
3. Ectocarpus 4. stroma
4. Spirogyra

105.
98. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to
Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed one end are
because 1. metacentric
1. a bundle sheath surrounds each bundle 2. acrocentric
2. cambium is absent 3. telocentric
3. there are no vessels with perforations 4. sub-metacentric
4. xylem is surrounded all around by phloem

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106. 112.
Select the correct matching in the following pairs. In a ring girdled plant
1. Smooth ER-Oxidation of phospholipids 1. the shoot dies first
2. Smooth ER-Synthesis of lipids 2. the root dies first
3. Rough ER-Synthesis of glycogen 3. the shoot and root die together
4. DRough ER-Oxidation of fatty acids 4. Neither root nor shoot will die
107.
True nucleus is absent in
1. Anabaena 113.
2. Mucor Typical growth curve in plants is
3. Vaucheria 1. sigmoid
4. Volvox 2. linear
3. stair-steps shaped
4. parabolic
108.
Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in
prokaryotes? 114.
1. Phosphate granule Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation for
2. Cyanophycean granule stomatal movements?
3. Glycogen granule 1. Transpiration
4. Polysome 2. Potassium influx and efflux
3. Starch hydrolysis
4. Guard cell photosynthesis
109.
Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in plants
by 115.
1. pulling it upward The hilum is a scar on the
2. pulling and pushing it, respectively 1. seed, where funicle was attached
3. pushing it upward 2. fruit, where it was attached to pedicel
4. pushing and pulling it, respectively 3. fruit, where style was present
4. seed, where micropyle was present

110.
Minerals known to be required in large amounts for plant 116.
growth include Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is
1. phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium genetically similar to autogamy?
2. calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper 1. Geitonogamy
3. potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron 2. Xenogamy
4. magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc 3. Apogamy
4. Cleistogamy

111.
What causes a green plant exposed to the light on only one117.
side, to bend toward the source of light as it grows? Which one of the following statements is not true?
1. Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis 1. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and they are used in the
2. Green plants seek light because they are phototropic form of tablets and syrups
3. Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to grow 2. Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and
faster bronchial afflictions in some people
4. Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating greater3. The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete foul odour
cell elongation there to attract them
4. Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from
flowers

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118. 124.
Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another
1. hollow style is called
2. solid style 1. inversion
3. dry stigma 2. duplication
4. wet stigma 3. translocation
4. crossing over

119.
In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through 125.
1. rhizome Multiple alleles are present
2. offsets 1. on different chromosomes
3. bulbils 2. at different loci on the same chromosome
4. runners 3. at the same locus of the chromosome
120. 4. on non-sister chromatids
Which of the following are the important floral rewards to 126.
the animal pollinators? Which body of the Government of India regulates GM
1. Colour and large size of flower research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public
2. Nectar and pollen grains services?
3. Floral fragrance and calcium crystals 1. Bio-safety committee
4. Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates 2. Indian Council of Agricultural Research
3. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
4. Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation
121.
How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were
studied by Mendel in his experiments? 127.
1. Five In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as pro-toxin
2. Six is converted into active toxin due to
3. Eight 1. alkaline pH of the insect gut
4. Seven 2. acidic pH of the insect gut
3. action of gut microorganisms
4. presence of conversion factors in insect gut
122.
Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation
in the population of a sexually reproducing organism? 128.
1. Transduction The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/tolerant to
2. Chromosomal aberrations 1. fungi
3. Genetic drift 2. bacteria
4. Recombination 3. insects
4. herbicides

123.
A technique of micro propagation is 129.
1. somatic hybridization DNA is not present in
2. somatic embryogenesis 1. chloroplast
3. protoplast fusion 2. ribosomes
4. embryo rescue 3. nucleus
4. mitochondria
130.
Which of the following enhances or induces fusion of
protoplasts?
1. Sodium chloride and potassium chloride
2. Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate
3. IAA and kinetin
4. IAA and gibberellins

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131. 137.
The UN Conference of Parties on climate change in the year Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible
2011 was held in for diversification of insects on land
1. Poland 1. Segmentation
2. South Africa 2. Bilateral symmetry
3. Peru 3. Exoskeleton
4. Qatar 4. Eyes

132. 138.
Vertical distribution of different species occupying different Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show
levels in a biotic community is known as viviparity?
1. divergence 1. Ancylostoma duodenale
2. stratification 2. Enterobius vermicularis
3. zonation 3. Trichinella spiralis
4. pyramid 4. Ascaris lumbricoides
133. 139.
In which of the following both pairs have correct
combination? Which of the following represent the correct combination
1. In situ conservation/National park without any exception?
Ex situ conservation/Botanical garden
2. In situ conservation/Cryopreservation
Ex situ conservation/Wildlife sanctuary
3. In situ conservation/Seed bank
Ex situ conservation/ National park
4. In situ conservation/Tissue culture
Ex situ conservation/Sacred groves

134.
Secondary succession takes place on/in
1. bare rock
2. degraded forest
3. newly created pond
4. newly cooled lava

135.
The mass of living material at a tropic level at a particular
time is called 1. a
1. gross primary productivity
2. standing state 2. b
3. net primary productivity 3. c
4. standing crop
136. 4. d
In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic matter
140.
during photosynthesis is termed as
Which of the following animals is not viviparous?
1. net primary productivity
1. Flying fox (bat)
2. gross primary productivity
2. Elephant
3. secondary productivity
3. Platypus
4. net productivity
4. Whale

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141. 146.
Erythropoiesis starts in Match the following column I with column II.
1. kidney
2. liver
3. spleen
4. red bone marrow

142. 1. A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4

The terga sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by
1. cementing glue 2. A-2 B-3 C-5 D-4
2. muscular tissue 3. A-1 B-2 C-5 D-4
3. arthrodial membrane
4. cartilage 4. A-2 B-3 C-4 D-5

143. 147.
Nuclear envelope is derivative of A somatic cell that has just completed the S-phase of its cell
1. smooth endoplasmic reticulum cycle, as compared to gamete of the same species has
2. membrane of Golgi complex 1. Twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount
3. microtubules of DNA
4. rough endoplasmic reticulum 2. same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of
DNA
3. twice the number of chromosomes and four times the
144. amount of DNA
Cytochromes are found in 4. four times the number of chromosomes and twice the
1. matrix of mitochondria amount of DNA
2. outer wall of mitochondria
3. cristae of mitochondria
4. lysosomes 148.
Which of the following statement is not correct?
1. Brunner's glands are present in the submucosa of stomach
145. and secrete pepsinogen
Which one of the following statements is incorrect? 2. Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of intestine and
1. A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with the enzymesecrete mucus
to form an enzyme-inhibitor. 3. Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of stomach and
2. In competitive inhibition the inhibitor molecule is not secrete HCI.
chemically changed by the enzyme. 4. Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete
3. The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate of carboxypeptidase
breakdown of the enzyme-substrate complex.
4. The presence of the competitive inhibitor decreases the
km of the enzyme for the substrate. 149.
Gastric juice 'of infants contains
1. maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
2. nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
3. pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
4. amylase, rennin, pepsinogen

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150. 156.
When you hold your breath which of the following gasWhich of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly
changes in blood would first lead to the urge to breathe? paired with its function
1. Falling O2 concentration 1. Medulla oblongata-Homeostatic control
2. Rising CO2 concentration 2. Cerebellum-Language comprehension
3. Corpus callosum-Communication between the left and
3. Falling CO2 concentration
right cerebral cortices
4. Rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration 4. Cerebrum-Calculation and contemplation
151.
Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during
1. systole of the left atrium 157.
2. diastole of the right ventricle A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down even in
3. systole of the left ventricle the total darkness because of
4. diastole of the right atrium 1. cochlea
2. vestibular apparatus
3. tectorial membrane
152. 4. organ of Corti
Which one of the following is correct ?
(1) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen
(2) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC 158.
(3) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural roles is
(4) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes 1. melatonin
153. 2. calcitonin
Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron3. epinephrine
will result in 4. cortisol
1. more diluted urine
2. more concentrated urine
3. no change in quality and quantity of urine 159.
4. no urine formation Which of the following does not favour the formation of
large quantities of dilute urine?
1. Alcohol
154. 2. Caffeine
Sliding filament theory can be best explained as 3. Renin
1. when myofilaments slide pass each other actin filaments4. Atrial-natriuretic factor
shorten while myosin filament do not shorten
2. actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each
other 160.
3. actin and myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide Capacitation refers to changes in the
pass each other 1. sperm before fertilization
4. when myofilament slide pass each other myosin filament2. ovum before fertilization
shorten while actin filaments do not shorten 3. ovum after fertilization
4. sperm after fertilization

155.
Glenoid cavity articulates 161.
1. clavicle with acromion Which of these is not an important component of initiation
2. scapula with acromion of parturition in humans?
3. clavicle with scapula 1. Increase in oestrogen and progesterone ratio
4. humerus with scapula 2. Synthesis of prostaglandins
3. Release of oxytocin
4. Release of prolactin

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162. 168.
Which of the following viruses is not transferred throughA man with blood group 'A' marries a woman with blood
semen of an infected male? group 'B'. What are all the possible blood groups of their off
1. Hepatitis-B virus springs?
2. Human immunodeficiency virus 1. A and B
3. Chikungunya virus 2. A, B and AB
4. Ebola virus 3. A, B, AB and O
4. Only O

163.
Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is 169.
normally diploid? Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli that
1. Primary polar body involves the lac I gene products is
2. Spermatid 1. positive and inducible because it can be induced by
3. Spermatogonia lactose
4. Secondary polar body 2. negative and inducible because repress or protein prevents
transcription
3. negative and repressible because repress or protein
164. prevents transcription
Hysterectomy is surgical removal of 4. feedback inhibition because excess of β galactosidase can
1. uterus swith off transcription.
2. prostate gland
3. vas deference
4. mammary glands 170.
In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded 17% of the
bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the
165. other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are
Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease? 1. G/34%, N24.5%, T/24.5%
1. Syphilis 2. G/17%, N16.5%, T/32.5%
2. Acquired lmmuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) 3. G/17%, N33%, T/33%
3. Trichomoniasis 4. G/8.5%, N50%, T/24.5%
4. Encephalitis

171.
166. Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?
An abnormal human baby with 'XXX' sex chromosomes was1. Homo erectus
born due to : 2. Homo sapiens
(1) formation of abnormal ova in the mother 3. Homo neanderthalensis
(2) fusion of two ova and one sperm 4. Homo habilis
(3) fusion of two sperms and one ovum
(4) formation of abnormal sperms in the father
167. 172.
Alleles are A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium if
1. different phenotype 1. individuals mate selectively
2. true breeding homozygotes 2. there are no mutations
3. different molecular forms of a gene 3. there is no migration
4. heterozygotes 4. the population is large

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173. 178.
Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine: The following graph depicts changes in two populations (A
Column - I Column - II and B) of herbivores in grassy field. A possible reason for
A. Tuberculosis 1. Harmless virus these changes is that
B. Whooping cough 2. Inactivated toxin
C. Diptheria 3. Killed bacteria
D. Polio 4. Harmless bacteria

1. A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4

2. A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1
3. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
4. A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3

174.
HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying
1. B-lymphocytes 1. both plant populations in this habitat decreased
2. leucocytes 2. population-B competed more successfully for food than
3. helper T-lymphocytes population-A
4. thrombocytes 3. population-A produced more offspring than population-B
4. population-A consumed the members of population-B

175.
The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feed upon 179.
1. erythrocytes mucosa and submucosa of colon Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable
2. mucosa and submucosa of colon only and fertile condition can be referred to as:-
3. food in intestine (1) Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity
4. blood only (2) In situ conservation by sacred groves
(3) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
(4) In situ conservation of biodiversity
180.
176.
Rachel Carson's famous book 'Silent Spring' is related to
High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand)
1. pesticide pollution
indicates that
2. noise pollution
1. water is pure
3. population explosion
2. water is highly polluted
4. ecosystem management
3. water is less polluted
4. consumption of organic matter i n the water is higher by
the microbes
Fill OMR Sheet*
177.
*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
Most animal are tree dwellers in a
where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
1. coniferous forest
2. thorn woodland
3. temperate deciduous forest
4. tropical rain forest

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