AIM2205

DIRECTIONS
for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is accompanied by a set

of four questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
Malls are the ultimate consumption paradise, because everything is carefully presented and
available for consumption. Mall developers need to bring many customers into their complex. But
they realize that not all shops are equal. Some big department stores generate far more customer
traffic for their neighbours than their neighbours do for them. This creates what economists call
“positive externality.” A department store chain must decide whether to open a new store by working
out how much profit it will earn. If much of the traffic the store generates would benefit other retailers
instead, the department store may not have a viable business. Yet if it therefore decides not to build,
all of the neighbouring shops will miss the positive externality a new department store would
generate. The private sector often finds its own solutions to externality problems. Because a
property developer owns the entire shopping complex, its profits depend on the entire mall, not on
any particular shop. By choosing the right mix of tenants and charging rents that reflect each store’s
contribution to the mall’s overall revenues – including the business it brings to other stores – the
developer can ‘internalize’ the externality and maximize its profits.
On comparing sales and rental rates of department stores or “Anchors” to those of other shops in
each mall, it was found that department stores get far better deals than other retailers. A clothing or
shoe shop in a so called “superregional” mall – a mall with at least three department stores and over
600000 square feet of space pays about ten times as much in rent, per square feet (psf), as a
department store.
This could be due to the fact that department stores generate smaller sales from each square foot of
floor space. But even then, department stores pay far lower rents than other businesses in the same
malls. Other tenants in effect subsidise department stores … which leaves department stores paying
around 20% of the rent that other shops must yield. This suggests that department stores are
valuable to developers not because they generate more sales for themselves but because they
generate more for other stores.
Comparing super-regional malls with smaller ones makes this point even more clearly. Non-
department stores tend to have far higher sales psf in superregional malls than they do in regional
malls. The sales of department stores are roughly the same in both cases. This explains why
developers give these anchors an even bigger subsidy in super-regional malls than they do in
ordinary ones: the large number of anchors in a super-regional mall generates more customer traffic
for other shops, so the anchor stores can demand better terms for putting themselves there.
What can local governments learn from this? If they are intent on saving the high street, they must
learn to think more like mall developers. Just as malls provide convenient parking and a clean,
secure environment, local authorities often try to revive their town centres by improving parking and
public transport… Town planners must solve the same externality problem that mall developers
worry about. That could mean favouring some stores over others by giving them tax breaks or
subsidies or by finding some other way to let small shops compensate big ones for the business they
draw.
Q1. Which one of the following statements is the writer most likely to agree with?
a) The local government can benefit retailers by providing adequate compensation to small
shops at the cost of the big shops.
b) Store sales psf should be directly related to store rent psf if there are negative
externalities.
c) Difference in sales generated psf and, hence, rent disparity psf between small retailers
and anchor stores is greater in large malls than smaller malls. Your answer is correct
d) Anchor stores pay 20% more rent than other stores.
Q2. None of the following can be inferred from the passage EXCEPT?
a) Smaller stores accept the idea of subsidizing the Anchor stores for the sales that the latter
generate for the former.
b) Stores other than department stores do not attract any traffic.
c) Department stores in superregional malls generate more sales psf than do department
stores in regional malls.
d) Anchors in superregional malls should pay significantly higher rents per square feet
compared to anchors in regional malls. Your answer is incorrect
Q3. Which of the following best summarizes the first paragraph of the passage?
a) The shopping mall has become the ultimate example of modern capitalist consumerism.
Certain stores generate externalities by drawing customers to other stores, while many stores
primarily benefit from external mall traffic. Therefore, to varying degrees, the success of each store
depends upon the presence and effort of other stores, and the effort of the developer to attract
customers to the mall.
b) The high level of customer traffic generated by a new department store can benefit,
considerably, smaller retailers nearby. Mall developers can maximize their earnings by
retaining a mix of large and small retailers and by internalizing the store's externality, thus
bringing some of the benefits derived from the presence of the department store back to the
store itself. Your answer is correct
c) Mall developers attempt to increase customer traffic for a mall by varying rental rates
for different kinds of stores.
d) Without positive externality, malls would not be able to attract large department
stores. Mall owners exploit small stores by manipulating their rents so that large store
owners benefit. Mall store contracts are written to internalize externalities through both an
efficient allocation and pricing of space and an efficient allocation of incentives across
stores.
Q4. The style of the passage is
a) descriptive.
b) abstruse.
c) argumentative.
d) analytical. Your answer is correct
DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is accompanied by a set

Wikipedia search for “keyword” directs you to a disambiguation page with half a dozen entries. The
last link leads to “Keywords: A Vocabulary of Culture and Society, the 1976 non-fiction book by
Raymond Williams.” Click on it and you’ll learn that Keywords is a compendium of micro-essays that
the “Welsh Marxist academic” wrote, exploring “the history of more than a hundred words that are
familiar and yet confusing,” like “Art; Bureaucracy; Culture; Educated; Management; Masses;
Nature; Originality; Radical; Society; Welfare; Work.”
Raymond Williams is one of those thinkers who helped change his field so profoundly that today it
can be difficult to appreciate how original he was. The turbulence of the mid-20th century shaped
him intellectually. “After World War II, I found myself preoccupied by a single word, 'Culture',”
Williams would write as he pursued his Master's Degree at Cambridge University. His fascination
with “culture” persisted and it would lead him to write the book that made him famous.
Published in 1958, Culture and Society centers on the idea that changes in the significance – both the
meanings and importance – of particular words can illuminate the process of historical change.
Williams focuses on a set of terms – “industry,” “democracy,” “class,” “art,” and “culture” – whose
evolution tracked the massive shifts that took place in Britain at the time of the Industrial Revolution.
“The changes in their use,” Williams writes, “bear witness to a general change in our characteristic
ways of thinking about our common life: about our social, political and economic institutions; about
the purposes which these institutions are designed to embody; and about the relations to these
institutions and purposes of our activities in learning, education and the arts.” “It is the relations
within this general pattern of change,” he continues, “which it will be my particular task to describe.”
Williams proceeds to do this by examining a series of writers and thinkers from both the right and the
left. For instance, in a section called “Contrasts,” he pairs the conservative Edmund Burke with the
rabble-rousing journalist William Cobbett, and the utilitarian philosopher Jeremy Bentham with the
Romantic poet-critic Samuel Taylor Coleridge. Despite the intensity of his own political
commitments, Williams is a generous reader; he patiently reconstructs the arguments of others. This
even-handedness is part of the point. Williams insists that, although his subjects put forth conflicting
or opposing arguments, they were in fact reacting to the same historical forces.
Williams originally intended to include his collection of “keywords” as an appendix

to Culture and Society. But his publisher balked at the idea of adding them to a book of dense prose
that already ran to over 400 pages, so Williams shelved it. Culture and Society went on to sell more
than 200,000 copies. His next study, The Long Revolution, appeared in 1961. By 1976, he was able
to publish Keywords as a stand-alone volume on the strength of his reputation. In the 1990s, cultural
studies, combined with other kinds of material history, became more and more influential in literature
departments, and Keywords stayed in print. Today, it is better known than the study it was supposed
to supplement.
Q5. According to the book Culture and Society, which of the following can be inferred about specific
words such as “industry”, “democracy”, “class”, “art” and “culture”?
a) These words have not been authentically used by other eminent writers in the past and their
correct meanings have been incorporated into common usage only very recently.
b) Language models in Britain remained the same after the Industrial Revolution but
people began to use these words differently as the context demanded.
c) The changing perspectives about various aspects of life in general are consequences
of the changes made in the use of these specific words.
d) The changes in meanings of these words were triggered by the changing landscape of
culture, society, thought and way of life.
Q6. What does the author imply when he says “This even-handedness is part of the point.” (para
4)?
a) Although the book “Culture and Society” is deeply erudite, its writer Raymond Williams wears
his learning lightly.
b) Raymond Williams was aware that the British New Left intellectuals and their
counterparts were increasingly focussed on cultural questions, including questions about
representation and language.
c) Taking into account the wide range of the opinions of the subjects he was
investigating helped Raymond Williams realize that irrespective of their ideological leanings,
contemporaries were influenced by the same cultural and social changes.
d) Raymond Williams paired writers and thinkers with contrasting ideologies together.
Q7. In the sentence “Today it is better known than the study it was supposed to supplement”, what
does “it” refer to?
a) Contrasts
b) Keywords
c) The Long Revolution
d) Culture and Society
Q8. Which of the following contradicts the central idea of the book Culture and Society as can be
gathered from the passage?
a) British New Left intellectuals focussed on cultural questions while British Right intellectuals
almost always opposed them.
b) English has suffered distortion in meaning over the ages and the secondary meanings
of many words vary greatly from region to region in Britain
c) The change in the meanings of certain words over time does not reflect historical or
societal changes.
d) Many PhD theses focussing on subjects such as industry, art and culture have been
published in post-industrial revolution Britain.
When Parliament decided, in 1709, to create a law that would protect books from piracy, the
London-based publishers and booksellers who had been pushing for such protection were
overjoyed. When Queen Anne gave her assent on April 10th the following year to “An act for the
encouragement of learning” they were less enthused. Parliament had given them rights, but it had
set a time limit on them: 21 years for books already in print and 14 years for new ones, with an
additional 14 years if the author was still alive when the first term ran out. After that, the material
would enter the public domain so that anyone could reproduce it. The lawmakers intended thus to
balance the incentive to create with the interest that society has in free access to knowledge and art.
The Statute of Anne thus helped nurture and channel the spate of inventiveness that Enlightenment
society and its successors have since enjoyed.
Over the past 50 years, however, that balance has shifted. … In America, copyright holders get 95
years' protection as a result of an extension granted in 1998, derided by critics as the “Mickey Mouse
Protection Act”. They are now calling for even greater protection, and there have been efforts to
introduce similar terms in Europe. Such arguments should be resisted: it is time to tip the balance
back.
Lengthy protection, it is argued, increases the incentive to create. Digital technology seems to
strengthen the argument: by making copying easier, it seems to demand greater protection in return.
The idea of extending copyright also has a moral appeal. Intellectual property can seem very like
real property, especially when it is yours, and not some faceless corporation's. As a result people
feel that once they own it – especially if they have made it – they should go on owning it, much as
they would a house that they could pass on to their descendants. On this reading, protection should
be perpetual. Ratcheting up the time limit on a regular basis becomes a reasonable way of
approximating that perpetuity.
The notion that lengthening copyright increases creativity is questionable, however. Authors and
artists do not generally consult the statute books before deciding whether or not to pick up pen or
paintbrush. And overlong copyrights often limit, rather than encourage, a work's dissemination,
impact and influence. It can be difficult to locate copyright holders to obtain the rights to reuse old
material. As a result, much content ends up in legal limbo (and in the case of old movies and sound
recordings, is left to deteriorate – copying them in order to preserve them may constitute an act of
infringement). The penalties even for inadvertent infringement are so punishing that creators
routinely have to self-censor their work. Nor does the advent of digital technology strengthen the
case for extending the period of protection. Copyright protection is needed partly to cover the costs
of creating and distributing works in physical form. Digital technology slashes such costs, and thus
reduces the argument for protection.
Q9. Why were London-based publishers and booksellers less enthused by the Statute of Anne?
a) The Statute of Anne would not let them reap the benefits of the protection rights forever.
b) The Statute of Anne only offered them minimum protection and they wanted more
rights.
c) The main objective of the Statute of Anne was to ensure that all books entered the
public domain.
d) The Statute of Anne helped nurture and channel the spate of inventiveness that
Enlightenment society enjoyed.
Q10. The balance, which the author refers to in the second paragraph of the passage, is between
a) fostering creativity and copyright infringement.
b) enforcing copyright and encouraging learning.
c) penalizing inadvertent infringement and incentivizing creativity.
d) the ease of accessing copyrighted works and works that are in the public domain.
Q11. Which of the following statements will most weaken the case for lengthy protection of books
from piracy?
a) Digital technology has made copying easier and encourages piracy.
b) Lengthy protection may help in covering the costs of creating and distributing books
in their physical form.
c) Lengthy protection may make the creators more inaccessible and less influential.
d) Lengthy protection may discourage the work's circulation and hamper its influence.
Q12. According to the passage, which of the following statements about digital technology can be
understood to be true?
a) Because of digital technology, there is a serious need for a lengthier copyright protection.
b) Plagiarism and infringement have become an exception instead of the norm due to the
advent of digital technology.
c) Digital technology enables works which are digital in form to be created and
distributed without incurring much cost.
d) Digital technology will lead us to a future where works of art will not be in physical
forms.

Two factors can be invoked to support the idea that the opportunities of people with similar talents
and abilities should not be disparate due to the effects of the social lottery.
The first is that how someone fares in the social lottery is influenced by the ongoing effects of unjust
social structures. Past injustices such as racial discrimination have lingering effects on the
opportunities of African Americans. The distribution of initial social assets would also be influenced
by the present effects of unjust inequalities in the distribution of wealth and income that are not due
to racial discrimination.
The first version of the level playing field concept of equal opportunity requires that something be
done to counteract the opportunity-limiting effects of bad luck in the social lottery so far as these
limitations result from the ongoing effects of unjust social structures. Rawls endorses this social
structural view when he says “those at the same level of talent and ability, and having the same
willingness to use them, should have the same prospects of success regardless of their initial place
in the social system”. … [T]he emphasis is on limitations on opportunity that originate in unjust
institutions, not in natural differences among persons.
The second variant of the level playing field concept is based on a different assumption: the moral
intuition that persons should not have lesser opportunities as a result of factors beyond their control,
in the sense of being unchosen. Thomas Scanlon has labelled this the brute luck view of equal
opportunity – the contrast being between matters of brute luck, which are not within one's control at
all, and misfortunes that depend on a person's choices. Persons should not have fewer opportunities
due to how they fare in the social lottery, regardless of whether the limitations on their opportunities
originate in unjust institutions.
The social structural view, like the discrimination conception of equal opportunity, limits the domain
of equal opportunity to social inequalities, because it is concerned only with how unjust social
institutions, influence a person's success in competing for desirable positions in society. The brute
luck view is much more expansive: it enlarges the domain of equal opportunity to include natural
inequalities. ....
The passages in Rawls' book A Theory of Justice seem to commit Rawls to the view that justice is
concerned with natural as well as social inequalities. However, a closer reading of the text suggests
that Rawls does not seek to address natural inequalities under the heading of equality of opportunity.
Instead, he appears to restrict equal opportunity to efforts to counteract the opportunity-limiting
effects of unjust social institutions, while noting that the operation of a distinct principle of justice, the
Difference Principle, will do something to mitigate the effects of natural inequalities. Rawls may be
merely saying that it would be impermissible to base a person's entitlement to a share of social
goods on the mere fact that he happens to have been more fortunate in the genetic lottery. That
view does not commit him to the brute luck thesis that all natural inequalities require redress or
compensation as a matter of justice. However, some passages mean that in some sense he regards
natural inequalities as falling within the domain of justice. Other passages lend further support to the
hypothesis that Rawls' conception of equal opportunity is the social structural view.
Q13. According to the author,
a) Rawls' book A Theory of Justice clearly establishes that he was a proponent of Thomas

Scanlon's brute luck view of equal opportunity. Your answer is incorrect
b) Rawls' writing cannot be used by either the advocates of the social structural view or
the brute luck view in support of their stand.
c) Rawls was concerned only with unjust social institutions and any reference to natural
inequalities in his book is only incidental.
d) we cannot categorize Rawls as an advocate of the brute luck thesis, based on his
writings mentioned in the passage.
Q14. Which of the following is true regarding the social structural view explained in the passage?
a) Its focus is on the limitations an individual faces as a result of unjust social

institutions.
b) It seeks to provide a level playing field to everyone in society irrespective of their
social standing.
c) It takes into account the fact that individuals are born with different traits and so are
different.
d) It asserts that the lingering effects of past discriminations get compounded over
time.
Q15. All of the following are features of the brute luck view mentioned in the passage EXCEPT?
a) It emphasizes that in order to provide equal opportunity, efforts must be made to
counteract all the disadvantages that are beyond a person's control.
b) It differentiates between misfortunes that are the result of one's acts and those
beyond one's control.
c) It is unconcerned about the result of differences arising from fortunate or misfortunate
events outside one's control.
d) It highlights the fact that unjust social institutions are not the only cause for the unfair
distribution of opportunities in society.
Q16. Which of the following correctly represents the author's view regarding the relationship
between the social structural view and the brute luck view?
a) The former considers the implications of certain types of inequalities that the latter
does not.
b) The latter encompasses the former and goes on to include genetic or natural
inequalities also.
c) The brute luck view focusses on genetic inequalities and ignores socioeconomic
factors.
d) Unlike the former, the latter looks at individuals as a product of only unjust social
institutions.
Q17. DIRECTIONS for questions 17 and 18: Four alternative summaries are given below the text.

Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
Why cannot we talk of the real Tao? The real Tao is not a concept, and therefore words cannot
describe it. It is beyond organized religion, cultures, philosophy, and spirituality. It is something that
must be lived and experienced and not just talked about. All Chinese philosophy has tried to
understand the cosmos and unify Heaven, Earth and mankind, the sublime and the mundane, the
material and the spiritual. The Chinese have always tried to integrate man and nature, knowing that
man and nature are not two separate entities. The ancient Chinese had a holistic, ecological view of
life, in which our existence on earth only makes sense if it is linked with the sun, the moon and the
stars, the wind and the rain, and all the other processes of nature. At its deepest level, Taoism which
is of ancient Chinese origin, says we have enough to do being authentic and vital, compassionate
and ethical in real life – right here, right now; so, we need not invent other worlds or ruling forces
whose existence in any case is uncertain and confusing. Taoism exhorts the seeker to be natural,
follow nature's principles, and attain an enlightened and empowered state of being.
a) Taoism is against the invention of new worlds because that gives rise to uncertainties
and confusion. By supporting a life close to nature, Taoism actually contradicts the social
mores and the precepts of established cultures. It unifies heaven and earth and other
elements of the cosmos.
b) Taoism, as a spiritual concept, originated in China, and is aimed at a proper

understanding of the cosmos. Taoism advocates a life close to nature as all life depended on
all other life for its existence and that thinking of things as separate is only possible
intellectually. It forbids a pursuit of other worlds and forces which will leave one confused
and unenlightened. Your answer is incorrect
c) Taoism, an ancient Chinese philosophy, seeks a basic comprehension of the cosmos.

Taoism advocates a natural way of life, and claims that invented worlds are not needed to
give a good life. It has had a significant impact on the development of Chinese civilization
and its ideas pervade all aspects of the culture.
d) Taoism, of ancient Chinese origin, defies wordy description and is beyond organized
religion, cultures, philosophy, and spirituality. Its essence is performing natural, moral and
real deeds in the here and now and being connected with nature, without inventing new
worlds or uncertain ruling forces, so that one attains enlightenment.
Q18. DIRECTIONS for questions 17 and 18: Four alternative summaries are given below the text.

Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
It seems incredible, but in a country that keeps around 30% of the fresh water, and shelters the
largest rain forest, in the world, we can find a “desert”. Located in the State of Maranhão, on the
north shore of Brazil, the Lençóis Maranhenses National Park is an area of about 300 square
kilometers of blinding white dunes and deep blue lagoons, forming one of the most beautiful and
unique places in the world. The dunes invade the continent over 50 km from the coast, creating a
landscape that reminds a white bed sheet, when seen from above. What distinguishes this region
from a desert is the amount of rain that drops over the dunes, creating ponds of crystal clear water
on the depressions between dunes. It records an annual rainfall of 1,600 mm, 300 times more than
in the Sahara. During drought, the lagoons evaporate and become completely dried. After the rainy
season, the lagoons are home to many species of fish, turtles and clams. The mystery lies in the fact
that when the lagoons fill up, life comes back, as if they had never left the place. The eggs of the fish
and crabs are probably maintained alive in the sand, exploding when rain comes back.
a) The Lençóis Maranheses is certainly a unique place you will never forget. It has 30%
of the fresh water of Brazil and shelters the largest rain forest in the world. The most famous
lagoon in the park, due to its beauty, is the Blue Lagoon. The lagoons are dry during drought
but after the rains, they support a lot of marine life.
b) Spread over 300 sq km in Maranhão, to the north of Brazil, the Lençóis Maranhenses
National Park has deep blue lagoons and blinding white dunes resembling a white bed sheet
for over 50 km from the coast. Though it is a desert and the lagoons become totally dried
during drought, the park records 1600 mm of annual rainfall. After the rains, fish, turtle and
clams reappear in the lagoons because the eggs of fish and crabs are preserved alive.
Your answer is incorrect
c) The Lençóis Maranhenses National Park is one of the most beautiful and unique
places in the world. It functions both as a desert and a lagoon and supports life. It gets 1600
mm of rainfall every year and covers an area of 300 square kms. The park is housed in
Maranhao in Brazil.
d) Despite its desert like appearance, the Lençóis Maranhenses National Park, located in
Maranhão, on the north shore of Brazil, records an annual rainfall of 1,600 mm. The lagoons
of the park evaporate when there is drought but, during the rains, species like fish, turtles
and clams thrive. This is because the eggs of fish and crabs are, perhaps, buried alive in the
sand even during the drought.
Q19. DIRECTIONS for question 19: Each of the following questions has five sentences. Each

sentence is labelled with a number. All but one of the sentences can be rearranged to form a
logically coherent paragraph. Key in the number of the sentence that does not fit contextually with
the paragraph formed by the other four sentences.
1. No person, however prominent, escaped the critical scrutiny of the philosopher's sharp mind.
2. The 500-member ruling Council of Athens vehemently detested Socrates because he

exposed the shabbiness of their thinking.
3. His technique is now called the “Socratic Method”
4. Run-of-the-mill thinking, like that of many Athenians, fails to apply such rigorous standards of
the doctrine of Critical Inquiry, operating something like a production line without established
quality controls and with the same shoddy results.
5. It remains a model of top-quality thinking even today.
Q20. DIRECTIONS for questions 20 to 22: The sentences given in each of the following questions,

when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number.
Decide on the proper order for the four sentences and key in the sequence of four numbers as your
answer, in the input box given below the question.
1. Rewards and punishments came down the hierarchy to the individual.
2. Thus: the wishy-washy organization man – the man without personal convictions (or without
the courage to make them evident); it paid to conform.
3. Power-laden hierarchies, through which authority flowed, wielded the whip by which the
individual was held in line and the organization man looked within for approval, knowing that
his relationship with the organization would be relatively permanent.
4. And the individual, habitually looking upward at the next rung of the hierarchical ladder,
became conditioned to subservience.

1. On July 18 , Britain will decide whether it wants to remain in that club, when its members of
th
parliament (MPs) debate whether to renew the country's Trident nuclear deterrent.
2. Perhaps 150 of Labour's 230 MPs will vote in favour of the plan, rebelling against their
leader, Jeremy Corbyn.
3. Nine countries are believed to have nuclear weapons.
4. Theresa May has said it would be “sheer madness” to give it up, and the vote is expected to
pass easily.

1. Notably in 2013, the OPCW set up a process in which chemical weapons from Syria were
transported under Russian and Chinese supervision to Norwegian and Danish ships and
destroyed on board an American naval vessel.
2. In the sort of movie where global agencies are attacked by arch-villains with superpowers,
the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons would make a perfect target.
3. The OPCW has been busy over the past decade, destroying chemical-weapons stockpiles in
Libya, Iraq and Syria, for which it won the Nobel peace prize in 2013.
4. Its concrete and glass headquarters sits amid a cluster of high-minded international
institutions in The Hague, down the street from the tribunal where Yugoslavia's war criminals
were tried and not far from the International Court of Justice.
Q23. DIRECTIONS for question 23: The following question has five sentences. Each sentence is

labelled with a number. All but one of the sentences can be rearranged to form a logically coherent
paragraph. Key in the number of the sentence that does not fit contextually with the paragraph
formed by the other four sentences.
1. This accelerative thrust has now reached a level at which it can no longer, by any stretch of
the imagination, be regarded as “normal”.
2. We see here a chain reaction of change, a long, sharply rising curve of acceleration in
human social development.
3. But situations also involve a separate dimension which, because it cuts across all the others,
is frequently overlooked.
4. Discovery. Application. Impact. Discovery.
5. The normal institutions of industrial society can no longer contain it, and its impact is shaking
up all our social institutions.
Q24. DIRECTIONS for question 24: The question given below has a paragraph which is followed by

four alternative summaries. Choose the alternative that best captures the essence of the paragraph.
Origination is very important to bring about a communication. People with low imagination
communicate mainly regarding subjects that are handed to them by external sources. They wait for
an exterior circumstance to bring about an interaction; otherwise they do not engage by 'creating' a
communication. They either have a compulsively irresistible urge towards doing something, or are
inhibited and behave awkwardly and unnaturally in communicating. If they manage to engage, they
often turn sharply towards derailment of the dialogue, and bring about a good degree of resentment,
ill will and unwanted conclusions. As a result, we can conclude, that a pleasant and engaging
conversation requires the participation of two imaginative minds, with similar or balanced
endowment of creative impulses, to mutually create the art of communication.
a) The people having difficulties with initiating a conversation are generally accustomed
to pre-packaged amusements. They find it difficult to originate a thought on their own or to
be inspired by their own imagination; and they become somewhat vexed when faced with an
'imaginative conversationalist' with whom they cannot really interact.
b) The people who do not originate a conversation, or do not engage imaginatively, are
inherently dependent upon others to give them primal reasons to engage in a conversation;
this is due to being endowed with very little imagination. We can say that communication is
the mirror of one's upbringing.
c) People with low imagination depend on external sources for creating a communicative
interaction. More often than not, they may behave awkwardly while communicating but
sometimes, they may derail the dialogue leading to negative emotions. Communication
needs the right balance of imagination and creativity.
d) People with low imagination depend on external sources for bringing about a
communicative interaction. They may behave compulsively or awkwardly while
communicating or may derail the dialogue leading to ill will and unnecessary interpretations.
The art of communication requires the participation of imaginative minds with a balanced
measure of creative impulses.
LRDI
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Three kingdoms – Artirea, Barnucopia and Chilert – were ruled by three kings, Arkan, Binum and
Charwe, respectively. Each of the three kings established a spy network in his kingdom. The spy
network in any kingdom was headed by the king and each king appointed three Chief Spies under
him; under each Chief Spy, there were four Spies. No Spy reports to more than one Chief Spy and
no Chief Spy reports to more than one king. Further, the three kings were allies and any message
that any Spy found out can be shared with all persons in all the spy networks in the three kingdoms,
if necessary.
However, as there were no other forms of connectivity, any two persons in the spy network can
communicate using only pigeons, which would carry letters in the form of small scrolls of paper.
Each person in the spy network, including the king, had exactly two pigeons. However, not everyone
can send a letter to everyone else using the pigeons that they have.
The persons in the spy network can only send letters in the following manner:
⋅ Any Spy can send a letter to another Spy who reports to the same Chief Spy or to his Chief Spy.
⋅ Any Chief Spy can send a letter to another Chief Spy in the same kingdom, or to any Spy under
him, or to his king.
⋅ Any king can send a letter to any of the other kings or to any Chief Spy in his kingdom.
⋅ Each pigeon can deliver exactly one letter, to only one recipient, and can be used only once.
⋅ It takes exactly one day (i.e., 24 hours) for any pigeon to deliver a letter, irrespective of its
destination.
Q1. DIRECTIONS for question 1: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

At the beginning of a particular day, a spy in Chilert found out that an enemy kingdom was about to
attack all the three kingdoms. Which is the earliest day (including the first day) on which all the
persons in the spy networks in the three kingdoms will have this information?
a) 8
b) 7 Your answer is incorrect
c) 9
d) 10
Q2. DIRECTIONS for question 2: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.
At the beginning of a particular day, a spy in Barnucopia discovered that Ratan, a notorious robber,
was planning to plunder the royal treasury of each of the three kingdoms. If all the persons in all the
spy networks had this information in the minimum possible number of days, what is the maximum
number of persons in all the spy networks of all the kingdoms who would not have used any pigeon
for communicating this information?
Q3. DIRECTIONS for questions 3 to 5: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

At the beginning of a particular day, a spy in Chilert found out that an enemy kingdom was
destroying a nearby dam that feeds all three kingdoms. If exactly three spies under each Chief Spy
in each kingdom did not have any pigeons for sending any letter, what is the minimum number
persons in all the spy networks to whom this information cannot be communicated?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

At the beginning of a particular day, a spy in Aritrea found out that some poachers were killing all the
tigers in the jungles of the three kingdoms. Across the spy networks of all the three kingdoms, if only
one pigeon was sent on any day, which is the earliest day (including the first day) on which all the
persons in all the spy networks of all the three kingdoms will have this information?
a) 47
b) 48
c) 49
d) 50

At the beginning of a particular day, a spy in Barnucopia discovered that an enemy kingdom was
about to attack Chilert. What is the minimum number of days (including the first day) after which all
the Chief Spies in Chilert will have this information?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 4
DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given

below.
A large cube of side four units is formed using 64 unit cubes, each of which is painted red on all its
faces. After forming the large cube, all the faces of the large cube are painted blue. The large cube
is then disassembled into unit cubes. One cube of side two units is formed using these unit cubes
such that the maximum possible visible area of this cube is blue. With the remaining unit cubes, a
cube of side three units is formed such that the maximum possible visible area of this cube is blue.
The remaining unit cubes are referred to as unutilized cubes.
Q6. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 9: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the

question.
In the cube of side three units, what is the maximum possible number of unit cubes which have at
least two faces painted blue?

question.
What is the minimum number of unutilized cubes which have exactly one face painted blue?

question.
In the cube of side three units, what is the maximum number of unit cubes which are painted red on
all its faces?

question.
If another cube of side two units is formed using some of the unutilized cubes, what is the maximum
number of faces of this cube that are completely blue?

What is the minimum number of unutilized cubes which have exactly two faces painted blue?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 3
d) 9

below.
Five teams A, B, C, D and E participated in a round robin league tournament, where each team has
to play every other team exactly once. For any team, three points are awarded for a win, one point
for a draw and no points for a loss.
The following table gives the points scored by four of the five teams at the end of the tournament.
How many points did team B score?
a) 1 Your answer is correct
b) 2
c) 3
d) Cannot be determined

Which team(s) did team C beat?
a) Only B
b) Only A Your answer is correct
c) Only B and D
d) Only E

Which of the following team(s) did team A beat?
a) Both C and D
b) Both B and C
c) Both B and D Your answer is correct
d) Exactly one of C and D

Which team(s) lost more than 50% of the matches that they played?
a) Only A
b) Only A and D
c) Only B
d) A, B and D Your answer is incorrect

below.
Hari works in the Meteorological Department, and he has to measure the temperature (in °C) at 9:00
AM every day. However, during a certain period of twenty days, from Day 1 to Day 20, Hari
measured the temperature on only ten days. He then plotted the ten points on a graph sheet and
connected consecutive points on the graph using straight lines, forming a line graph. The line graph
that Hari made is presented below:
Further, it is also known that

i. the difference in temperature between any two consecutive measurements that Hari took
was not more than 4°C.
ii. the difference in the temperature measured by Hari for the third time and for the fourth time
was 4°C.
iii. the second measurement that Hari took was the same as the eighth measurement that he
took.

On which of the following days did Hari measure the temperature?
a) Day 2
b) Day 17
c) Day 6
d) More than one of the above

What is the average of the temperatures measured by Hari during the ten days?
a) 30.5°C
b) 30.2°C
c) 30.3°C
d) 30.4°C

If the average temperature at 9:00 AM from Day 1 to Day 4 is 30°C, what is the temperature at 9:00
AM on Day 2?
a) 25°C
b) 28°C
c) 31°C
Q18. DIRECTIONS for question 18: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the

question.
What is the difference (in °C) between the fifth measurement and the ninth measurement that Hari
took?

below.
My friend, Abhishek, sent me an e-mail which had the details of the marks that he scored in four
subjects. Instead of sending the marks he scored in each subject separately, he said that he added
the marks in two subjects at a time and was sending the six unequal totals so obtained. These totals
were given in ascending order in the file that he sent as an attachment with the e-mail. When I
opened the e-mail attachment, I found that the first, third and fourth figures appeared as junk
characters due to some corruption in the file and I could read only the remaining three figures – 169,
178 and 180.
I sent a mail back to Abhishek that I needed some more data to calculate his marks in each subject.
He replied as follows:
i. “Instead of using my marks in the e-mail, if I had used the marks that my friend Ankit scored
(in the same four subjects), you would still have got the same figures for the three totals that you
were able to read in the e-mail”.
ii. “The highest mark that I scored among the four subjects is more than that scored by Ankit.”
iii. “There is no multiple of 5 among Ankit’s marks whereas there is one among mine.”
Note: Assume that all the marks are integers.

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the marks of Abhishek in the four subjects?
a) The highest mark is not less than 91.
b) The sum of the highest mark and the third highest mark is 178.
c) The sum of the third highest mark and the fourth highest mark is 169.
d) The least mark is not more than 83.

question.
What is the highest mark scored by Abhishek?

What is the difference between the highest mark scored by Ankit and the lowest mark scored by
Abhishek?
a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13

question.
What is the least mark scored by Ankit?
QA
The mean of the sequence 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ….. , 630 is
a) 222.
b) 216.
c) 254.
d) 274.
A large tank of height 10 m is fitted with an inlet pipe which can fill the tank in 60 minutes. The tank
has three emptying outlets pipes fitted at the heights of 5 m, 8 m and 9.5 m respectively from the
bottom. All the pipes are opened simultaneously with the tank being empty initially. In how much
time (in minutes) will 95% of the tank be filled, if the lowest outlet pipe alone can empty half the tank
in one and a half hour; the outlet pipe in the middle alone can empty 20% of the tank in 1 hour 12
minutes and the outlet pipe at the top alone can empty 5% of the tank in 18 minutes?
If x, y, z are three positive numbers in geometric progression and x15 = y25 = zn, find the value of n.
a) 30
b) 50
c) 60
d) 75
If the areas of the six faces of a cuboid are a1, a2, ……. a6, then the volume of the cuboid is
If α, β and are the roots of the equation x3 + 20x2 + 10x + 5 = 0, find the value of
a) –4
b) –2
c) +2
d) +4
Find the number of zeros at the end of 1050!.

An alloy A contains two elements, copper and tin in the ratio 2 : 3, whereas alloy B contains the
same elements in the ratio 3 : 4. If 20 kg of alloy A is mixed with 28 kg of alloy B and some pure
copper to form a third alloy C, containing copper and tin in the ratio 6 : 7, find the quantity of pure
copper mixed with the alloys.
a) 4 kg Your answer is correct
b) 5 kg
c) 6 kg
d) 7 kg
Naina purchased two Dairymilks, three Perks and five Eclairs and paid ₹40. Had Naina purchased
three Dairymilks, five Perks and nine Eclairs, she would have paid ₹64. Googly demanded only one
Dairymilk, one Perk and one Eclairs. If Naina purchased only what was demanded by Googly, then
how much (in ₹) would she have paid?
Q9. DIRECTIONS for questions 9 and 10: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Three athletes, Samrat, Sarath and Sridhar, run a race. Sarath finished 24 meters ahead of Sridhar
and 36 meters ahead of Samrat, while Sridhar finished 16 meters ahead of Samrat. If each athlete
runs the entire distance at their respective constant speeds, what is length of the race?
a) 108 m
b) 90 m
c) 80 m
d) 96 m
Q10. DIRECTIONS for questions 9 and 10: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

question.
Find the remainder when 15658 – 15518 is divided by 14.

Let p, q, r and s be four integers having a sum of 4t + 1, where t is a natural number. Which of the
following can be concluded for a known value of t?
a) Maximum possible value of p2 + q2 + r2 + s2 is 4t2 + 2t + 1
b) Maximum possible value of p2 + q2 + r2 + s2 is 4t2 − 2t + 1
c) Minimum possible value of p2 + q2 + r2 + s2 is 4t2 + 2t + 1
d) Minimum possible value of p2 + q2 + r2 + s2 is 4t2 − 2t + 1

question.
A point P is 3 units from the line 3x + 4y + k = 0 (L1) and 4 units from the line 4x – 3y + ℓ = 0 (L 2). The
reflection of the point P on L1 is P1; the reflection of P1 on L2 is P2; the reflection of P2 on L1 is P3; the
reflection of P3 on L2 is P4. Find the area (in sq. units) of the figure formed by joining P1, P2, P3 and P4.
In a circle, two perpendicular chords, AB of length 5.1 cm and CD of length 6.8 cm, intersect at a
point P. Find the maximum possible distance from the centre of the circle to P.
a) 4.25 cm
b) 5.95 cm
c) 3.40 cm
d) 8.50 cm
Had a trader bought an item at 10% less than usual, and sold it at 10% more than usual, his profit
percentage would have been double the usual. What is his usual profit percentage?
If log175125 = x, what is the value of log35343?
Find the last three digits in the binary representation of the number 76548926.
a) 010
b) 100
c) 011
d) 110
In the rectangle ABCD below, AB : BE : EF : FC = 1 : 3 : 1 : 9. Find sin EAF : sin ADB.
a) 2 : 1
b) 3 : 2
c) 4 : 3
d) 1 : 1

question.
In the figure below PQRS is a square of side 30 cm as shown below.
U and V are points on QR and RS such that UQ = 12 cm and RV = 24 cm. Find the length (in cm) of
the line segment which joins the midpoints of PV and PU.

A, B and C are three sets such that n(A) = n(B) = n(C) = 10, n(A ∩ B) = 4, n(B ∩ C) = 5, n(A ∩ C) = 3.
If n(A B C) = 20, find the value of n(A ∩ B ∩ C).
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2 Your answer is correct
Manga, Ranga and Banga have some marbles with each of them. Five times the number of marbles
with Ranga equals seven times the number of marbles with Manga, while five times the number of
marbles with Manga equals seven times the number of marbles with Banga. What is the minimum
number of marbles that can be there with all three of them put together?
a) 113
b) 109 Your answer is correct
c) 93
d) 97
Find the total number of ways in which a student can attempt an exam, such that he answers at least
two questions out of a total of 150 questions in the exam, given that each question has four multiple
answers choices.
a) 4150– 151
b) 5150 – 601
c) 4150– 601
d) 5150 – 151

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DIRECTIONS

for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is accompanied by a set

d) Anchor stores pay 20% more rent than other stores.

Q2. None of the following can be inferred from the passage EXCEPT?

b) Stores other than department stores do not attract any traffic.

Q4. The style of the passage is

d) analytical. Your answer is correct

DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is accompanied by a set

Williams originally intended to include his collection of “keywords” as an appendix

a) fostering creativity and copyright infringement.

b) enforcing copyright and encouraging learning.

c) penalizing inadvertent infringement and incentivizing creativity.

a) Digital technology has made copying easier and encourages piracy.

DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is accompanied by a set

Q13. According to the author,

a) Rawls' book A Theory of Justice clearly establishes that he was a proponent of Thomas

a) Its focus is on the limitations an individual faces as a result of unjust social

Q17. DIRECTIONS for questions 17 and 18: Four alternative summaries are given below the text.

b) Taoism, as a spiritual concept, originated in China, and is aimed at a proper

c) Taoism, an ancient Chinese philosophy, seeks a basic comprehension of the cosmos.

Q18. DIRECTIONS for questions 17 and 18: Four alternative summaries are given below the text.

Q19. DIRECTIONS for question 19: Each of the following questions has five sentences. Each

2. The 500-member ruling Council of Athens vehemently detested Socrates because he

3. His technique is now called the “Socratic Method”

Q20. DIRECTIONS for questions 20 to 22: The sentences given in each of the following questions,

1. Rewards and punishments came down the hierarchy to the individual.

Q21. DIRECTIONS for questions 20 to 22: The sentences given in each of the following questions,

3. Nine countries are believed to have nuclear weapons.

Q22. DIRECTIONS for questions 20 to 22: The sentences given in each of the following questions,

Q23. DIRECTIONS for question 23: The following question has five sentences. Each sentence is

4. Discovery. Application. Impact. Discovery.

Q24. DIRECTIONS for question 24: The question given below has a paragraph which is followed by

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Q1. DIRECTIONS for question 1: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

b) 7 Your answer is incorrect

Q3. DIRECTIONS for questions 3 to 5: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Q4. DIRECTIONS for questions 3 to 5: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Q5. DIRECTIONS for questions 3 to 5: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given

Q6. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 9: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the

Q7. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 9: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the

Q8. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 9: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the

Q9. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 9: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the

Q10. DIRECTIONS for question 10: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 14: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given

a) 1 Your answer is correct

Q12. DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 14: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

b) Only A Your answer is correct

c) Only B and D

Q13. DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 14: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

a) Both C and D

b) Both B and C

c) Both B and D Your answer is correct

d) Exactly one of C and D

b) Only A and D

d) A, B and D Your answer is incorrect

DIRECTIONS for questions 15 to 18: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given

Further, it is also known that

Q15. DIRECTIONS for questions 15 to 17: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

d) More than one of the above

Q16. DIRECTIONS for questions 15 to 17: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Q17. DIRECTIONS for questions 15 to 17: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Q18. DIRECTIONS for question 18: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the

DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 22: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given