Q.

1 The proximal end of the filament of a stamen is attached to the

(a) Thalamus
(b) Petal of the flower
(c) Anther
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.2 A typical angiosperm anther is______.
(a) Monolobed
(b) Bilobed
(c) Tetralobed
(d) Hexalobed
Q.3 Theca of anther are seperated by
(a) A longitudinal groove
(b) A transverse groove
(c) Filament
(d) Pollen grains
Q.4 An anther is consisting of –
(a) Two microsporangia
(b) Four microsporangia
(c) Eight microsporangia
(d) One microsporangia
Q.5 The microsporangia develop further and become-
(a) Theca
(b) Pollen grains
(c) Pollen sacs
(d) Sporogenous tissue
Q.6 A microsporangium is surrounded by wall layers.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Six
Q.7 The outer three layers of anther wall perform the function of –
(a) Protection
(b) Help in dehiscence
(c) Nourishment of developing pollen grains
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.8 Cells of the tapetum possess ____ cytoplasm and generally have _____nucleus.
(a) Dense, more than one
(b) Dense, one
(c) Loose, one
(d) Loose, multiple
Q.9 Which of the following statement regarding microsporogenesis is incorrect?

(a) As the anther develops, the cells of the sporogenous tissue undergo mitotic divisions to form microspore
tetrads.

(b) Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is a potential pollen mother cell.

(c) The microspores, as they are formed, are arranged in a cluster of four cells - the microspore tetrad.

(d) As the anthers mature and dehydrate, the microspores dissociate from each other and develop into pollen
grains.
Q.10 What is the diameter of pollen grains?
(a) 15-25 micrometers
(b) 25-50 micrometers
(c) 50-100 micrometers
(d) 100-200 micrometers
Q.11 Endothecium layer of anther lobes is present
(a) Ouside the epidermis
(b) Just inside of epidermis
(c) In the innermost layer
(d) In the middle region
Q.12 One pollen mother cell may produce four germinating pollen grains, each with
two male nuclei and one tube nucleus. How many meiotic divisions are necessary to
bring this about?
(a) Two (b) One
(c) Three (d) Four
Q.13 The pollen grain is-
(a) An immature female gametophyte
(b) A mature male gametophyte
(c) Partially developed male gametophyte
(d) Last stage of male gametophyte
Q.14 Germpore is the region where the exine is -
(a) Thick
(b) Uniform
(c) Thick and uniform
(d) Absent
Q.15 Meiosis can be observed in -
(a) Spore mother cell
(b) Microspores
(c) Megaspores
(d) Tapetal cells
Q.16 Pollen grains are formed in -
(a) Embryo sac
(b) Stigma
(c) Filament
(d) Pollen sac
Q.17 Synergids are -
(a) Tetraploids
(b) Triploid
(c) Diploid
(d) Haploid
Q.18 Perisperm is -
(a) Degenerate part of synergids
(b) Peripheral part of endosperm
(c) Degenerate part of secondary nucleus
(d) Remnant of nucellus
Q.19 Generally number of integuments in the ovule of angiosperm and gymnosperms
is -
(a) One and Two (b) One and One
(c) Two and One (d) Two and Two
Q.20 The functional megaspore undergoes-
(a) 2 meiotic division to form mature embryo sac
(b) 3 mitotic division to form mature embryo sac
(c) 2 mitotic division to form mature embryo sac
(d) 3 meiotic division to form mature embryo sac
Q.21 In an embryo sac of a typical angiosperm, there are-
(a) Egg, synergids and antipodals
(b) Egg, synergids, polar nuclei and antipodals
(c) Egg, synergids, central cell and polar nuclei
(d) Egg, synergids and secondary cell
Q.22 If diploid chromosomes number in a flowering plant is 12, then which one of the
following will have only 6 chromosomes?
(a) Endosperm (b) Leafcells
(c) Cotyledons (d) Synergids
Q.23 Egg apparatus of angiosperm consists of –
(a) One egg cell and two synergids
(b) One egg cell, 2 synergids, 3 antipodals
(c) 3 antipodals only
(d) Secondary nucleus and egg cell
Q.24 The haploid cell which divides by mitosis to form embryosac is
(a) Megaspore mother cell
(b) Microspore mother cell
(c) Functional megaspore
(d) Non functional megaspore
Q.25 Female gametophyte of angiosperm is generally –
(a) 7 celled and 7 nucleate
(b) 8 celled and 8 nucleate
(c) 7 celled and 8 nucleate
(d) 8 celled and 7 nucleate
Q.26 Stalk with which ovules remain attached to placenta is called
(a) Funicle
(b) Raphe
(c) Hilum
(d) Chalaza
Q.27 Continuous self pollination in a species develops –
(a) Strong offsprings
(b) Weak offsprings
(c) New varieties
(d) Seedless fruits
Q.28 In which type of flowers, stigma is rough and sticky?
(a) Insect pollinated
(b) Wind pollinated
(c) Water pollinated
(d) All of the above
Q.29 Each cell of which of the following tissue of angiospermic microsporangia is
capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad?
(a) Nucellus (b) Sporogenous tissue
(c) Integumentary tapetum (d) Transfusion tissue
Q.30 Self pollination means -
(a) Occurrence of male and female sex organs in the same flower
(b) Germination of pollens within the anther
(c) Transfer of pollens from anther to the stigma within the same flower
(d) Transfer of pollens from one flower to another on the same plant
Q.31 Fig is pollinated by -
(a) Wind
(b) Self
(c) Water
(d) Insects
Q.32 In plants, in nature, autogamy is avoided since the seeds produced –
(a) Are fewer in number
(b) Do not germinate successfully
(c) Do not produce healthy plants
(d) All of the above
Q.33 Parts of the gynoecium which receives the pollen is called -
(a) Ovary
(b) Ovule
(c) Style
(d) Stigma
Q.34 Progeny produced as a result of cross pollination –
(a) Shows high degree of variability and is evolutionary important
(b) Is sterile
(c) Has recessive characters
(d) Is homozygous with phenotypic uniformity
Q.35 Pollination is best defined as –
(a) Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
(b) Germination of pollen grains
(c) Growth of pollen tube in ovule
(d) Visiting flower by insects
Q.36 Filiform apparatus, is/are -
(a) Group of lignified cells, present at micropylar tip
(b) Cellular thickenings of the synergids
(c) Plasmodesmatal connections present in cells of and embryo sac
(d) Used to form cytoplasmic polarity in eg apparatus
Q.37 The process of transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigmatic surface of the flower with the
help of water is called
(a) Anemophily
(b) Zoophily
(c) Hydrophily
(d) Ornithophily
Q.38 Double fertilization is a characteristic of -
(a) Gymnosperms
(b) Bryophytes
(c) Angiosperms
(d) Pteridophytes
Q.39 Fusion of two dissimilar gametes is called
(a) Fertilisation
(b) Pollination
(c) Self pollination
(d) Selffertilisation
Q.40 Which one of the following event in a botanical garden is never directly influenced by light?
(a) Flowering
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Transpiration
(d) Fertilisation
Q.41 In angiosperms, triple fusion is necessary for the formation of
(a) Seed coat
(b) Fruit wall
(c) Embryo
(d) Endosperm
Q.43 Which of the following is not true for double fertilisation?
(a) Discovered by Nawaschin
(b) Male gamete and secondary nucleus fused to form endosperm nucleus
(c) Endosperm nucleus is diploid
(d) Endosperm provide nutrition to embryo
Q.44 The endosperm in angiosperms is formed -
(a) After fertilisation
(b) Before fertilisation.
(c) Along with fertilisation
(d) Before pollen discharged
Q.45 In angiosperms, free nuclear division occurs during-
(a) Gamete formation
(b) Embryo formation
(c) Endosperm formation
(d) Flower formation
Q.46 Polar nuclei are situated in the central cell -
(a) Below the egg apparatus
(b) Above the egg apparatus
(c) Below the antipodals
(d) All of the above
Q.47 Proteinaceous endosperm of maize is called -
(a) Apophysis
(b) Scutellum
(c) Aleurone layer
(d) None of the above
Q.48 Dicot embryo consists of –
(a) Radicle and plumule
(b) Radicle, plumule, cotyledons and sometimes endosperm
(c) Radicle, plumule, cotyledons and tegmen
(d) Radicle, plumule, cotyledons, tegmen and testa
Q.49 If the number of chromosomes in endosperm of a dicot plant is 36, the root cell will contain
(a) 72 chromosomes
(b) 28 chromosomes
(c) 24 chromosomes
(d) 48 chromosomes
Q.50 In angiosperm endosperm is formed by –
(a) Free nuclear division of megaspore
(b) Division of fused polar nuclei
(c) Division of fused polar nuclei and male gamete
(d) Division of fused synergids and male gamete
Q.51 Structure given-
(a) Is involved in microsporogenesis
(b) Will form haploid endosperm after fertilization
(c) Is reduced gametophyte of angiosperms
(d) Is coenocytic
Q.52 Aleurone layer in maize is present towards
(a) Periphery of endosperm
(b) Periphery of scutellum
(c) Periphery of coleoptiles
(d) Periphery of coleorhiza
Q.53 In a seed of maize, scutellum is considered as cotyledon because it –
(a) Protects the embryo
(b) Contains food for the embryo
(c) Absorbs food materials and supplies them to the embryo
(d) Converts itself into a monocot leaf
Q.54 Function of embryonal suspensor in angiosperms is to-
(a) Serve as channel for H₂O
(b) Push embryo deeper into endosperm
(c) Relaease growth hormones
(d) Transfer nutrients from parent sporophyte to young embryo
Q.55 The parthenogenesis refer to a fruit -
(a) With seeds after pollination
(b) Without seed after pollination
(c) With viable seed after fertilisation
(d) Seedless without fertilisation.
Q.56 An example of a naturally occurring parthenocarpic fruit is -
(a) Guava
(b) Mango
(c) Banana
(d) Apple
Q.57 The endosperm found in angiospermic seed is different from that of gymnosperm in the sense
that, in the former-
(a) It is formed before fertilisation while in the later it is formed after fertilisation
(b) It is formed after fertilisation while in the later it is formed before fertilisation
(c) It is cellular while in the later it is nuclear
(d) It is nutritive while in the later it is protective
Q.58 Generally how many megaspores take part in the development of female gametophyte of
angiosperms?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Q.59 Reduction division in angiosperm occurs at the time of?
(a) Asexual reproduction
(b) Apomixis reproduction
(c) Vegetative reproduction
(d) Microspore and megaspore formation
Q.60 Which structure of ovule takes part in storage of food?
(a) Integuments
(b) Nucellus
(c) Embryosac
(d) Micropyle
Q.61 Pericarp develops from-
(a) Septum
(b) Ovary wall
(c) Funiculus
(d) Integument
Q.62 Syngamy means -
(a) The fusion of cytoplasm of spores
(b) Delayed meiosis
(c) Delayed mitosis
(d) The fusion of male and female gametes
Q.63 Non endospermic seeds are present in-
(a) Castor
(b) Pea
(c) Maize
(d) Wheat
Q.64 When cells of nucellus in ovule make the embryo directly then it is?
(a) Amphimictic
(b) Parthenogenetic
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Apomictic
Q.65 The figure below shows five steps (A, B, C, D, E) of embryo development. Select the option giving correct
identification together with what is represents ?

Options

(a) C-Represents torpedo shaped embryo

(b) D-Formed by meiosis in zygote

(c) C-Represents globular embryo

(d) A-Formed by triple fusion

Q.66 Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of
six plants according to the type of seeds (A, B, C) they have?
Q.67 In which of the following plants, the nucellar cells start dividing and develop into the embryos?

(a) Citrus and mango

(b) Parthenium and grasses

(c) Pea and gram

(d) Wheat and rice

Q.68 Following diagrams (A) & (B) represent?

(a) (A) Female flower of Hydrilla, (B) Male flower of Hydrilla

(b) (A) Male flower of Hydrilla, (B) Female flower of Hydrilla

(c) (A) Female flower of Vallisneria, (B) Male flower of Vallisneria

(d) (A) Male flower of Vallisneria, (B) Female flower of Vallisneria

Q.69 In a flowering plant, how many division/s is/are required for the formation of mature male gametophyte
from mature pollen grain?

(a) 1 meiotic division is required

(b) 1 meiotic and I mitotic divisions are required

(c) 1 mitotic division is required

(d) 1 meiotic and 2 mitotic divisions are required

Q.70 Read the following four statements (A-D) with respect to flowering plants –

A. Ploidy of the cells of the tetrad is haploid.

B. The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains.

C. Clar Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about 100-200 micrometers in diameter.

D. Exine of pollen grain has prominent apertures, called germ pores, where sporopollenin is absent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) One (b) Two

(c) Three (d) Four

Q.71 Read the following four statements (A-D).

A. Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.

B. Wind pollinated flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary.

C. Wind pollinated pollens are light and non sticky.

D. Vallisneria is an aquatic plant but it is pollinated by insect.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) One (b) Two

(c) Three (d) Four

Q.72 The first cell of male gametophyte in flowering plant is?
(a) Microspore mother cell
(b) Megaspore mother cell
(c) Male gamete
(d) Microspore
Q.73 In which set of plants an ovary contains one ovule?
(a) Papaya, Watermelon, Orchids
(b) Wheat, Paddy, Mango
(c) Papaya, Watermelon, Mango
(d) Papaya, Watermelon, Wheat
Q.74 Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) The body of ovule fuses with funicle in the region called chalaza.
(b) Polar nuclei are situated in the central cell above the egg apparatus.
(c) Cliestogamous flowers are invariably autogamous.
(d) Pollen tube releases the two male gamates into cytoplasm of egg cell.
Q.75 Read the given statement.

(i) Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layer-epidermis, endothecium, middle layer, tapetum.

(ii) Cells of tapetum undergo meiosis and produce microspore tetrads.

(iii) Intine of pollen grain is pecto cellulosic in nature.

(iv) Generative cell is bigger and contains abundant food reserve.

Which of the following statements are not true?

(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

Q.76 Select incorrect statement regarding microspore genesis in an anther.
(a) It consume tapetum and middle layer.
(b) Microspore tetrad may be tetrahedral and isobilateral.
(c) Each microsporogenesis involve one meiosis and three mitosis.
(d) Large number of microspore mother cells differentiate in one pollen sac.
Q.77 Which of the following statements about sporopollenin is false?
(a) Exine is made up of sporopollenin
(b) It is one of the most resistant organic material known
(c) No enzyme can degrade sporopollenin
(d) Exine has prominent apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is
present
Q.78 I. In most of the water pollinated species pollen grains are protected from
wetting by a ____(i)_____.
II. Pseudocopulation act for pollination is performed by ____ (ii) ____in____(iii) ____.
(a) (i) Sporopollenin (ii) Wasp (iii) Ophrys
(b) (1) Sporopollenin (ii) Moth (iii) Ficus
(c) (i) Mucilagenous sheath (ii) Wasp (iii) Ophrys
(d) (i) Mucilagenous sheath (ii) Moth (iii) Ficus
Q.79 The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac-
(a) Through one of the two synergids
(b) By directly penetrating the egg cell
(c) Between one synergid and central cell
(d) By degenerating the antipodal cell
Q.80 From among the situations given below choose the one that prevents both
autogamy and eitonogamy
(a) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
(b) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
(c) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
(d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers
Q.81 Which is the correct sequence for embryogenesis in dicots?
(a) Zygote →globular stage → Proembryo →Heart shaped embryo→Matrure embryo
(b) Zygote →Heart shaped stage →Globular stage →Mature stagex
(c) Zygote → Proembryo → Heart shaped stage → Globular stage →Mature embryo
(d) Zygote → Proembryo → Globular stage → Heart shaped embryo → Mature
embryo
Q.82 Choose the number of diploid structure from the list. Pollen grains, Nucellus,
Perisperm, Endosperm, Megaspore, MMC.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Q.83 Ovules generally differentiate _____ Megaspore mother cell/s in the _____
region of the______.
(a) Many, Micropylar, Nucellus
(b) Single, Chalazal, Nucellus
(c) Single, Micropylar, Nucellus
(d) Many, Chalazal, Integument
Q.84 Insect and plants which cannot complete their life cycle in absence of each other
(i) Yucca & Moth (ii) Orchid & Wasp/bee
(iii) Grass & Bee (iv) Arsitoloxhia & Flies
(v) Ficus & Wasp
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (iii), (v)
(d) (i), (ii), (v)
Q.85 The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of scutellum is –
(a) Hypocotyl
(b) Epicotyl
(c) Radical
(d) Coleorhiza
Q.86 Persistent nucellus is called as ______ and is _____found
in_____.
(a) Perisperm, Black pepper
(b) Perisperm, Groundnut
(c) Endosperm, Black Peper
(d) Endosperm, Groundnut
Q.87 Select the mismatched pair.
(a) Microsporangium - Pollen sac
(b) Megasporangium - Ovule
(c) Pollen grain - Male gamete
(d) Embryo sac - Female gametophyte
Q.88 Refer the given characteristics of some flowers.

(i) Light and non-sticky pollen grains

(ii) Exserted stigmas and anthers

(iii) Large, often feathery stigmas

(iv) Flowers colourless, odourless and nectarless

(v) Common in grasses

Above features are the characteristics of which type of flower?

(a) Air pollinated (b) Water pollinated

(c) Insect pollinated (d) Animal pollinated

Q.89 _____cell of the pollen grain divides to form two male gametes.

(a) Vegetative cell

(b) Generative cell

(c) Microspore mother cell

(d) None of these

Q.90 The three cells found in a pollen grain when it is shed at 3-celled stage are-

(a) 1 vegetative, 1 generative cell, 2 male gametes

(b) 1 vegetative cell, 2 male gametes

(c) 1 generative cell, 2 male gametes

(d) Either (a) or (b)

Q.91 How many pollen mother cells should undergo meiotic division to produce 64 pollen grains?

(a) 64

(b) 32

(c) 16

(d) 8
Q.92 The innermost layer of anther is tapetum whose function is-

(a) Dehiscence

(b) Mechanical

(c) Nutrition

(d) Protection
Q.93 Match Column-1 with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

A. Tallest flower (i) Maize

B. Pronuba moth (ii) Amorphophallus

C. Anemophily (iii) Salvia

D. Entomophily (iv) Yucca

(a) A - (ii) , B - (iv) , C-(i), D-(iii) (b) A - (ii) , B - (iv) , C-(iii), D - (i)
(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C - (i), D - (iv) (d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D - (i)

Q.94 Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in -

(a) Commelina

(b) Zostera

(c) Salvia

(d) Fig
Q.95 Match Column-1 with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

A. Funicle (i) Mass of parenchymatous cells

B. Hilum (ii) Basal part of ovule

C. Integument (iii) One or two protective layers of ovule

D. Chalaza (iv) Region where body of ovule fuses with funicle

E. Nucellus (v) Stalk of ovule

(a) A - (i) B - (ii) , C-(iii ,D-(iv),E-(v) (b) A-(v),B-(iv) , C-(iii), D - (ii), E - (i)

(c) A - (iv) , B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(v) (d) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(ii), E-(iv)