NCERT LINE BY LINE BIOLOGY- 9844532971

CHAPTER
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN
2 FLOWERING PLANTS

Exercise 1 : NCERT Based Topic-wise MCQs

2.1 FLOWER - A FASCINATING ORGAN OF ANGIOSPERMS
1. Identify P − V in the given figure and select the correct option. NCERT Page-20/N-4

(a) P-Petal, Q-sepal, R-Filament, S-Anther, T-Style, U-Stigma, V-Ovary

(b) P-Petal, Q-Sepal, R-Anther, S-Filament, T-Stigma, U-Style, V-Ovary
(c) P-Sepal, Q-Petal, R-Anther, S-Filament, T-Stigma, U-Style, V-Ovary
(d) P-Ovary, Q-Petal, R-Anther, S-Filament, T-Stigma U-Style, V-Sepal

2.2 Prefertilisation: Structure and Events

2. Anther is typically NCERT Page-21 / N-5
(a) tetrasporangiate (b) bisporangiate
(c) – trisporangiate (d) monosporangiate

3. The functions of tapetum is to NCERT Page-21 / N-5

(a) dehiscence of anther
(b) produce pollen grains.
(c) provide nourishment to the developing pollen grains.
(d) store and protect pollen grains.

4. Microsporogenesis occurs NCERT Page-21 / N-5

(a) on margins of leaves. (b) inside the ovule.
(c) inside the anther. (d) in essential floral organs.
5. One of the most resistant known biological material is. NCERT Page-23 / N-7
(a) lignin (b) hemicellulose
(c) sporopollenin (d) lignocellulose

6. Pollen grain is liberated at NCERT Page-23 / N-7

(a) one celled stage. (b) two celled stage
(c) three celled stage. (d) two or three celled stage.

7. Ovules are attached to a parenchymatous cushion called

(a) nucellus (b) obturator (c) conducting tissue (d) placenta

8. The point at which funicle touch the ovule is NCERT Page-25 / N-9
(a) chalaza (b) hilum (c) raphe (d) endothelium

9. Egg apparatus consists of NCERT Page-27 / N-11

(a) egg cell and antipodal cells. (b) egg cell and central cell.
(c) egg cell and two synergids. (d) egg cell and one synergid.

10. The most common type of ovule is

(a) orthotropous (b) hemitropous (c) anatropous (d) campylotropous

11. Filiform apparatus is found in NCERT Page-33, 27 / N-11

(a) synergids (b) anther wall (c) secondary nucleus (d) egg cell

12. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called
(a) geitonogamy (b) xenogamy NCERT Page-28 / N-12
(c) autogamy (d) cleistogamy

13. Cleistogamous flowers are NCERT Page-28 / N-12

(a) wind pollinated (b) self-pollinated (c) cross-pollinated (d) insect pollinated

14. Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in NCERT Page-28 / N-12
(a) Helianthus (b) Commelina (c) Rosa (d) Gossypium

15. Pollination by water occurs in NCERT Page-29/ N-13

(a) Vallisneria (b) Zostera (c) Hydrilla (d) All of these

16. Bees are important to agriculture as they

(a) produce wax (b) perform pollination (c) prevent pollination (d) produce honey

17. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding artificial hybridisation. NCERT Page-33 / N-17
(a) Desired pollen grains are used for pollination.
(b) Anther is protected from contamination.
(c) This is achieved by emasculation and bagging techniques.
(d) It is major approaches of crop improvement programme.

18. Which one of the following statement is correct? NCERT Page-28 / N-12
(a) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma of flowers of different plants.
 (b) Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous.
(c) Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination.
(d) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all.

19. Which one of the following statement is correct? NCERT Page-21 / N-5
(a) Sporogenous tissue is haploid.
(b) Endothecium produces the microspores.
(c) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen.
(d) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine.

20. Unisexuality of flowers prevents NCERT Page-21 / N-5

(a) geitonogamy but not xenogamy. (b) autogamy and geitonogamy.
(c) autogamy but not geitonogamy. (d) both geitonogamy and xenogamy.

21. An advantage of cleistogamy is that NCERT Page-28 / N-12

(a) it leads to greater genetic diversity.
(b) seed dispersal is more efficient and wide spread.
(c) each visit of pollinator brings hundreds of pollen grains.
(d) seed set is not dependent upon pollinators.

22. Total number of meiotic division required for forming 100 zygotes /100 grains of wheat is
(a) 100 (b) 75 (c) 125 (d) 50

23. Monoecious plant which prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy. NCERT Page-31
(a) castor (b) papaya (c) Maize (d) Both (a) and (c)

24. How many meiotic division are required for the formation of 100 functional megaspores?
(a) 100 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 25

25. What is the main function of filiform apparatus present at the micropylar part of the ovule?
(a) It prevents the entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac. NCERT Page-33, 27/𝐍 − 𝟏𝟏
(b) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into an antipodal cell.
(c) It helps the pollen tube to enter the ovule through chalazal end.
(d) It guides the entry of pollen tube into a synergid and discharge the male gametes.

26. Germ pore / germinal furrow present on the surface of pollen grain represents
(a) area where exine is thin or absent.
(b) specialised thickening of exine.
(c) specialised thickening of intine.
(d) area where tapetum is absent.

27. Self-pollination means NCERT Page-27 / N-12

(a) transfer of pollen from anther to stigma in the same flower.
(b) transfer of pollen from one flower to another on the different plant.
(c) occurence of male and female sex organ in the same flowers.
(d) germination of pollen.
28. The function of anther is NCERT Page-21 / N-5
(a) produce a cellular structure of sporo-pollenin.
(b) produce pollen grains.
(c) store and protect pollen grains.
(d) All the above

29. Cross pollination produces

(a) similar offspring (b) weaker progeny (c) better progeny (d) male progeny

30. Pollen grains are preserved as fossils because of the NCERT Page-23 / N-7
(a) Presence of cellulose & pectin (b) Presence of sporopollenin
(c) Presence of lignin (d) Presence of cellulose

31. Intine of pollen grain is made of NCERT Page-23 / N-7

(a) callose (b) pecto-cellulose (c) cellulose (d) sporopollenin

32. The structure of bilobed anther consists of NCERT Page-21 / N-5

(a) 2 thecae, 2 sporangia (b) 4 thecae, 4 sporangia
(c) 4 thecae, 2 sporangia (d) 2 thecae, 4 sporangia

33. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of presence of NCERT Page-23 / N-7
(a) sporopollenin (b) cellulose (c) lignocellulose (d) pectocellulose
34. ____of the pollen grain divides to form two male gametes. NCERT Page-23 / N-7
(a) Vegetative cell (b) Generative cell
(c) Microspore mother cell (d) None of these

35. Which of the following statement is incorrect about emasculation? NCERT Page-33/N-17
(a) During emasculation process, stigma is removed.
(b) Emasculated flowers are bagged in order to prevent self-pollination.
(c) Emasculation is an outbreeding device to promote cross-pollination..
(d) It is one of the steps for artificial hybridization.
36. The given figure represent the L.S of a flower showing growth of pollen tube. Few structures are marked
as 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐷 & 𝐸. Identify 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐷 and 𝐸 respectively. NCERT Page-32/N-16

(a) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Stigma, Style, Chalaza

(b) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Style, Stigma, Chalaza
(c) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Stigma, Chalaza, Style
(d) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Chalaza, Stigma, Style
37. In the figure of anatropous ovule given below, choose the correct option for the characteristic distribution
of cells within the typical embryo sac NCERT Page-25 & 26 / 𝐍 −
𝟏𝟗

Number of cells at Number of cells at Number of nuclei

chalazal end micropylar end left in central cell
(a) 3 2 3
(b) 3 3 2
(c) 2 3 3
(d) 2 2 4
38. Sequence of development during the formation of embryo sac is NCERT Page-26 / N-10
(a) Megaspore → Megaspore mother cell → Embryo sac.
(b) Megasporocyte → Megaspore → Embryo sac.
(c) Megaspore → Megaspore mother cell → Embryo sac.
(d) Megaspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac.

39. Which of the following processes is necessary for the complete development of male gametophyte?
(a) One meiotic cell division and two mitotic cell divisions. NCERT Page-21 & 22/ N-6
(b) One meiotic cell division and one mitotic cell division.
(c) Two meiotic cell divisions and one mitotic cell division.
(d) Two mitotic cell divisions.

2.3 DOUBLE FERTILISATION

40. In a fertilized ovule, 𝑛, 2𝑛 and 3𝑛 conditions occur respectively in NCERT Page-18
(a) antipodal, egg and endosperm. (b) egg, nucellus and endosperm.
(c) endosperm, nucellus and egg. (d) antipodals, synergids and integuments.

41. During double fertilization in plants, one sperm fuses with the egg cell and the other sperm fuses with
(a) synergids cell (b) polar nuclei NCERT (Page-34 / N-18
(c) antipodal cell (d) nucellar cell

42. Endosperm is generally NCERT Page-34 / N-18

(a) diploid (b) triploid (c) haploid (b) triploid
(d) polyploid
43. Fusion of one male gamete with egg and other of the same pollen tube with two polar nuclei is
(a) triple fusion (b) vegetative fertilization NCERT Page-34 / N-18
(c) double fertilization (d) parthenogenesis.

44. If a diploid female plant and a tetraploid male plant are crossed, the ploidy of endosperm shall be
(a) tetraploid (b) triploid (c) diploid (d) pentaploid

45. Diagram given below shows the stages in embryogenesis in a typical dicot plant (Capsella). Identify the
structures 𝐴 to 𝐷 respectively NCERT Page-34 / N-18

(a) Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons (b) Hypophysis, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons
(c) Suspensor, Plumule, Radicle, Cotyledons (d) Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Hypocotyls

46. The total number of nuclei involved in double fertilisation in angiosperms are
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five

2.4 Post Fertilisation : Structure and Events

47. Water of tender coconut is NCERT Page-35 / N-19
(a) Endosperm (b) Cellular endosperm
(c) Free-nuclear endosperm (d) None of these

48. Perisperm is a NCERT Page-36/N-20

(a) degenerate part of synergids. (b) peripheral part of endosperm.
(c) degenerate part of secondary nucleus. (d) persistent nucleus.

49. Which of the following is an example of false fruit? NCERT Page-36/N-20

(a) apple and pear (b) strawberry
(c) cashewnut (d) All of these

50. Which of the following floral parts forms pericarp after fertilization? NCERT Page-36/N-20
(a) Nucellus (b) Outer integument (c) Ovary wall (d) Inner integument

51. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in NCERT Page-36/N-20
(a) perisperm (b) endosperm (c) cotyledons (d) hypocotyl

52. The coconut water from tender coconut is NCERT Page-35 / N-19
(a) cellular endosperm. (b) free nuclear endosperm
(c) both cellular and nuclear endosperm. (d) free nuclear embryo.
53. Identify 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 and 𝐷 in the given figure of false fruit of apple. NCERT Page-37 / N-21

(a) A - Mesocarp; B - Endocarp; C - Seed; 𝐷 - Thalamus

(b) A - Seed; B - Thalamus; C - Mesocarp; 𝐷 - Endocarp
(c) A - Thalamus; B - Seed; C - Endocarp; 𝐷 - Mesocarp
(d) A - Mesocarp; B - Endocarp; C - Seed; D - Thalamus

54. Choose the option showing the correct labelling A, B, 𝐶 and 𝐷 in the given figure of a dicot embryo.

(a) A - Hypocotyl; B - Cotyledons; C - Root cap; D – Radicle NCERT Page-35 / N-19

(b) A - Cotyledons; B - Hypocotyl; C - Root cap; D - Radicle
(c) A - Cotyledons; B - Hypocotyl; C - Radicle; D - Root cap
(d) A - Cotyledons; B - Radicle; C - Hypocotyl; D - Root cap.

55. The given figure shows the L.S. of a monocot embryo. Choose the correct labelling for A, B, C and 𝐷
marked in the figure from the options given below. NCERT Page-35 / N-19

(a) A-Coleoptile; B - Scutellum; C - Epiblast; 𝐷 - Coleorhiza

(b) A - Scutellum; B - Coleoptile; C - Coleorhiza; 𝐷 - Epiblast
(c) A - Scutellum; B - Epiblast; C - Coleoptile; D - Coleorhiza
(d) A - Scutellum; B - Coleoptile; C - Epiblast; D – Coleorhiza

56. Flowering plants have developed certain out breeding devices to discourage self-pollination and encourage
cross-pollination. One of these is not an example of such outbreeding device. NCERT Page-28, 31/N-5
(a) Dicliny (b) Dichogamy (c) Herkogamy (d) Cleistogamy
 2.5 Apomixis and polyembryony
57. An embryo is sometimes develop from a cell of an embryo sac other than eggs. This is called
(a) Apogamy (b) Apospary NCERT Page-37 / N-22
(c) Parthenogenesis (d) Parthenocarpy

58. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of

(a) Brassica (b) Gossypium (c) Triticum (d) Citrus

59. An irregular mode of reproduction resulting in the development of an embryo without fertilisation is called
I. parthenogenesis NCERT Page-36 & 37 / N-22, 23
II. apogamy
III. sporophytic budding
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) II and III (d) I, II and III

60. Formation of seeds (individuals) without fusion is called____ NCERT PAGE-38/23

(a) fertilization (b) pollination (c) apomixis (d) amphimixis

Exercise 2 : NCERT Exemplar & Past Years NEET

NCERT Exemplar Questions
1. Among the terms listed below, those that of are not technically correct names for a floral whorl are
(i) androecium (ii) carpel (iii) corolla (iv) sepal
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (ii)

2. Embryo sac is to ovule as ....... is to an another.

(a) stamen (b) filament (c) pollen grain (d) androecium

3. In a typical complete, bisexual and hypogynous flower the arrangement of floral whorls on the thalamus
from the outermost to the innermost is
(a) calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium
(b) calyx, corolla, gynoecium and androecium
(c) gynoecium, androecium, corolla and calyx
(d) androecium, gynoecium, corolla and calyx

4. A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers, but never produces fruits and seeds. The most probable cause for
the above situation is
(a) plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers
(b) plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and staminate flowers
(c) plant is monoecious
(d) plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers
5. The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively.
(a) Endothecium and tapetum NCERT PAGE-22
(b) Epidermis and endodermis
(c) Epidermis and middle layer
(d) Epidermis and tapetum

6. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in NCERT PAGE-21

(a) endothecium
(c) microspore tetrads
(b) microspore mother cells
(d) pollen grains

7. From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the gynoecium.
(a) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta NCERT- PAGE 25
(b) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
(c) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
(d) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac

8. Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in a ovule are NCERT- PAGE 25
(a) egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument
(b) egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument
(c) embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg
(d) egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus

9. From the statements given below choose the option that are true for a typical female gametophyte of a
flowering plant. NCERT Page-27
(i) It is eight-nucleate and seven-celled at maturity.
(ii) It is free-nuclear during the development.
(iii) It is situated inside the integument, but outside the nucellus.
(iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end.
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

10. Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if:

(a) pollen matures before maturity of ovule
(b) ovules mature before maturity of pollen
(c) both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously
(d) both anther and stigma are of equal lengths

11. Choose the correct statement from the following.

(a) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit autogamy.
(b) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy.
(c) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy and geitonogamy.
(d) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy.
12. A particular species of plant produces light, non-sticky pollen in large numbers and its stigmas are long
and feathery. These modifications facilitate pollination by NCERT Page-29
(a) insects
(b) water
(c) wind
(d) animals

13. From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
(a) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers. NCERT Page-31
(b) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers.
(c) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers.
(d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers.

14. In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid structure are:
(a) synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
(b) synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
(c) antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus
(d) synergid, polar nuclei and zygote

15. In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate after fertilisation are:
(a) synergids and primary endosperm cell
(b) synergids and antipodals
(c) antipodals and primary endosperm cell
(d) egg and antipodals

16. While planning for an artificial hybridisation programme involving dioecious plants, which of the
following steps would not be relevant? NCERT Page-33
(a) Bagging of female flower
(b) Dusting of pollen on stigma
(c) Emasculation
(d) Collection of pollen

17. In the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass, true homologous structures are NCERT PAGE- 35
(a) coleorrhiza and coleoptile
(b) coleoptile and scutellus
(c) cotyledons and scutellum
(d) hypocotyl and radicle

18. The phenomenon observed in some plants where in parts of the sexual apparatus is used for forming
embryo without fertilisation is called NCERT Page-38
(a) parthenocarpy
(b) apomixis
(c) vegetative propagation
(d) sexual reproduction

19. In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms megaspores without undergoing meiosis and if one of the
megaspores develops into an embryo sac, its nuclei would be
 (a) haploid
(b) diploid
(c) a few haploid and a few diploid
(d) with varying ploidy

20. The phenomenon wherein, ovary develops into a fruit without fertilisation is called NCERT PAGE- 37
(a) parthenocarpy
(b) apomixis
(c) asexual reproduction
(d) sexual reproduction

PAST YEAR NEET

21. Which one of the following statements is not true? NCERT Page-21 / N-5 |2016, C
(a) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
(b) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
(c) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
(d) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes

22. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of
(a) Sporulation NCERT Page-38/N-22 | 2016, C
(b) Budding
(c) Somatic hybridization
(d) Apomixis

23. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into? 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟕, 𝐂

(a) Endosperm
(c) Embryo
(b) Embryo sac
(d) Ovule

24. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both NCERT Page-31/N-12 | 2017, C

(a) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(b) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
(c) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
(d) Autogamy and xenogamy

25. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by
(a) Bee NCERT Page-29 | 2017, C
(b) Wind
(c) Bat
(d) Water

26. Attractants and rewards are required for 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟕, 𝑪

(a) Entomophily (b) Hydrophily (c) Cleistogamy (d) Anemophily
27. Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of
the two can complete its life cycle without the other? 2018
(a) Hydrilla
(c) Viola
(b) Yucca
(d) Banana
28. Double fertilization is NCERT Page-34 / N-18 / 2018, C
(a) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
(b) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
(c) Syngamy and triple fusion
(d) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg

29. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
(a) −120∘ C NCERT Page-24 / N-8 | 2018, C
(b) −80∘ C
(c) −160∘ C
(d) −196∘ C
30. Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
(a) Pollenkitt NCERT(Page-23/N-7 | 2018, C
(c) Sporopollenin
(b) Cellulosic intine
(d) Oil content
31. Ploidy level of nucellus, endosperm, polar nuclei, megaspore mother cell, female gametophyte
respectively are NCERT Page-10 | 2019, 𝑪
(a) 2n, 3n, n, 2n, n
(b) 2𝑛, 3𝑛, 2𝑛, 𝑛, 𝑛
(c) 𝑛, 2𝑛, 𝑛, 2𝑛, 𝑛
(d) 2𝑛, 3𝑛, 2𝑛, 2𝑛, 𝑛
32. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as: NCERT Page-36 / N-9 | 2019,S
(a) Chalaza
(b) Perisperm
(c) Hilùm
(d) Tegmen
33. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid? NCERT Page-34/N-10 | 2019, C
(a) One fuses with the egg, other(s) degenerate(s) in the synergid.
(b) All fuse with the egg.
(c) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) with synergid nucleus.
(d) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with central cell nuclei.

34. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at NCERT Page-25 / N-9 | 2020, C
(a) Micropyle
(b) Nucellus
(c) Chalaza
(d) Hilum
35. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which,
during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is
(a) Cleistogamy NCERT Page-28/N-12|2021, C
 (c) Geitonogamy
(b) Xenogamy
(d) Chasmogamy
36. Atypical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is: NCERT Page-34 / N-10 | 2021, C
(a) 8-nucleate and 8-celled
(b) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
(c) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
(d) 7-nucleate and 7-celled

37. Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination: NCERT Page-30 / N-12, 13 | 2022, C
(a) Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination
(b) Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated
(c) Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
(d) Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants

38. Given below are two statements: NCERT Page-28 / N-12 | 2022, C
Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
Statement II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

39. Which part of fruit, labelled in given figure makes it a false fruit? NCERT Page-36 & 37/N-21 | 2022, C

(a) B → Endocarp (b) C → Thalamus (c) D → Seed (d) A → Mesocarp

40. Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in NCERT Page-30 / N-14 | 2023
(a) Insect pollinated plants (b) Bird pollinated plants
(c) Bat pollinated plants (d) Wind pollinated plants

41. What is the function of tassels in the corn cob? NCERT Page-29 / N-13 | 2023
(a) To attract insects (b) To trap pollen grains
(c) To disperse pollen grains (d) To protect seeds

42. In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially are :
(a) Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and zygote NCERT Page-34 / N-18 | 2023
(b) Antipodals, synergids, and primary endosperm nucleus
(c) Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus
(d) Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei
 Exercise 3: Matching, Statement & Assertion Reason Type
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. Match the column. NCERT Page-36 / N-20

Column-1 Column-II
A. Pericarp I. persistent nucellus
B. Perisperm II. no residual endosperm
C. Albuminous seed III. ovary wall
D. Non Albuminous seed IV. endosperm

(a) A - I; B - II; C - III; D - IV

(b) A − IV; B − III; C − II; D − I
(c) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II
(d) A − III; B − I; C − II; D − IV

2. Match the items given in column-I with those given in column-II and choose the correct option given
below. NCERT Page-21 & 23 / N-5
Column-I Column-II
A. Tapetum I. Irregular in shape with abundant food reserve
B. Exine II. Acts as nutritive layer
C. Pollenkit III. Thick, rigid protective layer
D. Vegetative cell IV. Involve in the formation of microspores
V. Oily and sticky layer, tissue help in pollination.
(a) A − II; B − III; C − V; D − IV
(b) A − I; B − III; C − II; D − IV
(c) A − II; B − III; C − I; D − IV
(d) A - II; B - IV; C - V; D -I

3. Match column I with column II & select correct option from given codes.NCERT Page-29, 30/N-12 & 13
Column-I Column-II
A. Wind I. Grasses, Date palm
B. Water II. Rose, Jasmine
C. Insect III. Amorphophallus
D. Bird IV. Vallisneria, Hydrilla
 (a) A - I; B - IV; C - II; D - III
(b) A − I; B − IV; C − III; D − II
(c) A − II; B − III; C − I; D − IV
(d) A - II; B - I; C - III; D – IV

4. Match the column I with Column II. NCERT Page-24,33,38 & 39

Column-I Column-II
A. Syncarpous ovary I. Occurence of more than one embryo in seed
B. Polyembryony ovary II. Carpels in a flower are fused together
C. Apomixis III. Removal of stamens from the bisexual flower bud
D. Emasculation IV. Formation of seeds without fertilisation
(a) A − II; B − I; C − IV; D − III
(b) A − IV; B − III; C − II; D − I
(c) A − I; B − IV; C − III; D − II
(d) A - IV; B - II; C - I; D - IV

5. Match the items given in column-I with their examples given in column-Il and choose the correct option
given below. NCERT Page-36 & 37 / N-20

Column-I Column-II
A. Ovary I. Groundnut, mustard
B. Ovule II. Guava, orange, mango
C. Wall of ovary III. Pericarp
D. Fleshy fruits IV. Seed
V. Fruit

(a) A − V; B − IV; C − III; D − II (b) A − I; B − II; C − III; D − IV

(c) A − I; B − III; C − II; D − IV (d) A − V; B − IV; C − I; D − II

6. Match the items given in column-I with their examples given in column-Il and identify the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Coleorhiza I. Grapes
B. Food storing tissue II. Mango
C. Parthenocarpic fruit III. Maize
Single seeded fruit developing
D. from monocarpellary superior IV. Radicle
ovary
V. Endosperm
 (a) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II NCERT Page-35,36 & 37
(b) A − IV; B − II; C − V; D − I
(c) A − V; B − I; C − III; D − IV
(d) A − IV; B − V; C − I; D − II

7. Match the items given in column-I with those given in column-II and choose the correct option given
below. NCERT Page-37,38 & 39/N-22
Column-I Column-II

A. Parthenocarpy I. Inactive state

B Polyembryony Meiosis and syngamy are absent

C Apomixis Occurrence of more than one embryo

D. Dormancy IV. Seedless fruit

(a) A - I; B - II; C - III; D - IV
(b) A − IV; B − III; C − II; D − I
(c) A − IV; B − I; C − II; D − III
(d) A − III; B − II; C − I; D − IV

Two Statement Type Questions

DIRECTION: Read the statements carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

8. Statement I: The primary endosperm cell (PEC) and develops into the endosperm
Statement II: the zygote develops into an embryo. NCERT Page-34 / N-19

9. Statement I: Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers - epidermis, endothecium,

middle layer and tapetum.
Statement II: The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence of
anther to release the pollen. NCERT Page-21 / N-5

10. Statement I: Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell (MMC) in the chalazal region
of the nucellus.
Statement II: MMC undergoes reduction division and produces four megaspores. NCERT Page-26/N-9

11. Statement I: zygote gives rise to the mature embryo.

Statement II: zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed. NCERT Page-35 / N-18
12. Statement I: The events 'from pollen deposition on stigma until pollen tubes enters the ovule' are together
referred to as pollen-pistil interaction. NCERT Page-31 & 32 / N-15
Statement II: Pollen-pistil interaction is mediated by chemical components of the ovule.

13. Statement I: If the female parent produces bisexual flowers, there is no need for emasculation.
Statement II: The female flower buds are bagged after the flowers open NCERT Page-33 / N-17

Multi-Statement Type Questions

14. Study the following statements and select the correct option. NCERT Page-21,25,29 & 34
(i) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.
(ii) Hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle.
(iii) In aquatic plants, such as water hyacinth and water lily, pollination is by water.
(iv) The primary endosperm nucleus is triploid.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) and (iv) are incorrect.
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct but (iii) is incorrect.
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct but (i) is incorrect.
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct but (ii) and (iii) are incorrect.

15. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ? NCERT Page-34 & 35
(i) Endosperm formation starts prior to first division of zygote.
(ii) Angiospermic endosperm is mostly 3 N while gymnospermic one is N.
(iii) Coconut has both liquid nuclear (multinucleate) and cellular endosperm.
(iv) Milky water of green tender coconut is liquid female gametophyte.
(v) Endosperm develop at the chalazal end.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iv) and (v)
(b) Only (iii)
(d) Only (ii)

16. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about self-incompatibility?

(i) It is a device to prevent inbreeding.
(ii) It provides a biochemical block to self-fertilization.
(iii) It ensures cross-fertilization.
(iv) It is governed by pollen-pistil interaction.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above

17. From the statements given below choose the option that are true for a typical female gametophyte of a
flowering plant. NCERT Page-25 & 27
(i) It is eight-nucleate and seven-celled at maturity.
(ii) It is free-nuclear during the development.
 (iii) It is situated inside the integument, but outside the nucellus.
(iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end.
(a) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Assertion & Reason Questions

DIRECTION: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) Both (𝐴) and (𝑅) are correct but (𝑅) is not the correct explanation of (𝐴)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (𝐴)

18. Assertion: If pollen mother cells have 42 chromosomes, the pollen has only 21 chromosomes.
Reason: Pollens are formed after meiosis from pollen mother cell.

19. Assertion: The megaspore mother cell divides meiotically to produce four spores.
Reason: Megaspore mother cells are haploid and megaspore is diploid. NCERT (Page-26 / N-10

20. Assertion : Pollen mother cells (PMCs) are the first male gametophytic cells.
Reason : Each PMC gives rise to four pollens.

21. Assertion : Chasmogamous flowers require pollinating agents.

Reason : Cleistogamous flowers do not expose at all. NCERT ( Page-28 / N-12

22. Assertion : Double fertilisation is characteristic feature of angiosperms.

Reason : Double fertilisation involves two fusions. NCERT Page-34/ 𝐍 − 𝟏𝟖

23. Assertion : Endosperm is a nutritive tissue which is triploid.

Reason: Endosperm is formed by fusion of secondary nucleus to second male gamete. It is used by
developing embryo. NCERT Page-34 & 35 / N-18
24. Assertion: A typical microsporangium of angiosperms is generally surrounded by four wall layers.
Reason: The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence of anther to
release the pollen. NCERT Page-21 / N-5
 Answer Keys
Exercise 1 (NCERT Based Topic wise MCOs)
1 (c) 7 (d) 13 (b) 19 (c) 25 (d) 31 (b) 37 (b) 43 (c) 49 (d) 55 (d)

2 (a) 8 (b) 14 (b) 20 (c) 26 (a) 32 (b) 38 (d) 44 (a) 50 (c) 56 (d)

3 (c) 9 (c) 15 (d) 21 (d) 27 (a) 33 (a) 39 (a) 45 (a) 51 (b) 57 (d)

4 (c) 10 (c) 16 (b) 22 (c) 28 (d) 34 (c) 40 (b) 46 (d) 52 (b) 58 (d)

5 (c) 11 (a) 17 (b) 23 (d) 29 (c) 35 (a) 41 (b) 47 (c) 53 (c) 59 (a)

6 (d) 12 (a) 18 (b) 24 (a) 30 (b) 36 (a) 42 (b) 48 (d) 54 (b) 60 (c)

Exercise-2 (NCER Exemplar & Past Years NEET)

1 (c) 6 (b) 11 (a) 16 (c) 21 (a) 26 (a) 31 (a) 36 (b) 41 (b)

2 (c) 7 (a) 12 (c) 17 (c) 22 (d) 27 (b) 32 (b) 37 (c) 42 (c)

3 (a) 8 (b) 13 (b) 18 (b) 23 (b) 28 (c) 33 (d) 38 (d)

4 (d) 9 (c) 14 (a) 19 (b) 24 (a) 29 (d) 34 (d) 39 (b)

5 (d) 10 (c) 15 (b) 20 (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (b) 40 (a)

1.2.Exercise 3 (Matching, Statement & Asse

1. (c) 4. (a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 13 (a) 16 (c) 19 (b) 22 (a)

2 (a) 5 (a) 8 (d) 11 (c) 14 (b) 17 (c) 20 (c) 23 (d) √𝟓𝟎𝟒𝟖

3 (a) 6 (d) 9 (d) 12 (b) 15 (c) 18 (d) 21 (a) 24 (a)

H INTS AND S O LUT IO N S
EXERCISE -1
1. (c)

2. (a) Typically, angiospermic anther is bilobed which is connected by connective and dithecous i.e., each
lobe has two theca. The bilobed structure of the anther is tetrasporangiate (four sporangia). In transverse
section, it appears as four sided tetragonal structure consisting of two microsporangia in each lobe.

3. (c) The tapetum is a layer of nutritive cells found within the sporangium, particularly within the anther, of
flowering plants. Its main function is to provide nutrition to the developing microspore mother cells and
pollen grains.

4. (c) Microsporogenesis is the process of formation of microspores or pollen grains, from a pollen mother
cell through meiosis, Each cell of sporogenous tissue serve as microspore mother cell (MMC). These
MMCs undergo meiosis and form microspore tetrad and become haploid, microspores or pollen grains.
As anthers mature microspores of the tetrad separate from each other and develops into pollen grains.
Each microsporangium contains numerous pollen grains which are released after dehiscence of anther
wall.

5. (c) Sporopollenin is the most resistant known biological material. It is resistant to several biological &
chemical decomposition & can be preserved as fossils.

6. (d) Pollen grain is liberated at 2 or 3 celled stage. If pollen grain is released at the 2-celled stage (i.e.,
vegetative and generative cells) then generative cell divides meiotically to produce two male gametes, but
when pollen grains are released at 3-celled stage then two male gametes are already present.

7. (d) Placenta is the surface of the carpel to which the ovules (potential seeds) are attached. The placenta is
usually located in a region corresponding somewhat to the margins of a leaf but is actually submarginal in
position.

8. (b) The point at which funiculus touches the ovule is called hilum. Thus, hilum represents the junction
between the ovule and funiculus.

9. (c) Egg apparatus consists of two synergids and one egg cell lying at the micropylar end. Synergids bear
prominent structure called 'filiform' apparatus which are finger like projections. Synergids guide the path
of pollen tube towards the egg, help in obtaining nourishment from the outer nucellar cells and also
function as shock absorbers during the penetration of pollen tube into the embryo sac. Cytoplasm of egg
is inactive, rich in ribosomes, and contains plastids.

10. (c) In Anatropous ovule, the body of the ovule is completely turned at 180∘ angle, due to unilateral
growth of funiculus, so it is also called inverted ovule. The chalaza and micropyle lie in straight line. The
hilum and micropyle lie side by side very close to each other. This type of ovule is found in 80% families
of angiosperms but not in Capsella. In this ovule, micropyle is facing downward condition. This is the
most common type of ovule so that it is considered as a "typical ovule" an angiosperms.
11. (a) Synergids bear prominent structure called 'filiform' apparatus which are finger like projections. This
apparatus is present in upper part of each synergid. This apparatus is useful for the absorption and
transportation of materials from the nucellus to the embryo sac.

12. (a) Autogamy and geitonogamy are types of self pollination. Geitonogamy is the fertilization of a flower
by pollen from another flower on the same (or a genetically identical) plant.. It occurs between bisexual
flowers or unisexual flowers of the same plant. While autogamy is a kind of pollination in which the
pollen from the anthers of a flower are transferred to the stigma of the same flower.

13. (b) In some plants, bisexual flowers are formed which never open throughout the life. Such flowers are
called cleistogamous flowers such as Commelina viola. So only self-pollination takes place in these
plants.

14. (b) Commelina produces two types of flower suchas chasmogamous flower that are similar to the flower
of other species with exposed anthers and stigma & cleistogamous flowers which donot open at all.

15. (d) Pollination by water occurs in vallisneria & zostera. In vallisneria and Hydrilla, pollination takes place
over the surface of water. In zostera, pollination takes place inside the surface of water.

16. (b) Bees are important to agriculture as they perform pollination. Bees are responsible for over 80% of all
pollination done by insects. Plants pollinated by insects are colorful with fragrance and abundant nectar
which attracts insects.

17. (b) Stigma is protected from contamination. While anther is extract by the help of forceps through
emasculation process

18. (b) Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their reproductive parts. Anthers and stigma lie close to each
other. Pure autogamy occurs since there is no chance of cross-pollination. Cleistogamy is the most
efficient floral adaptation for promoting self-pollination. E.g., Viola, Mirabilis and Oxalis autosella.

19. (c) Sporogenous tissue is always diploid, endothecium is second layer of anther wall and perform the
function of protection and help in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen. Hard outer layer of pollen is
called exine but tapetum provide nourishement to the developing pollen. Cells of the tapetum possess
dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus (polypoid).

20. (c) Unisexuallity of flowers prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy because autogamy is the transfer of
pollen grains from anther to stigma of same flower and geitonogamy is the fertilization of a flower by
pollen from
another flower on the same (or a genetically identical) plant. Therefore, geitonogamy occurs between
bisexual flowers or unisexual flowers of the same plant.

21. (d) Cleistogamy is a self-fertilization that occurs within a permanently closed flower. In cleistogamous
flower, the anther and stigma lies close to each other. When anther dehisces in the flower buds, pollen
grains come in contact with the stigma to effect pollination. Thus, cleistogamous flowers are invariably
autogamous as there is no chance of cross - pollen landing on the stigma. Cleistogamous flowers produce
assured seed set even in the absence of pollinators.
22. (c) 100 zygotes require 100 pollen grains and 100 embryo sacs. 100 pollen grains are formed from 25
microspore mother cells while 100 embryo sacs are formed from 100 functional megaspores which in turn
are produced by 100 megaspore mother cells since three out of four megaspores degenerate in each case.

23. (d) If both male and female flowers are present on the same plant such as castor and maize (monoecious),
it prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy.

24. (a) Megaspore mother cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis to form four haploid cells (called megaspores) and
the process of formation is known as megasporogenesis. The MMC undergoes meiotic division results in
the production of four megaspores 100 functional megaspores are produced by 100MMC, since three out
of four megaspores degenerate in each case.

25. (d) The synergids have special cellular thickening at the micropylar tip is called filiform apparatus that
plays an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergids.

26. (a)

27. (a) Self-pollination means transfer of pollen from anther to stigma in the same flower.

28. (d)

29. (c) Cross pollination produces better progeny

30. (b)

31. (b) Intine of pollen grain is made of pecto-cellulose

32. (b)

33. (a)

34. (c) The development of the male gametophyte in angiosperms is called as microgametogenesis. Pollen
grain is the first cell of a male gametophyte. Ths cell undergoes only two divisions, with the result of first
division two cells are formed - a large vegetative cell and a small generative cell. The second division is
concerned with generative cell only. This division may take place either in pollen grain or in the pollen
tube and gives rise to two male gametes.

35. (a) In Emasculation process anthers is remove from the bisexual flowers bud before the anther dehisces.

36. (a) In the given figure of 𝐿𝑆 of flower, the structure marked as A, B, C, D and E are respectively
antipodal cells, polar nuclei, stigma, style and chalaza.

37. (b)

38. (d) Sequence of development during the formation of embryo sac is:

Megaspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac Fig. Refer to 2.8.

39. (a) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions will result in complete development of male gametophyte from
pollen mother cell. Each pollen mother cell on meiosis gives rise to 4 microspores or pollens which is the
beginning of male gametophytic generation.

40. (b) In a fertilized ovule n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in egg, nucellus and endosperm.

41. (b) During the process of double fertilisation in plants, one of the male gametes moves towards the egg
cell & fuses with its nucleus & this process results in the formation of diploid cell called zygote, the other
male gamete moves toward the two polar nuclei which is located in the centeral cell & fused with the
polar nuclei result in the formation of triploid primary endosperm nucleus.

42. (b) Endosperm of angiosperms is triploid in nature. As, one of the male gamete moves towards the egg
cell & fuses with its nucleus results in the formation of a diploid zygote where as the other male gamete
moves towards the two polar nuclei located in the central cell & fuses with the polar nuclei results in the
formation of a triploid primary endosperm. nucleus.

43. (c)

44. (a) Diploid female plant will have 2 polar nuclei (each haploid) with which one male gamete form
tetraploid male plant (male gamete of tetraploid plant will be diploid) fuses, to form endosperm. So
endosperm will be tetraploid.
Male gamete +2 polar nuclei → Endosperm
(2𝑛) (𝑛) (𝑛) (4𝑛)
(Male) (Female)

45. (a) The given figure shows the stages in embryogenesis in a typical dicot (Capsella). The structure
marked as A, 𝐵, 𝐶 and 𝐷 is respectively suspensor, radicle, plumule and cotyledon. Suspensor is a
suspending part or structure as a group or chain of cells that is produced from the zygote of a seed plant
and serves to push the developing embryo into the endosperm. Radicle is the part of a plant embryo that
develops into the primary root. Plumule is the young shoot of a plant embryo above the cotyledons,
consisting of the epicotyl and often of immature leaves. Cotyledon is an embryonic leaf in seed-bearing
plants, one or more of which are the first leaves to appear from a germinating seed.

46. (d) In the cytoplasm of the synergid, pollen tube releases the two male gametes. One of two male gametes
fuses with egg to form diploid zygote (2𝑛) while the other uses with two polar nucles of the central cell
to produce triploid primary endosperm nucleus (3𝑛).

47. (c) Milky water of tender coconut is free nuclear endosperm.

48. (d) In most of the angiosperm, entire part of the nucellus is utilized by developing embryo sac but in some
of the angiosperm some part of the nucellus remain inside the ovules. That part of the nucellus present
inside the seed in the form of a thin layer is known as perisperm.

49. (d) In some, the thalamus also contributes to fruit formation & such fruits are called false fruits. for
example : apple, pear, strawberry and cashewnut.

50. (c) Ovary wall forms pericarp after fertilization. Pericarp is the tissue that develops from the ovary wall of
the flower and surrounds the seeds. The pericarp is typically made up of three distinct layers: the epicarp
 (outermost layer); the mesocarp (middle layer); and the endocarp (inner layer surrounding the ovary or
the seeds). In a citrus fruit, the epicarp and mesocarp make up the peel.

51. (b) Endosperm is the nutritive tissue which provides nourishment to the embryo in seed plant.
Albuminous seeds retain a part of endosperm as it is not completely used up during embryo development
(e.g., wheat, maize, barley, castor, sunflower).

52. (b)

53. (c) False fruit are those fruits in which addition to ovary other floral parts (like thalamus) also contribute
for its development is called false fruits. Examples-apple, pear, strawberry and cashewnut. In the given
figure of false fruit (apple), the structure marked as A, B, C and D are respectively thalamus, seed,
endocarp and mesocarp. Thalamus is a receptacle of a flower in which the embryo fruits and later the
seeds are held. Seed is a fertilized and ripened ovule and the characteristics of gymnosperms and
angiosperms. Endocarp is the innermost layer of the pericarp which surrounds a seed in a fruit. It may be
membranous (as in apples) or woody (as in the stone of a peach or cherry). Mesocarp is the middle layer
of the pericarp of a fruit, between the endocarp and the exocarp.

54. (b) In the given figure of a dicot embryo, the A, B, C & 𝐷 labelled respectively are cotyledons, thypocotyl
Root cap & Radical.

55. (d) In the given figure of monocot embryo, the structure marked as A, B, C and D are respectively
scutellum, coleoptile, epiblast and coleorhiza.
Scutellum is the large shield like cotyledon of the embryo of certain monocots. It is specialized for the
absorption of food from the endosperm. Coleoptile is the first leaf above the ground, forming a protective
sheath around the stem tip. It surrounds the plumule. Epiblast is the outermost layer of an embryo before
it differentiates into ectoderm and mesoderm. Coleorhiza is the sheath that envelops the radicle in certain
plants (grass or cereal grain) and that is penetrated by the root in germination.

56. (d) Cleistogamous flowers are intersexual. They remain closed causing self-pollination. Cleistogamy
occurs late in the flowering season in some plants for example Commelina, balsam, Oxalis, Viola. These
plants posses both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers; In cleistogamous flowers, the anthers
dehisce inside closed flowers. Growth of style brings the pollen grains in contact with stigma.
Cleistogamy ensures self-pollination.

57. (d)

58. (d) Polyembryony is the state of occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed. It was observed by
Leeuwenhoek in citrus (orange) seeds. Polyembryony is commonly found in gymnosperms but it is also
found in some of angiospermic plants such as orange, lemon and Nicotiana, etc.

59. (a) In parthenogenesis, formation of fruit occurs without fertilisaton. In apogamy, haploid (𝑛) vegetative
cell forms embryo without gametogenesis and fertilisation. In sporophytic budding, diploid (2𝑛)
vegetative cell by vegetative reproduction forms embryo from bud. Thus, all of these processes are
irregular modes of reproduction.

60. (c)
 EXERCISE - 2
NCERT Exemplar Questions
1. (c) Sepals collectively form a whorl, called as calyx while technically the carpel is known as gynoecium.
The floral whorls formed by petals and stamens are called as corolla and androecium respectively.

2. (c) The pollen grains represent the male gametophytes. As, the anthers mature and dehydrate, the
microspores dissociate from each other and develop into pollen grains. So, embryo sac is to ovule as
pollen grains is to an anther.

3. (a) In a typical complete bisexual and hypogynous flower, the arrangement of floral whorls on the
thalamus from the outermost to the innermost is

(i) The calyx, a whorl of sepals (outermost).

(ii) The corolla, a whorl of petals present inside the calyx.

(iii) The androecium, a whorl of stamens present inside the corolla.

(iv) The gynoecium, a whorl of pistils present in the centre of the flower forming innermost whorl.

4. (d) The unisexual male flower is staminate, in dioecious plants i.e., bearing stamens only, while the
female is pistillate or bearing pistils only. For the production of fruits and seeds, fertilisation must take
place, that is possible only in the presence of both male and female flowers. When the plant is dioecious,
it will give rise to the following situations
(i) If the plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers, fertilisation will take place with the help of
pollinators.

(ii) If the plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers, fertilisation can't take place, because female
gamete is non-motile which can't reach the male gamete in order to fuse with it. When the plant is
monoecious (i.e., that carrys both stamen and pistil together, it may lead to self-fertilisation and
production of seed.

5. (d) Atypical microsporangium is generally surrounded by four-wall layers, i.e., the epidermis (outermost
protective layer), endothecium, middle fibrous layers and the tapetum (innermost nutritive layer).

6. (b) As the anther develops, the microspore mother cells of the sporogenous tissue undergoes meiotic
divisions to form microspore tetrads. After dehydration, the microspore tetrad is separated into pollen
grains.

7. (a) The gynoecium represents the female reproductive part of the flower that consists of pistil. Each pistil
comprises three parts, i.e., stigma, style and ovary. The placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity.

There are the megasporangia, arising from the placenta commonly called ovules. The functional megaspore
undergoing the meiotic division develops into the female gametophyte of embryo sac.

In option ' 𝑏 ' thalamus is not a part of gynoecium. Thalamus forms the base of flower on which all the floral
whorls rest upon, it is not associated with gynoecium. In option 'c' tapetum is not a part of gynoecuim.
Tapetum is the inner most nutritive layer of microsporangium and in option 'd' stamen is not a part of
gynoecium. Stamen is male reproductive part (androecium) of plant. therefore, the other options are
wrong.

8. (b) Starting from the innnermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an ovule is egg, embryo sac,
nucellus, integument.

9. (c) Inside the nucellus, the female gametophyte of embryo sac is located and enclosed within the
integuments. In a majority of flowering plants, one of the megaspore is functional while the other three
degenerates. Three repeated mitotic divisions of the functional megaspore results in the formation of
sevencelled or eight-nucleate embryo sac.

Six of the eight nuclei are organised at the two poles. Three cells grouped at micropylar end forms egg-
apparatus and 3 at the chalazal end forms antipodal cells. The large central cell at the centre has two polar
nuclei.

In the formation of embryo sac the meiotic divisions are strictly free nuclear, i.e nuclear divisions are not
followed immediately by cell-wall formation. Gametophyte is situated at micropylar end not at chalazal
end.

10. (c) The method of self-pollination in which the stigma of a flower receive pollens from the anther of same
flower is known as autogamy. For autogamy both sex organs of a chasmogamous flower should mature at
the same time. As chasmogamous flowers open at maturity, pollen release and for the process of
autogamy stigma receptivity should be synchronised.
In such flowers, the length of anther and stigma plays secondary role in autogamy. e.g., in case of protandry
(pollens nature early) and protogyny (stigma matures early) leads to cross-pollination.

11. (a) Chasmogamy is a process of pollination that occurs in opened flowers. It is most common type of
pollination in all types of flowers. It is of two types i.e., self-pollination (autogamy) and cross-pollination.
Cross-pollination is of two types i.e., geitonogamy and xenogamy.
So, we can say that chasmogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy (self-pollination) and allogamy
(crosspollination). While, in cleistogamous flower, the anthers and stigma lie close to each other within
the closed flowers. When anthers dehisces in the flower buds, pollen grains come in contact with the
stigma for effective pollination. Thus, these flowers are invariably autogamous as there is no chance of
cross-pollen landing on the stigma.

12. (c) Plants use two abiotic (wind and water) and one biotic (animals) agent to achieve pollination. Majority
of plants use biotic agents for pollination.
Wind pollination is more common amongst abiotic pollination. Wind pollination requires the light and non-
sticky pollen grains so that, they can be easily transported in wind currents.

They often consists well-exposed stamens so that the pollens are easily dispersed into wind currents and large
often-feathery stigma to easily trap air-borne pollen grains. Wind pollination is common in grasses:

These types of pollens are not pollinated by means of other three options
(i) Water pollination (hydrophily) is quite rare in flowering plants but exess in aquatic plants.

(ii) Zoophily is pollination through the agency of animals.

(iii) Entomophily is the most common type of zoophily occurs through the agency of insects.

13. (b) The method of self-pollination in which the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of the same
flower takes place is called autogamy. While geitonogamy, is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to
stigma of another flower of the same plant.
In the above condition, dioecious plants, that bear only male or female flowers prevent both autogamy and
geitonogamy. Geitonogamy is ecologically cross-pollination which is supposed to be equivalent to self-
pollination because all flowers on a plant are genetically identical.

14. (a) (i) Synergid - haploid

(ii) Polar nuclei - haploid

(iii) Antipodal - haploid (iv) Zygote - diploid

(v) Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN). Diploid secondary nucleus fertilises with a haploid male gamete to
form a triploid PEN.

15. (b) In unfertilised embryo sac, the antipodals and synergids are present at chalazal end distinctly and
micropylar end respectively. While, in fertilised embryo sac antipodals and synergids gradually
degenerate after the formation of zygote.

16. (c) There is no need for emasculation, if the female parent produces unisexual flowers. The female flower
buds are bagged before the flowers open.

When the stigma becomes receptive, pollination is carried out using the desired pollen and the flower
rebagged. This protects them from contamination by unwanted pollen grains.

17. (c) A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of two cotyledons. While, embryos of monocotyledons
possess
only one cotyledon and it is called scutellum i.e. in grass.

18. (b) The phenomenon of formation of seeds without fertilisation is known as apomixis. These embryos are
genetically identical to the parental plant.
Parthenocarpy is the formation of fruits without fertilisation and hence the fruits are seedless. e.g., banana.

19. (b) In some species, without reduction division the diploid egg cell is formed and without fertilisation, it
develops into an embryo.
It is an asexual reproduction which occurs in the absence of pollinators or in extreme environments. In some
species like citrus plants, nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac start dividing and develops into
embryos.
It occurs in the megaspore mother cell without undergoing meiosis, and produces diploid embryo sac through
mitotic divisions. It helps in the preservation of desirable characters for indefinite period.

Thus, it can be concluded that apomictic species produce diploid cells. Haploid cells will be formed during
sexual reproduction when cell will undergo meiosis.

20. (a) The formation of seedless fruits without fertilisation is parthenocarpy. The fruits developed from
unfertilised ovary are called parthenocarpic fruits.

Past Years NEET

21. (a) Tapetum is important for the nutrition and development of pollen grains, as well as a source of
precursors for the pollen coat.

22. (d) Apomixis (asexual seed formation) is the result of a plant gaining the ability to bypass the most
fundamental aspects of sexual reproduction: meiosis and fertilization. Without the need for male
fertilization, the resulting seed germinates a plant that develops as a maternal clone.

23. (b) In angiosperms, the megasporocyte produces a megaspore that develops into an embryosac through
two distinct process mega sporogenesis/formation of the megaspore in the nucleus and
megagametogenesis/ development of megaspore into the embryosac or mega-gametophyto

24. (a) Autogamy occurs in bisexual flowers. Geitonogamous flowers are unisexual but present in the same
plant. Dioecious condition is observed when unisexual male and female flowers are present on different
plants and it prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.

25. (b) Wind pollination or anemophily occurs in flowers which are having a single ovule in each ovary, and
numerous flowers packed in an inflorescence. It is a non-directional pollination.

26. (a) Insect pollinated plants provide rewards as edible pollen grain and nectar as usual rewards. In order to
materialize and maximize pollination, flowers have developed a set of attributes which are aimed at
attracting the pollinators called attractants.

27. (b) In obligate mutualism, one organism cannot survive without the other. Yucca have an obligate
mutualism with a species of moth i.e. Pronuba.

28. (c) Two types of fusions, syngamy and triple fusion take place in an embryo sac the phenomenon is
termed double fertilisation, an event unique to flowering plants.

29. (d) Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen at −196∘ C (Cryopreservation).

30. (c) Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is helpful in
preserving pollen as fossil.

31. (a)

32. (b) In some seeds like black pepper and beet, the ramnents of nucellus are persistant, this persistant
nucellus is called perisperm. It is present in the seeds in the form of a layer of nutritive tissue
33. (d) In flowering plants, out of the two male gametes discharged in synergids, one fuses with the egg and
other fuses with the secondary or definitive nucleus present in central cell.

Egg (𝑛) + 1st male gamete (𝑛) → Zygote (2𝑛)

Secondary nucleus (2𝑛) + 2nd male gamete (𝑛) → Endosperm Nucleus(3n) (central cell nuclei)

34. (d) The attachment point of funicle and body of ovule is known as hilum. A hilum is a scar or mark left
on a seed coat by the former attachment to the ovary wall or to the funiculus (which in turn attaches to the
ovary wall). A hilum can also be a nucleus of a starch grain; the point around which layers of starch are
deposited.

35. (b) Xenogamy refers to the transfer to pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different
plant which during pollination brigs genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma.

Cleistogamy is a type of automatic self-pollination of certain plants that can propagate by using non-opening,
self-pollinating flowers

Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma of another flower of same plant.

Chasmogamy is a condition in which flowers remain open.

36. (b) The embryo sac of angiosperms consists of seven cells. A typical angiosperm embryo at maturity is
called 7 celled 8 nucleates. The cells are arranged in three sets. In the centre, there are two polar nuclei
which are a part of the large central cell. The polar nuclei are present at the centre of the cell. The polar
nuclei are not separated by a membrane.
There are two ends of the yolk sac. One of the ends is called the chalazal end. This end has 3 antipodal cells.

37. (c) Bees are the most common pollinating agents. Therefore, option c is incorrect.

38. (d) Cleistogamy is the phenomenon, where flowers never open and in such flowers, only self-pollination
occurs within the bud (unopened flower). Bisexual flowers which do not open at all are called
cleistogamous. In such flowers, anthers and stigma lie close to each other.
When the anthers dehisce in the flower buds, pollen grains come in contact with the stigma and
pollination occurs. So, there is no chance of cross-pollination in this type of flower. Therefore, both
statements are true.

39. (b) In few species, such as apple, strawberry, cashew, thalamus contribute to fruit formation and these
fruits are known as false fruit.

40. (a) Majority of insect pollinated flowers are large-sized. These flowers are colorful and possess fragrance
to attract the insects.

41. (b) Tassels in the com cob represents stigma and style which wave in the wind to trap pollen grains.

42. (c) Primary endosperm nucleus is formed by the fusion of diploid secondary nucleus with a male gamete.
Therefore, it is triploid. Zygote is formed by fusion of two gametes and thus it is diploid. Synergids are
the cells of gametophyte and hence these are haploid.
 EXERCISE-3
1. (c) 𝐴 − 𝐼𝐼𝐼; 𝐵 − 𝐼; 𝐶 − 𝐼𝑉; 𝐷 − 𝐼𝐼

2. (a) A − II; B − III; C − V; D − IV

3. (a) 𝐴 − 𝐼; 𝐵 − 𝐼𝑉; 𝐶 − 𝐼𝐼; 𝐷 − 𝐼𝐼𝐼

4. (a) 𝐴 − 𝐼𝐼; 𝐵 − 𝐼; 𝐶 − 𝐼𝑉; 𝐷 − 𝐼𝐼𝐼

5. (a) 𝐴 − 𝑉; 𝐵 − 𝐼𝑉; 𝐶 − 𝐼𝐼𝐼; 𝐷 − 𝐼𝐼

6. (d) 𝐴 − 𝐼𝑉; 𝐵 − 𝑉; 𝐶 − 𝐼; 𝐷 − 𝐼𝐼

7. (b) 𝐴 − 𝐼𝑉; 𝐵 − 𝐼𝐼𝐼; 𝐶 − 𝐼𝐼; 𝐷 − 𝐼

8. (d) Both statements are correct.

9. (d)

10. (c) Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell in the micropylar region of the nucleus.

11. (c) The zygote gives rise to the proembryoand subsequently to the globular, heart-shaped and mature
embryo.

12. (b) The pollen pistil interaction is mediated by chemical. components of the pollen.

13. (a) If the female parent produces unisexual flowers, there is no need for emasculation. The female flower
buds are bagged before the flowers open. When the stigma becomes receptive, pollination is carried out
using the desired pollen and the flower rebagged.

14. (b) Aquatic plants such as water hyacinth & Lily, the flower semerge above the level of water & are
pollinated by insects & wind.

15. (c) The coconut water from tender coconut is nothing but free nuclear endosperm (made up of thousands
of nuclei) and the surrounding white kernel is the cellular endosperm. Female gametophyte is embryo sac.
Endosperm develop at the micropcyar end of the embryo sac.

16. (c) All the statements are correct about self incompatibility. Self-incompatibility is a general name for
several genetic mechanisms in angiosperms, which prevent self-fertilization and thus encourage
outcrossing and allogamy. In plants with self - incompatibility, when a pollen grain produced in a plant
reaches a stigma of the same plant or another plant with a similar genotype, the process of pollen
germination, pollen tube growth, ovule fertilization, and embryo development is halted at one of its
stages, and consequently no seeds are produced.

17. (c) Inside the nucellus, the female gametophyte of embryo sac is located and enclosed within the
integuments. In a majority of flowering plants, one of the megaspore is functional while the other three
 degenerates. Three repeated mitotic divisions of the functional megaspore results in the formation of
seven celled or eight-nucleate embryo sac.
Six of the eight nuclei are organised at the two poles. Three cells grouped at micropylar end forms egg-
apparatus and 3 at the chalazal end forms antipodal cells. The large central cell at the centre has two polar
nuclei.
In the formation of embryo sac the meiotic divisions are strictly free nuclear, i.e nuclear divisions are not
followed immediately by cell-wall formation. Gametophyte is situated at micropylar end not at chalazal
end.

18. (d) Pollen mother cells undergo meiosis and produce pollen grains. The pollen grains have haploid
number of chromosomes.

19. (b) The megaspore mother cell is diploid. This divides by meiotic division and produces four haploid
megaspores.

20. (c) Primary sporogenous cell gives rise to microspore mother cells or pollen mother cells (PMCs). They
are sporophytic in nature i.e., diploid. These cells undergo meiosis (reduction division) which gives rise to
4 microspores or pollens and this formation of microspores or pollens is called microsporogenesis.
Microspores represent the beginning of the gametophytic phase and they are haploid in nature.

21. (a) The majority of angiosperms bear chasmogamous flowers, which means the flowers expose their
mature anthers and stigma to the pollinating agents. There is another group of plants which set seeds
without exposing their sex organs. Such flowers are called cleistogamous and the phenomenon is
cleistogamy.

22. (a) Double fertilisation is a characteristic feature of angiosperms. It involves two fusions in which one
male gamete fuses with egg cell to form zygote and other male gamete fuses with the diploid secondary
nucleus to produce triploid primary endosperm nucleus.

23. (d) Male gamete (𝑛) + secondary nucleus (2𝑛) = primary endosperm nucleus which develops into
endosperm (3n).

Endosperm is a part of seed which acts as a food store for the developing plant embryo, usually containing
starch with protein and other nutrients.

24. (a) A typical microsporangium consists of two parts, outer wall and central homogeneous sporogenous
tissue. Microsporangial wall has four types of layersepidermis, endothecium, 1-3 middle layers and
tapetum. The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection in the young anther and
mechanism of dehiscence in the ripe anther.
10. 12. (c)