Practise set : 28 (b) Azotobacter

(c) Spirogyra
Biology (d) Anabaena
1. Static concept of species was put forward by
(a) de Candolle 10. Floridean starch is found in
(b) Linnaeus (a) Chlorophyceae
(c) Theophrastus (b) Rhodophyceae
(d) Darwin (c) Myxophyceae
(d) Cyanophyceae
2. Relative biological effectiveness (RBE) is usually
referred to damages caused by 11. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in
(a) Low temperature having:
(b) High temperature (a) Seeds
(c) Encephalitis (b) Motile Sperms
(d) Radiation (c) Cambium
(d) Vessels
3. The infective stage of malarial parasite
Plasmodium that enters human body is 12. Photoreceptors of earthworm occur on
(a) merozoite (a) clitellum
(b) sporozoite (b) many eyes
(c) trophozoite (c) dorsal surface
(d) minuta form (d) lateral sides

4. Nitrogen fixer soil organisms belong to 13. Ascaris larva is called

(a) mosses (a) cysticercus
(b) bacteria (b) rhabditiform
(c) green Algae (c) hexacanth
(d) soil Fungi (d) onchosphere

5. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic
engineering experiments are
(a) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
(b) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
(c) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
(d) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
6. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and
flowers?
(a) Loose smut of wheat
(b) Corn stunt
(c) Covered smut of barley
(d) Soft rot of potato
7. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease
and its causal organism?
(a) Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis
(b) Loose smut of wheat - Ustilago nuda
(c) Root-knot of vegetables - Meloidogyne sp
(d) Late blight of potato - Alternaria solani
8. Sexual reproduction involving fusion of two cells
in Chlamydomonas is
(a) isogamy
(b) homogamy
(c) somatogamy
(d) hologamy
9. Which of the following cannot fix nitrogen?
(a) Nostoc
14. A common characteristic of all vertebrates is
(a) presence of skull
(b) division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail
(c) presence of two pairs of functional appendages
(d) body is covered with an exoskeleton
15. Which one of the following characters is not
typical of the class Mammalia?
(a) Thecodont dentition
(b) Alveolar lungs
(c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves
(d) Seven cervical vertebrae
16. Which one of the following pairs of animals are
similar to each other pertaining to the feature
stated against them?
(a) Pteropus and Or nithorhyncus - Viviparity
(b) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three chambered
heart
(c) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric
segmentation
(d) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded
(poikilothermal)
17. Plant having column of vascular tissues bearing
fruits and having a tap root system is
(a) monocot
(b) dicot
(c) gymnosperm of dicot
(d) gymnosperm or monocot
18. Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from 27. In double helix of DNA, the two DNA strands are
(a) a multipistillate syncarpous flower (a) coiled around a common axis
(b) a cluster of compactly borne flowers on a (b) coiled around each other
common axis (c) coiled differently
(c) a multilocular monocarpellary flower (d) coiled over protein sheath
(d) a unilocular polycarpellary flower
28. The enormous diversity of protein molecules is
19. Inflorescence is racemose in due mainly to the diversity of
(a) Soyabean (a) amino groups on the amino acids
(b) Brinjal (b) R groups on the amino acids
(c) Tulip (c) amino acid sequences within the protein
(d) Aloe molecule
(d) peptide bonds
20. Procambium forms
(a) only primary vascular bundles 29. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and
(b) only vascular cambium essential for its activity is called
(c) only cork cambium (a) Holoenzyme
(d) primary vascular bundles and vascular (b) Apoenzyme
cambium (c) Isoenzyme
(d) Coenzyme
21. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of:
(a) mustard 30. Best material for the study of mitosis in
(b) soybean laboratory is
(c) gram (a) anther
(d) sorghum (b) root tip
(c) leaf tip
22. Component of blood responsible for producing (d) ovary
antibodies is
(a) Thrombocytes 31. In terrestrial habitats, temperature and rainfall
(b) Monocytes conditions are influenced by
(c) Erythrocytes (a) water transformations
(d) Lymphocytes (b) transpiration
(c) thermoperiodism
23. The epithelial tissue present on the inner (d) translocation
surface of bronchioles and fallopian tube is:
(a) glandular 32. Which one of the following statements is
(b) ciliated correct?
(c) squamous (a) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix
(d) cuboidal atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants.
(b) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are
24. Electron microscope has a high resolution important mobilizers of phosphates and for plant
power. This is due to nutrition in soil
(a) electromagnetic lenses (c) At present it is not possible to grow maize
(b) very low wavelength of electron beam without chemical fertilizers
(c) low wavelength of light source used (d) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to
(d) high numerical aperture of glass lenses used eutrophication of nearby water bodies.

25. The function of rough endoplasmic reticulum is 33. The deficiencies of micronutrients, not only
(a) fat synthesis affects growth of plants but also vital functions such
(b) lipid synthesis as photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron flow.
(c) protein synthesis Among the list given below, which group of three
(d) steroid synthesis elements shall affect most, both photosynthetic and
mitochondrial electron transport:
26. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of (a) Co, Ni, Mo
(a) Pythium (b) Ca, K, Na
(b) Xanthomonas (c) Mn, Co, Ca
(c) Pseudomonas (d) Cu, Mn, Fe
(d) Saccharomyces
34. Greatest producers of organic matter are
(a) crop plants
(b) forests
(c) plants of the land area
(d) phytoplankton of oceans
35. NADPH is generated through
(a) photosystem I
(b) photosystem II
(c) anerobic respiration
(d) glycolysis
36. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more
efficient than C3 plants because:
(a) the CO2 compensation point is more
(b) CO2 generated during photorespiration is
trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase
(c) the CO2 efflux is not prevented
(d) they have more chloroplasts
37. End product of citric acid/Krebs cycle is
(a) citric acid
(b) lactic acid
(c) pyruvic acid
(d) CO2 + H2O
38. The overall goal of glycolysis, krebs cycle and
the electron transport system is the formation of
(a) ATP in one large oxidation reaction
(b) sugars
(c) nucleic acids
(d) ATP in small stepwise units.
39. Apical dominance is caused by
(a) abscisic acid in lateral bud
(b) cytokinin in leaf tip
(c) gibberellin in lateral buds
(d) auxin in shoot tip
40. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect
on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone
(a) abscisic acid
(b) auxin
(c) cytokinin
(d) ethylene
41. Pancreas produces
(a) three digestive enzymes and one hormone
(b) three types of digestive enzymes and two
hormones
(c) two digestive enzymes and one hormone
(d) three digestive enzymes and no hormone
42. The food having fully undergone mechanical
and chemical digestion inside the stomach, is called
(a) Chyle
(b) Bolus
(c) Amino acid
(d) Chyme
43. Two friends are eating together on a dining
table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while
swallowing some food. This coughing would have
been due to improper movement of:
(a) epiglottis
(b) diaphragm
(c) neck
(d) tongue
44. Which of the following are the correct
statement for respiration in human
(a) Cigarette smoking may lead of inflammation of
bronchi
(b) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons
region of brain can increase the duration of
inspiration
(c) Workers in grinding and stone - breaking
industries may suffer from lung fibrosis
(d) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by
haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin.
45. The blood cancer is known as
(a) leukaemia
(b) thrombosis
(c) haemolysis
(d) haemophilia
46. The most active phagocytic white blood cells
are:
(a) neutrophils and eosinophils
(b) lymphocytes and macrophages
(c) eosinophils and lymphocytes
(d) neutrophils and monocytes
47. In ureotelic animals, urea is formed by the
(a) Arginine cycle
(b) Cori's cycle
(c) Ornithine cycle
(d) EM pathway
48. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water
(70 - 80 percent) from the glomerular filtrate is
reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?
(a) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(b) Distal convoluted tubule
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule
(d) Descending limb of loop of Henle
49. Select the correct statement regarding the
specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system :-
(a) Muscular dystrophy - age related shortening or
muscles.
(b) Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass and
higher chance of fractures with advancing age.
(c) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder
which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(d) Gout - inflammation of joints due to extra
deposition of calcium. (a) Fourth month
(b) Fifth month
50. Neuroglia consist of cells found in the (c) Sixth month
(a) liver (d) Third month
(b) kidney
(c) central nervous system and ganglia 59. Artificial insemination mean:
(d) testes (a) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube
containing ova
51. Which hormone possesses anti-insulin effect? (b) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy
(a) Cortisol donor into the vagina
(b) Calcitonin (c) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor
(c) Oxytocin directly into the ovary
(d) Aldosterone (d) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test
tube containing ova
52. Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) is
produced by 60. A man of A-blood group marries a women of AB
(a) parathyroid blood group. Which type of progeny would indicate
(b) pars intermedia of pituitary that man is heterozygous A?
(c) anterior pituitary (a) AB
(d) posterior pituitary (b) A
(c) O
53. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly (d) B
matched?
(a) Glucagon - Beta cells (source) 61. A fruitfly exhibiting both male and female traits
(b) Somatostatin - Delta cells (source) is
(c) Corpus luteum - Relaxin (secretion) (a) heterozygous
(d) Insulin - Diabetes mellitus (disease) (b) gynandromorph
(c) hemizygous
54. What is common between vegetative (d) gynander
reproduction and apomixis?
(a) Both are applicable to only dicot plants 62. Phenomenon of ‘Industrial melanism’
(b) Both bypass the flowering phase demonstrates
(c) Both occur round the year (a) natural selection
(d) Both produces progeny identical to the parent (b) induced mutation
(c) geographical isolation
55. A population of genetically identical individuals, (d) reproductive islolation
obtained from asexual reproduction is
(a) Callus 63. Which one of the following traits of garden pea
(b) Clone studied by Mendel was a recessive feature?
(c) Deme (a) Round seed shape
(d) Aggregate (b) Axial flower position
(c) Green seed colour
56. A fruit developed from hypanthodium (d) Green pod colour
inflorescence is called
(a) Sorosis 64. How many different kinds of gametes will be
(b) Syconus produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC?
(c) Caryopsis (a) Four
(d) Hasperidium (b) Nine
(c) Two
57. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food (d) Three
mainly in
(a) Perisperm 65. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia,
(b) Endosperm which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are
(c) Cotyledons the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected
(d) Hypocotyl child?
(a) 50%
58. The first movements of the foetus and (b) 25%
appearance of hair on its head are usually observed (c) 100%
during which month of pregnancy? (d) no chance
66. Out of A-T, G-C pairing, bases of DNA may exist (d) Genetic drift
in alternate valency state owing to arrangement
called 74. Vaccines are
(a) analogue substitution (a) treated bacteria or viruses or one of their
(b) tautomerisational mutation proteins
(c) frame-shift mutation (b) MHC (major histocompatibility complex)
(d) point mutation proteins
(c) curative medicines
67. At time of organogenesis genes regulate the (d) monoclonal antibodies
process at different levels and at different time due
to 75. Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons
(a) promoter are related to
(b) regulator (a) eating fruits preserved in tin containers
(c) intron (b) inhalation of seasonal pollen
(d) exon (c) low temperature
(d) hot and humid environment.
68. In which mode of inheritance do you expect
more maternal influence among the offspring? 76. Which one of the following statements is
(a) Cytoplasmic correct with respect to immunity?
(b) Y-linked (a) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to
(c) X-linked treat the bite by a viper snake.
(d) Autosomal (b) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are
produced by T – lymphocytes.
69. Which of the following is not a property of the (c) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which
genetic code? has four light chains.
(a) Universal (d) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of
(b) Non-overlapping Blymphocytes.
(c) Ambiguous
(d) Degeneracy 77. The new varieties of plants are produced by
(a) selection and hybridization
70. Identify the correct sequence in which the (b) mutation and selection
following substances have appeared during the (c) introduction and mutation
course of evolution of life on earth (d) selection and intro
(a) Glucose, amino acids, nucleic acids, proteins
(b) Ammonia, amino acids, proteins, nucleic acids 78. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because
(c) Water, amino acids, nucleic acids, enzymes of
(d) Amino acids, ammonia, phosphates, nucleic (a) higher levels of cortisone
acids (b) lower levels of blood testosterone
(c) lower levels of adrenaline/ noradrenaline in its
71. In which era reptiles were dominant? blood
(a) Coenozoic era (d) higher levels of thyroxine.
(b) Mesozoic era
(c) Palaeozoic era 79. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful
(d) Archaeozoic era microorganism for
(a) bioremediation of contaminated soils
72. When two species of different genealogy come (b) reclamation of wastelands
to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the (c) gene transfer in higher plants
phenomenon is termed (d) biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens
(a) microevolution
(b) co-evolution 80. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
(c) convergent evolution molecule is called
(d) divergent evolution (a) Vector
(b) Probe
73. Random unidirectional change in allele (c) Clone
frequencies that occurs by chance in all populations (d) Plasmid
and especially in small populations is known as
(a) Mutation 81. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India
(b) Migration has been developed for:
(c) Natural selection (a) insect-resistance
(b) enhancing shelf life (d) Carbonic anhydrase
(c) enhancing mineral content 90. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOP) in a river
(d) drought-resistance water
(a) has no relationship with concentration of
82. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of oxygen in the water.
salinity are (b) gives a measure of Salmonella in the water.
(a) stenohaline (c) increases when sewage gets mixed with river
(b) euryhaline
water.
(c) anadromous
(d) catadromous (d) remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs.

83. The formula for exponential population growth 91. The water potential of pure water is :
is (a) Less than zero
(a) dN/rN = dt (b) More than zero but less than one
(b) rN/ dN = dt (c) More than one
(c) dN/ dt = rN (d) Zero
(d) dt/ dN = rN
92. Which of the following options gives the
84. Second most important trophic level in a lake is correct sequence of events during mitosis ?
(a) Zooplankton (a) Condensation → nuclear membrane
(b) Phytoplankton disassembly → arrangement at equator →
(c) Benthos centromere division → segregation →
(d) Neuston telophase
(b) Condensation → crossing over → nuclear
85. Which one of the following is not used for membrane disassembly → segregation →
construction of ecological pyramids? telophase
(a) Number of individuals (c) Condensation → arrangement at equator
(b) Rate of energy flow → centromere division → segregation →
(c) Fresh weight telophase
(d) Dry weight (d) Condensation → nuclear membrane
disassembly → crossing over → segregation
86. Renewable source of energy is → telophase
(a) Biomass
(b) Coal 93. The process of separation and
(c) Petroleum purification of expressed protein before
(d) Kerosene marketing is called :
(a) Downstream processing
87. Diversification in plant life appeared (b) Bioprocessing
(a) due to long periods of evolutionary changes (c) Postproduction processing
(b) due to abrupt mutations (d) Upstream processing
(c) suddenly on earth
(d) by seed dispersal 94. Which of the following terms describe
human dentition?
88. Acid rains are produced by (a) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(a) excess emissions of NO2 and SO2 from burning (b) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
fossil fuels (c) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(b) excess production of NH3 by industry and coal (d) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
gas
(c) excess release of carbon monoxide by 95. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
incomplete combustion characterized by crop and gizzard in its
(d) excess formation of CO2 by combustion and digestive system
animal respiration (a) Amphibia
(b) Reptilia
89. DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds because (c) Osteichthyes
it inhibits (d) Aves
(a) Calmodulin
(b) Calcium ATPase 96. Which one of these animals is not a
(c) Magnesium ATPase homeotherm?
(a) Macropus
(b) Chelone
(c) Psittacula
(d) Camelus

97. Which part of the brain is responsible for

thermoregulation?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Corpus callosum
(d) Medulla oblongata

98. Consider following features

(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of
body

Select the correct option of animal groups.

which possess all the above characteristics

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
(4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata

99. Select the correctly written scientific

name of Mango which was first described by
Carolus Linnaeus :
(a) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
(b) Mangifera indica Linn.
(c) Mangifera indica
(d) Mangifera Indica

100. Following statements describe the

characteristics of the enzyme Restriction
Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect
statement.
(a) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at
identified position within the DNA.
(b) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites
and cuts only one of the two strands.
(c) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate
backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(d) The enzyme recognizes a specific
palindromic nucleotide sequence in the
DNA.
 (d) SCl4
Chemistry 9. Correct gas equation is:
1. At S.T.P. the density of CCl4 vapours in g/Lwill be (a)
nearest to:
(a) 6.87
(b) 3.42
(c) 10.26
(b)
(d) 4.57

2. An element, X has the following isotopic

composition: 022 X: %92 999X: %8.2 020X: %0.2 The (c)
weighted average atomic mass of the naturally
occuring element X is closest to
(a) 201 amu
(b) 202 amu (d)
(c) 199 amu
(d) 200 amu

3. In the photo-electron emission, the energy of the

emitted electron is 10. The surface tension of which of the following
(a) greater than the incident photon liquid is maximum?
(b) same as than of the incident photon (a) C2H5OH
(c) smaller than the incident photon (b) CH3OH
(d) proportional to the intensity of incident photon. (c) H2O
(d) C6H6
4. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth
energy level of an atom is: 11. Adiabatic expansions of an ideal gas is
(a) 8 accompanied by
(b) 16 (a) decrease in ΔE
(c) 32 (b) increase in temperature
(d) 4 (c) decrease in ΔS
(d) no change in any one of the above properties
5. Correct order of first IP among following
elements Be, B, C, N, O is 12.
(a) B< Be < C< O< N
(b) B< Be < C< N< O
(c) Be < B< C< N< O
(d) Be < B< C< O< N

6. In compound X, all the bond angles are exactly (a) 380 kJ mol-1
08°929; X is (b) 425 kJ mol-1
(a) Chloromethane (c) 245 kJ mol-1
(b) Carbon tetrachloride (d) 290 kJ mol-1
(c) Iodoform
(d) Chloroform. 13. The pH value of blood does not appreciably
change by a small addition of an acid or a base,
7. Which of the following molecules is planar? because the blood
(a) SF4 (a) is a body fluid
(b) XeF4 (b) can be easily coagulated
(c) NF3 (c) contains iron as a part of the molecule
(d) SiF4 (d) contains serum protein which acts as buffer

8. Which of the following is not isostructural with 14. ATt 250C , the dissociation constant of a base
SiCl4? BOH , is 1.0 10-12 . The concentration of hydroxyl
(a) SO42- ions in 0.01M aqueous solution of the base would
(b) PO43- be
(c) NH4- (a) 1.00-5 mol L-1
(b) 1.00-6 mol L-1
 (d) I< II> III
(c) 2.00-6 mol L-1
(d) 1.00-7 mol L-1 21. For a reaction in which all reactants and products
are liquids, which one of the following equations is
15. Identify the correct order of solubility in most applicable?
aqueous medium: (a) ΔH< ΔE
(a) ZnS> Na2 S> CuS
(b) Na2 S> CuS> ZnS (b) ΔH= ΔS
(c) Na2 S> ZnS> CuS
(d) CuS> ZnS> Na2 S (c) ΔH= ΔE

16. The hydride ion, H–, is a stronger base than the (d) ΔH= ΔG
hydroxide ion, OH–. Which one of the following
reactions will occur if sodium hydride (NaH) is 22. When 3, 3-dimethyl 2-butanol is heated with H2
dissolved in water? SO4, the major product obtained is
(a) (a) 2,3-dimethyl 2-butene
(b) 3, 3-dimethyl 1- butene
(c) 2, 3-dimethyl 1- butene
(b)
(d) cis & trans isomers of 2, 3-dimethyl 2-butene

(c)
23. Which of the following is/are the hazardous
pollutant present in automobile exhaust gases? N2
(d) (ii) CO(iii) CH4 (iv) Oxides of nitrogen
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) and (ii)
17. Which of the following alkaline earth metal (c) (ii) and (iv)
sulphates has hydration enthalpy higher than the (d) and (iii)
lattice enthalpy?
(a) CaSO4
24. Which of the folloiwng anions is present in the
(b) BeSO4
chain structure of silicates?
(c) BaSO4
(a) (Si2O52+ )n
(d) SrSO4
(b) (SiO32- )n
(c) SiO44-
18. How many chain isomers could be obtained
(d) Si2O76-
from the alkane C6H14?
(a) Four
(b) Five 25. A 5% solution of cane sugar (mol. wt. =342) is
(c) Six isotonic with 1% solution of a substance X. The
(d) Seven molecular weight of X is
(a) 34.2
19. (b) 171.2
(c) 68.4
(d) 136.8

26. Which condition is not satisfied by an ideal

(a) 1, 3-isopropyl-3-methylpropane
solution?
(b) 2, 3, 6-trimethylheptane
(a)
(c) 2, 5, 6-trimethylheptane
(d) 2, 6, 3-trimethylheptane
(b)
20. The correct order of reactivity towards the
electrophilic substitution of the compounds aniline ,
benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is (c)
(a) I> II> III
(b) III> II> I
(c) II> III> I
(d) obeyance to Raoult’s Law
 (d) No reaction.
27. The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by
(a)
32. Nitrogen forms N2, but phosphorus is converted
into P4 from P, the reason is
(a) Triple bond is present between phosphorus
atom
(b) (b)

(c)
(c)
(d) Multiple bond is formed easily.

(d)
28. The plot of concentration of the reactant vs.
time for a reaction is a straight line with a negative
slope. The reaction follows a
(a) zero order rate equation
(b) first order rate equation
(c) second order rate equation
(d) third order rate equation
29. The unit of rate constant for a zero order
reaction is
(a) mol L-1 s-1
(b) L mol-1 s-1
(c) L2 mol-2 s-1
(d) s-1
33. While extracting an element form its ore, the
ore is ground and leached with dil. potassium
cyanide solution to form the soluble product
potassium argento cyanide. The element is
(a) Lead
(b) Chromium
(c) Manganese
(d) Silver
34. General electronic configuration of lanthanides
is
(a) (n – 2) f 1-14(n –1) s2 p6 d0-1 ns2
(b) (n – 2) f 10-14(n –1) d0-1 ns2
(c) (n – 2) f 0-14(n –1) d10 ns2
(d) (n – 2) d 0-1(n –1) f1-14 ns2
35.

30. The following reactions take place in the blast

furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify
the reaction pertaining to the formation of the slag.
(a)

(a) KOH
(b)
(b) CO2
(c) SO2
(d) HCl
(c)

36. According to IUPACnomenclature sodium

(d) nitroprusside is named as
(a) Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (III)
(b) Sodium nitroferrocyanide
(c) Sodium nitroferrocyanide
(d) Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (II)
31. Sugarcane on reaction with nitric acid gives
(a) CO2 and SO2
(b) (COOH)2 37. An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 mL of a 0.01
(c) 2 HCOOH(two moles) Msolution of dichlorotetraaquachromium (iii)
chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated
would be: (b) Amount of adenine is equal to that of thymine
(a) 0.002 and the amount of guanine is equal to that of
(b) 0.003 cytosine
(c) 0.01 (c) Amount of adenine is equal to that of guanine
(d) 0.001 and the amount of thymine is equal to that of
cytosine
(d) Amount of adenine is equal to that of cytosine
38. Lucas reagent is and the amount of thymine is equal to that of
(a) Conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2 guanine
(b) Conc. HNO3 and hydrous ZnCl2
(c) Conc. HCl and hydrous ZnCl2
(d) Conc. HNO3 and anhydrous ZnCl2 45. Natural rubber is a polymer of
(a) butadiene
(b) isoprene
39. When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it (c) 2-methylbutadiene
produces: (d) Hexa-1, 3-diene
(a) glycerol triiodide
(b) 2–iodopropane
(c) allyl iodide
(d) propene 46. An example of a sigma bonded
organometallic compound is :
(a) Grignard's reagent
40. (CH3)3 C—CHOdoes not undergo Aldol
(b) Ferrocene
condensation due to
(c) Cobaltocene
(a) three electron donating methyl groups
(d) Ruthenocene
(b) cleavage taking place between —C— CHO bond
(c) absence of alpha hydrogen atom in the molecule
(d) bulky (CH3)3 C—group 47. The compound C7H8 undergoes the
following reactions:
41. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into
hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl is
C7H83 Cl2 / A A Br 2 /Fe B Zn/→Hcl
called → →
(a) Cope reduction C
(b) Dow reduction
(c) Wolf-Kishner reduction The product 'C' is
(d) Clemmensen redcution. (a) m-bromotoluene
(b) o-bromotoluene
(c) p-bromotoluene
42. (d) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene

48. Which of the following diatomic molecular

species has only bonds according to
Molecular Orbital Theory?
(a) O2
(a) CH3CH2CN (b) N2
(b) CH3NO2 (c) C2
(c) CH3NC (d) Be2
(d) CH3CN

49. Which of the following amine will give the

43. On hydrolysis of starch, we finally get carbylamine test?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose (a)
(c) Both
(d) and

44. Chargaff's rule states that in an organism

(a) Amounts of all bases are equal (b)
(c)

(d)

50. A particle is released from height S from

the surface of the Earth. At a certain height
its kinetic energy is three times its potential
energy. The height from the
surface of earth and the speed of the particle
at that instant are respectively
(a)
S
4
S
,
√
3 gS
2
3 gS
(b) ,
4 2
(c)
S
,
√3 gS
4 2
(d)
S
,
√3 gS
2 2
 (d) 20 m

Physics 7. A person slides freely down a frictionless

1. The dimensional formula for angular momentum inclined plane while his bag falls down vertically
is from the same height. The final speeds of the man
(a) [M0L2 T-2 ] (VM) and the bag (VB) should be such that
(b) [ML2 T-1 ] (a) VM< VB
(c) [MLT-1 ] (b) VM= VB
(d) [ML2 T-2 ] (c) they depend on the masses
(d) VM> VB

2.
8. Consider a car moving along a straight horizantal
road with a speed of 72 km/h. If the coefficient of
static friction between road and tyres is 0.5, the
shortest distance in which the car can be stopped is
(a) 30 m
(b) 40 m
(c) 72 m
(a) L2 , T and LT2 (d) 20 m
(b) LT2 , LT and L
(c) L, LT and T2
(d) LT-2 , L and T 9. An engine pumps water continuously through a
hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m
is the mass per unit length of the water jet. What is
3. The displacement of a particle varies with time the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to
(t) as: s = at2 – bt3. The acceleration of the particle at water?
any given time (t) will be equal to (a) mv2
(a) a/b (b)
(b) a/3b
(c) 3b/a
(d) 2a/3b
(c)
4. 46. The displacement ‘x’ (in meter) of a particle
of mass ‘m’ (in kg) moving in one dimension under
the action of a force, is related to time ‘t’ (in sec) by
t = √x + 3. The displacement of the particle when its
velocity is zero, will be (d)
(a) 2 m
(b) 4 m
(c) zero
(d) 6 m

10. The speed of a homogenous solid sphere after

5. Two projectiles are fired from the same point rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height h
with the same speed at angles of projection 60° and from rest without sliding is
30° respectively. Which one of the following is true? (a)
(a) Their maximum height will be same
(b) Their range will be same
(c) Their landing velocity will be same
(d) Their time of flight will be same
(b)
6. A missile is fired for maximum range with an
initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2 , the range
of the missile is
(a) 40 m (c)
(b) 50 m
(c) 60 m
 on the surface of earth)
(a)

(d)

(b)

11. A ball rolls without slipping. The radius of

gyration of the ball about an axis passing through (c)
its centre of mass is K. If radius of the ball be R, then
the fraction of total energy associated with its
rotational energy will be
(a)
(d)

(b)

15. Radiation from which of the following sources,

(c) approximates black body radiation best?
(a) A tungsten lamp
(b) Sodium flame
(c) Hot lamp black
(d) A hole in a cavity, maintained at constant
(d) temperature

16.

12. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed

point, its angular momentum is directed along:
(a) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation
(b) the line making an angle of 45° to the plane of
rotation
(c) the radius
(d) the tangent to the orbit

13. The escape velocity on the surface of earth is

11.2 km/s. What would be the escape velocity on
the surface of another planet of the same mass but
¼ times the radius of the earth?
(a) 22.4 km/s
(b) 44.8 km/s
(c) 5.6 km/s (a) P1 ACBP2 P1
(d) 11.2 km/s (b) ACBB'A'A
(c) ACBDA
14. A particle of mass ‘m’ is kept at rest at a height (d) ADBB'A'A
3Rfrom the surface of earth, where ‘R’ is radius of
earth and ‘M’ is mass of earth. The minimum speed 17. During an isothermal expansion, a confined
with which it should be projected, so that it does ideal gas does –150 J of work against its
not return back, is (g is acceleration due to gravity surroundings. This implies that
(a) 150 J heat has been removed from the gas
(b) 300 J of heat has been added to the gas
(c) no heat is transferred because the process is
isothermal
(d) 150 J of heat has been added to the gas
18. The amount of heat energy required to raise the
temperature of 1g of Helium at NTP, from T1 K to T2
K is
(a)
22. Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and
49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N force.
Mass per unit length of both the strings is same and
equal to 1 g/m. When both the strings vibrate
simultaneously the number of beats is
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 3
(d) 5

23. A semi-circular arc of radius ‘a’ is charged

uniformly and the charge per unit length is λ. The
electric field at the centre of this arc is
(b) (a)

(c)
(b)

(d)
(c)

19. There is a body having mass m and performing (d)

S.H.M. with amplitude a. There is a restoring force
F= – kx. The total energy of body depends upon
(a) k, x
(b) k, a
(c) k, a, x
(d) k, a, v
24. If the potential of a capacitor having capacity 6
μF is increased from 10 V to 20 V, then increase in
20. A particle of mass m oscillates along x-axis
its energy will be
according to equation x = a sin ωt. The nature of the
(a) 4 × 10-4 J
graph between momentum and displacement of the
particle is (b) 4 × 10-4 J
(a) straight line passing through origin (c) 9 × 10-4 J
(b) circle (d) 12 × 10-6 J
(c) hyperbola
(d) ellipse
25. Four electric charges +q, +q , -q and –q are
placed at the corners of a square of side 2L(see
21. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in figure) The electric potential at point A, midway
its first overtone and another pipe P2, open at both between the two charges +q and –q is
ends vibrating in its third overtone are in
resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of
lengths of P1 and P2 respectively are given by
(a) 1: 2
(b) 1: 3
(c) 3: 8
(d) 3: 4
(a)

(a) 4 volt
(b) 8 volt
(c) 10 volt
(b) (d) 2 volt

29. An electron enters a region where magnetic

field (B) and electric field (E) are mutually
(c)
perpendicular, then
(a) it will always move in the direction of B
(b) it will always move in the direction of E
(c) it always possesses circular motion
(d) Zero (d) it can go undeflected also

26. 30. The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is

(a) equal to zero
(b) much greater than one
(c) 1
(d) between zero and one

31.
(a) It is the same in all three cases
(b) Wire of cross-sectional area 2A
(c) Wire of cross-sectional area A
(d) Wire of cross-sectional area 1/2 A

27. Resistances n, each of r ohm, when connected in (a) 0.5 A

parallel give an equivalent resistance of Rohm. If (b) 0.1 A
these resistances were connected in series, the (c) 2 A
combination would have a resistance in ohms, (d) 1 A
equal to
(a) nR
32. Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit
(b) n2 R
connected to an a.c source of emf is
(c) R/n2
(a)
(d) R/n

28.

(b)
 36. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 0
mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two
wavelengths λ1 = 12000Å and λ2 = 10000Å . At what
minimum distance from the common central bright
fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright
fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a
(c)
bright fringe from the other?
(a) 6 mm
(b) 4 mm
(c) 3 mm
(d) 8 mm

37. As the intensity of incident light increases

(d)
(a) photoelectric current increases
(b) K. E. of emitted photoelectrons increases
(c) photoelectric current decreases
(d) K.E. of emitted photoelectrons decreases

38. Electrons used in an electron microscope are

accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is
increased to 100kVthen the de–Broglie wavelength
associated with the electrons would
33. We consider the radiation emitted by the
(a) increase by 2 times
human body. Which of the following statements is
(b) decrease by 2 times
true?
(c) decrease by 4 times
(a) the radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet
(d) increase by 4 times
region and hence is not visible.
(b) the radiation emitted is in the infra-red region.
(c) the radiation is emitted only during the day. 39. An electron changes its position from orbit n =
(d) the radiation is emitted during the summers 2 to the orbit n = 4 of an atom. The wavelength of
and absorbed during the winters. the emitted radiations is (R= Rydberg’s constant)
(a) 16/ R
(b) 16 /3R
34. The period of revolution of planet A around the
(c) 16/ 5R
Sun is 8 times that of B. The distance of A from the
(d) 16/ 7R
Sun is how many times greater than that of B from
the Sun?
(a) 2 40. Curie is a unit of
(b) 3 (a) energy of gamma-rays
(c) 4 (b) half-life
(d) 5 (c) radioactivity
(d) intensity of gamma-rays
35. A converging beam of rays is incident on a
diverging lens. Having passed through the lens the 41. A free neutron decays into a proton, an electron
rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens on the and
opposite side. If the lens is removed the point (a) a beta particle
where the rays meet will move 5 cm closer to the (b) an alpha particle
lens. The focal length of the lens is (c) an anti-neutrino
(a) – 10 cm (d) a neutrino
(b) 20 cm
(c) –30 cm
(d) 5 cm 42. In any fission process, the ratio
mass of fission products
is
mass of parent nucleus
(a) equal to 1
(b) greater than 1
(c) less than 1
(d) depends on the mass of the parent nucleus

43. How does the binding energy per nucleon vary

with the increase in the number of nucleons?
(a) Increases continuously with mass number
(b) Decreases continuously with mass number 46. A thin prism having refracting angle 10°
(c) First decreases and then increases with increase is made of glass of refractive index 1.42. This
in mass number prism is combined with another thin prism
(d) First increases and then decreases with increase of glass of refractive index 1.7. This
in mass number combination produces dispersion without
deviation. The refracting angle of second
prism should be
44. The transfer ratio  of a transistor is 50. The
input resistance of the transistor when used in the (a) 6°
common emitter configuration is 1k. The pak (b) 8°
value of the collector A.C current for an A.C input (c) 10°
voltage of 0.01 V peak is (d) 4°
(a) 100 μA
(b) 0.01 μA 47. An electron of mass m with an initial
(c) 0.25 mA
V = V0i^ (V0 > 0) enters an electric
velocity ⃗
(d) 500 μA
E = - E0i^ (E0 = Constant >0) at t =0 . if λ o
field ⃗
is its de Brogile wavelength initially , then it
45. Of the diodes shown in following diagrams, de Broglie at time t is
which one is reverse biased?
λ0
(a)
(a)
( 1+
e E0
mV 0 t )
(b) λ0 + 1+
( e E0
mV 0 t )
(b) (c) λ0

(d) λ0t

48. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius

4 cm rotating about its axis at the rate of 3
(c) rpm. The torque required to stop after 2
revolutions is
(a) 2 × 10–6 N m
(b) 2 × 10–3 N m
(c) 12 × 10–4 N m
(d) 2 × 106 N m
(d)
49. The mean free path for a gas, with
molecular diameter d and number density n
can be expressed as :
 1
(a)
√ 2 n2 π d 2
1
(b)
√2 n π d
2 2 2

1
(c)
√2 nπd
) 1
(d √ 2 nπ d 2

50. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm

and a concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm
are kept along the same axis with a distance
'd' between them. If a parallel beam of light
falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a parallel beam,
then the distance 'd' in cm will be
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 15
(d) 50
Biology :

1. b 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. a
6. a 7. d 8. a 9. c 10. b
11. b 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. c
16. d 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. a
21. d 22. d 23. b 24. b 25. c
26. a 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. b
31. b 32. d 33. d 34. d 35. a
36. c 37. d 38. d 39. d 40. b
41. b 42. d 43. a 44. c 45. a
46. d 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. c
51. a 52. b 53. a 54. d 55. b
56. b 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. d
61. b 62. a 63. c 64. c 65. b
66. b 67. b 68. a 69. c 70. b
71. b 72. c 73. d 74. a 75. b
76. a 77. a 78. b 79. d 80. b
81. a 82. a 83. c 84. a 85. c
86. a 87. a 88. a 89. b 90. c
91.d 92.a 93.a 94.b 95.d
96.b 97.b 98.(1) 99.b 100.b

Chemistry :

1. a 2. d 3. c 4. b 5. a
6. d 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. c
11. a 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. c
16. b 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. a
21. c 22. a 23. c 24.b 25. c
26. c 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. c
31. b 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. b
36. a 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. c
41. d 42. d 43.a 44. c 45. b
46.a 47.a 48.c 49.c 50.c

Physics :

1. b 2. d 3. b 4. c 5. b
6. a 7. b 8. b 9. d 10.a
11. d 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. d
16. c 17. a 18. d 19. b 20. d
21. c 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. c
26. b 27. b 28. c 29. d 30. a
31. a 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. c
36. a 37. a 38. b 39.b 40. c
41. c 42. c 43. d 44. d 45. d
46.a 47.a 48.a 49.c 50.c