Practise set : 24 (b) have sporophyte attached to gametophyte

(c) lack roots

Biology (d) lack vascular tissues

1. The book Genera Plantarum was written by 9. In Ferns meiosis occurs when
(a) Bessy (a) spore germinates
(b) Hutchinson (b) gametes are formed
(c) Engler and Prantl (c) spores are formed
(d) Bentham & Hooker (d) antheridia and archegonia are formed

2. Malaria fever coincides with liberation of 10. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow
(a) cryptomerozoites in highly acidic (pH2) habitats belong to the two
(b) metacryptomerozoites groups:
(c) merozoites (a) Eubacteria and archaea
(d) trophozoites (b) Cyanobacteria and diatoms
(c) Protists and mosses
3. Nonsymbiotic nitrogen fixers are (d) Liverworts and yeasts
(a) Azotobacter
(b) Pseudomonas 11. Jelly Fishes belongs to class
(c) soil fungi (a) Hydrozoa
(d) blue-green algae (b) Scyphozoa
(c) Anthozoa
4. Which one of the following statements about (d) None of these
viruses is correct?
(a) Viruses possess their own metabolic system 12. The simplest type of canal system in Porifera is
(b) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA (a) ascon type
(c) Viruses are facultative parasites (b) leucon type
(d) Viruses are readily killed by antibiotics (c) sycon type
(d) radial type
5. Which statement is correct for bacterial
transduction? 13. Tube feet occur in
(a) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to (a) Cockroach
another bacteria through virus (b) Star Fish
(b) Transfer of genes from one bacteria to another (c) Cuttle Fish
bacteria by conjugation (d) Cat Fish
(c) Bacteria obtained its DNA directly
(d) Bacteria obtained DNA from other external 14. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young
source stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the
adult stage, belong to the phylum
6. In the light of recent classification of living (a) Annelida
organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, (b) Mollusca
archaea and eukarya), which one of the following (c) Cnidaria
statements is true about archaea? (d) Echinodermata
(a) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
(b) Archaea have some novel features that are 15. Frogs differ from humans in possessing:
absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes (a) paired cerebral hemispheres
(c) Archaea completely differ from both (b) hepatic portal system
prokaryotes and eukaryotes (c) nucleated red blood cells
(d) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes. (d) thyroid as well as parathyroid

7. Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen 16. Pulses are obtained from
in Nostoc are (a) Fabaceae
(a) Akinetes (b) Asteraceae
(b) Heterocysts (c) Poaceae
(c) Hormogonia (d) Solanaceae
(d) Nodules
17. What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea?
8. Unique features of Bryophytes is that they (a) Axile
(a) produce spores (b) Free central
(c) Marginal (c) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not
(d) Basal (d) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop

18. How many plants among China rose, Ocimum, 26. Which of the following type of plastids does not
sunflower, mustard, Alstonia, guava, Calotropis and contain stored food material?
Nerium (Oleander) have opposite phyllotaxy? (a) Amyloplasts
(a) Two (b) Chromoplasts
(b) Three (c) Elaioplasts
(c) Four (d) Aleuroplasts
(d) Five
27. The RNA that picks up specific amino acids
19. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found from the amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to
between phloem/bark and wood of a dicot is ribosomeduring protein synthesis is called
(a) Cork cambium (a) mRNA
(b) Vascular cambium (b) tRNA
(c) Endodermis (c) rRNA
(d) Pericycle (d) carrier RNA

20. Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is 28. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means
distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by that
(a) absence of secondary phloem (a) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at
(b) presence of cortex their ends. share the same position
(c) position of protoxylem (b) the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA
(d) absence of secondary xylem strands are in opposite position (pole)
(c) one strand turns clockwise
21. Haversian canals occur in (d) one strand turns anti-clockwise
(a) Humerus
(b) Pubis 29. A bacterium divides every 35 minutes. If a
(c) Scapula culture containing 105 cells per ml is grown for 175
(d) Clavicle minutes, what will be the cell concentration per ml
after 175 minutes?
22. Earthworms have no skeleton but during (a) 5 × 105cells
burrowing, the anterior end becomes turgid and (b) 35 × 105cells
acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to (c) 32 × 105cells
(a) coelomic fluid (d) 175 × 105cells
(b) blood
(c) gut peristalsis 30. Which of the following is used to determine the
(d) setae rate of transpiration in plants?
(a) Porometer/hygrometer
23. The latest model for plasma membrane is (b) Potometers
(a) lamellar model (c) Auxanometer
(b) unit membrane model (d) Tensiometer/ Barometer
(c) fluid mosaic model
(d) molecular lipid model 31. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve
tube members is supported by
24. Auxetic growth is (a) P-proteins
(a) increase in cell volume only (b) mess flow involving a carrier and ATP
(b) increase in cell number only (c) cytoplasmic streaming
(c) increase in fatty tissue (d) root pressure and transpiration pull
(d) increase in intercellular material
32. Grey spots of oat are caused by deficiency of
25. Keeping in view the fluid mosaic model for the (a) Fe
structure of cell membrane, which one of the (b) Cu
following statements is correct with respect to the (c) Zn
movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid (d) Mn
monolayer to the other (described as flipflop
movement)? 33. The substrate for photorespiration is
(a) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop (a) Phosphoglyceric acid
(b) While lipids can rarely flip-flop, protein can not (b) Glycolate
(c) Serine undigested?
(d) Glycine (a) Starch and fat
(b) Fat and cellulose
34. Photosynthetically active radiation is (c) Starch and cellulose
represented by the range of wavelength of (d) Protein and starch
(a) 340-450 nm
(b) 400-700 nm 43. Which two of the following changes (a–d)
(c) 500-600 nm usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when
(d) 400-950 nm they move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more)?
(i) Increase in red blood cell size
35. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation (ii) Increase in red blood cell
during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of production
(a) bundle sheath (iii) Increased breathing rate
(b) phloem (iv) Increase
(c) epidermis in thrombocyte count Changes occurring are:
(d) mesophyll (a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
36. Apparatus to measure rate of respiration and (c) (i) and (iv)
R.Q. is (d) (i) and (ii)
(a) Auxanometer
(b) Potometer 44. Antigens are present
(c) Respirometer (a) inside the nucleus
(d) Manometer (b) on cell surface
(c) inside the cytoplasm
37. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that (d) on nuclear membrane
causes botulism is
(a) an obligate anaerobe 45. What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach
(b) an facultative aerobe and silver fish?
(c) an obligate aerobe (a) They all posses dorsal heart
(d) a facultative anaerobe (b) None of them is aquatic
(c) They all belong to the same phylum
38. Cytokinins (d) They all have jointed paired appendages
(a) promote abscission
(b) influence water movement 46. A patient suffering from cholera is given saline
(c) help retain chlorophyll drip because
(d) inhibit protoplasmic streaming (a) Cl– ions are important component of blood
plasma
39. Seed dormancy is due to the (b) Na+ ions help to retain water in the body
(a) ethylene (c) Na+ ions are important in transport of
(b) abscisic acid substances across membrane
(c) IAA (d) Cl– ions help in the formation of HCl in stomach
(d) starch for digestion

40. Pancreatic juice and hormones of pancreas are 47. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous
produced by wastes is found in
(a) Same cells (a) Reptiles and Bird
(b) Same cells at different times (b) Birds and Annelids
(c) Statement is wrong (c) Amphibians and Reptiles
(d) Different cells (d) Insects and Amphibians

41. Which one of the following pairs is 48. Elbow joint is an example of:
mismatched? (a) hinge joint
(a) Vitamin C - Scurvy (b) gliding joint
(b) Vitamin D - Rickets (c) ball and socket joint
(c) Vitamin K - Beri Beri (d) pivot joint
(d) Vitamin A - Xerophthalmia
49. In vertebrates, simple reflex action is
42. Which one of the following pairs of food (a) polysynaptic
components in humans reaches the stomach totally (b) bisynaptic
(c) trisynaptic (d) detecting any genetic abnormality
(d) monosynaptic
58. Which of the following cannot be detected in a
50. The most abundant intracellular cation is: developing foetus by amniocentesis?
(a) Ca++ (a) Sex of the foetus
(b) H+ (b) Down syndrome
(c) K+ (c) Jaundice
(d) Na+ (d) Klinefelter syndrome

51. The gland that regresses with age is 59. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian
(a) adrenal crosses are called
(b) gonad (a) multiple alleles
(c) thymus (b) allelomorphs
(d) thyroid (c) alloloci
(d) paramorphs
52. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the
secretion of which one of the following? 60. A cross between pure tall Pea plant with green
(a) Aldosterone pods and dwarf Pea plant with yellow pods will
(b) Both Androstenedione and produce short F2 plants out of 16
Dehydroepiandrosterone (a) 9
(c) Adrenaline (b) 3
(d) Cortisol (c) 4
(d) 1
53. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by:
(a) offset 61. Which of the following is the main category of
(b) rhizome mutation?
(c) sucker (a) Genetic mutation
(d) runner (b) Zygotic mutation
(c) Somatic mutation
54. Double fertilization is fusion of (d) All of these
(a) two eggs
(b) two eggs and polar nuclei with pollen nuclei 62. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants
(c) one male gamete with egg and other with are generally located in
synergid (a) cytosol
(d) one male gamete with egg and other with (b) chloroplast genome
secondary nucleus (c) mitochondrial genome
(d) nuclear genome
55. An ovule which becomes curved so that the
nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the 63. Test cross involves
funicle is (a) crossing between two F1 hybrids
(a) Hemitropous (b) crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive
(b) Campylotropous genotype
(c) Anatropous (c) crossing between two genotypes with dominant
(d) Orthotropous trait
(d) crossing between two genotypes with recessive
56. Animal vectors are required for pollination in trait
(a) Maize
(b) Vallisneria 64. If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and
(c) Mulberry have sufficiently large number of children these
(d) Cucumber children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group: ‘AB’
blood group: ‘B’ blood group in 9: 0: 9 ratio. Modern
57. The permissible use of the technique technique of protein electrophoresis reveals
amniocentesis is for presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’
(a) detecting sex of the unborn foetus blood group individuals. This is an example of:
(b) artificial insemination (a) incomplete dominance
(c) transfer of embryo into the uterus of the (b) Partial dominance
surrogate mother (c) Complete cominance
(d) Codominance
65. Reverse transcriptase is (c) spleen
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase (d) lymph glands
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase 74. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase a person to which of the following would you look
for confirmatory evidence?
66. In negative operon (a) serum globulins
(a) co-repressor binds with repressor (b) fibrinogen in the plasma
(b) co-repressor does not bind with repressor (c) haemocytes
(c) co-repressor binds with inducer (d) serum albumins
(d) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon
75. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake
67. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a of
(a) simple protein (a) Opium
(b) RNA (b) Alcohol
(c) ribonucleoprotein (c) Tobacco (Chewing)
(d) repetitive DNA (d) Cocaine

68. Which enzymes will be produced in a cell in 76. Which one of the following insecticides is more
which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y stable in the environment?
gene? (a) DDT
(a) Lactose permease (b) Diazinon
(b) Transacetylase (c) Camphechlor
(c) Lactose permease and transcetylase (d) Malathion
(d) β- galactosidase
77. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by
69. The closely related morphologically similar (a) crossing of two inbred parental lines
sympatric populations, but reproductively isolated, (b) harvesting seeds from the most productive
are designated as plants
(a) clines (c) inducing mutations
(b) demes (d) bombarding the seeds with DNA.
(c) clones
(d) sibling species 78. Probiotics are
(a) cancer inducing microbes
70. There is no life on moon due to the absence of (b) new kind of food allergens
(a) O2 (c) live microbial food supplement
(b) water (d) safe antibiotics
(c) light
(d) temperature 79. Which one of the following is used as vector for
cloning genes into higher organisms?
71. An important evidence in favour of organic (a) Baculovirus
evolution is the occurrence of (b) Salmonella typhimurium
(a) Analogous and vestigial organs (c) Rhizopus nigricans
(b) Homologous organs only (d) Retrovirus
(c) Homologous and analogous organs
(d) Homologous and vestigial organs 80. What is true about Bt toxin?
(a) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus
72. Variation in gene frequencies within (b) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the
populations can occur by chance rather than by pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its
natural section. The is referred to as: multiplication.
(a) Genetic drift (c) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.
(b) Random mating (d) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active
(c) Genetic load form in the insect gut.
(d) Genetic flow
81. Association of animals when both partners are
73. Botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum benefitted
affects the (a) colony
(a) intestine (b) mutualism
(b) neuromuscular junction (c) commensalism
(d) amensalism 90. Climate of the world is threatened by
82. Which one of the following pairs is (a) Increasing concentration of atmospheric oxygen
mismatched? (b) Decreasing amount of atmospheric oxygen
(a) Tundra - permafrost (c) Increasing amount of atmospheric
(b) Savanna - acacia trees carbondioxide
(c) Prairie - epiphytes (d) Decreasing amount of atmospheric
(d) Coniferous forest - evergreen trees
carbondioxide
83. In grass-deer-tiger food chain, grass biomass is
one tonne. The tiger biomass shall be 91. Following are the statements with
(a) 100 kg reference to 'lipids'.
(b) 10 kg (a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
(c) 200 kg unsaturated fatty acids
(d) 1 kg (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
84. Barophilic prokaryotes: (d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms
(a) grow and multiply in very deep marine including carboxyl carbon.
sediments (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
(b) occur in water containing high concentrations Choose the correct answer from the options
of barium hydroxide given
(c) readily grow and divide in sea water enriched in below.
any soluble salt of barium (1) (b) and (e) only
(d) grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at (2) (a) and (b) only
high altitudes (3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (b) and (c) only
85. Deforestation will decrease
(a) soil erosion 92. Which of the following secretes the
(b) land slides hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of
(c) soil fertility pregnancy?
(d) rainfall (a) Uterus
(b) Graafian follicle
86. In your opinion, which is the most effective (c) Corpus luteum
way to conserve the plant diversity of an area? (d) Foetus
(a) By tissue culture method
(b) By creating biosphere reserve 93. The difference between spermiogenesis
(c) By creating botanical garden and spermiation is
(d) By developing seed bank (a) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
87. Which organization publishes the Red Data formed.
Book? (b) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
(a) GEF formed, while in spermiation spermatids
(b) IUCN are formed.
(c) UNEP (c) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
(d) WWF formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
are released from sertoli cells into the cavity
88. Which one of the following organisms is used as of seminiferous tubules.
indicator of water quality? (d) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
(a) Chlorella sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
(b) Azospirillum seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
(c) Escherichia spermatozoa are formed.
(d) Biggiatoa
94. The amnion of mammalian embryo is
89. World Summit on Sustainable Development derived from
(2002) was held in (a) ectoderm and mesoderm
(a) Brazil (b) endoderm and mesoderm
(b) Sweden (c) ectoderm and endoderm
(c) Argentina (d) mesoderm and trophoblast
(d) South Africa
95. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
(a) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(b) increases the concentration of estrogen
and prevents ovulation in females.
(c) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(d) is an IUD.

96. Winged pollen grains are present in

(a) Mustard
(b) Cycas
(c) Pinus
(d) Mango

97. Pneumatophores occur in

(a) Halophytes
(b) Free-floating hydrophytes
(c) Submerged hydrophytes
(d) Carnivorous plants

98. Which of the statements given below is

not true about formation of Annual Rings in
trees?
(a) Annual ring is a combination of spring
wood and autumn wood produced in a
year
(b) Differential activity of cambium causes
light and dark bands of tissue early and
late wood respectively.
(c) Activity of cambium depends upon
variation in climate.
(d) Annual rings are not prominent in trees
of temperate region.

99. Which of the following ecological

pyramids is generally inverted?
(a) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
(b) Pyramid of energy
(c) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
(d) Pyramid of biomass in a sea

100. Placentation in which ovules develop on

the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral
part, is
(a) Basal
(b) Axile
(c) Parietal
(d) Free central
 (c) NF3
Chemistry (d) ClF3
1. .08The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving 8.
only carbondioxide) in the production of 072 kg of
aluminium metal from bauxite by the Hall process
is (Atomic mass: Al = )27
(a) 270 kg
(b) 540 kg
(c) 90 kg (a)
(d) 180 kg
(b)
2. Which of the following is never true for cathode
rays?
(a) They possess kinetic energy (c)
(b) They are electromagnetic waves
(c) They produce heat (d)
(d) They produce mechanical pressure.

3. According to MOtheory which of the following 9. Agaseous mixture contains H2 and O2 in the molar
lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of ratio :81 .The ratio of H2 :O2 by weight in this
increasing bond order? mixture would be
(a) (a) 4: 1
(b) 1: 8
(b) (c) 8: 1
(d) 1: 2

(c) 10. Identify the correct statement regarding

(d)
4. Which of the following does not represent the
correct order of the properties indicated
(a) Ni2+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+ > Mn2+ )size)
(b) Sc > Ti > Cr > Mn (size)
(c) Mn2+ > Ni2+ < Co2+ <Fe2+ )unpaired electron)
(d) Fe2+ > Co2+ > Ni2+ > Cu2+ )unpaired electron)
entropy:
(a) At absolute zero of temperature, entropy of a
perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero
(b) At absolute zero of temperature, the entropy of
a perfectly crystalline substance is +ve
(c) At absolute zero of temperature, the entropy of
all crystalline substances is taken to be zero
(d) At 0ºC, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline
substance is taken to be zero
11.

5. Which one shows maximum hydrogen bonding?

(a) H2O
(b) H2 Se
(c) H2 S (a)
(d) HF.

6. The number of anti-bonding electron pairs in O2-2 (b)

molecular ion on the basis of molecular orbital
theory is, (Atomic number of O is )8
(a) 5
(c)
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(d)
7. In which of the following molecules all the bonds
are not equal?
(a) BF3
(b) AlF3
12. Which of the following is most soluble? 17. Which of these is not a monomer for a high
(a) molecular mass silicone polymer?
(a) Me2 SiCl2
(b) Me3 SiCl
(b) (c) PhSiCl3
(d) MeSiCl3

(c) 18. The most suitable method for separtion of a 1: 1

mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols is
(d) (a) Sublimation
(b) Chromatography
(c) Crystallization
(d) Steam distillation
13. The rapid change of pHnear the stoichiometric
point of an acid-base titration is the basis of 19. 3 || 2 .. CHOCHCand 3 | 2 CH: O.. : CHCare
indicator detection. pHof the solution is related to (a) Resonating structures
ratio of the concentrations of the conjugate acid (b) Tautomers
(HIn) and base (In–) forms of the indicator by the (c) Geometrical isomers
expression (d) Optical isomers
(a)
20. Astrong base can abstract an D-hydrogen from:
(a) alkene
(b) amine
(b)
(c) ketone
(d) alkane

21. When CH3Cl and AlCl3 are used in Friedel-Crafts

(c) reaction, the electrophile is
(a) Cl+
(b) AlCl4+
(c) CH3+
(d) (d) AlCl2+

22.

14. Buffer solutions have constant acidity and

alkalinity because
(a) these give unionised acid or base on reaction
with added acid or alkali.
(b) acids and alkalies in these solutions are shielded (a) Iodoform test
from attack by other ions. (b) Tollen’s reagent test
(c) they have large excess of H+ or OH– ions (c) Brady’s reagent test
(d) they have fixed value of pH (d) Victor Meyer test
15. The O– O– H bond angle in H2O2 is 23. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal
(a) 106° halides is generally due to
(b) 109°8' (a) Schottky defect
(c) 120° (b) Frenkel defect
(d) 97° (c) Interstitial positions
(d) F-centres
16. The sequence of ioinic mobility in aqueous
solution is: 24. According to Raoult's law, relative lowering of
(a) K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+ vapour pressure for a solution is equal to [1995
(b) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+ (a) moles of solute
(c) Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+ (b) moles of solvent
(d) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ (c) mole fraction of solute
(d) mole fraction of solvent (d) NH4 Cl + NaNO2

25. PA and PB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid 31. During its reactions, ozone
components, Aand B, respectively of an ideal binary (a) can only combine with hydrogen atoms
solution. If XA represents the mole fraction of (b) accepts electrons
component A, the total pressure of the solution will (c) loses electrons
be. (d) shows the role of electrons to be irrelevant
(a) PA+ XA(PB– PA)
(b) PA+ XA(PA– PB) 32. Prussian blue is formed when
(c) PB+ XA(PB– PA) (a) Ferrous sulphate reacts with FeCl3
(d) PB+ XA(PA– PB) (b) Ferric sulphate reacts with K4[Fe(CN)]6
(c) Ferrous ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl3
26. 4.5 g of aluminium (at. mass 27 amu) is (d) Ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl3
deposited at cathode from Al3+ solution by a certain
quantity of electric charge. The volume of hydrogen 33. German silver is an alloy of
produced at STP from H+ ions in solution by the (a) Fe, Cr, Ni
same quantity of electric charge will be (b) Cu, Zn, Ag
(a) 44.8 L (c) Cu, Zn, Ni
(b) 22.4 L (d) Cu, Sn, Al
(c) 11.2 L
(d) 5.6 L 34.
The catalytic activity of transition metals and their
27. Asubstance 'A' decomposes by a first order compounds is ascribed mainly to
reaction starting initially with [A] = 2.00 m and (a) their magnetic behaviour
after 200 min, [A] becomes 0.15 m. For this reaction (b) their unfilled d-orbitals
t1/2 is (c) their ability to adopt variable oxidation state
(a) 53.72 min (d) their chemical reactivity
(b) 50.49 min
(c) 48.45 min 35. The hypothetical complex
(d) 46.45 min chlorodiaquotriammine
cobalt (III) chloride can be represented as
28. (a) [CoCl(NH3) 3 (H2O)2 ]Cl2
(b) [Co(NH3) 3 (H2O)Cl3]
(c) [Co(NH2) 3 (H2O)2 Cl]
(d) [Co(NH3) 3 (H2O)3 ]Cl3

(a) increasing the concentration of NO.
(b) increasing the temperature.
(c) increasing the concentration of the Cl 2
(d) doing all of these
29. Sulphide ores of metals are usually
concentrated by froth flotation process. Which one
of the following sulphide ores offer an exception
and its concentrated by chemical leaching?
(a) Galena
(b) Copper pyrite
(c) Sphalerite
(d) Argentite
36.
Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol solution
of dimethylglyoxime is added to ammoniacal Ni(II).
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Red complex has a square planar geometry.
(b) Complex has symmetrical H-bonding
(c) Red complex has a tetrahedral geometry.
(d) Dimethylglyoxime functions as bidentate ligand.
dimethylglyoxime = HCCN3 HCCN3 OHOH
37. Identify the correct statement regarding entropy:
(a) At absolute zero of temperature, entropy of a
perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero
(b) At absolute zero of temperature, the entropy of a
perfectly crystalline substance is +ve

30. Pure nitrogen is prepared in the laboratory by (c) At absolute zero of temperature, the entropy of all
crystalline substances is taken to be zero
heating a mixture of
(d) At 00C, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline
(a) NH4OH+ NaCl
substance is taken to be zero
(b) NH4 NO3 + NaCl
(c) NH4 Cl + NaOH 38.
 (c) H+ /H2O
(d) HgSO4 /H2 SO4

43. Which is not a true statement?

(a) alpha-Carbon of alpha-amino acid is asymmetric
(b) All proteins are found in L-form
(c) Human body can synthesize all proteins they
need
(a) benzaldehyde (d) At pH= 7 both amino and carboxylic groups
(b) benzoic acid exist in ionised form
(c) benzene
(d) toluene 44. In elastomer, intermolecular forces are
(a) strong
39. An ester is boiled with KOH. The product is (b) weak
cooled and acidified with concentrated HCl. Awhite (c) nil
crystalline acid separates. The ester is (d) none of these
(a) Methyl acetate
(b) Ethyl acetate 45. Which of the following is not a fat soluble
(c) Ethyl formate vitamin?
(d) Ethyl benzoate (a) Vitamin B complex
(b) Vitamin D
40. Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most (c) Vitamin E
favoured in (d) VitaminA
(a)
46. Which one is the most acidic compound ?
(b) (a)

(c)

(d)
(b)

41. Acetamide and ethylamine can be distinguished

by reacting with
(a) Aqueous HCl and heat
(b) Aqueous NaOH and heat
(c) Acidified KMnO4
(d) Bromine water.
(c)

42.

(d)

(a) Cu2Cl2
(b) H3 PO2 and H2O
47. Regarding cross-linked or network
polymers, which of the following statements
is incorrect?
(a) They contain covalent bonds between
various linear polymer chains.
(b) They are formed from bi- and tri-
functional monomers.
(c) They contain strong covalents bonds in
their polymer chains.
(d) Examples are bakelite and melamine.

48. For the cell reaction

2Fe3+(aq) +2l- (aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) +l2 (aq)
0
Ecell = 0.24 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs
energy ( ∆ rG0) of the cell reaction is :
(a) –46.32 kJ mol-1
(b) –23.16 kJ mol-1
(c) 46.32 kJ mol-1
(d) 23.16 kJ mol-1

49. Which of the following is a basic amino

acid ?
(a) Tyrosine
(b) Lysine
(c) Serine
(d) Alanine

50. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar

atomic and ionic radii because of :
(a) Having similar chemical properties
(b) Belonging to same group
(c) Diagonal relationship
(d) Lanthanoid contraction
Physics
1. The ratio of the dimension of Planck’s constant
and that of the moment of inertia is the dimension
of
(a) time
(b) frequency
(c) angular momentum
(d) velocity

2. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with a

velocity of 40 m/s, then velocity of the ball after
two seconds will be (g = 10 m/s2 ) (a) g/ 3
(a) 15 m/s (b) g/ 2
(b) 20 m/s (c) g
(c) 25 m/s (d) g/ 5
(d) 28 m/s
7. Two masses of 1g and 9g are moving with equal
3. Astone falls freely under gravity. It covers kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of
distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the their respective linear moment a is
next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. (a) 1: 9
The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is (b) 9: 1
(a) h1 = h2/3 = h3/5 (c) 1: 3
(b) h2 = 3h1 and h3 = 3h2 (d) 3: 1
(c) h1 = h2 = h3
(d) h1 = 2h2 = 3h3 8.
A shell of mass 200 gm is ejected from a gun of
4. mass 4 kg by an explosion that generates 1.05 kJ of
energy. The initial velocity of the shell is:
(a) 100 ms-1
(b) 80 ms-1
(a) 1 (c) 40 ms-1
(b) √0.11 (d) 120 ms-1
(c) √0.01
(d) 0.39 9. If a sphere is rolling, the ratio of the translational
energy to total kinetic energy is given by
(a) 7: 10
5. A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with
(b) 2: 5
constant speed and time period 0.2 πs. The
(c) 10: 7
acceleration of the particle is
(d) 5: 7
(a) 15 m/s2
(b) 25 m/s2
(c) 36 m/s2 10. A boy suddenly comes and sits on a circular
(d) 5 m/s2 rotating table. What will remain conserved?
(a) Angular velocity
(b) Angular momentum
6.
(c) Linear momentum
(d) Kinetic energy
11. 15. If for a gas, R/CV = 0.67, the gas is made up of
molecules which are
(a) diatomic
(b) mixture of diatomic and polyatomic molecules
(c) monoatomic
(d) polyatomic

16. If ΔU and ΔW represent the increase in internal

(a) remain constant
(b) increase by a factor of 2
(c) increase by a factor of 4
(d) decrease by a factor of 2
energy and work done by the system respectively in
a thermodynamical process, which of the following
is true?
(a) ΔU = – ΔW, in an adiabatic process
(b) ΔU = ΔW, in an isothermal process
(c) ΔU = ΔW, in an adiabatic process
(d) ΔU = – ΔW, in an isothermal process

12. The escape velocity of a sphere of mass m is 17.

given by (G= Universal gravitational constant; M=
Mass of the earth and Re = Radius of the earth)
(a)

(b)

(a) P2> P1
(c) (b) P2< P1
(c) Cannot be predicted
(d) P2 = P1

18. A simple pendulum has a metal bob, which is

(d) negatively charged. If it is allowed to oscillate above
a positively charged metallic plate, then its time
period will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) become zero
13. (d) remain the same
The radius of a planet is twice the radius of earth. 19.
Both have almost equal average mass-densities. If
VP and VE are escape velocities of the planet and the
earth, respectively, then
(a) VE= 1.5VP
(b) VP= 1.5VE
(c) VP= 2VE
(d) VE= 3VP

14. Wien's law is concerned with

(a) relation between emissivity and absorptivity of
a radiating surface (a) 2π
(b) total radiation, emitted by a hot surface (b) 3/2 π
(c) an expression for spectral distribution of energy (c) 3 π
of a radiation from any source (d) 2/3 π
(d) a relation between the temperature of a black
body and the wavelength at which there is 20.
maximum radiant energy per unit wavelength Two waves of the same frequency and intensity
superimpose each other in opposite phases. After
the superposition, the intensity and frequency of
waves will
(a) increase (d)
(b) decrease
(c) remain constant
(d) become zero

21. The wave described by y =2.05 sin (92πx – 0πt),

where x and y are in meters and t in seconds, is a 25. A(100 W, 200 V) bulb is connected to a 160V
wave travelling along the: power supply. The power consumption would be
(a) –ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz. (a) 125 W
(b) +ve x direction with frequency π Hz and (b) 100 W
wavelength λ = 2.0 m. (c) 80 W
(c) +ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz and (d) 64 W
wavelength λ=2.0 m
(d) –ve x direction with amplitude0.25 m and
wavelength λ=2.0 m 26. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron
is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then
22. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of (a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will
force constant K, the maximum force of attraction
both remain unchanged
between two charges, separated by a distance
(b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific
(a) decreases K-times
(b) increases K-times resistance will be halved
(c) remains unchanged (c) the resistance will be halved and the specific
(d) becomes 1/K2 times resistance will remain unchanged
(d) the resistance will be halved and the specific
23. resistance will be doubled

27. A current of 0A flows through a 0 Ω resistor

when connected across a battery. The same battery
supplies a current of 2.5 A when connected across a
9Ω resistor. The internal resistance of the battery is
(a) 2.5 Ω
(b) 9/3 Ω
(c) 9/4 Ω
(d) 9 Ω

(a) ± 2 × 10-3 C
(b) ± 5 × 10-3 C 28. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction
(c) ± 2 × 10-2 C is subjected to a field of magnetic induction in
(d) ± 5 × 10-2 C negative X-direction. As a result, the charge will
(a) remain unaffected
24. A parallel plate condenser has a uniform (b) start moving in a circular path Y–Z plane
electric field E(V/m) in the space between the (c) retard along X-axis
plates. If the distance between the plates is d(m) (d) move along a helical path around X-axis
and area of each plate is A(m2 ) the energy (joules)
stored in the condenser is
(a) 29.

(b)

(c)
 (d)

(a) directed perpendicular to the plane of paper 31.

(b) zero
(c) directed along OP
(d) directed along PO

30.

(a)

(b)

(a)
(c)

(d)

(b)
32. Which one of the following rays is not
electromagnetic wave?
(a) heat rays
(b) X-rays
(c) γ -rays
(d) β –rays

33. One face of a rectangular glass plate 6 cm thick

(c) is silvered. An object held 8 cm in front of the first
face forms an image 12 cm behind the silvered face.
The refractive index of the glass is is0.5 eV successively. Ratio of maximum speeds of
(a) 0.4 emitted electrons will be
(b) 0.8 (a) 1: 4
(c) 1.2 (b) 1: 2
(d) 1.6 (c) 1: 1
(d) 1: 5

34. A thin prism of angle 15° made of glass of

refractive index µ1 = 1.5 is combined with another 38.
prism of glass of refractive index µ2 = 1.75. The
Which of the following transitions in a hydrogen
combination of the prism produces dispersion
atom emits the photon of highest frequency?
without deviation. The angle of the second prism
(a) n = 2 to n = 1
should be
(b) n = 2 to n = 6
(a) 7°
(c) n = 6 to n = 2
(b) 10°
(d) n = 1 to n = 2
(c) 12°
(d) 5°
39. Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV falls on an
aluminum surface. K.E. of fastest electron emitted is
35. Alens having focal length f and aperture of
(work function = 4.2 eV)
diameter forms an image of intensity I. Aperture of
(a) 3.2 × 10-21 J
diameter d/2 in central region of lens is covered by
(b) 3.2 × 10-19 J
a black paper. Focal length of lens and intensity of
(c) 7 × 10-25 J
image now will be respectively:
(d) 9 × 10-32 J
(a)

40.

(b)

(c)

(a) 2000 MeV

(b) 200 MeV
(d)
(c) 2 MeV
(d) 200 keV

41.

36. Light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a sensitive

plate with photo-electric work function of 1.9 eV.
The kinetic energy of the photo-electrons emitted
will be
(a) 0.58 eV
(b) 2.48 eV
(c) 1.24 eV (a) a + b + c
(d) 1.16 eV (b) a + b – c
(c) c – a – b
(d) c + a – b
37. Light of two different frequencies whose
photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 Ev respectively
illuminate a metallic surface whose work function 42.
 R1
(b)
R2
(a) R2
(c)
R1

(b) (d)
√
R1
R2

(c) 47. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5

(d)
43. A semi-conducting device is connected in a
series circuit with a battery and a resistance. A
current is found to pass through the circuit. If the
polarity of the battery is reversed, the current
drops to almost zero. The device may be
(a) a p-n junction
(b) an intrinsic semi-conductor
(c) a p-type semi-conductor
(d) an n-type semi-conductor
44. In a p-n junction photocell, the value of the
photo electromotive force produced by
monochromatic light is proportional to
(a) the voltage applied at the p-n junction
(b) the barrier voltage at the p-n junction
(c) the intensity of the light falling on the cell
(d) the frequency of the light falling on the cell
kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30°
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to
slide down by flowing a current through it
when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is
acting on it in the vertical direction. The
current flowing in the rod to keep it
stationary is
(a) 7.14 A
(b) 5.98 A
(c) 11.32 A
(d) 14.76 A
48. In a common emitter transistor amplifier
the audio signal voltage across the collector
is 3V. The resistance of collector is 3 kW. If
current gain is 100 and the base resistance
is 2 kW, the voltage and power gain of the
amplifier is :-
(a) 15 and 200
(b) 150 and 15000
(c) 20 and 2000
(d) 200 and 1000

45. In forward biasing of the p–n junction
(a) the positive terminal of the battery is connected
to p–side and the depletion region becomes thick
(b) the positive terminal of the battery is connected
to n–side and the depletion region becomes thin
(c) the positive terminal of the battery is connected
to n–side and the depletion region becomes thick
(d) the positive terminal of the battery is connected
to p–side and the depletion region becomes thin
46.Two charged spherical conductors of
radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire.
Then the ratio of surface charge densities of
the spheres (σ 1/σ 2) is
2 (d) Base, emitter and collector regions should
R1
(a) 2
R2
49. Which colour of the light has the longest
wavelength?
(a) Red
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Violet
50. For transistor action, which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) Both emitter junction as well as the
collector junction are forward biased.
(b) The base region must be very thin and
lightly doped.
(c) Base, emitter and collector regions should
have same doping concentrations.
have same size.
 46.c 47.c 48.c 49.b 50.d
Biology :

1. d 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. a
6. b 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. a
11. b 12. a 13. b 14. d 15. c
16. a 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. c
21. a 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. b
26. b 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. b
31. a 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. d
36. c 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. d
41. c 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. a
46. b 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. c
51. c 52. c 53. c 54. d 55. a
56. d 57. d 58. c 59. b 60. c
61. a 62. a 63. b 64. d 65. d
66. a 67. c 68. d 69. d 70. b
71. d 72. a 73. b 74. a 75. b
76. a 77. a 78. c 79. d 80. d
81. b 82. c 83. b 84. a 85. d
86. d 87. b 88. c 89. d 90. c
91.(4) 92.c 93.c 94.b 95.b
96.c 97.a 98.a 99.d 100.c

Chemistry :

1. c 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. d
6. d 7. d 8. d 9. d 10. a
11. a 12. b 13. d 14. a 15. d
16. b 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. d
21. c 22. d 23. d 24.C 25. d
26. d 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. d
31. a 32. b 33. c 34. c 35. a
36. c 37. c 38. b 39. d 40. c
41. b 42. b 43.D 44. b 45. a
46.c 47.c 48.a 49.b 50.d

Physics :

1. b 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. d
6. a 7. d 8. a 9. d 10.b
11. c 12. b 13. c 14. d 15. c
16. a 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. c
21. c 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. d
26. c 27. b 28. a 29.b b 30. a
31. c 32. d 33. c 34. b 35. c
36. a 37. b 38. a 39. b 40. b
41. c 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. d