Practise set :23 9.

The plant body of moss (Funaria) is

(a) completely sporophyte
Biology (b) completely gametophyte
1. Artificial system of classification was first used (c) predominantly sporophyte with gametophyte
by (d) predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte
(a) Linnaeus
(b) De Candolle 10. Which of the following plants produces seeds
(c) Pliny the Edler but not flowers?
(d) Bentham and Hooker (a) Maize
(b) Mint
2. First life on earth was (c) Peepal
(a) Cyanobacteria (d) Pinus
(b) Chemoheterotrophs
(c) Autotrophs 11. Read the following five statements (A - E) and
(d) Photoautotrophs answer the question.
(A) In Equisetum the female
3. The main difference in Gram (+)ve and Gram gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte.
(–)ve bacteria resides in their (B)
(a) cell wall In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not independent.
(b) cell membrane (C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed
(c) cytoplasm than that in Polytrichum.
(d) flagella (D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is is ogamous.
(E) The spores of slime molds lack cell
4. Protists obtain food as walls.
(a) photosynthesisers, symbionts and holotrophs How many of the above statements are correct?
(b) photosynthesisers (a) Two
(c) chemosynthesisers (b) Three
(d) holotrophs (c) Four
(d) One
5. Transfer of genetic information from one
bacteriumto another in the transduction process is 12. Flight muscles of birds are attached to
through (a) clavicle
(a) Conjugation (b) keel of sternum
(b) Bacteriophages released from the donor (c) scapula
bacterial strain (d) coracoid
(c) Another bacterium
(d) Physical contact between donor and recipient 13. Adult Culex and Anopheles can be distinguished
strain with the help of
(a) mouth parts/colour
6. Viruses are no more “alive” than isolated (b) sitting posture
chromosomes because (c) antennae/wings
(a) both require the environment of a cell to (d) feeding habits
replicate
(b) they require both RNA and DNA 14. Besides annelida and arthropoda, the
(c) they both need food molecules metamerism is exhibited by
(d) they both require oxygen for respiration (a) cestoda
(b) chordata
7. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in: (c) mollusca
(a) Protista (d) acanthocephala
(b) Fungi
(c) Archaea 15. Two common characters found in centipede,
(d) Monera cockroach and crab are
(a) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
8. Evolutionary important character of Selaginella (b) Green gland and tracheae
is (c) Book lungs and antennae
(a) heterosporous nature (d) Compound eyes and anal cerci
(b) rhizophore
(c) strobili 16. Match the name of the animal (column I), with
(d) ligule one characteristics (column II), and the
phylum/class (column III) to which it belongs : (d) Palade
Column I – Column II -- Column III
(a) Ichthyophis -- terrestrial -- Reptilia 25. Lysosomes have a high content of
(b) Limulus -- body Pisces covered by chitinous -- (a) hydrolytic enzymes
exoskeleton (b) lipoproteins
(c) Adamsia -- radially Porifera -- symmetrical (c) polyribosomes
(d) Petromyzon-- ectoparasite -- Cyclostomata (d) DNA ligases

17. Tetradynamous stamens are found in family 26. Plasmodesmata are:

(a) Malvaceae (a) locomotary structures
(b) Solanaceae (b) membranes connecting the nucleus with
(c) Cruciferae plasmalemma
(d) Liliaceae (c) connections between adjacent cells
(d) lignified cemented layers between cells
18. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of
(a) Lemon 27. A nucleotide is formed of
(b) Mustard (a) Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(c) Sun flower (b) Purine, sugar and phosphate
(d) Pea (c) Nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate
(d) Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
19. Which one yields fibres?
(a) Coconut 28. Minor changes at gene level are described as
(b) Oak (a) Point mutations
(c) Teak (b) Chromosomal mutations
(d) Sisso (c) Reverse mutations
(d) Forward mutations
20. At maturity which of the following is enucleate?
(a) Sieve cell 29. Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of
(b) Companion cell substances like:
(c) Palisade cell (a) amino acids and glucose
(d) Cortical cell (b) glucose and fatty acids
(c) fatty acids and glycerol
21. The chief water conducting elements of xylem (d) fructose and some amino acids
in gymnosperms are:
(a) vessels 30. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in
(b) fibres your class and are asked to count the
(c) transfusion tissue chromosomes, which of the following stages can
(d) tracheids you most conveniently look into?
(a) Metaphase
22. Vitamin K is required for (b) Telophase
(a) formation of thromboplastin (c) Anaphase
(b) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin (d) Prophase
(c) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
(d) synthesis of prothrombin 31. In guard cells when sugar is converted into
starch, the stomatal pore
23. Which one of the following correctly describes (a) closes completely
the location of some body parts in the earthworm (b) opens partially
Pheretima? (c) opens fully
(a) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4 - 7 segments. (d) remains unchanged
(b) One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental
septum of 14th and 15th segments. 32. Guard cells help in:
(c) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments. (a) transpiration
(d) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16 - 18 (b) guttation
segments. (c) fighting against infection
(d) protection against grazing
24. Ribosomes were discovered by
(a) Golgi 33. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is
(b) Porter brought about by:
(c) De Robertis (a) Bradyrhizobium
(b) Clostridium 41. Vitamin K is required for
(c) Frankia (a) change of prothrombin to thrombin
(d) Azorhizobium (b) synthesis of prothrombin
(c) change of fibrinogen to fibrin
34. The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4-plants is (d) formation of thromboplastin
(a) Phosphoenol-pyruvate
(b) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate 42. Which set is correct?
(c) Oxalo-acetic acid (a) Corpus callosum — Grafian follicle
(d) Phosphoglyceric acid (b) Sebum — Sweat
(c) Bundle of His — Pace maker
35. Which enzyme is most abudantly found on (d) Vitamin B7 — Niacin
earth?
(a) Catalase 43. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an
(b) Rubisco otherwise normal human, may lead to
(c) Nitrogenase (a) Indigestion
(d) Invertase (b) Jaundice
(c) Diarrhoea
36. Importance of day length in flowering of plants (d) Vomiting
was first shown in
(a) lemna 44. Breakdown product of haemoglobin is
(b) tobacco (a) Bilirubin
(c) cotton (b) Iron
(d) petunia (c) Biliverdin
(d) Calcium
37. Maximum amount of energy/ATP is liberated
on oxidation of 45. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?
(a) fats (a) Lymphocyte
(b) proteins (b) Eosinophil
(c) starch (c) Basophil
(d) vitamins (d) Neutrophil

38. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of 46. Compared to blood our lymph has:
oxidative phosphorylation proposes that adenosine (a) plasma without proteins
triphosphate (ATP) is formed because: (b) more WBCs and no RBCs
(a) high energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial (c) more RBCs and less WBCs
proteins (d) no plasma
(b) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the
intermembrane space 47. In the renal tubules the permeability of the
(c) a proton gradient forms across the inner distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to
membrane water is controlled by
(d) there is a change in the permeability of the (a) Vasopressin
inner mitochondrial membrane toward adenosine (b) Aldosterone
diphosphate (ADP) (c) Growth hormone
(d) Renin
39. Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the
plant with 48. Which one of the following characteristics is
(a) cytokinin common to both in humans and adult frogs?
(b) gibberellic acid (a) Four - chambered heart
(c) auxin (b) Internal fertilization
(d) antigibberellin (c) Nucleated RBCs
(d) Ureotelic mode of excretion
40.
Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green 49. Select the correct statement with respect to
plants takes place due to locomotion in humans:
(a) indole acetic acid (a) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints
(b) cytokinins causes their inflammation
(c) gibberellins (b) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.
(d) ethylene (c) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a
fibrous joint
(d) The decreased level of progesterone causes (c) is born out of the technique of fertilization in
osteoporosis in old people vitro
(d) has been developed without fertilization
50. Characteristic feature of human cornea
(a) Secreted by conjunctiva and glandular 58. Which one of the following statements about
(b) It is lacrimal gland which secretes tears morula in humans is correct?
(c) Blood circulation is absent in cornea (a) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an
(d) In old age it becomes harden and white layer uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
deposits on it which causes cataract (b) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA
than in an uncleaved zygote
51. Occurrence of Leydig’s cells and their secretion (c) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm
is and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(a) ovary and estrogen (d) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an
(b) liver and cholesterol uncleaved zygote
(c) pancreas and glucagon
(d) testes and testosterone 59. The stage transferred into the uterus after
induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is
52. Mainly which type of hormones control the (a) Zygote
menstrual cycle in human beings? (b) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage
(a) FSH (c) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage
(b) LH (d) Morula
(c) FSH, LH, estrogen
(d) Progesteron 60. Segregation of Mendelian factors (no linkage, no
crossing over) occurs during
53. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such (a) anaphase I
as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the (b) anaphase II
hormone: (c) diplotene
(a) calcitonin (d) metaphase I
(b) prolactin
(c) adrenaline 61. Barr body in mammals represents
(d) melatonin (a) all the heterochromatin in female cells
(b) Y-chromosomes in somatic cells of male
54. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence (c) all heterochromatin in male and female cells
of: (d) one of the two X-chromosomes in somatic cells
(a) stamen and carpel of the same plant of females
(b) upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the
same plant 62. How many base pairs are found in one genome
(c) upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the of man?
same plant (a) 7 × 104
(d) antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the (b) 2.8 × 107
same plant (c) 3 × 109
(d) 4 × 109
55. Ovule is straight with funiculus, embryo sac,
chalaza and micropyle lying on one straight line. It 63. The linkage map of X-chromosome of fruit fly
is has 66 units, with yellow body gene (y) at one end
(a) Orthotropous and bobbed hair
(b) Anatropous (a) gene at the other end. The recombination
(c) Campylotropous frequency between these two genes (y and b)
(d) Amphitropous should be
(b) 100%
56. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from (c) 66%
(a) Synergids (d) > 50%
(b) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
(c) Antipodal cells 64. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to
(d) Diploid egg green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is
crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of
57. Test tube baby is one who yellow and green seeded plants would you expect
(a) is born out of artificial insemination in F1 generation?
(b) has undergone development in a test tube (a) 9: 1
(b) 1: 3 chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
(c) 3: 1 (d) crystallization of chemicals.
(d) 50 :50
73. Analgesic drugs
65. Genetic variation in a population arises due to (a) form tissues
(a) Mutations only (b) relieve pain
(b) Recombination only (c) relieve fatigue
(c) Mutations as well as recombination (d) cause pain
(d) Reproductive isolation and selection
74. During blood typing agglutination indicates that
66. An environmental agent, which triggers the
transcription from an operon, is a (a) RBC carry certain antigens
(a) regulator (b) Plasma contains certain antigens
(b) inducer (c) RBC carry certain antibodies
(c) depressor (d) Plasma contains certain antibodies
(d) controlling element
75. To which type of barriers under innate
67. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears
of amino acid. It is called from the eyes, belong?
(a) degeneracy of genetic code (a) Cytokine barriers
(b) overlapping of gene (b) Cellular barriers
(c) wobbling of codon (c) Physiological barriers
(d) universility of codons (d) Physical barriers

68. A sequential expression of a set of human genes 76. Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is
(a) messenger RNA normally found on human body
(b) DNA sequence (a) Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs
(c) ribosome (b) Muscles of the legs
(d) transfer RNA. (c) Blood vessels of the thigh region
(d) Skin between the fingers
69. Humming bird and Hawk illustrate
(a) Convergent evolution 77. What is the best pH of soil for cultivation of
(b) Homology plants?
(c) Adaptive radiation (a) 3.4 – 5.4
(d) Parallel evolution (b) 6.5 – 7.5
(c) 4.5 – 8.5
70. In the evolution of man, several changes (d) 5.6 – 6.5
occurred in the ancestral characters. Which one of
the following changes is irrelevant in this context? 78. Which one of the following proved effective for
(a) Loss of tail from body biological control of nematodal disease in plants?
(b) Increase in the ability to communicate with (a) Pisolithus tinctorius
others and develop community behaviour (b) Pseudomonas cepacia
(c) Change of diet from fruits, hard nuts and roots (c) Gliocladium virens
to softer food (d) Paecilomyces lilacinus
(d) Perfection in the structure and working of hand
for tool-making 79. A common biocontrol agent for the control of
plant diseases is
71. According to fossils discovered up to present (a) Baculovirus
time origin and evolution of man was started from (b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(a) France (c) Glomus
(b) Java (d) Trichoderma
(c) Africa
(d) China 80. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in:
(a) Spectrophotometry
72. The concept of chemical evolution is based on (b) Tissue culture
(a) interaction of water, air and clay under intense (c) PCR
heat (d) Gel electrophoresis
(b) effect of solar radiation on chemicals
(c) possible origin of life by combination of
81. The most common substrate used in distilleries (c) They promote pollution
for the production of ethanol is (d) Lichens are not related with pollution
(a) corn meal
(b) soya meal 90. Montreal protocol aims at
(c) ground gram (a) Biodiversity conservation
(d) molasses (b) Control of water pollution
(c) Control of CO2 emission
82. Sunken stomata is the characteristic feature of (d) Reduction of ozone de pleting substances
(a) hydrophyte
(b) mesophyte 91.. Identify the incorrect pair
(c) xerophyte (a) Drugs – Ricin
(d) halophyte (b) Alkaloids – Codeine
(c) Toxin – Abrin
83. The population of an insect species shows an (d) Lectins – Concanavalin A
explosive increase in numbers during rainy season
followed by its disappearance at the end of the 92. Match List-I with List-II
season. What does this show? List I List II
(a) The food plants mature and die at the end of the (a) Aspergillus niger
rainy season (i) Acetic Acid
(b) Its population growth curve is of J-type (b) Acetobacter aceti
(c) The population of its predators increases (ii) Lactic Acid
enormously (c) Clostridium butylicum
(d) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect. (iii) Citric Acid
(d) Lactobacillus
84. Which of the following does not have stomata? (iv) Butyric Acid
(a) hydrophytes
(b) mesophytes Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) xerophytes given below
(d) submerged hydrophytes (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
85. About 70% of total global carbon is found in (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(a) grasslands (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) agroecosystems (4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(c) oceans
(d) forests 93. With regard to insulin choose correct
options.
86. Minerals and metals are (a) C-peptide is not present in mature
(a) biodegradable resources insulin.
(b) renewable (b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology
(c) non-renewable has Cpeptide.
(d) renewable and non-renewable resources (c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are
87. One of the most important functions of interconnected by disulphide bridges.
botanical gardens is that Choose the correct answer from the options
(a) they provide a beautiful area for recreation given below
(b) one can observe tropical plants there (1) (a) and (d) only
(c) they allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm (2) (b) and (d) only
(d) they provide the natural habitat for wildlife (3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only
88. Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane emission is
(a) Sulphur dioxide 94. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be
(b) Carbon monoxide prevented by the application of:
(c) Methane (a) Ethylene
(d) Fluorocarbon (b) Auxins
(c) Gibberellic acid
89. Which of the following is the use of lichens in (d) Cytokinins
case of pollution?
(a) They treat the polluted water 95. Select the correct route for the passage
(b) They act as bioindicators of pollution of sperms in male frogs:
(a) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney →
Seminal Vesicle → Urinogenital duct →
Cloaca
(b) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal
→ Ureter → Cloaca
(c) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney →
Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(d) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney →
Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct →
Cloaca

96. In case of a couple where the male is

having a very low sperm count, which
technique will be suitable for fertilisation ?
(a) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian
transfer
(b) Artificial Insemination
(c) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(d) Intrauterine transfer

97. The correct order of steps in Polymerase

Chain Reaction (PCR) is
(a) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(b) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(c) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(d) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

98. Select the correct match

(a) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(b) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(c) G. Mendel - Transformation
(d) T.H. Morgan – Transduction

99. Which one of the following equipments is

essentially required for growing microbes on
a large scale, for industrial production of
enzymes?
(a) BOD incubator
(b) Sludge digester
(c) Industrial oven
(d) Bioreactor

100. Consider the following statement :

(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly
bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic
group.
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with
its bound prosthetic group is called
apoenzyme.
Select the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(2) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) is false but (B) is true.
Chemistry (d) PF3

8. The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3

1. Ametal oxide has the formula Z2O3. It can be )consists of:
reduced by hydrogen to give free metal and water. (a) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds
0.1596 g of the metal oxide requires 6 mg of (b) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds
hydrogen for complete reduction. The atomic (c) 1 sigma and 1 pi bonds
weight of the metal is (d) 2 sigma and 1 pi bonds
(a) 27.9
(b) 159.6 9. In vander Waal's equation of state for a non-ideal
(c) 79.8 gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular
(d) 55.8 forces is:
(a) (V-b)
2. Number of moles of MnO4 required to oxidize one (b) (RT)-1

( )
mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic 1
medium will be: (c) P+ 2
V
(a) 0.6 moles
(d)RT
(b) 0.4 moles
(c) 7.5 moles
(d) 0.2 moles
10. Three moles of an ideal gas expanded
spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be:
3. Uncertainty in position of an electron (mass = 9.9 (a) Zero
×92-08 g) moving with a velocity of 3 × 924 cm/s (b) Infinite
accurate upto %2.229 will be (use h/4 π) in (c) 3 Joules
uncertainty expression where h = 6.606 ×92-07 (d) 9 Joules
ergsecond)
(a) 1.93 cm
11. The factor of ∆ G values is important in
(b) 3.84 cm
metallurgy. The ∆ G values for the following
(c) 5.76 cm reactins at 8000C are given as :
(d) 7.68 cm
S2(s) + 2O2(g)  2SO2(g) ; ∆ G = -544kJ
4. If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of
electrons will be:
2Zn(s) +S2(s)  2NzS(s) ; ∆ G = -293kJ
(a) ns → (n-2)f → (n-1)d→np
(b) ns → (n-2)d → (n-2)f→np
2Zn(s) +O2(g)  2NzO(s) ;∆ G = -480kJ
(c) ns → (n-2)f→np → (n-1)d
(d) ns → np(n-1)d→ → (n-2)f
Then ∆ G for the reaction :
5. Which of the following statements is true?
2ZnS(s) + 3O2(g)  2NzO(s) +2SO2(g)
(a) Silicon exhibits 4 coordination number in its
compound
Will be
(b) Bond energy of F2 is less than Cl2
(c) Mn(III) oxidation state is more stable than
(a) –357 kJ
Mn(II) in aqueous state
(d) Elements of 15th group shows only +3 and +5
(b) –731 kJ
oxidation states
(c) –773 kJ
6. Which structure is linear?
(a) SO2
(d) –229 kJ
(b) CO2
(c) CO3+2
12.Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2 , Cl2 and HCl
(d) SO4+2
are 434, 242 and kJ mol-1 respectively. Enthalpy of
formation of HCl is
7. Which one of the following has the pyramidal
(a) 93kJ mol-1
shape?
(b) -245 kJ mol-1
(a) CO3
(c) - 93kJ mol-1
(b) SO3
(d) 245 kJ mol-1
(c) BF3
 21. Given are cyclohexanol acetic acid (II), 2, 4, 6 –
trinitrophenol (III) and phenol (IV). In these the
13. The solubility products of CuS, Ag2S and HgS are order of decreasing acidic character will be:
10-31 , 10-44 , 10-54 respectively. The solubilises of (a) III> II> IV> I
these sulphides are in the order (b) II> III> I> IV
(a) Ag2 S> HgS> CuS (c) II> III> IV> I
(b) Ag2 S> CuS> HgS (d) III> IV> II> I
(c) HgS> Ag2 S> CuS
(d) CuS> Ag2 S> HgS 22. Which one of the following reactions is
expected to readily give a hydrocarbon product in
14. Which of the following pairs constitutes a good yields?
buffer? Electrolytic
(a) NaOHand NaCl (a) RCOOK →

(b) HNO3 and NH4NO3 Oxidation

(c) HCl and KCl
(d) HNO2 and NaNO2 (b) RCOO- Ag+ Br 2
→

15. At 100° C the Kw of water is 55 times its value at

Cl 2
25°C. What will be the pHof neutral solution? (log (c) CH3CH3 →
55 = 1.74) hν
(a) 6.13
(b) 7.00
(c) 7.87 (d) CH3CH3 C 2 H 2 OH
→
(d) 5.13

16. When H2O2 is oxidised the product is 23. Which one of the following statements
(a) OH- regarding photochemical smog is not correct?
(b) O2 (a) Carbon monoxide does not play any role in
(c) O2- photochemical smog formation.
(d) HO2- (b) Photochemical smog is an oxidising agent in
character.
17. Which of the following compounds has the (c) Photochemical smog is formed through
lowest melting point? photochemical reaction involving solar energy.
(a) CaCl2 (d) Photochemical smog does not cause irritation in
(b) CaBr2 eyes and throat.
(c) CaI2
(d) CaF2 24. Percentage of free space in a body centred cubic
unit cell is:
18. Which of the following possesses a sp-carbon in (a) 30%
its structure? (b) 32%
(a) CH2 = CCI– CH= CH2 (c) 34%
(b) CCl2 = CCl2 (d) 28%
(c) CH2 = C= CH2
(d) CH2 = CH– CH= CH2. 25. Which of the following colligative property can
provide molar mass of proteins (or polymers or
19. Which of the following will exhibit chirality? colloids) with greatest precision?
(a) 2-Methylhexane (a) Osmotic pressure
(b) 3-Methylhexane (b) Elevation of boiling point
(c) Neopentane (c) Depression of freezing point
(d) Isopentane (d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure

20. Which of the following pairs of compounds are
enantiomers?
(a) CH3 CH3 HHOHOHand CH3 CH3 HOHHHO
(b) CH3 CH3 HHOHOHand CH3 CH3 HOHHHO
(c) CH3 CH3 HHOHOHand CH3 CH3 HOHHHO
(d) CH3 CH3 HHOHOHand CH3 CH3 HOHOHH
26. The standard reduction potneitals at 250C of
Li+ / Li, Ba2+ /Ba, Na+ /Na and Mg2+ / Mg are -3.03 , -
2.73 , -2.71 and -2.37 volt respectively. Which one
of the following is the strongest oxidising agent ?
(a) Na+
(b) Li+
(c) Ba2+
(d) Mg2+

27. Kohlrausch’s law states that at: 30. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a
(a) finite dilution, each ion makes definite constituent in it.
contribution to equivalent conductance of an (a) Invar
electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion (b) Steel
of the electrolyte. (c) Bell metal
(b) infinite dilution each ion makes definite (d) Bronze
contribution to equivalent conductance of an
electrolyte depending on the nature of the other ion 31. When chlorine is passed over dry slaked lime at
of the electrolyte. room temperature, the main reaction product is
(c) infinite dilution, each ion makes definite (a) 2 2 Ca(ClO)
contribution to conductance of an electrolyte (b) CaCl2
whatever be the nature of the other ion of the (c) CaOCl2
electrolyte. (d) 2 Ca(OCl)
(d) infinite dilution, each ion makes definite
contirubtion to equivalent conductance of an 32. The correct order of acid strength is:
electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion (a) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
of the electrolyte. (b) HClO< HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(c) HClO4 < HClO< HClO2 < HClO3
28. In the following reaction, how is the rate of (d) HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO
appearance of the underlined product and related
to the rate of disappearance of the underlined 33. The composition of ‘golden spangles’ is
reactant ? (a) PbCrO4
(b) PbI2
(c) As2S3
(d) BaCrO4
d [Br 2 ] 5
(a) = d ¿¿ 34.
dt 3
Which one of the following characteristics of the
d [Br 2 ] transition metals is associated with their catalytic
(b) = d ¿¿ activity?
dt (a) Variable oxidation states
(b) High enthalpy of atomization
d [Br 2 ] 3 (c) Parmagnetic behaviour
(c) = d ¿¿
dt 5 (d) Colour of hydrated ions

d [Br 2 ] 3 35. An example of double salt is

(d) =- d ¿ ¿ (a) Bleaching powder
dt 5
(b) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(c) Hypo
29. Activation energy (Ea) and rate constants (k1 (d) Potash alum
and k2 ) of a chemical reaction at two different
temperatures (T1 and T2) are related by: 36. Which of the following is considered to be an
anticancer species?
(a) ln
K2
K1
=- (
Ea 1 1
−
R T1 T2 ) (a)

(b) ln
K2
K1
=- (
Ea 1 1
−
R T2 T1 )
(b)
(c) ln
K2
K1
=-
Ea 1 1
+
(
R T2 T 1 )
(d) ln
K1
= (
K 2 Ea 1 1
−
R T2 T1 )
(c)
 (d) p— H3CO— C6H4 — COCH3

41. The product formed in Aldol condensation is

(a) a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy
ketone
(d) (b) an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
(c) an alpha, beta unsaturated ester
(d) a beta-hydroxy acid

42. Aniline is reacted with bromine water and the

resulting product is treated with an aqueous
solution of sodium nitrite in presence of dilute
hydrochloric acid. The compound so formed is
37. Which is diamagnetic? converted into a tetrafluoroborate which is
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3- subsequently heated dry. The final product is
(b) [Co(F6 )]3- (a) 1,3, 5-tribromobenzene
(c) [Ni(CN)4]2- (b) p-bromofluorobenzene
(d) [NiCl4]2- (c) p-bromoaniline
(d) 2,4, 6-tribromofluorobenzene
38. Propene, CH3CHCH2 can be converted into 1-
propanol by oxidation. Indicate which set of 43. Chemically considering digestion is basically
reagents amongst the following is ideal to effect the (a) Anabolism
above conversion? (b) Hydrogenation
(a) KMnO4 (alkaline) (c) Hydrolysis
(b) Osmium tetraoxide (OsO4 /CH2Cl2) (d) Dehydrogenation.
(c) B6H6 and alk. H2O2
(d) O3 /Zn
44. The hormone that helps in the conversion of
glucose to glycogen is
39. Among the following ethers, which one will (a) Cortisone
produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot (b) Bile acids
concentrated HI? (c) Adrenaline
(a) (d) Insulin

45.

(b)

(a) 2-methylpropene
(c) (b) Styrene
(c) Propylene
(d) Ethene

(d) 46. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm

40.An ester(A) with molecular formula, C9H10O2 was
treated with excess of CH3 MgBr and the complex so
formed was treated with H2SO4 to give an olefin(B).
Ozonolysis of (B) gave a ketone with molecular
formula C8H8O which shows +ve iodoform test. The
structure of (A) is
(a) C6H5COOC2H5
(b) C2H5COOC6H5
(c) H3COCH2COC6H5
and a concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm
are kept along the same axis with a distance
'd' between them. If a parallel beam of light
falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a parallel beam,
then the distance 'd' in cm will be
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 15
(d) 50
47. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 d ( N 2) 1 d ( NH 3 )
M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of (c) - =-
dt 2 dt
Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 10–15 d ( H2) d ( NH 3 )
(d) 3 =2
(a) 1 × 10–13 M dt dt
(b) 1 × 108 M
(c) 2 × 10–13 M
(d) 2 × 10–8 M

48. The species, having bond angles of 120°

is :-
(a) CIF3
(b) NCl3
(c) BCl3
(d) PH3
49. Identify the major products P, Q and R
in the following sequence of reactions:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

50. For the chemical reaction

N2(g) +3H2(g) ⇋ 2NH3(g)

The correct option
1 d ( H 2) 1 d ( N H3)
(a) - =-
3 dt 2 dt
d ( N 2) d ( NH 3 )
(b) – =2
dt dt
Physics supporting cable is
(a) 980 N
(b) 10800 N
1. Dimensional formula of self inductance is (c) 9800 N
(a) [MLT-2 A-2 ] (d) 8800 N
(b) [ML2 T-1 A-2 ]
(c) [ML2 T-2 A-2 ] 8. A body of mass m moving with velocity 3 km/h
(d) [ML2 T-2 A-1 ] collides with a body of mass 2 m at rest. Now the
coalesced mass starts to move with a velocity
2. Which two of the following five physical (a) 1 km/h
parameters have the same dimensions? (b) 2 km/h
(A) Energy density (c) 3 km/h
(B) Refractive index (d) 4 km/h
(C) Dielectric constant
(D) Young’s modulus 9. A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head
(E) Magnetic field on with another stationary ball of double the mass.
(a) (B) and (D) If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, then their
(b) (C) and (E) velocities (in m/s) after collision will be:
(c) (A) and (D) (a) 0, 1
(d) (A) and (E) (b) 1, 1
(c) 1, 0.5
3. The displacement of a particle is represented by (d) 0, 2
the following equation:
3t3 + 7t2 + 5t + 8 where s is in metre and t in second. 10. Angular momentum is
The acceleration of the particle at t = 1s is (a) vector (axial)
(a) 14 m/s2 (b) vector (polar)
(b) 18 m/s2 (c) scalar
(c) 32 m/s2 (d) none of the above
(d) zero
11. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg-m2 about
4. Abus is moving on a straight road towards north its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about
with a uniform speed of 50 km/hour turns through this axis. The torque which can stop the wheel’s
90°. If the speed remains unchanged after turning, rotation in one minute would be
the increase in the velocity of bus in the turning π
process is (a) N–m
(a) 70.7 km/hour along south-west direction 18
(b) zero
(c) 50 km/hour along west 2π
(b) N-m
(d) 70.7 km/hour along north-west direction. 18

5. Aboat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water π

(c) N-m
crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest 12
possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the
river water in km/hr is π
(d) N-m
(a) 3 15
(b) 4
(c) √21
(d) 1 12.
A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless
6. A particle has initial velocity (2i^ +3 ^j ) and vertical axle. Its radius R= 2 m and its moment of
acceleration (0.3i^ + 0.20 ^j ). The magnitude of inertia about the axle is 200 kgm2. It is initially at
velocity after 10 seconds will be: rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the platform
(a) 9√ 2 units and begins to walk along the edge at the speed of 1
(b) 5√ 2 units ms-1 relative to the ground. Time taken by the man
(c) 5 units to complete one revolution is:
(d) 9 units (a) π S

7. A lift weighing 1000 kg is moving upwards with 3π

(b) s
an accelertion of 1 m/s2 . The tension in the 2
 18. A particle, with restoring force proportional to
(c) 2 π s displacement and resistve force proportional to
velocity is subjected to a force F sin ω0. If the
π amplitude of the particle is maximum for ω = ω and1
(d) s the energy of the particle is maximum for ω = ω2 ,
2
then
13. (a) ω1 = ω0 and ω2 ≠ ω 0

The potential energy of a satellite, having mass m (b) ω1 = ω0 and ω2 = ω0

and rotating at a height of 6.4 × 106 m from the (c) ω1 ≠ ω0 and ω2 = ω0
earth surface, is (d) ω1 ≠ ω0 and ω2 ≠ ω0
(a) – mgRe
(b) – 0.67 mgRe 19. A particle is executing a simple harmonic
(c) – 0.5 mgRe motion of amplitude a. Its potential energy is
(d) – 0.33 mgRe maximum when the displacement from the position
of the maximum kinetic energy is
14. The compressibility of water is 4 × 10–5 per unit (a) 0
atmospheric pressure. The decrease in volume of (b) ±a
100 cm3 of water under a pressure of 100 (c) ±a/ 2
atmosphere will be (d) – a/2
(a) 0.4 cm3
(b) 4 × 10-5 cm3 20. If the amplitude of sound is doubled and the
(c) 0.025 cm3 frequency is reduced to one fourth, the intensity of
(d) 0.004 cm3 sound at the same point will be
(a) increasing by a factor of 2
15. If λm denotes the wavelength at which the (b) decreasing by a factor of 2
radiative emission from a black body at a (c) decreasing by a factor of 4
temperature T K is maximum, then (d) unchanged
(a) λm∝ T-1
(b) λm ∝ T4
(c) λm is independent of T 21. A cylindrical resonance tube open at both ends,
(d) λm∝ T has a fundamental frequency, f, in air. If half of the
length is dipped vertically in water, the
16. Which of the following is not thermodynamical fundamental frequency of the air column will be
function? (a) 2f
(a) Enthalpy (b) 3f/2
(b) Work done
(c) f
(c) Gibb's energy
(d) f/2
(d) Internal energy

17. A thermodynamic system is taken through the 22. A transverse wave is represented by y = A sin
cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the (ωt– kx). For what value of the wavelength is the
gas during the cycle is :
wave velocity equal to the maximum particle
velocity?
(a) πA/2
(b) πA
(c) 2πA
(d) A

23.If a dipole of dipole moment ⃗ P is placed in a

⃗
uniform electric field E , then torque actine on it is
given by
(a) 2 PV (a) τ⃗ = ⃗
P.⃗E
(b) 4 PV (b) τ⃗ = ⃗
P⃗ E
(c) 1/2 PV
(c) τ⃗ = P + ⃗
⃗ E
(d) PV
⃗ ⃗
(d) τ⃗ = P - E
24. A capacitor is charged to store an energy U. The
charging battery is disconnected. An identical
capacitor is now connected to the first capacitor in
parallel. The energy in each of the capacitor is
(a) U/ 2
(b) 3U/ 2
(c) U
(d) U/ 4
(a) –1V
(b) + 2V
25. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric (c) –2V
field E in the space between the plates. If the (d) + 1V
distance between the plates is d and area of each
plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is:
1 29. The magnetic field (d⃗ B) due to a small element
(a) ε 0E2 (dl) at a distance (r⃗ ) and element carrying current
2
is
(b) E2 Ad/ε 0

(c)
1
2 0
ε E2 Ad (a) d⃗
B=
4π
i (
μ0 d ⃗l× ⃗r
r )
(d) ε 0E2 Ad
(b) d⃗
B=
4π
i (
μ0 2 d ⃗l× ⃗r
r
2 )
26. If nearly 105 coulombs liberate 1 gm-equivalent
of aluminium, then the amount of aluminium
(c) d⃗
B=
4π
i (
μ0 2 d ⃗l× ⃗r
r )
(equivalent weight 9), deposited through
electrolysis in 20 minutes by a current of 50 amp.
will be
(a) 0.6 gm
(b) 0.09 gm
(d) d⃗
B=
4π
i
r(
μ0 2 d ⃗l× ⃗r
3 )
(c) 5.4 gm
(d) 10.8 gm 30. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a
horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It:
(a) will become rigid showing no movement
27. A 5–ampere fuse wire can withstand a
(b) will stay in any position
maximum power of 1 watt in the circuit. The
(c) will stay in north-south direction only
resistance of the fuse wire is
(d) will stay in east-west direction only
(a) 0.04 ohm
(b) 0.2 ohm
(c) 5 ohm 31. A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of
(d) 0.4 ohm inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with the
coil is
(a) 2 Wb
28. In the circuit shown in the figure, if potential at
(b) 0.5 Wb
point A is taken to be zero, the potential at point B
(c) 12.5 Wb
is
(d) Zero

32. An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an

inductor Lin series. If Rand the inductive reactance
are both equal to 3 Ω, the phase difference between
the applied voltage and the current in the circuit is
(a) π /6
(b) π /4
(c) π /2
(d) zero of matter waves?
(a) Electron
(b) D-particle
33. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a (c) Proton
medium of permittivity H0 and permeability P0 is (d) Neutron
given by

(a)
√
ϵ0
μ0
(b) √ μ0 ϵ 0
38. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light
of wavelength 0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25%
efficient in converting electrical energy to light, the
1 number of photons of yellow light it emits per
(c) second is
√ μ0ϵ 0 (a) 1.5 × 1020

√
(b) 6 × 1018
μ0
(d) (c) 62 × 1020
ϵ0 (d) 3 × 1019

39. In which of the following systems will the

radius of the first orbit (n = 1) be minimum?
34. Light enters at an angle of incidence in a
(a) Hydrogen atom
transparent rod of refractive index n. For what
(b) Doubly ionized lithium
value of the refractive index of the material of the
(c) Singly ionized helium
rod the light once entered into it will not leave it
(d) Deuterium atom
through its lateral face whatsoever be the value of
angle of incidence?
(a) n > √ 2 40. Which of the following statements is true for
(b) n=1 nuclear forces?
(c) n =1.1 (a) they obey the inverse square law of distance
(d) n= 1.3 (b) they obey the inverse third power law of
distance
(c) they are short range forces
35. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When
(d) they are equal in strength to electromagnetic
it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between
forces.
the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal
length of lenses are:
(a) 10 cm, 10 cm 41. Half-lives of two radioactive substances A and
(b) 15 cm, 5 cm Bare respectively 20 minutes and 40 minutes.
(c) 18 cm, 2 cm Initially, the samples of A and B have equal number
(d) 11 cm, 9 cm of nuclei. After 80 minutes the ratio of remaining
numbers of A and B nuclei is
(a) 1: 16
36. A parallel beam of light of wavelength O is
(b) 4: 1
incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction
(c) 1: 4
pattern is formed on a screen placed perpendicular
(d) 1: 1
to the direction of the incident beam. At the second
minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase
difference between the rays coming from the two 42. In a radioactive material the activity at time t 1 is
edges of slit is R1 and at a later time t2 , it is R2. If the decay
(a) πλ constant of the material is λ , then
(b) 2 π m−6
(c) 3 π (a) n−4 Z
(d) 4 π m−6
(b) n Z

37. Which of the following moving particles m−4

(moving with same velocity) has largest wavelength (c) n Z
 48. The fundamental frequency in an open
m−4
(d) Y
n
organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of
a closed organ pipe. If the length of the
closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the
43. When n-type semiconductor is heated open organ pipe is
(a) number of electrons increases while that of
holes decreases (a) 13.2 cm
(b) number of holes increases while that of (b) 8 cm
electrons decreases (c) 16 cm
(c) number of electrons and holes remain same (d) 12.5 cm
(d) number of electrons and holes increases
equally.
49. Two parallel infinite line charges with
linear charge densities + λ C/m and – λ C/m
44. The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n diode are placed at a distance of 2R in free space.
is What is the electric field mid-way between
(a) depletion of positive charges near the junction the two line charges?
(b) concentration of positive charges near the
junction (a) Zero
2λ
(c) depletion of negative charges near the junction (b) N/C
(d) concentration of positive and negative charges π ε0 R
near the junction λ
(c) N/C
π ε0 R

45. Application of a forward bias to a p–n junction λ

(a) widens the depletion zone (d) N/C
2 π ε0 R
(b) increases the potential difference across the
depletion zone
(c) increases the number of donors on the n side 50.Find the torque about the origin when a
(d) increases the electric field in the depletion zone
force of acts on a particle whose

position vector is
46. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and
radius 'R' an arc corresponding to a 90° (a) 6i^ Nm
sector is removed. The moment of inertia of
(b) 6 ^j Nm
the remaining part of the ring about an axis
passing through the centre of the ring and (3) -6i^ Nm
perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K' (4) 6k^ Nm
times 'MR2'. Then the value of 'K' is
(a) 1/8
(b) ¾
(c) 7/8
(d) ¼

47. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder

of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the
angular acceleration of the cylinder if the
rope is pulled with a force of 30 N ?
(a) 0.25 rad/s2
(b) 25 rad/s2
(c) 5 m/s2
(d) 25 m/s2
Biology

1. c 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. b
6. a 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. d
11. a 12. b 13. b 14. b 15. a
16. d 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. a
21. d 22. d 23. c 24. d 25. a
26. c 27. c 28. a 29. a 30. a
31. a 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. b
36. b 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. c
41. b 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. a
46. b 47. a 48. d 49. a 50. c
51. d 52. c 53. d 54. c 55. a
56. b 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. a
61. d 62. c 63. b 64. d 65. c
66. b 67. a 68. b 69. c 70. a
71. c 72. c 73. b 74. a 75. c
76. a 77. b 78. c 79. d 80. d
81. d 82. c 83. b 84. d 85. c
86. d 87. c 88. d 89. b 90. d
91.a 92.(2) 93.(4) 94.b 95.c
96.b 97.c 98.a 99.d 100(2)

Chemistry :

1. d 2. b 3.a 4. a 5. b
6. b 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. a
11. b 12. c 13. d 14. d 15. a
16. b 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. a
21. c 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. a
26. d 27. d 28. d 29. b 30. b
31. c 32. b 33. b 34.a 35. d
36. c 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. a
41. a 42. d 43. c 44.b 45. a
46.c 47.c 48.c 49.d 50.c

Physics :

1. c 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. a
6. b 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. a
11.d 12. c 13. c 14. a 15. a
16. b 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. c
21.c 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. c
26. c 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. b
31.c 32. b 33. c 34. a 35. c
36. d 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. c
41.c 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. c
46.b 47.d 48.a 49.c 50.a