Ncert Master Stroke Booklet Volume - 2

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BOOKLET
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XIth CLASS
QUESTIONS BANK
TOPICS INDEX
➢ ANIMAL KINGDOM 01 - 13
➢ STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS 14 - 23
➢ DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION 24 - 35
➢ BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES 36 - 49
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ANIMAL KINGDOM
1. Following features are used as basis of (d) Complete digestive system has
animal classification except two opening as seen in case of
(a) Arrangements of cell Platyhelminthes.
(b) Digestive and circulatory system 6. Which of the following is true about
(c) Nervous system bilateral symmetry
(d) Body symmetry (a) Seen in coelenterate
2. All of the following are true except Ctenophora Echinodermata
(a) Animalia include unicellular (b) Body Divides into identical left
prokaryotes and right only in one plane.
(b) All of the animalia group do not (c) Body does divided into equal
exhibit same pattern of cell halves
organization (d) Annelida and arthropods show
(c) Cellular level of organization is radial type of symmetry.
seen in sponge 7. All of the following are true except.
(d) Division of Labor occur in animal (a) Animals can be categorized on
3. Organ level of organization is seen in basis of their symmetry.
all except (b) Sponges show radial symmetry.
(a) Annelida (c) Annelida an arthropod are by
(b) Platyhelminthes bilaterally symmetrical
(c) Cnidarians (d) Asymmetry is characteristic of
(d) Hemichordata sponges.
4. Tissue level of organization seen in 8. Diploblastic animals show all except
(a) Platyhelminthes (a) Cells are arranged in two
(b) Cnidarians embryonic layer.
(c) Annelida (b) Diploblastic animals have
(d) Arthropod mesoderm
5. Select the correct statement (c) Example of Diploblastic animals
(a) Organ system in different group is coelenterate
of animals exhibit same pattern (d) Undifferentiated mesoglea is
of complexity. present in diploblastic.
(b) Platyhelminthes has two 9. Radial symmetry and diploblastic
opening to outside, serving as organizationis seen in.
anus and mouth. (a) Platyhelminthes
(c) Digestive system in (b) Echinodermata
Platyhelminthes is incomplete. (c) Coelenterate
(d) Chordata
1 | Animal Kingdom
10. True among the following 15. ABCD?
(a) Mesoglea is present in
aschhelminthes
(b) Mesoglea is differentiated layer
present between ectoderm and
endoderm
(c) Porifera is a Triploblastic phylum
(d) None
11. Animal in which body cavity is not (a) A – tissue level of organization
lined by mesoderm instead the B- Asymmetrical
mesoderm is present in pouches in C – Noncoelomate
between the ectoderm and endoderm D – Aschelminthes
is (b) A- cellular level of organization
(a) One with Triploblastic B-Radial
organization C – Aschelminthes
(b) One with complete digestive D – Coelomates
system with muscular pharynx (c) A. – coelomates
(c) Also known as round worm B – Asymmetrical
(d) All of the above C –Aschelminthes
12. Which of the following is true about D –Cellularlevel of organization
Platyhelminthes (d) A- cellular level of organization
(a) Platyhelminthes have radial B – Radial
symmetry C –Coelomates
(b) They are diploblastic D –Aschelminthes
(c) They are Acoelomic 16. Central cavity in form of spongocoel is
(d) They haveseprate anus and present in
mouth (a) Sycon
13. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate is (b) Euspongia
(a) Platyhelminthes (c) Spongilla
(b) Aschelminthes (d) All of the above
(c) Porifera 17. All of the following are true except
(d) Chordata (a) Cnidarians May be free living or
14. All of the following about notochorda sessile
is true expect (b) Exit in two form -medusa and
(a) It is mesodermal derivative polyp
(b) Formed on ventral side (c) Cnidocyte contain stinging
(c) Rod like structure capsule
(d) In nonchordatesit is absent (d) Cnidocyte is used for digestion
2 | Animal Kingdom
18. Correct pair is (c) Limulus
(a) Medusa – umbrella shaped free (d) A and c NCERT 11 standard
living pageNumber.53
(b) Polyp – jelly fish / Aurelia 25. The correct pair is
(c) Metagenesis- hydra (a) Pheretima -physalia
(d) Metamerism – obelia (b) Hirudinaria -hook worm
19. Bioluminence is characteristic of (c) Living fossil – king crab
(a) Aurelia (d) Gregarious pest -loligo
(b) Sycon 26. Select the correct pairing
(c) Pheretima (a) Malpighian tubules – pila
(d) Ctenoplana (b) Chitinous exoskeleton – Limulus
20. Intracellular and extrcellular digestion (c) Nephridia – arthropods
seen in (d) Flame cell – Aschelminthes
(a) Gorgonia 27. Differentiating feature of chordate
(b) Pleurobrachia and nonchordates include all except
(c) Meandrina (a) Gill slit
(d) All of the above (b) Metamerism
21. Dioecious and with muscular pharynx (c) Post anal tail
characterized by (d) Notochord
(a) Ascaris 28. Urochordata shows
(b) Wucheria (a) Absence of gill slits
(c) Ancyclostoma (b) Ventral heart
(d) All of the above (c) Absence of post anal tail
22. Metamerically segmentation with (d) None
lateral appendages is seen in 29. Protochordata
(a) Nereis (a) Includes Urochordata and
(b) Hirudinaria Cephalochordata
(c) Ancyclostoma (b) They are exclusively marine
(d) A And b (c) Dorsal heart
23. Nereis has (d) A and b
(a) Parapodia for swimming 30. All of the following statements is true
(b) Paired ganglia connected by except
lateral nerves to double ventral (a) In Salpa notochord is present
nerve cord only in larval stages
(c) Nephridia for Osmoregulation (b) In Lancelet notochord present
(d) All of the above throughout life
24. Second Largest Phylum includes (c) In branchiostoma notochord is
(a) Locusta absent in adult form
(b) Dentalium (d) None
3 | Animal Kingdom
31. Urochordata includes all except
(a) Amphixous
(b) Salpa
(c) Ascidia
(d) Doliolum
32. Presence of notochord only in
embryonic period is feature of
(a) Ascidia
(b) Branchiostoma (a) A is Osteichthyes
(c) Balanoglosus (b) B is Tetrapoda
(d) Petromyxon (c) C is Agnathan
33. True about Lancelet is (d) B is Osteichthyes
(a) Presence of notochord in 37. True about Hagfish is
embryonic period only (a) ectoparasite on some fish
(b) They are exclusively marine (b) Gills slit for respiration
(c) Presence of ventral solid nerve (c) Have sucking or circular mouth
cord without jaws
(d) Absence of gill slits (d) All of the above
34. Presence of ventral muscular heart 38. X animal is marine, migrate to
with paired appendages spawning in fresh water. After
(a) Ascidia spawning they die but larvae after
(b) Branchiostoma metamorphosis return to ocean. X is
(c) Vertebrata a
(d) Arthropoda (a) String ray
35. Features in subphylum Vertebrata (b) Magur
include all except (c) Dog fish
(a) Kidney for excretion and (d) Lamprey
Osmoregulation 39. True about below animal is all except
(b) Paired appendages in form of
limb or fines
(c) Notochord only in larval tail
(d) Ventral muscular heart
(a) Shows 6-15 gill slits
36. Identify a, b, c (b) Body without scales and paired
fins
(c) Spawning to marine water
(d) Belongs to division Agnatha
4 | Animal Kingdom
40. Incorrect match from following is (a) Squid
(a) Myxine – Hagfish (b) Tusk shell
(b) Petromyzon-lamprey (c) Asterias
(c) Branchiostoma – Lancelet (d) Pinctada
(d) Doliolum-amphioxus 46. Find out incorrect statement among
41. All of the following is true about following
Carcharodon is except (a) Presence of sensory tentacles in
(a) Marine animal posterior region of body of pila
(b) Cartilaginous endoskeleton (b) Radula is a feeding/rasping
(c) Presence of notochord as in organ
case of Lancelet (c) Dentalium is Unsegmented
(d) None (d) All are true
42. Placoid scales are present in 47. Respiration and excretion in pearl
(a) Lamprey oyster carried out by
(b) Lancelet (a) Radula
(c) Trygon (b) Tentacles
(d) A and b (c) Visceral hump
43. All of the following is true about (d) Gills
above animal 48. Star fish shows all of the following
feature except
(a) Complete digestive system with
mouth on lower (ventral) and
upper (dorsal)side
(b) Radially symmetrical adult
(a) Belongs to second largest (c) Well-developed excretory
phylum system
(b) Is a living fossil (d) Sexual reproduction
(c) Travel in a flock and destroy 49. Echinus has
crops (a) Complete digestive system
(d) None (b) Incomplete digestive system
44. All of the following is true about (c) Well-developed excretory
second largest phylum except system
(a) May be aquatic or terrestrial (d) Absence of endoskeleton
(b) May be marine or freshwater 50. Hemichordates shows
animals (a) Development is indirect
(c) Direct development (b) External fertilization
(d) Bilaterally symmetrical (c) Marine habitat
45. Body division into head, muscular foot (d) All of the above
and visceral hump is seen in all except
5 | Animal Kingdom
51. Balanoglosus carry out respiration by 57. Animal devoid of scales and with
(a) Proboscis cloaca as opening into exterior is seen
(b) Collar in all except
(c) Gills (a) Hyla
(d) Statocyst (b) Salamander
52. Osteichthyes are characterized by (c) Scoliodon
(a) 4 chamber of heart (d) Ichthyophis
(b) 6 pair of gills 58. Ichthyopus shows all features except
(c) Marine and fresh water (a) Body temperature regulation by
(d) All of the above skin
53. Streamlined body with presence of 4 (b) Respiration through lungs, skin
pair of gills is seen in (c) External fertilization
(a) Fighting fish (d) Dioecious
(b) Flying fish 59. All of the features differ in
(c) Angel fish Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes
(d) All of the above except
54. All of the following is true about (a) Absence of air bladder
Pterophyllum except (b) 2 chambered heart
(a) Belongs to phylum Annelida (c) External fertilization
(b) Is a aquarium fish (d) Presence of operculum
(c) Has terminal mouth 60. All of the following is true about
(d) Poikilotherms above animal except
55. All of the following is true about
amphibians except
(a) They have dual life
(b) They can survive in water as
well as land
(c) Body divided into head trunk
and abdomen (a) Has 2 chambered heart
(d) Tetrapoda (b) Is a Poikilotherms
56. All of the following is true about (c) Body divided into head trunk
amphibians except and tail
(a) Tail may be present (d) Has no scales
(b) Has scales which keeps body 61. Gnathostomata includes all except
moist (a) Pterophyllum
(c) They have eyelid (b) Pteropus
(d) Cloaca is seen (c) Pteromyzon
(d) Pteromyini
6 | Animal Kingdom
62. Creeping and crawling mode of 68. Tympanum represent ear in all except
locomotion is seen in all except (a) Aptenodytes
(a) Calotes (b) Bangarus
(b) Hemidactylus (c) Magur
(c) Bangarus (d) A and c
(d) Magur
63. All of the following statements is true 69. Incorrect pair
except (a) Testudo – turtle
(a) Reptile are mostly terrestrial (b) Chelone -tortoise
(b) Reptile have dry and cornified (c) Bangarus – cobra
skin (d) All of the above
(c) Have external ear opening in 70. All of the following is poisonous
form of tympanum snakes except
(d) Skin casting in some member of (a) Cobra
reptiles can be observed (b) Bangarus
64. All of the following is true except (c) Indian rock python
(a) Chelone have 2 pairs of limbs (d) None
(b) All reptiles have three 71. Incorrect pair among following is all
chambered heart except
(c) Magur has external fertilization (a) Chelone -tree lizard
(d) None (b) Hemidactlus – garden lizard
65. Scutes are (c) Calotes- tortoise
(a) Are external opening (d) Cobra -naja
(b) Regulate temperature 72. All of the following fly except
(c) Dry and cornified scales of (a) Columbo
salamander (b) Neophron
(d) None (c) Struthio
66. Four chambered heart is present in all (d) Corvus
except 73. In aves hind limbs are
(a) Neophron (a) Modified to fly
(b) Crocodile (b) Modified to walk, swim
(c) Alligator (c) Have scales with feathers
(d) Calotes (d) All of the above
67. All of the following is true about lizard 74. Oil gland at base of tail is seen in
except (a) Columbo
(a) They shed there skin (b) Chelone
(b) They have internal fertilization (c) Calotes
(c) They have indirect development (d) Clarias
(d) Mostly oviparous
7 | Animal Kingdom
75. Alimentary canal with additional crop (b) Fertilization is internal in case of
and gizzard is seen in Euspongia
(a) Class reptile (c) Heart is ventral in Doliolum
(b) Class aves (d) All are right statement
(c) Class amphibia 82. All of the following is true except
(d) Class mammals (a) Aptenodytes has presence of
mammary glands
76. Select the correct pair (b) Petromyzon has ctenoid scales
(a) Columbo – crow (c) Sea cucumber shows
(b) Neophron – ostrich Metagenesis
(c) Aptenodytes – penguin (d) All are wrong statement
(d) Struthio – vulture 83. All of the following is true except
77. Correct match is (a) Body is divided into head and
(a) Labeo -placoid scales trunk in Hyla
(b) Pristis -air bladder present (b) Body is divided into head thorax
(c) Tree frog -cloaca and abdomen in laccifer
(d) Tree lizard – homoiothermous (c) Body is divided into head
78. Air cavities in bone is feature of muscular foot and visceral hump
(a) Division vertebrata in Salpa
(b) Class reptile (d) Air sacs is seen in pavo
(c) Class Ave 84. All of the following is true except
(d) All of the above (a) Adult echinodermata shows
79. Air sacs supplement lung in symmetry as found in Obelia
respiration in (b) External fertilization is seen in
(a) Aptenodytes ctenophora
(b) Bangarus (c) Round worm has complete
(c) Calotes alimentary canal
(d) Betta (d) All are right statement
80. All of the following is true except 85. All of the following is true except
(a) Echinus shows calcareous (a) Labeo is a Fresh water fish
endoskeleton (b) Excretory system is absent in
(b) Notochord is persistent sea urchin
throughout life in Pristis (c) Gorgonia is also known as sea
(c) Taenia is psuedocoelomate pen
(d) B and C (d) All of the above
81. All of the following is true except 86. Presence of mammary glands is
(a) Tape worm and flukes shows characteristic of all except
bilateral symmetry with organ (a) Ornithorrhynchus
level of organization (b) Macropus
8 | Animal Kingdom
(c) Aptenodytes (d) All are wrong statement
(d) Balaenoptera 92. All of the following is true except
87. All of the following is true except (a) Delphinus is only oviparous
(a) Some mammals are adapted to animal in mammalian
fly or live in water (b) Aurelia is known as jelly fish
(b) Show segmentation (c) Fighting fish has Cnidocyte
(c) Mammalia have ventral heart (d) A and c
(d) All are true 93. All of the following is true except
88. All of the following is true except (a) Blue whale is known as
(a) Pteropus is also known as angel Balaenoptera
fish (b) Great white shark is known as
(b) Cloaca is seen in salamender Scoliodon
(c) Petromyzon has body devoid of (c) Pterophyllum is angel fish
scales and paired fins (d) None
(d) Exocoetus show external 94. All of the following is true except
fertilization (a) Ascidia and sepia are
89. All of the following is true except Protochordata
(a) Scoliodon is also known as dog (b) Notochord is replaced by
fish cartilaginous or bony vertebral
(b) Muscular pharynx is present in column in vertebrata
flatworm (c) central nervous system is
(c) Comb plates are organ of ventral in case of nonchordates
locomotion in ctenoplana (d) In whole animal kingdom, 5
(d) Adamsia and hydra exhibit phylum do not show true
polyp form only coelom
(a) Body is dorsi-ventrally flattened (a) Class Chondrichthyes have
in flat worms ctenoid scales
(b) Digestion is intracellular and (b) Air sac supplement lungs in
extrcellular in ctenophora respiration in Aptenodytes
(c) Schypha belongs to 2 largest (c) Hag fish is a Urochordata
phylum of animalia (d) A and c
(d) b and c 96. All of the following is true except
91. All of the following is true except (a) Torpedo possess electric organ
(a) Gregarious pest belongs to (b) Trygon and Testudo are
economically important insect Poikilotherms
(b) Magur has 4 chambered heart (c) Hydra is a polyp
(c) Balaenoptera has proboscis for (d) All are true
excretion
9 | Animal Kingdom
(a) Spicules are present in Schypha (a) Body is dorsi-ventrally flattened
(b) Sea walnuts are Adamsia in flat worms
(c) Mantle cavity has feather like (b) Digestion is intracellular and
gills in pila extrcellular in ctenophora
(d) None (c) Schypha belongs to 2 largest
98. All of the following is true except phylum of animalia
(a) Scoliodon is also known as dog (d) b and c
fish 100. All of the following is true except
(b) Muscular pharynx is present in (a) Gregarious pest belongs to
flatworm economically important insect
(c) Comb plates are organ of (b) Magur has 4 chambered heart
locomotion in ctenoplana (c) Balaenoptera has proboscis for
(d) Adamsia and hydra exhibit excretion
polyp form only (d) All are wrong statement
HINTS & ANSWER

1. Ans.(c) Nervous system, NCERT Page 10. Ans.(d) None, NCERT Page Number.
Number. 46 47/48
2. Ans.(a) Animalia include unicellular 11. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page
prokaryotes, NCERT Page Number. 46 Number. 48/52
3. Ans.(c) Cnidarians, NCERT Page
Number. 46
12. Ans.(c) They are Acoelomic, NCERT
4. Ans.(b) Cnidarians, NCERT Page
Number. 46 Page Number. 47/48
5. Ans.(c) Digestive system in 13. Ans.(b) Aschelminthes, NCERT Page
Platyhelminthes is incomplete. NCERT Number. 47/48
Page Number. 47 14. Ans.(b) Formed on ventral side,
6. Ans.(b) Body Divides into identical left NCERT Page Number. 48
and right only in one plane. NCERT 15. Ans.(b) A- cellular level of
Page Number. 47 organization
7. Ans.(b) Sponges show radial
B-Radial
symmetry. NCERT Page Number. 47 C – Aschelminthes
8. Ans.(b) Diploblastic animals have D – Coelomates, NCERT Page
mesoderm, NCERT Page Number. 47 Number. 49
9. Ans.(c) Coelenterate, NCERT Page 16. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page
Number. 47 Number. 49
10 | Animal Kingdom
17. Ans.(d) Cnidocyte is used for 34. Ans.(c) Vertebrata, NCERT Page
digestion, NCERT Page Number. 50 Number. 55
18. Ans.(a) Medusa – umbrella shaped 35. Ans.(c) Notochord only in larval tail,
free living, NCERT Page Number. 50 NCERT Page Number. 55
19. Ans.(d) Ctenoplana, NCERT Page 36. Ans.(d) B is Osteichthyes, NCERT Page
20. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page 37. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page
21. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page 38. Ans.(d) Lamprey, NCERT Page
22. Ans.(a) Nereis, NCERT Page Number. 39. Ans.(c) Spawning to marine
52 water,NCERT Page Number. 56
23. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page 40. Ans.(d) Doliolum-amphioxus, NCERT
Number. 52 Page Number. 56
24. Ans.(b) Dentalium, NCERT Page 41. Ans.(d) None, NCERT Page Number.
Number. 52 56
25. Ans.(c) Living fossil – king crab, NCERT 42. Ans.(c) Trygon, NCERT Page Number.
Page Number. 53 56
26. Ans.(b) Chitinous exoskeleton – 43. Ans.(c) Travel in a flock and destroy
Limulus, NCERT Page Number. 53 crops, NCERT Page Number. 53
27. Ans.(b) Metamerism, NCERT Page 44. Ans.(c) Direct development, NCERT
28. Ans.(b) Ventral heart, NCERT Page 45. Ans.(c) Asterias, NCERT Page Number.
Number. 55 53
29. Ans.(d) a and b, NCERT Page Number. 46. Ans.(a) Presence of sensory tentacles
55 in posterior region of body of pila,
30. Ans.(c) In branchiostoma notochord is NCERT Page Number. 53
absent in adult form, NCERT Page 47. Ans.(d) Gills, NCERT Page Number. 53
Number. 55 48. Ans.(c) Well-developed excretory
31. Ans.(a) Amphixous, NCERT Page system, NCERT Page Number. 54
Number. 55 49. Ans.(a) Complete digestive system,
32. Ans.(d) Petromyxon, NCERT Page NCERT Page Number. 54
Number. 55 50. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page
33. Ans.(b) They are exclusively marine, Number. 54
NCERT Page Number. 55 51. Ans.(c) Gills, NCERT Page Number. 54
11 | Animal Kingdom
52. Ans.(c) Marine and fresh water, 68. Ans.(d) A and c, NCERT Page Number.
NCERT Page Number. 57 58
53. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page 69. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page
54. Ans.(a) Belongs to phylum Annelida, 70. Ans.(c) Indian rock python, NCERT
NCERT Page Number. 57 Page Number. 58
55. Ans.(c) Body divided into head trunk 71. Ans.(d) Cobra -naja, NCERT Page
and abdomen, NCERT Page Number. Number. 58
57 72. Ans.(c) Struthio, NCERT Page Number.
56. Ans.(b) Has scales which keeps body 58
moist, NCERT Page Number. 57 73. Ans.(b) Modified to walk, swim,
57. Ans.(c) Scoliodon, NCERT Page NCERT Page Number. 58
Number. 57 74. Ans.(a) Columbo, NCERT Page
58. Ans.(a) Body temperature regulation Number. 58
by skin, NCERT Page Number. 57 75. Ans.(b) Class aves, NCERT Page
59. Ans.(b) 2 chambered heart, NCERT Number. 58
Page Number. 57 76. Ans.(c) Aptenodytes – penguin, NCERT
60. Ans.(a) Has 2 chambered heart, Page Number. 59
NCERT Page Number. 57 77. Ans.(c) Tree frog -cloaca, NCERT Page
61. Ans.(c) Pteromyzon, NCERT Page Number. 57
Number. 56 78. Ans.(c) Class Ave, NCERT Page
62. Ans.(d) Magur, NCERT Page Number. Number. 59
58 79. Ans.(a) Aptenodytes, NCERT Page
63. Ans.(c) Have external ear opening in Number. 59
form of tympanum, NCERT Page 80. Ans.(c) Taenia is pseudocoelomate,
Number. 58 NCERT Page Number. 51
64. Ans.(b) All reptiles have three 81. Ans.(d) All are right statement, NCERT
chambered heart, NCERT Page Page Number. 55,49,51
Number. 58 82. Ans.(d) All are wrong statement,
65. Ans.(d) None, NCERT Page Number. NCERT Page Number. 50,56
58 83. Ans.(c) Body is divided into head
66. Ans.(d) Calotes, NCERT Page Number. muscular foot and visceral hump in
58 Salpa, NCERT Page Number. 54
67. Ans.(c) They have indirect 84. Ans.(d) All are right statement, NCERT
development, NCERT Page Number. Page Number. 52,54
58
12 | Animal Kingdom
85. Ans.(c) Gorgonia is also known as sea 93. Ans.(b) Great white shark is known as
pen, NCERT Page Number. 50 Scoliodon, NCERT Page Number. 57
86. Ans.(c) Aptenodytes, NCERT Page 94. Ans.(a) Ascidia and sepia are
Number. 59 Protochordata, NCERT Page Number.
87. Ans.(d) All are true, NCERT Page 55
Number. 59 95. Ans.(d) A and c, NCERT Page Number.
88. Ans.(a) Pteropus is also known as 56
angel fish, NCERT Page Number. 57 96. Ans.(d) All are true, NCERT Page
89. Ans.(b) Muscular pharynx is present in Number. 50,57,58
flatworm, NCERT Page Number. 51 97. Ans.(b) Sea walnuts are Adamsia,
90. Ans.(c) Schypha belongs to 2 largest NCERT Page Number. 50
phylum of animalia, NCERT Page 98. Ans.(b) Muscular pharynx is present in
Number. 53 flatworm, NCERT Page Number. 51
91. Ans.(d) All are wrong statement, 99. Ans.(c) Schypha belongs to 2 largest
NCERT Page Number. 54,57,60 phylum of animalia, NCERT Page
92. Ans.(d) A and c, NCERT Page Number. Number. 53
60,57 100. Ans.(d) All are wrong statement,
NCERT Page Number. 54,57,60
13 | Animal Kingdom
STRUCTURE ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS.

1. A group of similar cell along with (a) Composed of single layer of cube like
intercellular substances perform a specific cell
function,such an organization is called (b) Its main function is secretion and
(a) Tissue absorption
(b) Organ (c) Epithelium of pct has microvilli
(c) Organ system (d) All of the above
(d) A and b 9. Nuclei of … cells are located at base
2. Select the incorrect statement about of (a) Squamous epithelium
epithelial tissue (b) Cuboidal epithelium
(a) Has a free surface (c) Columnar epithelium
(b) Faces either body fluid or outside (d) A and b
environment 10. Cells that help in secretion and absorption
(c) Cells are loosely packed with ,found on lining of stomach and intestine
intercellular matrix (a) Squamous epithelial
(d) None (b) Cuboidal epithelial
3. Simple epithelium lines all except (c) Columnar epithelial
(a) Body cavities (d) B and c
(b) Duct 11. Ciliated epithelial function to
(c) Skin (a) Line surface
(d) All of the above (b) Secretion and absorption
4. Single thin layer of flattened cells with (c) Move particle in specific direction
irregular boundaries is of (d) All of the above
(a) Squamous epithelium 12. Ciliated epithelium is present in
(b) Cuboidal epithelium (a) Bronchiole
(c) Columnar epithelium (b) Fallopian tube
(d) Ciliated epithelium (c) Trachea
5. Endothelium is made up of …type of cell (d) All of the above
(a) Connective 13. Glandular epithelium is modified ….cell
(b) Muscular (a) Squamous
(c) Squamous epithelium (b) Cuboidal
(d) Cuboidal epithelium (c) Columnar
6. Epithelium forming a diffusion boundry is (d) B and c
(a) Squamous 14. Select the correct pair
(b) Cuboidal (a) Unicellular glandular epithelium-
(c) Columnar salivary gland
(d) All of the above (b) Multicellular glandular epithelium-
7. Cuboidal Epithelium is found in all except goblet cell
(a) Ducts of glands (c) Wall of blood vessel- cuboidal
(b) Air sac of lung epithelium
(c) Tubular parts of nephron (d) None
(d) None 15. All of the following in true except
8. Select the right statement about simple (a) Endocrine gland produce hormone
cuboidal epithelium (b) Endocrine glands don’t have duct
14 | Structural organization in animals
(c) Exocrine glands secrete mucus 23. Connective tissue which attach muscle to
,saliva, earwax ,digestive enzymes bone is
(d) None (a) Ligament
16. Compound epithelium is not related to (b) Tendon
(a) Main function is protection (c) Adipose tissue
(b) Absorption and secretion is main (d) Cartilage
function 24. Connective tissue present in skin is
(c) Cover skin and buccal cavity (a) Loose type
(d) All of the above (b) Dense regular
17. Complex epithelium is found on (c) Dense irregular
(a) Dry surface of skin (d) All of the above
(b) Moist surface of buccal cavity 25. It is specialized type of connective tissue
(c) Pancreatic duct (a) Cartilage
(d) All of the above (b) Bone
18. Select the correct pair (c) Blood
(a) Tight junction – stop leaking across (d) All of the above
tissue 26. Bone of adult are ….of embryo
(b) Adhering junction –cementing of (a) Tendon
neighboring cell (b) Cartilage
(c) Gap junction – facilitate (c) Ligament
communication between cell (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above 27. Cartilage is present in
19. Most abundant and widely distributed in (a) Tip of nose
body of complex animals (b) Outer ear joint
(a) Epithelial tissue (c) Between adjacent bone of vertebral
(b) Connective tissue column
(c) Muscular tissue (d) All of the above
(d) Nervous tissue 28. Site of production of blood cell is
20. In all connective tissue cells secrete fibers (a) Cardiac muscle
of structural protein called collagen or (b) Blood vessel wall
elastin except (c) Bone marrow
(a) Adipose tissue (d) All of the above
(b) Blood 29. Bone cells are placed in space called
(c) Tendon (a) Osteoclast
(d) Ligament (b) Osteoblast
21. Connective tissue cell secrete modified (c) Osteocytes
(a) Protein (d) None
(b) Glucose 30. Myofibrils are present in
(c) Lipids (a) Cytoplasm of epithelial cell
(d) Polysaccharide (b) Connective tissue
22. Select correct statement about adipose (c) Muscle
tissue (d) All of the above
(a) Is a loose type of connective tissue 31. Fusiform fibers that don’t show striation is
(b) Found mainly beneath skin ..type of muscle
(c) Is specialized to store fats (a) Smooth
(d) All of the above (b) Striated
15 | Structural Organisation in animals.

(c) Cardiac (d) None
(d) A and c 40. Clitellum consists of how many segment of
32. Select the correct statement about earthworm body
smooth muscle (a) 2-3
(a) Cell junction hold them together (b) 4-6
(b) Found in stomach (c) 14-16
(c) Are involuntary (d) 46-76
(d) All of the above 41. Dark band of glandular structure which
33. Intercalated disc is characteristic of - divides body of earthworm into 3 segment
(a) Smooth muscle (a) Setae
(b) Cardiac muscle (b) Nephridiphore
(c) Bone (c) Clitellum
(d) Blood (d) Prostomium
34. What are unit of neural system- 42. Spermathecal aperture are situated …in
(a) Nephron earthworm
(b) Myoglobin (a) Dorsolateral
(c) Neuron (b) Ventro- lateral
(d) Osteocyte (c) Dorso ventral
35. Neuroglial cell - (d) Antero posterior
(a) Protect and support neuron 43. Setae are absent in all except
(b) Make morethan half of neural tissue (a) First segment’
(c) Are non neuronal cell (b) Last segment
(d) All of the above (c) Clitellum
36. Select the correct statement about (d) None
earthworm 44. Female Genital pore is located on mid
(a) Is in Annelida ventral line of …segment
(b) Inhabits upper moist layer of soil (a) 5
(c) Its fecal deposits are called worm (b) 9
casting (c) 14
(d) All of the above (d) 18
37. Prostomium in earthworm is located 45. Select the incorrect match regarding
(a) Anterior end earthworm
(b) Ventrally (a) Male genital pore- 18 segment
(c) Dorsally (b) Spermathecal aperture – 5-9
(d) Posterior end segment
38. First body segment of earthworm is called (c) Female genital pore – 14 segment
all except (d) All of the above
(a) Prostomium 46. Part of earthworm that play significant
(b) Peristomium role in locomotion is
(c) Buccal segment (a) Clitellum
(d) A and b (b) Setae
39. Lobe which serves as covering of mouth is (c) Prostomium
called (d) Nephridiophore
(a) Prostomium
(b) Peristomium
(c) Clitellum

47. Body of earthworm is covered by 55. Typhlosole is present in … part of
(a) Epidermis earthworm
(b) Cuticle (a) Buccal cavity
(c) Epithelium (b) Gizzard
(d) All of the above (c) Intestine
48. Innermost layer of body wall of (d) Stomach
earthworm is 56. This function to increase absorption in
(a) Circular intestine
(b) Longitudinal (a) Gizzard
(c) Coelomic (b) Calciferous glands
(d) Mixed (c) Typhlosole
49. Epidermis of earthworm is single layered (d) All of the above
of ….cell 57. Blood vascular system in pheretima
(a) Squamous consists of all except
(b) Cuboidal (a) Blood vessel
(c) Columnar (b) Capillaries
(d) Ciliated (c) Heart
50. Select the correct pair about segment (d) ventricle
involving body of earthworm 58. Select the incorrect statement about
(a) Buccal cavity- 1-3 segment pheretima
(b) Oesophagus -5-7 segment (a) Exhibits closed type of circular system
(c) Stomach -9-14segment (b) Contractions keep blood circulating
(d) All of the above in one direction
51. Oesophagus of earthworm opens into (c) Blood vessel supply body wall,nerve
(a) Pharynx cord and gut
(b) Gizzard (d) None
(c) Small intestine 59. Blood glands are present in …segment of
(d) Caecum earthworm
52. ….helps in grinding soil particle and (a) 4
decaying leaves in earthworm (b) 5
(a) Pharynx (c) 6
(b) Buccal cavity (d) All of the above
(c) Gizzard 60. Blood glands in earthworm serves
(d) Stomach function of
53. Calciferous glands are present in…. of (a) Production of blood cell
earthworm (b) Formation of hemoglobin
(a) Oesophagus (c) Nuetralisehumic acid
(b) Gizzard (d) All except c
(c) Stomach 61. Nephridia of earthworm functions in
(d) Caecum (a) Respiration
54. Intestine in earthworm starts from. (b) Digestion
...segment till ..segment (c) Excretion
(a) 15, clitellar (d) Circulation
(b) 5, last 62. Nephridia present on both sides of
(c) 12, 26 intersegmental of segment 15 to last that
(d) 15, last open into intestine

(a) Septal (c) Cant distinguish light and feel
(b) intersegmental vibration in ground
(c) Integumentary (d) All of the above
(d) Pharyngeal 70. Chemoreceptors in pheretima are called
63. Pharyngeal nephridia present as paired (a) Light receptors
tuft in …segment (b) Taste receptor
(a) 4 (c) Tactile receptor
(b) 5 (d) None
(c) 6 71. Select the correct pair about male
(d) All of the above reproductive system in earthworm
64. Nephridia that are similar in structure are (a) Testis- 10-11segment
(a) Septal and integumentary (b) Vasa differentia -18 segment
(b) Septal and pharyngeal (c) Male genital pore – 18 segment
(c) Septal ,pharyngeal and (d) All of the above
integumentary 72. Accessory gland of 17th and 19th segment
(d) None are similar of earthworm is a part of ….system
65. A nephridia collects excess fluid from (a) Digestive
(a) typhlosole (b) Excretory
(b) Clitellum (c) Male reproductive
(c) Coelomic chamber (d) Female reproductive
(d) Blood glands 73. Spermatophore
66. Nervous system of pheretima is made uo (a) Is storage of sperm
of (b) Another name for vasa differentia
(a) Brain (c) Sperm released in packet
(b) Ganglia (d) All of the above
(c) Neuron 74. Cocoons are produced by ……gland
(d) All of the above (a) Blood
67. Nerve cord bifurcates anteriorly in (b) Calciferous
…segment except (c) Clitellum
(a) 3 (d) None
(b) 4 75. Select the correct statement about
(c) 5 cockroach
(d) None (a) Belong to class Insecta
68. All of the following is true about nervous (b) Ranges from 0.6-7.6 cm
system of earthworm except (c) Are nocturnal omnivore
(a) Ganglia are arranged on ventral (d) All of the above
paired nerve cord 76. Periplaneta americana is another name
(b) Nerve cord bifurcates posteriorly for
(c) Nerve cord joins cerebral ganglia
(a) Earthworm
form nerve ring
(b) Cockroach
(d) None
69. Sensory system of pheretima (c) Frog
(a) Does have eyes (d) None
(b) Posses light and touch sensitive
organs

77. Wings of cockroach extend beyond tip of (c) Metathorax
abdomen in (d) None
(a) Male 85. First pair of wing in cockroach arises from
(b) Female (a) Prothorax
(c) Both (b) Mesothorax
(d) None (c) Metathorax
78. Entire body of cockroach is (d) B and C
(a) Brown in colour 86. Forewings of Periplaneta americana is
(b) Hard (a) Called tegmina
(c) Made up of chitin (b) Opaque dark
(d) All of the above (c) Leathery
79. Sclerites are found in (d) All of the above
(a) Earthworm 87. Abdomen in male and female consists of
(b) Cockroach how many segment
(c) Frog (a) 10,7
(d) Octopus (b) 10,10
80. Exoskeleton in cockroach ventrally is (c) 7,10
called (d) 7,7
(a) Sclerites 88. Male cockroach bears….but female don’t
(b) Tergites (a) Gizzard
(c) Sternites (b) Anal style
(d) All of the above (c) Anal Cerci
81. Head of Periplaneta americana is (d) None
(a) Triangular 89. Oesophagus in cockroach opens into
(b) Lies anteriorly at right angles to (a) Crop
longitudinal body axis (b) Gizzard
(c) Is formed by fusion of 6 segment (c) Proventriculus
(d) All of the above (d) B and c
82. Sensory receptors that help in monitoring 90. It has outer layer of thick circular muscle
environment are located and thick inner cuticle forming teeth in
(a) Antenna Periplaneta americana
(b) Eyes (a) Salivary reservoir
(c) Labrum (b) Gizzard
(d) All of the above (c) Hindgut
83. Mouth part of cockroach consists of (d) B and c
(a) Labrum 91. Grinding of food particles in cockroach is
(b) Pair of mandible done by
(c) Labium (a) Crop
(d) All of the above (b) Proventriculus
84. Neck of cockroach connects head to (c) Salivary reservoir
(a) Prothorax (d) Hepatic caeca
(b) Mesothorax

92. Gastric caeca (6-8 in number)are present
at junction of 97. Ommatidium is part of ....
(a) Foregut and midgut (a) Digestive system in earthworm
(b) Midgut and hindgut (b) Reproductive system In frog
(c) Foregut and hindgut (c) Sensory system in cockroach
(d) B and c (d) None
93. It is present at Junction of midgut and 98. Select the incorrect statement about
hindgut cockroach
(a) Gastric caeca (a) Cockroach are uricotelic
(b) Hepatic caeca (b) Fat body helps in excretion
(c) Malpighian tubules (c) Nervous system consists of Fused
(d) Salivary reservoir ganglia
94. All of the following is correct about (d) Tissue get oxygen from haemocoel
cockroach except 99. Brain in cockroach is represented by
(a) Blood vascular system is closed type (a) Cerebral ganglia
(b) Blood vessels are poorly developed (b) Ganglion ring
(c) Visceral organ located in haemocoel (c) Supra oesophageal ganglia
are bathed in blood (d) Infra oesophageal ganglia
(d) Spiracle is regulated by sphincter 100. All of the following is a correct statement
95. Spiracles in earthworm is part of …. about Periplaneta except
System (a) Fertilized egg are encased in capsule
(a) Respiratory (b) Female produces 900-1000oothecae
(b) Vascular (c) Development of P Americana is
(c) Digestive pautometabolous
(d) Reproductive (d) Total 16 ovarioles is present in
96. Malpighian tubules perform function of cockroach
(a) Digestion
(b) Absorption
(c) Excretion
(d) Reproduction
HINTS & ANSWER

1. Ans.(a)Tissue, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 4. Ans.(a)Squamous epithelium, NCERT 11TH
PAGE NUMBER 100 STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 101
2. Ans.(c) Cells are loosely packed with 5. Ans.(c) Squamous epithelium, NCERT 11TH
intercellular matrix, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 101
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 101 6. Ans.(a)Squamous, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
3. Ans.(c) Skin, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE PAGE NUMBER 101
NUMBER 101 7. Ans.(b)Air sac of lung, NCERT 11TH
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 101

8. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH 27. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 101 STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 104
9. Ans.(c) Columnar epithelium, NCERT 11TH 28. Ans.(c) Bone marrow, NCERT 11TH
10. Ans.(c) Columnar epithelial, NCERT 11TH 29. Ans.(d) None, It is present in laccunae,
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 101 NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER
11. Ans.(c) Move particle in specific direction, 104
NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 30. Ans.(c) Muscle, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
101 PAGE NUMBER 104
12. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH 31. Ans.(a) Smooth, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 101 PAGE NUMBER 105
13. Ans.(d) B and C, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 32. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH
14. Ans.(d) None, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 33. Ans.(b) Cardiac muscle, NCERT 11TH
15. Ans.(d) None, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 34. Ans.(c) Neuron, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
PAGE NUMBER 102 PAGE NUMBER 105
16. Ans.(b) Absorption and secretion is main 35. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH
function, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 105
NUMBER 102 36. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH
17. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 106
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 102 37. Ans.(a) Anterior end, NCERT 11TH
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 102 38. Ans.(a) Prostomium, NCERT 11TH
19. Ans.(b) Connective tissue, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 106
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 103 39. Ans.(a) Prostomium, NCERT 11TH
20. Ans.(b)Blood, NCERT 11TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 106
PAGE NUMBER 103 40. Ans.(c) 14-16, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
21. Ans.(d) Polysaccharide, NCERT 11TH PAGE NUMBER 107
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 103 41. Ans.(c) Clitellum, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
22. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT 11TH PAGE NUMBER 107
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 103 42. Ans.(b) Ventro lateral, NCERT 11TH
23. Ans.(b) Tendon, NCERT 11TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 107
PAGE NUMBER 103 43. Ans.(d) None, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
24. Ans.(c) Dense irregular, NCERT 11TH PAGE NUMBER 107
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 103 44. Ans.(c) 14, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
25. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT 11TH NUMBER 107
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 104 45. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH
26. Ans.(b) Cartilage, NCERT 11TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 107
PAGE NUMBER 104 46. Ans.(b) Setae, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
PAGE NUMBER 107
47. Ans.(b) Cuticle, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 67. Ans.(c) 5, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
PAGE NUMBER 107 NUMBER 109
48. Ans.(c) Coelomic, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 68. Ans.(b) Nerve cord bifurcates posteriorly,
PAGE NUMBER 107 NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER
49. Ans.(c) Columnar, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 109
PAGE NUMBER 108 69. Ans.(b)Possess light and touch sensitive
50. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH organs, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 107 NUMBER 110
51. Ans.(b) Gizzard, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 70. Ans.(b) Taste receptor, NCERT 11TH
52. Ans.(c) Gizzard, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 71. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH
53. Ans.(c) Stomach, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 72. Ans.(c) Male reproductive, NCERT 11TH
54. Ans.(d) 15 last, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 73. Ans.(c) Sperm released in packet, NCERT
PAGE NUMBER 108 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 110
55. Ans.(c) Intestine, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 74. Ans.(c) Clitellum, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
56. Ans.(c) Typhlosole, NCERT 11TH 75. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH
57. Ans.(d) Ventricle , NCERT 11TH STANDARD 76. Ans.(b) Cockroach, NCERT 11TH
58. Ans.(d) None, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 77. Ans.(a) Male, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
60. Ans.(d) All except c, NCERT 11TH 79. Ans.(b) Cockroach, NCERT 11TH
61. Ans.(c) Excretion, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 80. Ans.(c) Sternites, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
62. Ans.(a) Septal, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 81. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH
63. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH 82. Ans.(a) Antenna, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
64. Ans.(c) Septal pharyngeal and 83. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH
integumentary, NCERT 11TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 112
PAGE NUMBER 109 84. Ans.(a) Prothorax, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
65. Ans.(c) Coelomic chamber, NCERT 11TH PAGE NUMBER 112
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 109 85. Ans.(b) Mesothorax, NCERT 11TH
66. Ans.(b) Ganglia, NCERT 11TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 112
PAGE NUMBER 109
86. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH 94. Ans.(a) Blood vascular system is closed
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 112 type, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
87. Ans.(b) 10,10, NCERT 11TH STANDARD NUMBER 113
PAGE NUMBER 112 95. Ans.(a) Respiratory, NCERT 11TH
88. Ans.(b)Anal style, NCERT 11TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 113
PAGE NUMBER 112 96. Ans.(c) Excretion, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
89. Ans.(a) Crop, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 113
PAGE NUMBER 113 97. Ans.(c) Sensory system in cockroach,
90. Ans.(b) Gizzard, NCERT 11TH STANDARD NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER
PAGE NUMBER 113 113
91. Ans.(b) Proventriculus, NCERT 11TH 98. Ans.(d) Tissue get oxygen from
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 113 haemocoel, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
92. Ans.(a) Foregut and midgut, NCERT 11TH NUMBER 114
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 113 99. Ans.(c) Supra oesophageal ganglia, NCERT
93. Ans.(c) Malpighian tubules (100-150 in 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 114
number), NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE 100. Ans.(b) Female produces 900-1000
NUMBER 113 oothecae is wrong, NCERT 11TH

DIGESTION & ABSORPTION

1. The major components of our food (c) Jaw
are (d) All of the above
(a) Carbohydrate 7. In human… ..teeth are replaced by…
(b) Protein teeth
(c) Fat (a) Temporary milk, adult
(d) All of the above (b) Deciduous, permanent
2. The component found in our food are (c) Deciduous, adult
required in small quantities (d) All of the above
(a) Vitamin 8. An adult human has 32 …. teeth which
(b) Minerals are of 4 types
(c) Fats (a) Permanent
(d) A and b (b) Adult
3. Food provides energy and organic (c) Deciduous
material for …of tissue (d) A and b
(a) Repair 9. Arrangement of teeth in human adult
(b) Growth in jaw is in order of I-C – PM -M
(c) Nourishment (a) Upper full
(d) All of the above (b) Lower full
4. Conversion of complex (c) Upper and lower half
food(biomacromolecules) substance (d) A and b
into simple absorbable form is called 10. Dental formula of… .is 2123/2123
(a) Digestion (a) Adult human
(b) Assimilation (b) New born human
(c) Absorption (c) child
(d) A and c (d) A and b
5. Digestion is carried out at digestive 11. There are 2 …teeth in lower half of
system by ….method jaw
(a) Mechanical (a) Incisor
(b) Biochemical (b) Canine
(c) Hormonal (c) Molar
(d) A and b (d) A and c
6. Tooth is embedded in socket of 12. Total number of molar teeth is
(a) Mandible (a) 4
(b) Maxilla (b) 8
24 | Digestion & Absorption

(c) 12 (c) Tendinous
(d) 16 (d) None
13. Tongue is Muscular organ attached to 19. All of the following are parts of
floor of oral cavity by stomach except
(a) Frenulum (a) Cardiac
(b) Fundus (b) Pyloric
(c) Food pipe (c) Fundus
(d) None (d) Caecum
14. It serves as a common passage for 20. Part of stomach in which oesophagus
food and air opens is
(a) Pharynx (a) Cardiac
(b) Maxilla (b) Pyloric
(c) Larynx (c) Fundus
(d) A and b (d) Antrum
15. A cartilaginous flap that prevents 21. Small intestine is so named because
entry of food into wind pipe of its
(a) Epiglottis (a) Length
(b) Glottis (b) Small diameter
(c) Frenulum (c) Least absorption
(d) Papillae (d) All of the above
16. A long thin tube that extends 22. In alimentary canal, first region of
Posteriorly passing through neck, small intestine is of which alphabet
thorax and diaphragm is shape
(a) Oesophagus (a) J
(b) Stomach (b) U
(c) I
(c) Larynx
(d) E
(d) Small intestine
23. Highly coiled region of small intestine
17. Stomach is in shape of alphabet
is
(a) I
(a) Duodenum
(b) J
(b) Jejunum
(c) T
(c) Ileum
(d) L
(d) All of the above
18. Gastroesophageal sphincter is… in
24. Pyloric sphincter is present between
origin
(a) Oesophagus and stomach
(a) Cartilaginous
(b) Stomach and duodenum
(b) Muscular
(c) Duodenum and liver
25 |Digestion & Absorption

(d) Small intestine and large intestine
25. Part of small intestine that opens into
large intestine is
(a) Duodenum
(b) Pylorus
(c) Jejunum
(d) Ileum
26. Part of gastrointestinal system which
harbors symbiotic micro-organisms
(a) Stomach
(b) Esophagus
(c) Duodenum (a) A – submandibular gland
(d) Caecum (b) A- sublingual gland
27. Appendix arises from (c) R- parotid gland
(a) Colon (d) A – parotid gland
(b) Caecum 31. Identify parts of small intestine
(c) Ileum
(d) Rectum
28. Select the correct statement about
Vermiform appendix
(a) Is vestigial organ in human
(b) Is a narrow finger like projection
in large intestine
(c) Arises from Caecum
29. Select the part of large intestine into
which Caecum opens into
(a) F
(a) Descending colon
(b) L
(b) Ileum
(c) O
(c) Transverse colon
(d) Ascending colon
30. Identify correct match

32. Select the correct pair 36. Muscularis layer is formed by smooth
muscle arranged in
(a) Inner and outer circular
(b) Inner and outer longitudinal
(c) Inner longitudinal and outer
circular
(d) Inner circular and outer
longitudinal
37. Muscularis layer of alimentary canal
consists of
(a) Inner circular
(b) Oblique muscular
(a) E – pancreas (c) Outer longitudinal
(b) Q- liver (d) All of the above
(c) P- gall bladder 38. Submucosa layer formed by loose
(d) All of the above connective tissue contains
33. Select the correct order of layers of (a) Nerves
alimentary canal from inwards to (b) Blood vessel
outwards (c) Lymph vessel
(a) Serosa, muscularis, submucosa, (d) All of the above
mucosa 39. In duodenum, Bruner glands are
(b) Serosa, muscularis, mucosa, present in which layer
submucosa (a) Serosa
(c) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis (b) Submucosa
serosa (c) Muscularis
(d) Muscularis, submucosa, mucosa, (d) Mucosa
serosa 40. In stomach and small intestine,
34. Mesothelium is epithelium of mucosal layer consists of
(a) Skin (a) Mesothelium
(b) Visceral organ (b) Loose connective tissue
(c) Blood vessel (c) Smooth muscle
(d) All of the above (d) Irregular folds
35. Serosa is made up of 41. Rugae is
(a) Thin endothelium (a) Irregular fold of esophagus
(b) Thick endothelium (b) Irregular folds of stomach
(c) Thin mesothelium (c) Irregular folds of intestine
(d) Thick mesothelium

(d) A and B 48. Submaxiallry glands are located in
42. Villi are (a) Cheek
(a) Irregular fold of stomach (b) Lower jaw
(b) Small finger like folding of small (c) Upper jaw
intestine (d) Below tongue
(c) Part of mucosa 49. Sublingual salivary gland are located
(d) B and C (a) Above tongue
43. Modifications in gastrointestinal (b) Below tongue
system that increases surface area is (c) Lateral to tongue
(a) Villi (d) All of the above
(b) Microvilli 50. In human, Saliva is secreted by how
(c) Rugae many salivary gland
(d) All of the above (a) 2 pair
44. Villi are supplied with (b) 3 pair
(a) Network of capillaries (c) 4 pair
(b) Large lymph vessel (d) 6 pair
(c) Lacteal 51. Largest gland of human body is
(d) All of the above (a) Pancreas
45. Goblet cells present in mucosa of (b) Pineal gland
alimentary canal secrets (c) Kidney
(a) Pepsin (d) Liver
(b) Mucus 52. Liver is the largest gland of body
(c) Bicarbonate weighing
(d) All of the above (a) 1.2-1.5 gm
46. Mucus epithelium secrets mucus that (b) 1.2-1.5 kg
help in (c) 120-150 gm
(a) Increasing absorption (d) 500-1000gm
(b) Fat metabolism 53. How many lobes are seen in liver
(c) Lubrication (a) 2
(d) All of the above (b) 3
47. Digestive glands with alimentary (c) 4
canal include (d) None
(a) Salivary glands 54. This is structural and functional unit
(b) Liver of liver
(c) Pancreas (a) Hepatic lobule
(d) All of the above (b) Nephron

(c) Neurons 61. Hepato- pancreatic duct is guarded by
(d) Alveoli sphincter
55. These are arranged in form of cords (a) Cardiac sphincter
(a) Liver (b) Pyloric duodenal sphincter
(b) Hepatic cell (c) Hepatic sphincter
(c) Hepatic lobule (d) Sphincter of oddi
(d) All of the above 62. Pancreas is a …. Gland
56. Glisson’s capsule is covering of (a) Endocrine
(a) Glomerulus (b) Exocrine
(b) Hepatic lobule (c) Compound
(c) Brain stem (d) All of the above
(d) Pleural cavity 63. Endocrine portion of pancreas secret
57. Bile is stored and concentrated in thin (a) Hormone
muscular sac called (b) Insulin’
(a) Pancreas (c) Glucagon
(b) Liver (d) All of the above
(c) Gall bladder 64. Mucus in saliva helps in
(d) Pylorus (a) Lubrication
58. Cystic duct is a duct of (b) Adhering masticated food
(a) Pancreas (c) Easy deglutition’
(b) Liver (d) All of the above
(c) Gall bladder 65. In digestion, Bolus is first conveyed
(d) Duodenum into
59. Common bile duct is formed by (a) Pharynx
joining of (b) Oesophagus
(a) Hepatic duct and pancreatic duct (c) Stomach
(b) Cystic duct and pancreatic duct (d) Small intestine
(c) Cystic duct and hepatic duct 66. In digestion, bolus is conveyed into
(d) Cystic duct and hepato-pancreatic pharynx and then into esophagus by
duct process of
60. Ampulla of vater a dialated part of (a) Swallowing
hepatopancreatic duct opens into (b) Deglutition
(a) Pancreas (c) Digestion
(b) Liver (d) A and b
(c) Gall bladder
(d) Duodenum

67. Bolus passes down through (d) Hcl
oesophagus by process of 73. Pepsin converts proteins into
(a) Swallowing (a) Proteoses
(b) Deglutition (b) Peptone
(c) Peristalsis (c) Peptide
(d) A and b (d) All of the above
68. Percent of starch that is hydrolyzed by 74. Proteolytic enzyme responsible for
salivary amylase in to maltose a digestion of milk protein in infants is
disaccharide is (a) Pepsin
(a) 3 (b) Chymotrypsin
(b) 30 (c) Renin
(c) 50 (d) Pepsinogen
(d) 99 75. Select the enzyme secreted by
69. Optimum pHfor action of salivary intestine
amylase to convert starch into (a) Procarboxypeptidase
maltose is (b) Amylase
(a) 4.3 (c) Enterokinase
(b) 5.4 (d) All of the above
(c) 6.8 76. All of the following are constituents of
(d) 9.3 bile except
70. Peptic cell is also known as (a) Bilirubin
(a) Chief cell (b) Biliverdin
(b) Parietal cell (c) Phospholipid
(c) Oxyntic cell (d) enzymes
(d) All of the above 77. Emulsification of fat by bile is
71. Oxyntic cell (Parital cell)secrets all (a) breaking down of fat
except intodiglycerides
(a) Intrinsic factor (b) Breaking down of fat into
(b) HCl monoglyceride
(c) Pepsinogen (c) Breaking down of fat into very
(d) None small micelles
72. Factor essential for absorption of (d) All of the above
vitamin B12 78. Intestinal juice constitutes
(a) Pepsinogen (a) Secretion of brush border cell
(b) Intrinsic factor (b) Secretion of goblet cell
(c) Extrinsic factor (c) Succus entericus

(d) All of the above 85. Protein , proteoses and peptones in
79. Succus entericus contains chyme are acted upon by proteolytic
(a) Maltase enzyme of
(b) Lipase (a) Gastric juice
(c) Dipeptidases (b) Intestinal juice
(d) All of the above (c) Pancreatic juice
80. All of the following are constituents of (d) All of the above
intestinal juice except 86. Final step in digestion occurs
(a) Nucleosidases (a) In serosal layer of intestine
(b) Diasaccharidases (b) Mucosal layer of intestine
(c) Nucleases (c) Near parietal cell
(d) lipase (d) In crypts of Lieberkühn
81. ….. is responsible for making pH of 87. Breakdown of biomacromolecules
intestine alkaline occurs in
(a) Bicarbonate (a) Oesophagus
(b) Bile (b) Ileum
(c) Brunners glands (c) Duodenum
(d) All of the above (d) Jejunum
82. Bicarbonate secreted from pancreas 88. … . substance are passed on to large
function to intestine
(a) Protect intestinal mucosa (a) Undigested
(b) Providesright pH for pancreatic (b) Unabsorbed
and intestinal enzymatic activity (c) Both
(c) Makes pH 7.8 (d) None
(d) All of the above 89. Large intestine function
83. Brunner’s gland are located in … .layer (a) To absorb water
(a) Submucosal (b) Secretion of mucus
(b) Mucosal (c) Lubrication of undigested food
(c) Muscularis (d) All of the above
(d) Serosal 90. Large intestine absorbs
84. Brunner’s gland (a) Water
(a) Protect mucosal from acid (b) Minerals
(b) Provide alkaline pH for enzymatic (c) Certain drug
activity (d) All
(c) Cover intestinal mucosa 91. Unabsorbed and undigested
(d) All of the above substance called

(a) Chyme (b) Active transport
(b) Bolus (c) Facilitated transport
(c) Feaces (d) All of the above
(d) None 97. … .. is absorbed mainly by simple
92. Activities of gastrointestinal tract are diffusion
under … . control (a) Small amount of monosaccharide
(a) Neural (b) Small amount of Glucose
(b) Local (c) Small amount of Amino acid
(c) Hormonal (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above 98. Chloride ion are mainly absorbed by
93. It stimulates secretion of Saliva (a) Simple diffusion
(a) Sight of food (b) Active diffusion
(b) Smell of food (c) Facilitated diffusion
(c) Presence of food (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above 99. Passage of… . substance in small
94. Hormonal control of secretion of amount mainly depends on
digestive juice is carried out by local concentration gradient
hormones produced by (a) Glucose
(a) Gastric mucosa (b) Amino acid
(b) Intestinal mucosa (c) Chloride ion
(c) Pancreas (d) All of the above
(d) A and b 100. Following substance are absorbed by
95. Absorption is process by which end only facilitated diffusion
product of digestion pass into (a) Glucose
(a) Intestinal mucosa (b) Fructose
(b) Blood (c) Chloride
(c) Lymph (d) All of the above
96. Absorption of end product of
digestion is done by
(a) Passive transport

HINTS & ANSWERS
1. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH 18. Ans.(b)Muscular, NCERT 11TH
2. Ans.(d) a and b, NCERT 11TH 19. Ans.(d) Caecum, NCERT 11TH
3. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT 11TH 20. Ans.(a) Cardiac, NCERT 11TH
4. Ans.(a)Digestion, NCERT 11TH 21. Ans.(b)Small diameter, NCERT 11TH
5. Ans.(d) a and b, NCERT 11TH 22. Ans.(b) U shape, NCERT 11TH
6. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH 23. Ans.(c)Ileum, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
7. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT 11TH 24. Ans.(b)Stomach and duodenum,
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 258 NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
8. Ans.(d)A and B, NCERT 11TH NUMBER 259
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 258 25. Ans.(d)Ileum, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
9. Ans.(c)Upper and lower half, NCERT PAGE NUMBER 259
11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 258 26. Ans.(d) Caecum, NCERT 11TH
10. Ans.(a)Adult human, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 259
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 258 27. Ans.(b) Caecum, NCERT 11TH
11. Ans.(a)Incisor, NCERT 11TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 259
PAGE NUMBER 258 28. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT 11TH
12. Ans.(c) 12, NCERT 11TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 259
PAGE NUMBER 258 29. Ans.(d) Ascending colon, NCERT 11TH
13. Ans.(a) Frenulum, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 259
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 258 30. Ans.(d) A- parotid gland, NCERT 11TH
14. Ans.(a)Pharynx, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 258
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 258 31. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT 11TH
15. Ans.(a)Epiglottis, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 258
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 259 32. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT 11TH
16. Ans.(a)Oesophagus, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 258
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 259 33. Ans.(c) Mucosa, submucosa,
17. Ans.(b) J, NCERT 11TH STANDARD muscularis, serosa, NCERT 11TH

34. Ans.(b) Visceral organ, NCERT 11TH 51. Ans.(d) Liver, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
35. Ans.(c)Thin mesothelium, NCERT 11TH 52. Ans.(b) 1.2-1.5 kg, NCERT 11TH
36. Ans.(d)Inner circular outer 53. Ans.(a) 2, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
longitudinal, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 261
PAGE NUMBER 259 54. Ans.(a) Hepatic lobule, NCERT 11TH
37. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 261
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 259 55. Ans.(c) Hepatic lobules, NCERT 11TH
38. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 261
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 260 56. Ans.(b) Hepatic lobule, NCERT 11TH
39. Ans.(b) Submucosa, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 261
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 260 57. Ans.(c) Gall bladder, NCERT 11TH
40. Ans.(d) Irregular folds, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 261
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 260 58. Ans.(c) Gall bladder, NCERT 11TH
41. Ans.(b) Irregular fold of mucosa in STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 261
stomach, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 59. Ans.(c) Cytic duct and hepatic duct,
PAGE NUMBER 260 NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
42. Ans.(d) B and C, NCERT 11TH NUMBER 261
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 260 60. Ans.(d) Duodenum, NCERT 11TH
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 260 61. Ans.(d) Sphincter of oddi, NCERT 11TH
45. Ans.(b) Mucus, NCERT 11TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 261
PAGE NUMBER 260 63. Ans.(d) all of the above NCERT 11TH
46. Ans.(c) Lubrication, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 261
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 260 65. Ans.(a) Pharynx, NCERT 11TH
48. Ans.(b) Lower jaw, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 262
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 260 66. Ans.(d) A and B, NCERT 11TH
49. Ans.(b) Below tongue, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 262
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 260 67. Ans.(c) Peristalsis, NCERT 11TH
50. Ans.(b) 3 pair, NCERT 11TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 262
PAGE NUMBER 260

68. Ans.(b) 30, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 85. Ans.(c) Pancreatic juice, NCERT 11TH
69. Ans.(c) 6.8, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 86. Ans.(b) Mucosal layer of intestine,
PAGE NUMBER 262 NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
70. Ans.(a) Chief cell, NCERT 11TH NUMBER 263
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 262 87. Ans.(c) Duodenum, NCERT 11TH
71. Ans.(c) Pepsinogen, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 264
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 262 88. Ans.(c) Both, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
72. Ans.(b) Intrinsic factor, NCERT 11TH PAGE NUMBER 264
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 262 90. Ans.(d) All, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
74. Ans.(c) Renin, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 264
PAGE NUMBER 262 91. Ans.(c) Faeces, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
75. Ans.(c) Enterokinase, NCERT 11TH PAGE NUMBER 264
76. Ans.(d) Enzymes, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 264
77. Ans.(c) Breaking down of fat into very STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 264
small micelles, NCERT 11TH 94. Ans.(d) A and B, NCERT 11TH
80. Ans.(c) Nucleases, NCERT 11TH 97. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH
81. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH 98. Ans.(a) Simple diffusion, NCERT 11TH
83. Ans.(a) Submucosal, NCERT 11TH 100. Ans.(b) Fructose, NCERT 11TH
84. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH

BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES

1. On what factors does the mechanism (c) Larnx
of breathing vary among different (d) Mouth
group 7. Nasopharynx opens through glottis
(a) Habitat into
(b) Level of organization (a) Larynx
(c) Population (b) Trachea
(d) A and b (c) Bronchi
2. Simple diffusion type of mechanism of (d) Bronchiole
respiration is seen in 8. Sound box is located in
(a) Lower invertebrates (a) Nasopharynx
(b) Higher invertebrates (b) Larynx
(c) Lower vertebrates (c) Nasal chamber
(d) Higher vertebrates (d) Trachea
3. Lungs are specialized vascular 9. Trachea extends upto … where it
structure used by…..form for exchange divides into 2 bronchi
of gases (a) Mid peritoneal cavity
(a) Aquatic (b) Mid thoracic cavity
(b) Terrestrial (c) High peritoneal cavity
(c) Aerial (d) Low thoracic cavity
(d) B and c 10. Trachea divides into right and left
4. Select the correct pair bronchi at …level
(a) Adamsia- simple diffusion (a) 5th thoracic vertebrae
(b) Frog – Gills (b) 5th rib
(c) Aquatic arthopode-tracheal tube (c) 5th lumbar vertebrae
(d) All of the above (d) 5thcercival vertebrae
5. Respiratory system starts with 11. Secondary, tertiary and bronchioles
(a) Pair of nostrils end up in
(b) Nasal chamber (a) Alveoli
(c) Buccal cavity (b) Tertiary bronchioles
(d) All of the above (c) Terminal bronchioles
6. This is common passage for food and (d) All of the above
air 12. All of the above are supported by
(a) Pharynx incomplete cartilaginous ring except
(b) Trachea (a) Trachea
36 | Breathing and exchange of gases

(b) Initial bronchiole (d) All of the above
(c) Tertiary bronchi 19. Select the correct sequence of
(d) Respiratory bronchiole respiratory tract
13. Which gives rise to numbered of very (a) Nostril, nsopharynx, tertiary bronchi,
thin , irregular walled and vascularized terminal bronchiole
bag like structure alveoli (b) Nasopharynx ,nasal chamber ,tertiary
(a) Secondary bronchi bronchi , terminal bronchiole
(b) Tertiary bronchi (c) Nasal chamber,nasopharynx ,terminal
(c) Initial bronchiole bronchiole ,tertiary bronchi
(d) Terminal bronchiole (d) Nasopharynx, nasal chamber , larynx ,
14. All of the following comprise lung pharynx , trachea
except 20. Structural and functional unit of lung is
(a) Bronchi (a) Plueral membrane
(b) Bronchiole (b) Terminal bronchiole
(c) Alveoli (c) Alveoli
(d) Trachea (d) Trachea
15. Lungs are covered by 21. From below diagram identify a
(a) Single layered pleura
(b) Double layered pleura
(c) Triple layered pleura
(d) No pleura
16. Pleural fluid is present in
(a) Alveoli
(b) Between rib and pleura
(c) Between pleura
(d) Between lung and diaphragm
17. Which of the following reduces friction
on lung surface
(a) Surfactant
(a) Trachea
(b) Peritoneal fluid
(b) Bronchi
(c) Plueral fluid
(c) bronchiole
(d) Alveolar fluid
(d) larynx
18. Right lung is
(a) Trilobed
(b) Bilobed
(c) Single lobed
37 | Breathing & exchange of gases

22. Epiglottis prevents entry of food in (d) All of the above
larynx. identify epiglottis 26. Thoracic chamber is formed dorsally
by
(a) Vertebral column
(b) Sternum
(c) Ribs
(d) A and c
27. Anatomically, This is placed ventrally
to lung
(a) Ribs
(b) Sternum
(c) Vertebral column’
(d) Heart
28. Diaphragm is a
(a) e (a) V shaped
(b) a (b) U shaped
(c) f (c) Dome shaped
(d) None (d) Pyramid shaped
23. Inner pleural membrane is in contact 29. Diffusion of gases takes place across
with (a) Pulmonary membrane
(a) Parietal pleura (b) Visceral membrane
(b) Alveoli (c) Alveolar membrane
(c) Bronchi (d) All of the above
(d) Lung surface 30. Which of the following is responsible
24. Alveoli and alveolar duct constitute for movement of air into and out of
….part lung
(a) Conducting (a) Diffusion
(b) Exchange (b) Pressure gradient
(c) Respiratory (c) Surfactant
(d) B and c (d) All of the above
25. Conducting part functions as 31. Negative pressure in lung means
(a) Transporting atmospheric air to (a) Intrapulmonary pressure is less
alveoli than atmospheric pressure
(b) Clearing of foreign particle (b) Pressure in lung is more than
(c) Humidifies and brings air to body atmospheric pressure
temperature (c) Enlarged thoracic cavity

(d) A and c (d) B and c
32. It helps in development of pressure 37. Increase in strength of inspiration and
gradient for breathing expiration is achieved by
(a) Diaphragm (a) Flattening of diaphragm
(b) Internal intercostal (b) Abdominal muscle
(c) External intercostal (c) Scapular muscle
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above
33. Inspiration occurs by 38. Healthy human breathes …times/min
(a) Contraction of diaphragm on average
(b) Flattening of diaphragm (a) 72
(c) Contraction of external and (b) 36
internal intercostal (c) 12-16
(d) A and b (d) 50
34. Contraction of external intercostal 39. Volume of air involved in breathing
causes movements can be estimated by
(a) Upliftment of rib (a) Sphygmomanometer
(b) Lifts sternum (b) Spirometer
(c) Increase in volume of thoracic (c) Spirilunometer
chamber (d) Barometer
(d) All of the above 40. Spirometer helps in
35. It causes increase in dorsoventral axis (a) Volume of air involved Breathing
of thorasic cavity- movements
(a) relaxation of internal intercoastal (b) Clinical assessment of pulmonary
muscle functional
(b) contraction of external intercostal (c) Measurement of respiratory
muscle capacities
(c) relaxation of diaphragm (d) All of the above
(d) all of the above 41. Healthy man can inspire or expire
36. Relaxation of diaphragm and internal approximately how many ml of air per
intercostal muscle returns diaphragm minute
and sternum to original position (a) 500
causing (b) 2500
(a) Increase in pulmonary volume (c) 1000
(b) Decrease in pulmonary volume (d) 6000
(c) Reduction in size of thoracic
cavity

42. Expiratory reserve Volume is (d) Maximum volume of a person can
(a) Volume of air expired during breathe in after forced expiration
normal respiration 47. Volume of air that will remain in lung
(b) Additional volume of air a person after forced expiration
can expire forcefully (a) Expiratory reserve Volume
(c) Total volume of air person can (b) Residual Volume
expire after normal inspiration (c) Expiratory capacity
(d) Volume of air remaining in lung (d) Functional residual capacity
even after forcible expiration 48. FRC includes
43. Additional volume of air a person can (a) . TV+IRV
expire by forcible expiration (b) TV+ERV
averages...ml (c) ERV+RV
(a) 1000 (d) NONE
(b) 1500 49. Total volume of air accommodated in
(c) 1600 lung at end of forced inspiration is
(d) 2500 (a) Vital capacity
44. Volume of air remaining in lung even (b) Tidal volume
after a forcible expiration (c) Total lung capacity
(a) Expiratory capacity (d) All of the above
(b) Expiratory reserve Volume 50. Total lung capacity is…ml
(c) Residual Volume (a) 1100
(d) Vital capacity (b) 2500
45. Total volume of air a person can inspire (c) 500
after normal expiration is (d) 5100
(a) Vital capacity 51. Exchange of gases by simple diffusion
(b) Tidal volume mainly is based on
(c) Total lung capacity (a) Pressure gradient
(d) Inspiratory capacity (b) Concentration gradient
46. Expiratory capacity is (c) Gravity
(a) Volume of air expired during (d) A and b
normal respiration 52. pO2 and pCO2 represents
(b) Additional volume of air, a person (a) Pressure gradient for that gases
can expire by forcible expiration (b) Concentration gradient for that
(c) Total volume of air a person can gases
expire after normal inspiration (c) Partial pressure for that gases

53. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is (d) Capillary endothelium basement
(a) 40 membrane, sqaumous epithelium
(b) 159 of alveoli
(c) 104 58. Alveolar diffusion membrane ranges in
(d) 95 (a) Centimeters
54. Partial pressure of CO2 in (b) Millimeters
deoxygenated and oxygenated blood (c) Micrometer
is respectively- (d) Nanometer
(a) 40,45 59. Medium for transport for O2 and co2
(b) 45,40 is
(c) 40,95 (a) Alveoli
(d) 95,40 (b) Blood
55. Partial pressure of CO2 in tissue is (c) Tissue
equal to that of in (d) All of the above
(a) Oxygenated blood 60. About how many percent of O2 is
(b) Deoxygenated blood transported by RBC in blood
(c) Alveoli (a) 20-25
(d) Atmospheric air (b) 97
56. Pressure gradient for oxygen between (c) 3
alveoli and blood is (d) 70
(a) 64 61. Oxygen can bind with hemoglobin in a
(b) 5 … .manner to form………-
(c) 9 (a) Irreversible, methemoglobin
(d) Zero (b) Reversible, methemoglobin
57. Following is sequence of diffusion (c) Irreversible, oxyhemoglobin
membrane layer from inwards to out (d) Reversible, oxyhemoglobin
in respect to alveoli 62. Binding of oxygen is primarily related
(a) Squamous epithelium of alveoli, to
basement membrane, capillary (a) Partial pressure of O2
endothelium (b) Hydrogen ion concentration
(b) Basement membrane, squamous (c) Temperature
epithelium of alveoli, capillary (d) All of the above
endothelium 63. When percentage saturation of
(c) Squamous epithelium of alveoli, hemoglobin with O2 is plotted against
capillary endothelium, basement pO2 … curve is obtained
membrane (a) Sigmoid

(b) Geometrical (b) O2
(c) J shape (c) Bicarbonate
(d) Parallel to x axis (d) All of the above
64. Tissue favors dissociation of oxygen 70. Carbon dioxide is transported to
because of all except alveoli is released out as
(a) High temperature (a) Carboxyhemoglobin
(b) High pCO2 (b) Carbonic anhydrase
(c) Low H+ concentration (c) Carbon dioxide
(d) None (d) Bicarbonate
65. Low H+ concentration and low
71. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood
temperature favours delivers … .. ml of CO2 to alveoli
(a) Formation of oxyhemoglobin
(b) Dissociation of oxyhemoglobin (a) 5
(c) Formation of carboxyhemoglobin (b) 4
(d) Dissociation of (c) 27
carbaminohaemoglobin (d) 7
66. Carbon dioxide bound to hemoglobin 72. Human being have significant ability to
from tissue is delivered at alveoli when (a) Maintain respiratory rhythm to
(a) pCO2 is low suit demand of body
(b) pCO2 is high (b) Not maintain respiratory rhythm
(c) pO2 is low to suit demand for of body
(d) B and c (c) Moderate respiratory rhythm to
67. Carbonic anhydrase can be traced in suit demand of body
(a) Plasma (d) A and b
(b) RBC 73. Respiratory rhythm is under… control
(c) Lymph
(a) Neural
(d) A and b
(b) Chemical
68. Conversion of carbon dioxide to
(c) Both
bicarbonate is facilitated by
(d) None
(a) Oxygenase
74. Respiratory rhythm center is located in
(b) Carbonic anhydrase
(c) Hydrogenases (a) Pons
(d) Aromatases (b) Midbrain
69. At tissue site partial pressure of this (c) Medulla
gas is high due to catabolism (d) 4th ventricle
(a) CO2

75. Primary regulation of respiratory (d) B and c
rhythm is under control of 81. Role of… .in regulation of respiratory
rhythm is quite insignificant
(a) Chemotactic area
(b) Respiratory rhythm center (a) Oxygen
(c) Pons (b) Carbon dioxide
(d) B and c (c) Hydrogen
76. Pneumotaxic center is located in (d) B and c
82. Difficulty causing wheezing due to
(a) Hypothalamus
inflammation of bronchi and
(b) Medulla
bronchiole is called
(c) Pons
(d) Midbrain (a) Emphysema
77. Pneumotaxic center is responsible for (b) Bronchitis
(c) Asthma
(a) Regulation of respiratory rhythm
(d) Occupational respiratory disease
(b) Moderate function of respiratory
83. Which of the following is a chronic
rhythm center
disorder in which alveolar wall are
(c) Activate rhythm center
damaged due to which respiratory
surface decreased
78. Nueral signal from… .center can
reduce duration of inspiration and (a) Ards
thereby alter respiration rate (b) Asthma
(c) Emphysema
(a) Respiratory rhythm center
(d) Chronic bronchitis
(b) Chemotactic
84. Which of the responsible for
(c) Pneumotaxic
occupational respiratory disorder
79. Chemotactic center is highly sensitive (a) Cotton industry
to all except (b) Grinding industry
(a) Hydrogen ion (c) Asbestos industry
(b) Carbon dioxide (d) All of the above
(c) Oxygen 85. Oxygen taken into capillary during
(d) None breathing enters first
80. Peripheral chemoreceptors are (a) Pulmonary artery
located in (b) Alveoli
(a) Medulla (c) Pulmonary vein
(b) Aortic arch (d) Aortic arch
(c) Carotid artery

86. Carbon dioxide is carried from cells to 90. If there is high carbon dioxide
heart via concentration then oxygen
dissociation curve shifts
(a) Pulmonary vein
(b) Systemic vein (a) Left
(c) Systemic artery (b) Right
(d) B and c (c) Above
87. Partial pressure of O2 in systemic vein (d) Can’t say
is…mmhg 91. Condition like….cause shift of curve to
left
(a) 40
(b) 45
(c) 95
(d) 104
88. Partial pressure of CO2 in systemic
vein is… .mmhg
(a) 40
(b) 45
(c) 104
(d) 95
89. Identify a b and c from below diagram
(a) Low CO2

(b) High O2
(c) Low temperature
(a) A – basement membrane

(b) B – blood capillary
(c) C – alveolar wall

92. 2,3DPG is low than curve shifts to (b) Intrapulmonary pressure is more
than atmospheric pressure
(c) Atmospheric pressure is less than
intrapulmonary pressure
96. Total lung capacity is sum of
(a) Vital capacity and functional
residual capacity
(b) Vital capacity and residual Volume
(c) Tidal volume and functional
residual capacity
(d) Tidal volume and residual volume
97. Partial pressure is
(a) Pressure due to mixture of gases
(b) Sum total of pressure of gases on
(a) Right
any one person
(b) Left
(c) Pressure contributed by an
(c) Below
individual gas in a mixture of gases
(d) No effect
93. Increase in saturation of hemoglobin
98. Solubility of. Oxygen is… .than that of
shows oxygen dissociation curve
carbon dioxide
towards-
(a) 20-25times highe
(a) Left shift (b) 20-25 times lower
(b) Right shift (c) 200-250 times higher
(c) Parallel to x axis (d) 200-250 times lower
(d) Perpendicular to axis 99. Solubility of carbon dioxide is higher
94. Following part of respiratory system is than oxygen because
supported by incomplete cartilage (a) Amount of CO2 that can diffuse
(a) Primary bronchi through diffusion membrane per
(b) Secondary bronchi unit difference in partial pressure
(c) Tertiary bronchi is much less than that of O2
(d) All of the above (b) Amount of CO2 that can diffuse
95. Inspiration occurs if through diffusion membrane per
(a) Pressure within lung less than unit difference in partial pressure
atmospheric pressure is much more than that of O2

(c) Amount of O2 that can diffuse (a) Inflammation
through diffusion membrane per (b) Fibrosis
unit difference in partial pressure (c) Proliferation of fibrous tissue
is much less than that of CO2 (d) All of the above
(d) A and c
100. Long exposure to grinding and stone
breaking give rise to
HINTS & ANSWERS

1. Ans.(d) A and B, NCERT 11TH 14. Ans.(d) Trachea, NCERT 11TH
2. Ans.(a) Lower invertebrates, NCERT 15. Ans.(b) Double layered pleura, NCERT
11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 268 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269
3. Ans.(d) B and C, NCERT 11TH 16. Ans.(c) Between pleura, NCERT 11TH
4. Ans.(a) Adamsia – simple diffusion, 17. Ans.(c) Pleural fluid, NCERT 11TH
NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269
268 18. Ans.(a) Trilobed, NCERT 11TH
5. Ans.(a) Pair of nostril, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269 19. Ans.(a) Nostril, nasopharynx,
6. Ans.(a) Pharynx, NCERT 11TH tertiarybronchi, terminal bronchiole,
7. Ans.(b) Trachea, NCERT 11TH 269
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269 20. Ans.(c) Alveoli, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
8. Ans.(b) Larynx, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269
PAGE NUMBER 269 21. Ans.(b) Bronchi, NCERT 11TH
9. Ans.(b) Mid thoracic cavity, NCERT STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269
11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269 22. Ans.(a) E, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
10. Ans.(a) 5ththoracic vertebrae, NCERT NUMBER 269
11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269 23. Ans.(d) Lung surface, NCERT 11TH
11. Ans.(c) Terminal bronchioles, NCERT STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 270
11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269 24. Ans.(d) B and C, NCERT 11TH
12. Ans.(d) Respiratory bronchiole, NCERT STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 270
11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269 25. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH
13. Ans.(d) Terminal bronchiole, NCERT STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 270
11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269

26. Ans.(a) Vertebral column, NCERT 11TH 43. Ans.(a) 1000, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
27. Ans.(b) Sternum, NCERT 11TH 44. Ans.(c) Residual Volume, NCERT 11TH
28. Ans.(c) Dome shaped, NCERT 11TH 45. Ans.(d) Inspiratory capacity, NCERT
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 270 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 272
29. Ans.(c) Alveolar membrane, NCERT 46. Ans.(c) Total volume of air person can
11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 270 expire after normal inspiration, NCERT
30. Ans.(b) Pressure gradient, NCERT 11TH 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 272
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 270 47. Ans.(d) Functional residual capacity,
31. Ans.(a) A and C, NCERT 11TH NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
32. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH 48. Ans.(c) ERV+RV, NCERT 11TH
33. Ans.(d) A and B, NCERT 11TH 49. Ans.(c) Total lung capacity, NCERT
34. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH 50. Ans.(d) 5100, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
35. Ans.(b) Contraction of external 51. Ans.(d) A and B, NCERT 11TH
intercostal muscle, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 272
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 270 52. Ans.(c) Partial pressure for that gases,
36. Ans.(d) B and C, NCERT 11TH NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
37. Ans.(b) Abdominal muscle, NCERT 11TH 53. Ans.(c) 104, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
38. Ans.(c) 12-16, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 54. Ans.(b) 45,40 ,NCERT 11TH STANDARD
39. Ans.(b) Spirometer, NCERT 11TH 55. Ans.(b) Deoxygenated blood, NCERT
40. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH 56. Ans.(a) 64, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
41. Ans.(d) 6000, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 57. Ans.(a) Squamous epithelium of
PAGE NUMBER 271 alveoli, basement membrane and
42. Ans.(b) Additional volume of air a capillary endothelium, NCERT 11TH
person can expire forcefully, NCERT STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 273

58. Ans.(b) Millimeters, NCERT 11TH 75. Ans.(b) Respiratory rhythm center,
59. Ans.(b) Blood, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 275
PAGE NUMBER 274 76. Ans.(c) Pons, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
60. Ans.(b) 97, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 275
PAGE NUMBER 274 77. Ans.(b) Moderate function of
61. Ans.(d) Reversible oxyhemoglobin, respiratory rhythm center, NCERT 11TH
NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 275
274 78. Ans.(c) Pneumotaxic, NCERT 11TH
62. Ans.(a) Partial pressure of O2, NCERT STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 275
11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 274 79. Ans.(c) Oxygen, NCERT 11TH
63. Ans.(a) Sigmoid, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 275
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 274 80. Ans.(d) B and C, NCERT 11TH
64. Ans.(c) Low H+ concentration, NCERT STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 275
11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 274 81. Ans.(a) Oxygen, NCERT 11TH
65. Ans.(a) Formation of oxyhemoglobin, STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 275
NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE 82. Ans.(c) Asthma, NCERT 11TH
NUMBER 274 STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 275
66. Ans.(a) pCO2 is low, NCERT 11TH 83. Ans.(c) Emphysema, NCERT 11TH
67. Ans.(d) A and B, NCERT 11TH 84. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH
68. Ans.(b) Carbonic anhydrase, NCERT 85. Ans.(c) Pulmonary vein, NCERT 11TH
11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 275 STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 273
69. Ans.(a) CO2, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 86. Ans.(b) Systemic vein, NCERT 11TH
70. Ans.(c) Carbon dioxide, NCERT 11TH 87. Ans.(a) 40, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
71. Ans.(b) 4, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 88. Ans.(b) 45, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
73. Ans.(c) Both, NCERT 11TH STANDARD 90. Ans.(b) Right, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
74. Ans.(c) Medulla, NCERT 11TH 91. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH

92. Ans.(b) Left, NCERT 11TH STANDARD
PAGE NUMBER 274 98. Ans.(b) 20-25 times lower, NCERT 11TH
93. Ans.(a) Left shift NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 273
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 274 99. Ans.(b) Amount of CO2 that can diffuse
94. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 11TH through diffusion membrane per unit
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 269 difference in partial pressure is much
95. Ans.(a) Pressure within lung less than more than that of O2, NCERT 11TH
atmospheric pressure, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 273
96. Ans.(b) Vital capacity and residual STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 276
volume, NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
NUMBER 272
97. Ans.(c) Pressure contributed by an
individual gas in mixture of gases,
NCERT 11TH STANDARD PAGE
NUMBER 272

XIIth CLASS
QUESTIONS BANK
TOPICS INDEX
➢ PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION 01 - 13
➢ MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 14 - 25
➢ EVOLUTION 26 - 39
➢ BIOTECHNOLOGY PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES 40 - 54
➢ BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATION 55 - 68
WWW.BIOMENTORS.ONLINE
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION

1. Gregor Mendel conducted 6. Filial progeny plants were obtained by
hybridization experiment on garden (a) Self pollination of true breeding
pea in … year and proposed laws of line
inheritance in living organisms (b) Cross pollination of contrasting
(a) 1856-1936 trait containing plant
(b) 1856-1963 (c) Cross pollination with progeny
(c) 1836-1856 (d) Self pollination with progeny
(d) 1856-1863 7. F1 progeny obtained by crossing tall
2. Characters studied by Mendel in pea and dwarf plant was
plants is /are (a) Mostly tall
(a) Flower position (b) Mostly dwarf
(b) Seed shape (c) Mixed
(c) Stem height (d) All tall
(d) All of the above 8. In Mendelian inheritance, Second
3. Which of the following character generation of progeny was obtained
does not follow law of dominance- by
(a) Seed shape (a) Crossing tall and dwarf progeny
(b) Flower position (b) Self pollination of tall progeny
(c) Seed colour (c) Self pollination of dwarf progeny
(d) Starch grain size (d) All of the above
4. He was first to apply statistical 9. Offspring of F1 self pollination with
analysis and mathematical logic to respect to stem height was
biology (a) All tall plant
(a) Darwin (b) All dwarf plant
(b) Mendel (c) Mostly tall and some dwarf
(c) Lamarck (d) None
(d) Theodore boveri 10. In Mendalian inheritance, offspring of
5. A true breeding line is one that second generation by crossing dwarf
(a) Product of continuous self and tall plant were all except
pollination (a) Tall
(b) Shows stable trait inheritance (b) Dwarf
(c) Contain One type of allele of gene (c) Intermediate
(d) All of the above (d) B and c
1 | Principles of inheritance and variation

11. Ratio of plants in second generation (d) All of the above
by breading tall and dwarf plants is 17. In mendalian inheritance, Phenotype
(a) 1:1 of F1 plant is
(b) 2:1 (a) Exactly as same as TT
(c) 3:1 (b) Exactly as same as tt
(d) 4:0 (c) Intermediate
12. Mendel proposed something was (d) A and c
being stably passed down unchanged 18. Monohybrid cross is done between
from parent to offspring ,he called (a) TT and tt
these things (b) tt and tt
(a) Gene (c) TT and TT
(b) Chromosome (d) All of the above
(c) Factors 19. The recessive character was
(d) All of the above expressed in F2 generation of
13. This is units of inheritance Mendel’s cross because of
(a) Protein (a) Mitosis
(b) Gene (b) Segregation
(c) Chromosome (c) Hybrid cross
(d) Nucleic acid (d) A and b
14. Gene which code for pair of 20. Hybrid which contain allele of
contrasting trait are known as contrasting trait is called
(a) Factor (a) Recessive
(b) Allele (b) Dominant
(c) Pair of chromosome (c) Homozygous
(d) None (d) Heterozygous
15. In Mendel experiment these are allele 21. Graphical representation to calculate
for character of height probability of all possible genotype of
(a) T and T offspring in genetic cross was given by
(b) t and t (a) Mendel
(c) T and t (b) Darwin
(d) All of the above (c) Reginald C punnet
16. Genotype of first generation of plant (d) Walter Sutton
in Mendel’s experiment is 22. By crossing heterozygous tall and
(a) Tt dwarf plant , genotype obtained is all
(b) tt except
(c) TT (a) TT

(b) Tt (d) All the above
(c) tt 28. F1 plant are all tall due to
(d) None (a) Segregation
23. Phenotype obtained by crossing (b) Dominance
hetrozyous tall plant is (c) Heterozygosity
(a) Tall (d) All of the above
(b) Semi tall 29. After self pollinating dwarf plant of f2
(c) Dwarf generation
(d) All except b (a) Heterozygous plant were
24. What is genotypic ratio after crossing obtained
heterozygous tall plants (b) Dwarf plant were obtained in f3
(a) 3:1 and f4
(b) 1:2 (c) Some tall plants were all
(c) 1:2:1 produced
(d) 1:3:1 (d) All of the above
25. Gamete produced by crossing of 30. Self pollinating f2 tall plant will
homozygous dwarf and heterozygous produce…. genotype
tall is all except (a) TT
(a) T and t (b) Tt
(b) t and t (c) tt
(c) T and T (d) All of the above
(d) None 31. Test cross is done to determine
26. When F1 plant of genotype Tt when (a) Genotype
self-pollinated ratio of gamete (b) Phenotype
produced is (c) Homozygosity
(a) 3:1 (d) All of the above
(b) 1:1 32. If test cross produces half of tall and
(c) 1:2:1 half of dwarf plant then what is
(d) None genotype of crossed plant
27. After self pollination of heterozygous (a) TT
tall plant (b) Tt
(a) One fourth of plant are TT in (c) tt
genotype (d) All of the above
(b) Half of plants are Tt in genotype 33. In a test cross all violet flowers are
(c) One fourth of plant are tt in produced then what is genotype of
genotype plant to be tested

(a) Ww 39. When F1 generation snapdragon were
(b) ww self pollinated how many red flower
(c) WW were obtained
(d) None (a) 1
34. Law of segregation was given by (b) 2
(a) Mendel (c) 3
(b) Punnet (d) 4
(c) De vries 40. Phenotypic ratio when pink flowered
(d) Theodore boveri antirhinum was self-pollinated
35. Law of dominance explains- (a) 3:1
(a) Characters are controlled by (b) 1:1
discrete unit (c) 1:2:1
(b) Factors occur in pair (d) None
(c) In a dissimilar pair of factor one 41. What is not true for recessive gene -
member of pair dominates other (a) Modified normal allele
(d) All of the above (b) Produces non -functional enzyme
36. Law of segregation is based on fact (c) Do not produce enzyme at all
that (d) Its functioning determines the
(a) Allele don’t show any blending trait
(b) Both character are recovered in 42. Which of the following shows co -
F2 generation dominance
(c) Allele segregate during gamete (a) Pea plant
formation (b) Dog flower
(d) All of the above (c) ABO blood group
37. Antirhinum species shows (d) None
(a) Co dominance 43. Which of the following on RBC is
(b) Incomplete dominance responsible for ABO blood grouping
(c) Complete dominance (a) Protein on plasma membrane
(d) None (b) Protein in cytoplasm
38. Cross between red dog flower and (c) Sugar on plasma membrane
white dog flower produced … colored (d) Sugar on nuclear membrane
flower in F1 generation- 44. Allele that are responsible for
(a) Red different sugar on RBC membrane is
(b) White (a) IA
(c) Pink (b) IB
(d) A and b (c) i

(d) All of the above (a) Yellow and wrinkled
45. When both IA and IB allel are present (b) Yellow and round
in an organism then (c) Green and wrinkled
(a) IA is dominant (d) Green and round
(b) IB is dominant 51. Round yellow plant was crossed with
(c) Both are dominant green wrinkled seed how many types
(d) i is dominant of gamete are formed in P generation
46. How many Genotype and phenotype (a) 2
of ABO blood type are produced (b) 4
(a) 6,6 (c) 8
(b) 3,6 (d) 16
(c) 6,4 52. Self pollination of heterozygous round
(d) 6,3 yellow seed how many plants have
47. It is an example of multiple allele green seed
(a) Pea plant (a) Half
(b) Antirhinum (b) One third
(c) ABO (c) One fourth
(d) None (d) None
48. Multiple allele can be found 53. Crossing of heterozygous round
(a) In an individual of a species yellow pea seed produces how many
(b) In population of a species Yellow wrinkled seed if in total 16
(c) Polygenic inheritance seed are produced
(d) All of the above (a) 9
49. Select the incorrect statement (b) 3
(a) Starch synthesis in pea plant is (c) 5
controlled by one gene (d) 1
(b) BB homozygotes produce large 54. F2 generation of cross between round
starch grain yellow and green wrinkled seed … .in
(c) bb seeds are wrinkled greater amount
(d) Gene of starch synthesis control (a) Round yellow
unit character (b) Round green
50. When Mendel crossed seed with (c) Wrinkled yellow
yellow color and round shape seed (d) Wrinkled green
with green color and wrinkled shape
seed , what kind of seed are produced
in F1 generation-

55. Phenotype ratio of f2 generation remained unrecognized till 1900
resulting from self pollination of because
heterozygous round yellow pea seed is (a) Communication was not easy in
(a) 3:1 that days
(b) 1:2:1 (b) His concept of gene as stable and
(c) 9:3:3:1 discreet unit was not accepted
(d) 6:3:3:1 (c) His approach of using
56. Select the correct statement about mathematics to explain biological
Mendel’slaw of independent phenomenon was new and
assortment unacceptable to many biologist’s
(a) Is applicable only for dihybrid (d) All of the above
cross 60. Who rediscovered Mendel’s results
(b) When 2 pair of traits are on inheritance of character
combined in hybrid , segregation of (a) De vries
one pair of character is dependent of (b) Correns
other pair of character (c) Von tschermak
(c) Genes of two character can move (d) All of the above
apart 61. Chromosome was parallel to behavior
(d) All of the above to behavior of gene as noted by
57. How many Genotype of gamete are (a) Mendel
produced in dihybrid cross of (b) Walter Sutton
heterozygous dominant trait (c) Theodore boveri
(a) 2 (d) B and c
(b) 4 62. Following is difference between a
(c) 8 gene and chromosome
(d) 16 (a) Gene occur in pair
58. How many Genotype found in (b) Chromosome segregate at time
progenies of f2 generation of of gamete formation
dihybrid cross between round yellow (c) Independent pair of gene
and green wrinkled pea seed segregate independently of each
(a) 3 other
(b) 6 (d) All of the above
(c) 9
(d) 4
59. Mendel published his work on
inheritance of character in 1865 but

63. Chromosomal theory of inheritance 67. Morgan hybridized yellow bodied ,
explains white eye female to brown bodied red
(a) Chromosomes are carrier of gene eyes male then
(b) Established relationship between (a) All offspring produced were
chromosomes and mendelian law yellow bodied , white eyed
(c) Explains basis of law of (b) He observed gamete
segregation lies in anaphase I of didn’tseparate independently
meiosis (c) F2 phenotypic ratio was 9:3:3:1
64. Experimental verification of 68. Term linkage associated with Gene
chromosomal theory of inheritance by was given by
………. led to discovering the basis for (a) Sutton
variation that sexual reproduction (b) Boveri
produced- (c) Morgan
(a) Mendel (d) Mendel
(b) Sutton 69. In drosophila melanogaster white and
(c) Boveri yellow gene showed.. percent
(d) Thomas Morgan recombination while white and
65. Morgan studied … for experimental miniature being showed … . percent
verification of chromosomal theory of recombination
inheritance (a) 1.3,3.7
(a) Pea plant (b) 13,3.7
(b) RBC (c) 1.3,37
(c) Snapdragon (d) 13,37
(d) Fruit fly 70. Who used frequency of
66. Why was drosophila melanogaster recombination between gene pair on
choosen as experimental animal by same chromosome as a measure of
Morgan distance between gene and mapped
(a) Grown on simple synthetic their position on chromosome-
medium in laboratory (a) Morgan
(b) Complete life cycle in 2 week (b) Sturtevant
(c) Clear differentiation of sexes (c) Sutton and boveri
could be made (d) Mendel
(d) All of the above 71. Who observed that 50percent of
sperm received a nuclear structure
whereas other 50 percent didn’t

(a) Sturtevant (b) Drosophila
(b) Henking (c) Grasshopper
(c) Sutton (d) All of the above
(d) None 78. Female heterogametic condition is
72. Nuclear structure that was present in characteristic of
only 50 percent of sperm was named (a) Grasshopper
… according to henking (b) Hen
(a) Y body (c) Drosophila
(b) X body (d) Human
(c) I body 79. Egg responsible for determination of
(d) None sex in
73. XO type of chromosome is seen in (a) Chick
(a) Human (b) Snapdragon
(b) Drosophila (c) Baby
(c) Grasshopper (d) All
(d) B and c 80. Mutation results in
74. In birds … type of chromosome are (a) Alteration of DNA sequence
found (b) Changes in genotype
(a) XY (c) Changes in phenotype
(b) XO (d) All of the above
(c) ZW 81. It is example of Chromosomal
(d) YO aberrations-
75. In … .XY type of chromosome is seen (a) Cry-du-chat syndrome
(a) Human (b) Cancer
(b) Tiny fruit fly (c) CML
(c) Most of insect (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above 82. Sickle cell anemia is example of
76. In some male bird chromosome type (a) Point mutation
is (b) Frame shift mutation
(a) ZZ (c) Insertion
(b) ZW (d) Duplication
(c) XX 83. Radiation that are responsible for
(d) XO mutation in organism
77. It is an example of male- (a) Infrared
heterogametic condition- (b) UV
(a) Human (c) Micro

(d) Electro magnetic (a) Heterozygous for HbS
84. Disorderthat is transmitted to (b) Homozygous for HbS
offspring on same lines as we have (c) Homozygous for HbA
studied in principle of inheritance is (d) All of the above
(a) Cystic fibrosis 90. Point mutation in sickle cell RBC is
(b) Thalassemia caused by
(c) Color blindness (a) Substitution of valine by glutamic
(d) All of the above acid at 6th position of Beta
85. Mendelian disorder linked to sex globulin chain of hemoglobin
chromosome (b) Substitution of valine by glutamic
(a) Hemophilia acid at 6th position of alpha
(b) Sickle cell anemia globulin chain of hemoglobin
(c) Thalassemia (c) Substitution of glutamic acid by
(d) None valine at 6th position of alpha
86. Myotonic disorder is globulin chain of hemoglobin
(a) X linked disorder (d) Substitution of glutamic acid by
(b) Y linked disorder valine at 6th position of Beta
(c) Autosomal dominant globulin chain of hemoglobin
(d) Autosomal recessive 91. It is responsible for mental
87. Select the correct statement about retardation in phenylketonuria
Hemophilics (a) Phenylalanine
(a) Female are carrier mostly (b) Tyrosine
(b) All progeny of carrier are affected (c) Homogentisic acid
(c) All female offspring are (d) All of the above
hemophiliac 92. Failure of segregation of chromatid
(d) All of the above during cell division results in
88. It is a autosomal linked recessive trait (a) Aneuploidy
that can be transmitted from parents (b) Euploidy
to offspring when both parents are (c) Polyploidy
carrier for gene (d) Any of the above
(a) Myotonic dystrophy 93. This stage is affected in polyploidy
(b) Hemophilia (a) Prophase
(c) Sickle cell anemia (b) Metaphase
(d) Klinfilters syndrome (c) Anaphase
89. Sickle celled person that show (d) Cytokinesis
phenotypic disease are

94. It is a non mendelian disorder
(a) Down syndrome 98. Linkage is about –
(b) Klinfilters syndrome (a) Two genes of two character on
(c) Turner syndrome homologous chromosome
(d) All of the above (b) Two genes of two characters on
95. Individual with down syndrome show non-homologous chromosome
characteristic feature (c) Two alleles of a gene on same
(a) Small round head chromosome
(b) Macroglossia (d) Two gene of two character on
(c) Mental retardation same chromosome
(d) All of the above 99. Huge parental combination in F2
96. Person with tall stature and feminine progeny is due to
characters will show (a) Law of dominance
(a) Monosomy (b) Linkage
(b) Additional 21st chromosome (c) Law of segregation
(c) Gynecomastia (d) Linked genes are too closely
(d) 45 chromosome located
97. Individual with 45 and XO 100. Accumulation of phenyl pyruvic acid
chromosome shows following in body result into-
features (a) Mental retardness
(a) Sterility (b) Presence of this acid in urine
(b) Rudimentary ovaries (c) Hypopigmentation
(c) Short stature (d) A and b
HINTS & ANSWERS

1. Ans.(d) 1856- 1863, NCERT 12TH 5. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
2. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 6. Ans.(b) Cross pollination of
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 70 contrasting trait containing plant,
3. Ans.(d) Starch grain size show NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
incomplete dominance, NCERT 12TH NUMBER 71
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 78 7. Ans.(d) All tall, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
4. Ans.(b) Mendel, NCERT 12TH PAGE NUMBER 71

8. Ans.(b) Self pollination of tall progeny, 25. Ans.(c) T and T, NCERT 12TH
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 73
NUMBER 71 26. Ans.(b) 1:1, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
9. Ans.(c) Mostly tall and some dwarf(F2 PAGE NUMBER 73
generation), NCERT 12TH STANDARD 27. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
10. Ans.(c) In-between, NCERT 12TH 28. Ans.(b) Dominance, NCERT 12TH
11. Ans.(c) 3:1, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 29. Ans.(b) Dwarf plant were obtained in
PAGE NUMBER 71 f3 and f4, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
12. Ans.(c) Factor, NCERT 12TH PAGE NUMBER 74
13. Ans.(b) Gene, NCERT 12TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 74
PAGE NUMBER 72 31. Ans.(a) Genotype, NCERT 12TH
14. Ans.(b) Allele, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 74
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 72 32. Ans.(b) Tt, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
15. Ans.(c) T and t, NCERT 12TH PAGE NUMBER 74
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 72 33. Ans.(c) WW, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
16. Ans.(a)Tt(Hybrid), NCERT 12TH PAGE NUMBER 74
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 72 34. Ans.(a) Mendel, NCERT 12TH
17. Ans.(A) Exactly as same as TT, NCERT STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 75
12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 72 35. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
18. Ans.(a) TT and tt, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 75
19. Ans.(b) Segregation, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 75
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 73 37. Ans.(b) Incomplete dominance,
20. Ans.(d) Heterozygous, NCERT 12TH NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
21. Ans.(c) Reginald C punnet, NCERT 38. Ans.(c) Pink, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 73 PAGE NUMBER 76
22. Ans.(a) TT, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 39. Ans.(a) 1, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
23. Ans.(d) All except b, NCERT 12TH 40. Ans.(c) 1:2:1, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
24. Ans.(c) 1:2:1, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 41. Ans.(d) Its functioning determines the
PAGE NUMBER 73 trait is wrong as it is property of

unmodified allele, NCERT 12TH 56. Ans.(d) Genes of two characters move
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 77 apart, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
42. Ans.(c) ABO blood group, NCERT 12TH NUMBER 80
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 77 57. Ans.(b) 4, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
43. Ans.(c) Sugar on plasma membrane, PAGE NUMBER 80
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE 58. Ans.(c) 9, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
NUMBER 77 PAGE NUMBER 80
45. Ans.(c) Both are dominant, NCERT 60. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
46. Ans.(c) 6,4, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 61. Ans.(d) B and C, NCERT 12TH
47. Ans.(c) ABO, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 62. Ans.(c) Independent pair of gene
PAGE NUMBER 78 segregate independently of each
48. Ans.(b) Only when population studies other, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
are made, NCERT 12TH STANDARD NUMBER 82
PAGE NUMBER 78 63. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
49. Ans.(d) Gene of starch synthesis STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 83
control unit character is wrong as it is 64. Ans.(d) Thomas Morgan, NCERT 12TH
pleiotropic gene, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 83
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 78 65. Ans.(d) Fruit fly, NCERT 12TH
50. Ans.(b) Yellow and round, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 83
51. Ans.(a) 2, NCERT 12TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 83
PAGE NUMBER 78 67. Ans.(b) He observed gamete didn’t
52. Ans.(c) One fourth, NCERT 12TH separate independently, NCERT 12TH
53. Ans.(b) 3, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 68. Ans.(c) Morgan, NCERT 12TH
54. Ans.(a) Round yellow(9), NCERT 12TH 69. Ans.(c) 1.3,37 ,NCERT 12TH
55. Ans.(c) 9:3:3:1, NCERT 12TH 70. Ans.(b) Sturtevant, NCERT 12TH
71. Ans.(b) Henking, NCERT 12TH

72. Ans.(b) X body, NCERT 12TH 87. Ans.(a) Female are carrier mostly,
73. Ans.(c) Grasshopper, NCERT 12TH NUMBER 89
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 85 88. Ans.(c) Sickle cell anemia, NCERT
74. Ans.(c)ZW(female is heterogametic), 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 89
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE 89. Ans.(b) Homozygous for HbS, NCERT
NUMBER 85 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 89
75. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 90. Ans.(d) Substitution of glutamic acid
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 85 by valine at 6th position of Beta
76. Ans.(a) ZZ(Male is homogametic), globulin chain of hemoglobin, NCERT
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 89
NUMBER 8M.. 91. Ans.(a) Phenylalanine, NCERT 12TH
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 86 92. Ans.(a) Aneuploidy, NCERT 12TH
78. Ans.(b) Hen, NCERT 12TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 90
PAGE NUMBER 86 93. Ans.(d)cytokinesis does not takes
79. Ans.(a) Chick(female is place , NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
heterogametic), NCERT 12TH NUMBER 90
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 87 96. Ans.(c) Gynecomastia, NCERT 12TH
82. Ans.(a) Point mutantion, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 91
83. Ans.(b) UV, NCERT 12TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 91
PAGE NUMBER 87 98. Ans.(d) Two gene of two character on
84. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH same chromosome, NCERT 12TH
85. Ans.(a) Hemophilia, NCERT 12TH 99. Ans.(d) Linked genes are too closely
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 88 located, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
86. Ans.(c) Autosomal dominant, NCERT PAGE NUMBER 83
12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 88 100. Ans.(d) A and B (Phenyleketonuria),
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
NUMBER 90

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

1. Nucleic acid are polymers of (b) 6.6×106nucleotides
(a) DNA (c) 3.3×106 nucleotide
(b) Nucleotides (d) 6.6 ×109base pair
(c) Nucleoside 8. Nitrogenous bases having single ring
(d) B and c is /are
2. RNA functions as genetic material in (a) Cytosine
(a) Plants (b) Thymine
(b) Bacteria (c) Uracil
(c) Virus (d) All of the above
(d) None 9. Nucleoside in DNA is
3. Process of making RNA from DNA is (a) Uridine
(a) Translation (b) Cytidine
(b) Translocation (c) Guanosine
(c) Transcription (d) None
(d) Transpiration 10. Bond responsible for linkage of
4. Translation is phosphatesand nucleoside is
(a) Process of synthesis of protein (a) Hydrogen
(b) Expressing protein in form of (b) Glycosidic
enzyme (c) Phsophoester
(c) Process of synthesis of mRNA (d) Peptide
(d) Movement of protein from 11. It is absent in a nucleotide
nucleus to cytoplasm (a) Nitrogenous base
5. Phi 174 Bacteriophage has how many (b) Sugar
nucleotides in its DNA (c) Phosphate group
(a) 48502 (d) None
(b) 5386 12. Backbone of polynucleotide chain is
(c) 4.6×106 formed by all except
(d) 3.3×109 (a) Sugar
6. Number of base pair in (b) Phosphate
Bacteriophagelambda is (c) Base
(a) 48506 (d) None
(b) 48502 13. Nucleotide residue has an OH group
(c) 5386 present at … position in ribose
(d) 46502 (a) 2’
7. Haploid Content of human DNA is (b) 3’
(a) 3.3×109base pair (c) 5’
14 | Molecular Basis of inheritance

(d) All except c 20. Distance between a base pair in helix
14. DNA as an acidic substance present in is equal to
nucleus was first identified by (a) 34nm
(a) Friedrich meischer (b) 3.4nm
(b) James Watson (c) 0.34nm
(c) Francis crick (d) 0.034nm
(d) Rosalind Franklin 21. Who proposed central dogma in
15. X-ray diffraction data produced by … molecular biology?
was used to propose double helix (a) James Watson
model (b) Francis crick
(a) James Watson (c) Rosalind Franklin
(b) Francis Crick (d) All of the above
(c) Maurice Wilkins 22. Information flows from DNA to RNA
(d) A and b to protein bythe process,
16. Double helical model was proposed (a) Replication
by James Watson and Francis crick in (b) Transcription
year (c) Translation
(a) 1869 (d) All of the above
(b) 1969 23. What is length of DNA double helix in
(c) 1853 a typical mammalian cell
(d) 1953 (a) 2.2nm
17. Ratio between adenine and thymine (b) 2.2cm
and guanine and cytosine is (c) 2.2m
(a) 0 (d) 2.2km
(b) 1 24. If length of E. coli DNA is 1.36mm
(c) 2 then what is number of base pair in E.
(d) Infinity coli
18. Erwin Chargaff is associated with (a) 4×102
(a) Translation (b) 4×104
(b) Reverse transcription (c) 4×106
(c) Double helical structure (d) 4×108
(d) Phosphoester bond 25. Histones are
19. Bases in two strands are paired (a) Basic
through … bond (b) Positively charged
(a) Glycosidic (c) Protein that keep DNA together
(b) Hydrogen (d) All of the above
(c) Carbon carbon 26. Histones are rich in following amino
(d) Phosphoester acid
(a) Arginine and glycine

(b) Lysine and glycine 33. When streptococcus bacteria was
(c) Lysine and arginine grown on culture plate , some
(d) Glutamic acid and lysine bacteria produced smooth colonies
27. Nucleosome is cluster of due to
(a) RNA and DNA (a) Presence of mucus Coat
(b) RNA and ribosome (b) Absence of polysaccharide coat
(c) DNA and histone (c) Absence of mucus coat
(d) DNA and mitochondria (d) Presence of polypeptide coat
28. Beads on string structure is name 34. When heat killed “ S” strain bacteria
given to was grown with live R strain and then
(a) Chromosome injected into mice then
(b) Histone (a) Mice doesn’tdevelop
(c) Nucleosome pneumonia
(d) Chromatin (b) Mice dies
29. Nucleosome is formed by how many (c) Mice survives
molecules of histone (d) A and c
(a) 2 35. According to transforming principle
(b) 4 (a) R strain had been transformer
(c) 6 by heat killed S strain
(d) 8 (b) S strain could synthesize smooth
30. Chromatin that is more densely polysaccharide coat and
packed and stains dark are called as become virulent after
(a) Euchromatin transforming some genetic
(b) Homochromatin material
(c) Heterochromatin (c) Heat killed S strain bacteria
(d) Facultative heterochromatin caused pneumonia
31. Select correct statement about (d) All of the above
euchromatin 36. Genetic material was thought to be
(a) Stains light ………before biochemical
(b) Is loosely packed characterization of transforming
(c) Is transcriptionally active principle
(d) All of the above (a) DNA
32. Frederick Griffith carried out series of (b) RNA
experiment on … bacteria (c) Carbohydrate
(a) Staphylococcus (d) Protein
(b) Streptococcus 37. Chemical from S bacteria that caused
(c) Corny bacterium R bacteria to be transformed
(d) Mycobacterium (a) DNA
(b) RNA

(c) Protein (b) Chemically and structurally be
(d) Any of the above stable
38. Unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic (c) Able to express itself in form of
material came from experiment of mendelian character
(a) Griffith (d) All of the above
(b) Alfred harshey and Martha 43. All of the following can replicate itself
chase except-
(c) James Watson and Francis crick (a) DNA
(d) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind (b) RNA
Franklin (c) Protein
39. Viruses grew on radioactive (d) B and c
phosphorous medium in Hershy - 44. RNA is labile and easily degradable
chase(1952) experiment contained due to presence of
(a) Radioactive DNA (a) Reactive phosphate group
(b) Radioactive protein (b) Hydroxyl group at 2’ position
(c) Radioactive RNA (c) Uracil
(d) A and b (d) All of the above
40. In Hershey Chase experiment, no 45. DNA is better genetic material
radioactivity detected in supernatant because
when (a) Is less reactive
(a) Bacteriophage contained (b) Structurally more stable
radioactive labeled protein (c) Less degradable when
capsule compared to RNA
(b) Bacteriophage contained (d) All of the above
Radioactive labeled DNA 46. Corona virus mutates at faster rate
(c) E. colicontained radioactive because of presence of
protein capsule (a) RNA as genetic material
(d) E. coli contained Radioactive (b) Mutating Polypeptide chain in
labeled DNA cytoplasm
41. Genetic material of QB and (c) Protein spikes on cell
TMVBacteriophageare membrane change according to
(a) DNA surrounding
(b) RNA (d) All of the above
(c) Protein 47. First formed genetic material is-
(d) None (a) Protein
42. Criteria required to a molecule which (b) RNA
act as genetic material (c) DNA
(a) Able to replicate (d) None

48. Semi conservative mode of DNA (d) 4
replication was given by- 54. Equal amount of hybrid DNA and light
(a) Watson and crick DNA was produced after how many
(b) Griffith minutes in experiment of semi
(c) Averye, Macleod and McCarty conservative DNA
(d) Hershey and Chase (a) 20
49. Experimental proof of (b) 40
semiconversative DNA replication was (c) 60
given by- (d) 80
(a) Watson and crick 55. If E. coli was allowed to grow for 80
(b) Matthew Meselson and Franklin min then what would be proportion
Stahl of light and hybrid density DNA
(c) Hershey and Chase molecules
(d) Wilkins and Franklin (a) 1:1
50. Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl (b) 1:3
performed experiment on (c) 1:2:1
(a) Staphylococcus (d) 9:1
(b) E. coli 56. Taylor performed experiments on
(c) Bacteriophage (a) E. coli
(d) Faba beans (b) Pea seed
51. In experiment of replication E. coli (c) Faba beans
was grown in heavy isotope of (d) Streptococcus
(a) Nitrogen 57. In Taylor experiment that also proved
(b) Copper that DNA replicates semi
(c) Chlorine conservatively, he used radioactive
(d) Magnesium (a) Adenine
52. In Meselson and Stahl replication (b) Guanosine
experiment, first generation of DNA (c) Uridine
replicationyield - (d) Thymidine
(a) Heavy DNA 58. E. coli has 4.6×10^6 bp and complete
(b) Hybrid DNA process of replication within 38 min
(c) Separate light and heavy DNA ,then what is average rate of
(d) Heavy DNA polymerization BP per second
53. After 40 min of Meselson and Stahl (a) 200
experiment yield how many hybrid (b) 2000
DNA (c) 20000
(a) 0 (d) 200000
(b) 1
(c) 2

59. Small opening of DNA helix where (a) Both strands act as template
replication occurs is they would code for RNA
(a) Origin of replication molecule with different
(b) Replication fork sequence
(c) Replication scissor (b) One segment of DNA would
(d) None code for 2 different protein
60. DNA dependent DNA polymerases (c) RNA molecule of one ds DNA
catalyze polymerization in would pair as they will be
(a) Multidirection complementary to each other
(b) 3’→5’ (d) All of the above
(c) 5’→3’ 66. Transcription unit in DNA is defined
(d) Any of the above primarily by
61. Template with polarity 3’→5’ polarity, (a) Promoter
replicationprocess is (b) Structural gene
(a) Continuous (c) Terminator
(b) Discontinuous (d) All of the above
(c) In small segment 67. Enzyme required for transcription is
(d) B and c (a) DNA dependent DNA
62. Discontinuously synthesized DNA polymerases
segments joined by (b) DNA dependent RNA
(a) DNA polymerase polymerase
(b) DNA ligase (c) RNA dependent DNA
(c) DNA lysase polymerase
(d) Transcriptase (d) RNA dependent RNA
63. In eukaryotes replication of DNA takes polymerase
place at …phase of cell cycle 68. Promoter is said to be located
(a) S towards …of structural gene-
(b) G1 (a) 3’ , upstream
(c) G2 (b) 5’upstream
(d) M (c) 3’downstream
64. In process of transcription adenosine (d) 5’ downstream
pairs with 69. Which of the following in
(a) Guanosine transcription unit defines template
(b) Uracil and coding strand?
(c) Thymine (a) DNA polymerase
(d) Cytosine (b) Promoter
65. Why both strands are not copied (c) Structural gene
during transcription ? (d) Terminator

70. Cistron is segment of 77. RNA polymerase 3 is responsible for
(a) DNA coding for DNA transcription of
(b) RNA coding for DNA (a) tRNA
(c) DNA coding for polypeptide (b) 5srRNA
(d) RNA coding for polypeptide (c) snRNA
71. Structural gene in transcription unit is (d) All of the above
polycistronic in 78. Which is precursor of mRNA in
(a) Bacteria plasmodium-
(b) Eukaryotes (a) snRNA
(c) Prokaryotes (b) hnRNA
(d) A and c (c) srRNA
72. Sequence that appears in mature or (d) hrRNA
processed RNA is 79. Splicing is process of
(a) Intron (a) Removal of intron
(b) Exon (b) Joining of intron
(c) Extron (c) Removal of of Exon
(d) Inon (d) B and c
73. Select the incorrect match 80. Intranscription,during capping an
(a) mRNA-template for unusual nucleotide is added at 5’end
transcription of hnRNA
(b) tRNA-reads genetic code (a) Methyl uracil triphosphate
(c) rRNA- catalytic role (b) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
(d) All of the above (c) Ethyl uracil triphosphate
74. Initiation step uses …as substrate (d) Ethyl guanosine triphosphate
(a) Nucleotide biphosphate 81. In tailing process
(b) Nucleoside biphosphate (a) 200-300 guanylate residue are
(c) Nucleotide triphosphata added at 3’ end
(d) Nucleoside triphosphate (b) 200-300 adenylate residue are
75. It is capable of catalyzing process of added at 3’ end
elongation- (c) 200-300 guanylate residue are
(a) DNA polymerase added at 5’ end
(b) RNA polymerase (d) 200-300 adenylate residue are
(c) DNA ligase added at 5’ end
(d) None 82. Process of translation requires
76. RNA polymerase 1 transcribes (a) Transfer of genetic information
(a) mRNA from polymer of Amino acid to
(b) tRNA polymer of nucleotide
(c) rRNA

(b) Transfer of genetic information (a) Phenylalanine
from polymer of Amino acid to (b) Serine
polymer of nucleoside (c) Tyrosine
(c) Transfer of genetic information (d) Stop codon
from polymer of nucleotide to 89. Basis for proof that codon is triplet
polymer of amino acid and read in contiguous manner
(d) Transfer of genetic information (a) Frame shift mutations
from polymer of nucleoside to (b) Deletion mutation
polymer of Amino acid (c) Insertion mutation
83. Genetic code is madeup of 3 (d) All of the above
nucleotides, It was stated by- 90. tRNA is also known as
(a) George Gamow (a) Adapter molecule
(b) Marshal Nirenberg (b) srRNA
(c) Severo Ochoa (c) snRNA
(d) Robert holley (d) All of the above
84. Who used cell free system of protein 91. Number of tRNA for stop codon are -
synthesis for deciphering code - (a) One.
(a) Severo Ochoa (b) Two
(b) Marshal Nirenberg (c) Three
(c) George Gamow (d) Absent
(d) A and b 92. Ribosome consists of how many
85. Severo Ochoa enzyme is protein-
(a) DNA polymerase (a) 21
(b) RNA polymerase (b) 46
(c) Polynucleotide phosphorylase (c) 80
(d) Polynucleoside phosphorylase (d) 95
86. Following is salient feature of genetic 93. Ribosome moves from codon to
code codon along
(a) Code is unambiguous (a) sRNA
(b) Code is degenerate (b) tRNA
(c) Code is universal (c) mRNA
(d) All of the above (d) rRNA
87. It is a initiator codon 94. …was first to elucidate a
(a) UAA transcriptionally regulated system
(b) AGA (a) Francois Jacob
(c) AAG (b) Jacque monod
(d) AUG (c) Severo Ochoa
88. First deciphered genetic code UUU (d) A and b
codes for

95. Which of the following, in lac operon 98. …is credited for developing method
geneis a regulatory gene- for sequencing in protein
(a) i (a) Friedrich Sanger
(b) z (b) Francois Jacob
(c) y (c) Jacque monod
(d) a (d) Marshal Nirenberg
96. Which of the following is a repressible 99. Largest human gene
operon (a) Myoglobin
(a) Lac (b) Dystrophin
(b) Trp (c) Hemoglobin
(c) Ara (d) Myosin
(d) None 100. …has fewest number of gene
97. Human genome sequencing project (a) 1
was launched in year (b) 21
(a) 1980 (c) X
(b) 1990 (d) Y
(c) 2000
(d) 2010
ANSWERS
1. Ans.(b) Nucleotide, NCERT 12TH 9. Ans.(d) None, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
2. Ans.(c) Virus, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 10. Ans.(c) Phosphoester, NCERT 12TH
3. Ans.(c) Transcription, NCERT 12TH 11. Ans.(d) None, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
4. Ans.(a) Process of synthesis of 12. Ans.(c) Base, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
protein, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE PAGE NUMBER 97
NUMBER 95 13. Ans.(d) All except c, NCERT 12TH
5. Ans.(b) 5386, NCERT 12TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 97
PAGE NUMBER 96 14. Ans.(a) Friedrich meischer, NCERT
6. Ans.(b) 48502, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 97
PAGE NUMBER 96 15. Ans.(c) Maurice Wilkins, NCERT 12TH
7. Ans.(a) 3.3×109 base pair, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 97
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 96 16. Ans.(d) 1953, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
8. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH PAGE NUMBER 97
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 96 17. Ans.(b) 1, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
PAGE NUMBER 97

18. Ans.(c) Double helical 35. Ans.(a) R strain had been transformer
structure(Purine = pyrimidine), NCERT by heat killed Strain, NCERT 12TH
12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 97 STANDARD PAGE NUMBER101
19. Ans.(b) Hydrogen bond, NCERT 12TH 36. Ans.(d) Protein, NCERT 12TH
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 97 STANDARD PAGE NUMBER101
20. Ans.(c) 0.34nm, NCERT 12TH 37. Ans.(a) DNA, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 98 PAGE NUMBER101
21. Ans.(b) Francis crick, NCERT 12TH 38. Ans.(b) Alfred Hershey and Martha
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 98 chase, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
22. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH NUMBER101
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 98 39. Ans.(a) Radioactive DNA, NCERT 12TH
23. Ans.(c) 2.2m, NCERT 12TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER101
PAGE NUMBER 99 40. Ans.(b)Bacteriophage contained
24. Ans.(c) 4×106,NCERT 12TH STANDARD Radioactive labeled DNA, NCERT 12TH
PAGE NUMBER 99 STANDARD PAGE NUMBER101
25. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 41. Ans.(b) RNA, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
26. Ans.(c) Lysine and arginine, NCERT 42. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
27. Ans.(c) DNA and histone, NCERT 12TH 43. Ans.(c) Protein, NCERT 12TH
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 99 STANDARD PAGE NUMBER103
28. Ans.(c) Nucleosome, NCERT 12TH 44. Ans.(b) Hydroxyl group at 2’ position,
29. Ans.(d) 8, NCERT 12TH STANDARD NUMBER103
PAGE NUMBER 99 45. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
30. Ans.(c) Heterochromatin, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER103
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 100 46. Ans.(a) RNA as genetic material,
31. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 100 NUMBER103
32. Ans.(b) Streptococcus, NCERT 12TH 47. Ans.(b) RNA, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
33. Ans.(a) Presence of mucus coat, 48. Ans.(a) Watson and crick, NCERT 12TH
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE STANDARD PAGE NUMBER104
NUMBER 100 49. Ans.(b) Matthew Meselson and
34. Ans.(b) Mice dies, NCERT 12TH Franklin Stahl, NCERT 12TH STANDARD

50. Ans.(b) E. coli, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 67. Ans.(b) DNA dependent RNA
PAGE NUMBER105 polymerase, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
51. Ans.(a) Nitrogen, NCERT 12TH PAGE NUMBER 108
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 105 68. Ans.(b) 5’ upstream, NCERT 12TH
52. Ans.(b) Hybrid DNA, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 108
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 105 69. Ans.(b) Promoter, NCERT 12TH
53. Ans.(c) 2, NCERT 12TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 108
PAGE NUMBER 105 70. Ans.(c) DNA coding for polypeptide,
54. Ans.(b) 40, NCERT 12TH STANDARD NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
PAGE NUMBER 105 NUMBER 108
55. Ans.(b) 1:3, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 71. Ans.(d) A and C, NCERT 12TH
56. Ans.(c) Faba beans, NCERT 12TH 72. Ans.(b) Exon, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
57. Ans.(d) Thymidine, NCERT 12TH 73. Ans.(a)mRNA-template for
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 106 transcription , NCERT 12TH
58. Ans.(b) 2000,NCERT 12TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 109
PAGE NUMBER 106 74. Ans.(d) Nucleoside triphosphate,
59. Ans.(b) Replication fork, NCERT 12TH NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
60. Ans.(c) 5’→3’ ,NCERT 12TH 75. Ans.(b) RNA polymerase, NCERT 12TH
61. Ans.(a) Continuous, NCERT 12TH 76. Ans.(c) rRNA, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
62. Ans.(b) DNA ligase, NCERT 12TH 77. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
63. Ans.(a) S,NCERT 12TH STANDARD 78. Ans.(b)hnRNA, NCERT 12TH
64. Ans.(b) Uracil, NCERT 12TH 79. Ans.(a) Removal of intron, NCERT
65. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 80. Ans.(b) Methyl guanosine
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 107 triphosphate, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
66. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH PAGE NUMBER 111
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 107 81. Ans.(b) 200-300 adenylate residue are
added at 3’ end, NCERT 12TH

82. Ans.(c)Transfer of genetic information
from polymer of nucleotide to 93. Ans.(c) mRNA, NCERT 12TH
polymer of amino acid, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 115
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 111 94. Ans.(d) Aand B, NCERT 12TH
83. Ans.(a) George Gamow, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 116
STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 111 95. Ans.(a) I,NCERT 12TH STANDARD
84. Ans.(b) Marshall Nirenberg, NCERT PAGE NUMBER 116
12TH STANDARD PAGE NUMBER 112 96. Ans.(b) Trp, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
85. Ans.(c) Polynucleotide phosphorylase, PAGE NUMBER 116
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE 97. Ans.(b) 1990, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
NUMBER 112 PAGE NUMBER 118
86. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 98. Ans.(a) Friedrich Sanger ,NCERT 12TH
87. Ans.(d) AUG,NCERT 12TH STANDARD 99. Ans.(b) Dystrophin, NCERT 12TH
88. Ans.(a) Phenylalanine, NCERT 12TH 100. Ans.(d) Y,NCERT 12TH STANDARD
89. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
90. Ans.(a) Adapter molecule, NCERT
91. Ans.(d) Absent, NCERT 12TH
92. Ans.(c) 80, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
PAGE NUMBER 115

EVOLUTION
1. On Study of history of life form on (b) Galaxies have been formed since
earth is 4.5 million years ago
(a) Cosmology (c) UV rays was responsible for
(b) Biogenesis production of oxides of carbon
(c) Abiogenies (d) Reducing atmosphereprevailing
(d) Evolutionary biology during chemical evolution
2. Universe is about… …. Years old 7. According to Greek earlier beliefs,Life
(a) 20 million came from
(b) 2 billion (a) Outer space
(c) 200 billion (b) Transferred in form of spore
(d) 20 billion (c) Panspermia
3. Select the correct statement (d) All of the above
(a) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise 8. Theory of spontaneous generation is
universe (a) Universe expanded and
(b) Huge clusters of universe temperature came down
comprise of galaxies (b) Life came out of decaying and
(c) Age of universe is 20 millions years rotting matter like straw and mud
(d) Big bang theory is all about origin (c) Life came on earth by transfer of
of Earth unit of life
4. Big Bang Theory explains (d) Spores are responsible for life on
(a) Origin of universe Earth
(b) Evolution of life 9. Oparin and Haldane were from… ..to
(c) Origin of Earth propose life came from non living
(d) Evolution of oxygen organic molecules
5. Earth was supposed to have been (a) Russia and England
formed about by… ….years back (b) England and Russia
(a) 4.5 million (c) Geneva and England
(b) 45 million (d) England and France
(c) 4.5 billion 10. It was originated by 2000 million years
(d) 45 billion ago
6. All of the following is true except (a) Non cellular forms of life
(a) There was no atmosphere on early (b) Cellular form of life
earth (c) Protein
(d) RNA

11. Who concluded that existing living (c) Some fossils are similar to modern
forms share similarities to varying organism
degrees not only among themselves (d) Dinosaurs represent extinct
but also with life forms that existed organism
millions years ago 15. Hearts of Vertebrates show
(a) Oparin and Haldane (a) Divergent evolution
(b) Abbe Lemaitre (b) Convergent evolution
(c) Charles Darwin (c) Analogous structure
(d) HMS beagle (d) A and c
12. Different aged rock sediment contain 16. Analogous structure are result of
(a) Fossil of same life form who (a) Divergent evolution
probably died during formation of (b) Convergent evolution
particular sediment (c) Homologous evolution
(b) Fossil of different life form who (d) None
probably died during formation of 17. All of the following are examples of
sediment convergent evolution except
(c) Fossil of same life form who (a) Thorn of bougainvillea and tendril
probably died after formation of of Cucurbita’s
particular sediment (b) Sweet potato and potato
(d) Fossil of different life form who (c) Eye of octopus and human eye
probably died after formation of (d) All
particular sediment 18. All of the following is true except
13. Fossils - (a) Eye of octopus and mammals is
(a) are Old life form that died during convergent evolution
sediment formation (b) Brain of vertebrate is convergent
(b) Some old organism that appear evolution
similar to modern organism in (c) Flippers of penguin and dolphin
fossil are analogous structure
(c) Are remains of hard part of life (d) Pisun and cucurbita tendril is
form analogous organ
(d) All 19. Identify A, B
14. All of the following is true except
(a) Ages of fossils cannot be found
out
(b) Radioactive dating includes
uranium lead method
62 |Evolution
(a) Melanic moths dominated
(b) White winged moths were low
(c) Both
(d) None
23. Selection of resistant varieties can be
seen in excess use of
(a) A is bougainvillea (a) Herbicide
(b) B is Cucurbitas (b) Pesticides
(c) B is bougainvillea (c) Antimicrobial
(d) None (d) All of the above
20. All of the following is true about below 24. Antibiotics shouldn’t be taken in
picture except excess because
(a) Cause inadequate response
(b) Increase in antimicrobial resistant
bacteria
(c) Immunity for life
(d) None
25. Due to anthropogenic action, Resistant
organism are appearing in time scale
of
(a) Months
(b) Years
(c) Centuries
(d) A and b
(a) Shows different structure evolving for 26. Anthropogenecity is
same functions (a) Selection of resistant varieties
(b) Are analogous structure due to excess use of chemical
(c) Aren’t anatomically similar (b) Selection of resistant varieties due
(d) All of the above to inadequate use of chemical
21. Reversal of proportion of white to (c) Different structure evolving for
black winged moths Was seen same functions
(a) After industrialization (d) None
(b) Before industrialization 27. which of the following are
(c) By 1850 anthropogenic action
(d) B and c (a) Industrial melanism
22. Area where industrialization didn’t
occur
63 |Evolution
(b) Excess use of herbicide and (a) Adaptive Convergence
pesticides (b) Convergent evolution
(c) Excess use of antibiotics (c) Darwin’s finches
(d) All (d) All of the above
28. In A… moth survived and could mask 33. All of the following is example of
themselves in lichen Marsupial animal except
(a) Numbat
(b) Spotted cuscus
(c) Flying phalanger
(d) None
(a) Black 34. All of the following show adaptive
(b) Melanised radiation except
(c) White (a) Mole
(d) A and b (b) Marsupial mole
29. Tryanosaurus evolved from (c) Flying squirrel
(a) Triceratops (d) None
(b) Brachiosaurs 35. Select correct statement
(c) Stegosaurus (a) Essence of Darwinian theory
(d) None about evolution is natural selection
30. Darwin’s finches are (b) Rate of appearance of new forms
(a) Large white birds is linked to life span and life cycle
(b) Small white birds (c) Microbes that divide fast have
(c) Small black birds ability to multiply and become millions
(d) None of individuals within hours with inbuilt
31. The process of evolution of different variation
species in given geographical area (d) All of the above
starting from point and radiating to 36. Key concepts of Darwinian theory of
other areas of geography evolution
(a) Anthropogenic action (a) Branching descent
(b) Convergent evolution (b) Natural selection
(c) Adaptive radiation (c) Both
(d) All of the above (d) None
32. Following diagram shows
64 |Evolution
37. Lamarck studied (c) He believed that it is mutation
(a) Industrial melanism which caused evolution and not minor
(b) Anthropogenic action variation that are Heritable as given by
(c) Adaptive radiation Darwin
(d) Evolution due to use and disuse (d) Mutation causes gradual changes
38. Long necks of Giraffeis due to 43. Darwinian variations are
(a) Inheritance of character (a) Random and directionless
(b) Natural selection (b) Steady and directionless
(c) Both (c) Small and directionless
(d) None (d) Small and directional
39. Natural selection is based on 44. Factors which affect hardy Weinberg
(a) Limitations of resources equilibrium
(b) Stable population (a) Gene flow
(c) Members of population (b) Gene migration
(d) All of the above (c) Mutation
40. Population size curve In bacteria is (d) All
(a) S shaped 45. Select correct statement
(b) Exponential (a) Gene migration result in change
(c) Inverted in gene frequency in both old and new
(d) U shaped population
41. Darwin’s assertion included (b) There will be gene flow if gene
(a) Heritable variations which enable migration occurs single time
to reproduce and leave more progeny (c) There will be gene migration by
(b) Variations which make resource chance is genetic drift
utilization better for few enable to (d) A and c
reproduce and produce more progeny 46. Microbial experiments in evolution
(c) Variations which make adapted to shows that
habitat better enable to reproduce (a) Pre existing advantageous
and produce more progeny mutations when selected will result in
(d) All of the above observation of new phenotype
42. All of the following is true about (b) Existing any mutations when
evolution except selected will result in observation of
(a) Hugo de varies worked on new phenotype
evening primrose (c) Pre-existing mutations will result
(b) He brought forth idea of mutation in observation of new genotype
which is random and directionless (d) None
65 |Evolution
47. Stabilization in natural selection is (a) Stabilization
(a) More individuals acquire mean (b) Directional changes
character value (c) Disruption
(b) More individuals acquire value (d) B and c
other than mean character 51. All of the following is true except
(c) More individuals acquire (a) Slowly single celled organism
peripheral character value at both became Multicellular life form
ends of distributive curve (b) By time of 500 mya, invertebrates
(d) All of the above were formed and active
48. In given population if more individuals (c) Jawless fish probably evolved
acquire peripheral character value at around 350 mya
both ends of distributive curve then it (d) First photoautotrophic organism
is was plant
(a) Stabilization 52. Sea weeds and few plants existed
(b) Directional changes probably around .. Mya
(c) Disruption (a) 2000
(d) None (b) 500
49. In given population if more individuals (c) 350
acquire mean character value then it is (d) None
(a) Stabilization 53. Coelocanth fish with stout and strong
(b) Directional changes fins which make them enable to move
(c) Disruption on land was present around
(d) B and c (a) 2000 mya
50. Identify b (b) 500 mya
(c) 350 mya
(d) None
54. Coelacanth was caught in
(a) 1938 in South Africa
(b) 1938 in North Africa
(c) 1938 in South America
(d) 1938 in North America
66 |Evolution
55. Select the correct ascending order of (a) Ferns
evolution (b) Horsetail
(a) Psilophyton, Rhynia type, (c) Monocots
Tracheophyte, Chlorophyte (d) None
(b) Chlorophyte, Tracheophyte, 61. Select incorrect statement regarding
Rhynia type, Psilophyton amphibians
(c) Chlorophyte, Rhynia type, (a) Evolved into reptiles
Tracheophyte, Psilophyton (b) Evolved from lobefins
(d) Psilophyton, Tracheophyte, (c) Salamander lays thick walled egg
Rhynia type, Chlorophyte (d) All of the above
56. Ferns and horsetail originated in… era 62. During evolution, Some of land reptiles
(a) Paleozoic went back into water to evolve into
(b) Mesozoic fish like reptiles around
(c) Cenozoic (a) 1200mya
(d) None (b) 2000 mya
57. Horsetail are (c) 200 mya
(a) Sphenopsids (d) 120 mya
(b) Ferns 63. Ichthyosaurs is a
(c) Gingko (a) Reptiles
(d) Conifer (b) Fish
58. It is known as age of cycads (c) Aves
(a) Paleozoic (d) Mammal
(b) Mesozoic 64. All of the following is true about
(c) Cenozoic Tyrannosaurus except
(d) None (a) Biggest of dinosaurs is
59. Select descending order of evolution Tyrannosaurus Rex
(a) Permian, Jurassic, Triassic, (b) Tyrannosaurs Rex was about 20
Cretaceous feet in height
(b) Permian, Triassic, Jurassic, (c) Had huge fearsome dagger like
Cretaceous teeth
(c) Cretaceous, Jurassic, Triassic, (d) It was water reptile
Permian 65. All of the following is true except
(d) Cretaceous, Triassic, Jurassic, (a) There were mammals resembling
Permian horse, hippopotamus, bear, rabbit, etc
60. All of the following organism belonged in South America
to Carboniferous period except
67 |Evolution
(b) Due to continental drift, when 69. Sea cows is a
South America joined North America, (a) Mammals
these animals were overridden by (b) Fish
South America flora (c) Amphibians
(c) Due to continental drift, when (d) None
South America joined North America, 70. Mammals evolved from
these animals were overridden by
North America fauna
(d) Continental shrift saved
marsupials in Australia
66. All of the following is true except
(a) Tryanosaurus Rex was about 20
feet in height
(b) Whales, dolphins, seals and sea
cows are water mammals
(c) Due to continental drift pouched
mammals of Australia survived
because of lack of competition from
any other mammals
(d) Self- consciousness is a defining
feature of animal kingdom
67. Select the correct statement
(a) Due to continental drift, when
(a) A
South America joined North (b) B
America ,these animals were (c) C
overridden by North America (d) None
(b) Mammals are mostly Viviparous 71. Therapsids extinct around
(c) Reptiles evolved into fish like (a) Silurian
(b) Quaternary
reptiles around 200 mya
(c) Jurassic
(d) All of the above (d) Carboniferous
68. All of the following is true about 72. Evolution of angiosperms was
mammals except simultaneous with-
(a) First mammals were shrew like (a) Evolution of dinosaurs
(b) Shrews fossil were small sized (b) Extinction of dinosaurs
(c) Are more intelligent in sensing (c) Evolution of early reptiles
(d) None (d) Extinction of early reptiles
68 |Evolution
73. Event/events occurred during (c) 1.5
Mesozoic era (d) 40,000
(a) Is age of Gymnosperm 79. This had brain capacity of 1400 cc
(b) Dinosaur extincted (a) Australopithecus
(c) Gnaetales were seen (b) Homo habilis
(d) All of the above (c) Homo erectus
74. Select the correct match (d) Neanderthal man
(a) Thecodonts -Saurospsids 80. Neanderthal man lived near
(b) Therapsids -Synapsids (a) Central Africa
(c) Pelycosaurs -Synapsids (b) Eastern Africa
(d) All of the above (c) East and central Asia
75. According to discovery in Ethiopia and (d) A and b
Tanzania man like primates walked 81. During Ice Age between… ….years ago
in …….. Africa modern homo sapiens arose
(a) 300-400, East Africa (a) 2 mya
(b) 30-40, south Africa (b) 100000-40000years back
(c) 3-4, East Africa (c) 18000 years back
(d) 3-4, west Africa’s (d) 75000-10,000
76. Brain capacity of… was between 650- 82. Identify a b, c
800 cc
(a) Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Neanderthal
(d) Homo sapiens
77. Select the correct statement
(a) Man like primates that walked in
Eastern Africa walked upright
(b) 2 mya Australopithecus probably
lived in Eastern African grassland
(c) Evidence shows Australopithecus
hunted with stone weapons
(d) All of the above (a) A is skull of adult modern human
78. Homo erectus lived in Java being
around …..mya (b) B is skull of baby chimpanzee
(a) 3-4 (c) C is skull of adult chimpanzee
(b) 2 (d) All of the above
69 |Evolution
83. Select the correct match 88. SL Miller experimented flask included
(a) Pre historic cave art -18000 years all except
ago (a) Methane
(b) Homo sapiens arose – 75000- (b) Oxygen
10000 years ago (c) Ammonia
(c) Agriculture -10000 years ago (d) hydrogen
(d) All of the above 89. Analysis of meteorite content
84. All of the following happened after indicated
oxygen combined with methane (a) Process similar to SL Miller
(a) Ozone was formed experiment occurs elsewhere in space
(b) Water vapour fell as rain (b) Single huge explosion responsible
(c) Rain filled in depression and forms for gasses formation
of ocean (c) Chemical evolution only took
(d) All of the above place on earth
85. Theory of chemical evolution was (d) All
given by 90. Initially all life forms were present in
(a) Louis pasture (a) Air
(b) Richter and helmhotlz (b) Water
(c) Oparin and Haldane (c) Soil
(d) Ernest hackel (d) All of the above
86. Theory of chemical evolution is 91. Identify f
formation of
(a) Inorganic molecules from organic
constituents
(b) Organic molecules from inorganic
constituents
(c) Formation of diverse organic
molecules through metabolism
(d) All
87. Experiment with electric discharge in
closed flask was done by
(a) Oparin and Haldane
(b) Abbe Lemaitre
(a) Cooler
(c) Louis pasture
(b) Condenser
(d) SL Miller
(c) Vacuum
(d) Heater
70 |Evolution
92. Darwin implied… . As mechanism of (c) Analogous organ
evolution (d) None
(a) Variation as mechanism of 97. Structure of divergent evolution are
natural selection (a) Homologous
(b) Reproductive fitness (b) Analogous
(c) Natural selection (c) Semilogous
(d) A and b (d) Heterologous
93. All of the following is true except 98. Homologous structure include all
(a) Fitness according to Darwin except
ultimately and only refers to (a) Brain of vertebrate
reproductive fitness (b) Eye of octopus and mammals
(b) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist who (c) Metacarpal of whale and bat
worked in Malay archipelago had came (d) Thorn and tendril of bougainvillea
to similar conclusions around same and Cucurbita
time as that of Darwin 99. Agriculture came around …. Years back
(c) All the existing biodiversity share (a) 75000-10000
similarities and common ancestors (b) 40000
(d) None (c) 18000
94. Select incorrect match (d) 10,000
(a) Darwin – reproductive fitness 100. Brain capacity of homo habilis and
(b) Alfred Wallace -Malayarchipelago erectus was about
(c) Oparin and Haldane -spontaneous (a) 900 cc
generation (b) 650-800 cc
(d) Miller -Urey – proof for chemical (c) 650-800 cc, 900 cc
evolution (d) 900,650-800 cc
95. True about Forelimb of bat and
cheetah is
(a) Are similar in pattern
(b) Perform different functions
(c) Similar anatomical structure
96. Same structure developed along
different directions due to adaptation
to different needs is
(a) Divergent evolution
(b) Convergent evolution
71 |Evolution
HINTS & ANSWERS
1. Ans.(d) Evolutionary biology, NCERT 18. Ans.(b)Brain of vertebrate is
Page Number. 126 convergent evolution, NCERT Page
2. Ans.(d)20 billion, NCERT Page Number. Number. 131
127 19. Ans.(c) B is bougainvillea, NCERT Page
3. Ans.(a)Huge clusters of galaxies Number. 131
comprise universe, NCERT Page 20. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page
4. Ans.(a)Origin of universe, NCERT Page 21. Ans.(a)After industrialization, NCERT
5. Ans.(c)4.5 billion, NCERT Page Number. 22. Ans.(d) None, NCERT Page Number.
127 132
6. Ans.(b)Galaxies have been formed 23. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT Page
since 4.5 million years ago, NCERT Number. 132
Page Number. 127 24. Ans.(b)Increase in antimicrobial
7. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page resistant bacteria, NCERT Page
8. Ans.(b)Life came out of decaying and 25. Ans.(a)Months, NCERT Page Number.
rotting matter like straw and mud, 132
NCERT Page Number. 127 26. Ans.(a)Selection of resistant varieties
9. Ans.(a) Russia and England, NCERT due to excess use of chemical, NCERT
Page Number. 127 Page Number. 132
10. Ans.(b) Cellular form of life, NCERT 27. Ans.(d) All, NCERT Page Number. 132
Page Number. 128 28. Ans.(c)White, NCERT Page Number.
11. Ans.(c)Charles Darwin, NCERT Page 132
Number. 128 29. Ans.(b)Brachiosaurs, NCERT Page
12. Ans.(b)Fossil of different life form who Number. 130
probably died during formation of 30. Ans.(c)Small black birds, NCERT Page
sediment, NCERT Page Number. 129 Number. 132
13. Ans.(c) Are remains of hard part of life 31. Ans.(c)Adaptive radiation, NCERT Page
form, NCERT Page Number. 129 Number. 133
14. Ans.(a)Ages of fossils cannot be found 32. Ans.(c)Darwin’s finches, NCERT Page
out, NCERT Page Number. 129 Number. 133
15. Ans.(a) Divergent evolution, NCERT 33. Ans.(d) None, NCERT Page Number.
Page Number. 130 134
16. Ans.(b) Convergent evolution, NCERT 34. Ans.(d) None, NCERT Page Number.
Page Number. 131 134
17. Ans.(a) Thorn of bougainvillea and 35. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page
tendril of Cucurbita’s, NCERT Page Number. 134
Number. 131 36. Ans.(c) Both, NCERT Page Number. 134
37. Ans.(d)Evolution due to use and disuse,
NCERT Page Number. 134

38. Ans.(c) Both, NCERT Page Number. 135 57. Ans.(a) Sphenopsids, NCERT Page
39. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page Number. 138
Number. 135 58. Ans.(b)Mesozoic, NCERT Page Number.
40. Ans.(b)Exponential, NCERT Page 138
Number. 135 59. Ans.(c)Cretaceous, Jurassic, Triassic,
41. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT Page Permian, NCERT Page Number. 138
Number. 135 60. Ans.(c)Monocots, NCERT Page
42. Ans.(d)Mutation causes gradual Number. 138
changes, NCERT Page Number. 135 61. Ans.(c) Salamander is amphibia,
43. Ans.(d)Small and directional, NCERT NCERT Page Number. 139
Page Number. 135 62. Ans.(c)200 mya, NCERT Page Number.
44. Ans.(d) All, NCERT Page Number. 137 140
45. Ans.(d) A and c, NCERT Page Number. 63. Ans.(a)Reptiles, NCERT Page Number.
137 140
46. Ans.(a)Pre existing advantageous 64. Ans.(d)It was water reptile, NCERT
mutations when selected will result in Page Number. 140
observation of new phenotype, NCERT 65. Ans.(b)Due to continental drift, when
Page Number. 137 South America joined North America,
47. Ans.(a)More individuals acquire mean these animals were overridden by
character value, NCERT Page Number. South America flora, NCERT Page
137 Number. 140
48. Ans.(c) Disruption, NCERT Page 66. Ans.(d)Self- consciousness is a defining
Number. 137 feature of animal kingdom, NCERT
49. Ans.(a)Stabilization, NCERT Page Page Number. 140
Number. 137 67. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT Page
50. Ans.(b)Directional changes, NCERT Number. 140
Page Number. 136 68. Ans.(d) None, NCERT Page Number.
51. Ans.(d)First photoautotrophic 140
organism was plant, NCERT Page 69. Ans.(a) None, NCERT Page Number.
Number. 138 140
52. Ans.(d)None, NCERT Page Number. 70. Ans.(a) A/synapsid, NCERT Page
138 Number. 139
53. Ans.(c)350 mya, NCERT Page Number. 71. Ans.(c)Jurassic, NCERT Page Number.
138 139
54. Ans.(a)1938 in South Africa, NCERT 72. Ans.(b)Extinction of dinosaurs, NCERT
Page Number. 138 Page Number. 139
55. Ans.(b)Chlorophyte, Tracheophyte, 73. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT Page
Rhynia type, Psilophyton, NCERT Page Number. 139
Number. 138 74. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT Page
56. Ans.(a) Paleozoic, NCERT Page Number. Number. 139
138 75. Ans.(c) 3-4, East Africa, NCERT Page
Number. 140
73 |Evolution
76. Ans.(a)Homo habilis, NCERT Page 96. Ans.(a) Divergent evolution, NCERT
77. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT Page 97. Ans.(a) Homologous, NCERT Page
78. Ans.(c) 1.5, NCERT Page Number. 140 98. Ans.(b) Eye of octopus and mammals,
79. Ans.(d)Neanderthal man, NCERT Page NCERT Page Number. 130
Number. 141 99. Ans.(d)10,000, NCERT Page Number.
80. Ans.(c)East and central Asia, NCERT 141
Page Number. 141 100. Ans.(c)650-800 cc, 900 cc, NCERT Page
81. Ans.(d)75000-10,000, NCERT Page Number. 141
Number. 141
82. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT Page
Number. 141
83. Ans.(d)All of the above, NCERT Page
Number. 141
84. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page
Number. 127
85. Ans.(c) Oparin and Haldane, NCERT
Page Number. 127
86. Ans.(b)Organic molecules from
inorganic constituents, NCERT Page
Number. 127
87. Ans.(d)SL Miller, NCERT Page Number.
127
88. Ans.(b) Oxygen, NCERT Page Number.
127
89. Ans.(a)Process similar to SL Miller
experiment occurs elsewhere in space,
NCERT Page Number. 127
90. Ans.(b)Water, NCERT Page Number.
128
91. Ans.(b)Condenser, NCERT Page
Number. 128
92. Ans.(d) A and b, NCERT Page Number.
129
93. Ans.(d) None, NCERT Page Number.
129
94. Ans.(c) Oparin and Haldane -
spontaneous generation, NCERT Page
Number. 129
95. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT Page
Number. 129
74 |Evolution
BIOTECHNOLOGY PRINCIPLES AND PROCESS

1. Biotechnology deals with techniques 6. The integration of natural science and
of using organism, cells, parts thereof, and
(a) Live organism to produce molecular analogues for products and
products useful to humans services is called -
(b) Live organism to produce process (a) Biotechnology
useful to humans (b) Recombinant hybridization
(c) Enzymes from organism to (c) Genetic engineering
produce products useful to humans (d) PCR
(d) All of the above 7. Techniques to alter chemistry of
2. Process which uses genetically genetic material is Done in order to
modified organism to makingproduct introduce into host organism and thus
on large scale is changes phenotype of host organism is
(a) Biotechnology (a) Genetic engineering
(b) Microbiology (b) Chemical engineering
(c) Genetic engineering (c) Genetic grafting
(d) B and c (d) All of the above
3. In vitro fertilization leading to test ube 8. Manufacture of products in
baby is example of biotechnology like antibiotics, vaccines
(a) Microbiology and enzymes require
(b) Biotechnology (a) Maintenance of sterile ambience
(c) Biogenesis (b) Microbial contamination free
(d) None growth
4. Biotechnology includes (c) Genetic engineering
(a) In vitro fertilization (d) All
(b) Synthesizing a gene and using it 9. Type of reproduction which preserves
(c) Correcting defective gene genetic information
(d) All of the above (a) Asexual
5. EFB is (b) Vegetative
(a) European federation of (c) Sexual
biotechnology (d) A and b
(b) European foundation of biology 10. Traditional hybridization procedures
(c) European freedom of Bioecology lead to
(d) European foundation for (a) Inclusion and multiplication of
biotechnology undesirable gene only
40 | Biotechnology principles & processes

(b) Inclusion and multiplication of (b) Recombinant DNA
undesirable gene along with (c) Host DNA
desirable gene (d) All of the above
(c) Inclusion and multiplication of 16. Who is responsible for construction
desirable gene only of first recombinant DNA by using
(d) All of the above streptococcus plasmid in 1972-
11. Technique of genetic engineering (a) Stanley Cohenand Herbert Boyer
which includes (b) Abbe Lemaitre
(a) creation of recombinant DNA (c) Arber, Nathan and smith
(b) Use of gene cloning (d) None
(c) Use of gene transfer 17. Cutting of DNA at specific location
(d) All of the above became possible with discovery of
12. Alien DNA is linked with…..so that this (a) Molecular scissors
alien piece of DNA can replicate and (b) Restriction enzymes
multiply itself in host organism (c) Ligases
(a) Origin of replication (d) A and b
(b) Selectable marker site 18. All of the following is true except
(c) Cloning site (a) Plasmid of salmonella typhi was
(d) All of the above used for making first recombinant
13. Cloning is DNA
(a) Making multiple identical copies (b) sexual spore provides
of any template DNA opportunities for variations and
(b) Making single non identical formulation of unique
copies of any template DNA combination of genetic setup
(c) Making single identical copy of (c) Recombinant DNA overcomes
any template DNA limitation of passing of
(d) None undesirable gene in progeny
14. Cloning requires (d) Asexual reproduction provide
(a) Alien DNA opportunity for new combination
(b) Origin of replication 19. Molecular scissors are also known as
(c) Host DNA with replication (a) Restriction enzymes
capacity (b) Protection enzymes
(d) All of the above (c) Scissoring enzymes
15. Autonomously replicating circular (d) A and c
extra chromosomal DNA is 20. It acts as vectors to transfer piece of
(a) Plasmid DNA attached to it

(a) Restriction enzymes (a) Its own RNA polymerase and own
(b) Host chromosome ORI
(c) Plasmid DNA (b) Its own DNA polymerase but host
(d) B and c ORI
21. Plasmid can be used as vectors to (c) Hosts DNA polymerase and own
deliver ORI
(a) An alien piece of DNA into host (d) None
organism 26. Basic steps in genetically modifying an
(b) An host DNA into alien organisms organism is
(c) An alien piece of DNA into (a) Identification of DNA with
Plasmid desirable gene
(d) All of the above (b) Vector Transfer
22. Select the correct match (c) Cloning
(a) Salmonella typhi – first (d) All of the above
recombinant DNA 27. All of the following are key tools of
(b) Restriction enzymes -molecular recombinant biotechnology except
scissors (a) Restriction enzymes
(c) DNA Ligases -joins cut end (b) Vector
(d) All of the above (c) Ligases
23. Recombinant DNA is (d) RNA polymerase
(a) Circular autonomously replicating 28. This adds methyl group to host
DNA genome to protect from own
(b) Circular non autonomous Restriction endonuclease-
replicating DNA (a) Restriction enzymes
(c) Circular non autonomous non (b) Restriction endonuclease
replicating DNA (c) Restriction exonuclease
(d) All of the above (d) Methylase
24. Cohen and Boyer transferredantibiotic 29. All of the following is true except
resistant recombinant DNA in- (a) The first restriction endonuclease
(a) E. coli is Hind II
(b) Salmonella (b) Functioning of Hind II depended
(c) Staphylococcus on specific DNA nucleotide
(d) Streptococci sequence
25. Recombinant DNA in host would (c) Hind II was isolated and
replicate using characterized 5 years later

(d) Hind II recognize 8bp sequence in of Bacteriophage in Escherichia
DNA coli were isolated
30. Hind II always cut DNA molecules at (d) All of the above
particular point by recognizing a 35. Roman number in enzymes name
specific sequence of… base pairs indicates
(a) 5 (a) Gene
(b) 6 (b) Species of Prokaryotic cell
(c) 4 (c) Order in which enzymes were
(d) 3 isolated from strain of bacteria
31. Specific base sequence is known as (d) None
(a) Origin of replication 36. Restriction enzymes belong to larger
(b) Recognition sequence class of enzymes called
(c) Palindromic sequence (a) Nucleases
(d) All of the above (b) Cytoplasmases
32. First letter of naming restriction (c) Reticuloendotheliases
enzymes comes from (d) Mitochondrases
(a) Genes 37. Nucleases which make cuts at specific
(b) Genus position within DNA
(c) Species (a) Endonuclease
(d) None (b) Exonuclease
33. EcoRI comes from (c) Restriction endonuclease
(a) Escherichia coli RY 13 (d) All of the above
(b) Echerichia coli RI 13 38. Restriction endonuclease bind to
(c) Escherichia coli RY 17 (a) DNA polymerase
(d) Escherichia coli RI 17 (b) DNA
34. Select the correct statement (c) RNA polymerase
(a) Vectors and host organism are (d) RNA
also key tools in recombinant 39. Select the incorrect statement
DNA technology (a) Restriction endonuclease belong
(b) The linking of antibiotic to larger class of enzymes called
resistance gene with Plasmid Nucleases
vector became possible with (b) There are 2 kinds of Nucleases -
discovery of Ligases Endonucleases and Exonucleases
(c) In year 1963, two enzymes (c) Exonucleases remove nucleotide
responsible for restricting growth from ends of DNA

(d) No restriction enzyme produces (d) None
blunt end 44. Enzyme that cuts both DNA strands at
40. Once restriction endonuclease finds same site is
its specific recognition sequence, (a) DNA Ligases
(a) It will bind to DNA any where (b) Nucleases
(b) It will cut each of 2 strands of (c) Restriction enzymes
double helix (d) None
(c) Both 45. EcoRI cuts DNA between bases
(d) None (a) A and C
41. Once restriction endonuclease finds (b) G and A
its specific recognition sequence, (c) T and A
(a) It will cut one strand of double (d) C and G
helix 46. Specific sequence that is cut by Eco RI
(b) It will cut both strands of double is
helix (a) GTTAAC
(c) It will remove nucleotides from (b) GAATTC
one strand of double helix (c) CAATTG
(d) It will legate both strands of (d) A AND C
double helix 47. Sticky end in case of EcoRI is
42. Group of letter that form same words (a) TTAAG
when read both forward and (b) TTAAC
backwards is (c) TTAA
(a) Palindromes (d) A AND B
(b) Palindrones 48. Identify a, b and c
(c) Palimdromes
(d) Palimdrones
43. Palindrome in DNA is a sequence of
(a) Base pairs that read same on
same strand when orientation is
kept the same
(b) Nucleotide that reads same on
two strands when orientation of
reading is kept same
(c) Base pairs that reads same on
two strands when orientation of (a) A is hind 2
reading is kept same (b) B is DNA fragments are joined by
Exonucleases

(c) Recombinant DNA polymerase (c) DNA can be seen byusing UV light
(d) None and Ethidium bromide stain gel
49. Restriction enzymes Eco R I cut electrophoresis
strands of DNA (d) Longest DNA fragment is nearest to
(a) At centre anode in gel electrophoresis
(b) A little away from centre 54. Most commonly used matrix
(c) Between 2 non same bases agaroseis natural polymer extracted
(d) All of the above from
50. Sticky ends of DNA in genetic (a) Sea weeds
engineeringare named so because (b) Sea anemone
they form (c) Sea cows
(a) Ionic bond (d) Any of the above
(b) Hydrogen bond 55. DNA fragments resolve according to
(c) Covalent Bond (a) Size of DNA
(d) All of the above (b) Weight of DNA
51. With the application of this enzyme, (c) Size of sieve
resultant DNA fragments have same (d) Viscosity of matrix
kind of sticky end 56. Bacteriophage is used in genetic
(a) Different restriction enzymes engineering because-
(b) Same restriction enzymes (a) Can replicate within bacterial cell
(c) Ligase as it has ORI
(d) Endonuclease (b) High number per bacterial cell
52. Fragments of DNA can be separated (c) Have very high copy numbers of
by technique known as their genome within bacterial cell
(a) Gel electrophoresis (d) All of the above
(b) Transformation 57. Select the correct statement
(c) Cloning (a) Plasmids and Bacteriophage have
(d) None ability to replicate within
53. All of the following is true except bacterial cell independent of
(a) DNA fragments are negatively control of chromosomal DNA
charged molecules (b) Bacteriophage because of their
(b) DNA can be separated by forcing high number per cell, have very
them to move towards anode high copy numbers of their
under an electric field through genome within bacterial cell
medium in Gel electrophoresis

(c) Plasmid do not need to join (b) Insertion of host DNA
bacterial genome for their (c) Cutting of foreign DNA
replication (d) All of the above
(d) All 62. In genetic engineering, the
58. If one wants to recover many copies recombinant Plasmid PBR 322 will
of target DNA lose tetracycline resistance due to
(a) It should be cloned in a vector insertion of foreign DNA but Can still
whose origin support high copy be selected out from non
number recombinant ones by
(b) It should be multiplied in a vector (a) Plating transformants on
whose origin supports low ampicillin containing medium
number (b) Plating nontransformants on
(c) It should be multiplied in a vector ampicillin containing medium
whose origin supports low (c) Plating tranfromants on
numbers tetracycline containing medium
(d) B and c (d) Plating non transformants on
59. Normally E. coli tetracycline containing medium
(a) Carries resistance against 63. In order to make bacteria competent
kanamycin (a) Plasmid is treated with
(b) Caries resistance against monocation
ampicillin (b) Bacteria is treated with divalent
(c) Caries resistance against cation
tetracycline (c) Bacteriophage is treated with
(d) Do not carry resistance against caption
any of above antibiotics (d) All of the above
60. In order to link alien DNA, vector 64. Calcium increases efficiency in
needs to have bacteria
preferably …..recognition site (a) With which DNA enters
(a) Single bacterium through pores in its
(b) Twice cell wall
(c) Countless (b) With which Plasmid enters
(d) All of the above bacterium through pores in its
61. Recombinant Plasmids with antibiotic cell wall
resistant willloose tetracycline (c) Both are true
resistance due to (d) Both are false
(a) Insertion of foreign DNA

65. All of the following is true except (a) Lysozyme for bacteria
(a) DNA is Hydrophilic molecule so It (b) Cellulase for plant cell
can’t pass through cell (c) Chitinase for fungi
membrane. (d) All of the above
(b) Microinjection, heat shock 70. Chilled ethanol is used in process of
method and biolistic methods are (a) Gel electrophoresis
used to make cell transformed. (b) Isolation of DNA
(c) Microinjection is used in plant cell (c) Amplification of gene
to transformed plant cell (d) All of the above
(d) After treating with divalent 71. DNA that separates out can be
Calcium ioons, heat shock removed by
method is used to make it (a) Spotting
transformed (b) Sporting
66. Cells are bombarded with high (c) Spoiling
velocity of microparticles of this (d) Spooling
element in plants in order to make it 72. Given below step shows
transformed
(a) Gold
(b) Tungsten
(c) Both
(d) None
67. This can alsobe transfer DNA into
host cells in recombinant technology -
(a) Armed pathogen
(b) Disarmed pathogen
(a) Sieving
(c) Armed Bacteriophage
(b) Elusion
(c) Spooling
68. Select correct match with reference
(d) None
to make cell transformed-
73. This step is immediately followed by
(a) Microinjection -nucleus
isolation of DNA from host cell,
(b) Biolistic– gold or tungsten
(a) Cutting of DNA at specific
(c) Competent host -divalentcaption
location
(d) Microinjection method is used for
(b) Amplification of gene of interest
animal cell
(c) Insertion of recombinant DNA
69. To release DNA from host cell, we
into host cell /organism
treat host cell with -

74. Restriction enzymes digestion are oligonucleotide that are
performed by incubating purified DNA complementary to region of DNA are
molecules with restriction enzymes at (a) Primer
temperature (b) Plasmid
(a) Up to 90*C degree Celsius (c) Deoxy ribonucleic acid
(b) Below 14 degree Celsius (d) All of the above
(c) Optimal temperature for specific 80. Repeated amplification in PCR is
enzyme achieved by using -
(d) None (a) Thermostable DNA polymerase
75. ….. Is employed to check progression (b) Restriction enzymes then ligase
of restriction enzyme digestion (c) Ligase then restriction enzyme
(a) Agarose gel electrophoresis (d) All of the above
(b) Spooling 81. Select the incorrect statement
(c) Lysozyme (a) Repeated amplification is
(d) Any Of the above achieved by use of Thermostable
76. DNA moves towards anode because DNA polymerase
(a) It is negatively charged (b) Taq DNA polymerase isolated
(b) It is positively charged from bacterium, Thermus
(c) It has no charge aquaticus
(d) None (c) DNA polymerase remains active
77. PCR stands for (in recombinant DNA during high temperature induced
technology) denaturation of double stranded
(a) Polychromatic reaction DNA
(b) Polychromaserestoration (d) None
(c) Polymerase chromogenic 82. All of the following is true except
reaction. (a) Amplified fragment if desired can
(d) Polymerase chain reaction be used to ligate with vector for
78. In PCR multiple copies of DNA of further cloning
interest is synthesized in (b) There are several methods of
(a) In Vitro introducing ligated DNA into
(b) In Vivo recipient cell
(c) In transformed cell (c) Recipient cells after making them
(d) All of the above competent to receive, take up
79. In PCR technique, two small DNA present in surrounding
chemically synthesized (d) PCR can not be done in vitro

83. If we spread transformed cell with 88. In order to obtain desirable protein,
amplicilin resistant gene on agar plate recombinant DNA need to get -
containing ampicillin only (a) Expressed
(a) Transformants will grow (b) Amplified
(b) Non transformants will grow (c) Ligated
(c) Cell with tetracyclin resistant will (d) Denaturated
not survive 89. Foreign DNA gets expressed at
(d) None (a) High temperature
84. Identify correct sequence for PCR (b) Low temperature
(a) Annealing, denaturation, (c) Appropriate condition
extension, amplification (d) All of the above
(b) Denaturation, annealing, 90. Obtaining a foreign gene product
extension, amplification requires
(c) Extension, denaturation, (a) Cloning of gene of interest
annealing, amplification (b) Having optimized condition to
(d) Extension, annealing, induce expression of target
denaturation, amplification protein
85. Annealing processin PCR needs (c) Producing it on large scale
(a) DNA polymerase (d) All of the above
(b) Taq polymerase 91. If any protein encoding gene is
(c) Primers expressed in a Heterologous host it is
(d) All of the above called
(a) Amplification
86. DNA polymerase is required in step of
(b) Recombinant DNA
(a) Denaturation (c) Recombinant protein
(b) Annealing (d) Annealing
(c) Extension 92. Select the incorrect statement
(d) All of the above (a) Foreign gene gets expressed
87. In genetic engineering, when you under appropriate condition
insert a piece of alien DNA into (b) Expression of foreign gene in host
cell require understanding many
cloning vector and transfer it into
technical details
bacterial cell (c) After having cloned gene of
(a) Cloning vector doesn’t multiply interest and having optimized
(b) Alien DNA gets multipled condition to induce expression of
(c) Bacterial DNA get multipled target protein, one has to
(d) None consider it on producing large
scale

(d) Industrial production of desired (c) It provides optimal condition for
protein should be in small scale achieving desired product
93. The process which is done after
(d) It is used for laboratory purpose
extracting desired protein from
bioreactor is- 98. The most commonly used Bioreactors
(a) Using different sepration
technique (a) Simple Stirring type
(b) Encoding the gene (b) Sparged stirred type
(c) Insertion of recombinant DNA (c) Both
(d) Cutting DNA at specific location (d) None
94. Select the correct statement about 99. Bioreactors has an
obtaining foreign gene product in (a) Agitator system
biotechnology, (b) An oxygen delivery system
(a) Cells can also be multiplied in a (c) Foam control system
continuous culture system (d) All of the above
(b) Used medium is drained out from 100. A Bioreactors has all except-
one side in continuous culture
medium (a) Temperature control system
(c) In continuous culture medium, (b) pH control system
Fresh medium is added from one side (c) Sampling ports
to maintain the transformed cells in (d) PCR system
log phase of growth. 101. All of the following is false except
(d) All of the above (a) Bioreactors has an agitator
95. Continuous culture system produces system, an oxygen Delivery
(a) Larger biomass system and a foam control
(b) Higher yields of desired protein system
(c) Both (b) Bioreactors also have
(d) None temperature control system, Ph
96. Bioreactorscapacity can be - control system and sampling
(a) 100-1000 L ports
(b) 1000-10000 L (c) Sampling portsare used to
(c) 200 L withdraw small volumes of
(d) A and b culture
97. All of the following is true about (d) All of the above
Bioreactors except
(a) Is vessel in which raw materials
are biologically converted into
specific products, individual
enzymesetc
(b) Microbial plant, animal or human
cell can be used as raw material

HINTS & ANSWERS
1. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 16. Ans.(a) Stanley Cohenand Herbert
STANDARD PAGE NO 193 Boyer, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
2. Ans.(a) Biotechnology, NCERT 12TH NO 194
STANDARD PAGE NO 193 17. Ans.(d) A and B, NCERT 12TH
3. Ans.(b) Biotechnology, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 194
STANDARD PAGE NO 193 18. Ans.(d) Asexual reproduction provide
4. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH opportunity for new combination,
STANDARD PAGE NO 193 NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 194
5. Ans.(a) European federation of 19. Ans.(a) Restriction enzymes, NCERT
biotechnology, NCERT 12TH 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 195
STANDARD PAGE NO 193 20. Ans.(c) Plasmid DNA, NCERT 12TH
6. Ans.(a) Biotechnology, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 195
STANDARD PAGE NO 193 21. Ans.(a) An alien piece of DNA into
7. Ans.(a) Genetic engineering, NCERT host organism, NCERT 12TH
12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 193 STANDARD PAGE NO 195
8. Ans.(d) All, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 22. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
PAGE NO 194 STANDARD PAGE NO 195
9. Ans.(d) A and B, NCERT 12TH 23. Ans.(a) Circular autonomously
STANDARD PAGE NO 194 replicating DNA, NCERT 12TH
10. Ans.(b) Inclusion and multiplication of STANDARD PAGE NO 195
undesirable gene along with desirable 24. Ans.(a) E. coli, NCERT 12TH
gene, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE STANDARD PAGE NO 195
NO 194 25. Ans.(c) Hosts DNA polymerase and
11. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH own ORI, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
STANDARD PAGE NO 194 PAGE NO 195
12. Ans.(a) Origin of replication, NCERT 26. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
13. Ans.(a) Making multiple identical 27. Ans.(d) RNA polymerase, NCERT 12TH
copies of any template DNA, NCERT STANDARD PAGE NO 195
12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 194 28. Ans.(d) Methylase, NCERT 12TH
14. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 195
STANDARD PAGE NO 194 29. Ans.(d) Hind II recognize 8bp
15. Ans.(a) Plasmid, NCERT 12TH sequence in DNA, NCERT 12TH
STANDARD PAGE NO 194 STANDARD PAGE NO 195
30. Ans.(b) 6, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
PAGE NO 195

31. Ans.(b) Recognition sequence, NCERT 46. Ans.(b) GAATTC, NCERT 12TH
32. Ans.(b) Genus, NCERT 12TH 47. Ans.(c) TTAA, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
33. Ans.(a) Escherichia coli RY 13, NCERT 48. Ans.(d) None, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 195 PAGE NO 196
34. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 49. Ans.(b) A little away from centre,
35. Ans.(c) Order in which enzymes were 50. Ans.(b) Hydrogen bond, NCERT 12TH
isolated from strain of bacteria, STANDARD PAGE NO 197
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 196 51. Ans.(b) Same restriction enzymes,
36. Ans.(a) Nucleases, NCERT 12TH NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 197
STANDARD PAGE NO 196 52. Ans.(a) Gel electrophoresis, NCERT
37. Ans.(a) Endonuclease, NCERT 12TH 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 197
STANDARD PAGE NO 196 53. Ans.(d) DNA fragments are negatively
38. Ans.(b) DNA, NCERT 12TH STANDARD charged molecules, NCERT 12TH
39. Ans.(d) No restriction enzyme 54. Ans.(a) Sea weeds, NCERT 12TH
produces blunt end, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 197
STANDARD PAGE NO 196 55. Ans.(a) Size of DNA, NCERT 12TH
40. Ans.(b) It will cut each of 2 strands of STANDARD PAGE NO 197
double helix, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 56. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
41. Ans.(b) It will cut both strands of 57. Ans.(d) All, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
double helix, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 198
PAGE NO 196 58. Ans.(a) It should be cloned in a vector
42. Ans.(a) Palindromes, NCERT 12TH whose origin support high copy
STANDARD PAGE NO 196 number, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
43. Ans.(c) Base pairs that reads same on NO 199
two strands when orientation of 59. Ans.(d) Do not carry resistance against
reading is kept same, NCERT 12TH any of above antibiotics, NCERT 12TH
44. Ans.(c) Restriction enzymes, NCERT 60. Ans.(a) Single, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
45. Ans.(b) T and A, NCERT 12TH 61. Ans.(a) Insertion of foreign DNA,

62. Ans.(a) Plating transformants on 77. Ans.(d) Polychromatic reaction,
ampicillin containing medium, NCERT NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 202
12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 199 78. Ans.(a) In Vitro, NCERT 12TH
63. Ans.(b) Bacteria is treated with STANDARD PAGE NO 202
divalent cation, NCERT 12TH 79. Ans.(a) Primer, NCERT 12TH
64. Ans.(c) Both are true, NCERT 12TH 80. Ans.(a) Thermostable DNA
STANDARD PAGE NO 200 polymerase, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
65. Ans.(c) Microinjection is used in plant PAGE NO 203
cell to transformed plant cell, NCERT 81. Ans.(d) None, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
66. And.(c) Both, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 82. Ans.(d) PCR can not be done in vitro,
PAGE NO 201 NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 203
67. Ans.(b) Disarmed pathogen, NCERT 83. Ans.(a) Transformants will grow,
12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 201 NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 203
68. Ans.(d) Microinjection method is used 84. Ans.(b) Denaturation, annealing,
for animal cell, NCERT 12TH extension, amplification, NCERT 12TH
69. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 85. Ans.(c) Primers, NCERT 12TH
70. Ans.(b) Isolation of DNA, NCERT 12TH 86. Ans.(c) Extension, NCERT 12TH
71. Ans.(d) Spooling, NCERT 12TH 87. Ans.(b) Alien DNA gets multipled,
72. Ans.(c) Spooling, NCERT 12TH 88. Ans.(a) Expressed, NCERT 12TH
73. Ans.(a) Cutting of DNA at specific 89. Ans.(c) Appropriate condition, NCERT
location, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 203
NO 202 90. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
74. Ans.(c) Optimal temperature for STANDARD PAGE NO 203
specific enzyme, NCERT 12TH 91. Ans.(c) Recombinant protein, NCERT
STANDARD PAGE NO 202 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 203
75. Ans.(a) Agarose gel electrophoresis, 92. Ans.(d) Industrial production of
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 202 desired protein should be in small
76. Ans.(a) It is negatively charged, NCERT scale, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 202 NO 203

93. Ans.(a) Using different sepration 98. Ans.(a) Simple Stirring type, NCERT
technique, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 204
PAGE NO 203 99. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
STANDARD PAGE NO 203 100. Ans.(d) PCR system, NCERT 12TH
95. Ans.(c) Both, NCERT 12TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NO 204
PAGE NO 204 101. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
96. Ans.(a) 100 – 1000 L, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 204
STANDARD PAGE NO 204
97. Ans.(d) It is used for laboratory
purpose, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
PAGE NO 204

BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATION

1. After completion of biosynthetic (c) Genetically modified crop for
process in biotechnology, separation agriculture
and purification are collectively (d) None
referred as 6. Application of biotechnology includes
(a) Upstream processing all except
(b) Downstream processing (a) Processed foods
(c) Post Biosynthetic process (b) Bioremediation
(d) B and c (c) Waste treatment
2. Formulation of product with suitable (d) None
preservatives is 7. Three critical area of biotechnology
(a) Downstream process are
(b) Needs to undergo through clinical (a) Providing best catalyst
trials (b) Creating optimal condition
(c) Strict quality control testing is also (c) Downstream processing
required technologies
3. Biotechnology deals with 8. All of the following is true except
(a) Industrial scale production of (a) Biotechnology is Providing best
biopharmaceuticals catalyst in form of improved
(b) Down streaming process of organism usually a microbe or
biotech products pure enzyme
(c) Uses genetically modified (b) Biotechnology creates optimal
microbes condition through engineering for
(d) All of the above catalyst to act
4. Biotechnology Uses genetically (c) Downstream processing
modified technologies purify protein
(a) Fungi /organic compound
(b) Plant (d) None
(c) Animals 9. Select the incorrect statement
(d) All of the above (a) Biotechnology improves quality of
5. Application of biotechnology Include human life
all except (b) Biotechnology helps in field of
(a) Therapeutic food production
(b) Diagnostic
55 | Biotechnology and its application

(c) Biotechnology also helps in field of 15. This technique reduces reliance on
health chemical pesticides
(d) None (a) Genetical modification
10. Increased yields of food supply have (b) Agrochemical based agriculture.
beendue to (c) Organic agriculture
(a) Use of improved crop varieties (d) All of the above
(b) Management of practices 16. It prevents early exhaustion of fertility
(c) Use of Agrochemical of soil
(d) All of the above (a) Making crops more tolerant to
11. Minimizinguse of fertilizer and abiotic stress
chemicals so that their harmful effects (b) Reduced reliance on chemical
on environment are reduced by using- pesticides
(a) Genetically modified crops (c) Reducing post harvestloss
(b) Genetically engineered crop (d) Increased efficiency of mineral
(c) Both usage by plants
(d) None 17. Select the incorrect statement
12. GMO stands for (a) Early exhaustion of fertility of soil
(a) Genetically modified organism is prevented by genetic
(b) Gene modifying occupation modification
(c) Gene monitoring organism (b) Vitamin A enriched rice is example
(d) Genetics monitoring organization of genetic engineering
13. Genetic modification has (c) Genetic modification has
(a) Made crops tolerant to abiotic enhanced nutritional value of
stress food
(b) Reduced reliance on chemical (d) Bt cotton is resistant against all
pesticides pest
(c) Helped to reduce post harvest loss 18. Bt toxin gene which is species specific
(d) All of the above has been cloned from
14. GM has made crops tolerant to abiotic (a) Bacteria
stress like (b) Virus
(a) Cold (c) Bacteriophage
(b) Drought (d) None
(c) Salt 19. Which of the following has BT varieties
(d) All of the above (a) Cotton
(b) Corn
(c) Rice

20. ….is example of Biopesticide (d) All of the above
(a) Tomato 26. All of the following is false except
(b) Potato (a) Some strains of bacillus
(c) Soyabean thuriengeinsis produces protein
(d) All of the above that kill insect such as
21. Some strains of bacillus thuriengeinsis Lepidopterans ,Coleopterans and
produces protein that kill insect Dipterans
(a) Lepidopterans (b) Tobbaco budworm and
(b) Tobbaco budworm Armyworm are Lepidopterans.
(c) Armyworm (c) Beetle are also killed due to bt
(d) All of the above protein
22. Lepidopterans includes (d) All are right statement
(a) Tobacco budworm 27. In biotechnology to make Bt varieties,
(b) Armyworm Choice of gene depends upon
(c) Both (a) Crop
(d) None (b) Targeted pest
23. Select the correct match (c) Both
(a) Lepidopterans – tobacco (d) None
budworm 28. Most of the Bt toxin are
(b) Coleopterans -battle (a) Insect group specific
(c) Dipteran – flies (b) Plant group specific
(d) All of the above (c) Bacteria group specific
24. Conversion of inactive to active Bt (d) All of the above
toxin in insect gut is due to 29. Genes that control cotton bollworm is
(a) Alkaline pH (a) CryIAc
(b) Acidic pH (b) CryIIAb
(c) Both (c) CryIIAc
(d) None (d) A and b
25. Select the correct statement 30. Select the correct match
(a) Bt toxin is produced by a (a) CryIAc -cotton bollworm
bacterium called bacillus (b) CryIIAb-cotton bollworm
thuriengeinsis (c) CryIAb -corn borer
(b) Bt toxin gene has been cloned (d) All of the above
from bacteria 31. Meloidegneaincognitia is a
(c) Bt toxin gene has been expressed (a) Nematode
in plants to provide resistance to (b) Cestode
insect without need for insecticide (c) Trematode

(d) Arthopode (a) Virus
32. A nematode Meloidegneaincognitia (b) yeast
infects this part of tobacco plant (c) Leishmania
(a) Leaves (d) Plants
(b) Fruit 39. Source of complementary RNA in RNAi
(c) Flower could be from an virus having
(d) Root (a) RNA genomes
33. RNAi takes place in all Eukaryotic (b) Mobile genetic elements
organism as method of (c) Transposons
(a) Cellular respiration (d) All of the above
(b) Cellular engulfment 40. All of the following is true about
(c) Cellular adaptation Transposes except
(d) Cellular defense (a) They are mobile genetic elements
34. RNAi involves silencing of mRNA due (b) Jumping gene
to complementary (c) Replicate via RNA intermediate
(a) ssRNA (d) None
(b) dsRNA 41. In RNAi which is used as vector to
(c) dsDNA transfer nematode specific genes into
(d) ssDNA host plant is-
35. Mechanism of RNAi is (a) Bacillus anthracis
(a) Binding of mRNA to ssRNA (b) Bacillus thuriengeinsis
(b) Binding of dsRNA to mRNA (c) Agrobacterium
(c) Prevent translation of mRNA (d) Meloidegneaincognitia
(d) B and c 42. Introduction of DNA in RNAi was such
36. RNAi is that it produced
(a) Silencing of dsRNA (a) Sense RNA
(b) Silencing of mRNA (b) Antisense RNA
(c) Silencing of tRNA (c) Sense DNA
(d) A and b (d) A and b
37. RNAi is 43. RNAi is initiated by -
(a) Preventing translation of mRNA (a) cryIAc
(b) Preventing transcription of mRNA (b) Agrobacterium
(c) Preventing transformation of (c) dsRNA
mRNA (d) mRNA
(d) None 44. Select the correct statement
38. Source of complementary RNA in RNAi about RNAi
could be from an

(a) Using agrobacterium vector, (d) 120
nematode specific genes were 49. Select the incorrect match
introduced into host plant (a) cryIAc– cotton bollworm
(b) Introduction of DNA was such that (b) Meloidegyneincognitia–
it produced both sense and Nematode
Antisense RNA in host cell (c) Agrobacterium – vector
(c) Two RNA being complementary (d) CryII Ab- corn borer
to each other, form a double 50. Insulin cant be given orally Because
stranded that initiates RNAi and (a) Can be given as it is most
thus silences specific mRNA commonly used route of
(d) All of the above administration
45. Consequences of RNAi is that parasite (b) Insulin is peptide
couldn’t survive in a (c) Destroyed in intestinal wall
(a) Nematode (d) Bitter taste
(b) Transgenic host 51. Insulin used for diabetes was earlier
(c) Vector extracted from
(d) None (a) Stomach of pig
46. Recombinant therapeutics (b) Spleen of pig
(a) Induce unwanted immunological (c) Pancreas of pig
response (d) None
(b) Don’t induce unwanted 52. In human, insulin is secreted as
immunological response (a) Prohormone
(c) Are similar to products isolated (b) Proenzyme
from non human sources (c) Active form
(d) B and c (d) A and b
47. How many recombinant therapeutic 53. This chain is removed during
have been approved for human use maturation of proinsulin into insulin
world wide (a) A
(a) 12 (b) B
(b) 30 (c) C
(c) 300 (d) All of the Above
(d) 120 54. The main challenge for production of
48. In India… ..recombinant therapeutic insulin using rDNA technique was
are presently being marketed getting
(a) 200 (a) Insulin assembled into mature
(b) 20 form
(c) 12

(b) Prohormone separated from Disulphide bonds to form human
peptide C insulin
(c) Linking of chain (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above 59. Identify right matching
55. In this year, Eli Lilly an American
company prepared two DNA sequence
corresponding to A and B
(a) 1983
(b) 1993
(c) 1893
(d) 1883
56. For production of Humulin, Eli Lilly
introduced chains of human insulin in
plasmid of
(a) A-Proenzyme
(a) Clostridium
(b) A-Prohormone
(b) Bacillus anthracis
(c) C-Proinsuline
(c) E coli
(d) C-B polypeptide
(d) E histolytica
60. This is an attempt to correct to
57. Sequence for insulin preparation is
hereditary disease -
(a) Production of polypeptide chain A
(a) Gene therapy
and B, extraction, Disulphide
(b) Gene electrophoresis
bonds
(c) Biotechnology
(b) Production of insulin ,
(d) Recombinant DNA technology
extraction ,Disulphide bonds
61. The clone having mutated gene will
(c) Disulphide bonds, extraction,
not appear on photographic film
production
during autoradiography because
(d) None
(a) Probe will have complementarity
58. All of the following is false except
with mutated gene
(a) In 1983, Eli Lilly an American
(b) Probe will not have
company prepared 2 DNA
complementarily with mutated
sequence corresponding to A and
gene
B chains of human insulin
(c) Probe is allowed tohybridize with
(b) A and B chain are introduced in
complementary DNA
plasmid of Ecoli
(d) B and c
(c) Polypeptide Chain A and B were
produced separately, extracted
and combined by creating

62. Elisa is based on principle of (a) Urine analysis is a conventional
(a) Antigen protein reaction method of diagnosis
(b) Antigen antibody reaction (b) Recombinant DNA technology,
(c) Antigen bacterial cell wall reaction polymerase chain reaction and
(d) None enzyme linked Immuno-sorbent assay
63. Infection by pathogen can be detected are some of technique that serve
by purpose of early diagnosis
(a) Presence of antigen (c) Early detection of pathogen by
(b) Detecting antibodies synthesized serum diagnosis is not possible
(c) Both (d) All of the above are right
(d) None statement
64. Protein and glycoprotein are examples 68. Select the incorrect statement
of (a) By time of appearance of
(a) Antigen symptoms, concentration of
(b) Transposons pathogen is already very high in
(c) Antibiotics body
(d) All of the above (b) Very low concentration of
65. In ELISA antibodies are detected that bacteria can be detected by
are amplification of nucleic acid by
(a) Synthesized against pathogen PCR
(b) Destroyed by pathogens (c) Virus can’t be detected by
(c) Synthesized by pathogen amplification of nucleic acid by
(d) B and c PCR
66. All of the following is true except (d) ELISA serve the purpose of early
(a) For effective treatment of disease, diagnosis
early diagnosis and understanding its 69. Select the correct statement about
pathophysiology is very important ELISA
(b) Using conventional methods of (a) Based on principle of antigen
diagnosis early detection is not antibody reaction
possible (b) Infection by pathogen can be
(c) Using serum analysis diagnosis by detected by presence of antigen
early detection is not possible (c) Infection by pathogen can be
(d) Mutant genes in clone appear on detected by detecting antibodies
photographic film during synthesized by host
autoradiography (d) All of the above
67. All of the following is false except

70. Animals that have had their DNA (a) PCR
manipulated to possess and express (b) Gel electrophoresis
an… gene are known as transgenic (c) Transgenic animal
animal (d) ELISA
(a) Extra 76. Transgenic animal is specially made to
(b) Foreign serve as model for human disease so
(c) Both that
(d) None (a) Investigation of new treatment for
71. ….transgenic animals have been disease is made possible
produced (b) Cure of new disease can be found
(a) Rat (c) Animals can be treated
(b) Rabbit (d) All of the above
(c) Pig 77. Transgenic model exists for disease
(d) All of the above like
72. 95% of all existing transgenic animals (a) Cancer
are (b) Cystic fibrosis
(a) Mice (c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(b) Rabbit (d) All of the above
(c) Pig 78. In 1997, first transgenic cow, Rossie,
(d) Sheep produced
73. Why are transgenic animal produced? (a) Human protein enriched beef
(a) To study normal physiology and (b) Human protein enriched milk
development (c) Cow protein enriched milk
(b) Study of disease (d) Milk rich with alpha -1- trypsin
(c) Obtain biological products 79. Human protein enriched milk
(d) All of the above produced by Rossie contained
74. Transgenic animals can be specially (a) Alpha 1 antitrypsin
designed to allow study of how (b) Alpha 2 antitrypsin
(a) Genes are regulated (c) Human alpha lactalbumin
(b) Gene affect normal function of (d) Human beta lactalbumin
body 80. Human protein enriched milk
(c) Gene affect normal development produced by Rossie contained human
of body alpha lactalbumin in… .gram per litre
(d) All of the above (a) 0.4
75. Study of complex factor involved in (b) 1.4
growth is done by (c) 24

(d) 2.4 (c) Transgenic animal are exposed to
81. Transgenic mice are being developed human protein and then effects
for use in are studied
(a) Human protein enriched milk (d) None
(b) Alpha 1 antitrypsin 86. All of the following is true except
(c) Testing vaccine safety (a) The milk obtained from Rosie
(d) All of the above contained human alpha
82. Transgenic mice are being used to lactalbumin and was nutritionally
(a) Treat emphysema more balanced product for human
(b) Obtain human alpha lactalbumin babies than natural cow milk
(c) Test safety of polio vaccine (b) Transgenic mice are being
(d) All of the above developed for use in testing safety
83. Chemical safety testing is also known of vaccine before they are used on
as human
(a) Biotechnology (c) Transgenic E coli are being used to
(b) Transgenicity testing test safety of polio vaccine
(c) Toxicity testing (d) Humulin is produced from
(d) None transgenic monerans
84. Transgenic animals carry gene that 87. Genetic modification of organism can
make them have
(a) More resistant to toxic substance (a) Predictable results when such
than non transgenic animals organisms are introduced in
(b) Less sensitive to toxic substance ecosystem
(b) Unpredictable results when such
than non transgenic animal
organisms are introduced in
(c) More sensitive to toxic substance ecosystem
than non transgenic animal (c) Favorable result for whole
(d) A and b biosphere
85. In case of chemical safety testing (d) B and c
(a) Transgenic animals are exposed to 88. GEAC is
antibiotics and then effects are (a) Genetic equipment approval
commitment
studied
(b) Genetic elements approved
(b) Transgenic animal are exposed to Committee
toxic substance and then effects (c) Genetic engineering appraisal
are studied committee
(d) Genetic engineering approval
committee

89. In India….makes decisions regarding 94. Indian parliament has recently
validity of GM research cleared… amendment of Indian patent
(a) GEAA bill
(b) GEAC (a) First
(c) GAEC (b) Second
(d) NONE (c) Third
90. The diversity of… ..in India is one of (d) None
richest in world 95. Natural methods of gene transfer
(a) Rice include all except
(b) Papaya (a) Bacterial transformation
(c) Maize (b) Transduction
(d) None (c) Conjugation
91. Indian Basmati was crossed (d) Gene gun
with…….variety and claimed as an 96. Recombinant DNA technology is a
invention by an American company (a) Natural method of gene transfer
(a) Tall (b) Chemical method of gene transfer
(b) Dwarf (c) Artificial method of gene transfer
(c) Semi dwarf (d) None
(d) Any of the above 97. GM plants have been useful in
92. Biopiracy is term used to refer use of (a) Increasing crop yield
bioresources by multinational (b) Reduce post harvest loss
companies and other organizations (c) Make crops more tolerant to
(a) With proper authorisation stress
(b) Without proper authorization (d) All of the above
(c) Without improper authorisation 98. ADA deficiency can be cured by
(d) A and c (a) Bone marrow transplantation
93. Countries are rich in biodiversity and (b) Gene therapy after parturition
traditional knowledge is (c) Gene therapy before parturition
(a) Developing (d) All
(b) Underdeveloped 99. ADA enzyme which is caused due to
(c) Industrialized deletion of gene in SCID required for
(d) A and b (a) Maturation of RBC
(b) Maturation of WBC
(c) Functioning of clotting factors
(d) Activation of innate immunity

100. What is not true for SCID gene therapy (c) Periodic infusion of genetically
in human engineered lymphocytes
(a) By using Retrovirus as vector (d) Reverse transcriptase is not
(b) In vitro genetic engineering of required
patient’s lymphocytes
HINTS & ANSWERS

1. Ans.(d) B and C, NCERT 12TH 16. Ans.(d) Increased efficiency of mineral
STANDARD PAGE NO 205 usage by plants, NCERT 12TH
STANDARD PAGE NO 205 17. Ans.(d) Bt cotton is resistant against all
3. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH pest, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO
STANDARD PAGE NO 207 208
4. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 18. Ans.(a) Bacteria, NCERT 12TH
5. Ans.(d) None, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 19. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
8. Ans.(d) None, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 22. Ans.(c) Both, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
PAGE NO 207 PAGE NO 208
10. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 24. Ans.(a) None, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
11. Ans.(c) Both, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 25. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
12. Ans.(a) Genetically modified organism, 26. Ans.(d) All are right statement, NCERT
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 208 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 208
13. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 27. Ans.(c) Both, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
14. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 28. Ans.(a) Insect group specific, NCERT
15. Ans.(a) Genetical modification, NCERT 29. Ans.(d) A and B, NCERT 12TH

30. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 47. Ans.(b) 30, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
31. Ans.(a) Nematode, NCERT 12TH 48. Ans.(c) 12, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
32. Ans.(d) Root, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 49. Ans.(d) Cry IIAb- corn borer is wrong
PAGE NO 209 match, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
33. Ans.(d) Cellular defense, NCERT 12TH NO 210
STANDARD PAGE NO 209 50. Ans.(b) Insulin is peptide, NCERT 12TH
34. Ans.(b) dsRNA, NCERT 12TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NO 210
PAGE NO 209 51. Ans.(c) Pancreas of pig, NCERT 12TH
35. Ans.(d) B and C, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 210
STANDARD PAGE NO 209 52. Ans.(a) Prohormone, NCERT 12TH
36. Ans.(b) Silencing of mRNA, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 211
STANDARD PAGE NO 209 53. Ans.(c) C, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
37. Ans.(a) Preventing translation of NO 211
mRNA, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE 54. Ans.(a) Insulin assembled into mature
NO 209 form, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO
38. Ans.(a) Virus, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 211
PAGE NO 209 55. Ans.(a) 1983, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
39. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH PAGE NO 211
STANDARD PAGE NO 209 56. Ans.(c) E. coli, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
40. Ans.(d) None, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 211
PAGE NO 209 57. Ans.(a) Production of polypeptide
41. Ans.(c) Agrobacterium, NCERT 12TH chain A and B, extraction, Disulphide
STANDARD PAGE NO 209 bonds, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
42. Ans.(d) A and B, NCERT 12TH NO 211
STANDARD PAGE NO 209 58. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
43. Ans.(c) dsRNA, NCERT 12TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NO 211
PAGE NO 209 59. Ans.(b) A-Prohormone, NCERT 12TH
STANDARD PAGE NO 209 60. Ans.(a) Gene therapy, NCERT 12TH
45. Ans.(b) Transgenic host, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 211
STANDARD PAGE NO 210 61. Ans.(b) Probe will not have
46. Ans.(d) B and C, NCERT 12TH complementarily with mutated gene,

62. Ans.(b) Antigen antibody reaction, 77. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 212 STANDARD PAGE NO 213
63. Ans.(c) Both, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 78. Ans.(b) Human protein enriched milk,
PAGE NO 212 NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 213
64. Ans.(a) Antigen, NCERT 12TH 79. Ans.(c) Human alpha lactalbumin,
65. Ans.(a) Synthesized against pathogen, 80. Ans.(d) 2.4, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 212 PAGE NO 213
66. Ans.(d) Mutant genes in clone appear 81. Ans.(c) Testing vaccine safety, NCERT
on photographic film during 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 213
autoradiography, NCERT 12TH 82. Ans.(c) Test safety of polio vaccine,
67. Ans.(d) All of the above are right 83. Ans.(c) Toxicity testing, NCERT 12TH
statement, NCERT 12TH STANDARD STANDARD PAGE NO 213
PAGE NO 212 84. Ans.(c) More sensitive to toxic
68. Ans.(c) Virus can’t be detected by substance than non transgenic animal,
amplification of nucleic acid by PCR, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 213
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 212 85. Ans.(b) Transgenic animal are exposed
69. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH to toxic substance and then effects are
STANDARD PAGE NO 212 studied, NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
70. Ans.(c) Both, NCERT 12TH STANDARD NO 213
PAGE NO 212 86. Ans.(c) Transgenic E coli are being used
71. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH to test safety of polio vaccine, NCERT
72. Ans.(a) Mice, NCERT 12TH STANDARD 87. Ans.(b) Unpredictable results when
PAGE NO 212 such organisms are introduced in
73. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH ecosystem, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
74. Ans.(d) All of the above, NCERT 12TH 88. Ans.(d) Genetic engineering approval
STANDARD PAGE NO 212 committee, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
75. Ans.(c) Transgenic animal, NCERT 12TH PAGE NO 213
STANDARD PAGE NO 212 89. Ans.(b) GEAC, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
76. Ans.(a) Investigation of new treatment PAGE NO 213
for disease is made possible, NCERT 90. Ans.(a) Rice, NCERT 12TH STANDARD

91. Ans.(c) Semi dwarf, NCERT 12TH
STANDARD PAGE NO 214 96. Ans.(c) Artificial method of gene
92. Ans.(b) Without proper authorization, transfer, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE NO 214 PAGE NO 215
94. Ans.(b) Second, NCERT 12TH 98. Ans.(d) All, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
95. Ans.(d) Gene gun, NCERT 12TH 99. Ans.(b) Maturation of Lymphocytes
STANDARD PAGE NO 215 (WBC), NCERT 12TH STANDARD PAGE
NO 211
100. Ans.(d) Reverse transcriptase is not
required, NCERT 12TH STANDARD
PAGE NO 211

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NCERT

➢ STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS 14 - 23

➢ DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION 24 - 35

➢ BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES 36 - 49

HINTS & ANSWER

STRUCTURE ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS.

15 | Structural Organisation in animals.

16 | Structural Organisation in animals.

17 | Structural Organisation in animals.

18 | Structural Organisation in animals.

19 | Structural Organisation in animals.

HINTS & ANSWER

20 | Structural Organisation in animals.

23 | Structural Organisation in animals.

DIGESTION & ABSORPTION

24 | Digestion & Absorption

25 |Digestion & Absorption

26 |Digestion & Absorption

27 |Digestion & Absorption

28 |Digestion & Absorption

29 |Digestion & Absorption

30 |Digestion & Absorption

31 |Digestion & Absorption

32 |Digestion & Absorption

33 |Digestion & Absorption

34 |Digestion & Absorption

35 |Digestion & Absorption

BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES

36 | Breathing and exchange of gases

37 | Breathing & exchange of gases

38 | Breathing & exchange of gases

39 | Breathing & exchange of gases

40 | Breathing & exchange of gases

41 | Breathing & exchange of gases

42 | Breathing & exchange of gases

43 | Breathing & exchange of gases

(a) Low CO2

(a) A – basement membrane

44 | Breathing & exchange of gases

45 | Breathing & exchange of gases

HINTS & ANSWERS

46 | Breathing & exchange of gases

47 | Breathing & exchange of gases

48 | Breathing & exchange of gases

49 | Breathing & exchange of gases

➢ PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION 01 - 13

➢ MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 14 - 25

➢ BIOTECHNOLOGY PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES 40 - 54

➢ BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATION 55 - 68

PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION

1 | Principles of inheritance and variation

2 | Principles of inheritance and variation

3 | Principles of inheritance and variation

4 | Principles of inheritance and variation

5 | Principles of inheritance and variation

6 | Principles of inheritance and variation

7 | Principles of inheritance and variation

8 | Principles of inheritance and variation

9 | Principles of inheritance and variation

HINTS & ANSWERS

10 | Principles of inheritance and variation

11 | Principles of inheritance and variation

12 | Principles of inheritance and variation

13 | Principles of inheritance and variation