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Biology Mock Test Set - 1

1. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on _____.
(a) date of collection
(b) name of collector
(c) local names
(d) height of the plant

2. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their _____.
(a) family
(b) order
(c) division
(d) genus

3. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular taxonomic category?
(a) Tiger ­Tigris, species
(b) Cuttlefish ­mollusca, class
(c) Humans ­primata, family
(d) Housefly ­Musca, order

4. An example of colonial alga is

(a) Ulothrix
(b) Volvox
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Chlorella

5. Which of the following components provides a sticky character to the bacterial cell?
(a) Nuclear membrane
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Glycocalyx
(d) Cell wall

6. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of

(a) Fucus
(b) Funaria
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) Marchantia

7. Select the mismatch.

(a) Cycas – Dioecious
(b) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(c) Equisetum – Homosporous
(d) Pinus – Dioecious

8. In which of the following, gametophyte is not independent free living?

(a) Pteris
(b) Pinus
(c) Funaria

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(d) Marchantia

9. Life cycles of Ectocarpus and Focus Respectively are

(a) diplontic, haplodiplontic
(b) haplodiplontic, diplontic
(c) haplodiplontic, haplontic
(d) haplontic, diplontic

10. Important characteristic that hemichordates share with chordates is

(a) ventral tubular nerve cord
(b) pharynx with gill slits
(c) pharynx without gill slits
(d) absence of notochord

11. Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on land?
(a) Exoskeleton
(b) Eyes
(c) Segmentation
(d) Bilateral symmetry

12. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals?

(a) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
(b) Whales, Dolphins, Seals
(c) Trygon, Whales, Seals
(d) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks

13. In Bougainvillea, thorns are the modifications of

(a) adventitious root
(b) stem
(c) leaf
(d) stipules

14. Cotyledon of maize grain is called

(a) coleoptile
(b) scutellum
(c) plumule
(d) coleorhiza

15. Free­central placentation is found in

(a) Dianthus
(b) Argemone
(c) Brassica
(d) Citrus

16. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to

(a) gynoecium

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(b) androecium
(c) corolla
(d) calyx

17. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system?
(a) Seminal vesicles
(b) Mushroom glands
(c) Testes
(d) Vas deferens

18. Smooth muscles are _______.

(a) involuntary, cylindrical, striated
(b) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
(c) involuntary, fusiform, non-­striated
(d) voluntary, spindle shaped, uninucleate

19. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form
ATP?
(a) Ribosome
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Mitochondrion
(d) Lysosome

20. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is

(a) lysosome
(b) microsome
(c) ribosome
(d) mesosome

21. Microtubules are the constituents of

(a) centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
(b) centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles
(c) cilia, flagella and peroxisomes
(d) spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia

22. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(a) Uracil is a pyrimidine.
(b) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
(c) Sucrose is a disaccharide.
(d) Cellulose is a polysaccharide.

23. A non­proteinaceous enzyme is

(a) lysozyme
(b) ribozyme
(c) ligase
(d) deoxyribonuclease

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24. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of
animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur?
(a) Chromosomes will be fragmented.
(b) Chromosomes will not segregate.
(c) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur.
(d) Chromosomes will not condense

25. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place on

(a) S ­phase
(b) G1 ­phase
(c) G2 ­phase
(d) M phase

26. Spindle fibres attach on to

(a) centromere of the chromosome
(b) kinetosome of the chromosome
(c) telomere of the chromosome
(d) kinetochore of the chromosome

27. The water potential of pure water is

(a) less than zero
(b) more than zero but less than one
(c) more than one
(d) zero

28. Which is essential for the growth of the root tip?

(a) Zn
(b) Fe
(c) Ca
(d) Mn

29. Boron in green plants assists in

(a) activation of enzymes
(b) acting as enzyme co­factor
(c) photosynthesis
(d) sugar transport

30. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are

(a) carotenoids
(b) anthocyanins
(c) xanthophylls
(d) chlorophylls

31. The substrate for photorespiration is

(a) phosphoglyceric acid

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(b) glycolate
(c) serine
(d) glycine

32. Cytochromes are found in

(a) cristae of mitochondria
(b) lysosomes
(c) matrix of mitochondria
(d) outer wall of mitochondria

33. Auxin can be bioassayed by

(a) potometer
(b) lettuce hypocotyl elongation
(c) Avena coleoptile curvature
(d) hydroponics

34. Movement of leaves of sensitive plant, Mimosa pudica are due to

(a) thermonasty
(b) seismonasty
(c) hydrotropism
(d) chemonasty

35. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into an

(a) endosperm
(b) embryo sac
(c) embryo
(d) ovule

36. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by
(a) bee
(b) wind
(c) bat
(d) water

37. Seed formation without fertilisation in flowering plants involves the process of
(a) somatic hybridisation
(b) apomixis
(c) sporulation
(d) budding

38. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to

(a) megasporangium
(b) megasporophyll
(c) megaspore mother cell
(d) megaspore

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39. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the

(a) placenta
(b) thalamus or petal
(c) anther
(d) connective

40. Thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the
correct statement.
(a) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis.
(b) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules.
(c) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules.
(d) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis

41. A disease caused by an autosomal primary nondisjunction is

(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(b) Turner’s syndrome
(c) sickle cell anaemia
(d) Down’s syndrome

42. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridisation experiments?
(a) 1840­1850
(b) 1857­1869
(c) 1870­1877
(d) 1856­1863

43. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?

(a) Chromosomal disorder
(b) Dominant gene disorder
(c) Recessive gene disorder
(d) X Linked recessive gene disorder

44. The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called
(a) translocation
(b) crossing over
(c) inversion
(d) duplication

45. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?
(a) tRNA
(b) mRNA
(c) miRNA
(d) rRNA

46. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates that

(a) DNA replication is occurring
(b) the DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre

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(c) the DNA double helix is exposed

(d) transcription is occurring

47. The equivalent of a structural gene is

(a) muton
(b) cistron
(c) operon
(d) recon

48. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of

(a) fungi
(b) animals
(c) bacteria
(d) plants

49. Which of the following is required as inducer (s) for the expression of Lac operon?
(a) Lactose
(b) Lactose and Galactose
(c) Glucose
(d) Galactose

50. Genetic drift operates in

(a) small isolated population
(b) large isolated population
(c) non­reproductive population
(d) slow reproductive population

51. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is
(a) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
(b) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
(c) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus
(d) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus

52. Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird?

(a) Hindlimb of rabbit
(b) Flipper of whale
(c) Dorsal fin of a shark
(d) Wing of a moth

53. Analogous structures are a result of

(a) shared ancestry
(b) stabilising selection
(c) divergent evolution
(d) convergent evolution

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54. The change of the lighter­coloured variety of peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker variety (Biston
carbonaria) is due to
(a) mutation
(b) regeneration
(c) genetic isolation
(d) temporal isolation

55. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to
(a) halophytes
(b) psammophytes
(c) hydrophytes
(d) mesophytes

56. Mycorrhizae are the example of

(a) amensalism
(b) antibiosis
(c) mutualism
(d) fungistasis

57. The relation between algae and fungi in a lichen is

(a) symbiosis
(b) parasitism
(c) commenalism
(d) protocooperation

58. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?

(a) Grassland ecosystem
(b) Pond ecosystem
(c) Lake ecosystem
(d) Forest ecosystem

59. The primary producers of the deep­sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are
(a) green algae
(b) chemosynthetic bacteria
(c) blue­green algae
(d) coral reefs

60. Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains

(a) plankton
(b) nekton
(c) plankton and nekton
(d) benthos

61. Which one of the following is related to ex situ conservation of threatened animals and plants?
(a) Biodiversity hotspots
(b) Amazon rainforest

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(c) Himalayan region

(d) Wildlife safari parks

62. The region of biosphere reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is
known as
(a) buffer zone
(b) transition zone
(c) restoration zone
(d) core zone

63. Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols?
(a) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns
(b) They cause increased agricultural productivity
(c) They have a negative impact on agricultural land
(d) They are harmful to human health

64. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution for water bodies receiving
effluents from
(a) domestic sewage
(b) dairy industry
(c) petroleum industry
(d) sugar industry

65. Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of a sexually reproducing
organism?
(a) Genetic drift
(b) Recombination
(c) Transduction
(d) Chromosomal aberrations

66. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as

(a) polypeptide
(b) Okazaki fragment
(c) polysome
(d) polymer

67. A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman with blood group ‘B’. What are all the possible blood groups of
their offsprings?
(a) A, B, AB and O
(b) O only
(c) A and B only
(d) A, B and AB only

68. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non­acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of
immune response is responsible for such rejections?
(a) Cell­mediated immune response

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(b) Hormonal immune response

(c) Physiological immune response
(d) Autoimmune response

69. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?

(a) Cholera and tetanus
(b) Typhoid and smallpox
(c) Tetanus and mumps
(d) Herpes and influenza

70. Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
(a) IgD
(b) IgG
(c) IgA
(d) IgM

71. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids?

(a) Secondary treatment
(b) Primary treatment
(c) Sludge treatment
(d) Tertiary treatment

72. A technique of micropropagation is

(a) protoplast fusion
(b) embryo rescue
(c) somatic hybridisation
(d) somatic embryogenesis

73. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by
(a) ovary
(b) placenta
(c) Fallopian tube
(d) pituitary

74. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?

(a) Trichomoniasis
(b) Encephalitis
(c) Syphilis
(d) AIDS

75. In human females, meiosis­II is not completed until

(a) uterine implantation
(b) birth
(c) puberty
(d) fertilisation

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76. Egg is liberated from the ovary in

(a) secondary oocyte stage
(b) primary oocyte stage
(c) oogonial stage
(d) mature ovum stage.

77. Gonads develop from embryonic

(a) ectoderm
(b) endoderm
(c) mesoderm
(d) both mesoderm and endoderm

78. Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?
(a) Chikungunya virus
(b) Ebola virus
(c) Hepatitis B virus
(d) Human immunodeficiency virus

79. Which cells of ‘Crypts of Lieberkuhn’ secrete antibacterial lysozyme?

(a) Paneth cells
(b) Zymogen cells
(c) Kupffer cells
(d) Argentaffin cells

80. Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
(a) Angiotensin and epinephrine
(b) Gastrin and insulin
(c) Cholecystokinin and secretin
(d) Insulin and glucagon

81. Lungs are made up of air­filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because
of
(a) inspiratory reserve volume
(b) tidal volume
(c) expiratory reserve volume
(d) residual volume

82. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced
due to damage in the alveolar walls.
(a) Pneumonia
(b) Asthma
(c) Pleurisy
(d) Emphysema

83. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except

(a) pulmonary

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(b) cardiac
(c) hepatic
(d) systemic

84. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of
blood from the body.
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Leucocytes
(c) Neutrophils
(d) Thrombocytes

85. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of

(a) atrial natriuretic factor
(b) aldosterone
(c) ADH
(d) renin

86. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in
(a) no change in quality and quantity of urine
(b) no urine formation
(c) more diluted urine
(d) more concentrated urine

87. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of

(a) cartilaginous joint
(b) synovial joint
(c) saddle joint
(d) fibrous joint

88. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as
(a) tetanus
(b) tonus
(c) spasm
(d) fatigue

89. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one of which is
(a) spinal cord
(b) corpus callosum
(c) cerebellum
(d) hypothalamus

90. Which one of the following hormones is not involved in sugar metabolism?
(a) Insulin
(b) Glucagon
(c) Cortisone
(d) Aldosterone

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