Namma Kalvi 12th Bio-Botany Chapter 1 To 5 Loyola Ec Guide em

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CONTENTS
CHAPTER NAME Page No.
UNIT - VI : Reproduction in Plants
1. Asexual and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 5
UNIT - VII : Genetics
2. Classical Genetics 35
3. Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance 72
UNIT - VIII : Biotechnology
4. Principles and Processes of Biotechnology 97
5. Plant Tissue Culture 125

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Reproduction in Plants
Asexual and Sexual

VI 1 Reproduction in Plants
Part - I - TEXTBOOK EVALUATION

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Choose the correct statement from the following
a) Gametes are involved in asexual reproduction
b) Bacteria reproduce asexually by budding
c) Conidia formation is a method of sexual reproduction
d) Yeast reproduce by budding Ans : d) Yeast reproduce by budding
2. An eminent Indian embryologist is
a) S.R.Kashyap b) P.Maheswari c) M.S. Swaminathan d) K.C.Mehta
Ans : b) P.Maheswari
3. Identify the correctly matched pair
a) Tuber - Allium cepa b) Sucker - Pistia
c) Rhizome - Musa d) Stolon - Zingiber Ans : c) Rhizome - Musa
4. Pollen tube was discovered by
a) J.G.Kolreuter b) G.B.Amici c) E.Strasburger d) E.Hanning
Ans : b) G.B.Amici
5. Size of pollen grain in Myosotis
a) 10 micrometer b) 20 micrometer c) 200 micrometer d) 2000 micrometer
Ans : d) 2000 micrometer
6. First cell of male gametophyte in angiosperm is
a) Microspore b) megaspore
c) Nucleus d) Primary Endosperm Nucleus
Ans : a) Microspore
7. Match the following
I) External fertilization i) pollen grain
II) Androecium ii) anther wall
III) Male gametophyte iii) algae
IV) Primary parietal layer iv) stamens
a) I-iv;II-i;III-ii;IV-iii b) I-iii;II-iv;III-i;IV-ii
c) I-iii;II-iv;III-ii,IV-i d) I-iii;II-i;III-iv;IV-ii
Ans : b) I-iii;II-iv;III-i;IV-ii
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8. Arrange the layers of anther wall from locus to periphery

a) Epidermis,middle layers, tapetum, endothecium
b) Tapetum, middle layers, epidermis, endothecium
c) Endothecium, epidermis, middle layers, tapetum
d) Tapetum, middle layers endothecium epidermis
Ans : d) Tapetum, middle layers endothecium epidermis
9. Identify the incorrect pair
a) sporopollenin - exine of pollen grain
b) tapetum – nutritive tissue for developing microspores
c) Nucellus – nutritive tissue for developing embryo
d) obturator – directs the pollen tube into micropyle
Ans : c) Nucellus – nutritive tissue for developing embryo
10. Assertion : Sporopollenin preserves pollen in fossil deposits.
Reason : Sporopollenin is resistant to physical and biological decomposition.
a) assertion is true; reason is false
b) assertion is false; reason is true
c) Both Assertion and reason are not true
d) Both Assertion and reason are true Ans : d) Both Assertion and reason are true
11. Choose the correct statement(s) about tenuinucellate ovule
a) Sporogenous cell is hypodermal
b) Ovules have fairly large nucellus
c) sporogenous cell is epidermal
d) ovules have single layer of nucellus tissue Ans : a) Sporogenous cell is hypodermal
12. Which of the following represent megagametophyte
a) Ovule b)Embryo sac c) Nucellus d)Endosperm
Ans : b)Embryo sac
13. I n Haplopappus gracilis, number of chromosomes in cells of nucellus is 4. What will be the
chromosome number in Primary endosperm cell?
a) 8 b) 12 c) 6 d) 2 Ans : C) 6
14. Transmitting tissue is found in
a) Micropylar region of ovule b) Pollen tube wall
c) Stylar region of gynoecium d) Integument Ans : c) Stylar region of gynoecium
15. The scar left by funiculus in the seed is
a) tegmen b) radicle c) epicotyl d) hilum Ans : d) hilum
16. A Plant called X possesses small flower with reduced perianth and versatile anther. The
probable agent for pollination would be
a) water b) air c) butterflies d) beetles Ans : b) air
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17. Consider the following statement(s)

i) In Protandrous flowers pistil matures earlier
ii) In Protogynous flowers pistil matures earlier
iii) Herkogamy is noticed in unisexual flowers
iv) Distyly is present in Primula
a) i and ii are correct b) ii and iv are correct
c) ii and iii are correct d) i and iv are correct Ans : b) ii and iv are correct
18. Coelorhiza is found in
a) Paddy b)Bean c) Pea d)Tridax
Ans : a) Paddy
19. Parthenocarpic fruits lack
a) Endocarp b) Epicarp c) Mesocarp d) seed
Ans : d) seed
20. In majority of plants pollen is liberated at
a) 1 celled stage b) 2 celled stage c) 3 celled stage d) 4 celled stage
Ans : c) 3 celled stage
21. What is reproduction?
➢ It is a vital process for the existence of a species.
➢ It brings suitable changes through variation in off springs.
➢ Plant reproduction is important for the existence of all other organisms.
22. Mention the contribution of Hofmeister towards Embryology.
➢ He worked on flowering plant embryology.
➢ Discovered alternation of generation in plants.
➢ He described the structure of pollen tetrad.
23. List out two sub-aerial stem modifications with example.
Sub - aerial stem modifications.
The stem is partly aerial and partly underground.
a) Runner. (Ex. oxalis, centella)
1. It is running horizontally on soil surface.
2. Nodes have axillary buds, scale leaves and adventitious roots.
3. Runner arises from axillary bud.
4. Mother plant produces many runners in all directions.
5. They break off and grow into individual plants.
b) Sucker. (Ex. Musa (banana), chrysanthemum)
Grows horixontally for a distance under the soil. Then it emerges obliquely upwards.
c) Stolon (Ex. Strawberry, vallisneria)
Develop from under ground stems.
They grow horizontally outwards.
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d) Offset (condensed runners)

Unlike runners, they produce tult of leaves above and cluster of voots below
Ex. Pistia, Eichhornia.
24. What is layering?
➢ It is an artificial method of vegetative propagation.
➢ Stem of the parent plant is allowed to develop roots while still intact.
➢ The root develops. The rooted part is cut. It is planted to grow as a new plant.
➢ Ex. Ixora, Jasminum.
25. What are clones?
The individuals (Ex.Bacteria) formed by this method are morphologically and genetically
identical. They are called clones.
26. A detached leaf of Bryophyllum produces new plants. How?

➢ Bryophyllum undergoes vegetative reproduction in leaf.
➢ The succulent leaf is notched in it’s margin.
➢ Adventitious buds develop at these notches. They are called epiphyllous buds.
➢ These buds develop root system. When the leaf decays, they become independent plants.
27. Differentiate Grafting and Layering.

Grafting Layering
➢ Two different plants are involved. ➢ Only parent plant is involved.
➢ Two different plants are joined. ➢ Stem of the parent plant is allowed to develop
They continue to grow as one plant. roots. The rooted part is cut and grown as
The plant in soil is called stock. The new plant.
plant used for grafting is called Ex. Irora, Jasminum.
scion.
Ex. Citrus, Mango, Apple
28. ‘‘Tissue culture is the best method for propagating rare and endangered plant species’’ -
Discuss.
Micropropagation.
➢ It is the regeneration of whole plant from a single cell or tissue.
Advantages.
➢ Rare, Endanfered plants are propagated.
➢ In short duration, plants with desirable characteristics can be multiplied.
➢ Produce Genetically identical plants.
➢ Done in any season.
➢ Plants without viable seeds (or) difficult to greminate can be propagated.
➢ Meristem culture produces disease free plants.
➢ cells can be genetically modified or transformed.
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29. Distinguish mound layering and air layering.

Mound layering Air layering
➢ Flexible branch is buried in soil. ➢ Nodal region is girdled.
➢ Roots emerge from buried stem. ➢ Hormones are applied.

➢ Buried part after cutting from for ➢ Rooting is promoted.
parent, grows into new plant.
➢ This area is covered by moist soil.
➢ Roots emerge in 2-4 months.
➢ These branches removed from parent and
grown separately.
30. Explain the conventional methods adopted in vegetative propagation of higher plants.
Conventional methods of vegetative propagation.
a) Cutting (Ex.Hibiscus)
➢ Plant parts like stem, leaf are cut from the parent plant.
➢ Cut part is placed in suitable medium.
➢ It produces root and grows into new plant.
b) Grafting (Ex. Citrus, Mango)
➢ Two different plants are joined.
➢ They grow as one plant.
➢ Plant in soil is called stock.
➢ Plant used for grafting is scion.
➢ It is of 5 types.
i) Bud grafting - scion is placed in incision of stock.
ii) Approach grafting - Cut surfaces of stock scion are tied together.
iii) Grafting crown - Wedge shaped scion is inserted to cleft of stock.
iv) Wedge grafting - Twig of scion is inserted into slit in the stock.
v) Tongue grafting - Stock and scion are cut obliquely scion is fit into stock and bound
with tape.
c) Layering
➢ Stem of parent plant is allowed to develop roots while still intact. The root develops. The
rooted part is cut and planted to grow as a new plant.
i) Mound Layering
➢ Flexible branch is buried in soil.
➢ Roots emerge from buried stem. It grows into a new plant.
ii) Air Layering
➢ Nodal region is girdled.
➢ Hormones are applied.
➢ Rooting is promoted.
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➢ This area is covered by moist soil.

➢ Roots emerge in 2-4 months.
➢ Roots branches are removed from parent. They are grown separately.
31. Highlight the milestones from the history of plant embryology.
➢ 1682 - Nehemiah Grew mentioned stamens as the male organ of a fl ower.
➢ 1694 - R.J.Camerarius described the structure of a fl ower, anther, pollen and ovule
➢ 1761 - J.G. Kolreuter gave a detailed account on the importance of insects in pollination
➢ 1824 - G.B.Amici discovered the pollen tube.
➢ 1848 - Hofmeister described the structure of pollen tetrad
➢ 1870 - Hanstein described the development of embryo in Capsella and Alisma
➢ 1878 - E.Strasburger reported polyembryony
➢ 1884 - E.Strasburger discovered the process of Syngamy.
➢ 1898 -99 S.G.Nawaschin and L. Guignard independently discovered Double fertilization
➢ 1904 – E.Hanning initiated embryo cultures.
32. Discuss the importance of Modern methods in reproduction of plants.
Importance of modern methods of of reproduction in plants.
➢ Rapid Multiplication of desired plants in short duration.
➢ Genetically identical plants are produced.
➢ Tissue culture can be done at any season
➢ Plants without viable seeds (or) difficult to germinate can be propagated.
➢ Rare, Endangered plants are propagated.
➢ Cells are genetically modified or transformed.
33. What is Cantharophily.

It is the cross pollination of flowers by beetles. They feed on pollen or juicy tissues of their
flower.
The plants using this mode of pollination
➢ Er. Nymphaea species of plants - Rhinoceros beetle.
➢ Giant Waterlily - Scarab beetle
➢ Illicium plant - Diptera files.
34. List any two strategy adopted by bisexual flowers to prevent self-pollination.
1) Dichogamy
Anthers and stigmas mature at different times.
➢ Protandry - Stamens mature earlier.
➢ Protogycy - Stigmas mature earlier.
2) Herkogamy
➢ Self pollination is impossible by the arrangement of stamens and stigmas.
➢ Ex: In Hibiscus, stigmas project above the stamens.
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35. What is endothelium.

➢ Some ovules are unitegmic (with one integument) tenuinucellate type. (with single layer
of nucellar tissue).
➢ In these type of ovules, the inner layer of integument is specialized for nutritive function
for embryosac. It is called endothelium (Integumentary tapetum) Ex. Asteraceae.
36. ‘‘The endosperm of angiosperm is different from gymnosperm’’. Do you agree. Justify
your answer.
Endosperm of Angiosperms Endosperm of Gymnosperm
➢ Triploid Endosperm ➢ Haploid endosperm.
➢ Endosperm is formed by triple ➢ Endosperm is formed before fertilisation.
fusion.
➢ Endosperm sorrounds the empryo. ➢ Gymnosperms (Ex; pine) produce embryo
It provides nutrition as starch. with many cotyledons. Primary Endosperm
is used as food.
37. Define the term Diplospory.

➢ Apomixis is a special mechanism to produce seeds without fertilisation. In some species
diploid egg cell is formed without reduction division. It develops into embryo without
fertilisation.
➢ Ex. Megagametophyte arises from a cell of the archesporium.
38. What is polyembryony. How it can commercially exploited.
Polyembryony
➢ Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is called poly embroyony.
Practical Applications.
➢ Seedlings from nucellar tissue of citrus are better clones for orchards.
➢ Embryos from poly embryony are virus free.
39. Why does the zygote divides only after the division of Primary endosperm cell.
➢ The Zygote needs nourishment during its development.
➢ Fertilised embrysac offers little nourishment to the Zygote.
➢ The primary endosperm cell divides and generates endosperm tissue. This nourishes the
Zygote. So, the Zygote divides after primary Endosperm cell.
40. What is Mellitophily?

➢ Pollination by honeybee is called mellitophily (Latin word mellitus= honey or sweet),
Among the insects the bees are the main flower visitors and dominant pollinators.
41. “Endothecium is associated with dehiscence of anther” Justify the statement.
➢ Endothecium is a layer in the anther wall.
➢ It has single layer of radially elongated cells. It is below epidermis.
➢ The tangential wall or radial wall has lignified thickenings.
➢ These cells are hygroscopic. This nature helps in the dehiscence of anther at maturity.
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42. List out the functions of tapetum.

Tapetum is the innermost layers of anther wall.
➢ Supplies nutrition to developing microspores.
➢ Contributes sporopollenin through ubisch bodies. They play role in pollen wall formation.
➢ Pollenkit material is contributed by tapetal cells. It is layer transferred to pollensurface.
➢ Exine proteins for rejection reaction are derived from tapetal cells.
43. Write short note on Pollen kitt.
➢ Pollen kitt is an oily layer on pollen surface. It is a viscous coating.
➢ It is contributed by tapetum.
➢ It is coloured yellow or orange.
➢ It is made of carotenoids, flavinoids.
➢ It attracts insects.
➢ It protects from damage by Uv radiation.
44. Distinguish tenuinucellate and crassinucellate ovules.
Tenuinucellate ovule Crassinucellate ovule.
➢ The sporogenous cell is hypodermal ➢ These ovules have sub-hypodermal
sporogenous cell
➢ It has single layer of nucellar tissue. ➢ They have large nucellus.
➢ It has very small nucellus. ➢ Many layers of cells are seen.
45. ‘Pollination in Gymnosperms is different from Angiosperms’ – Give reasons.
➢ Pollination in Gymnosperms is direct. The pollens are directly deposited on exposed
ovules. In angiosperms, it is indirect. The pollens are deposited on the stigma of the pistil.
46. Write short note on Heterostyly.
➢ Heterostyly is a mechanism to promote cross pollination.
➢ Different forms of flowers with different lengths of stamen and style.
➢ Pollination takes place between organs of same length.
a) Distyly. (Ex.Primula)
➢ Thrumeyed flowers have short styles. Anthers of pin have short stamen.
➢ Anthers of thrum eyed flowers and stigma of pin are of same height (both are long). This
helps in effective pollination.
b) Tristyly (Ex.Lythrum)
➢ 3 kinds of flowers are there, with respect to the length of style and stemen. Flower of one
type can’t pollinate their own type. They pollinate other 2 types.
47. Enumerate the characteristic features of Entomophilous flowers.
➢ Generally large. It small aggregated in inflorescence.
➢ Brightly coloured to attract insects.
➢ Scented with nectar.
➢ Pollen and nectar are floral rewards. Pollen is used for consumption.
➢ Foul odour also attracts flies and beetles.
➢ Juicy cells of flowers are pierced and sucked by insects.
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48. Discuss the steps involved in Microsporogenesis.

Microsporogenesis.
Formation of haploid microspores from diploid corpusculum
microspore mother cell by meiosis.
Retinaculum
➢ The primary sporogeneous cells undergo mitosis to
form sporogenous tissue.
➢ Sporogenous tissue functions as microspore mother
cells. Pollinium
➢ Microspore mother cell divides meiotically to form a
tetrad (4 haploid microspores) Translator of a Plant
➢ Microspores get separated. They remain free in the
anther locule. They develop into pollengrains.
➢ Microspores are held together by pollinium. Filament (or thread) like part form pollinium
is called retinaculum. Through retinaculum pollinia are attached to clip like corpusculum.
This structure is called Translator (Y shapled).
Parietal cell
Archesporial Sporogenous cell
cell
(a) Anther primordium (b) Differentiation of (c) Formation of parietal and (d) Formation of wall layers
archesporial cell sporogenous cell
Epidermis
Epidermis Endothecium
Middle layers Middle layer
Tapetum Tapetum
Sporogenous cell Microspores
Pollen tetrad
Stomium
Connective
(e) Sporogenous stage (f) Pollen tetrad stage (g) Microspore stage
Connective
Epidermis
Endothecium
Middle layer
Pollen grain
Stomium
49. With a suitable diagram explain the structure of an ovule.

Structure of ovule (Megasporangium)
➢ Ovule of ovule (Megasporangium)
➢ It has a stalk and a body.
➢ stalk (funiculus) is at the base of ovule. It attaches ovule to the placenta.
➢ Hilum is the junction (point of attachment) between ovule and funicle.
➢ In an inverted ovule, the funicle is fused to the body of ovule. Thus a ridge called raphae
is formed.
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➢ Body of ovule has central mass of reserve

food called nucellus. Chalazal end
➢ Nucellus is covered by 2 layers. called
integuments. Integument
➢ Integument covers the nucellus
completely except at the top. This forms
a pore called micropyle. Nucellus
➢ Ovule with single integument is called
unitegmic.
➢ Ovule with single integument is called
Embryo sac
unitegmic.
Hilum
➢ At the base of body, nucellus, integument
and funicle meet. This is called chalaza.
➢ Sac like structure in nucellus towards Micropyle
micropylar end is called embryosac (or)
Funicle
female gametophyte. It is formed from
functional megaspore of nuclellus.
Vascular supply
➢ The nutritive inner intergument layer is called integumentary tapetum or endothelium.
➢ Tenuinucellate type ovule has hypodermal sporogenous cell. It has single layer of nucellar
tissue.
➢ Crassinucellate type, ovule has subhypodermal sporogenous cell.
➢ Group of cells between chalaza and embryosac is called hypostase.
➢ Thick walled cells obove micropyle are called epistase.
50. Give a concise account on steps involved in fertilization of an angiosperm plant.
Steps in the fertilization of Angiosperms
1. Germination of pollen to form pollen tube in the stigma.
➢ Pollens fall on receptive stigma.
➢ Compatible pollen germnates to from tube.
➢ This is helped by stigmatic fluid in net stigma and pellicle in dry stigma.
➢ Compatibility is decided by recognition, rejection protein reaction, between pollen and
stigma surface.
➢ Pollen undergoes hydration. Pollen wall proteins are released.
➢ The entire content moves into pollen tube.
➢ Growth is at the cytoplasmic contents at the tip.
➢ Remaining part of pollen tube is occupied by vacuole.
➢ It is cut off from tip by callose plug.
➢ The hemispherical, transparent pollen tip of pollen tube is called ‘cap block’. The cape
block disappears and growth of pollen tube stops.
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2. Growth of pollen tube in the style.

➢ Hollow style glandular canal cells secrete mucilaginous substance. These secretions are
nutrition for growing pollen tube. They control compatibility of style and pollen tube.
➢ In soild style the pollen tube grows through intercellular space of transmitting tissue.
➢ Semisolid style is intermediate between solid and open type.
3. Entry of pollen tube in to the ovule.
➢ Propgamy - Pollen tube enters through micropyle.
➢ Chalazogamy - Pollen tube enters through chalaza.
➢ Mesogamy - Pollen tube enters through integument.
4. Entry of pollen tube into embryo sac.
➢ Pollen tube enters embryosac at the micropylar end. It is guided by obturator.
➢ Pollen tube enters into one of the synergids.
5. Double fertilization and Triple fusion.
➢ In Angiosperms, both the male gametes are involved in fertilization, it is called double
fertilisation.
➢ One of the male gometes fuses with the egg nucleus (syngamy). Thus zygote is formed.
➢ The second gamete migrates to central cell. It fuses with polar nuclei (or) secondary
mcleus. Thus primary Endosperm nucleus is formed. This involves the fusion of 3 nuclei
so it is called Triple fusion.
51. What is endosperm. Explain the types.
The zygote divides into an endosperm.
The primary Endosperm Nucleus is the regulatory structure. It nourishes the developing
embryo.
There types of endosperms based on the mode of development.
a) Nuclear Endosperm. (Ex.Arachis)
➢ Primary Endosperm Nucleus undergoes mitosis.
➢ No cell wall formation.
➢ A free nuclear condition exists
b) Cellular Endosperm (Ex. Helianthus)
➢ Primary Endosperm Nucleus divides into 2 nuclei.
➢ It is followed by wall formation.
c) Helobial Endosperm. (Ex. Vallusneria)
➢ Primary Endosperm Nucleus moves towards the base of the embryo sac. It divides into 2
nuclei.
➢ Cell wall is formed. It divides large micropylar chamber form small chalazal chamber.
➢ Nucleus of micropylar chamber divides. The ehalazal chamber nucleus does not divide.
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52. Differentiate the structure of Dicot and Monocot seed.

Structure of Dicot seed. Structure of Monocot seed.
1 Two cotyledons 1. Only one cotyledon
2. Two seeds may be seen 2. Paddy is one seeded.
3. The seed coat has outer coat testa 3. Seed is enclosed by husk. The brown membranous
and inner tegmen. seedcoat is closely adhered to grain.
4. In pea the cotyledons store the 4. Suctellum supplies embryo with food from
food. In castor the endosperm endosperm through epithelium.
stores reserve food.
5. Coleoptile (sheath of plumule) 5. Coleoptile and coleorhiza are seen.
coleorhiza (sheath of radicle) are
absent.
53. Give a detailed account on parthenocarpy. Add a note on its significance.
1. Parthenocarpy
Development of fruit like structures from the ovary without fertilizaion. These fruits are
parthenocarpic fruits. They have no true seeds. Commercially they are seedless fruits.
Genetic Partheno carpy (Ex. Citrus)
➢ Due to hybridization, Mutation.
Environmental Parthenocarpy
➢ Environmental condition induces parthenocarpy. Ex) Low temperature for 3-19 hours.
Chemically Induced Parthenocarpy.
➢ Growth promoting Auxins, Gibberellins induce parthenocarpy.
Significance
➢ Significance of seedless fruits in horticulture.
➢ Commercial Inportance
➢ To prepare jam, jelly, sauce, fruit drinks.
➢ High proportion of edible part due to absence of seed.
Part - II - ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
A) Camerarius 1. structure of flower
B) Hofmeister 2. Pollen Tetrad.
C) Hanning 3. Discovery of pollen tube.
D) Amici 4. Embryo culture
a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 Ans :A-1,B-2,C-4,D-3
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2. Find the Matching pair

a) Rhizome - Zingiber b) Corm - Solanum
c) Tuber - Lilium d) Bulb - Tuber Ans : Rhizome - Zingiber.
3. Find the mismatching pair
a) Runner - Centella b) Sucker - Chrysanthemum
c) Stolon - Fragaria d) Offset - Bryophyllum
Ans : d) Offset - Bryophyllum.
4. Epiphyllous buds are in
a) Chrysanthemum b) Agave c) Curcuma d) Scilla Ans : d) Scilla
5. Malus uses ________ method of propagation.
a) Root cutting b) Stem cutting c) leaf cutting d) Budding
Ans : a) Root cutting
6. Tshaped incision is made in _______ grafting.
a) Bud b) Approach c) Tongue d) Crown Ans : a) Bud
7. Plants propagated economically by vegetative prapagation
a) Solanum tuberosum b) Ixora
c) Jasminum d) Chrysanthemum Ans :a) Solanum tuberosum
8. Steward produced _______ plant from phloem
a) Beet root b) Carrot c) Solanum d) Radish Ans :b) carrot
9. Arrange from periphery to centre in anther wall.
a) Endothecium, Middle layer, tapetum
b) Tapetum, middle layer, Endothecium
c) Endothecium, tapetum, middle layer
d) Middle layer, endothecium, tapetum Ans :a) Endothecium, Middle layer, tapetum
10. Microspores are held together by pollinium in
a) Hibiscus b) Calotropis c) Irora d) Datura
Ans :b) Calotropis
11. ________ cells are hygroscopic in anther wall.
a) Epidermis b) Endothecium c) Middle layer d) tapetum
Ans :b) Endothecium
12. Find the wrong statement
a) Invasive tapetum is periplasmodial.
b) Amoeboid tapetum is associated with male sterility
c) Middle layer is ephemeral.
d) Epithelium is hygroscopic Ans :d) Epithelium is hygroscopic
13. Find the correct statement
a) Carrot grass causes allergy
b) Bee pollen is an artifical substance.
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c) Palynology is the study of honey pollen.

d) Mellitopalynology is the study of pollen grain. Ans :a) Carrot grass causes allergy
14. Not a shape of pollengrain
a) Globose b) Ellipsoid c) crescent shaped d) Cubical
Ans :d) Cubical
15. _______ protects pollengrain from UV radiation.
a) Sporopollenin b) pollenkitt c) Exine d) callose.
Ans :b) pollenkitt
16. Not in exine of pollengrain
a) Cellulose b) Sporopollenin c) Pollenkitt d) Callose Ans :d) Callose
17. _________ % of angiosperm pollen is liberated in 2 cell stage
a) 50 b) 60 c) 40 d) 30 Ans :b) 60
18. Many ovules are in the ovary of
a) Paddy b) Wheat c) Mango d) Orchid Ans : d) Orchid
A) Orthotropous 1. Leguminosae.
B) Anatropous 2. Primulaceae
C) Hemianatropous 3. Dicot, Monocet
D) Campylotropous 4. Piperaceae
a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 Ans : a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
20. Horse shoe shaped nu cellus is in ________ ovule.
a) Circinotropous b) Amphitropous c) Anatropous d) Hemianatropous
Ans : b) Amphitropous
a) Tetrasporic - Pepermia b) Bisporic - Allium
c) Monosporic - Polygonum d) Trisporic - Cactaceae
Ans :d) Trisporic - Cactaceae
22. Homogamy is in _______
a) Mirabilis b) Commelina c) Viola d) Oxalis. Ans :a) Mirabilis
23. Protogyny is in _______
a) Aristolochia b) Helian thus c) Viola d) Oxalis.
Ans :a) Aristolochia
24. Distyly is in _______
a) Primula b) Lythrum c) Abutilon d) Hibiscus
Ans :a) Primula
Chapter 1 18
25. Find the mismatching following

a) Passiflora - self sterility b) Gloriosa - Herkogamy
c) Sugarcan - Anemophily d) Urtica - Hydrophily
Ans : d) Urtica - Hydrophily
26. Find the matching pair
a) Epihydrophily - Elodea. b) Ornithaphily - Lemna
c) Entomophily - Vallisneria d) Hydrophily - Kigelia.
Ans : a) Epihydrophily - Elodea
27. Find the odd one
Not dealing with entry of pollen tube
a) Herkogamy b) Porugamy c) Mesogamy d) chalozogamy
Ans : a)Herkogamy
28. Not a post fertilization change
a) Endosperm b) Embryo development
c) Seed formation d) Triple fusion Ans : d) Triple fusion.
29. Matching
A Apple 1 Edible receptacle
B Jack fruit 2 Beet root
C Juicy flower stalk 3 Anacardium
D Perisperm 4 Fleshy perianth
a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 Ans : A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
30. Matching the following
A Ovary 1 zygote
B Ovule 2 Endosperm
C Secondary nucleus 3 Seed
D Egg 4 Fruit
a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 Ans :A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
31. Find the wrong statment.
a) Aleurone grain contains sphaerosomes
b) Pea is non - endospermous
c) Castor is endospermous
d) Three types of endosperms are in Gymnosperms
Ans :d) Three types of endosperms are in Gymnosperms
32. True (or) False
1) Beetles show Palaenophily 2) Bees show Cantharophily
3) Snails show Malacophily 4) Ants show Myrmecophily
19 Chapter 1
a) 1,2 are false, 3,4 are true b) 1,2 are true, 3,4 are false
c) 1,2,3 are true , 4 true d) 1 is ture 2,3,4 are false
Ans: a) 1,2 are false, 3,4 are true
a) Trap mechanism - Aristolochia. b) Pit fall mechanism - Arum.
c) Clipmechanism - Aeclepiadaceae d) Piston mechanism - Salvia
Ans: d) Piston mechanism - Salvia
a) Obligate mutualism - Tridax b) Pollen robber - Amurphophallus.
c) Pseudo copulation - Ophyrus. d) Fig pollination - Wash.
Ans: a) Obligate mutualism - Tridax
35. Fritillaria imperialis shows vegetative propagation by
a) Bulb b) Runner c) Bulbils d) Sucker Ans: c) Bulblis
36. Generative apospory is in
a) Aerva b) Ulmus c) Balanophova d) Allium Ans: a) Aerva
37. Terror of Bengal is
a) Eichhornia b) Centella c) Lilium d) Murrayw
Ans: a) Eichhornia
38. Allium cepa is an example for _______
a) Corm b) Tuber c) Tunicated bulb d) Naked bulb
Ans: c) Tunicated bulb
39. Jasminum shows ________
a) Bud grafting b) Approach grafting
c) Crown grafting d) None Ans: d) None
40. Endangered plants can be produced by
a) Layering b) Grafting c) Micropropagation d) Cutting
Ans : c) Micropropagation
41. Disease free plants can be produced by
a) Meristem, culture b) Grafting c) Cutting d) Layering
Ans : a) Meristem, culture
42. ________ of anther has vascular tissues
a) Anther cavity b) Tapetum c) Connective d) Middle layer
Ans : c) Connective
43. ________ has underground and aerial flowers
a) Scrophularia b) Catharanthus c) Commelina d) Clerodendron
Ans :c) commelina
44. Juick cells are in the ________ flowers.
a) Ornithophilous b) Hydrophilous c) Entomophilous d) Malacophilous
Ans : c) Entomophilous
Chapter 1 20
45. The central mass of parenchyma in ovule is

a) Nucellus b) Endosperm c) Raphae d) Embryosac.
Ans :Nucellus
46. Peperomia has ________ type of embryosac
a) Monosporic b) Bisporic c) trisporic d) Tetrasporic
Ans : d) Tetrasporic
47. Oxalis shows ________
a) Cleistogamy b) Homogamy
c) Incomplete dichogamy d) Geitonogamy Ans : a) Cleistogamy
48. Brightly coloured bracts attract insects in __________
a) Poinsettia b) Bougainvillea c) Lemna d) Both a,b
Ans :d) Both a,b
49. Chief pollinating agents are
a) Snails b) Worms c) animals d) insects
Ans : d) insects
50. Endosperm is formed from
a) Ovary b) Ovule c) egg d) Secondary nucleus
Ans :d) secondary nucleus
51. Coccinia has ________ endosperm.
a) Nuclear b) Cellular c) Helobial d) Ruminate
Ans : a) Nuclear
52. Malus shows _______ cutting
a) Root b) stem c) leaf d) Flower
Ans : a) Root
53. Polygonaceae has ______ type of ovule
a) Orthotropous b) Anatropous c) Hemianatropous d) Campylotropous.
Ans : a) Orthotropous
54. Not an animal pollinater
a) Lemur b) Gecko Lizard c) Garden lizard d) snake Ans :d) snake
55. This shape is not seen in Tridax embryo
a) Globular b) Heart c) torpedo shape d) Cuboidal
Ans :d) cuboidal
56. Kigelia africana shows
a) Chirotopterophily b) Malacophily c) Entomophily d) Zoophily
Ans :a) chirotopterophily
57. The pollen of Myosotis is __________ micrometers.
a) 10 b) 100 c) 1 d) 20 Ans : a) 10
21 Chapter 1
58. The pollen of Nyctaginaceae is of __________ microns

a) 50 b) 100 c) 200 d) 300 Ans : c) 200
59. Rhizome is not in
a) Musa paradisiaca b) Zingifer officinale.
c) Curcuma longa d) Colocasia Ans : d) Colocasia
60. Does not show vegetative reproduction by root
a) Murraya b) Dalberigia c) Millinagtonia d) Spinifex.
Ans :d) spinifex.
II. Two Marks
1. Which characteristic feature of a plant cell in used in horticulture, forestry and industries
to propagate plants
➢ The Genetic ability of plant cell to produce entire plant under suitable conditions is called
totipotency.
2. Define tissue culture?
➢ The growth of plant tissue in special culture medium suitable controlled conditions.
3. Name the 3 types of gametic fusions in sexual reproduction of plants?
➢ Isogamy, Anisogamy and Oogamy.
4. What is microsporogenesis?
➢ Formation of haploid microspores from diploid microspore mother cell by meiosis.
5. Comment on amoeboid tapetum?
➢ It is a thrid type of tapetum.
➢ The cell wall is not lost.
➢ Cells protrude into the anther cavity, by amoeboid movement.
➢ It is connected to male sterility. It is not periplasmodial type.
6. What are Ubisch lodies?
➢ Tape tum contributes to sporopollenin through ubisch bodies. They play an important
role in pollen wall formation.
7. Differentiate Exine and Intine?
Exine Intine
➢ Outer wall layer of pollen ➢ Inner wall layer.
➢ Thick ➢ Thin
➢ Not uniform. Made of cellulose, ➢ Uniform made of pectin, hemicellulose,
sporopollenin, pollenkitt. cellulose, callose.
8. Comment on the suclpturing pottern of pollengrains?

➢ The exine is sculptured as rod, groove, wart, punctuation etc.
➢ This pattern is used in plant identification and classification.
Chapter 1 22
9. Mention the various shapes of pollengrains?

➢ Globose, ellipsoid, fusiform, lobed, angular, crescent shaped.
10. What do you know of Palynology?
➢ It is the study of pollengrains.
➢ It is helps to identity the coal, oil fields.
➢ It reflects the vegetation of that area.
11. Can we preserve pollengrains?
➢ Pollen is preserved in liquid nitrogen (-1960c) in viable condition for prolonged duration.
It is called cryopreservation. This pollen of economically important plants are stored in
pollen bank.
12. What is Mellitopalynology?
➢ Study of honeypollen.
13. Comment on Carrot Grass?
➢ Parthenium hysterophorus of Asteraceae family is called as carrot grass.
➢ It is introduced as a contaminant with cereal from fropical America.
➢ Pollen of this plant causes allergy.
14. Differentiate hypostase form Epistase?
Hypostase Epistase
➢ Group of cells in the ovule between ➢ Thick walled cells above the micropylar end
chalaza and embryosac. above the embryosac.
15. What is archesporium?
➢ In the ovule, a single hypodermal cell in the nucellus become enlarged. This functions
as Archesporium. In some plants it functions as megaspore mother cell directly. It may
divide.
16. Prove that there is a co.evolution between plants and animals?
➢ Many plants are pollinated by a particular animal species. The flowers are modified
accordingly. This proves their co.evolution.
17. Give the significance of pollination?
➢ Pollen grains germinate only when they reach the stigma.
➢ Stamen, pistil are spatially separated. so, a mechanism is essential for pollengrains to
reach stigma.
18. Define pollination?
➢ Transfer of pollengrains from anther to stigma of a flower.
19. Differentiate pollination in gymnosperms and angiosperms.
Pollination in Gymnosperms Pollination in Angiosperms
➢ Direct ➢ Indirect
➢ Pollens are directly deposited on ➢ Pollens are deposited on the stigma of pistil.
the exposed ovules.
23 Chapter 1
20. What is chasmogamy?

➢ In many angiosperms, the flowers open. They exposure mature anther and stigma for
pollination. This phenomenon is chasmogamy. These are chasmogamous flowers.
21. Define cleistogamy?
➢ In some plants, pollination occurs without exposing or opening the sex organs. This
phenomenon is called cleistogamy. Such flowers are called cleistogamous flowers.
22. Differentiate Autogamy and allogamy?
Autogamy Allogamy
➢ Transfer of pollen on the stigma of ➢ Transfer of pollen of one flower to the stigma
the same flower of another flower.
23. Name the abiotic agents of pollination?
➢ Pollination by wind (or) Anemophily.
➢ Pollination by water (or) Hydrophily.
24. Define Zoophily?
➢ Pollination through animals (Ex. insects) is called as Zoophily.
25. What is cheiropterophily? Give example?
➢ Pollination by bats. Such plants are kigelia africana, Adansonia digitata.
26. Malacophily - Comment?
➢ Pollination by slugs and snail. Ex. Plants of Araceae, Water snails pollinate Lemna.
27. What is Myrmecophily?
➢ Pollination by ants Ex. Leguminosae, plants.
28. What is recognition rejection protein reaction?
➢ This reaction decides the compatibility between the pollen and stigma surface. It is
facilitated by stigmatic fluid in wet stigma and pellicle in dry stigma.
29. What is cap block?
The Hemispherical, transparent tip of pollentube is called cap block. It is seen by
➢
microscope. When it disappears the growth of pollen tube stops.
30. What is the significance of obtruator?
➢ In the ovary locule, the obtruator guides pollen tube towards the micropyle, of ovule.
31. Suggest the events after fertilization ?
➢ Endosperm, embryo development.
➢ Formation of seed, fruit. These are called post fertilization changes.
III. Three Marks
1. What do you know about Bee Pollen?
➢ It is a natural substance with high protein, carhohydrate, minerals and vitamins.
➢ It is a dietary supplement.
➢ It is sold as pollen tablets, syrups.
➢ It increase the performance of althlets, race horses.
➢ It heals the burn wounds.
Chapter 1 24
2. Give the significance of pollen calendar?

➢ It shows the production of pollen by plants during different seasons.
➢ This benefits the allergic persons.
➢ Pollen grains cause asthma, bronchitis, has fever, allergic rhinitis.
3. Comment on Caruncle?
➢ Cells at the tip of outer integnment around micropyle develop into fleshy stucture. It is
called caruncle. Ex. Ricinus communis.
4. What is perisperm?
➢ Remnant of nucellar tissue in the seed is called perisperm.
Ex. Black pepper, beet root.
5. What is Aril?
➢ The colourful, fleshy funiculus is called Aril.
Ex. Myristica and Pithe cellobium.
6. Write about Endosperm?
➢ The Zygots divides into endosperm. It is a nutritive tissne nourishing embryo. It is a
regulatory structure.
7. Differentiate Endospemous and non-endospermous seeds?
Endospermous seeds Non-Endospermous seeds
➢ Seeds with endosperm ➢ Seeds without endosperm.
➢ It is also called ex-albuminous seeds ➢ It is also called albuminous seeds.
➢ Ex-Pea, Ground nut, bean ➢ Paddy, Coconut, Castor.
8. Comment on Aleurone Tissue.
➢ These are layers of specialized cells around the endosperm, in cereals.
➢ They have sphaerosomes (Ex. Barley Maize)
➢ During germination, they secrete hydrolytic enzymes amylase, protease. They digest
reserve food of endosperm.
9. Mention the other interesting pollinating mechanisum of plants?
➢ Trap Mechanism Ex. Aristolochia.
➢ Pit fall mechanism Ex. Arum.
➢ Clip or Translator Mechanism Ex. Asclepiadaceae
➢ Piston Mechanism Ex. Papilionaceae.
10. Explain obligate mutualism with example?
➢ Obligate mutualism exists between yucca and moth (Jegeticula yuccasella).
➢ Moth bores a hole in ovary and lays eggs in it.
➢ The moth pushes the ball of pollen through the hollow stigma.
➢ Seeds develop after fertilization.
➢ Larvae feed on developing seeds.
➢ Unconsumed seeds are used for propagation of species.
➢ Moth cannot survive without Yucca flowers.
➢ Plant fails to reproduce sexually without moth.
25 Chapter 1
11. Comment on pollen (nectar) robber?

➢ Amorphophallus provide floral rewards. They are the safe site for laying eggs. visitors
consume pollen and mectar. They do not help in pollination. They are pollen robbers.
12. Describe pseudocopulations?
➢ In Bee orchid (ophyrus) the morphology of flower is similar to female wasp (colpa).
➢ Male wasp mistakes the flower for female wasp, and try to copulate. This pseudocopulation
helps in pollination.
13. Exlist the advantages of self pollination?
➢ Pollination is certain in bisexual flowers.
➢ Species members are separated by large distance. So plant depends on self pollination.
➢ If cross pollination fails, self- pollination prevents the extinction of species.
14. What are the disadvantages of self pollination?
➢ Continuons self pollination produce weaker progeny
➢ Chance of producing new species and varieties are meager.
15. Give the advantages of cross pollination?
➢ Healthier offsprings.
➢ Better germination capacity.
➢ Production of new varieties.
➢ Better adaptability of plant to environment.
16. Enlist the disadvantages of cross pollination?
➢ The process is uncertain since it depends on external agencies.
➢ Various devices are needed to attract the pollinating agents.
17. Pollination is prerequisite for fertilisation Discuss?
➢ Fertilisation forms fruits and seeds.
➢ Pollination brings male and female gametes closer.
➢ Cross pollination produces variations, due to mixing of genes. Variations help the
adaptation of plants to enviroment. It helps in speciation.
18. How is the surface of endosperm ? Discuss?
➢ Endosperm with irregularity and uneven ness in its surface forms the ruminate endosperm.
Ex. Areca catchu, Passiflora, Myristica.
19. Discuss the functions of Endosperm?
➢ It is the nutritive tissue for the developing embryo.
➢ The zygote divides only after the develpment of endosperm.
➢ Endosperm regulates the embryo development.
20. Relate the role of cocount as endosperm?
➢ Coconut milk is a nutrient medium.
➢ It induces the differentiation of embryo (embryoids), Plantlets of various plant tissues.
➢ Coconut water is free nuclear endosperm. The white kernel part is cellular.
Chapter 1 26
IV. Five Marks.

1. Illustrate the strcture of cicer, a dicot seed?
➢ Seeds are attached to fruits by funiculus. Testa
Radicle
➢ The scar of funiculus is called hilum.
➢ Micropyle is the small pore below hilum.
➢ O2 and water enters seed for germination through Testa
micropyle.
Seed entire
➢ Each seed has outer thick seed coat.seed coat
develops from the integuments of ovule. Plumule
Cotyledon
➢ Testa is the hard outer coat.

➢ Tegmen is the thin membranous inner coat.
Testa
➢ In pea testa, tegmen are fused.
➢ Two cotyledons are laterally attached to embryonic Radicle
axis. Seed cut opened
➢ In pea cotyledons store food.

➢ In castor endosperm has reserve food.
➢ One end of embryonal axis projecting beyond the cotyledons. It is called radicle (embryonic
root)
➢ The other end of embryonal axis called plumule (embryonic shoot)
➢ Embryonic axis above the cotyledons is epicotyl.
➢ Cylindrical region between the cotyledons is hypocotyl.
➢ Epicotyle terminates in plumule. Hypocotyl ends in radicle.
2. Describe the structure of a monocot seed (Ex. Paddy)?
➢ Paddy is a one seeded caryopsis.
➢ The seed is enclosed by brown husk with 2 rows of
glumes. Endosperm
➢ The brown, membranous seed coat is attached to
grain. Scutellum
➢ Endosperm is the bulk of grain. It is the storage Coleoptile
tissue. Shoot apex
➢ It is separated from embryo by epithelium.
➢ Embryo has one cotyledon called scutellum. It is Radicle
Root cap
later to embryonal axis. Coleorhiza
➢ A short axis with plumule and radicle is protected L.s. of fruit
by root cap.
➢ Coleoptile is a protective sheath of plumule.
➢ Coleorhiza is the protective sheath of radicle.
➢ Scutellum supplies food to embryo from endosperm through epithelium.
27 Chapter 1
3. In some kinds of plant reproductions male, female gametes are not involved ? Justify?
Apomixis.
➢ It is the plant reproduction which does not involue the union of male and female gametes.
A) Recurrent Apomixis.
➢ Vegetative Reproduction and agamospermy.
B) Non recurrent Apomixis.
➢ After meiosis, haploid embryosac RECURRENT
is formed. It devleps into embryo APOMIXIS
without fertilization.
I) Vegetative Reproduction
Vegetative
➢ Propagation of plants by parts Agamospermy
reproduction
other than seeds.
Ex.Bulbil - Fritillaria imperialis.
Bulbs - Allium Adventive embryony
Sucker - Chrysanthemum. Diplospory
a) Agamospory Apospory
➢ Embryos are formed without
syngamy and meiosis.
b) Adventiver Embryony
➢ Embryo arises from diploid sporophytic cell of nucellus or integument. It is called
sporophytic budding. Gametophytic phase is completely absent.
c) Diplospory (Generative apospory)
➢ Megaspore mother cells gives rise to diploid embryosac without meiosis. Ex. Eupatorium.
d) Apospory
➢ Nucellar cell develop into diploid embryo sac. This is somatic apospory. Ex. Hieracium,
Parthenium.
4. Describel polyembryony and its types.
Zygotic embryo
Poly embroyony is the occurrence of more than one embryo in a
seed.
Four categories of poly embryony
a) Cleavage Polyembryony (Ex. Orchids)
b) Formation of embryo by cells of Embryosac other than egg. Endosperm
➢ Synergids - Aristolochia
➢ Antipodals - Ulmus.
➢ Endospern - Balanophora.
Antipodal embryo
c) Development of more than one embryosac within the same
ovule.
➢ Derivatives of Macrospore Mother cells (MMC) Ex. Casuarina.
d) Activation of sporophytic cells of ovule
Nucellus, integuments - citrus and syzygium. Practical applications of polyembroyony.
➢ Seedlings from nucellar tissue are better clones for orchards (Ex. Citrus)
➢ Virus free embryos are formed.
Chapter 1 28
5. An entire plant can be produced from a single cell - Justify?

The genetic ability of a plant cell to produce entire plant in suitable condition is called
Totipotency.
i) Tissue Culture
➢ Growth of plant tissue in special cutture medium under suitable conditions is called
tissue culture.
Ex. F.C steward of cornell university developed a new carrot plant from the phloem
parenchyma cell.
ii) Micropropagation
Regenerationof whole plant from a cell or tissue of vegetative structures.
Advantages of Modern methods.
➢ Plants with desired characteristics are multiplied rapidly in short duration.
➢ Genetically identical plants are produced.
➢ Done at any season.
➢ Plants without viable seeds, difficult to germinate can be propagated.
➢ Rare, endangered plants are propagated.
➢ Cells are transformed by genetic modification.
Disadvantages of modern methods
➢ Labour intensive. It requires skilled workers.
➢ Maintenance of sterile condition increases cost.
➢ Genetically identical clones are susceptible to new diseases.
➢ Genetical changes in callus is not desirabel for commercial use.
6. Elaborate an account on the T.S of anther.
Connective
1. Anther Wall Epidermis
a) Epidermis Endothecium
Middle layer
➢ Protective single layer. Tapetum
Stomium
➢ Cells undergo anticlinal division to cope up Pollen grain
enlarging internal tissue.
b) Endothecium
➢ Single layer of radially elongated cells. Diagrammatic view
➢ Bands of cellulose (or) lignin are seen in tangetial
wall.
➢ At the junction of 2 sporangia these thickenings are
absent. This region is called stomium.
View under microscope
➢ Hygroscopic nature of endothecium helps in
dehiscence of anther.
c) Middle layer
➢ 2 to3 layers next to endothecium.
➢ These are ephemeral. Disintegrate or crushed during maturity.
d) Tapetum
➢ It is dual in origin (from peripheral wall layer and connective tissue of anther lining.)
29 Chapter 1

➢ It nourishes sporogenous tissue, microspore mother cell, microspores.

➢ Cells are uninucleate, multinucleate with polyploid nucleus.

➢ It contributes to wall material, sporopollenin, pollenkitt, tryphine.

➢ It controls fertility or sterility of pollengrains.

➢ It is of 2 types i) Secretory tapetum ii) Invasive tapetum.
2. Anther cavity.

➢ It is filled with young microspores or mature pollengrains.

➢ Microspore mother cells form microspore by meiosis.
3) Connective.

➢ It is a colume of sterile tissue. It is sorrounded by anther lobe. It has vascular tissue.
7. How does the male gametophyte develop?

➢ Haploid microspore is the first cell.

➢ Development takes place at microsporangium.

➢ Microspore nucleus divides into vegetative and generative nuclevs.

➢ Large vegetative cell and small generative cell is formed.

➢ At this 2 celled stage, pollens are liberated from anther.

➢ In some plants generative cell form 2 male gemetes.

➢ Male gametophyte grows when the pollen reaches the rigth stigma.

➢ Pollen absorbs mositure and swells.

➢ Intine grows as pollen tube through germ pore.

➢ It at 2 celled stage, generative cells divides into 2 male cells at stigma.
(e)
Generative nucleus
Pollen tube
Tube nucleus (g)
(c)
Dividing nucleus
Exine (f)
Male gametes
(a) Intine
Nucleus Dividing Vegetative cell
generative
Germ pore (d)
nucleus Generative cell Tube nucleus
Vacuole
(b) Tube nucleus
Nucleus
Chapter 1 30
8. Ovules are of many types based on the orientation, form, position of micropyle with
respect to funicle, chalaza - discuss?
1) Orthotropous
➢ Micropyle is at distal end.
➢ Funicle and chalaza lie in one straight vertical line (Ex. Piperaceae)
2) Anatropous
➢ Body of ovule is inverted.
➢ Micropyle, funiculus lie close to each other Ex. Dicots, Monocots.
3) Hemianatropous
➢ Body is transverse
➢ It is at right angle to funicle. Ex. Primulaceae.
4) Campylotropous
➢ Body is curved at micropylar end.
➢ Embroysac is curved.
➢ Hilum, micropyle and chalaza are nearer. Ex.Leguminosae
5) Amphitropous
➢ Less distance between hilum and chalaza.
➢ Nucellus is horse shoe shaped. Ex. Alismataceae.
6) Circinotropous. (Ex. Cactaceae)
➢ Long funicle sorrounds the ovule.
(a) Orthotropous (b) Anatropous (c) Hemianatropous (d) Campylotropous (e) Amphitropous (f) Circinotropous
9. How does the monosporic embryosac develop?

➢ Functional megaspore is the first cell of embryosac or female gametophyte.
➢ Megaspore elongates along micropylar - chalazal axis.
➢ Nucleus undergoes mitosis without wall formation.
➢ A central vacuole expands and pushed the nuclei towards the opposite poles.
➢ Each nucleus divide mitotically twice. Thus 4 nuclei are formed at each pole.
➢ Eight nuclei are in common cytoplasm.
➢ Of the 4 nuclei at micropylar end, 3 nuclei form 3 antipodal cells. Fourth one is the lower
polar nucleus.
➢ Two polar nuclei fuse into secondary nucleus.
➢ Thus 7 celled, 8 nucleated embroysac is formed.
31 Chapter 1
Archesporial cell
Synergid
Egg
polar nucleus
Antipodal
Nucellus
Megaspore Functional 2-nucleate stage
megaspore 4-nucleate stage 8-nucleate stage
mother cell
10. Enlist the contrivances for crosspollination ?

1) Dicliny or Unisexuality.
➢ In unisexual flowers, only cross pollination is possible.
i) Monoecious (Ex. cocount )
➢ Male and female flowers on same plant
➢ Autogany is prevent in castor, maize. Geitonogamy takes place.

ii) Dioecious.

➢ Male and female flowers are on different plants.

➢ Both autogamy, geitonogamy are prevented.
2) Monocliny or Bisexuality.
i) Dichogamy.
Auther and stigma mature at different times.
a) Protandry (Ex. Helianthus)
Stamens mature earlier than stigma
b) Protogymy (Ex. Aristolochia)
Stigmas mature earlier than stamen.
ii) Herkogamy.
Arrangement of stamen, stigma are different. Thus self pollination is prevented.
Ex . Hibis cus - Stigma project above stamen.
iii) Heterostyly,
Flowers differ in the length of stamen and style.
Pollination takes place between organs of the same length.
a) Distyly.
Pin flowers have long style. Thrum eyed flowers have long stamens. This same height
helps in pollination.
Pin flowers have short stamens. Thrum eyed flowers
have short style.
This helps in pollination.
b) Tristyly (Ex. Lythrum) Stigma
lant produces 3 kinds of flowers with respect to length
P
of style and stamens. Herkogamy - Gloriosa
iv) Self sterility / Self incompatibility.
Pollengrain of one flower is unable to germinate in the stigme of the same.
Chapter 1 32
Ex. Passiflora
Stamens
Style
Stamens Style
Stigma
Style Stamens
Style
(a) Protandry - Clerodendrum (b) Protogyny - Scrophularia
11. Enlist the characteristics of Anemophilous flowers.

➢ Flowers in pendulous, catkin like, spike inflorescence.
➢ Inflorescence axis elongates. So, flowers are brought above leaf level.
➢ Reduced perianth (or) Absent.
➢ Small, colourless flowers do not / secrete nectar. They are not scented.
➢ Long, exerted, versatile filaments.
➢ Enormous quantity of pollen grains.
➢ Minute, light, dry pollen easily carried by wind to long distances.
➢ Violent bursting of anthevs release the pollengrains. Ex. Urtica.
➢ Protruding, feathery, branched stigma catch pollengrains.
➢ Flowers are produced before leaves. So, they are carried without hindrance.
12. Explain pollinaiton in maize? Male inflorescence (Tassel)
➢ Maize is monoecious and uniseual.
Female inflorescence (Cob)
➢ Male inflorescence is at the terminal.
➢ Female inflorescence is at the lateral lower level. Silk
➢ Heavy pollens can not carried by breeze. (Stigma
and Style)
➢ Male inflorescence is shaken by wind. They released
pollens fall vertically below
➢ The long stigma (23 cm) projects beyond the leaves.
➢ Pollens dropping from tassel is caught by the stigma. Pollination in Zea mays
13. What do you know about the lever mechanism of

pollination? Explain?
➢ Salvia is adapted for bee pollination.
➢ Bilabiate corolla has 2 stamens. Pistil
Anther Pollen gets dusted
on the body of
➢ Each anther has upper fertile lobe and the insect
lower sterile lobe separated by long (i) (ii)
connective. The anthers swing freely.

Pollen gets
➢ The bee strikes agains the sterile end Stigma transferred
to the stigma
of connective. So, fertile part of stamen
descend. It strikes at the back of the bee. (iii) (iv)

➢ When the bee visits another flower, the pollen is rubbed on stigma. Thus pollination is
completed.
33 Chapter 1
14. Describe the development of Dicot embryo?

Embryonal mass
Hypophysi
s
Terminal cell
Suspensor
Basal cell
(a) (b) (c) (d )

Zygote 2- celled proembryo 4 celled proembryo Globular embryo
Cotyledon
Plumul e
Embryonal mass
Hypophysis
Hypophysis Cotyledons
Radicle
Radicl e
Suspensor Root cap
Suspensor Root cap
(f) Heart shaped embryo (g) Mature embryo (h) Mature embryo in a seed
Development of Dicot embryo (Capsella bursa-pastor is)
➢ The embryo develops at micropylar end of embryo sac.

➢ The zygote undergoes transverse division.
➢ An upper terminal cell and lower basal cell is formed.
➢ Divisions in zygote during development lead to the formation of embryo.
➢ Before mature stage, embryo undergoes globular, heart shaped stages.
➢ Mature embryo has a radicle, 2 cotyledons and a plumule.
15. Explain epihy drophily with an example? Epihydrophily.
Pollination occurs at water level
Pollination in vallisneria. r
➢ It is submerged rooted hydrophyte. F r
➢ At the time of pollination, the flowers come to
water level by long coiled stalk.
➢ Cup shaped depression is formed in female flower.
Ribbon
➢ The detached male flower floats on water surface. shaped leaves
➢ Male flower gets settled on the depression of female
flower. It contacts stigma and bring out pollination. e
➢ Stalk of female flower coils. Thus the flower comes
Root
under water from surface. Then fruits are produced.
16. Enlist the advantages, disadvantages of conventional methods of vegetative propagation?
Advantages of conventional Methods.
➢ Plants are genetically uniform.
➢ Plants are produced quickly.
➢ For plants with little or no seeds (or) when seeds do not germinate.
➢ Economical vegetative propagation. Ex. Solanum tuberosum.
➢ Plants with desirable characters like disease resistance, high yield can be grafted.
Disadvantages.
➢ Virus infected plants produce virus infected new plants.
➢ Bulky vegetative structures are difficult to handle.
********
Chapter 1 34
Genetics
VII 2 Classical Genetics
PART -1 TEXT BOOK EVALUATION

I. Choose the correct answer from the given option:
1. Extra nuclear inheritance is a consequence of presence of genes in
a) Mitrochondria and chloroplasts b) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitrochondria
c) Ribosomes and chloroplast d) Lysososmes and ribosomes
Ans : a)Mitrochondria and chloroplasts
2. In order to find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having the
genotype AaBb , it should be crossed to a plant with the genotype
a) aaBB b) AaBB c) AABB d) aabb Ans : d) aabb
3. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype
AABbCC ?
a) Three b) Four c) Nine d) Two Ans : b) Four
4. Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance ?
a) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa b) production of male honey bee
c) Pod shape in garden pea d) Skin colour in humans
Ans : d) Skin colour in humans
5. In Mendels experiments with garden pea round seed shape (RR) was dominant over
wrinkled seeds (rr) ,Yellow cotyledon on (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy).
What are the expected phenotypes in the F2 generation of the cross RRYY x rryy?
a) Only round seeds with green cotyledons
b) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
c) Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
d) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons an wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
Ans : d) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons an wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
6. Test cross involves
a) Crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
b) Crossing between two F1 hybrids
c) Crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
d) Crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait
Ans : a) Crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
7. In pea plants, Yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seed plant is
crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you
expect in F1 generation?
a) 9:1 b) 1:3 c) 3:1 d) 50 :50 Ans : d) 50 : 50
35 Chapter 2
8. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by

a) Back cross b) Test cross c) Dihybird cross d) Pedigree analysis
Ans : b) Test cross
9. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihydrid cross
a) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show very few combinations
b) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher combinations
c) Genes far apart on the same chromosomes show very few recombinations
d) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosomes show similar recombinations as the tightly
linked ones
Ans : a) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show very few combinations
10. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the
parents
a) Incomplete dominance b) Law of dominance
c) Inheritance of one gene d) Co- dominance Ans : d) Co- dominance
11. Fruit colour in squash is an example of
a) Recessive epistatsis b) Dominant epistasis
c) Complementary genes d) Inhibitory genes Ans: b) Dominant epistasis
12. In his classic experiments on Pea plants, Mendel did not use
a) Flowering position b) seed colour
c) pod length d) Seed shape Ans : c) pod length
13. The epistatic effect, in which the dihybird cross 9:3:3:1 between AaBb Aabb is modified as
a) Dominance of one allele on another allele of both loci
b) Interaction between two alleles of different loci
c) Dominance of one allele to another alleles of same loci
d) Interaction between two alleles of some loci
Ans: c) Dominance of one allele to another alleles of same loci
14. In a test cross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental type offspring were produced than
the recombination type offspring. This indicates
a) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes
b) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
c) The two genes are linked and present on the some chromosome
d) Both of characters are controlled by more than one gene
Ans: c) The two genes are linked and present on the some chromosome
15. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are known to be located
on how many different chromosomes?
a) Seven b) Six c) Five d) Four Ans : a) Seven
16. Which of the following explains how progeny can posses the combinations of traits that
none of the parent possessed ?
a) law of segregation b) Chromosome theory
c) Law of independent assortment d) Polygenic inheritance
Ans : b) Chromosome theory
17. “Gametes are never hybrid ” This is a statement of
a) Law of dominance b) Law of independent assortment
c) law of segregation d) Law of random fertilization
Ans : c) law of segregation
Chapter 2 36
18. Gene which suppresses other genes activity but does not lie on the same locus is called as
a) Epistatic b) Supplement only
c) Hypostatic d) Codominant Ans : c) Hypostatic
19. Pure tall plants are crossed with pure dwarf plant. In the F1 generation , all plants were tall.
These tall plants of F1 generation were selfed and the ratio of tall to dwarf plants obtained
was 3:1 This is called
a) Dominance b) Inheritance c) Codominance d) Heredity Ans : a) Dominance
20. The dominant epistatis ratio is
a) 9:3:3:1 b) 12:3:1 c) 9:3:4 d) 9:6:1 Ans : b) 12:3:1
21. Select the period for Mendel’s hybridization experiments
a) 1856 - 1863 b) 1850 -1870 c) 1857 – 1869 d) 1870 – 1877
Ans : a) 1856 - 1863
22. Among the following characters which one was not considered by Mendel in his
experimentation pea ?
a) Steam – Tall or dwarf b) Trichomal glandular or non – glandular
c) Seed – Green or yellow d) Pod – Inflated or constricted
Ans : b) Trichomalgalandular or non – glandular
23. Name the seven contrasting traits of Mendel.
 Tall x Dwarf  Round x wrinkled  yellow x Green
 Purple x white  Green x Yellow  Inflated x constricted  axial x terminal
24. What is meant by true breeding or pure breeding lines / strain ?
A group of identical that always produce off spring of the same phenotype when intercrossed
(or)
It is a kind of breeding where in the parents would produce off spring that would carry the
same phenotype . These kind of parents are homozygous for every trait.
 (eg) cattle have been black for many generations
 Mating between two of the some bread
(or)
True breeding means that the parent will also pass down a specific phenotypic trait to their
off spring
25. Give the names of the scientists who rediscovered Mendelism.
 Hugo Devries  Carl Correns  Erich Von Tschermak
26. What is back cross?
¾¾ When F1 Individuals are crossed with one of the two parent from which they were derived.
Such cross is called back cross.
(or )
¾¾ Cross of the hybrid of F1 generation with either of the parent dominant or recessive parent?
If dominant parent then it is terminated out cross
(or)
¾¾ crosses between F1 off springs with either of the two parents ( hybrid ) are known as back
cross
27. Define Genetics.
¾¾ It is the branch of biological science which deals with the mechanism of transmission of
characters from parent to off-springs .
37 Chapter 2
28. What are multiple alleles

¾¾ Alleles are alternative form a gene , and they are responsible for differences in phenotypic
expression of a given trait. A gene for which atleast two alleles exist is to be polymorphic,
so a particular gene may be exist in three or more allelic forms are known as multiple alleles
¾¾ eg) ABO of human blood is controlled by three alleles
29. What are the reasons for Mendels successes in his breeding experiment?
Pisum sativum a wise choice , because
1. He concentrated in one or few characters at a time
2. Factor are considered as character
3. Pisum sativum has large bi sexual flower so emasculation is very easy for hybridization
process or technique.
4. By naturally it is self-pollinated crop
5. This crop has short duration so three or four generation can be raised in a year
30. Explain the law of dominance in monohybrid cross .
Law of dominance
¾¾ In cross of parents that are pure for contrasting traits only one form of the trait will appear
in the next generation. They have hybrid or dominant trait in the phenotype.
¾¾ eg) Monohybrid cross
P generation Tall Dway
(True - breeding) × (True breeding)
TT tt
Tt, Tt, Tt, Tt F1 generation

(Only the dominant traits appear)
Tt × Tt
TT, Tt, TT, tt

(3 dominat and one recessive trait)
¾¾ Regarding F1 generation the recessive allele is not lost, and it remain hidden or masked.
But it reappears in the next generation.
31. Differentiate incomplete dominance and co-dominance
Incomplete dominance Co – dominance
1. Effect of one of the two alleles is more The effect of both alleles is equally
conspicuous. conspicuous.
2. It produces a fine mixture of the No mixing effect of the two alleles
expression of two alleles.
3. The effect of hybrid is intermediate Both the alleles are produces their effect
expression of the two alleles independently.
4. It produces new phenotype. Does not produce new phenotype.
Chapter 2 38
5. The expressed new phenotype has no The phenotype is combination of two

allele of its own phenotype and their alleles
6. It has a quantitative effect. A quantitative effect is absent
32. What is meant by cytoplasmic inheritance?
¾¾ The acquisition of traits or conditions controlled by self replicating substances with in the
cytoplasm .It is called as cytoplasmic Inheritance
(or)
¾¾ The transmission of character is controlled by self – replicating substances with in the
cytoplasm
(or)
¾¾ In the cytoplasmic organelle like chloroplast and mitochondrial DNA which contain
a number of genes. These extra chromosomal genes are transmitted to daughter cells it
through or via cytoplasm. It is called as extra nuclear inheritance
(or)
¾¾ The transmission of genes that occur outside the nucleus is called extra nuclear inheritance
33. Describe dominant epistasis with an example.
¾¾ Epistasis can be defined as a gene interaction whereby one gene interferes with the
phenotypic expression of another non-allelic gene or genes. The gene or locus which
suppresses or masks the action of a gene at another locus is called epistatic gene. The gene
or locus where expressions is suppressed by an epistatic gene is called gene hypostatic.
¾¾ Dominant epistasis A dominant epistesis suppresses the expression of a non-allelic gene,
(dominant (or) recessive)
¾¾ The F2 phenotypic ratio is 12:3:1
WWYY WWYY
(Eg) Parents (white) (Green)
Gametes WY WY
wwyy (white)
♂
♀ WY Wy wY wy
WWYY WWYy WwYY WwYy
WY
white white white white
WWYy WWyy WwYy Wwyy
Wy
white white white white
WwYY WwYy wwYY wwYy
wY
white white yellow yellow
WwYy Wwyy wwYy wwyy
wy
white white yellow green
¾¾ 12 white : 3 yellow : 1 green

¾¾ (Eg) Summer squash fruit colour white & yellow / green.
39 Chapter 2
34. Explain polygenic inheritance with an example

¾¾ Polygenic inheritance, also known as quantitative inheritance, refers to a single inherited
phenotypic trait that is combined by two or more different genes.
(or)
¾¾ Several genes combine to affect a single trait. A group of genes that together determine (or)
contribute a characteristic of an organism is called polygenic Inheritance
(or)
¾¾ Polyinheritance occur when one characteristic is controlled by two or more genes.
¾¾ Eg. Human skin colour & eye colour and weight.
¾¾ H.Nilsson –Ehle (1909), a Swedish geneticist discovered a polygenic inheritance in wheat
(kernel colour). Kernel colour is controlled by two genes each with two alleles, one with red
kernel colour was dominant to white. He crossed the pure breeding wheat varieties dark
red and a white.
¾¾ Dark red genotypes R1R1R2R2 crosed unit r1 r1 r2 r2. In the F1 generation medium red were
obtained with genotype R1 r1 R2 r2. So the intensity of the red colour is determined by the
number of R genes in the F2 generation
¾¾ Four R genes: A dark red kernel colour is obtained.
¾¾ Three R genes: Medium - dark red kernel colour is obtained.
¾¾ Two R genes: Medium-red kernel colour is obtained.
¾¾ One R gene: Light red kernel colour is obtained.
¾¾ Absence of R gene:Results in White kernel colour is obtained.
Cross between Dark Red White
Parent generation R1R1R2R2 × r1r1r2r2
Medium Red
F1 Generation R1r1R2r2
F1 Generation (Selfed) R1r1R2r2 × R1r1R2r2

♂
♀ R1R2 R1r2 r1R2 r1r2
R1R2 R1R1R2R2 R1R1R2r2 R1r1R2R2 R1r1R2r2
R1r2 R1R1R2r2 R1R1r2r2 R1r1R2r2 R1r1r2r2
r1R2 R1r1R2R2 R1r1R2r2 r1r1R2R2 r1r1R2r2
r1r2 R1r1R2r2 R1r1r2r2 r1r1R2r2 r1r1r2r2
¾¾ The data produces a bell shaped curve which demonstrate continuous variation in wheat
kernel from dark red to white in F2
¾¾ when the number F1 were self crossed five different phenotypic classes appeared in F2 in
into ratio of 1:4:6:4:1
¾¾ The phenotype ratio is
¾¾ Dark red :1 Medium dark red :4 Medium red : 6
¾¾ light red :4 white :1
Chapter 2 40
¾¾ Hence the total ratio is 63 red : 1 white in F2 generation

1:6:15 :20:15:6:1 in generation
Parents AABBCC x aabbcc
Dark red White

Wheat Kernel Wheat Kernel
AaBbCc
F1 (Selfed)
F2 1 6 15 20 15 6 1
Dark Modrate Red intermediate High Very White
Red Red Red Red high red
¾¾ He found that In F2 generation plants have Kernel’s with range of colour variation. This is
due to the fact that the genes are segregating and recombination takes place.
35. Differentiate continuous variation with discontinuous variation .
¾¾ Variation is the difference between individual with in a species. This can be caused by
inherited or environmental factors. It can be continuous and discontinuous. Height, and
weight of the human being are best examples of continuous variation. Human blood group,
gender identity and eye colour are best example of discontinuous variation
Continuous Variation Discontinuous Variation
Variation are fluctuate or mean mean or average is absent
Direction is predictable unpredictable
already exists in the population variation occur previously
It is due to the chance of segregation of Produced by changes in genome or genes
chromosomes during gamete formation
& crossing over & chance pairing during
fertilisation
They can increase adaptability of the race evolutionary based
It is also called fluctuation These variation also known as mutation or sports
graphically produce bell shaped curve No curve is produced
Very common appears occasionally
do not disturb the genetic system They disturb the genetic system
36. Explain with an example how single genes affect multiple traits and alleles the phenotype
of an organism.
¾¾ There are several patterns that responsible for the inheritance of traits. In generally one
gene causes one trait. But in some cases where one gene is responsible for multiple traits.
Sometimes two or more gene are required to produce one trait.
¾¾ It is otherwise called pleiotropy. It means, where one gene will code and control the
phenotype or expression of several different and unrelated traits.
¾¾ Eg. Phenylketenuria disease.
¾¾ A gene that produces multiple or effect is called a Pleitropic gene. Multiple effects of a
single gene is know as pleiotropy. In simply, a Pleitropic gene is a single gene that controls
more that one trait.
41 Chapter 2
¾¾ Eg. Human genetic disorder are often pleitropic ie, unusual tall height, thin finger and toes,
dislocation of the lens of the eye, heart in the aorta ( heart function)
¾¾ Eg : Pisum sativum plant with purple brown seeds and dark spot on the axis of the leaves
were crossed with a variety of a peas having while flowers light coloured seed and no
spot on the axils of the leaves, the three traits for peas colour, seed colour and a leaf axil
spot all were inherited together as a single exist. This is due to the pattern of inheritances
controlled by a single gene with dominant and recessive alleles.
¾¾ eg .Sickle cell anemia
¾¾ eg .Marfan syndrome
¾¾ A human genetic disorder called marfan syndrome is caused by a mutation in one gene,
yet it affects many aspects of growth and development inducing height, vision and heart
function. This is an example of pleiotropy or one gene affecting multiple characteristics.
Trait 1
Gene X Trait 2
Trait 3
¾¾ Gene also interact in pattern such a partial dominance or co-dominance, the trait is expressed
a mix between two gene , Those are possibilities for one gene. Most trait are influenced by
many genes there are many different way for these gene to influence how trait is expressed.
37. Bring out the inheritance of chloroplast gene with an example .
¾¾ A gene is made up of short section of DNA, which are contained on a chromosome with
in the nucleus of a cell. The DNA module of chloroplast are small and circular much like
the DNA of a typical bacterium. There are many copies of DNA in single chloroplast.
Generally the chloroplast are having striking similarities to bacteria cells. They have
their own DNA, This DNA to produce many proteins and enzymes required for their
function The chloroplast genome most commonly induced about 100 gene which code for
a variety of things, mostly to do with the protein pipeline and photosynthesis. As in with
photosynthetic genes in chloroplast DNA are organs are opens.
¾¾ A chloroplast is an orginalle found in plant cell. Chloroplast have two membranals. Inside
there are little disc known as thylakoids which carry out part of photosynthesis The inside
of is called luman.
PART -II ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS

I. Match the following
Column - I Column - II Answers

1 a. Tall (i) White iv) dwarf
b. Purple (ii) Wrinkled (i) White
c. arial (iii) terminal (iii) terminal
d. Round iv) dwarf (ii) Wrinkled
Chapter 2 42
2. a. Dominant epistasis (i) 3:4

b. Recessive epistasis (ii) 13 :3
c. Complementary gene (iii) 12 : 3:1
d. inhibiter gene iv) 9:7
A) a-iii, b-I,c-iv,d-ii B) a –ii,b –iv ,c-iii,d-i
C) a-I,b-ii,c-iv,d-iii D) a-iv,b-iii,c-ii,d-i Ans : A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
3. A. Genetics 1. E. Baeur a. 1822
B. Mendel 2. W. Batson b. 1907
C. lethal gene 3. Father of Geetics c. 1909
D. H. Nillsson Ehle 4. Kernel colour d. 1906
A) 2-d, 3-a, 1-b, 4-c B. 3-a, 2-d, 4-c, 1-b C. 1-b, 4-c, 2-d, 3-a D. 4-c, 2-d, 1-c, 3-a
Ans : A) 2-d, 3-a, 1-b, 4-c
4. 1. Polygenic inherence a. Pisum sativm
2. 4 O’ clock pea plant b. genetic material
3. Garden pea plant c. Mirabilis jalapa
4. H. NillssanEhle d. wheat kernel colour
A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a,4-b B) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
C) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c,4-a D) 1,c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a Ans : A) 1-d, 2-c,3-a,4-b
II. Choose the Correct Statement
a. HbA and Hbs alleles of normal and single cell hemoglobin are multiple alleles
b. HbA and Hbs alleles of normal and single cell hemoglobin are dominate recessive allele
c. HbA and HbA alleles of normal and single cell hemoglobin are codominant allele
d. HbA and Hb & alleles of normal and single cell hemoglobin are reerive allele
Ans: c) HbA and HbA alleles of normal and single cell hemoglobin are codominant allele
a. When alleles of the two contrasting characters are present together, one of the character ex-
press and the other remains hidden. There is the law of purity of ganetes.
b. When alleles of the contrasting characters are present together, one of the character express
and the other remains hidden . There is the law of dominance.
c. When alleles of the contrasting characters one present together one of the character express
and the other remain hidden This is law of segregation
d. When allele of two contrasting character are present together, one of the character express
and remain hidden. This is law of independent assortment.
Ans: b) When alleles of the contrasting characters are present together, one of the character
express and the other remains hidden . There is the law of dominance.
7. a. Monohybrid ratio is 9:3:3:1
b. The crossing of F1 to any one of the parent is called test cross
c. The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is 1:2:1
d. A cross in which parents differ in a single pair of contrasting character is called dihybrid
cross Ans: c) The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is 1:2:1
43 Chapter 2
8. a. The hybrid progeny in the first generation is called as F2

b. The major reasons for the success of Mendelian experiment was true breeding of Gardon
Pea plant
c. X and Y are the example of alleles.
d. A pedigree charts shown the geneotypes of any parent .
Ans: b The reason for the success of mendelian experiment was true breeding of Gardon Pea plant
III. Choose the correct pair

9. a. Discontinuous variation – qualitative inheritance
b. continuous variation – qualitative inheritance
c. Duplicate gene - 13: 3
d. Recessive epilate – 9:7
Ans: a) Discontinuous variation - qualitative inheritance
10. a. Monohybrid – 9:3:3:1
b. Dihybrid – 1:2:1
c. recessive epistasis – 9:3:4
d. extra chromosomal inheritance – Mendelian inheritance
Ans: c) recessive epistasis - 9:3:4
11. a. Emasculation – removal of another
b. Tt – homozygous
c. genetic constitution – phenotype
d. mono hybrid cross – law of independent assortment
Ans: a) Emasculation – removal of another
12. a. polygenic trait – Traits that are controlled by multiple gene
b. Multiple alleles – A gene that is controlled by one allele
c. Pleiotropy – one gene cannot affects multiple characters
d. Phenotype – genetic makeup of an organism.
Ans: a) polygenic trait – Traits that are controlled by multiple gene
IV. Choose the incorrect statement

13. a. A pedigree charts shown which genes are co-dominant
b. A true breeding is a kind of breeding where the parents would produce offspring that
would carry the same phenotype
c. In polygenic inheritance, traits are determined by interaction of single gene
d. The interactions between separate genes, in which one masks the effect of another is
called epistasis.
Ans: c) In polygenic inheritance traits are determined by interaction of single gene
14. a. The outward appearance resulting from an individual’s genotype for a particular
characteristic is called phenotype
b. The recessive allele of the same gene represented by lower case letter.
c. Blood group is a human characteristic that shown discrete variation
d. The name given to different form of the same gene is gametes
Ans: d) The name given to different form of the same gene is gametes
Chapter 2 44
15. a. An allele is a viable DNA, coding that occupies a given locus on a chromosome
b. An allele is a alternative form of gene
c. An organism which has two different alleles of the gene is called homozygous
d. A person with one ‘A’ blood type and one ‘B’ blood type allele would have a blood type
of “AB”
Ans: c) An organism which has two different alleles of the gene is called homozygous
16. a. A pleiotropic gene is a single gene that more than one trait
b. A single gene affects multiple traits and alter the phenotype of the organism called as
pleiotropy
c. Marfans syndrome is an example of pleiotropy.
d. one (or) single gene cannot affect multiple traits are called pleotropy.
Ans: d) one (or) single gene cannot affect multiple traits are called pleotropy.
V. Choose the Incorrect Pair

17. a) Genotype – Genetic makeup of organism
b) recessive - A trait that is hidden
c) probability – The chance that an event will take place
d) Independent assortment – Mendel’s first law
Ans: d) Independent assortment – Mendel’s first law
18. a. Dominant Allele - RR
b. Recessive allele - rr
c. Heterozygous – Tt
d. Homozygous recessive - TT Ans: d) Homozygous recessive - TT
19. a. Intra-locus interaction – allelic interactions
b. Inter-locus interaction – non-allelic interactions
c. Epistatic – allelic interactions
d. Polygenic interaction – non allelic interaction
Ans: c) Epistatic – allelic interactions
20. a. Complementary gene - 9:7
b. Co –dominance - 1:2:1
c. Dominant epistatics - 9:3:4
d. Inhibitor gene - 13:3 Ans: c) Dominant epistatics - 9:3:4
VI. Choose the Odd one out
21. a) Mirabilis jalapa
b) Snapdragon
c) ABO Blood system
d) Epistasis
Explanation: a,b,c are F2 phenotypic ratio is 1:2:1 Ans: d) Epistasis
22. a. DNA
b. mitochondrial inheritance
c. Chloroplast inheritance
45 Chapter 2
d. Atavism
Explanation : a,b,c are used as genetic material. Ans: d) Atavism
23. a. Monohybrid cross
b. checkerboard
c. genotype
d. phenotype Ans: b) checkerboard
24. a) co-dominance
b) Duplicate gene
c) inhibitor gene
d) supplementary gene
Explanation : b,c and d are intergenic or non-allele interaction Ans: b) Duplicate gene
VII. Assertion and Reason
25. A : Polygenic inheritance
R : Several genes combine to affect a single trait
Options
A : A is correct B : R is the false
c : R is the correct explanation of A d : R only correct
Ans: c) R is the correct explanation of A
26. A : Atavism is a modifications of biological structure whereby an ancestral trait reappears
after having been lost through evolutionary changes in the previous generation
R : Reemergence of sexual reproduction in the flowering plant Hieracium pilosella is the
best example for Atavism in plants
A : A & R are true B : A & R are false
C : A only True D : R only True Ans: A) A & R are true
27. A : The physical expression of an individual gene called phenotype
R : Phenotype is physical observable characterties of an organism
a) A is connect & R is the correct explanation of A
b) A alone
c) R alone
e) A is false & R is correct one Ans: a) A is connect & R is the correct explanation of A
28. A : Interaction between two alleles of the same loci is the effect of epistasis
R : The epistasis is the kind of intergenic and allelic interaction.
A : A alone B : R alone
C : R & A are true D : R is the correct explanation of A
Ans: A) A alone
VIII. Choose the best answer
29. It is the term which describes how genes interact to affect a phenotype where by an allele at
one locus prevents an allele at another locus from manifesting its effect.
a. Atavism b. Epistasis c. Co-dominance d. Law of segregation
Ans : b) Epistasis
Chapter 2 46
30. A single characteristic is controlled by a number of genes is called

a. Inheritance b. Epistasis
c. Polygenic inheritance d. Co-dominance
Ans: c) Polygenic inheritance
31. An allele is
a. a homozygous genotype b. a heterozygous genotype
c. another word for gene d. several possible form of gene
Ans: c) another word for gene
32. A variation in a characteristic in which individuals show a range of traits with small
differences between them
a. variation b. continuous variation
c. discontinuous variation d. none of the above Ans: b) continuous variation
33. A variation in a characteristic in which individuals show two or a few traits with large
differences between them.
a. dominant b. continuous variation
c. discontinuous variation d. recessive Ans: c) discontinuous variation
34. A trait that masks the expression of another trait when both versions of the gene are present
in an individual
a. variation b. recessive c. co-dominance d. dominant Ans: d) dominant
35. The term genetics was introduced by
a. T.H.Morgan b. Mendel c. Bateson d. Nilsson Ehle Ans: c) Bateson
36. The study of heredity behaviour of several genes by Gregor Mendel.
a. Molecular genetics b. Population genetics
c. Quantitative genetics d. Transmission genetics
Ans: d) Transmission genetics
37. Transmission of characters from parents to offsprings
a. variation b. dominance c. heredity d. growth Ans: c) heredity
38. Species that shows a difference in the characteristics of the same natural population is called
a. heredity b. variation c. recessive d. co –dominace
Ans: b) variation
39. Qualitative inheritance is otherwise called
a. co – dominance b. continuous variation
c. discontinuous variation d. heredity Ans: c) discontinuous variation
40. “Experiments on plant hybrids” is a
a. book b. research paper
c. journal d. Magazine Ans: b) research paper
41. Mendel’s theory of inheritance is based on
a. Particulate theory b. mass
c. hybridization d. variation theory Ans: a) Particulate theory
42. Removed the anther is called
a. Atarism b. Epistass c. Hebridization d. Emasculation
Ans: d) Emasculation
47 Chapter 2
43. Botanical name of garden pea is

a. Solanum tuberosum b. Coccus nucitera
c. Pisum sativum d. pea Ans: c) Pisum sativum
44. Mendel’s experiments were rediscovered by
a. Hugo de vries & carl correns b. E. Baur
c. H. Nilsson d. T.H.Morgan
Ans: a) Hugo de vries & carl correns
45. _______ is the best example for mitochondrial cytoplasmic inheritance
a. Solanum tuberosum b. Mangifera indica
c. Sorgem vulgare d. Pisum sativum Ans : c) Sorgem vulgare
46. _______ is he best example for chloroplast inheritance
a. Mirabilis jalapa b. Sorgum vulgare
c. Triticum vulgare d. Musa paradisiaca Ans: a) Mirabilis jalapa
47. Mendel dihybrid ratio
a. 9:3:1 b. 9:3:3:1 c. 9:3:3:2 d. 9:3:3:9 Ans: b) 9:3:3:1
48. Gene interaction concept was introduced and explained by
a. W. Bateson b. Morgan c. E. Baur d. Nilsson Ans: a) W. Bateson
49. An allele which has the potential to cause the death of an organism is called
a. Genetic interaction b. leltal alleles/lethal gene
c. Atevism d. Autism Ans: b) leltal alleles/lethal gene
50. The gene whose expression is interfered by non- alletic gene and prevents from exhibiting
its character is known as
a. hypostatic b. epistatic c. metastatic d. hipostatic Ans: a) hypostatic
51. Height and skin colour in human are controlled by
a. two pair of genes b. three pair of genes
c. five pair of genes d. a pair of genes Ans : b) three pair of genes
52. The genotypic ratio of monohybrid cross is
a. 3:1 b. 1:2:1 c. 3:1:1 d. 9:3:3:1 Ans : b) 1:2:1
53. Which of the following statements are true regarding law of segregation
a. alleles separate with each other during gametogenesis
b. The segregation of factors is due to the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis
c. Law of segregation is called as law of purity of gametes
d. all of the above Ans : d) all of the above
54. The crossing of F1 to anyone of the parents is called
a. test cross b. back cross c. F1 cross d. all of these
Ans : b) back cross
55. The character that is express in to the F1 is called
a. recessive character b. co-dominant character
c. dominant character d. none of these Ans : c) dominant character
56. The recessive character will express in
a. F1 b. F2 c. both a & b d. F3 only Ans : b) F2
Chapter 2 48
57. Which of the following pair is not correct

a. KK=dominat b. hybrid = heterogeneous
c. heterozygous = Kk d. homozygous = Rr Ans : a) KK=dominat
58. ________ is a change in the nucleotide sequence of a gene or chromosome
a. mutation b. genetics c. heredity d. growth Ans: a) mutation
59. Mendel worked at the rules of inheritance and arrived at the correct mechanism. But
a. without any knowledge of cellular mechanism
b. knowledge of cellular mechanism
c. heredity mechanism
d. growth mechanism Ans: a) without any knowledge of cellular mechanism
60. ________ is crossing an individual of unknown genotype with a homogeneous recessive.
a. back cross b. test cross
c. monohybrid cross d. dihybrid cross Ans: b) test cross
61. ________ is the expression of a single character by the interaction of more than one pair of a
genes is called genetic interaction or interaction of genes.
a. factor hypothesis/ Bateson factor hypothesis
b. alternative hypothesis
c. nell hypothesis
d. all of the above Ans: a) factor hypothesis/ Bateson factor hypothesis
IX. One Mark Question
1. The genetic constitution of the individual is called Genotype

2. The observable characteristics of an organism are calledPhenotype
3. Who is father of genetics? Gregor Johann Mendel
4. Name the Mendel’s published work. Experiments on plant
Hybrids.
5. Name the publication of Mendel research work. The proceedings of the
Brunn Society & Natural
History.
6. What is the year of published work Mendel’s Research paper? 1866
7. Who is Greger Mendel? Mendel was a Central
European Monk
8. What is an allele? It is another word for a
Gene.
9. Individuals show a range of traits with small difference Continuous variation
between them.
10. When an individual show two or a few traits with large discontinuous variation
differences between them. This type of variation is called.
11. Human height is the good example of _____ variation. Continuous variation
12. Human skin color is the good example of ____ variation. Continuous variation
49 Chapter 2
13. Mention any two examples of continuous variation. a. Human height b.

Human skin color
14. Mention any two examples of discontinuous variation. Style length of Primula &
Height of the garden pea.
15. A trait that masks the expression of another trait when both Dominant.
version of the gene are present in the individual called
16. What is F1? It is the first filial
generation in a cross; the
offspring of the parental
generation.
17. The letter ‘P’ denoted in genetics is The parental generation
in a cross
18. A variation in an inherited characteristics is Trait
19. One pair genes can completely mask the expression of another Epistasis
pair of genes known as
20. Who discovered incomplete dominance? Correns.
21. Crosses between F1 offsprings with either of the two parents Back cross
(hybrids) are known as
22. Diploid organisms that have two different allele at a specific Heterozygous
gene locus are said to be
23. ‘TT’ referred as ____ Homogenous dominant
variety.
24. ‘tt’ referred as ______ Homozygous recessive
character.
25. ‘Tt’ denotes for _______ Heterogeneous hybrid
variety.
26. The superiority of hybrid over either of its parents in one or Hybrid vigour or
more traits known as Heterosis
27. The site or position of a particular gene on a chromosome is locus
28. An allele which has the potential to cause the death of an Lelthal allele.
organism is called
29. A single gene affects multiple traits are called ____ Pleiotropy
30. A single gene affects multiple traits and alter the phenotype Pleiotropy
of the organism is
31. Several genes combine to affect a single trait of an organism. Polygenic inheritance.
This kind of inheritance is ______
32. Who demonstrated first experiment on polygenic inheritance. Swedish Geneticist H.
Nilsson – Ehle (1909)
33. Which plant to use to identify the polygenic inheritance? Wheat – Kernel colour
(dark red & white variety)
34. List any two intragenic or allele interaction. 1. Incomplete Dominance
2. Co-dominance
Chapter 2 50
35. List any two intergenic or non-allele interaction. 1. Dominant Epistasis 2.

Recessive Epistasis
36. Corren has used ______ plant for studied incomplete Mirabilis jalapa (4’ O
dominance. clock plant)
37. Mention the botanical name of 4’ O clock plant. Mirabilis jalapa.
38. Duplicate genes with cumulative effect of non-alleleic Fruit shape in Summer
interaction is derived in squash.
39. What is the F1 phenotypic ratio of inhibitor genes in the 13:3
intergenic interaction?
40. When the heterozygote exhibits a mixture of phenotypic Co-Dominance.
character of both homozygous called as
41. Name the two gene interaction. 1. Intralocus interaction
(allelic interaction) 2.
Interlocus interaction
(non-allelic interaction)
42. A charts shows which genes are co-dominant. This is known A pedigree charts.
as
43. Each character is controlled by distinct units called factor, First law of inheritance or
which occur in pairs. If the pairs are heterozygous, one will Law of Dominance.
always dominant other. This is known as ____
44. The second law of inheritance otherwise called as _____ Law of Segregation.
45. Give the name of the scientists who re-discovered Mendelism. a. Hugo Devries b. Carl
Correns c. Erich Von
Tschermak.
46. ________ is the prerequisite for Hybridization technique. Emasculation.
47. Transmission of genes that occur outside the nucleus is called Cytoplasmic Inheritance
______ or Extra Nuclear
Inheritance
48. Cytoplasmic inheritance are found in ___________ Mitochondria &
Chloroplast
49. The interaction between separate gene in which one masks Epistasis
the effect of another
50. The acquisition of traits or conditions controlled by self Cytoplasmic Inheritance.
replicating substances within the cytoplasm. This is a type of
______
51. The hybrid progeny in the first generation is called as F1.
52. The innate tendency of offspring to resemble their parents is Heredity
called____
53. The tendency of offspring to differ from parents is called Variation
54. Multiple allelic inheritances is otherwise called as ___ Co – dominance
55. What is the use of pedigree analysis in genetics? It helps in genetic
counseling.
51 Chapter 2
56. Who proposed the genetic theory of inheritance? T.H.Morgan

57. Give one good example for Atavism in plants. Reemergence of
sexual reproduction in
Hieracium pilosella.
58. In pea plant, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a 50:50
heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green
seeded plant. What ratio of yellow and green seeded plants
would you expect in F1 generation?
59. Some genes have allele that prevents survival when Lethal alleles
homozygous or heterozygous. What is the kind of allele?
60. Recessive alleles of two different genes may give the same Complementary gene.
phenotype; This kind of genes also called _____
61. A gene is a functional unit of DNA which codes for a __________ Polypetide chain
62. Allele are the alternative form of the _________ gene
63. _________ discovered incomplete dominance. Correns
64. Human blood group is an example of _______ variation. Discontinuous
X . Two Marks
1. Write short note on Genotype.
¾¾ It is the genetic makeup of an organism responsible for a particular trait.
2. What is phenotype?
¾¾ It is the outward appearance or observable physical attributes of that trait.
3. Briefly explain monohybrid inheritance.
¾¾ Monohybrid inheritance looks at the inheritance of a single trait (a characteristics such as
eye color, round or wrinkled seed type) coded by a single gene locus on a chromosome.
4. Define Mendel’s first law.
¾¾ Mendel’s first law is ‘The law of segregation’. Segregation means separation. The two alleles
are separated from each other during meiosis, so each gamete produced is haploids that
is contain one allele of each gene.
5. What is epistasis?
¾¾ It is a term which describes how genes interact to affect a phenotype whereby an allele at
one locus prevents an allele at another locus from manifesting its effect.
(or)
¾¾ One gene is effectively interfering with or masking the effects of another gene.
6. What is epistatic?
¾¾ The gene that suppresses or masks the phenotypic expression of a gene at another locus is
known as epistatic.
7. Write a note on hypostatic?
¾¾ In epistatsis, the gene whose expression is interfered by non- allelic genes and prevents
from exhibiting its character is known as hypostatic.
Chapter 2 52
8. Describe one of the reason that made the garden pea an excellent choice of Mendel system
for studying inheritance.
¾¾ It is easily available self pollinated crop.
9. What is continuous variation with examples?
¾¾ A variation in a characteristics in which individuals show a range of traits with small
difference between them. Eg: Human height and skin colour.
10. Write a note on discontinuous variation with suitable examples.
¾¾ Discontinuous is a variation in characteristic in which individuals show two or a few traits
with large differences between them. (Eg) Height or Length of a plant.
11. What is hybridization?
¾¾ The process of mating two individuals that differ, with the goal of achieving a certain char-
acteristics in their offspring.
12. Briefly explain ‘F2’.
¾¾ The second filial generation produced when F1 individuals are self-crossed or fertilized
with each other.
13. Write a short note on Punnett square or checkerboard?
¾¾ A sort of cross multiplication matrix used in the prediction of the outcome of a genetic
cross, in which male and female gametes and their frequencies are arranged along the
edges.
14. List out the ‘R’ gene on responsible for polygenic inheritance in wheat (Kernel color).
¾¾ Four R genes are produced dark red kernel color. Three R genes are produced medium
dark red kernel colour. Two R genes are produced medium red kernel colour. One R gene
is produced medium red kernel colour and absence of R genes in results in white kernel
colour.
15. What is meant by true breeding or pure breeding?
¾¾ A group of identical individuals that always produce offspring of the same phenotype
when intercrossed.
(or)
¾¾ A true breeding is a kind of breeding where in the parents would produce offspring that
would carry the same phenotype. This means that the parents are homozygous for every
trait.
16. Write a note on Mendel’s Law of Dominance.
¾¾ It states that a dominant allele expresses itself in a monohybrid cross and suppresses the
expression of recessive allele. However this recessive allele for a character is not lost and
remain that hidden or masked in the progenies of F1 generation and reappear in the next
generation.
17. What are multiple alleles?
¾¾ Alleles are alternative form of a gene. A gene for which at least two alleles exist is said to be
polymorphic. Instances in which a particular gene may exist in three or more allelic forms
are known as multiple allele conditions.
18. Briefly explain Mendelian Genetics.
¾¾ The set of theories prepared by Gregor Mendel, which attempt to explain the inheritance
53 Chapter 2
pattern of genetic characteristics based on simple breeding experiments involving single

gene on chromosome pairs.
19. Write a note on Gene interaction.
¾¾ A single phenotype is controlled by more than one set of genes, each of which has two or
more alleles. This phenomenon is called gene interaction.
20. What is atavism?
¾¾ An atavism is a genetic trait that recess after skipping several generations.
¾¾ It is a modification of a biological structure where by an ancestral that reappears after
having been lost through evolutionary changes in the previous generation.
¾¾ Eg: blue colour eye – mother & grandmother but great grandmother have brown eye.
(or)
¾¾ An atavism is the phenomenon in which a phenotypic trait reappears in an organism after
a period of absence.
(or)
¾¾ An atavism refers to a trait that is not present in the immediate predecessors of an individual,
although was existent in its ancestors.
¾¾ This is possible due to the way genes behave throughout the evolutionary process.
21. Write a note on incomplete dominance.
¾¾ It refers to genetic situation in which one allele does not completely dominate another allele,
and therefore results in a new phenotype.
(or)
¾¾ It is a form of intermediate inheritance in which one allele for a specific trait is not completely
expressed over its paired allele. This results in third phenotype in which the expressed
physical traits is a combination of the phenotypes of both alleles.
22. A diagram that shows the possible outcomes of breeding between two individuals.
¾¾ Ans: Punnett Square or Checkerboard
23. Write a note on Punnet Square.
¾¾ It is a square type of a diagram that shows the possible outcomes of breeding between two
individuals.
24. What do you mean by genetics ?
¾¾ Genetics is the study of how living things receive common traits from previous generation .
25. What are genes ?
¾¾ Genes are functional unit of inheritance. It is the basic unit of heredity (biological
information) which transmits biochemical, anatomical and behavioural traits from
parents to off springs.
26. What is population Genetics ?
¾¾ It deals with heredity in groups of individuals for trait which is determined by a few
genes.
(or)
¾¾ Population genetics is the study of genetic variation with in population, and the
examination and moddling of changes in the frequencies of gene and allele in populations
over space and time.
Chapter 2 54
27. Define Molecular genetics .

¾¾ It is the field of that biology that studies the structure and function of genes at a molecular
level
(or)
¾¾ Study of structure and function of genes at molecular level
(or)
¾¾ A branch of genetics that deals with structure and function of genes at molecular level
28. Define Mutation .
¾¾ A permanent, heritable change in the nucleotide sequence in a genes or a chromosome ,
the process in which such a change occurs in a gene or in chromosome
29. What do you mean by genetic transmission ?
¾¾ Genetic transmission is the transfer of genetic information (From parent to offspring),
almost synonymous with heredity, or from one location in a cell to another .
30. Define Transmission Genetics :
¾¾ The study of the mechanisms involved in the passage of gene from one generation to the
next.
31. What are polygenes ?
¾¾ A gene where individual effect on a phenotype is too small to be observed but which can
act together with others to produce observable variation.
(or)
¾¾ Characters are determined by two or more gene pairs, and they have additive or
cumulative effect. Such genes are called polygenes or multiple factors or cumulative
gene. Eg. Human skin colour.
32. Define Polygene ?
¾¾ Inheritance of phenotype is determined by the combined effects of many genes with
environmental factor . These gene are called as polygene.
33. Mendel was successful. why?
¾¾ He applied mathematical method of law of probability to his breeding experiments
¾¾ He used pairs of contrasting characters in their experiment.
34. Write a note on self fertization.
¾¾ (2 Marks) Fertilisation in a plant or animal by the fusion of male and female gametes
produced by the same individual
(or)
¾¾ (3 Marks) Fertilisation that occurs when male and female gamete produced by the
organism unite self fertilisation occur in many protozoans and invertebrate animal. It
result from self pollination in plants. Seeds fertilization allows an isolated individual
organism to reproduce but restricts the genetic diversity of a community.
35. What is cross fertilisation ?
¾¾ The fertilisation of an organism by the fusion of an egg from one individual with a sperm
or male gamete from a different individual’s is opposite to the self.
(or)
¾¾ Cross fertilisation is a term used in the field of biological reproduction describing the
55 Chapter 2
fertilisation of an occurs from one individual with spermatozoa of another. It is also

called allogamy.
(or)
¾¾ The fusion of male and female gamete (sex cells) from different individual of the same
species.
¾¾ It is mostly occur in dieocious plant and in animal species which they are separate male
and female individual.
36. Does pure breeding means homozygous?
¾¾ If they are pure breeding that mean they are homozygous . So A group of identical
individual that always produce offspring and same phenotype when intercrossed
37. What is the relationship between pure breeding and true breeding ?
¾¾ True breeding means that the parents with also pass down a specific phenotypic trait to
their offspring. True breeding organism will have a pure genotype (genetic expression
of a trait) and they will produce a certain phenotype. True breed is sometime also called
pure breed.
38. Write a short note on Anthocyanin pigment.
¾¾ Anthocyanin are naturally occurring pigment of red, purple and blue. Anthocyanin
pigments are more stable at low PH (Acidic condition) which gives a red pigment.
Measurable higher the PH value of anthocyanin will provide of colour fading of the
colour blue or purple.
39. What is the mean ‘progeny’?
¾¾ The word progeny is the progeny of the Latin verb “progignere” meaning ‘‘to beget” .
In biology, offspring are the young born of living organism, produced either by a single
organism or in the case of sexual reproduction, true organism. Collective offspring may
be known as a brood or progeny. It is also called as offspring of animals or plants or the
children and other descendants.
40. Point out the mechanism of Trihybird cross.
¾¾ A cross between homozygous parent that differ in three gene pairs is called to trihybrid
cross. A self fertilising trihybird plants forms 8 different gemeter and 64 different zygote.
So these combination of three pair crosses operating together.
(Eg) Tall, Yellow, Round × Dwarf, Green, Wrinkled
TTYYRR ttyyrr
Tall, Yellow, Roral (Selfed) F1

Tt Yy Rr
¾¾ Phenotypic ratio – 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1 F2
¾¾ Mendel laws of segregation and independent assortment are also applicable to three pairs
of contrasting traits ie. Trihybrid cross
41. What is back cross ?
¾¾ The cross between the F1 offspring with either of the two parents. The parent may be
dominant or recessive
(or)
Chapter 2 56
¾¾ When F1 individuals are crossed with one of the true parenst from which they were
derived, then such cross is called back cross
Explanation
¾¾ When TT is crossed with tt we get Tt as F1 generation
¾¾ TT x tt = Tt
¾¾ when Tt (F1 ) is crossed with either TT or tt (parent) it is called a back cross .
XI. Three Marks
1. Explain Batesons factor hypothesis ?
¾¾ Mendelian experiments prove that a single gene controls one character. But in the post
mendelion findings, various exception have been noticed, in which different types of
interaction are possible between the genes. Hence the expression of a single character
by the interaction of more one pair of genes is called genic interaction or interaction of
genes. According to this hypothesis some character are produced by the interaction of
two or more pairs factor (gene).
2. What is the human ABO phenotype blood type based on?
¾¾ It is the major human blood group system. The ABO type of a person depends on they
presence of absence of two gene, A and B. These gene determine the configuration of the
red blood cell surface. A person who has two A gene or an A and O gene has bloodcells
of type A. There are four main group of blood A,B,AB and O. The phenotype ratio is
given below.
¾¾ Blood group inheritance phenotype only
Blood group O AB
O O A or B
A O (or) A A, B or A B
B O (or) B A, B or AB
3. Explain the Genetic inheritance of pattern of human blood system ?
¾¾ An individually ABO type results from the inheritance of 193 alleles is A,B,O from each
parent . The possible out comes are given below
Parent allele A B O
A AA (A) AB (AB) AO (A)

B AB (AB) BB (B) BO (B)
O AO (A) BO (B) OO (O)
¾¾ Both A and B alleles are dominant over O. As a results individual who have an AO gene
type will have an A phenotype. People who are type O have OO genotype. In other
words, they inherited a recessive ‘O’ allele from both parents . The A and B alleles are
co-dominant. Therefore, if an A is inherited from one parent and a B from the other the
phenotype will be AB .
57 Chapter 2
4. In blood type co-dominance or incomplete dominance ?

¾¾ It is closely related to incomplete dominance is co-dominance is which both alleles are
simultaneously expressed in the heterozygote. In both co-dominonce and incomplete
dominance both alleles for a trait are dominate in co-dominance a hetrozygous individual
express both simultaneously with out any blending. People who are to type O have OO
genotype. In other words they inherited a recessive O allele from both parents. The A
and B alleles are co-dominant. Therefore is an A is inherited from one parent and a B from
other the phenotype will be AB
5. In sickle cell co-dominant or incomplete dominance ?
¾¾ sickle cell anemia is a disease, in which the haemoglobin protein is produced incorrectly
and the red bloodcells have a sickle shape. A person that is homozygous recessive for
the sickle cells traits wills have red blood cells that all have the incorrect haemoglobin .
6. Write a note on co-dominance ?
¾¾ Co-dominance occurs when the phenotype of both parents are simultaneously expressed
in the same offspring . An example of co-dominance occurs in the human ABO blood
group
7. Across between Bbcc and Bbcc. What is the probability of Bbcc?
¾¾ Solution
¾¾ Probability of Bbcc = (Probability Bb) . (Probability Cc)
Probability Bb Probability Cc
B b C c
B BB Bb C CC Cc
b Bb bb c
CC Cc
1 1
Probability Bb = 2 Probability Cc =
2
1 1 1
  .  =
2 2 4
8. Write a note on Homologous chromosome or homologous .
¾¾ Morphologically, physiologically and genetically similar chromosome present is a diploid
cell are called homologous or homologous chromosomes. In each pair of homologous
chromosomes, one chromosome maternal and the other is paternal.
9. Write a note Emasculation .
¾¾ Removal of stamen well before another is called emasculation . It is done in bud condition
to prevent self –pollination.
10. What is Punnett square or checker board?
¾¾ Punnett square is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible
genotypes of offsprings in a genetic cross. It was developed by Reginald C.Punnett..
Chapter 2 58
11. Distinguish between homozygous and heterozygous

homozygous heterozygous
a. Organism having identical alleles for a Organism having dismillar alleles for a
character are homozygous. character are heterozygous.
b. It is pure or true breeding It is hybrid
c. They form only one type of gametes They form more then one type of gametes.
d. (eg) Tall (TT) dwarf (tt) es (Tt)
12. Differentiate dominant from recessive character.
Dominant character Recessive character
1. The character that are expressed in F1 The characters that are not expressed in F1
generation are dominant generation are recessive
2. It is expressed in presence of dominant as It is expressed only when both the recessive
well as recessive allele. allele of a gene are present
Eg. Tt, TT = tall Eg. tt = dwarf
3. In pea plants tallness and red flowers are In pea plant dwarf and white flowers are
dominant character. recessive characters.
4. Dominant character can expression in Recessive character can be expressed only in
both homozygous as well as hetrozygous homozygous condition
condition
13. Differentiate between Phenotype and Genotype
Phenotype Genotype
1. It is the physical appearance of and It is the genetic constitution of an organism
organism
2. It can be directly seen It is determined by inheritance pattern
3. phenotype can be determined from Genotype can not be determined from
genotype. phenotype
(eg) Tt =Tall (eg) Tall can either Tt (or) TT
4. (eg) Tallness dwarfness (eg) TT, Tt, tt
14. Listant / Point out / Enlist the several traits in pea selected by mendel
S.No. Character Contrasting form / traits
Dominant Recessive
i. Height of Stem Tall (TT Dwarf (tt)
ii. Colour of Flower Coloured (CC) White (cc)
iii. Position of flower Axial (tt) Terminal (aa)
iv Pod Shape Inflated (II) Constricted (ii)
v Pod Colour Green (GG) Yellow (gg)
vi Seed Shape Round (RR) Wrinkled (rr)
vii Seed colour (cotyledon) Yellow (YY) Green (yy)
59 Chapter 2
15. Explain why law of segregation is also called law of purity of gamete.
¾¾ In F1 hybrid (Tt), the two alleles Tall (T) and dwarf (t) present, would segregate during
gamete formation. Due to segregation, the two types of gametes produced, i.e. T and t
would be pure for the trait they carry.
Example : F1 hybrid Tt

gametes
T T
¾¾ Thus law of segregation is also called Law of purity of gametes.
16. Distinguish between monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross
Monohybrid cross Dihybrid cross
1. The cross between to pure parents The cross between two pure parents
differing in a single pair of contrasting differing in two pairs of contrasting
character is called Monohybrid cross character is called dihybrid cross
2. Phenotypic ratio is 3:1 phenotype ratio is 9:3:3:1
3. Genotypic ratio is 1:2:1 hontype ratio is 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1
4. The law of segregation is explained by The law a independent is explained by
this method this cross.
17. Distinguish between Test cross and Back cross
Test Cross Back Cross
1. The cross between F1 hybrid and its The cross between F1 hybrid and any one of
recessive parent is called test cross its parents (either dominant or recessive) is
called back cross.
2. A test cross is always a back cross A back cross is not always a test cross
3. Test cross determines the genetic Back cross helps in improving and
constitution of an organism obtaining desirable character
4. Test cross produces both dominant and Back cross with dominant parent produces
recessive character is equal proportion all dominant characters
18. What is genetic testing?
¾¾ Genetic testing is analysing an individuals genetic material to determine predisposition
to a particular health condition or to confirm a diagnosis of genetic disease
19. What are genetic disorder ?
¾¾ Genetic disorders are nothing but malfunctioning of genes due to some changes in their
arrangement brought by mutation. Often these disorders characterized by absence or
inactive protein products.
20. Write a short note on ‘Mutation’?
¾¾ Sudden heritable change in DNA or chromosome is called mutation. There are agents
which cause mutation called Mutagens. Due to mutations many abnormalities will
appear in new generations which may be useful or harmful.
Chapter 2 60
21. What is co-dominance ?

¾¾ Co-domiance means there are always two alleles for any character. If the two allele are
equally dominant over one another and neither of them expresses to outside is called
co-dominance. Here neither of the character appears is offspring. This phenomenon can
be clearly explains by taking the example of Drosophila.
22. What is inbreeding ?
¾¾ If the breeding is done in between the plant species whose parents are called identical
such type of breeding is called inbreeding. Due to inbreeding internal resistance develops
and desirable characters will increase.
23. What is the different between sex linked and sex influenced diseases ?
¾¾ In sex linked diseases the defected gene are present on the sex chromosomes attached
to them whereas in sex influenced diseases defective gene are present on the other
chromosome but affects the sex chromosomes.
24. What is Genome ?
¾¾ A complete set off gene is an organism is called genome .
25. What are lethal gene or lethal allele ?
¾¾ Lethal allele are alleles that cause the death of the organism that carries them. They
are unusually a result of mutation is gene that are essential to growth or development.
Lethal allele may be recessive, dominant or conditional depending on the genes or genes
involved.
26. What do you mean by inheritance of sickle cell anemia in man.
¾¾ The diseases sickle cell anemia is causes by a gene (HbS) which is lethal in homozygous
condition. But has a slight detonable effect is the heterozygous conditions, producing
sickle cell trait. The homozygous for this gene (Hbs/HbS) generally die of fatal anemia.
The hetrozygotes or carriers for Hbs. (ie) HbA/HbS) show signs of mild anemia as their
RBC become sickle - shaped in oxygen deficiency. A marriage between two carriers,
therefore results in carrier and normal offspring in the ratio 2:1
27. What is cytoplasmic male sterility ?
¾¾ Plants that fail to produce functional pollengrains are said to be male-sterile. If the trite
conditioning the sterility is not inherited according to mendelion rules, but is instead
maternally transmitted, it is referred to as cytoplasmic male sterility(cms). So in this
male-sterility is inherited maternally. The gene for cytoplasmic male sterility is found in
the mitochondrial DNA
(or)
¾¾ When plants fails to produce functional pollengrain, they are called male sterile mole.
Male sterility may be conditioned by either nuclear or Cytoplasmic genes. If the sterility
trait is inherited is a non –Mandelian fashion, it is designated as cytoplasmic male sterility
(CMS). Cytoplasmic gene are most often maternally transmitted in plants.
61 Chapter 2
28. Briefly explain ‘Atavism’ with suitable examples.

¾¾ Atavism derives via French from Latin atavius, meaning “ancestor”. Avus in Latin means
‘grand father’ ; and its is believed that the ‘at’ is related to atta a word for “Daddy”. Atavism
is a term rooted in evolutionary study referring to instances when an organism possesses
trait closer to a more remote ancestor, rather than its own parents. It is modification of a
biological structure whereby an ancestral traits re-appears after having been lost through
evolutionary changes is the previous generations.
¾¾ (eg) Re-emergence of sexual reproduction in the flowering plant Hieracium pilosella is
the best example for Atavism in plants
XII. Five Marks

1. Difference between Pleiotropy and polygenic inheritance with suitable examples.
¾¾ Pleiotropy is when one gene affect multiple characters eg. Marfan syndrome and polygene
inheritance is when one traits is controlled by multiple genes (eg). skin colour (or) skin
pigmentation
2. Co-dominance and incomplete dominance are not the same? why?
¾¾ In co-dominance neither allele is dominant over the other, so both will be expressed
equally in the heterozygote.
¾¾ In incomplete dominance, there is an intermediate heterozygote. Such as pink flower
when the parent phenotypes are red and white.
3. Difference between Monohybrid cross and Reciprocal cross.
Monohybrid cross Reciprocal cross
1. It is one sided or both sided It is both sided cross in which female of one type is
crossed with male of the second type and vice versa
2. It studies the inheritance of It may study inheritance of one, two or more traits.
single trait.
3. It cannot distinguish between It can distinguish between nuclear and cytoplasmic
nuclear and Cytoplasmic (or) inheritance as well as sea linked and autosomal
sex linked and autosomal inheritance .
traits
4. Difference between Monohybrid and Dihybrid cross
Monohybrid Dyhybird
1. Mono refer to single and hybrid means mixed Di refers to two or double and hybrid means
breed breed.
2. It is used to study the inheritance of single It is used to study the inheritance of two
pair of alleles. different alleles.
3. Genotype ratio is 1:2:1 Genotype is ratio is 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1
4. Phenotypic ratio is 3:1 Phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1
5. One pair of contrasting character are involved Two pair of contrasting character are
involved.
Chapter 2 62
5. Explain Monohybird cross.

¾¾ A monohybird is a genetic cross which occurs between two individuals, focusing on the
inheritance of one trait at one time. Monohybrid cross is also known as single trait cross.
Two homozygous parent are selected for this cross.
MONOHYBRID CROSS
YY yy ¾¾ Each homozygous parent in the P

generation produces only one kind
YELLOW GREEN
of gamete.
Y y
Yy
¾¾ The heterozygous F1 offspring
produces two kinds of gamete
F1 Y y
F2 YY Yy
YELLOW YELLOW ¾¾ Self- pollination of the F1 offspring
produces F2 offsprings with a 3:1
Yy Yy ratio of yellow to green seeds.
YELLOW GREEN
↓
Ratios
Phenotypes Genotypes Genotype ratio Phenotype ratio
Yellow YY 1 3
Yy 2
Green yy 1 1
Monohybrid cross (one gene)
A a
A AA Aa
a Aa aa
Phenotypic ratio
3 1
6. Explain Dihybrid cross.
¾¾ A dihybrid cross is a genetic cross that occurs between two individuals, focusing on the
inheritance of two independent traits at one time. It is also known as two trait cross.
¾¾ Two parents considered for this cross have two independent traits (eg: pod colour and
pod shapes of plants). Thus a dihybrid cross involves two pairs of genes. The following
figure explains the process of dihybrid crossing.
63 Chapter 2
Dihybrid cross
YYRR × yyrr P Generation
YyRr F1 Generation
Gametes from heterozygous parent

YR yR Yr yr
YR YYRR YyRR YYRr YyRr
F2 Generation
yR YyRR yyRR YyRr yyRr
Phenotype
Yr YYRr YyRr YYrr Yyrr
9:3:3:1
Yr YyRr yyRr Yyrr yyrr
9 Round yellow
3 Round green
3 Wrinkled yellow
1 Wrinkled green
Dihybrid Cross(two genes)
AB Ab aB ab
AB AABB AABb AaBB AaBb
Ab AABb AAbb AaBb Aabb
aB AaBB AaBb aaBB aaBb
ab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb
Phenotype Ratio
9 3 3 1
(or)
Parent 1 ♀ Parent ♂
Round Yellow Cotyledon × Wrinkled green Cotyledon
RRYy rryy
RY × ry (Haploid Gametes)
RrYy (F1 generation)

F1 phenotype: All round yellow cotyledon
F1 genotype: All RrYy
RrYy × RrYy (F1 generation selfied)
Ry Ry rY rY × Ry Ry ry ry (Haploid gametes)
How to do a Dihybrid Cross
¾¾ Analyze the data!
Chapter 2 64
¾¾ Make a tally of all possible phenotypes.

RT Rt rT rt
RT RRTT RRtT rRTT rRtT Red / Tell III IIII = 9
Rt RRTt RRtt rRTt rRtt Red / Short - III = 3
White / Tall - III = 3
rT RrTT RrtT rrTT rrtT White / Short - I = 1
rt RrTt Rrtt rrTt rrtt 9: 3 : 3 : 1 Ratio
¾¾ In a dihybrid cross, traits are considered as not linked, and they have an equal probability
of sharing up in offspring. Each pair of alleles segregates independently of the gametes.
Offspring is predicted and assessed for two trait inheritance. The phenotypic ratio of the
offspring generation is 9:3:3:1 in a dihybrid cross.
7. Briefly explain Trihybrid cross.
¾¾ A trihybrid cross is between two individuals that are homozygous for three different
traits. (Eg: Pea shape, colour and pod shape)
(or)
¾¾ A cross between homozygous parents that differ in three gene pairs. (ie: producing
trihybrid) is called trihybrid cross. A seed fertilizing trihybrid plant forms 8 different
gametes and 64 different zygotes. So a combination of three single pair crosses operating
together. The three contrasting characters of a trihybrid crosses are
Tall yellow round × dwarf, green, wrinkled
TT YY RR tt yy rr
Tall, Yellow, Round (Selfied)
Tt Yy Rr
¾¾ F2 Phenotypic ratio – 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1
¾¾ 27 – round, green, smooth pod
¾¾ 9 – round, green, constructed pod
¾¾ 9 – round, yellow, smooth pod
¾¾ 9 – wrinkled, green, smooth pod
¾¾ 3 – round, yellow, constructed pod
¾¾ 3 – wrinkled, green, constructed pod
¾¾ 3 – wrinkled, yellow, smooth pod
¾¾ 1- wrinkled, yellow, constructed pod
TriHybrid Cross(Three genes)
ABD ABd AbD Abd aBD aBd abD abd
ABD AABBDD AABBDd AABbDD AABbDd AaBBDD AaBBDd AaBbDD AaBbDd
ABd AABBDd AABBdd AABbDd AABbdd AaBBDd AaBBdd AaBbDd AaBbdd
AbD AABbDD AABbDd AAbbDD AAbbDd AaBbDD AaBbDd AabbDD AabbDd
Abd AABbDd AABbdd AaBbDD AaBbDd aaBBDD aaBBDd aaBbDD aaBbdd
aBD AaBBDD AaBBDd AaBbDd AaBbdd aaBBDd aaBBdd aaBbDd aaBbDd
aBd AaBBDd AaBBdd AaBbDd AaBbdd aaBBDd aaBBdd aaBbDd aaBbdd
abD AaBbDD AaBbDd AabbDD AabbDd aaBbDD aaBbDd aabbDD aabbDd
abd AaBbDd AaBbdd AabbDd Aabbdd aaBbDd aaBbdd aabbDd aabbdd
Phenotypic ratio
27 9 9 9 3 3 3 1
65 Chapter 2
8. What traits are determined by multiple alleles?

¾¾ A trait controlled by one gene but multiple allele is blood type. There are four phenotypes
A, B, AB, O. Type A and B are co-dominant and ‘O’ is recessive to A and B. None are
dominant. Some traits are controlled by a single gene with two alleles. Mendelian
heredity had only two alternative expression or alleles. However many genes can change
in several different ways or changes. Those changes give rise to several alternative states
which are called multiple alleles.
(or)
¾¾ Blood type is an example of a common multiple allele trait. There are three different
alleles for blood type A, B & O. A is dominant to O, B is also dominant to O. A and B are
both co-dominant.
9. What is a gene?
¾¾ A gene is a segment of DNA that spells out the gentic code for a particular trait. A trait is
a physical characteristics.
10. Explain the major subdiscipline of genetics.
¾¾ The Genetics was introduced by W. Bateson in 1906. The four major sub disciplines of
genetics are
i) Transmission genetics / Classed Genetics:
¾¾ It deals with the transmission of genes from parents to offsprings. The foundation of
classical genetics came from the study of heredity behaviour of seven genes by Gregor
Mendel.
ii) Molecular genetics:
¾¾ It deals with the structure and formation of a gene at molecular level.
iii) Population genetics:
¾¾ It deals with heredity in group of individual for traits which is determined by few genes.
iv) Quantitative genetics:
¾¾ It deals with heredity of trait in groups of individuals where the traits are governed by
many genes simultaneously.
11. Point out pleotrophy in Human genetic disorder..
¾¾ Unusually tall height
¾¾ Thin finger and toes
¾¾ Dislocation of the lens of the eye.
¾¾ Heart problem ( in which the arota, the large blood vessel carrying blood away from the
heart, bulges or ruptures)
12. Why DNA as genetic material?
¾¾ Deoxyribonucleic acid and ribonucleic acid are two chemical substances involved in
transmitting genetic information from parent to offspring. Hence DNA as the genetic
material. It is also observed in many viruses and in all cellular organism. DNA molecules
are involved in a process called protein synthesis.
Chapter 2 66
13. Briefly explain about lethal gene.

¾¾ Allele that cause an organism to die are called
leltal alleles or lethal genes. Lethal geens are
usually a result of mutations in genes that are
essential to the growth or development. Lethal
gene can cause death of an organism prenatally
or anytime after birth. Lethal geens are first
discovered by Lucien cuenot in the study of
coat colour in mice.
14. Explain epistatsis and its two types.

¾¾ Epistasis is a type of polygenic interaction where
one gene controls the phenotype of another gene
for a trait. Both genes have an influence on the
physical appearance of the traits, but the one
that shows epistasis masks the effect of the other.
Eg: albinism.
¾¾ Dominant epistatsis: It happens when the
dominant allele of one gene masks the expression
of all allele of another gene.
¾¾ Recessive Epistasis:
¾¾ Recessive epistasis is when the recessive allele
of one gene in a homozygous slate masks the
phenotypic expression of the dominant allele of
another gene.
¾¾ (eg) Mice,
¾¾ In Mice, body Colour is determined by a gene A. A
is hypostatic to an allele C of another gene, which
mean that C marks the expression of A. C is the presence of a gives cinnamon mice, While
C in the prsence of A gives agouti mice.
Recessive Epistasis
ab aB Ab AB
AB AaBb AaBB AABb AABB
Ab Aabb AbBb AAbb AABb
aB aaBb aaBB AaBb AaBB
ab aabb aaBb Aabb AaBb
¾¾ Genes that show recessive epistasis can only mask a phenotype if two alleles are present
The ratio is 9:3:4
67 Chapter 2
(or)
Recessive Epistasis
CCaa × ccAA
↓
CcAa
(agouti)
CA Ca cA Ca
CA CCAA CCAa CcAA CcAa
(agouti) (agouti) (agouti) (agouti)
Ca CCAa Ccaa CcAa Ccaa
(agouti) (cinnamon) (agouti) (cinnamon)
cA CcAA CcAa ccAA ccAa
(agouti) (agouti) (albino) (albino)
ca CcAa Ccaa ccAa Ccaa
(agouti) (cinnamon) (albino) (albino)
Phenotypic ratio
9(agouti): 3(coloured): 4(albino)
15. Briefly explain duplicate recessive gene in Intergenic interaction (or) complementary gene
interaction
¾¾ If both gene loci have homozygous recessive alleles and both of them produce identical
phenotype the F2 ratio 9:3:3:1 would be 9:7. The genotype aaBB, aaBb, AAbb, Aabb and
aabb produce same phenotype. Both dominant alleles when are present together only
than they can complement each other. This is known as complementary gene.
Complementary Genes (9:7)
¾¾ Ex: In Lathyrusodoratus ,Bateson and punnet crossed two varieties(CCpp × ccPP),each
with white flowers.
P CCpp × ccPP
F1 CcPp
CcPp × CcPp (Crossing 2 F1s)

F2 CP Cp cP Cp
CP CCPP CCPp CcPP CcPp
Cp CCPp CCpp CcPp Ccpp
cP CcPP CcPp ccPP ccPP
cp CcPp Ccpp ccPp ccpp
¾¾ Eg: complete dominance at both gene pairs, but either recessive homozygote is epistatic
to the effect of the other gene.
¾¾ In sweet pea flower colour.
¾¾ Gene pair A = purple dominant over white
¾¾ Gene pair B = colour dominant over white
¾¾ Interaction = Homozygous recessive of either gene A or B produce white
Chapter 2 68
(or)
9/16 purple CP Cp cP Cp CP=9 purple
7/16 white CP CCPP CCPp CcPP CcPp Cp=3 white
white flow- White flowers purple purple purple Purple cP=3 white
er PPcc Cp CCPp CCpp CcPp Ccpp cp=1 white
CCpp × CcPp purple white purple White 9:7
CcPp × Purple cP CcPP CcPp ccPP ccPp Purple
purple purple purple White white white
cp CcPp Ccpp ccPp Ccpp
purple white white white
16. Explain duplicate gene with cumulative effect ( 9:6:1)

¾¾ Certain phenotype traits despond on the dominant alleles of two gene loci. When
dominant is present it will share its phenotype. The ratio will be 9:6;1
¾¾ Eg: Fruit shape in summer squash.
¾¾ Complete dominance at both gene pair, interaction between, both dominance to give new
phenotype.
¾¾ Gene pair ‘A’ sphere shape dominant over long.
¾¾ Gene pair ‘B’ sphere shape dominant over long.
¾¾ So interaction at ‘AB’ when present together form disc shaped fruit.
¾¾ Finally disc shaped fruit 9/16
¾¾ Sphere shaped fruit 6/16
Duplicate genes with cumulative effect (9:6:1)

Long shaped fruit 1/16 AB Ab aB Ab AB = 9 Disc shape
Sphere shape × sphere shape Ab = 3 Sphere shape
Aabb aaBB AB AABB AABb AaBB AaBb aB = 3 Sphere shape
AaBb × AaBb Disc Disc Disc Disc ab =1 = long shape
Disc shape disc shape =9:6:1
Ab AABb Aabb AaBb Aabb Disc sphere long
Disc Sphere Disc Sphere
AB AaBB AaBb aaBB aaBb
Disc Disc Sphere Sphere
ab AaBb Aabb aaBb Aabb
DIsc Sphere Sphere Long
69 Chapter 2
17. What are Duplicate dominant gene (15:1) or duplicate gene?

¾¾ If a dominant allele of both gene low produces the same phenotype without cumulative
effect i.e., independently the ratio will be 15:1
¾¾ Eg : seed capsule of shephered’s purse complete dominance at both gene pair, but either
gene when dominant, epistatic to the other.
¾¾ Gene pair ‘A’=Triangular shape dominant over ovoid
¾¾ Gene pair ‘B’=Triangular shape dominant over ovoid (double recessive)
Duplicate dominant genes (15:1):
15/16 = Triangular AB Ab aB ab AB = 9 Triangular
1/16 = Ovoid (top shaped) Ab = 3 Triangular
AABB × aabb aB =3 Triangular
Triangular ovoid ab =1 Ovoid (top shaped)
Triangular Triangular Triangular Triangular
AaBb × AaBb 15 : 1
Triangular ↓ Ab AABb AAbb AaBb Aabb Triangular : Ovoid
aB AaBb AaBb aaBB aaBb
ab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb

Triangular Triangular Triangular ovoid
18. Explain dominant and recessive interaction (or) inhibitor gene (13:3)
¾¾ Sometimes the dominant alleles of one gene locus (A) in homozygous and heterozygous
(AA, Aa) condition and homozygous recessive alleles bb of another locus (B) produces
the same phenotype. The F2 ratio will become 13:3. The genotype AABB, AaBB, AAbb,
Aabb and aabb produce one type of phenotype and genotype aaBb, aaBB, will produce
another type of phenotype.
¾¾ Eg: Feather colour of Fowl
¾¾ Complete dominance at both gene pair, but are gene when dominant epistatic to the
other and the second gene when homozygous recessive epistatic to the first.
¾¾ Gene ‘A’ colour inhibition is dominant to colour appearance.
¾¾ Gene ‘B’ colour in dominant to white.
Interaction:
¾¾ Dominant colour inhibitors prevents colour even when colour is present, colour gene,
when homozygous recessive prevents colour when dominant inhibitor is present.
Dominant and recessive interaction (13:3):
13/16 = white
3/16 = coloured
White leg horn × white plymouth rock
AABB ↓ aabb
AaBb × AaBb
White white

Chapter 2 70
AB Ab aB ab
White White White White
Ab AABb AAbb* AaBb Aabb*
White coloured White coloured
aB AaBB AaBb aaBB aaBb
White White White White
ab AaBb Aabb* aaBb aabb
White coloured White White
AB = 9 white
Ab = 3 coloured
aB = 3 white
ab = 1white
13 : 3
White : coloured
*****
71 Chapter 2
Genetics
Chromosomal Basis of
VII 3 Inheritance
PART - I - TEXTBOOK EVALUATION

1. An allohexaploidy contains
a) Six different genomes b) Six copies of three different genomes
c) Two copies of three different genomes d) Six copies of one genome
Ans : c) Two copies of three different genomes
2. The A and B genes are 10 cM apart on a chromosome. If an AB/ab heterozygote is test
crossed to ab/ab, how many of each progeny class would you expect out of 100 total progeny?
a) 25 AB, 25 ab, 25 Ab, 25 aB b) 10 AB, 10 ab
c) 45 AB, 45 ab d) 45 AB, 45 ab, 5 Ab, 5aB
Ans : d) 45 AB, 45 ab, 5 Ab, 5aB
3. Match list I with list II
List I List II
A. A pair of chromosomes extra with diploid i) monosomy
B. One chromosome extra to the diploid ii) tetrasomy
C. One chromosome loses from diploid iii) trisomy
D. Two individual chromosomes lose from diploid iv) double monosomy
a) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv b) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv d) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
Ans : c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
4. Which of the following sentences are correct?
1. The offspring exhibit only parental combinations due to incomplete linkage
2. The linked genes exhibit some crossing over in complete linkage
3. The separation of two linked genes are possible in incomplete linkage
4. Crossing over is absent in complete linkage
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4 Ans : c) 3 and 4
5. Accurate mapping of genes can be done by three point test cross because increases
a) Possibility of single cross over b) Possibility of double cross over
c) Possibility of multiple cross over d) Possibility of recombination frequency
Ans : d) Possibility of recombination frequency
6. Due to incomplete linkage in maize, the ratio of parental and recombinants are
a) 50:50 b) 7:1:1:7 c) 96.4: 3.6 d) 1:7:7:1 Ans : c) 96.4: 3.6
Chapter 3 72
7. Genes G S L H are located on same chromosome. The recombination percentage is between

L and G is 15%, S and L is 50%, H and S are 20%. The correct order of genes is
a) GHSL b) SHGL c) SGHL d) HSLG Ans : b) SHGL
8. The point mutation sequence for transition, transition, transversion and transversion in
DNA are
a) A to T, T to A, C to G and G to C b) A to G, C to T, C to G and T to A
c) C to G, A to G, T to A and G to A d) G to C, A to T, T to A and C to G
Ans : b) A to G, C to T, C to G and T to A
9. If haploid number in a cell is 18. The double monosomic and trisomic number will be
a) 35 and 37 b) 34 and 38 c) 37 and 35 d) 17 and 19 Ans : b) 34 and 38
10. Changing the codon AGC to AGA represents
a) missense mutation b) nonsense mutation
c) frameshift mutation d) deletion mutation
Ans : a) missense mutation
11. Assertion (A) : Gamma rays are generally use to induce mutation in wheat varieties.
Reason (R) : Because they carry lower energy to non-ionize electrons from atom
a) A is correct. R is correct explanation of A
b) A is correct. R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is correct. R is wrong explanation of A
d) A and R is wrong
Ans : b) A is correct. R is not correct explanation of A
12. How many map units separate two alleles A and B if the recombination frequency is 0.09?
a) 900 cM b) 90 cM c) 9 cM d) 0.9 cM Ans : c) 9 cM
13. When two different genes came from same parent they tend to remain together.
i) What is the name of this phenomenon?
ii) Draw the cross with suitable example.
iii) Write the observed phenotypic ratio.
Ans :
i)  The name of this phenomenon is known as Linkage.
 This is reported in Sweet pea Lathyrus adoratus by William Bateson & Reginald C
Punnet in 1906.
 Genes for Purple colour and Long pollen grain were found close together in the same
homologous pair of chromosomes - They do not assort independently and this condition
is known as linkage.
14. If you cross dominant genotype PV/PV male Drosophila with double recessive female
and obtain F1 hybrid. Now you cross F1 male with double recessive female.
i) What type of linkage is seen?
ii) Draw the cross with correct genotype.
iii) What is the possible genotype in F2 generation?
73 Chapter 3
Ans :
♂ ♀
P1 generation PV / PV × PV / PV
Crosses between
P P P P
homozygous V V V V
parents
Gametes P P
V V
F1 generation
P P
V V
Heterozygous F1
P P P P
crossed with double V V
×
V V
recessive parent
Gametes
Gametes P P P (♀ Only 1 types)
♂ Only 2 types V V V
F2 generation P
V
P
V
P
V
P
V
offsprings only parental
combinations & no new
combination due to no
crossing over
P P P P
F2 Observed ratio V V V V
F2 Expected ratio of
mendelian test cross is
15. S. no Gamete types Number of progenies i) What is the name of this test
1. ABC 349 cross?
ii) How will you construct gene
2. Abc 114
mapping from the above given
3. abC 124 data?
4. AbC 5 iii) Find out the correct order of
5. aBc 4 genes.
6. aBC 116
7. ABc 128
8. abc 360
i) It is three point test cross - It refers to analysing the inheritance, patterns of three alleles
by crossing a triple recessive herterozygote with a triple recessive homozygole.
ii) The relative distance between the three alleles & the order in which they are located
can be determined with the help of frequency of recombination between them.
Chapter 3 74
Total no of recombinants
RF =
Total no of progenies
For A and B - Loci
114 + 5 + 116 + 4
RF = × 100
1200
= 19.9
For A and B - Loci
114 + 128 + 124+ 116
RF = × 100
1200
= 40.16
For B and C - Loci
5 + 128 + 124+ 4
RF = × 100
1200
= 21.75
All the loci are linked because all the RF values are considerable less then 50%. In AC loci
show highest RF value, they must be farthest apart. There fore the B locus must lie between
them. The order of genes should be abc. A genetic map can be drawn.
a b c
19.9 21.75
A final point note that two small map distances. 19.9 m.u and 21.75 m.u is add up to 41.95
m.u which is greater then 40.16 m.u the stance calculated for l and g. We must identify
the two least number of progenius (totalling 8) in relation to recombination of AC . These
two least progenius are double cross over. The two least progenies not only counted once
should have count each of them twice because each represents a double recombinant
progeny. Hence, We can correct the value adding the number 114 + 125 + 116 + 128 + 5 + 14
+ 4 = 500 of the total 1200 this number exactly 41.65% which is identical with the same of two
component values.
The test cross parental combination can be rewritten as follows.
ABC /abc × abc / abc
Original chromosomes chromosome after crossing over

A B C A B C A b c
a b c a b ca B c
Gene order showing double recombinant.
75 Chapter 3
16. What is the difference between missense and nonsense mutation?

Missense mutation (Non synonymous) Nonsense mutation (Termination)
The mutation where the codon for one The mutation where codon for one amino
amino acid is changed into a codon for acid is changed into a termination or stop
another amino acid. codon.
Change in amino acid encoded Creates translational termination codon
TTA→AAT (Transition) (UAA, UAG, UGA)
17. A B
C B
C D E F G H I
From the above figure identify the type of mutation and explain it.
¾¾ It is a change in the arrangement of gene loci,
¾¾ Here the duplicated segment is located immediately after the normal segment but the
gene sepuence order will be reversed - (Paracentric inversion)
18. Write the salient features of Sutton and Boveri concept.
¾¾ Salient features of the chromosomal theory of inheritance
¾¾ Zygote - by repeated mitosis produce somatic cells
¾¾ Somatic cells - have one maternal (♀) set of chromosome
- one paternal (♂) set of chromosome
¾¾ Homologous pairs - these (♀) set and ♂ set are identical and constitute the
homologous pair.
¾¾ Structural uniqueness and individuality - is retained by the chromosomes through out
the life cycle.
¾¾ Genes - Chromosomes carries - genes (factors)
- the behaviour of chromosomes during the
- gamete formation provide evidence to the fact that genes are
located on chromosomes
19. Explain the mechanism of crossing over.
¾¾ Crossing Over - it is a very significant biological process
It is a precise one with several stages synapsis
tetrad stage
crossing over
terminalization
i) Synapsis :
¾¾ During zygotene - of prophase. I of melosis I the homologous chromosomes come and
align side by side known as - bivalents.
¾¾ This pairing - is known as synapsis or syndesis.
¾¾ Types of synapsis -Procentric - (pairing from middle)
- proterminal (pairing from telomeres)
- Random (pairing start from anywhere)
Chapter 3 76
ii) Tetrad Formation :

¾¾ Each homologous chromosome of - a bivalent begin to form two identical sister chromatids
-held together by a centromere.
¾¾ Each bivalent has 4 chromatids - (tetrad stage).
iii) Cross Over :
¾¾ At pachytene stage cross over occur. The points of contact at one or more points between
non-sister chromatids is called Chiasmata.
¾¾ Crossing over is exchange of corresponding segments occur, in the chiasma region.
Synaptonemal Complex (SC)
The highly organised structure of filaments called SC - facilitate chiasma formation.
SC formation & chiasma formation - is absent in Drosophila
Terminalisation :
¾¾ After crossing over, chiasma starts to moving towards the terminal end of chromatids is
known as terminalisation.
¾¾ Complete separation of homologous chromosomes occurs after terminalization.
20. Write the steps involved in molecular mechanism of DNA recombination with diagram.
¾¾ Proposed by Robin Holliday in 1964
Steps :
1. Homologous DNA molecules are paired side by side with their duplicated copies of
DNAs
2. One strand of both DNAs cut in one place by the enzyme endonuclease.
3. The cut strands cross and join the homologous strands - Holliday junction.
4. Holliday junction migrates away from the original site, a process called branch migration,
as a result heteroduplex region is formed.
5. DNA strands may cut along through the vertical (V) line or horizontal (H) line.
6. The vertical cut will result in heteroduplexes with recombinants.
7. The horizontal cut will result in heteroduplex with non recombinants.
21. How is Nicotiana exhibit self-incompatibility. Explain its mechanism.
¾¾ In Nicotiana self sterility or self incompatibility is due to multiple alleles.
¾¾ The pollen from a plant is unable to germinate on its own stigma - and no fertilization.
¾¾ The gene for self incompability can be - ‘S’ which has allelic series S1, S2, S3, S4 & S5 .
¾¾ Cross-fertilizing tobacco - were not always homozygous as S1S1 or S2S2, but
heterozygous
¾¾ Crosses between different S1S2 plants, pollen tube did not develop normally.
77 Chapter 3
¾¾ But effective - development observed when cross was made with other than S1S2
Eg. S3S4.
Eg. S S S S
1 2 3 4
S1 S1 S1 S1
Effectively produced 4 kinds of progeny
S1 S3 S1 S4 S2 S3 S2 S4
22. How is sex determined in monoecious plants. Write the genes involved in it.
Zeamays (maise) - monoecious plant
Made & Female flowers present on the same plant.
¾¾ Terminal inflorescence - arise from tassel bear staminate flowers
¾¾ Lateral inflorescence - arise from ear or cob bear pistillate flowers.
¾¾ Unisexvality in maize - occurs through selective abortion of ear florets and pistils in
tassel florets.
¾¾ The allele for barren plant (ba)- when homozygous makes the stalk staminate
(eliminating silk and ears)
¾¾ The allele for tassel seed (ts) - transforms tassel into a pistillate structure (no pollen
produced)
¾¾ Most of these mutations are shown to be defects in Gibberellins biosynthesis.
¾¾ Gibberellins play an important role in the suppression of stamens in florets on the ears.
23. What is gene mapping? Write its uses.
Definition:
Genes on present on the locus in a chromosome. They - are arranged in a linear order.
The diagrammatic representation of position of genes and related distance between adjacent
genes is called Genetic mapping (linkage map).
¾¾ It is directly proportional to the frequency of recombination between them
¾¾ Concept of genetic mapping was 1st developed by Morgan’s student - Alfred
H.Sturtevant (1913)
Uses :
¾¾ It is used to determine gene order, identify the locus of a gene and calculate the
distance between the genes.
¾¾ They are useful in predicting results of dihybrid and trihybrid crosses.
¾¾ It helps to understand the overall genetic complexity of particular organism.
Chapter 3 78
24. Draw the diagram of different types of aneuploidy.

Ploidy
Aneuploidy Euploidy
Hyperploidy Hypoploidy
Double Double Double Nullisomy Double

Trisomy Tetrasomy Pentasomy Monosomy
Trisomy Tetrasomy Monosomy (2n-2) Nullisomy
(2n+1) (2n+2) (2n+3) (2n-1)
(2n+1+1) (2n+2+2) (2n-1-1) (2n-2-2)
Haploidy (n) Diploidy (2n) Polyploidy

(2n+n+n...)
Monoploidy (x) Autopolyploidy Allopolyploidy
Autotriploid Autotetraploid
25. Mention the name of man - made cereal. How it is formed?

1. Triticale, the successful first man made cereal - It has 3 main groups.
i) Tetraploidy : Crosses between diploid wheat and rye.
ii) Hexaploidy :C rosses between tetraploid wheat Triticum durum (macaroni
wheat) and rye
iii) Octoploidy : Crosses between hexaploid wheat T. aestivum (bread wheat) and
rye
Hexaploidy Triticale hybrid plants demonstrate characteristics of both macaroni - wheat &
rye
(P) Triticum durum × Secale cereale
Generation
2n = 4 × 2x = 28 2n = 2x = 14
Tetraploidy Diploidy
Gametes n = 2x = 14 n=x=7
2n = 2x = 21
(Triploidy)
Chromosome
doubling by colohicine
2n = 6x = 42
Triticale (Hexaploidy)
79 Chapter 3
PART - II- ADDITIONAL EXERCISES

I. Fill in the blanks Answers
1. The scientists those who independently rediscovered mendelian De Vries, Correns &
works were Tschermak
2. The worm shaped cells formed during cell division are called Chromosomes
in earlier period as
3. Who postulated that the chromosomes of a cell are responsible Wilhelm Roux (1883)
for transferring heredity
4. ________ was the first to find out physical mutagen in Drosophila Muller (192)
5. The substance used as chemical weapon in world war I - is Mustard gas (dichloro
ethyl sulphide)
6. ________ used X-rays for the first time to induce mutation in H.J. Muller
fruit fly
7. Induced mutations is plants was reported for the first time by L.J. Stadler
8. Chemical mutagenesis was first reported by Auerback (1944)
9. Double nullisomy is 2n-2-2
10. Trisomis were first reported by Blackeslee in Datura Stramonium
11. All possible tetrasomics are available in ______ plant Wheat
12. The kind of Aneuploid are usually lethal are Nullisomy
13. The alkaloid used to induce polyploidy is Colchicine
14. Raphano brassica the sterile hybrid of Radish & Cabbage was G.D. Karpechenko
produced by (1927)
15. The cross between hexaploid wheat Triticum aestivum and rye Octoploidy
produced is a
16. Colchicine is extracted from root and corms of Colchicum autumnale
17. Who first reported duplication in drosophita Bridges (1919)
18. If the frequency of a parental form is higher than 25% in a Linkage
dihybrid test cross what does that indicate about the two genes
involved?
19. In which types of cells chromosomal aberration is commonly Cancer cells
found?
20. Recombination frequencies are same for CIS and trans
heterozygotes
Chapter 3 80
21. The map distance between gene A and B is 3 units between B & B-A-C
C is 10 units and between C & A is 7 units - the order of genes
in a linkage map constructed on the about would perhaps be
22. The percentage of crossing over will be more if Linked genes are
located for apart from
each other
23. A point mutation that changes an amino acid coding codon into Nonsense mutation
a stop codon, prematurely terminating synthesis of the encoded
protein ________
24. Single base change in DNA is known as ______ Point mulation
25. Genetic change in a non-sex cell is known as Somatic mulalion
26. A duplicated DNA sequence next to the original sequence is Tandem duplication
known as
27. A missing sequence of DNA or part of a chromosome Deletion mutation
28. Mutation that alters the genes reading frame is known as Frame shift mutation
29. A single base change mutation that alters and amino acid ______ Missense
30. A substance that changes, adds, or deletes a DNA base Multagen
31. The mutation that introduces a section of aminoacids not Frame shift mutation
normally found is known as ______
32. A mutation that changes an adenine to guanine is an example transition
of a _____
33. A point mutation that has no obvious effect at all on the silent
phenotype is called a _______ mutation
34. A point mutation that changes a codon specifying an amino Non sense mutation
acid into a stop codon is called a ________
35. Changing the codon AGC to AGA represents _________ of a missense
point mutation
36. A point multation that alters a codon so that the encoded missense
aminoacid is substituted with another is called a ______
mutation
37. A __________ mutation occurs during the DNA replication that germline, somatic
precedes meiosis, while a ______ mutation occurs during the
DNA replication that preceeds mitosis.
38. A mutation that introduction of section of aminoacids not Frame shift mutation.
normally found is _________
81 Chapter 3
39. A point mutation altering a purine to pyrimidine or vice versa transversion

is _________
40. A spontaneous mutation usually originates as an error in _____ DNA replication
41. The codon for leucine is CUC. How many different aminoacids 7
could possibly result from a single base substitution
42. How may map units separate two alleles if the recombination 7cM
frequency is o.o7?
43. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA. 0.7
480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa - Based on the data, the
frequency of allela A in the population is
II. Find out the incorrect statement

43. a) Morgan carried out several dehybrid crossed in Drosophila to study the genes that
were sex linked.
b) Sturtevant used frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same
chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes and mapped their position o
chromosome.
c) Henking gave the term x-body
d) Boveri united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principles
and called it the chromosomal theory of inheritance.
Ans: d)
Boveri united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Mendelian
principles and called it the chromosomal theory of inheritance.
44. a) 94% of all flowering plants are sexually monomorphic
b) When three or more allelic forms of a gense occupy the same locus in given pair of
homologous chromosome they are known as Multiple alleles
c) The mutation that result in the change of one codon of an aminoacid changed into codon
of another amino acid is known as Frame shift mutation.
d) Muller (1928) first time used x-rays to induce mutation in Drosophila
Ans : c) The mutation that result in the change of one codon of an aminoacid changed
into codon of another amino acid is known as Frame shift mutation.
45. Which of the following statement is not correct of two genes that show 50% recombination
frequency?
a) The genes may be on different chromosomes
b) The genes are tightly linked
c) The genes show independent assortment
d) If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one
crossover in every meiosis.
Ans: d) If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one
crossover in every meiosis.
Chapter 3 82
46. a) Sclfing of monosomic plants produce nullisomics.

b) In a true diploid both the monoploid and haploid chromosome number are same.
c) An Auto triploids can be produced artificially by crossing between haploid and a
diploid.
d) An increase in the number of chromosome sets has been an important factor in the
origin of new plant species.
Ans: c) An increase in the number of chromosome sets has been an important factor in the
origin of new plant species.
III. Match the following
47. I II Answer
1. Penta somy A (2n-1-1-1) 1. D
2. Double monosamy B (2n-2-2) 2. E
3. Double nullisomy C (2n+2+2) 3. B
4. Triple monosomy D Addition of three individual chromosomal 4. A
pairs to normal diploid set
5. Double tetrasomy E 2n-1-1-1 5. C
IV. Choose the correct statement

48. a) Greater the physical distance between genes, lesser in the probability of occurence of
chiasma between them
b) The two chromatids are connected to each other at points called synapsis.
c) C.B. Bridges (1919) discovered that crossing over is completely absent in some species
of male Drosophila.
d) A recent study reveals that synapsis and chiasma formation are facilitated by Auxin &
Gibberellin complex (AC).
Ans: c) C.B. Bridges (1919) discovered that crossing over is completely absent in some
species of male Drosophila.
V. Find the Odd man out with reference to Allopolyploidy
49. a) All organisms which possess two or more basic sets of chromosomes derived from two
different specie’s.
b) They have four or six copies ot its own genome - induced by doubling of the diploid
species.
c) They can be developed by inter-specific crosses and fertility is restored by chromosome
doubling with colchicine treatment.
d) They are formed between closely related species only..
Ans: b) They have four or six copies ot its own genome - induced by doubling of the
diploid species.
83 Chapter 3
VI. Find the Odd man out with reference to Altotriploidy

50. a) They can be produced artificially by crossing between autotetraploid & diploid.
b) They are highly fertile due to large number of gametes.
c) Cultivated triploid bananas are seedless having larger fruits than diploid.
d) Common doob cross is a natural autotriploid.
Ans: b) They are highly fertile due to large number of gametes.
VII. Find the Odd man out regarding crossing over
51. a) It occur in germinal cells during gametogenesis.
b) Take place during Pachytene state of prophase I of meiosis..
c) It is directly proportional to the frequency of recombination between them.
d) It has universal occurrence has great significance.
Ans: c) It is directly proportional to the frequency of recombination between them.
VIII. Choose the wrongly matched pair
52. a. Crossing over term - coined by - T.H. Morgan
b. Concept of gene mapping developed by - A.H. Sturtevant
c. Linkage in Lathyrus odoratus is sludied by - Bateson & Punnet
d. Widely accepted Model of DNA recombination was 1st - Robert Koch
proposed by
Ans: d
53. a. The condition in which a pair of chromosomes is lost - Nullisomy

b. The condition in which one chromosome is lost - Monosomy
c. The condition in which two chromosome is gained - Tetrasomy
d. The condition in which one chromosome is gained - Diplosomy
Ans: d.
54. a. If the chromosome has only one centromere it is known as - Monocentric

b. If the inversion include long and short arm of the - Paracentric
chromosome does not include centro mere is known as
c. If the chromosome has no terminal end - it’s known as - Telocentric
d. If inversion include centromere it is known as - Pericentric
Ans: c.
IX. Choose the incorrect statement with reference to Deletion
55. a) Deletions occur due to chemicals, drugs & radiation.
b) On the basis of location of breakage on chromosome it is divided in to Terminal
deletion & inter calary deletion
c) Larger deletions have evolutionary significance.
d) Deletions are recorded in Drosophila & Maize
Ans: c) Larger deletions have evolutionary significance.
Chapter 3 84
X. Fill in the blanks

56. A point mutation that changes a codon specifying an amino acid into a stop codon is called
________. Ans: Non sense mutation
57. The term genetics was coined by _______ in 1905 Ans: W. Bateson
58. Mutations involving the changes in the number of chromosomes are also known as ______
Ans: genomic mutation
XI. Assertion (A) & Reason (R)
59. Read A & R carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
a) If both the Assertion (A) & Reason (R) are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
b) If both the Assertion (A) & Reason (R) are true, but the Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
c) If Assertion (A) is true but the Reason (R) is False.
d) If both Assertion (A) & Reason (R) are false.
Assertion (A) : Increase in a whole set of chromosome in an organism is known as
polyploidy
Reason (R) : Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in
polyploidy.
Ans: b) If both the Assertion (A) & Reason (R) are true, but the Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of Assertion (A)
60. Assertion (A) : Linkage and crossing over are two processes that have opposite effects.
Reason (R) : Linkage keeps particular genes together but crossing over mixes them.
Ans: a) If both the Assertion (A) & Reason (R) are true and the reason is a correct explanation
of the Assertion.
61. Assertion (A) : Increase in temperature increases the rate of mutation.
Reason (R) : While rise in temperature hydrolyses DNA by the restriction endonuclease
which degrade Nucleotides.
Ans: c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
XII. Two Marks
1. Define chromosome theory of inheritance.
It states the Mendelian factors (genes) have specific locus on chromosomes & they carry
information from one generation to the next generation.
2. State the number of chromosomes of the given organism.
1) Ophioglossum 2) Arabiodopsis 3) Sugarcane
4) Rice 5) Potato 6) Maize
Ans: 1) - 1262 ; 2) - 10 ; 3) 80 : 4) -24 ; 5) 48 ; 6) 20
3. What are Fossil Genes?
 Some junk DNA is made up of pseudogenes, once working but have lost their ability to
make proteins.
 They are fossilized parts act as evidence for evolution.
85 Chapter 3
4. State the works of T.H. Morgan

 His works on Drosophila melanogaster - Sex linkage - helped to confirm chromosome
theory of heredity.
 He received Nobel prize in Physiology of medicine in 1933 fot it.
 He coined the term crossing over.
5. What are co-mutagenss
Compounds which are not having own mutagenic properties - but enhance the effects of
known mutagens.
Eg. Ascorbic acid - increase the damage caused by hydrogen peroxide.
Caffeine - increase the toxicity of melhotrexate.
6. Differentiate between Euploidy & Aneuploidy
Eupoidy Aneuploidy
1. Ploidy involving entire sets of chro- Here the diploid number is altered either
mosomes is known as euploidy by addition or deletion of one or more
chromosomes
2. Triploidy (3n) ; Tetraploidy (4n); Trisomy ; Tetrasomy ; Monosomy ;
Poly ploidy (∝n) Nullisomy (2n+1)(2n+2)(2n-1)(2n-2)
7. Distinguish between Monoploidy & Haploidy

Monoploidy Haploidy
1. In Monoploidy the chromosome Half the number of somatic chromosomes
number is referred as x . is referred as gametic chromosome number
Eg. Hexaploidy wheat called haploidy (n)
(2n) = 6 x = 72
haplaid = (n) 36
Monoploidy = x = 12
8. Independent assortment & Linkage are alternatives of each other - Discuss

Independent assortment Linkage
1. Genes present in different chromo- Genes present in same chromosome tend to
some they assort independently stay to gether
2. More parental combinations & less More parental combinations are possible
new combinations are possible
9. How does the strength and weakness of linkage depend on linked genes?
 The strength of linkage increases as the distance between linked genes decreases.
The linkage becomes weaker with the increase in the distance between genes.
10. Explain the works of G.D. Karpecheako that gave him great dis appointment
Karpechenko crossed radish & cabbage with the intention of getting a hybrid with roots like
radish & leaves like cabbage but the case was reverse. So he was greatly disappointed.
Chapter 3 86
11. Distinguish between crossing over & Reciprocal Translocalion.

Crossing over Reciprocal crossing over
1. It is legitimate & natural It is illegitimate & chromosomal abnormality
2. Occurs between nonsister Occurs between non sister chromatids of
chromatids of homologous non homologous chromosomes
chromosomes
3. Brings in new combination Also play major rome in formation of species
12. Distinguish between tetrad & bivalent
Tetrad:
 During Synapsis homologous chromosomes come together side by side resulting in
bivalents
 As the stage during which each bivalent has 4 chromatids & the stage is known as
tetrad stage
13. Define Recombination.
In this segments of DNA one broken and recombined to produce new combination of alleles
- known as Recombination.
14. What is RF (Recombination Frequency)
The frequency with which recombination occur is a certain condition
Total number of recombinant
RF = x 100
Total number of progenies
15. A diploid organism is heterozygous for 4 loci. How many types of gametes can be produced.
The formula 2n is applied - Organism hetroizygous for 4 loci = n = 4.
So 2n = 24 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 16.
The organism produces 16 types of gametes.
16. Notes on Colchicine.
 Alkaloid, extracted from - root and corms of colchicum autumnale
 In low concentration to the growing lips it induce polyploidy
 It does not affect the source plant due to the presence of Anticolchicine
17. Write down the significance of ploidy.
 Polyploids - More vigorous & more adaptive
 Ornamental flowers - (Autotetraploids)
larger flowers - longer flowering duration
 Increase in fresh weight (due to more water content)
 Aneuploids - help to determine the phenotypic effects (loss or gain of different
chromosomes
Allopolyploids of angiosperms play a role in an evolution of plants.
87 Chapter 3
18. Distinguish between Mendelian disorder & Chromosomal disorder.

Mendelian disorder Chromosomal disorder
1. Occur due to mutation of single Chromosomal disorders are produced due to
gene & follow the well known Men- alteration in the number of chromosomes.
delian pattern of inheritance. Eg. Down syndrome
Eg. Sickle cell anaemia
19. Define Inversion:
Distinguish between Paracentric and Pericentric
A A A
inversion A
D B
D B
 The rearrangement of order of genes in a B
C C C
C C
chromosome is reversed by an angle 180O B B D
F
F
D
 Involves two chromosomal breaks & reunion. E E
E
E
E
 No gain or loss of genes but rearrangement. F F F
D
D
 1st reported by Sturtevant in Drosophila G G G G
(1926) H H H H
I
 Inversions lead to evolution of new species. I I I
a) Paracentric inversion b) Pericentric inversion
(does not include centromere) (includes centromere)
Inversion
Paracentric Pericentric
1. Inversion which takes place apart Inversion that includes the centromere
from the centromere
20. Bring out the difference between Linkage & Crossingover in inheritance
Linkage Crossing over
1. It is the tendency of genes in a chro- It leads to separation of linked gene
mosome to stay close together
2. It involves same chromosome of It involves exchange of segments between
homologous chromosome nonsister chromatids of homologous chromo-
some.
3. It reduces new gene combinations It increases - variability by forming new
combinations → lead to formation of new
organism
4. Not very significant in evolution play important role in evolution
XIII. Three Marks

1. What is Map unit?
The unit of distance is a genetic map is called a map unit.
 One map unit is equivalent - to 1% of crossing over = 1 cM
Therefore 100 cM = 1 M
Eg. The distance between A & B
genes = 3.5 map units = 3.5% = 3.5 cM or
0.035M = RF - (Recombination frequency between genes.
Chapter 3 88
2. What are the characteristics of multiple alleles?

 Occupy same locus in a homologous chromosome
No crossing over occurs with in the alleles of a series
Responsible for the same or single character.
Wild type of alleles of series - is Dominant Mutant type - (either influence dominance or
an intermediate phenotypic effect)
When any two of the mutant multiple alleles crossed, the phenotype is always-mutant
& not wild.
3. Give a tabulation comparing the behaviour of gene & Chromosome
Medelian Factors Chromosom at behaviour
1. Alleles of a factor occur in pair Chromosomes occur in pair’s
2. Similar or dissimilar alleles of a factor The homologous chromosomes during
separate during the gamete formation meiosis.
3. Mendelian factors can assort The paired chromosomes can separate
independently independently during meiosis, but the
linked genes in the same chromosome
normaly do not assort independently.
4. The important aspects about the chromosome behaviour during cell devision.
 Alleles of a genotype - found in the same locus of a homologous chromosome (A/a)
 In ‘S’ - Phase of meiotic interphase - the replication of chromosome occur - (two copies
of each allele (AA/aa) one on each chromatid
 Anaphase II of meiosis, separation of sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
So each daughter cell (gamete) carries only a single allele of a character
(A), (A), (a) and (a)
5. Distinguish between Complete & Incomplete Linkage
Complete Linkage Incomplete Linkage
1. The linked genes when located very The linked genes when they are sufficiently
close together on the same chro- apart the chances of their separation are pos-
mosome such genes donot exhibit sible.. As a result parental and non parental
crossing over. This phenomenon is combination are observed.
called complete linkage. Some crossing over occur here, so known as
The parental combinations are in- incomplete linkage.
herited. New combination of genes produced and
there fore new characters come in the exist-
ence.
6. Define synapsis.
What are the types of Synapsis
 During cygotene stage of prophase I of meiosis I - homologous chromosomes are aligned
side by side resulting in a pair called (bivalents).
89 Chapter 3
 This pairing phenomenon is called synapsis or syndesis.

Based on the starting poiring of pairing there are 3 types of synapsis
Procentric Proterminal Random
Starts from middle Starts from the telomeres Starts from any where
7. Distinguish between sharbati sonora & Castor Aruna.
Sharbati sonora Castor Aruna
1. Multant variety of Wheat - ap- Mutant castor variety
proved in 1967
2. Sonora 64 (Mexican variety subject- Seeds treated with thermal neutrons
ed to gamma rays to produce shar-
bati sonora
3. Developed by Dr. M.D. Swamina-
than
4. Early maturing & high protein con- Early maturing - (120 days instead of 270
tent high kneading quality dyas) & High yielding.
8. How do increase in temperature cause mutation?
 Rise temperature breaks the hydrogen bonds between two DNA nucleotides - &
affects the process of replication & transcription.
9. Distinguish between the impact of ionizing & non ionizing radiation in causing
mutation.
Ionizing radiation Non Ionizing radiation
1. Short wave length and carry enough Longer wave lengths and carry lower
higher energy to ionize electrons energy so they have lover penetrating power
from atoms. used to treat unicellular microbes - spores
They breaks the chromosome & pollengrains - which have nuclei - near
chromatids. surface membrance.
Ex. x-rays - gamma rays, alfa rays, Eg. UV rays
beta rays & cosmic rays.
XIV. Five Marks

1. Whose works supported the chromosomal theory of heredity? Explain.
¾¾ T.H. Morgan works on fruit fly supported the chromosomal theory of inheritance.
¾¾ The alleles for red or white eye colour are present on the X - chromosome but there is
no counter part for this gene on the Y chromosome.
¾¾ The genes for yellow body colour and miniature wings are also carried on the X -
chromosome.
¾¾ By understanding the sex linked inheritance of these characters it is proved that genes
are located on the chromosomes.
¾¾ Thus T.H. Morgan’s works on Drophila came as a support to the chromosomal theory
of inheritance.
Chapter 3 90
2. Write down the steps in the Holliday’s hybrid DNA model.

1. Homologous DNA molecules are paired side by side with their duplicated copies of DNAs.
2. One strand of both DNAs cut in one place by the enzyme endonuclease.
3. The cut strands cross & join the homologous strands forming the Holliday junction
4. Holliday junction - migrates away from the original site, by branch migration - as a result
heteroduplex region is formed.
5. DNA strands may cut along the vertical (V) or horizontal (H) line.
6. The vertical cut will result in heteroduplexes with recombinants & the Horizontal with
non recombinants.
(a) (b)
A BC AB C
5’ 3’
3’ 5’
A B C AB C
a b c ab c
3’ 5’
5’ 3’
ab c ab c
Heteroduplex region
(c) (d)
AB C AB C
AC B Ab C
aB c
a b c
ab c
ab c
(e) A V
Holliday junction A
C
B C
b H
B
c a Horizontal
b
Vertical cut c
cut (along
(along line V) a line H) and
and reseal reseal
(f) (g)
A Bc A B C
5’ 3’ 5’ 3’
3’ 5’ 3’ 5’
Ab c A b C
ab C a B c
5’ 3’ 3’ 5’
3’ 5’ 5’ 3’
aB C ab c
Heteroduplexes and Heteroduplexes and
recombinants No recombinants
Holliday model showing Recombination
91 Chapter 3
3. Explain sex determination is Silene latifolia (Melandrium album)

¾¾ C.E Allen (1917) discovered sex determination in plants.
¾¾ Complex precess determined by genes
environment
hormones
Sex determination silene latifolia - is controlled by 3 distinct regions in a sex
chromosome
¾¾ Y - Chromosome - determines maleners
¾¾ X - Chromosome - specify femaleness
¾¾ X & Y - show different segments
(I, II, III, IV, & V)
4. How do Hawaii explain the sex determination in Papaya
¾¾ Carica papaya - 2n = 36
♂ Papaya ♀ Papaya
17 Pairs of antosomes + XY 17 Pairs of autosomes + XX
¾¾ The sex chromosomes look like autosomes
¾¾ Developed from autosomes
¾¾ Y- chromosome carries the genes for male organ
¾¾ X- chromosomes bear the gene for female organ development.
5. Explain sex determination in Sphaerocarpos donnelli. It is also known as Bottle liverwort
(Bryophyta)
¾¾ ♂ gametophyte - haploid with 8 chromosome (n).
¾¾ The sporophyte - diploid & heterogametic
¾¾ Male sfemale gameto phyte - seven autosomes are similar.
¾¾ In female 8th chromosome is X - Larger than the seven autosomes.
¾¾ In male 8th chromosome is Y - Smaller than the autosomes.
¾¾ In sporophyte - contain XY - combinations produces two types of meiospores
¾¾ Meiospore with X - produce - female gemetophyte
6. What are the various types of crossing over.
Type No of No.of Crossing A B
chlasmata chromatids over A B

0
RF = X100 =0%
involved frequency a b
4
a b
1. singled only single only two High A B A B
A B a B
crossing chlasma chromatids a b A b
over a b a b
2
RF = X100 = 50%
4
Chapter 3 92
2. 2.strand two chiasmata only two High A B A B
A B a b
Double chromatids a b A B
crossing a b a b
over
0
RF = X100 = 0%
4
3. 3 strand two chlasmata 3 Low A B A B
A B a b
double chromatids a b A b
crossing a b a B
over
2
RF = X100 = 50%
4
4. Four two chiasmata 4 Low A B a B
A B
stand chromatids
a B
a b A b
double a b A b
crossing 4
over RF = X100 = 100%
4
7. The two loci A/a and D/d are so tightly linked that no recombination is ever observed. If
AA dd is crossed to aa DD what phonotypes will be seen in the F2 and in what proportions.
Genotypes of the parents are Ad/Ad x aD × aD - If genes are so tightly linked, the only
possible types of gametes produced by parents are
Ad and aD respectively (parental or nonrecombinant g ametes)
F1 will be all Ad / aD
only types of gametes from each F1 can be Ad (50%) or aD (50%)
F2 frequencies can be calculated from these
F2 will be Ad/Ad (¼) Ad/aD (½) aD /aD (¼)
8. Classify major types of mutations.
S.No Basis of Major types of Major features
classification mutations
1 Origin Spontaneous Occurs in the absence of known
mutagen
Induced Occurs in the presence of known
mutagen
2. Cell type Somatic Occurs in non-reproductive cells
Germ-line Occurs in reproductive cells
3. Effect on func- Loss-of-function Eliminates normal function
tion (knockout, null)
Hypomorphic(leaky) Reduces normal function
Hypermorphic Increases normal function
Gain-of-function (ectopic Expressed a incorrect time or
expression) inappropriate cells
93 Chapter 3
4. Molecular Nucleotide substitution A base pair in DNA duplex is replaced

change with a different base pair
Purine to purine(A→G)or pyrimidine to
pyrimidine(T→C)
Transversion Purine to pyrimidine(A→T) or
pyrimidine to purine(C→G)
Insertion One or more extra nucleotides are
present
Deletion One or more nucleotides are missing
5 Effect on transla- Silent (synonymous) No change in amino acid encoded
tion Missense (non- Change in amino acid encoded
synonymous)
Nonsense(termination) Creates translational termination codon
(UAA, UAG, or UGA)
Frameshift Shifts triplet reading of codons out of
correct phase
9. Define point mutation & explain it’s types
Definition :
Mutation affecting single base or base pair of DNA
Types:
¾¾ Indel mutation : (Base pair insertions or addition. Addition or deletions of nucleotide
pairs.
¾¾ Substitution : one base pair is replaced by another
Types - (Two) - (Purine replaced by Purine)
- Pyrimidine replaced by Pyrimidine
- Transversion purine replaced by pyrimidin or pyridine replaced
¾¾ Synonymous or silent mutations:
Here change in one codon for an amino acid into another codon for that same amino acid
¾¾ Missense or Non synonymous mutations
Here the codon for one amino acid is changed in to -a termination or stop codon.
¾¾ Frameshift mutations.
Additions or deletions of a single base pair of DNA, - changed the reading frame for
translation - so there is complete loss of normal protein structure & function.
10. What are chemical mutagens?
Definition : Chemicals inducing mutation are called chemical mutagens.
Examples :
1. EMS, MMS & EV (Ethyl methane sulphonate, Methyl methane sulphonate & Ethyl
urethane.
2. Mustard gas & Nitrous acid
Chapter 3 94
3. Magnous salt & formaldehyde

4. Eosin & Erythrosine
Action of mutagents
They alter the nitrogen bases of DNA and disturb the replication & transcription that
leads to the formation of incomplete & defective polypeptide during translation.
11. Explain structural changes in chromosome with reference to changed to changes in the
number of gene loci
¾¾ There are 2 types Deletion
Duplication
Deletion or Deficiency
¾¾ (loss of a portion of chromosome)
2 types Terminal deletion (break in any one end
Intercalary deletion (two breaks & reunion of terminal parts leading
the middle.
¾¾ Unpaired loops some times formed known as defiiciency loops (during melotic
prophase)
¾¾ Larger deletions may have lethal effect
Duplication or Repeat
¾¾ Same order of genes repeated more thane once in the same chromosome.
Eg. Drosophila
Duplication
3 types Tandem duplication
Reverse Tandem duplication
Displaced duplication
i) Tandem duplication
Duplicated segment is located immediately after the normal segment in the same
order.
ii) Reverse tandem
Duplicated segment, immediately after the normal segment but gene sequence order
will be reversed.
iii) Reverse tandem
Duplicated segment away from the normal segment.
¾¾ Duplication play a major role in evolution.
12. Explain translocation.
Definition : The transfer of a segment of chromosome to - a non homologous chromosome
is called translocation.
Types - 3
i) Simple translocation:
Single break in only one chromosome the broken segment gets attached to one end of a
non homologous chromosome - (Very rare occurrence)
95 Chapter 3
ii) Shift translocation.

Broken segment of one chromosome gets inserted interstitially in a non homologous
chromosome.
iii) Reciprocal translocation.
Mutual exchange of chromosomal segments between two non homologous chromosomes
-Illegitimate crossing over)
a) Homozygous translocation.
Both the chromosomes of two pairs ave involved.
¾¾ Two homologous of each translocated chromosomes are identical.
b) Heterozygous translocation.
Only me of the chromosome from each pair of two homologous are involved others
remain normal.
13. Consider two hypothetical recessive autosomal genes a and b, where a heterozygote is
testcrossed to a double homozygous mutant. Predict the phenotypic ratios under the
following conditions:
a) a and b are located on separate autosomes.
b) a and b are linked on the same autosome but are so far apart that a crossover occurs
between them.
c) a and b are linked on the same autosome but are so close together that a crossover
almost never occurs.
a) T
he problem involves an understanding of linkage, crossing over & independent
assortment.
AaBb : Aabb : aaBb : aabb
F2 geno & phenotypic ratio =
1 : 1 : 1 : 1
b) When crossing over occurs the result in same as the question (a)
AaBb : Aabb : aaBb : aabb
F2 geno & phenotypic ratio =
1 : 1 : 1 : 1
c) When a & b linked with out crossing on the heterozygolic parent can be
AB/ab - (cis) or Ab/ab - (trans)
However there won’t be any recombinant gametes because no. crossing over occur.
It will produce Ab & aB (50% of each)
The progeny of test cross will be
Ab/ab & aB/ab
Chapter 3 96
www.nammakalvi.org
Biotechnology
Principles and Processes of

VIII 4 Biotechnology

1. Restriction enzymes are.
a) Not always required in genetic engineering
b) Essential tools in genetic engineering.
c) Nucleases that cleave DNA at specific sites. d) both b and c.
Ans: d) both b and c
2. Plasmids are.
a) circular protein molecules. b) required by bacteria.
c) tiny bacteria. d) confer resistance to antibiotics.
Ans: d) confer resistance to antibiotics
3. EcoRI cleaves DNA at.
a) AGGGTT. b) GTATATC.
c) GAATTC. d) TATAGC. Ans: d) TATAGC
4. Genetic engineering is
a) making artificial genes
b) hybridization of DNA of one organism to that of the others
c) production of alcohol by using micro organisms
d) making artificial limbs, diagnostic instruments such as ECG, EEG, etc.,
Ans: b) hybridization of DNA of one organism to that of the others
5. Consider the following statements:.
I) Recombinant DNA technology is popularly known as genetic engineering is a stream of
biotechnology which deals with manipulation of genetic materials by man invitro.
II) pBR322 is the first artificial cloning vector developed in 1977 by Boliver and Rodriguez
from E.coli plasmid.
III) Restriction enzymes belongs to a class of enzymes called nucleases.
Choose the correct option regarding above statements
a) I & II . b) I & III . c) II & III . d) I, II, & III. Ans: c) II & III
6. The process of recombinant DNA technology has the following steps
I) Amplication of the gene
II) Insertion of recombinant DNA into host cells
III) Cutting of DNA at specific location using restriction enzyme
IV) Isolation of genetic material(DNA)
Pick out the correct sequence of step for recombinant DNA technology.
97 Chapter 4
a) II, III, IV,I b) IV, II, III, I

c) I,II,III,IV d) IV, III, I, II Ans: d) IV, III, I, II
7. Which one of the following palindromic base sequence in DNA can be easily cut about
the middle by some particular restriction enzymes?
a) 5’ CGTTCG 3’ 3’ ATCGTA 5’ b) 5’ GATATG3’ 3’ CTACTA 5’
c) 5’ GAATTC 3’ 3’ CTTAAG 5’ d) 5’ CACGTA3’ 3’ CTCAGT 5’
Ans: c) 5’ GAATTC3’ 3’ CTTAAG 5’
8. pBR 322, BR stands for
a) Plasmid Bacterial Recombination b) Plasmid Bacterial Replication
c) Plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez d) Plasmid Baltimore and Rodriguez
Ans: c) Plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez
9. Which of the following one is used as Biosensors?
a) Electrophoresis b) Bioreactors
c) Vectors d) Electroporation Ans: c) Vectors
Column A Column B 1 2 3 4
1. Exonuclease a add or remove phosphate A) a b c d
2. Endonuclease b binding the DNA fragments B) c d b a
3. Alkaline Phosphate c cut the DNA at terminus C) a c b d
4. Ligase d cut the DNA at middle D) c d a b
Ans: d) c d a b
11. In which techniques Ethidium Bromide is used?
a) Southern Blotting Techniques b) Western Blotting Techniques.
c) Polymerase Chain Reaction. d) Agrose Gel Electroporosis.
Ans: d) Agrose Gel Electroporosis
12. Assertion : Assertion: Agrobacterium tumifaciens is popular in genetic engineering because
this bacterium is associated with the root nodules of all cereals and pulse crops.
Reason : A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets automatically
transferred to the cross with which bacterium is associated.
a) Both assertion and reason are true. But reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true. But reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
e) Both assertion and reason are false. Ans: e) Both assertion and reason are false
13. Which one of the following is not correct statement.
a) Ti plasmid causes the bunchy top disease.
b) Multiple cloning site is known as Polylinker.
c) Non viral method tranfection of Nucleic acid in cell
d) Polyactic acid is a kind of biodegradable and bioactive thermoplastic
Ans: a) Ti plasmid causes the bunchy top disease
Chapter 4 98
14. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridisation technique does
not use
a) Electrophoresis b) Blotting
c) Autoradiography d) Polymerase Chain Reaction
Ans: d) Polymerase Chain Reaction
15. An antibiotic gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of.
a) Competent cells. b) Transformed cells
c) Recombinant cells d) None of the above Ans: b) Transformed cells
16. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are
a) Long fibre and resistant to aphids
b) Medium yield, long fibre and resistant to beetle pests
c) high yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests
d) High yield and resistant to boll worms.
Ans: d) High yield and resistant to boll worms
17. How do you use the biotechnology in modern practice?
Today biotechnology is a billion dollar business around the world, apply biotechnological
tools for their product improvement.
➢ Pharmaceutical companies.
➢ Breweries.
➢ Agro Industries & others.
➢ Modern biotechnology – include all methods, rDNA technology, cell fusion technology, etc.,
➢ Major focus of Biotechnology (see the tabulation)
Fermentation Production of acids, alcohols, antiobiotics, enzymes, vitamins, fine
chemicals & toxins
Biomass production ➢ SCP ➢ Alcohol ➢ Biofuel, etc
Enzymes Used as biosensors in processing industry
Biofuel Production of i) Hydrogen, ii) Alcohol, iii) Methane, etc
Microbial inoculants as bio fertilizers & nitrogen fixers
Plant & Animal cell For production of secondary metabolites, monoclonal antibodies
culture
rDNA technology For production of i) fine chemicals, ii) enzymes, iii) vaccines,
iv) growth hormones, v) antibiotics & interferon
Process Engineering Tools of Biotechnology used in effluent treatment and water recycling
18. What are the materials used to grow microorganism like Spirulina?
1. Waste water from = Potato processing plants.
2. Straw. 4. Molasses
3. animal Manure . 5. Sewage .
Can be used to produce large quantities of SCP.
99 Chapter 4
19. You are working in a biotechnology lab with a bacterium namely E.Coli. How will you cut
the nucleotide sequence? Explain it.
➢ The exact kind of cleavage
produced by a restriction enzyme
is important in the design of a gene
cloning experiment.
➢ Some cleave both strands of DNA
through the centre resulting in
blunt or flush end known as
symmetric cuts.
➢ Some restriction enzymes cut the
strand of DNA, a little away from
the centre of palindrome sites,
between the same two bases on
the opposite strands, producing
protruding and recessed ends
known as sticky or cohesive end,
cuts known as asymmetric cut or staggered cuts.
➢ It is necessary that the vector and the source DNA are cut with the same restriction
enzyme, so that the resultant DNA fragments have the same sticky ends facilitating the
action of DNA ligase to join them.
20. What are the enzymes you can use to cut terminal end and internal phopho diester bond
of nucleotide sequence?
a) Exonucleases
These enzymes – remove nucleotides one at a time from the end of a DNA molecule. Eg. Bal
31, Exonuclease 111
b) Endonucleases
These are enzymes which break the internal phosphor diester bonds with in a DNA molecule
Eg. Hind11, EcoR1, Pvul, Bam HI, Taq I.
21. Name the chemical used in gene transfer.
Director vector less Gene transfer is possible through several mediators
Chemical mediated gene transfer:
Certain chemicals like Poly Ethylene Glycol(PEG) and Dextran Sulphate.
These chemicals induce the uptake of DNA into plant protoplasts.
22. What do you know about the word pBR332?
PBR332 – It is a reconstructed plasmid and most widely used as cloning vector.
➢ It contains 4361 base pairs. ➢ P denotes Plasmid.
➢ B&R – The names of Boliver and Rodriguez, the scientists developed this plasmid.
➢ 322 – The number of plasmid developed from their lab.
➢ It contains ampR & tetR – 2 different antibiotic resistant genes & the recognition sites
for several restriction enzymes (HindIII, ECoRI, Bam H-I, Sal I, Pvu II, Pst I, Cla I) ori &
antibiotic resistance genes.
➢ Rop – Codes for the proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid.
Chapter 4 100
23. Mention the application of Biotechnology.

Introduction: Most important applied interdisciplinary sciences of the 21 st century
➢ It has promise for the benefits of Human Being.
Agriculture
➢ Wide Application in Medicine
Environment &
Commercial Industries.
{
➢ Trangenic Varieties of –
plants
Bt- Cotton, Goldenrice, Tomato, Tobacco,
Cauliflower, Potato & Banana.
{
➢ Trangenic Disease Resistant
Agricultural Pest Resistant
crops, . Stress Resistant
Break Through in Biotech Industries-(Medicines)
➢ Synthesis of Human Insulin(Humulin) & Blood protein in Ecoli.
Vaccines
➢ Synthesis of Enzymes
Antibiotics
Dairy Products & Beverages.
Biochip based biological computer.
Genetic Manipulation
➢ Genetic Engineering involves Tissue culture
(Based on Totipotency)
➢ SCP(Spirulina) – Food Industry.
➢ Production of secondary metabolites – Biofertilizers, Biopesticides & Enzymes
➢ IBiomass Energy, Biofuel, Bioremediation phytoremediation for environmental
biotechnology.
24. What are restriction enzyme? Mention their type with role in Biotechnology.
➢ It was isolated in 1963 from E.coli.
➢ It cleaves DNA into fragments at or near specific recognition sites.
➢ On the base of mode of action there are 2 types
a) Exonucleases – remove nucleotides one at a time from the end of DNA.
Eg: Bal31, Exonuclease IIIt.
b) Endonucleases – break the internal phosphodiester bonds with in a DNA.
Eg: Hind II, EcoRI, Pvul, Bam HI, Taql.
Three classes of Restriction endonuclease
➢ Type I, II & III – which differ slightly by their mode of action
➢ Type II – preferred in rDNA technology as they cut DNA with in a specific sequence
consisting of 4 – 8 bpt.
➢ Hind II – cut DNA at a point of specific sequence of 6 pairs (recognition sequence).
➢ From 200 strains 900 restriction enzymes isolated from over 230 strains of bacteria with
different recognition sequences.
101 Chapter 4
25. Is there any possibilities to transfer a suitable desirable gene to host plant without vector?
Justify your answer.
Yes – In this method, the foreign gene of interest is delivered into the host plant without the
help of vector directly.
a. Chemical mediated gene transfer:
Chemicals Poly Ethylene Glycol (PEG) & Dextran sulphate – induce DNA uptake inti plant
protoplasts.
b. Microinjection:
With fine tipped glass needle, DNA is directly injected into the nucleus.
The protoplasts are immobilized on a solid support ( agarose on a microscopic slide)
c. Electroporation method of gene transfer
Protoplasts, cells or tissues subjected to a pulse of high voltage electric power to make
transient pores in the plasma membrane, through which uptake of foreign DNA occurs.
d. Liposome – mediated transfer
The gene or DNA is transferred in an encapsulated form from Liposome ( the artificial
phospholipid vesicles) into vacuole of plant cells.
Biolistics:
The DNA particle with gold or tungsten particle coating are bombarded into the target tissue
by gene gun or micro projectile gun / shot gun
The bombarded cells / tissues are cultured to regenerate plants from transformed cells.
26. How will you identify vectors?
No. Properties Effect
Multiple copies can be got along with DNA –
1. Able to replicate automatically.
insert in the host cell.
Small size, low molecular weight less than Entry into host cell is easy.
2.
10 kbp
It can independently replicate with in the
3. Should contain ori
host.
Contain suitable marker (Antibiotic It permit its detection in transformed host
4.
resistance) etc. cell.
Should have unique target sites for So that it can be carried in to genome of host
5. integration with DNA insert & should cell.
have ability to integrate with DNA insert.
Most of the cloning vectors have more than Multiple cloning site (MCS) facilitates the use
one restriction site (MCS) or polylinker. of restriction enzyme of choice.
27. Compare the various types of Blotting techniques.
No. Type Transfer of DNA/RNA (From - To)
1. Southern Blotting DNA from Agarose gels to Nitrocellulose membrane.
2. Northern Blotting. RNA transferred to Nitrocellulose membrane.
3. Western Blotting. Proteins transferred from protein to Nitrocellulose membrane.
Chapter 4 102
28. Write the advantages of herbicide tolerant crops.

No. Character Effect
1. Weed control Improves high yielding crops
Economic effort - also ecofriendly & Non
2. Reduces spray of Herbicide
hazardous
Does not harm soil because donot remain
3. Use of low toxicity compounds
active in the soil.
Reduce competition between crop plant &
4. Healthy plant growth is assured
weed
29. Write the advantages and disadvantages of Bt cotton.
No. Advantages Disadvantages
Yield – Increase due to effective control Cost of Bt cotton seeds are high.
1.
of boll worms.
Remain effective only up to 120 days after that
2. Usage of insecticide is reduced
effectiveness is reduced
Ineffective - against
Jasids,
3. Cost of cultivation potentially reduced
sucking pests like aphids,
Whitefly
- Affects pollinating insects & thus yield.
30. What is bioremediation? Give some examples of bioremediation.

Definition:
➢ It is the use of microorganisms or plants to clean up the environmental pollution.
Use:
waste water
➢ Approach to treat industrial waste
solid waste, etc
remove of oil spills
➢ To remove petro chemicals residues
pesticides or heavy metals from soil or ground water.
Advantages:
➢ Less expensive.
➢ More sustainable than other physical or chemical methods.
➢ Cheaper & ecofriendly approach.
➢ More effective in dealing with lower concentration of contaminants.
Examples:
➢ Genetically modified Bacteria –pseudomonas Putida used as super bug to clean oil spills
in the sea.
➢ Fungi – Used as Bioremediation agent.
103 Chapter 4
31. Write the benefits and risk of Genetically Modified Foods.

Benefits Risk (Believed to)
➢ Yield: ➢ Health Hazards:
High yield without pest. Liver, kidney function affected cause cancer.
➢ Reduction in usage of chemical pesticides. ➢ Hormonal Imbalance and Physical Disorder.
➢ Reduction in soil pollution. ➢ Anaphylactic shock (Sudden hypersensitive
➢ Conservation of microbial pollution of soil. reaction) & Allergies.
➢ Reduction in ground water pollution. ➢ Loss of viability of seeds as in terminator seed
➢ Reduction in air pollution (Chemical spray technology of GM crops.
of pesticides - reduced) ➢ Not favoured by agriculturist.
Part -1I - ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
I. Choose the correct answer

1. 1. Bio Technology mainly uses.
a. Bacteria b. Virus
c. Animals d. GMO Ans: d) GMO
2. The Bio Technology was coined by.
a. Weisner b. Karl Prantl
c. Sanger & Gilbert d. Karl Ereky Ans:d) Karl Ereky
3. Traditional Bio Technology is also known as.
a. Fermentation Biology b. Kitchen Technology
c. Hybridization Biology d. Transgenic Biology
Ans: b) Kitchen Technology
4. The study of Drug or medicines used in medical treatment is known as.
a. Pharmaceuticals b. Biomedical Engineering
c. Chemical Engineering d. Tissue Engineering
Ans: a) Pharmaceuticals
5. Which of the following can be Bio Technological product?
a. Antibiotics b. Vaccines
c. Enzymes d. All the above. Ans: d) All the above
6. Multiplication of Alien DNA in organisms required
a. ROP b. ORI
c. Stop codon d. TATA box Ans: b) ORI
7. Tools of Biotechnology is used for effluent treatment, water cycling is known as
a. Process Engineering b. Production Engineering
c. Mechanical Engineering d. Microbial Engineering
Ans: a) Process Engineering
8. The scientist who use first viral vaccine to inoculate a child from small pox is
a. Louis Pasteur b. Edward Jenner
c. Sanger and Gilbert d. Arber and Nathans Ans: b) Edward Jenner
Chapter 4 104
9. The enzyme used for making artificial sweeteners is

a. Lactose b. Galactose
c. Invertase d. Reductase Ans: c) Invertase
10. Development of Artificial gene functioning with in living cells was done by
a. H.G.Khorana b. Ian Wilmet
c. Sir Robert d. G. Edwards Ans: a) H.G.Khorana
11. rDNA is also known as
a. Hybrid DNA-RNA b. Recombinant of vector DNA and desired genes
c. Chimeric DNA d. Both b & c Ans: d) Both b & c
12. Plasmids are
a. ss DNA b. ds DNA(linear)
c. r DNA d. Vector DNA Ans: d) Vector DNA
13. pBR322 is most extensively studied
a. Foreign gene b. r DNA
c. clone d. Plasmid DNA of Ecoli.
Ans: d) Plasmid DNA of Ecoli
14. Restriction enzymes recognize specific
a. Palindromic region. b. Exons
c. Intrones d. None of these. Ans: a) Palindromic region
15. Restriction enzymes of Ecoli are
a. Hind III b. Bam III
c. EcoRI & EcoRII d. All of these. Ans: c) EcoRI & EcoRII
16. The best cloning organism for biotechnology is
a. Agrobacterium b. Pseudomonas
c. Lambda phage d. E.Coli Ans: d) E.Coli
17. The ability to form tumours is found in the plasmids of
a. E.coli b. Pneumococcus
c. Agrobacterium d. Pseudomonas Ans: c) Agrobacterium
18. Engineered bacterium carries
a. Plasmids b. rDNA
c. c DNA d. SSDNA Ans: b) rDNA
19. Electrophoresis and southern blotting techniques are used in
a. DNA finger printing b. Gene Synthesis
c. gene cloning d. All of these. Ans: c) DNA finger printing
20. The tools of genetic engineering are
a. Ecoli plasmids b. Electron microscopy
c. DNA ligase & Restriction endonuclease
d. E.coli Ans: c) DNA ligase & Restriction endonuclease
21. Bacteria protects themselves from viral attack by producing
a. Exonuclease b. Endonuclease
c. DNA ligase d. Gyase Ans: b) Endonuclease
105 Chapter 4
22. Molecular scissor is

a. Urease b. Helicase
c. Peptidase d. Restriction Endonuclease
Ans: d) Restriction Endonuclease
23. Which one of the following is used in transfer of foreign DNA to crop plants?
a. Penicillum Expansum b. Trichoderma Harzianum
c. Meloidogyne Incognita d. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Ans: d)Agrobacterium tumefaciens
24. Which one of the following is now being commercially produced by biotechnological
procedures?
a. Nicotine b. Morphine
c. Quinine d. Insulin Ans: d)Insulin
25. Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about
the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?
a. 5’ CGTTCG 3’ 3’ ATGGTA 5’ b. 5’ GATATG 3’ 3’ CTACTA 5’
c. 5’ GAATTC 3’ 3’ CTTAAG 5’ d. 5’ CACGTA3’ 3’ CTCAGT 5’
Ans: c) 5’ GAATTC 3’ 3’ CTTAAG 5’
26. Biolistics (gene gun) is suitable for
a. Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
b. DNA finger printing c. Disease resistant genes
d. Transformation of plant cells Ans: d) Transformation of plant cells
27. For transformation micro particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are
made up of
a. Silver or Platinum b. Platinum or Zinc
c. Silicon or Platinum d. Gold or Tungsten Ans: d) Gold or Tungsten
28. Rising of dough is due to
a. Multiplication of Yeast b. Production of Co2
c. Emulsification d. Hydrolysis of wheat flour starch in to sugar
Ans: b) Production of Co2
29. All the process after the fermentation process is known as
a. upstream process b. downstream process
c. forward process d. backward process
Ans: b) downstream process
30. For making GMO, the three basic steps that are required are
a. Identification of DNA with desirable gene
b. Introduction of identified DNA into the host
c. Maintenance of introduced DNA in to the host and transfer of DNS to its progeny
d. All the above Ans: d) All the above
31. Zymology is the study of
a. Fermentation & its practical use b. Name of Bioreactors
c. Upstream process d. Downstream process
Ans: a) Fermentation & its practical use
Chapter 4 106
32. ECO RI – R stands for

a. Genus b. Species
c. Strains d. Group Ans: a) Genus
33. Which is suitable for transferring an alien DNA into a plant cell?
a. CaCl2 b. Biolistics or gene gun method
c. Micro infection d. Heat shock Ans: b) Biolistics or gene gun method
34. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop – It will help in
a. Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency b. Pest Resistance
c. Herbicide Tolerance d. Bio Fuel Production
Ans: a) Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency
35. Genetically engineered human insulin is also known as
a. Haematin b. Pro insulin
c. Hybridin d. Humulin Ans: d) Humulin
36. Probiotics are
a. Food Allergens b.safe antibiotics
c. Carcinogenic microbes d. Live microbial food supplements
Ans: d) d. Live microbial food supplement
37. The Bt toxin is not toxic to other animals & humanbeings because
a. The ProBt toxin activation need higher temperature
b. the Bt toxin recognizes only insect specific targets
c. Conversion of Pro Bt toxin to Bt Toxin takes place in the highly alkaline condition
d. The Bt toxin formation from Pre Bt Toxin required pH lower than that present in human
stomach.
Ans: c) Conversion of Pro Bt toxin to Bt Toxin takes place in the highly alkaline condition
38. PCR refers to
a. A common laboratory technique of making millions of copies of a particular region of DNA
b. A biotechnological procedure of replicating DNA strands
c. Hybridization of DNA molecules in to several fragments
d. It is a test for tracing genetic defects.
Ans: a) A common laboratory technique of making millions of copies of a particular region of DNA
39. The test used in the diagnosis of AIDS are
a. ELISA and Southern blot b. Northern blot and ELISA
c. Western blot and ELISA d. ELISA and Widal test
Ans: c) Western blot and ELISA
40. The characteristics of molecular probe are
a. very long molecule b. double stranded
c. DNA or RNA d. complementary to a part of desired gene options
I. a&b II. b & c III. A & d IV. c & d Ans: iv) c & d
41. Use of biology in industrial process and for improving quality of life is called
a. Biotechnology b. Genetic engineering
c. Eugenics d. Microbiology Ans: c) Eugenics
107 Chapter 4
42. Somoclonal variations occur in plants subjected to

a. r DNA technology b. Exposed to gamma rays
c. Tissue culture d. Highly polluted environmrnt
Ans: c) Tissue culture
43. DNA elements with ability to change positions is called
a. intron b. transposon
c. exon d. recon Ans: b) transposon
44. The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to
a. viruses b. Nematodes
c. Fungi d. Insect pests Ans: b) Nematodes
45. A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in
developing countries is
a. Bt Soyabean b. Star link Mize
c. Golden rice d. Flavr Savr Tomato Ans: c) Golden rice
46. LacZ is a reporter gene used in
a. Antibiotic resistant markers b. Replica Plating Technique
c. Vector mediated gene transfer
d. Insertional Inactivation (Blue white colony selection method)
Ans: d) d. Insertional Inactivation (Blue white colony selection method)
47. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds it use in
a. Tissue culture b. PCR Technique
c. Gel Electrophoresis d. Specttophotometry Ans: c) Gel Electrophoresis
48. The introduction of foreign nucleic acids ito cells by non viral methods is known as
a. Transduction b. Transfection
c. Inoculatin d. Transformation Ans: b) Transfection
49. The CO2 and Ethyl alcohol of fermentation are used respectively in
a. Bakery and Brewery b. Brewery and Sugar Refining
c. Refinery and Brewery
d. Sewage treatment plants & Alcoholic beverage factories Ans: a) Bakery and Brewery
50. This enzyme is purified from bacteria and calf intestine is
a. DNA ligase b. Alkaline Phosphatase
c. Exo nuclease d. Endo nuclease Ans: b) Alkaline Phosphatase
51. The use of transposon is well studied in
a. Arabidopsis thaliana & Escherichia coli
b. Escherichia coli & Yeast cell
c. Salmonella typhi & Pisum Sativum d. None of the above
Ans: a) Arabidopsis thaliana & Escherichia coli
52. Curd milk, cheese and butter are produced with the help of
a. penicillium b. streptomyces
c. saccharomyces d. none of the above Ans: d) none of the above
Chapter 4 108
53. Basta herbicide tolerant gene PPT was isolated from

a. Medicago sativa b. Ginkgo biloba
c. Mentha viridis d. None of the above Ans: a) Medicago sativa
54. The number of Bt Toxin produced by strains of Bacillus thurigiensis is
a. 200 b. 400
c. 2600 d. 2400 Ans: a) 200
55. The name & source organism of the gene crylAc and its target pest are
a. Meloidegyne incognita – root borer
b. Bacillus thuringiensis – cotton bollworm
c. Agrobacterium tumefaciens – stem borer
d. Manducta sexta – horn worm Ans: b) Bacillus thuringiensis – cotton bollworm
56. Which was the first plants to be used to demonstrate the feasibility of CRISPR – mediated
targeted mutagenesis and gene replacement
a. Wheat b. Rice
c. Maize d. Arabidiopsis Ans: b) Rice
57. The scientist who reported in their new study which clearly shows one can reengineer rice
to switch it from a sexual to asexual mode
a. Alwin etal b. Whatman & Hooke
c. Haberlandt & Weismenn d. Imtiyaz Khand & Venkatesan Sundaresan
Ans: d) Imtiyaz Khand & Venkatesan Sundaresan
58. EPSPS is a
a. Hydrolysins substance b. Round up Enzyme
c. Bio Pesticide d. Fertilizer Ans: b) Round up Enzyme
59. Match the following Answer
1 Plasmid a Jumping gene b ds- circular gene
2 Ti plasmid b ds- circular gene b Has onc, ori & inc genes
most widely used as cloning
3 PBR322 plasmid c Has onc, ori & inc genes d
vector
most widely used as
4 Transposable elements d a Jumping gene
cloning vector
60. Choose the odd man out
With regard to the strategies of Bio remediation
a. Use of indigenous microbial population as indicator species
b. The addition of adapted or designed microbial inoculants
c. Use of plants to clean up pollutants
d. Molecular pharming to produce transgenic organisms.
Ans: d) Molecular pharming to produce transgenic organisms
61. With regard to SCP - Choose the odd man out.
a. Chlorella b. Spirulina
c. Chlamydomonas d. Bacillus thuringiensis
Ans: d) Bacillus thuringiensis
109 Chapter 4
62. With regard to secondary metabolites choose the odd man out
a. Antibiotics b. Terpenoids
c. Rubber d. Lactic acid Ans: d) Lactic acid
63. Choose the incorrect pair
a. PBR 322 Ecoli cloning vector
b. EcoRI – clal, Hind III Restriction Enzyme
c. ROP Protein involved in the replication of the plasmid
Technique in which multiple copies of the gene (or DNA) of
d. PCR
interest is synthesized, invitro
Ans: c) ROP - Protein involved in the replication of the plasmid
64.
a. DMH –II Herbicide tolerant Pea
b. PLA Bio degradable & Bio active thermoplastic
c. GFP Protein is isolated from the Jellyfish Aequora Victoria
d. PPT Basta herbicide tolerant gene
Ans: a) DMH –II - Herbicide tolerant Pea
65.
a. EPSPS 5 enopyruvate shikimate 3 phosphate synthase
b. DMH 11 Dhara Mustard Hybrid
c. PHBs Poly Hydroxy Bacillus
d. PLA Poly Lactic acid
Ans: c) PHBs - Poly Hydroxy Bacillus
66. With regard to transgenic organism & the processes
a. Biopharming genetically engineered pharmaceuticals substances
b. Mycoremediation use of bacteria to bring about environmental remediation
c. Bioaugmentation use of selected microbes to speed up degradation process
d. Bioleaching use of microbes to recover metal pollutants from contaminated
place
Ans: b) Mycoremediation - use of bacteria to bring about environmental remediation
II. Assertion and Reason
In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion (A) and the
other one is reason(R) Mark the correct answer as
a) If both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of A
b) It both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A
c) It A is true but ‘R’ is false
d) If both A & R are false
Chapter 4 110
67. Assertion : Stirred tank fermenters help in obtaining the foreign gene product
Reason : They allow the large scale growth of the biomass that leads to a higher yield
of desired proteins
Ans: a) If both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of A
68. Assertion : PCR is used in rDNA technology.
Reason : Special fast multiplying vectors are produced using PCR method.
Ans: b) It both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A
69. Assertion : In EcoRI, the letter R is derived from the genus of bacteria .
Reason : EcoRI, the name of palindromic nucleotide sequences.
Ans: d) If both A & R are false
70. Assertion : Assertion:Micro injection technique is used to inject rDNA directly into the
nucleus of an animal cell
Reason : Genegun is used to transfer rDNA into plant cells
Ans: b) It both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A
71. Assertion : In bio reactors, the transforming cells are maintained in their physiologically
most active phase..
Reason : A large biomass using higher yields of desired protein is got by it.
Ans: a) It both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A
72. Assertion : n rDNA technology, the restriction enzymes, those produce sticky ends are
commonly used .
Reason : Sticky ends facilitates the action of enzyme DNA ligase.
73. Assertion : Cloning vector should have selectable marker .
Reason : Selectable marker helps in identifying and eliminating non - trnsformants and
selectively permitting the growth of transformants.
III. Choose the correct statement
74. The bio reactor is a Fermentor – vessel in which the following factors are controlled.
a. Nutrient, temperature and microorganism
b. Aeration, agitation, temperature and pH
c. Aeration, Activation, Agarose gel & hormones.
d. Hormones, Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide & Acidity
Ans: b) Aeration, agitation, temperature and pH
75. Which of the given statement is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by
Agarose gel electrophoresis?
a. DNA can be seen in visible light.
b. DNA can be seen without staining in visible light.
c. Ethidium Bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light.
d. Ethidium Bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light.
Ans: d) Ethidium Bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light
111 Chapter 4
76. a. Most of Bt toxins are insecticidal to the larvae of Honeybees, Butterflies & Lepidoptera.
b. Bt – Brinjal is developed to give resistant against viral attacks.
c) Flavr – Savr is a variety of corn produced by Agrobacterium mediated genetic engineering
technique
d) Goldenrice has been genetically altered so that the endosperm now accumulates Beta –
Carotene
And: d) Goldenrice has been genetically altered so that the endosperm now accumulates Beta
–Carotene
77. a. Cosmids are hybrid vectors derived from plasmids.
b. YAC plasmid vector does not behave like a yeast chromosome.
c. BAC vector is not used in rDNA technology.
d. The shuttle vectors are plasmids present in most of the Prokaryotes.
Ans: a) Cosmids are hybrid vectors derived from plasmids
78. Choose the incorrect statements
a. ELISA is a diagnostic tool in the identification of pathogen species by using antibodies
b. In plant pathology ELISA is used to weed out virus infected plants.
c. ELISA test is one of the tests in the diagnosis of AIDS.
d. The presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is also traced by ELISA test.
Ans: d) The presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is also traced by ELISA test.
79. a. DNA probes are used in the identification of viruses and other pathogen.
b. RNA probes are used in the identification of bacteria as pathogens.
c. Northern Blotting can also be used in the identification of pathogenecity of viruses.
d. Southern Blotting help as a tool to identify virus and other pathogens.
Ans: b) RNA probes are used in the identification of bacteria as pathogens
IV. Fill in the blanks Answer

1. he method that involved the growth of tissues & cells in a suitable new
T
Tissue culture
medium and away from the parent plant is known as____________
2. The range of insects killed by Bt. Toxins are _______________ Lepitopteron
3. The genes that code for Bt toxins are commercially called ___________ Cry genes
The first company to produce insulin by rDNA technology is
4. Eli Lilly
_______________
5. The Indian scientist who was the innovator of ELISA in India is _____ Usha M.Joshi
6. PCR is usually used to detect the _____ in a suspected ______ patient. HIV & AIDS
7. are present in increased quantities in rice is ______ glutelin
8. Protein encoded by cry Ab control _______ Cotton borer
9. Use of microorganism in solution to recover toxic metal pollutants Bioleaching
from contaminated sites is ______
10. The endosperm of normal rice doesnot contain______ Beta carotene
Chapter 4 112
V. Two Marks
1. What are the tools for genetic engineering?
¾¾ Enzymes (1) restriction endonuclease (2) DNA ligase
¾¾ Vectors
¾¾ Host organisms
2. What is PCR?
¾¾ PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction is common laboratory technique used to make copies
(millions)of a particular region of DNA
3. Differtiate between Exonuclease & Endonuclease
Exonuclease Endonuclease
¾¾ It remove nucleotides one at a time ¾¾ It break the internal internal phosphodi-
from the end of a DNA molecule ester bonds with in a DNA molecule
¾¾ May also cut RNA Eg;Exonuclease ¾¾ They do not cut RNA|
Eg:Hind II –ecoRI, Pvul, Bam HI, Taq I
4. What is the role of Restriction endonuclease in the life of bacteria?
¾¾ They exist in many bacteria , where they function as a part of their defence mechanism
called restriction modification system
¾¾ It helps the bacteria to cut the genetic material of the virus that attack it and render them
harmless. Eg:E.coli
5. How do DNA ligases join the DNA fragments?
¾¾ DNA ligase,joins the sugar and phosphate molecule of double stranded DNA (ds.DNA)
with 5’po4 and 3-OH in an ATP –dependent reaction
6. What are the two types of vectors?
Cloning vector Expression vector
¾¾ It is used for cloning of DNA,insert in- ¾¾ It is used to express the DNA insert for
side the suitable host cell producing specific protein inside the
host
7. What is meant by ori?
¾¾ Origin replication (ori) is a sequence from where replication starts and piece of DNA
when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells
8. What is the main function of a selectable marker?
¾¾ Selectable marker , which helps in identifying and eliminating nontransformants
¾¾ It will selectively permit the growth to the transformants
9. What is known as Walking genes or jumping genes or Transposons?
¾¾ The DNA sequence able to insert itself at a new location in the – Genome without having
any sequence relationship with the target locus -,hence known as walking or jumping
genes-or Transposons
113 Chapter 4
10. Differentiate between BAC & YAC vector

BAC vector YAC vector
¾¾ It is a shuttle plasmid vector ¾¾ Behave like a yeast chromosome
¾¾ Most useful cloning vector in r DNA ¾¾ It occur in 2 forms i) circular ii) linear
technology I. Circular YAC- multiplies in bacteria
¾¾ Can clone DNA inserts of up to 300 kb II. Linear YAC-multiplies in yeast cells
¾¾ Stable & more user friendly
11. Differentiate between plasmid DNA & chromosomal DNA
Plasmid DNA Chromosomal DNA
¾¾ Extra chromosomal DNA ¾¾ Chromosomal DNA
¾¾ Mostly circular double stranded (ds) ¾¾ Can be linear/circular ss or ds
¾¾ Not associated with histones ¾¾ Associated with histone proteins
¾¾ Show autonomous replication with in ¾¾ They replicate with the genome
a suitable host
¾¾ Do not act as genetic factor ¾¾ They act as genetic factor
¾¾ Don’t have introns ¾¾ Have both introns & exons
12. Ecoli is the most widely used organism as genetic material in Biotechnological studies-
justify
¾¾ E.coli genetic makeup has been extensively studied
¾¾ It is easy to handle & grow in short time
¾¾ It can accept a range of vectors & also been studied for safety
¾¾ Under optimal growing conditions the cells divide every 20 minutes
13. What is Biolistics method/ gene gun/ shot gun/method of DNA introduction ? Give any
one practical application of this method of gene transfer
¾¾ It is a method of transfecting cells by bombarding them with microprojectiles coated with
DNA
¾¾ It is most useful for inserting genes(such as pesticide/ herbicide resistance genes) into
plant cells
¾¾ The bombarded cells or tissues are cultured on selected medium to regenerate plants
from the transformed cells
14. Biotechnologists refer to Agrobacterium tumifaciens as a natural genetic engineer of
plants. Give reasons to support then statement
¾¾ Yes – because the T1 plasmid of this bacterium is very large sized one known as(Tumour
inducing) and a portion of it is referred as T-DNA (transfer DNA).Since upon infection
of the cells at wound site the bacterium has the natural ability to transfer T- DNA region
of its plasmid in to plant genome it is also known as Natural genetic engineer of plants
15. What is ‘Gene knock out’ . Name the two types of vectors used for ‘Gene knock out’
¾¾ In gene targeting experiments the nuclei has been targeted. This is known as gene knock out
¾¾ Two types of vectors are used for it. They are insertion vectors & the replacement vectors
Chapter 4 114
16. What is Genome project?

¾¾ In this project the whole – genome of plant is analysed using sequence analysis &
sequence homology with other plants.
¾¾ Eg: Chlamydomonas(Algae), Arabidopsis thaliana, Rice & Maize
17. What is biofortification?
¾¾ A process in biotechnology by which the nuitritive quantity of food material is increased
by gene transfer technology .It is also known as Biofortification
¾¾ The nutritive protein , carbohydrate, Vitamins can be enriched by this process.
¾¾ Eg: Golden rice with vitamin A
18. What are the advantages of Herbicide tolerant crops
¾¾ Weed control , improves higher crop yields
¾¾ Reduces usage of herbicides
¾¾ Reduces competition between crop & weed
¾¾ Use of low toxicity compounds ( not remain active in soil)
¾¾ Conservation of soil structure and soil microbes
19. How is the Bacillus thuringiensis bacterium protected from BT. toxin and how it is
effective in insect body?
¾¾ BT.toxin is present in its inactive form called protoxin in bacillus thuringiensis
¾¾ When the bacterium is ingested by the insect , the alkaline PH of the- alimentary canal of
insect is activated .The toxin which binds to the epithelial cells of midgut forming pores
–leading to swelling & lysis of the cells –leading to death of the insects
20. Distinguish between cry & cry III Ab
¾¾ Gene for BT.toxin is written as cry and the prote in as cry III At
¾¾ The first letter of protein symbol is always written capital form and written as cry III Ab.
21. What is bio remediation?
¾¾ It is an approach in which genetically engineered Micro organism (GEMS) or green
plants etc., can be used to treat nonbiodegradable/toxic wastes suches oil,petrochemical
residues,pesticides or heavy metals in
i) Soil ii) Ground water iii) Marine environment and to make environment more
sustainable.
22. What are the limitations of Bioremediation?
¾¾ Only biodegradable contaminants can be degraded
¾¾ The process must be specific to the contaminated site
¾¾ Small scale tests to be conducted before carrying out on a pilot scale
¾¾ It is a costly affair also need more research in these areas.
23. What is Algal bio-fuel-Explain
¾¾ The use of Algae as a source of energy
¾¾ It is an alternative to i) Fossil fuels, ii) Fuel from corn, iii) Sugar cane
¾¾ It is also used for making bio-fuel or bio-diesal
¾¾ Land unsuitable for Agriculture can be utilised for (farming algae) algal culture.
Eg.Botryococcus braunii
115 Chapter 4
24. How do we produce Hydrogen from Algae?

¾¾ The Technology is photo biological water splitting
¾¾ When thenormal condition of photosynthesis was altered , or when it is deprived of
sulfur it switches to the production of Hydrogen and the electrons are transported to
ferredoxins
¾¾ [Fe]-hydrogenase enzymes combine them into the production of Hydrogen gas, an
alternative fuel for the next generation
25. Define Bio prospecting
¾¾ The process of discovering & commercialization of new products obtained by biological
resources, including bio piracy prevention efforts-(the indigenous knowledge and
inventions from being exploited by others without aulhorization or compensation)
VI. Three Marks.
1. Give the two main features of modern biotechnology that differentiated it from
conventional technology
¾¾ Ability to change the –genetic material for getting new products according to the
requirement through r DNA technology
¾¾ Ownership of the newly developed technology and its social impact
2. What is a bioreactor?
¾¾ It is a vessal or container , designed ,
A. to provide an optimum environment, in which microorganism or their enzymes
interact with a subtract → to produce a product
B. It provide a controlled condition, aeration, agitation, temperature and PH –
C. It has 2 processes i) upstream ii) down stream
3. Differentiate between upstream & downstream process
Upstream process Downstream process
¾¾ 1st part ¾¾ Follows upstream
¾¾ All the process-of preparation before ¾¾ All the process after the fermentation
the starting the process process
¾¾ Includes sterilization of the bioreactor, ¾¾ Includes distillation centrifuging,
preparation & sterilization of culture filteration & solvent extraction
medium and growth of the suitable Mostly- involves the purification of
inoculum the desired product
4. Give 4 applications of fermation in industries
Microbial biomass production
¾¾ Microbial cells of algae, bacteria, yeast, fungi are grown dried and used as (SCP-) food.
Microbial Metabolites
¾¾ Useful to Mankind There are two types i) Primary Metabolites, ii) Secondary Metabolites
Microbial enzymes
¾¾ Microbes cultured to secrete certain enzymes.
Bio conversion, bio transformation Modification of the substrate - to produce various
products
Chapter 4 116
5. Write down the various Applications of SCP.

SCP is used in various ways
¾¾ Protein supplement
¾¾ Cosmetic product for healthy hair & skin
¾¾ Poultry industry as excellent source of proteinacious food.
¾¾ In food industry - canbe carrier in production of aroma, tic compounds vitamin,
emulsifying agent improve the nutritive value of baked products & ready to serve meals.
¾¾ In the processing of paper & leather as foam stabilizers.
6. What is Barcode in genetic term?
¾¾ It is genetic form refer to the identify of the taxon based on its genetic makeup.
¾¾ It is an optical machine readable representation of data which describes about the
characters of any plants / objects.
7. Define Genome or Gene editing.
¾¾ A group of technologies that has the ability to change an organism’s DNA.
¾¾ Genetic material can be added, removed or altered at particular locations in the genome
- known as genome or gene editing.
¾¾ Eg. CRISPR - mediated gene replacement - Rice can be switched from sexual to an
asexual mode.
8. What are the (believed to be) Risks of GM Food
¾¾ Affect Liver, Kidney functioning
¾¾ Carcinogenic (cause cancer)
¾¾ Hormonal imbalance & Physical disorder
¾¾ Anaphylactic shocks (sudden hypersensitive reaction) & Allergies
¾¾ Adverse effects on immune system - due to interference of bacterial protein
¾¾ Loss of viability of seeds, (shown in terminator seed technology of GM crops).
9. What is Northern to Blot & differentiate it from western Blot?.
¾¾ Alwin et al. (1979) devised a special technique Northern Blot hybridization to transfer
RNA bands.
¾¾ Amino Benzyloxymethyl paper is the filter paper used, which can be prepared from what
man 540 paper.
Western Blot
¾¾ It is electrophoretic transfer of protein to blotting papers.
¾¾ Nitrocellulose filter paper can be used.
¾¾ A particular protein is then identified by probing the blot with a radio-labelled antibody
- binds on the specific protein to which the - antibody was prepared.
10. How are the flavr, savr type of Tomatoes formed?.
¾¾ The native genes in Tomato produce enzyme Polygalacturonase and this leads to ripening
follow by senescence & fruits get spoit.
117 Chapter 4
¾¾ When Anitsense RNA genes inserted into Tomato plant via Agrobacterium mediated
gene transfor the gene interfere with the production of Polygalacturonase, there by delay
ripering, softening and further spoiling (shelf life of fruits increased).
¾¾ Transgenic tomatos can be transported to long distance with out getting spoilt.
VII. Five Marks
1. How do they make bacterial cells competent to take up plasmid / rDNA?
Step I : Bacterial cells treated with specific concentration of calcium (Ca++).
Step II : then cells incubate with plasmid / rDNA on ice (Cold Shock).
Step III : Cells kept at 42ºC (Heat shock)
Step IV : Again placed on ice (cold shock)
After the 4 step treatment the bacterial cells become competent to take up Plasmid / rDNA
2. Antibiotic resistant maker is a useful selective marker - Explain.
¾¾ Antibiotic Resistant Marker (ARM) is - a gene when introduced into bacterial cells -
(Recombinant) produce - a protein that provide resistance to antibiotics.
¾¾ Recombinants (A) may grow well in a medium with antibiotics (such as ampicillin,
chloramphenicol, telracycline or kanamycinetc)
¾¾ Non recombinants (B) may not be able to grow in these media with these antibiotics.
¾¾ Thus Antibiotic resistant marker is a useful selectable marker in distinguishing the two.
3. How will you select the transformed cells using Replica plating technique?.
Technique :
¾¾ Pattern of colonies growing on a culture plate can be copied.
Procedure :
¾¾ A culture plate with growing bacterial colonies is taken (A) - infected.
¾¾ A sterile filter plate (B) - is pressed against culture plate (A) - infected.
¾¾ The filter (B) got infected and then it is pressed against a sterile culture plate (C)
¾¾ New plate (C) got infected with same relative positions as colonies in the original.
¾¾ The study can be repeated on different conditions.
¾¾ (i) with an Antibiotic
¾¾ (ii) with a growth factor etc.,
4. Explain the separation & Isolation of DNA using GEL Electrophoresis.
¾¾ Agarose GEL Electrophoresis is a ,medium used to separate DNA fragements of larger
sizes (few 100S to 20,000 bp)
¾¾ Polycrylamide is a medium used to separate DNA fragments of smaller sizes.
¾¾ Agarose GEL provides - a three dimensional matrix & DNA molecules migrates through
the - gel and DNA bands can be readily detected at highter sensitivity.
¾¾ Energy - The electric field provide energy
¾¾ Technique - DNA are negatively charged and migrate towards the positive pole (anode)
¾¾ (The marker DNA fragments of known size which allow accurate size determination of
an unknown DNA molecule by interpolation)
¾¾ The bands of DNA can be stained by a dye Ethium bromide and can be detected as visible
orange fluorescence under UV light and can also be photographed.
Chapter 4 118
5. Explain the steps in Southern Blotting Techniques

¾¾ Southern introduced this technique in 1975
(The transfer of denatured DNA from Agarose gel to Nitrocellulose Blotting or filter
paper technique
Steps:
DNA fragments from Agarosegel
↓ Filtration by capillary action
SS DNA is trapped in Nitro cellulose membrane
↓
The hybridized DNA fragments can be detected by Auto
radiography
¾¾ Auto radiography –
A technique that captures the image formed in a photographic
emulsion due to radioactivity from a labeled component placed
together with unexposed film
6. Explain RNA or RNA-Interference or RNA mediated gene silencing
Definition:
¾¾ RNAi (is a phenomena in which ds RNA molecules targetedly select m RNA – molecule
and inactive or inhabit or neutralise its gene expression into protein ( Translation)
¾¾ Step-I
Trigger RNA enzyme RNase II Short interfering RNA
(either ds RNA or mi.RNA-
(Dicer & Drosha) (Si RNA)
primary transcript)
↓
¾¾ Step-I
loaded in to RISC
Si RNAs (RNA - induced silencing or
Effector Complex)
↓
¾¾ The Si RNA is unzipped during RISC assembly
↓
¾¾ During this process single stranded RNA → hybridizes with target site of MRNA
↓
¾¾ The particular site of m RNA is cleaved or broken & no translation occur
Eg . - Plant feeding Nematodes
119 Chapter 4
7. Explain Herbicide tolerant - Basta or Notes on PPT & PAT with reference to Herbicide
resistance.
1. Basta refers to nonselective herbicide with chemical compoumd Phosphinothricin -
which inhibit, the enzyme glutamine synthetase involved in ammonia assimilation.
Steps:
Basta herbicide tolerant gene PPT - extracted from Medicagosativa plant
↓
This gene - introduced in to Tobacco plant
↓
The trangenic tobacco was resistant to PPT
2. Like wise PAT - similer PPT was extracted to get Herbicide resistant transgenic plant:
From streptomyces hygroscopicus with Bar gene that encodes for PAT
(Phosphinothri cin acetyl transferase) was extracted
↓
This gene - introduced in to Potato / Sugar beet
↓
Trangenic Potato / Sugar beet was resistant to PAT
8. Give a tabulation of some transgenic plants & their applications.

S.no Transgenic plants Useful application of transgenic plants
1 Bt.cotton ¾¾ Resist bollworms & gat flies
¾¾ Increased yield
¾¾ Reduction in insecticide use
2 Bt.Brinjal ¾¾ Resist lepidopteron insects such as fruit and shoot
borer-Leucinodes or bonalis
3 Golden rice ¾¾ Bio fortified rice-modified to produce beta
carotene(used by the body to make vitamin A)
4 Dhara mustard hybrid ¾¾ Transgenic mustard is resistant to herbicide Basta

(DMH-I) ¾¾ Yield is increased
5 Flavr,savr tomato ¾¾ Transgenic tomato, retaining color & flavor

ripening is delayed &can be transported to long
distance without getting spoiled.
Chapter 4 120
9. Distinguish between the bio polymers PHB, PHA & PLA.

Types PHB PHA PLA
Expansion Polyhydroxy Poly hydroxy alkanoates Polyacetic acid
butyrate
Nature Degradable Degradable & Bio competent Degradable & bio
polymer macro molecule active aliphatic poly
ester
Source Several micro Several micro organisms – utilized From renewable
organisms to produce different PHAs resources , such as
Gram – Positive bacteria Bacillus cornstarch casavaroot
megaterium , Bacillus subtilis & chips or starch or
Corynebacterium glutamicum sugarcane
Gram –Negative Bacteria
Pseudomonas & Alkaligenes
eutrophus
use PHB & PHA - have everal medical applications Bio degradable & bio
I)Drug delivary II)scaffold & III) medrt valves active thermo plastic
10. Give the protocol for the herbicide glyphosate tolerant potato plant.
Introduction of ‘bar’ gene through vector

↓
Cell culture of potato with ‘bar’ gene
↓
Herbicide tolerant potato cells
↓
Invitro culture
↓
Callus → organogenesis
↓
Development of herbicide tolerent Transgenic Potato plants
11. How do the Bt.cotton – plant resist pests?

¾¾ Bt.cotton is a transgenic plant
¾¾ Bacillus thuringiensis produces 200 different Bt.toxins
¾¾ Most of the toxins are effective against moths, Butterflies, Beeltes, cotton bollworms &
gullies.
121 Chapter 4
¾¾ Cry genes produce crytoxins , when dissolved in the alkaline PH of gut of insect the toxins
become active , form pores on the epithelial cells , there by sufficient regulation of potassium
ions are lost resulting in the death of the epithelial cells leading to death of the larves.
Explain the development of transgenic brinjal
Steps:
Crystal protein gene ( cry IAC) from Bacillus thuringiensis is isolated
↓
Via , Agrobacterium tumefaciens
↓
The cry IAC is inserted in to the genome of various Brinjal varieties-along
with promoters terminators & Antibiotic resistant marker gene
↓
Transgenic brinjal with resistance against Lepidopteron insects , particularly
Brinjal , fruit & shoot borer-(Leucinodes orbonalis)
12. What is GFP? What are its properties?

Nature:
¾¾ Green Fluorescent protein (GFF) – contain aminoacid residues of 26.4 KD a that exhibits
bright green fluorescence when exposed to blue UV range (395 nm)
Properties:
¾¾ This protein is 1st isolated from a Jelly fish – Aequorea victoria
¾¾ It has the ability to form internal chromophore without any co factor except molecular
oxygen
Uses:
¾¾ GFP is used as a reporter of expression
¾¾ It is used in modified forms to make biosensors
13. Explain the Bio piracy attempt on Neem & Turmeric.
Neem Turmeric
Knowledge Traditional Indigenous home Traditional , indigenous home remedy
nature & remedy for Antibacterial & Anti for quick healing of wounds , rashes ,
medicinal fungal skin infection & cure for also its highly antiseptic nature
use the above
Evidence Long, long ago (i.e) for several ¾¾ Long , long ago (i.e) for several
for thouands of years traditional thousand years , this traditional
indigenous knowledge is used in Indian knowledge is used in Indian
use house hold & Ayurvedic medicine household & Ayurvedic medicines
shared with other countries ¾¾ Indian Medical Association – 1953
in its journal published the healing
properties of turmeric.
Chapter 4 122
Piracy US Department of agriculture ¾¾ US-patient and trademark office

attempts and an MNC-WR GRACE Sought in1995 – granted patient to the
patient for Neem in 1990’s from method of use of turmeric as an
EPO (European Patient Office) antiseptic agent
for the “method for controlling
diseases by the aid of extracted
hydrophobic neem oil”
Current India fought against all these Bio piracy attempts and finally Indians
status Traditional Knowledge was protected.
14. Explain the Bio piracy of ‘Basmats, and how India fought back its rights ?
Bio patency Rights of patiency Efforts taken by Rights fought back
India
Sep-2nd 1997- Broad patent – India had Rice – Tec had to lose
US patent & ¾¾ Use of BASMATI periled US – to most of the claims
Trade Mark ¾¾ Rights on seeds & take the matter ¾¾ It can’t call the rice –as
office – granted grains from any to WTO as an Basmati
patient on crosses infringement ¾¾ 2002 – 15 claims of
‘BASMATI’ Rice ¾¾ Process of breeding of TRIPS Rice tec was dropped
lines & grains Rice-Tec’s novel rice agreement ¾¾ Clearing India‘s
o the texas – lines Basmati rice export to
based company ¾¾ Method to determine other countries
Rice-Tec. the cooking ¾¾ Patient name is
properties & starch changed to Rice line
content of it. 867
15. What are the applications of Biotechnology

It has wide applications in various sectors
I. Agriculture – Transgenic plants
¾¾ Bt.cotton , Bt.brinjal , Golden rice , Flavr , Savr tomato , Cauli flower , Potato and Banana
– are the outcome of Biotechnology Resistant varieties
¾¾ They are Resistant to pest , stress , disease , etc.,
II .Medicine:
¾¾ Insulin – is produced by r DNA technology is a breakthrough in medicine
¾¾ Vaccines , enzymes , antibiotics , dairy products & beverages are also products of
biotechnology
III .Bio chip:
¾¾ Bio chip based biological computer
IV .Genetic engineering:
¾¾ It involves (i) gene manipulation (ii) Tissue culture (iii) Single cell protein (food industry)
SCP (iv) secondary metabolites & etc., (v) biofertilizers – biopesticides etc.,
123 Chapter 4
V .Environmental aspects
¾¾ Include I) Bio mass energy II) Bio fuel III) Bio & phyto remediation IV) Environmental
biotechnology etc.,
16. Give the explanation in a single or two sentences
Bio-pesticide pesticide derived from plants bacteria, animals etc.,
Bio-fertilizer all nutrient out puts of biological origin include plants, animals &
microbes
Bio venting The process that increase oxygen to accelerate degradation of
environmental pollutants
Bio leaching Microbes in solution, used to recover poisonous metal pollutants
in the soil
Bio – prospecting The process of commercialization of new products of based on
biological resources
Bio – pharming / use of genetically engineered plants / microbes to produce
molecular pharming pharmaceutical products
Bio fuel plant / microbes / algae used as alternative fuel source
Bio fortification Breeding crops to enrich the nutritional value either by conventional
or gene by genetic engineering
Bio – remediation use plants / microbes to clean up environmental pollutants
Bio piracy exploiting the traditional knowledge / invention of poor countries
by MNC or developed countries without approval or proper
compensation
Bio patency The legal exclusive right for the inventor and there by excluding
others from exploiting the knowledge / invention
Bio chip microchip designed intented to function in a biological environment
or inside the body of an organism
*****
Chapter 4 124
www.nammakalvi.org
Biotechnology
VIII 5 Plant Tissue Culture

1. Totipotency refers to.
a) capacity to generate genetically identical plants.
b) capacity to generate a whole plant from any plant cell/explant.
c) capacity to generate hybrid protoplasts.
d) recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants.
Ans: b) capacity to generate a whole plant from any plant cell / explant
2. Micro propagation involves
a) vegetative multiplication of plants by using micro - organisms.
b) vegetative multiplication of plants by using small explants.
c) vegetative multiplication of plants by using microspores.
d) Non - vegetative multiplication of plants by using microspores and megaspores.
Ans: b) vegetative multiplication of plants by using small explants.
Column A Column B
1. Totipotency A. Reversion of mature cells into meristerm 1 2 3 4
a) C A D B
2. Dedifferentiation B. Biochemical and structural changes of cells
b) A C B D
3. Explant C. Properties of living cells develops into entire
plant c) B A D C
d) D B C A
4. Differentiation D. Selected plant tissue transferred to culture
medium Ans: a) C A D B
4. The time duration for sterilization process by using autoclave is ______ minutes and the
temperature is ______
a) 10 to 30 minutes and 1250 C b) 15 to 30 minutes and 1210 C
c) 15 to 20 minutes and 125 C
0
d) 10 to 20 minutes and 1210 C
Ans: b) 15 to 30 minutes and 1210 C
5. Which of the following statement is correct .
a) Agar is not extracted from marine algae such as seaweeds.
b) Callus undergoes differentiation and produces somatic embryoids.
125 Chapter 5
c) Surface sterilization of explants is done by using mercuric bromide

d) PH of the culture medium is 5.0 to 6.0
Ans: b) Callus undergoes differentiation and produces somatic embryoids.
6. Select the incorrect statement from given statement
a) A tonic used for cardiac arrest is obtained from Digitalis purpuria
b) Medicine used to treat Rheumatic pain is extracted from Capsicum annum
c) An anti malarial drug is isolated from Cinchona officinalis.
d) Anti - carcinogenic property is not seen in Catharanthus roseus.
Ans: b) Medicine used to treat Rheumatic pain is extracted from Capsicum annum
7. Virus free plants are developed from
a) Organ culture b) Meristem culture
c) Protoplast culture d) Cell suspension culture Ans: b) Meristem culture
8. The prevention of large scale lose of biological interity.
a) Biopatent b) Bioethics
c) Biosafety d) Biofuel Ans: c) Biosafety
9. Cryopreservation means it is a process to preserve plant cells, tissues or organs
a) at very low temperature by using ether.
b) at very high temperature by using liquid nitrogen
c) at very low temperature of - 196 by using liquid nitrogen
d) at very low temperature by using liquid nitrogen
Ans: c) at very low temperature of - 196 by using liquid nitrogen
10. Solidifying agent used in plant tissue culture is
a) Nicotinic acid b) Cobaltous chloride
c) EDTA d) Agar Ans: d) Agar
11. What is the name of the process given below? Write its 4 types.
These are the basic steps in plat Tissue culture technology

1) Sterilization Sterilization of culture room 2) Media preparation
Sterilization of Nutrient media
3) Culture condition 4) Induction of Callus 5) Embryo-genesis 6) Hardening
Chapter 5 126
12. How will you avoid the growing of microbes in nutrient medium during culture process?
What are the techniques used to remove the microbes?
Sterilization of Nutrient media:
Sterilization is a technique to get rid of microbes such as bacteria & fungi in the culture
medium
Steps I
Material Sterilization procedure Product

The plant extracts Vitamin, allowed to pass through millipore Filtrate
aminoacid & hormones
→ filter with 0.2m pore diameter
→ (A)
Steps II
Culture medium in glass Sterilized in autoclave 121OC at
containers, cotton plugs → 15-30 minutes → B
or (plastic closures)
Steps III
Inside Laminar air flow chamber → Filtrate A is added to B
13. Write the various steps involved in cell suspension culture

Definition :
Culture of single cells or small aggregate of cells invitro in liquid medium is called cells
suspension culture.
Preparation steps:
1. Portion of callus is transferred to liquid medium

2. Agitated in a rotary shaker

3. Cells separated from callus tissue

4. Cell suspension is extracted
14. What do you mean Embryoids? Write its application.

Embryoids:
➢ These are the products of plant tissue culture PTC is also known as somatic embryogenesis.
➢ PTC is also known as micropropagation.
➢ These embryoids are cultured to produce plantlets or clones.
➢ The Plantlets developing from embryoids are genetically uniform population (clones).
15. Give the examples for micro propagation performed in plants.
➢ Micropropagations are performed in many plants.
Egs: 1) Pine apple, 2) banana, 3) strawberry, 4) Potato etc
127 Chapter 5
16. Explain the basic concepts involved in plant tissue culture.

Basic concepts of PTC (Plant Tissue Culture):
1. Totipotency
Plant cells have the inherent genetic potential to get differentlared in to a complete individual
plant if provided a nuitrient medium (they can also get redifferentiated or de differentiated)
2. Differentration
( Meristematic tissue is differentiated into simple or complex tissue) The biochemical and
structural change - by which cells become specialized in form and function.
3. Re differentiation
➢ Callus have the ability to develop in to whole plant in nutrient medium.
➢ Already differentiated cell in to another type of cell.
4. De differentiation
Reversion of mature tissue into meristematic state leading to the formation of callus is called
dedifferentiation.
17. Based on the material used, how will you classify the culture technology? Explain it.
Based on the explants some other plant tissue culture types are:
1. Organ culture embryos
The culture of anthers
ovavies
roots
2. Meristem culture shoots etc
The culture of any plant meristematic tissue on culture media.
3. Protoplast culture
➢ Protoplasts (cells with out a cell wall, but plasma membrane) are used to regenerate
whole plants from single cell protoplasts of 2 different plants fused in to hybrids -
later by PTC - develop in to many plantlets.
➢ This process of formation of somatic hybrids in to somatic hybridization.
4. Cell culture
➢ The formation of cell suspension from the callus
➢ The cells are separated from the callus tissue and used for cell suspension culture
18. Give an account on Cryopreservation.
The parts such as,
➢ protoplasts, cells & tissues.
➢ organelles & organs.
➢ Extra cellular matrix & other biological material.
➢ When these are subjected to temperature treatment at - 196 0 C using Liquid nitrogen -
This low temperature preservation is known as cryopreservation
➢ Protectants such as dimethyl sulphoxide, glycerol or sucrose are added before cryo
preservation
➢ The cryopreseravation stops enzymatic or chemical activity, so whenever needed the
substance are subjected to room temperature to restore activation
Chapter 5 128
19. What do you know about Germplasm conservation. Describe it.

Definition
➢ Living genetic resources such as pollen, seeds or plant tissue materials are preserved
in living condition for future use for many hybridization crop improvement research
works. Eg. - Pollen banks, Seed banks
Purpose
1. To maintain viability and Fertility for future use
2. Gene bank, DNA bank of elite plants are maintained to keep biological diversity
food security
20. Write the protocol for artificial seed preparation
➢ Artificial seeds - The are living seed like structure - developed under laboratory (invitro)
condition by certain technique.
Protocol
Establishment of callus tissue

Induction of somatic embryo genesis

Maturation of somatic embryos

Encapsulation of somatic embryos
by the use of agrose & sodium alginate

Test for embryoid to plant conversion

Green house & field planting
PART -1I ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS

I. Choose the correct answer
1. Invitro means.
a) In test tube. b) in side the body.
c) in side the cell. d) in a laboratory Ans: a) In test tube
2. Concept of Totipolency was proposed by.
a) Hildbrandt b) Haberlandt
c) Chilton d) Takebe et-al Ans: b) Haberlandt
3. The scientist developed root cultures, used Knop’s solution along with 3 vitamins is.
a) Murashige & skoog b) P.R. White
c) Kanta et-al d) E.C. Steward Ans: b) P.R. White
4. Virus free Dahlia and Potato plants are produced by.
a) Morel b) Martin
c) Morel & Martin d) E.C steward Ans: c) Morel & Martin
129 Chapter 5
5. The Indian scientists developed in vitro production of haploid embryos from

a) ovule of Nicotiana b) anthers of Datura
c) gametes of Dahlia d) Zygote of Carrot Ans: b) anthers of Datura
6. Melchers & Co workers produced
a) Somatic hybrid of Nicotiana species
b) Intergeneric hybrid between potato & tomato
c) Interspecific hybrid of Nicotiana glauca and Nicotiana longs dorffii
d) test tube fertilization in flowering plants
Ans: b) Intergeneric hybrid between potato & tomato
7. The growth hormones added in MS - medium are
a) Auxin & Gibberellins b) IAA & Kinetin
c) aibberelline & cytokinin d) Auxin & ABA Ans: b) IAA & Kinetin
8. Somatic embryogenes is not applied in
a) Oryza sativa b) Hordeum vulgare
c) Ficus bengaliensis d) Avena sativa Ans: c) Ficus bengaliensis
9. Choose the odd man out with reference to PTC
a) caulo genesis b) gameto genesis
c) rhizo genesis d) somatic embryo genesis Ans: b) gameto genesis
10. Germ plasm conservation does not include
a) DNA bank b) Seed bank
c) SWISS bank d) polben bank Ans: c) SWISS bank
11. This is not of the strategies used to make cell suspension
a) biotrans formation b) elicitation
c) immobilization d) filtration Ans: d) filtration
12. Choose the odd man out with regard to protoplasmic fusion
a) somatic hybridization b) Protoplasmic fusion
c) Embryoids d) Polyethylene Glycol Ans: c) Embryoids
13. This is not a technique in PTC?
a) organ culture b) Meristem culture
c) Cell culture d) M.S. culture Ans: d) M.S. culture
14. Macrozyme is an Enzyme
a) Can sterilize leaf tissue b) can dresolve cell wall and release protoplasts
c) hydrolyse nucleus d) hydrolyse the middle lamella
Ans: b) can dresolve cell walls and release protoplasts
15. Protoplasts are transferred to sucrose solution to
a) retain osmotic pressure b) retain viability
c) restore solubility d) sterilize the protoplast
Ans: b) retain viability
Chapter 5 130
16. Plants those can’not be subjected to hybridization technique can be raised by?
a) somatic embryogenesis b) PTC
c) somatic hybridization d) meristem culture
Ans: c) somatic hybridization
17. Indole alkaloids used as bio medicine is got from
a) phyllanthus amaras b) Acalypha indica
c) Catharanthus roseue d) Avena sativa Ans: c) Catharanthus roseus
18. Virus is free in
a) cell culture b) protoplasm culture
c) Apical meristem culture d) cambial culture Ans: c)Apical meristem culture
19. The part does not come under patent is
a) grant b) The specification
c) Article d) The claim Ans: c) Article
II. Match the following
20. Column A Column B

a. Artificial seeds 1 Protoplasmic Fusion
b. Cybrid 2 Plant tissue culture
c. Virus free Potato 3 Sec. metabolite
d. Cosmetics / Pharmaceuticals 4 Artificial / synseeds
e. en capsulated embryoids 5 Meristmculture
A) a - 2, b - 1, c-5, d-3, e-4 B) a - 1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5
C) a - 5, b - 4, c-3, d-2, e-1 D) a - 4, b-3, c-2, d-1, e-5
Ans: a) a - 2, b - 1, c-5, d-3, e-4
21. Column A Column B

a. Codeine 1 Cardiac tonic
b. Quinine 2 Treatment of Rheumatic pain
c. Vincristine 3 Antimalaria drug
d. Digoxin 4 Analgesic
e Capsaicin 5 Anti carcinogenic
A) a - 1, b - 2, c-3, d-4, e-5 B) a - 4, b-3, c-5, d-1, e-2
c) a - 5, b - 4, c-3, d-2, e-1 D) a - 3, b-1 c-2, d-5, e-4
Ans: b) a - 4, b-3, c-5, d-1, e-2
131 Chapter 5
22 Column A Column B
a. High standard of homogeneity 1 encapsulated seeds
b. Conservation of plant bio diversity 2 cryopreservation
c. Conservation resources of germ plasm 3 micro-propagation
d. Liquid nitrogen 4 Pollen banks/seed banks
A) a - 4, b - 3, c- 2, d-1 B) a - 2 b-4, c-1, d-3
c) a - 3, b - 1, c-4, d-2 D) a - 1, b-2, c-3, d-4 Ans: c) a - 3, b-1, c-4, d-2
III. Choose the incorrect Statement
23. a) The plant material used in tissue culture should be surface sterilized
b) Callus is a mass of un organised growth of plant cells or tissues in invivo culture
c) The fusion product of protoplasts with out nucleus of different cells is called cybrid
d) Bio - reactors are used for the production of secondary metabolites in a commercial way
Ans: b) Callus is a mass of un organised growth of plant cells or tissues in invivo culture
a) Patent terms give the inventor the right to exclude others form making, using or selling
24.
his invention.
b) Publicity right does not come under IPR.
c) USA have the patent right for Indigenous Basmati rice..
d) The developing countries people’s tradition knowledge is living exploited by developed
countries or MNC S is known as Bio piracy
Ans: b) Publicity right does not come under IPR
IV. Choose the correct Statement
25. a) The HGP was founded in 2010 as integral part of ELSI
b) GEAC is an apexbody under the UNO
c) GMOS-GEMs & Trans genie plants approval are not coming under the scanning of GEAC
d) The release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment need
at least three levels of field trials such as BRL -1, BRL II & BRL III
Ans:d) The release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment
need at least three levels of field trials such as BRL -1, BRL II & BRL III
26. a) ‘Takepe’ regenerated tobacco plants from isolated mesophyll protoplasts.
b) Morel & Martin formulated Bioethics.
c) The photo period needs for Tissue culture is 12-18 hours of light.
d) The PH medium for Tissue culture should be below 5
Ans: a) Takepe’ regenerated tobacco plants from isolated mesophyll protoplasts
V. In each of the following questions, two statements are given - one is
Assertion (A) and the other one is Reason (R) Mark the correct answer as
27. Assertion : High yielding plants can be raised in large number by Micro propagation.
Reason : Micro propagation maintain high standards of homogeneity
Chapter 5 132
c) It A is true but ‘R’ is false d) If both A & R are false

Ans: a) If both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of A
28. Assertion : A major advantage of tissue culture is protoplast fusion.
Reason : It produces genetically uniform population.
Ans: c) It A is true but ‘R’ is false
29. Assertion : Bio patency favour Biopiracy .
Reason : Bio safety devices help to solve Biopiracy.
Ans: d) If both A & R are false
VI. Two Marks
1. What are the contributions of Haberlandt to PTC?.
➢ He did invitro culture of plant cells
➢ He used Knop’s salt solution as culture medium
➢ He only proposed the concept – Totipotency
2. What are the special contribution of Murashige and Skoog?
➢ They formulated tissue culture medium
➢ Landmark in PTC, because it is the most frequently medium for all kinds of tissue culture work.
3. Who developed first interspecific somatic hybrid?.
➢ Carlson & coworker – obtained protoplast fusion between Nicotiana glauea & Nicotiana
longdorffii, and developed first interspecific somatic hybrid in 1971
4. Define Totipotency?.
➢ The inherent genetic potential of any living plant cell, when cultured in nutrient
medium can develop in to a complete individual plant.
➢ One of the basic concepts exploited in tissue culture.
5. What are the components of Knop’s solution?.
I. It contain various salts dissolved in Sucrose solution
➢ Calcium Chloride: 3.0 gm ➢ Potassium Nitrate : 1.0 gm
➢ Magnesium Sulphate : 1.0 gm ➢ Dibasic Potasium Phosphate : 1.0 gm
II. Sucrose: 50 gm(optimal) III. Deionized Water:1000 ml
6. Distinguish between Redifferentiation and Dedifferentiation.
Redifferentiation Dedifferentiation
The ability of callus tissue to develop into Reversion of mature tissue into meristematic
shoot & root (embryoid) state leading to the formation of callus.
133 Chapter 5
7. Notes on PEG.
➢ PEG is Poly Ethylene Glycol.
➢ It is the fusogenic agent that facilitates the fusion of 2 different protoplast coming together
in somatic hybridization to produce cybrid.
8. What is Agar?
Agar is a mucilaginous polysaccharide obtained from marine algae (sea weeds)
➢
➢ Gelladium ➢ Gracilaria. ➢ Gellidiella.
➢ The Agar is a solidifying agent used in culture media preparation.
9. Notes on Autoclave.
➢ Autoclave is a device used to do wet stream sterilization.
➢ Autoclaving at 15 psi (121°C) for 15-30 minutes..
➢ Glassware, forceps, scalpels and all accessories are subjected to autoclaving for sterilization.
10. What are the minor nutrients added in MS medium?
1 Sodium molybdate, 2 Cupric sulphate, 3. Cobaltous chloride.
11. Why do we subject plantlets to hardening?
➢ Hardening slowly steadily help the plantlets from that conditions of readymade medium,
light & temperature of the laboratory, to which they were used, to the conditions of light,
temperature & soil in the natural environment.
12. Define Explant.
➢
The tissue taken from a selected plant transferred to a culture medium (inoculation)
often to establish a new plant.
13. What are the various components of MS-Medium?
1. Macronutrients, Micronutrients, Minor nutrients 2. Iron stock 3. Vitamins.
4. Growth Hormone all in specific measurement & along with these solidifying agent- Agar
is also added.
14. What are secondary metabolites?
➢ They are chemical compounds – not required by plant for normal growth & development
but are produced in plants as ‘by products’ of cell metabolism.
Eg- Indole alkaloid (Catharanthus roseus)
15. What is organo genesis?
➢ The morphological changes in the callus leading to the formation of shoot, root and then
plantlets. The plantlets formation has 2 steps
➢ Root formation is known as Rhizogenesis
➢ Shoot formation is known as Caulogenesis.
16. Distinguish between callus & clone
Callus Clone
It is the mass of unorganized growth of plant The clone develops from callus – which get
cells or tissues in invitro – culture medium. differentiated into many plantlets known as
clones (i.e) genetically uniform population.
Chapter 5 134
17. What is meant by hardening?

➢ Hardening is the gradual exposure of invitro developed plantlets in humid chambers in
diffused light - or transferred to - green house setup.
➢ This enable them get acclimatized to grow under normal field conditions.
18. How are the syn seeds produced?
➢ Somatic embryoids – can be used in the production of syn seeds.
➢ They are nothing but somatic embryoids encapsulated in Agarose gel or calcium alginate
/ sodium alginate.
19. Give the tabulation of few secondary metaboltes a their plant sources.
Secondary Metabolite Plant source Uses
Digoxin Digitalis Purpurea Cardiac tonic
Codeine Papaver somniferurn Analgesic
Capsaicin Capsicum annum Rheumatic pain Treatment
Vincristine Catharanthus roseus Anti-Carcinogenic
Quinine Cinchona officinali’s Antimalarial
20. Give the IPR - aspects in India.
IPR - in India
Patent
Trade
Trademark
Secrets
IPR IN
Geographical INDIA Copyright
Indication
Plant
Utility/Model Breeders
Design right
21. Expand the following.

PTC, HEPA, RCGM - , GEAC, ELSI, GMO
1. PTA - Plant Tissue Culture
2. HEPA - High Efficiency Particulate Air
3. RCGM - Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation
4. GEAC - Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
5. ELSI - Ethical Legal and Social Implications
6. GMO - Genetically Modified Organism
7. GEM - Genetically Engineered Micro Organism
22. Name the cryo protectants used in Cryo preservation
¾¾ Dimethyl sulphoxide, glycerol or sucrose are added before cryo preservation process.
¾¾ They protect the cells and tissues from the stress of freezing temperature, So known as
Cryo protectants.
135 Chapter 5
23. How is ELSI research funded?

¾¾ A percentage of HGP - budget at the National Institute of Health & the V S Department
of Energy was devoted to ELSI - research.
VII. Three Marks
1. Give the name of few culture media used in PTC & their nature.
¾¾ M.S. Nutrient Medium (Muroshige & Skoog - 1992)
It has carbon sources, suitable vitamins & hormones
¾¾ B5 - Medium (Gamborg.et.al 1968)
¾¾ White Medium (White 1943)
¾¾ Nitsch’s Medium (Nitsch & Nitsch 1969)
¾¾ The medium may be solid or semisolid or liquid - For solidification, a gelling agent such
as agar is added.
2. Explain Induction of Callus.
Steps
I) Inoculation : Sterile segment of leaf, stem, tuber or root or (explant) is transferred to the
sterile nutrient medium (MS - medium - + Auxins)
II) Incubation : The inoculated medium + auxins are incubated at 25ºC ± 2ºC in an alternate
light & dark period of 12 hours.
III) Induction of Callus :
¾¾ The cell division occur & upper surface of the explant develop into callus.
¾¾ Callus - is a mass of unorganised growth of plant cells / tissue invitro - culture medium
3. Write the flow chart of plant Regeneration path way.
Plant Regeneration Pathway
From the explants, plants can be regenerated by somatic embryogenesis or organogenesis.
Explant
Meristem
Virus free plant lets
Shoot apex
Multiple shoot Induction

Stem Noda (Micro-propagation)
Leaf
Root Induction
Root
Plantlets
Indirect
Callus embryogenesis
Hardening
Direct Shoot Induction
embryogenesis Transfer to field
Root Induction
Embryoids
Plantlets
Plantlets
Hardening
Hardening
Transfer to field
Transfer to field
Chapter 5 136
4. What are the application of somate Embryogenesis.

¾¾ It provides potential → after hardening become plantlets
¾¾ Used for production of synthelic seeds
¾¾ Eg. Allium sativum, Hordeum Vulgare, Oryza - sativa, Zee mays etc.,
5. Distinguish between Somxclonal Variations & Gametoclonal variations (Invitro Condition)
Soma clonal Variation Gameto clonal Variation
Variation found in somatic parts such Variations found in plants regenerated in
Leaf, stem vitro by gametes & gameto phytes
as root, tuber
propagule etc.,
6. Why there is a need to produce Virus free plants?

¾¾ Chemicals can be used to control fungal and bacterial mycoplasma pathogens but not
viruses generally.
¾¾ Viral pathogens also cause great economic loss to the crops.
¾¾ Shoot meristem culture - help to produce virus free plants because shoot meristem is free
of viruses.
7. What are the Advantages of Artificial seeds?
¾¾ Number / time / cost - Millions of seeds produced / at any time / cheaper cost.
¾¾ Method - Easy method to produce genetically engineered plants.
¾¾ Quality - Seeds with desirable traits are produced.
¾¾ Storage - can be stored for long time use by Cryo preservation method.
¾¾ Nature of plants - Plants - Produced are identical
¾¾ Period of dormancy - greatly reduced
¾¾ Growth & Lifespan - grow faster, plants have shorter life span
8. What are the applications of plant tissue culture?
¾¾ Somatic hybridization → Improve hybrids produced
¾¾ Somatic embryoids → develop in to syn - seeds → help to conserve biodiversity
¾¾ Meristem & Shoot tip culture → production of Disease Resistant Varieties
¾¾ Production of plants → Stress resistant → herbicide tolerant → Drought tolerant
¾¾ Micropropagation → Large number of plantlets produced in short time & through out
the year of both crop plants & true species - Used in Forestry
9. Write down the protocol for the micropropagation of banana.
Micropropagation protocol for banana

↓
In vitro micropropagation of banana (Musa sp.)
↓
Suckers surface sterilized with 1% NaoCl for 30 minutes
137 Chapter 5
↓
Apical meristems were isolated cultured on MS basal medium supplemented with
Benzylaminopurine (BAP) 10.0 mg/l and Indole Acetic Acid (IAA) 1.0 mg/l
↓
Induction of shoots with in 168 days
↓
Kinetin 2.0 mg/l and Napthalene Acetic Acid (NAA) 0.5 mg/l for root induction
↓
Acclimatization in polyhouse
↓
Followed by shade- house under 50% light for hardening process
↓
Tested for genetic uniformity
↓
Transferred to field
10. Write down the protocol for virus free meristem tip culture.
Protocol for virus free meristem tip culture

↓
Apical meristem tip with 1 or 2 leaf primordia are excised in sterile condition
froms the explant
↓
In vitro culture in 10 ml of solid MS medium supplemented with growth hormones
↓
Cultures are maintained at 24±1ºC in dark for 3 days followed by normal
illumination of 2400 lux
↓
Plantlets developed from meristem - tip culture after organogenesis process,
transferred to hardening process
↓
Transferred to field condition
11. What is Patency?

Patency :
¾¾ It is a special right to the discoverer / Inventor, - granted by government thro legislation
for trading new articles
¾¾ It can be licensed or sold by a person or an organization.
¾¾ Patent terms - protect from others using it for a particular period.
¾¾ In cases where secret keeping is difficult guidance should be obtained from a qualified
Patent Attorney.
Chapter 5 138
12. What are the 3 parts of a patent? Explain them.

¾¾ It has 3 parts i) The grant, ii) The specifications, iii) The claim
The grant
¾¾ It is a signed document (actually agreement) that grants patent rights to the inventer.
¾¾ It is filled at the patent office. (not published)
The Specifications
¾¾ It is a narrative describing the invention & how it was carried out.
¾¾ Specifications & its claims are published from patent office.
The Claim
¾¾ The scope of invention to be protected by the patent, preventing others from practising it.
13. Write down the - general steps in patenting
Discovery / Invention
Primary appraisal
Assessment
Filing patent in the office of
controller of patents
License negotiation
Further Patenting abroad
Grant / refusal of patent
Enforcement of approved patent

.
14. What is IPR? Explain the various aspects of if..
¾¾ It is a category of properly include products created through ones knowledge, research
& creativity.
¾¾ It includes v Copy rights v Patents & v Trademarks
¾¾ It also include v trade secrets v publicity rights v moral rights v rights against unfair
competitions
¾¾ It also include - designs & geographical indications
Other Various aspects
¾¾ The above mentioned property of the discover should not be exploited by others with
out legal permission or by getting proper authorization.
¾¾ Rights - must be protected by the enforcement of laws framed by a country.
15. What are the future prospects of Bio-technology.
¾¾ It will bring in great revolution like computer revolution.
¾¾ It will lead to new scientific - revolutions that would change the lives & future of people.
¾¾ Major challenges will be met and major changes incomprehensible in many aspects of
modern life.
139 Chapter 5
16. What is the function of GEAC?

¾¾ It regulate -manufacturing, use, import, export and storage of hazardous microbes or
genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and cells in the country.
¾¾ It approves - activities involving large scale use of hazardous microbes, and recombinants
in research & Industrial production.
¾¾ It is responsible - for approval of proposals relating to release of GEO and products into
the environment including experimental field trials (Biosafety Research Level - trial - I
and II known as BRL - I and BRL - II)
VIII. Five Marks.
1. Give the milestones in PTC - (Any 5 only)
¾¾ Haberlandt (1902) - Invitro culture of plant cells - (using knop’s salt solution + glucose &
peptone)
¾¾ He proposed Totipotency concept.
¾¾ P.R.White (1934) - In Knop’s solution + 3 vitamins (Pyridine, thiamine & nicotinic acid →
developed root culture)
¾¾ E.C.Steward (1948) - used coconut water →produced cell proliferates from carrot explants.
¾¾ Morel & Martin (1952, 55) - Produced virus free plants by shoot meristem culture → Eg.
Dahlia, Potato.
¾¾ Murashige & Skoog (1962) - Most frequently used culture medium for all kinds of tissue
culture work.
¾¾ Guha & Maheswari (1964) - developed invitro production of haploid embryos from
another of Datura.
¾¾ Vasil & Hildbrandt (1965) - developed tobacco plant by micro propagation.
2. List down the culture conditions PTC.
PH
¾¾ PH of medium - should lie between 5.6 to 6 -
Temperature
¾¾ Incubation of culture normally at temperature 25ºC ± 2ºC for optimal growth.
Humidity & Light Intensity
¾¾ 50-60% relative humidity
¾¾ 16-hours of photo period by the illumination of cool white fluorescent tubes of
approximately 1000 lux
Aeration
¾¾ Provided by shaking of flasks or tubes of liquid culture of Automatic shaker
¾¾ Aeration of the medium by passing with filter sterilized air.
3. What are the needed Lab - facilities for PTC?
¾¾ Washing & drying facility (oven) for the glassware
¾¾ Medium preparation room with  autoclave  electronic balance  PH meter etc.,
¾¾ Maintain aseptic condition in,
a) Laminar air flow bench
a positive pressure ventilation, unit
¾¾ (High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) filter to maintain aseptic condition.
¾¾ Culture facility
Chapter 5 140
growing the ex-plant - inoculate into culture tube at 22 - 28ºC with illumination of light
2000 lux with 8-6 hours photo period. relative humidity of about 60%
4. Explain various steps in Protoplast culture.
¾¾ Protoplasts are cells with out cell wall but with a cell membrane or plasma membrane.
1. Isolation of protoplast
Steps
The leaf tissue is immersed in 0.5% macerozyme & 2% of onozuka
cellulase enzymes dissolved in 13% sorbital or mannitol at pH 5.4
Then incubated over night at 25ºC
Protoplasts obtained after gentle teasing
Protoplasts transferred to 20% sucrose solution to retain viability
Centrifuged to get pure from protoplasts cell walls.

2. Fusion of protoplast (Agglutination & Fusion)
¾¾ Protoplast (A) + Protoplast (B) - fused in to one in the presence of Fusogenic agent PEG
in 25 - 30% concentration (Poly Ethylene Glycol) with Ca++ ions.
3. Culture of protoplast :
¾¾ Protoplast viability is tested with Fluorescein diacetate - before culture.
¾¾ MS - Medium - used - (with some modifications) droplet, plating or Microdrop array
technique.
a. Incubation : done in continuous light (1000 - 2000 lux) at 25ºC.
¾¾ The cell wall formation occurs with in (24-48 hrs).
¾¾ First division of new cells occurs between 2-7 days of culture.
4. Selection of somatic hybrid cells :
The fusion product of protoplasts with out nucleus of different cells - (cybrid)
Cybrid is also known as Somatic hybrid the process is known as somatic hybridization
5. What is meant by biosafety? Explain.
¾¾ It deals with the application of knowledge, techniques & equipments with strict guidelines
in biological laboratories & related industries,
biological integrity
¾¾ to prevent large scale loss of ecology
human health aspects
¾¾ to minimize human error and technical flaws & failures which contribute to unnecessary.
¾¾ exposures & disposal of - pathogenic microbes & hazardous chemicals.
¾¾ to regularise, risk management assessment and to set in best safeguard measures as per
need.
141 Chapter 5
6. Expand ELSI & What is meant by Bio - ethics.

¾¾ ELSI - represents Ethical legal and social Implications.
¾¾ Advancements in biotechnology such as,
l In Agriculture - Transgenicplants
l In pharmaceutical Industry - genotherapy
l Advancements of medicine etc.,
¾¾ The biotechnological applications have raised controversies, hurting social beliefs, raising
legal issues certain ecological principles & moral values.
¾¾ So it is high time to regularise legally the modern biotechnological applications
& manipulation as Bioethics, for the welfare of humanity & other plant & animal
communities of our world.
7. Write about Potential risks and consideration for safety aspects.
¾¾ Pathogenicity - of living organisms & viruses natural or genetically modified to infect
i) humans, ii) animals, iii) plants causing diseases
¾¾ Toxicity of allergy - associated with microbial production.
¾¾ Antibiotic Resistant Microbes - increasing in number day by day.
¾¾ Disposal problem - regard to spent microbial biomass & purification of effluents.
¾¾ Safety aspects - regard to - i) contamination, ii) infection, iii) mutant strains
¾¾ regard to industrial use of micro organisms containing invitro recombinants.
8. List down organisations implementing Bio-safety guidelines.
¾¾ IBSCs - Institutional Bio - Safety Committees monitor the research the research
activity at institutional level.
¾¾ RCGM - The Review committee on Genetic manipulation, functioning in the
Department of Biotechnology (DBT) monitors the risky research activities in
the laboratories.
¾¾ GEAC - Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
- (Ministry of Environment and Forestry)
- has the power to the use of GMO at commercial level and open field trials of
transgenic - i) crops ii) industrial product iii) health care products
9. What the Ethical issues in Genomic Research.
¾¾ Privacy and fairness - in the use of genetic information
- include the potential for genetic discrimination in
employment & insurance
¾¾ The integration of new genetic technologies such as genetic testing, into the practice of
clinical medicine.
¾¾ Ethical issues surrounding the design and conduct of genetic research with people
including the process of informed consent.
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Namma Kalvi

Vivek Illam, No. 19, Raj Nagar, N.G.O. ‘A’ Colony,

1. Asexual and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 5

UNIT - VII : Genetics

3. Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance 72

UNIT - VIII : Biotechnology

4. Principles and Processes of Biotechnology 97

5. Plant Tissue Culture 125

Asexual and Sexual

Part - I - TEXTBOOK EVALUATION

8. Arrange the layers of anther wall from locus to periphery

17. Consider the following statement(s)

d) Offset (condensed runners)

26. A detached leaf of Bryophyllum produces new plants. How?

27. Differentiate Grafting and Layering.

29. Distinguish mound layering and air layering.

➢ Roots emerge from buried stem. ➢ Hormones are applied.

➢ This area is covered by moist soil.

33. What is Cantharophily.

35. What is endothelium.

37. Define the term Diplospory.

40. What is Mellitophily?

42. List out the functions of tapetum.

48. Discuss the steps involved in Microsporogenesis.

49. With a suitable diagram explain the structure of an ovule.

➢ Body of ovule has central mass of reserve

2. Growth of pollen tube in the style.

52. Differentiate the structure of Dicot and Monocot seed.

2. Find the Matching pair

c) Palynology is the study of honey pollen.

25. Find the mismatching following

a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

45. The central mass of parenchyma in ovule is

58. The pollen of Nyctaginaceae is of __________ microns

8. Comment on the suclpturing pottern of pollengrains?

9. Mention the various shapes of pollengrains?

20. What is chasmogamy?

2. Give the significance of pollen calendar?

11. Comment on pollen (nectar) robber?

IV. Five Marks.

➢ Testa is the hard outer coat.

➢ In pea cotyledons store food.

5. An entire plant can be produced from a single cell - Justify?

9. How does the monosporic embryosac develop?

10. Enlist the contrivances for crosspollination ?

(a) Protandry - Clerodendrum (b) Protogyny - Scrophularia

11. Enlist the characteristics of Anemophilous flowers.

13. What do you know about the lever mechanism of

lower sterile lobe separated by long (i) (ii)

connective. The anthers swing freely.

14. Describe the development of Dicot embryo?

(a) (b) (c) (d )

Development of Dicot embryo (Capsella bursa-pastor is)

➢ The embryo develops at micropylar end of embryo sac.

VII 2 Classical Genetics

PART -1 TEXT BOOK EVALUATION

8. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by

28. What are multiple alleles

Tt, Tt, Tt, Tt F1 generation

TT, Tt, TT, tt

5. The expressed new phenotype has no The phenotype is combination of two

¾¾ 12 white : 3 yellow : 1 green

34. Explain polygenic inheritance with an example

➢ This area is covered by moist soil.

➢ Body of ovule has central mass of reserve

➢ Testa is the hard outer coat.

➢ In pea cotyledons store food.

 1st reported by Sturtevant in Drosophila G G G G