Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Gastrointestinal
Questions
EMBRYOLOGY
1. What are the critical weeks of midgut development? (p 352)_______________________________
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2. Describe the major differences between gastroschisis and omphalocele. (p 352) ______________
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3. A newborn is noted to choke and vomit immediately after first feeding. The mother had
polyhydramnios during pregnancy, and abdominal x-ray shows large amounts of air throughout the
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6. The head of the pancreas is derived from the _______________ (ventral/dorsal) pancreatic bud, the
body is derived from the _______________ (ventral/dorsal) pancreatic bud, and the tail is derived
ANATOMY
7. Which GI ligament can be incised to access the lesser sac and which cannot? Why? (p 355) ____
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8. Name the four histologic layers of the GI tract, from inside to out. (p 356) ____________________
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9. What histologic feature distinguishes the duodenum from any other part of the GI tract? What is the
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10. What are the three branches of the celiac trunk? (p 358) _________________________________
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11. Portal hypertension can lead to varices of which three structures? (p 359) ___________________
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13. Which zone of the liver is most sensitive to ischemic injury? (p 362) ________________________
14. What is the order of major structures that pass through the femoral region from lateral to medial.
(p 362) ________________________________________________________________________
16. In the image below, identify the inguinal (Hesselbach) triangle and the three structures that define
this triangle. For each of the three regions (in blue), what type of hernia can occur at that location?
(p 364)
17. How does the course of a direct inguinal hernia differ from that of an indirect inguinal hernia?
(p 364) ________________________________________________________________________
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PHYSIOLOGY
18. Which cells are responsible for secreting cholecystokinin (CCK)? What are the effects of CCK
secretion? (p 365) _______________________________________________________________
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19. What cells are responsible for producing gastric acid? What hormones act on them to cause
secretion? (p 366) _______________________________________________________________
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20. Where in the GI tract is iron absorbed? Vitamin B12? Folate? Which requires cofactors to facilitate
absorption? (p 368) ______________________________________________________________
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21. Peyer patches contain B cells, which primarily secrete which class of immunoglobulin? (p 368)
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PATHOLOGY
25. What are two causes of sialolithiasis? (p 370) __________________________________________
26. How do the symptoms of achalasia differ from those of esophageal obstruction? (p 370) ________
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27. What is the characteristic imaging finding in a patient with achalasia? (p 370) _________________
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29. What is a more common type of esophageal cancer in the United States? Worldwide? Why?
(p 372) ________________________________________________________________________
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30. What is a risk factor for acute gastritis? For chronic gastritis? (p 373) _______________________
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31. What are the five major risk factors for stomach cancer? (p 373) ___________________________
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32. What are four common stomach cancer metastases? (p 373) _____________________________
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33. The pain of gastric ulcers is _______________ (increased/decreased) with meals, whereas the pain
34. Name the five symptoms common to all malabsorption syndromes. (p 375) __________________
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35. What are three causes of pancreatic insufficiency? What is a major consequence? (p 375) ______
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37. Compare and contrast the characteristics of Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis. (p 376)
Gross morphology
Depth of inflammation
Distinguishing complications
Granulomas?
Location
Rectal involvement
38. How is the McBurney point used to diagnose appendicitis? (p 377) _________________________
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39. An older man presents with subacute onset of left lower quadrant pain. He has a fever. He reports a
typical American diet without much fiber. What is the most likely diagnosis? (p 377) ____________
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40. What is the difference between a false diverticulum and a true diverticulum? (p 377) ___________
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42. What surgical complication is this a common cause of small bowel obstruction? (p 380) _________
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43. A 55-year-old woman presents with colicky pain. Results of a fecal occult blood test are positive.
Colonoscopy reveals thousands of polyps in the colon and rectum. What is the most likely diagnosis?
What if the patient also has osteosarcoma? What if, instead, she has a CNS glioma?
(p 381) ________________________________________________________________________
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44. What is the first mutational event typically associated with colorectal cancer? (p 383) ___________
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45. What are the signs and symptoms of cirrhosis and portal hypertension? (p 383) _______________
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46. In alcoholic hepatitis, the AST level is _______________ (greater than/less than) the ALT level; in
viral hepatitis, the AST level is _________________ (greater than/less than) the ALT level. (p 384)
47. Match the type of liver disease with its notable characteristic(s) (pp 385-386)
48. A newborn presents with persistent jaundice after two weeks of life, darkening urine, acholic
stools, and hepatomegaly. The labs indicate high direct bilirubin and GGT. What is the likely
49. Compare and contrast the characteristics of the hereditary hyperbilirubinemias. (p 388)
Crigler-Najjar Dubin-Johnson
Characteristic Gilbert Syndrome
Syndrome Syndrome
Impairment
Course of disease
Symptoms
50. What molecule accumulates to cause Wilson disease? What molecule is not made (tests show low
levels) because of this accumulation? What is the treatment? (p 389) _______________________
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51. What causes the classic triad of: cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, and “bronze diabetes”? (p 389)
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PHARMACOLOGY
57. List the most common histamine-2 blockers for the GI tract. Which histamine receptor do they affect?
(p 392) ________________________________________________________________________
58. What are the proton pump inhibitors? Why are they such effective drugs? (p 392) _____________
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60. What is the most dangerous adverse effect of all antacids? (p 393) _________________________
61. What powerful medicine is used to control vomiting and nausea after surgery? What receptor does
62. What drug can be used to treat gastroparesis? What is a worrisome adverse effect? (p 394) _____
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63. What is the most common side effect of orlistat? What enzymes does it inhibit? (p 394) _________
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Answers
EMBRYOLOGY
1. Week 6: midgut herniates through umbilical ring
Week 10: returns to abdominal cavity, rotates around SMA 270 degrees.
2. Gastroschisis: Caused by failure of lateral fold closure, abdominal contents herniate lateral to
umbilicus; abdominal contents NOT covered in peritoneum or amnion; is not associated with
chromosome abnormalities. Omphalocele: Caused by failure of lateral walls to migrate at umbilical
ring, persistent midline herniation of abdominal contents into umbilical cord; abdominal contents ARE
surrounded by peritoneum; associated with congenital anomalies (eg, trisomies 13 and 18, Beckwith-
Wiedemann syndrome) and other structural abnormalities.
ANATOMY
7. The gastrohepatic ligament may be cut during surgery to access the lesser sac because there is a
thin minimally vascular portion that does not require violating the gastric arteries. The
hepatoduodenal ligament may NOT be incised, as the portal triad runs longitudinally through this
ligament.
8. Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa (when intraperitoneal), adventitia (when
retroperitoneal). Remember MSMS.
9. Brunner’s glands; these glands secrete bicarbonate solution to neutralize acidic chyme that leaves
the stomach before it can reach the rest of the intestines.
10. Left gastric artery, splenic artery, and common hepatic artery.
12. External hemorrhoids are painful because they receive somatic innervation.
14. Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, lymphatics (femoral canal). Remember: You go from
lateral to medial to find your NAVeL.
16.
17. A direct inguinal hernia protrudes through the inguinal (Hesselbach) triangle (medial to inferior
epigastric vessels), whereas an indirect inguinal hernia goes through the internal inguinal ring,
external inguinal ring, and into the scrotum (lateral to inferior epigastric vessels).
PHYSIOLOGY
18. CCK is released by the I cells in the duodenum and jejunum. It acts on the neural muscarinic
pathways to cause pancreatic secretion and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also results in
increased gallbladder contraction and decreased gastric emptying.
19. Parietal cells. Histamine, acetylcholine and gastrin contribute to acid secretion.
20. Iron is absorbed in the duodenum, vitamin B12 is absorbed in the ileum; and folate is absorbed in the
small bowel. Vitamin B12 absorption requires a cofactor (intrinsic factor), whereas iron and folate
absorption do not.
21. Peyer patches contain B cells that differentiate into IgA-secreting plasma cells, which combat
intraluminal antigens.
24. About 80% is excreted as stercobilin in the feces; of the other 20%, about 10% is excreted in the
urine as urobilin and about 90% returns to the liver via enterohepatic circulation.
PATHOLOGY
25. Dehydration or trauma.
26. Esophageal obstruction causes dysphagia with solids, whereas achalasia causes dysphagia with
both solids and liquids.
28. Dysphagia, iron deficiency anemia, and esophageal webs; may be associated with glossitis.
29. More common in America: adenocarcinoma; worldwide: squamous cell carcinoma. GERD is
common in the U.S. and can result in Barrett esophagus, which in turn can lead to adenocarcinoma.
31. H pylori infection, diet high in smoked foods (nitrosamines), tobacco smoking, achlorhydria, and
chronic gastritis.
32. Virchow node (involvement of left supraclavicular node), Krukenberg tumor (bilateral metastases to
ovaries), Sister Mary Joseph nodule (subcutaneous periumbilical metastasis), and Blumer shelf
(metastasis to pouch of Douglas).
34. Diarrhea, steatorrhea, weight loss, weakness, and vitamin and mineral deficiencies.
35. Cystic fibrosis, obstructing cancer, and chronic pancreatitis. A major consequence is deficiency in
the fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K) as well as B12 due to malabsorption of these vitamins.
37.
38. McBurney point is one-third the distance from the right anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus;
pain localized to McBurney point (RLQ) is pathognomonic for appendicitis.
39. This is a typical presentation of diverticulosis, which can present with painless hematochezia.
40. In a false diverticulum, only the mucosa and submucosa outpouch; in a true diverticulum, all three
gut wall layers outpouch.
42. Adhesions; this is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction.
44. Loss of APC gene, which is associated with decreased intracellular adhesion and greater
proliferation.
45. Portal hypertension can cause hematemesis (esophageal varices), melena (gastric varices), caput
medusa, ascites, and hemorrhoids (anorectal varices). Cirrhosis can cause coma, scleral icterus,
fetor hepaticus, spider nevi, gynecomastia, jaundice, testicular atrophy, asterixis, bleeding tendency,
anemia, and ankle edema.
49.
Crigler-Najjar Dubin-Johnson
Characteristic Gilbert Syndrome
Syndrome, type I Syndrome
↑ unconjugated Conjugated
Impairment Bilirubin uptake
Bilirubin hyperbilirubinemia
Symptomatic; cure is
Course of disease Benign Benign
liver transplant
Jaundice Asymptomatic or
Symptoms Jaundice
Kernicterus mild jaundice
50. Copper; serum ceruloplasmin; chelation with penicillamine or trientine, oral zinc. Liver transplant in
acute liver failure related to Wilson disease.
51. Hemochromatosis. Iron deposits in the liver can cause cirrhosis, iron in the pancreas can lead to
DM, and deposition of hemosiderin in the skin will lead to the hyperpigmentation.
PHARMACOLOGY
57. Cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, nizatidine. These are H2 receptor blockers.
58. Omeprazole, lansoprazole, esomeprazole, pantoprazole, and dexlansoprazole. PPIs are very
effective because they irreversibly inhibit H+/K+ ATPase, instead of blocking just one of several
stimulatory receptors.
60. Hypokalemia.
63. Orlistat inhibits gastric and pancreatic lipase, which results in decreased absorption of dietary fats.
Common side effects are: abdominal pain, flatulence, steatorrhea, and decreased absorption of fat-
soluble vitamins.