45.

B
MCN MT2 NOV. 2023 46.
47.
A
A
NLE INTENSIVE
48. A
49. B
ANSWER: 50. C
1. D 51. D
2. B 52. D
3. B 53. A
4. B 54. B
5. C 55. A
6. C 56. D
7. A 57. A
8. A 58. C
9. B 59. B
10. C 60. B
11. A 61. A
12. A 62. A
13. C 63. B
14. D 64. A
15. C 65. C
16. D 66. D
17. C 67. D
18. A 68. D
19. A 69. B
20. D 70. D
21. A 71. D
22. A 72. A
23. A 73. A
24. B 74. A
25. B 75. B
26. A 76. B
27. D 77. D
28. D 78. C
29. A 79. B
30. A 80. A
31. D 81. D
32. C 82. C
33. B 83. B
34. A 84. C
35. A 85. A
36. C 86. B
37. A 87. D
38. B 88. C
39. A 89. C
40. C 90. D
41. C 91. C
42. C 92. A
43. A 93. A
44. C 94. C
 95. C
96. B
97. D A. Latent phase
98. D B. active phase
99. D C. transition phase
100. D D. pushing phase

SITUATION:   May, 25 years old, G2P1, 36-
37 wks. AOG was admitted to the labor
room in USTH, because greenish watery
vaginal discharge. Upon admission, initial
IE was done by OB-ROD and reveals:
cephalic presentation, station 0, (-) BOW,
cervix: 4-5cms dilated, 70% effaced. May
was ordered to observe strict bedrest.  the labor room, the nurse assesses the fetal
1.  Based on the data given on the situation,
which among the following data is NOT
normal?
A. station 0
B. cervix 4-5cms dilated
C. cephalic presentation
D. greenish watery vaginal discharge
2.   May was placed on a strict bedrest to
prevent:
1.prolapse of the cord
2. uterine rupture
3. infection
4. uterine inversion
A. 1,2
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 1,2,3,4
3.  May’s contractions are every 3-5
minutes and lasting 45-60 seconds. She
appears irritable and states that she is
quite nauseated. She is most likely in what
phase of labor?
4.  The fetus in cephalic presentation is in
what type fetal lie?
A. transverse
B. longitudinal
C. perpendicular
D. Oblique
5.     Doing Leopold’s Maneuver on Maya in
position to be left. Occipito-anterior. In this
position, the fetal heart tones can be best
heard in which quadrant of the maternal
abdomen?
A. RUQ
B. LUQ
C. RLQ
D. LLQ
6.       During labor, when the fetus is above
the ischial spines, the nurse recognizes that
the head is said to be a station:
A. +1
B. -3
C. dipping
D. station 0
7.  Which of the following statement
describes the diagonal conjugate?
A. widest diameter of the pelvic inlet
B. most important pelvic diameter
C. 2cm less than the size obstetric conjugate
D. the distance from the right to left ischium
8. What should be the priority nursing
intervention knowing that the color of May’s
amniotic fluid is greenish?
A. assess fetal heart tones
B. assess uterine contraction
C. start giving oxygen inhalation
D. position her to left side lying
9.  What is the antero posterior diameter of
the fetal skull in vertex presentation as it
enters the pelvic inlet during delivery?
A. 9.25cms
B. 9.5 cms
C.12cms
D. 13.5 cms
10. Which among the following would be
the main indication why May needs to
undergo an “E”CS?
A. breech presentation
B. uterine inertia
C. fetal compromise
D. persistent occiput posterior
11. While May is prepared for cesarean
delivery, which among the following position
would maintain optimal perfusion of
oxygenated blood to the fetus,
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Semi-fowler’s position
C. Supine position with wedge under the right
hips
D. Prone position
12. The client is scheduled for BPS in  other
to assess the fetal wellbeing,  knowing that
this procedure has 5 variables, which in the
following is NOT included in the variable:
A. Fetal breathing movement
B. Fetal tone
C. Amniotic volume
D. CST result
13. In which of the following result shows
abnormal score and will require close follow
up after BPS is done?
A. Reactive NST
B. Amniotic fluid volume > 2 cm in a single
vertical pocket
C. < 2 body or limb movements in 30 minutes
D. > 1 episode of rythmic breathing lasting > 30
sec within 30 min
14. The following fetal surveillance test can
be done on a patient at 31-32 weeks AOG
except:
A. BPS
B. Fetal movement counting
C. NST
D. CST
15. Favorable outcome of an NST is:
A. 2 accelerations in FHR with fetal movement
of 15 beats per minute lasting 15 minutes or
more over 20 minutes observation period.
B. 2 decelerations in FHR with fetal movement
of 15 beats per minute lasting 15 minutes or
more over 20 minutes observation period.
C. Non-reactive test result
D. None of the above
16. The following deceleration in FHR is
suggestive of the following:
A. Early deceleration: Fetal head compression
B. Late deceleration: uteroplacental
compromise
C. Variable deceleration: umbilical cord
compression
D. All are correct
17. Which among the following is/are
characteristic of a favorable uterine
contraction?
1. involuntary
2. regular 22. Nancy, a G4P3, is in labor. The nurse
3. intermittent
would suspect possible precipitous labor if
4. increasing comfort to the mother
A. 1 only the cervical dilatation of Nancy is at least_
B. 1,2 A. 1 cm/hr
C. 1,2,3 B. 1.2 cm/hr
D. 1,2,3,4 C. 1.5cm/hr
D. 2.5 cm/hr
18. The following could lead to possible
dystocia except: 23. While hooked on an electronic fetal
A. Low self-esteem monitor during the first stage of labor, the
B. Presence of physiologic retraction ring nurse noted variable fetal heart rate
C. anthropoid pelvis decelerations on her client’s tracing and
D. fetal malposition
suspects cord prolapse. In such condition,
19. The following are management of the client should assume:
hypertonic contractions: A. Knee-chest position
1. Darkening room lights B. Doral-recumbent position
2. Rest and pain relief C. Semi-Fowler’s position
3. Decreasing noise and stimulation D. Upright position
4. Administer analgesic as ordered
24. What nursing action has the highest
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4 priority for a client in the second stage of
C. 1, 2, 4 labor?
D. All
A. check the fetal position
20. The plan of care for a client undergoing B. coach the client to push effectively
C. administer medication for pain as ordered
an induction of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin)
D. instruct the client to do rapid pant blow
because of hypotonic uterine contraction, breathing
should include strategies to:
25.Persistent occiput posterior is a risk
A. Maintain complete bed rest
condition, if the fetus fails to rotate internally
B. Notify the neonatal resuscitation team
C. Administer antibiotics as ordered during the second stage labor, which
D. Maintain continuous electronic fetal among the following manifestations is
monitoring expected from the mother if such condition
21. Which term refers to discrepancy in occurs?
maternal pelvis and fetal head? A. vomiting
B. severe backache
A. Cephalopelvic disproportion. C. palpitation
B. Band’s ring. D. leg cramps
C. Uterine intertia
D. Contracted pelvis 26. Upon admission, IE was done & reveals
+BOW, Station 0. Repeat IE was done by
the OB-ROD an hour and 2 hours after
admission. The fetus is still on station 0.
Which among the following condition the
nurse would suspect the patient to have?
A. arrest disorder in decsent
B. protraction disorder in descent
C. arrest disorder in dilatation
D. arrest disorder in dilatation
27. Inversion of the uterus commonly
occurs at what stage of labor?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
28. Fundal check every 15 minutes is an
important nursing concern on the 4th stage
of labor to check presence of bleeding that
might be due either to:
1. uterine atony
2. hematoma
3. laceration
4. retained placental fragments
A. 1,2
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 1,2,3,4
29. Nancy is asking if vaginal delivery is still
possible after her ‘LTCS’, the nurse best
response is:
A. Your OB will discuss it with you.
B. Yes! Anytime
C. No, expect all the time CS
D. maybe
30. Pre term labor rupture of the membrane
is suspected if:
A. leaking fluid from the vagina
B. leaking blood from the vagina
C. nitrazine paper turns blue
D. nitrazine paper turns red
31. The following are true in the
management of a woman with diabetes
mellitus, except:
A. A diet between 2,000-2,500 cal/day is given
during pregnancy.
B. No oral hypoglycemics are given throughout
the course of pregnancy.
C. Insulin dosage during the 3rd trimester is
maintained until the 1st -24 hours of the post-
partum period.
D. Breastfeeding is contraindicated if the
woman is taking antihyperglycemics.
32.  The nurse gives patient health
education on cardiovascular signs and
symptoms during pregnancy.   Which of the
following is normal during pregnancy?
A. Clubbing
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
C. Peripheral edema
D. Neck vein distention
33. Health history of pre-pregnancy cardiac
status includes:
1. level of exercise performance
2. physical symptoms she experiences
3. presence of infection
4. edema and cough
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 2, 3, 4
D. All
34. If a woman with cardiac disease is
diagnosed to have pulmonary edema, the
patient is placed on:
A. Left-side lying position 39. Upon admission, MgSO4 was given.  As
B. High Fowler’s position
a precaution, the following assessment
C. Prone position
D. Trendelenburg findings must be observed prior to
administration, EXCEPT:
35. A woman with cardiac disease may
A. RR- 15/min
deliver thru:
B. absent patellar reflex
A. NSD C. urine output >30ml/hr
B. CS D. BP=160/110
C. Low Forceps
D. Pregnancy is contraindicated 40. As a precaution, what medication
should be readily available if patient is
36. A woman with cardiac disease under being given MgSO4?
this classification should avoid heavy
A. Diazepam
exertion and should stop   any activity that
B. Hydralazine
causes even minor sign of cardiac C. Calcium gluconate
decompensation. D. Phenytoin

41. Which of the following symptoms are

A. Class I present in ectopic pregnancy?
B. Class II
C. Class III 1. Cullen’s sign 3. Vaginal bleeding
D. Class IV 2.Lower unilateral abdominal pain 4.
Amenorrhea
37. Jane was diagnosed to have BP A.1, 2, 3
elevation, which was detected first time B. 1, 2, 4
C. 2, 3, 4
after mid-pregnancy without proteinuria.
D. ALL
Jane is classified as:
42. Which of the following medications will
be given to patient who has unruptured
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Transient hypertension ectopic which is a folic acid analogue that
C. Preeclampsia destroys rapidly dividing cells?
D. Chronic hypertension

38. Which of the following manifestations A. Inderal

maybe present in client with severe B. Yutopar
C. Methotrexate
preeclampsia?
D. Carboprost
A. Systolic pressure of 140mmHg and above
B. Proteinuria 2+ to 3+ on random urinalysis 43. Sharp one-sided pain radiating to the
C. urine output <650ml/hr shoulder in ectopic pregnancy is caused by:
D. Proteinuria ≥0.3 g in a 24-hr
A. Irritation of the peritoneum caused by C. Superimposed hyperemesis
bleeding D. Passage of fluid-filled vesicles
B. Death of the fetus
C. Sloughing of the decidua’s 48. Erika, G1P0, 16 weeks AOG, was
D. Low HCG level admitted because of minimal bleeding.
Internal examination was done revealed
44. Serum progesterone level was done on
closed cervix.  Nurse Pauline should have
a pregnant client. A 4ng/ml result indicates:
which clinical impression?
A. Threatened abortion
A. Viable uterine pregnancy
B. Incomplete abortion
B. Hydramnios
C. Inevitable abortion
C. Possible ectopic pregnancy
D. Missed abortion
D. Twin pregnancy
49. Based on the above condition, the
45. With the above result, the patient knows
following are included in the plan of care
that one of the following procedures will be
EXCEPT:
done to confirm the diagnosis.

A. Bedrest
A.X-ray
B. Administer Pitocin as ordered
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Avoidance of stress and orgasm
C. amniocentesis
D. Administer tocolytics as ordered
D. Placental grading
50. With incompetent cervix, the etiologic
46. Molar pregnancy is characterized by
factors include:
which of the following?
1. Previous cervical laceration during childbirth
2. excessive cervical dilation for biopsy
1.There is an abnormal development of the 3. mother’s ingestion of DES
placenta 4. short cervix
2.There is proliferation of trophoblastic tissue A. 1,2, 3
3.There is a possible development of B. 2, 3, 4
choriocarcinoma C. 1, 2, 4
4.It results in loss of pregnancy D. ALL
A.1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4 51. After prophylactic cerclage is
C. 2, 3, 4 performed, the following instructions must
D. ALL
be emphasized to patients:
47. Upon assessment, which of the
following findings is least expected in a 1. Refrain from intercourse
client with molar pregnancy? 2. Avoid prolonged standing
3. Bedrest
A. Bright-red vaginal discharge
4. Avoid heavy lifting
B. Uterine enlargement greater than expected
A. 1, 2, 3
for gestational age
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. ALL
52. Risks involved with cerclage placement
includes the following, EXCEPT:
A. Rupture of membranes
B. chorioamnionitis
C. Preterm labor
D. abortion
53. The client is diagnosed with partial
placenta previa. In explaining the diagnosis,
the nurse tells the client that the usual
treatment for partial placenta previa is:
A. Bed rest
B. Administration of platelets
C. Immediate Cesarean section delivery
D. Induction of labor with Oxytocin
54. A nurse is assessing a client in the
fourth stage of labor and notes that the
fundus is firm, but that bleeding is
excessive. Which of the following would be
the initial nursing action?
a. Record the findings
b. Notify the physician
C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
D. Massage the fundus
55. While assessing a primipara during the
immediate postpartum period, the nurse in
charge plans to use both hands to assess
the client’s fundus to:
a. Prevent uterine inversion
b. Promote uterine involution
c. Hasten the puerperium period
d. Determine the size of the fundus
56. The nurse is caring for a group of
postpartum clients. What places a client at
increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage?
a. Breastfeeding in the birthing room
b. Receiving a pudendal block for the birth
c. Having a third stage of labor that lasts 10
minutes
d. Giving birth to a baby weighing 9.5 pounds
57. While assisting with the delivery of a
term newborn, which intervention would a
nurse anticipate to prevent postpartum
hemorrhage during the third stage of labor?
a. Administration of intravenous oxytocin
b. Application of fundal pressure
c. Clamping the umbilical cord before
pulsations stop
d. Administration of subcutaneous terbutaline
sulfate
58. A nurse is caring for a client who has
experienced severe postpartum
hemorrhage. Which of the following
intervention should be the last option in the
management?
a. Administration of prostaglandins
b. Surgical technique, such as creating an
obstruction, to block the uterine artery
c. Hysterectomy
d. Radiological interventions, such as blocking
the uterine artery with gel foam
59. A postpartum client, who has chosen to
bottle feed, has developed painful breast
engorgement. In preparation for discharge,
a nurse educates the client on ways to
decrease engorgement. Which statement
made by the client indicates a need for
further education?

a. “I’m going to put ice on my breast when I get
home”
b. “I’m going to take a shower and let warm
water run on my sore breasts”
c. . “I’m going to take ibuprofen for the pain”
d. “I’m going to wear a sports bra continuously
until the pain is gone.”
60. A nurse is caring for a 30 year old
female (G2P2) with red hair who just
delivers a 10 pound term infant after a 36-
hour labor that was induced with oxytocin.
The nurse is aware that this client is at risk
for uterine atony. In the data given, how
many risk factors does this client has that
will predisposed her to develop uterine
atony?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
D. Four
61. A client who has been diagnosed with
mastitis asks a nurse if she should stop
breastfeeding at this time. Which of the
following should be the most appropriate
response by the nurse?
a. “Continous breastfeding will decrease the
duration of the mastitis”
b. “Breastfeeding should only be continued if
symptoms decrease”
c. “It is a good idea to discontinue feeding 24
hours until antibiotic therapy begins to take
effect”
d. “It is appropriate to discontinue
breastfeeding because the infant may become
infected”
62. The nurse was assigned to a crying
client on her immediate postpartum, who
successfully gave birth to a healthy baby
boy. When asked what is wrong, the client
replies. “Nothing really. I’m not in pain or
anything, but I just seem to cry a lot for no
reason.” Based on this information, what
should be the nurse’s first intervention?
a. Call the client’s support person to come and
sit with her
b. Remind the client that she has a healthy baby
and there is nothing to cry about
c. Call the health-care provider immediately and
report the incidence
d. Ask the client to discuss her birth experience
63. While completing an assessment of a
postpartum client, a nurse notes a
positive Homan’s sign on the right leg.
Which should be a nurse’s first response to
this finding?
a. Document the findings
b. Call the care provider to report the findings
c. Examine the leg for redness and tenderness
d. Ambulate the client
64. A postpartum client is admitted to a
hospital 1 week after delivery with a
diagnosis of endometritis. Considering this
diagnosis, which notations should the nurse
expect to find in the client’s healthcare
record?
a. History of membranes ruptured 36 hours
prior to delivery
b. History of pregnancy-induced hypertension
c. Infant birth weight 4,200g
d. Administration of intravenous oxytocin
immediately after the delivery
65. A nurse was assigned to a client who
had postpartum bleeding due to a fourth-
degree perineal laceration. In response to
this information, which intervention should
the nurse add to the client’s plan of care?
a. Limit ambulation to bathroom privileges only
b. Monitor the uterus for firmness every 2 hours
c. Instruct the client on a high-fiber diet and
administer stool softeners
d. Decrease fluid intake to 1,000mL 24 hours
66. A postpartum client expresses to a
nurse an overwhelming sense of happiness
regarding her infant. The client states, “I
cannot ever imagine developing the ‘baby
blues’ ” which response by the nurse is
most accurate regarding psychological
concerns after birth?
a. “All women develop behavioral and emotional
concerns after the birth of a child, but most do
not require treatment”
b. “The rate of admission of psychiatric care is
greater during the year after childbirth than at
any other time in a woman’s life.”
c. “Postpartum psychiatric concerns occur only
in women who have had mental illness before
pregnancy”
d. “If a woman has not had any psychiatric
concerns during her pregnancy, she is not at
risk to develop any postpartum psychological
problems.”
67. A nurse enters the room of a
postpartum, multiparous client and
observes the client rubbing her abdomen.
The nurse asks the client is she is having
pain. The client says she feels like she is
having menstrual cramps. In response to
this information, which intervention should
be implemented by the nurse?
a. Offer a warm blanket for her abdomen
b. Encourage her to lie on her stomach until the
cramping stops
c. Instruct the client avoid ambulation while
having pain
d. Check her lochia flow, as pain can sometimes
precede hemorrhage
68. A nurse writes the following outcome for
a postpartum client who is 2 hours post
cesarean delivery. “The client will remain
free of thrombophlebitis.” Which
intervention should the nurse add to the
client’s plan of care to accomplish the
outcome?
a. Limit oral fluids to 1,000mL per day
b. Utilize the knee patch on the bed to lower the
legs while the client is in a supine position
c. Avoid the use of pneumatic compression
stocking
d. Encourage early ambulation
69. Three days after delivering a full-term
infant, a breastfeeding client tells a nurse
that her nipples are sore. Upon examination
of the nipples, the nurse notes bilateral
erythema. Considering this information,
what should be the nurse’s first action?
a. Recommend the use of a breast shield
b. Observe the next breastfeeding
c. Educate the client about the reasons for
nipple soreness
d. Instruct the client to decrease the number of
times the infant breastfeeds during a 24 hour
period.
70. A nursing student is assigned to care for
a postpartum client.  The nursing instructor
reviews the nursing care plan developed by
the student and asks the student to
describe the process of involution.  Which
of the following is an accurate description of
the process?
a. “Involution refers to the inverted uterus that is
beginning to return to normal.”
b. “Involution refers to the gradual reversal of
the uterine muscle into the abdominal cavity
c. “Involution refers to the progressive descent
of the uterus into the pelvic cavity occurring at
rate of 1 cm per day. “
d. “Involution of the uterus will never completely
return to its pre-pregnancy state. Immediately
after birth, the uterus weighs about 1000g. At
the end of the first week, it weighs 500 g. After
4 weeks, involution is complete; it will weigh 50
g, its pre-pregnant weight
71. A nurse should monitor which
complication from a client who delivered
vaginally assisted through forceps
extraction?
a. Placental abruption
b. Seizure
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
D. Infection
72. When the nurse performs Homan’s
sign, a client complains of severe pain in
her left calf. Which of the following
responses by the nurse is appropriate at
this time?
a. Notify the client’s physician.
b. Teach the client to massage her leg
C. Apply ice packs to the client’s leg
D. Encourage the client to ambulate.
73. A postpartum client asks the nurse how
to strengthen her perineal muscles. The
nurse teaches the client to do which of the
following?
a. Try to start and stop the flow of urine
b. Bear down as though having a bowel
movement
c. Gently squeeze the uterus while pushing
downward on the fundus
d. Straighten the leg and point the toes toward
the head
74. The nurse is caring for a client who
delivered vaginally 2 hours ago. The client’s
fundus is firm at 1 centimeter below the
umbilicus and vital signs are stable. She
received morphine IV 4 hours ago for labor
pain. The nurse should question which new
order from the physician?
A. Sitz bath 20 minutes TID
B. Bathroom privileges
C. Regular diet
D. RhoGAM for an Rh-negative client
75. In preparation to the nurse first morning
round in the LR, she identifies patient who
are at risk to develop hematoma during
delivery. Which among the list below has
the greatest risk for this complication?
a. A 17-year old client who gave birth to a small-
for–gestational age
b. A 26- year old client with gestational diabetes
and forceps delivery of a large-for-gestational
age infant
c. A 35-year old client having twins.
d. A 40-year old client having her first infant
76. A client, who is G5P4, delivered a 6-
pound 5-ounce baby 2 hours ago. The
client is complaining of severe uterine
cramping while breastfeeding. A nurse
knows that these symptoms are most likely
due to:
 This condition is an abnormality in the
A. Mastitis menstrual cycle known as:
B. Uterine involution
C. Uterine atony
A. Metrorrhagia
D. Postpartum endometritis
B. Menorrhagia
77. A client is to be discharged 12 hours C. Amenorrhea
D. Dysmenorrheal
after delivery. The nurse should delay the
discharge and notify the physician if which 81. One factor of having a normal delivery
of the following is observed? is the size of the pelvis. Pelvis serves as the
passageway for the passenger (fetus)
A. Moderate lochia rubra during childbirth. The most ideal pelvis for
B. Fundus firm at umbilicus childbirth is:
C. Pulse 62 betas per minute
D. Total UO of 150 cc in 12 hours
A. Android
78. A client has an episiotomy and B. Anthropoid
complains of perineal discomfort. She is C. Platypelloid
D. Gynecoid
also afraid to have bowel movement. Which
of the following nursing diagnoses is the 82. An important landmark of the pelvis that
highest priority for this client at this time? determines the distance of the descent of
the head is known as:
A. Activity intolerance
B. Deficient knowledge A. Linea terminalis
C. Pain B. Sacrum
D. Risk for constipation. C. Ischial spines
D. Ischial tuberosities
79. Estrogen, one of the hormones
regulating cyclic activities in female 83. What is the term used to pertain to
reproductive system is responsible for permanent cessation of menstruation?
which effect?
A. Amenorrhea
A. Increases the quantity and pH of cervical B. Menopause
mucus, causing it to become thin and watery C. Oligomenorrhea
and can be stretched to a distance of 10-13 cm. D. Hypomenorrhea
B. Inhibits the production of LH
84.  Nurse Mia is conducting a class to a
C. Increases endometrial tortuosity
D. All of the above group of women about pregnancy, labor
and delivery. Choose the best answer to
80. Jessa, 17 years old, is bleeding
each question. Which of the following
between periods of less than two weeks.
statements if made by a woman indicates a
positive sign of pregnancy?
A. I am nauseated every morning and I feel that
my breasts are larger than usual
B. I have missed period for a month now
C. I was scheduled to undergo transvaginal
ultrasound and showed a positive fetal
heartbeat
D. I feel something is moving in my tummy
85. A pregnant woman asks Nurse Mia
about the purpose of the placenta. Which of
the following is the most appropriate
response of the nurse?
A. The placenta provides an exchange of
nutrients and waste products between the
mother and the fetus
B. The placenta surrounds and cushions the
fetus
C. The placenta is used to measure fetal kidney
function
D. The placenta prevents bacteria to pass
through to the fetus
86. Nurse Mia is teaching about fetal
circulation. Which of the following statement
by the mother indicates that the teaching
has been effective?
A. The fetal heart rate is about thrice the
maternal heart rate
B. The umbilical cord contains two arteries and
one vein
C. The umbilical cord contains one artery and
two veins
D. The fetal heart rate is about 170-180 per
minute near or at term
87. A primigravida asks Nurse Mia when
can the sex of the baby be visually
recognizable?
A. 4 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 16 weeks
88. A pregnant woman asks the nurse how
she can manage ankle edema. Which of the
following statements by the nurse is most
appropriate?
A. Changing position slowly
B. Exercising regularly
C. Elevating the legs twice a day and wearing
supportive stockings
D. Using correct body mechanics
89. Which of the following statements is
incorrect about physiological changes
during pregnancy?
A. Diaphragm may be elevated because of the
enlarged uterus
B. Heart size increases and is elevated upward
and to the right because of the displacement of
the diaphragm as the uterus enlarges
C. The cervix becomes shorter and more elastic
D. Poor appetite may occur due to decreased
gastric motility
90. A primigravida asks the nurse how often
she will visit the physician for prenatal
checkup. The most accurate response of
the nurse would be?
A. Every 8 weeks for the first 28 to 32 weeks,
every 4 weeks from 32 to 36 weeks and every 2
weeks from 36 to 40 weeks
B. Every 4 weeks for the first 28 to 32 weeks,
every 2 weeks from 32 to 36 weeks and every
week from 36 to 40 weeks
C. Every 2 weeks for the first 28 to 32 weeks,
every week from 32 to 36 weeks and every
other day from 36 to 40 weeks
D. Every 4 weeks for the first 28 to 36 weeks
and every week from 36 to 40 weeks
91.The average expected weight gain
during pregnancy is 25 to 35 lbs for women
with normal pregnancy weight. The nurse
teaches the pregnant mothers to increase
their caloric intake for about how many?
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
92. A physician prescribed transvaginal
ultrasonography during the first trimester.
Which of the following is true about this
procedure?
A. It is necessary to hold the urine during the
procedure
B. A transducer is placed over the abdomen to
obtain the picture
C. The procedure takes about 1-2 hours
D. The probe is covered with a disposable cover
and is inserted into the vagina
93. Estrogen, one of the hormones
regulating cyclic activities in female
reproductive system is responsible for
which effect?
A. Increases the quantity and pH of cervical
mucus, causing it to become thin and watery
and can be stretched to a distance of 10-13 cm.
B. Inhibits the production of LH
C. Increases endometrial tortuosity
D. All of the above
94. Which of the following indicates an
abnormal finding during the second
trimester of pregnancy?
A. Quickening
B. Braxton Hicks contractions
C. Fetal heart rate of 180 bpm
D. Consistent increase in fundic height
95. Carlota is admitted in active labor. The
nurse locates fetal heart sounds in the
lower left quadrant of the mother’s
abdomen. The nurse is correct if she
mentioned, which of the following?
a. Carlota will probably deliver with too much
pain
b. This indicates Carlota will probably have
breech delivery
c. The fetus is in the most common left anterior
fetal positions
d. This position is referred to as being sacrum
posterior
96. Which of the following findings on a
newly delivered woman’s chart would
indicate the client is at risk for developing
early postpartum hemorrhage?
a. Post-term delivery
b. Retained placental fragments
c. Premature rupture of membranes
d. Grand multiparity
97. The nurse is conducting health teaching
on a pregnant client that complains of
constipation. The following statements are
correct regarding constipation in pregnancy.
Select all that apply.
i.  It is due to the effects of Relaxin
ii.  May be associated with iron 100. In contrast with the patient for
supplements taken by the mother ultrasound. What instruction would you give
the client before conducting amniocentesis?
iii.  Effects brought by Estrogen.

a. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your

iv.  Due to decrease motility of the
uterus does not hurt the fetus.
intestines b. The x-ray used to reveal your fetus’ position
has no long term effects.
c. No more amniotic fluid forms afterward,
a. i, ii, iv
which is why only a small amount is removed.
b. ii, iii
d. Void immediately before the procedure to
c. i, ii, iii
reduce your bladder size.
d. ii, iv

98. The method utilizes a well-defined, step Submit

by step system of education and instruction
Clear form
with the idea of painless childbirth is
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a. Bradley method
b. Lamaze method
c. Kegel's exercise  Forms
d. Dick-read method

99. A client is scheduled to have an

ultrasound examination. She is worried on
what will happen during the ultrasound. The
nurse went to the room and conducts some
teaching to the client. What instruction
would the nurse give the client before
examination?

a. Void immediately before the procedure to

reduce your bladder size.
b. You can have medicine for pain for any
contractions caused by the test.
c. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your
uterus does not hurt the fetus.
d. Drink at least 3 glasses of fluid before the
procedure.