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POST-TEST EXAMINATION IN RADIOGRAPHIC POSITIONING

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This test booklet contains 100 test questions.

2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes
shaded will invalidate your answer.
4. AVOID ERASURES.

INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set.
2. Write the subject title on the box provided.
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A; Set Box “B” if your
test booklet is Set B.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. What method requires two exposures and also demonstrates the upper contour of the femur?
A. Friedman C. Lilienfield
B. Schneider D. Taylor

2. Which of the following are the parts of the Shoulder Girdle?

1. Proximal Humerus
2. Scapula
3. Collar Bone
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

3. The following are examples of involuntary motion. EXCEPT:

1. Mental illness
2. Severe pain
3. Breathing
4. Shivering
A. 1 only C. 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only D. 3 only

4. Which of the following articulates with the bases of the metacarpals?

1. The proximal ends of the phalanges
2. Navicular
3. Trapezium
4. Os magnum

A. 1, 3 and 4 C. 3 and 4 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 D. 3 only

5. The posteroanterior projection of the wrist in ulnar flexion demonstrates the:

A. Greater multangular free of superimposition
B. Pisiform free of superimposition
C. Navicular not foreshortened
D. Interspaces between the carpals on the medial side of the wrist

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6. Which of the following positions will demonstrate the pisiform separated from the adjacent carpal bones?
A. Oblique semipronation C. Posterior anterior
B. Lateral D. Oblique semisupination

7. The Templeton and Zim method is taken with the central ray directed 40O to the:
A. Long axis of the elbow C. Fingers
B. Long axis of the hand D. Proximal joint

8. The following are ways to control voluntary motion. EXCEPT:

A. Immobilization of the part C. Use Long Exposure time
B. Careful explanation of the procedure D. Sedation

9. To localize foreign bodies of the hand, the lateral projection should be made with the hand in:
A. Extension C. Supination
B. Pronation D. Palmar flexion

10. The Stecher position demonstrates which carpal bone?

A. Pisiform C. Capitate
B. Navicular D. Hamate

11. The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?
A. Scapular Y C. Medial rotation AP oblique elbow
B. AP scapula D. Lateral rotation AP oblique elbow

12. On which projection of the elbow is the radial tuberosity projected free of super-imposition to the ulna:
A. Partial flexion C. Lateral
B. Anteroposterior D.Oblique

13. The greater tuberosity of the humerus is seen in profile with the arm in:
A. External rotation C. Internal rotation
B. Neutral rotation D. Extreme internal rotation

14. For the anteroposterior projection of the elbow, if the patient is unable to fully extend the elbow, it
will be necessary to:
A. Angle the central ray 100 caudad C. Direct the central ray perpendicular to the IR
B. Angle the central ray 100 cephalad D. Make two anteroposterior projections

15. A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate:

1. Fracture
2. Foreign body
3. Metacarpal fracture displacement
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

16. Where in the upper limb is the posterior fat pad can be located?
A. Posterior olecranon process C. Anterior aspect of coronoid fossa
B. Posterior proximal humerus D. Notal aspect of the distal humerus

17. To demonstrate the distal humerus in AP projection when the elbow can’t be fully extended. The
Central Ray is directed:
A. Perpendicular to the distal forearm C. Perpendicular to the distal humerus
B. Horizontally to the proximal humerus D. Horizontally traversing the elbow joint

18. Which of the following projection when radiographing the wrist will best demonstrate the carpal
interspaces?
A. PA C. PA with ulnar deviation
B. AP D. PA with radial deviation

19. The following projections demonstrate the “boat shaped carpal bone”. EXCEPT:
A. PA axial C. PA oblique
B. PA with ulnar deviation D. AP oblique

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20. What is the position of the patient if he/she is lying on his/her back with the central ray directed
perpendicularly through the chest and to the vertically placed IR?
A. Ventral recumbent C. Dorsal decubitus
B. Dorsal recumbent D. Lateral decubitus

21. To demonstrate more fully the IP joints in the PA Oblique projection of the hand. The rad-tech
should do all the following. EXCEPT:
A. Use a 45 degree suitable support C. Direct the central ray perpendicularly
B. Maintain the phalanges parallel to the horizontal D. The fingertips should be touching the cassete

22. What projection is used to open the spaces between the carpal bones on the lateral side of the wrist?
A. PA with radial deviation C. PA Oblique
B. PA with ulnar deviation D. None of the above

23. To demonstrate the scaphoid free from superimposition using the inclined cassette. Direct the
Central Ray:
A. Perpendicular to the scaphoid C. Perpendicular to the plane of the film
B. Perpendicular to the wrist joint D. 20 degrees towards the elbow

24. What do you call the concavity on the anterior aspect of the wrist and the strong fibrous band that
forms the Carpal canal?
A. Carpal tunnel and Flexor Renitaculum C. Carpal sulcus and Flexor Renitaculum
B. Carpal tunnel and Flexor Retinaculum D. Carpal sulcus and Flexor Retinaculum

25. What method is usually employed to demonstrate carpal tunnel syndrome?

A. Brewerton method C. Clements Nakayama method
B. Carpal Bridge D. None of the above

26. A true lateral projection of the foot is obtained:

A. In the mediolateral projection C. With the C. R. directed 10o caudad
B. In the lateromedial projection D. With the C. R. directed 150 caudad

27. Which of the following articulates with the heads of the metatarsals?
1. The base of the proximal phalanges
2. The cuboid
3. The cuneiforms
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

28. The posteroanterior projection of the wrist in radial flexion demonstrates the:
A. Greater multangular free of superimposition
B. Pisiform free of superimposition
C. Navicular not foreshortened
D. Interspaces between the carpals on the medial side of the wrist

29. The Gaynor-Hart position is taken with the central ray directed 250 to 300 to the long axis of the
hand to demonstrate:
A. Carpal bridge C. Carpal tunnel
B. Carpal sulcus D. All of the above

30. The best way to control involuntary motion is:

A. Immobilization of the part C. Short exposure time
B. Careful explanation of the procedure D. Physical restraint

31. What projection is used to demonstrate the structural stability of the longitudinal arch of the foot?
A. Dorsoplantar C. Lateral weight-bearing
B. Oblique dorsoplantar D. Axial

32. To demonstrate the sesamoid bones of the foot free from superimposition, one should take:
A. A superoinferior projection to the 2nd Metatarsophalangeal joint
B. A superoinferior projection to the 1st Metatarsal head
C. A tangential projection
D. A lateromedial oblique projection

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33. To obtain an axial image of the calcaneus, the number of the degrees the central ray is directed
cephalad to the long axis of the foot is:
A. Thirty C. Fifty
B. Forty D. Twenty-five

34. In the AP oblique projection of both medial and lateral rotation of the foot, the sole of the foot
forms an angle to the plane of the film of about:
A. 300 C. 450
0
B.40 D. 600
35. To obtain an axial image of the entire foot free from superimposition of the leg, two exposures are
made with the central ray angled:
A. 150 posterior angulation and 150 anterior angulation
B. 250 posterior angulation and 150 anterior angulation
C. 150 posterior angulation and 250 anterior angulation
D. 250 posterior angulation and 250 anterior angulation

36. The lesser tuberosity of the humerus is seen medially if the arm is in:
A. External rotation C. Internal rotation
B. Abduction D. Neutral rotation

37. To demonstrate the glenoid cavity in profile if the patient is in supine position, it is necessary to:
A. Angle the central ray 250 cephalad C. Angle the central ray 250 caudad
0
B. Rotate the body 45 D. Rotate the body 300
38. In neutral rotation position for the AP projection of the shoulder. The following statements are
TRUE. EXCEPT:
A. Direct the CR perpendicular to the coracoid process
B. The humeral epicondyles should be parallel to the plane of the film
C. The palmar aspect of the hand rests against the hip
D. Greater tuberosity partially superimposes the humeral head

39. The following statements are true regarding the Transthoracic Lateral Projection (Lawrence Method).
EXCEPT:
1. The patient rests on the unaffected side
2. The affected arm is elevated and the forearm rests on the head
3. The CR is directed perpendicular at the level of the surgical neck
4. It demonstrates the distal humerus
A. 3 only C.2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 4 only

40. What method is recommended if the patient can’t tolerate dorsal recumbent and ventral recumbent
position for an Inferosuperior Axial Projection of the Shoulder?
A. Lawrence Method C. Clements Method
B. West point Method D. Rafert Method

41. The following statements are TRUE regarding “Fisk Method”. EXCEPT:
1. The patient is supine with the CR directed 10-150 to the long axis of the humerus
2. This Method demonstrates Intertrochanteric groove
3. The CR is directed perpendicular to the plane of the film
4. The patient holds the cassette
A. 3 and 4 only C.1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 4 only

42. Which of the following parts are within the os calcis?

1. Anterior Articular facet
2. Sustentaculum Tali
3. Tuberosity
A. 1 only C.1, and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. All of the above

43. How many degrees angulation is required to demonstrate the glenoid cavity in Garth Method?
A. 30 C.40
B. 35 D. 45
44. What is the position of the patient in the Apple method?
A. Lateral C.LAO/RAO

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 B. AP D.LPO/RPO

45. What projection is very useful in identifying the cause of the shoulder dislocation?
A.PA Axial Oblique C.LAO/RAO
B. AP Axial Oblique D.LPO/RPO

46. What projection demonstrates the exact axial image of the clavicle?
A.PA Axial C.AP
B. AP Axial D.PA

47. What projection profiles the “Scapular Spine”?

A. Laquerriere-pierquin C. Axial
B. Pearson D. Tangential

48. What interspaces will be emphasized when doing the AP projection (medial rotation) of the foot?
A. Cuboid and base of the 4th and 5th MT bones C. Cuboid and the lateral cuneiform
B. Talus and navicular D. All of the above

49. Pearson and Alexander method are methods that demonstrate:

A. Acromion C. Acromioclavicular joint
B. clavicle D. Sternoclavicular joint

50. What method usually demonstrates an oblique image of the scapula?

A. Lawrence C. Lorenz and Lilienfield
B. Garth D. Laquerierre-Pierquin

51. Which of the following methods do demonstrate the “intercondylar fossa”?

1. Camp-coventry method
2. Gnihc method
3. Beclere method
A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. All of the above

52. The projection in which films of the patella are taken for greater detail sharpness is the:
A. Anteroposterior C. Oblique
B. Posteroanterior D. Lateral

53. To obtain a clear view of the knee joint in the lateral position angle the central ray:
A. Cephalad C. Medially
B. Caudad D. Laterally

54. To demonstrate a ligamentous tear at the ankle joint, which of the following procedures is employed?
A. Both oblique views
B. Routine ankle views
C. AP (force inversion/force eversion)
D. Angle the central ray 100 cephalad for the routine ankle views

55. The hip joint may be localized by using which of the following bony landmarks?
A. Anterior superior iliac spine and greater trochanter
B. Anterior superior iliac spine and symphysis pubis
C. Iliac crest and anterior superior iliac spine
D. Iliac crest and symphysis pubis

56. To overcome the anterversion of the femoral necks, in view of the hip and pelvis:
A. Invert the feet approximately 150 C. Evert the feet pointing directly upward
B. Have the feet pointing directly upward D. Angle the central ray 450 cephalad

57. For the axiolateral projection of the femoral neck the cassette is placed in contact with:
A. The posterior surface of the affected side
B. The lateral surface of the affected side
C. The anterior surface of the affected side
D. The medial surface of the affected side

58. For the superoinferior axial projection, Lilienfield method of the anterior pelvic bones, the patient is

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 positioned in the:
A. Supine position ` C. Oblique position
B. Prone position D. Lateral position

59. All of the following bones are associated with condyles EXCEPT the:
A. Femur C. Humerus
B. Tibia D. Mandible

60. In the lateral projection of the foot, the:

1. Plantar surface should be perpendicular to the film
2. Metatarsals are superimposed
3. CR perpendicular to the film
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

61. Which of the following is used to evaluate the shoulder in its anatomic position?
A. External rotation position C. Neutral rotation position
B. Internal rotation position D. Inferosuperior axial position

62. In the lateral projection of the knee, the:

1. Femoral condyles are superimposed
2. Patellofemoral joint is visualized
3. Knee is flexed about 20 to 30o
A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

63. In an AP projection of the knee. If the patient’s measurement from asis to the tabletop is 20cm. The
central ray should be directed:
A. perpendicular C. 3-50 caudad
0
B. 3-5 cephalad D. 5-70 cephalad

64. Which of the following methods given below BEST demonstrates the “Intercondylar notch”?
A. Kuchendorf C. Settegast
B. Jaroschy D. Camp-coventry

65. In AP axial Oblique (Broden method). What central ray angulation will demonstrate the anterior
portion of the posterior facet?
A. 100 ` C. 300
B. 200 D. 400
66. What bones comprise the hindfoot?
1. Heel bone
2. Astragalus
3. Toes and metatarsals
4. Cuneiforms
A. 1 only C. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 3 and 4 only

67. Which of the following does not belong to the shin bone?
A. Tuberosity C. Medial condyle
B. Crest D. Lateral epicondyle

68. The “intercondylar notch” lies on the:

A. Anterior distal portion of the femur C. Anterior proximal tibia
B. Posterior distal portion of the femur D. Posterior proximal tibia

69. To demonstrate the sesamoid bone as recommended by Holly. The central ray should be directed:
A. 400 towards the heel C. 400 towards the toes
B. Perpendicular to the 2nd MTP D. Perpendicular to the 1st metatarsal head

70. What should be the position of the patient to permit accurate estimation of the genu valgum and genu
varum deformities?
A. Supine C. Upright

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 B. Sitting D. Lateral recumbent on affected side

71. In Rosenberg method for the demonstration of articular cartilage disease. The patient is instructed to
flex his/her knees to place the femur of how many angle?
A. not more than 100 C. 900
0 0
B. 25 -30 D. 450

72. The main purpose of internally rotating the leg and the foot 15-20 degrees in radiographic examination
of the pelvis and hip is:
A. To avoid elongation
B. To place the femoral neck parallel to the film
C. To overcome anteversion of the femoral neck
D. To avoid foreshortening of the femoral neck

73. Which of the following is not true regarding Martz-Taylor method for the examination of congenital hip
dislocation?
1. 4 exposures should be done
2. This method demonstrates the relationship of the humeral head to the acetabulum
3. An AP projection and a lateral projection is employed
A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only

74. In internal oblique position under Judet method. What is the specific position of the patient if the
affected hip is right?
A. LAO C. LPO
B. RAO D. RPO

75. What method demonstrates the superior wall of the acetabulum?

A. Judet C. Taylor
B. Lilienfield D. none of the above

76. The following are the distinctive features of the atlas. EXCEPT:
1. It has no body
2. It has dens
3. It has lateral masses
A. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 2 only

77. To demonstrate the entire cervical vertebrae:

A. Direct the central ray 150 cephalad C. Use the open-mouth projection
B. Use the “wagging jaw” projection D. Direct the central ray 150 caudad

78. The open mouth position was described by:

1. Shoenberg
2. Albert
3. George
A. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1 only

79. If a functional study of the cervical vertebrae were requested, you would take:
A. Vertebral arch projections C. Routine cervical projections
B. Flexion and extension projection D. None of the above

80. To place the cervical intervertebral foramen parallel with the plane of the film
A. Rotate the body 450 C. Angle the central ray 100 cephalad
0
B. A. Rotate the body 70 D. Angle the central ray 100 caudad

81. For the anteroposterior projection of the thoracic vertebrae the central ray is directed to the level of:
A. T-1 C.T-6
B. T-3 D.T-12

82. The intervertebral foramina are well demonstrated in which projection of the thoracic vertebrae?
A. Anteroposterior C. Oblique
B. Lateral D. Erect oblique

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83. To demonstrate the apophyseal joint of the thoracic vertebrae:
A. Rotate the body 200 from the lateral position
B. Rotate the body 450 from the lateral position
C. Angle the central ray 200 cephalad
D. Rotate the body 700 from the lateral position

84. The apophyseal joints are well demonstrated in which projection of the cervical vertebrae?
A. Anteroposterior C. Oblique
B. Lateral D. Erect oblique

85. With the patient in the posteroanterior position for frontal projections of the lumbar spine, which side
of the lordotic curve faces the x-ray tube?
A. Concave C. Biconcave
B. Convex D. Biconvex

86. The pars interarticularis is represented by what part of the “scotty dog” seen in a correctly positioned
oblique lumbar spine?
A. Eye C. Body
B. Front foot D. Neck

87. The intervertebral foramina are well demonstrated in which projection of the lumbar vertebrae?
A. Anteroposterior C. Oblique
B. Lateral D. Erect anteroposterior

88. Which of the following is not TRUE 8egarding Judet method?

1. It uses PA Oblique projection
2. It uses 2 oblique rotation position
3. It is helpful in demonstrating fractures of the acetabulum
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

89. Which of the following are demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
1. Intervertebral spaces
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral foramina
A. 1 only C. 1 and 3
B. 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

90. The position in which apophyseal joint of the lumbar vertebrae are best demonstrated is the:
A. Anteroposterior C. Oblique
B. Posteroanterior D. Lateral

91. The pedicle is represented by what part of the “scotty dog” seen in a correctly positioned oblique
lumbar spine?
A. Eye C. Body
B. Front foot D. Neck

92. In the posteroanterior oblique projections of the lumbar vertebrae, the apophyseal joints
demonstrated are those:
A. Farthest from the film C. Below the crest
B. Nearest the film D. Above the crest
93. For the oblique projections of the sacroiliac joints, the body is rotated:
A. 100 to 200 C. 400 to 450
0 0
B. 25 to 30 D. 700 to 750
94. Which of the following method does not demonstrate the ACETABULUM?
1. Judet
2. Teufel
3. Letournel
4. Ronak
A. 3 and 4 only C. 4 only
B. 3 only D. 2, 3, and 4 only

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95. For the oblique projection of the sacroiliac joint, direct the central ray to:
A. The iliac crest
B. A point midway between the iliac crest and symphysis pubis
C. A point midway between the iliac crest and anterior superior iliac spine
D. The anterior superior iliac spine

96. In the anteroposterior oblique projection, the sacroiliac joint demonstrated is the one:
A. Nearest the film C. Adjacent to t he film
B. Farthest from the film D. Parallel to the film

97. For the anteroposterior projection of the sacrum, the central ray is directed:
A. 150 caudad C. 350 caudad
0
B. 15 cephalad D. 350 cephalad

98. Which of the following do not belong to compensatory curves?

1. Cervical
2. Lumbar
3. Thoracic
4. Pelvic
A. 1 and 3 only C. 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only D. 4 only

99. Which of the following is true about judd method?

1. The patient is placed in prone position
2. Central ray passes on the occiput
3. It demonstrates the dens projected thru the shadow of the obturator foramen

A. 1 only C. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. All of the above

100. What specific position is use to demonstrate the right cervical intervertebral foramina in an AP
oblique projection?
A. LPO C.LAO
B. RPO D. RAO

*** END ***