Radiographic Positioning and Special Procedure with and without contrast

(Radiographic Positioning)
1. How Should the Central Ray be Angled for the AP Projection of the Sacrum?
A. 10 Degrees Caudad
B. 15 Degrees Cephalad
C. 10 Degrees Cephalad
D. 15 Degrees Caudad
2. How should the Radiographer Rotate the Patient from vertical position to
demonstrate Apophyseal joint of the Thoracic Vertebrae?
A. 20 Degrees
B. 55 Degrees
C. 70 Degrees
D. 45 Degrees
3. How Many degrees the tube is angled for the tangential projection of the Os Calsis?
A. 55 degrees
B. 60 degrees
C. 40 degrees
D. 45 degrees

4. Is termed as the last lumbar vertebrae completely fuse to first sacral segment
A. Sacralization
B. Lumbarization
C. Sacless
D. Hyper Girdle
5. Involuntary Motion can be caused by?
A. Nervousness
B. Fear
C. Pain
D. None of the above
6. On which projection of the chest where in the MSP is adjusted parallel to the Central
Ray?
A. Lateral
B. PA
C. Lordotic
D. Lateral Erect
7. Where should the top border of the cassette be place for ribs above diaphragm?
A. 1.5 inches below the shoulder
B. On the level of the Xiphoid Process
C. 1.5 inches above the shoulder
D. On the level of the apex of the lung
8. What is the angulation for supraspinatus outlet?
A. 25 to 30 degrees caudad
B. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad
C. 10 to 15 degrees caudad
D. 40 to 60 degrees caudad
9. What is also now as the frogleg?
A. Modified Cleaves Method
B. Isherwood Method
C. Lilienfeld Method
D. Staunig Method
10. Which of the following projections will separate the radial head neck and tuberosity?
A. AP Projection
B. Medial Oblique Projection
C. Lateral Oblique Projection
D. Lateral Projection
11. Right axillary ribs can be projected in with position?
A. RAO
B. LAO
C. LPO
D. Supine
12. What method will demonstrate joint mice?
A. Holmblad Method
B. Camp- Coventry Method
C. Beclere Method
D. Settegast Method
13. Central Ray Angulation for Alexander Method AP Axial Projection?
A. 10 degrees Caudad
B. 15 degrees Cephalad
C. 10 degrees Cephalad
D. 15 degrees Caudad
14. Which of the following form all or a part of the knee joint?
1. Tibia
2. Fibula
3. Patella
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
15. What best demonstrated cuboid bone and its articulation?
A. AP Projection
B. Medial Oblique Projection
C. Lateral Oblique Projection
D. Lateral Projection
16. Which of the following will demonstrated the articulation of the semilunar and Os
Pisiforme?
A. Tangential
B. AP Oblique
C. Lateral
D. PA Oblique
17. What is the knee flexion for Camp- Coventry?
A. 70
B. 60
C. 80
D. 45
18. What is the method for demonstrating pulmonary apices?
A. Lindlom Method
B. Staunig Method
C. Fleshner Method
D. Kovacs Method
19. Which of the following method is used to image the sternum?
A. Fleshner Method
B. Kurzbauer Method
C. Moore Method
D. Kovacs Method
20. What method is used for the demonstration of the joint of L5 and S1 or the
Lumbosacral joint?
A. Fleshner Method
B. Kurzbauer Method
C. Moore Method
D. Kovacs Method
21. What is the evaluation criteria for PA of the Chest?
1. Sternoclavicular joints symmetrical
2. Sternum is in lateral
3. 10 anterior ribs are demonstrated
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D.1,2 and 3
22. Which of the following structures are best demonstrated on the lateral of the
thoracic?
A. IVF
B. Apophyseal Joint
C. Sternum
D. Manubrium
23. How many degrees will be the central ray for PA of the Clavicle?
A. 0 degrees
B. 10 to 15 degrees Caudad
C. 5 to 10 degrees Cephalad
D. 15 to 30 degrees Caudad
24. What method is used to demonstrate the SCJ?
A. Neer Method
B. Kurzbauer Method
C. Moore Method
D. Kovacs Method
25. The Coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following
positions?
A. AP Scapula
B. Lateral Oblique elbow
C. Medial Oblique elbow
D. Scapular Y
26. Which of the following is true about the AP of the Scapula ?
1. Patient’s arm is abducted at right angles
2. Patient’s elbow is flexed with the hand supinated
3. Exposure is made during quiet breathing
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
27. What is the best way to control voluntary motion?
A. Immobilization of the part
B. Careful explanation of the procedure
C. Short exposure time
D. Physical Restraint
28. Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures
and the patellofemoral articulation?
A. AP Knee
B. Tangential Patella
C. Lateral Knee
D. Tunnel View
29. Which of the following projection or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or
subcoracoid dislocation ?
A. PA Oblique Scapular Y
B. Transthoracic Lateral
C. Tangential
D. AP Axial
30. Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater
tubercle in profile?
1. Epicondyles are parallel to the film
2. Arm in external rotation
3. Humerus in AP position
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
31. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular
articulation?
A. 45 degrees internal rotation
B. AP
C. 90 degrees mediolateral
D. 45 degrees external rotation
32. In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral foramina that
are best seen are those what?
A. Furthest from the film
B. Nearest the film
C. Seen Medially
D. Seen Inferiorly
33. Which of the following is true about AP Projection of the ankle?
1. Plantar Surface of the foot is vertical
2. Fibula Projects more distally than the tibia
3. Calcaneus is well visualized
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
34. Which of the following devices should not be removed before positioning for a
radiograph?
1. A ring when performing hand radiography
2. An antishock garment
3. A pneumatic splint
A. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 1,2 and 3
35. Which of the following would bes demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?
A. AP Erect
B. AP Recumbent
C. Lateral Recumbent
D. Medial Oblique
36. Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25 degrees RPO position with the
central ray entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?
A. Left Sacroiliac Joints
B. Right Sacroiliac Joints
C. Left ilium
D. Right ilium
37. Which of the following Is (are) associated with Colle’s Fracture?
1. Transverse fracture of the radial head
2. Chip Fracture of the ulnar styloid
3. Posterior or backward displacement
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
38. Which of the following are true in the lateral projection of the ankle?
1. Talotibial joint is visualized
2. Talofibular joints is visualized
3. Tibia and Fibula are Superimposed
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1,2 and 3
39. Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?
A. Diarthrodial
B. Synarthrodial
C. Amphiarthodial
D. Cartilaginous
40. Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?
1. The Head of the first row of phalanges
2. The Cuboid
3. The Cuneiforms
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1,2 and 3
41 What is the Standard radiographic protocols that may be reduced to include two
views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situation?
A. Emergency and trauma radiography
B. Barium examination
C. Spine Radiography
D. Skull Radiography
42. If the patient is suffering from anal hemorrhoid, the what is the central ray for
TARRANT METHOD?
A. 25 to 35 degrees caudad
B. 25 to 35 degrees cephalad
C. 10 to 15 degrees caudad
D. 20 to 35 degrees caudad
43. Is the patient cant flex and abduct the hip for frog leg, what carpal is demonstrated
in clements-nakayama method?
A. Greater Multangular
B. Lesser Multangular
C. Os Magnum
D. Astragalus
44. What method demonstrates joint space between the humeral head and the glenoid cavity
(scapulohumeral joint)?
A. Grashey Method
B. Garth Method
C. Lawrence Method
D. Apple Method
45. When did Robert first described the radiographic projection of the first CMC joint?
A.1936
B. 1912
C.1926
D. 1918
46. When did Rafert and Long! described the method of diagnosing scaphoid fractures
using a four-image, multiple-angle central ray series
A. 1991
B. 1912
C. 1936
D. 1890
47. It is also called Floating Maxilla?
A. Lefort 1
B. Lefort 2
C. Lefort 3
D. Lefort 4
48. What is the Central ray of KASABACH METHOD?
A. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad
B. 10 to 15 degrees caudad
C. Perpendicular
D. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad
49. Who obtained the name for the projection of scapular Y?

A. Rubin, Gray, Green

B. Robinson, Goree, Meares

C. Hall, Isaac, and Booth

D. Lane, Kennedy, Crusher

50. The left shoulder blade is not demonstrated laterally by?

A. LAO

B. RPO

C. LPO

D. RAO

(SPECIAL PROCEDURE WITHOUT CONTRAST)

1. All of the following statements regarding a PA projection of the skull, with central ray

perpendicular to the IR are true, except

A. Orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR

B. Petrous pyramids fill the lower third of the orbits

C. Midsagittal plane is perpendicular to the IR

D. Central ray exits at the nasion

2. Where is the Petrous Pyramid located in PA Axial (Caldwell Method)?
A. Lower Third of the Orbit
B. Upper Third of the Orbit
C. Inferior Rim of the Orbit
D. Filling the Orbit
3. Which of the following methods best demonstrates the optic foramen?

A. RHESE METHOD

B. BERTEL METHOD

C. MAY METHOD

D. WATERS METHOD

4. What is the best method to image the facial bones, when the patient cannot be

placed in prone position?

A. WATERS METHOD

B. PARIETOACANTHIAL PROJECTION

C. MODIFIED WATERS METHOD

D. REVERSE WATERS METHOD

5. What is the angle for by the OML and the table in the best projection of the facial

bone, but the patient is not placed in prone position?

A. 37 degrees

B. 55 degrees

C. 45 degrees

D. 70 degrees
6. What is the invalid method to use if the patient has flat skull base?

A. Valdini Method

B. Towne Method

C. Caldwell Method

D. Schuller Method

7. What is the central ray of MODIFIED TOWNE METHOD for Zygomatic Arches?

A. 25 degrees cephalad

B. 35 degrees caudad

C. 30 degrees caudad

D. 20 or 25 degrees cephalad

8. All of the following statements regarding a PA projection of the skull, with central ray

perpendicular to the IR are true, except:

A. Orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR

B. Petrous pyramids fill the lower third of the orbits

C. Midsagittal plane is perpendicular to the IR

D. Central ray exits at the nasion

9. What structure is of primary interest on an AP tangential position (modified Hickey

method)

A. Sphenoid Process

B. Mastoid Process

C. Temporomandibular joints

D. Ethmoid sinuses
10. Which of the following should be superimposed on a lateral position of the facial

bones

1.Mandibular rami

2. Orbital roofs

3. The anterior and posterior walls of the maxillary sinuses

A. 1 and 2 only

B.1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

11. What is the proper centering point for an AP axial position for temporomandibular

joints

A. Glabella

B. 3 inches above the glabella

C. Nasion

D. 3 inches above nasion

12. Which sinuses are visualized through the open-mouth on an open mouth

modification of a parietoacantial projection (Waters method)

A. Maxillary

B. Sphenoid

C. Ethmoid

D. Frontal
13. Which of the following is true regarding the PA axial position of the skull by HAAS

method

1. The petrous pyramid of the temporal bone are projected symmetrically

2. Dorsum sellae is projected within the shadow of the foramen magnum

3. It is essential a reversed AP axial Towne method position

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

14. What is the primary structure of interest on a tangential position (May method) of the

facial bone

A. Sphenoid Sinuses

B. Zygomatic Arch

C. Superorbital Ridge

D. Nasal Bone

15. What is the proper centering point for the lateral position of the sella turcica?

a. ¾ anterior and ¾ inferior to EAM

b. ¾ posterior and ¾ inferior to EAM

c. ¾ anterior and ¾ superior to EAM

d. ¾ posterior and ¾ superior to EAM

16. What is the proper angulation of the Radiographic Baseline to the IR for Valdini

Method?

A. 30 degrees

B. 37 degrees

C. 50 degrees

D. 53 degrees

17. What is the proper central ray for Lysholm Method

A. 20 – 25 degrees caudad

B. 30 – 35 degrees caudad

C. 30 – 35 degrees cephalad

D. 40 – 45 degrees cephalad

18. Which of the following should be perpendicular to the image receptor for the

demonstration of the frontal bone?

I: Axillary Plane

II: Mesial Plane

III: Radiographic Baseline

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. II and III

D. I, II and III
19. What Calvaria Bone is not demonstrated in PFEIFFER Method?

A. Occipital Bone

B. Frontal Bone

C. Parietal Bone

D. None of the Above

20. What method can you demonstrate the pars petrosa at or just below the inferior

orbital rim to see the entire orbital margin?

A. Caldwell Method

B. Towne Method

C. Haas Method

D. Rhese Method

21. Is a procedure used for acutely injured shoulder still in a sling without abduction?

A. VELPEAU

B. ALTSCHUL

C. BLONDEAU

D. CAHOON

22. What CR angle is employed in PA Projection, if you see the pars petrosa at or just

below the inferior orbital rim to see the entire orbital margin?

A. 10 degrees caudally

B. 15 degrees caudally

C. 20 degrees caudally

D. 20 degrees cephalad
23. What is the Central Ray Angle of SMV of the cranial base?

A. 15 degrees

B. 30 degrees

C. Depends on the position of the IOML

D. Depends on the position of the head

24. What will be demonstrated if we use OML 10 degrees?

A. Dorsum Sellae and Posterior Clinoid Process is in the shadow of the foramen

magnum

B. Tuberculum Sellae, Anterior Clinoid Process and Dorsum Sellae is above the

shadow of the foramen magnum

C. Dorsum and Tuberculum Sellae, Posterior and Anterior Clinoid Process is

projected through the fronal bone

D. Petrous Pyramid is in the Antral Floor

25. What will be demonstrated if we use IOML 30 degrees?

A. Dorsum Sellae and Posterior Clinoid Process is in the shadow of the foramen

magnum

B. Tuberculum Sellae, Anterior Clinoid Process and Dorsum Sellae is above the

shadow of the foramen magnum

C. Dorsum and Tuberculum Sellae, Posterior and Anterior Clinoid Process is

projected through the fronal bone

D. Petrous Pyramid is in the Antral Floor

26. What will be demonstrated if we use OML 30 degrees and IOML 37 degrees?

A. Dorsum Sellae and Posterior Clinoid Process is in the shadow of the foramen

magnum

B. Tuberculum Sellae, Anterior Clinoid Process and Dorsum Sellae is above the

shadow of the foramen magnum

C. Dorsum and Tuberculum Sellae, Posterior and Anterior Clinoid Process is

projected through the fronal bone

D. Petrous Pyramid is in the Antral Floor

27. What is the reference point of the lateral of the Sella Turcica?

A. point 3/4 inch (1.9 cm) anterior and 3/4 inch (1.9 cm) superior to the EAM

B. 2 inches (5 cm) superior to the EAM

C. point 1 1/2 inches (3.8 cm) below the external occipital protuberance (inion)

and to exit approximately 1 1/2 inches (3.8 cm) superior to the nasion

D. point 3/4 inch (1.9 cm) anterior to the level of the EAM

28. What landmark is used for Caldwell method?

A. Nasion

B. Glabella

C. Acanthion

D. Mentum
29. When viewing a submentovertical projection of the skull, which sinus appears

between the foramen magnum and the maxillary sinuses

A. Sphenoid

B. Ethmoid

C. Frontal

D. Parietal

30. What is imaged if the patient is not in supine the midsagittal plane forms an angle of

53 degrees to the plane of the IR and CR is perpendicular

A. Optic Foramen

B. Facial bone

C. Frontal bone

D. Zygomatic Arch

31. What is the reference point of the lateral of the eye?

A. 2 inches superior to the EAM
B. Outer canthus
C. Point ½ inch distal to the nasion
D. Halfway between the outer canthus and the
external auditory meatus
32. The following are skull topography use in lateral of the cranium, except
A. IOML
B. IPL
C. MSP
D. GML
33. What is the position of the patient head to image the mandibular ramus?
A. AP position
B. True lateral position
C. 30 degrees toward the IR
D. 45 degrees toward the IR
34. What is the position of the patient head to image the mandibular body?
A. AP position
B. True lateral position
C. 30 degrees toward the IR
D. 45 degrees toward the IR
35. What is the position of the patient head to image the mandibular Symphysis?
A. AP position
B. True lateral position
C. 30 degrees toward the IR
D. 45 degrees toward the IR
36. What is the Central Ray Angle of SMV of the Manible?

A. 15 degrees

B. 30 degrees

C. Depends on the position of the IOML

D. Depends on the position of the head

37. The following are demonstrated using Caldwell method, except

A. Cranium

B. Facial Bones

C. Frontal and anterior ethmoidal sinus

D. Sphenoid Strut
38. Towne Method is used to demonstrate which of the following?

A. Eye

B. Mandible

C. Zygomatic Arches

D. Jugular Foramina

39. What film is used to image the nasal bone?

A. Dental Film

B. Bite wing Film

C. 10 X 12 Film

D. 3 x 5 Film

40. The Following Bones form the orbit, except

A. Frontal Bone

B. Palatine Bone

C. Lacrimal Bone

D. Parietal Bone

41. Where is the optic foramen located in the image of Parietoorbital oblique projection?

A. In the distal and lateral superior of the projected orbit

B. In the Proximal and inferior quadrant of the projected orbit

C. In the inferior and lateral quadrant of the projected orbit

D. In the Superior and Medial quadrant of the projected orbit

42. What method is used for Hypoglossal Canal?

A. MAYER METHOD

B. MILLER METHOD

C. KEMP HARPER METHOD

D. CAHOON METHOD

43. The cranium develops rapidly in size and density during the first?
A. 5 to 7 years
B. 5 to 9 years
C. 4 to 6 years
D. 5 to 8 years
44. Where is the Petrous Pyramid located in PA Axial (Caldwell Method) 20 degrees?
A. Lower Thirdof the Orbit
B. Upper Third of the Orbit
C. Inferior Rim of the Orbit
D. Filling the Orbit
45. What is the degree rotation of the head for lateral of the cranium, if the patient is not in
lateral of prone positions?
A. 90 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 25 to 30 degrees
D. 45 degrees
46. What central ray would you use if the patient can depress the chin?

A. Below 30 degrees

B. 30 degrees

C. 37 degrees

D. Above 37 degrees
47. What is the Best procedure for Sella Turcica demonstrated through the frontal

bone?

A. Caldwell Method

B. Towne Method

C. Lateral

D. SMV

48. What Calvaria Bone is demonstrated in Hirtz Modification?

a. Occipital Bone b. Frontal Bone

c. Parietal Bone d. None of the Above

49. What Method is used for Spheoid Strut?

A. Lysholm Method

B. Hough Method

C. Kemp-harper Method

D. Valdini Method

50. If the patient has cleft palate, What is the Central ray for Haas Method?

A. 30 degrees Caudad

B. 37 degrees Caudad

C. 25 degrees Cephalad

D. 25 degrees Caudad
(SPECIAL PROCEDURE WITH CONTRAST)

1.Which of the following examination/s is/are used when pancreatic disease is

suspected?
1. Double-contrast GI examination
2. Computed tomography
3. Needle biopsy
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the Above
2. Variceal filling is more complete during increased venous pressure, which may be
applied by:
1. Full inspiration
2. Valsalva maneuver
3. Full expiration
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the Above
3. Which of the following projections best demonstrate the pyloric canal and duodenal
bulb of asthenic or hyposthenic patients?
A. PA projection
B. PA axial projection
C. PA oblique projection
D. AP Oblique Projection
4. Which of the following structures is/are demonstrated in thee recumbent right-lateral
position?
1. Duodenal loop
2. Right retrogastric space
3. Duodenojejunal junction
4. Left retrogastric space
A. 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the Above
5. Which of the following projection demonstrate the organ or organs involved in, and
the location and extent of any gross hernia protrusion through the diaphragm?
A. AP projection
B. AP oblique projection
C. PA oblique projection
D. Lateral projection
6. This technique was developed for the purpose of applying greater intraabdominal
pressure than is provided by body angulation alone thereby ensuring more consistent
results in demonstration of small, sliding gastroesophageal herniations through the
esophageal hiatus:
A. Gordon method
B. Wolf method
C. Gugliatini method
D. Welin technique
7. In serial and mucosal studies of stomach and duodenum, which of the following
statements is not true regarding the use of pneumatic paddle?
A. It is used to demonstrates compression study of pyloric endn of the stomach
and the duodenal bulb
B. It is used to demonstrates noncompression study of pyloric endn of the
stomach and the duodenal bulb
C. The paddle is fluoroscopically positioned over the area of the pyloric
sphincter and duodenal bulb
D. Radiographs are obtained with pneumatic paddle inflated and deflated
8. The Wolf Method utilizes which of the following central ray angulation?
A. 35-45 degrees cephalad
B. 20-25 degrees caudad
C. 10-20 degrees caudad
D. 20-25 degrees cephalad
9. Which of the following statements is not true regarding enteroclysis?
A. The contrast medium is injected through a Bilbao or Sellink tube
B. Enemas are recommended as preparation for the procedure
C. It is the injection of nutrient or medicinal liquid into the bowel
D. The barium is instilled at a rate of approximately 100 ml/minute
10. In radiography of urinary system, preliminary radiography can usually demonstrate:
1. Position and mobility of the kidneys
2. Size and shape of the kidneys
3. Collecting systems
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the Above
11. Contrast studies of urinary system wherein the contrast solution is introduced into
the vein by rapid injection:
A. Infusion nephrotomography
B. Excretory urography
C. Pyelography
D. Bolus injection nephrotomography
12. A procedure pertaining to the examination of bladder and to include inspection of
the lower ureters:
A. Cystography
B. Cystourethrography
C. Pyelography
D. Cystoureterography
13. The greatest concentration of contrast medium in the kidneys normally occurs how
many minutes after injection?
A. 2-8 minutes
B. 3-20 minutes
C. 15-20 minutes
D. 5-10 minutes
14. Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate the lower ends of the
ureters?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Trendelenburg 15-20o
D. Lateral
15. Which of the following positions is recommended for demonstration of the
ureteropelvic junction in the presence of hydronephrosis?
A. RPO
B. Lateral
C. Dorsal decubitus
D. Supine
16. This position allows the more posteriorly placed upper calyces to fill more readily:
A. Prone
B. Trendelenburg 15-20o
C. Dorsal decubitus
D. Supine
17. This is primarily performed to evaluate renal hypertension and also useful in
delineating renal cysts and renal tumors:
A. Nephrotomography
B. Ureteral compression
C. IVU
D. Percutaneous renal puncture
18. Which of the following positions is used for serial studies of pyloric canal and
duodenal bulb?
A. RAO
B. LAO
C. LPO
D. RPO
19. During placement of compression device in Wolf Method, the patient assumes a:
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Modified trendelenburg position
C. Modified knee-chest position
D. Fowler position
20. When asthenic patient is placed in supine position, the intestinal loops do not move
superiorly and the fundic portion is not filled with barium. To fill in the fundic portion, the
patient must be placed in:
A. Full trendelenburg position
B. Partial trendelenburg position
C. Trendelenburg 25-30o
D. Trendelenburg 10-15o and slightly RPO
21. Which of the following projection is used to “open up” the high, horizontal stomach
of hypersthenic patient?
A. Gordon Method
B. Gugliantini Method
C. PA projection
D. PA axial projection
22. Which of the following projection is used to “open up” the high, horizontal stomach
of hypersthenic patient?
A. Gordon Method
B. Gugliantini Method
C. PA projection
D. PA axial projection
23. Which of the following positions provides unobstructed image of lower ureters and
vesicoureteral orifice areas?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Trendelenburg 15-20o
D. Lateral
24. This method is useful for evaluation of pancreatic pathology such as pancreatic
mass, pancreatic cancer and pancreatitis:
A. Hampton
B. Gugliantini
C. Poppel
D. Wolf
25. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is confirmed during:
A. Fluoroscopy
B. Radiography
C. Endoscopy
D. Tomography
26. This position makes it easy to screen both kidneys and ureters for abnormal anterior
displacement:
A. Prone
B. Trendelenburg 15-20o
C. Dorsal decubitus
D. RPO position
27. Which of the following projections of the chest demonstrates interlobar effusion?
A. PA
B. AP
C. AP axial projection
D. Lateral projection
28. Which of the following projections of the chest demonstrates heart, aorta and left-
sided pulmonary lesions?
A. PA upright
B. Right lateral
C. Left lateral
D. PA axial
29. Which of the following positions demonstrates the maximum area of the left lung
closest to the IR?
A. LPO
B. RPO
C. LAO
D. RAO
30. What structures lie parallel to the IR when the patient is placed in LPO position
during IVU:
1. Right kidney
2. Right ureter
3. Left kidney
4. Left ureter
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
31. Which of the following parts of the colon lies most superiorly?
A. Hepatic flexure
B. Transverse colon
C. Ascending colon
D. Splenic flexure
32. Which of the following position is utilized to differentiate gallstones from renal stones
or calcified mesenteric lymph nodes if needed:
A. LAO
B. RAO
C. Right lateral
D. Left lateral
33. Which of the following position is required to separate the superimposition of the
gallbladder and the vertebrae in exceptionally thin patients and to place the long axis of
a transversely placed gallbladder parallel with the plane of IR?
A. LAO
B. RAO
C. Right lateral
D. Left lateral
34. Which of the following position is/are utilized to demonstrate stones that are heavier
than bile?
1. Right lateral decubitus
2. Left lateral decubitus
3. Upright
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. AOTA
35. Which of the following position is/are utilized to demonstrate stones that are lighter
than bile?
1. Right lateral decubitus
2. Left lateral decubitus
3. Upright
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. AOTA
36. Chiba (“skinny”) needle is used in which of the following biliary tract examination?
A. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
B. IV cholangiography
C. Cholangiography
D. Postoperative cholangiography
37. This procedure is seldom performed because of a relatively higher incidence of
reactions to the contrast medium and the availability of other diagnostic procedure:
A. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
B. IV cholangiography
C. Cholangiography
D. Postoperative cholangiography
38. This is a procedure used to diagnose biliary tract and pancreatic pathology and a
useful diagnostic method when the biliary ducts are not dilated and when no obstruction
exists at the ampulla:
A. PTC
B. ERCP
C. IV Cholangiography
D. T-tube Cholangiography
39. This position best demonstrates the "up" medial side of the ascending colon and the
lateral side of the descending colon when the colon is inflated with air:
A. Ventral decubitus
B. Right lateral decubitus
C. Left lateral decubitus
D. Dorsal decubitus
40. This position best demonstrates the "up" posterior portions of the colon and is most
valuable in double contrast examination:
A. Ventral decubitus
B. Right lateral decubitus
C. Left lateral decubitus
D. Dorsal decubitus
41. This position best demonstrates the "up" lateral side of the ascending and the
medial side of the descending colon when the colon is inflated with air:
A. Ventral decubitus
B. Right lateral decubitus
C. Left lateral decubitus
D. Dorsal decubitus
42. This techniques allow the contrast medium to enter the kidney in the normal
direction of blood flow:
A. Retrograde filling
B. Intravenous filling
C. Infusion filling
D. Antegrade filling
43. This techniques allow the contrast medium to enter the kidney against the normal
direction of blood flow:
A. Retrograde filling
B. Intravenous filling
C. Infusion filling
D. Antegrade filling
44. The normal creatinine level:
A. 0.5 to 2.0 mg/100 mL
B. 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL
C. 10 to 20 mg/100 mL
D. 8 to 25 mg/100 mL
45. The renal parenchyma or the nephrons and collecting tubes are best visualized by
performing _____ after introduction of contrast medium:
A. Radiography
B. Fluoroscopy
C. Tomography
D. Pyelography
46. Which of the following radiographic procedures is/are performed to demonstrate the
architecture of the maternal pelvis and to compare the size of the fetal head with the
size of the maternal bony pelvic outlet?
1. Pelvimetry
2. Fetal cephalometry
3. Fetography
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. AOTA
47. The radiographic examination in which the walls of the uterus are investigated to
locate the placenta in cases of suspected placenta previa:
A. Fetography
B. Vaginography
C. Placentography
D. Hysterosalphingography
48. This procedure involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a
uterine canal and is performed to investigate the patency of uterine tubes in patients
who have been unable to conceive:
A. Fetography
B. Vaginography
C. Placentography
D. Hysterosalphingography
49. The terms used to denote radiologic examinations of the female pelvic organs by
means of intraperitoneal gas insufflation, EXCEPT:
A. Pelvic pneumography
B. Hysterosalphingography
C. Gynecography
D. Pangynecography
50. Colcher-Sussman Method is employed in which of the following examinations:
A. Pelvimetry
B. Fetal cephalometry
C. Hysterosalphingography
D. Placentography

END