17

23. Determine integral solutions of the Diophantine equation

x−y y−z z−w w−x
+ + + =0
x+y y+z z+w w+x
(joint problem with Emeric Deutsch, Polytechnic University of Brooklyn).
Solution. It follows by inspection that x = z and y = w are two solutions. To find
the remaining solution(s), we multiply the given equation by the least common
denominator to give
P (x, y, z, w) = 0,
where P is the 4th degree polynomial in x, y, z, w which is skew symmetric in x
and z and also in y and w. Hence,

P (x, y, z, w) = (x − z)(y − w)Q(x, y, z, w),

where Q is a quadratic polynomial. On calculating the coefficient of x2 in P , we

get 2z(y − w). Similarly the coefficient of y 2 is −2w(x − z), so that

P (x, y, z, w) = 2(x − z)(y − w)(xz − yw).

Hence, the third and remaining solution is given by xz = yw.

24. For x, y, z > 0, prove that
 x
1 1
(i) 1 + ≥ 1+ ,
(x + 1) x(x + 2)
(ii) [(x + y)(x + z)]x [(y + z)(y + x)]y [(z + x)(z + y)]z ≥ [4xy]x [4yz]y [4zx]z .
Solution. Both inequalities will follow by a judicious application of the weighted
arithmetic-geometric mean inequality (W–A.M.–G.M.) which for three weights is
 a+b+c
a b cau + bv + cw
u v w ≤ ,
a+b+c
where a, b, c, u, v, w ≥ 0.
(i) The inequality can be rewritten in the more attractive form
 x  x+1
1 1
1+ ≤ 1+ ,
x x+1
and which now follows by the W–A.M.–G.M.
x (
)x+1  x+1
1 + x 1 + x1

1 1
1+ ≤ = 1+ .
x 1+x x+1

(ii) Also, the inequality here can be rewritten in the more attractive form
 z+x  x+y  y+z
2x 2y 2z
≤ 1.
z+x x+y y+z