1.

All of the following occur during mitotic (M) phase except

A) cytokinesis.
B) condensing of chromosomes
C) duplication of centrosome
D) formation of mitotic spindle
E) separation of sister chromatids

2. Which event will occur next in a eukaryote cell that is ending prophase and entering
prometaphase?
A) Chromosomes begin to condense
B) The nuclear envelope fragments into vesicles
C) Spindle microtubules attach to the kinetochores of chromosomes.
D) Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate.
E) Sister chromatids begin to separate.

3. The cell cycle control protein that shows fluctuation in enzymatic activity during cell cycle
is
A) tubulin
B) Cdk
C) actin
D) cyclin
E) PDGF

4. When kinetochores are not attached to spindle microtubules, they send a molecular signal
that delays
A) prophase
B) prometaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) cytokinesis

5. Which of the following is wrong concerning cancer cells?

A) Cancer cells can grow to a density higher than normal cells.
B) Cancer cells can divided even though they are not attached to a substratum
C) Cancer cells may not need growth factors to grow and divide.
D) Cancer cells may invade surrounding tissues and metastasize.
E) Cancer cells do not need cyclins and Cdks for cell division.

6. Which of the following is true concerning animal sexual life cycle?

A) Gametes are produced from haploid cells by meiosis.
B) Gametes are produced from haploid cells by mitosis.
C) Gametes can divide by mitosis.
D) The only diploid stage is the single-celled zygote.
E) The zygote produces somatic cells by mitosis.

7. Meiosis Il produces 4 cells with chromosomes.

A) haploid, duplicated
B) haploid; unduplicated
C) diploid; duplicated
D) diploid; unduplicated

8. Synapsis and crossing over occur in

A) mitosis only
B) meiosis I only
C) meiosis Il only
D) mitosis and meiosis I
E) mitosis and meiosis Il

9. The condition known as cri-du-chat syndrome in humans has a genetic constitution

designated as
A) 45. X
B) 46, 50
C) heteroplasmy
D) trinloidv
E) trisomy

10. The condition that exists when an organism gains or loses one or more chromosomes
but not a complete haploid set is known as
A) polyploidy
B) euploidy
C) aneuploidy
D) trploidy
E) trisomy

11. Which of the following human disorders that appear to be transmitted

extrachromosomally (outside the nucleus)?
A) Hemophilia A
B) Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy
C) Achondroplasia I
D) Cystic fibrosis
E) Sickle cell disease

12. Klinetelter syndrome in humans, which leads to underdeveloped testes and sterility, is
caused by which chromosomal condition?
A) 47, XXY
B) 47, 21+
C) 45, X
D) 47, XYY
E) triploidy

13. A recessive gene for red-green color blindness is located on the X chromosome in
humans. Assume that a woman with normal vision (her father is color blind) marries a
color-blind male. What is the likelihood that this couple's first son will be color blind?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

14. Assume that a cross is made between AaBb and aabb plants and that all the offspring
are either AaBb or aabb. These results are consistent with
A) A B linkage
B) alternation of generations
C) codominance
D) incomplete dominance
E) hemizygosity

15. What aspect of chromosome behavior most clearly accounts for Mendel's law of
independent assortment?
A) Movement of sister chromatids to opposite poles at anaphase Il of meiosis
B) Movement of homologous chromosomes to opposite poles at anaphase l of meiosis
C) Crossing over between homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis
D) Replication of chromosomes prior to meiosis
E) Independent alignment of different homologous pairs on the metaphase I spindle

16. In Drosophila, the genes b, c, and sp are linked, the distances being b-c = 30 m.u and
c-sp =20 m.u. Which gene is in the middle?
A) b
B) c
C) sp
D) cannot be determined

17. The protein of T2 bacteriophage is labeled with 35S and the DNA with 32P. Where would
one detect most of the 32P if the T2 bacteriophage were allowed to infect the bacteria?
A) on the phage coat surrounding the 12 bacteriophage
B) on the membrane of the infected bacteria
C) inside the T bacteriophage capsid
D) inside the infected bacteria
E) The 32P would be equally distributed within the T2 bacteriophage and infected bacteria

18. In the polymerization of DNA, a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate

group of the nucleotide being added and of the last nucleotide in the polymer.
A) C6
B) the S' phosphate
C) a nitrogen from the nitrogen-containing base
D) the 3' OH

19. A DNA specimen that contains 30% guanine has thymine.

A) 15%
B)20%
C) 30%
D) 60%
E) The amount of thymine cannot be determined.
20. What was one of the pieces of evidence most critical to the discovery of DNA structure?
A) its composition of four different nucleotides
B) its mode of replication.
C) an X-ray diffraction pattern suggesting a double helix shape
D) the backbone containing sugar phosphate linkages.
E) the covalent bonding between different nucleotides

21. The two DNA strands are held together by

A) peptide bonds
B) dipole-dipole interaction
C) covalent bond
D) hydrogen bonds

22. Bacteria are grown in 15N(heavy) medium and then transferred to 14N(light) medium
and are allowed to replicate for 2 generations. The DNA is subsequently isolated and
centrifuged in a CSC12 gradient to yield what type of gradient band(s)?
A) one heavy band
B) one light band
C) one half-heavy (intermediate to heavy and light) band
D) one heavy and one half heavy band
E) one light and one half-heavy band

23. What is the function of Helicase?

A) adding a specific repeat sequence to the end of chromosome
B) clongating new DNA at a replication fork adding nucleotides to the existing chain C) It
joins Okazaki fragments together
D) unwinding of the double helix

24. What is the function of telomerase?

A) adding a specific repeat sequence to the end of chromosome
B) elongating new DNA at a replication for adding nucleotides to the existing chain
C) It joins Okazaki fragments together.
D) unwinding of the double helix

25. Which one about RNA is FALSE?

A) a RNA possess an anticodon
B) some tRNAs can recognize more than one kind of codon
C) tRNAs a produced in the nucleus
D) amino acid joined with tRNA by aminoacy|-RNA synthetase
E) AtRNAs can be processed by poly-A tail

26. Which enzyme elongates transcripts during transcription?

A) DNA polymerase
B) Spliceosomes
C) Ribozymes
D) RNA polymerase
E) DNA ligase
27. The termination signal during transcription in bacteria is
A) terminator
B) signal peptide
C) AAUAAA
D) TATA box
E) release factor

28. Mutation with a single nucleotide deleted caused

A) missense mutations
B) a basc-pair substitution
C) a frameshift mutation
D) an silent mutation

29. What causes an increased CAP activity in lac operon?

A) an increase in both glucose and cAMP
B) a decrease in both glucose and repressor
C) an increase in glucose and a decrease in cAMP
D) a decrease in glucose and an increase in cAMP
D) an decrease in both glucose and cAMP

30. Histone methylation leads to

A) increase transcription
B) decrease transcription
C) increase crossover
D) decrease crossover
D) increase RNA splicing

31. Which one about miRNAs is FALSE?

A) miRNAs are short RNA molecules
B) miRNAs silence the expression of specific RNAs
C the precursors of miRNAs are double stranded
D) the effect of siRNA are similar to mRNA
E) miRNAs are coding RNAs

32. Which one is a master regulator for muscle cell differentiation?

A) bicoid
B) MyoD
C) allolactose
D) Ras
E) p53

33. Which of the following descriptions for sequencing is incorre4?

A) Sanger sequencing is a deoxy chain termination method.
B) 2’ and 3’ hydroxyl were not found in modified nucleotides of Sanger sequencing.
C) Next-generation sequencing (NGS) is high-throughput technique compared
to Sanger sequencing
D) Sequencing by synthesis (SBS) in NGS is determined by pyrosequencing
E) Detection of light generation in NGS is helpful for sequencing
34. Which of the following descriptions is incorrect?
A) Gene cloning is a process to prepare gene-sized pieces of DNA in same copies
B) Bacteria (host) and their plasmids (cloning vectors) are general features of gene cloning.
C) Gene cloning is useful for two basic purposes: to make many copies of, or amplify, a
particular gene and to create a protein product.
D) Plasmids are small linear DNA molecules that replicate separately from the bacterial
chromosome.
E) Transgenic organisms are made by introducing genes from one species into the genome
of another organism.

35. Which of the following descriptions is incorrect.

A) TAGCTA
ATCGAT
The above double strand sequences are recognized as a cutting site for a restriction
enzyme.
B) Different restriction enzymes recognize different restriction sites
C) Restriction enzyme cuts the hydrogen bonds in the DNA backbone to generate restriction
Iraginch
D) The bond cutting by restriction enzyme can be linked by DNA ligase
E) Vector and insert treated with the same restriction enzyme to form recombinant DNA

36. Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its
use?
A) RNA interference (RNAi) uses synthetic protein molecules to inhibit target protein
expression
B) Expression vector containing a highly active prokaryotic promoter can express cloned
eukaryotic gene in bacteria host
D) cDNA cunctation needs both reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase
E) Short molecules of DNA/RNA/protein in electrophoresis run faster.

37. Which of the following statements for biotechnology is incorrect

A) In situ hybridization uses fluorescent (FISH) method is based on the nucleic acid
hybridization.
B) A complementary DNA (cDNA) library represents only part of the genome (exons).
C) Plant cells are totipotent which mean that it can generate a complete new organism from
cells.
D) Induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells are generated from skin fibroblast cells
E) A stem cell of animal is a specialized cell that can reproduce itself indefinitely.

38. Which statement for clone animal is incorrect

A) The first cloned cat, called Carbon Copy
B) The Carbon Copy is generated from its father cat.
C) X inactivation in the embryo of Carbon Copy is random.
D) Cloned animals do not always look or behave exactly the same.
E) Dolly is a lamb cloned from an adult sheep by nuclear transplantation

39. Which is an incorrect statement about STRs (Short Tandem repeats)?

A) STR is a type of DNA fingerprint
B) The number of repeats is different from person to person
C) They occur in specific regions of the genome
D) PC is used to amplify particular STRs.
E) They are tandemly repeated units of 6- to 10 nucleotide sequences

40. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Restriction enzymes can be used to detect single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP).
B) SNPs are rarely directly involved in the disease; they are most often in coding regions of
the genome
C) Ti plasmid is the most commonly used vector for introducing new genes into plant cells
D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a cormon host bacterium for Ti plasmid.
E) GMO - genetically modified organisms