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MANIFESTING 90, MAFNIESTING 91, MANIFESTING 92, MANIFESTING 93, MANIFESTING 94,

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February/March 2017 | 9700/12

1. The diagram shows the ultrastructure of a typical animal cell. Which structure
synthesises and transports lipids?
A B C) Smooth ER D

2. A light microscope is used to observe two structures that are 200 nm apart. How far
apart are the structures when the magnification is changed from ×40 to ×400?
A 2μm B 20μm C 200nm D 2000nm

→ Nothing change because the molecule is the same


(IDK WHY I WAS TRYING TO COUNT IT IDIOT ME)

3. The diagram shows a stage micrometer scale viewed through an eyepiece containing a
graticule. The small divisions of the stage micrometer scale are 0.1 mm.

The stage micrometer scale is replaced by a slide of a plant cell.


What is the length of the nucleus in the plant cell?
A 0.8mm B 8μm C 25μm D 200μm
= 10 x 2.5 micrometer = 25

4. Some features of cells are listed.


1 cytoplasm
2 cell surface membrane
3 ribosomes
Which features are found in both animal and prokaryotic cells?
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

5. Which size of ribosomes is found in chloroplasts?


A 60S B 70S C 80S D 90

6. In which of these organelles is ATP synthesised?

A B C D) Chloroplast (plants) and Mitochondria


*Remember Golgi Body =Transport not Synthesis

7. A sample of milk is tested with Benedict’s solution. After boiling, a yellow color is
observed. Which conclusion is correct?
a. A high concentration of glucose is present.
b. A low concentration of sucrose is present.
c. No reducing sugars are present.
d. Reducing sugars are present.

8. The table shows some information about carbohydrate polymers. Which row describes
amylose?

A B C D
9. Which row about α-glucose and β-glucose molecules is correct?

A B C D

10. Some of the molecules found in animal tissues are grouped into three lists.
1 glucose, cholesterol, triglycerides, water
2 glycogen, antibodies, adenine, phospholipids
3 hemoglobin, carbon dioxide, mRNA, monosaccharides
Which lists include one or more molecules that always contain nitrogen atoms?
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

11. Hemoglobin consists of two α chains and two β chains. Approximately 5% of all humans
have one amino acid in the β chain that has been changed, affecting the structure and
stability of hemoglobin.

Which of the levels of protein structure could be changed in the hemoglobin of these
Humans?
A primary only
B primary and quaternary only
C primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary
D secondary, tertiary and quaternary only

12. Which row gives the correct description of both a collagen molecule and a collagen
fiber?

A B C D
13. The diagrams show the structures of two amino acids, each of which has two amines (–
NH2) groups.

A peptide bond is formed between the two amino acids. Which groups could form the peptide
bond?
A 1 and 4 B 1and 5 C 2 and 6 D 3 and 5

14. An enzyme was added to a small excess of its substrate. All variables were kept
constant.
A student was asked to sketch a graph to show how the concentration of the enzyme-
substrate complex changes over time.

Which graph shows this correctly?


=D
15. The table contains results recorded by a student from an investigation into the effect of
temperature on an enzyme-catalysed reaction. All other variables were
standardised.

What is the correct conclusion?


A 40 °C was the optimum temperature.
B The data for 50 °C was anomalous.
C The optimum temperature was between 30 °C and 50 °C.
D The optimum temperature was between 40 °C and 50 °C

16. 16 What is the correct range of measurements for the width of the cell surface
membrane?
A 0.5–1.0 nm B 5–10 nm C 50–100 nm D 0.5–1 μm

17. The cells in the roots of beetroot plants contain a red pigment.
When pieces of root tissue are soaked in cold water, some of the red pigment leaks out
of the cells into the water.

An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of temperature on the loss of red
pigment from the root cells. It was found that the higher the temperature of the water, the
higher the rate of loss of red pigment from the root cells.

Which of these statements could explain this trend?


1. Enzymes in the cells denature as the temperature increases, so the pigment can
no longer be used for reactions inside the cells and diffuses out.
2. As the temperature increases, the tertiary structure of protein molecules in the
cell surface membrane changes, increasing the permeability of the membrane.
3. Phospholipid molecules gain kinetic energy as temperature rises, increasing the
fluidity of the phospholipid bilayer and allowing pigment molecules to diffuse out
more easily.

A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 2only D) 3only


18. The cell surface membrane structure is described as a ‘fluid mosaic’. Which statement
describes the ‘mosaic’ part of the cell surface membrane?
A the different patterns that are obtained by the moving phospholipid molecules
B the random distribution of cholesterol molecules within the phospholipid bilayer
C the regular pattern produced by the phospholipid heads and membrane proteins
D the scattering of the different proteins within the phospholipid bilayer

19. The diagram shows two pathways, X and Y, through which molecules can diffuse across
a cell surface membrane.

Which row correctly shows


possible pathways for lipids,
water and glucose?

=A

20. Some stem cells divide and give rise to phagocytes. Where in the human body do these
stem cells divide?
1 blood
2 bone marrow
3 lymph nodes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 3 only

21. What is the correct sequence of stages in the mitotic cell cycle?
A G1 → G2 → mitosis → S → cytokinesis
B G1 → G2 → S → mitosis → cytokinesis
C G1 → S → G2 → mitosis → cytokinesis
D S → G1 → mitosis → G2 → cytokinesis
22. The enzyme telomerase repairs telomeres. It stops the telomeres from getting shorter
each time a chromosome is replicated. Telomerase is not normally active in human body
cells, but in some diseases, telomerase can be activated.

In which disease is the enzyme telomerase activated?


A cancer
B HIV/AIDS
C malaria
D myasthenia gravis

23. The statements describe events during the mitotic cell cycle.
1 Chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of the spindle.
2 Chromosomes arrange themselves at the equator of the spindle.
3 Chromosomes condense and the nuclear membrane disappears.
4 Centromeres divide.
What is the correct order of three of these events in the mitotic cell cycle?
A 2→3→4 B 3→2→4 C 3→4→2 D 4→2→1

24. Which statement about nitrogenous bases is correct?


A Adenine is a pyrimidine with a double ring structure.
B Cytosine is a purine with a double ring structure.
C Guanine is a purine with a single ring structure.
D Uracil is a pyrimidine with a single ring structure.

25. Rifampicin is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis.


It works by inhibiting RNA polymerase in bacteria.
Which of these processes will be directly inhibited by this antibiotic?
1 ATP synthesis
2 transcription
3 translation
A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

26. Meselson and Stahl investigated DNA in bacteria. They grew bacteria in a medium with
only heavy nitrogen, 15N, until all of the bacterial DNA contained only heavy nitrogen.
These bacteria were then moved from the heavy nitrogen medium and cultured in a
medium with only light nitrogen, 14N.
Some bacteria were collected from each of the next three generations and their DNA
was analyzed. Hybrid DNA contains both heavy and light nitrogen.

Which row shows the correct DNA of the first and third generations?

=B

27. The diagram shows the stages in the production of part of a polypeptide.

DNA nucleotide sequence template strand TACGACAATCGC

mRNA sequence AUGCUGUUAGCG

amino acid sequence met leu leu ala

Which feature of the triplet code is illustrated by the information given?


A) An amino acid can be coded for by more than one triplet.
B) The triplet code is non-overlapping and is only read in one direction.
C) The triplet code is universal for the DNA of all organisms.
D) There are some triplets that code for ‘start’ and ‘stop’.

28. Which combination of features is characteristic of a phloem sieve tube element as it


unloads into a sink?

=A

29. Which statements correctly describe transport pathways in dicotyledonous plants?


1. In the symplast pathway, water may move through intercellular spaces.
2. The symplast pathway may be blocked by the tonoplast.
3. In the apoplast pathway, water does not move through plasmodesmata.
4. The apoplast pathway may be blocked by the Casparian strip.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

30. The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant.

Which labeled structures transport mineral ions?

=A

31. Which feature of transport in plants is correct for both the xylem and phloem?
A) It is passive.
B) It occurs by mass flow.
C) It occurs from source to sink.
D) It occurs only in one direction.

32. What is the main function of a companion cell in phloem tissue?


A) providing cytoplasmic contact with the sieve tube element for loading
B) providing structural support for the sieve tube element
C) providing the nucleus for cell division in the phloem
D) providing the source of assimilates for storage
33. The contraction of the heart is coordinated through electrical impulses passing through
the cardiac muscle.
What is the correct order of part of the sequence of these impulses?
A right and left atria → atrioventricular node → Purkyne tissue → ventricular walls
B right and left atria → Purkyne tissue → ventricular walls → atrioventricular node
C right and left atria → sinoatrial node → atrioventricular node → ventricular walls
D sinoatrial node → right and left atria → Purkyne tissue → atrioventricular node

34. As blood flows from an artery to a vein, the thickness of the walls of the vessels
changes. Which bar chart shows these changes correctly?

art = artery
a = arterile (small artery)
c = capillary
v = venule (small vein)
vn = vein
=D

35. The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curves of hemoglobin from two species of
mammal, S and T.
Which statements could explain the difference in the oxygen dissociation curves of
species S and species T?
1) Species T has a lower hemoglobin concentration in its red blood cells
than species S.
2 The hemoglobin in species T has a lower affinity for oxygen than the hemoglobin in
species S.
3 Species T lives at higher altitudes than species S.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 only D 3 only

36. Which tissues may be found in bronchioles?


A cartilage, ciliated epithelium, glandular tissue
B ciliated epithelium, elastic fibres, smooth muscle
C elastic fibres, cartilage, smooth muscle
D smooth muscle, glandular tissue, cartilage

37. Which of these statements could describe the effect of carbon monoxide in cigarette
smoke?
1. It binds irreversibly to hemoglobin.
2. It causes mucus to accumulate in the bronchioles.
3. It results in more carbon dioxide being transported in the blood.
4. It temporarily increases the heart rate.

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

38. The global mortality figures for some diseases in 2002 are shown in the table.

How many millions of people died from viral


diseases listed in the table in 2002?
A 2.2 B 3.4 C 3.8 D 4.4

39. Which of the statements could describe both B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes?
1. They contain specific protein receptors in their cell surface membranes.
2. They differentiate into plasma cells.
3. They divide by mitosis.

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

40. Two people, G and H, were each given an injection to protect them against a particular
pathogen. One person was injected with antibodies. The other person was injected with
a vaccine.

The graph shows the concentrations of the antibody against this pathogen in the blood
of the two people, G and H, over a period of 20 days following the injection.

Which row correctly describes the type of


immunity shown by G and H?

=B
PAPER 2 (where we cry)

1. Fig. 1.1 is an electron micrograph of part of a eukaryotic cell.

A) State how it is possible to deduce that Fig. 1.1 is a transmission electron micrograph
and not a scanning electron micrograph.
= Because the image is not a 3D image and we can see the internal structure

B) Both the Golgi body and the rough endoplasmic reticulum are part of the network of
membranes inside cells.
Outline structural features are shown in Fig. 1.1 that identify G as the Golgi body and not
the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
= There are no dots on the structure (ribosomes), It’s a straight line that is closely
packed together and it’s not interconnected.

C) Calculate the actual diameter, X–Y, of the mitochondria labeled in Fig. 1.1.
Write down the formula that you will use to make your calculation. Give your answer to
the nearest whole nanometer (nm).
Formula → Actual Image Size = Image Size / Magnification

= Actual Image Size = 1 cm x 10,000,000 → 10^7 nm


= Actual Image Size = 10^7/47,000
= Actual Image Size = 213 nm

D) Many of the cell structures in Fig. 1.1 are surrounded by membranes. Membranes are
approximately 6 nm to 7 nm wide.

(i) Describe the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure. There is space below for a
diagram.

Simple Answer:
Structure is a phospholipids bilayers, having fatty acid tail core and protein that can
move within the bilayer.

The mosaic fluid membrane is a fluid (that easily move) the inner core of the membrane
is made up of fatty acid core, and the mosaic membrane provides protection and
transport nutrient in and out of the cell. It is arranged in a phospholipids bilayer and is
selectively permeable: The fluid mosaic membrane only lets the nonpolar molecule and
smaller molecular pass through the membrane and also has a protein channel that
allows specific material to

(ii) The inner membrane of the mitochondrial envelope is much less permeable than the
outer membrane. Suggest one way in which the structure of the inner membrane of the
mitochondrion may differ from that of the outer membrane to produce a less permeable
inner membrane.
Simple Answer:
Inner membrane might have closer packing of phospholipids as they are mostly
saturated.

Depending of a nature of a substance its transport / movement is dependent on either


transport protein or phospholipids, so hydrophilic or polar substance would be
transported by few types of transport protein. Non-polar substances would be
transported by phospholipids. the different between of this can cause a decrease in
permeability.

In case if the transport proteins in the membrane becomes less permeable to hydrophilic
substances, means there is fewer transport proteins. If membrane become less
permeable to hydrophobic substance means the phospholipids have a close packaging
due to fatty acid being saturated or no double carbon double bond.

2. The main cause of tuberculosis (TB) in humans is the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Most cases of the disease involve the lungs. The bacterium can enter cells and remain inactive
in a dormant state. However, the bacterium can become active to produce symptoms of the
disease.

In a person with active TB, the pathogen can be present in airborne droplets that are exhaled.
Generally, a healthy person who inhales these droplets has effective defense mechanisms in
the gas exchange system to prevent infection.

a) One example of a defense mechanism against pathogens in the gas exchange


system involves the action of macrophages.

(i) Describe the mode of action of a macrophage against a bacterial cell

= Macrophages recognize antigens of pathogen as a foreign substance (with receptors)


and engulf the pathogens by phagocytosis forming a phagocytic vesicles. These vesicle
will fuse with lysosome that contain digestive enzyme for disintegrating contents of
phagocytic vesicles

(ii) Sometimes M. tuberculosis survives within a macrophage instead of being destroyed


by the macrophage. Suggest one way in which M. tuberculosis may survive within a
macrophage.

= Because the pathogen is a bacteria which can develop a resistance to digestive


enzyme which will disturb the macrophages function, so the enzyme activity will be
sabotage by enzyme inhibitor, making the digestive enzyme from lysosome ineffective.
Hence, the macrophages can fail to destroy the bacteria
(b) A healthy person has other defense mechanisms in the gas exchange system to
prevent bacteria from entering cells. Describe these defense mechanisms and explain
how bacteria in inhaled air are prevented from entering cells of the gas exchange
system.

= The ciliated epithelium which consist of goblet cells, mucous gland and cilia is what
preventing bacteria to enter the gas exchange system.

The goblet cells will secrete mucus, which trap the pathogen
Which then the cilia will move the mucus from the gas exchange surface.
(c) In people with a weakened immune system, M. tuberculosis can infect other organs
and tissues, such as the kidneys and joints.

Suggest how the bacteria may spread from the lungs to other organs and tissues.

= Bacteria may use the person’s own transport system (lymphatic system and circulatory
system) so it can use a lymph or a blood plasma as a transport

(d) TB in humans can be caused by another species of bacterium, M. bovis.


State the mode of transmission of this pathogen to humans.

= It can be from drinking unpasteurized mild (raw milk) or eating meat from an animal
that is infected with the M.Bovis bacteria

(e) Rifampicin is one antibiotic that can be used to kill mycobacterial cells. Although
rifampicin is very effective at killing mycobacterial cells, it is often the first antibiotic to
which resistance develops.

Rifampicin binds to a section of RNA polymerase that has attached to the DNA template
strand.

Explain how binding to RNA polymerase allows rifampicin to kill mycobacterial cells.

= RNA Polymerase attaches to DNA templates, when it is supposed to build mRNA


during the transcription process and if the Rifampicin affects the transcription process
means it is preventing the transcription or the mRNA synthesis.

This means Rifampicin is inhibiting the protein synthesis and if the protein isn’t synthesis
means the protein metabolism would be effected that can eventually leads to cells death

Simple Answer
Rifampicin prevent mRNA synthesis by inhibiting proteins synthesis. Due to the lack of
protein metabolism is affected, cell might leads to death.
The standard treatment for TB continues for six months. Initially, four antibiotics are
prescribed. This is then reduced to two of the four antibiotics, rifampicin and isoniazid, if
the person responds to treatment.

A person with multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) does not respond to treatment with


rifampicin and isoniazid. The treatment for MDR-TB involves other antibiotics and can
last for up to 30 months.

Table 2.1 shows the number of reported cases of TB and MDR-TB in the South-East
Asia region between 2005 and 2014, as published by the World Health Organization
(WHO).

Table 2.1 shows that between


2005 and 2014 there is an
overall increase in the total number of reported cases for both TB and MDR-TB.

(f) Describe the differences between the trend in the total number of reported cases for
TB and the trend in the total number of reported cases of MDR-TB, as shown in Table
2.1.

= The general trend is both number is increasing, however in TB the number of cases in
2011 - 2013 is decreasing from 2,358,127 → 2,297,033 While the case in MDR-TB still
increase
The second difference is the number of cases in MDR-TB is increasing in much greater
rate than the TB

(g) Many social and economic factors need to be considered in the prevention and
control of MDR-TB. Outline three of these factors.
1. The Social Factor
The transmission cycle of MDR-TB needs to be broken down first, starting
with educating people about the transmission cycle, ways the antibiotic
can raise a resistance

2. Agriculture
Avoid using antibiotics on animal that is going to be eaten as that can
also increase immunity to the antibiotics.

3. The Economical Factor


If the MDR-TB does spread and the old antibiotic isn’t working anymore,
means the older antibiotics is ineffective, which means a new antibiotics
need to be made, which mean more cost

3. The unicellular fungus Kluyveromyces lactis is found in dairy products. It is a safe


microorganism to culture for the extraction of the enzyme lactase.

Lactase catalyzes the breakdown of lactose, a sugar found in milk. The reaction catalyzed by
lactase is summarized in Fig. 3.1.

(a) Describe the reaction that is catalysed by lactase. Use Fig 3.1 to help you. In your
answer, identify Y and product Z
= The reaction in here is hydrolysis because the glycosidic bond between the two
monosaccharides are broken down.

So the Y is the addition of Water (H2O) and the Z is Alpha glucose

(b) On a commercial scale, immobilised lactase can be used to produce lactose-free milk.

One of the products of the reaction shown in Fig. 3.1 acts as an inhibitor of lactase. This
is an example of product inhibition.

(i) Explain why product inhibition is useful in K. lactis when lactase is acting as an
intracellular enzyme, but can be a disadvantage when extracted lactase is used free in
solution for the production of lactose-free milk

= Activity in an intracellular enzymes should be limited to prevent damage to the cell


thats why product inhibition is useful for this matter, it prevents product accumulating
and causing damage.

So if the extracted lactase is not inhibited it would continue catalyzing, which will
continue to form Glucose, which wil damage a cell

Note:
Product inhibition → One of the product binds to an active site of the enzyme and
provides the formation of enzyme substrate, which means it can inhibit the action of
enzyme converting the substrate to the product

(ii) Suggest how using immobilised lactase for the production of lactose-free milk
helps to reduce the problem of product inhibition.

= Product inhibition is only allowed if its to come in contact with the enzyme, where as
using immobilize enzyme milk can passes over beads of enzyme and it can flow over the
beads.

So the product doesnt remain in the contact with the enzyme and it is collected after the
production, therefore it is unable to bind to enzyme to act as a inhibitor.

(iii) The first large-scale production of lactose-free milk with an immobilised enzyme
used lactase trapped in cellulose triacetate fibres.
Suggest one feature of cellulose triacetate that makes it useful as an immobilising
material.
= The cellulose tricitate function is to keep enzyme fixed in a certain position and not
letting it mixed with the product. Now because its also aided by the fact that the enzyme
couldn’t escape the cellulose tricitate because it didn’t digest it.

Soo the cellulose tricitate does not digested by lactose, which it how it keeps the enzyme
bound.
(c) When developing an enzyme-catalysed reaction for use in industry, the progress of the
reaction is studied.

Outline how the progress of an enzyme-catalysed reaction can be investigated


experimentally
Note: Progress of reaction is how the rate of production change with time

= To carry out the experiment we ned to observe the dependent variables (time taken for
appereance of product or the disappearance of reactant) and the independent variables
(factor taht affect enzyme activity e.g: temperature, pH).

After that plot a graph as time as the x-axis and product concentration as the y-axis

4 Fig. 4.1 is a diagram of a section through part of a young root.

(a) Describe the pathways by which water passes from the soil to the cells of the cortex
shown in Fig. 4.1

= Water move from the soil into the cells of cortex is carried by Osmosis. There is two
way of osmosis and that is Apoplast and Simplast pathway.

Apoplast Pathway:
Includes movement of water by seeping through cell wall without entering the cells
Simplast Pathway:
Include movement of water through the cytoplasm and crossing plasmodesmata.

(b) Fig. 4.1 shows the location where mineral ions in the soil enter the plant.

There is a greater density of mitochondria in cell X than in a cell of the root cortex.
With reference to the uptake and transport of mineral ions, suggest why there is a
greater density of mitochondria in cell X than in a cell of the root cortex.

= So cell X needs to take up ions from the soil against their concentration gradient by
active transport. This require energy that will be provided by mitochondria.

Whereas the root cortex cells doesnt need to do that so they have fewer mitochondria

5 (a) The sinoatrial node (SAN) and the atrioventricular node (AVN) are two regions of the heart.
Explain the role of the SAN and the role of the AVN in the cardiac cycle.

= SAN will send out excitation waves acting as pacemaker (setting up the speed of
contraction of the cardiac muscle during cylce)

AVN is conducting the purkyne fiber between the atria and ventricles that relayes the
impuls to ventricles after delaying it for 0.1 second allow time for the atria to empty or
ventricles to fill (preventing simultaneous contraction in atria and ventricles).

(b) Fig. 5.1 shows features that are observed in transverse sections of three types of
blood vessel.
(i) Complete Fig. 5.1 by stating the type of blood vessel indicated by D, E and F.
D → Vein
E → Artery
F → Capillary

(ii) The inner layer of the walls of D and E is composed of endothelial tissue.
List two structural features of endothelial tissue.
1. It has a smooth surface (reduces resistance to flow of blood)
2. One cell thick (single layer)

6. In a dividing cell, DNA replication occurs before mitosis.

(a) Steps in DNA replication are outlined in Fig. 6.1.


Complete Fig. 6.1 by filling in the gaps using the most appropriate terms.

1 Helicase enzyme allows the DNA double helix to unwind and the hydrogen bonds
between the two strands to break, exposing the four bases, A, T, C and G.

The names of these bases are:


A = Adenine
T = Thymine
C = Cytosine
G = Guanine

2 An enzyme molecule attaches to each of the two separated parental strands. The two
enzyme molecules move in opposite directions, each catalysing the formation of a new
strand of DNA. This enzyme is known as
= DNA Polymerase

3 DNA nucleotides the monomers of DNA, are free in the nucleus for the synthesis of
the new strands.

4 The bases of the DNA monomers form hydrogen bonds with the bases on each
separated parental strand of DNA, according to the rules of
= Coplimantory base pairing

5 One DNA strand is synthesised continuously and the other is synthesised in


sections known as Okazaki fragments. The fragments are joined by an enzyme called
= DNA liagase
which catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bonds.
6 The result of replication is two DNA molecules, each one containing an original
parental strand and a newly synthesised strand. This type of replication is described as
= Semi conservative (replication)

(b) Fig. 6.2 is a photomicrograph of root tip cells at different stages in the cell cycle.

A cell in interphase is labelled.

(i) Complete Fig. 6.2 by naming the stage of mitosis shown in each of cells J, K and L in
Fig. 6.2.
J = Metapahse
K = Prophase
L = Telphase

(ii) State one feature of the cell in interphase, visible in Fig. 6.2, that shows this cell is not in
early interphase.
= Early interphase → cell in G1 phase going through the process
Because the cell is a large cell, if its still in early phase it should not be this large.

(iii) Describe the stage of mitosis shown in cell J.


= The chromosome are alignes along the equator of spindle fiber. The sister
chromatids are joined at the centromere
MTOC move to the opposite of the end of the cells

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