QUESTION 1: What colour is Mary's coat?

A. yellow
B. brown
C. black
D. blue
QUESTION 2: What did the woman repair?
A. shelf
B. bed
C. desk
D. chair
QUESTION 3: What are they going to buy for Pam?
A. candies
B. a plant
C. a book
D. some chocolates
QUESTION 4: Where will the friends meet?
A. at the station
B. in the clothes shop
C. in the snack bar
D. outside the cinema
QUESTION 5: Which sport will the boy do soon at the centre?
A. swimming
B. waterskiing
C. diving
D. sailing
QUESTION 6: What can't the woman find?
A. screwdriver
B. hammer
C. knife
D. paintbrush
QUESTION 7: What is the weather forecast for tomorrow?
A. foggy and windy
B. very hot and dry
C. sunny and light shower
D. heavy rain
QUESTION 8: What did the boy buy?
A. orange juice, bread and tomatoes
B. orange juice, bread and newspaper
C. orange juice and bread
D. orange juice and tomatoes
QUESTION 9: What is Kate's health problem?

A. She has stomachache.

B. He has coughs.
C. She has headache.
D. She has toothache.
QUESTION 10: What does Kate's problem affect her classmates?
A. It makes them excited.
B. It makes them annoyed.
C. It makes them happy.
D. It makes them funny.
QUESTION 11: What did Kate have last year?
A. She had headache.
B. She had stomachache.
C. She had coughs.
D. She had a fall off her bike.
QUESTION 12: What does Kate have now, too?
A. She has toothache.
B. She has temperature.
C. She has backache.
D. She has headache.
QUESTION 13: Why does the man want to gout out?
A. Because he feels hot staying at home.
B. Because he feels bored staying at home.
C. Because he feels cold staying at home.
D. Because he feels safe staying at home.
QUESTION 14: Why does the woman want to stay at home?
A. Because she has stomach ache.
B. Because she feels tired.
C. Because she has toothache.
D. Because she has coughs.
QUESTION 15: Why doesn't the woman want to watch an Italian film?
A. Because she's afraid she will fall asleep watching it.
B. Because she is serious about it.
C. Because she is short of money.
D. Because she has stomachache.
QUESTION 16: Why doesn't the woman want to watch a Robert de Niro?
A. Because she doesn't want to watch it the second time.
B. Because she feels too busy to watch it.
C. Because she doesn't want to watch it the third time.
D. Because she feels too serious to watch it.
QUESTION 17: What does the girl think about a good holiday?
A. It may be very expensive.
B. It may be expensive.
C. It may be cheap.
D. It may be very cheap.
QUESTION 18: Why doesn't the boy want to walk?
A. Because he finds it hard to do it.
B. Because he feels too hot to do it.
C. Because he doesn't like hard work.
D. Because she doesn't like the sounds of people walking.
QUESTION 19: What does the girl think about the food in Youth Hostels?
A. It is comfortable.
B. It is good.
C. It is clean and cheap.
D. It is sometimes good.
QUESTION 20: What does the boy decide to do in the end?
A. leave home.
B. sell his home.
C. go home.
D. enjoy his holiday home.
QUESTION 21: What do users have to pay for?
A. the right to play the fully-formed game
B. extra features supporting the game
C. special jewelry to give other players
D. more turns to play the game
QUESTION 22: What was true about the first Angry Birds?
A. It was exceptionally well-received.
B. It was released 10 years before the 2nd version.
C. It was totally free to download.
D. It was among the most successful games.
QUESTION 23: Who is most probably Jon Norris?
A. a game reviewer
B. a game player
C. a game tester
D. a game developer
QUESTION 24: What is meant by “Gems” in the game?
A. a virtual bonus achieved by players
B. a real present to give player fellows
C. a name of a character in the game
D. the final stage of the game
QUESTION 25: Which aspect of the game is the show mainly about?
A. its attraction
B. its improvement
C. its criticisms
D. its developers
QUESTION 26: Who are mainly the victims of malaria?
A. poor people in South Africa
B. people without Mosquirix injection
C. part of African kids under 5
D. people in sub-tropical countries

QUESTION 27: Who are eligible for Mosquirix vaccine?

A. tourists to sub-Saharan Africa
B. scientists and African children
C. African children
D. only those in 7 African countries
QUESTION 28: What is implied about the injection?
A. It is costly due to late application.
B. In the future, it will be effective for babies.
C. It is effective for anyone over 17 months.
D. Its full effect is enabled by a booster shot.
QUESTION 29: Why are Bill and Melinda Gates mentioned?
A. They are visitors without vaccine to the disease area.
B. They are the sponsors of the injection project.
C. They are the sponsors of one of 11 research centres.
D. They are sponsors of poor African children.
QUESTION 30: What is mainly discussed in the lecture?
A. the mechanism of the vaccine
B. scientists’ opinions of the injection
C. the development process of the vaccine
D. the effectiveness of the vaccine
QUESTION 31: What can be found in the scientific journal “Nature”?
A. cheese-making origin in northern Europe
B. Polish ancient cheese-making technology
C. human trace in northern Europe years ago
D. archaeological evidence of pottery vessels
QUESTION 32: What is the clearest trace of cheese-making?
A. the residual of milk and cattle
B. remains of an ancient people group
C. some five-thousand-year-old records
D. the remains of broken pottery
QUESTION 33: What is meant by “lactose intolerant” among Neolithic people?
A. Milk with lactose upset their digestion.
B. It prevented them from consuming dairy food.
C. It was the reason for their cheese invention.
D. They didn’t like milk with lactose in it.
QUESTION 34: What can be inferred about cheese?
A. There is a time to make the best cheese.
B. France is home to the best cheese.
C. Traditional and Neolithic cheese are made differently.
D. Cheese is stored to use for a very long time.
QUESTION 35: What can be the title of this show?
A. Discovery of cheese origin
B. Variety of cheese
C. History of cheese
D. Best cheese in the world
QUESTION 1: Which of the following is said about the idea that blood types and
personalities are related?
A. It was originally developed by a Japanese scientist.
B. It is more popular in Asian countries than in the West.
C. It is used in schools and workplace to categorize people.
D. Its accuracy has been supported with scientific data.
QUESTION 2: What does the word “it” in line 3 refer to?
A. blood
B. school
 C. theory
D. personality
QUESTION 3: What is learnt about blood type A personality?
A. They cannot perform in jobs that require frequent contact with others.
B. They often suppress their own feelings to get on well with others.
C. Trying to communicate with others make them mentally exhausted.
D. They suffer from anxiety as a result of their inability to communicate.
QUESTION 4: Which blood type personality is intuitive and self-confident?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type O
D. Type AB
QUESTION 5: Which blood type personality does not let emotion affect their assessment?
A. Type B
B. Type AB
C. Type O
D. Type A
QUESTION 6: What is shared between blood type A personality and blood type B
personality?
A. They prioritize others’ needs.
B. They are naturally outgoing.
C. They can become great leaders.
D. They get on well with people.
QUESTION 7: What can the word “deciphering” in line 22 be best replaced by?
A. cracking
B. discovering
C. translating
D. feeling
QUESTION 8: Which of the following sections defines an unfamiliar term?
A. Lines 28-29
B. Lines 14-15
C. Lines 19-20
D. Lines 6-7
QUESTION 9: What is NOT true about blood type O personality?
A. They use willpower to achieve what they want.
B. They are down-to-earth and often follow the rules.
C. Their unpopularity with people makes them lonely.
D. Their physical strength gives them advantages in sports.
QUESTION 10: Which of the following can serve best as the title of this passage?
A. What your blood type can tell you
B. The blood type personality traits
C. The blood type personality myth
D. Applications of blood group system
QUESTION 11: When do westerners typically do their volunteering?
A. Between leaving school and starting university
B. Between secondary school and upper secondary school
C. While looking for a suitable job
D. After graduating from university
QUESTION 12: Which of the following would best describe the present attitude towards
volunteering abroad?
A. Changing
B. Frightened
C. Disapproving
D. Frustrated
QUESTION 13: What is “More often than not” in line 8 closest in meaning to?
A. Most of the time
B. All the time
C. For a time
D. Sometimes
QUESTION 14: According to the writer, which of the following statements is true about
volunteering abroad?
A. There are usually purposeful placements in volunteering abroad for profit aims.
B. The need for volunteers in developing countries has grown for the past few years.
C. The nature of volunteering abroad is claimed to make money for profit.
D. Commercial purposes may be hidden under the claim of humane purposes of volunteering.
QUESTION 15: What does the word “These” in line 13 refer to?
A. Studies on voluntourism
B. Drawbacks of voluntourism
C. Advantages of voluntourism
D. Demands for voluntourism
QUESTION 16: What are children being kept in inadequate living conditions for?
A. To get voluntary contributions from visitors
B. To reflect their real living standards
C. To show the poverty of these places
D. To legally implement children trafficking
QUESTION 17: According to the passage, what does Mark Watson expect to see regarding
volunteering abroad?
A. A positive transformation in volunteers’ attitudes
B. A sense of realism for the volunteers abroad
C. A good support from potential volunteers
D. An acknowledgement from potential volunteers
QUESTION 18: What message does Mark Watson want to pass to future volunteers through
the idea of digging wells?
A. Volunteers cannot do anything worthy if they only do unskilled work.
B. Volunteering abroad requires thinking about what is actually needed.
C. Would-be volunteers should think more about doing unskilled work.
D. It is not rational to think that volunteering abroad is to help the poor.
QUESTION 19: According to Kate Stefanko, volunteering abroad can be valuable if
volunteers satisfy the following criteria EXCEPT ______.
A. perfectly matched
B. suitably qualified
C. thoroughly prepared
D. carefully selected
QUESTION 20: Which of the following sentences would best complete the last paragraph?
A. This process may lead to significant changes in voluntourism to eliminate possible harm to
developing countries.
B. The whole process can reveal a real face to poverty and vulnerability, and shift
consciousness toward the understanding of a shared humanity.
C. That is to say, volunteering abroad mainly requires the youth enthusiasm if they want to
make a real contribution.
D. A sense of humanity and sympathy is highly appreciated to make volunteering abroad
worthwhile in every case.
QUESTION 21: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Regulatory activity by state governments
B. The participation of state governments in railroad, canal, and turnpike construction
C. States' rights versus federal rights
D. The roles of state and federal governments in the economy of the nineteenth century
QUESTION 22: The word "effect" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to?
A. influence
B. restraint
C. value
D. argument
QUESTION 23: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as areas that involved
state governments in the nineteenth century EXCEPT?
A. higher education
B. mining
C. manufacturing
D. banking
QUESTION 24: The word "distinct" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to?
A. separate
B. innovative
C. provocative
D. alarming
QUESTION 25: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the nineteenth century
canals and railroads were _____.
A. built with money that came from the federal government
B. built predominantly in the western part of the country
C. sometimes built in part by state companies
D. much more expensive to build than they had been previously
QUESTION 26: The regulatory activities of state governments included all of the following
EXCEPT?
A. imposing limits on price fixing
B. licensing of retail merchants
C. inspecting materials used in turnpike maintenance
D. control of lumber
QUESTION 27: The word "setting" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to?
A. avoiding
B. establishing
C. analyzing
D. discussing
QUESTION 28: The word "ends" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to?
A. services
B. goals
C. benefits
D. decisions
QUESTION 29: According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Homestead
Act of 1862?
A. It was a law first passed by state governments in the West.
B. It made it increasingly possible for settlers to obtain land in the West.
C. It increased the money supply in the West.
D. It established tariffs in a number of regions.
QUESTION 30: Which of the following activities was the responsibility of the federal
government in the nineteenth century?
A. Inspection of new homes built on western lands
B. Control of the manufacture of gunpowder
C. Determining the conditions under which individuals worked
D. Regulation of the supply of money
QUESTION 31: The word "drastic" in line 5 is closest in meaning to?
A. risky
B. progressive
C. widespread
D. radical
QUESTION 32: According to the theory that the author calls "the traditional view," what was
the first form of life to appear on land?
A. Plant-eating animals
B. Meat-eating animals
C. Bacteria
D. Vascular plants
QUESTION 33: According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago?
 A. Many terrestrial life-forms died out.
B. The megafossils were destroyed by floods.
C. New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate.
D. Life began to develop in the ancient seas.
QUESTION 34: The word "extracted" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to?
A. studied
B. removed
C. located
D. preserved
QUESTION 35: What can be inferred from the passage about the fossils mentioned in lines
16-19?
A. They were found in approximately the same numbers as vascular plant fossils.
B. They have not been helpful in understanding the evolution of terrestrial life.
C. They are older than the megafossils.
D. They consist of modem life-forms.
QUESTION 36: The word "instances" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to?
A. cases
B. processes
C. reasons
D. methods
QUESTION 37: The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to?
A. shores
B. rocks
C. oceans
D. specimens
QUESTION 38: The word "entombed" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to?
A. excavated
B. trapped
C. produced
D. crushed
QUESTION 39: Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils?
A. Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed.
B. The time estimate for the first appearance of terrestrial life-forms was revised.
C. The origins of primitive sea life were explained.
D. Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses.
QUESTION 40: With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?
A. New species have appeared at the same rate over the course of the last 400 million years.
B. The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial life evolved.
C. The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate determinations
about ages of fossils.
D. The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life itself.
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

You have asked your closest friend Brianna to help look after your house and pet when you
are on holiday. She has written you an email asking for more information. Read this part of
her email below.

Write a letter to respond to Brianna.

You should write at least 120 words. Do not include your name. Your response will be evaluated in
terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.

You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

Read the following text from an article about ex-prisoner:

Now, write an essay to an educated reader to discuss your opinions about this point of view.
Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.

Give reasons and relevant examples from your knowledge or experience. You should write at least
250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary
and Grammar.

Social Interaction (3'): Now, the test begins.

Let's talk about holiday.
- What did you do on your last holiday?
- Who do you prefer spending your holiday with?
- Do you prefer going on holiday abroad?
Now, let's talk about TV programs.
- How many hours a day do you watch television?
- Which programs do you like?
- Do you prefer watching television alone or with other people? Why?

Solution Discussion (4')

Situation: If you won a lottery of 1 billon VND, what would you do with the money? Three options
are suggested: buy a new house, start a business, and deposit the money in the bank. Which
option do you think is the best choice? Why?

Topic Development (5'): In the third part of the test, you will have one minute to prepare for a talk
about the topic. You can develop the topic using the suggested ideas in the mind map and/or your
own ideas. After one minute you are supposed to talk about the topic for up to two minutes and
answer the follow-up questions for up to two minutes.
Topic: Online courses