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Home Practice Exams NCLEX Exam NCLEX Practice Exam for Gastrointestinal Diseases 1
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A. 45 units/L
B. 100 units/L
C. 300 units/L
D. 500 units/L
A. Pork
B. Milk
C. Chicken
D. Broccoli
6. Nurse
CARE Ryan isTOOLS
PLANS assessing for correct
& APPS placement of a
BULLETS
nosogartric tube. The nurse aspirates the stomach
contents and check the contents for pH. The nurse
verifies correct tube placement if which pH value is
noted?
A. 3.5
B. 7.0
C. 7.35
D. 7.5
A. Exhale
B. Inhale and exhale quickly
C. Take and hold a deep breath
D. Perform a Valsalva maneuver
A. An obturator
B. Kelly clamp
C. An irrigation set
D. A pair of scissors
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
A. Start an IV infusion
B. Administer an enema
C. Cancel
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the diagnostic test
NURSING NOTES PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
D. Explain that diarrhea is expected
CARE PLANS TOOLS & APPS BULLETS
16. The nurse is caring for a male client with a diagnosis
HOME NURSING NOTES PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
of chronic gastritis. The nurse monitors the client
knowing
CARE that thisTOOLS
PLANS client is at risk for BULLETS
& APPS which vitamin
deficiency?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
B. Furosemide (Lasix)
C. Indomethacin (Indocin)
D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)
20. APLANS
CARE male clientTOOLS
with a peptic
& APPS ulcer BULLETS
is scheduled for a
vagotomy and the client asks the nurse about the
purpose of this procedure. Which response by the nurse
best describes the purpose of a vagotomy?
A. Leg exercises
B. Early ambulation
C. Irrigating the nasogastric tube
D. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises
A. Hypotension
B. Bloody diarrhea
C. Rebound tenderness
D. A hemoglobin level of 12 mg/dL
27. The nurse
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is caring for a male client
NURSING NOTES
postoperatively
PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
following creation of a colostomy. Which nursing
CARE PLANS
diagnosis shouldTOOLS & APPS
the nurse BULLETS
include in the plan of care?
A. Diarrhea
B. Chronic constipation
C. Constipation alternating with diarrhea
D. Stools constantly oozing form the rectum
A. Hypoalbuminemia
B. Increased capillary permeability
C. Abnormal peripheral vasodilation
D. Excess rennin release from the kidneys
A. Formed
B. Semisolid
C. Semiliquid
D. Watery
34. You’re advising a 21 y.o. with a colostomy who
reports problems with flatus. What food should you
recommend?
A. Peas
B. Cabbage
HOME NURSING NOTES PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
C. Broccoli
CARE PLANS
D. Yogurt TOOLS & APPS BULLETS
38. You’re caring for Carin who has just had ileostomy
surgery. During the first 24 hours post-op, how much
drainage can you expect from the ileostomy?
A. 100 ml
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B. 500 ml
CARE PLANS
C. 1500 ml TOOLS & APPS BULLETS
D. 5000 ml
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39. You’re
CARE PLANS preparing
TOOLSa teaching
& APPSplanBULLETS
for a 27 y.o. named
Jeff who underwent surgery to close a temporary
ileostomy. Which nutritional guideline do you include in
this plan?
A. Pruritus
B. Dyspnea
C. Jaundice
D. Peripheral Neuropathy
A. Asterixis
B. Chvostek’s sign
C. Trousseau’s sign
D. Hepatojugular reflex
A. 1.005
B. 1.011
C. 1.020
D. 1.030
61. Jerod
CARE PLANSis experiencing an acute episode
TOOLS & APPS BULLETS of ulcerative
colitis. Which is priority for this patient?
A. Barium Swallow.
B. Stool examination.
C. Gastric analysis.
D. Sigmoidoscopy.
65. Donald
CARE PLANSis a 61 y.o. man
TOOLS with diverticulitis.
& APPS BULLETS
Diverticulitis is characterized by:
69. Anthony,
CARE PLANS a 60 y.o. patient,
TOOLS & APPS has just undergone a
BULLETS
bowel resection with a colostomy. During the first 24
hours, which of the following observations about the
stoma should you report to the doctor?
A. Pink color.
B. Light edema.
C. Small amount of oozing.
D. Trickles of bright red blood.
A. 1/16”
B. 1/4″
C. 1/2”
D. 1”
73. You’re
CARE PLANS patient is complaining
TOOLS & APPS ofBULLETS
abdominal pain
during assessment. What is your priority?
77. Anna
CARE is 45 y.o.
PLANS and has
TOOLS a bleeding
& APPS ulcer. Despite
BULLETS
multiple blood transfusions, her HGB is 7.5g/dl and HCT
is 27%. Her doctor determines that surgical intervention
is necessary and she undergoes partial gastrectomy.
Postoperative nursing care includes:
A. Blanched stoma
B. Edematous stoma
C. Reddish-pink stoma
D. Brownish-black stoma
A. Restrict fluids
B. Encourage ambulation
C. Increase sodium in the diet
D. Give antacids as prescribed
80. Katrina
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is diagnosed with lactose
NURSING NOTES
intolerance. To
PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
avoid complications with lack of calcium in the diet,
CARE
whichPLANS
food shouldTOOLS & APPSin theBULLETS
be included diet?
A. Regular exercise.
B. A low-protein diet.
C. Allow patient to select his meals.
D. Rest period after small, frequent meals.
A. “Now I can never get hepatitis again.”
B. “I can safely give blood after 3 months.”
C. “I’ll never have a problem with my liver again, even if
I drink alcohol.”
D. “My family
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knows that if I get tired
NURSING NOTES
and start
PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
vomiting, I may be getting sick again.”
CARE PLANS TOOLS & APPS BULLETS
84. Gail is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. After
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completion of preoperative teaching, Gail states,”If I lie
still and
CARE avoid turning
PLANS TOOLS after the operation,
& APPS BULLETSI’ll avoid pain.
Do you think this is a good idea?” What is the best
response?
87. Annebell
CARE PLANS is being
TOOLS discharged
& APPS with a colostomy, and
BULLETS
you’re teaching her about colostomy care. Which
statement correctly describes a healthy stoma?
90. Your
CARE patientTOOLS
PLANS recently& had
APPSabdominal surgery and
BULLETS
tells you that he feels a popping sensation in his incision
during a coughing spell, followed by severe pain. You
anticipate an evisceration. Which supplies should you
take to his room?
A. A suture kit.
B. Sterile water and a suture kit.
C. Sterile water and sterile dressings.
D. Sterile saline solution and sterile dressings.
A. Ulcer
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Chronic gastritis
D. Ulcerative colitis
94. APLANS
CARE patient has an acute
TOOLS upper GIBULLETS
& APPS hemorrhage. Your
interventions include:
A. Treating hypovolemia.
B. Treating hypervolemia.
C. Controlling the bleeding source.
D. Treating shock and diagnosing the bleeding source.
A. Antacids.
B. Antibiotics.
C. Corticosteroids.
D. Histamine2-receptor blockers.
1. Answer
CARE PLANS C. The normal
TOOLS serum amylase
& APPS BULLETSlevel is 25 to
151 units/L. With chronic cases of pancreatitis, the
rise in serum amylase levels usually does not
exceed three times the normal value. In acute
pancreatitis, the value may exceed five times the
normal value. Options A and B are within normal
limits. Option D is an extremely elevated level seen
in acute pancreatitis.
2. Answer C. Full liquid food items include items such
as plain ice cream, sherbet, breakfast drinks, milk,
pudding and custard, soups that are strained, and
strained vegetable juices. A clear liquid diet consists
of foods that are relatively transparent. The food
items in options A, B, and D are clear liquids.
3. Answer A. The client with cirrhosis needs to
consume foods high in thiamine. Thiamine is
present in a variety of foods of plant and animal
origin. Pork products are especially rich in this
vitamin. Other good food sources include nuts,
whole grain cereals, and legumes. Milk contains
vitamins A, D, and B2. Poultry contains niacin.
Broccoli contains vitamins C, E, and K and folic acid
4. Answer A. Unless specifically indicated, residual
amounts more than 100 mL require holding the
feeding. Therefore options B, C, and D are incorrect.
Additionally, the feeding is not discarded unless its
contents are abnormal in color or characteristics.
5. Answer D. During the insertion of a nasogastric
tube, if the client experiences difficulty breathing or
any respiratory distress, withdraw the tube slightly,
stop the tube advancement, and wait until the
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distress subsides. Options B and
NURSING NOTES
C are
PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
unnecessary. Quickly inserting the tube is not an
CAREappropriate
PLANS TOOLS & APPS in this
action because, BULLETS
situation, it may
be likely that the tube has entered the bronchus.
HOME NURSING NOTES PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
6. Answer A. If the nasogastric tube is in the stomach,
CAREthe pH of the
PLANS contents
TOOLS will be acidic.
& APPS BULLETSGastric
aspirates have acidic pH values and should be 3.5
or lower. Option B indicates a slightly acidic pH.
Option C indicates a neutral pH. Option D indicates
an alkaline pH.
7. Answer C. When the nurse removes a nasogastric
tube, the client is instructed to take and hold a deep
breath. This will close the epiglottis. This allows for
easy withdrawal through the esophagus into the
nose. The nurse removes the tube with one smooth,
continuous pull.
8. Answer C. If a client has a nasogastric tube
connected to suction, the nurse should wait up to
30 minutes before reconnecting the tube to the
suction apparatus to allow adequate time for
medication absorption. Aspirating the nasogastric
tube will remove the medication just administered.
Low intermittent suction also will remove the
medication just administered. The client should not
be placed in the supine position because of the risk
for aspiration.
9. Answer D. When the client has a Sengstaken-
Blakemore tube, a pair of scissors must be kept at
the client’s bedside at all times. The client needs to
be observed for sudden respiratory distress, which
occurs if the gastric balloon ruptures and the entire
tube moves upward. If this occurs, the nurse
immediately cuts all balloon lumens and removes
the tube. An obturator and a Kelly clamp are kept at
the bedside of a client with a tracheostomy. An
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irrigation set may be kept at the
NURSING NOTES
bedside, but it is
PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
not the priority item.
CARE PLANS A. Hepatitis
10. Answer TOOLS &AAPPS BULLETS
is transmitted by the fecal-
oral route via contaminated food or infected food
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handlers. Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted most
CAREcommonly
PLANS via infected
TOOLS blood orBULLETS
& APPS body fluids.
11. Answer B. Laboratory indicators of hepatitis include
elevated liver enzyme levels, elevated serum
bilirubin levels, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation
rates, and leukopenia. An elevated blood urea
nitrogen level may indicate renal dysfunction. A
hemoglobin level is unrelated to this diagnosis.
12. Answer C. Meperidine (Demerol) rather than
morphine sulfate is the medication of choice to
treat pain because morphine sulfate can cause
spasms in the sphincter of Oddi. Options A, B, and D
are appropriate interventions for the client with
acute pancreatitis.
13. Answer A. A barium swallow is an x-ray study that
uses a substance called barium for contrast to
highlight abnormalities in the gastrointestinal tract.
The client should fast for 8 to 12 hours before the
test, depending on physician instructions. Most oral
medications also are withheld before the test. After
the procedure, the nurse must monitor for
constipation, which can occur as a result of the
presence of barium in the gastrointestinal tract.
14. Answer C. The appropriate sequence for abdominal
examination is inspection, auscultation, percussion,
and palpation. Auscultation is performed after
inspection to ensure that the motility of the bowel
and bowel sounds are not altered by percussion or
palpation. Therefore, after inspecting the skin on the
abdomen, the nurse should listen for bowel sounds.
15. Answer D. The solution GoLYTELY is a bowel
evacuant used to prepare a client for a colonoscopy
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by cleansing the bowel. The solution
NURSING NOTES
is expected to
PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
cause a mild diarrhea and will clear the bowel in 4
CAREtoPLANS TOOLS &
5 hours. Options A,APPS BULLETS
B, and C are inappropriate
actions.
HOME NURSING NOTES PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
16. Answer B. Chronic gastritis causes deterioration
CAREand atrophyTOOLS
PLANS of the lining
& APPSof the stomach,
BULLETS leading to
the loss of the function of the parietal cells. The
source of the intrinsic factor is lost, which results in
the inability to absorb vitamin B12. This leads to the
development of pernicious anemia. The client is not
at risk for vitamin A, C, or E deficiency.
17. Answer C. Indomethacin (Indocin) is a nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drug and can cause ulceration of
the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine.
Indomethacin is contraindicated in a client with
gastrointestinal disorders. Furosemide (Lasix) is a
loop diuretic. Digoxin is a cardiac medication.
Propranolol (Inderal) is a β-adrenergic blocker.
Furosemide, digoxin, and propranolol are not
contraindicated in clients with gastric disorders.
18. Answer D. Following cholecystectomy, drainage
from the T tube is initially bloody and then turns to a
greenish-brown color. The drainage is measured as
output. The amount of expected drainage will range
from 500 to 1000 mL/day. The nurse would
document the output.
19. Answer D. Perforation of an ulcer is a surgical
emergency and is characterized by sudden, sharp,
intolerable severe pain beginning in the
midepigastric area and spreading over the
abdomen, which becomes rigid and board-like.
Nausea and vomiting may occur. Tachycardia may
occur as hypovolemic shock develops. Numbness
in the legs is not an associated finding.
20. Answer C. A vagotomy, or cutting of the vagus
nerve, is done to eliminate parasympathetic
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stimulation of gastric secretion.
NURSING NOTES
Options A, B, and D
PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
are incorrect descriptions of a vagotomy.
CARE PLANS C. In
21. Answer TOOLS & APPS
a Billroth BULLETS
II procedure, the proximal
remnant of the stomach is anastomosed to the
HOME NURSING NOTES PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
proximal jejunum. Patency of the nasogastric tube
CAREis critical forTOOLS
PLANS preventing
& APPSthe retention of gastric
BULLETS
secretions. The nurse should never irrigate or
reposition the gastric tube after gastric surgery,
unless specifically ordered by the physician. In this
situation, the nurse should clarify the order. Options
A, B, and D are appropriate postoperative
interventions.
22. Answer C. Dumping syndrome is a term that refers
to a constellation of vasomotor symptoms that
occurs after eating, especially following a Billroth II
procedure. Early manifestations usually occur
within 30 minutes of eating and include vertigo,
tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations,
and the desire to lie down. The nurse should
instruct the client to decrease the amount of fluid
taken at meals and to avoid high-carbohydrate
foods, including fluids such as fruit nectars; to
assume a low-Fowler’s position during meals; to lie
down for 30 minutes after eating to delay gastric
emptying; and to take antispasmodics as
prescribed.
23. Answer A. Early manifestations of dumping
syndrome occur 5 to 30 minutes after eating.
Symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope,
sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie
down.
24. Answer B. Coughing is avoided following umbilical
hernia repair to prevent disruption of tissue integrity,
which can occur because of the location of this
surgical procedure. Bed rest is not required
following this surgical procedure. The client should
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take analgesics as needed andPRACTICE
NURSING NOTES
as prescribed to
EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
control pain. A drain is not used in this surgical
CAREprocedure,
PLANS TOOLS &the
although APPS BULLETS
client may be instructed in
simple dressing changes.
HOME NURSING NOTES PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
25. Answer B. Following inguinal hernia repair, the client
CAREshould
PLANSbe instructed
TOOLS & to elevate BULLETS
APPS the scrotum and
apply ice packs while in bed to decrease pain and
swelling. The nurse also should instruct the client to
apply a scrotal support when out of bed. Heat will
increase swelling. Limiting oral fluids and a low-fiber
diet can cause constipation.
26. Answer C. Rebound tenderness may indicate
peritonitis. Bloody diarrhea is expected to occur in
ulcerative colitis. Because of the blood loss, the
client may be hypotensive and the hemoglobin level
may be lower than normal. Signs of peritonitis must
be reported to the physician.
27. Answer B. Body image, disturbed relates to loss of
bowel control, the presence of a stoma, the release
of fecal material onto the abdomen, the passage of
flatus, odor, and the need for an appliance (external
pouch). No data in the question support options A
and C. Nutrition: less than body requirements,
imbalanced is the more likely nursing diagnosis.
28. Answer A. Crohn’s disease is characterized by
nonbloody diarrhea of usually not more than four to
five stools daily. Over time, the diarrhea episodes
increase in frequency, duration, and severity.
Options B, C, and D are not characteristics of
Crohn’s disease.
29. Answer B. If cramping occurs during a colostomy
irrigation, the irrigation flow is stopped temporarily
and the client is allowed to rest. Cramping may
occur from an infusion that is too rapid or is
causing too much pressure. The physician does not
need to be notified. Increasing the height of the
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irrigation will cause further discomfort.
NURSING NOTES
Medicating
PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
the client for pain is not the appropriate action in
CAREthis
PLANS
situation.TOOLS & APPS BULLETS
30. Answer A. To enhance effectiveness of the
HOME NURSING NOTES PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
irrigation and fecal returns, the client is instructed to
CAREincrease
PLANS fluid intake&and
TOOLS to takeBULLETS
APPS other measures to
prevent constipation. Options B, C and D will not
enhance the effectiveness of this procedure.
31. Answer A. Blood pressure decreases as the body is
unable to maintain normal oncotic pressure with
liver failure, so patients with liver failure require
close blood pressure monitoring. Increased
capillary permeability, abnormal peripheral
vasodilation, and excess rennin released from the
kidney’s aren’t direct ramifications of liver failure.
32. Answer B. Good circulation causes tissues to be
moist and red, so a healthy, well-healed stoma
appears red and moist.
33. Answer A. A colostomy in the sigmoid colon
produces a solid, formed stool.
34. Answer D. High-fiber foods stimulate peristalsis,
and a result, flatus. Yogurt reduces gas formation.
35. Answer B. A proper fit protects the skin, but doesn’t
impair circulation. A 1/16” should be cut.
36. Answer B. Observation, auscultation, percussion,
palpation
37. Answer D. An ileoanal reservoir is created in two
stages. The two surgeries are about 2 to 3 months
apart. First, diseased intestines are removed and a
temporary loop ileostomy is created. Second, the
loop ileostomy is closed and stool goes to the
reservoir and out through the anus.
38. Answer C. The large intestine absorbs large
amounts of water so the initial output from the
ileostomy may be as much as 1500 to 2000 ml/24
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hours. Gradually, the small intestine
NURSING NOTES
absorbs more
PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
fluid and the output decreases.
CARE PLANS To
39. Answer B. TOOLS
avoid &overloading
APPS BULLETS
the small intestine,
encourage the patient to eat six small, regularly
HOME NURSING NOTES PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
spaced meals.
40. Answer B.
CARE PLANS MakingTOOLSobservations
& APPS about what you see
BULLETS
or hear is a useful therapeutic technique. This way,
you acknowledge that you are interested in what the
patient is saying and feeling.
41. Answer C. After a Billroth II procedure, a large
amount of hypertonic fluid enters the intestine. This
causes extracellular fluid to move rapidly into the
bowel, reducing circulating blood volume and
producing vasomotor symptoms. Vasomotor
symptoms produced by dumping syndrome include
dizziness and sweating, tachycardia, syncope,
pallor, and palpitations.
42. Answer A. Gastric emptying time can be delayed by
omitting fluids from your patient’s meal. A diet low
in carbs and high in fat & protein is recommended
to treat dumping syndrome.
43. Answer B. Ascites puts pressure on the diaphragm.
Paracentesis is done to remove fluid and reducing
pressure on the diaphragm. The goal is to improve
the patient’s breathing. The others are signs of
cirrhosis that aren’t relieved by paracentesis.
44. Answer A. A full bladder can interfere with
paracentesis and be punctured inadvertently.
45. Answer B. Cover the organs with a sterile,
nonadherent dressing moistened with normal
saline. Do this to prevent infection and to keep the
organs from drying out.
46. Answer A. Asterixis is an early neurologic sign of
hepatic encephalopathy elicited by asking the
patient to hold her arms stretched out. Asterixis is
present if the hands rapidly extend and flex.
47. Answer A.
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You may administerPRACTICE
NURSING NOTES
the laxative
EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
lactulose to reduce ammonia levels in the colon.
CARE PLANS Achalasia
48. Answer A. TOOLS & isAPPS BULLETS
characterized by incomplete
relaxation of the LES, dilation of the lower
HOME NURSING NOTES PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
esophagus, and a lack of esophageal peristalsis.
CAREBecause
PLANS nitrates
TOOLSrelax the lowerBULLETS
& APPS esophageal
sphincter, expect to give Isordil orally or
sublingually.
49. Answer C. Eating in the upright position aids in
emptying the esophagus. Doing the opposite of the
other three also may be helpful.
50. Answer C. Pancreatitis involves activation of
pancreatic enzymes, such as amylase and lipase.
These levels are elevated in a patient with acute
pancreatitis.
51. Answer D. The normal range of specific gravity of
urine is 1.010 to 1.025; a value of 1.030 may be
seen with dehydration.
52. Answer C. Teach the pt to avoid activities that
increase intra-abdominal pressure such as
coughing, sneezing, or straining with a bowel
movement.
53. Answer C. Because obesity weakens the abdominal
muscles, advise weight loss for the patient who has
had a hernia repair.
54. Answer B. After a liver biopsy, the patient is placed
on the right side to compress the liver and to reduce
the risk of bleeding or bile leakage.
55. Answer A. Signs and Symptoms of pneumothorax
include dyspnea and decreased or absent breath
sounds over the affected lung (right lung).
56. Answer A. An NG tube is inserted into the patients
stomach to drain fluid and gas.
57. Answer A. Aspirating the stomach contents
confirms correct placement. If an X-ray is ordered, it
should be done immediately, not in 24 hours.
58. Answer B.
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TPN is given I.V. to provide
NURSING NOTES
all the
PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
nutrients your patient needs. TPN isn’t a tube
CAREfeeding
PLANS nor TOOLS & APPS
is it a liquid BULLETS
dietary supplement.
59. Answer A. Type A causes changes in parietal cells.
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60. Answer B. Increasing fluids helps empty the
CAREstomach.
PLANS A TOOLS
high carb diet isn’t restricted
& APPS BULLETS and fat
intake shouldn’t be increased.
61. Answer A. Diarrhea d/t an acute episode of
ulcerative colitis leads to fluid & electrolyte losses
so fluid replacement takes priority.
62. Answer D. Sigmoidoscopy allows direct observation
of the colon mucosa for changes, and if needed,
biopsy.
63. Answer C. She needs a high-fiber diet and a
psyllium (bulk laxative) to promote normal soft
stools.
64. Answer B. Stools from ulcerative colitis are often
bloody and contain mucus.
65. Answer D. One sign of acute diverticulitis is crampy
lower left quadrant pain. A low-grade fever is
another common sign.
66. Answer C. With acute pancreatitis, you need to rest
the GI tract by TPN as nutritional support.
67. Answer A. The gallbladder is located in the RUQ and
a frequent sign of gallstones is pain radiating to the
shoulder.
68. Answer D. A Jackson-Pratt drain promotes wound
healing by allowing fluid to escape from the wound.
69. Answer D. After creation of a colostomy, expect to
see a stoma that is pink, slightly edematous, with
some oozing. Bright red blood, regardless of
amount, indicates bleeding and should be reported
to the doctor.
70. Answer A. Only a small amount of skin should be
exposed and more than 1/16” of skin allows the
excretement to irritate the skin.
71. Answer B.
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Measuring abdominal
NURSING NOTES
girth provides
PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
quantitative information about increases or
CAREdecreases
PLANS inTOOLS & APPS
the amount BULLETS
of distention.
72. Answer C. Because the GI tract is functioning,
HOME NURSING NOTES PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
feeding methods involve the enteral route which
CAREbypasses
PLANS the mouth&but
TOOLS allowsBULLETS
APPS for a major portion
of the GI tract to be used.
73. Answer B. The first step in assessing the abdomen
is to observe its shape and contour, then auscultate,
palpate, and then percuss.
74. Answer B. Lowering the height decreases the
amount of flow, allowing him to tolerate more fluid.
75. Answer D. Pancrelipase provides the exocrine
pancreatic enzyme necessary for proper protein, fat,
and carb digestion. With increased fat digestion and
absorption, stools become less frequent and
normal in appearance.
76. Answer B. Glucose level increases and diabetes
mellitus may result d/t the pancreatic damage to
the islets of langerhans.
77. Answer D. After surgery, she remains NPO until
peristaltic activity returns. This decreases the risk
for abdominal distention and obstruction.
78. Answer D. A brownish-black color indicates lack of
blood flow, and maybe necrosis.
79. Answer A. Restricting fluids decrease the amount
of body fluid and the accumulation of fluid in the
peritoneal space.
80. Answer D. Dark green, leafy vegetables are rich in
calcium.
81. Answer A. For pruritus, care should include tepid
sponge baths and use of emollient creams and
lotions.
82. Answer D. Rest periods and small frequent meals is
indicated during the acute phase of hepatitis B.
83. Answer D.
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Hepatitis B can recur.
NURSING NOTES
Patients who have
PRACTICE EXAMS MNEMONICS ARTICLES
had hepatitis are permanently barred from donating
CAREblood.
PLANS TOOLS
Alcohol & APPS by
is metabolized BULLETS
the liver and
should be avoided by those who have or had
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hepatitis B.
84. Answer A.
CARE PLANS To prevent
TOOLS venous stasis
& APPS and improve
BULLETS
muscle tone, circulation, and respiratory function,
encourage her to move after surgery.
85. Answer A. Telling her not to worry minimizes her
feelings.
86. Answer A. Diazepam is absorbed by the plastic I.V.
tubing and should be given in the port closest to the
vein.
87. Answer A. For the first few days to a week, slight
bleeding normally occurs when the stoma is
touched because the surgical site is still new. She
should report profuse bleeding immediately.
88. Answer D. To wash away tissue debris and drainage
effectively, irrigate the wound until the solution
becomes clear or all the solution is used.
89. Answer A. Ammonia levels increase d/t improper
shunting of blood, causing ammonia to enter
systemic circulation, which carries it to the brain.
90. Answer D. Saline solution is isotonic, or close to
body fluids in content, and is used along with sterile
dressings to cover an eviscerated wound and keep
it moist.
91. Answer B. Crohn’s disease penetrates the mucosa
of the colon through all layers and destroys the
colon in patches, which creates a cobblestone
appearance.
92. Answer A. Stomach pain is often a late sign of
stomach cancer; outcomes are particularly poor
when the cancer reaches that point. Surgery,
chemotherapy, and radiation have minimal positive
effects. TPN may enhance the growth of the cancer.
93. Answer C.
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Melena is the passage
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of dark, tarry
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stools that contain a large amount of digested
CAREblood.
PLANS TOOLS
It occurs with&bleeding
APPS from BULLETS
the upper GI
tract.
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94. Answer A. A patient with an acute upper GI
CAREhemorrhage
PLANS must be
TOOLS treated forBULLETS
& APPS hypovolemia and
hemorrhagic shock. You as a nurse can’t diagnose
the problem. Controlling the bleeding may require
surgery or intensive medical treatment.
95. Answer D. To stabilize a patient with acute bleeding,
NS or LR solution is given I.V. until BP rises and
urine output returns to 30ml/hr.
96. Answer A. Initially, you should assess the patient’s
knowledge about colostomies and how it will affect
his lifestyle.
97. Answer B. An inflammatory condition that affects
the surface of the colon, ulcerative colitis causes
friability and erosions with bleeding. Patients with
ulcerative colitis are at increased risk for bowel
perforation, toxic megacolon, hemorrhage, cancer,
and other anorectal and systemic complications.
98. Answer C. Medications to control inflammation
such as corticosteroids are used for long-term
treatment.
99. Answer A. Meats and beans are high-protein foods.
In liver failure, the liver is unable to metabolize
protein adequately, causing protein by-products to
build up in the body rather than be excreted.
100. Answer B. A gastric residual greater than 2 hours
worth of feeding or 100-150ml is considered too
high. The feeding should be stopped; NG tube
clamped, and then allow time for the stomach to
empty before additional feeding is added.
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