PREBOARDS NP 3 a.

Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
CARDIO b. Atropine a. Check for bleeding at the tube connection sites
  c. Diltiazem (Cardizem) b. Perform a fast flush of the arterial line system
1. A patient is receiving treatment for premature ventricular   c. Re-level the transducer to the phlebostatic axis
contractions. What finding will be noted if treatment is d. Metoprolol (Lopressor) d. Zero and re-balance the monitor and system
effective? *    
a. PVCs are now 3x/min. in frequency 8. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular 14. A patient with a blood pressure (BP) of 250/245 mmHg is
b. PVCs are now multifocal Coagulation (DIC). Which of the following is contraindicated with admitted for hypertensive crisis. The doctor prescribes a
c. PVCs fall on the T wave the client? * continuous IV infusion of nitroprusside sodium. Which of these is
d. PVCs occur in pairs the priority goal in the initial management of hypertensive
  a. Heparin crisis? *
2. What drug is usually prescribed post mechanical valve b. Coumadin
replacement in patients with Valvular heart disease? * c. Blood Transfusions a. Decrease the MAP by no more than 25%
a. Aspirin d. FFP b. Keep blood pressure at or below 120/80 mmHg
b. Heparin   c. Maintain heart rate (HR) of 60-100/min
c. Warfarin   d. Maintain urine output of at least 30ml/hr
d. Morphine 9. What is the drug of choice for Prinzmetal Angina? *  
   
3. A patient with acute pericarditis is experiencing chest pain. a. Morphine 15. Which statement is true about crackles? *
Which of the following will alleviate the pain? * b. Nitroglycerin
a. Coughing and deep breathing c. Diltiazem a. They’re grating sounds.
b. Left lateral position d. Metoprolol b. They’re high-pitched, musical squeaks.
c. Pursed-lip breathing   c. They’re low-pitched noises that sound like snoring.
d. Sitting up and leaning forward 10. A patient is diagnosed with cardiac tamponade. Which of the d. They may be fine, medium, or course.
  following indicates that Pericardiocentesis is effective? * ORTHO
4. When monitoring the CVP, where should the nurse place the  
zero point of the transducer? * a. Increase in blood pressure 16. What type of bone plays a major role in the body because of
b. Absent heart sounds their function? *
a. fourth intercostal space at the midaxillary line c. Low urine output
b. fifth intercostal space midclavicular line d. Decreased diastolic filling a. Long bone
c. PMI   b. Short bone
d. Erb’s point 11. What starting energy range level is set in monophasic c. Flat bone
  defibrillators? *  
5. A patient has Hypertension. What medication/food needs to d. Irregular bone
be avoided? * a. 50 J  
b. 120 J 17. What is the purpose of external fixator in surgical repair of
a. Phenytoin c. 200 J Colle’s fracture? *
b. Grapefruit d. 360 J
c. Cantaloupe   a. has very low complication rate
d. Antacid 12. Correct assessment when patient is having abdominal b. maintains reduction and hand function
  pain? *  
6. A patient is scheduled for a technetium-99m ventriculography a. Any quadrant first c. it’s less bothersome than a cast
or MUGA scan. What should be prepared? * b. The symptomatic quadrant first d. promotes faster healing
   
a. Informed consent c. The symptomatic quadrant last 18. A patient with a fractured femur suddenly exhibits difficulty of
b. Notation of allergy to shellfish d. The symptomatic quadrant either second or third. breathing. What position will you place your patient in? *
c. Urinary catheter placement SITUATION: The nurse is caring for patients in the Intensive
d. CVP line placement Care Unit. a. High Fowlers
    b. Durant’s
  13. The low pressure alarm for the patient’s radial arterial line c. Left side lying
7. What medication is administered if a patient on ECG monitor sounds. He is 2 hours post aortic valve replacement. Which d. Right side lying
exhibits ventricular tachycardia? * action should the nurse take first? *  
19. You found your patient with an empty IV bottle and is removed once the level of _____ in the previous item decreases d. Straight leg cane
exhibiting difficulty of breathing. What position will you place to less than: *  
your patient in? *  
a. High Fowlers a. 5% 30. What will be the best assistive device for a patient with
b. Durant’s b. 10% partial hemiplegia of the left leg? *
c. Left side lying c. 15% a. Quad cane
d. 25% b. Wheelchair
d. Right side lying   c. Lofstrand crutch
  25. A nurse is setting up oxygen for Mang Juan. He is to receive d. Aluminum crutch
20. Your patient reports a throbbing, burning sensation in the oxygen at 10 L per non-rebreather mask. It is important for the PERIOPERATIVE
right foot that is worse during the day. The patient also reported nurse to do the following EXCEPT: * SITUATION: Care of clients undergoing surgery extends until
that it is relieved with rest. * 0/1 after the surgical procedure is done. Nurses must know how to
0/1a. Pescavus a. Adjust the flow rate to keep the reservoir bag inflated greater handle post-op clients.
b. Mortons neuroma than 2/3 full during inspiration  
  b. Monitor the patient carefully for risk of aspiration 31. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had a
c. Hallux valgus c. Make sure the valves and rubber flaps are patent, functional, splenectomy. When planning care in the immediate
d. Onychocryptosis and not stuck postoperative period the nurse should avoid using which
  d. Remind the client and his wife of the smoking policy position? *
21. What is the proper position for a patient 2 days postop   a. Left side-lying
above-the-knee amputation? *   b. Right side-lying
0/1 26. Mang Juan is suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning: * c. Prone
a. On the abdomen 0/1 d. Supine
b. Supine position a. Appears intoxicated  
c. Elevate stump on pillow b. Presents with severe hypertension 32. A client has undergone with penile implant. After 24 hrs of
  c. Appears hyperactive surgery, the client’s scrotum was edematous and painful. The
d. High Fowler’s position d. Will always present with a cherry red skin coloring nurse should: *
SITUATION: The nurse is discussing the prevention of   0/1
osteoporosis with a group of clients.   a. Assist the client with sitz bath
  27. What type of pain travels all the way down the back of the  
22. Which among the following factors do NOT keep the bones leg and to the foot? * b. Apply war soaks in the scrotum
strong? * 0/1 c. Elevate the scrotum using a soft support
1/1 a. Bursitis d. Prepare for a possible incision and drainage.
a. An adequate calcium intake    
b. Maintenance of a low weight b. Radiculopathy 33. A client who is scheduled for a bowel resection tomorrow
  c. Tendonitis has just completed preoperative teaching by nurses. Which of
c. Sufficient estrogen levels d. Sciatica the following statements to the nurse indicates the client needs
d. Weight-bearing exercises   further instruction on postoperative care? *
SITUATION: Carbon monoxide poisoning is suspected. 28. What is the best position for an extremity that is newly 0/1
  casted? * a. “I know I’ll have pain after surgery, but I can always call the
23. The nurse expects the physician to prescribe which of the 0/1 nurses for medication.”
following to confirm the diagnosis? * a. Elevated for 3 hours, then flat for 1 hour b. “They will be taking my pulse and blood pressure many times
0/1   after the operation.”
a. Total CO b. Flat for 3 hours, then elevated for 1 hour c. “The intravenous needle will be removed in the recovery
b. CBC c. Flat for 12 hours, then elevated for 12 hours room.”
c. COHb d. Elevated on pillows continuously for 24 to 48 hours d. “I’ll show you how I can deep breathe and cough.”
     
d. Total Minoxidil 29. What will be the best assistive device for a patient with slight  
  weakness of the right leg? * 34. An adult client is scheduled for a colonoscopy under
24. A nurse is monitoring the results of serial arterial blood 1/1 anesthesia. Which statement by the client indicates he
gases of Mang Juan who is asking for the oxygen mask to be a. Lofstrand crutch understands the prescribed preparation regimen? *
removed. The nurse determines that the oxygen may be safely b. Walker 0/1
c. Wooden crutch
a. “All I need to do is give myself a packaged enema the
morning of the procedure.”
 
b. “I will eat only jell-o and drink clear liquids for two days
before the test.”
c. “I will take the dye tablets with water the night before the
test.”
d. “All I have to do is not eat anything after midnight the night
before the test.”
 
35. Your client has just had major surgery. He refuses to
reposition or deep breathe because of fear of pain. He also
refuses to take pain medication for fear of addiction. Your best
response to this client is to: *
1/1
a. Let him be because nurses must always respect patient’s
autonomy
b. Inform him that he has to take the pain medication to relieve
pain
c. Educate him about the benefits of pain relief and risk of
addiction
 
d. Inform him that it is best to follow doctor’s order
 
36. Bianca, a client who is scheduled to undergo a minor
surgery, states, "The physician will not give me pain medication
after the surgery because my surgery is only minor." The best
response by Nurse Kelly is: *
1/1
a. "You are correct. I will need to teach you nonpharmacologic
pain relief measures."
b. " You can only have about half the dose since your surgery is
minor."
c. "You are correct. The physician will not order any pain
medication."
d. "You can experience pain after minor surgery, so you can
have pain medication."
 
 
37. Another client has been NPO since midnight for an elective
procedure scheduled for early afternoon. His normal morning
medications are Lanoxin 0.125 mg, Colace 100 mg, and Pepcid
40 mg. The nurse should: *
1/1
a. Administer all medications as ordered with a sip of water.
b. Hold all medications before surgery.
c. Administer the Lanoxin only with a sip of water.
 
d. Request the medications in liquid form for easy digestion.
SITUATION: A patient is for Exploratory Laparotomy
 
38. A patient has been on NPO for 6 hours. The nurse checks
his CBG and reads 40mg/dl on the glucometer. The client is
awake, alert, and coherent and reports “I feel just fine.” What is
your next nursing action? *
1/1
a. Record the finding in the notes and withhold the client’s
morning insulin - may be appropriate but the nurse must
reconfirm pt’s bld glucose first as he isnt manifesting any
symptoms if hypoglycemia
b. Take a repeat sample of CBG - best next nursing action
 
c. Give client simple sugar by mouth - pt is not in hypogly
d. Administer dextrose 50g IV immediately
39. Upon arrival in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU), the
nurse performs the initial assessment of a client who had
surgery under general anesthesia. Which assessment finding
prompts the nurse to notify the physician immediately? *
0/1
a. Difficult to arouse
b. Muscle stiffness
c. Pinpoint pupils
d. Temperature of 96F
 
 
40. After surgery for bilateral adrenalectomy, the client is kept on
bed rest for several days to stabilize the body’s need for steroids
postoperatively. Which of the following exercises has been
found to be especially helpful in preparing a client for ambulation
after a period of bed rest? *
0/1
a. Alternately flexing and extending the knees.
b. Alternately abducting and adducting the legs.
 
c. Alternately stretching the Achilles tendons.
d. Alternately flexing and relaxing the quadriceps femoris
muscles.
 
41. Who is the priority patient? *
0/1
a. 1-day postoperative client with lower abdominal pain and no
urine output for 6 hours
 
b. An elderly client with blood pressure of 190/88 mmHg who is
asymptomatic
c. Client with hepatitis C virus who has ALT/AST values 4 times
the normal value
d. Client who underwent thyroidectomy yesterday and now has
positive Trousseau’s sign
PAIN
SITUATION: As a staff nurse in Marupok Hospital, Nurse Kelly
exhibits her competency in caring for patients experiencing pain
 
42. Kelly is working as a staff nurse in Marupok Hospital where
she takes care of several patients experiencing pain. During her
shift, she must be well-informed about the action and the
duration of the drugs that she gives. When asked by a patient
about the duration of action for most opiates, she is correct
when she answers: *
0/1
a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 2 hours
 
d. 6 hours
43. Nurse Kelly is performing discharge teaching for Kristina, a
client taking an NSAID. The client states she has been taking an
antacid with this medication because it helps her decrease the
incidence of upset stomach. The nurse's best response is: *
1/1
a. "Antacids reduce the absorption and therefore the
effectiveness of the NSAID."
 
b. "Antacids help to reduce the incidence of pain."
c. "Antacids help to reduce the incidence of gastric bleeding
that could occur with the use of NSAIDs."
d. d. "Antacids should never be taken with an NSAID."
 
44. While Nurse Kelly is caring for an 8-month-old infant, which
of the following is the best tool that she should use for
evaluating pain in this infant? *
1/1
a. FLACC scale
 
b. Wong-Baker FACES
c. 11 point-pain intensity scale
d. Any of the above
 
45. Nurse Kelly is caring for Bret, a client presenting to the
emergency department with a possible sprained ankle. This
client is most likely experiencing what type of pain? *
0/1
a. Severe pain
b. Mild pain
c. Visceral pain
 
d. Somatic pain
ENDOCRINE
 
46. A patient diagnosed with Hypothyroidism was prescribed
Synthroid. Upon reading patient’s data you found out he is also
taking Warfarin. What modification in the patient’s plan of care a. the thyroid is an endocrine gland 56. The pancreas functions as both an exocrine and endocrine
should be made? * b. the pancreas is an endocrine gland gland. Which of these is an example of its exocrine function? *
1/1 c. the thymus is an endocrine gland 0/1
a. A decreased dosage of synthroid d. the hypothalamus is an endocrine gland a. The pancreas produces hydrochloric acid
b. An increased dosage of synthroid   b. Amylase is produced in the acinar cells
c. A decreased dosage of warfarin   c. Insulin is produced into islets of Langerhans
  52. Which student statement regarding the function of the  
d. An increased dosage of warfarin pituitary gland requires clarification from the instructor? * d. The pancreas secretes its enzymes into the stomach
  1/1  
47. What instructions should you give in patients taking a. “The pituitary gland plays a significant role in development.” 57. The patient with acute pancreatitis may report that his pain
Pramlinitide? *   decreases: *
0/1 b. “The pituitary gland plays a significant role in maintaining 1/1
a. “Take prescribed oral medications 1 hour before or 2 hours blood pressure.” a. When he lies on his stomach
after the injection." c. “The pituitary gland plays a significant role in fluid balance b. After vomiting
b. "Inject the pramlintide at the same time you take your other within the body.” c. After eating a large meal
medications." d. “The pituitary gland plays a significant role in the process of d. When he lies on his side with his knees drawn toward his
c. "Take pramlinitide with food." labor during childbirth.” chest
     
d. "Take pramlinitide immediately after eating to prevent 53. Which nerve is essential for the accurate secretion of  
hypoglycemia." melatonin by the endocrine system? * 58. Patients recovering from acute pancreatitis should eat foods
  0/1 that are: *
48. You will teach a patient taking bethanechol (Urecholine) a. Ulnar nerve 1/1
to? * b. Optic nerve a. Low in carbohydrates, and high in fats and CHON
0/1 c. Radial nerve b. Low in carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
a. take with meals d. Sciatic nerve c. High in carbohydrates and fats, and low in CHON
b. take at bedtime   d. High in carbohydrates, and low in fats and CHON
c. use bed pan or urinal to ↑ urine output    
  54. Realizing that hyponatremia results in muscle weakness,  
d. take 2 hours after meals what is the priority assessment required in the client with this 59. A patient is scheduled for Esophagogastroduodenoscopy.
  diagnosis? * Which of the following imbalances suould be monitored? *
49. Doctor’s order: Administer regular insulin 6 units/hr. The RN 0/1 0/1
has an IV bag of 100 ml NS with 20 units of regular insulin. How a. effectiveness of hand grips a. Hypercalcemia
many ml/hr should be given to the pt.? * b. effectiveness of standing b. Hypernatremia
1/1 c. effectiveness of GI motility c. Hyperkalemia
a. 10   d. Hypomagnesemia
b. 20 d. effectiveness of the diaphragm  
c. 30   IMMUNO
  55. What renal problem is suspected for a client that presents  
d. 40 with a magnesium level of 4.0 mEq/L? * 60. Which among the DMARDs may cause retinal damage? *
  0/1 0/1
50. Which endocrine gland is responsible for the body’s a. renal stones a. D-Penicillamine
circadian rhythm? *   b. Sulfasalazine
0/1 b. solitary kidney  
a. Pineal c. renal calculi c. Hydrochloroquine
b. Thyroid d. renal failure d. Azathioprine
c. Parathyroid Situation: Jacob, 45 years old, presents to the emergency  
  department with nausea, and steady epigastric pain centered 61. What physiologic state is achieved when the primary
d. Hypothalamus near the navel that radiates to the back. Blood studies reveal infection has subsided, and an equilibrium now exists between
  elevated amylase, lipase, and while blood cell count levels. The HIV RNA levels and the patient’s immune response *
51. Which statement regarding the structures of the endocrine client is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. 0/1
system requires clarification? *   a. Static stage
0/1 b. Latent stage
  d. Ranitidine b. It is caused by a virus
c. Viral set point   c. It is an autoimmune disease that cause bullae
d. Window period 67. The CD4+ count of an HIV patient is 45 cells/mL. The nurse d. Skin will have red, raised papules and large plaques covered
  recognizes the patients increased risk for Mycobacterium by silvery scales
62. A patient has come into contact with HIV. As a result, HIV aviumcomplex (MAC disease). The nurse should anticipate the  
glycoproteins have fused with the patients CD4+ T-cell administration of what drug? *  
membranes. This process characterizes what phase in the HIV 0/1 73. Which client population is most at risk for developing this
life cycle? * a. Azithromycin type of allergy? *
0/1 b. Vancomycin 1/1
a. Integration   a. Hairdressers
b. Attachment c. Levofloxacin  
c. Cleavage d. Fluconazole b. The homeless
d. Budding   c. Children in day care center
  68. Shortly after transfusion of PRBC, the patient begins to d. Individuals living in a group home
  exhibit signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction. The  
63. What is true during the primary infection stage of HIV? * patient is suffering from which type of hypersensitivity? * 74. What food has been associated with latex allergy? *
0/1 0/1 0/1
a. The patients HIV antibodies are successfully, but temporarily, a. Anaphylactic (type 1) a. Milk
killing the virus.   b. Shellfish
b. The patient is infected with HIV but lacks HIV-specific b. Cytotoxic (type II) c. Hazelnut
antibodies. c. Immunecomplex (type III) d. Egg
c. The patients risk for opportunistic infections is at its peak. d. Delayed type (type IV)  
    PALMR
d. The patient may or may not develop long-standing HIV 69. Which of the following individuals would be the most SITUATION: The relationship between leadership and
infection. appropriate candidate for immunotherapy? * management continues to prompt some debates, but it is clear
  0/1 that these two works relatively together. Management is
64. What should be monitored when taking Didanosine? * a. A patient who had an anaphylactic reaction to an insect sting efficiency in climbing the ladder of success; leadership
0/1 b. A child with allergies to eggs and dairy determines whether the ladder is leaning against the right wall.
a. Protein levels c. A patient who has had a positive tuberculin skin test  
b. Amylase levels   75. When interviewing for a position on a hospital nursing unit,
c. Creatinine levels d. A patient with severe allergies to grass and tree pollen Lucy, the nurse applicant learns that members of the nursing
d. CBG   staff in the unit are allowed to develop and deliver in-services
  70. Antihistamines would be contraindicated in the care of which and participate on hospital committees. She concludes that this
  patient? * nursing unit utilizes which of the following models? *
65. A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital because of 1/1 0/1
chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this patient should a. Patient who had been diagnosed with tuberculosis a. Nurse-manager decision making model
expect the physician to order what drug for the management of b. Patient who is undergoing estrogen-replacement therapy b. Decision-making model
the patient’s diarrhea? * c. Pregnant woman at 36 AOG c. Centralized decision making
1/1    
a. Zithromax d. Patient taking Sinupret d. Shared governance model
b. Sandostatin    
  71. What is most indicative of SLE? * 76. Raymond is employed as the Head of HR department of R
c. Levaquin 1/1 Hospital. Together with her co-HR employees they ensure that
d. Biaxin a. Facial rash newly employed nurses will be well-oriented with the institution’s
    rules ad regulations, policies and procedures. Julia with other
66. What drug increases body fat stores and has been found to b. Joint pain HR workers in the training department is given an authority
promote significant weight gain in patients with AIDS. * c. Emboli under what type of organization? *
1/1 d. 2 hemoglobin S gene 0/1
a. Estradiol   a. Informal Organization
b. Momordicacharantia 72. What is true of pemphigus? *  
c. Megestrol 0/1 b. Line organization
  a. Skin will have tiny red vesicles c. Staff organization
d. Functional organization ability to yield the same response upon its repeated  
  administration? * 87. To prescribe, adopt, issue and promulgate guidelines,
77. In a horizontal chart, the lowest level worker is located at 1/1 regulations, measures, and decisions for the improvement of
the * a. Validity nursing practice is the responsibility of: *
0/1 b. Reliability 0/1
A. Left most box   a. Professional Regulations Commission
B. Middle c. Sensitivity b. Philippine Nurses Association d. Board of Nursing (BON)
C. Right most box d. Objectivity  
D. Bottom   c. Associations of Deans of College of Nursing in the
  83. Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to detect Philippines (ADCNP)
  fine differences among the subjects being studied? * d. Board of Nursing (BON)
78. The nurse manager who is managing fiscal resources would 1/1  
consider which of the following to be a variable cost? * a. Sensitivity 88. Nurse Aya is a public health nurse employed by the City
1/1   Government of Pasig. She is required to be a member of GSIS
a. Lease b. Reliability or SSS retirement fund under which law? *
b. Medications c. Validity 0/1
  d. Objectivity a. Presidential decree 626
c. Electricity   b. Presidential decree 651
d. Telephone service 84. Which of the following terms refer to the degree to which an  
  instrument measures what it is supposed to be measure? * c. Presidential decree 1636
79. The researcher wishes to test for the difference between 1/1 d. Republic Act 1054
means where there are 3 or more groups consisting if interval a. Validity  
level data. Which statistical test is most appropriate to be used   89. Based on which law can a patient with Leprosy be treated in
by the researcher? * b. Reliability government clinic, rural health unit by a duly licensed
0/1 c. Meaningfulness physician? *
a. T-test d. Sensitivity 0/1
b. Paired T-test SITUATION: Nursing students must realize that to practice a. RA 4073
c. ANOVA test nursing, one must understand what is meant by professional b. RA 6365
d. Chi-square test nursing and how one may qualify to practice.  
    c. PD 1636
  85. To maintain competency in nursing, Nurse Mian attended a d. LOI 47
80. The unit manager checks the documentary requirements for 2 hour seminar about psychiatric nursing. And at one time she  
the applicants for staff nurse position. Which one is NOT became a resource speaker at one convention lasting 2 hours. 90. An Act that requires all communicable diseases to be
necessary? * Her equivalent credit units based on Continuing Professional reported to the nearest health station is under: *
1/1 Education for professionals is: * 1/1
a. Certificate of previous employment 1/1 a. RA 3753
b. Record of related learning experience (RLE) a. 12 b. RA 3537
    c. RA 3573
c. Membership to accredited professional organization b. 14  
d. Recommendation letter c. 16 d. RA 3375
  d. 18 SITUATION: Human sexuality encompasses the sexual
81. Which of the following is evidence that the controlling   knowledge, beliefs, attitudes, values, and behaviors of
process is effective? * 86. The Chairperson and six members shall be appointed by the individuals. It deals with the anatomy, physiology, and
1/1 President of the Republic of the Philippines. Nominees to fill up biochemistry of the sexual response system; roles, identity, and
a. The things that were planned are done the vacancies will be submitted by: * personality; and individual thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and
  0/1 relationships.
b. Physicians do not complain a. Professional Regulations Commission  
c. Employees are contended   91. All of the following are examples of characteristics that relate
d. There is an increase in customer satisfaction rate b. Accredited Professional Organization to sexuality. Which is not included? *
  c. Commission on Appointment 1/1
82. He checks if his instruments meet the criteria for evaluation. d. Associations of Deans of College of Nursing in the a. Maricar, who is a newly sexually active
Which of the following criteria refers to the consistency or the Philippines (ADCNP) b. Kimberly, who is unmarried and pregnant
c. Gemma, who is a rape survivor
d. Melai, who is a professor of sex education
 
 
92. While caring for a client with an issue about sexuality, the
following actions are appropriate responses by the nurse
except: *
1/1
a. Addressing the client’s concern in a non judgmental manner
􏰁􏰆􏰇 􏰘􏰈􏰃􏰇􏰄􏰁􏰉􏰊 􏰘􏰋􏰄􏰘
b. Assuring the client that all conversations will be kept
confidential
c. Sharing the information revealed by the client to the other
staff in the unit to facilitate continuity of care
 
d. Referring the client to family planning counselor,
psychologist, or other resources within or outside of the
institution.
SITUATION: Delegation is a critical leadership skill that must be
learned. It is essential to accomplish organizational goals.
 
93. Delegation is directing the performance of one or more
people to accomplish organizational goals. Nurse Agnes, the
head nurse of the pediatric unit will resort to underdelegation if
she: *
1/1
a. Believes that her staff is able to make sound clinical
judgment
b. Assumes that delegation means that she does not do her job
completely
 
c. Has poor time management
d. Feels insecure in her ability to perform a task
 
94. A registered nurse delegates complicated wound care for
client who had just been from surgery 24 hours ago to a nursing
aide. The nursing aide has only changed this type of dressing
once to a client who had been scheduled for discharge. The
component of delegation the Registered nurse neglected is: *
0/1
a. Authority
b. Competency
c. Communication
d. Responsibility
 
 
95. A charge nurse begins the shift overwhelmed by many
nursing care activities that need to be completed. The staff has
been working short-handed for months, and the charge has
become reluctant to delegate nursing activities such as checking
the code cart and performing narcotic counts to other qualified
staff. When questioned by the nursing supervisor about
insufficient delegation, the nurse explains that which barrier is of  
key of concern at this time? * 99. Dr. Araneta, together with Dr. Gil Puyat, both are general
0/1 practitioners, develop a study regarding a medication that may
a. Inadequate support inhibit the growth of intestinal flora as to prevent the occurrence
b. Disorganization of peptic ulcers. After their intensive research and study they
c. Hostile environment have concluded that the medication they ought to formulate
d. Incompetence cannot be distributed to pharmacies and not to be sold. Their
  disciples continued their research, and found out that the
SITUATION: Nurses realize that they have to keep with the medication the two doctors had conceptualized is really
many changes in the health care system and its delivery of effective. Knowing this, you concluded that Dr. Araneta and Dr.
services to the people. These developments require that nurses Gil Puyat committed which type of error? *
continue updating their knowledge, skills and attitudes to 0/1
competently and adequately meet those changing needs. a. Type 1 error
  b. Type 2 error
96. Julia is a unit representative to a hospital committee that c. Sampling bias
reviews medication errors. One error under current review d. Systematic error
occurred on a medical unit that is poorly staffed, requiring each  
nurse to be assigned to 8 clients. The nurse anticipates that this  
medication error most likely occurred because of which of the 100. Mr. V. Mapa is to conduct a study on high school students
following? * in Fort Bonifacio High School reflecting how many percent of
1/1 high school students both boys and girls who are currently
a. Faulty systems smoking. Considering the intellectual levels of each student, he
b. Unit-specific conditions decided to formulate questions that are preferred for some
  respondents who are unable to express themselves well.The
c. Failure in processes type of questionnaire this exemplifies is: *
d. Pharmacy error 0/1
  a. Open-ended questionnaire
97. Nurse Legarda works in a tertiary hospital. The hospital has b. Close-ended questionnaire
an ongoing assurance program. Which of the following actions c. Standardized questionnaire
indicates that Nurse Legarda is performing outcome evaluation d. Free-form questionnaire
of quality care? *
0/1
a. Checks the equipment for its calibration schedule
b. Determining the staffing pattern require in each unit to
provide effective nursing care
c. Determing if the nurse’s check the client;s indentification
band before giving the medication
 
d. Determining how many clients who are suffering from CVA
developed bed sores
 
98. Rose, the nurse leader notes that the average length of
hospital stay for client with diabetes mellitus is higher than for
non-diabetic clients. In investigating the reasons for this
discrepancy, the nurse leader should first plan to review which
of the following? *
0/1
a. Current policies and procedures
b. Specific outcome indicators
c. Evidenced-based research
 
d. Current clinical practice