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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) February/March 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7917388689*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB16 03_0625_12/3RP
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1 A student wishes to find the volume of a small, irregularly-shaped stone.

stone

A ruler and a measuring cylinder containing some water are available.

Which apparatus is needed?

A neither the ruler nor the measuring cylinder


B the measuring cylinder only
C the ruler and the measuring cylinder
D the ruler only

2 A ball is dropped from a table-top. Air resistance may be ignored.

Which row describes the velocity and the acceleration of the ball at point X?

acceleration velocity

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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3 The diagram shows the speed-time graph for a car.

speed

Y
X
0
0 time

Which area represents the distance travelled while the car is accelerating?

A X B X+Y C Y D Y–X

4 Which quantities are measured in the same unit?

A energy, power and work


B energy and power, but not work
C energy and work, but not power
D power and work, but not energy

5 Five identical bags of rice are balanced on a uniform beam by an object of mass 10 kg.

five bags
of rice 10 kg

pivot

Two more identical bags of rice are added to the other five. The average position of the bags on
the beam does not change.

What mass now balances the bags?

A 3.5 kg B 7.0 kg C 12 kg D 14 kg

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6 The diagram shows a cuboid block made from a metal of density 2.5 g / cm3.

2.0 cm 10 cm

2.0 cm

What is the mass of the block?

A 8.0 g B 16 g C 50 g D 100 g

7 The diagram shows an unbalanced rod. Two loads X and Y can be moved along the rod.

X Y
rod
movement movement
of rod of rod
pivot

The rod turns in a clockwise direction as shown.

Which action could make the rod balance?

A moving X to the left


B moving X to the right
C moving Y to the right
D moving the pivot to the left

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8 A box is being lifted by a fork-lift truck.

fork-lift truck box

The weight of the box is 3000 N.

The force exerted by the fork-lift truck on the box is 3500 N vertically upwards.

What is the resultant vertical force on the box?

A 500 N downwards
B 500 N upwards
C 6500 N downwards
D 6500 N upwards

9 The diagram shows a ball hanging on a string. The ball swings from point W to point Z and back
to point W.

ball

W Z
X Y

Which statement about the ball is correct?

A The kinetic energy of the ball is greatest at point W.


B The kinetic energy of the ball is greatest at point X.
C The kinetic energy of the ball is greatest at point Y.
D The kinetic energy of the ball is the same at all points of the swing.

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10 A person in a factory has to lift a box on to a shelf.

high shelf

box
low shelf

Which action involves the person doing the least amount of work?

A lifting the box quickly to the high shelf


B lifting the box slowly to the high shelf
C lifting the box to the low shelf first then lifting it to the high shelf
D lifting the box to the low shelf instead of to the high shelf

11 Which is a non-renewable energy resource?

A coal
B solar
C tides
D wind

12 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

Which labelled length is measured when finding atmospheric pressure?

mercury
B C D

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13 Identical toy bricks are placed one on top of another to make a tower on a table.

bricks

tower of bricks

table

Which graph shows the relationship between the pressure P that the tower exerts on the table
and the weight W of the tower?

A B C D
P P P P

0 0 0 0
0 W 0 W 0 W 0 W

14 The table lists the melting points and the boiling points of four different substances.

Which substance is a liquid at 0 °C?

melting point / °C boiling point / °C

A –219 –183
B –7 58
C 98 890
D 1083 2582

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15 Air in a sealed syringe is slowly compressed by moving the piston. The temperature of the air
stays the same.

air

syringe piston

Which statement about the air is correct?

A The pressure of the air decreases because its molecules now travel more slowly.
B The pressure of the air decreases because the area of the syringe walls is now smaller.
C The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now hit the syringe walls more
frequently.
D The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now travel more quickly.

16 Which quantity gives the thermal capacity of a solid object?

A the energy lost by radiation from the object in 1.0 s


B the energy needed to melt the object

C the energy needed to raise the temperature of the object by 1.0 °C


D the total amount of thermal energy in the object

17 To mark a temperature scale on a thermometer, standard temperatures known as fixed points are
needed.

Which of these is a fixed point on the Celsius scale?

A room temperature
B the temperature inside a freezer
C the temperature of pure melting ice
D the temperature of pure warm water

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18 The diagram shows electricity cables being put up on a warm day. The cables are left loose
between the poles, as shown in the diagram.

Why are the cables left loose?

A They will contract on cold days.


B They will contract on very warm days.
C They will expand on cold days.
D They will expand on very warm days.

19 A cotton sheet is ironed with a hot electric iron.

How is energy transferred through the metal base of the iron to the sheet?

A by conduction only
B by convection only
C by radiation only
D by convection and radiation only

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10

20 Two plastic cups are placed one inside the other. A small spacer keeps the two cups separated.

Hot water is poured into the inner cup and a lid is put on top, as shown.

lid

small spacer

small air gap

hot water

bench

Which statement is correct?

A The bench is heated by convection from the bottom of the outer cup.
B The lid reduces the energy lost by convection.
C There is no thermal conduction through the sides of either cup.
D Thermal radiation is prevented by the small air gap.

21 A water wave in a shallow tank passes through a gap in a barrier.

barrier

water
wave
gap

What happens to the speed and what happens to the wavelength of the wave as it passes
through the gap?

speed wavelength

A decreases decreases
B decreases remains constant
C remains constant decreases
D remains constant remains constant

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11

22 Which is a unit of wavelength?

A hertz
B metre
C metre per second
D second

23 Which diagram correctly shows a ray of light reflected by a plane mirror?

A B

ray of 40° 50° ray of 50°


light light
50°

C D

ray of 40° ray of 40°


light light
40° 50°

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12

24 A ray of white light is incident on a glass prism.

ray of
white
light
prism

Which ray diagram shows the ray as it passes through the prism and emerges from the opposite
side?

A B
red violet
spectrum spectrum
violet red

C D

red violet
spectrum spectrum
violet red

25 A sound wave travels from a point X to another point Y.

X Y

Which diagram represents the movement of the air molecules, due to the sound wave, in the
region between X and Y?

A B C D

26 Sound wave P has a greater amplitude and a larger wavelength in air than sound wave Q.

How do the loudness and pitch of P compare with the loudness and pitch of Q?

A P is louder and higher in pitch than Q.


B P is louder and lower in pitch than Q.
C P is quieter and higher in pitch than Q.
D P is quieter and lower in pitch than Q.
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13

27 In which pair are both materials magnetic?

A aluminium and copper


B copper and iron
C iron and steel
D steel and aluminium

28 The diagram shows the magnetic field around two bar magnets.

Which diagram shows the poles of the magnets?

A N S N S

B N S S N

C S N N S

D S N S N

29 Which produces an electromotive force (e.m.f.)?

A a battery
B a filament lamp
C a resistor
D a spring balance

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30 The table describes four different resistance wires. They are all made from the same metal.

Which wire has the smallest resistance?

length of diameter of
wire / m wire / mm

A 2.0 1.0
B 2.0 1.5
C 3.0 1.0
D 3.0 1.5

31 Four lamps are each labelled 240 V.

In which circuit do all four lamps have normal brightness?

A B

240 V 240 V

C D

240 V 240 V

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32 The diagram shows a 40 Ω resistor and a 60 Ω resistor connected in parallel.

60 Ω

P Q
40 Ω

What is the total resistance between points P and Q?

A less than 40 Ω

B 50 Ω

C between 60 Ω and 100 Ω

D 100 Ω

33 The diagram shows a potential divider connected to two voltmeters P and Q.

V voltmeter P

V voltmeter Q

The resistance of the variable resistor is decreased.

Which row shows what happens to the reading on each voltmeter?

reading on reading on
voltmeter P voltmeter Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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16

34 After some building work in a house, a bare (uninsulated) live wire is left protruding from a wall.

What is the greatest hazard?

A a fire
B a fuse blows
C an electric shock
D no current flows

35 A coil carries a current in a magnetic field. The coil experiences a turning effect.

Which device uses this effect?

A a d.c. motor
B an electromagnet
C a relay
D a transformer

36 A magnet is suspended from a spring so that it can move freely inside a stationary coil. The coil is
connected to a sensitive centre-zero galvanometer.

spring

moving magnet
N

S centre-zero
galvanometer
stationary coil

The magnet repeatedly moves slowly up and down.

What does the galvanometer show?

A a constantly changing reading


B a steady reading to the left
C a steady reading to the right
D a steady reading of zero

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17

56
37 A nucleus of element X is represented as 26 X.

Which is an isotope of element X?


26 54 56 54
A 56 X B 26 X C 24 X D 28 X

38 The charge on a proton is e.

What is the charge on an electron and what is the charge on a neutron?

electron neutron

A e e
B e 0
C –e –e
D –e 0

39 A scientist carries out an experiment using a sealed source which emits β-particles. The range of
the β-particles in the air is about 30 cm.

Which precaution is the most effective to protect the scientist from the radiation?

A handling the source with long tongs


B keeping the temperature of the source low
C opening all windows in the laboratory
D washing his hands before leaving the laboratory

40 Which row describes the nature of α-particles and of γ-rays?

α-particles γ-rays

A helium nuclei electromagnetic radiation


B helium nuclei electrons
C protons electromagnetic radiation
D protons electrons

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

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Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

MARK SCHEME for the March 2016 series

0625 PHYSICS
0625/12 Paper 1 (Multiple Choice – Core), maximum raw mark 40

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner
Report for Teachers.

Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the March 2016 series for most Cambridge IGCSE®
and Cambridge International A and AS Level components.

® IGCSE is the registered trademark of Cambridge International Examinations.


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Page 2 Mark Scheme Syllabus Paper


Cambridge IGCSE – March 2016 0625 12

Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 D
2 B 22 B
3 A 23 D
4 C 24 C
5 D 25 D

6 D 26 B
7 A 27 C
8 B 28 C
9 C 29 A
10 D 30 B

11 A 31 C
12 B 32 A
13 D 33 B
14 B 34 C
15 C 35 A

16 C 36 A
17 C 37 B
18 A 38 D
19 A 39 A
20 B 40 A

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*1549637503*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB16 06_0625_11/2RP
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1 The diagram shows an enlarged drawing of the end of a metre rule. It is being used to measure
the length of a small feather.

10 20 30
mm
cm 1 2 3

What is the length of the feather?

A 19 mm B 29 mm C 19 cm D 29 cm

2 A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes.

What is the average speed of the train?

A 3.0 m / s B 5.0 m / s C 50 m / s D 60 m / s

3 Two runners take part in a race.

The graph shows how the speed of each runner changes with time.

runner 1
speed
runner 2

0
0 t time

What does the graph show about the runners at time t ?

A Both runners are moving at the same speed.


B Runner 1 has zero acceleration.
C Runner 1 is overtaking runner 2.
D Runner 2 is slowing down.

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4 A cup contains hot liquid.

Some of the liquid evaporates.

What happens to the mass and what happens to the weight of the liquid in the cup?

mass weight

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same stays the same

5 An object has a mass of 50 kg.

The gravitational field strength on Earth is 10.0 N / kg.

The gravitational field strength on a distant planet is 4.0 N / kg.

What is the weight of the object on Earth, and what is its weight on the distant planet?

on the distant
on Earth
planet

A 5.0 kg 12.5 kg
B 5.0 N 12.5 N
C 500 kg 200 kg
D 500 N 200 N

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6 A student wishes to determine the density of an irregularly-shaped stone.

First he finds the mass of the stone. Next he lowers the stone into a measuring cylinder
containing water.

The diagrams show the measuring cylinder before and after the stone is lowered into it.

stone

reading 2
water
reading 1

water stone

How should the student calculate the density of the stone?

A mass of stone × reading 2

B mass of stone × (reading 2 – reading 1)

C mass of stone ÷ reading 2

D mass of stone ÷ (reading 2 – reading 1)

7 Which is an example of a force?

A energy
B power
C pressure
D weight

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8 The diagram shows an object of weight W and an object of weight Z balanced on a uniform metre
rule.

a b
object of object of
weight W 50 cm mark weight Z

pivot
metre rule

Which equation relating to W, Z, a and b is correct?

W Z
A =
a b

B W×Z=a×b

C W×a=Z×b

D W × (a + b) = Z

9 A skier walks from the bottom of a ski slope to the top and gains 10 000 J of gravitational potential
energy.

She skis down the slope. At the bottom of the slope, her kinetic energy is 2000 J.

How much energy is dissipated in overcoming friction and air resistance as the skier moves down
the slope?

A 2000 J B 8000 J C 10 000 J D 12 000 J

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10 A coal-fired power station generates electricity. Coal is burnt and the energy released is used to
boil water. The steam from the water makes the generator move and this produces electricity.

Which words are used to describe the energy stored in the coal and the energy of the moving
generator?

coal generator

A chemical hydroelectric
B chemical kinetic
C geothermal hydroelectric
D geothermal kinetic

11 Four different children run up the same set of stairs.

For which child is the useful power to climb the stairs the greatest?

mass of child / kg time taken / s

A 40 15
B 50 25
C 60 25
D 70 15

12 The diagram shows three vases each with the same base area. Each vase contains water of the
same depth.

water water water

P Q R

Which statement about the water pressures at points P, Q and R is correct?

A The pressure at point P is the greatest.


B The pressure at point Q is the least.
C The pressure at point R is the greatest.
D The pressures at points P, Q and R are the same.

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13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

mercury

X
Y
Z

The atmospheric pressure increases.

Which distance increases?

A VW B WY C XY D XZ

14 Which statement about evaporation is correct?

A Evaporation causes the temperature of the remaining liquid to decrease.


B Evaporation does not occur from a cold liquid near its freezing point.
C Evaporation does not occur from a dense liquid, such as mercury.
D Evaporation occurs from all parts of a liquid.

15 A gas is stored in a sealed container of constant volume. The temperature of the gas increases.
This causes the pressure of the gas to increase.

What happens to the gas molecules during this pressure increase?

A The average kinetic energy of the molecules increases.


B The average separation of the molecules decreases.
C The average separation of the molecules increases.
D The volume of each molecule increases.

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16 A substance loses thermal energy (heat) to the surroundings at a steady rate.

The graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes with time.

temperature
P

0
0 time

What could the portion PQ of the graph represent?

A gas condensing
B gas cooling
C liquid cooling
D liquid solidifying

17 A student wishes to check the upper and the lower fixed points on a Celsius scale thermometer.

–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 °C

She has four beakers P, Q, R and S.

Beaker P contains a mixture of ice and salt.


Beaker Q contains a mixture of ice and water.
Beaker R contains boiling salt solution.
Beaker S contains boiling water.

Which two beakers should she use to check the fixed points?

A P and R B P and S C Q and R D Q and S

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18 The same quantity of thermal energy is supplied to two solid objects X and Y. The temperature
increase of object X is greater than the temperature increase of object Y.

Which statement explains this?

A X has a lower melting point than Y.


B X has a lower density than Y.
C X has a lower thermal capacity than Y.
D X is a better thermal conductor than Y.

19 A liquid is heated in a beaker.

liquid

heating

The density of the liquid changes as its temperature increases. This causes energy to be
transferred throughout the liquid.

How does the density change and what is this energy transfer process?

energy transfer
density
process

A decreases conduction
B decreases convection
C increases conduction
D increases convection

20 A rod is made half of glass and half of copper. Four pins A, B, C and D are attached to the rod by
wax. The rod is heated in the centre as shown.

The pins fall off when the wax melts.

Which pin falls off first?

glass copper

pin pin pin pin


A B C D
heat
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10

21 Which row shows the natures of light waves, sound waves and X-rays?

light waves sound waves X-rays

A longitudinal longitudinal transverse


B longitudinal transverse longitudinal
C transverse longitudinal transverse
D transverse transverse longitudinal

22 Radio waves are received at a house at the bottom of a hill.

radio
waves

house
hill

The waves reach the house because the hill has caused them to be

A diffracted.
B radiated.
C reflected.
D refracted.

23 The ray diagram shows the image of an object formed by a converging lens.

converging
lens
object

image

50 cm 40 cm 72 cm

What is the focal length of the lens?

A 40 cm B 50 cm C 72 cm D 90 cm

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11

24 The diagram shows the dispersion of white light by a prism.

prism

white X
Y spectrum
light
Z of colours

Which row could be correct for the colours seen at X, at Y and at Z?

colour at X colour at Y colour at Z

A red violet yellow


B red yellow violet
C violet yellow red
D yellow red violet

25 Why can ultrasound not be heard by humans?

A The amplitude is too great.


B The frequency is too great.
C The speed is too great.
D The wavelength is too great.

26 A sound wave has a certain amplitude and a certain frequency.

A second sound wave is quieter and lower in pitch than the first sound wave.

The second wave has

A a larger amplitude and a greater frequency.


B a larger amplitude and a smaller frequency.
C a smaller amplitude and a greater frequency.
D a smaller amplitude and a smaller frequency.

27 Which statement about a magnet is correct?

A A magnet attracts a gold rod.


B A magnet does not attract a plastic rod.
C A magnet never repels another magnet.
D A magnet sometimes repels an unmagnetised nickel rod.

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12

28 A student wishes to make a permanent magnet. She has an iron rod and a steel rod.

Which rod should she use to make the permanent magnet, and is this rod a hard magnetic
material or a soft magnetic material?

type of magnetic
rod
material

A iron hard
B iron soft
C steel hard
D steel soft

29 The circuit shown includes two meters X and Y, connected correctly.

Which row gives the unit of the quantity measured by X and the unit of the quantity measured
by Y?

meter X meter Y

A ampere ampere
B ampere volt
C volt ampere
D volt volt

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13

30 A polythene rod is rubbed with a cloth.

polythene rod

cloth

The rod and the cloth both become charged as electrons move between them.

The rod becomes negatively charged.

Which diagram shows how the rod becomes negatively charged, and the final charge on the
cloth?

A B
electron electron
– – movement – – movement
– –
– –
– – + + + – – + + +
– – – + + + – – – + + +
+ +
+ + + +

C D
electron electron
– movement – movement
– – – –
– –
– –– – – – – –– – – –
– – – – – –
– – –– – – ––
– –

31 What is the function of a relay?

A to allow a current in one circuit to operate a switch in another circuit


B to prevent an electric shock by earthing a metal case
C to protect a circuit by melting if the current becomes too large
D to transform a d.c. voltage to a different value

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32 The circuit shown contains three ammeters X, Y and Z.

X A Z
A
10 Ω

A
20 Ω Y

Which ammeter has the largest reading?

A X
B Y
C Z
D They all have the same reading.

33 The diagram shows part of a circuit used to switch street lamps on and off automatically.

LDR

In the evening it gets dark.

Which row shows the effect on the resistance of the light-dependent resistor (LDR) and on the
potential difference (p.d.) across it?

resistance of LDR p.d. across LDR

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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34 A domestic circuit includes a 30 A fuse. This protects the wiring if there is too much current in the
circuit.

In which wire is the 30 A fuse positioned, and what does it do when it operates?

position operation

A live wire disconnects the circuit


B live wire reduces the current to 30 A
C neutral wire disconnects the circuit
D neutral wire reduces the current to 30 A

35 A strong electromagnet is used to attract pins.

current core

coil
pins

What happens when the current in the coil is halved?

A No pins are attracted.


B Some pins are attracted, but not as many.
C The same number of pins is attracted.
D More pins are attracted.

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36 The diagram shows a transformer.

input output
voltage voltage

primary coil secondary coil


800 turns 40 turns

The input voltage is 240 V.

What is the output voltage?

A 6.0 V B 12 V C 20 V D 40 V

37
37 How many neutrons are in a nucleus of the nuclide 17 Cl ?

A 17 B 20 C 37 D 54

38 A certain element has several isotopes.

Which statement about these isotopes is correct?

A They must have different numbers of electrons orbiting their nuclei.


B They must have the same number of neutrons in their nuclei.
C They must have the same number of nucleons in their nuclei.
D They must have the same number of protons in their nuclei.

39 A radioactive nucleus emits either an α-particle or a β-particle.

What are the products of these two types of radioactive emission?

product after α-emission product after β-emission

A a nucleus of a different element a nucleus of a different element


B a nucleus of a different element a nucleus of the same element
C a nucleus of the same element a nucleus of a different element
D a nucleus of the same element a nucleus of the same element

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40 A reading is taken every 10 minutes of the number of emissions per second from a radioactive
source. The table shows the readings.

number of
time / min emissions
per second

0 800
10 560
20 400
30 280
40 200
50 140
60 100

What is the half-life of the source?

A 10 min B 20 min C 40 min D 60 min

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18

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20

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

S-RECOURSE_03234567800
Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2016
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2016 series for most Cambridge IGCSE®,
Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

® IGCSE is the registered trademark of Cambridge International Examinations.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 2 printed pages.

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Page 2 Mark Scheme Syllabus Paper


Cambridge IGCSE – May/June 2016 0625 11

Question Question
Key Key
Number Number

1 A 21 C
2 C 22 A
3 A 23 A
4 A 24 B
5 D 25 B

6 D 26 D
7 D 27 B
8 C 28 C
9 B 29 D
10 B 30 B

11 D 31 A
12 D 32 C
13 B 33 D
14 A 34 A
15 A 35 B

16 C 36 B
17 D 37 B
18 C 38 D
19 B 39 A
20 C 40 B

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8209657760*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB16 06_0625_12/2RP
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1 The diagram shows an enlarged drawing of the end of a metre rule. It is being used to measure
the length of a small feather.

10 20 30
mm
cm 1 2 3

What is the length of the feather?

A 19 mm B 29 mm C 19 cm D 29 cm

2 The graph shows how the speed of a van changes with time for part of its journey.

In which labelled section is the van decelerating?

speed

0
0 A B C D time

3 A large stone is dropped from a bridge into a river. Air resistance can be ignored.

Which row describes the acceleration and the speed of the stone as it falls?

acceleration speed of
of the stone the stone

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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4 A cup contains hot liquid.

Some of the liquid evaporates.

What happens to the mass and what happens to the weight of the liquid in the cup?

mass weight

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same stays the same

5 A boy throws a stone. The stone leaves the boy’s hand and moves vertically upwards. Air
resistance can be ignored.

How should the force on the stone be described just after the stone leaves the boy’s hand?

A downwards and constant


B downwards and increasing
C upwards and constant
D upwards and decreasing

6 The diagrams show the dimensions and masses of four regular solid objects. The objects are
made from different metals.

Which metal has the greatest density?

A B C D

2.0 cm
1.0 cm 2.0 cm
1.0 cm

2.0 cm 2.0 cm 1.0 cm 1.0 cm 2.0 cm 2.0 cm


1.0 cm 1.0 cm
mass = 20 g mass = 6.0 g mass = 14 g mass = 32 g

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7 A car travels along a straight road.

The speed-time graph for this journey is shown.

During which labelled part of the journey is the resultant force on the car zero?

speed

C
B
D

0
0 time

8 The diagrams show four objects A, B, C and D. The centre of mass M of each object is marked
on the diagrams.

Which object is not in equilibrium?

A B C D

M
M
M M

9 A skier walks from the bottom of a ski slope to the top and gains 10 000 J of gravitational potential
energy.

She skis down the slope. At the bottom of the slope, her kinetic energy is 2000 J.

How much energy is dissipated in overcoming friction and air resistance as the skier moves down
the slope?

A 2000 J B 8000 J C 10 000 J D 12 000 J

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10 Which energy source is one that is used to boil water to make steam in power stations?

A energy from tides


B energy from waves
C hydroelectric energy
D nuclear energy

11 In a factory, two men X and Y try to move identical heavy boxes P and Q.

Man X tries to push box P along the floor. The box does not move because an object is in the
way.

Man Y lifts box Q from the floor onto a shelf.

shelf
box P man X man Y

direction
of force
object

direction of force box Q

Which man does the most work on the box, and which box gains the most energy?

man doing box gaining


most work most energy

A X P
B X Q
C Y P
D Y Q

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12 A T-shaped girder is placed on the ground in position X. It is then turned over to position Y.

ground

position X position Y

What happens to the force on the ground and what happens to the pressure on the ground?

force pressure

A increases increases
B increases remains the same
C remains the same increases
D remains the same remains the same

13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

mercury

X
Y
Z

The atmospheric pressure increases.

Which distance increases?

A VW B WY C XY D XZ

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14 A liquid is evaporating. The liquid is not boiling.

Which statement about the liquid is correct?

A Any molecule can escape, and from any part of the liquid.
B Any molecule can escape, but only from the liquid surface.
C Only molecules with enough energy can escape, and only from the liquid surface.
D Only molecules with enough energy can escape, but from any part of the liquid.

15 The diagram shows a quantity of gas enclosed in a cylinder by a piston.

moves to the left

gas

moves to the right

cylinder piston

The piston is moved to the left or to the right. The temperature of the gas is kept constant.

Which row describes the effect of moving the piston slowly in the direction shown in the table?

movement speed of gas pressure


of piston molecules of gas

A to the left increases decreases


B to the left no change increases
C to the right increases decreases
D to the right no change increases

16 Which statement describes what happens as ice at 0 °C starts to melt to become water?

A Energy is absorbed and the temperature remains constant.


B Energy is absorbed and the temperature rises.
C Energy is released and the temperature remains constant.
D Energy is released and the temperature rises.

17 What is meant by the fixed points of the scale of a liquid-in-glass thermometer?

A the distance between one scale division and the next


B the highest and lowest temperatures that the thermometer can record
C the maximum and minimum depth to which the thermometer should be submerged in a liquid
D the two agreed temperatures used for marking the temperature scale

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18 A liquid at room temperature fills a flask and a glass tube to level X.

X
Y

liquid

The flask is now placed in ice, and the liquid level in the tube falls to level Y.

Why does the level fall?

A The flask contracts.


B The flask expands.
C The liquid contracts.
D The liquid expands.

19 Which process involves convection?

A bread toasting under a grill


B energy from the Sun warming a road surface
C hot air rising to the top of a cool room
D thermal energy transfer through a copper bar

20 A rod is made half of glass and half of copper. Four pins A, B, C and D are attached to the rod by
wax. The rod is heated in the centre as shown.

The pins fall off when the wax melts.

Which pin falls off first?

glass copper

pin pin pin pin


A B C D
heat

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21 Which row shows the natures of light waves, sound waves and X-rays?

light waves sound waves X-rays

A longitudinal longitudinal transverse


B longitudinal transverse longitudinal
C transverse longitudinal transverse
D transverse transverse longitudinal

22 Radio waves are received at a house at the bottom of a hill.

radio
waves

house
hill

The waves reach the house because the hill has caused them to be

A diffracted.
B radiated.
C reflected.
D refracted.

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10

23 The diagram shows a ray of light in air incident on a glass block. Some of the light is refracted,
and some of the light is reflected. Two angles p and q are marked on the diagram.

ray of
light q
air p
glass

Which row gives the angle of incidence and shows whether the ray undergoes total internal
reflection?

angle of total internal


incidence reflection

A p no
B p yes
C q no
D q yes

24 Visible light has a frequency of approximately 5.0 × 1014 Hz.

M and N are two other types of electromagnetic radiation.

The frequency of M is 5.0 × 106 Hz.

The frequency of N is 5.0 × 1015 Hz.

Which types of radiation are M and N?

M N

A radio waves infra-red


B radio waves ultraviolet
C ultraviolet X-rays
D X-rays infra-red

25 What is the approximate range of hearing of a healthy human ear?

A 2.0 Hz to 2.0 kHz


B 2.0 Hz to 20 kHz
C 20 Hz to 2.0 kHz
D 20 Hz to 20 kHz

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11

26 A singer sings two notes. The first note is louder and lower in pitch than the second note.

Which statement about the two notes is correct?

A The first note has a larger amplitude and a larger frequency than the second note.
B The first note has a larger amplitude and a smaller frequency than the second note.
C The first note has a smaller amplitude and a larger frequency than the second note.
D The first note has a smaller amplitude and a smaller frequency than the second note.

27 Two nickel bars are placed close to the N-pole of a bar magnet.

The nickel bars become magnetised.

magnet
nickel bars

S N P Q

Which row states the pole induced at P, the pole induced at Q, and the type of magnetic force
between P and Q?

pole induced pole induced force between


at P at Q P and Q

A N S attraction
B N S repulsion
C S N attraction
D S N repulsion

28 A student wishes to make a permanent magnet. She has an iron rod and a steel rod.

Which rod should she use to make the permanent magnet, and is this rod a hard magnetic
material or a soft magnetic material?

type of magnetic
rod
material

A iron hard
B iron soft
C steel hard
D steel soft

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12

29 Two meters are connected in a circuit to measure the current in a component and the potential
difference across the component.

Which meters are used and how are they connected to the component?

A an ammeter in parallel for current, a voltmeter in series for potential difference


B an ammeter in series for current, a voltmeter in parallel for potential difference
C a voltmeter in parallel for current, an ammeter in series for potential difference
D a voltmeter in series for current, an ammeter in parallel for potential difference

30 A wire has a certain electrical resistance.

The diameter and length of the wire may be changed.

Which pair of changes must cause the resistance of the wire to increase?

change of change of
diameter length

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

31 P and Q are the circuit symbols for two electrical components.

P Q

Which components are represented by P and by Q?

P Q

A thermistor fuse
B thermistor relay
C variable resistor fuse
D variable resistor relay

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13

32 The diagram shows two resistors connected in a circuit.

6.0 Ω

12 Ω

What could be the combined resistance of this arrangement of resistors?

A 4.0 Ω B 6.0 Ω C 9.0 Ω D 18 Ω

33 The diagram shows part of a circuit used to switch street lamps on and off automatically.

LDR

In the evening it gets dark.

Which row shows the effect on the resistance of the light-dependent resistor (LDR) and on the
potential difference (p.d.) across it?

resistance of LDR p.d. across LDR

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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14

34 A domestic circuit includes a 30 A fuse. This protects the wiring if there is too much current in the
circuit.

In which wire is the 30 A fuse positioned, and what does it do when it operates?

position operation

A live wire disconnects the circuit


B live wire reduces the current to 30 A
C neutral wire disconnects the circuit
D neutral wire reduces the current to 30 A

35 A strong electromagnet is used to attract pins.

current core

coil
pins

What happens when the current in the coil is halved?

A No pins are attracted.


B Some pins are attracted, but not as many.
C The same number of pins is attracted.
D More pins are attracted.

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36 The diagram shows a transformer.

input output
voltage voltage

primary coil secondary coil


800 turns 40 turns

The input voltage is 240 V.

What is the output voltage?

A 6.0 V B 12 V C 20 V D 40 V

37 A neutral atom consists of electrons orbiting a nucleus. The nucleus contains protons and
neutrons.

Which statement about the atom must be correct?

A The number of electrons is equal to the number of neutrons.


B The number of electrons is equal to the number of protons.
C The number of neutrons is equal to the number of protons.
D The number of electrons, neutrons and protons are all different.

38 Below are the symbols for five different nuclides.

35 37 38 81 81
17 X X
17 18 X 35 X 37 X
nuclide 1 nuclide 2 nuclide 3 nuclide 4 nuclide 5

Which two nuclides are isotopes of the same element?

A nuclide 1 and nuclide 2


B nuclide 2 and nuclide 3
C nuclide 2 and nuclide 5
D nuclide 4 and nuclide 5

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39 Which row describes the nature and a property of all β-particles?

nature property

A electrons can travel through a vacuum


B electrons stopped by a thin sheet of paper
C helium nuclei can travel through a vacuum
D helium nuclei stopped by a thin sheet of paper

40 The graph shows how the decay rate of a radioactive source changes with time.

4000
decay rate
3000
decays / s

2000

1000

0
0 2 4 6 8 10
time / days

What will be the activity at 8 days?

A 0 decays / s
B 125 decays / s
C 250 decays / s
D 500 decays / s

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

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Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2016
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2016 series for most Cambridge IGCSE®,
Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

® IGCSE is the registered trademark of Cambridge International Examinations.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 2 printed pages.

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Page 2 Mark Scheme Syllabus Paper


Cambridge IGCSE – May/June 2016 0625 12

Question Question
Key Key
Number Number

1 A 21 C
2 B 22 A
3 B 23 C
4 A 24 B
5 A 25 D

6 C 26 B
7 B 27 A
8 C 28 C
9 B 29 B
10 D 30 B

11 D 31 A
12 C 32 A
13 B 33 D
14 C 34 A
15 B 35 B

16 A 36 B
17 D 37 B
18 C 38 A
19 C 39 A
20 C 40 C

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*0740940604*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB16 06_0625_13/3RP
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1 The diagram shows an enlarged drawing of the end of a metre rule. It is being used to measure
the length of a small feather.

10 20 30
mm
cm 1 2 3

What is the length of the feather?

A 19 mm B 29 mm C 19 cm D 29 cm

2 An object moves at a constant speed for some time, then begins to accelerate.

Which distance-time graph shows this motion?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

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3 A car travels at an average speed of 60 km / h for 15 minutes.

How far does the car travel in this time?

A 4.0 km B 15 km C 240 km D 900 km

4 A heavy object is released near the surface of the Earth and falls freely. Air resistance can be
ignored.

Which statement about the acceleration of the object due to gravity is correct?

A The acceleration depends on the mass of the object.


B The acceleration depends on the volume of the object.
C The acceleration is constant.
D The acceleration is initially zero and increases as the object falls.

5 A cup contains hot liquid.

Some of the liquid evaporates.

What happens to the mass and what happens to the weight of the liquid in the cup?

mass weight

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same stays the same

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6 Diagram 1 shows a measuring cylinder containing water.

Diagram 2 shows the same measuring cylinder and water after 10 identical solid glass spheres
have been added.

100 cm3 100 cm3

90 90
80 80
70 70
60 60
50 50
40 40
30 30
20 20
10 10

diagram 1 diagram 2

The mass of one of the spheres is 10 g.

What is the density of the glass from which the spheres are made?

A 0.25 g / cm3 B 0.40 g / cm3 C 2.5 g / cm3 D 4.0 g / cm3

7 A feather falls through the air. Its downward speed is constant.

Which statement about the feather is correct?

A No energy is lost to the air as the feather falls.


B The air resistance acting on the feather is greater than its weight.
C The feather experiences no resultant vertical force.
D There is a resultant downward force on the feather.

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8 The diagram shows an L-shaped piece of card suspended freely from a pin at B.

When the card is pushed, it swings and then comes to a stop in the position shown.

At which labelled point is the centre of mass of the card?

card suspended
from here
A
B

D
C

9 A skier walks from the bottom of a ski slope to the top and gains 10 000 J of gravitational potential
energy.

She skis down the slope. At the bottom of the slope, her kinetic energy is 2000 J.

How much energy is dissipated in overcoming friction and air resistance as the skier moves down
the slope?

A 2000 J B 8000 J C 10 000 J D 12 000 J

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10 Which energy source is renewable and reliably available at all times?

A coal
B geothermal
C nuclear
D wind

11 Two workers are stacking cans on to a shelf in a shop. The workers lift the same number of
identical cans on to the same shelf from the same level.

Worker P takes 3.0 minutes to lift the cans. Worker Q takes 4.0 minutes to lift the cans.

Which statement about the workers is correct?

A Worker P develops less useful power than worker Q.


B Worker P develops more useful power than worker Q.
C Worker P does less useful work than worker Q.
D Worker P does more useful work than worker Q.

12 The diagram shows four solid pieces of the same metal. Each piece has the same thickness and
stands on a bench as shown.

Which piece of metal produces the greatest pressure on the bench?

A B C D

1.0 cm 3.0 cm 1.0 cm 2.0 cm

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13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

mercury

X
Y
Z

The atmospheric pressure increases.

Which distance increases?

A VW B WY C XY D XZ

14 What causes the random, zig-zag movement (Brownian motion) of smoke particles suspended in
air?

A air molecules colliding with smoke particles


B convection currents as the hot smoke rises
C smoke particles colliding with each other
D smoke particles reacting with oxygen molecules in the air

15 A sealed bottle of constant volume contains air.

The air in the bottle is heated by the Sun.

What is the effect on the average speed of the air molecules in the bottle, and the average
distance between them?

average distance
average speed
between air
of air molecules
molecules

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C increases increases
D increases stays the same

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16 The melting points of ethanol and mercury are shown.

melting point / °C

ethanol –114
mercury –39

Which of these two liquids is / are suitable to use in a liquid-in-glass thermometer to measure
temperatures of –50 °C and –120 °C?

A ethanol only
B ethanol and mercury
C mercury only
D neither ethanol nor mercury

17 A jug of water is at room temperature.

Several ice cubes at a temperature of 0 °C are dropped into the water and they begin to melt
immediately.

What happens to the temperature of the water and what happens to the temperature of the ice
cubes while they are melting?

temperature of temperature of
the water the ice cubes

A decreases increases
B decreases stays constant
C stays constant increases
D stays constant stays constant

18 Which quantity gives the thermal capacity of a beaker?

A the thermal energy required to change the state of the beaker at constant temperature

B the thermal energy required to raise the temperature of the beaker by 1 °C


C the total mass of hot liquid that the beaker can hold
D the total volume of hot liquid that the beaker can hold

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19 A student suggests some uses for containers made from good thermal conductors and for
containers made from poor thermal conductors.

In which row are both suggested uses correct?

good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

A keeping a cold liquid at transferring thermal energy


a low temperature quickly from a hot liquid
B keeping a hot liquid at keeping a cold liquid at
a high temperature a low temperature
C transferring thermal energy transferring thermal energy
quickly from a hot liquid quickly to a cold liquid
D transferring thermal energy keeping a hot liquid at
quickly to a cold liquid a high temperature

20 A rod is made half of glass and half of copper. Four pins A, B, C and D are attached to the rod by
wax. The rod is heated in the centre as shown.

The pins fall off when the wax melts.

Which pin falls off first?

glass copper

pin pin pin pin


A B C D
heat

21 Which row shows the natures of light waves, sound waves and X-rays?

light waves sound waves X-rays

A longitudinal longitudinal transverse


B longitudinal transverse longitudinal
C transverse longitudinal transverse
D transverse transverse longitudinal

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10

22 Radio waves are received at a house at the bottom of a hill.

radio
waves

house
hill

The waves reach the house because the hill has caused them to be

A diffracted.
B radiated.
C reflected.
D refracted.

23 The diagram shows an object in front of a plane mirror.

At which labelled position is the image of the object formed?

B C

A D
plane
mirror

eye
object

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11

24 White light enters a glass prism. The light leaving the other side of the prism is separated into
colours.

glass glass
prism prism

white white
light colour 1 light colour 1
colour 2 colour 2
diagram 1 diagram 2

Which row correctly describes what happens?

path taken by
colour 1 colour 2
the light

A diagram 1 red violet


B diagram 1 violet red
C diagram 2 red violet
D diagram 2 violet red

25 Which range of wave frequencies includes only sounds that can be heard by a human with
normal hearing?

A 3.0 Hz to 300 Hz
B 30 Hz to 3000 Hz
C 300 Hz to 30 000 Hz
D 3000 Hz to 300 000 Hz

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12

26 A candle flame is placed in front of a loudspeaker.

The loudspeaker produces a sound wave that causes air particles to vibrate. The vibrating air
particles make the candle flame vibrate in the same direction as the air particles.

candle
flame

loudspeaker

Which row shows the direction of vibration of the candle flame, and the nature of sound waves?

direction of nature of
vibration sound waves

A longitudinal

B transverse

C longitudinal

D transverse

27 Which statement about magnetism is correct?

A An unmagnetised iron bar becomes magnetised when it is placed near a magnet.


B An unmagnetised steel bar can be magnetised by passing a current through it.
C The direction of magnetic field lines is from an S-pole to an N-pole.
D The N-poles of two magnets attract each other.

28 A student wishes to make a permanent magnet. She has an iron rod and a steel rod.

Which rod should she use to make the permanent magnet, and is this rod a hard magnetic
material or a soft magnetic material?

type of magnetic
rod
material

A iron hard
B iron soft
C steel hard
D steel soft

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13

29 A flexible electrical cable consists of a central conductor and outer insulation.

central outer
conductor insulation

Which pair of materials is suitable for the cable?

central conductor outer insulation

A copper plastic
B lead wood
C plastic copper
D wood lead

30 The diagram shows a battery connected to two resistors.

Four students separately measure the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery, the current in
the resistors, and the potential difference (p.d.) across resistor R.

Their results are shown in the table below.

Which row shows values with their correct units?

e.m.f. current p.d.

A 3.0 A 0.30 V 1.5 A


B 3.0 A 0.30 A 1.5 V
C 3.0 V 0.30 V 1.5 A
D 3.0 V 0.30 A 1.5 V

31 Why are lamps in a house lighting circuit connected in parallel rather than in series?

A If one lamp stops working, the remaining lamps become brighter.


B Less current is taken from the power supply.
C The lamps can be turned off independently using switches.
D When more lamps are added, their brightness decreases.

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14

32 The diagram shows a cell connected to two 6.0 Ω resistors. Three currents, I1, I2 and I3, are
labelled.

I1
6.0 Ω I2

6.0 Ω I3

Which row correctly compares I2 and I3 with I1?

I2 I3

A same as I1 same as I1
B same as I1 smaller than I1
C smaller than I1 same as I1
D smaller than I1 smaller than I1

33 The diagram shows part of a circuit used to switch street lamps on and off automatically.

LDR

In the evening it gets dark.

Which row shows the effect on the resistance of the light-dependent resistor (LDR) and on the
potential difference (p.d.) across it?

resistance of LDR p.d. across LDR

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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15

34 A domestic circuit includes a 30 A fuse. This protects the wiring if there is too much current in the
circuit.

In which wire is the 30 A fuse positioned, and what does it do when it operates?

position operation

A live wire disconnects the circuit


B live wire reduces the current to 30 A
C neutral wire disconnects the circuit
D neutral wire reduces the current to 30 A

35 A strong electromagnet is used to attract pins.

current core

coil
pins

What happens when the current in the coil is halved?

A No pins are attracted.


B Some pins are attracted, but not as many.
C The same number of pins is attracted.
D More pins are attracted.

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16

36 The diagram shows a transformer.

input output
voltage voltage

primary coil secondary coil


800 turns 40 turns

The input voltage is 240 V.

What is the output voltage?

A 6.0 V B 12 V C 20 V D 40 V

37 A proton and a neutron are each close to a positive nucleus.

proton + neutron

positive
nucleus

How does the charge on the nucleus affect the proton and the neutron, if at all?

A The neutron is attracted; the proton is repelled.


B The neutron is not affected; the proton is repelled.
C The proton is attracted; the neutron is repelled.
D The proton is not affected; the neutron is repelled.

38 Below are four statements about isotopes of a certain element.

Which statement about the isotopes must be correct?

A They are radioactive.


B They are unstable.
C They have the same number of neutrons.
D They have the same number of protons.

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17

39 Radioactive materials should be handled carefully.

Which safety precaution does not reduce the risk to people using a radioactive material?

A keeping the material a long distance from people


B keeping the material at a low temperature
C using lead screening between the material and people
D using the material for only a short time

40 A sample of a radioactive isotope has an initial rate of emission of 128 counts per minute and a
half-life of 4 days.

How long will it take for the rate of emission to fall to 32 counts per minute?

A 2 days B 4 days C 8 days D 12 days

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

S-RECOURSE_03234567800
Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 0625/13/M/J/16

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2016
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2016 series for most Cambridge IGCSE®,
Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

® IGCSE is the registered trademark of Cambridge International Examinations.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 2 printed pages.

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Page 2 Mark Scheme Syllabus Paper


Cambridge IGCSE – May/June 2016 0625 13

Question Question
Key Key
Number Number

1 A 21 C
2 C 22 A
3 B 23 B
4 C 24 C
5 A 25 B

6 C 26 C
7 C 27 A
8 C 28 C
9 B 29 A
10 B 30 D

11 B 31 C
12 A 32 D
13 B 33 D
14 A 34 A
15 D 35 B

16 D 36 B
17 B 37 B
18 B 38 D
19 D 39 B
20 C 40 C

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8912063471*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB16 11_0625_11/5RP
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1 A student has a can of oil.

Which quantity can be measured using only a measuring cylinder?

A density of the oil


B mass of the oil
C volume of the oil
D weight of the oil

2 The graph shows how the distance travelled by a vehicle changes with time.

S
distance
Q R

P
0
0 time

Which row describes the speed of the vehicle in each section of the graph?

P to Q Q to R R to S

A constant zero constant


B constant zero decreasing
C increasing constant decreasing
D increasing zero constant

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3 A stone falls freely from the top of a cliff. Air resistance may be ignored.

Which graph shows how the acceleration of the stone varies with time as it falls?

A B

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

4 What name is given to the gravitational force of the Earth on an object?

A density
B mass
C volume
D weight

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5 The diagrams show an empty rectangular box, and the same box filled with liquid.

The box has a mass of 60 g when empty. When filled with liquid, the total mass of the box and the
liquid is 300 g.

empty box box filled with liquid


60 g 300 g

The density of the liquid is 1.2 g / cm3.

What is the volume of the liquid in the box?

A 50 cm3 B 200 cm3 C 250 cm3 D 300 cm3

6 The diagrams show four identical objects. Each object is acted on by only the forces shown.

Which diagram shows an object in equilibrium?

A B C D

10 N 10 N 10 N 10 N 10 N 20 N

10 N 10 N

20 N 10 N 10 N 10 N

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7 A student investigates a steel spring. He measures the length of the spring, then he hangs
different weights from the spring. He measures the length of the spring for each different weight.

The table shows his results.

length of
weight / N
spring / mm

0.0 108
2.0 116
4.0 124
6.0 132

A weight of 3.0 N is hung from the spring.

What is the extension of the spring?

A 4 mm B 12 mm C 40 mm D 120 mm

8 The diagram shows a plank balanced on a pivot. Three forces F, P and Q act on the plank, as
shown.

pivot
P F Q

The force F is increased, but continues to act at the same distance from the pivot. The plank is no
longer balanced.

Which change could make the plank balance again?

A decrease Q
B increase P
C move P further from the pivot
D move Q further from the pivot

9 Which energy transfer takes place when petrol is burned?

A chemical to internal energy of surroundings (heat)


B chemical to nuclear
C gravitational potential to internal energy of surroundings (heat)
D kinetic to chemical

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10 The box contains the names of eight different energy resources.

natural gas geothermal solar waves


hydroelectric oil wind coal

How many of these energy resources are renewable?

A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6

11 A child runs up a set of stairs four times. The time taken for each run is recorded.

Which time is measured when the child’s useful power is greatest?

A 10 s B 20 s C 30 s D 40 s

12 The diagrams show the actual sizes of the heels of four different shoes, as seen from underneath
the shoe.

Which heel is most likely to cause damage to wooden floors?

A B C D

13 The diagram shows an instrument used to measure gas pressure.

liquid

What is the instrument called?

A ammeter
B barometer
C manometer
D thermometer

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14 Smoke particles in air are illuminated by a beam of light. The particles are viewed through a
microscope. They are seen to move in a random zig-zag way.

What causes this movement?

A convection currents in the air


B impacts of fast-moving air molecules
C the energy of the beam of light
D vibrations of the atoms in the smoke particles

15 When a liquid evaporates, some of its molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of
the liquid changes.

Which row describes the escaping molecules and the change in temperature of the liquid?

temperature of
escaping molecules
the liquid

A less energetic goes down


B less energetic goes up
C more energetic goes down
D more energetic goes up

16 A piece of melting ice at 0 °C and a beaker of boiling water are both in a laboratory. The
laboratory is at 20 °C.

boiling water

melting ice
Bunsen burner
heating water

What is happening to the temperature of the melting ice and what is happening to the
temperature of the boiling water?

temperature of temperature of
melting ice boiling water

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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17 Changes in which physical property cannot be used for temperature measurement?

A decay rate of a radioactive source


B electrical resistance of a solid
C pressure of a gas
D volume of a liquid

18 Which statement about infra-red radiation is correct?

A A black surface is a poor absorber of infra-red radiation.


B A dull surface is a better emitter of infra-red radiation than a shiny surface.
C A shiny surface is a better absorber of infra-red radiation than a dull surface.
D A white surface is a poor reflector of infra-red radiation.

19 A pan is made for heating water on a stove.

handle

pan

From which type of materials should the pan and its handle be made?

material for pan material for handle

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor


B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor
C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor
D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

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20 A toy boat floats on water in a tank. The boat is initially stationary.

A stone is thrown into the tank, which causes a transverse water wave to move across the
surface.

The diagram shows the view from above the tank.

stone
wavefront

water

toy boat

How does the boat behave as the wave passes it?

A It moves steadily away from where the stone hit the water.
B It moves steadily towards where the stone hit the water.
C It stays the same distance from where the stone hit the water, and vibrates from side to side.
D It stays the same distance from where the stone hit the water, and vibrates up and down.

21 Below are four statements about the diffraction of a wave on the surface of water.

Which statement is correct?

A Diffraction involves a change in the speed of the wave.


B Diffraction involves a change in the wavelength of the wave.
C When a wave passes through a gap, its direction changes.
D When a wave passes through a gap, its frequency changes.

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22 A child wears a T-shirt with the letter ‘F’ written on it.

The child stands in front of a vertical plane mirror.

What does the child see?

A B C D

23 When white light passes through a glass prism, it disperses as shown in the diagram.

face 1 face 2

white light red


violet
glass prism

Which row compares the refraction of violet light with the refraction of red light at the faces 1 and
2 of the prism?

face 1 face 2

A violet refracts less violet refracts less


B violet refracts less violet refracts more
C violet refracts more violet refracts less
D violet refracts more violet refracts more

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11

24 Radiation from which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in the remote controller for a
television?

A infra-red waves
B microwaves
C radio waves
D ultraviolet waves

25 A girl notices that, when she shouts into a cave, she hears an echo.

Which wave property causes the echo?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction

26 The diagrams represent the displacement in four different sound waves. All the diagrams are
drawn to the same scale.

Which diagram represents the sound with the highest pitch?

A B

displacement displacement

0 time 0 time
0 0

C D

displacement displacement

0 time 0 time
0 0

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12

27 In two separate experiments, a magnet is brought near to an unmagnetised iron bar. This causes
the bar to become magnetised.

experiment 1 N magnet S X iron bar

experiment 2 S magnet N iron bar Y

Which magnetic pole is induced at X and at Y?

pole induced at X pole induced at Y

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

28 A polythene rod is rubbed with a cloth. The rod becomes positively charged because of the
movement of charged particles.

Which row gives the name of these charged particles, and the direction in which they move?

charged direction of
particles movement

A electrons from cloth to rod


B electrons from rod to cloth
C protons from cloth to rod
D protons from rod to cloth

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13

29 The diagram shows a lamp in a circuit.

Which change to the circuit would increase the current in the lamp?

A adding another resistor in parallel with the one in the circuit


B adding another resistor in series with the one in the circuit
C decreasing the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery in the circuit
D moving the lamp to point P in the circuit

30 An ammeter and an 18 Ω resistor are connected in series with a battery. The reading on the
ammeter is 0.50 A.

18 Ω

What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery?

A 9.0 N B 9.0 V C 36 N D 36 V

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31 A source of constant electromotive force (e.m.f.) is connected across a thermistor.

There is an electric current in the thermistor.

current

The temperature of the thermistor is reduced.

Which row shows what happens to the resistance of the thermistor and what happens to the
current?

resistance current

A increases decreases
B increases increases
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same increases

32 The diagram shows a circuit containing a battery, a resistor with high resistance, a switch and a
lamp.

12 V
battery

12 V
resistor lamp

Initially the switch is open.

What happens to the lamp when the switch is closed?

A It glows more brightly.


B It glows less brightly.
C It goes out.
D Its brightness does not change.

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33 The diagram shows a circuit containing two identical lamps and three ammeters.

ammeter 1 A A ammeter 3

A
ammeter 2

The current in ammeter 1 is 0.30 A.

Which row gives possible values for the currents in ammeters 2 and 3?

ammeter 2 ammeter 3
/A /A

A 0.15 0.00
B 0.15 0.30
C 0.30 0.00
D 0.30 0.30

34 Two electrical appliances are connected to the mains supply.

The cable connected to one appliance includes an earth wire.

The cable connected to the second appliance does not need an earth wire.

What is a reason for this difference?

A One appliance has a metal case, but the other appliance does not.
B One appliance is fitted with a fuse, but the other appliance is not.
C One appliance is fitted with a switch, but the other appliance is not.
D One appliance needs more current than the other appliance.

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35 The diagram represents a transformer.

core

primary coil

Which row shows materials suitable for making the core and the primary coil?

core primary coil

A iron copper
B iron plastic
C steel copper
D steel plastic

36 An electric current can produce a heating effect and a magnetic effect.

Which row shows the effect that a relay uses and one application of a relay?

effect used by a relay one application of a relay

A heating effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current


B heating effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply
C magnetic effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current
D magnetic effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply

23
37 A nuclide of sodium can be represented by 11Na.

Which row gives the numbers of particles in a neutral sodium atom?

number of number of number of


electrons protons neutrons

A 11 11 12
B 12 11 23
C 12 12 11
D 23 23 11

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38 Radioactive materials may emit α-particles or β-particles.

Which statement about the effect of these emissions is correct?

A Both α-particles and β-particles cause the nucleus to change into that of a different chemical
element.

B Neither α-particles nor β-particles cause the nucleus to change into that of a different
chemical element.

C Only α-particles cause the nucleus to change into that of a different chemical element.

D Only β-particles cause the nucleus to change into that of a different chemical element.

39 Radioactive source S emits α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays. A detector is placed 5 cm away
from S. A thin sheet of paper is placed as shown in the diagram.

thin sheet of paper

S detector

5 cm

Which emissions from the source can be detected?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B α-particles and γ-rays only

C β-particles and γ-rays only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

40 The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 2.0 hours.

The decay rate of a sample of this nuclide is measured at 1.0 hour intervals. The table shows the
measurements, with one value shown as X.

time / decay rate


hours decays / s

0 240
1.0 170
2.0 120
3.0 85
4.0 X

What is the most likely value of X?

A 15 B 42 C 50 D 60
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20

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 0625/11/O/N/16

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2016
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2016 series for most
®
Cambridge IGCSE , Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

® IGCSE is the registered trademark of Cambridge International Examinations.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 2 printed pages.

S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Page 2 Mark Scheme Syllabus Paper


Cambridge IGCSE – October/November 2016 0625 11

Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 C 21 C
2 A 22 D
3 D 23 D
4 D 24 A
5 B 25 C

6 D 26 D
7 B 27 A
8 D 28 B
9 A 29 A
10 C 30 B

11 A 31 A
12 A 32 A
13 C 33 B
14 B 34 A
15 C 35 A

16 A 36 C
17 A 37 A
18 B 38 A
19 B 39 C
20 D 40 D

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9107539250*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB16 11_0625_12/4RP
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1 The diagram shows two identical spheres placed beside a ruler.

spheres

0 10 20 30
mm

What is the radius of one sphere?

A 4.0 mm B 5.0 mm C 8.0 mm D 10 mm

2 The graph shows how the distance travelled by a vehicle changes with time.

S
distance
Q R

P
0
0 time

Which row describes the speed of the vehicle in each section of the graph?

P to Q Q to R R to S

A constant zero constant


B constant zero decreasing
C increasing constant decreasing
D increasing zero constant

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3 A stone falls freely from the top of a cliff. Air resistance may be ignored.

Which graph shows how the acceleration of the stone varies with time as it falls?

A B

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

4 A student writes about mass and weight.

Which statement is correct?

A A ship which is floating has mass but no weight.


B Mass is a scientific word that means the same as weight.
C Mass is measured in newtons.
D The mass of an astronaut is the same on the Moon as on the Earth.

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5 A student uses a measuring cylinder and a balance to find the density of oil. The diagram shows
the arrangement used.

empty measuring
measuring cylinder containing
cylinder volume V of oil

oil

m1 m2
g g

Which calculation gives the density of the oil?

A V B V C
m2
D
(m 2 − m1)
m2 (m2 − m1) V V

6 Each diagram shows all the forces acting on an object.

In which diagram is the object in equilibrium?

A B

15 N 15 N 15 N

15 N 15 N

15 N 15 N 15 N

C D

15 N 15 N

15 N 15 N 15 N 15 N

15 N 15 N
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7 The diagrams show a spring and a graph of the length of the spring against the load applied to it.

7
length / cm
6

5
spring
length 4

3
load
2

0
0 20 40 60 80 100
load / N

What is the extension of the spring when a load of 40 N is applied to it?

A 1.5 cm B 2.5 cm C 4.0 cm D 6.5 cm

8 A force is applied to a long crowbar so as to move a large rock.

Which labelled arrow represents the smallest force needed to move the rock?

crowbar

A rock
B

C
D

pivot

9 What is the main energy change taking place in the battery of a mobile phone (cell phone) as it is
being charged but not used?

A chemical energy increases


B elastic energy increases
C gravitational potential energy increases
D kinetic energy increases

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10 Electricity can be generated using different energy resources.

Which energy resource is used to generate electricity without needing any moving parts?

A geothermal
B hydroelectric
C solar
D water waves

11 A child runs up a set of stairs four times. The time taken for each run is recorded.

Which time is measured when the child’s useful power is greatest?

A 10 s B 20 s C 30 s D 40 s

12 The diagrams show the actual sizes of the heels of four different shoes, as seen from underneath
the shoe.

Which heel is most likely to cause damage to wooden floors?

A B C D

13 The diagram shows an instrument used to measure gas pressure.

liquid

What is the instrument called?

A ammeter
B barometer
C manometer
D thermometer

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14 Water can exist in three states: solid (ice), liquid and gas (steam).

In which state, or states, is the motion of the molecules only vibrational?

A ice only
B steam only
C liquid water only
D liquid water and ice only

15 Which statement about evaporation is correct?

A Evaporation causes heating of the liquid.


B Evaporation only happens from liquids.
C Molecules escape from anywhere in the liquid.
D Only the least energetic molecules escape.

16 A piece of melting ice at 0 °C and a beaker of boiling water are both in a laboratory. The
laboratory is at 20 °C.

boiling water

melting ice
Bunsen burner
heating water

What is happening to the temperature of the melting ice and what is happening to the
temperature of the boiling water?

temperature of temperature of
melting ice boiling water

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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17 A liquid-in-glass thermometer is to be calibrated in degrees Celsius.

Where should the bulb of the thermometer be placed to set a fixed point on the temperature
scale?

A in a mixture of water and ice


B in a hot drink
C in a Bunsen burner flame
D in a refrigerator

18 Aluminium foil is attached to the walls of a warm room in a cold country. This reduces the rate of
thermal energy loss from inside the warm room.

Which method or methods of thermal energy transfer are reduced by the foil?

A conduction and convection only


B conduction only
C convection and radiation only
D radiation only

19 On a very cold day, a boy puts one hand on the metal handlebars of his bicycle. He puts the
other hand on the rubber hand grip.

The metal feels colder than the rubber hand grip, although they are both at the same
temperature.

Why is this?

A The metal has a higher melting point than the rubber.


B The metal has a lower thermal capacity than the rubber.
C The metal is a better thermal conductor than the rubber.
D The metal radiates more infra-red radiation than the rubber.

20 The box contains a list of four types of wave.

γ-rays sound ultraviolet X-rays

How many waves in the list are transverse waves?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

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21 Which wave has an amplitude equal to half its wavelength?

displacement 1.0
/ cm

A 0
0 1 2 3 4 distance / cm

–1.0

displacement 1.0
/ cm

B 0
0 1 2 3 4 distance / cm

–1.0

displacement 1.0
/ cm

C 0
0 1 2 3 4 distance / cm

–1.0

displacement 1.0
/ cm

D 0
0 1 2 3 4 distance / cm

–1.0

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10

22 A card with the letter R is made by a student. The letter is drawn on one side, as shown.

A plane mirror is mounted vertically on a bench. The student places the card on the bench so that
the letter is upright and facing the mirror.

plane mirror

bench

How does the image formed by the mirror appear to the student?

A B C D

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11

23 A student draws four diagrams to represent light passing from air through a glass block and then
back into the air.

The critical angle for the glass is 42°.

In which diagram is the path of the light through the glass block not correct?

A B

45° 45°

glass
glass

C D

45°
60° 60°

glass glass

24 Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used to send television signals from a satellite to
Earth?

A infra-red
B microwaves
C ultraviolet
D visible light

25 A girl notices that, when she shouts into a cave, she hears an echo.

Which wave property causes the echo?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction

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12

26 Which property of a sound wave affects the loudness of the sound?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

27 In two separate experiments, a magnet is brought near to an unmagnetised iron bar. This causes
the bar to become magnetised.

experiment 1 N magnet S X iron bar

experiment 2 S magnet N iron bar Y

Which magnetic pole is induced at X and at Y?

pole induced at X pole induced at Y

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

28 In the diagram, rod R hangs from an insulating thread.

insulating
thread

Q
R
+ moves away
+
+
+ from rod Q
+

When the positively charged rod Q is brought close to rod R, rod R moves away from rod Q.

Which conclusion can be made from this observation?

A Rod R is charged, but it is not possible to identify the sign of the charge.
B Rod R must be positively charged.
C Rod R must be negatively charged.
D Rod R is uncharged.
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13

29 The diagram shows a lamp in a circuit.

Which change to the circuit would increase the current in the lamp?

A adding another resistor in parallel with the one in the circuit


B adding another resistor in series with the one in the circuit
C decreasing the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery in the circuit
D moving the lamp to point P in the circuit

30 An ammeter and an 18 Ω resistor are connected in series with a battery. The reading on the
ammeter is 0.50 A.

18 Ω

What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery?

A 9.0 N B 9.0 V C 36 N D 36 V

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14

31 A source of constant electromotive force (e.m.f.) is connected across a light-dependent resistor


(LDR).

There is an electric current in the LDR.

current

The brightness of the light falling on the LDR is reduced.

Which row shows what happens to the resistance of the LDR and what happens to the current?

resistance current

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

32 The diagram shows an electric circuit.

S T

switch

When the switch is open, which lamp or lamps are not lit?

A R only
B S only
C R, S and T
D S and T only

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15

33 In which circuit does the ammeter read 2.0 A?

A B
12 V 12 V

A A

6.0 Ω 6.0 Ω 3.0 Ω 3.0 Ω

C D
6.0 V 18 V

A A

6.0 Ω 6.0 Ω 3.0 Ω 3.0 Ω

34 An electric kettle has a metal casing. The cable for the kettle contains a wire that is connected to
the earth pin of the plug.

Which danger does this guard against?

A the cable to the kettle becoming too hot


B the casing of the kettle becoming live
C the casing of the kettle becoming wet on the outside
D the casing of the kettle overheating

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16

35 A transformer has an input voltage of 240 V and an output voltage of 12 V.

input voltage output voltage


240 V 12 V

What is a possible pair of values for the number of turns in the primary coil and the number of
turns in the secondary coil?

number of turns number of turns


in primary coil in secondary coil

A 12 4800
B 240 4800
C 4800 12
D 4800 240

36 An electric current can produce a heating effect and a magnetic effect.

Which row shows the effect that a relay uses and one application of a relay?

effect used by a relay one application of a relay

A heating effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current


B heating effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply
C magnetic effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current
D magnetic effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply

23
37 A nuclide of sodium can be represented by 11Na.

Which row gives the numbers of particles in a neutral sodium atom?

number of number of number of


electrons protons neutrons

A 11 11 12
B 12 11 23
C 12 12 11
D 23 23 11

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17

38 Which is the most effective precaution to reduce the risk when handling, storing or using a
radioactive source that emits γ-rays?

A Handle the source for the least possible time.


B Have a fire extinguisher nearby when using the source.
C Store the source at a low temperature.
D Wear plastic safety goggles when handling the source.

39 Radioactive source S emits α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays. A detector is placed 5 cm away
from S. A thin sheet of paper is placed as shown in the diagram.

thin sheet of paper

S detector

5 cm

Which emissions from the source can be detected?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B α-particles and γ-rays only

C β-particles and γ-rays only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

40 A radioactive source has a half-life of 3.0 days. It emits radiation at a rate of 1200 particles per
minute.

At what rate was it emitting radiation 6.0 days earlier?

A 300 particles per minute


B 2400 particles per minute
C 4800 particles per minute
D 7200 particles per minute

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publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2016
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2016 series for most
®
Cambridge IGCSE , Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

® IGCSE is the registered trademark of Cambridge International Examinations.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 2 printed pages.

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Page 2 Mark Scheme Syllabus Paper


Cambridge IGCSE – October/November 2016 0625 12

Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 B
2 A 22 A
3 D 23 D
4 D 24 B
5 D 25 C

6 C 26 A
7 A 27 A
8 A 28 B
9 A 29 A
10 C 30 B

11 A 31 C
12 A 32 D
13 C 33 B
14 A 34 B
15 B 35 D

16 A 36 C
17 A 37 A
18 D 38 A
19 C 39 C
20 C 40 C

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7133156965*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 19 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB16 11_0625_13/4RP
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1 Diagram 1 shows a measuring cylinder containing some water.

Diagram 2 shows the same measuring cylinder after a piece of rock has been slowly submerged
in the water.

cm3 cm3
50 50

40 40

30 30
piece
20 20 of rock

10 10

diagram 1 diagram 2

What is the volume of the piece of rock?

A 15 cm3 B 20 cm3 C 23 cm3 D 35 cm3

2 The graph shows how the distance travelled by a vehicle changes with time.

S
distance
Q R

P
0
0 time

Which row describes the speed of the vehicle in each section of the graph?

P to Q Q to R R to S

A constant zero constant


B constant zero decreasing
C increasing constant decreasing
D increasing zero constant

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3 A stone falls freely from the top of a cliff. Air resistance may be ignored.

Which graph shows how the acceleration of the stone varies with time as it falls?

A B

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

4 Which statement about mass or weight is not correct?

A Masses can be compared using a balance.


B Mass is a force.
C Weights can be compared using a balance.
D Weight is a force.

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5 The diagrams show an empty container, and the same container filled with liquid.

The empty container has a mass of 120 g. When filled with the liquid, the total mass of the
container and the liquid is 600 g.

empty container container filled with liquid


120 g 600 g

The volume of liquid in the container is 600 cm3.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.020 g / cm3 B 0.80 g / cm3 C 1.0 g / cm3 D 1.2 g / cm3

6 The diagram shows all the horizontal forces acting on a truck.

truck

500 N 500 N
300 N

What is the size of the resultant horizontal force on the truck?

A 200 N B 300 N C 700 N D 1000 N

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7 Different loads are hung on a spring. The diagram shows the length of the spring with and without
the loads attached.

20 cm

40 cm

65 cm

200 N

400 N

What is the extension of the spring when the load is 400 N?

A 5 cm B 25 cm C 40 cm D 45 cm

8 A uniform bar is pivoted at its centre.

4.0 m 3.0 m

pivot
6.0 N F

What force F is needed to balance the bar?

A 2.0 N B 4.5 N C 6.0 N D 8.0 N

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9 A ball is released from point X on a rough semicircular track. It comes to rest for an instant at
point Y. The gravitational potential energy of the ball at point X is EX. The gravitational potential
energy of the ball at point Y is EY.

X
Y

Which equation relates the energy of the ball at point X to its energy at point Y?

A EX = EY + work done against friction


B EX = EY – work done against friction
C EX + EY = work done against friction
D EX + EY + work done against friction = 0

10 Two cars P and Q have different engines.

The input power from the fuel is the same for both engines. The engine in car P is more efficient
than the engine in car Q.

Which statement about the cars or their engines must be true?

A Car P has a higher maximum speed than car Q.


B Car P has a lower maximum speed than car Q.
C The engine in car P uses less energy per hour than the engine in car Q.
D The engine in car P wastes less energy per hour than the engine in car Q.

11 A child runs up a set of stairs four times. The time taken for each run is recorded.

Which time is measured when the child’s useful power is greatest?

A 10 s B 20 s C 30 s D 40 s

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12 The diagrams show the actual sizes of the heels of four different shoes, as seen from underneath
the shoe.

Which heel is most likely to cause damage to wooden floors?

A B C D

13 The diagram shows an instrument used to measure gas pressure.

liquid

What is the instrument called?

A ammeter
B barometer
C manometer
D thermometer

14 Which diagram best represents the movement of a smoke particle displaying Brownian motion?

A B

smoke smoke
particle particle

C D

smoke
particle

smoke
particle

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15 A cylinder containing trapped air is put into a freezer.

cylinder piston cylinder piston

air air

at room temperature in a freezer

As the air cools, the piston moves to the left as shown.

How has the air changed?

A Its density is less.


B Its mass is less.
C The average speed of its molecules is less.
D The average volume of its molecules is less.

16 A piece of melting ice at 0 °C and a beaker of boiling water are both in a laboratory. The
laboratory is at 20 °C.

boiling water

melting ice
Bunsen burner
heating water

What is happening to the temperature of the melting ice and what is happening to the
temperature of the boiling water?

temperature of temperature of
melting ice boiling water

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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17 A liquid-in-glass thermometer works because the liquid shows a change in

A colour.
B mass.
C thermal capacity.
D volume.

18 Which description applies to infra-red radiation?

A longitudinal and electromagnetic


B longitudinal but not electromagnetic
C transverse and electromagnetic
D transverse but not electromagnetic

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10

19 The diagram shows the temperature-time graph for hot water that is cooling in an uninsulated
beaker.

80
temperature
/ °C
60

40

20

0
0 1 2 3
time / hours

The beaker is now insulated. The same volume of hot water, at the same initial temperature as
before, is put into the insulated beaker. The beaker is in the same room as before.

Which is the new temperature-time graph for the water as it cools?

A B
80 80
temperature temperature
/ °C 60 / °C 60

40 40

20 20

0 0
0 1 2 3 0 1 2 3
time / hours time / hours

C D
80 80
temperature temperature
/ °C 60 / °C 60

40 40

20 20

0 0
0 1 2 3 0 1 2 3
time / hours time / hours

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11

20 A small plastic ball floats on the surface of deep water. A stone is dropped into the water at
point X.

A wave spreads out across the water surface, causing the ball to move.

water surface ball


X

Which type of wave is produced by the stone, and in which direction does the ball move?

direction of
type of wave
movement of ball

A longitudinal left and right


B longitudinal up and down
C transverse left and right
D transverse up and down

21 Waves travel more slowly on the surface of shallow water than on the surface of deep water.

Which diagram shows a wave travelling from deep water into shallower water?

A B
shallow shallow
water water
(slow) (slow)

deep deep
water water
(fast) (fast)

C D
shallow shallow
water water
(slow) (slow)

deep deep
water water
(fast) (fast)

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12

22 Light strikes a plane mirror and is reflected. The angle between the ray of light and the mirror is
20°.

normal
ray of
light

20°

mirror

What is the size of the angle of reflection?

A 20° B 70° C 140° D 160°

23 A student draws a ray diagram to show how a converging lens, of focal length f, forms an image
of an object.

He draws three rays to locate the image.

He then adds a fourth ray after the position of the image is known.

Which of the labelled rays must have been drawn after the position of the image was known?

object B

C image

f f

24 Which group shows four electromagnetic waves in order, from the largest wavelength to the
smallest?

A microwaves, radio waves, X-rays, visible light


B radio waves, microwaves, visible light, X-rays
C visible light, X-rays, radio waves, microwaves
D X-rays, visible light, microwaves, radio waves

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13

25 A girl notices that, when she shouts into a cave, she hears an echo.

Which wave property causes the echo?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction

26 A man stands 110 m from a high wall. He makes a short, sharp sound and then hears an echo
from the wall.

The speed of sound in air is 330 m / s.

How long after making the sound does the man hear the echo?

A 0.33 s B 0.67 s C 1.5 s D 3.0 s

27 In two separate experiments, a magnet is brought near to an unmagnetised iron bar. This causes
the bar to become magnetised.

experiment 1 N magnet S X iron bar

experiment 2 S magnet N iron bar Y

Which magnetic pole is induced at X and at Y?

pole induced at X pole induced at Y

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

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14

28 A student holds a rod in his hand.

cloth

hand
rod

He rubs the rod with a cloth. The rod gains a positive charge.

Of which material could the rod be made, and which transfer of charge has happened?

material of rod transfer of charge

A metal negative charge from rod to cloth


B metal positive charge from cloth to rod
C plastic negative charge from rod to cloth
D plastic positive charge from cloth to rod

29 The diagram shows a lamp in a circuit.

Which change to the circuit would increase the current in the lamp?

A adding another resistor in parallel with the one in the circuit


B adding another resistor in series with the one in the circuit
C decreasing the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery in the circuit
D moving the lamp to point P in the circuit

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15

30 An ammeter and an 18 Ω resistor are connected in series with a battery. The reading on the
ammeter is 0.50 A.

18 Ω

What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery?

A 9.0 N B 9.0 V C 36 N D 36 V

31 In which circuit will the ammeter reading be greatest?

A B C D

2.0 V 2.0 V 2.0 V 2.0 V

A A 2.0 Ω A 2.0 Ω
A

2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω


2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω

32 An electric washing machine is protected by an earth wire.

To which part of the washing machine should the earth wire be connected?

A the fuse
B the live wire
C the metal case
D the switch

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16

33 The diagram shows a potential divider.

6V

0V

When brighter light falls on the light-dependent resistor (LDR), its resistance changes.

What happens to the resistance of the LDR and what happens to the current in it?

resistance of LDR current in LDR

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

34 Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?

A so that the current can have only one value


B to prevent the current becoming too large
C to provide a path to earth if a fault occurs
D to save electrical energy

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17

35 Which transformer can change a 240 V a.c. input into a 15 V a.c. output?

A B

800 turns 40 turns 1000 turns 25 turns

C D

2400 turns 15 turns 1200 turns 75 turns

36 An electric current can produce a heating effect and a magnetic effect.

Which row shows the effect that a relay uses and one application of a relay?

effect used by a relay one application of a relay

A heating effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current


B heating effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply
C magnetic effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current
D magnetic effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply

23
37 A nuclide of sodium can be represented by 11Na.

Which row gives the numbers of particles in a neutral sodium atom?

number of number of number of


electrons protons neutrons

A 11 11 12
B 12 11 23
C 12 12 11
D 23 23 11

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18

38 Below are four statements about different isotopes of a certain element.

Which statement must be true?

A They have a different number of electrons.


B They have the same number of neutrons.
C They have the same number of nucleons.
D They have the same number of protons.

39 Radioactive source S emits α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays. A detector is placed 5 cm away
from S. A thin sheet of paper is placed as shown in the diagram.

thin sheet of paper

S detector

5 cm

Which emissions from the source can be detected?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B α-particles and γ-rays only

C β-particles and γ-rays only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

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19

40 A radioactive material emits α-particles.

The table shows the rate of emission of α-particles from the material at different times.

time rate of emission


/ hours / particles per minute

0.0 160
4.0 40
8.0

What is the half-life of the material and what is the missing value at 8.0 hours?

half-life rate of emission at 8.0 hours


/ hours / particles per minute

A 2.0 0
B 2.0 10
C 4.0 0
D 4.0 10

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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2016
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2016 series for most
®
Cambridge IGCSE , Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

® IGCSE is the registered trademark of Cambridge International Examinations.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 2 printed pages.

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Page 2 Mark Scheme Syllabus Paper


Cambridge IGCSE – October/November 2016 0625 13

Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 B
2 A 22 B
3 D 23 A
4 B 24 B
5 B 25 C

6 C 26 B
7 D 27 A
8 D 28 C
9 A 29 A
10 D 30 B

11 A 31 B
12 A 32 C
13 C 33 B
14 D 34 B
15 C 35 D

16 A 36 C
17 D 37 A
18 C 38 D
19 D 39 C
20 D 40 B

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) February/March 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9265727117*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 19 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB17 03_0625_12/3RP
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1 The diagram shows the height of a stack of identical coins.

stack of
coins
2.40 cm

What is the thickness of one coin?

A 0.20 mm B 2.0 mm C 0.24 cm D 2.0 cm

2 In a laboratory, a ball is dropped in a vacuum and falls 200 cm.

ball
0 cm

50 cm

rule 100 cm

150 cm

200 cm

Which statement describes the acceleration of the ball?

A It is greater at 10 cm than at 200 cm.


B It is greatest at 200 cm.
C It is smaller at 50 cm than at 100 cm.
D It is the same value at 50 cm as at 150 cm.

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3 A man stands by a railway track.

A train travelling at 40 m / s takes 2.0 s to pass the man.

What is the length of the train?

A 20 m B 38 m C 40 m D 80 m

4 Which statement about the masses and weights of objects on the Earth is correct?

A A balance can only be used to compare weights, not masses.


B Heavy objects always have more mass than light ones.
C Large objects always have more mass than small ones.
D Mass is a force but weight is not.

5 A stone has a weight of 5.7 N.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the mass of the stone?

A 0.57 kg B 5.7 kg C 57 kg D 570 kg

6 The block of metal shown has a mass of 240 g.

4.0 cm

3.0 cm

5.0 cm

What is the density of the metal?

A 0.25 g / cm3 B 4.0 g / cm3 C 16 g / cm3 D 14 400 g / cm3

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7 A car engine causes a forward force of 100 kN to act on the car. The total resistive force on the
car is 20 kN.

What is the resultant force on the car?

A 5.0 kN B 60 kN C 80 kN D 120 kN

8 A student sets up the apparatus shown in the diagram to find the centre of mass of the card.

small hole
cork pin or nail

stand

card

string

bob

The student makes sure that the card, the string and the bob are all at rest.

What should the student do next?

A Mark a horizontal line on the card level with the middle of the string.
B Mark the line of the string on the card.
C Pull the bob on the string to one side and release it.
D Replace the bob with a heavier bob.

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9 A man can either take an escalator or a lift to travel up between two floors in a hotel.

escalator lift

The escalator takes 20 seconds to carry the man between the two floors. The useful work done
against gravity is W. The useful power developed is P.

The lift takes 30 seconds to carry the same man between the same two floors.

How much useful work against gravity is done by the lift, and how much useful power is
developed by the lift?

useful work
useful power
done against
developed by lift
gravity by lift

A more than W less than P


B more than W P
C W less than P
D W P

10 The engine of a motor vehicle develops a large amount of power.

Which statement is correct?

A The driving force acting on the vehicle must be large.


B The engine must have a very large volume.
C The engine must transfer large amounts of energy each second.
D The vehicle must be very fast.

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11 The diagrams show two mercury barometers. The right-hand diagram shows a tube of larger
diameter. There is a vacuum above the mercury in both tubes.

Which labelled position on the right-hand tube shows the mercury level in the right-hand tube?

A
B
C

glass
tubes

D
mercury

12 The diagram shows four solid objects resting on a horizontal surface. The objects all have the
same weight, and are drawn to the same scale.

Which object exerts the least pressure on the surface?

A B C D
sphere cylinder cube cone

13 On a hot day, the pressure of the air in a car tyre is greater than on a cold day.

Why is the pressure greater on a hot day?

A The air molecules strike each other more frequently.


B The air molecules strike each other with greater force.
C The air molecules strike the tyre walls more frequently.
D The number of air molecules in the tyre increases.

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14 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.

When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random,
jerky manner.

eye

microscope

bright light

pollen grains
in water

What are the moving specks of light?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

15 When a thermometer is calibrated, the fixed points are marked.

What are fixed points?

A all the marks on the temperature scale which cannot be removed


B all the marks of the temperature scale
C the lowest and highest temperatures shown on the thermometer
D two temperatures of known value which are easily reproduced

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16 Which statement defines the thermal capacity (heat capacity) of a solid body?

A the energy needed to melt the body without a change in temperature


B the energy needed to raise the temperature of the body by one degree Celsius
C the increase in the volume of the body when its temperature is raised by one degree Celsius
D the total amount of internal energy in the body

17 A substance can exist in three different states: solid, liquid or gas.

Each of the two statements below describes a change of state.

change 1 Molecules move closer together but continue to travel throughout the
substance.
change 2 Molecules stop travelling throughout the substance and just vibrate about
fixed positions.

Which changes of state do these statements describe?

change 1 change 2

A condensation melting
B condensation solidification
C solidification condensation
D solidification melting

18 The diagram shows the gap between a hot surface and a cold surface. The gap can contain air,
solid iron, a vacuum or liquid water.

cold

gap

hot

Which row shows whether heat can be transferred between the surfaces by conduction and
convection?

conduction convection

A air (gas) yes no


B iron (solid) yes no
C vacuum no yes
D water (liquid) yes no

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19 Ice is trapped by a piece of wire gauze at the bottom of a tube containing water. The water at the
top of the tube boils before the ice at the bottom of the tube melts.

water

wire gauze
gentle
heating

ice

Why does this happen?

A Convection currents are circulating throughout the water.


B Ice is a poor emitter of thermal energy.
C Water is a poor conductor of thermal energy.
D Wire gauze is a good conductor of thermal energy.

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10

20 In a shallow tank, a water wave moves towards a barrier with a narrow gap.

barrier

water
wave

Which diagram shows the wave beyond the barrier?

A B

C D

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11

21 A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass block.

normal

direction of
ray of light
air
glass

Which row describes how the speed and the direction of the ray of light change when it enters the
glass?

speed in glass direction in glass

A decreases closer to the normal


B decreases further from the normal
C increases closer to the normal
D increases further from the normal

22 A boy sees a fish in a lake.

Which labelled path is taken by the light travelling from the fish to the boy’s eye?

air
water
B
A C
D

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12

23 The points labelled F are the principal foci of a lens. A beam of parallel light is incident on the
lens.

Which diagram shows the path of the light after it passes through the lens?

A
F F

B
F F

C
F F

D
F F

24 What is the main type of radiation given out by a campfire?

A infra-red
B microwave
C ultraviolet
D X-ray

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13

25 A student stands a few hundred metres away from a wall and shouts. He hears a faint echo.

Which statement is correct?

A The sound waves returning are quiet because they have a reduced frequency.
B The sound waves returning are quiet because they have a reduced wavelength.
C The sound waves returning to the student are longitudinal.
D The sound waves returning to the student are transverse.

26 Which statement about ultrasound is correct?

A It is produced by a rapidly vibrating source.


B It is uncomfortable to human ears.
C Its frequency must be greater than 300 kHz.
D It travels the fastest in a vacuum.

27 A small compass is placed close to a strong bar magnet, the same distance from each end.

Which diagram shows the direction in which the compass needle points?

A B C D

N N N N
compass compass compass compass

S S S S

28 A student wishes to magnetise two steel bars X and Y.

She places bar X in a coil connected to a d.c. power supply.

She places bar Y parallel to a magnetic field and hammers it.

Which bars become magnetised?

A X and Y
B X only
C Y only
D neither X nor Y

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14

29 Which particles move in a metal to cause an electric current?

A electrons
B neutrons
C nucleons
D protons

30 The diagrams represent four copper wires.

Which wire has the greatest resistance?

A B C D

20 mm 20 mm
10 mm 10 mm

1 mm 2 mm 1 mm 2 mm

31 An air-conditioning unit, a lamp and an electric fire all receive electrical energy from the mains
supply.

From which of these devices is all this energy eventually transferred to the surroundings?

air-
electric
conditioning lamp
fire
unit

A    key
B    = all energy transferred to surroundings
C    = not all energy transferred to surroundings
D   

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15

32 In the circuits shown, each of the resistors has a resistance of 1.0 Ω.

Which circuit has the greatest resistance?

A B

C D

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16

33 The diagram shows an electric circuit.

The light falling on the light-dependent resistor (LDR) increases in brightness.

What happens to the resistance of the LDR, the current in the fixed resistor and the reading on
the voltmeter?

resistance of current in reading on


LDR fixed resistor voltmeter

A decreases increases decreases


B decreases increases increases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases decreases increases

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17

34 The diagram shows two linked circuits to control when a bell is switched on.

The conditions are altered and only one pair of conditions causes the bell to ring.

Which pair causes the bell to ring?

A bright light and high temperature


B bright light and low temperature
C dim light and high temperature
D dim light and low temperature

35 In this circuit, a component at X automatically protects the wiring from overheating if there is a
fault.

electrical supply

Which row indicates components that are suitable?

circuit
fuse switch
breaker

A    key
B    = suitable
C    = not suitable
D   

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18

36 The diagram shows a simple transformer with an input of 240 V and an output of 40 V.

There are 600 turns on the primary coil.

primary coil secondary coil

600
input 240 V 40 V output
turns

How many turns are there on the secondary coil?

A 100 B 320 C 400 D 3600

37 A wire is placed between the poles of a horseshoe magnet. There is a current in the wire in the
direction shown, and this causes a force to act on the wire.

magnet

current
N
wire S

force

Three other arrangements P, Q and R of the wire and magnet are set up as shown.

P Q R

S N S
N S N

magnet turned around current direction reversed current direction reversed


and magnet turned around

Which arrangements cause a force in the same direction as the original arrangement?

A P, Q and R B P and Q only C P only D R only

109
38 The nuclide notation for an isotope of silver is 47 Ag .

How many nucleons are in a nucleus of this isotope?

A 47 B 62 C 109 D 156

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39 A radioactive substance emits radiation at a rate of 600 emissions per second. Four hours later, it
emits radiation at a rate of 300 emissions per second.

What is the half-life of the substance and what is the rate of emission after a further four hours?

rate of emission after


half-life / hours a further four hours
/ emissions per second

A 2 0
B 2 150
C 4 0
D 4 150

40 A radioactive source is placed near a detector.

The radiation arriving at the detector from the source is measured for 10 minutes with different
materials placed between the source and the detector.

materials
placed here

radioactive detector
source (Geiger-Müller tube)

material between radiation detected


source and detector / counts

none 5626
sheet of paper 5629
thick sheet of aluminium 2226
thick sheet of lead 255

Which types of radiation are emitted by the source?

A α-particles and γ-rays

B α-particles only

C β-particles and γ-rays

D β-particles only

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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

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Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) March 2017
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the March 2017 series for most Cambridge IGCSE®,
Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

® IGCSE is a registered trademark.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme March 2017
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 D 1

3 D 1

4 B 1

5 A 1

6 B 1

7 C 1

8 B 1

9 C 1

10 C 1

11 B 1

12 C 1

13 C 1

14 B 1

15 D 1

16 B 1

17 B 1

18 B 1

19 C 1

20 D 1

21 A 1

22 C 1

23 B 1

24 A 1

25 C 1

26 A 1

27 C 1

28 A 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme March 2017
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 A 1

30 C 1

31 A 1

32 C 1

33 B 1

34 A 1

35 B 1

36 A 1

37 D 1

38 C 1

39 D 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8820004965*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

MODIFIED LANGUAGE

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 19 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB17 06_0625_11_ML/2RP
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1 A stopwatch is used to time a runner in a race. The diagrams show the stopwatch at the start and
at the end of the race.

start end

1 1
min s /100 s min s /100 s

How long did the runner take to run the race?

A 70.00 seconds
B 110.00 seconds
C 115.20 seconds
D 155.20 seconds

2 On Earth, a ball is dropped and falls 2.0 m in a vacuum.

The acceleration of the ball at 1.0 m is 10 m / s2.

0m ball

0.5 m

1.0 m

1.5 m

2.0 m

What is the acceleration of the ball at 0.5 m?

A 5.0 m / s2 B 10 m / s2 C 15 m / s2 D 20 m / s2

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3 The speed-time graph represents a motorcycle journey.

In which part of the graph is the acceleration equal to zero?

40
speed
m/s C
30
B
20
D
10
A

0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
time / s

4 Diagram 1 shows a sealed plastic bottle containing a hollow glass sphere and a steel ball.

Diagram 2 shows the same bottle after it has been shaken.

Diagram 3 shows the same bottle after it has been shaken again until the broken glass is in tiny
pieces.

sealed
plastic
bottle

hollow
glass tiny pieces
broken
steel ball sphere steel ball steel ball of broken
glass
glass

diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3

The mass of the bottle and contents in diagram 1 is m1.

The mass of the bottle and contents in diagram 2 is m2.

The mass of the bottle and contents in diagram 3 is m3.

Which statement gives the correct relation between m1, m2 and m3?

A m1 is equal to m2 and m2 is equal to m3.


B m1 is greater than m2 and m2 is greater than m3.
C m1 is less than m2 and m2 is greater than m3.
D m1 is less than m2 and m2 is less than m3.

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5 A student is weighed on laboratory scales.

Which row about weight and mass is correct?

unit of weight unit of mass

A kg kg
B kg N
C N kg
D N N

6 A measuring cylinder containing only water is placed on an electronic balance. A small, irregularly
shaped stone is now completely immersed in the water.

The diagrams show the equipment before and after the stone is immersed.

measuring cm3 cm3


cylinder 100 100
90 90
80 80
70 70
60 60
50 50
40 40 stone
water 30 30
20 20
10 10

balance
g g

before the stone after the stone


is immersed is immersed

What is the density of the material of the stone?

A 1.7 g / cm3 B 3.3 g / cm3 C 4.5 g / cm3 D 8.7 g / cm3

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7 A boat is travelling at a steady speed in a straight line across the surface of a lake.

Which statement about the boat is correct?

A The resultant force on the boat is in the direction of motion.


B The resultant force on the boat is in the opposite direction to its motion.
C The resultant force on the boat is vertically downwards.
D The resultant force on the boat is zero.

8 The diagram shows three uniform, solid wooden blocks with a square cross-sectional area resting
on a horizontal table.

P Q R

table

Which list puts the blocks in order from the least stable to the most stable?

A P→Q→R

B P→R→Q

C R→P→Q

D R→Q→P

9 Energy resources are used to generate electricity.

Which resource is renewable and does not release carbon dioxide when being used to produce
electricity?

A biomass
B nuclear
C oil
D wind

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10 A student does some simple exercises.

In which exercise is the most work done?

A B

lifting
pushing through
through 1 m
1 m against a
frictional force of 4 N
1 kg 1 kg

C D

lifting
pulling through
through 2 m
2 m against a
frictional force of 2 N
2 kg 2 kg

11 The diagram shows a box of dimensions 6.0 cm × 8.0 cm × 4.0 cm.

6.0 cm

X
Z
4.0 cm Y 8.0 cm

The box rests on a flat horizontal surface.

On which face must the box rest to exert the least pressure?

A face X
B face Y
C face Z
D The pressure is the same for all the faces.

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12 Two identical fish tanks are filled to the same level with water.

One tank contains fresh water. The other tank contains sea-water.

Sea-water is more dense than fresh water.

Which fish experiences the greatest pressure?

A B

C D

fresh water sea-water

13 A student has a syringe which has its open end sealed. The syringe is completely filled with a
certain substance, as shown in diagram 1. The student pushes the piston of the syringe in as far
as possible, as shown in diagram 2.

syringe piston

sealed
end

diagram 1 diagram 2

What is in the syringe?

A a gas and a liquid


B a solid and a liquid
C a liquid only
D a solid only

14 When a microscope is used to look at smoke particles in air, Brownian motion is observed.

What causes the smoke particles to move at random?

A Smoke particles are hit by air molecules.


B Smoke particles are moved by convection currents in the air.
C Smoke particles have different weights and fall at different speeds.
D Smoke particles hit the walls of the container.

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15 The diagram shows a metal foot bridge located in the Sahara desert where the temperature is
much less at night than during the day. The ends of the bridge are firmly fixed to the sides of a
narrow valley.

The solid line shows the bridge during the coldest part of the night.

Which dotted line shows the bridge at the hottest part of the day?

16 Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers.

Liquid 1 is heated for 100 s and liquid 2 is heated for 200 s by heaters of the same power.

Each liquid has the same rise in temperature.

different liquids
of same mass
liquid 1 liquid 2

heating time = 100 s heating time = 200 s

Which statement is correct?

A Each beaker of liquid has the same thermal capacity.


B Each beaker of liquid receives the same energy.
C Liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2.
D The thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than the thermal capacity of liquid 2.

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17 It is a warm and humid day. A glass contains an iced drink. Water starts to form on the outside of
the glass.

What is the name of the effect by which the water forms?

A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D evaporation

18 A copper bar and a wooden bar are joined. A piece of paper is wrapped tightly around the join.

The bar is heated strongly at the centre for a short time, and the paper goes brown on one side
only.

wood paper copper

heat

Which side goes brown, and what does this show about wood and copper?

brown side wood copper

A copper conductor insulator


B copper insulator conductor
C wood conductor insulator
D wood insulator conductor

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10

19 Four identical metal plates are painted either black or white and have either a dull or a shiny
surface.

They are heated to the same temperature.

Which plate radiates thermal energy at the greatest rate?

A the plate that is dull and black


B the plate that is dull and white
C the plate that is shiny and black
D the plate that is shiny and white

20 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?

A The amplitude of the light changes.


B The colour of the light changes.
C The frequency of the light changes.
D The speed of the light changes.

21 The diagram shows rays of light passing through a converging lens.

Which labelled arrow represents the focal length of the lens?

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11

22 Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?

A B

spectrum
white white
light light
spectrum

C D
spectrum

white white
light light spectrum

23 The diagrams show four sources of waves.

Which source produces longitudinal waves?

A B C D

stick pushed up radio loudspeaker lamp


and down in water transmitter

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12

24 The table shows different types of wave in the electromagnetic spectrum.

radio micro- infra-red visible ultraviolet gamma


X-rays
waves waves waves light waves rays

Where do all the waves travel at the same speed?

A in a vacuum
B in diamond
C in glass
D in water

25 A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts the alarm so that it
produces a louder note of a higher pitch.

What effect does this have on the amplitude and on the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A larger greater
B larger smaller
C smaller greater
D smaller smaller

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13

26 In a child’s toy, a metal rod is used to lift metal fish out of a toy pond. The fish are magnetically
attracted to the end of the rod. There is no magnetic force between the fish.

metal rod

toy pond

metal fish

What are possible materials from which the fish and the rod are made?

fish rod

A aluminium soft iron


B aluminium steel
C soft iron soft iron
D soft iron steel

27 Which diagram shows the pattern of magnetic field lines around a bar magnet?

A B

N S N S

C D

N S N S

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14

28 A student rubs a plastic rod with a cloth.

The rod becomes positively charged.

What has happened to the rod?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained protons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost protons.

29 The circuit shows a 2.0 Ω resistor and a 1.0 Ω resistor connected to a 12 V battery.

12 V

2.0 Ω 1.0 Ω

What is the current in the 2.0 Ω resistor?

A 4.0 A B 6.0 A C 24 A D 36 A

30 A computer engineer wants the speed of a fan to increase automatically when the temperature
inside a computer rises. The engineer knows that a larger current causes the fan to turn more
quickly.

fan motor
power M
supply

X computer

Which component should be placed at X to make this happen?

A a relay
B a thermistor
C a transformer
D a variable resistor

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15

31 The diagram shows a power supply with a constant electromotive force (e.m.f.). It is connected to
a voltmeter, a variable resistor and two identical lamps, P and Q. Both lamps are lit.

The resistance of the variable resistor is increased. The voltmeter reading remains unchanged.

What happens to the brightness of the lamps?

lamp P lamp Q

A brighter brighter
B dimmer dimmer
C dimmer unchanged
D unchanged unchanged

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16

32 A student connects a variable potential divider (potentiometer) circuit.

R
T V

12 V

As the sliding terminal T is moved from R to S, what happens to the reading on the voltmeter?

A It decreases from 12 V to 0 V.
B It increases from 0 V to 12 V.
C It remains at 0 V.
D It remains at 12 V.

33 A light-dependent resistor (LDR) and a resistor R are connected in a series circuit. Light falls on
the LDR.

The brightness of the light falling on the LDR decreases.

What happens to the resistance of the LDR and what happens to the reading on the ammeter?

resistance reading on
of LDR ammeter

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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17

34 A circuit-breaker is designed to protect a circuit which usually carries a current of 2 A.

The time taken to break the circuit depends on the current, as shown in the graph.

0.16
time taken
0.14
to break the
circuit / s 0.12
0.10
0.08
0.06
0.04
0.02
0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20

current / A

What happens when the current in the circuit is 2 A and what happens when the current is 18 A?

when the current is 2 A when the current is 18 A

A the circuit breaks in less than 0.01 s the circuit breaks in less than 0.01 s
B the circuit breaks in less than 0.01 s the circuit does not break
C the circuit does not break the circuit breaks in less than 0.01 s
D the circuit does not break the circuit does not break

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18

35 The diagram shows a transformer with primary coil P and secondary coil S. The input potential
difference across coil P is VP. The output potential difference across coil S is VS. The number of
turns in coil P is NP. The number of turns in coil S is NS.

core

input P S output

Which equation relates the input and output voltages to the numbers of turns in P and in S?

VP N
A = P
VS NS

B VP × VS = NP × NS

VP N
C = S
VS NP

VP NP
D =
VS (NP + NS)

36 What is the purpose of a relay?

A to change a large voltage into a small voltage


B to change a small voltage into a large voltage
C to use a large current to switch on a small current
D to use a small current to switch on a large current

37 Which row gives the relative charge of an electron, a neutron and a proton?

electron neutron proton

A –1 0 –1
B –1 0 +1
C +1 –1 0
D +1 0 +1

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19

38 An element has two isotopes.

Which row compares the numbers of particles in the nuclei of the atoms of these isotopes?

number of number of number of


neutrons protons nucleons

A different the same different


B different the same the same
C the same different different
D the same different the same

39 A hospital doctor is using a source of γ-rays for a medical treatment.

Each diagram shows a view from above of the treatment room.

Which diagram shows the best way to protect the doctor and staff in the corridor from the γ-rays?

A B
dense dense
source
concrete concrete
source doctor of γ-rays
of γ-rays wooden wooden
door door
corridor corridor doctor

C D
dense dense
concrete concrete
doctor source
source of γ-rays wooden
of γ-rays
door
corridor wooden corridor doctor
door

40 A sample of radioactive isotope is decaying.

The nuclei of which atoms will decay first?

A It is impossible to know because radioactive decay is random.


B It is impossible to know unless the age of the material is known.
C The atoms near the centre will decay first because they are surrounded by more atoms.
D The atoms near the surface will decay first because the radiation can escape more easily.

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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2017
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2017 series for most Cambridge IGCSE®,
Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.

® IGCSE is a registered trademark.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2017
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 B 1

3 C 1

4 A 1

5 C 1

6 C 1

7 D 1

8 A 1

9 D 1

10 C 1

11 A 1

12 D 1

13 A 1

14 A 1

15 A 1

16 D 1

17 A 1

18 D 1

19 A 1

20 D 1

21 D 1

22 D 1

23 C 1

24 A 1

25 A 1

26 D 1

27 D 1

28 C 1

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2017
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 A 1

30 B 1

31 D 1

32 B 1

33 C 1

34 C 1

35 A 1

36 D 1

37 B 1

38 A 1

39 D 1

40 A 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2009621188*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 20 printed pages.

IB17 06_0625_12/3RP
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1 Which device is used to measure the time it takes for a 10 cm3 block of ice to melt in a laboratory
at room temperature?

A measuring cylinder
B ruler
C stopwatch
D thermometer

2 A student determines the average speed of a bubble rising through a liquid at constant speed.

When the student starts the stopwatch the bubble is at position P.

After 2.0 s the bubble is at position Q.

bubble

18 Q
19

20

21

22

23

24

25
P
26
cm
27
bubble

What is the speed of the bubble between P and Q?

A 3.2 cm / s B 3.7 cm / s C 6.4 cm / s D 7.4 cm / s

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3 The speed-time graph represents a motorcycle journey.

In which part of the graph is the acceleration equal to zero?

40
speed
m/s C
30
B
20
D
10
A

0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
time / s

4 Which expression is used to find gravitational field strength g?

A mass × density

B mass ÷ weight

C weight × mass

D weight ÷ mass

5 A block of ice is removed from a freezer. Some of the ice melts to produce water. Some of the
water that is produced evaporates.

The original mass of the ice is p. The mass of the ice that has not yet melted is q. The mass of
the water is r. The mass of the water vapour is s.

The diagram shows these changes.

before melting after melting and evaporation

ice ice water water vapour

mass p mass q mass r mass s

Which equation gives the relationship between p, q, r and s?

A p=q+r
B p=q+r+s
C p=q+r–s
D p=q+s

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6 The masses of a measuring cylinder before and after pouring some liquid into it are shown in the
diagram.

cm3 cm3
200 200

100 100
liquid

mass = 80 g mass = 180 g

What is the density of the liquid?

A 100 g / cm3 B 100 g / cm3 C 180 g / cm3 D 180 g / cm3


120 140 120 140

7 A car travels forwards along a straight horizontal road. Only the horizontal forces acting on it are
shown.

air resistance
and friction
driving force

The length of each arrow represents the size of each force.

How do these forces affect the motion of the car?

A The car moves at constant speed.


B The car moves backwards.
C The car slows down.
D The car’s forward speed increases.

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8 The centre of a uniform metre rule rests on a pivot. A load of weight 3.0 N is placed at the 70 cm
mark.

A force F acts upwards at the 80 cm mark. The rule is in equilibrium.

0 cm 50 cm 70 cm 100 cm

80 cm
rule
pivot
3.0 N

What is the magnitude of F ?

A 2.0 N B 2.6 N C 3.0 N D 4.5 N

9 An energy resource is used to generate electrical energy.

Which energy resource uses a transfer of gravitational potential energy to generate this electrical
energy?

A geothermal
B hydroelectric
C solar
D wind

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10 The diagrams show athletes training by stretching springs.

Each spring has the same stiffness.

Which athlete does the most work?

A B

one spring stretched one spring stretched


by 0.60 m by 0.80 m

C D

two springs stretched two springs stretched


by 0.60 m by 0.80 m

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11 The diagram shows a conical vessel full of water.

The pressure at point X due to the water is p. A point Q is a distance h above point X.

water

Q
h
X

Which graph shows how the pressure due to the water at Q varies with distance h?

A B
pressure p pressure p

0 0
0 distance h 0 distance h

C D
pressure p pressure p

0 0
0 distance h 0 distance h

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12 In diagram 1 a manometer containing mercury (Hg) is connected to a gas tap. The tap is turned
off and the mercury is at the same level on both sides.

gas tap

gas
supply

diagram 1

mercury

When the gas supply is turned on, the mercury in the tube connected to the supply falls by 40 mm
and the mercury in the tube open to the atmosphere rises by 40 mm, as shown in diagram 2.

gas tap

gas
supply

diagram 2

mercury

What is the pressure of the gas in the gas supply?

A 40 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure


B 40 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure
C 80 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure
D 80 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure

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13 Brownian motion is observed when using a microscope to look at smoke particles in air.

What causes the smoke particles to move at random?

A Smoke particles are hit by air molecules.


B Smoke particles are moved by convection currents in the air.
C Smoke particles have different weights and fall at different speeds.
D Smoke particles hit the walls of the container.

14 Which change is evaporation?

solid
D A

liquid liquid

B
C
gas

15 A glass bottle has a metal cap. The cap fits very tightly and is difficult to remove.

The cap and the neck of the bottle are dipped in a bowl of hot water. The cap can be removed
more easily.

What happens to allow the cap to be removed more easily from the bottle?

A The cap contracts.


B The cap expands.
C The glass bottle contracts.
D The glass bottle expands.

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10

16 Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers.

Liquid 1 is heated for 100 s and liquid 2 is heated for 200 s by heaters of the same power.

Each liquid has the same rise in temperature.

different liquids
of same mass
liquid 1 liquid 2

heating time = 100 s heating time = 200 s

Which statement is correct?

A Each beaker of liquid has the same thermal capacity.


B Each beaker of liquid receives the same energy.
C Liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2.
D The thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than the thermal capacity of liquid 2.

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11

17 A copper bar and a wooden bar are joined. A piece of paper is wrapped tightly around the join.

The bar is heated strongly at the centre for a short time, and the paper goes brown on one side
only.

wood paper copper

heat

Which side goes brown, and what does this show about wood and copper?

brown side wood copper

A copper conductor insulator


B copper insulator conductor
C wood conductor insulator
D wood insulator conductor

18 A glass of water is taken out of a refrigerator. Several ice cubes are put into the glass of water.
The glass is then left in the room for several hours.

The graph shows how the temperature of the water in the glass varies from the time it is taken
out of the refrigerator.

temperature

0 time

What does the temperature marked X represent?

A boiling point of water


B melting point of ice
C room temperature
D temperature inside refrigerator

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12

19 A hollow aluminium cube is filled with very hot water.

Side X of the cube is opposite side Y of the cube. One of these two sides is black and one is
white.

A student holds the back of one hand 5 cm from side X, and then immediately holds the back of
the other hand 5 cm from side Y.

aluminium cube

side X side Y

5 cm 5 cm

very hot water

The hand held near side Y feels warmer than the hand held near side X.

Which row identifies the black side and correctly compares the rate of emission of thermal
radiation from each side?

rate of emission
black side
of thermal radiation

A X greater for X
B X the same for X and Y
C Y greater for Y
D Y the same for X and Y

20 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?

A The amplitude of the light changes.


B The colour of the light changes.
C The frequency of the light changes.
D The speed of the light changes.

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13

21 Light passes into a glass block.

Which is the angle of refraction?

A
B
D
C

22 Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?

A B

spectrum
white white
light light
spectrum

C D
spectrum

white white
light light spectrum

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14

23 The diagrams show four sources of waves.

Which source produces longitudinal waves?

A B C D

stick pushed up radio loudspeaker lamp


and down in water transmitter

24 The table shows different types of wave in the electromagnetic spectrum.

radio micro- infra-red visible ultraviolet gamma


X-rays
waves waves waves light waves rays

Where do all the waves travel at the same speed?

A in a vacuum
B in diamond
C in glass
D in water

25 A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts the alarm so that it
produces a louder note of a higher pitch.

What effect does this have on the amplitude and on the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A larger greater
B larger smaller
C smaller greater
D smaller smaller

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26 What is wrong with this labelled diagram of a permanent magnet?

iron disc

N S

A The cross-section should be rectangular.


B The length should be greater than the diameter.
C The magnet should be made of steel.
D The N-pole and the S-pole should be reversed.

27 Which statement about magnetism is correct?

A An unmagnetised iron bar becomes magnetised when it is placed near a magnet.


B An unmagnetised steel bar can be magnetised by passing a current through it.
C Steel is used as the core of an electromagnet.
D When an iron bar has been magnetised, it is difficult to demagnetise it.

28 A student tests the electrical conduction of four materials.

aluminium
iron
plastic
silver

Which materials conduct electricity?

A aluminium, iron and silver only


B aluminium and silver only
C iron, silver and plastic only
D plastic only

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29 The circuit diagram shows three resistors connected in series across a 6.0 V supply.

6.0 V

3.0 Ω 4.0 Ω 5.0 Ω

What is the potential difference (p.d.) across the 4.0 Ω resistor?

A 0.67 V B 1.5 V C 2.0 V D 6.0 V

30 A thermistor is connected in series with a sensitive ammeter and a battery.

thermistor

Which change will give a larger ammeter reading?

A adding another thermistor in series


B cooling the thermistor
C heating the thermistor
D reducing the number of cells in the battery

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31 Three ammeters measure the currents in different parts of the circuit shown. The diagram
indicates the reading on the ammeters.

18 Ω
A
3.0 A
A
2.0 A 6Ω
A
1.5 A

How do we know that at least one of the ammeters must be faulty?

A All three ammeters must read the same value.

B All the current takes the easier path through the 6 Ω resistor.
C The current from the battery must be equal to the sum of the currents in the two resistors.
D The current in the two parallel resistors must be the same.

32 A student connects a variable potential divider (potentiometer) circuit.

R
T V

12 V

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter as the sliding terminal T is moved from R to S?

A It decreases from 12 V to 0 V.
B It increases from 0 V to 12 V.
C It remains at 0 V.
D It remains at 12 V.

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18

33 The diagram shows an electric circuit.

20 Ω 0.40 A

10 Ω

What is the potential difference (p.d.) across the LDR?

A 4.0 V B 8.0 V C 25 V D 50 V

34 A circuit-breaker is designed to protect a circuit which usually carries a current of 2 A.

The time taken to break the circuit depends on the current, as shown in the graph.

0.16
time taken
0.14
to break the
circuit / s 0.12
0.10
0.08
0.06
0.04
0.02
0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20

current / A

What happens when the current in the circuit is 2 A and what happens when the current is 18 A?

when the current is 2 A when the current is 18 A

A the circuit breaks in less than 0.01 s the circuit breaks in less than 0.01 s
B the circuit breaks in less than 0.01 s the circuit does not break
C the circuit does not break the circuit breaks in less than 0.01 s
D the circuit does not break the circuit does not break

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35 What is the purpose of a relay?

A to change a large voltage into a small voltage


B to change a small voltage into a large voltage
C to use a large current to switch on a small current
D to use a small current to switch on a large current

36 A coil of four loops of wire is placed in a magnetic field. When there is a current, the coil
experiences a turning effect.

Some extra loops of wire are wound on the coil but the current is unchanged.

How does this affect the turning effect?

A It is unchanged.
B Its direction changes.
C It decreases.
D It increases.

37 Which particle has a negative charge?

A an alpha particle
B an electron
C a neutron
D a proton

38 The diagram represents the nucleus of an atom. The charged particles are shown.

+ +

Which row gives the proton number and the nucleon number for this nucleus?

proton nucleon
number number

A 3 4
B 3 7
C 4 3
D 4 7

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20

39 A sample of radioactive isotope is decaying.

The nuclei of which atoms will decay first?

A It is impossible to know because radioactive decay is random.


B It is impossible to know unless the age of the material is known.
C The atoms near the centre will decay first because they are surrounded by more atoms.
D The atoms near the surface will decay first because the radiation can escape more easily.

40 The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 4.0 years.

A sample of this material contains 24 million radioactive nuclei.

How many of these radioactive nuclei remain undecayed after 12 years?

A 0.5 million
B 2.0 million
C 3.0 million
D 6.0 million

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0625/12/M/J/17

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2017
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2017 series for most Cambridge IGCSE®,
Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.

® IGCSE is a registered trademark.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2017
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 B 1

3 C 1

4 D 1

5 B 1

6 B 1

7 C 1

8 A 1

9 B 1

10 D 1

11 D 1

12 C 1

13 A 1

14 B 1

15 B 1

16 D 1

17 D 1

18 C 1

19 C 1

20 D 1

21 A 1

22 D 1

23 C 1

24 A 1

25 A 1

26 C 1

27 A 1

28 A 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2017
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 C 1

31 C 1

32 B 1

33 B 1

34 C 1

35 D 1

36 D 1

37 B 1

38 B 1

39 A 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*3488282495*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB17 06_0625_13/3RP
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1 A candle burns evenly. It is used as a timer.

The candle is lit and burns down to point X in 2 hours.

To which labelled point does the candle burn down after a further 30 minutes?

height of candle
before it is lit

2 A pendulum is swinging. Five students each measure the time it takes to swing through ten
complete swings.

Three students measure the time as 17.2 s. Another student measures it as 16.9 s, and the fifth
student measures it as 17.0 s.

What is the average period of the pendulum?

A 1.69 s B 1.70 s C 1.71 s D 1.72 s

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3 The speed-time graph represents a motorcycle journey.

In which part of the graph is the acceleration equal to zero?

40
speed
m/s C
30
B
20
D
10
A

0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
time / s

4 A shopkeeper pours rice into a dish that hangs from a spring balance. He records the reading.

0 1 spring balance
6
5 2
4 3

rice

dish

A customer buys some pasta. The shopkeeper notices that the reading on the spring balance,
with just pasta in the dish, is the same as it was with just rice in the dish.

Which quantity must be the same for the rice and for the pasta?

A density
B temperature
C volume
D weight

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5 Four identical steel blocks weigh 120 N in total.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the mass of one steel block?

A 3.0 kg B 12 kg C 30 kg D 48 kg

6 A steel ball bearing has a mass of 24 g and a density of 8.0 g / cm3. It is lowered into a measuring
cylinder containing 12 cm3 of water.

What is the new water level in the cylinder?

A 3.0 cm3 B 4.0 cm3 C 15 cm3 D 16 cm3

7 The diagram shows an object being acted upon by two forces.

6.0 N 3.0 N

What is the size of the resultant force on the object?

A 2.0 N B 3.0 N C 9.0 N D 18 N

8 A student is asked to investigate the extension of a spring using the apparatus shown in the
diagram.

known
weights

Which other piece of equipment is needed?

A measuring cylinder
B metre rule
C stopwatch
D protractor

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9 In which power station are atoms of one element changed to atoms of other lighter elements?

A a coal-fired power station


B a hydroelectric power station
C a nuclear power station
D a solar power station

10 The diagrams show four different athletes training by doing pull-ups.

Which athlete does the most work?

A B C D

weight of weight of weight of weight of


athlete = 700 N athlete = 700 N athlete = 800 N athlete = 800 N

distance distance distance distance


lifted = 0.50 m lifted = 0.55 m lifted = 0.50 m lifted = 0.55 m

11 A student uses her thumb to push in a drawing pin (thumb tack) into a notice board.

The pin goes into the board but does not penetrate her thumb.

Which statement explains this?

A The force exerted by the pin on her thumb is greater than the force exerted on the notice
board.
B The force exerted by the pin on the notice board is greater than the force exerted on her
thumb.
C The pressure of the pin on her thumb is greater than the pressure on the notice board.
D The pressure of the pin on the notice board is greater than the pressure on her thumb.

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12 A solid cube has sides 0.50 m long and a mass of 120 kg. It stands on the ground on one face.

What pressure does the cube exert on the ground?

A 480 kg / m3 B 960 kg / m3 C 4800 N / m2 D 9600 N / m2

13 The diagram represents molecules of a gas inside a closed container of constant volume.

What happens to the molecules of the gas when the container is heated?

A They expand.
B They get closer together.
C They hit the container walls with less force.
D They move faster.

14 Brownian motion is observed when using a microscope to look at smoke particles in air.

What causes the smoke particles to move at random?

A Smoke particles are hit by air molecules.


B Smoke particles are moved by convection currents in the air.
C Smoke particles have different weights and fall at different speeds.
D Smoke particles hit the walls of the container.

15 The temperature of a bridge rises from 5 °C on a cold night to 25 °C at midday.

What happens to the bridge?

A It becomes heavier.
B It becomes more dense.
C Its length increases.
D Its mass increases.

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16 Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers.

Liquid 1 is heated for 100 s and liquid 2 is heated for 200 s by heaters of the same power.

Each liquid has the same rise in temperature.

different liquids
of same mass
liquid 1 liquid 2

heating time = 100 s heating time = 200 s

Which statement is correct?

A Each beaker of liquid has the same thermal capacity.


B Each beaker of liquid receives the same energy.
C Liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2.
D The thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than the thermal capacity of liquid 2.

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17 A solid substance is heated at a constant rate. The solid changes into a liquid and then into a
gas.

The graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes.

700
temperature
/ °C
600

500

400

300

200

100

0
0 time

What is the melting point and what is the boiling point of the substance?

melting boiling
point / °C point / °C

A 200 300
B 200 500
C 300 500
D 300 700

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18 A copper bar and a wooden bar are joined. A piece of paper is wrapped tightly around the join.

The bar is heated strongly at the centre for a short time, and the paper goes brown on one side
only.

wood paper copper

heat

Which side goes brown, and what does this show about wood and copper?

brown side wood copper

A copper conductor insulator


B copper insulator conductor
C wood conductor insulator
D wood insulator conductor

19 Which types of thermal energy transfer require a medium?

A conduction and convection


B conduction only
C convection and radiation
D radiation only

20 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?

A The amplitude of the light changes.


B The colour of the light changes.
C The frequency of the light changes.
D The speed of the light changes.

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10

21 Which diagram shows how a converging lens forms a real image of an object O?

A B

O O

C D

O O

22 Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?

A B

spectrum
white white
light light
spectrum

C D
spectrum

white white
light light spectrum

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11

23 The table shows different types of wave in the electromagnetic spectrum.

radio micro- infra-red visible ultraviolet gamma


X-rays
waves waves waves light waves rays

Where do all the waves travel at the same speed?

A in a vacuum
B in diamond
C in glass
D in water

24 The diagrams show four sources of waves.

Which source produces longitudinal waves?

A B C D

stick pushed up radio loudspeaker lamp


and down in water transmitter

25 A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts the alarm so that it
produces a louder note of a higher pitch.

What effect does this have on the amplitude and on the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A larger greater
B larger smaller
C smaller greater
D smaller smaller

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12

26 From which materials are the coil and the core of an electromagnet made?

coil core

A copper soft iron


B copper steel
C soft iron copper
D steel soft iron

27 In which way are a bar magnet and an electromagnet similar?

A A bar magnet and an electromagnet are always magnetised when stored.


B A bar magnet and an electromagnet can both be used to separate magnetic and
non-magnetic materials.
C A bar magnet can be made of steel and an electromagnet uses a steel core.
D The magnetic field strength of a bar magnet and of an electromagnet can both be varied.

28 Which material is a conductor of electricity?

A brass
B glass
C plastic
D wood

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13

29 The diagram shows a circuit containing two resistors of resistance 1.0 Ω and 2.0 Ω.

A voltmeter is connected across the 1.0 Ω resistor by connecting P to X.

The reading on the voltmeter is 6.0 V.

1.0 Ω X 2.0 Ω Y

P
V

P is moved to point Y in the circuit.

What is the new reading on the voltmeter?

A 3.0 V B 6.0 V C 12 V D 18 V

30 The circuit diagram shows a simple circuit with a battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 6.0 V and
two bulbs each of resistance 2.0 Ω.

ammeter 1 A A ammeter 2

Which row gives the readings on the ammeters?

reading on reading on
ammeter 1 / A ammeter 2 / A

A 1.5 0
B 1.5 1.5
C 3.0 0
D 3.0 1.5

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14

31 The diagram shows three identical heating elements connected to a power supply.

switch 1

switch 2

switch 3

power
supply

Which arrangement of switches causes most power to be used?

switch 1 switch 2 switch 3

A closed closed closed


B closed open closed
C closed open open
D open closed closed

32 A student connects a variable potential divider (potentiometer) circuit.

R
T V

12 V

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter as the sliding terminal T is moved from R to S?

A It decreases from 12 V to 0 V.
B It increases from 0 V to 12 V.
C It remains at 0 V.
D It remains at 12 V.

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15

33 The diagram shows a circuit used to make a light detector.

X Y

One component is connected between X and Y.

Which component causes the ammeter reading to increase when the light gets brighter?

A B C D

34 A circuit-breaker is designed to protect a circuit which usually carries a current of 2 A.

The time taken to break the circuit depends on the current, as shown in the graph.

0.16
time taken
0.14
to break the
circuit / s 0.12
0.10
0.08
0.06
0.04
0.02
0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20

current / A

What happens when the current in the circuit is 2 A and what happens when the current is 18 A?

when the current is 2 A when the current is 18 A

A the circuit breaks in less than 0.01 s the circuit breaks in less than 0.01 s
B the circuit breaks in less than 0.01 s the circuit does not break
C the circuit does not break the circuit breaks in less than 0.01 s
D the circuit does not break the circuit does not break

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16

35 A wire moves in the direction shown between the poles of a magnet.

wire

N S

movement
of wire

Which change increases the magnitude of the induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) across the
ends of the wire?

A increasing the gap between the poles of the magnet


B moving the wire faster
C using a shorter wire
D using a thinner wire

36 What is the purpose of a relay?

A to change a large voltage into a small voltage


B to change a small voltage into a large voltage
C to use a large current to switch on a small current
D to use a small current to switch on a large current

37 Which description of a neutral atom of copper is correct?

A a nucleus surrounded by electrons


B a nucleus surrounded by molecules
C electrons surrounded by a nucleus
D electrons surrounded by molecules

131
38 A nuclide of iodine is represented by 53 I .

How many neutrons are in a nucleus of this nuclide?

A 53 B 78 C 131 D 184

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17

39 A sample of radioactive isotope is decaying.

The nuclei of which atoms will decay first?

A It is impossible to know because radioactive decay is random.


B It is impossible to know unless the age of the material is known.
C The atoms near the centre will decay first because they are surrounded by more atoms.
D The atoms near the surface will decay first because the radiation can escape more easily.

40 The diagram shows a decay curve for a radioactive substance.

50
count rate 45
counts / s 40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
0
time

According to the curve shown, what is the background radiation count?

A 40 counts / s
B 20 counts / s
C 5 counts / s
D 0 counts / s

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18

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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0625/13/M/J/17

S-ReCourSe....38-H,PHASE-1,DHA,LHR...241 of 1118...Call.03-234567800
S-ReCourSe....38-H,PHASE-1,DHA,LHR...242 of 1118...Call.03-234567800

Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2017
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2017 series for most Cambridge IGCSE®,
Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.

® IGCSE is a registered trademark.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

S-RECOURSE_03234567800
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

S-ReCourSe....38-H,PHASE-1,DHA,LHR...242 of 1118...Call.03-234567800
S-ReCourSe....38-H,PHASE-1,DHA,LHR...243 of 1118...Call.03-234567800
0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2017
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 C 1

3 C 1

4 D 1

5 A 1

6 C 1

7 B 1

8 B 1

9 C 1

10 D 1

11 D 1

12 C 1

13 D 1

14 A 1

15 C 1

16 D 1

17 C 1

18 D 1

19 A 1

20 D 1

21 A 1

22 D 1

23 A 1

24 C 1

25 A 1

26 A 1

27 B 1

28 A 1

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2017
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 D 1

30 B 1

31 A 1

32 B 1

33 A 1

34 C 1

35 B 1

36 D 1

37 A 1

38 B 1

39 A 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2729597850*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 19 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB17 11_0625_11/3RP
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1 A student measures the volume of a cork.

He puts some water into a measuring cylinder and then one glass ball. He puts the cork and then
a second, identical glass ball into the water as shown.

cm3 cm3 cm3


100 100 100

80 80 80
glass ball
60 60 60

40 40 40 cork
20 20 20
glass ball glass ball

diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3

Diagram 1 shows the first water level.

Diagram 2 shows the water level after one glass ball is added.

Diagram 3 shows the water level after the cork and the second glass ball are added.

What is the volume of the cork?

A 30 cm3 B 40 cm3 C 50 cm3 D 100 cm3

2 The graph shows how the speed of a car varies over a period of 10 s.

speed
m/s
10

0
0 5 10
time / s

How far does the car travel during the 10 s?

A 10 m B 50 m C 75 m D 100 m

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3 The diagram shows how the speed of a falling object changes with time.

speed
Y Z
X

0
0 time

Which row describes the motion of the object between X and Y, and between Y and Z?

between X and Y between Y and Z

A accelerating at rest
B accelerating constant speed
C decelerating at rest
D decelerating constant speed

4 A spring is stretched by hanging a piece of metal from it.

spring

metal

Which name is given to the force that stretches the spring?

A friction
B mass
C pressure
D weight

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5 The graph shows how weight varies with mass on planet P and on planet Q.

400
planet P
weight / N
300
planet Q

200

100

0
0 20 40 60 80
mass / kg

An object weighs 400 N on planet P. The object is taken to planet Q.

Which row is correct?

mass of object weight of object


on planet Q / kg on planet Q / N

A 40 200
B 40 400
C 80 200
D 80 400

6 What is needed to determine the density of a regularly shaped block?

A a balance and a beaker


B a balance and a ruler
C a measuring cylinder and a beaker
D a measuring cylinder and a ruler

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7 A student conducts an experiment by hanging different loads on a spring. The diagrams show the
lengths of the spring with different loads.

3.0 cm

6.0 cm

9.0 cm

2.0 N

4.0 N

Which row gives the correct extensions of the spring?

extension / cm
0N 2.0 N 4.0 N

A 0 3.0 3.0
B 0 3.0 6.0
C 3.0 3.0 3.0
D 3.0 6.0 9.0

8 A car mechanic is trying to loosen a wheel nut. He applies a force to the end of a spanner
(wrench) at right-angles to the spanner.

Which method provides the largest turning effect on the nut?

A applying double the force to a spanner that is half as long


B applying double the force to a spanner that is twice as long
C applying double the force to the same spanner
D applying the same force to a spanner that is twice as long

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9 The diagrams show four table lamps resting on a table. The position of the centre of mass of
each lamp is labelled X.

Which lamp is the most stable?

A B C D

X X

X X

10 A pendulum bob swings from W, through points X and Y, to Z and then back to W.

W Z
X
Y

Which statement is correct?

A The gravitational potential energy of the bob is smallest at W.


B The gravitational potential energy of the bob is smallest at X.
C The gravitational potential energy of the bob is smallest at Y.
D The gravitational potential energy of the bob is the same at all points of the swing.

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11 A student runs up a flight of stairs.

height
length

Which information is not needed to calculate the rate at which the student is doing work against
gravity?

A the height of the flight of stairs


B the length of the flight of stairs
C the time taken to run up the stairs
D the weight of the student

12 What is a manometer used to determine?

A the difference between two densities


B the difference between two forces
C the difference between two heights
D the difference between two pressures

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13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

cm vacuum
90

80

metre rule 70

60
50

40

30
20
10
mercury

Which length is used to find the value of atmospheric pressure?

A 12 cm B 74 cm C 86 cm D 100 cm

14 A pollen grain in a beaker of still water is viewed through a microscope.

Which diagram shows the most likely movement of the pollen grain?

A B C D

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15 The diagram shows an air-filled rubber toy. A child sits on the toy and its volume decreases.

The temperature of the air in the toy does not change.

How does the air pressure in the toy change and why?

pressure reason

A decreases air molecules move more slowly


B decreases air molecules strike the rubber less frequently
C increases air molecules move more quickly
D increases air molecules strike the rubber more frequently

16 A strip of iron and a strip of brass are firmly attached to each other along their entire length. This
combination is a bimetallic strip.

iron strip

brass strip

This bimetallic strip is heated and it bends as shown.

iron

fixed support

brass

The bimetallic strip is now cooled and becomes straight again.

What causes the bimetallic strip to become straight again?

A The brass contracts more than the iron.


B The brass expands more than the iron.
C The iron contracts more than the brass.
D The iron expands more than the brass.

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10

17 The diagram shows an electric heater being used to heat a beaker of water and an identical
beaker containing oil. Both are heated for one minute.

water oil

electric heater

The temperature of the water and the temperature of the oil increase steadily. The increase in
temperature of the oil is much greater than that of the water.

Why is this?

A Oil has a higher boiling point than water.


B Oil has a lower boiling point than water.
C The oil has a larger thermal capacity than the water.
D The oil has a smaller thermal capacity than the water.

18 The air temperature in a cold room is 15 °C.

A heater that contains water at 50 °C is used to heat the room.

By which process is most of the thermal energy transferred throughout the air in the room?

A conduction
B convection
C evaporation
D radiation

19 Which statement about convection currents is correct?

A Convection currents occur because, when cooled, liquids contract and become more dense.
B Convection currents occur because, when warmed, liquids expand and become more dense.
C Convection currents only occur in liquids.
D Convection currents only occur in solids and liquids.

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11

20 The diagram represents a wave travelling along a rope.

Which labelled arrow indicates the wavelength of the wave?

rope
D
C

21 The diagram represents plane wavefronts of a water wave about to strike a solid barrier.

wavefronts

Which diagram shows the position of the wavefronts after reflection at the barrier?

A B

reflected

reflected

C D

reflected

reflected

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12

22 The diagram shows an object in front of a plane mirror. A ray of light from the object is incident on
the mirror.

object
R

Q S

P
plane
mirror

Through which point does the reflected ray pass, and at which point is the image of the object
formed?

point through which point at which


reflected ray passes image is formed

A P R
B P S
C Q R
D Q S

23 Which ray diagram shows a converging lens forming a real image of a small object O?

A B

O O

C D

O O

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13

24 Visible light, X-rays and microwaves are all components of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Which statement about the waves is correct?

A In a vacuum, microwaves travel faster than visible light and have a shorter wavelength.
B In a vacuum, microwaves travel at the same speed as visible light and have a shorter
wavelength.
C In a vacuum, X-rays travel faster than visible light and have a shorter wavelength.
D In a vacuum, X-rays travel at the same speed as visible light and have a shorter wavelength.

25 Space is a vacuum. Waves from stars are used to reveal information about the stars.

Which type of waves do not reveal information about stars?

A infra-red
B radio waves
C ultrasound

D γ-rays

26 A student stands 180 m in front of a vertical, flat cliff and bangs together two pieces of wood to
make a short, loud sound.

A timer records the echo of the sound 1.5 seconds after the pieces of wood are banged together.

Based on this result, what is the speed of sound?

A 120 m / s B 240 m / s C 270 m / s D 540 m / s

27 A train of steel nails and a train of iron nails hang from a strong magnet.

magnet

train of train of
steel nails iron nails

The trains are then carefully removed from the magnet.

What happens to the trains?

A Both trains fall apart.


B Both trains stay together.
C Only the train of iron nails falls apart.
D Only the train of steel nails falls apart.

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28 The north pole of a bar magnet is placed in turn next to each end of a rod X. One end of the rod
moves away from the north pole but the other end moves towards the north pole.

The experiment is repeated with the bar magnet and a different rod Y but this time both ends of
the rod move towards the north pole.

From which materials could the rods X and Y be made?

rod X rod Y

A soft iron copper


B soft iron soft iron
C steel copper
D steel soft iron

29 A student investigates the electrostatic charges on three objects P, Q and R.

The student places object P on the insulated pan of a balance and notes the reading on the
balance.

The student then holds object Q a small distance above object P and notes the reading on the
balance.

Finally, the student holds object R the small distance above object P and notes the reading on
the balance.

The student’s observations are shown.

object Q object R

object P

86.5 g 131.7 g 78.2 g

Which row gives possible charges that explain these observations?

charge on P charge on Q charge on R

A negative positive negative


B negative negative negative
C positive positive negative
D positive negative positive

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15

30 Which equation is used to calculate resistance?

A resistance = p.d. + current


B resistance = p.d. – current

C resistance = p.d. × current

D resistance = p.d. ÷ current

31 A student connects a circuit with a power supply, a lamp and an ammeter.

Where must the ammeter be connected?

A in parallel with the lamp to measure current in the lamp


B in parallel with the lamp to measure potential difference across the lamp
C in series with the lamp to measure current in the lamp
D in series with the lamp to measure potential difference across the lamp

32 Two 3.0 Ω resistors are connected in parallel.

Which statement about their combined resistance is correct?

A The combined resistance is less than 3.0 Ω.

B The combined resistance is 3.0 Ω.

C The combined resistance is more than 3.0 Ω but less than 6.0 Ω.

D The combined resistance is 6.0 Ω.

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16

33 The diagram shows a potential divider circuit.

Z
slider
V

How does the movement of the slider affect the voltmeter reading?

movement voltmeter
of slider reading

A Z to X falls to zero
B Z to X increases
C Z to Y falls to zero
D Z to Y increases

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17

34 The diagram shows a circuit with a fixed resistor connected in series with a thermistor and an
ammeter.

Which row shows how temperature change affects the resistance of the thermistor and the
current in the circuit?

resistance of
temperature current in circuit
thermistor

A decreases decreases increases


B decreases increases decreases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases increases increases

35 An appliance is connected to a mains supply. Its circuit also contains a switch and a fuse.

Which circuit shows the fuse in the correct position?

A B
appliance appliance

live live

neutral neutral

C D
appliance appliance

live live

neutral neutral

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18

36 There is an electric current in a straight wire in the direction into the page. This produces a
magnetic field around the wire. All the field lines are circles but only one field line is shown.

magnetic field line

wire with current


into the page

Which row describes the magnetic field?

direction of spacing of
the field lines the field lines

A anti-clockwise evenly spaced over


the whole field
B anti-clockwise more widely spaced
further from the wire
C clockwise evenly spaced over
the whole field
D clockwise more widely spaced
further from the wire

37 A wire carrying a current is placed in a magnetic field. The wire experiences a force due to the
field.

Which action does not change the direction of the force?

A increasing the current and reversing the field direction


B increasing the current, keeping the field direction constant
C reversing the current and increasing the field strength
D reversing the current, keeping the field direction constant

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19

35 37
38 Different isotopes of chlorine are represented as 17 Cl and 17 Cl .

They behave the same way chemically.

Why is this?

A They have the same nuclide notation.


B They have the same number of neutrons.
C They have the same number of nucleons.
D They have the same number of protons.

39 A radioactive source emits three types of radiation R, S and T.

The diagram shows an experiment set up to study the penetrating properties of R, S and T.

paper few mm of few cm


aluminium of lead

Which types of radiation are R, S and T?

R S T

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays


B α-particles γ-rays β-particles
C β-particles α-particles γ-rays
D γ-rays β-particles α-particles

40 What is meant by the half-life of a radioactive isotope?

A half of the time taken for all of the original nuclei to decay
B the time taken for half of the original nuclei to decay
C the time taken for the charges on all the nuclei to halve
D the time taken for the mass of each nucleus to halve

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20

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To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2017
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2017 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE®, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

® IGCSE is a registered trademark.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2017

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 C 1

3 B 1

4 D 1

5 A 1

6 B 1

7 B 1

8 B 1

9 B 1

10 C 1

11 B 1

12 D 1

13 B 1

14 A 1

15 D 1

16 A 1

17 D 1

18 B 1

19 A 1

20 B 1

21 C 1

22 A 1

23 D 1

24 D 1

25 C 1

26 B 1

27 C 1

28 D 1

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2017

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 D 1

31 C 1

32 A 1

33 B 1

34 B 1

35 C 1

36 D 1

37 B 1

38 D 1

39 B 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*0285820688*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 19 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB17 11_0625_12/4RP
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1 A student investigates the rate of flow of oil through a funnel.

The diagrams show the experiment and the volume of oil in the measuring cylinder at the start of
the experiment, and one minute later.

80 80
cm3 cm3

60 60

40 40

20 20

initial after 1.0


measurement minute

What is the rate of flow of oil through the funnel during the one minute?

A 0.73 cm3 / s B 0.80 cm3 / s C 44 cm3 / s D 48 cm3 / s

2 The graph represents the motion of a vehicle.

20
speed
m/s

0
0 400
time / s

What is the distance travelled by the vehicle in 400 s?

A 20 m B 400 m C 4000 m D 8000 m

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3 The speed-time graph represents the motion of an object.

18

16
speed
m/s
14

12

10

8.0

6.0

4.0

2.0

0.0
0.0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0 6.0
time / s

What is the average speed of the object?

A 2.0 m / s B 6.0 m / s C 8.5 m / s D 11 m / s

4 A spring is stretched by hanging a piece of metal from it.

spring

metal

Which name is given to the force that stretches the spring?

A friction
B mass
C pressure
D weight

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5 The graph shows how weight varies with mass on planet P and on planet Q.

400
planet P
weight / N
300
planet Q

200

100

0
0 20 40 60 80
mass / kg

An object weighs 400 N on planet P. The object is taken to planet Q.

Which row is correct?

mass of object weight of object


on planet Q / kg on planet Q / N

A 40 200
B 40 400
C 80 200
D 80 400

6 What is needed to determine the density of a regularly shaped block?

A a balance and a beaker


B a balance and a ruler
C a measuring cylinder and a beaker
D a measuring cylinder and a ruler

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7 The diagram shows an aircraft flying in a straight horizontal line at constant speed.

W is the weight of the aircraft.


L is the lift (upward force) due to air flow over the wings.
T is the thrust force due to the engine.
D is the air resistance (drag).

The diagram shows the direction of these forces.

D T

What are the relationships between the forces?

A L = W and T = D
B L = W and T is greater than D
C L is greater than W and T = D
D L is greater than W and T is greater than D

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8 A pivoted beam supports a load P at one end and a load Q at the other end.

The weight of the beam can be ignored.

30 cm 70 cm

pivot
P Q

The beam is balanced.

Which row gives possible values for P and for Q?

P/N Q/N

A 21 7
B 21 9
C 30 10
D 30 70

9 Each diagram shows a metal plate with four parallel forces acting on it. These are the only forces
acting on the plates.

In which diagram is the plate in equilibrium?

A B

1.0 N 2.0 N 2.0 N 1.0 N

2.0 N 1.0 N 1.0 N 2.0 N

C D

1.0 N 1.0 N 2.0 N 1.0 N

2.0 N 2.0 N 2.0 N 2.0 N

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10 A load is attached to the end of a spring. A student pulls the load down from its rest position and
releases it. It oscillates vertically and eventually comes to rest.

load

load

Which row gives the type of energy transferred to the apparatus, and the type of energy to which
this has then been transferred when the load comes to rest?

type of energy to which this


type of energy transferred
has then been transferred
to the apparatus
when the load comes to rest

A elastic energy in the spring chemical energy in the


spring and in the air
B elastic energy in the spring thermal energy in the
spring and in the air
C gravitational potential chemical energy in the
energy in the load spring and in the air
D gravitational potential thermal energy in the
energy in the load spring and in the air

11 A student runs up a flight of stairs.

height
length

Which information is not needed to calculate the rate at which the student is doing work against
gravity?

A the height of the flight of stairs


B the length of the flight of stairs
C the time taken to run up the stairs
D the weight of the student

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12 A book has a mass of 400 g.

One of its surfaces measures 0.10 m × 0.20 m. This surface is in contact with a table.

The gravitational field strength g is10 N / kg.

What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book?

A 0.08 N / m2 B 8.0 N / m2 C 20 N / m2 D 200 N / m2

13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

cm vacuum
90
80

metre rule 70
60
50
40

30
20
10
mercury

Which length is used to find the value of atmospheric pressure?

A 12 cm B 74 cm C 86 cm D 100 cm

14 A pollen grain in a beaker of still water is viewed through a microscope.

Which diagram shows the most likely movement of the pollen grain?

A B C D

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15 The diagram shows an air-filled rubber toy. A child sits on the toy and its volume decreases.

The temperature of the air in the toy does not change.

How does the air pressure in the toy change and why?

pressure reason

A decreases air molecules move more slowly


B decreases air molecules strike the rubber less frequently
C increases air molecules move more quickly
D increases air molecules strike the rubber more frequently

16 Which row identifies the fixed points on the Celsius scale?

lower fixed point upper fixed point

A boiling point of mercury melting point of pure ice


B boiling point of pure water melting point of pure ice
C melting point of mercury boiling point of pure water
D melting point of pure ice boiling point of pure water

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10

17 The diagram shows an electric heater being used to heat a beaker of water and an identical
beaker containing oil. Both are heated for one minute.

water oil

electric heater

The temperature of the water and the temperature of the oil increase steadily. The increase in
temperature of the oil is much greater than that of the water.

Why is this?

A Oil has a higher boiling point than water.


B Oil has a lower boiling point than water.
C The oil has a larger thermal capacity than the water.
D The oil has a smaller thermal capacity than the water.

18 Which statement about the direction of a change of state is correct?

A Evaporation is the reverse process to boiling.


B Evaporation is the reverse process to condensation.
C Evaporation is the reverse process to melting.
D Evaporation is the reverse process to solidification.

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11

19 Three cups are made from the same insulating material.

cup 1 cup 2 cup 3

The cups are each filled with the same volume of hot tea.

In which cup does the tea cool most quickly and in which cup does it cool most slowly?

most quickly most slowly

A 1 3
B 2 1
C 3 2
D 3 1

20 Why does a balloon filled with hot air rise?

A Cold air is less dense than hot air.


B Cold air is more dense than hot air.
C Heat rises.
D The density of the balloon is greater than the density of the surrounding gas.

21 A wave moves along the surface of water.

What is the wavelength of the wave?

A the distance between one crest and the next crest


B the distance that a crest moves along the surface in one second
C the distance that a particle of water moves up and down
D the number of waves that pass a fixed point in one second

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12

22 The diagram represents plane wavefronts of a water wave about to strike a solid barrier.

wavefronts

Which diagram shows the position of the wavefronts after reflection at the barrier?

A B

reflected

reflected

C D

reflected

reflected

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13

23 The diagram shows an object O in front of a thin converging lens of focal length f.

At which point will the lens form a sharp image of the object?

A
O

f f
C
D

24 The diagram shows light travelling from glass to air.

air 20°
glass 50°

What is the angle of refraction for this ray of light?

A 20° B 40° C 50° D 70°

25 Which piece of equipment is designed to produce a type of electromagnetic wave?

A electric fire
B electric generator
C electric motor
D electromagnet

26 What is ultrasound?

A sound waves that are so loud that they damage human hearing
B sound waves that are too high-pitched for humans to hear
C sound waves that are too low-pitched for humans to hear
D sound waves that are too quiet for humans to hear

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14

27 A student finds that it takes sound 0.33 seconds to travel 100 metres.

From this information, what is the speed of sound?

A 30 m / s B 60 m / s C 300 m / s D 600 m / s

28 A train of steel nails and a train of iron nails hang from a strong magnet.

magnet

train of train of
steel nails iron nails

The trains are then carefully removed from the magnet.

What happens to the trains?

A Both trains fall apart.


B Both trains stay together.
C Only the train of iron nails falls apart.
D Only the train of steel nails falls apart.

29 Two circuits are set up as shown. The iron rods are placed close together and are able to move.

iron rod iron rod


X

What happens to the size of the gap at X when switch S is closed?

A It decreases.
B It decreases then increases.
C It increases.
D It does not change.

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15

30 Which circuit can be used to determine the resistance of resistor R?

A B C D

V V A A V

R R R
V

R
A A

31 A wire has a resistance R.

A second wire made from the same metal has double the length and has double the diameter of
the first wire.

What is the resistance of the second wire?

A R B R C 4R D 8R
2

32 The circuit diagram shows a 4.0 Ω resistor and an 8.0 Ω resistor connected to a 6.0 V battery.

6.0 V

4.0 Ω 8.0 Ω

What is the potential difference (p.d.) across the 4.0 Ω resistor?

A 0.5 V B 2.0 V C 4.0 V D 6.0 V

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16

33 The diagram shows a motor and a light-dependent resistor (LDR) connected in a circuit.

Which change decreases the current in the motor so that it turns more slowly?
A connecting a resistor in parallel with the LDR
B connecting a resistor in series with the LDR
C exchanging the positions of the motor and the LDR in the circuit
D increasing the brightness of the light falling on the LDR

34 The diagram shows a circuit with a fixed resistor connected in series with a thermistor and an
ammeter.

Which row shows how temperature change affects the resistance of the thermistor and the
current in the circuit?

resistance of
temperature current in circuit
thermistor

A decreases decreases increases


B decreases increases decreases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases increases increases

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17

35 An appliance is connected to a mains supply. Its circuit also contains a switch and a fuse.

Which circuit shows the fuse in the correct position?

A B
appliance appliance

live live

neutral neutral

C D
appliance appliance

live live

neutral neutral

36 The diagram shows a bar magnet and a coil of wire. The bar magnet is moved at the same speed
in each experiment.

In which situation is the largest electromotive force (e.m.f.) induced?

A B
moves right stationary moves left stationary

bar magnet coil bar magnet coil

C D
moves left at same moves left at same
moves right speed as bar magnet moves left speed as bar magnet

bar magnet coil bar magnet coil

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18

37 Diagram 1 shows a wire carrying an electric current. The wire is between the poles of a magnet.

The current and the magnetic field produce a force on the wire which is upwards, as shown.

force
current

N S S N
current

diagram 1 diagram 2

The magnetic poles and the current are now both reversed, as in diagram 2.

In which direction is the force on the wire in diagram 2?

A downwards
B towards the North pole of the magnet
C towards the South pole of the magnet
D upwards

222
38 A nuclide of radon-222 is represented by 86 Rn .

How many protons and how many neutrons are in a nucleus of this nuclide?

protons neutrons

A 86 136
B 86 222
C 222 86
D 222 136

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19

39 A radioactive source emits three types of radiation R, S and T.

The diagram shows an experiment set up to study the penetrating properties of R, S and T.

paper few mm of few cm


aluminium of lead

Which types of radiation are R, S and T?

R S T

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays


B α-particles γ-rays β-particles
C β-particles α-particles γ-rays
D γ-rays β-particles α-particles

40 A radioactive source has a half-life of 0.5 hours.

A detector near the source shows a reading of 6000 counts per second.

Background radiation can be ignored.

What is the reading on the detector 1.5 hours later?

A 750 counts per second


B 1500 counts per second
C 2000 counts per second
D 3000 counts per second

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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2017
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2017 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE®, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

® IGCSE is a registered trademark.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2017

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 C 1

3 D 1

4 D 1

5 A 1

6 B 1

7 A 1

8 B 1

9 C 1

10 B 1

11 B 1

12 D 1

13 B 1

14 A 1

15 D 1

16 D 1

17 D 1

18 B 1

19 C 1

20 B 1

21 A 1

22 C 1

23 D 1

24 D 1

25 A 1

26 B 1

27 C 1

28 C 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2017

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 C 1

31 A 1

32 B 1

33 B 1

34 B 1

35 C 1

36 C 1

37 D 1

38 A 1

39 B 1

40 A 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2982654513*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 19 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB17 11_0625_13/4RP
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1 A measuring cylinder contains some water. A small metal block is slowly lowered into the water
and is then removed.

Finally a piece of plastic is attached to the metal block and the block is again slowly lowered into
the water.

The diagrams show the measuring cylinder at each stage of this process.

1 2 3
cm3 cm3 cm3
100 100 100
90 90 90
80 80 80
70 70 70
60 60 60
50 50 50
40 40 40
30 30 30
20 20 20 plastic
10 10 10

metal block metal block

What is the volume of the piece of plastic?

A 10 cm3 B 25 cm3 C 70 cm3 D 80 cm3

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2 A car accelerates from rest and travels a distance of 100 m in 10 seconds.

Which speed-time graph represents the motion of this car?

A B
speed speed 20
m / s 15 m/s

0 0
0 10 time / s 0 10 time / s

C D
speed speed
m/s m/s

10 10

0 0
0 10 time / s 0 10 time / s

3 The diagram is the speed-time graph for a bicycle journey.

speed

0
0 20 40 50 70
time / s

When is the bicycle moving at a constant speed?

A between 0 and 20 s
B between 20 s and 40 s
C between 40 s and 50 s
D between 50 s and 70 s

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4 A spring is stretched by hanging a piece of metal from it.

spring

metal

Which name is given to the force that stretches the spring?

A friction
B mass
C pressure
D weight

5 The graph shows how weight varies with mass on planet P and on planet Q.

400
planet P
weight / N
300
planet Q

200

100

0
0 20 40 60 80
mass / kg

An object weighs 400 N on planet P. The object is taken to planet Q.

Which row is correct?

mass of object weight of object


on planet Q / kg on planet Q / N

A 40 200
B 40 400
C 80 200
D 80 400

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6 What is needed to determine the density of a regularly shaped block?

A a balance and a beaker


B a balance and a ruler
C a measuring cylinder and a beaker
D a measuring cylinder and a ruler

7 A cart experiences a forward force of 500 N.

The cart also experiences a backward force of 200 N.

There are no other forward or backward forces on the cart.

What is the resultant force on the cart?

A 300 N backwards
B 300 N forwards
C 700 N backwards
D 700 N forwards

8 The diagram shows a beam with a pivot, a load P at one end and a load Q at the other end.

The pivot can be moved left or right and the loads can be increased or decreased.

The weight of the beam can be ignored.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

pivot

load P load Q

Which combination of pivot position and loads causes the beam to be in equilibrium?

pivot position load P load Q


/ cm /N /N

A 30 6.0 4.0
B 40 6.0 4.0
C 50 5.0 9.0
D 60 3.0 9.0

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9 The lamp in the diagram is not very stable and falls over easily.

shade

stem

base

Which row shows changes that would definitely make the lamp more stable?

base centre of gravity

A narrower higher
B narrower lower
C wider higher
D wider lower

10 A toy car without a motor is moving at high speed along a track. The toy car follows a vertical
loop as shown.

start

Which row describes the changes that are taking place in the kinetic energy and in the
gravitational potential energy of the car in the position shown?

gravitational
kinetic energy
potential energy

A decreasing decreasing
B decreasing increasing
C increasing decreasing
D increasing increasing

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11 A student runs up a flight of stairs.

height
length

Which information is not needed to calculate the rate at which the student is doing work against
gravity?

A the height of the flight of stairs


B the length of the flight of stairs
C the time taken to run up the stairs
D the weight of the student

12 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

cm vacuum
90
80

metre rule 70
60
50
40
30
20

10
mercury

Which length is used to find the value of atmospheric pressure?

A 12 cm B 74 cm C 86 cm D 100 cm

13 A polystyrene cube of mass 5.0 kg is placed on a horizontal surface. The pressure due to the
cube is 89 N / m2.

What is the length of the sides of the cube?

A 0.56 m B 0.75 m C 1.3 m D 1.8 m

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14 A pollen grain in a beaker of still water is viewed through a microscope.

Which diagram shows the most likely movement of the pollen grain?

A B C D

15 The diagram shows an air-filled rubber toy. A child sits on the toy and its volume decreases.

The temperature of the air in the toy does not change.

How does the air pressure in the toy change and why?

pressure reason

A decreases air molecules move more slowly


B decreases air molecules strike the rubber less frequently
C increases air molecules move more quickly
D increases air molecules strike the rubber more frequently

16 Which property cannot be used for the measurement of temperature?

A half-life of a radioactive isotope


B length of a solid metal bar
C pressure of a gas
D volume of a liquid

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17 The diagram shows an electric heater being used to heat a beaker of water and an identical
beaker containing oil. Both are heated for one minute.

water oil

electric heater

The temperature of the water and the temperature of the oil increase steadily. The increase in
temperature of the oil is much greater than that of the water.

Why is this?

A Oil has a higher boiling point than water.


B Oil has a lower boiling point than water.
C The oil has a larger thermal capacity than the water.
D The oil has a smaller thermal capacity than the water.

18 Why is the heating coil of a domestic immersion heater placed at the bottom of the tank?

A Cold water is less dense than hot water and therefore sinks.
B Cold water is more dense than hot water and therefore rises.
C Hot water is less dense than cold water and therefore rises.
D Hot water is more dense than cold water and therefore sinks.

19 A plane wave in a shallow tank of water of uniform depth is incident normally on the small gap in
a barrier.

What happens after the wave passes through the gap?

A The frequency increases.


B The speed decreases.
C The wavelength decreases.
D The wave spreads out.

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10

20 The diagram represents plane wavefronts of a water wave about to strike a solid barrier.

wavefronts

Which diagram shows the position of the wavefronts after reflection at the barrier?

A B

reflected

reflected

C D

reflected

reflected

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11

21 The diagram shows a ray of light in glass. The ray reaches a boundary with air.

One weak ray of light is missing from the diagram.

air
glass 50°

Which statement is correct?

A At the boundary, the speed of the light will become less.

B The critical angle for light at this boundary is 50°.


C The diagram shows an example of diffraction of light.
D The missing ray is a weak reflected ray.

22 Light enters a transparent block.

The light is refracted into the block and then strikes the top edge of the block at the critical angle.

Which diagram correctly shows the angle of refraction r and the critical angle c?

A B

c
r c r

C D

c
c
r r

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12

23 Which statement about radio waves is correct?

A They are used in television remote controllers.


B They can be detected by the human eye.
C They travel as longitudinal waves.
D They have the same speed in a vacuum as ultraviolet waves.

24 Which types of thermal energy transfer are due to electromagnetic waves?

A conduction and convection


B convection and radiation
C convection only
D radiation only

25 The speed of sound in air is 330 m / s.

The speed of ultraviolet waves in air is 300 000 000 m / s.

Which row gives a possible frequency and speed of an ultrasound wave in air?

speed
frequency / Hz
m/s

A 4000 330
B 4000 300 000 000
C 40 000 330
D 40 000 300 000 000

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13

26 The diagram shows the Earth and its surroundings.

Through which labelled region can sound not be transmitted?

A B C D
sea land atmosphere outer space
(water) (rock) (air) (vacuum)

not to scale

27 A train of steel nails and a train of iron nails hang from a strong magnet.

magnet

train of train of
steel nails iron nails

The trains are then carefully removed from the magnet.

What happens to the trains?

A Both trains fall apart.


B Both trains stay together.
C Only the train of iron nails falls apart.
D Only the train of steel nails falls apart.

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14

28 The diagram shows an electromagnet.

Which material is part X made from?

A copper
B iron
C steel
D tin

29 In which unit is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a battery measured?

A A B J C N D V

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15

30 The diagram shows a circuit symbol for a component that can be used as an input transducer.

Which graph shows how the resistance of the component varies with its intended input variable?

A B

resistance resistance

0 0
0 temperature 0 temperature

C D

resistance resistance

0 0
0 light intensity 0 light intensity

31 Which statement is not correct for two identical lamps connected in parallel?

A The potential difference across each lamp is half the supply voltage.
B The remaining lamp still operates when one lamp is removed.
C They can be switched on and off separately.
D They remain bright if another lamp is connected in parallel.

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16

32 Only one of the ammeters in the circuit is showing an incorrect reading.

Which ammeter is showing the incorrect reading?

ammeter A:
reading = 0.30 A
A

A
ammeter B:
reading = 0.10 A ammeter D:
A
reading = 0.20 A

A
ammeter C:
reading = 0.25 A

33 The diagram shows a circuit with a fixed resistor connected in series with a thermistor and an
ammeter.

Which row shows how temperature change affects the resistance of the thermistor and the
current in the circuit?

resistance of
temperature current in circuit
thermistor

A decreases decreases increases


B decreases increases decreases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases increases increases

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17

34 An appliance is connected to a mains supply. Its circuit also contains a switch and a fuse.

Which circuit shows the fuse in the correct position?

A B
appliance appliance

live live

neutral neutral

C D
appliance appliance

live live

neutral neutral

35 An electrical device requires a voltage of 5.0 V to operate normally. The mains supply voltage is
250 V.

Which row shows a transformer that provides output voltage that enables the device to operate
normally when connected to the mains supply?

number of turns on number of turns on


the primary coil the secondary coil

A 500 2500
B 500 25 000
C 2500 500
D 25 000 500

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18

36 A straight current-carrying wire has a magnetic field around it.

Which diagram best shows the magnetic field pattern around the wire?

A B C D

37 Which row states the charge on an electron and states whether electrons are located inside the
nucleus of an atom?

located inside
charge
the nucleus

A negative no
B negative yes
C positive no
D positive yes

38 The element sodium, symbol Na, has a proton number of 11.

Which is a possible symbol for a sodium nuclide?


9 11 11 23
A 11 Na B 9 Na C 23 Na D 11 Na

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19

39 A radioactive source emits three types of radiation R, S and T.

The diagram shows an experiment set up to study the penetrating properties of R, S and T.

paper few mm of few cm


aluminium of lead

Which types of radiation are R, S and T?

R S T

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays


B α-particles γ-rays β-particles
C β-particles α-particles γ-rays
D γ-rays β-particles α-particles

40 Radioactive iodine-131 emits β-particles and has a half-life of 8 days. It decays to produce
xenon-131.

Which statement about this decay is correct?

A After 8 days no more β-particles are emitted.


B After 8 days the number of xenon-131 atoms has halved.
C After 16 days the iodine-131 has decayed completely.
D After 16 days the number of iodine-131 atoms has reduced to one quarter.

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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2017
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2017 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE®, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

® IGCSE is a registered trademark.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2017

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 B 1

3 B 1

4 D 1

5 A 1

6 B 1

7 B 1

8 B 1

9 D 1

10 C 1

11 B 1

12 B 1

13 B 1

14 A 1

15 D 1

16 A 1

17 D 1

18 C 1

19 D 1

20 C 1

21 D 1

22 C 1

23 D 1

24 D 1

25 C 1

26 D 1

27 C 1

28 B 1

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2017

Question Answer Marks

29 D 1

30 C 1

31 A 1

32 C 1

33 B 1

34 C 1

35 D 1

36 C 1

37 A 1

38 D 1

39 B 1

40 D 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) February/March 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8208222047*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB18 03_0625_12/3RP
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1 A student is asked to find the volume of a small irregularly-shaped piece of rock.

He has the following apparatus available.

100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

balance measuring cylinder rule


containing water

Which apparatus must the student use to find the volume of the small piece of rock?

A balance and rule


B rule only
C balance and measuring cylinder
D measuring cylinder only

2 The speed-time graph represents the motion of a car travelling along a straight level road.

speed

0
0 time

Which statement describes the motion of the car?

A It accelerates and reaches a constant speed.


B It accelerates and then stops moving.
C It decelerates and then reaches a constant speed.
D It decelerates and then stops moving.

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3 An athlete runs 300 metres up a hill at a steady speed of 3.0 m / s.

She then immediately runs the same distance down the hill at a steady speed of 6.0 m / s.

What is her average speed for the 600 metre run?

A 2.0 m / s B 3.0 m / s C 4.0 m / s D 4.5 m / s

4 Which statement is correct?

A Mass is a gravitational force but weight is not a gravitational force.


B Mass is not a gravitational force and weight is not a gravitational force.
C The unit of mass is the kilogram and the unit of weight is the newton.
D The unit of mass is the newton and the unit of weight is the kilogram.

5 The diagram shows a bird in flight. The bird is flying in a horizontal direction to the right.

In which direction does air resistance act on the bird?

D B

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6 A measuring cylinder contains 30 cm3 of a liquid.

cm3

50

40

30

20

10

balance

Some more of the liquid is added until the liquid level reaches the 50 cm3 mark.

The reading on the balance increases by 30 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.60 g / cm3 B 0.67 g / cm3 C 1.5 g / cm3 D 1.7 g / cm3

7 A car is travelling along a straight horizontal road. The speed-time graph is shown.

In which labelled part of the journey is the resultant force on the car zero?

C
speed

B
D

A
0
0 time

8 The diagram shows a uniform metre rule balanced at its mid-point.

0 20 50 70 100

W 6.0 N

What is the weight W placed at the 20 cm mark?

A 0.25 N B 4.0 N C 9.0 N D 21 N

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9 A wooden plank rests in equilibrium on two rocks on opposite sides of a narrow stream.

Three forces P, Q and R act on the plank.

P R
plank

How are the sizes of the forces related?

A P+Q=R
B P+R=Q
C P=Q=R
D P=Q+R

10 A ball is at rest at the top of a hill. It rolls down the hill. At the bottom of the hill the ball hits a wall
and stops.

Which energy changes occur?

A gravitational potential energy → internal energy → kinetic energy

B gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → internal energy

C kinetic energy → gravitational potential energy → internal energy

D kinetic energy → internal energy → gravitational potential energy

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11 A man pulls a truck a distance of 20 m, as shown in the three diagrams.

1 2
10 m
10 m
10 m
10 m

3
10 m

10 m

Which statement concerning the work done against gravity is correct?

A Most work is done in 1.


B No work is done in 3.
C The work done in all three is equal.
D The work done in 1 and 2 is equal.

12 Which source of energy is used in a nuclear power station to generate electrical energy?

A different types of atom regrouping


B heavy nuclei splitting
C radioactive isotopes decaying

D radioactive atoms emitting β-particles

13 Two beakers are filled to the same depth, one with water and one with oil.

The density of water is 1000 kg / m3 and the density of oil is 920 kg / m3.

In which position is the pressure the greatest?

A C
water oil

B D

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14 A water manometer is connected to a gas supply.

gas Q
supply
water

There is a gas leak and the pressure of the gas supply falls.

What happens to the water level at P and what happens to the water level at Q?

water level at P water level at Q

A falls falls
B falls rises
C rises falls
D rises rises

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15 A cylinder with a tap contains a fixed mass of gas X. The gas is contained by a piston which can
move freely towards or away from the tap.

atmosphere
gas X
tap closed
piston

cylinder

When the tap is opened, the piston moves slightly to the right, towards the tap.

atmosphere
gas X
tap open

What can be deduced about the pressure of gas X?

before opening tap after opening tap

A less than atmospheric pressure more than atmospheric pressure


B same as atmospheric pressure more than atmospheric pressure
C more than atmospheric pressure less than atmospheric pressure
D more than atmospheric pressure same as atmospheric pressure

16 Which quantity does not change when there is an increase in temperature?

A the density of a steel block


B the diameter of the hole in a metal nut
C the length of an iron rod
D the mass of a metal coin

17 A thermometer has a low thermal capacity.

Why is this an advantage?

A The thermometer does not absorb much thermal energy to raise its own temperature.
B The thermometer does not conduct much thermal energy to the surroundings.
C The thermometer does not melt when it gets hot.
D The thermometer does not radiate much thermal energy to the surroundings.

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18 In an experiment, a thermometer is placed in a test-tube of hot liquid. The temperature reading of


the liquid is recorded every half minute. The table shows the results.

time / minutes 0.0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0 6.5 7.0 7.5
temperature / °C 73 65 59 55 55 55 51 48 45 42 40 38 36 35 34 33

What is the melting point of the substance?

A 0 °C B 33 °C C 55 °C D 73 °C

19 A teacher demonstrates an experiment to a class. A boiling tube is filled with water and some ice
cubes are trapped at the bottom of the tube. The teacher then heats the boiling tube in the
position shown until the water at the top boils.

water

ice heat

metal mesh

The ice does not melt.

What does this demonstrate?

A Water is a good conductor of thermal energy.


B Water is a good convector of thermal energy.
C Water is a poor conductor of thermal energy.
D Water is a poor convector of thermal energy.

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10

20 A hot metal plate is placed near to a cold metal plate. Infra-red radiation transfers thermal energy
between the two plates.

hot plate

cold plate

Which choice of colour causes the temperature of the cold plate to increase most slowly?

hot plate cold plate

A matt black matt black


B matt black shiny white
C shiny white matt black
D shiny white shiny white

21 Which row shows an example of a transverse wave and an example of a longitudinal wave?

transverse longitudinal

A light radio
B radio sound
C sound water
D water light

22 An object is placed before a plane mirror as shown.

A student views the image of the object in the mirror from point P.

Where does she see the image?

object B C D

mirror

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11

23 Light passes through a prism as shown. The light changes direction and produces a spectrum of
colours.

white light spectrum


of colours

Which term is used to describe the production of the spectrum of colours?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C refraction
D total internal reflection

24 Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?

A infra-red waves
B radio waves
C ultraviolet waves
D visible light

25 Both the amplitude and the frequency of a sound wave decrease.

What happens to the sound heard?

A The sound is louder and has a higher pitch.


B The sound is louder and has a lower pitch.
C The sound is quieter and has a higher pitch.
D The sound is quieter and has a lower pitch.

26 An electromagnet is used to remove a splinter from an eye.

What material is the splinter made from?

A aluminium
B glass
C iron
D wood

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12

27 Which diagram shows the magnetic field around a bar magnet?

A B

N S N S

C D

N S N S

28 A metal conductor is connected to a battery.

Which statement describes the current in the metal conductor?

A It is a flow of electrons from the negative to the positive terminal.


B It is a flow of electrons from the positive to the negative terminal.
C It is a flow of protons from the negative to the positive terminal.
D It is a flow of protons from the positive to the negative terminal.

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13

29 A student sets up the circuit shown to measure three quantities.

1 the current in the circuit


2 the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cell
3 the potential difference across the lamp

How many ammeters and how many voltmeters are needed?

ammeters voltmeters

A 0 3
B 1 2
C 2 1
D 3 0

30 The current in a car headlamp is 3.0 A when connected to a 12 V battery.

What is the resistance of the lamp when it is lit?

A 0.25 Ω B 4.0 Ω C 15 Ω D 36 Ω

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14

31 The diagram shows a circuit containing a cell, an ammeter, a lamp and a variable resistor.

The resistance of the variable resistor is increased.

What happens to the ammeter reading and what happens to the brightness of the lamp?

ammeter reading lamp brightness

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

32 Diagram 1 shows two identical lamps connected in series with a cell. Diagram 2 shows the same
two lamps connected in parallel with an identical cell.

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which statement is correct?

A The cell in diagram 1 can supply current to the lamps for longer than the cell in diagram 2.
B The current in the cell in diagram 1 is greater than the current in the cell in diagram 2.
C The lamps in diagram 1 are brighter than the lamps in diagram 2.
D The voltage across each lamp in diagram 1 is greater than the voltage in diagram 2.

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15

33 A circuit contains four ammeters and three resistors with different values.

Which ammeter shows the largest reading?

A A D
10 Ω
A
B A
20 Ω

30 Ω
A
C

34 The diagram shows the arrangement of the coil, armature and contacts of a relay.

Which diagram shows this arrangement when there is no current in the coil?

A B

pivot contacts

coil
armature

C D

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16

35 The diagram represents a magnetic field.

What causes this field?

A a bar magnet
B a solenoid carrying a current
C a straight wire carrying a current
D two north poles close together

36 The diagram shows a simple d.c. electric motor which is rotating.

coil

magnet S N magnet

Which change makes the motor rotate more quickly?

A increasing the number of turns on the coil


B removing the magnets
C reversing the battery
D reversing the polarity of the magnets

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17

23
37 The notation for an isotope of sodium is 11 Na .

Which row gives the composition of a neutral atom of this isotope of sodium?

number of number of number of


protons neutrons electrons

A 11 12 11
B 11 12 12
C 11 23 11
D 12 11 12

38 Which diagram represents a nucleus of 31H ?

A B C D
key
p n p
n n = a neutron
n n p p
n p p n
p n p = a proton

39 When measuring the emissions from a radioactive rock brought into the laboratory, a teacher
mentions that background radiation must be taken into account.

What is this background radiation?

A infra-red radiation from warm objects in the laboratory


B infra-red radiation from the Sun
C ionising radiation from the radioactive rock brought into the laboratory
D ionising radiation in the laboratory when the radioactive rock is not present

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18

40 The graph shows the percentage of a radioactive isotope that remains as time passes.

100
percentage
of isotope
75
remaining / %

50

25

0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
time / minutes

A student measures the initial rate of emission of this isotope as 40 000 emissions per second.

How long does it take for the rate of emission to fall to 5000 emissions per second?

A 5 minutes B 15 minutes C 20 minutes D 40 minutes

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) March 2018
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the March 2018 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE®, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

® IGCSE is a registered trademark.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme March 2018
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 D 1

2 A 1

3 C 1

4 C 1

5 D 1

6 C 1

7 C 1

8 B 1

9 B 1

10 B 1

11 A 1

12 B 1

13 B 1

14 C 1

15 D 1

16 D 1

17 A 1

18 C 1

19 C 1

20 D 1

21 B 1

22 D 1

23 B 1

24 A 1

25 D 1

26 C 1

27 C 1

28 A 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme March 2018
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 B 1

30 B 1

31 A 1

32 A 1

33 D 1

34 A 1

35 C 1

36 A 1

37 A 1

38 A 1

39 D 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8871621324*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB18 06_0625_11/3RP
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1 A length of cotton is measured between two points on a ruler.

cotton

cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

When the length of cotton is wound closely around a pen, it goes round six times.

six turns of cotton


pen

What is the distance once round the pen?

A 2.2 cm B 2.6 cm C 13.2 cm D 15.6 cm

2 A car is moving along a straight, level road, with a constant acceleration.

Which graph shows the motion of the car?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

speed speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

3 A car takes 15 minutes to travel along a road that is 20 km long.

What is the average speed of the car?

A 0.75 km / h B 5.0 km / h C 80 km / h D 300 km / h

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4 Diagram 1 shows a beam balance. A beaker with a wire loop balances the standard masses.

The beaker is then removed and hung from a spring. The spring extends by 5.0 cm, as in
diagram 2.

diagram 1 diagram 2

beam beaker with spring


standard balance wire loop
masses
attached

beaker with
wire loop
attached

The experiment is repeated with the same apparatus on the Moon, where the acceleration of free
fall is less than on Earth.

Which statement describes what happens on the Moon?

A The beam balance is balanced and the spring extends by 5.0 cm.
B The beam balance is balanced and the spring extends by less than 5.0 cm.
C The right-hand balance pan is higher and the spring extends by 5.0 cm.
D The right-hand balance pan is higher and the spring extends by less than 5.0 cm.

5 An empty beaker is placed on a top-pan balance. Some water is now poured into the beaker.

0.062 kg 0.106 kg

empty beaker beaker + water

What is the weight of the water?

A 0.044 kg B 0.168 kg C 0.0044 N D 0.44 N

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6 Three liquids P, Q and R have different densities and do not mix. The liquids are placed in a
measuring cylinder and allowed to settle. A small block is then dropped into the measuring
cylinder and comes to rest, as shown.

Q
block

Which statement about the density of the block is correct?

A It is equal to the density of Q.


B It is greater than the density of P.
C It is greater than the density of R.
D It is less than the density of Q.

7 The diagram shows some liquid in a measuring cylinder.

The mass of the liquid is 16 g.

25
cm3
20

15

10

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.80 g / cm 3 B 1.25 g / cm 3 C 36 g / cm 3 D 320 g / cm 3

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8 A car is moving in a straight line on a level road. Its engine provides a forward force on the car. A
second force of equal size acts on the car due to resistive forces.

Which statement describes what happens?

A The car changes direction.


B The car moves at a constant speed.
C The car slows down.
D The car speeds up.

9 A hole is drilled in a square tile. The diagram shows the tile hanging freely on a nail.

Where is the centre of mass of the tile?

A
nail

tile
D

B
C

10 The diagram shows the energy transferred in a lamp in one second.

light energy out


total energy in = 60 J
= 100 J

wasted energy out


= 40 J

Which type of wasted energy is produced by the lamp?

A chemical potential energy


B electrical energy
C gravitational potential energy
D thermal energy
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11 Which energy resource is not renewable?

A fossil fuel
B sunlight
C tides
D wind

12 A student does work by pulling a box across a horizontal floor.

She now pulls a second box along the same floor.

Which row indicates that the student is now doing twice as much work?

force used distance the


to pull box box is pulled

A is doubled is doubled
B is doubled is halved
C stays the same is doubled
D stays the same is halved

13 Four identical beakers are filled with equal volumes of liquids P or Q, as shown. Liquid P is more
dense than liquid Q.

At which point is the pressure the least?

liquid P B liquid Q D

A C

14 A woman has a weight of 600 N. She stands on a horizontal floor. The area of her feet in contact
with the floor is 0.050 m2.

What is the pressure she exerts on the floor?

A 1.2 × 103 N / m2

B 2.4 × 103 N / m2

C 1.2 × 104 N / m2

D 2.4 × 104 N / m2

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15 On a warm day, a carton of fresh milk is covered with a wet cloth.

Why does this help to reduce the temperature of the milk?

A Some water evaporates from the cloth so the remaining water becomes cooler.
B The water has a very high thermal capacity.
C The water insulates the milk from the warm air around it.
D Water is always colder than the air around it.

16 Air is trapped in a cylinder by a piston.

The piston is pushed inwards and the volume of the air is reduced.

The temperature of the trapped air remains constant.

Which row describes how the average speed of the air molecules and the average distance
between them changes?

average speed average distance


of molecules between molecules

A increases decreases
B increases unchanged
C unchanged decreases
D unchanged increases

17 A wooden wheel can be strengthened by putting a tight circle of iron around it.

wooden wheel

iron circle

Which action would make it easier to fit the circle over the wood?

A cooling the iron circle


B heating the iron circle
C heating the wooden wheel and cooling the iron circle
D heating the wooden wheel but not heating or cooling the iron circle

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18 A student wishes to calibrate a mercury-in-glass thermometer with a °C scale.

Which values should she use for the lower fixed point and for the upper fixed point?

lower fixed point upper fixed point

A melting point of ice boiling point of mercury


B melting point of ice boiling point of water
C melting point of mercury boiling point of mercury
D melting point of mercury boiling point of water

19 Which row gives the correct name for each change of state shown?

change of state
gas to liquid liquid to solid solid to liquid

A condensation melting solidification


B condensation solidification melting
C evaporation melting solidification
D evaporation solidification melting

20 On a cold day, a metal front-door knob X and a similar plastic knob Y are at the same
temperature.

Why does X feel cooler to the touch than Y?

A X convects thermal energy better than Y.


B X is a better thermal conductor than Y.
C X is a better insulator than Y.
D X is a better radiator of thermal energy than Y.

21 A liquid is heated and it expands.

How does this lead to the formation of a convection current?

A The density of the heated liquid decreases.


B The density of the heated liquid increases.
C The mass of the heated liquid molecules decreases.
D The mass of the heated liquid molecules increases.

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22 Which arrow on the graph shows the amplitude of the wave?

displacement

B
A C
0
0 distance

23 In which situation is the wavelength of the wave changed?

A light from the Sun passing from air into water


B radio waves travelling from an Earth satellite to the Moon
C sound reflecting from a wall
D water waves passing through a narrow gap

24 Scout P signals to scout Q on the other side of a valley by using a mirror to reflect the Sun’s light.

Sun’s
scout P light

mirror

scout Q

Which mirror position allows the Sun’s light to be reflected to scout Q?

A B C D
mirror Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s
light light light light

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10

25 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum. The numbers indicate the approximate
wavelength at the boundaries between the various regions of the spectrum.

For a device to be able to make use of electromagnetic radiation, it needs an aerial of


approximately the same size as the radiation it is designed to work with.

P Q R S T U V
1m 10–3 m 7 × 10–7 m 4 × 10–7 m 10–8 m 10–11 m

Which statement is correct?

A A mobile phone uses radiation from region P.


B A television satellite dish uses radiation from region Q.
C The receptor cells in an eye use radiation from region R.
D The remote controller for a television uses radiation from region U.

26 A dolphin has a range of audible frequencies of 150 Hz–150 kHz.

Which range of frequencies can be heard both by humans with good hearing and by dolphins?

A 20 Hz–150 Hz
B 20 Hz–150 kHz
C 20 kHz–150 kHz
D 150 Hz–20 kHz

27 A permanent magnet is placed close to a bar of soft iron.

permanent
S N P Q soft iron bar
magnet

What are the polarities of end P and of end Q?

end P end Q

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

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11

28 Which metal is used for the core of an electromagnet?

A copper
B iron
C magnesium
D steel

29 The diagram shows a cell connected to three resistors R1, R2 and R3.

position 1 position 4
R1 R2

position 2 position 3
R3

A student connects an ammeter first in position 1, then in position 2, 3 and 4 in turn.

In which positions does the ammeter show the current in R1?

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1 and 2 only C 3 only D 4 only

30 A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

What happens to the plastic rod and what is the charge on the cloth?

plastic rod charge on cloth

A gains electrons negative


B gains electrons positive
C loses electrons negative
D loses electrons positive

31 A student measures the potential difference across a device and the current in the device.

Which calculation gives the resistance of the device?

A current + potential difference

B current ÷ potential difference

C potential difference ÷ current

D potential difference × current

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12

32 The diagram shows three identical resistors, three ammeters and a battery, connected in a
circuit.

ammeter 1 A ammeter 2
A

A
ammeter 3

What is the order of the magnitudes of the readings on the ammeters from smallest to largest?

smallest intermediate largest

A ammeter 1 ammeter 2 ammeter 3


B ammeter 1 ammeter 3 ammeter 2
C ammeter 2 ammeter 3 ammeter 1
D ammeter 3 ammeter 2 ammeter 1

33 A student sets up this circuit.

What is the purpose of the circuit?

A to allow a lamp to be made dimmer or brighter as required


B to amplify the sound of a voice
C to light a lamp in the dark
D to sound a bell when the temperature rises

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13

34 The diagram shows two voltmeters P and Q connected to a potential divider.

V voltmeter P
X

V voltmeter Q

The sliding connection at point X is moved towards the top of the diagram.

What happens to the reading on P and to the reading on Q?

reading on P reading on Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

35 Which statement about electromagnetic induction is correct?

A A strong magnet that is held stationary near a stationary conductor causes a greater effect
than a weak magnet.
B The effect occurs when a magnet and a conductor are both moved with the same speed and
in the same direction.
C The effect occurs when a magnet is moved away from a nearby conductor.
D The effect only occurs when a magnet is moved towards a conductor.

36 An electrical device changes the voltage of an electrical supply from 240 V a.c. to 20 V a.c.

What is this device?

A a generator
B a relay
C a transformer
D a voltmeter

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14

37 In the atomic model, an atom consists of a central mass, orbited by much smaller particles.

orbiting central
particle mass

What is the name of the central mass and of the orbiting particles?

central mass orbiting particles

A neutron α-particles
B neutron electrons
C nucleus α-particles
D nucleus electrons

38 A neutral atom of argon-40 ( 40 39


18 A ) and a neutral atom of potassium-39 ( 19 K ) are compared.

Which atom has more electrons, and which atom has more protons?

more electrons more protons

A argon argon
B argon potassium
C potassium argon
D potassium potassium

39 Which statement about α-particles and β-particles is correct?

A α-particles are less ionising than β-particles.

B α-particles are more penetrating than β-particles.

C α-particles have greater mass than β-particles.

D α-particles have the same charge as β-particles.

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40 An explosion in a nuclear reactor spread the isotope caesium-137 across a large area.

Ninety years after the explosion, the quantity of caesium-137 present will be 12.5% of its original
level.

What is the half-life of caesium-137?

A 11.25 years B 22.5 years C 30.0 years D 45.0 years

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2018
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2018 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and
some Cambridge O Level components.

IGCSE™ is a registered trademark.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2018
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 D 1

3 C 1

4 B 1

5 D 1

6 C 1

7 A 1

8 B 1

9 D 1

10 D 1

11 A 1

12 C 1

13 D 1

14 C 1

15 A 1

16 C 1

17 B 1

18 B 1

19 B 1

20 B 1

21 A 1

22 B 1

23 A 1

24 A 1

25 B 1

26 D 1

27 C 1

28 B 1

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2018
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 A 1

30 C 1

31 C 1

32 D 1

33 D 1

34 B 1

35 C 1

36 C 1

37 D 1

38 D 1

39 C 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*0690604720*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 06_0625_12/2RP
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1 A length of cotton is measured between two points on a ruler.

cotton

cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

When the length of cotton is wound closely around a pen, it goes round six times.

six turns of cotton


pen

What is the distance once round the pen?

A 2.2 cm B 2.6 cm C 13.2 cm D 15.6 cm

2 A ball is dropped in an evacuated tube. A series of photographs is taken at equal time intervals
from the time of release. Another ball of the same size but twice the mass is also dropped in the
same evacuated tube and photographed.

Which diagram shows the motion of the heavier ball?

heavier ball (mass ×2)


first ball A B C D

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3 A car takes 15 minutes to travel along a road that is 20 km long.

What is the average speed of the car?

A 0.75 km / h B 5.0 km / h C 80 km / h D 300 km / h

4 Which statement about the mass and the weight of an object is correct?

A They are both affected by changes in the acceleration of free fall.


B They are both forces.
C They have different units.
D Weight is calculated by dividing mass by the acceleration of free fall.

5 Two objects P and Q are placed in a beaker containing a liquid.

Object P floats in the liquid and object Q sinks.

Which row for the densities of object P, object Q and the liquid is possible?

density of object P density of object Q density of liquid


g / cm 3 g / cm3 g / cm 3

A 1.2 0.6 0.8


B 1.2 1.4 1.0
C 11.3 8.9 13.6
D 11.3 19.3 13.6

6 The diagram shows some liquid in a measuring cylinder.

The mass of the liquid is 16 g.

25
cm3
20

15

10

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.80 g / cm 3 B 1.25 g / cm 3 C 36 g / cm 3 D 320 g / cm 3

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7 A spacecraft is travelling in space with no resultant force and no resultant moment acting on it.

Which statement about the spacecraft is correct?

A Its direction is changing.


B It is in equilibrium.
C Its speed is decreasing.
D Its speed is increasing.

8 A man holds a short ladder in four different positions.

The weight of the ladder causes a moment about the man’s shoulder.

In which position is the moment greatest?

A B C D

9 A hole is drilled in a square tile. The diagram shows the tile hanging freely on a nail.

Where is the centre of mass of the tile?

A
nail

tile
D

B
C

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10 Which source of energy is renewable?

A coal
B natural gas
C oil
D wind

11 A student does work by pulling a box across a horizontal floor.

She now pulls a second box along the same floor.

Which row indicates that the student is now doing twice as much work?

force used distance the


to pull box box is pulled

A is doubled is doubled
B is doubled is halved
C stays the same is doubled
D stays the same is halved

12 Air is trapped in a closed tube by a thread of mercury. The mercury thread is 100 mm long. The
tube is held as shown.

air

mercury
100 mm

Atmospheric pressure is 770 mm Hg.

What is the pressure of the trapped air?

A 100 mm Hg B 670 mm Hg C 770 mm Hg D 870 mm Hg

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13 Brownian motion is the random motion of particles due to molecular bombardment.

In which states of matter is Brownian motion observed?

A gases, liquids and solids


B gases and liquids only
C gases and solids only
D liquids and solids only

14 The diagram shows the relative number of molecules in a liquid that have a given kinetic energy.

The graph is divided into sections so that each section contains the same number of molecules.

From which section does the greatest number of molecules escape from the liquid per unit time?

relative number
of molecules

A B C D
0
0 kinetic energy

15 An electric kettle heats some water. The same kettle then heats a different liquid. The
temperature of the liquid rises more rapidly than the temperature of the water.

What is a possible explanation of this difference?

A The liquid condenses on the cooler parts of the kettle less than the water does.
B The liquid expands more than the water as it heats up.
C The liquid has a lower boiling point than the water.
D The liquid has a smaller thermal capacity than the water.

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16 A wooden wheel can be strengthened by putting a tight circle of iron around it.

wooden wheel

iron circle

Which action would make it easier to fit the circle over the wood?

A cooling the iron circle


B heating the iron circle
C heating the wooden wheel and cooling the iron circle
D heating the wooden wheel but not heating or cooling the iron circle

17 A student wishes to calibrate a mercury-in-glass thermometer with a °C scale.

Which values should she use for the lower fixed point and for the upper fixed point?

lower fixed point upper fixed point

A melting point of ice boiling point of mercury


B melting point of ice boiling point of water
C melting point of mercury boiling point of mercury
D melting point of mercury boiling point of water

18 Four thermometers, with their bulbs painted different colours, are placed at equal distances from
a radiant heater.

Which thermometer shows the slowest temperature rise when the heater is first switched on?

A matt black
B matt white
C shiny black
D shiny white

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19 A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water.

What causes the ripples to refract?

A The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water.


B The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water.
C The ripples hit the wall of the tank.
D The ripples pass through a narrow gap.

20 The diagrams show a wave on the surface of the water in a tank at times 1.0 s apart. The wave is
produced at P and travels to the right.

4.0 cm

Which row gives the frequency and the speed of this water wave?

frequency speed
/ Hz cm / s

A 2.0 4.0
B 2.0 8.0
C 4.0 4.0
D 4.0 8.0

21 Light passes from glass into air.

Which diagram shows a ray of light incident at the critical angle on the air-glass boundary?

A B C D

glass glass glass glass


air air air air

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22 Scout P signals to scout Q on the other side of a valley by using a mirror to reflect the Sun’s light.

Sun’s
scout P light

mirror

scout Q

Which mirror position allows the Sun’s light to be reflected to scout Q?

A B C D
mirror Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s
light light light light

23 The table describes white light that passes through a prism and forms a spectrum.

Which row is correct?

colour refracted colour next


the most to the red

A red orange
B red yellow
C violet orange
D violet yellow

24 Where do all types of electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed?

A air
B a vacuum
C glass
D water

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10

25 A siren is emitting a sound. As time passes, the sound becomes louder and higher pitched.

What is happening to the amplitude and to the frequency of the emitted sound wave?

amplitude frequency

A decreasing decreasing
B decreasing increasing
C increasing decreasing
D increasing increasing

26 A permanent magnet is placed close to a bar of soft iron.

permanent
S N P Q soft iron bar
magnet

What are the polarities of end P and of end Q?

end P end Q

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

27 The diagrams show three ammeters.

1 2 3

2.0 3.0 4.0 6.0


0

0
4.

8.
1.

2.

4.50 A
0

0
10.0
0.0

0.0
5.0

A A

Which ammeters show the same value of current?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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11

28 A student measures the potential difference across a device and the current in the device.

Which calculation gives the resistance of the device?

A current + potential difference

B current ÷ potential difference

C potential difference ÷ current

D potential difference × current

29 A lamp is connected across one cell, then across two cells. The potential difference (p.d.) across
the lamp and the current in it are measured in each case.

The results are shown.

number
p.d. / V current / A
of cells

1 2.8 0.25
2 5.4 0.40

What is the change in the resistance of the lamp when the number of cells is increased from one
to two?

A It decreases by 0.015 Ω.

B It increases by 1.5 Ω.

C It increases by 2.3 Ω.

D It increases by 17 Ω.

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12

30 An electrical heater transfers thermal energy to the surroundings.

The graph shows how the amount of thermal energy transferred varies with time.

400
thermal energy
transferred / J 300

200

100

0
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0 10.0
time / s

The heater continues to transfer energy at the same rate.

How much thermal energy is transferred by the heater in 5.0 minutes?

A 200 J B 400 J C 2000 J D 12 000 J

31 Which electrical component does the symbol represent?

A a fuse
B a relay coil
C a thermistor
D a variable resistor

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13

32 A student sets up this circuit.

What is the purpose of the circuit?

A to allow a lamp to be made dimmer or brighter as required


B to amplify the sound of a voice
C to light a lamp in the dark
D to sound a bell when the temperature rises

33 The diagram shows two voltmeters P and Q connected to a potential divider.

V voltmeter P
X

V voltmeter Q

The sliding connection at point X is moved towards the top of the diagram.

What happens to the reading on P and to the reading on Q?

reading on P reading on Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

34 A simple electric generator induces an electromotive force (e.m.f.).

Which modification would increase the induced e.m.f.?

A Increase the number of turns in the coil of the generator.


B Increase the distance between the magnetic poles.
C Reduce the strength of the magnetic field around the coil.
D Reverse the direction of the magnetic field.
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14

35 A transformer has Np turns in the primary coil and Ns turns in the secondary coil.

Which row gives the values of Np and Ns for a transformer that steps up a voltage of 1200 V to
36 000 V?

Np Ns

A 2 000 60 000
B 2 000 600 000
C 60 000 2 000
D 600 000 2 000

36 A straight wire is perpendicular to the paper. It carries a current into the paper.

What is the magnetic field pattern and its direction near the wire?

A B C D

key
wire with current into the page

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15

37 In the atomic model, an atom consists of a central mass, orbited by much smaller particles.

orbiting central
particle mass

What is the name of the central mass and of the orbiting particles?

central mass orbiting particles

A neutron α-particles
B neutron electrons
C nucleus α-particles
D nucleus electrons

38 The table shows the composition of three different nuclei.

number of number of
nucleus
protons neutrons

X 3 3
Y 3 4
Z 4 3

Which nuclei are isotopes of the same element?

A X, Y and Z B X and Y only C X and Z only D Y and Z only

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16

39 The table compares the penetrating abilities and ionising effects of α-radiation and of γ-radiation.

Which row is correct?

least most
penetrating ionising

A α α
B α γ
C γ α
D γ γ

40 Radioactive materials must be handled in a safe way.

What is not a safety procedure?

A Monitor exposure time to radioactive materials.


B Store radioactive materials in cardboard boxes.
C Use tongs to pick up the radioactive source.
D Wear protective clothing.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2018
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2018 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and
some Cambridge O Level components.

IGCSE™ is a registered trademark.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2018
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 B 1

3 C 1

4 C 1

5 D 1

6 A 1

7 B 1

8 B 1

9 D 1

10 D 1

11 C 1

12 B 1

13 B 1

14 D 1

15 D 1

16 B 1

17 B 1

18 D 1

19 B 1

20 B 1

21 C 1

22 A 1

23 C 1

24 B 1

25 D 1

26 C 1

27 B 1

28 C 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2018
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 D 1

31 D 1

32 D 1

33 B 1

34 A 1

35 A 1

36 C 1

37 D 1

38 B 1

39 A 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9915199420*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 06_0625_13/4RP
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1 A length of cotton is measured between two points on a ruler.

cotton

cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

When the length of cotton is wound closely around a pen, it goes round six times.

six turns of cotton


pen

What is the distance once round the pen?

A 2.2 cm B 2.6 cm C 13.2 cm D 15.6 cm

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped from the heights shown.

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which ball has the greatest average speed?

A B C D
1.0 kg

2.0 kg

3.0 kg
4.0 m
4.0 kg
3.0 m
2.0 m
1.0 m ground

3 A car takes 15 minutes to travel along a road that is 20 km long.

What is the average speed of the car?

A 0.75 km / h B 5.0 km / h C 80 km / h D 300 km / h

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4 A person steps onto a bathroom scales.

The bathroom scales records both mass and weight.

Which row shows the readings on the scales?

mass weight

A 60 N 600 kg
B 60 kg 600 N
C 600 kg 60 N
D 600 N 60 kg

5 Which properties of an object can be changed by a force?

A direction of motion, mass and speed


B direction of motion, shape and speed
C direction of motion and speed only
D mass, shape and speed

6 A man holds a ladder in four different positions, pivoting around his shoulder.

The weight of the ladder causes a moment about the man’s shoulder.

In which position is the moment greatest?

A B C D

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7 A hole is drilled in a square tile. The diagram shows the tile hanging freely on a nail.

Where is the centre of mass of the tile?

A
nail

tile
D

B
C

8 Which method of drying clothes has the least impact on the environment?

A Evaporate the water in them in an electrically heated tumble dryer.


B Hang them on a washing line in direct sunlight.
C Remove the water from them in an electric spin dryer.
D Suspend them close to a coal fire.

9 A student does work by pulling a box across a horizontal floor.

She now pulls a second box along the same floor.

Which row indicates that the student is now doing twice as much work?

force used distance the


to pull box box is pulled

A is doubled is doubled
B is doubled is halved
C stays the same is doubled
D stays the same is halved

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10 A simple barometer includes a column of mercury.

Which property of this column of mercury is used to give a measurement of atmospheric


pressure?

A its cross-sectional area


B its height
C its temperature
D its thermal capacity

11 The diagram shows some liquid in a measuring cylinder.

The mass of the liquid is 16 g.

25
3
cm
20

15

10

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.80 g / cm 3 B 1.25 g / cm 3 C 36 g / cm 3 D 320 g / cm 3

12 Brownian motion of particles is observed.

Which statements describe the movement of the particles?

1 The particles all travel along a curved path.


2 The particles move randomly.
3 The particles all travel in the same direction.

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

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13 A pure liquid is left in an open beaker and some of the liquid molecules escape by evaporation.

Which statement about this process is correct?

A None of the escaping molecules return to the liquid.


B The escaping molecules are generally the more energetic ones.
C The rate of escape of the molecules can be increased by increasing the depth of the liquid in
the beaker.
D The temperature of the remaining liquid is unaffected by the escape of the molecules.

14 A wooden wheel can be strengthened by putting a tight circle of iron around it.

wooden wheel

iron circle

Which action would make it easier to fit the circle over the wood?

A cooling the iron circle


B heating the iron circle
C heating the wooden wheel and cooling the iron circle
D heating the wooden wheel but not heating or cooling the iron circle

15 A student wishes to calibrate a mercury-in-glass thermometer with a °C scale.

Which values should she use for the lower fixed point and for the upper fixed point?

lower fixed point upper fixed point

A melting point of ice boiling point of mercury


B melting point of ice boiling point of water
C melting point of mercury boiling point of mercury
D melting point of mercury boiling point of water

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16 Which diagram shows how the thermal capacity of a silver object depends on its mass?

A B

thermal thermal
capacity capacity

0 0
0 mass 0 mass

C D

thermal thermal
capacity capacity

0 0
0 mass 0 mass

17 The diagram shows a pan used for cooking food.

handle of pan

base of pan

Which row is correct for the materials used to make the base and the handle of the pan?

base of pan handle of pan

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor


B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor
C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor
D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

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18 A saucepan of water is heated from its base on an electric hob.

After five minutes the water near the top of the saucepan is becoming hot.

What is the main process of heat transfer within the water?

A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D radiation

19 The diagram shows a wave.

2.0
displacement
/ cm 1.0

0
0 4.0 8.0 12.0 16.0 20.0 24.0 28.0
–1.0 distance
/ cm
–2.0

Which row is correct?

amplitude of wavelength of
the wave / cm the wave / cm

A 1.0 4.0
B 1.0 8.0
C 2.0 4.0
D 2.0 8.0

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20 The diagram shows a ray of light passing from glass to air, at the critical angle.

air Z

glass W Y
X

Which angles are the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction?

angle of angle of
incidence refraction

A W Y
B W Z
C X Y
D X Z

21 Scout P signals to scout Q on the other side of a valley by using a mirror to reflect the Sun’s light.

Sun’s
scout P light

mirror

scout Q

Which mirror position allows the Sun’s light to be reflected to scout Q?

A B C D
mirror Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s
light light light light

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10

22 It takes 0.24 seconds for a microwave signal to travel from a transmitting station on Earth to a
satellite and then back to the station on Earth. Microwaves travel at 3.0 × 108 m / s.

How far is the transmitting station from the satellite?

A 36 000 km
B 72 000 km
C 36 000 000 km
D 72 000 000 km

23 The diagram shows the ranges of human hearing and of ultrasound waves.

range of
human hearing ultrasound

0 101 102 103 104 105 106


2 × 101 2 × 104

To which characteristic of sound waves do the numbers on the diagram refer?

A amplitude in cm
B frequency in Hz
C speed in metres / second
D wavelength in metres

24 A permanent magnet is placed close to a bar of soft iron.

permanent
S N P Q soft iron bar
magnet

What are the polarities of end P and of end Q?

end P end Q

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

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11

25 The diagram shows a permanent bar magnet placed on a wooden table. A student draws arrows
to show the direction of the magnetic field at four points.

Which arrow shows the direction of the magnetic field at that position?

D B
N S

26 Which statement about electric charges is correct?

A Like charges attract and unlike charges attract.


B Like charges attract and unlike charges repel.
C Like charges repel and unlike charges attract.
D Like charges repel and unlike charges repel.

27 The diagrams show two readings on the same ammeter. Reading 1 is taken before the ammeter
is connected in a circuit. Reading 2 shows the reading when the ammeter is connected in a
circuit.

1 2 1 2
0 3 0 3

A A

reading 1 reading 2
not connected in a circuit connected in a circuit

What is the current in the circuit?

A 0.80 A B 0.90 A C 0.95 A D 1.20 A

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12

28 A student measures the potential difference across a device and the current in the device.

Which calculation gives the resistance of the device?

A current + potential difference

B current ÷ potential difference

C potential difference ÷ current

D potential difference × current

29 A battery in an electric circuit is connected to a lamp.

Chemical energy in the battery is transferred to which other types of energy?

A internal energy only


B kinetic energy and sound energy
C light energy and thermal energy
D light energy only

30 Which component is represented by the symbol shown?

A fixed resistor
B fuse
C thermistor
D variable resistor

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13

31 A student sets up a circuit which she calls circuit 1. She records the value of the current I1, and
calculates the resistance R1 of the circuit.

A
A

V V

circuit 1 circuit 2

She then connects an identical resistor in parallel with the original resistor. She calls this circuit 2.
She records current I2 and calculates the total resistance R2 of this circuit.

Which row correctly compares the two currents and the two resistances in the circuits?

I2 R2

A greater than I1 greater than R1


B greater than I1 less than R1
C less than I1 greater than R1
D less than I1 less than R1

32 A student sets up this circuit.

What is the purpose of the circuit?

A to allow a lamp to be made dimmer or brighter as required


B to amplify the sound of a voice
C to light a lamp in the dark
D to sound a bell when the temperature rises

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14

33 The diagram shows two voltmeters P and Q connected to a potential divider.

V voltmeter P
X

V voltmeter Q

The sliding connection at point X is moved towards the top of the diagram.

What happens to the reading on P and to the reading on Q?

reading on P reading on Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

34 The diagram shows a transformer.

core
primary coil
secondary coil

Which materials are the most suitable for the core and for the coils?

core material coil material

A copper copper
B copper iron
C iron copper
D iron iron

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15

35 A current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field experiences a force.

Which changes result in reversing the direction of the force?

A Decrease the current, keeping the field direction constant.


B Increase the current and reverse the field direction.
C Increase the current, keeping the field direction constant.
D Reverse the current and reverse the field direction.

36 A solenoid is connected to a battery.

axis of
solenoid
solenoid

Which statement about the magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is correct?

A The magnetic field along the axis is zero.

B The direction of the magnetic field is at an angle of 45° to the axis.


C The direction of the magnetic field is parallel to the axis.
D The direction of the magnetic field is perpendicular to the axis.

37 In the atomic model, an atom consists of a central mass, orbited by much smaller particles.

orbiting central
particle mass

What is the name of the central mass and of the orbiting particles?

central mass orbiting particles

A neutron α-particles
B neutron electrons
C nucleus α-particles
D nucleus electrons

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16

214
38 One isotope of lead is represented by the nuclide symbol 82
Pb .

How many neutrons and how many protons does one nucleus of this isotope contain?

number of number of
neutrons protons

A 82 132
B 82 214
C 132 82
D 214 82

39 Three sources of background radiation are listed.

1 cosmic rays
2 medical X-rays
3 radioactive emissions from radon gas from the ground

Which of these sources are naturally occurring?

A 1 and 3 only B 1 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

40 The rates of emission from four radioactive sources are measured at 20 minute intervals.

Each row in the table shows the results for one of the radioactive sources.

Which source has the longest half-life?

rate of emission / emissions per minute


time 0 time 20 min time 40 min

A 120 60 30
B 120 110 101
C 240 60 15
D 240 170 122

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2018
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2018 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and
some Cambridge O Level components.

IGCSE™ is a registered trademark.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2018
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 D 1

3 C 1

4 B 1

5 B 1

6 B 1

7 D 1

8 B 1

9 C 1

10 B 1

11 A 1

12 D 1

13 B 1

14 B 1

15 B 1

16 C 1

17 B 1

18 C 1

19 B 1

20 D 1

21 A 1

22 A 1

23 B 1

24 C 1

25 D 1

26 C 1

27 B 1

28 C 1

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2018
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 B 1

31 B 1

32 D 1

33 B 1

34 C 1

35 B 1

36 C 1

37 D 1

38 C 1

39 A 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2777991637*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 11_0625_11/2RP
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1 A pendulum is set in motion and timed. The time measured for 20 complete swings is 30 s.

What is the time for one complete swing of the pendulum?

A 0.67 s B 0.75 s C 1.5 s D 3.0 s

2 The diagrams are distance-time graphs for four bodies.

Which body is moving with an increasing speed?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

3 A runner runs 300 m at an average speed of 3.0 m / s. She then runs another 300 m at an average
speed of 6.0 m / s.

What is her average speed for the total distance of 600 m?

A 2.0 m / s B 4.0 m / s C 4.5 m / s D 8.0 m / s

4 Which quantity is measured in newtons?

A energy
B mass
C weight
D work

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5 Four identical steel blocks are placed on a balance. The reading on the balance is 220 N.

What is the mass of one steel block?

A 5.5 kg B 22 kg C 55 kg D 88 kg

6 A liquid has a volume of 0.040 m3 and a mass of 30 000 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.075 kg / m3 B 7.5 kg / m3 C 750 kg / m3 D 7500 kg / m3

7 The unstretched lengths and extension-load graphs are shown for each of four different springs.

Which spring is the longest when a load of 5.0 N is hung from each spring?

A B

unstretched length 65 mm unstretched length 90 mm


100 100
extension 90 extension 90
/ mm 80 / mm 80
70 70
60 60
50 50
40 40
30 30
20 20
10 10
0 0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
load / N load / N

C D

unstretched length 105 mm unstretched length 110 mm


100 100
extension 90 extension 90
/ mm 80 / mm 80
70 70
60 60
50 50
40 40
30 30
20 20
10 10
0 0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
load / N load / N

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8 A car moves along a level road.

The diagram shows all of the horizontal forces acting on the car.

800 N
air resistance
2000 N force
500 N from engine
friction

Which statement is correct?

A The car is slowing down.


B The car is speeding up.
C The car is moving at a constant speed.
D The car is moving backwards.

9 Which force and distance produce the smallest moment about a pivot?

A a 6.0 N force at a perpendicular distance of 4.0 m from the pivot


B a 7.0 N force at a perpendicular distance of 6.0 m from the pivot
C a 10 N force at a perpendicular distance of 4.0 m from the pivot
D a 12 N force at a perpendicular distance of 3.0 m from the pivot

10 Which device is designed to convert chemical energy into kinetic energy?

A an a.c. generator
B a battery-powered torch
C a car engine
D a wind-up mechanical clock

11 A man climbs a ladder.

Which two quantities can be used to calculate the useful power of the man?

A the weight of the man and the time taken only


B the weight of the man and the vertical distance moved only
C the work done by the man and the time taken only
D the work done by the man and the vertical distance moved only

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12 A manometer is used to measure the pressure of gas inside a metal container.

gas

metal
container liquid

What is the pressure inside the container?

A equal to the atmospheric pressure


B greater than the atmospheric pressure
C less than the atmospheric pressure but greater than zero
D zero

13 A manometer is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply.

manometer

connection
to gas supply
h

liquid

Which change gives a greater value of height h ?

A using a less dense liquid


B using a more dense liquid
C using a narrower tube
D using a wider tube

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14 During evaporation of a liquid, the more energetic molecules escape. The temperature of the
remaining liquid changes.

Which row identifies where these molecules escape from and describes the temperature change?

molecules temperature of
escape from the remaining liquid

A body of the liquid decreases


B body of the liquid increases
C surface of the liquid decreases
D surface of the liquid increases

15 Diagram 1 shows apparatus being used to observe smoke particles.

Diagram 2 shows how a smoke particle moves randomly.

diagram 1 diagram 2

eye

random
movement
microscope

air molecules
light and
smoke particles

Why do the smoke particles move randomly?

A They are hit by air molecules.


B They are less dense than air.
C They are moved by convection currents.
D They gain energy from the light.

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16 The distance between two electricity pylons is 60 m. An engineer fits a cable of length 62 m
between the pylons.

Why does the engineer choose a cable that is longer than the distance between the two pylons?

A to allow for contraction of the cable in cold weather


B to create a slope in the cable for electrons to flow down
C to keep the current low and the voltage high
D to reduce magnetic fields around the cable

17 Some ice is slowly heated and its temperature is measured. A graph is plotted of temperature
against time.

100

temperature / °C

X
0
–10 time

Which row describes what happens to the thermal energy and to the temperature in section X?

thermal energy temperature of ice

A gained by ice rises


B gained by ice stays the same
C not gained by ice rises
D not gained by ice stays the same

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18 Some of the Sun’s radiation passes through a prism. The diagram shows the spectrum of the
radiation.

Which point on the screen does the infra-red radiation reach?

prism

radiation
from the
Sun
not v
isi
red ble
A
e B
ibl C
no v vis
t v iole
isi t
ble
screen D

19 On a cold day, a shiny metal rod feels colder to the touch than a black plastic rod.

Which statement explains this observation?

A The metal rod is a better absorber of infra-red radiation than the plastic rod.
B The metal rod is a better thermal conductor than the plastic rod.
C The metal rod is a worse absorber of infra-red radiation than the plastic rod.
D The metal rod is a worse thermal conductor than the plastic rod.

20 A boat moves up and down repeatedly as a water wave passes it.

Which name is given to the number of up-and-down movements of the boat per unit time?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

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21 Plane water waves travel from a shallow region into a deeper region. They travel more quickly in
the deeper water.

shallow water

boundary
wave
direction
deep water

Which diagram shows the wave pattern in the deeper water?

A B C D

22 A parallel beam of light is incident on a plane mirror.

Which diagram shows how the beam is reflected by the mirror?

A B

C D

spectrum

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10

23 The diagram shows a parallel, cylindrical light beam of diameter d incident on a thin converging
lens. A screen is placed a distance equal to two focal lengths 2f from the lens.

2f

beam of light screen


lens

Which diagram shows the size of the spot of light seen on the screen?

A B C D

d d 2d
2

24 Different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are used for different purposes. Below are four
statements about parts of the spectrum.

statement 1: Infra-red waves are used in television remote controllers.


statement 2: Radio waves are used to transmit television pictures from satellites to Earth.
statement 3: Ultraviolet waves are used for intruder alarms.
statement 4: X-rays are used for security checks.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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11

25 A woman hears the first note produced by a clarinet.

She then hears a second note that has a higher pitch and is quieter.

Which row compares the frequency and the amplitude of the two notes?

first note second note

A higher frequency larger amplitude


B higher frequency smaller amplitude
C lower frequency larger amplitude
D lower frequency smaller amplitude

26 The diagram shows a bar magnet and four plotting compasses.

Which compass shows the direction of the magnetic field due to the magnet?

D S N B

27 Iron is used for the core of a transformer and steel is used to make a bar magnet.

Which statement explains these uses of iron and of steel?

A Iron is a magnetic material and steel is a non-magnetic material.


B Iron is a permanent magnetic material and steel is a temporary magnetic material.
C Iron is a temporary magnetic material and steel is a permanent magnetic material.
D Iron is a non-magnetic material and steel is a magnetic material.

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12

28 A negatively charged plastic rod P is placed above a positively charged plastic rod Q.

P
– – – – –

Q
+ + + + +

What are the directions of the electrostatic forces on rod P and on rod Q?

electrostatic force electrostatic force


on rod P on rod Q

A downwards downwards
B downwards upwards
C upwards downwards
D upwards upwards

29 The diagrams show the scales of three ammeters.

2 3 2 3 4 6
1 4 1 4 2 8

10
0

A A A

ammeter 1 ammeter 2 ammeter 3

Which ammeters show the same current reading?

A all three ammeters


B ammeter 1 and ammeter 2 only
C ammeter 1 and ammeter 3 only
D ammeter 2 and ammeter 3 only

30 The resistance of a component in a circuit is found using an ammeter and a voltmeter.

How are the ammeter and the voltmeter connected?

A the voltmeter and ammeter in parallel with the component


B the voltmeter and ammeter in series with the component
C the voltmeter in parallel with the component and the ammeter in series with the component
D the voltmeter in series with the component and the ammeter in parallel with the component

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13

31 The diagram shows a circuit with a power supply and four components.

+ –

What is component N?

A fixed resistor
B fuse
C thermistor
D variable resistor

32 Two lamps are connected in parallel.

S1 S2

S3

Which switches must be closed so that both lamps light?

A S1 and S2 only
B S1 and S3 only
C S2 and S3 only
D S1, S2 and S3

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14

33 The circuit diagram shows a variable potential divider.

P Q

slider

The slider is moved from P towards Q.

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter and to the brightness of the lamp?

reading on brightness
voltmeter of lamp

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

34 Either a fuse or a circuit-breaker can be used to protect electrical cables from large currents that
could cause overheating.

X cable
live

electrical Y appliance
supply

neutral
cable

When a fuse is used, where should it be connected, and when a circuit-breaker is used, where
should it be connected?

position position of
of fuse circuit-breaker

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

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15

35 Which electrical device uses the turning effect produced by a current-carrying coil in a magnetic
field?

A a.c. generator
B d.c. motor
C relay
D transformer

36 A wire is placed in a strong magnetic field. When a current is passed through the wire it moves
upwards, as shown.

movement
N

The current is reversed.

In which direction does the wire move?

A downwards
B towards the north pole
C towards the south pole
D upwards

37 Which diagram represents the structure of a neutral atom?

A B C D
key
– – – –
neutron

++ ++ + proton
+ ++
+ – electron

– – –

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16

38 Each nucleus of nuclide X contains 10 protons and a total of 22 nucleons.

Which notation is correct for this nuclide?


22 22 12 10
A 10 X B 32 X C 10 X D 22 X

39 The diagram shows the paths of three different types of radiation X, Y and Z.

2 mm of 10 mm of 50 mm
plastic aluminium of lead

Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays


B β-particles α-particles γ-rays
C β-particles γ-rays α-particles
D γ-rays α-particles β-particles

40 A sample of a radioactive isotope emits 9600 α-particles per second.

After 40 hours the rate of emission has fallen to 600 α-particles per second.

What is the half-life of this isotope?

A 4.0 hours B 8.0 hours C 10 hours D 20 hours

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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2018
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2018 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2018

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 D 1

3 B 1

4 C 1

5 A 1

6 C 1

7 C 1

8 B 1

9 A 1

10 C 1

11 C 1

12 A 1

13 A 1

14 C 1

15 A 1

16 A 1

17 B 1

18 A 1

19 B 1

20 B 1

21 C 1

22 B 1

23 C 1

24 B 1

25 D 1

26 D 1

27 C 1

28 B 1

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2018

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 C 1

31 B 1

32 D 1

33 D 1

34 A 1

35 B 1

36 A 1

37 B 1

38 A 1

39 B 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*0300250686*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 11_0625_12/3RP
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1 A pendulum is set in motion and timed. The time measured for 20 complete swings is 30 s.

What is the time for one complete swing of the pendulum?

A 0.67 s B 0.75 s C 1.5 s D 3.0 s

2 The graph shows how the speed of an object varies with time.

At which point on the graph is the greatest distance travelled per second?

D
speed
C
B

0
0 time

3 An athlete runs at a speed of 8 m / s for 10 s, and then at a speed of 6 m / s for 12 s.

Which calculation gives the average speed of the athlete in m / s?

A 8+6
2

(8 × 10) + (6 × 12)
B
22

(8 ÷ 10) + (6 ÷ 12)
C
22

(10 ÷ 8) + (12 ÷ 6)
D
22

4 Which quantity is measured in newtons?

A energy
B mass
C weight
D work

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5 An object is suspended from a spring balance on the Earth. The same object is suspended from
the same spring balance on another planet.

0 0

1 1

2 2

3 3

4 4

reading on reading on
Earth another planet

Which statement explains the difference between the two readings?

A Both the mass and the weight of the object are greater on the other planet.
B The mass of the object is greater on the other planet than on Earth, but the weight is
unchanged.
C The spring stretches more easily when on the other planet.
D The weight of the object is greater on the other planet than on Earth, but the mass is
unchanged.

6 The diagram shows four blocks of different metals. Each block has a mass of 12 g.

Which metal has the largest density?

A B

1 cm
1 cm
2 cm
1 cm
2 cm 2 cm

C D

1 cm
1 cm
2 cm
1 cm
3 cm 3 cm

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7 Which is an example of a force?

A density
B mass
C volume
D weight

8 A car moves along a level road.

The diagram shows all of the horizontal forces acting on the car.

800 N
air resistance
2000 N force
500 N from engine
friction

Which statement is correct?

A The car is slowing down.


B The car is speeding up.
C The car is moving at a constant speed.
D The car is moving backwards.

9 Point X is the centre of mass of a lamina in the shape of a triangle with sides of equal length. The
top of the triangle is cut off along the dotted line shown.

What happens to the centre of mass, X?

A moves towards the bottom of the page


B moves to the left
C moves to the right
D moves towards the top of the page

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10 Which device is designed to convert chemical energy into kinetic energy?

A an a.c. generator
B a battery-powered torch
C a car engine
D a wind-up mechanical clock

11 Which two physical quantities must be used to calculate the power developed by a student
running up a flight of steps?

A force exerted and the vertical height of the steps only


B force exerted and the time taken only
C work done and the vertical height of the steps only
D work done and the time taken only

12 A simple mercury barometer is used to measure the atmospheric pressure.

Which height is measured to find the atmospheric pressure?

B C D

13 The particles of a gas, in a container of fixed volume, are given more energy.

Which effect does this have on the gas?

A Both the pressure and temperature of the gas increase.


B Only the temperature of the gas increases.
C Neither the pressure nor temperature of the gas increases.
D Only the pressure of the gas increases.

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14 A manometer is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply.

manometer

connection
to gas supply
h

liquid

Which change gives a greater value of height h ?

A using a less dense liquid


B using a more dense liquid
C using a narrower tube
D using a wider tube

15 Diagram 1 shows apparatus being used to observe smoke particles.

Diagram 2 shows how a smoke particle moves randomly.

diagram 1 diagram 2

eye

random
movement
microscope

air molecules
light and
smoke particles

Why do the smoke particles move randomly?

A They are hit by air molecules.


B They are less dense than air.
C They are moved by convection currents.
D They gain energy from the light.

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16 The metal lid on a glass jar is difficult to unscrew.

The jar is placed in a warm oven until the jar and the lid reach the same temperature. The lid is
now easily unscrewed.

Which property accounts for this?

A thermal capacity of the jar


B thermal capacity of the lid
C thermal conduction
D thermal expansion

17 Two cold metal containers X and Y are both filled with the same mass of hot water at the same
temperature.

Both containers are well insulated.

The thermal capacity of container X is greater than that of container Y.

How do the final temperatures of the water in X and in Y compare?

A The temperature in X is higher than in Y.


B The temperature in X is lower than in Y.
C The temperatures in X and in Y are equal but lower than the initial temperature of the water.
D The temperatures in X and in Y are the same as the initial temperature of the water.

18 Some of the Sun’s radiation passes through a prism. The diagram shows the spectrum of the
radiation.

Which point on the screen does the infra-red radiation reach?

prism

radiation
from the
Sun
not v
isi
red ble
A
e B
ibl C
no v vis
t v iole
isi t
ble
screen D

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19 Which statement about convection is not correct?

A It enables water in a pan on a cooker to get evenly heated.


B It happens in liquids and gases.
C It means that heat rises.
D It occurs because the density of a fluid decreases when it is heated.

20 What is meant by the frequency of a water wave?

A the distance between consecutive crests of the wave


B the distance moved by the wave per unit time
C the maximum vertical displacement of the wave
D the number of crests passing a point per unit time

21 Plane water waves travel from a shallow region into a deeper region. They travel more quickly in
the deeper water.

shallow water

boundary
wave
direction
deep water

Which diagram shows the wave pattern in the deeper water?

A B C D

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22 The diagram shows two plane mirrors at 90° to each other. A ray of light is incident on one of the
mirrors. The ray reflects off both mirrors before reaching a screen.

At which labelled point does the ray reach the screen?

screen
A

ray of
light

23 Which diagram shows the formation of a real image of an object O placed in front of a converging
lens?

A B

O O

C D

O O

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10

24 Different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are used for different purposes. Below are four
statements about parts of the spectrum.

statement 1: Infra-red waves are used in television remote controllers.


statement 2: Radio waves are used to transmit television pictures from satellites to Earth.
statement 3: Ultraviolet waves are used for intruder alarms.
statement 4: X-rays are used for security checks.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

25 Which statement about ultrasound is correct?

A Ultrasound must have greater amplitude than audible sound.


B Ultrasound must have greater frequency than audible sound.
C Ultrasound must have lower amplitude than audible sound.
D Ultrasound must have lower frequency than audible sound.

26 An iron bar PQ is placed close to a bar magnet.

In which diagram does end P become an induced north pole?

A B C D

S P N P S P

N Q S Q N Q

P S

Q N

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11

27 The diagram shows a bar magnet at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. A length of soft-iron
wire is held parallel to the magnet.

soft-iron wire
magnet
S

The wire is released.

What happens?

A The wire moves away from the magnet.


B The wire moves towards the magnet.

C The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in a clockwise
direction.

D The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in an
anticlockwise direction.

28 A negatively charged plastic rod P is placed above a positively charged plastic rod Q.

P
– – – – –

Q
+ + + + +

What are the directions of the electrostatic forces on rod P and on rod Q?

electrostatic force electrostatic force


on rod P on rod Q

A downwards downwards
B downwards upwards
C upwards downwards
D upwards upwards

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12

29 The diagrams show the readings on an ammeter in a series circuit before and after the switch in
the circuit has been closed.

switch open switch closed

2 3 2 3
1 4 1 4

5
0

0
A A

What is the current in the circuit when the switch is closed?

A 3.2 A B 3.4 A C 3.6 A D 3.8 A

30 A student investigates the resistance of a lamp.

Which row states how the meters must be connected?

ammeter voltmeter

A in parallel with the lamp in parallel with the lamp


B in parallel with the lamp in series with the lamp
C in series with the lamp in parallel with the lamp
D in series with the lamp in series with the lamp

31 A lamp is connected into a circuit so that the potential difference across it can be varied from 0 to
12 V.

Which circuit is suitable?

A B C D

12 V 12 V 12 V 12 V

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13

32 The diagram shows a circuit.

Which statement describes and explains how the circuit behaves?

A The ammeter reading decreases when the light intensity decreases.


B The ammeter reading decreases when the temperature decreases.
C The ammeter reading increases when the light intensity decreases.
D The ammeter reading increases when the temperature decreases.

33 Which component uses a small direct current (d.c.) in one circuit to switch on a much larger
current in a second circuit?

A potential divider
B relay
C transformer
D variable resistor

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14

34 Either a fuse or a circuit-breaker can be used to protect electrical cables from large currents that
could cause overheating.

X cable
live

electrical Y appliance
supply

neutral
cable

When a fuse is used, where should it be connected, and when a circuit-breaker is used, where
should it be connected?

position position of
of fuse circuit-breaker

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

35 The diagram shows a horizontal wire between the two magnetic poles of a U-shaped magnet.
The U-shaped magnet is on a balance.

When the switch closed, the reading on the balance decreases.

switch switch
open closed
magnetic magnetic
poles poles

125.20 123.49
g g

The experiment is carried out three more times with the following changes made.

1 Only the current is reversed.


2 Only the magnetic field is reversed.
3 Both the current and the magnetic field are reversed at the same time.

Which changes cause an increase in the reading on the balance?

A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1 and 2 only

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15

36 The diagram shows a coil of wire between the poles of a magnet.

20 turns

N S

+ –
power
supply

The coil consists of 20 turns of insulated wire.

The coil is connected to a variable resistor and a power supply.

How can the turning effect on the coil be increased?

A by moving the poles of the magnet closer to the coil


B by reducing the number of turns on the coil while keeping the current constant
C by increasing the resistance of the variable resistor
D by reversing the terminals of the power supply

37 Which diagram represents the structure of a neutral atom?

A B C D
key
– – – –
neutron

++ ++ + proton
+ ++
+ – electron

– – –

38 The nuclide notation for the isotope lithium-7 is 73 Li .

How many neutrons are there in an atom of lithium-7?

A 3 B 4 C 7 D 10

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16

39 The diagram shows the paths of three different types of radiation X, Y and Z.

2 mm of 10 mm of 50 mm
plastic aluminium of lead

Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays


B β-particles α-particles γ-rays
C β-particles γ-rays α-particles
D γ-rays α-particles β-particles

40 Samples of four different radioactive isotopes all emit radiation at the same rate.

As time passes, the rates of emission decrease for all the samples.

Which sample of isotope has the greatest decrease in rate?

isotope half-life

A americium-241 470 years


B iodine-128 25 minutes
C thoron-220 54.5 seconds
D uranium-237 6.75 days

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2018
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2018 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2018

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 D 1

3 B 1

4 C 1

5 D 1

6 A 1

7 D 1

8 B 1

9 A 1

10 C 1

11 D 1

12 B 1

13 A 1

14 A 1

15 A 1

16 D 1

17 B 1

18 A 1

19 C 1

20 D 1

21 C 1

22 B 1

23 D 1

24 B 1

25 B 1

26 D 1

27 B 1

28 B 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2018

Question Answer Marks

29 B 1

30 C 1

31 C 1

32 B 1

33 B 1

34 A 1

35 D 1

36 A 1

37 B 1

38 B 1

39 B 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*6069758649*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 11_0625_13/2RP
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1 A pendulum is set in motion and timed. The time measured for 20 complete swings is 30 s.

What is the time for one complete swing of the pendulum?

A 0.67 s B 0.75 s C 1.5 s D 3.0 s

2 A girl goes for a ride on her bicycle.

The diagram shows how her speed changes with time for part of her journey.

In which labelled section is she moving with constant speed?

speed

0
0 A B C D time

3 A boy runs 400 m at an average speed of 4.0 m / s.

He runs the first 200 m in 40 s.

How long does he take to run the second 200 m?

A 60 s B 66.7 s C 80 s D 140 s

4 Which quantity is measured in newtons?

A energy
B mass
C weight
D work

5 The acceleration of free fall on Mars is 3.7 m / s2.

What is the weight of a 100 g mass on Mars?

A 0.037 N B 0.37 N C 37 N D 370 N

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6 A student carries out experiments to find the mass and the volume of four samples of rock.

The graph shows the results.

sample P sample Q
200
mass / g

sample R sample S
100

0
0 50 100
volume / cm3

Which pair are samples of the same type of rock?

A P and Q B P and S C R and Q D Q and S

7 Four objects each have two forces acting on them.

Which object is in equilibrium?

A B C D
1.0 N 1.0 N 1.0 N
1.0 N 1.0 N
1.0 N
1.0 N 1.0 N

8 A car moves along a level road.

The diagram shows all of the horizontal forces acting on the car.

800 N
air resistance
2000 N force
500 N from engine
friction

Which statement is correct?

A The car is slowing down.


B The car is speeding up.
C The car is moving at a constant speed.
D The car is moving backwards.
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9 The diagram shows an aluminium sheet of constant thickness.

Four significant points on the aluminium sheet are labelled P, Q, R and S.

Q
R

How can the centre of mass be found?

A by finding where a line from P to R crosses a line from S to Q


B by suspending the sheet and a plumb-line from Q and finding where the plumb-line crosses a
line from P to R
C by suspending the sheet and a plumb-line from P and then from S and finding where the
plumb-lines cross
D by suspending the sheet and a plumb-line from P and finding where the plumb-line crosses a
line from S to Q

10 Which device is designed to convert chemical energy into kinetic energy?

A an a.c. generator
B a battery-powered torch
C a car engine
D a wind-up mechanical clock

11 A weight hangs from a rope.

force

weight

In which case does the force do the most work on the weight?

A The force raises the weight 1.0 m in 15 s.


B The force raises the weight 2.0 m in 45 s.
C The weight is held at the same level for 10 s.
D The weight is held at the same level for 60 s.

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12 Diagram 1 shows a conical flask containing water.

Diagram 2 shows a beaker with the same base area as the flask and containing water of the
same depth d.

water water
d d

X Y P

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which statement is correct?

A The pressure at P is equal to the pressure at X.


B The pressure at P is greater than the pressure at Y.
C The pressure at P is greater than the pressure at X.
D The pressure at Y is greater than the pressure at X.

13 A manometer is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply.

manometer

connection
to gas supply
h

liquid

Which change gives a greater value of height h ?

A using a less dense liquid


B using a more dense liquid
C using a narrower tube
D using a wider tube

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14 Liquid in a dish evaporates. This causes the temperature of the remaining liquid to change.

Which row is correct?

change in
reason for temperature change
temperature

A increase the most energetic molecules remain in the liquid


B increase the most energetic molecules escape from the liquid
C decrease the most energetic molecules remain in the liquid
D decrease the most energetic molecules escape from the liquid

15 Diagram 1 shows apparatus being used to observe smoke particles.

Diagram 2 shows how a smoke particle moves randomly.

diagram 1 diagram 2

eye

random
movement
microscope

air molecules
light and
smoke particles

Why do the smoke particles move randomly?

A They are hit by air molecules.


B They are less dense than air.
C They are moved by convection currents.
D They gain energy from the light.

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16 Which row shows the relative order of thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases?

most expansion least expansion

A solids liquids gases


B solids gases liquids
C gases solids liquids
D gases liquids solids

17 Steam at 100 °C condenses to form water at 100 °C.

What happens to the average separation and what happens to the average speed of the water
molecules?

separation average speed

A decreases decreases
B decreases remains the same
C increases decreases
D increases remains the same

18 Some of the Sun’s radiation passes through a prism. The diagram shows the spectrum of the
radiation.

Which point on the screen does the infra-red radiation reach?

prism

radiation
from the
Sun
not v
isi
red ble
A
le B
sib C
no v vi
t v iole
isi t
ble
screen D

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19 One end of a shiny metal rod is heated and the other end quickly gets hot.

Which statement describes why the other end quickly gets hot?

A Metals are good thermal conductors.


B Metals are poor thermal conductors.
C Shiny surfaces are good emitters of infra-red radiation.
D Shiny surfaces are poor emitters of infra-red radiation.

20 Which statement about waves is correct?

A Waves do not transfer either energy or matter.


B Waves transfer both energy and matter.
C Waves transfer energy without transferring matter.
D Waves transfer matter without transferring energy.

21 Plane water waves travel from a shallow region into a deeper region. They travel more quickly in
the deeper water.

shallow water

boundary
wave
direction
deep water

Which diagram shows the wave pattern in the deeper water?

A B C D

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22 A plane mirror is fixed so that it is at an angle of 45° to a table. A ray of light, initially parallel to
the table, is incident on the mirror.

plane mirror

ray of light

45° table

Which angle does the reflected ray make with the table?

A 0° B 22.5° C 45° D 90°

23 An object is placed 20 cm in front of a thin converging lens. The scale drawing shows how the
lens forms a real, inverted image.

object

image

scale
5.0 cm

Which row gives the focal length of the lens and the distance of the image from the lens?

focal length distance of image


of lens / cm from lens / cm

A 4.0 5.0
B 5.0 4.0
C 8.0 10.0
D 10.0 8.0

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10

24 Different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are used for different purposes. Below are four
statements about parts of the spectrum.

statement 1: Infra-red waves are used in television remote controllers.


statement 2: Radio waves are used to transmit television pictures from satellites to Earth.
statement 3: Ultraviolet waves are used for intruder alarms.
statement 4: X-rays are used for security checks.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

25 Which row gives the nature of sound waves and the name of the effect that causes an echo of a
sound?

nature of sound waves effect causing an echo

A longitudinal reflection
B longitudinal refraction
C transverse reflection
D transverse refraction

26 Which diagram shows the pattern and the direction of the magnetic field lines around a bar
magnet?

A B

N S N S

C D

N S N S

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11

27 The diagram shows part of a circuit which contains an ammeter, a voltmeter and a resistor R. The
ammeter and the voltmeter are in the correct positions to determine the resistance of R.

meter P
R

meter Q

Which expression gives the value of R?

A reading of meter P ÷ reading of meter Q

B (reading of meter P)2 × reading of meter Q

C reading of meter Q × reading of meter P

D reading of meter Q ÷ reading of meter P

28 A negatively charged plastic rod P is placed above a positively charged plastic rod Q.

P
– – – – –

Q
+ + + + +

What are the directions of the electrostatic forces on rod P and on rod Q?

electrostatic force electrostatic force


on rod P on rod Q

A downwards downwards
B downwards upwards
C upwards downwards
D upwards upwards

29 Which row shows the meaning of the quantity e.m.f. and the unit in which it is measured?

meaning unit

A electromagnetic force N
B electromagnetic force V
C electromotive force N
D electromotive force V

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12

30 Diagram 1 shows a voltmeter that is not connected to anything. It shows a small reading, called a
zero error, because it is not correctly adjusted.

Diagram 2 shows the same meter used to measure the p.d. across a resistor in a circuit.

4 6 4 6
2 8 2 8

10

10
0

0
V V

diagram 1 diagram 2

What is the p.d. across the resistor?

A 4.6 V B 4.7 V C 5.2 V D 5.4 V

31 The diagram shows a potential divider used to control the brightness of a lamp.

What happens as the slider on the potential divider is moved to the right?

A The potential difference across the lamp decreases and the lamp gets brighter.
B The potential difference across the lamp decreases and the lamp gets dimmer.
C The potential difference across the lamp increases and the lamp gets brighter.
D The potential difference across the lamp increases and the lamp gets dimmer.

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13

32 The diagram shows three identical resistors connected to a battery.

ammeter 1 A
ammeter 3
A

ammeter 2 A

Which row gives the possible readings on the three ammeters?

ammeter 1 / A ammeter 2 / A ammeter 3 / A

A 1.5 3.0 4.5


B 3.0 1.5 4.5
C 3.0 4.5 1.5
D 4.5 1.5 3.0

33 A 4 Ω resistor and a 2 Ω resistor are connected to a 12 V battery in a circuit.

4Ω

12 V

2Ω

What is the current in the 2 Ω resistor?

A 0.5 A B 2.0 A C 3.0 A D 6.0 A

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14

34 Either a fuse or a circuit-breaker can be used to protect electrical cables from large currents that
could cause overheating.

X cable
live

electrical Y appliance
supply

neutral
cable

When a fuse is used, where should it be connected, and when a circuit-breaker is used, where
should it be connected?

position position of
of fuse circuit-breaker

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

35 There is an electric current in a wire. The wire is placed in a magnetic field. A force acts on the
wire due to the current.

Which statement is correct?

A The magnetic field must be produced by a permanent magnet and not by an electromagnet.
B The wire must be made from a magnetic material.
C When both the current and the magnetic field are reversed, the direction of the force is
unchanged.
D When the current is reversed, but not the magnetic field, there will be no force on the wire.

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15

36 Which diagram shows the pattern and direction of the magnetic field due to a current in a straight
wire?

A B

current current

C D

current current

37 Which diagram represents the structure of a neutral atom?

A B C D
key
– – – –
neutron

++ ++ + proton
+ ++
+ – electron

– – –

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16

12
38 What is a carbon nucleus, 6C , composed of?

A 6 neutrons and 6 electrons


B 6 neutrons, 6 protons and 6 electrons
C 6 protons and 6 electrons
D 6 protons and 6 neutrons

39 The diagram shows the paths of three different types of radiation X, Y and Z.

2 mm of 10 mm of 50 mm
plastic aluminium of lead

Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays


B β-particles α-particles γ-rays
C β-particles γ-rays α-particles
D γ-rays α-particles β-particles

40 The count rate due to a sample of a radioactive isotope is measured for 80 minutes.

time count rate


/ minutes counts / second

0 480
20 380
40 300
60 240
80 190

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A 20 minutes B 40 minutes C 60 minutes D 80 minutes

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

© UCLES 2018 0625/13/O/N/18

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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2018
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2018 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2018

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 A 1

3 A 1

4 C 1

5 B 1

6 C 1

7 A 1

8 B 1

9 C 1

10 C 1

11 B 1

12 A 1

13 A 1

14 D 1

15 A 1

16 D 1

17 B 1

18 A 1

19 A 1

20 C 1

21 C 1

22 D 1

23 A 1

24 B 1

25 A 1

26 A 1

27 D 1

28 B 1

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2018

Question Answer Marks

29 D 1

30 C 1

31 C 1

32 D 1

33 B 1

34 A 1

35 C 1

36 C 1

37 B 1

38 D 1

39 B 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) February/March 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2318147385*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB19 03_0625_12/3RP
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1 Water drips from a tap into a measuring cylinder.

The table shows the volume of water in the cylinder every minute for four minutes.

volume of
time / minutes
water / cm3

0 0
1.0 27
2.0 57
3.0 83
4.0 112

What is the average volume of water collected in the cylinder each minute?

A 22 cm3 B 28 cm3 C 56 cm3 D 57 cm3

2 An object is moving with uniform deceleration.

Which statement describes its motion?

A Its rate of change of speed is decreasing.


B Its speed is constant.
C Its speed is decreasing.
D Its speed is increasing.

3 A ball rolls down a ramp. The time it takes to move from X to Y is measured.

ball

height
of ramp X ramp

Which other quantity must be measured in order to calculate the average speed of the ball
between point X and point Y?

A angle of slope
B diameter of ball
C distance between X and Y
D height of ramp

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4 An astronaut in a space station orbits above the Earth.

In the space station, the acceleration due to gravity is 7.5 m / s2.

On Earth, the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m / s2.

Which statement about the astronaut’s mass and weight in the space station is correct?

mass of astronaut weight of astronaut

A same as on the Earth less than on the Earth


B same as on the Earth greater than on the Earth
C lower than on the Earth less than on the Earth
D lower than on the Earth greater than on the Earth

5 The mass of a full bottle of cooking oil is 1.30 kg.

When exactly half of the oil has been used, the mass of the bottle plus the remaining oil is
0.90 kg.

1.30 0.90
kg kg

What is the mass of the empty bottle?

A 0.40 kg B 0.50 kg C 0.65 kg D 0.80 kg

6 A solid ball has a volume of 4.0 cm3. The density of the ball is 1.6 g / cm3.

What is the mass of the ball?

A 0.4 g B 2.5 g C 4.0 g D 6.4 g

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7 Which property of an object cannot be changed by applying forces?

A mass
B shape
C speed
D volume

8 The extension / load graph for a spring is shown. The unstretched length of the spring is 15.0 cm.

3
extension / cm

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
load / N

When an object of unknown weight is suspended on the spring, the length of the spring is
16.4 cm.

What is the weight of the object?

A 0.55 N B 0.67 N C 3.5 N D 4.1 N

9 The diagram shows a wooden beam with two forces acting on it.

5.0 N

5.0 N

Which way will the beam move?

A accelerate up the page


B accelerate down the page
C turn anticlockwise
D turn clockwise
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10 Which source of energy uses the production of steam to generate electrical energy?

A hydroelectric
B nuclear
C tides
D waves

11 What is the unit of power?

A joule
B newton
C pascal
D watt

12 The diagram shows a U-tube manometer containing three liquids: mercury, liquid X and liquid Y.
Neither liquid X or liquid Y mixes with mercury.

liquid X liquid Y

mercury

Which row compares the pressure exerted by liquid X and by liquid Y on the mercury, and the
density of liquid X and the density of liquid Y?

pressure exerted by X and densities of


by Y on the mercury X and of Y

A pressure of X is greater than Y density of X is greater than Y


B pressure of Y is greater than X density of Y is greater than X
C pressure of X and of Y is the same density of X is greater than Y
D pressure of X and of Y is the same density of Y is greater than X

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13 Which diagram shows an athlete exerting least pressure on the ground?

A B C D

14 A car tyre runs over a nail which makes a hole in it. The air in the tyre leaks out.

air

Why does the air leave the tyre?

A The pressure inside the tyre is greater than the pressure outside.
B The pressure inside the tyre is less than the pressure outside.
C The temperature inside the tyre is greater than the temperature outside.
D The temperature inside the tyre is less than the temperature outside.

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15 On a cold day, a metal measuring tape graduated in millimetres is used to measure the distance
between two fence posts. The measuring tape reads 3.000 m.

On a much hotter day, the metal measuring tape is used to measure the length of the same
distance again. The metal measuring tape has a higher temperature than the ground. The
temperature of the ground remains constant.

Which statement is correct?

A The measuring tape reads less than 3.000 m because the graduations are closer together.
B The measuring tape reads less than 3.000 m because the graduations are further apart.
C The measuring tape reads more than 3.000 m because the graduations are closer together.
D The measuring tape reads more than 3.000 m because the graduations are further apart.

16 A thermometer has graduations which start at –10 °C and end at 110 °C.

–10 0 100 110

°C

What is the lower fixed point and what is the upper fixed point of the Celsius scale?

lower fixed point upper fixed point


/ °C / °C

A –10 100
B –10 110
C 0 100
D 0 110

17 Which row describes the process of melting?

change in
initial state final state
temperature?

A liquid gas yes


B liquid solid no
C solid gas yes
D solid liquid no

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18 Four campers are warming their food on a fire.

They use different rods, each of the same dimensions, to hold their food near the fire.

rod

food

fire

Which material is the best choice to prevent their hands from getting too hot?

A aluminium
B copper
C steel
D wood

19 A beaker of water is heated and thermal energy travels through the water by convection.

What happens to the density of the water when it is heated and how does the water move?

A The density decreases and the heated water moves downwards.


B The density decreases and the heated water moves upwards.
C The density increases and the heated water moves downwards.
D The density increases and the heated water moves upwards.

20 The diagram shows a wave before it reflects from a barrier.

Which labelled section of the diagram represents a wavefront?

barrier

C D
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21 The diagram shows a transverse wave.

1 2 3 5
distance

Which distance is equal to one wavelength?

A the distance between points 1 and 2


B the distance between points 1 and 3
C the distance between points 2 and 3
D the distance between points 4 and 5

22 A ray of light is reflected by a plane mirror.

Q R
P S

Which row shows the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection?

angle of angle of
incidence reflection

A P Q
B P S
C Q R
D R S

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10

23 Which diagram correctly represents rays of light passing through a converging lens in a camera?

A B
camera camera

object object
image image
lens lens

C D
camera camera

object object
image image
lens lens

24 Which statement about microwaves is correct?

A Microwaves are longitudinal waves.


B The frequencies of microwaves are greater than the frequencies of visible light.
C The speed of microwaves in a vacuum is equal to the speed of visible light in a vacuum.
D The wavelengths of microwaves are smaller than the wavelengths of infra-red.

25 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is
reflected from the sea-bed. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.3 s. The sea-bed is 1000 m
below the boat.

boat

1000 m
sea-bed

Using this information, what is the speed of sound in the water?

A 770 m / s B 1300 m / s C 1500 m / s D 2600 m / s


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11

26 Which action will not magnetise a rod?

A placing a copper rod inside a coil carrying a direct current


B stroking a steel rod with a permanent magnet
C hammering a steel rod aligned with the Earth’s magnetic field
D placing a soft-iron rod close to a permanent magnet

27 The ends of three metal rods are tested by holding end Q of rod 1 close to the others in turn.

R T

Q S U

rod 1 rod 2 rod 3

The results are as follows.

End Q attracts end R.


End Q attracts end S.
End Q attracts end T.
End Q repels end U.

Which of the metal rods is a magnet?

A rod 1 only
B rod 1 and rod 2
C rod 1 and rod 3
D rod 3 only

28 Which statement about a voltmeter is correct?

A A voltmeter measures the current in a component and is connected in series with the
component.
B A voltmeter measures the current in a component and is connected in parallel with the
component.
C A voltmeter measures the potential difference (p.d.) across a component and is connected in
series with the component.
D A voltmeter measures the potential difference (p.d.) across a component and is connected in
parallel with the component.

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12

29 Four wires are made from the same metal.

Which wire has the lowest resistance?

length of diameter of
wire / cm wire / mm

A 20 0.20
B 20 0.40
C 40 0.20
D 40 0.40

30 A student sets up a circuit containing a battery of two cells and three lamps, as shown.

– + – +

What is the circuit diagram for this arrangement?

A B C D

31 The diagrams show different resistor arrangements.

Which arrangement has the smallest combined resistance?

A B C D

10 Ω 10 Ω
10 Ω 10 Ω 10 Ω 5Ω
5Ω 10 Ω

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13

32 The diagram shows a potential divider circuit.

V P

V Q

The resistance of the variable resistor is increased.

Which row shows what happens to the reading on voltmeter P and on voltmeter Q?

reading on voltmeter P reading on voltmeter Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

33 The current in a kettle is 10 A and the kettle is protected by a 13 A fuse.

The owner of the kettle replaces the 13 A fuse with a 3 A fuse.

What happens when the kettle is switched on?

A The fuse melts and the kettle might be damaged.


B The fuse melts and the kettle is undamaged.
C The fuse does not melt and the kettle works correctly.
D The fuse does not melt but the kettle fails to work.

34 A student wishes to demonstrate electromagnetic induction.

He has a magnet and connecting wires.

Which other apparatus does he need?

voltmeter battery

A   key
B   = needed
C   = not needed
D  

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14

35 The diagram shows a transformer connected to a 240 V a.c. supply.

soft-iron core
primary coil
secondary coil
60 turns
30 turns

240 V
a.c.

What is the potential difference across the secondary coil of the transformer?

A 30 V B 120 V C 240 V D 480 V

36 A current-carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field.

view from above

coil magnetic field lines

Which effect does the coil experience?

A a change in shape
B a change in weight
C a resultant force
D a turning effect

37 Which statement about the structure of an atom is correct?

A Negative electrons surround a neutral nucleus.


B Negative electrons surround a positive nucleus.
C Positive electrons surround a neutral nucleus.
D Positive electrons surround a negative nucleus.

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15

38 What are isotopes of an element?

A atoms of a different element with a different number of neutrons


B atoms of a different element with a different number of protons
C atoms of the same element with a different number of neutrons
D atoms of the same element with a different number of protons

39 A student measures the level of radiation emitted by a radioactive sample.

radioactive
sample counter
detector

The table shows the readings she records on the counter over a short period of time.

counter reading
106 96 98 100
/ counts per minute

The sample is removed and the counter then shows a background radiation reading of 4 counts
per minute.

What is the best estimate for the average count rate due to the radioactive sample?

A 96 counts per minute


B 98 counts per minute
C 100 counts per minute
D 104 counts per minute

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16

40 Four students are discussing ideas about radioactive decay.

Which student’s statement is correct?

A B
When a β-particle is When an α-particle is emitted,
emitted, the nucleus the nucleus changes to that
remains unchanged. of a different element.

C D
When a γ-ray is emitted, Stable nuclei are dangerous
the nucleus changes to because they emit high
that of a different element. levels of γ-radiation.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) March 2019
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the March 2019 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme March 2019
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 C 1

3 C 1

4 A 1

5 B 1

6 D 1

7 A 1

8 C 1

9 D 1

10 B 1

11 D 1

12 D 1

13 B 1

14 A 1

15 B 1

16 C 1

17 D 1

18 D 1

19 B 1

20 C 1

21 B 1

22 C 1

23 A 1

24 C 1

25 C 1

26 A 1

27 C 1

28 D 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme March 2019
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 B 1

30 A 1

31 A 1

32 C 1

33 B 1

34 B 1

35 B 1

36 D 1

37 B 1

38 C 1

39 A 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*1585078804*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 19 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB19 06_0625_11/2RP
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1 A digital stop-clock measures time in minutes and seconds.

The stop-clock reads 00:50 when it is started (i.e. 00 minutes 50 seconds).

It reads 02:10 when it is stopped.

What is the shortest possible time that has elapsed between starting and stopping the
stop-clock?

A 1 minute 20 seconds
B 2 minutes 00 seconds
C 2 minutes 10 seconds
D 3 minutes 00 seconds

2 A long-distance runner wishes to calculate her average speed for a race.

Which calculation should she use?

A average speed = total distance


total time

B average speed = total distance × total time

C average speed = total time


total distance
D average speed = total distance + total time

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3 A heavy metal ball falls vertically downwards through air past four equally spaced levels J, K, L
and M.

metal ball

level J

level K

level L

level M

The times taken to fall from one level to the next are measured.

Where is the speed of the ball greatest and which time is shortest?

speed is time is
greatest between shortest between

A J and K J and K
B J and K L and M
C L and M J and K
D L and M L and M

4 An arrow travels horizontally in a straight line at constant speed.

In which direction does the weight act?

C
direction of motion

B D

ground

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5 Two rectangular blocks consist of different materials.

Four different methods are suggested to compare the two masses.

1 Compare the accelerations with which they fall freely.

2 Compare the values of their lengths × breadths × heights.


3 Hang each in turn from the same spring. Compare the extensions.
4 Place one in the right-hand pan of a beam balance and the other in the left-hand
pan.

Which methods give a comparison of the two masses?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 3 and 4 only D 4 only

6 The diagrams show four solid blocks with their dimensions and masses.

Which block has the greatest density?

A area = 10 cm2 B area = 20 cm2

2.0 cm 2.0 cm

mass = 14 g mass = 48 g

C area = 10 cm2 D area = 20 cm2

2.0 cm 2.0 cm

mass = 54 g mass = 68 g

7 A mass of 20 kg is held stationary by a rope passing over a frictionless pulley.

pulley

20 kg

What is the tension T in the rope?

A 10 kg B 20 kg C 100 N D 200 N

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8 A spring is suspended from a stand. Loads are added and the extensions are measured.

spring
stand

loads rule

Which graph shows the result of plotting extension against load?

A B

extension extension

0 0
0 load 0 load

C D

extension extension

0 0
0 load 0 load

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9 A wooden bar is pivoted at its centre so that it can rotate freely. Two equal forces F are applied to
the bar.

In which diagram is the turning effect greatest?

A B

pivot pivot

F F F
F

C D
F
pivot pivot

F
F
F

10 A machine is very efficient.

What does this mean?

A It produces a large amount of power.


B It uses very little energy.
C It wastes very little energy.
D It works very quickly.

11 An object is lifted vertically by a motor.

In which example is the power produced the greatest?

A lifting it a shorter distance in a longer time


B lifting it the same distance in a longer time
C lifting it a shorter distance in the same time
D lifting it the same distance in a shorter time
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12 Four identical submarines P, Q, R and S are lowered from one depth to another in water of a
constant density.

The initial and final depths of each submarine are shown in the diagram.

water surface
submarine submarine
P R
10 m
submarine
S
30 m
submarine
Q
50 m

70 m

Which row is correct for the difference in pressure from the initial to final depth of each
submarine?

least change greatest change


in pressure in pressure

A submarines P and Q submarines R and S


B submarines P and Q submarine R only
C submarine P only submarines R and S
D submarine P only submarine R only

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13 The diagram shows a stone suspended on a string under the surface of a liquid. The stone
experiences a pressure caused by the liquid.

string

stone

liquid

What would increase the pressure on the stone?

A decreasing the surface area of the stone


B increasing the mass of the stone
C lowering the stone deeper into the liquid
D using a liquid with a lower density

14 Why can a gas be compressed easily into a smaller volume?

A The molecules are far apart.


B The molecules do not attract each other.
C The molecules move randomly.
D The volume of each molecule can be reduced.

15 When a liquid evaporates, some molecules escape. The temperature of the remaining liquid
changes.

What is the effect on the temperature and from where do the molecules escape?

temperature of liquid molecules escape from

A decreases everywhere within the liquid


B decreases the surface only
C increases everywhere within the liquid
D increases the surface only

16 What happens when a metal block is heated?

A Its breadth, height and length all increase.


B Its width increases only.
C Its height increases only.
D Its length increases only.
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17 A night storage heater contains a large block of material that is heated electrically during the
night. During the day the block cools down, releasing thermal energy into the room.

Which thermal capacity and which night-time temperature increase will cause the most energy to
be stored by the block?

thermal capacity night-time


of block temperature increase

A large large
B large small
C small large
D small small

18 The diagram shows the changes of state P, Q, R and S that occur in solids, liquids and gases
when they gain or lose thermal energy.

gain thermal energy

P Q

solid liquid gas

S R

lose thermal energy

What is the name of change R?

A condensation
B solidification
C boiling
D melting

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10

19 In which does thermal conduction not occur?

A a gas
B a liquid
C a solid
D a vacuum

20 The metal surface of a kettle is hot.

What happens to the cool air outside the kettle when it comes into contact with the hot kettle?

A The density of the air decreases and the air falls.


B The density of the air decreases and the air rises.
C The density of the air increases and the air falls.
D The density of the air increases and the air rises.

21 Ultrasound is used in a hospital to scan a patient. Ultrasound refracts at the boundary between
muscle and bone because it travels at a greater speed in bone.

Which change takes place when the ultrasound travels from muscle into bone?

A The frequency of the wave decreases.


B The frequency of the wave increases.
C The wavelength of the wave decreases.
D The wavelength of the wave increases.

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11

22 The diagram shows a cork with a weight attached so that the cork floats upright in water.

cork water surface


X Y

weight

Transverse waves travel across the water from X to Y.

In which direction do the waves make the cork move?

A → ← right and left

B ↑↓ up and down

C → only to the right

D ← only to the left

23 An object is placed 30 cm in front of a plane mirror.

Which statement describes the image of the object?

A The image is the same size and 30 cm from the object.


B The image is the same size and 60 cm from the object.
C The image is smaller and 30 cm from the object.
D The image is smaller and 60 cm from the object.

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12

24 The diagram shows light incident at a glass-air boundary. The angle of incidence i of the ray is
greater than the critical angle.

Which line shows the path of the light after it meets the boundary?

C D
air
glass i

B incident ray
of light
A

25 The diagram shows radiation from a lamp passing through a prism.

screen
prism
P
red light

radiation from
lamp

Which type of radiation is found at P?

A γ-rays
B infrared
C ultraviolet
D X-rays

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13

26 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is
reflected from a shoal of fish. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.2 s. The speed of sound
in the water is 1500 m / s.

boat

shoal of fish

How far below the bottom of the boat is the shoal of fish?

A 450 m B 900 m C 1800 m D 3600 m

27 Which range is approximately correct for the audio frequencies that can be detected by a healthy
human ear?

A 2 Hz to 2000 Hz
B 2 Hz to 20 000 Hz
C 20 Hz to 2000 Hz
D 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz

28 Why is soft iron used for the core of an electromagnet?

A Soft iron easily becomes a permanent magnet.


B Soft iron is a good electrical conductor.
C Soft iron is a poor thermal conductor.
D Soft iron loses its magnetism when the current in the coil is switched off.

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14

29 An iron ball on a horizontal wooden table rolls near the north pole of a bar magnet which is lying
on the table.

Which diagram shows the most likely path of the ball, as seen from above the table?

A B

magnet S magnet S
N N

ball ball

C D

magnet S magnet S
N N

ball ball stops


here

30 Diagram 1 shows two thin, uncharged strips of plastic.

Diagram 2 shows the same strips after they have been rubbed with a dry cloth.

strips strips
of plastic of plastic

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which row describes the charge on the strips after rubbing, and the force between the strips after
rubbing?

charge on strips force between strips

A opposite attraction
B opposite repulsion
C the same attraction
D the same repulsion
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15

31 A voltmeter and an ammeter are used to measure the resistance of a resistor.

Which diagram shows the voltmeter and the ammeter correctly connected?

A B C D

A V
A V A
V

A
V

32 A student sets up four circuits.

In which circuit is there a heater in series with a fuse?

A B C D

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16

33 The diagram shows a circuit containing a d.c. power supply, a motor and a variable resistor.

Three ammeters X, Y and Z show the current in different parts of the circuit.

+ –

X A A Z

A M
Y

The reading on X is 4.0 A.

Which statement is correct?

A The readings on Y and Z are both less than 4.0 A.


B The readings on Y and Z are both equal to 4.0 A.
C The readings on Y and Z are both greater than 4.0 A.
D The reading on Z is zero.

34 A lamp is to be connected in a circuit so that the potential difference (p.d.) across it can be varied
from 0 to 6 V.

Which circuit would be most suitable?

A B

6V 6V

C D

6V 6V

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17

35 An electric heater is plugged into the mains supply using a fused plug.

The current in the heater is 10 A.

The cable attached to the heater is rated at 15 A.

The fuses available are rated at 1 A, 3 A, 5 A and 13 A.

Which fuse should be used?

A 1A B 3A C 5A D 13 A

36 A bar magnet is held near a coil of wire. The coil is connected to a sensitive voltmeter.

coil of wire
bar magnet

The N-pole of the magnet is moved quickly towards the coil. The voltmeter shows a reading of
+10 mV.

The N-pole of the magnet is then moved slowly away from the same end of the coil. The reading
on the voltmeter is observed.

Which voltmeter reading is possible?

A –15 mV B –5 mV C 0 mV D +5 mV

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18

37 Four small compasses are placed around a solenoid.

solenoid

A current is now switched on in the solenoid.

Which diagram shows possible new directions of the compass needles?

A B

C D

38 Four nuclides are represented below.

6 7 6 7
3E 3G 4L 5M

Which pair of nuclides are isotopes of the same element?

A E and G B E and L C G and L D G and M

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19

39 A student measures the level of radiation emitted from a radioactive substance. He places a
detector very close to the substance. He puts different absorbers between the radioactive
substance and the detector.

radioactive
substance counter
detector

absorber

The student’s results are shown. These results are corrected for background radiation.

counter reading
absorber
counts per minute

none 95
thin paper 52
few mm of aluminium 52
several cm of lead 12

Which types of radiation are being emitted by the substance?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B α-particles and γ-rays only

C β-particles and γ-rays only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

40 The nuclei of the atoms in a substance are changing randomly and emitting radiation.

What is happening to the substance?

A It is undergoing electromagnetic induction.


B It is undergoing magnetisation.
C It is undergoing solidification.
D It is undergoing radioactive decay.

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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2019
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2019 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and
some Cambridge O Level components.

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2019
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 A 1

3 D 1

4 A 1

5 C 1

6 C 1

7 D 1

8 D 1

9 A 1

10 C 1

11 D 1

12 A 1

13 C 1

14 A 1

15 B 1

16 A 1

17 A 1

18 A 1

19 D 1

20 B 1

21 D 1

22 B 1

23 B 1

24 B 1

25 B 1

26 B 1

27 D 1

28 D 1

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2019
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 B 1

30 D 1

31 B 1

32 C 1

33 B 1

34 B 1

35 D 1

36 B 1

37 D 1

38 A 1

39 B 1

40 D 1

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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*0286316185*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 20 printed pages.

IB19 06_0625_12/4RP
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1 Diagram 1 shows a measuring cylinder containing water. A metal weight with a cork attached by
a thread is held above the water.

Diagram 2 shows the apparatus after the weight has been lowered into the water.

Diagram 3 shows the apparatus after the weight and the cork have been submerged.

cm3 cm3 cm3


50 50 50

cork 40 40 40
thread
measuring
metal 30 30 30 cylinder
weight
20 20 20

10 10 10

diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3

What is the volume of the cork?

A 20 cm3 B 30 cm3 C 45 cm3 D 70 cm3

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2 A car travels at constant speed.

Which pair of graphs show both how the distance travelled by the car and the car’s speed vary
with time?

distance speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

distance speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

distance speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

distance speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

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3 A heavy metal ball falls vertically downwards through air past four equally spaced levels J, K, L
and M.

metal ball

level J

level K

level L

level M

The times taken to fall from one level to the next are measured.

Where is the speed of the ball greatest and which time is shortest?

speed is time is
greatest between shortest between

A J and K J and K
B J and K L and M
C L and M J and K
D L and M L and M

4 Which row contains two correct statements about the mass and the weight of an object?

mass of an object weight of an object

A is measured using a measuring cylinder is measured using a balance


B is the gravitational force exerted on the object is the amount of matter in the object
C is measured in newtons is measured in kilograms
D is the same everywhere can vary from place to place

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5 The table gives approximate values of the acceleration due to gravity and the atmospheric
pressure on three planets.

Earth Venus Mars


acceleration due to gravity 10 9 4
m / s2

atmospheric pressure / kPa 100 9000 1

A body has a mass of 10 kg on Earth.

Which statement about the weight of the body is correct?

A The weight is greatest on Earth.


B The weight is greatest on Mars.
C The weight is greatest on Venus.
D The weight is the same on each planet.

6 A metal has a density of 8.0 g / cm3. A solid cube of mass 1.0 kg is made from this metal.

How long is each side of the cube?

A 0.50 cm B 2.0 cm C 5.0 cm D 42 cm

7 Which object is in equilibrium?

A B C D
2N 2N

2N 2N 2N
2N

2N 2N

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8 A spring is suspended from a stand. Loads are added and the extensions are measured.

spring
stand

loads rule

Which graph shows the result of plotting extension against load?

A B

extension extension

0 0
0 load 0 load

C D

extension extension

0 0
0 load 0 load

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9 A wooden bar is pivoted at its centre so that it can rotate freely. Two equal forces F are applied to
the bar.

In which diagram is the turning effect greatest?

A B

pivot pivot

F F F
F

C D
F
pivot pivot

F
F
F

10 A machine is very efficient.

What does this mean?

A It produces a large amount of power.


B It uses very little energy.
C It wastes very little energy.
D It works very quickly.

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11 An object falls under gravity.

What happens to the gravitational potential energy and to the kinetic energy of the object?

gravitational potential
kinetic energy
energy

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

12 A student is testing four different electric motors. He measures the time it takes for a motor to lift
either a heavy load or a light load through a height of 1 metre.

motor

load

He makes a similar measurement for the other three motors.

The table shows his results.

Which motor produces the most power?

load time taken / s

A heavy 12
B heavy 16
C light 12
D light 16

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13 The diagram shows a stone suspended on a string under the surface of a liquid. The stone
experiences a pressure caused by the liquid.

string

stone

liquid

What would increase the pressure on the stone?

A decreasing the surface area of the stone


B increasing the mass of the stone
C lowering the stone deeper into the liquid
D using a liquid with a lower density

14 A sample of mercury is heated.

In which states of matter will its volume increase as its temperature rises?

A gas only
B liquid and gas only
C solid and liquid only
D solid, liquid and gas

15 When water evaporates, what escapes from the surface of the water?

A individual atoms
B individual molecules
C individual protons
D tiny drops of water

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10

16 The resistance of a resistor varies linearly with temperature as shown on the graph.

120
resistance / Ω
110

100

90

80

70

60
–20 0 20 40 60 80 100
temperature / °C

Which statement is correct?

A When immersed in boiling water, the resistance is 120 Ω.

B The resistance at the lower fixed point is 80 Ω.

C When the resistance is 100 Ω the temperature is 120 °C.

D The resistor can only be used at temperatures between 0 °C and 100 °C.

17 A night storage heater contains a large block of material that is heated electrically during the
night. During the day the block cools down, releasing thermal energy into the room.

Which thermal capacity and which night-time temperature increase will cause the most energy to
be stored by the block?

thermal capacity night-time


of block temperature increase

A large large
B large small
C small large
D small small
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11

18 Which row describes the process of condensation?

separation
change of state
of molecules

A gas to liquid decreases


B gas to liquid increases
C liquid to gas decreases
D liquid to gas increases

19 The metal surface of a kettle is hot.

What happens to the cool air outside the kettle when it comes into contact with the hot kettle?

A The density of the air decreases and the air falls.


B The density of the air decreases and the air rises.
C The density of the air increases and the air falls.
D The density of the air increases and the air rises.

20 Vacuum flasks usually have silvered walls that help to keep the contents of the flask hot.

Why are the walls silvered?

A to absorb thermal energy from the air around the flask


B to increase the rate of convection inside the flask
C to reduce energy loss to the surroundings by conduction
D to reflect thermal radiation back into the flask

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12

21 The diagrams show graphs of displacement against time for four waves. All the graphs are drawn
to the same scale.

Which wave has the largest amplitude and the highest frequency?

A B
displacement displacement

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D
displacement displacement

0 0
0 time 0 time

22 The diagram shows a cork with a weight attached so that the cork floats upright in water.

cork water surface


X Y

weight

Transverse waves travel across the water from X to Y.

In which direction do the waves make the cork move?

A → ← right and left

B ↑↓ up and down

C → only to the right

D ← only to the left

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13

23 Which conditions are necessary for light to be totally internally reflected?

the incident light is in angle of incidence

A the less dense medium less than the critical angle


B the less dense medium greater than the critical angle
C the more dense medium less than the critical angle
D the more dense medium greater than the critical angle

24 Which diagram shows the dispersion of white light by a glass prism?

A B

red
red red
white white violet violet
violet

C D

red red
red red
white violet violet white violet violet

25 The diagram shows radiation from a lamp passing through a prism.

screen
prism
P
red light

radiation from
lamp

Which type of radiation is found at P?

A γ-rays
B infrared
C ultraviolet
D X-rays
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14

26 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is
reflected from a shoal of fish. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.2 s. The speed of sound
in the water is 1500 m / s.

boat

shoal of fish

How far below the bottom of the boat is the shoal of fish?

A 450 m B 900 m C 1800 m D 3600 m

27 An observer stands at the finish line of a 100 m race. He wants to time the winner’s run. He starts
his stop-watch as soon as he sees the smoke from the starting gun instead of when he hears the
bang.

What is the reason for doing this?

A Light travels much faster than sound.


B There is a risk he might respond to an echo from a wall.
C Humans react slower to sound than to light.
D Humans react more quickly to sound than to light.

28 A soft iron bar is a long way from any magnetic field.

How can the material of the bar be described?

A It is magnetic and strongly magnetised.


B It is magnetic and unmagnetised.
C It is non-magnetic and strongly magnetised.
D It is non-magnetic and unmagnetised.

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15

29 An iron ball on a horizontal wooden table rolls near the north pole of a bar magnet which is lying
on the table.

Which diagram shows the most likely path of the ball, as seen from above the table?

A B

magnet S magnet S
N N

ball ball

C D

magnet S magnet S
N N

ball ball stops


here

30 Diagram 1 shows two thin, uncharged strips of plastic.

Diagram 2 shows the same strips after they have been rubbed with a dry cloth.

strips strips
of plastic of plastic

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which row describes the charge on the strips after rubbing, and the force between the strips after
rubbing?

charge on strips force between strips

A opposite attraction
B opposite repulsion
C the same attraction
D the same repulsion
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16

31 An ammeter and a voltmeter are used to determine the resistance of a resistor.

Which circuit diagram shows the ammeter and the voltmeter correctly connected?

A B C D

V A

V V A
R R
R
A
R
A V

32 The diagram shows a circuit.

What is connected in parallel with the thermistor?

A heater
B lamp
C light-dependent resistor
D variable resistor

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17

33 The circuit shows a relay being used to operate a mains lamp.

Two ammeters are labelled P and Q.

P
Q
A
A

mains
lamp

The variable resistor is used to vary the current in the relay coil. The mains lamp switches on
when there is a large enough current in the relay coil.

The graph shows how the reading on ammeter Q changes as the reading on ammeter P
increases.

0.20

reading on
0.15
ammeter Q / A
0.10

0.05

0.00
0.00 0.10 0.20 0.30 0.40 0.50 0.60
reading on ammeter P / A

What is the minimum current needed in the relay coil to switch on the mains lamp?

A 0.15 A B 0.20 A C 0.35 A D 0.60 A

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18

34 A lamp is to be connected in a circuit so that the potential difference (p.d.) across it can be varied
from 0 to 6 V.

Which circuit would be most suitable?

A B

6V 6V

C D

6V 6V

35 Which components are designed to improve the safe working of a mains electrical supply?

circuit earth
fuse
breaker wire

A   
B   
C   
D   

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19

36 A bar magnet is held near a solenoid. The coil is connected to a galvanometer.

solenoid
bar magnet

The magnet is moved into the coil of wire and then held stationary inside the coil.

Which graph shows how the induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) varies with time?

A B C D

e.m.f. e.m.f. e.m.f. e.m.f.

0 0 0 0
0 time 0 time 0 time 0 time

37 A wire XY lies between the poles of a magnet.

The diagram shows the upward force on the wire XY caused when there is an electric current in
the direction XY as shown.

X
current

force

N S

Three tests are made using this apparatus.

1 The current direction is reversed.


2 The N and S poles are swapped around.
3 The current is switched off.

Which will result in no change in the size of the force on the wire?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 only C 2 only D 3 only

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20

38 A simple model of the atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus.

Which row is correct?

charge on charge on
nucleus orbiting particles

A negative negative
B negative positive
C positive negative
D positive positive

39 Which statement explains the meaning of the half-life of a radioactive isotope?

A half the time taken for one nucleus of the isotope to decay
B half the time taken for the isotope to decay completely
C the time taken for half of the nuclei of the isotope to decay
D the time taken for one nucleus of the isotope to split in half

40 The diagram shows a lead-lined box used for storing radioactive sources.

Why is the inside of the box lined with lead?

A It helps the sources to stay radioactive for longer.


B It makes the box heavier.
C It makes the radioactive sources more stable.
D It reduces the amount of radiation that can escape from the box.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2019
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2019 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and
some Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2019
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 C 1

3 D 1

4 D 1

5 A 1

6 C 1

7 C 1

8 D 1

9 A 1

10 C 1

11 B 1

12 A 1

13 C 1

14 D 1

15 B 1

16 A 1

17 A 1

18 A 1

19 B 1

20 D 1

21 A 1

22 B 1

23 D 1

24 B 1

25 B 1

26 B 1

27 A 1

28 B 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2019
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 B 1

30 D 1

31 B 1

32 A 1

33 B 1

34 B 1

35 D 1

36 C 1

37 A 1

38 C 1

39 C 1

40 D 1

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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2575934791*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 20 printed pages.

IB19 06_0625_13/2RP
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1 The diagram shows a measuring cylinder containing liquid.

cm3
50

measuring
40
cylinder

30

20

10
liquid

What is the reading for the volume of liquid in the cylinder?

A 13.0 cm3 B 13.5 cm3 C 16.0 cm3 D 17.0 cm3

2 The diagram shows the speed-time graph for a car.

speed Y

0
0 time

Which row describes the motion of the car at point X and at point Y?

point X point Y

A at rest moving with constant speed


B moving with constant speed at rest
C moving with changing speed at rest
D moving with changing speed moving with constant speed

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3 A heavy metal ball falls vertically downwards through air past four equally spaced levels J, K, L
and M.

metal ball

level J

level K

level L

level M

The times taken to fall from one level to the next are measured.

Where is the speed of the ball greatest and which time is shortest?

speed is time is
greatest between shortest between

A J and K J and K
B J and K L and M
C L and M J and K
D L and M L and M

4 An object which has a mass of 600 kg is on the planet Mars.

The acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 4.0 m / s2.

What is the weight of the object on Mars?

A 60 N B 150 N C 2400 N D 6000 N

5 Two objects are placed on a balance, one on each side:

Which properties of the objects can be compared using the balance?

A weight, mass and volume


B weight and mass only
C volume and density
D density only

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6 X, Y and Z are three regularly shaped solid objects.

Their dimensions and masses are shown in the diagrams.

object X object Y

2 cm
3 cm
5 cm
10 cm 4 cm
6 cm

200 200
g g

electronic
object Z
balance
1 cm
1 cm

25 cm

50 g

Which objects have the same density?

A X, Y and Z B X and Y only C X and Z only D Y and Z only

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7 A car is driven from rest on a long straight road. The car engine exerts a constant driving force.

The diagram shows the horizontal forces acting on the car. The resistive forces are proportional
to the speed of the car.

resistive
driving force
forces
(from engine)

Why does the car eventually reach a maximum speed?

A The resistive forces decrease to make the acceleration of the car negative.
B The resistive forces decrease to make the acceleration of the car zero.
C The resistive forces increase to make the acceleration of the car negative.
D The resistive forces increase to make the acceleration of the car zero.

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8 A spring is suspended from a stand. Loads are added and the extensions are measured.

spring
stand

loads rule

Which graph shows the result of plotting extension against load?

A B

extension extension

0 0
0 load 0 load

C D

extension extension

0 0
0 load 0 load

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9 A wooden bar is pivoted at its centre so that it can rotate freely. Two equal forces F are applied to
the bar.

In which diagram is the turning effect greatest?

A B

pivot pivot

F F F
F

C D
F
pivot pivot

F
F
F

10 A machine is very efficient.

What does this mean?

A It produces a large amount of power.


B It uses very little energy.
C It wastes very little energy.
D It works very quickly.

11 A body is lifted against gravity.

Which equation shows the work done on the body?

A work done = change in distance moved by the body


B work done = change in energy of the body
C work done = change in force on the body
D work done = change in power of the body
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12 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

vacuum

glass tube

mercury h

A change is made and the vertical height h of the column increases.

Which change causes this increase?

A A liquid with a lower density than mercury has been used.


B Atmospheric pressure decreases.
C A narrower glass tube is used.
D The glass tube is tilted.

13 The diagram shows a stone suspended on a string under the surface of a liquid. The stone
experiences a pressure caused by the liquid.

string

stone

liquid

What would increase the pressure on the stone?

A decreasing the surface area of the stone


B increasing the mass of the stone
C lowering the stone deeper into the liquid
D using a liquid with a lower density

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14 Which statement is correct?

A A solid can flow.


B A solid can be compressed easily.
C A solid has a fixed shape.
D A solid takes the shape of its container.

15 On a hot summer day, the level of the water in a pond falls.

Which statement explains this?

A The least energetic water molecules escape from the surface and do not return.
B The least energetic water molecules escape from the surface and then return.
C The most energetic water molecules escape from the surface and do not return.
D The most energetic water molecules escape from the surface and then return.

16 Here are three statements about a liquid-in-glass thermometer with a Celsius scale.

1 The lower fixed point is the temperature at which pure water freezes.
2 The upper fixed point is the temperature at which pure water boils.
3 A scale is made by dividing the distance between the fixed points into equal
divisions.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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10

17 A night storage heater contains a large block of material that is heated electrically during the
night. During the day the block cools down, releasing thermal energy into the room.

Which thermal capacity and which night-time temperature increase will cause the most energy to
be stored by the block?

thermal capacity night-time


of block temperature increase

A large large
B large small
C small large
D small small

18 A student investigates the melting point of a pure substance. She heats the substance slowly and
takes readings of its temperature as the substance starts to melt and when it finishes melting.

Which statement is correct?

A The temperature decreases slightly as the substance melts.


B The temperature fluctuates as the substance melts.
C The temperature increases as the substance melts.
D The temperature stays the same as the substance melts.

19 A person holds an empty glass beaker and pours hot water into it.

Why does it take a few seconds before his hand starts to feel hot?

A Glass is a poor conductor of heat.


B Water is a poor conductor of heat.
C Glass is a better conductor of heat than water.
D Water is a better conductor of heat than glass.

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11

20 The metal surface of a kettle is hot.

What happens to the cool air outside the kettle when it comes into contact with the hot kettle?

A The density of the air decreases and the air falls.


B The density of the air decreases and the air rises.
C The density of the air increases and the air falls.
D The density of the air increases and the air rises.

21 A student draws a diagram to show two different properties of a water wave. The arrows show
the wave directions.

shallow deep
water water

Which two wave properties does the diagram show?

A refraction and diffraction


B reflection and dispersion
C reflection and diffraction
D reflection and refraction

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12

22 The diagram shows a cork with a weight attached so that the cork floats upright in water.

cork water surface


X Y

weight

Transverse waves travel across the water from X to Y.

In which direction do the waves make the cork move?

A → ← right and left

B ↑↓ up and down

C → only to the right

D ← only to the left

23 A student draws a ray diagram to show how a ray of light is reflected by a number of mirrors.

Which reflection has not been drawn correctly?

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13

24 Light passes through a glass block.

What is the path of the light?

air
glass

A B C D

25 The diagram shows radiation from a lamp passing through a prism.

screen
prism
P
red light

radiation from
lamp

Which type of radiation is found at P?

A γ-rays
B infrared
C ultraviolet
D X-rays

26 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is
reflected from a shoal of fish. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.2 s. The speed of sound
in the water is 1500 m / s.

boat

shoal of fish

How far below the bottom of the boat is the shoal of fish?

A 450 m B 900 m C 1800 m D 3600 m


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14

27 Which statement about ultrasound is correct?

A It has a higher frequency than audible sound, and it is a longitudinal wave.


B It has a higher frequency than audible sound, and it is a transverse wave.
C It has a lower frequency than audible sound, and it is a longitudinal wave.
D It has a lower frequency than audible sound, and it is a transverse wave.

28 A metal bar is placed inside a current-carrying coil, as shown in diagram 1.

There is a small current in the coil. The bar holds a few nails, as shown in diagram 2.

nails

diagram 1 diagram 2

When there is no current in the coil, the nails drop off.

Which row is correct?

metal from which effect of a larger


the bar is made current in the coil

A soft iron it makes no difference


B soft iron the bar holds more nails
C steel it makes no difference
D steel the bar holds more nails

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15

29 An iron ball on a horizontal wooden table rolls near the north pole of a bar magnet which is lying
on the table.

Which diagram shows the most likely path of the ball, as seen from above the table?

A B

magnet S magnet S
N N

ball ball

C D

magnet S magnet S
N N

ball ball stops


here

30 Diagram 1 shows two thin, uncharged strips of plastic.

Diagram 2 shows the same strips after they have been rubbed with a dry cloth.

strips strips
of plastic of plastic

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which row describes the charge on the strips after rubbing, and the force between the strips after
rubbing?

charge on strips force between strips

A opposite attraction
B opposite repulsion
C the same attraction
D the same repulsion
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16

31 A battery stores chemical potential energy. The battery is connected to a resistor.

As the battery runs down, what happens to its chemical energy?

The energy is transferred by and ends up as

A electrical working internal energy in the resistor

B electrical working potential energy in the resistor


C mechanical working internal energy in the resistor
D mechanical working potential energy in the resistor

32 The diagram shows a circuit including a lamp, an electric bell and three switches S1, S2 and S3.

The lamp and bell are not faulty.

S1

S2

S3

The bell is ringing but the lamp is not lit.

Which switches are closed?

A S1 only
B S1 and S2 only
C S1 and S3 only
D S1, S2 and S3

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17

33 A student is designing a lighting circuit for a dolls’ house. He sets up two different circuits.

Each circuit contains a 12 V power supply and three identical lamps.

Each lamp is designed to operate at normal brightness when connected individually to a 12 V


supply.

12 V power 12 V power
supply supply

12
12

circuit 1 circuit 2

Which statement is correct?

A In circuit 1, each of the lamps is at normal brightness.


B In circuit 1, if one lamp fails, the other lamps remain lit.
C In circuit 2, if one lamp fails, the other lamps remain lit.
D In circuit 2, the current from the power supply is less than in circuit 1.

34 A lamp is to be connected in a circuit so that the potential difference (p.d.) across it can be varied
from 0 to 6 V.

Which circuit would be most suitable?

A B

6V 6V

C D

6V 6V

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18

35 A simple wiring diagram for an electric cooker is shown.

electric cooker

metal casing
live
neutral
earth

connection to casing

Why is there a wire connecting the metal case of the cooker to earth?

A It improves the efficiency of the cooker.


B It prevents the metal case from becoming too hot when the cooker is left on.
C It reduces the risk of an electric shock if the live wire touches the metal case.
D The electric cooker will not switch on without it.

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19

36 In an experiment, a wire is held above a compass needle as shown.

N S

An electric current is switched on in the wire and the compass needle is deflected.

Which row explains why this happens and then describes what happens when the current is
reversed?

what happens when


why this happens
the current is reversed
A there is a magnetic the compass needle deflects
field inside the wire in the opposite direction
B there is a magnetic there is no effect on
field inside the wire the compass needle
C there is a magnetic the compass needle deflects
field around the wire in the opposite direction
D there is a magnetic there is no effect on
field around the wire the compass needle

37 Which device relies upon the magnetic effect of an electric current?

A fuse
B relay
C thermistor
D variable resistor

38 Which statement about the structure of an atom is correct?

A It contains positively charged particles only.


B It contains negatively charged particles only.
C It contains no charged particles.
D It contains positively charged particles and negatively charged particles.

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20

39 Which statement about γ-radiation is correct?

A It consists of very small charged particles.


B It is a form of electromagnetic radiation.

C It is less penetrating than β-radiation.

D It is more highly ionising than α-radiation.

40 A radioactive element undergoes α-decay.

Which statement is not correct?

A A different element is formed.


B Radiation is emitted from the nucleus.
C The decay is a random process.
D The number of particles in the nucleus stays the same.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2019
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2019 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and
some Cambridge O Level components.

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2019
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 D 1

3 D 1

4 C 1

5 B 1

6 C 1

7 D 1

8 D 1

9 A 1

10 C 1

11 B 1

12 A 1

13 C 1

14 C 1

15 C 1

16 D 1

17 A 1

18 D 1

19 A 1

20 B 1

21 D 1

22 B 1

23 C 1

24 C 1

25 B 1

26 B 1

27 A 1

28 B 1

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2019
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 B 1

30 D 1

31 A 1

32 C 1

33 C 1

34 B 1

35 C 1

36 C 1

37 B 1

38 D 1

39 B 1

40 D 1

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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*6108751254*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB19 11_0625_11/4RP
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1 A student measures the volume of a small irregularly-shaped stone.

Which apparatus must be used?

A a measuring cylinder containing water and a ruler only


B a measuring cylinder containing water only
C an empty measuring cylinder and a ruler only
D a ruler only

2 The graph shows how the speed of an object changes with time.

12
speed
m/s 8

0
0 2 4 6 8 10
time / s

How far does the object travel in 10 seconds?

A 8m B 10 m C 40 m D 80 m

3 A car travels at an average speed of 60 km / h for 15 minutes.

How far does the car travel in 15 minutes?

A 4.0 km B 15 km C 240 km D 900 km

4 Which quantity is a force due to a gravitational field?

A density
B mass
C weight
D volume

5 The density of air is 1.2 kg / m3.

A room has dimensions 5.0 m × 4.0 m × 3.0 m.

What is the mass of the air in the room?

A 0.02 kg B 0.10 kg C 50 kg D 72 kg

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6 A student measures the length of a spring. She then attaches different weights to the spring. She
measures the length of the spring for each weight.

The table shows her results.

weight / N length / mm

0 520
1.0 524
2.0 528
3.0 533
4.0 537
5.0 540

What is the extension of the spring with a weight of 3.0 N attached to it?

A 4 mm B 5 mm C 12 mm D 13 mm

7 Which statement gives a complete description of any object that is in equilibrium?

A There are no forces acting.


B There is no resultant force.
C There is no resultant force and no resultant turning effect.
D There is no resultant turning effect.

8 The diagram shows a lamp.

lampshade

pole

centre of mass
ground
base

Changing which feature increases the stability of the lamp?

A a larger lampshade
B a longer pole
C a heavier base
D a higher centre of mass

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9 Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.

Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car slows down?

A chemical
B elastic
C thermal
D sound

10 Which does not transfer useful energy?

A emitting a sound wave


B measuring a temperature
C passing an electric current
D pushing a box along the floor

11 The power output from solar panels is recorded every day for a month.

The graph shows the output recorded.

power
output

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
day of the month

Which conclusion can be drawn from this graph?

A The power output from the solar panels changes from day to day.
B The power output from the solar panels is cheap to produce.
C Solar panels create no pollution.
D Solar energy is renewable.

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12 A drawing pin (thumb tack) has a sharp point at one end and a flat surface at the other end.

sharp point flat surface

The pin is pushed into a wooden board.

How do the pressure and the force at the sharp point compare with the pressure and the force on
the flat surface?

force at the sharp point pressure at the sharp point

A greater than on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
B greater than on the flat surface less than on the flat surface
C the same as on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
D the same as on the flat surface less than on the flat surface

13 The table shows four forces. Each force acts on a different surface.

Which row shows the least pressure?

size of the area of the surface


force / N / m2

A 0.30 0.040
B 10 2.0
C 60 15
D 1200 40

14 A test-tube contains 1.0 cm3 of liquid water at 100 °C. The liquid water boils to form 1600 cm3 of
steam.

What is the reason for the large increase in volume?

A Steam molecules are bigger than water molecules.


B The average distance between the molecules is much greater in the steam.
C The molecules do not move until the water turns into a gas.
D There are more steam molecules than there were water molecules.

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15 Which statement about the evaporation of a liquid is correct?

A The least energetic molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of the liquid
decreases.
B The least energetic molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of the liquid
increases.
C The most energetic molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of the liquid
decreases.
D The most energetic molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of the liquid
increases.

16 Which effect is caused by thermal expansion?

A a metal surface heating up in direct sunlight


B ice-cream melting on a hot day
C a railway track buckling on a hot day
D ice forming on a pond on a cold day

17 A liquid-in-glass thermometer uses a change in a property of a liquid to measure temperature.

Which property is used?

A mass
B thermal capacity
C volume
D weight

18 The diagram shows four labelled changes of state between solid, liquid and gas.

P Q

solid liquid gas

S R

Which changes need an energy input?

A P and Q B Q and R C R and S D S and P

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19 A glass test-tube containing water is heated at the top. The water at the top boils, but the water at
the bottom remains cold.

water

test-tube
heat

Which row explains why the water at the bottom of the test-tube remains cold?

glass water

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor


B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor
C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor
D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

20 In countries where it is usually hot, houses are often painted white.

What is the reason for this?

A White surfaces are good reflectors of radiant energy.


B White surfaces are good transmitters of radiant energy.
C White surfaces are good absorbers of radiant energy.
D White surfaces are good emitters of radiant energy.

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21 The diagram shows wavefronts on the surface of water, viewed from above.

region 1 deep water


region 2 shallow water

Which row is correct for the wavefronts moving from region 1 to region 2?

the speeds of
name of process the wavefronts in
regions 1 and 2 are

A diffraction different
B diffraction the same
C refraction different
D refraction the same

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22 Plane water waves approach a narrow gap in a barrier.

Which diagram shows the diffraction pattern that would occur?

A B

C D

23 The diagram shows the image of a clock in a plane mirror.

Which is the actual time?

A 04:15 B 04:45 C 07:15 D 07:45

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10

24 Total internal reflection may occur when light reaches an air-glass boundary.

Under which conditions is light totally internally reflected?

medium in which light


travels towards the angle of incidence
boundary

A air greater than the critical angle


B air less than the critical angle
C glass greater than the critical angle
D glass less than the critical angle

25 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum.

radio
γ-rays X-rays ultraviolet visible light infrared microwaves
waves

increasing ......................

A word is missing from the label below the spectrum.

Which word is missing?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

26 A man hears a starting pistol fire 1.5 seconds after he sees a puff of smoke from the pistol. The
sound and the smoke are made at the same time. The starting pistol is 450 metres away from the
man.

What is the speed of sound calculated from this observation?

A 150 m / s B 300 m / s C 330 m / s D 625 m / s

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11

27 A student has a bar magnet. He brings the magnet close to an object. The magnet and the object
repel each other.

What must the object be?

A another permanent magnet


B any magnetic material
C a block of wood
D a piece of copper

28 Two soft-iron rods are placed end-to-end inside a coil. The coil is connected to a battery.

coil

soft-iron rod soft-iron rod

The connections from the battery to the coil are now reversed.

What happens to the soft-iron rods in each case?

battery connections battery connections


as shown reversed

A rods attract rods attract


B rods attract rods repel
C rods repel rods attract
D rods repel rods repel

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12

29 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Why has the rod become positively charged?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained neutrons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost neutrons.

30 A teacher asks her class “What quantity can be recorded in volts?”.

Student 1 says “The potential difference across a resistor”.

Student 2 says “The rating of a fuse”.

Student 3 says “The electromotive force of a battery”.

Which students are correct?

A 1 only B 1 and 2 C 1 and 3 D 2 and 3

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13

31 The circuit shows two lamps connected to a d.c. supply.

The same lamps and power supply are arranged in different ways, as shown.

P Q R

In which circuits will the lamps be the same brightness as in the original circuit?

A Q only B P and Q only C P and R only D P, Q and R

32 Identical resistors are connected together to form arrangements X, Y and Z.

X Y Z

What is the correct order of the resistances of the arrangements from the largest to the smallest?

A X→Y→Z

B Y→X→Z

C Z→X→Y

D Z→Y→X

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14

33 A student uses 100 cm of resistance wire XY in a circuit to make a potential divider.

sliding contact

l
V

He changes the length of wire l by moving the sliding contact along the resistance wire.

Which graph shows how the voltmeter reading changes as the length of wire l is increased from
zero to 100 cm?

A B

voltmeter voltmeter
reading / V reading / V

0 0
0 100 0 100
l / cm l / cm

C D

voltmeter voltmeter
reading / V reading / V

0 0
0 100 0 100
l / cm l / cm

34 Where must a fuse be connected in a mains electric circuit?

A the earth wire only


B the live wire only
C the neutral wire only
D the live wire and the earth wire

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15

35 A student investigates the output voltage induced across a coil of wire by a bar magnet.

When will the induced voltage have the greatest value?

A The student slowly moves the bar magnet into the coil of wire.
B The student leaves the bar magnet stationary in the coil of wire.
C The student quickly removes the bar magnet from the coil of wire.
D The student places the bar magnet at rest outside the coil of wire.

36 There is a current in a wire. The direction of the current is out of the page.

Which diagram shows the magnetic field pattern produced?

A B

key
wire carrying a current
out of the page

C D

37 Which diagram shows a possible structure of a neutral atom?

A B

key

proton

neutron

electron
C D

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16

38 A nuclide of cobalt contains 27 protons and 32 neutrons.

Which symbol represents this nuclide?


27 32 32 59
A 59 Co B 27 Co C 59 Co D 27 Co

39 An isotope of radon is radioactive. It decays by emitting an α-particle.

What happens to the nucleus of a radon atom during the emission of the α-particle?

A It becomes the nucleus of a different isotope of radon with fewer neutrons.


B It becomes the nucleus of a different isotope of radon with more neutrons.
C It becomes the nucleus of an element with a higher proton number.
D It becomes the nucleus of an element with a lower proton number.

40 Why are some radioactive sources stored in boxes made from lead?

A Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.


B Lead decreases the half-life of radioactive sources.
C Lead increases the half-life of radioactive sources.
D Lead repels emissions from the radioactive sources.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0625/11/O/N/19

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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2019
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2019 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2019

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 C 1

3 B 1

4 C 1

5 D 1

6 D 1

7 C 1

8 C 1

9 C 1

10 B 1

11 A 1

12 C 1

13 C 1

14 B 1

15 C 1

16 C 1

17 C 1

18 A 1

19 D 1

20 A 1

21 C 1

22 C 1

23 C 1

24 C 1

25 D 1

26 B 1

27 A 1

28 A 1

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2019

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 C 1

31 D 1

32 D 1

33 A 1

34 B 1

35 C 1

36 B 1

37 A 1

38 D 1

39 D 1

40 A 1

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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5658967703*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB19 11_0625_12/4RP
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1 A measuring cylinder contains 10 cm3 of water.

A piece of steel is lowered into the measuring cylinder until it is fully submerged. The volume
reading increases to 12 cm3.

A second piece of steel is lowered into the measuring cylinder so that it is also fully submerged.
The volume reading increases to 15 cm3.

Which row shows the volumes of the two pieces of steel?

volume of first volume of second


piece of steel / cm3 piece of steel / cm3

A 2 3
B 2 5
C 12 3
D 12 15

2 The graph shows the motion of a car for a five-second period.

speed

0
0 3 5
time / s

Which row is correct?

the car is moving at


the car is at rest at
a constant speed at

A 0.0 s 2.0 s
B 0.0 s 4.0 s
C 4.0 s 0.0 s
D 4.0 s 2.0 s

3 A car travels at an average speed of 60 km / h for 15 minutes.

How far does the car travel in 15 minutes?

A 4.0 km B 15 km C 240 km D 900 km

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4 A box is placed on the ground. An upward force of 15 N is needed to lift the box at constant
speed.

Which row correctly describes the box?

mass of the box weight of the box

A 1.5 kg 15 N
B 15 N 1.5 kg
C 15 N 150 kg
D 150 kg 15 N

5 The table gives the mass and the volume of three objects P, Q and R.

object mass / g volume / cm3

P 23 36
Q 170 720
R 240 340

Which objects can float in a liquid of density 0.85 g / cm3?

A P and Q only
B P and R only
C Q and R only
D P, Q and R

6 A student measures the length of a spring. She then attaches different weights to the spring. She
measures the length of the spring for each weight.

The table shows her results.

weight / N length / mm

0 520
1.0 524
2.0 528
3.0 533
4.0 537
5.0 540

What is the extension of the spring with a weight of 3.0 N attached to it?

A 4 mm B 5 mm C 12 mm D 13 mm

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7 What is the unit of the moment of a force?

A N B N / kg C N/m D Nm

8 The diagrams show a block of wood on a frictionless surface. In each diagram, the block has two
forces acting on its sides.

E F G H
2N
2N 2N 2N 2N 2N 2N
2N

Which diagrams show the block in equilibrium?

A E, G and H only
B E and F only
C G and H only
D E, F, G and H

9 Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.

Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car slows down?

A chemical
B elastic
C thermal
D sound

10 What is the unit of thermal energy?

A °C B N C J D W

11 Which source of energy is non-renewable?

A oil
B solar
C tidal
D wind

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12 A drawing pin (thumb tack) has a sharp point at one end and a flat surface at the other end.

sharp point flat surface

The pin is pushed into a wooden board.

How do the pressure and the force at the sharp point compare with the pressure and the force on
the flat surface?

force at the sharp point pressure at the sharp point

A greater than on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
B greater than on the flat surface less than on the flat surface
C the same as on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
D the same as on the flat surface less than on the flat surface

13 A metal block of weight W rests on a table. In order to calculate the pressure that the block exerts
on the table, one other quantity must be known.

What is the other quantity?

A the area of contact between the block and the table


B the density of the block
C the mass of the block
D the volume of the block

14 Which row describes the arrangement and the motion of the molecules in a gas?

arrangement motion

A far apart move freely


B far apart vibrate only
C tightly packed move freely
D tightly packed vibrate only

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15 A driver of a car measures the pressure of the air in the tyres. He measures the pressure again
after a long journey. The pressure reading has increased.

Which row states what has happened to the speed of the air molecules and the temperature of
the air in the tyres?

speed of molecules temperature

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

16 Some water in a glass flask is gently heated.

water level in tube

glass tube

glass flask
water

heat

Why does the water level in the glass tube rise during heating?

A Only the glass flask expands.


B Only the water expands.
C The glass flask expands more than the water.
D The water expands more than the glass flask.

17 What is the temperature difference between the fixed points on the °C temperature scale?

A 10 °C B 100 °C C 110 °C D 120 °C

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18 The diagram shows four labelled changes of state between solid, liquid and gas.

P Q

solid liquid gas

S R

Which changes need an energy input?

A P and Q B Q and R C R and S D S and P

19 Which method of thermal transfer occurs when the density of some of a liquid decreases and the
liquid moves upwards?

A conduction
B convection
C evaporation
D radiation

20 The diagram shows a tent made from a new material.

new material

What type of material should the tent be made of to reflect the radiant energy from the Sun?

material material
texture surface colour

A dull black
B dull white
C shiny black
D shiny white

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21 Which row correctly describes the vibrations of a transverse wave and also gives a correct
example of a transverse wave?

example of a
description of vibration
transverse wave

A right-angles to the wave direction sound


B right-angles to the wave direction water wave
C parallel to the wave direction sound
D parallel to the wave direction water wave

22 Plane water waves approach a narrow gap in a barrier.

Which diagram shows the diffraction pattern that would occur?

A B

C D

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23 A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror. A student measures the angle of incidence i and the
angle of reflection r.

incident i r reflected
ray ray

The student varies the angle of incidence and then plots a graph of r against i.

What does the graph look like?

A B C D

r r r r

0 0 0 0
0 i 0 i 0 i 0 i

24 The diagram shows the path of a ray of green light through a glass prism.

The angle of deviation is the angle between the incident ray and the ray leaving the prism.

prism
angle of
incident ray deviation
of green light

When a ray of white light is incident on the prism, it separates into the colours of the visible
spectrum.

What is the name of this effect and which colour of light has the smallest angle of deviation?

colour with smallest


name of effect
angle of deviation

A diffraction red

B diffraction violet

C dispersion red

D dispersion violet

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10

25 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum.

radio
γ-rays X-rays ultraviolet visible light infrared microwaves
waves

increasing ......................

A word is missing from the label below the spectrum.

Which word is missing?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

26 A man hears a starting pistol fire 1.5 seconds after he sees a puff of smoke from the pistol. The
sound and the smoke are made at the same time. The starting pistol is 450 metres away from the
man.

What is the speed of sound calculated from this observation?

A 150 m / s B 300 m / s C 330 m / s D 625 m / s

27 A bar magnet is slowly moved towards an unmagnetised metal object X.

bar magnet
S N X

When it is a few centimetres away, the object begins to slide towards the magnet.

Why does this happen?

A X is a non-magnetic material and magnetism is induced in it.


B X is a non-magnetic material and magnetism is not induced in it.
C X is a magnetic material and magnetism is induced in it.
D X is a magnetic material and magnetism is not induced in it.

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11

28 Two soft-iron rods are placed end-to-end inside a coil. The coil is connected to a battery.

coil

soft-iron rod soft-iron rod

The connections from the battery to the coil are now reversed.

What happens to the soft-iron rods in each case?

battery connections battery connections


as shown reversed

A rods attract rods attract


B rods attract rods repel
C rods repel rods attract
D rods repel rods repel

29 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Why has the rod become positively charged?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained neutrons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost neutrons.

30 Which quantity has the same unit as potential difference (p.d.)?

A current
B electromotive force (e.m.f.)
C resistance
D moment of a force

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31 A student determines the resistance of an electric lamp.

He measures the current in the lamp and the potential difference (p.d.) across it.

Which circuit did he use?

A B

A V V

C D

V V

A A

32 Identical resistors are connected together to form arrangements X, Y and Z.

X Y Z

What is the correct order of the resistances of the arrangements from the largest to the smallest?

A X→Y→Z

B Y→X→Z

C Z→X→Y

D Z→Y→X

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13

33 The circuit shows a wire WX connected to a cell.

100 cm
W X

The potential difference (p.d.) between W and X is 1.5 V.

What is the reading on the voltmeter?

A 0.4 V B 0.6 V C 0.9 V D 4.0 V

34 Where must a fuse be connected in a mains electric circuit?

A the earth wire only


B the live wire only
C the neutral wire only
D the live wire and the earth wire

35 The N-pole of a magnet is moved into a coil of wire connected to a galvanometer.

coil

S N

The needle of the galvanometer moves.

Which situation must give a smaller galvanometer reading?

A Use a coil with fewer turns and a stronger magnet.


B Use a coil with fewer turns and a weaker magnet.
C Use a coil with more turns and a stronger magnet.
D Use a coil with more turns and a weaker magnet.

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14

36 The diagram shows a conductor carrying current in a direction out of the plane of the page.

Which set of arrows represents the direction of the magnetic field due to this current?

A B

key
wire carrying a current
out of the paper
C D

37 The diagrams show the simple atomic structure for two neutral atoms X and Y of different
elements.

X Y

Which row is correct?

atom with atom with a more


more electrons positively charged nucleus

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

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15

38 A nuclide of chlorine has the symbol shown.

35
17Cl

What is the nucleon number of this nuclide of chlorine?

A 17 B 18 C 35 D 52

39 Which type of radiation can be stopped by a sheet of paper?

A α-particles

B β-particles

C γ-rays
D Χ-rays

40 Why are some radioactive sources stored in boxes made from lead?

A Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.


B Lead decreases the half-life of radioactive sources.
C Lead increases the half-life of radioactive sources.
D Lead repels emissions from the radioactive sources.

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16

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2019
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2019 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2019

Question Answer Mark

1 A 1

2 B 1

3 B 1

4 A 1

5 D 1

6 D 1

7 D 1

8 C 1

9 C 1

10 C 1

11 A 1

12 C 1

13 A 1

14 A 1

15 D 1

16 D 1

17 B 1

18 A 1

19 B 1

20 D 1

21 B 1

22 C 1

23 C 1

24 C 1

25 D 1

26 B 1

27 C 1

28 A 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2019

Question Answer Mark

29 C 1

30 B 1

31 D 1

32 D 1

33 B 1

34 B 1

35 B 1

36 A 1

37 D 1

38 C 1

39 A 1

40 A 1

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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8984949399*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB19 11_0625_13/4RP
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1 A student uses a ruler to find the volume of water in a tank.

She measures the lengths EF and FG.

H
J
K
water G

E F

What other length does she need to measure?

A FJ B FK C HI D IJ

2 An object begins to fall close to the Earth’s surface. Air resistance can be ignored.

Which statement about the object’s acceleration is correct?

A The acceleration is constant.


B The acceleration decreases as the body falls.
C The acceleration increases as the body falls.
D The acceleration is zero.

3 A car travels at an average speed of 60 km / h for 15 minutes.

How far does the car travel in 15 minutes?

A 4.0 km B 15 km C 240 km D 900 km

4 Which equation shows the relationship between the weight W and the mass m of an object?

m
A W=
g

B W = mg
C W=m+g

g
D W=
m

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5 Four hollow glass spheres P, Q, R and S each have a mass of 72 g.

Their volumes are given in the table.

volume / cm3

P 55
Q 65
R 75
S 85

Which spheres sink in a liquid of density 0.9 g / cm3?

A P, Q and R B Q, R and S C R and S only D S only

6 A student measures the length of a spring. She then attaches different weights to the spring. She
measures the length of the spring for each weight.

The table shows her results.

weight / N length / mm

0 520
1.0 524
2.0 528
3.0 533
4.0 537
5.0 540

What is the extension of the spring with a weight of 3.0 N attached to it?

A 4 mm B 5 mm C 12 mm D 13 mm

7 The diagram shows a uniform metre rule. The rule is pivoted at its mid-point. A downward force of
4.0 N acts on the rule at the 5 cm mark. The rule is held by a string at the 30 cm mark. The rule is
in equilibrium.

string metre rule


0 cm mark 100 cm mark
5 50

30
pivot

4.0 N

What is the upward force that the string exerts on the rule?

A 0.67 N B 4.0 N C 6.0 N D 9.0 N


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8 The diagrams represent the only two forces acting on an object.

Which object could be moving to the right at constant speed?

A B

1.0 N 1.0 N 1.0 N 1.0 N

C D

1.0 N 2.0 N 2.0 N 1.0 N

9 Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.

Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car slows down?

A chemical
B elastic
C thermal
D sound

10 Three situations are listed.

1 someone blowing air into a party balloon


2 a crane lifting a block of concrete
3 a pile of books at rest on a shelf

In which situations is work being done?

A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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11 A boy lifts a brick from the ground and places it at rest on a higher shelf. He does 30 J of work
against gravity.

Which row correctly describes the final energies of the brick?

gravitational potential kinetic energy gained


energy gained by the brick by the brick
/J /J

A 0 30
B 15 15
C 30 0
D 27 3

12 A drawing pin (thumb tack) has a sharp point at one end and a flat surface at the other end.

sharp point flat surface

The pin is pushed into a wooden board.

How do the pressure and the force at the sharp point compare with the pressure and the force on
the flat surface?

force at the sharp point pressure at the sharp point

A greater than on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
B greater than on the flat surface less than on the flat surface
C the same as on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
D the same as on the flat surface less than on the flat surface

13 Pressure is related to force and area.

Which situation cannot be explained using this relationship?

A Using a longer spanner than normal to undo a tight nut.


B Hammering a nail into a piece of wood.
C Tractors using wide tyres in a muddy field.
D A sharp kitchen knife cutting vegetables more easily than a blunt one.

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14 Which row compares the separation and the motion of the molecules of a hot gas with those of a
cool liquid? (Both the gas and the liquid are at the same pressure.)

separation motion

A greater for a gas faster for a gas


B greater for a gas slower for a gas
C smaller for a gas faster for a gas
D smaller for a gas slower for a gas

15 A fixed mass of gas is trapped in a container. The temperature of the gas is increased but the
volume of the gas is kept constant.

fixed
mass
of gas

How does this change affect the kinetic energy of the molecules and the pressure on the walls of
the container?

kinetic energy pressure

A increases increases
B stays the same increases
C increases decreases
D decreases increases

16 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

liquid thread

°C
–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110

When the temperature of the thermometer rises, the changes produced cause the liquid thread to
move to the right.

Why does this happen when the temperature of the thermometer rises?

A Gases contract and liquids expand.


B Gases contract and solids expand.
C Liquids expand more than gases.
D Liquids expand more than solids.

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17 A liquid-in-glass thermometer has a range from –10 °C to 110 °C.

What are the fixed point temperatures used when calibrating this thermometer in °C?

A –10 °C and 0 °C

B –10 °C and 110 °C

C 0 °C and 100 °C

D 0 °C and 110 °C

18 The diagram shows four labelled changes of state between solid, liquid and gas.

P Q

solid liquid gas

S R

Which changes need an energy input?

A P and Q B Q and R C R and S D S and P

19 A beaker contains some cold water. A purple crystal is placed on the bottom of the beaker. The
beaker is gently heated beneath the crystal. The crystal dissolves in the water. The colour
spreads, as shown in the diagram.

gentle heat

Three students each make a statement about the experiment.

Student 1 says the purple water is less dense than the rest of the water.

Student 2 says the purple water is warmer than the rest of the water.

Student 3 says all of the water will eventually get heated, even though water is a poor conductor
of thermal energy.

Which students are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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20 Why are the outside walls of houses often painted white in very hot countries?

A White surfaces are good absorbers of infrared radiation.


B White surfaces are good emitters of infrared radiation.
C White surfaces are poor absorbers of infrared radiation.
D White surfaces are poor reflectors of infrared radiation.

21 Which type of wave is not an example of a transverse wave?

A sound wave
B microwave
C infrared wave
D radio wave

22 Plane water waves approach a narrow gap in a barrier.

Which diagram shows the diffraction pattern that would occur?

A B

C D

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23 A person stands 1.0 m in front of a plane mirror. The mirror is moved away from the person at a
speed of 1.0 m / s.

Which statement is correct?

A The image moves away from the person at a speed of 1.0 m / s.


B The image moves away from the person at a speed of 2.0 m / s.
C The image moves towards the person at a speed of 1.0 m / s.
D The image moves towards the person at a speed of 2.0 m / s.

24 Which diagram shows total internal reflection of light by a glass prism?

A B C D

25 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum.

radio
γ-rays X-rays ultraviolet visible light infrared microwaves
waves

increasing ......................

A word is missing from the label below the spectrum.

Which word is missing?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

26 A man hears a starting pistol fire 1.5 seconds after he sees a puff of smoke from the pistol. The
sound and the smoke are made at the same time. The starting pistol is 450 metres away from the
man.

What is the speed of sound calculated from this observation?

A 150 m / s B 300 m / s C 330 m / s D 625 m / s

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10

27 The diagram represents a magnetic field. The field increases in strength from left to right.

A small compass is placed at P.

Which way will the compass needle point?

A B C D
N

N N

28 Two soft-iron rods are placed end-to-end inside a coil. The coil is connected to a battery.

coil

soft-iron rod soft-iron rod

The connections from the battery to the coil are now reversed.

What happens to the soft-iron rods in each case?

battery connections battery connections


as shown reversed

A rods attract rods attract


B rods attract rods repel
C rods repel rods attract
D rods repel rods repel

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11

29 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Why has the rod become positively charged?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained neutrons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost neutrons.

30 A resistor is connected to a battery. There is a current in the resistor.

What is the main energy change?

A Chemical energy is converted into thermal energy.


B Chemical energy is converted into gravitational potential energy.
C Nuclear energy is converted into thermal energy.
D Nuclear energy is converted into gravitational potential energy.

31 Lamps X and Y are designed to operate at normal brightness when each are connected to a 3.0 V
supply.

Lamp Z is designed to operate at normal brightness when connected to a 6.0 V supply.

In which circuit do all three lamps operate at normal brightness?

A B C D

6V 6V 3V 6V

X Y X X

X Y Z
Z Y Y

Z Z

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12

32 Identical resistors are connected together to form arrangements X, Y and Z.

X Y Z

What is the correct order of the resistances of the arrangements from the largest to the smallest?

A X→Y→Z

B Y→X→Z

C Z→X→Y

D Z→Y→X

33 Which circuit shows a variable resistor used to control the brightness of a lamp?

A B C D

34 Where must a fuse be connected in a mains electric circuit?

A the earth wire only


B the live wire only
C the neutral wire only
D the live wire and the earth wire

35 A step-up transformer produces a 60 V a.c. output from a 12 V a.c. input.

There are 50 turns on the secondary coil.

How many turns are there on the primary coil?

A 5 B 10 C 50 D 250

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13

36 A student uses a balance, a magnet and a power supply to determine the force on a wire in a
magnetic field.

The wire is held between the poles of the magnet.

The student switches on the power supply.

The diagrams show the readings with and without a current in the wire.

power supply power supply


off on
wire wire

N N
S magnet S

108 g 107 g
balance

no current in wire current in wire

The student reverses the current in the wire. The magnitude of the current does not change.

What is the new reading on the balance?

A 106 g B 107 g C 108 g D 109 g

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37 The diagram represents a neutral atom.

nucleus

Which row identifies each type of particle in the diagram?

A electron neutron proton


B electron proton neutron
C neutron electron proton
D proton electron neutron

38 An iron nuclide is represented by the symbol shown.

56
26Fe

Which statements about a nucleus of this iron nuclide are correct?

1 The nucleus contains 56 neutrons.


2 The nucleon number is 30.
3 The proton number is 26.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

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39 Three types of radiation that can cause ionisation are α-, β- and γ-radiation.

Which row identifies the least and the most ionising of these radiations?

least most
ionising ionising

A α β
B α γ
C γ β
D γ α

40 Why are some radioactive sources stored in boxes made from lead?

A Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.


B Lead decreases the half-life of radioactive sources.
C Lead increases the half-life of radioactive sources.
D Lead repels emissions from the radioactive sources.

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16

BLANK PAGE

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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2019
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2019 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2019

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 A 1

3 B 1

4 B 1

5 A 1

6 D 1

7 D 1

8 A 1

9 C 1

10 B 1

11 C 1

12 C 1

13 A 1

14 A 1

15 A 1

16 D 1

17 C 1

18 A 1

19 D 1

20 C 1

21 A 1

22 C 1

23 B 1

24 C 1

25 D 1

26 B 1

27 C 1

28 A 1

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2019

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 A 1

31 B 1

32 D 1

33 B 1

34 B 1

35 B 1

36 D 1

37 A 1

38 D 1

39 D 1

40 A 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) February/March 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*6993319596*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 03_0625_12/5RP
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1 The diagram shows a rectangular metal sheet close to two rulers.

30

metal sheet
20

10

cm
0

0 cm 10 20 30 40 50

What is the area of the metal sheet?

A 700 cm2 B 875 cm2 C 900 cm2 D 1125 cm2

2 The graph shows how the speed of a car changes with time over part of a journey.

speed 2
1
3
4

0
0 time

Which section of the graph shows acceleration and which section of the graph shows
deceleration?

acceleration deceleration

A 1 2
B 1 3
C 2 4
D 3 1

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3 A steel ball is dropped from the top floor of a building. Air resistance can be ignored.

Which statement describes the motion of the ball?

A The ball falls with constant acceleration.


B The ball falls with constant speed.
C The ball falls with decreasing speed.
D The ball falls with increasing acceleration.

4 Diagram 1 shows a piece of flexible material that contains many pockets of air. Diagram 2 shows
the same piece of flexible material after it has been compressed so that its volume decreases.

diagram 1 diagram 2
(before compression) (after compression)

What happens to the mass and to the weight of the flexible material when it is compressed?

mass weight

A increases increases
B increases no change
C no change increases
D no change no change

5 On the Moon, the gravitational field strength g is 1.6 N / kg.

An object has a mass of 2.0 kg.

What is the weight of the object on the Moon?

A 0N B 1.3 N C 3.2 N D 20.0 N

6 A measuring cylinder contains 40 cm3 of water.

A solid metal ball is dropped into the water and the water level rises to 56 cm3.

The mass of the ball is 80 g.

What is the density of the metal from which the ball is made?

A 0.20 g / cm3 B 1.4 g / cm3 C 2.0 g / cm3 D 5.0 g / cm3

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7 A car travels along a horizontal road at constant speed. Three horizontal forces act on the car.
The diagram shows two of these forces.

direction of
motion forwards

air resistance force from engine


300 N 1500 N

What is the size and the direction of the third horizontal force acting on the car?

A 1200 N backwards
B 1200 N forwards
C 1800 N backwards
D 1800 N forwards

8 A force F is applied to a spanner, as shown.

spanner
nut

Which action increases the moment of F about the centre of the nut?

A apply the force F to the end of the spanner handle


B apply the force F parallel to the spanner handle
C spray oil on the nut
D use a shorter spanner

9 A ball is released from rest and rolls down a track from the position shown.

What is the furthest position that it is possible for the ball to reach?

ball C
starts
B
here

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10 Which row describes an advantage and a disadvantage of wind turbines?

advantage disadvantage

A no fuel needed harmful gases released


B variable supply fuel needed
C no harmful gases released variable supply
D constant supply noisy

11 A box of mass m and weight W is carried up some stairs of total height x and total width y.

x
box

On which quantities does the work done against gravity on the box depend?

A m and y B W and x C W and y D x and y

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12 Diagram 1 shows a tube sealed at one end and partly immersed in mercury. The tube has a
diameter d. The top of the mercury in the tube is a height h above the mercury reservoir.

diagram 1
vacuum

mercury h
reservoir

Diagram 2 shows a similar arrangement with a tube that has a diameter 2d.

diagram 2

vacuum

mercury x
reservoir

What is the relationship between h and x?

A x = 2h
B x=h

C x= h
2
D x= h
4

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13 A skier is standing still on a flat area of snow.

skis

The weight of the skier is 550 N. The total area of his skis in contact with the ground is 0.015 m2.

What is the pressure exerted on the ground by the skier?

A 0.83 N / m2 B 8.3 N / m2 C 3700 N / m2 D 37 000 N / m2

14 The molecules of a substance in a particular state of matter move freely with random motion. The
average speed of the molecules is increasing.

What is being described?

A a gas being heated


B a liquid evaporating
C a solid being heated
D a solid melting

15 A student measures the mass of warm water in an open container over two minutes. The
container is kept at a constant temperature. The results are in the table.

time / minutes mass / g

0.0 33.9
0.5 30.6
1.0 27.6
1.5 24.9
2.0 22.5

Why does the mass of the water change?

A The water evaporates.


B The water freezes.
C The water condenses.
D The water boils.

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16 Which points are the fixed points of the liquid-in-glass thermometer shown?

–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110


°C

A the beginning and end points of the column of liquid

B the points marked –10 °C and 110 °C

C the points marked 0 °C and 100 °C


D the top and bottom points of the thermometer bulb

17 Four different metal blocks are given the same quantity of thermal energy.

Which block has the greatest thermal capacity?

A B C D

temperature temperature temperature temperature


rise = 1 °C rise = 2 °C rise = 3 °C rise = 4 °C

18 A solid is heated from room temperature.

The graph shows how its temperature changes with time as it is heated constantly.

At which time has it just become completely liquid?

temperature

room temperature

0
0 A B C D
time

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19 Rods of the same shape and size are inserted through corks into a tank of hot water. Each rod is
covered with a layer of solid wax that has a low melting point. After a period of time, some wax
melts.

hot water tank

good thermal
conductor

cork
bad thermal
moderate thermal conductor
conductor

On which rod will the wax melt first?

A all at the same time


B good thermal conductor
C bad thermal conductor
D moderate thermal conductor

20 A boy jumps into an indoor swimming pool. He notices that the water appears to get colder as he
goes deeper underwater. This is due to convection.

Which statement is correct?

A Cold water is more dense than warm water so it sinks to the bottom of the pool.
B Warm water is more dense than cold water so it rises to the surface of the pool.
C The molecules in cold water have more kinetic energy than the molecules in warm water so
they move to the bottom of the pool faster.
D The molecules in warm water are closer together than the molecules in cold water so they
rise to the surface of the pool.

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10

21 The diagrams show examples of wave motion.

1 2
ripple tank

drum

waves on water waves in air

3 4

waves on a rope waves in a spring

Which waves are longitudinal?

A 1 only B 2 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

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11

22 Waves on the surface of water travel from deep to shallow water.

Which diagram shows the correct path of the waves in the shallow water?

A B

deep shallow deep shallow


water water water water

C D

shallow shallow
deep water deep water
water water

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12

23 Which diagram shows how the light from a candle is reflected by a mirror, and shows the position
of the image formed?

A B

image of image of
candle candle
candle candle

eye

eye
mirror mirror

C D

candle candle

image of
candle eye

image of eye
candle
mirror mirror

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13

24 The diagram shows an image being formed by a converging lens.

object

2F F F 2F

image

Which description of the image formed is correct?

A enlarged and inverted


B enlarged and upright
C diminished and inverted
D diminished and upright

25 The horn on a ship makes a sound. The captain on the ship hears an echo from a cliff 4.0 s later.

The speed of sound is 340 m / s.

How far away is the cliff from the ship?

A 170 m B 340 m C 680 m D 1360 m

26 Bats produce ultrasound waves to navigate.

What is a possible frequency range for these waves?

A 0–20 Hz
B 20 Hz–2000 Hz
C 2 kHz–20 kHz
D 20 kHz–120 kHz

27 The table shows the forces that exist between magnetic poles.

Which row is correct?

N pole and N pole N pole and S pole

A attraction attraction
B attraction repulsion
C repulsion attraction
D repulsion repulsion

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28 The diagrams show three different metal rods P, Q and R, inside coils of wire.

Small iron nails are placed on a wooden bench under the rods.

Diagram 1 shows the situation when there are electric currents in the wires.

Diagram 2 shows the situation when the currents are switched off.

diagram 1
P Q R

current
in coils

wooden
bench

diagram 2
P Q R

no
current
in coils
wooden
bench

Which row correctly identifies the metal rods?

P Q R

A copper soft iron steel


B soft iron copper steel
C steel soft iron copper
D copper steel soft iron

29 A polythene rod becomes negatively charged when it is rubbed with a cloth.

Which statement explains this?

A The rod gains electrons.


B The rod loses electrons.
C The rod gains protons.
D The rod loses protons.

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30 The diagram shows a reading on an ammeter.

4 6
2 8

10
0
A

What is the reading?

A 0.45 A B 0.50 A C 4.5 A D 5.0 A

31 A student is to determine the resistance of resistor R. She uses a circuit including a voltmeter and
an ammeter.

Which circuit should be used?

A B C D

V A V V A
R R R R

A A V

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32 The diagram shows a battery connected to two resistors. Three ammeters M1, M2 and M3 are
connected in the circuit.

M1 A A M3

A
M2

Ammeter M1 reads 1.0 A.

What are the readings on M2 and on M3?

reading on reading on
M2 / A M3 / A
A 0.0 0.0
B 0.5 0.5
C 0.5 1.0
D 1.0 1.0

33 Lamps in a circuit are connected in parallel.

What is the advantage of this?

A If one lamp breaks, the others remain lit.


B Less current is taken from the power supply.
C The lamps use less power than if they were connected in series.
D The potential difference across each lamp is less than that of the power supply.

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17

34 The diagram shows a relay being used to control a buzzer.

relay

What is the function of the circuit?

A The buzzer switches off when the circuit becomes cold.


B The buzzer switches off when the circuit becomes light.
C The buzzer switches on when the circuit becomes cold.
D The buzzer switches on when the circuit becomes light.

35 There is a 5 A fuse in the circuit of an appliance.

What is the purpose of the fuse and in which wire is it connected?

wire in which
purpose
it is connected

A breaks the circuit if the current is greater than 5 A earth


B breaks the circuit if the current is greater than 5 A live
C breaks the circuit if the current is less than 5 A earth
D breaks the circuit if the current is less than 5 A live

36 The diagram shows a transformer that has an output voltage of 12 V.

primary coil with


1000 turns soft iron core

240 V a.c. 12 V a.c.


input output

secondary coil

How many turns of wire are in the secondary coil?

A 12 B 20 C 50 D 20 000

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18

37 A current-carrying conductor is placed between two magnetic poles. The current causes a force
to act on the wire.

force wire

N S

current
direction

Three other arrangements P, Q and R, of the wire and magnetic poles are set up as shown.

P Q R

N S S N S N

current reversed magnetic poles current reversed and


switched around magnetic poles
switched around

Which arrangements will cause a force in the opposite direction to that shown in the top diagram?

A P, Q and R B P and Q only C P only D R only

14
38 The symbol for a radioactive nuclide of carbon is 6 C.
How many neutrons are in its nucleus?

A 6 B 8 C 14 D 20

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19

39 A student measures the rate at which ionising radiation is emitted from a radioactive substance.

He places a detector at different distances from the radioactive source.

radioactive
source counter
detector

distance d

The table shows how the reading on the counter varies with distance d.

The readings on the counter are corrected for background radiation.

distance d / cm 0 2 4 6
counter reading / counts per minute 1250 115 0 0

Which type of ionising radiation is being emitted by the substance?

A α-particles

B β-particles

C γ-rays
D X-rays

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20

40 The graph shows the count rate from a radioactive source over a period of time.

2000
count rate
counts / s

1500

1000

500

0
0 1 2 3
time / hours

What is the half-life of the source?

A 0.5 hour B 1.0 hour C 1.5 hours D 3.0 hours

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) March 2020
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the March 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme March 2020
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 B 1

3 A 1

4 D 1

5 C 1

6 D 1

7 A 1

8 A 1

9 B 1

10 C 1

11 B 1

12 B 1

13 D 1

14 A 1

15 A 1

16 C 1

17 A 1

18 C 1

19 B 1

20 A 1

21 D 1

22 A 1

23 A 1

24 A 1

25 C 1

26 D 1

27 C 1

28 A 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme March 2020
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 A 1

30 D 1

31 D 1

32 D 1

33 A 1

34 D 1

35 B 1

36 C 1

37 B 1

38 B 1

39 A 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4756656737*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

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1 A pendulum makes 50 complete swings in 2 min 40 s.

What is the time period for 1 complete swing?

A 1.6 s B 3.2 s C 4.8 s D 6.4 s

2 The motion of an object is represented by the speed–time graph shown.

speed

area under
the graph

0
0 time

Which quantity is equal to the area under the graph?

A acceleration
B average speed
C distance travelled
D kinetic energy

3 Which statement about acceleration is correct?

A It is related to the changing speed of an object.


B It is the distance an object travels in one second.
C It is the force acting on an object divided by the distance it travels in one second.
D It is the force acting on an object when it is near to the Earth.

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4 Two metal blocks P and Q have identical dimensions. They hang on identical spring balances.

N N
0 0
1 1
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 5
6 6

P
Q

Which statement about P and Q is correct?

A They have different volumes and different weights.


B They have different volumes and equal weights.
C They have equal volumes and equal weights.
D They have equal volumes and different weights.

5 A mass of 6.0 kg rests on the surface of a planet.

On this planet, g = 20 N / kg.

What is the weight of the object?

A 0.30 N B 0.60 N C 60 N D 120 N

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6 The mass of a measuring cylinder is 190 g.

400 cm3 of liquid is put into the measuring cylinder.

The total mass of the measuring cylinder and the liquid is 560 g.

Four solid objects are lowered in turn into the liquid. The densities of the objects are shown.

1 0.40 g / cm3
2 0.90 g / cm3
3 1.2 g / cm3
4 2.7 g / cm3

Which objects will float in the liquid?

A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1, 2 and 3 D 3 and 4 only

7 A sledge is pulled in a straight line by dogs, as shown.

dogs
sledge
surface

The dogs produce a total horizontal driving force of 600 N.

The frictional force between the sledge and the surface is 150 N and the air resistance on the
sledge is 450 N.

What is the resultant force acting on the sledge?

A 0N B 300 N C 900 N D 1200 N

8 Forces are applied to four identical objects.

The lengths of the arrows indicate the magnitude of each force.

Which object is in equilibrium?

A B C D

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9 The diagram shows part of a rollercoaster ride with the car at different positions.

The car runs freely down from position X to position Y and up the hill on the other side.

car
X

What happens to the kinetic energy and to the gravitational potential energy of the car as it
moves from position X to position Y?

gravitational
kinetic energy
potential energy

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

10 Student P uses a force of 35 N to push a box 3.0 m across the floor.

Student Q uses a force of 22 N to push another box 1.8 m across the floor.

Which statement gives a full explanation why student P uses more energy than student Q?

A Student P pushes his box a greater distance than student Q.


B Student P pushes his box a greater distance and uses a bigger force than student Q.
C Student P uses a bigger force than student Q.
D Student P pushes a heavier box than student Q.

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11 A man can either take an escalator or a lift to travel up between two floors in a hotel.

escalator lift

The escalator takes 20 seconds to carry the man between the two floors. The useful work done
against gravity is W. The useful power developed is P.

The lift takes 30 seconds to carry the same man between the same two floors.

How much useful work against gravity is done by the lift, and how much useful power is
developed by the lift?

useful work
useful power
done against
developed by lift
gravity by lift

A more than W less than P


B more than W P
C W less than P
D W P

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12 The diagram shows a solid block resting on a bench. The dimensions of the block are shown.

40 cm
20 cm
Q

R bench
80 cm P

On which labelled surface should the block rest to produce the smallest pressure on the bench?

A P
B Q
C R
D P, Q and R produce the same pressure

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13 Four submarines are submerged. The density of fresh water is 1000 kg / m3 and the density of
sea water is 1020 kg / m3.

Which submarine experiences the greatest pressure due to the water?

A B
water surface water surface

fresh water 100 m fresh water


120 m

submarine
submarine

C D
water surface water surface

sea water 100 m sea water


120 m

submarine
submarine

14 A gas is heated in a sealed container.

The volume of the container does not change.

What happens to the molecules of the gas?

A The average distance between molecules increases.


B The average kinetic energy of the molecules increases.
C The mass of each molecule increases.
D The volume of each molecule increases.

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15 A student is investigating evaporation. She soaks a piece of cotton wool in a liquid and attaches
this to the bulb of a thermometer.

As the liquid evaporates the temperature reading on the thermometer changes.

cotton wool
soaked in liquid thermometer

Which statement is correct?

A The more energetic molecules leave the liquid and the temperature reading decreases.
B The more energetic molecules leave the liquid and the temperature reading increases.
C The less energetic molecules leave the liquid and the temperature reading decreases.
D The less energetic molecules leave the liquid and the temperature reading increases.

16 The thermometer in the diagram has no scale.

Before this thermometer can be used to measure temperature, two standard temperatures known
as fixed points are needed. These are labelled X and Y.

bulb

Which row describes these fixed points on the Celsius scale?

X Y

A temperature of pure boiling water normal body temperature


B temperature of pure boiling water temperature of pure melting ice
C normal body temperature temperature of pure boiling water
D temperature of pure melting ice temperature of pure boiling water

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10

17 When a hot gas is left to cool, its internal energy decreases.

What causes this?

A a decrease in the kinetic energy of the gas particles


B a decrease in the gravitational potential energy of the gas particles
C an increase in the average speed of the gas particles
D an increase in the average distance of separation of the gas particles

18 The diagrams show four blocks of steel. The blocks are all drawn to the same scale.

The same quantity of thermal energy is given to each block.

Which block shows the greatest rise in temperature?

A B C D

19 One ice cube is placed on a metal block. An identical ice cube is placed on a plastic block. The
blocks are left next to each other on a table in a laboratory.

ice cube

metal block plastic block

Which ice cube melts first and why?

A The ice cube on the plastic block melts first because plastic is a good insulator of thermal
energy.
B The ice cube on the plastic block melts first because plastic is a good conductor of thermal
energy.
C The ice cube on the metal block melts first because metal is a good conductor of thermal
energy.
D The ice cube on the metal block melts first because metal is a good insulator of thermal
energy.

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11

20 Two freezers X and Y are identical except that one has a door opening at the front and the other
has a door opening at the top.

door

freezer

freezer
door

X Y

Both doors are the same size and are opened for the same amount of time.

Which freezer gains the least amount of thermal energy in this time and why?

freezer gaining the


reason
least thermal energy

A X cold air falls


B X warm air falls
C Y cold air falls
D Y warm air falls

21 The diagram shows a wave.

8 cm

3 cm

6 cm

4 cm

What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?

amplitude / cm wavelength / cm

A 3 4
B 3 8
C 6 4
D 6 8
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12

22 Waves travel more quickly on the surface of water when the water is deep.

A stone is dropped at point X into a pool of varying depth. The diagram shows the first three
wavefronts on the surface of the pool.

The region between X and which labelled point is likely to be the deepest?

B
wavefronts

A X
C

23 The diagram shows a beam of light travelling through glass and meeting a glass-air interface.

reflected
light

60° glass
air

Which row correctly describes what is happening at the glass-air interface?

angle of incidence
observation
at the interface

A 30° some internal reflection


B 30° total internal reflection
C 60° some internal reflection
D 60° total internal reflection

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13

24 A narrow beam of white light passes through a prism and is dispersed into a spectrum.

1
white 2
light 3

Which row is correct?

colour 1 colour 2 colour 3

A blue yellow red


B red blue yellow
C red yellow blue
D yellow blue red

25 An intruder alarm sensor detects that a person is warmer than his surroundings.

Which type of electromagnetic wave does the sensor detect?

A infrared
B radio
C ultraviolet
D visible light

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14

26 The graphs show the displacement of particles in sound waves from three sources X, Y and Z.
The scales on the graphs are all identical.

source X source Y

displacement displacement

0 0
0 time 0 time

source Z

displacement

0
0 time

Which sources are producing sound waves with the same pitch?

A X and Y only B Y and Z only C X and Z only D X, Y and Z

27 A permanent magnet is to be made.

Which row gives the correct material to use and the correct reason for choosing this material?

material reason

A soft iron easy to demagnetise


B soft iron hard to demagnetise
C steel easy to demagnetise
D steel hard to demagnetise

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15

28 Four nails A, B, C and D are tested to find which makes the strongest permanent magnet.

One of the nails is placed against a bar magnet and the number of paper clips which the nail can
support is recorded.

nail
N S
bar magnet

paper clips

The bar magnet is then removed and the number of paper clips remaining attached to the nail is
recorded. Each nail is tested individually.

Which nail becomes the strongest permanent magnet?

number of paper clips attached to the nail


bar magnet present bar magnet removed

A 2 0
B 2 1
C 4 3
D 5 2

29 Three statements about electric charge are given.

1 An ammeter directly measures how much electric charge is in an object.


2 A moving electric charge can be detected by an ammeter.
3 A flow of electric charge is an electric current.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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16

30 Each of the four diagrams M, N, O and P shows a separate pair of insulating rods. Each rod is
charged as shown.

diagram M diagram N
– – – – – – + + +
– – +
– – – – – – + + +

diagram O diagram P
– – – + + + + + + + + +
– + + +
– – – + + + + + + + + +

In which two arrangements do the pairs of rods experience a force of repulsion?

A M and N B O and P C M and P D N and O

31 A student uses the circuit shown to determine the resistance of two identical resistors.

The voltmeter reading is 2.2 V and the ammeter reading is 0.25 A.

What is the resistance of each resistor?

A 0.275 Ω B 0.55 Ω C 4.4 Ω D 8.8 Ω

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17

32 In the circuit shown, A1 and A2 are ammeters.

A1 A2
S

Switch S is closed.

Which row is correct?

the resistance of
reading of A1 reading of A2
the whole circuit

A decreases stays the same increases


B decreases increases increases
C increases stays the same stays the same
D increases decreases decreases

33 What happens to the resistance of an LDR when the brightness of light falling on it increases?

A Its resistance decreases.


B Its resistance increases.
C Its resistance increases then decreases.
D Its resistance stays the same.

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18

34 A student constructs four circuits, each containing a fuse.

The fuse blows in one circuit and both lamps in the circuit go out.

In which circuit does the fuse blow and both lamps go out?

A B

C D

35 A transformer has 200 turns on its primary coil and is connected to a 240 V a.c. supply.

The output voltage of the transformer is 60 V a.c..

How many turns are on the secondary coil of the transformer?

A 20 B 50 C 72 D 800

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19

36 A conducting wire is placed between the poles of a magnet. When an electric current in the wire
is in the direction shown, then the force on the wire acts out of the page.

wire

N S

Three statements of different conditions and how the wire is affected are given.

1 The current is towards the top of the page and the direction of the magnetic field is
unchanged then the force produced acts into the page.
2 The current is towards the bottom of the page and the magnetic field is reversed
then the force produced acts into the page.
3 The current in the wire is alternating and the wire vibrates into and out of the page.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

37 A nuclide of the element iron has the symbol shown.

56
26Fe

What does a neutral atom of this nuclide contain?

protons neutrons electrons

A 26 30 26
B 26 56 30
C 30 26 56
D 56 26 30

38 What is the nucleon number of a nuclide?

A the number of neutrons in the nucleus


B the number of protons in the nucleus
C the number of protons minus the number of neutrons in the nucleus
D the number of protons plus the number of neutrons in the nucleus

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20

39 A thin sheet of paper is placed between a radioactive source and a radiation detector. The count
rate falls to a very low reading.

paper

detector

counter
source

From this result, which type of radiation is the source emitting?

A α-particles

B β-particles

C γ-rays
D X-rays

40 In 1986 the Chernobyl nuclear power station in Ukraine suffered a meltdown.

This caused background radiation in many countries, thousands of kilometres from Chernobyl, to
increase.

What was transported in the atmosphere to these countries to cause this rise in background
radiation?

A α-particles

B β-particles

C γ-rays
D radioactive isotopes

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0625/11/M/J/20

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2020
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

Students did not sit exam papers in the June 2020 series due to the Covid-19 global pandemic.

This mark scheme is published to support teachers and students and should be read together with the
question paper. It shows the requirements of the exam.

Mark schemes should usually be read together with the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. However,
because students did not sit exam papers, there is no Principal Examiner Report for Teachers for the June
2020 series.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™ and Cambridge International A & AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2020
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 C 1

3 A 1

4 D 1

5 D 1

6 B 1

7 A 1

8 B 1

9 C 1

10 B 1

11 C 1

12 A 1

13 D 1

14 B 1

15 A 1

16 B 1

17 A 1

18 A 1

19 C 1

20 C 1

21 B 1

22 C 1

23 A 1

24 C 1

25 A 1

26 B 1

27 D 1

28 C 1

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2020
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 C 1

31 C 1

32 B 1

33 A 1

34 D 1

35 B 1

36 D 1

37 A 1

38 D 1

39 A 1

40 D 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4118729190*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_0625_12/4RP
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1 Five athletes P, Q, R, S and T compete in a race. The table shows the finishing times for the
athletes.

athlete P Q R S T
finishing time / s 22.50 24.40 25.20 26.50 23.20

Which statement is correct?

A Athlete P won the race and was 0.70 s ahead of the athlete in second place.
B Athlete P won the race and was 1.90 s ahead of the athlete in second place.
C Athlete S won the race and was 1.30 s ahead of the athlete in second place.
D Athlete S won the race and was 2.10 s ahead of the athlete in second place.

2 The graph shows how the speed of an object varies with time.

At which labelled time is the acceleration greatest?

speed

0
0 A B C D time

3 Which statement about acceleration is correct?

A It is related to the changing speed of an object.


B It is the distance an object travels in one second.
C It is the force acting on an object divided by the distance it travels in one second.
D It is the force acting on an object when it is near to the Earth.

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4 Two metal blocks P and Q have identical dimensions. They hang on identical spring balances.

N N
0 0
1 1
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 5
6 6

P
Q

Which statement about P and Q is correct?

A They have different volumes and different weights.


B They have different volumes and equal weights.
C They have equal volumes and equal weights.
D They have equal volumes and different weights.

5 A space probe is taken from the Earth to Mars.

The force of gravity on the surface of Mars is less than the force of gravity on the surface of the
Earth.

How do the weight and the mass of a space probe on the surface of Mars compare to their values
when the probe is on the surface of the Earth?

weight on Mars mass on Mars

A decreased decreased
B decreased unchanged
C unchanged decreased
D unchanged unchanged

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6 Water has a density of 1000 kg / m3.

A rectangular swimming pool has an average depth of 1.6 m.

The length of the pool is 25 m.

The width of the pool is 10 m.

What is the mass of the water in the swimming pool?

A 2.5 kg B 400 kg C 400 000 kg D 800 000 kg

7 The diagram shows an extension–load graph for a spring.

10.0
extension / cm
9.0

8.0

7.0

6.0

5.0

4.0

3.0

2.0

1.0

0
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0 10.0 12.0 14.0 16.0 18.0 20.0

load / N

An empty can of weight 3.0 N is suspended from the spring.

Liquid is poured into the can until the extension is 8.0 cm.

What is the weight of the liquid?

A 4.0 N B 10.0 N C 13.0 N D 16.0 N

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8 What is meant by the moment of a force on an object?

A the magnitude of the force on the object


B the direction of the force on the object
C the time for which the force acts on the object
D the turning effect of the force on the object

9 Which energy resource is not renewable?

A geothermal
B nuclear fission
C solar
D wind

10 Two motors X and Y lift loads of the same weight through the same vertical distance.

Motor X is more efficient than motor Y.

Which statement about the motors is correct?

A The useful energy output of motor X is larger than that of motor Y.


B The useful energy output of motor X is smaller than that of motor Y.
C The energy input of motor X is larger than that of motor Y.
D The energy input of motor X is smaller than that of motor Y.

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11 A man can either take an escalator or a lift to travel up between two floors in a hotel.

escalator lift

The escalator takes 20 seconds to carry the man between the two floors. The useful work done
against gravity is W. The useful power developed is P.

The lift takes 30 seconds to carry the same man between the same two floors.

How much useful work against gravity is done by the lift, and how much useful power is
developed by the lift?

useful work
useful power
done against
developed by lift
gravity by lift

A more than W less than P


B more than W P
C W less than P
D W P

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12 The diagram shows a solid block resting on a bench. The dimensions of the block are shown.

40 cm
20 cm
Q

R bench
80 cm P

On which labelled surface should the block rest to produce the smallest pressure on the bench?

A P
B Q
C R
D P, Q and R produce the same pressure

13 A beaker contains a liquid.

liquid

On what does the liquid pressure at position X depend?

A both the density of the liquid and the depth of X below the surface
B both the surface area of the liquid and the depth of X below the surface
C both the surface area of the liquid and the volume of the liquid
D the depth of X below the surface only

14 Evaporation occurs from the surface of a pool of water.

Which statement describes this change of state?

A Electrons move from the liquid and become a gas.


B Molecules that move from the liquid have the same energy as those that stay in the liquid.
C The more energetic molecules escape the liquid.
D The more energetic molecules remain in the liquid.

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15 A gas, in a sealed container, is compressed slowly so that its temperature does not change.

What happens to the molecules of the gas as a result of this compression?

A The average speed of the molecules increases.


B The average force in a collision between a molecule and the container increases.
C There are more frequent collisions between molecules and the container.
D The volume of each molecule decreases.

16 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

°C
–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110

What is the temperature difference between the two fixed points on the Celsius scale?

A 10 °C B 100 °C C 110 °C D 120 °C

17 A metal block is left overnight in a cool, shady room. In the morning, the metal block is moved
into warm surroundings.

Which statement about the metal block is correct in the morning?

A The internal energy of the metal block increases.


B The temperature of the metal block decreases.
C Convection transfers energy throughout the metal block.
D The metal contracts slightly.

18 The diagrams show four blocks of steel. The blocks are all drawn to the same scale.

The same quantity of thermal energy is given to each block.

Which block shows the greatest rise in temperature?

A B C D

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19 A room is heated by a radiator. The diagrams X and Y show two possible circulations of hot air,
which heat the room.

diagram X ceiling diagram Y ceiling

radiator radiator
floor floor

Which diagram and reason explain the heating of the room by convection?

diagram reason

A X air density decreases when air is heated


B X air density increases when air is heated
C Y air density decreases when air is heated
D Y air density increases when air is heated

20 Two similar liquid-in-glass thermometers P and Q are placed in direct sunlight.

The bulb of thermometer P is painted white. The bulb of thermometer Q is painted black.

How and why would the thermometer readings differ?

A P would read higher than Q because black is a good absorber of radiation.


B P would read higher than Q because black is a poor absorber of radiation.
C P would read lower than Q because black is a good absorber of radiation.
D P would read lower than Q because black is a poor absorber of radiation.

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10

21 The diagram shows a wave.

8 cm

3 cm

6 cm

4 cm

What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?

amplitude / cm wavelength / cm

A 3 4
B 3 8
C 6 4
D 6 8

22 Waves travel more quickly on the surface of water when the water is deep.

A stone is dropped at point X into a pool of varying depth. The diagram shows the first three
wavefronts on the surface of the pool.

The region between X and which labelled point is likely to be the deepest?

B
wavefronts

A X
C

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11

23 The diagram shows a ray of light incident on the surface of a glass block.

1
2
3
glass block
4

The ray of light is partially reflected back into the air and partially refracted into the glass block.

Which row correctly identifies the angle of reflection and the angle of refraction?

angle of angle of
reflection refraction

A 1 3
B 1 4
C 2 3
D 2 4

24 A beam of light consists of yellow and blue light.

The beam of light is incident on a glass prism.

Which diagram is correct?

A B
yellow blue
blue yellow
glass prism glass prism

C D

glass prism glass prism


blue yellow

yellow blue

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12

25 An intruder alarm sensor detects that a person is warmer than his surroundings.

Which type of electromagnetic wave does the sensor detect?

A infrared
B radio
C ultraviolet
D visible light

26 A dolphin sends out a sound wave. An echo returns 0.010 s later from a fish which is 7.5 m from
the dolphin.

What is the speed of the sound wave in water?

A 0.075 m / s B 0.15 m / s C 750 m / s D 1500 m / s

27 The diagrams show two bar magnets which are attracting each other.

Which diagram shows the magnetic field pattern between the poles?

A B

S N S N S N S N

C D

S N S N S N S N

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13

28 Four nails A, B, C and D are tested to find which makes the strongest permanent magnet.

One of the nails is placed against a bar magnet and the number of paper clips which the nail can
support is recorded.

nail
N S
bar magnet

paper clips

The bar magnet is then removed and the number of paper clips remaining attached to the nail is
recorded. Each nail is tested individually.

Which nail becomes the strongest permanent magnet?

number of paper clips attached to the nail


bar magnet present bar magnet removed

A 2 0
B 2 1
C 4 3
D 5 2

29 A cloth is used to rub an uncharged plastic rod.

Both the rod and the cloth become charged.

Why does the plastic rod become negatively charged and the cloth become positively charged?

A The rod gains electrons and the cloth gains positive charges.
B The rod gains electrons and the cloth loses electrons.
C The rod loses electrons and the cloth gains electrons.
D The rod loses electrons and the cloth loses positive charges.

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14

30 The diagram shows a circuit. The wire between P and Q can be removed and replaced by a
circuit component.

P Q

R S T

Where should a voltmeter be connected to measure the potential difference (p.d.) across the
lamp?

A between P and Q in place of the wire


B in parallel with R and S
C in parallel with R and T
D in parallel with S and T

31 A student uses the circuit shown to determine the resistance of two identical resistors.

The voltmeter reading is 2.2 V and the ammeter reading is 0.25 A.

What is the resistance of each resistor?

A 0.275 Ω B 0.55 Ω C 4.4 Ω D 8.8 Ω

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15

32 The circuit shown contains five lamps J, K, L, M and N. All the lamps are glowing.

lamp L

lamp K

lamp J

lamp N

lamp M

One lamp is removed and two other lamps go out.

Which lamp is removed?

A lamp J
B lamp K
C lamp L
D lamp M

33 The diagram shows a control circuit. The lamp is lit.

The temperature of the surroundings increases.

What will happen to the brightness of the lamp?

A It will be brighter.
B It will be less bright.
C It will not change.
D It will become brighter and then less bright.

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16

34 A student constructs four circuits, each containing a fuse.

The fuse blows in one circuit and both lamps in the circuit go out.

In which circuit does the fuse blow and both lamps go out?

A B

C D

35 The diagrams P, Q and R show three voltage–time graphs.

diagram P diagram Q
+ +
voltage voltage
0 0
0 time 0 time
– –

diagram R
+
voltage
0
0 time

Which graphs show an alternating voltage?

A P and Q only B P and R only C Q and R only D P, Q and R

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17

36 The diagram shows a transformer.

core

primary coil secondary coil


40 turns 40 000 turns

Which statement about this transformer is correct?

A It can operate from a 12 V battery.


B It has a core which is made of steel.
C It steps the input voltage up by a factor of 1000.
D It steps the input voltage down by a factor of 1000.

37 A nuclide of the element iron has the symbol shown.

56
26Fe

What does a neutral atom of this nuclide contain?

protons neutrons electrons

A 26 30 26
B 26 56 30
C 30 26 56
D 56 26 30

38 Which statement about the nuclei of all atoms is correct?

A They all contain electrons.


B They are all always stable.
C They all contain protons and electrons.
D They all have a positive charge.

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18

39 A thin sheet of paper is placed between a radioactive source and a radiation detector. The count
rate falls to a very low reading.

paper

detector

counter
source

From this result, which type of radiation is the source emitting?

A α-particles

B β-particles

C γ-rays
D X-rays

40 A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 120 minutes.

It emits radiation at a rate of 100 particles per second.

How long does it take for the rate of emission to fall to 25 particles per second?

A 30 minutes B 45 minutes C 90 minutes D 240 minutes

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19

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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2020
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

Students did not sit exam papers in the June 2020 series due to the Covid-19 global pandemic.

This mark scheme is published to support teachers and students and should be read together with the
question paper. It shows the requirements of the exam.

Mark schemes should usually be read together with the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. However,
because students did not sit exam papers, there is no Principal Examiner Report for Teachers for the June
2020 series.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™ and Cambridge International A & AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2020
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 A 1

3 A 1

4 D 1

5 B 1

6 C 1

7 C 1

8 D 1

9 B 1

10 D 1

11 C 1

12 A 1

13 A 1

14 C 1

15 C 1

16 B 1

17 A 1

18 A 1

19 A 1

20 C 1

21 B 1

22 C 1

23 B 1

24 D 1

25 A 1

26 D 1

27 A 1

28 C 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2020
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 B 1

30 B 1

31 C 1

32 A 1

33 A 1

34 D 1

35 D 1

36 C 1

37 A 1

38 D 1

39 A 1

40 D 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*6608142237*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_0625_13/4RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
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1 Diagram 1 shows a solid, rectangular-sided block.

top

front side

diagram 1

Diagram 2 shows the same block from the front and from the side.
7
6
5
4

front side
3
2
cm 1

cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

diagram 2

Metre rules have been shown close to the edges of the block.

What is the volume of the block?

A 120 cm3 B 168 cm3 C 264 cm3 D 1155 cm3

2 The speed–time graph shows the motion of an object.

5
speed
m/s

0
0 5 10 15 20 25
time / s

How far does the object travel at constant speed?

A 25 m B 50 m C 75 m D 125 m
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3 Which statement about acceleration is correct?

A It is related to the changing speed of an object.


B It is the distance an object travels in one second.
C It is the force acting on an object divided by the distance it travels in one second.
D It is the force acting on an object when it is near to the Earth.

4 Two metal blocks P and Q have identical dimensions. They hang on identical spring balances.

N N
0 0
1 1
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 5
6 6

P
Q

Which statement about P and Q is correct?

A They have different volumes and different weights.


B They have different volumes and equal weights.
C They have equal volumes and equal weights.
D They have equal volumes and different weights.

5 Which row gives the correct weight for the mass shown?

The value of g is 10 N / kg.

mass / kg weight / N

A 2 20
B 10 1
C 10 10
D 20 2

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6 A rectangular gymnasium is 50 m long, 25 m wide and 8.0 m high.

The density of air is 1.2 kg / m3.

What is the best estimate of the mass of air in the gymnasium?

A 0.00012 kg B 100 kg C 8300 kg D 12 000 kg

7 The diagram shows two of the three vertical forces acting on a hot-air balloon. The hot-air balloon
is moving upwards at constant speed.

upthrust = 2500 N

weight = 2200 N

What is the air resistance acting on the hot-air balloon?

A 300 N downwards
B 300 N upwards
C 4700 N downwards
D 4700 N upwards

8 Which statement about the moment of a force is not correct?

A If an object is balanced about a pivot the resultant moment on the object must be zero.
B The moment of a force is a measure of its turning effect.

C The moment of a force about a point is equal to: force × perpendicular distance from the
point.
D The moment of a force about a point increases when the perpendicular distance of the force
from the point decreases.

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9 A mass bounces up and down on a steel spring. The diagram shows the mass and the spring at
different points during the motion.

highest mass mass


point moving moving
down up

lowest
point

At which point does the mass have the least gravitational potential energy and at which point is
the most elastic energy stored in the spring?

least amount of
most elastic energy
gravitational
stored in spring
potential energy

A mass moving down mass moving up


B mass moving down lowest point
C lowest point mass moving up
D lowest point lowest point

10 Which energy resource stores kinetic energy?

A coal
B nuclear fission
C solar
D wind

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11 A man can either take an escalator or a lift to travel up between two floors in a hotel.

escalator lift

The escalator takes 20 seconds to carry the man between the two floors. The useful work done
against gravity is W. The useful power developed is P.

The lift takes 30 seconds to carry the same man between the same two floors.

How much useful work against gravity is done by the lift, and how much useful power is
developed by the lift?

useful work
useful power
done against
developed by lift
gravity by lift

A more than W less than P


B more than W P
C W less than P
D W P

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12 The diagram shows a solid block resting on a bench. The dimensions of the block are shown.

40 cm
20 cm
Q

R bench
80 cm P

On which labelled surface should the block rest to produce the smallest pressure on the bench?

A P
B Q
C R
D P, Q and R produce the same pressure

13 The diagram shows a U-shaped glass tube, closed at one end by a tap. The glass tube contains
a liquid as shown.

atmospheric
pressure

closed tap

trapped gas
X

liquid

Some of the trapped gas is removed.

What will happen to the levels X and Y?

level X level Y

A higher lower
B higher higher
C lower higher
D lower lower

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14 What is the correct particle diagram for a solid?

A B C D

15 A sealed box contains a fixed mass of gas.

Which action results in each molecule of the gas colliding with the walls of the container less
frequently and with a smaller force?

A Decrease the temperature of the gas.


B Decrease the volume of the container.
C Increase the temperature of the gas.
D Increase the volume of the container.

16 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

X Y

Which row gives the correct labels for the thermometer?

X Y

A water narrow tube of uniform diameter


B alcohol narrow tube of uniform diameter
C water this end immersed in substance to be measured
D alcohol this end immersed in substance to be measured

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17 The diagrams show four blocks of steel. The blocks are all drawn to the same scale.

The same quantity of thermal energy is given to each block.

Which block shows the greatest rise in temperature?

A B C D

18 A gas is cooled so that its molecules move more slowly, come closer together and do not move
freely.

Which process is being described?

A boiling
B condensing
C freezing
D melting

19 The diagram shows a vacuum flask used to keep a liquid warm.

airtight lid

outer cover

vacuum

silvered walls

Which methods of heat loss are reduced by the vacuum between the silvered walls?

A conduction only
B conduction and convection only
C convection and radiation only
D conduction, convection and radiation
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10

20 Equal volumes of water at 100 °C are put in four containers. Two containers have matt black
sides and two containers have shiny white sides. One of each type of container has a lid.

The containers are left for two minutes.

Which container has the highest temperature?

A B C D

lid lid

matt black sides matt black sides shiny white sides shiny white sides

21 The diagram shows a wave.

8 cm

3 cm

6 cm

4 cm

What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?

amplitude / cm wavelength / cm

A 3 4
B 3 8
C 6 4
D 6 8

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11

22 Waves travel more quickly on the surface of water when the water is deep.

A stone is dropped at point X into a pool of varying depth. The diagram shows the first three
wavefronts on the surface of the pool.

The region between X and which labelled point is likely to be the deepest?

B
wavefronts

A X
C

23 The diagram shows a ray of light incident on a plane mirror.

mirror

35°

The angle between the ray and the mirror is 35°.

The ray is reflected by the mirror.

What is the angle of reflection?

A 35° B 55° C 70° D 110°

24 A beam of white light is split into a spectrum of seven colours.

Which name is given to this process?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction

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12

25 An intruder alarm sensor detects that a person is warmer than his surroundings.

Which type of electromagnetic wave does the sensor detect?

A infrared
B radio
C ultraviolet
D visible light

26 A tuning fork produces a sound when it vibrates.

What is the effect on the sound produced when the tuning fork vibrates more times every second
and with a larger amplitude?

A higher pitch and less loud


B higher pitch and louder
C lower pitch and less loud
D lower pitch and louder

27 The diagram shows a magnet with some plotting compasses. The compasses show the direction
of the magnetic field of the magnet.

Which plotting compass has the needle pointing in the wrong direction?

D N S B

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13

28 Four nails A, B, C and D are tested to find which makes the strongest permanent magnet.

One of the nails is placed against a bar magnet and the number of paper clips which the nail can
support is recorded.

nail
N S
bar magnet

paper clips

The bar magnet is then removed and the number of paper clips remaining attached to the nail is
recorded. Each nail is tested individually.

Which nail becomes the strongest permanent magnet?

number of paper clips attached to the nail


bar magnet present bar magnet removed

A 2 0
B 2 1
C 4 3
D 5 2

29 The diagram shows a positively charged conducting sphere and a wire connected to earth.

positively charged sphere


+
+ +
wire + +
+

earth
insulating support

What happens when the wire is touched onto the sphere?

A Electrons flow from earth to the sphere.


B Electrons flow from the sphere to earth.
C Positive charges flow from earth to the sphere.
D Positive charges flow from the sphere to earth.

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14

30 Three electrical quantities are listed.

● potential difference
● electromotive force
● current

Which quantities are measured in volts?

A potential difference only


B potential difference and current only
C potential difference and electromotive force only
D potential difference, electromotive force and current

31 A student uses the circuit shown to determine the resistance of two identical resistors.

The voltmeter reading is 2.2 V and the ammeter reading is 0.25 A.

What is the resistance of each resistor?

A 0.275 Ω B 0.55 Ω C 4.4 Ω D 8.8 Ω

32 The diagram shows part of a circuit containing three identical lamps.

X
W
Z

At which two points do the currents have the same value?

A W and X B W and Z C X and Y D Y and Z

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15

33 Which circuit contains a thermistor and a heater?

A B

C D

34 A student constructs four circuits, each containing a fuse.

The fuse blows in one circuit and both lamps in the circuit go out.

In which circuit does the fuse blow and both lamps go out?

A B

C D

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16

35 The graphs show how the currents in three circuits vary with time.

circuit 1 circuit 2
1.5 1.5
current / A 1.0 current / A 1.0
0.5 0.5
0.0 0.0
–0.5 –0.5
–1.0 –1.0
–1.5 –1.5
time time

circuit 3
1.5
current / A 1.0
0.5
0.0
–0.5
–1.0
–1.5
time

In which circuits is there a direct current?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

36 The diagram represents the transmission of electricity from a power station to homes that are
many kilometres away. Two transformers are labelled X and Y.

transmission
pylon cables pylon

cables

large houses
power ground
station X distance Y

What type of transformers are X and Y?

X Y

A step-down transformer step-down transformer


B step-down transformer step-up transformer
C step-up transformer step-down transformer
D step-up transformer step-up transformer

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17

37 A nuclide of the element iron has the symbol shown.

56
26Fe

What does a neutral atom of this nuclide contain?

protons neutrons electrons

A 26 30 26
B 26 56 30
C 30 26 56
D 56 26 30

38 The diagram shows an early model of the structure of an atom.

ball of
negatively positive
charged charge
electron

This early model is different from the atomic model accepted today.

Which statement about the early model is not included in the model accepted today?

A The atom is mainly filled with a ball of positive charge.


B The electrons are negatively charged.
C There are positive and negative charges.
D There are small particles called electrons.

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18

39 A thin sheet of paper is placed between a radioactive source and a radiation detector. The count
rate falls to a very low reading.

paper

detector

counter
source

From this result, which type of radiation is the source emitting?

A α-particles

B β-particles

C γ-rays
D X-rays

40 Why should all radioactive materials be handled carefully?

A They all make anything they touch radioactive.


B They all catch fire very easily.
C They all emit ionising radiation.
D They all have long half-lives.

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19

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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2020
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

Students did not sit exam papers in the June 2020 series due to the Covid-19 global pandemic.

This mark scheme is published to support teachers and students and should be read together with the
question paper. It shows the requirements of the exam.

Mark schemes should usually be read together with the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. However,
because students did not sit exam papers, there is no Principal Examiner Report for Teachers for the June
2020 series.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™ and Cambridge International A & AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2020
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 B 1

3 A 1

4 D 1

5 A 1

6 D 1

7 A 1

8 D 1

9 D 1

10 D 1

11 C 1

12 A 1

13 A 1

14 B 1

15 A 1

16 B 1

17 A 1

18 B 1

19 B 1

20 D 1

21 B 1

22 C 1

23 B 1

24 B 1

25 A 1

26 B 1

27 C 1

28 C 1

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2020
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 A 1

30 C 1

31 C 1

32 B 1

33 D 1

34 D 1

35 B 1

36 C 1

37 A 1

38 A 1

39 A 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*5509594922*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_0625_11/3RP
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1 The diagram shows a pendulum. The pendulum bob swings repeatedly between points M and N.

M N

A student starts a stop-watch when the bob reaches point M.

He counts each time the bob changes direction and stops the watch on the tenth change in
direction.

The watch shows a time of 12.0 seconds.

What is the period of the pendulum?

A 0.60 s B 1.2 s C 2.4 s D 12.0 s

2 The speed–time graph represents a journey.

speed

X Y

0
0 time

How does the graph show that the distance travelled in section X of the journey is greater than
the distance travelled in section Y?

A The area below section X of the graph is greater than the area below section Y.
B The gradient of section X of the graph is greater than the gradient of section Y.
C The speed at the end of section X of the journey is greater than the speed at the end of
section Y.
D The time for section X of the journey is greater than the time for section Y.

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3 A boy throws a ball vertically upwards with a speed v.

highest point

Which row describes the speed and the acceleration of the ball at point X on the way upwards?

speed acceleration

A decreasing upwards
B decreasing downwards
C increasing upwards
D increasing downwards

4 A student compares the weights of different objects.

Which apparatus does he use?

A balance
B measuring cylinder
C stop-watch
D thermometer

5 Which quantity is weight an example of?

A acceleration
B force
C mass
D pressure

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6 A metal ball is attached to a cork and is lowered into a measuring cylinder, pulling the cork into
the water, as shown.

cork

80 cm3

ball
56 cm3
3
48 cm

water

ball and cork ball fully submerged both ball and cork
above the water but cork above the water fully submerged

The mass of the cork is 4.8 g.

What is the density of the cork?

A 0.15 g / cm3 B 0.20 g / cm3 C 0.60 g / cm3 D 5.0 g / cm3

7 A uniform plank rests on a pivot at its centre.

Two children P and Q sit on the plank in the positions shown.

1.2 m 1.5 m

child P child Q

pivot

The mass of child P is 25 kg.

The plank is balanced.

What is the mass of child Q?

A 20 kg B 25 kg C 31 kg D 45 kg

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8 An object is in equilibrium on the Earth.

Which statement is correct?

A All the forces acting on the object are in the same direction.
B All the forces acting on the object have the same value.
C The object is weightless.
D The resultant force acting on the object is zero.

9 A man jumps from a stationary balloon. After falling several hundred metres, he opens his
parachute.

At which position is his kinetic energy greatest?

A just after he jumps from the balloon


B just before he opens his parachute
C just after his parachute opens
D just before he lands

10 The arrows show an outline of the processes in an oil-fired power station.

oil is burnt  turns turbine  turns generator  output transformer

What are the processes for the transfer of energy between the turbine and the generator and
between the generator and the output transformer?

turbine to generator generator to output transformer

A electrical working electrical working


B mechanical working electrical working
C mechanical working transfer of thermal energy
D transfer of thermal energy mechanical working

11 To calculate the power produced by a force, the size of the force must be known.

What else needs to be known to calculate the power?

the distance that the force the time for which the
moves the object force acts on the object

A   key
B    = needed
C   = not needed
D  
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12 A rectangular marble block has dimensions 1 m by 1 m by 5 m and weighs 125 000 N.

The marble block is stored with the long side resting on the ground, as in diagram 1.

diagram 1 diagram 2

What is the change in the pressure on the ground due to the block when the block is stored as in
diagram 2 rather than diagram 1?

A a decrease of 25 000 Pa
B an increase of 100 000 Pa
C an increase of 125 000 Pa
D no change

13 The diagram shows a mercury barometer.

Which height is used as a measurement of atmospheric pressure?

D
mercury
C
B

14 On a warm day, a driver checks the air pressure in a car tyre. At night, the temperature drops and
the air pressure in the tyre decreases. There are no air leaks in the tyre.

Why does the pressure decrease?

A The air molecules in the tyre move more slowly.


B The air molecules in the tyre stop moving.
C The volume of the air in the tyre decreases.
D The volume of the air in the tyre increases.

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15 The diagram shows the more energetic water molecules escaping from the surface of liquid
water.

key
= water molecule

water

What is this process called?

A Brownian motion
B condensation
C evaporation
D conduction

16 When a bridge is built, a gap is left between each concrete slab.

Why are these gaps left?

A Concrete expands on warm days.


B Concrete contracts on warm days.
C The gaps expand on warm days.
D The gaps contract on cold days.

17 The table shows the melting and boiling points of four different substances.

Which substance becomes a liquid when placed in a beaker of boiling water?

melting point / C boiling point / C

A 10 90
B 40 150
C 105 230
D 110 320

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18 The diagram shows four rods. Each rod is made of a different metal.

P Q

brass copper

silver iron

S R

Wax is used to attach small metal balls at the rod ends P, Q, R and S.

Each rod is the same size. They are heated uniformly by a Bunsen burner at point X.

As the rods warm up, the wax melts and the balls fall off.

Why does the ball on the silver rod fall first?

A Silver is the best conductor of heat.


B Silver is the worst conductor of heat.
C Silver is the best radiator of heat.
D Silver is the worst radiator of heat.

19 The diagram shows a pan of water being heated.

After a short time, all the water in the pan begins to boil.

heat

What is the main process by which thermal energy is transferred through the water?

A conduction
B convection
C evaporation
D radiation

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20 Which row correctly describes light waves?

wave type direction of vibrations

A longitudinal parallel to direction of wave travel


B longitudinal perpendicular to direction of wave travel
C transverse parallel to direction of wave travel
D transverse perpendicular to direction of wave travel

21 The diagram shows two pieces of wood resting in shallow water of constant depth.

Straight, parallel wavefronts approach the pieces of wood as indicated.

wavefront

wood gap wood

The gap between the pieces of wood is 2.0 cm wide.

The wavefronts are 3.0 cm apart.

What is the appearance of the wavefronts after they pass through the gap?

A semicircular and 2.0 cm apart


B semicircular and 3.0 cm apart
C straight and 2.0 cm apart
D straight and 3.0 cm apart

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10

22 A man sees a stone at the bottom of a pool of water.

Which path could be taken by light from the stone to the man?

man

A B C D
air

water

stone

23 Which statement about a thin converging lens is correct?

A All rays of light refracted by the lens pass through the principal focus.
B All rays initially parallel to the principal axis of the lens are refracted through the principal
focus.
C The focal length of the lens is the distance between the image and the principal focus.
D The focal length of the lens is the distance between the object and the image.

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11

24 The diagram shows a beam of white light passing through a triangular prism. A spectrum is
produced.

prism

X
white
light Y

Which row correctly shows a wave property involved in producing the colours at X and Y?

wave property X Y

A diffraction red violet


B dispersion red violet
C reflection violet red
D refraction violet red

25 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum.

-rays E ultraviolet F infrared microwaves G

Which types of wave are E, F and G?

E F G

A radio visible light X-rays


B radio X-rays ultrasound
C X-rays radio ultrasound
D X-rays visible light radio

26 A police car with its siren sounding is stationary in heavy traffic. A pedestrian notices that,
although the loudness of the sound produced does not change, the pitch varies.

Which row describes the amplitude and the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A constant constant
B constant varying
C varying constant
D varying varying

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12

27 Two soft-iron pins are suspended from the S pole of a bar magnet.

Which diagram shows how the pins are deflected?

A B C D

S S S S

28 A student uses three small plotting compasses to investigate the magnetic field around a bar
magnet.

Which diagram shows the directions in which the compass needles point?

A B

N S N S

C D

N S N S

29 What is an electric current in a metal wire?

A a flow of electrons
B a flow of neutrons
C a flow of nucleons
D a flow of protons

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13

30 Four wires are made of the same metal.

Which wire has the greatest resistance?

A a 100 cm long wire with a diameter of 3.0 mm


B a 100 cm long wire with a diameter of 6.0 mm
C a 10 cm long wire with a diameter of 3.0 mm
D a 10 cm long wire with a diameter of 6.0 mm

31 A student uses four ammeters P, Q, R and S to measure the current in different parts of the
circuit shown.

P Q
A A

R
A

S
A

Which two ammeters read the largest current?

A P and Q B P and R C R and Q D R and S

32 A circuit X is set up with two identical lamps. Circuit Y is then set up, changing the positions of the
meters.

X Y

A A

V V

On which meters do the readings change?

A both the ammeter and the voltmeter


B the ammeter only
C the voltmeter only
D neither the ammeter nor the voltmeter

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14

33 An electrical appliance is powered from a mains supply.

The appliance normally uses a current of 3 A, but the current briefly rises to 4 A at the instant the
appliance is switched on. The cable to the appliance is designed for currents up to 6 A.

A fuse is used to protect the circuit.

What should be the rating of the fuse?

A 1A B 3A C 5A D 13 A

34 An electromagnet is positioned close to a coil of wire.

electromagnet coil

The electromagnet is switched on, remains on for a short time, and is then switched off.

Three statements about the pointer on the galvanometer during this sequence are given.

1 The pointer kicks to one side as the electromagnet is switched on.


2 The pointer records a steady non-zero value while the electromagnet remains
switched on.
3 The pointer kicks to the other side as the electromagnet is switched off.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

35 A transformer is needed to convert a supply of 240 V a.c. into 4800 V a.c..

NP NS

240 V a.c. 4800 V a.c.

Which pair of coils would be suitable for this transformer?

number of turns number of turns


on primary coil NP on secondary coil NS

A 50 1 000
B 240 48 000
C 480 24
D 2000 100
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15

36 The diagrams show a current-carrying wire with an arrow in the direction of the current.

Which diagram shows the magnetic field produced by the current?

A B

magnetic magnetic
field lines field lines

wire wire

C D
magnetic
magnetic field lines
field lines

wire wire

37 Which statement is correct for the nucleus of any atom?

A The nucleus contains electrons, neutrons and protons.


B The nucleus contains the same number of protons as neutrons.
C The nucleus has a total charge of zero.
D The nucleus is very small compared with the size of the atom.

38 The nucleus of an atom X is represented by the notation shown.

How many protons and how many neutrons are in this nucleus?

number of number of
protons neutrons

A P Q
B P Q–P
C Q P
D Q P–Q

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16

39 A radiation detector records a low reading even when no radioactive source is close. This is due
to background radiation.

What does not contribute to this background radiation?

A rocks on Earth
B cosmic rays from the Sun
C satellite TV signals
D waste from nuclear power stations

40 The graph shows the radioactive decay curve of a substance.

1000
count rate
counts / s
750

500

250

0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
time / years

What is the half-life of this substance?

A 0.5 years B 5 years C 15 years D 30 years

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2020
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2020 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2020

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 A 1

3 B 1

4 A 1

5 B 1

6 B 1

7 A 1

8 D 1

9 B 1

10 B 1

11 A 1

12 B 1

13 C 1

14 A 1

15 C 1

16 A 1

17 B 1

18 A 1

19 B 1

20 D 1

21 B 1

22 B 1

23 B 1

24 B 1

25 D 1

26 B 1

27 C 1

28 A 1

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2020

Question Answer Marks

29 A 1

30 A 1

31 A 1

32 D 1

33 C 1

34 B 1

35 A 1

36 B 1

37 D 1

38 D 1

39 C 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*1318401521*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_0625_12/3RP
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1 A student measures the volumes of three liquids using three different measuring cylinders.

cm3
40

30
cm3 cm3
2.0 4.0
20
1.5 3.0
1.0 2.0 10
0.5 1.0

1 2 3

The table shows the volumes recorded by the student.

measuring volume
cylinder / cm3

1 1.2
2 2.2
3 25

Which readings are correctly recorded?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1 only

2 A car driver measures the time taken to complete four separate journeys.

In which journey does the driver have the greatest average speed?

distance / km time / h

A 60 2
B 60 3
C 120 3
D 120 4

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3 The graph shows how the speed of an object varies with time.

speed

0
P Q time

Which row describes the motion of the object at times P and Q?

P Q

A at rest accelerating
B at rest decelerating
C moving with constant speed accelerating
D moving with constant speed decelerating

4 A stone has a weight of 4.1 N.

What is the mass of the stone?

A 0.41 kg B 2.4 kg C 4.1 kg D 41 kg

5 Which quantity is weight an example of?

A acceleration
B force
C mass
D pressure

6 A rectangular metal block is 20 cm long.

The cross-sectional area of the block is 25 cm2.

The mass of the block is 4000 g.

What is the density of the metal?

A 0.13 g / cm3 B 0.32 g / cm3 C 8.0 g / cm3 D 2000 g / cm3

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7 A force of 4.0 N acts on a beam as shown.

beam
x

pivot
4.0 N

The line of action of the force is a distance x from a pivot. The moment of this force about this
pivot is 8.0 N cm.

What is distance x?

A 0.50 cm B 2.0 cm C 12 cm D 32 cm

8 The diagram shows a stand. The stand holds a heavy mass above the bench.

heavy mass

stand

bench
base

Which two changes would definitely make the stand more stable?

A Lower the mass and make the base narrower.


B Lower the mass and make the base wider.
C Raise the mass and make the base narrower.
D Raise the mass and make the base wider.

9 Two wind farms supply electrical energy to consumers in different ways.

Wind farm 1 supplies energy directly to consumers and for every 1000 J of energy extracted from
the wind, 360 J is transferred to consumers as electrical energy.

Wind farm 2 stores electrical energy in batteries and then supplies energy from the batteries to
the consumer. For every 1000 J of energy extracted from the wind, 270 J is transferred to
consumers as electrical energy.

Which statement about the two wind farms is correct?

A Wind farm 1 is less reliable and less efficient than wind farm 2.
B Wind farm 1 is less reliable but more efficient than wind farm 2.
C Wind farm 1 is more reliable but less efficient than wind farm 2.
D Wind farm 1 is more reliable and more efficient than wind farm 2.
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10 Work is done.

Which physical quantity is transferred?

A distance
B energy
C force
D temperature

11 To calculate the power produced by a force, the size of the force must be known.

What else needs to be known to calculate the power?

the distance that the force the time for which the
moves the object force acts on the object

A   key
B    = needed
C   = not needed
D  

12 The diagram shows a mercury barometer.

Which height is used as a measurement of atmospheric pressure?

D
mercury
C
B

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13 A man who weighs 540 N stands with both feet on the ground. The area of contact between one
foot and the ground is 0.015 m2.

What is the pressure exerted on the floor by the man?

A 1800 N / m2
B 3600 N / m2
C 18 000 N / m2
D 36 000 N / m2

14 On a warm day, a driver checks the air pressure in a car tyre. At night, the temperature drops and
the air pressure in the tyre decreases. There are no air leaks in the tyre.

Why does the pressure decrease?

A The air molecules in the tyre move more slowly.


B The air molecules in the tyre stop moving.
C The volume of the air in the tyre decreases.
D The volume of the air in the tyre increases.

15 Wet clothes are put out on a line to allow the water in the clothes to evaporate.

Which type of weather would cause the water to evaporate most quickly?

A a cold day with no wind


B a cold day with wind
C a hot day with no wind
D a hot day with wind

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16 A bimetallic strip is used to control the temperature of electrical appliances. It is made of two
different metals fixed together.

The diagram shows the shape of the bimetallic strip before and after heating.

metal P

metal Q
before heating after heating

Which statement is correct?

A Metal P contracts more than metal Q on heating.


B Metal Q contracts more than metal P on heating.
C Metal P expands more than metal Q on heating.
D Metal Q expands more than metal P on heating.

17 Samples of four different substances are heated in turn by the same heater, for the same time
duration and in the same conditions. The increase in temperature for each sample is recorded in
the table.

Which sample has the highest thermal capacity?

temperature
sample
rise / C

A aluminium 6.0
B copper 8.0
C mercury 10.0
D water 5.0

18 Thermal energy is supplied at the same rate to four bars made from different materials.

thermal
energy X Y

After several minutes, there is a temperature difference between X and Y for each bar.

Which statement identifies the bar with the greatest temperature difference between points X and
Y, and gives the correct reason?

A copper because it is a good conductor of thermal energy


B lead because it is the densest metal
C plastic because it is a poor conductor of thermal energy
D wood because it is a good conductor of thermal energy
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19 A scientist measures the air temperature at different heights from the floor in a cave. The results
are recorded in the table.

height / m temperature / C

0 10
10 11
20 13
30 14
40 16

Why does altering the height affect the temperature of the air?

A The molecules in warm air have less energy than the molecules in cool air.
B The molecules in cool air are further apart than the molecules in warm air.
C Warm air is less dense than cool air.
D Cool air rises above warm air.

20 Which row correctly describes light waves?

wave type direction of vibrations

A longitudinal parallel to direction of wave travel


B longitudinal perpendicular to direction of wave travel
C transverse parallel to direction of wave travel
D transverse perpendicular to direction of wave travel

21 Waves travel across the surface of water.

What is meant by the amplitude of the wave?

A the maximum distance of a water particle from its mean position


B how far the wave travels every second
C the number of waves passing a point every second
D the distance between the top of consecutive waves

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22 Which diagram shows the image correctly formed by reflection?

A B
object image object image

mirror mirror

C D
object image object image

mirror mirror

23 A man sees a stone at the bottom of a pool of water.

Which path could be taken by light from the stone to the man?

man

A B C D
air

water

stone

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10

24 White light can be split into different colours by passing it through a prism.

What is the name of this process?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D total internal reflection

25 Which type of radiation does a remote controller use to send its instructions to a TV set?

A -rays
B infrared radiation
C ultraviolet radiation
D X-rays

26 A police car with its siren sounding is stationary in heavy traffic. A pedestrian notices that,
although the loudness of the sound produced does not change, the pitch varies.

Which row describes the amplitude and the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A constant constant
B constant varying
C varying constant
D varying varying

27 A student sets up four experiments using bar magnets and other metal objects. The N and S
poles of the bar magnets are labelled N and S.

1 2

S N S N S N iron

3 4

S N copper S N N S

Which pairs attract each other?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

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11

28 A student uses three small plotting compasses to investigate the magnetic field around a bar
magnet.

Which diagram shows the directions in which the compass needles point?

A B

N S N S

C D

N S N S

29 A polythene rod is charged negatively by rubbing it with a cloth.

Which statement explains why the rod has become charged?

A The rod has gained electrons.


B The rod has gained protons.
C The rod has lost electrons.
D The rod has lost protons.

30 There is a current in a variable resistor when a potential difference (p.d.) is applied across it.

In which situation is the current increased?

A Decrease the p.d. and keep the resistance the same.


B Decrease the p.d. and increase the resistance.
C Keep the p.d. the same and decrease the resistance.
D Keep the p.d. the same and increase the resistance.

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12

31 The circuit shown includes a battery, three lamps X, Y and Z and three switches S1, S2 and S3.

lamp X
S1

S2
lamp Y

S3
lamp Z

Lamp X is off but lamps Y and Z are lit.

Which switches are closed?

A S1 and S2 only
B S1 and S3 only
C S2 and S3 only
D S1, S2 and S3

32 A student uses four ammeters P, Q, R and S to measure the current in different parts of the
circuit shown.

P Q
A A

R
A

S
A

Which two ammeters read the largest current?

A P and Q B P and R C R and Q D R and S

33 An electrical appliance is powered from a mains supply.

The appliance normally uses a current of 3 A, but the current briefly rises to 4 A at the instant the
appliance is switched on. The cable to the appliance is designed for currents up to 6 A.

A fuse is used to protect the circuit.

What should be the rating of the fuse?

A 1A B 3A C 5A D 13 A
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13

34 A student investigates electromagnetic induction. She moves the N pole of a magnet quickly
towards a coil of wire. There is a reading on the galvanometer.

coil of wire
bar magnet

S N

What can she do to get a greater reading on the galvanometer?

A Hold the bar magnet stationary inside the coil.


B Move the bar magnet slowly away from the coil.
C Use a coil of wire with fewer turns on it.
D Use a stronger bar magnet.

35 A transformer is needed to convert a supply of 240 V a.c. into 4800 V a.c..

NP NS

240 V a.c. 4800 V a.c.

Which pair of coils would be suitable for this transformer?

number of turns number of turns


on primary coil NP on secondary coil NS

A 50 1 000
B 240 48 000
C 480 24
D 2000 100

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14

36 The diagram shows a wire carrying a current in the direction shown. The wire is between the
poles of a magnet.

A force is produced on the wire out of the page.

wire

N S

direction
of current

The wire and magnet are now put into different arrangements X, Y and Z. The arrow shows the
direction of the current in each case.

X Y Z

N S S N S N

In which arrangements is the force on the wire out of the page?

A X only B X and Y C X and Z D Z only

37 Which statement is correct for the nucleus of any atom?

A The nucleus contains electrons, neutrons and protons.


B The nucleus contains the same number of protons as neutrons.
C The nucleus has a total charge of zero.
D The nucleus is very small compared with the size of the atom.

38 The symbol represents a nucleus of zinc.

Which row gives the numbers of protons and neutrons in this nucleus?

number of number of
protons neutrons

A 30 38
B 30 68
C 38 30
D 38 68

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15

39 Three types of radiation are -radiation, -radiation and -radiation.

Which statement is correct?

A -radiation is less ionising than -radiation.

B -radiation is less ionising than -radiation.

C -radiation produces no ionisation.

D -radiation is more ionising than -radiation.

40 The graph shows the radioactive decay curve of a substance.

1000
count rate
counts / s
750

500

250

0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
time / years

What is the half-life of this substance?

A 0.5 years B 5 years C 15 years D 30 years

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16

BLANK PAGE

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publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2020
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2020 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2020

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 C 1

3 C 1

4 A 1

5 B 1

6 C 1

7 B 1

8 B 1

9 B 1

10 B 1

11 A 1

12 C 1

13 C 1

14 A 1

15 D 1

16 C 1

17 D 1

18 C 1

19 C 1

20 D 1

21 A 1

22 D 1

23 B 1

24 B 1

25 B 1

26 B 1

27 A 1

28 A 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2020

Question Answer Marks

29 A 1

30 C 1

31 C 1

32 A 1

33 C 1

34 D 1

35 A 1

36 D 1

37 D 1

38 A 1

39 D 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4235244434*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_0625_13/4RP
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1 A student uses a metre rule to measure the length of a sheet of paper.

Which measurement is shown to the nearest millimetre?

A 0.3 m B 0.29 m C 0.293 m D 0.2932 m

2 The diagram shows the distance–time graph for the motion of an object.

distance

0
0 time

How can the motion of the object be described?

A at rest, then constant deceleration


B at rest, then constant speed
C constant speed, then constant acceleration
D constant speed, then constant deceleration

3 An athlete runs 300 m up a hill in 100 s.

She then runs down the same hill in 50 s.

What is her average speed for the whole run?

A 2.0 m / s B 4.0 m / s C 8.0 m / s D 9.0 m / s

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4 The diagram shows an object on a balance. The reading on the balance is shown.

object

200 g

Which quantity is shown?

A the mass of the object


B the pressure exerted by the object
C the volume of the object
D the weight of the object

5 Which quantity is weight an example of?

A acceleration
B force
C mass
D pressure

6 A student is asked to predict whether a solid floats in a liquid.

Which information does the student require?

A the density of the liquid and the mass of the solid


B the density of the solid and the density of the liquid
C the density of the solid and the mass of the liquid
D the mass of the solid and the mass of the liquid

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7 The diagram shows a car moving along a road.

The force due to the engine is 1500 N and the total drag force is 200 N.

engine force
drag force
1500 N
200 N
road

What is the motion of the car?

A constant speed
B decreasing speed
C increasing speed
D reversing

8 Students X and Y are sitting on a seesaw. Student X has a weight of 400 N and student Y has a
weight of 600 N. The seesaw is in equilibrium.

student X student Y

Which statement correctly describes why the seesaw is in equilibrium?

A The resultant force is zero and the resultant moment is zero.


B The resultant force is 200 N and the resultant moment is zero.
C The sum of the downward forces is zero and the resultant moment is zero.
D The total downward force is 1000 N and the resultant moment is 200 N m.

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9 The diagram shows a frictionless pendulum.

pendulum
bob
P R
Q

The pendulum bob swings from point P through point Q to point R then back to P.

At which point is the energy of the pendulum bob greatest?

A at point P
B at point Q
C at point R
D it is the same at points P, Q and R

10 Which statement correctly compares the production of electricity using wind and the production of
electricity using nuclear fission?

A Wind is less reliable than nuclear fission; both wind and nuclear fission are renewable.
B Wind is less reliable than nuclear fission; wind is renewable, but nuclear fission is not.
C Wind is more reliable than nuclear fission; both wind and nuclear fission are renewable.
D Wind is more reliable than nuclear fission; wind is renewable, but nuclear fission is not.

11 To calculate the power produced by a force, the size of the force must be known.

What else needs to be known to calculate the power?

the distance that the force the time for which the
moves the object force acts on the object

A   key
B    = needed
C    = not needed
D  

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12 The diagram shows a mercury barometer.

Which height is used as a measurement of atmospheric pressure?

D
mercury
C
B

13 A large box has a weight of 700 N. The box is placed on the floor.

50 cm
70 cm

What is the pressure on the floor due to the box?

A 0.20 N / m2 B 10 N / m2 C 245 N / m2 D 2000 N / m2

14 On a warm day, a driver checks the air pressure in a car tyre. At night, the temperature drops and
the air pressure in the tyre decreases. There are no air leaks in the tyre.

Why does the pressure decrease?

A The air molecules in the tyre move more slowly.


B The air molecules in the tyre stop moving.
C The volume of the air in the tyre decreases.
D The volume of the air in the tyre increases.

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15 A textbook gives the description of a thermal process as ‘more-energetic molecules escape from
the surface of a liquid which causes the liquid to cool’.

Which process is being described?

A boiling
B Brownian motion
C condensation
D evaporation

16 Which physical property changes when temperature is measured with a liquid-in-glass


thermometer?

A electromotive force
B pressure
C resistance
D volume

17 Two different pure substances X and Y are heated. Both substance X and substance Y are
initially in the solid state.

The graph shows how the temperature of each substance changes with time.

temperature substance X

substance Y

0
0 time

What does the graph tell us about the substances?

A Substance X has a lower boiling point than substance Y.


B Substance X has a lower melting point than substance Y.
C Substance Y has a lower boiling point than substance X.
D Substance Y has a lower melting point than substance X.

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18 The diagram shows the view of a room heated by a radiator. The arrowed line from X to Y is the
path of the convection current in the air.

ceiling

X
Y

radiator
floor

Which row about the air temperature and the air density at X and at Y is correct?

air temperature air density

A higher at X higher at X
B higher at X higher at Y
C higher at Y higher at Y
D higher at Y higher at X

19 Which thermal process can transfer energy through a vacuum?

A conduction
B convection
C evaporation
D radiation

20 Which row correctly describes light waves?

wave type direction of vibrations

A longitudinal parallel to direction of wave travel


B longitudinal perpendicular to direction of wave travel
C transverse parallel to direction of wave travel
D transverse perpendicular to direction of wave travel

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21 The diagram shows a wave. It is not drawn to scale.

6.0 m

2.0 m

What are the amplitude and the wavelength of the wave?

amplitude / m wavelength / m

A 1.0 1.0
B 1.0 2.0
C 2.0 2.0
D 2.0 3.0

22 A boy is having his eyes tested. A letter is printed on a card placed over his head. He sees the
card in a plane mirror placed on the far wall of the room.

He sees the letter ‘R’ in the mirror.

How is it printed on the card?

A B C D

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10

23 A man sees a stone at the bottom of a pool of water.

Which path could be taken by light from the stone to the man?

man

A B C D
air

water

stone

24 The diagram shows the image made by a converging lens.

light rays
converging lens

principal axis
object
2F F F 2F
image

Which statement describes the image formed?

A diminished and inverted


B diminished and upright
C enlarged and inverted
D enlarged and upright

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11

25 The diagram shows three types of electromagnetic radiation listed in a particular order. The
electromagnetic radiation is travelling in a vacuum.

microwaves infrared X-rays

Which quantities increase in magnitude going from left to right across the list?

A frequency only
B neither speed nor frequency
C speed and frequency
D speed only

26 A police car with its siren sounding is stationary in heavy traffic. A pedestrian notices that,
although the loudness of the sound produced does not change, the pitch varies.

Which row describes the amplitude and the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A constant constant
B constant varying
C varying constant
D varying varying

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12

27 Diagrams 1, 2 and 3 show an experiment to compare two magnets 1 and 2.

W magnet 1 Y magnet 2

X Z

N N N
magnet magnet magnet

S S S

125.3 g 124.9 g 126.7 g

diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3

Which row explains the readings on the balances?

polarity of magnet 1 polarity of magnet 2

A X is an N pole Z is an N pole
B X is an N pole Z is an S pole
C X is an S pole Z is an N pole
D X is an S pole Z is an S pole

28 A student uses three small plotting compasses to investigate the magnetic field around a bar
magnet.

Which diagram shows the directions in which the compass needles point?

A B

N S N S

C D

N S N S

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13

29 Which statement about charging an insulator is correct?

A It can be given an electrostatic charge by placing it in a magnetic field.


B It can be given an electrostatic charge by connecting it to a battery.
C It can be given an electrostatic charge by friction.
D It cannot be given an electrostatic charge.

30 Each diagram shows part of a circuit. The circle represents an instrument used to measure the
potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor.

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which row is correct?

diagram which shows the


the unit of p.d.
meter correctly connected

A amperes diagram 1
B amperes diagram 2
C volts diagram 1
D volts diagram 2

31 A student uses four ammeters P, Q, R and S to measure the current in different parts of the
circuit shown.

P Q
A A

R
A

S
A

Which two ammeters read the largest current?

A P and Q B P and R C R and Q D R and S

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14

32 Three statements about a relay are given.

1 A relay has a coil that becomes a temporary magnet when in operation.


2 A large current in a relay coil is used to switch off a smaller current.
3 A small current in a relay coil is used to switch on a larger current.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

33 An electrical appliance is powered from a mains supply.

The appliance normally uses a current of 3 A, but the current briefly rises to 4 A at the instant the
appliance is switched on. The cable to the appliance is designed for currents up to 6 A.

A fuse is used to protect the circuit.

What should be the rating of the fuse?

A 1A B 3A C 5A D 13 A

34 When a metal wire moves up, cutting a magnetic field, an electromotive force (e.m.f.) is induced
across the wire.

Which change affects the magnitude of the induced e.m.f.?

A moving the wire down at the same speed


B moving the wire up at a faster speed
C using a thicker wire
D using a wire made from a different metal

35 A transformer is needed to convert a supply of 240 V a.c. into 4800 V a.c..

NP NS

240 V a.c. 4800 V a.c.

Which pair of coils would be suitable for this transformer?

number of turns number of turns


on primary coil NP on secondary coil NS

A 50 1 000
B 240 48 000
C 480 24
D 2000 100
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15

36 The diagram shows a wire carrying a current in the direction shown. There is a magnetic field
acting from left to right. The wire experiences a force acting out of the page.

direction
of current
wire

direction of
magnetic field

The current is now reversed.

In which direction does the force on the wire now act?

A into the page


B out of the page
C to the left
D to the right

37 Which statement is correct for the nucleus of any atom?

A The nucleus contains electrons, neutrons and protons.


B The nucleus contains the same number of protons as neutrons.
C The nucleus has a total charge of zero.
D The nucleus is very small compared with the size of the atom.

234
38 How many protons and how many neutrons are in a nucleus of 90Th?

protons neutrons

A 90 144
B 90 234
C 144 90
D 234 90

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16

39 A radiation detector in a laboratory is measuring background radiation.

Which row describes the readings and the cause?

readings cause

A vary with no pattern background radiation is random


B vary with no pattern radiation detectors are unstable

C slowly increase during the day background radiation increases


as temperature increases
D slowly reduce during the day background radiation decreases
as temperature increases

40 The graph shows the radioactive decay curve of a substance.

1000
count rate
counts / s
750

500

250

0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
time / years

What is the half-life of this substance?

A 0.5 years B 5 years C 15 years D 30 years

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0625/13/O/N/20

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S-ReCourSe....38-H,PHASE-1,DHA,LHR...742 of 1118...Call.03-234567800

Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2020
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2020 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2020

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 B 1

3 B 1

4 A 1

5 B 1

6 B 1

7 C 1

8 A 1

9 D 1

10 B 1

11 A 1

12 C 1

13 D 1

14 A 1

15 D 1

16 D 1

17 D 1

18 B 1

19 D 1

20 D 1

21 B 1

22 B 1

23 B 1

24 A 1

25 A 1

26 B 1

27 C 1

28 A 1

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2020

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 D 1

31 A 1

32 C 1

33 C 1

34 B 1

35 A 1

36 A 1

37 D 1

38 A 1

39 A 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) February/March 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*9288526984*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

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1 A student has a measuring cylinder containing water and also has a balance.

Which of these could she use to find the volume of a small metal sphere?

She has no other apparatus.

A either the measuring cylinder containing water or the balance


B the measuring cylinder containing water only
C the balance only
D neither the measuring cylinder nor the balance

2 Two rockets are launched at the same time from the surface of the Earth. The graph shows how
the speeds of the rockets change with time.

speed rocket P

rocket Q

0
0 time

Which statement about the rockets is correct?

A Both rockets travel the same distance.


B Rocket P accelerates and then decelerates.
C Rocket P travels further than rocket Q.
D Rocket Q has zero acceleration.

3 A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes.

What is the average speed of the train?

A 3.0 m / s B 5.0 m / s C 50 m / s D 60 m / s

4 What is weight?

A a frictional force
B a magnetic force
C a gravitational force
D an electromagnetic force

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5 The diagram shows a bird in flight. The bird is flying in a horizontal direction to the right.

In which direction does air resistance act on the bird?

D B

6 A small bottle has a mass of 20 g when empty. The volume of the bottle is 10 cm3.

When full of liquid, the total mass is 150 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.50 g / cm3 B 2.0 g / cm3 C 13 g / cm3 D 15 g / cm3

7 A rocket is travelling vertically upwards. Three vertical forces act on it.

The thrust acts upwards and is equal to 100 000 N.

The weight acts downwards and is equal to 80 000 N.

What is the air resistance force acting on the rocket when it is travelling upwards at constant
speed?

A 20 000 N downwards
B 20 000 N upwards
C 180 000 N downwards
D 180 000 N upwards

8 Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations?

A energy from tides


B energy from waves
C hydroelectric energy
D nuclear energy

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9 Two people X and Y sit on a see-saw, as shown.

900 N
X Y NOT TO
SCALE
1.5 m

400 N 300 N pivot

X weighs 400 N and sits 1.5 m from the pivot.

The weight of the see-saw is 300 N and acts through the pivot.

When the see-saw is balanced, the pivot pushes up on the see-saw with a force of 900 N.

What is the weight of person Y and how far from the pivot is he sitting?

weight of Y distance from


/N pivot / m

A 200 1.5
B 200 3.0
C 400 1.5
D 400 3.0

10 A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface.

The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction
between the box and the surface.

How much work is done by the force?

A 10 J B 20 J C 30 J D 40 J

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11 The table shows the work done and the time taken by four machines.

Which machine is the most powerful?

work done time taken


/ kJ /s

A 100 10
B 100 20
C 200 10
D 200 20

12 The diagram shows a manometer connected to a gas supply.

mm
500

from 400
gas supply

300

200

100

mercury
0

What is the pressure of the gas supply?

A 100 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure


B 100 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure
C 200 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure
D 200 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure

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13 The diagram shows a box of dimensions 6.0 cm  8.0 cm  4.0 cm.

6.0 cm

X
Z
4.0 cm Y 8.0 cm

The box rests on a flat horizontal surface.

On which face must the box rest in order to exert the least pressure?

A face X
B face Y
C face Z
D The pressure is the same for all the faces.

14 Air in a sealed syringe is slowly compressed by moving the piston. The temperature of the air
stays the same.

air

syringe piston

Which statement about the air is correct?

A The pressure of the air decreases because its molecules now travel more slowly.
B The pressure of the air decreases because the area of the syringe walls is now smaller.
C The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now hit the syringe walls more
frequently.
D The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now travel more quickly.

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15 In an experiment, smoke particles are suspended in air and viewed through a microscope.

The smoke particles move about with short random movements.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in one direction
only.
B Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in random
directions.
C Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in one
direction only.
D Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in random
directions.

16 A beaker of liquid is heated slowly so that the liquid evaporates.

During evaporation, from where do the more energetic molecules leave the liquid?

B liquid

C
D

heat

17 Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested.

Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction?

A rubber
B copper
C plastic
D steel

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18 The diagram shows a simple type of thermometer.

steel bar

roller
horizontal surface

pointer

The roller rests on a horizontal surface and the steel bar rests on top of the roller.

When the temperature changes, the pointer rotates.

Which physical property is being used to measure temperature?

A the length of the pointer


B the length of the roller
C the length of the steel bar
D the thickness of the roller

19 A piece of melting ice at 0 C and a beaker of boiling water are both in a laboratory. The
laboratory is at 20 C.

boiling water

Bunsen burner
melting ice heating water

What is happening to the temperature of the melting ice and what is happening to the
temperature of the boiling water?

temperature of temperature of
melting ice boiling water

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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20 Four metal mugs with lids each contain the same volume of hot water at the same temperature.

The mugs are made from the same metal and are the same shape and size, but each has its
outside surface painted with a different combination of texture and colour.

Which mug radiates thermal energy at the fastest rate?

A the mug painted shiny white


B the mug painted dull white
C the mug painted shiny black
D the mug painted dull black

21 The diagram shows a wave.

displacement from
undisturbed position
Q
P
0
0 position
R S along wave

Which dimensions describe the properties of the wave?

A P = amplitude, S = speed
B P = speed, Q = wavelength
C R = amplitude, Q = wavelength
D R = amplitude, S = wavelength

22 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?

A The amplitude of the light changes.


B The colour of the light changes.
C The frequency of the light changes.
D The speed of the light changes.

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10

23 Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38.

What is the angle of reflection?

A 38 B 52 C 76 D 142

24 A thin converging lens is used to produce a sharp image of a candle.

screen
image

lens

candle

Various sharp images are produced on the screen by moving the lens and the screen backwards
and forwards.

Which statement is always correct?

A The image is at the principal focus (focal point) of the lens.


B The image is bigger than the object.
C The image is closer to the lens than the object.
D The image is inverted.

25 Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

What is the name of this region of the spectrum?

A gamma rays
B infrared rays
C ultraviolet rays
D visible light rays

26 Which process causes a sound wave to produce an echo?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction
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11

27 A quiet sound is produced by a loudspeaker. The pitch of the sound remains constant but the
loudness of the sound is increased.

Which property of the sound wave is increased?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

28 A soft-iron bar is not magnetised. It is held close to the N pole of a magnet and then to the S pole
of the same magnet.

What will be the result?

N pole S pole

A attracts attracts
B attracts repels
C repels attracts
D repels repels

29 A charged rod X is placed on a balance and another rod Y is brought close to it, as shown.

X X

45.3 g 45.7 g

Which combination of charges would cause the change in the balance reading shown?

X Y

A negative charge negative charge


B negative charge positive charge
C negative charge no charge
D positive charge no charge

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12

30 Three cores of different metals P, Q and R are placed inside identical coils of wire.

At least one of the metals is non-magnetic.

The cores are held above some iron nails.

The three diagrams show what happens when there is a current in the coils.

coil
+ + +

– – –
core
P Q R

iron
nails

The three diagrams below show what happens when the current is then switched off.

+ + +

– – –

P Q R

Which core metals are magnetic?

A P only B R only C P and Q D Q and R

31 A length of metal wire is used as a resistor in a circuit.

Which change to the wire results in an increase in current in the circuit?

A connecting a second identical length of wire in parallel with the original wire
B connecting a second identical length of wire in series with the original wire
C decreasing the thickness of the wire
D increasing the length of the wire

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13

32 The diagram shows a circuit containing a power supply, a lamp and a motor. Three ammeters
measure the current at different points in the circuit. The readings on the ammeters are I1, I2
and I3.

ammeter reading I1
A ammeter reading I2

A
ammeter reading I3
M A

Which statement about the ammeter readings is correct?

A All three readings are the same.

B I1 is greater than I2 and is greater than I3.

C I2 is greater than I1 and is greater than I3.

D I3 is greater than I1 and is greater than I2.

33 A student designs a circuit to use as a dimmer switch for a lamp.

What happens to the brightness of the lamp and the potential difference (p.d.) across the lamp,
when the slider is moved from X to Y?

brightness of lamp p.d. across the lamp

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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14

34 Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from
damage by a very large current?

A earth wire
B fuse
C relay
D thermistor

35 The diagram shows an electromagnet near a coil of wire connected to a voltmeter. The reading
on the voltmeter is zero.

electromagnet coil

soft iron

switch

V
+ –

The switch is closed. The electromagnet magnetises quickly.

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter?

A It keeps increasing.
B It quickly increases and stays at maximum.
C It quickly increases and then decreases.
D It stays on zero.

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15

36 Which diagram represents the voltage output of a simple a.c. generator?

A B

voltage voltage

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

voltage voltage

0 0
0 time 0 time

37 Three students are describing the structure of an atom.

student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus.


student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus.
student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus.

Which students are making a correct statement?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

38 The symbol below describes a nuclide.

Which row is correct?

proton nucleon
number (Z) number (A)

A 4 5
B 4 9
C 9 4
D 9 5

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16

39 The diagram shows a radioactivity experiment.

absorber counter

source radiation
detector

When a piece of paper is used as the absorber, the count rate drops to the background count
rate.

Which radiation is the source emitting?

A -radiation only

B -radiation only

C -radiation only

D -radiation, -radiation and -radiation

40 The graph shows how the count rate from a radioactive sample changes with time.

600
count rate
counts / s 500

400

300

200

100

0
0 50 100 150 200 250 300 350 400
time / s

What is the half-life for this sample?

A 90 s B 120 s C 200 s D 400 s

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) March 2021
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the March 2021 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme March 2021
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 C 1

3 C 1

4 C 1

5 D 1

6 C 1

7 A 1

8 D 1

9 B 1

10 D 1

11 C 1

12 C 1

13 A 1

14 C 1

15 D 1

16 A 1

17 B 1

18 C 1

19 A 1

20 D 1

21 C 1

22 D 1

23 A 1

24 D 1

25 B 1

26 C 1

27 A 1

28 A 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme March 2021
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 A 1

30 D 1

31 A 1

32 B 1

33 A 1

34 B 1

35 C 1

36 B 1

37 C 1

38 B 1

39 A 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*2448346913*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 06_0625_11/3RP
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1 The diagram shows a stone of irregular shape.

Which property of the stone can be found by lowering it into a measuring cylinder half-filled with
water?

A length
B mass
C volume
D weight

2 Two stones of different weights fall at the same time from a table. Air resistance may be ignored.

What will happen and why?

what will happen why

A Both stones hit the floor at the same time. Acceleration of free fall is constant.
B Both stones hit the floor at the same time. They fall at constant speed.
C The heavier stone hits the floor first. Acceleration increases with weight.
D The heavier stone hits the floor first. Speed increases with weight.

3 The distance–time graph for a motorway journey is shown.

100
90
distance / km 80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120
time / min

What is the average speed for the journey?

A 50 km / h B 67 km / h C 70 km / h D 83 km / h

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4 Diagram 1 shows a sealed plastic bottle containing a hollow glass sphere and a steel ball.

Diagram 2 shows the same bottle after it has been shaken.

Diagram 3 shows the same bottle after it has been shaken again until the broken glass is in tiny
pieces.

sealed
plastic
bottle

hollow
glass tiny pieces
broken
steel ball sphere steel ball steel ball of broken
glass
glass

diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3

The mass of the bottle and contents in diagram 1 is m1.

The mass of the bottle and contents in diagram 2 is m2.

The mass of the bottle and contents in diagram 3 is m3.

Which statement gives the correct relation between m1, m2 and m3?

A m1 is equal to m2 and m2 is equal to m3.


B m1 is greater than m2 and m2 is greater than m3.
C m1 is less than m2 and m2 is greater than m3.
D m1 is less than m2 and m2 is less than m3.

5 On Mars, the acceleration of free fall g is 3.7 m / s2.

What is the weight of a 2.0 kg mass on Mars?

A 0.54 N B 1.9 N C 7.4 N D 20 N

6 The mass of an empty flask is 34 g.

The volume of liquid added to the flask is 20 cm3.

The total mass of the flask and the liquid is 50 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.80 g / cm3 B 1.25 g / cm3 C 2.50 g / cm3 D 4.20 g / cm3

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7 The diagram shows a solid object on a flat surface, with two forces acting on the object.

3N 4N

What is the resultant force on the object?

A 1 N to the left
B 1 N to the right
C 7 N to the left
D 7 N to the right

8 The extension–load graph for a spring is shown. The unstretched length of the spring is 17.0 cm.

3
extension / cm

0
0 1 2 3 4
load / N

When an object is suspended from the spring, the length of the spring is 19.2 cm.

What is the weight of the object?

A 1.4 N B 1.6 N C 2.6 N D 3.0 N

9 Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred?

A a car skidding to a stop on a road


B a crane lifting a load
C a heavy load hanging from a strong bar
D a student dragging a big box over a rough floor
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10 A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block
of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions.

1 Heat it.
2 Shine light on it.
3 Pass a current through it.

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

11 Two men, X and Y, try to move identical heavy boxes, P and Q.

Man X tries to push box P along the floor. The box does not move because an object is in the
way.

Man Y lifts box Q from the floor onto a shelf.

shelf
box P man X man Y

direction
of force
object

direction of force box Q

Which man does the most work on their box, and which box gains the most energy?

man doing box gaining


most work most energy

A X P
B X Q
C Y P
D Y Q

12 A book has a mass of 400 g.

The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m  0.20 m.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book?

A 0.08 N / m2 B 8.0 N / m2 C 20 N / m2 D 200 N / m2

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13 A mercury barometer is used to measure atmospheric pressure.

Which distance gives a measure of the atmospheric pressure?

A
B
D

14 Air trapped in a sealed bottle increases in temperature.

Which row shows the changes that occur to the trapped air?

average speed of
pressure of the air
molecules in the air

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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15 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.

When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random,
jerky manner.

eye

microscope

bright light

pollen grains
in water

What are the moving specks of light?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

16 Why are small gaps left between the metal rails of a railway track?

A to allow for expansion of the rails on a hot day


B to allow for contraction of the rails on a hot day
C to allow for expansion of the rails on a cold day
D to allow for contraction of the rails on a cold day

17 All thermometers require a physical property that changes with temperature.

Which property would not be suitable for use in a thermometer?

A pressure
B volume
C electrical resistance
D mass
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18 The thermal capacity of object Y is greater than that of object Z.

What is a consequence of this?

A Object Y needs less thermal energy to melt it than object Z.

B Object Y needs less thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z.
C Object Y needs more thermal energy to melt it than object Z.

D Object Y needs more thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z.

19 Two students carry out different experiments to compare the abilities of different metals to
conduct thermal energy.

metal bar metal bar

wax
melted wax strip pin
heat heat
experiment 1 experiment 2

In experiment 1, the bar is heated for one minute and the length of wax strip that melts is
measured.

In experiment 2, the bar is heated and the time taken for the pin to drop off is measured.

What happens to each of these measurements when a better conductor of thermal energy is
tested?

length of melted time taken for


wax strip the pin to drop

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

20 In which substances is convection a method of thermal energy transfer?

A air and water only


B air only
C air, water and wood
D water only

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21 The diagram represents a wave on a rope.

rope

Which type of wave is shown and which labelled arrow shows the wavelength of the wave?

type of wave wavelength

A longitudinal X
B longitudinal Y
C transverse X
D transverse Y

22 The diagrams show water waves in three different situations. The arrows show the direction of
travel of the waves.

1 2 3

What does each diagram show?

1 2 3

A diffraction reflection refraction


B diffraction refraction reflection
C reflection diffraction refraction
D reflection refraction diffraction

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10

23 The diagram shows a narrow beam of light incident on a glass-air boundary. Some of the light
emerges along the surface of the glass and some is reflected back into the glass.


glass
air

Which row is correct?

this is an example of angle  is the


total internal reflection critical angle

A no yes
B no no
C yes no
D yes yes

24 An object is placed in front of a thin converging lens.

The diagram shows the paths of two rays from the top of the object.

converging lens

object

An image of the object is formed on a screen to the right of the lens.

How does this image compare with the object?

A It is larger and inverted.


B It is larger and the same way up.
C It is smaller and inverted.
D It is smaller and the same way up.

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11

25 A student is asked to give two uses of four different types of electromagnetic radiation.

In which row are both the uses correct?

radiation use 1 use 2

A radio sterilising medical equipment mobile phone masts


B microwaves mobile phones sterilising medical equipment
C infrared remote controllers intruder alarms
D X-rays security in airports intruder alarms

26 The diagrams represent the waves produced by four sources of sound. The scales are the same
for all the diagrams.

Which sound has the highest frequency?

A time

B time

C time

D time

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12

27 Diagram 1 shows a small compass needle with its poles marked. It is not near any magnetic
materials.

Diagram 2 shows a bar magnet with its poles marked. The compass needle is placed at point P.

diagram 1 diagram 2
N
N S
S

In which direction will the N pole of the compass needle point?

A to the left
B to the right
C down the page
D up the page

28 Which diagram shows the pattern and direction of the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet?

A B

N S N S

C D

N S N S

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13

29 A student rubs a plastic rod with a cloth.

The rod becomes positively charged.

What has happened to the rod?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained protons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost protons.

30 The circuit diagram shows a cell connected to an ammeter and two resistors.

6.0 V

A
3.0 Ω 5.0 Ω

What is the current in the circuit?

A 0.75 A B 1.3 A C 12 A D 48 A

31 The diagram shows an electrical circuit.

component X component Y

Which row describes what happens when the temperature rises?

resistance of potential difference (p.d.)


component X across component Y

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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14

32 Diagram 1 shows a resistor connected in a circuit. Diagram 2 shows an identical resistor


connected in parallel with the first one.

diagram 1 diagram 2

What is the combined resistance of the two resistors?

A greater than in the circuit of diagram 1


B less than in the circuit of diagram 1
C the same as in the circuit of diagram 1
D zero

33 The current in a lamp connected on its own to the mains supply is 0.60 A.

A table decoration has three of these lamps connected in parallel.

Which rating of fuse is suitable to protect this circuit?

A 0.2 A B 0.6 A C 1.0 A D 5.0 A

34 A solenoid is connected to a very sensitive ammeter. A rod is inserted into one end of the
solenoid. The ammeter shows that there is a small electric current in the solenoid while the rod is
moving.

solenoid
rod

Which rod is being inserted?

A a heated copper rod


B a magnetised steel rod
C an uncharged nylon rod
D a radioactive uranium rod

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15

35 The diagram shows a transformer. There are 460 turns on the primary coil and 24 turns on the
secondary coil. The primary voltage is 230 V.

iron core

primary coil secondary coil

What is the secondary voltage?

A 2.0 V B 12 V C 48 V D 4400 V

36 A class is designing a d.c. motor. To achieve a greater turning effect, three suggestions are
made.

1 Have a larger current in the coil of the motor.


2 Have a stronger magnet in the motor.
3 Put a larger number of turns on the coil.

Which suggestions will help to increase the turning effect?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

37 The charge on a proton is e.

What is the charge on an electron and what is the charge on a neutron?

electron neutron

A e e
B e 0
C –e –e
D –e 0

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16

90
38 The nuclide notation of the isotope strontium-90 is 38 Sr .

Which statement is correct?

A A nucleus of strontium-90 has 38 neutrons.


B A nucleus of strontium-90 has 52 neutrons.
C A nucleus of strontium-90 has 90 electrons.
D A nucleus of strontium-90 has 90 neutrons.

39 Which statement about -particles and -rays is correct?

A -particles are a form of electromagnetic radiation.

B -particles penetrate materials more easily than -rays.

C The emission of an -particle produces a nucleus of a different element.

D -rays are more ionising than -particles.

40 The graph shows the activity of a radioactive source over a period of time.

120
activity
counts / s 90

60

30

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes

What is the half-life of the source?

A 1.0 minute B 2.0 minutes C 2.5 minutes D 4.0 minutes

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2021
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2021 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2021
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 A 1

3 A 1

4 A 1

5 C 1

6 A 1

7 B 1

8 D 1

9 C 1

10 D 1

11 D 1

12 D 1

13 B 1

14 D 1

15 B 1

16 A 1

17 D 1

18 D 1

19 C 1

20 A 1

21 D 1

22 D 1

23 A 1

24 A 1

25 C 1

26 D 1

27 B 1

28 C 1

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2021
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 A 1

31 B 1

32 B 1

33 D 1

34 B 1

35 B 1

36 A 1

37 D 1

38 B 1

39 C 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*7603003757*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages.

IB21 06_0625_12/4RP
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1 Which piece of apparatus is the most suitable for measuring the mass of a pencil sharpener?

A digital balance
B measuring cylinder
C newton meter
D ruler

2 A cyclist records his speed and the distance travelled during a journey.

He then plots the data against time for different sections of his journey.

Which graph shows a section when he is moving with constant speed?

A B

distance speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

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3 Two stones of different weights fall at the same time from a table. Air resistance may be ignored.

What will happen and why?

what will happen why

A Both stones hit the floor at the same time. Acceleration of free fall is constant.
B Both stones hit the floor at the same time. They fall at constant speed.
C The heavier stone hits the floor first. Acceleration increases with weight.
D The heavier stone hits the floor first. Speed increases with weight.

4 Diagram 1 shows a sealed plastic bottle containing a hollow glass sphere and a steel ball.

Diagram 2 shows the same bottle after it has been shaken.

Diagram 3 shows the same bottle after it has been shaken again until the broken glass is in tiny
pieces.

sealed
plastic
bottle

hollow
glass tiny pieces
broken
steel ball sphere steel ball steel ball of broken
glass
glass

diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3

The mass of the bottle and contents in diagram 1 is m1.

The mass of the bottle and contents in diagram 2 is m2.

The mass of the bottle and contents in diagram 3 is m3.

Which statement gives the correct relation between m1, m2 and m3?

A m1 is equal to m2 and m2 is equal to m3.


B m1 is greater than m2 and m2 is greater than m3.
C m1 is less than m2 and m2 is greater than m3.
D m1 is less than m2 and m2 is less than m3.

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5 An astronaut wants to know how much she would weigh on different moons.

She measures her mass on Earth to be 82 kg. She researches the values of g on different moons
and uses these values to calculate her weight.

The results are shown.

Which weight is calculated correctly?

name g calculated
of moon N / kg weight / N

A Callisto 1.2 68
B Charon 0.28 23
C Dione 0.23 2.3
D Umbriel 0.23 0.0028

6 A measuring cylinder contains 40 cm3 of water.

A stone of mass 94 g is lowered into the water so that it is fully submerged as shown.

cm3
100
90
80
70
90
60
50
80
40
30 70
20
10

What is the density of the stone?

A 1.1 g / cm3 B 1.2 g / cm3 C 2.1 g / cm3 D 2.6 g / cm3

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7 A toy car travels down a sloping ramp at constant speed.

toy car

Which statement about the forces acting on the car is correct?

A There are no forces acting on the car vertically.


B There is no resultant force acting on the car.
C There is no gravitational force acting on the car.
D There is no frictional force acting on the car.

8 The extension–load graph for a spring is shown. The unstretched length of the spring is 17.0 cm.

3
extension / cm

0
0 1 2 3 4
load / N

When an object is suspended from the spring, the length of the spring is 19.2 cm.

What is the weight of the object?

A 1.4 N B 1.6 N C 2.6 N D 3.0 N

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9 An object is falling through a vacuum.

Which energy transfer is taking place?

A gravitational potential to kinetic


B gravitational potential to thermal
C kinetic to gravitational potential
D kinetic to thermal

10 This question is about four methods used to produce electrical energy.

Which method has a correct description?

energy source emits


method
is renewable carbon dioxide

A a hydroelectric power station yes no


B a coal-fired power station no no
C a wind turbine no yes
D a nuclear power station yes yes

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11 Two men, X and Y, try to move identical heavy boxes, P and Q.

Man X tries to push box P along the floor. The box does not move because an object is in the
way.

Man Y lifts box Q from the floor onto a shelf.

shelf
box P man X man Y

direction
of force
object

direction of force box Q

Which man does the most work on their box, and which box gains the most energy?

man doing box gaining


most work most energy

A X P
B X Q
C Y P
D Y Q

12 A book has a mass of 400 g.

The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m  0.20 m.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book?

A 0.08 N / m2 B 8.0 N / m2 C 20 N / m2 D 200 N / m2

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13 The diagrams show three containers, P, Q and R.

P Q R

Each container contains the same liquid.

The depth of the liquid is the same in each container.

Which statement about the pressure of the liquid at the bottom of the container is correct?

A The pressure of the liquid at the base of P is greatest.


B The pressure of the liquid at the base of Q is greatest.
C The pressure of the liquid at the base of R is greatest.
D The pressures of the liquid at the bases of P, Q and R are the same.

14 A person taking a shower notices that water appears on the inside of the bathroom window, even
though the window is some distance from the shower.

Which statement explains this observation?

A Droplets of water from the hot shower move through the air and onto the window.
B The colder window causes the steam in the atmosphere to solidify.
C Water vapour from the atmosphere condenses onto the colder window.
D The hot water boils and turns into steam.

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15 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.

When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random,
jerky manner.

eye

microscope

bright light

pollen grains
in water

What are the moving specks of light?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

16 A hole is drilled in a metal plate.

What happens to the length of the plate and to the diameter of the hole when the plate is cooled?

length of plate diameter of hole

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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10

17 A liquid-in-glass thermometer uses alcohol as its liquid.

Which property of alcohol is used to measure the temperature?

A boiling point
B colour
C thermal capacity
D volume

18 The thermal capacity of object Y is greater than that of object Z.

What is a consequence of this?

A Object Y needs less thermal energy to melt it than object Z.

B Object Y needs less thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z.
C Object Y needs more thermal energy to melt it than object Z.

D Object Y needs more thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z.

19 The table gives some examples of convection and an explanation of why the convection occurs.

Which row is correct?

example explanation
A air conditioner unit The unit is placed in a high position to circulate the cold air
rising from the floor level and so keeping the room cold.
B convection oven The air in the oven becomes more dense when
heated so it falls to the bottom heating the food faster.
C hot-air balloon Air inside the balloon becomes less dense
which causes the balloon to rise.
D land and sea breezes A breeze forms due to the warm air
above the land moving down towards the sea.

20 In which situation is radiation the main method by which energy is transferred?

A heating a pan of water using a gas camping stove


B energy reaching the Earth from the Sun
C heating the air in a room with a radiator
D giving gravitational potential energy to a glider when it is lifted by thermal currents

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11

21 Which diagram shows waves diffracting?

A B

C D

22 Which statement about the image of an object formed in a plane mirror is correct?

A It is smaller than the object.


B It is the same size as the object.
C It is larger than the object.
D It is inverted.

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12

23 An object is placed in front of a thin converging lens.

The diagram shows the paths of two rays from the top of the object.

converging lens

object

An image of the object is formed on a screen to the right of the lens.

How does this image compare with the object?

A It is larger and inverted.


B It is larger and the same way up.
C It is smaller and inverted.
D It is smaller and the same way up.

24 The table shows information about different colours of light.

colour frequency
of light / Hz

violet 7.2  1014


blue 6.3  1014
yellow 5.2  1014
red 4.5  1014

Using the data, what is the frequency of orange light?

A 4.0  1014 Hz

B 5.0  1014 Hz

C 6.0  1014 Hz

D 7.0  1014 Hz

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13

25 Sound is a transfer of energy from an oscillating source.

Which statement describes how sound energy is transferred?

A a longitudinal wave with the oscillation parallel to the direction in which energy is transferred
B a longitudinal wave with the oscillation perpendicular to the direction in which energy is
transferred
C a transverse wave with the oscillation parallel to the direction in which energy is transferred
D a transverse wave with the oscillation perpendicular to the direction in which energy is
transferred

26 The diagrams represent the waves produced by four sources of sound. The scales are the same
for all the diagrams.

Which sound has the highest frequency?

A time

B time

C time

D time

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14

27 Two metal rods each have a painted end. The painted ends are placed next to the N pole and
S pole of a bar magnet in turn.

N S

The rods are made from iron, aluminium or magnetised steel.

rod placed next to observation

1 N pole of bar magnet attracts


1 S pole of bar magnet attracts
2 N pole of bar magnet nothing happens
2 S pole of bar magnet nothing happens

What are rod 1 and rod 2 made from?

rod 1 rod 2

A magnetised steel aluminium


B iron magnetised steel
C aluminium iron
D iron aluminium

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15

28 Three piles of small nails, P, Q and R, are placed on a bench below three electromagnets.

One set of nails is made of copper, one of soft iron and one of steel.

Diagram 1 shows the situation when the electromagnets are switched on.

Diagram 2 shows the situation when the electromagnets are then switched off.

diagram 1
the switches are closed

Q R
P bench
small nails

diagram 2
the switches are open

small nails R
bench
P Q

Which row correctly identifies the materials from which the nails are made?

copper soft iron steel

A P Q R
B P R Q
C Q P R
D Q R P

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16

29 A student rubs a plastic rod with a cloth.

The rod becomes positively charged.

What has happened to the rod?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained protons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost protons.

30 A student connects a circuit with a resistor X. The reading on the ammeter is 2.0 A.

The reading on the voltmeter is 6.0 V.

A
X

She needs to produce a circuit with a total resistance of 10 .

Which resistor should she add in series to the circuit?

A 2 B 3 C 7 D 10 

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17

31 The diagram shows a circuit containing a battery, an ammeter, three switches, S1, S2 and S3, and
three identical lamps.

A
S1

S2

S3

With only switch S1 closed, the reading on the ammeter is 0.04 A.

Which row states the incorrect ammeter reading for the switch conditions given?

ammeter
switch S1 switch S2 switch S3
reading / A

A open open open 0.00


B open closed open 0.04
C open open closed 0.08
D closed closed closed 0.12

32 Two 10  resistors are connected in series and then in parallel.

What is the combined resistance in each case?

resistance in resistance in
series /  parallel / 

A 10 5
B 10 10
C 20 5
D 20 10

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18

33 The information on the back of a television is shown.

220–240 V
~50 Hz
0.6 A

Which fuse provides the best protection for the circuit?

A 0.5 A B 1A C 5A D 13 A

34 A solenoid is connected to a very sensitive ammeter. A rod is inserted into one end of the
solenoid. The ammeter shows that there is a small electric current in the solenoid while the rod is
moving.

solenoid
rod

Which rod is being inserted?

A a heated copper rod


B a magnetised steel rod
C an uncharged nylon rod
D a radioactive uranium rod

35 The diagram shows a transformer.

iron core
550 turns 115 turns

output
22 000 V
voltage

What is the output voltage?

A 0.35 V B 2.9 V C 4600 V D 105 000 V

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19

36 The diagram shows a d.c. motor.

coil
magnet

N S

split-ring commutator

carbon brush
battery

Which two changes together will always make the coil spin more slowly?

A Decrease the current in the coil and use a magnet of less strength.
B Decrease the current in the coil and increase the number of turns on the coil.
C Increase the current in the coil and use a magnet of less strength.
D Increase the current in the coil and decrease the number of turns on the coil.

37 The charge on a proton is e.

What is the charge on an electron and what is the charge on a neutron?

electron neutron

A e e
B e 0
C –e –e
D –e 0

38 The proton numbers and nucleon numbers of four nuclides are shown.

231 232 238 239


88Ra 90Th 92U 94Pu

Which statement is correct?

A Plutonium (Pu) contains one more proton then uranium (U).


B Thorium (Th) contains one more neutron than radium (Ra).
C Thorium (Th) contains one more proton than radium (Ra).
D Uranium (U) contains one more neutron than plutonium (Pu).

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20

39 A radioactive atom decays by emission of a -particle.

Which row is correct?

what decays what happens to the atom

A the nucleus of the atom it becomes a different element


B the nucleus of the atom it becomes a lighter version of the same element
C the outer layers of the atom it becomes a different element
D the outer layers of the atom it becomes a lighter version of the same element

40 The graph shows the activity of a radioactive source over a period of time.

120
activity
counts / s 90

60

30

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes

What is the half-life of the source?

A 1.0 minute B 2.0 minutes C 2.5 minutes D 4.0 minutes

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2021
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2021 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2021
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 C 1

3 A 1

4 A 1

5 B 1

6 D 1

7 B 1

8 D 1

9 A 1

10 A 1

11 D 1

12 D 1

13 D 1

14 C 1

15 B 1

16 A 1

17 D 1

18 D 1

19 C 1

20 B 1

21 D 1

22 B 1

23 A 1

24 B 1

25 A 1

26 D 1

27 D 1

28 A 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2021
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 C 1

31 C 1

32 C 1

33 B 1

34 B 1

35 C 1

36 A 1

37 D 1

38 D 1

39 A 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*5727227461*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 06_0625_13/3RP
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1 The diagram shows a plastic rod alongside a ruler.

plastic rod

0 cm 10 20

What is the length of the rod?

A 2.5 cm B 3.5 cm C 7.0 cm D 9.0 cm

2 Two stones of different weights fall at the same time from a table. Air resistance may be ignored.

What will happen and why?

what will happen why

A Both stones hit the floor at the same time. Acceleration of free fall is constant.
B Both stones hit the floor at the same time. They fall at constant speed.
C The heavier stone hits the floor first. Acceleration increases with weight.
D The heavier stone hits the floor first. Speed increases with weight.

3 A cyclist rides 300 m up a slope in 50 s.

She then rides down the slope in 25 s.

What is her average speed for the whole journey?

A 4.0 m / s B 8.0 m / s C 9.0 m / s D 16 m / s

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4 Diagram 1 shows a sealed plastic bottle containing a hollow glass sphere and a steel ball.

Diagram 2 shows the same bottle after it has been shaken.

Diagram 3 shows the same bottle after it has been shaken again until the broken glass is in tiny
pieces.

sealed
plastic
bottle

hollow
glass tiny pieces
broken
steel ball sphere steel ball steel ball of broken
glass
glass

diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3

The mass of the bottle and contents in diagram 1 is m1.

The mass of the bottle and contents in diagram 2 is m2.

The mass of the bottle and contents in diagram 3 is m3.

Which statement gives the correct relation between m1, m2 and m3?

A m1 is equal to m2 and m2 is equal to m3.


B m1 is greater than m2 and m2 is greater than m3.
C m1 is less than m2 and m2 is greater than m3.
D m1 is less than m2 and m2 is less than m3.

5 The table shows the weight of a 15.0 kg mass placed on different planets.

Which planet has a gravitational field strength of 11.1 N / kg?

weight of 15.0 kg
planet
mass / N

A Jupiter 389
B Saturn 167
C Uranus 160
D Neptune 211

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6 The tank shown has the dimensions 5.0 m  4.0 m  4.0 m.

It is completely filled with water of density 1000 kg / m3.

5.0 m

4.0 m 4.0 m

What is the mass of water in the tank?

A 12.5 kg B 62.5 kg C 16 000 kg D 80 000 kg

7 A train travels at a constant speed along a straight track.

Which statement about the resultant force on the train is correct?

A It is bigger than the thrust of the engine.


B It is constantly increasing.
C It is equal to the thrust of the engine.
D It is zero.

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8 The extension–load graph for a spring is shown. The unstretched length of the spring is 17.0 cm.

3
extension / cm

0
0 1 2 3 4
load / N

When an object is suspended from the spring, the length of the spring is 19.2 cm.

What is the weight of the object?

A 1.4 N B 1.6 N C 2.6 N D 3.0 N

9 A stream flows out of a lake and down the side of a hill.

What best describes the change in energy stores?

A kinetic energy  chemical energy + internal energy

B gravitational potential energy  kinetic energy + internal energy

C gravitational potential energy + kinetic energy  internal energy

D kinetic energy  internal energy + gravitational potential energy

10 Energy resources are often used to turn a generator to produce electrical energy.

From which resource can electrical energy be produced without turning a generator?

A radiation from the Sun


B uranium by nuclear fission
C water behind a dam
D wind

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11 Two men, X and Y, try to move identical heavy boxes, P and Q.

Man X tries to push box P along the floor. The box does not move because an object is in the
way.

Man Y lifts box Q from the floor onto a shelf.

shelf
box P man X man Y

direction
of force
object

direction of force box Q

Which man does the most work on their box, and which box gains the most energy?

man doing box gaining


most work most energy

A X P
B X Q
C Y P
D Y Q

12 A book has a mass of 400 g.

The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m  0.20 m.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book?

A 0.08 N / m2 B 8.0 N / m2 C 20 N / m2 D 200 N / m2

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13 The diagram shows a piece of equipment which is used to measure atmospheric pressure.

vacuum

height of
mercury
column

mercury

What is this piece of equipment?

A barometer
B galvanometer
C newton meter
D thermometer

14 A car tyre contains air.

The temperature of the air in the tyre rises. The volume of the air in the tyre remains constant.

Students are asked to suggest how this temperature rise will affect the movement of the air
molecules.

1 The air molecules will move faster.


2 The air molecules will hit the tyre walls more often.
3 The air molecules will hit the tyre walls harder.

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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15 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.

When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random,
jerky manner.

eye

microscope

bright light

pollen grains
in water

What are the moving specks of light?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

16 The liquid level in a thermometer rises when the thermometer is placed in hot water.

What causes this?

A The liquid contracts.


B The liquid evaporates.
C The liquid expands.
D The liquid freezes.

17 Which description of condensation is correct?

A a gas changing into a liquid as its molecules lose energy


B a gas changing into a liquid as its molecules gain energy
C a liquid changing into a gas as its molecules lose energy
D a liquid changing into a gas as its molecules gain energy
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18 The thermal capacity of object Y is greater than that of object Z.

What is a consequence of this?

A Object Y needs less thermal energy to melt it than object Z.

B Object Y needs less thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z.
C Object Y needs more thermal energy to melt it than object Z.

D Object Y needs more thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z.

19 In which states of matter is convection an important method of thermal transfer?

A liquids only
B solids only
C liquids and gases
D solids and gases

20 Solar heating panels consist of pipes carrying water that absorb radiation from the Sun.

Which texture and colour are the surface of the pipes so that the temperature of the water rises at
the quickest rate?

A dull black
B dull white
C shiny black
D shiny white

21 A child bounces up and down on a trampoline. The instructor asks her to bounce with a higher
frequency.

What does the instructor mean?

A Bounce higher on the trampoline.


B Bounce more times in each minute.
C Take more time to bounce.
D Bounce with a slower speed.

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10

22 Light waves pass through a gap. The diagrams show two possibilities for what occurs.

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which row is correct?

the effect on the wave as diagram after it has


it passes through the gap passed through the gap

A speed changes diagram 1 is correct


B speed changes diagram 2 is correct
C speed remains constant diagram 1 is correct
D speed remains constant diagram 2 is correct

23 The diagram shows a ray of light striking a plane mirror.

Through which point does the reflected ray pass?

A
B

D C

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11

24 An object is placed in front of a thin converging lens.

The diagram shows the paths of two rays from the top of the object.

converging lens

object

An image of the object is formed on a screen to the right of the lens.

How does this image compare with the object?

A It is larger and inverted.


B It is larger and the same way up.
C It is smaller and inverted.
D It is smaller and the same way up.

25 The diagram shows typical wavelengths (in metres) of radio waves, microwaves and X-rays in the
electromagnetic spectrum.

In which region are the waves used in TV remote controllers found?

102 10–2 10–10

A B C D
radio microwaves X-rays
waves

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12

26 The diagrams represent the waves produced by four sources of sound. The scales are the same
for all the diagrams.

Which sound has the highest frequency?

A time

B time

C time

D time

27 Which description of ultrasound is correct?

A longitudinal waves with a frequency greater than 20 000 Hz


B longitudinal waves with a frequency less than 20 Hz
C transverse waves with a frequency greater than 20 000 Hz
D transverse waves with a frequency less than 20 Hz

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13

28 A bar magnet picks up two steel bolts.

Which diagram shows the magnetic poles induced in the bolts?

A B

N S N S
S S

N N
N S

S N

C D

N S N S
N N

S S
S N

N S

29 Which diagram shows the magnetic field around a bar magnet?

A B

S N S N

C D

S N S N

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14

30 A student rubs a plastic rod with a cloth.

The rod becomes positively charged.

What has happened to the rod?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained protons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost protons.

31 The diagram shows a circuit containing a cell, two resistors, a switch and a voltmeter.

When the switch is open the voltmeter reads 1.5 V.

When the switch is closed the voltmeter reads 2.0 V.

What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cell?

A 0.5 V B 1.5 V C 2.0 V D 3.5 V

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32 The circuit in the diagram contains four switches, S1, S2, S3 and S4.

S1

S2

S4

S3

Which three switches must be closed for the heater to work?

A S1, S2 and S3
B S1, S2 and S4
C S1, S3 and S4
D S2, S3 and S4

33 The diagram shows a circuit.

What happens to the readings on the voltmeter and on the ammeter when the temperature of the
thermistor increases?

voltmeter ammeter
reading reading

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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34 A solenoid is connected to a very sensitive ammeter. A rod is inserted into one end of the
solenoid. The ammeter shows that there is a small electric current in the solenoid while the rod is
moving.

solenoid
rod

Which rod is being inserted?

A a heated copper rod


B a magnetised steel rod
C an uncharged nylon rod
D a radioactive uranium rod

35 The diagram shows a transformer with more turns on the secondary coil than on the primary coil.

core

input output

primary coil secondary coil

Which row is correct?

material of core material of coils type of transformer

A copper iron step-up


B copper iron step-down
C iron copper step-up
D iron copper step-down

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36 Diagram 1 shows a wire carrying an electric current into the page.

The wire is between the poles of a magnet.

A force is produced on the wire acting down towards the bottom of the page.

Diagram 2 shows the situation after the current is reversed and the magnet is turned through 90.

diagram 1 diagram 2

N S S

direction
of force
N

In which direction does the force act after these changes?

A towards the top of the page


B towards the bottom of the page
C towards the left-hand side of the page
D towards the right-hand side of the page

37 The charge on a proton is e.

What is the charge on an electron and what is the charge on a neutron?

electron neutron

A e e
B e 0
C –e –e
D –e 0

23
38 The nuclide notation for sodium-23 is 11Na .

How many protons are in a nucleus of sodium-23?

A 11 B 12 C 23 D 34

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39 A student is investigating the count rate of a radioactive substance.

How must he adjust his reading for the background count?

A Add the background count to his reading.


B Ignore the background count as it will not affect his reading.
C Subtract the background count from his reading.
D Take repeat readings to eliminate the background count.

40 The graph shows the activity of a radioactive source over a period of time.

120
activity
counts / s 90

60

30

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes

What is the half-life of the source?

A 1.0 minute B 2.0 minutes C 2.5 minutes D 4.0 minutes

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2021
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2021 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2021
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 A 1

3 B 1

4 A 1

5 B 1

6 D 1

7 D 1

8 D 1

9 B 1

10 A 1

11 D 1

12 D 1

13 A 1

14 A 1

15 B 1

16 C 1

17 A 1

18 D 1

19 C 1

20 A 1

21 B 1

22 C 1

23 B 1

24 A 1

25 C 1

26 D 1

27 A 1

28 D 1

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2021
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 C 1

31 C 1

32 B 1

33 D 1

34 B 1

35 C 1

36 C 1

37 D 1

38 A 1

39 C 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*7987287000*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 11_0625_11/3RP
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1 A student measures the volume of a quantity of water.

Which apparatus is suitable?

A a balance
B a measuring cylinder
C a ruler
D a thermometer

2 The diagrams show distance–time graphs for four objects.

Which graph represents an object moving with an increasing speed?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

3 The gravitational field strength on the Moon is smaller than that on the Earth.

A scientist examines a rock which has been brought back from the Moon.

He measures three quantities.

1 the density of the rock


2 the mass of the rock
3 the weight of the rock

Which quantities are the same size on the surface of the Earth and on the surface of the Moon?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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4 Which substance in the table has the lowest density?

substance mass / g volume / cm3

A nylon 1.2 1.0


B cotton 1.5 1.0
C olive oil 1.8 2.0
D water 2.0 2.0

5 A 100 cm beam balances as shown.

4.0 kg
3.0 kg

0 10 20 30 40 60 70 80 90 100
pivot

The pivot is moved 10 cm to the left.

4.0 kg
3.0 kg

0 10 20 30 50 60 70 80 90 100
pivot

What will be the effect of this change on the anticlockwise and clockwise moments about the
pivot?

anticlockwise clockwise
moment moment

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

6 A spacecraft is travelling in space with no resultant force and no resultant moment acting on it.

Which statement about the spacecraft is correct?

A Its direction is changing.


B It is in equilibrium.
C Its speed is decreasing.
D Its speed is increasing.

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7 The graph shows the total energy transferred by an electric motor over a period of time.

In which region of the graph is the greatest power being developed by the motor?

D
total energy
C
transferred

A
0
0 time

8 Electrical energy may be obtained from nuclear fission.

In which order is the energy transferred in this process?

A nuclear fuel  generator  reactor and boiler  turbines

B nuclear fuel  generator  turbines  reactor and boiler

C nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  generator  turbines

D nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  turbines  generator

9 The diagram shows an electric circuit. When the switch is closed, the lamp is lit.

Which row states the type of energy stored in the cell and how this energy is usefully transferred
to the lamp?

type of energy how this energy is usefully


stored in the cell transferred to the lamp

A chemical by electric current


B chemical by light
C electrical by electric current
D electrical by light

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10 A scientist uses an electric motor to lift a load through a vertical distance of 2.0 m.

He then increases the input power to the motor and repeats the experiment. The efficiency of the
motor does not change.

Which row correctly describes the effect that this has on the useful work done lifting the load and
the time taken to lift it?

work done time taken

A decreases decreases
B stays the same decreases
C decreases stays the same
D stays the same stays the same

11 The box shown has a weight of 15 N.

0.30 m
0.20 m

face Q
0.50 m

face P

The box is resting on a horizontal surface with face P in contact with the surface.

What is the change in pressure on the surface if the box falls over onto face Q?

A 0.0040 m2 / N B 0.0067 m2 / N C 100 N / m2 D 250 N / m2

12 A liquid is evaporating. The liquid is not boiling.

Which statement about the liquid is correct at an instant in time?

A Any molecule can escape, and from any part of the liquid.
B Any molecule can escape, but only from the liquid’s surface.
C Only molecules with enough energy can escape, and only from the liquid’s surface.
D Only molecules with enough energy can escape, but from any part of the liquid.

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13 Which row correctly describes the movement of particles in solids and liquids?

solids liquids

A no movement move around each other


B no movement vibration only
C vibration only move around each other
D vibration only vibration only

14 A long, thin bar of copper is heated gently and evenly along its length.

copper bar

heat

What happens to the bar?

A It becomes less heavy.


B It becomes longer.
C It becomes shorter.
D It bends at the ends.

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15 The diagram shows a flask which has been filled with liquid X at room temperature.

level of liquid at
room temperature
stopper

liquid X

When the flask is placed in warm water, the liquid rises higher up the tube. When the flask is put
in cold water, the liquid drops below the original level in the tube.

The experiment is repeated using an identical flask but a different liquid Y. The initial level of the
liquid in the tube is the same as that in the original experiment.

Liquid Y expands more, per degree increase in temperature, than liquid X.

Which row is correct for the level of the liquid?

rises most in falls most in


warm water cold water

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

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16 The diagram shows a pan used for cooking food.

handle of pan

base of pan

Which row is correct for the materials used to make the base and the handle of the pan?

base of pan handle of pan

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor


B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor
C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor
D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

17 Which row gives the correct description of a sound wave?

action of wave type of wave

A transfers energy without transferring matter longitudinal


B transfers energy without transferring matter transverse
C transfers matter without transferring energy longitudinal
D transfers matter without transferring energy transverse

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18 The diagram shows a wave.

displacement 1

2 4 5 6
0
0 distance
3

Which row correctly indicates the amplitude and the wavelength of the wave?

amplitude wavelength

A the distance between 1 and 2 the distance between 4 and 5


B the distance between 1 and 2 the distance between 4 and 6
C the distance between 1 and 3 the distance between 4 and 5
D the distance between 1 and 3 the distance between 4 and 6

19 A ray of green light passes through a glass prism as shown.

green light

Which colours of light refract as shown in the table?

refract more refract less


than green than green

A red blue
B red yellow
C violet blue
D violet yellow

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20 The diagram shows a ray of light in air incident on a glass block. Some of the light is refracted
and some of the light is reflected. Two angles, p and q, are marked on the diagram.

ray of
light
q
air p
glass

Which row gives the angle of incidence and states whether total internal reflection occurs?

angle of total internal


incidence reflection

A p no
B p yes
C q no
D q yes

21 The diagram shows a ray of light in glass incident on the surface between the glass and air.

air
glass

What happens if the angle of incidence is made larger than the critical angle for the glass?

A The angle of refraction becomes equal to 90.


B There is a refracted ray and a ray reflected inside the glass.
C There is a refracted ray only.
D There is only a ray reflected inside the glass.

22 Radiation from which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in the remote controller for a
television?

A infrared waves
B microwaves
C radio waves
D ultraviolet waves
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23 Two rays of light are different colours.

Which row is correct?

speed of the two wavelengths of the two


colours in a vacuum colours in a vacuum

A different different
B different the same
C the same different
D the same the same

24 What is ultrasound?

A sound waves that are so loud that they damage human hearing
B sound waves that are too high-pitched for humans to hear
C sound waves that are too low-pitched for humans to hear
D sound waves that are too quiet for humans to hear

25 A bar magnet is brought near to a rod of unknown material.

The unknown rod is attracted to both ends of the bar magnet.

rod of unknown
material

magnet

Which material is the rod made from?

A aluminium
B magnetised steel
C unmagnetised iron
D plastic

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26 In which circuit is the ammeter measuring the flow of charge through the lamp?

A B C D

A A

27 In circuit 1, a negative charge flows in a clockwise direction. The bulb is bright.

In circuit 2, the battery is reversed as shown. The bulb is equally bright.

circuit 1 circuit 2

Which charge flows in circuit 2 and in which direction?

charge direction

A negative anticlockwise
B negative clockwise
C positive anticlockwise
D positive clockwise

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28 The diagram shows a circuit containing two resistors of resistance 1.0  and 2.0 .

A voltmeter is connected across the 1.0  resistor by connecting P to X.

The reading on the voltmeter is 6.0 V.

1.0 Ω X 2.0 Ω Y

P
V

P is moved to point Y in the circuit.

What is the new reading on the voltmeter?

A 3.0 V B 6.0 V C 12 V D 18 V

29 The step-down transformer shown reduces mains voltage to 12 V.

copper wire

soft-iron core

mains
12 V
voltage

When the transformer is used, some energy is transferred to the surroundings.

Which type of energy is transferred to the surroundings?

A chemical energy
B light energy
C thermal energy
D elastic energy

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30 Which circuit contains a fuse?

A B

C D

31 The diagram shows an electric circuit.

Which row correctly shows the numbers of different components in the circuit?

cells lamps switches

A 1 1 4
B 1 4 1
C 3 1 4
D 3 4 1

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32 Two resistors, with resistances R1 and R2, are connected in parallel.

The resistance R1 is greater than the resistance R2.

R1

R2

What is the resistance of the parallel combination?

A less than either R1 or R2


B equal to R1
C equal to R2
D the average of R1 and R2

33 The metal cases of electrical appliances are connected to an earth wire.

Which statement is not correct?

A The live wire may become loose and touch the metal case.
B If the metal case becomes live, the earth wire conducts current to the ground.
C The earth wire needs to have a high resistance.
D Earthing metal cases helps prevent a person from receiving an electric shock.

34 A teacher asks, ‘Why do we put a fuse in a mains circuit?’

Student 1 says, ‘It protects the wiring from overheating.’ Student 2 says, ‘It protects us from
getting a shock if we touch the live wire.’

Who is correct?

A both students
B neither student
C student 1 only
D student 2 only

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35 Which graph represents an alternating current (a.c.)?

A B
current current

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D
current current

0 0
0 time 0 time

36 The current in a small electric heater is 4.0 A.

The cable connected to the heater is able to carry currents up to 10 A.

Fuses rated 1 A, 3 A, 5 A and 13 A are available.

Which fuse should be used?

A 1A B 3A C 5A D 13 A

37 A very important experiment improved scientists’ understanding of the structure of matter.

The experiment involved -particles being fired at a thin, gold foil.

What happened?

A All the -particles were absorbed by the nuclei of the gold atoms.

B All the -particles were unaffected by the gold atoms.

C Some of the -particles were attracted by the neutrons in the nuclei of the gold atoms.

D Some of the -particles were repelled by the protons in the nuclei of the gold atoms.

38 Some sources of background radiation are natural and others are due to human activity.

Which source is natural?

A medical X-rays
B nuclear weapons testing
C radioactive waste from power stations
D radon gas from rocks
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39 A radioactive material is placed near a detector.

The detector shows a count rate of 28 000 counts / min.

When a piece of card is put between the material and the counter, the reading decreases to
25 000 counts / min.

When an aluminium sheet is put between the material and the counter, the reading remains at
25 000 counts / min.

When a sheet of lead is put between the material and the counter, the reading decreases to
19 000 counts / min.

What is being emitted by the radioactive material?

A ,  and -radiation

B  and -radiation only

C  and -radiation only

D  and -radiation only

40 A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 3 years.

A sample gives a count rate of 100 counts / min on a detector.

Which calculation is used to predict the count rate after 12 years?

A 100  1  1  1  1
2 2 2 2

B 100  1  1  1
2 2 2

C 100  3
12

D 100  12  1
3 2

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
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publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2021
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2021 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2021

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 D 1

3 A 1

4 C 1

5 B 1

6 B 1

7 B 1

8 D 1

9 A 1

10 B 1

11 C 1

12 C 1

13 C 1

14 B 1

15 D 1

16 B 1

17 A 1

18 B 1

19 D 1

20 C 1

21 D 1

22 A 1

23 C 1

24 B 1

25 C 1

26 B 1

27 A 1

28 D 1

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2021

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 C 1

31 D 1

32 A 1

33 C 1

34 C 1

35 A 1

36 C 1

37 D 1

38 D 1

39 C 1

40 A 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4547524422*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 11_0625_12/3RP
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1 Which list places units of length in increasing order of magnitude (size)?

A cm  mm  m

B mm  cm  m

C mm  m  cm

D m  mm  cm

2 Which graph represents an object that is moving at constant speed?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

3 Which statement about the equation shown is correct?

W = mg

A g is a force, m and W are not forces.


B m is a force, g and W are not forces.
C W is a force, g and m are not forces.
D None of g, m and W are forces.

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4 Which substance in the table has the lowest density?

substance mass / g volume / cm3

A nylon 1.2 1.0


B cotton 1.5 1.0
C olive oil 1.8 2.0
D water 2.0 2.0

5 The diagram shows a simple balance. The two loads, X and Y, can be moved along the beam.

X pivot Y

Which graph shows how the moment produced by load Y varies as the perpendicular distance d
from the pivot changes?

A B

moment moment

0 0
0 d 0 d

C D

moment moment

0 0
0 d 0 d

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6 A spacecraft is travelling in space with no resultant force and no resultant moment acting on it.

Which statement about the spacecraft is correct?

A Its direction is changing.


B It is in equilibrium.
C Its speed is decreasing.
D Its speed is increasing.

7 A student carries out an investigation by pulling four different boxes across the floor.

The results are shown in the table.

On which box is the most work done?

frictional force needed distance moved


to pull the box / N across the floor / m

A 5 4
B 10 2
C 15 2
D 20 4

8 Electrical energy may be obtained from nuclear fission.

In which order is the energy transferred in this process?

A nuclear fuel  generator  reactor and boiler  turbines

B nuclear fuel  generator  turbines  reactor and boiler

C nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  generator  turbines

D nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  turbines  generator

9 A stone falls.

Which row gives the energy changes?

gravitational
kinetic energy
potential energy

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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10 A rope, connected to a pulley system and motor, is used to lift different objects through different
distances. The time taken to lift each object is the same. The diagrams are not to scale.

Which motor requires the greatest power?

A B

platform platform
motor motor

2m 3m
10 kg 5 kg

C D

platform platform
motor motor

1m 3m
10 kg 2 kg

11 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

Which length is used to indicate atmospheric pressure in a simple mercury barometer?

vacuum
A

D
C
B

mercury

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12 A liquid is evaporating. The liquid is not boiling.

Which statement about the liquid is correct at an instant in time?

A Any molecule can escape, and from any part of the liquid.
B Any molecule can escape, but only from the liquid’s surface.
C Only molecules with enough energy can escape, and only from the liquid’s surface.
D Only molecules with enough energy can escape, but from any part of the liquid.

13 The temperature of the gas in a sealed container of constant volume decreases from 20 C to
12 C.

Which row is correct?

pressure of the gas average speed of


in the container the molecules of gas

A decreases decreases
B stays the same increases
C increases stays the same
D stays the same decreases

14 A long, thin bar of copper is heated gently and evenly along its length.

copper bar

heat

What happens to the bar?

A It becomes less heavy.


B It becomes longer.
C It becomes shorter.
D It bends at the ends.

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15 A teacher makes the statement, ‘Object P has a higher thermal capacity than object Q.’

What does this statement mean?

A Object P has a higher melting point than object Q.


B Object P has a lower melting point than object Q.
C The increase in temperature of object P is greater than that of object Q for the same increase
in internal energy.
D The increase in temperature of object P is smaller than that of object Q for the same increase
in internal energy.

16 The diagram shows a pan used for cooking food.

handle of pan

base of pan

Which row is correct for the materials used to make the base and the handle of the pan?

base of pan handle of pan

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor


B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor
C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor
D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

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17 The diagrams show two patterns produced by water waves.

diagram 1 diagram 2

barrier
barrier

Which two effects are shown in the diagrams?

diagram 1 diagram 2

A reflection diffraction
B reflection refraction
C refraction diffraction
D refraction reflection

18 Which row is not correct for a wave on the surface of water?

quantity usual unit

A amplitude m
B frequency Hz
C wavelength 
D speed m/s

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19 A thin, converging lens causes parallel rays of light to converge to a single point known as the
principal focus.

principal
focus

Which statement explains this?

A The light diffracts.


B The light disperses.
C The light reflects.
D The light refracts.

20 The diagram shows a ray of light in air incident on a glass block. Some of the light is refracted
and some of the light is reflected. Two angles, p and q, are marked on the diagram.

ray of
light
q
air p
glass

Which row gives the angle of incidence and states whether total internal reflection occurs?

angle of total internal


incidence reflection

A p no
B p yes
C q no
D q yes

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10

21 The letter F is reflected in a mirror.

mirror

What does the optical image look like?

A B C D

22 Visible light, X-rays and microwaves are all components of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Which statement about the waves is correct?

A In a vacuum, microwaves travel faster than visible light and have a shorter wavelength.
B In a vacuum, microwaves travel at the same speed as visible light and have a shorter
wavelength.
C In a vacuum, X-rays travel faster than visible light and have a shorter wavelength.
D In a vacuum, X-rays travel at the same speed as visible light and have a shorter wavelength.

23 Which radiation has a higher frequency than red light?

A ultraviolet
B radio waves
C microwaves
D infrared

24 What is ultrasound?

A sound waves that are so loud that they damage human hearing
B sound waves that are too high-pitched for humans to hear
C sound waves that are too low-pitched for humans to hear
D sound waves that are too quiet for humans to hear

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11

25 Which material is magnetic?

A aluminium
B copper
C iron
D silver

26 Which circuit symbol represents a component used to measure electric current?

A B C D

A G V

27 Four wires made of the same metal have different lengths and different diameters.

Which wire has the lowest resistance?

length diameter

A long large
B long small
C short large
D short small

28 The diagram shows a circuit containing two resistors of resistance 1.0  and 2.0 .

A voltmeter is connected across the 1.0  resistor by connecting P to X.

The reading on the voltmeter is 6.0 V.

1.0 Ω X 2.0 Ω Y

P
V

P is moved to point Y in the circuit.

What is the new reading on the voltmeter?

A 3.0 V B 6.0 V C 12 V D 18 V

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12

29 Which device is used to measure the flow of charge in an electrical circuit?

A ammeter
B voltmeter
C battery
D newton meter

30 Which circuit contains a fuse?

A B

C D

31 A student designs a circuit to turn on a fan when the temperature increases.

Which component does the student need to use in her circuit?

A B C D

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13

32 Two resistors, with resistances R1 and R2, are connected in parallel.

The resistance R1 is greater than the resistance R2.

R1

R2

What is the resistance of the parallel combination?

A less than either R1 or R2


B equal to R1
C equal to R2
D the average of R1 and R2

33 The diagram shows a motor connected to an a.c. supply. The circuit is incomplete.

X Y
M

Which device needs to be connected between point X and point Y to prevent the wires from
overheating if a fault in the motor causes the current to get too high?

A an ammeter
B a fuse
C a transformer
D a length of thick copper wire

34 A hairdresser is using a hairdryer with a plastic casing. He notices that there is no wire attached
to the earth pin of the plug.

Why is an earth connection not needed?

A Plastic is an insulator.
B The hairdresser only touches the handle of the dryer.
C The hairdryer uses a.c. so cannot give the hairdresser a shock.
D Wet hands do not conduct electricity.

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14

35 Four positions of a current-carrying coil in a magnetic field, as in a d.c. motor, are shown.
In diagrams 2 and 4, the coil is at an angle of 45 to the field lines.

1 2 3 4

N S N S N S N S

coil

Which row is correct?

turning effect of the forces turning effect of the forces


in positions 1 and 3 in positions 2 and 4

A different different
B different same
C same different
D same same

36 An electric drill, operating from a supply voltage of 240 V, uses a current of 3.5 A.

Which rating of fuse should be used to protect the drill’s cable?

A 250 V B 200 V C 5A D 3A

37 A very important experiment improved scientists’ understanding of the structure of matter.

The experiment involved -particles being fired at a thin, gold foil.

What happened?

A All the -particles were absorbed by the nuclei of the gold atoms.

B All the -particles were unaffected by the gold atoms.

C Some of the -particles were attracted by the neutrons in the nuclei of the gold atoms.

D Some of the -particles were repelled by the protons in the nuclei of the gold atoms.

38 A sample contains 0.0016 g of a radioactive isotope.

After 4.0 hours the mass of the radioactive isotope in the sample falls to 0.00080 g.

What is the half-life of the radioactive isotope?

A 2.0 hours B 4.0 hours C 8.0 hours D 16 hours

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15

39 A sample of a radioactive isotope has a mass of 100 g. The half-life of the radioactive isotope is
6.0 hours.

Which graph shows the decay for this isotope?

A B

mass of 100 mass of 100


isotope 80 isotope 80
remaining 60 remaining 60
/g 40 /g 40
20 20
0 0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
time / hours time / hours

C D

mass of 100 mass of 100


isotope 80 isotope 80
remaining 60 remaining 60
/g 40 /g 40
20 20
0 0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
time / hours time / hours

40 Which statement best describes background radiation?

A any harmful level of radiation


B radiation that is only found in space
C radiation from natural sources
D radiation that is absorbed by rocks

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16

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0625/12/O/N/21

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S-ReCourSe....38-H,PHASE-1,DHA,LHR...868 of 1118...Call.03-234567800

Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2021
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2021 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2021

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 D 1

3 C 1

4 C 1

5 A 1

6 B 1

7 D 1

8 D 1

9 B 1

10 A 1

11 C 1

12 C 1

13 A 1

14 B 1

15 D 1

16 B 1

17 A 1

18 C 1

19 D 1

20 C 1

21 B 1

22 D 1

23 A 1

24 B 1

25 C 1

26 A 1

27 C 1

28 D 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2021

Question Answer Marks

29 A 1

30 C 1

31 D 1

32 A 1

33 B 1

34 A 1

35 B 1

36 C 1

37 D 1

38 B 1

39 C 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*2642537228*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 11_0625_13/3RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
S-RECOURSE_03234567800

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1 A teacher asks a student to measure the volume of a pencil sharpener.

Which piece of apparatus would not be useful?

A beaker
B displacement can
C balance
D measuring cylinder

2 The graph shows how the speed of a car varies with time at the start of a journey.

6
speed 5
m/s
4
3
2
1
0
0 1 2 3 4
time / s

Which distance–time graph represents the motion of the car over the same time period?

A B
12 12
10 10
distance / m distance / m
8 8
6 6
4 4
2 2
0 0
0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4
time / s time / s

C D
6 6
5 5
distance / m distance / m
4 4
3 3
2 2
1 1
0 0
0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4
time / s time / s

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3 A student uses a force meter to measure the weights and a balance to measure the masses of
four different objects.

He puts his measurements in a table.

Which row is correctly recorded?

mass weight

A 1 kg 10 N
B 5g 50 N
C 10 N 100 kg
D 20 kg 2N

4 Which substance in the table has the lowest density?

substance mass / g volume / cm3

A nylon 1.2 1.0


B cotton 1.5 1.0
C olive oil 1.8 2.0
D water 2.0 2.0

5 The diagram shows a uniform beam 100 cm long. The diagram is not drawn to scale.

6.0 N
beam
0 cm 20 cm 50 cm 100 cm

60 cm
pivot
4.0 N 5.0 N

The beam remains balanced on a pivot at the 50 cm mark under the action of the forces of 4.0 N,
5.0 N and 6.0 N.

The 4.0 N force is at the 20 cm mark and the 6.0 N force is at the 60 cm mark.

At which point on the beam is the 5.0 N force acting?

A at the 62 cm mark
B at the 74 cm mark
C at the 86 cm mark
D at the 88 cm mark

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6 A spacecraft is travelling in space with no resultant force and no resultant moment acting on it.

Which statement about the spacecraft is correct?

A Its direction is changing.


B It is in equilibrium.
C Its speed is decreasing.
D Its speed is increasing.

7 A weightlifter picks up a stone ball and places it on a shelf.

Each lift takes the same time.

Which situation requires the greatest power?

A B
shelf
shelf

ball ball

C D
shelf
shelf
ball ball

8 Electrical energy may be obtained from nuclear fission.

In which order is the energy transferred in this process?

A nuclear fuel  generator  reactor and boiler  turbines

B nuclear fuel  generator  turbines  reactor and boiler

C nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  generator  turbines

D nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  turbines  generator

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9 A person lifts a book from floor level to a shelf. It falls to the floor and a second person lifts it back
up to the shelf.

Which statement must be correct?

A The second person does the same work on the book as the first person.
B The second person takes the same time as the first person.
C The second person develops the same power as the first person.
D The second person does the same work on the book as the first person, develops the same
power and takes the same time.

10 A man, attached to an elastic cord, jumps from a platform. He falls 60 m before starting to rise.
The length of the unextended cord is 30 m.

The diagrams show four successive stages in his fall.

In which position is elastic (strain) energy and kinetic energy present?

A B C D

30 m
45 m

60 m

11 Liquid is stored in a tank. The area of the base of the tank is 2.2 m2 and the pressure at the base
due to the liquid is 15 000 Pa.

What is the weight of the liquid?

A 3300 N B 6800 N C 15 000 N D 33 000 N

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12 A liquid is evaporating. The liquid is not boiling.

Which statement about the liquid is correct at an instant in time?

A Any molecule can escape, and from any part of the liquid.
B Any molecule can escape, but only from the liquid’s surface.
C Only molecules with enough energy can escape, and only from the liquid’s surface.
D Only molecules with enough energy can escape, but from any part of the liquid.

13 The diagram shows a sealed gas cylinder with a movable piston.

movable
piston

gas

The piston is moved slowly downwards and there is no change in temperature of the gas.

What happens to the average distance between the gas molecules and to the pressure of the
gas?

average distance
pressure of gas
between gas
in cylinder
molecules

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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14 A long, thin bar of copper is heated gently and evenly along its length.

copper bar

heat

What happens to the bar?

A It becomes less heavy.


B It becomes longer.
C It becomes shorter.
D It bends at the ends.

15 The diagrams show four examples of thermal expansion. In three of the examples, thermal
expansion is useful. In one of the examples, expansion is unwanted and has to be allowed for.

In which example is thermal expansion unwanted?

A B
small gap
nut

fixed end
rollers
river
heat

a bridge getting loosening a very


longer in hot weather tight nut by heating it

C D
brass

steel

a bimetallic strip liquid-in-glass


to indicate temperature thermometer

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16 The diagram shows a pan used for cooking food.

handle of pan

base of pan

Which row is correct for the materials used to make the base and the handle of the pan?

base of pan handle of pan

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor


B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor
C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor
D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

17 The diagrams show two patterns produced by water waves.

diagram 1 diagram 2

barrier
barrier

Which two effects are shown in the diagrams?

diagram 1 diagram 2

A reflection diffraction
B reflection refraction
C refraction diffraction
D refraction reflection

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18 Which row correctly defines the frequency and the speed of a wave?

frequency speed
A number of waves distance travelled
per unit time
B number of waves time taken for one complete
wave to pass a point
C number of waves distance travelled
passing per unit time per unit time
D number of waves time taken for one complete
passing per unit time wave to pass a point

19 A narrow beam of light travels through glass. It reaches the edge of the glass and refracts into the
air.

What is the angle of refraction?

B
glass A
air C
D

20 The diagram shows a ray of light in air incident on a glass block. Some of the light is refracted
and some of the light is reflected. Two angles, p and q, are marked on the diagram.

ray of
light
q
air p
glass

Which row gives the angle of incidence and states whether total internal reflection occurs?

angle of total internal


incidence reflection

A p no
B p yes
C q no
D q yes

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10

21 A photographer sees his image as shown.

photographer image

What could X be?

A B C D

mirror translucent transparent transparent


glass block glass prism semicircular
glass block

22 Visible light, X-rays and microwaves are all components of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Which statement about the waves is correct?

A In a vacuum, microwaves travel faster than visible light and have a shorter wavelength.
B In a vacuum, microwaves travel at the same speed as visible light and have a shorter
wavelength.
C In a vacuum, X-rays travel faster than visible light and have a shorter wavelength.
D In a vacuum, X-rays travel at the same speed as visible light and have a shorter wavelength.

23 What can transmit some types of transverse waves but not longitudinal waves?

A air
B a steel bar
C a vacuum
D sea water

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11

24 What is ultrasound?

A sound waves that are so loud that they damage human hearing
B sound waves that are too high-pitched for humans to hear
C sound waves that are too low-pitched for humans to hear
D sound waves that are too quiet for humans to hear

25 What would be the least successful method of magnetising a steel bar?

A Insert the bar in a coil with a large direct current (d.c.).


B Place the bar at right angles to a weak magnetic field and hit it with a hammer.
C Place the bar parallel to a strong magnetic field, heat it and let it cool.
D Stroke the bar with a magnet.

26 An electric current in a copper wire is due to the flow of charge.

Which particles are moving along the wire?

A -particles
B copper nuclei
C electrons
D protons

27 Which row correctly shows a conductor and an insulator?

conductor insulator

A rubber plastic
B iron nylon
C air wood
D copper steel

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12

28 The diagram shows a circuit containing two resistors of resistance 1.0  and 2.0 .

A voltmeter is connected across the 1.0  resistor by connecting P to X.

The reading on the voltmeter is 6.0 V.

1.0 Ω X 2.0 Ω Y

P
V

P is moved to point Y in the circuit.

What is the new reading on the voltmeter?

A 3.0 V B 6.0 V C 12 V D 18 V

29 What is the unit of electromotive force (e.m.f.)?

A ampere
B newton
C ohm
D volt

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13

30 Which circuit contains a fuse?

A B

C D

31 A student sets up the circuit shown, with a gap XY.

The student wishes to connect a component between X and Y to enable her to vary the
brightness of the lamp.

Which component should be used?

A B C D

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32 Two resistors, with resistances R1 and R2, are connected in parallel.

The resistance R1 is greater than the resistance R2.

R1

R2

What is the resistance of the parallel combination?

A less than either R1 or R2


B equal to R1
C equal to R2
D the average of R1 and R2

33 Circuit breakers and fuses are devices used to protect a circuit from overloading.

Which statement correctly describes the difference between a circuit breaker and a fuse?

A Circuit breakers can be reset if they operate but fuses need to be replaced.
B Circuit breakers need to be replaced if they operate but fuses can be reset.
C Circuit breakers can be used in an a.c. circuit but fuses cannot.
D Circuit breakers cannot be used in an a.c. circuit but fuses can.

34 Why might it be dangerous to use an electrical appliance in damp conditions?

A It might lead to the fuse blowing.


B It might lead to the insulation on the supply cable becoming damaged.
C It might lead to an electric shock.
D It might lead to the supply cable overheating.

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15

35 Which diagram shows the magnetic field around a straight, current-carrying wire?

A B

current current

C D

current current

36 When wiring a house, it is important to use the correct cables.

The current ratings of four different cables are listed.

All four cables are used in series in the same circuit.

Which cable is most likely to overheat?

A 6A B 10 A C 15 A D 30 A

37 A very important experiment improved scientists’ understanding of the structure of matter.

The experiment involved -particles being fired at a thin, gold foil.

What happened?

A All the -particles were absorbed by the nuclei of the gold atoms.

B All the -particles were unaffected by the gold atoms.

C Some of the -particles were attracted by the neutrons in the nuclei of the gold atoms.

D Some of the -particles were repelled by the protons in the nuclei of the gold atoms.

23
38 A nuclide has the symbol 11 Na.

Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct?

A There are 11 protons in the nucleus.


B There are 23 neutrons in the nucleus.
C There are 11 electrons in the nucleus.
D There are 34 nucleons in the nucleus.
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16

39 The half-life for lead-202 is 52 500 years.

A sample of lead-202 produces 800 counts / s.

How long will it take for the count rate to drop to 100 counts / s?

A 105 000 years


B 157 500 years
C 210 000 years
D 420 000 years

40 Why is a thick shield made of lead needed to protect people from a source of -rays?

A Gamma radiation is strongly ionising and so is not very penetrating.


B Gamma radiation is strongly ionising and so is very penetrating.
C Gamma radiation is weakly ionising and so is not very penetrating.
D Gamma radiation is weakly ionising and so is very penetrating.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2021
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2021 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2021

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 A 1

3 A 1

4 C 1

5 C 1

6 B 1

7 B 1

8 D 1

9 A 1

10 C 1

11 D 1

12 C 1

13 B 1

14 B 1

15 A 1

16 B 1

17 A 1

18 C 1

19 D 1

20 C 1

21 A 1

22 D 1

23 C 1

24 B 1

25 B 1

26 C 1

27 B 1

28 D 1

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2021

Question Answer Marks

29 D 1

30 C 1

31 B 1

32 A 1

33 A 1

34 C 1

35 A 1

36 A 1

37 D 1

38 A 1

39 B 1

40 D 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) February/March 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*8177758045*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 03_0625_12/4RP
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1 A student investigates a pendulum.

He measures the time for the pendulum to complete 20 oscillations.

He repeats the experiment three more times.

The readings are shown.

time for
experiment
20 oscillations / s

1 17.6
2 19.8
3 17.6
4 18.6

What is the average period of the pendulum?

A 0.88 s B 0.92 s C 17.6 s D 18.4 s

2 The diagram shows a speed–time graph for a moving object.

speed

0
0 time

Which statement describes the motion of the object?

A The speed of the object is increasing with constant acceleration.


B The speed of the object is increasing with an acceleration that is not constant.
C The speed of the object is decreasing with constant deceleration.
D The speed of the object is decreasing with a deceleration that is not constant.

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3 A tennis ball falls from the upstairs window of a house.

What can be said about the acceleration of the ball if air resistance is ignored?

A It depends on the density of the ball.


B It depends on the mass of the ball.
C It increases as the ball falls.
D It stays the same as the ball falls.

4 The mass of a full bottle of cooking oil is 1.30 kg.

When exactly half of the oil has been used, the mass of the bottle plus the remaining oil is
0.90 kg.

1.30 0.90
kg kg

What is the mass of the empty bottle?

A 0.40 kg B 0.50 kg C 0.65 kg D 0.80 kg

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5 A student carries out an experiment to find the density of a rock.

measuring
cylinder

liquid

rock

200 g balance 264 g

Which two quantities does the student need to make to determine the density of the rock?

quantity 1 quantity 2

A increase in mass increase in volume of liquid


B final mass increase in depth of liquid
C increase in mass increase in depth of liquid
D final mass increase in volume of liquid

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6 A spring is suspended from a stand. Loads are added and the extensions of the spring are
measured.

spring
stand

loads rule

Which graph shows the result of plotting extension against load?

A B

extension extension

0 0
0 load 0 load

C D

extension extension

0 0
0 load 0 load

7 Which are examples of friction?

1 tension in a spring
2 air resistance
3 weight

A 1 only B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 2 and 3

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8 The diagram shows a nut being turned with a spanner by applying a force F to the spanner.

nut
x

Which equation gives the moment of the force F about the centre of the nut?

A moment = Fx
B moment = Fy

C moment = F
x

D moment = F
y

9 A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it.

As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer?

A from chemical to thermal


B from chemical to kinetic
C from kinetic to gravitational (potential)
D from kinetic to thermal

10 Energy resources are used to produce electricity.

Which resource is non-renewable?

A hydroelectric
B nuclear fission
C waves
D wind

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11 The diagrams show four appliances and their power ratings.

Which appliance transfers the most energy per second?

A B C D

iron TV toaster washing machine


1.0 kW 150 W 800 W 3.0 kW

12 An object is at rest on a horizontal surface.

Which equation is used to calculate the pressure that the object exerts?
mass of the object
A
area of contact
weight of the object
B
area of contact
C mass of the object  area of contact

D weight of the object  area of contact

13 Which device is shown?

A barometer
B galvanometer
C manometer
D newton meter

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14 Which properties does a liquid have?

can be
definite
compressed
shape
easily

A   key
B    = has this property
C    = does not have this property
D  

15 In the diagrams, the black circle represents a smoke particle in air.

Which diagram shows a likely path that the particle takes because of Brownian motion?

A B C D

16 Which name is given to the change in volume of a gas when it is heated at constant pressure?

A thermal capacity
B thermal conduction
C thermal energy
D thermal expansion

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17 Some ice is slowly heated and its temperature is measured. A graph is plotted of temperature
against time.

100
temperature / qC

X
0
–10 time

Which row describes what happens to the thermal energy and to the temperature in section X?

thermal energy temperature of ice

A gained by ice rises


B gained by ice stays the same
C not gained by ice rises
D not gained by ice stays the same

18 The melting point of a substance is –78 C and its boiling point is 23 C.

Which row gives the correct state of matter of the substance at the given temperatures?

state at state at
temperature of 0 C temperature of 100 C

A solid liquid
B solid gas
C liquid solid
D liquid gas

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10

19 A student sets up an experiment to find out how well different metals conduct thermal energy.

One end of a rod of each metal is in hot water and the other end has a small nail attached to it by
wax.

hot water

wax

nail

The rods have the same thickness.

Which conditions should be satisfied in order to make this a valid test?

hot water kept


same same
at constant
size nails length rods
temperature

A    key
B     = condition applies
C     = condition does not apply
D   

20 Two similar metal containers, P and Q, each contain water at 90 C. Both containers are the
same size and both are sealed.

The water in container P cools more quickly than the water in container Q.

Which statement is correct?

A P contains more water than Q.


B P has a shinier surface than Q.
C P is painted a darker colour than Q.
D P is surrounded by a vacuum and Q is surrounded by air.

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11

21 A wave has the appearance shown.

displacement / cm

0
0 distance / cm

How do the properties of the wave change as the distance from the origin increases?

amplitude wavelength

A decreases increases
B decreases stays the same
C increases increases
D increases stays the same

22 A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed.

What causes the ripples to refract?

A The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water.


B The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water.
C The ripples hit the wall of the tank.
D The ripples pass through a narrow gap.

23 The diagram shows a plane mirror and a ray of light reflected from it.

Which angle is the angle of incidence?

A D
BC

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12

24 The diagrams each show a ray of light from an object O passing through a thin converging lens.

The principal focuses in each diagram are labelled F.

1 2

O O

F F F F

F F

Which diagrams are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 2 only C 1 and 3 D 3 only

25 Which row is correct?

frequency of infrared waves


use of infrared waves
compared to microwaves

A greater radiant heater


B greater satellite television
C lower radiant heater
D lower satellite television

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13

26 A student investigates sound waves from a loudspeaker.

The frequency of the sound wave is 25 000 Hz. The student has normal hearing but she cannot
hear the sound.

What should she do if she wants to hear a sound from the loudspeaker?

A decrease the amplitude


B decrease the frequency
C increase the amplitude
D increase the frequency

27 Two isolated metal spheres are both negatively charged. The spheres are brought close together
but do not touch.

Which diagram shows the charge distribution on the spheres?

A B C D

– – – – – – – –
– – – – – – – –
– – – – – – – –

28 When a plastic comb is placed next to a small piece of aluminium foil hanging from a nylon
thread, the foil is repelled by the comb.

Why is this?

A The comb is charged and the foil is uncharged.


B The comb is uncharged and the foil is charged.
C The comb and the foil have charges of opposite sign.
D The comb and the foil have charges of the same sign.

29 The diagram shows a piece of metal resistance wire.

Which wire, made of the same metal, has a smaller resistance?

A a wire of the same length with a larger diameter


B a wire of the same length with a smaller diameter
C a wire of greater length with the same diameter
D a wire of greater length with a smaller diameter

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14

30 Which labelled component in the circuit shown controls the brightness of lamp X?

A
V

X B

31 A circuit includes a battery, two identical resistors and five ammeters, P, Q, R, S and T.

P Q
A A

R
A

S T
A A

Which statement about the readings on the ammeters is not correct?

A P has a greater reading than Q.


B P has a greater reading than R.
C P has a greater reading than S.
D P has a greater reading than T.

32 An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open
and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on.

Which component does the electrician need for the potential divider in addition to a variable
resistor?

A light-dependent resistor
B relay
C thermistor
D motor

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15

33 A simple wiring diagram for an electric cooker is shown.

electric cooker

metal case
live
neutral
earth

connection to casing

Why is there a wire connecting the metal case of the cooker to earth?

A It improves the efficiency of the cooker.


B It prevents the metal case from becoming too hot when the cooker is left on.
C It reduces the risk of an electric shock if the live wire touches the metal case.
D The electric cooker will not switch on without it.

34 Three statements about a.c. and d.c. currents are given.

1 A d.c. current is in one direction only whilst an a.c. current repeatedly changes
direction.
2 d.c. is the abbreviation for direct current and a.c. is the abbreviation for amplitude
current.
3 An a.c. current is in one direction only whilst a d.c. current repeatedly changes
direction.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only

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16

35 Two magnets are placed near a current-carrying coil.

The diagram shows this experimental arrangement and the current direction in the coil.

X Y
N S N S

Which statement is correct?

A Both X and Y are attracted to the coil.


B Both X and Y are repelled by the coil.
C X is attracted to the coil and Y is repelled.
D X is repelled by the coil and Y is attracted.

36 Which arrangement can be used to step up a voltage?

A B
iron core iron core

a.c. output d.c. output


input input

C D
iron core iron core

a.c. d.c.
output output
input input

37 Which diagram shows the structure of an atom containing a nucleus and two orbiting electrons?

A B C D

+ + + + – – – –
2+ 2– 2+ 2–

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17

38 A nuclide has the symbol 146 C.

Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct?

A There are 6 protons in the nucleus.


B There are 14 neutrons in the nucleus.
C There are 6 electrons in the nucleus.
D There are 20 nucleons in the nucleus.

39 The table compares the penetrating abilities and ionising effects of -particles and of -radiation.

Which row is correct?

least most
penetrating ionising

A  
B  
C  
D  

40 When a radioactive isotope is set up close to a counter, a count rate of 38 000 counts / s is
obtained. The table shows the count rate from the isotope over a three-year period.

count rate
time / years
counts / s
0 38 000
1 26 000
2 17 000
3 12 000

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A less than 1 year


B more than 1 year but less than 2 years
C more than 2 years but less than 3 years
D more than 3 years

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) February/March 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the February/March 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme February/March 2022
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 A 1

3 D 1

4 B 1

5 A 1

6 D 1

7 C 1

8 A 1

9 D 1

10 B 1

11 D 1

12 B 1

13 C 1

14 D 1

15 C 1

16 D 1

17 B 1

18 D 1

19 C 1

20 C 1

21 A 1

22 B 1

23 B 1

24 C 1

25 A 1

26 B 1

27 D 1

28 D 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme February/March 2022
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 A 1

30 B 1

31 A 1

32 A 1

33 C 1

34 B 1

35 B 1

36 A 1

37 C 1

38 A 1

39 A 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*0332238708*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 06_0625_11/3RP
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1 A lump of modelling clay is moved from a small measuring cylinder to a large measuring cylinder
that has twice the diameter.

water

modelling
clay

small cylinder large cylinder

The reading on the small measuring cylinder goes down by 20 cm3.

By how much does the reading on the large cylinder go up?

A 10 cm3 B 20 cm3 C 40 cm3 D 80 cm3

2 The speed–time graph for a train is shown.

R
20
speed
km / h 15

Q S
10

5
P
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
time / s

Which regions of the graph show the train moving?

A P, Q, R and S
B Q, R and S only
C Q and S only
D R only

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3 A man stands next to a railway track.

A train travelling at 40 m / s takes 2.0 s to pass the man.

What is the length of the train?

A 20 m B 38 m C 40 m D 80 m

4 A spring balance operates by the compression of a spring. It has been calibrated on the Earth in
grams.

A beam balance operates by balancing standard masses against the unknown mass to be
measured.

The same unknown mass is measured with each balance on the Earth and on the Moon.

The gravitational field strength on the Earth is greater than that on the Moon.

How would the measurements on the Earth compare with those on the Moon?

spring balance measurements beam balance measurements

A larger on the Earth than on the Moon larger on the Earth than on the Moon
B larger on the Earth than on the Moon same on the Earth as on the Moon
C same on the Earth as on the Moon larger on the Earth than on the Moon
D same on the Earth as on the Moon same on the Earth as on the Moon

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5 A measuring cylinder contains 30 cm3 of a liquid.

cm3

50

40

30

20

10

balance

Some more of the liquid is added until the liquid level reaches the 50 cm3 mark.

The reading on the balance increases by 30 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.60 g / cm3 B 0.67 g / cm3 C 1.5 g / cm3 D 1.7 g / cm3

6 Which pieces of apparatus are the most appropriate for an experiment to plot an
extension–load graph of a spring?

A ruler, newton meter, clamp and stand


B balance, stop-watch, ruler
C light gate, ruler, newton meter
D stop-watch, balance, measuring cylinder

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7 A beam is pivoted at one end, as shown.

40 cm beam
X
pivot

6.0 N

The beam weighs 6.0 N and its weight acts at a point X 40 cm from the pivot.

A force of 4.0 N is applied to the beam causing it to balance horizontally.

In which direction and where is the 4.0 N force applied?

A vertically downwards at 20 cm to the left of X


B vertically downwards at 20 cm to the right of X
C vertically upwards at 20 cm to the left of X
D vertically upwards at 20 cm to the right of X

8 The diagrams show the forces acting on four moving objects.

Which object is moving at a constant speed?

A B C D

5N 3N 3N 5N

2N 5N 2N 3N 2N 5N 2N 3N

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9 A mass hangs vertically from a spring.

The mass is raised to a point P and is then released.

The mass oscillates repeatedly between point P and a lower point Q.

Which energies alternately increase and decrease throughout the oscillations?

A gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and elastic energy


B gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy only
C gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and internal energy
D internal energy and elastic energy

10 A force F acts on an object and the object moves a distance d in the direction of the force.

What is the work done on the object?


F d 1
A B C Fd D
d F (F  d )

11 Liquid of mass 92 kg is contained in a rectangular tank.

The area of the base of the tank is 0.23 m2.

What is the pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the tank?

A 2.5  10– 4 N / m2

B 2.5  10– 3 N / m2
C 400 N / m2
D 4000 N / m2

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12 The diagram shows a deep reservoir formed by a dam.

water
dam
X

On what does the pressure at X depend?

A the depth of the water at X


B the length of the reservoir
C the surface area of the water
D the thickness of the dam wall

13 The list gives three properties of different states of matter.

1 They cannot be compressed significantly.


2 They can flow.
3 They always completely fill their container.

Which properties are correct for liquids?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

14 Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature.

The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at room
temperature.

Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs.

Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens?

A P reads higher than Q because bulb P absorbs energy from the air.
B P reads higher than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and cools bulb Q.
C P reads lower than Q because the wet gauze insulates bulb Q.
D P reads lower than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and warms bulb Q.

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15 What happens to the volumes of liquid metal and of solid metal when heated at constant
pressure?

volume of volume of
liquid metal solid metal

A decreases increases
B decreases no change
C increases increases
D increases no change

16 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

°C
–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110

A student wishes to check the marking of the upper fixed point on this thermometer.

What should she do?

A Put the bulb in a beaker of boiling sea water.


B Put the bulb in a beaker of boiling pure water.
C Put the bulb in a beaker of ice and salt.
D Put the bulb in a beaker of pure melting ice.

17 A glass contains an iced drink on a warm and humid day. Water starts to form on the outside of
the glass.

What is the name of the effect by which the water forms?

A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D evaporation

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18 The diagram shows a convection current caused by a piece of ice placed in a beaker of water at
room temperature.

ice

Which row correctly compares the temperatures and densities at water points P and Q?

temperature at P density at P

A higher than at Q higher than at Q


B higher than at Q lower than at Q
C lower than at Q higher than at Q
D lower than at Q lower than at Q

19 The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers
are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature.

Why does the dull black container cool more quickly?

A Black surfaces are better conductors than shiny surfaces.


B Black surfaces are better emitters of radiation than shiny surfaces.
C Black surfaces are better reflectors of radiation than shiny surfaces.
D Black surfaces are worse absorbers of radiation than shiny surfaces.

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10

20 The diagram shows a wave.

2.0
displacement / cm
1.0

0
0 4.0 8.0 12.0 16.0 20.0 24.0 28.0
–1.0 distance / cm

–2.0

Which row is correct?

amplitude of wavelength of
the wave / cm the wave / cm

A 1.0 4.0
B 1.0 8.0
C 2.0 4.0
D 2.0 8.0

21 A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete
wavelengths pass her in 20 s.

What is the frequency of this wave?

A 0.25 Hz B 4.0 Hz C 15 Hz D 100 Hz

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11

22 A card is placed in front of a plane mirror so that its label is facing the mirror, as shown.

plane mirror

label

card
observer

The label is shown.

How does the image of the label formed by the mirror appear to the observer?

A B C D

23 An object is placed in front of a converging lens. The lens has a focal length f.

In which labelled position should the object be placed in order to produce a real image that is
smaller than the object?

lens
A B C D

f
2f

24 Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used by a remote controller for a television?

A infrared waves
B microwaves
C radio waves
D visible light

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12

25 Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?

A Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.


B Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.
C Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.
D Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.

26 Point X is near to a bar magnet, as shown.

N S

Which arrow indicates the direction of the magnetic field of the bar magnet at point X?

A B C D

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27 A student counts how many iron pins an electromagnet picks up when its power supply is
switched on. Then, she counts how many pins are picked up when the power supply is switched
off.

core

d.c. power d.c. power


supply on supply off

iron pins

She repeats the experiment using cores made of different materials. The results are shown.

Which core is made out of soft iron?

pins picked up with pins picked up with


the power supply on the power supply off

A 0 0
B 2 7
C 8 5
D 12 0

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28 The diagram shows a charged plastic rod and an uncharged metal sphere. The metal sphere is
suspended by an insulating thread.

insulating thread

+ + + + +

plastic rod
metal sphere

The plastic rod is then moved close to the metal sphere.

Which row is correct?

the overall state of


observation
the metal sphere

A The rod attracts the sphere. charged


B The rod attracts the sphere. uncharged
C The rod repels the sphere. charged
D The rod repels the sphere. uncharged

29 A large battery is labelled with various items of information about the battery.

12 V 30 kg 216 kJ 680 A

One of these items of information is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery.

What is the e.m.f. of the battery?

A 12 V B 30 kg C 216 kJ D 680 A

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15

30 The circuit shown is being used to measure the resistance of resistor Z.

Y
Z

What is the correct combination of meters to determine the resistance of resistor Z?

meter X meter Y

A ammeter ammeter
B ammeter voltmeter
C voltmeter ammeter
D voltmeter voltmeter

31 The diagram shows the circuit diagram symbol of an electrical component.

Which component does the symbol represent?

A light-dependent resistor
B relay coil
C thermistor
D variable resistor

32 What is the advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a lighting circuit?

A A smaller fuse is needed to protect the lamps.


B If the filament of one lamp breaks, the remaining lamps stay lit.
C The current taken from the supply is less.
D The lamps use less power.

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16

33 The diagram shows a circuit of six identical lamps connected to a battery.

S
Q

P T

R
U

Which lamps are brightest?

A P only
B Q and R only
C S, T and U only
D P, Q, R, S, T and U are equally bright

34 Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?

A so that the current can have only one value


B to prevent the current becoming too large
C to provide a path to earth if a fault occurs
D to save electrical energy

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17

35 Which transformer can change a 240 V a.c. input into a 15 V a.c. output?

A B

800 turns 40 turns 1000 turns 25 turns

C D

2400 turns 15 turns 1200 turns 75 turns

36 The diagrams show patterns around a straight wire carrying a current perpendicularly out of the
page.

Which pattern represents the magnetic field due to the current in the wire?

A B

C D

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18

37 A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect.

Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given.

1 Increase the number of turns on the coil.


2 Increase the current in the coil.
3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field.

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

38 A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus.

Where is the positive charge in an atom?

A on the orbiting particles


B in the nucleus
C in the space between the nucleus and the orbiting particles
D spread throughout the atom

39 A radioactive source has a half-life of 0.5 hours.

A detector near the source shows a reading of 6000 counts per second.

Background radiation can be ignored.

What is the reading on the detector 1.5 hours later?

A 750 counts per second


B 1500 counts per second
C 2000 counts per second
D 3000 counts per second

40 Which statement about the radioactive decay of a substance is correct?

A It cannot be predicted when a particular nucleus will decay.


B Placing a radioactive substance inside a lead-lined box prevents it from decaying.
C The decay always produces poisonous gases.
D The rate of decay increases if the substance is dissolved in water.

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
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publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2022
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 B 1

3 D 1

4 B 1

5 C 1

6 A 1

7 D 1

8 C 1

9 A 1

10 C 1

11 D 1

12 A 1

13 A 1

14 B 1

15 C 1

16 B 1

17 A 1

18 C 1

19 B 1

20 B 1

21 A 1

22 C 1

23 A 1

24 A 1

25 B 1

26 D 1

27 D 1

28 B 1

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2022
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 A 1

30 C 1

31 C 1

32 B 1

33 A 1

34 B 1

35 D 1

36 B 1

37 D 1

38 B 1

39 A 1

40 A 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*7135464643*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

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1 A lump of modelling clay is moved from a small measuring cylinder to a large measuring cylinder
that has twice the diameter.

water

modelling
clay

small cylinder large cylinder

The reading on the small measuring cylinder goes down by 20 cm3.

By how much does the reading on the large cylinder go up?

A 10 cm3 B 20 cm3 C 40 cm3 D 80 cm3

2 What is used to determine the distance travelled by an object in motion?

A the area under a distance–time graph


B the area under a speed–time graph
C the gradient of a distance–time graph
D the gradient of a speed–time graph

3 A man stands next to a railway track.

A train travelling at 40 m / s takes 2.0 s to pass the man.

What is the length of the train?

A 20 m B 38 m C 40 m D 80 m

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4 An object is moved from point X to point Y.

The acceleration of free fall at X is different from that at Y.

Which statement about the object at Y is correct?

A Both its mass and its weight are different from those at X.
B Both its mass and its weight are the same as those at X.
C Its mass is the same as at X but its weight is different.
D Its weight is the same as at X but its mass is different.

5 A measuring cylinder contains 30 cm3 of a liquid.

cm3

50

40

30

20

10

balance

Some more of the liquid is added until the liquid level reaches the 50 cm3 mark.

The reading on the balance increases by 30 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.60 g / cm3 B 0.67 g / cm3 C 1.5 g / cm3 D 1.7 g / cm3

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6 A spaceship approaches and passes a planet.

spaceship

planet

What can the force of gravity between the spaceship and planet achieve?

A It can change the direction of the spaceship, or slow it down, but not speed it up.
B It can change the direction of the spaceship, or speed it up, but not slow it down.
C It can slow down the spaceship, or speed it up, but not change its direction.
D It can change the direction of the spaceship, slow it down, or speed it up.

7 A beam is pivoted at one end, as shown.

40 cm beam
X
pivot

6.0 N

The beam weighs 6.0 N and its weight acts at a point X 40 cm from the pivot.

A force of 4.0 N is applied to the beam causing it to balance horizontally.

In which direction and where is the 4.0 N force applied?

A vertically downwards at 20 cm to the left of X


B vertically downwards at 20 cm to the right of X
C vertically upwards at 20 cm to the left of X
D vertically upwards at 20 cm to the right of X

8 What are the conditions for an object to be in equilibrium?

forces on object moment on object

A no resultant force no resultant moment


B no resultant force resultant moment
C resultant force no resultant moment
D resultant force resultant moment
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9 A tennis ball is dropped from position 1. It falls vertically onto a hard surface at position 2.

tennis ball
position 1

position 2

Which energy changes have taken place between position 1 and position 2?

A gravitational potential  kinetic  chemical

B gravitational potential  kinetic  elastic (strain)

C kinetic  gravitational potential  chemical

D kinetic  gravitational potential  elastic (strain)

10 A force does work moving an object in the direction of the force.

Which change in the force and distance always increases the work done?

force distance

A greater same
B greater smaller
C same smaller
D smaller smaller

11 The table shows the weights and base areas of four metal blocks.

Which block exerts the greatest pressure on its base?

area of
weight / N
base / m2

A 3 000 0.20
B 10 000 0.50
C 16 000 2.0
D 20 000 1.5

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12 The diagram shows a deep reservoir formed by a dam.

water
dam
X

On what does the pressure at X depend?

A the depth of the water at X


B the length of the reservoir
C the surface area of the water
D the thickness of the dam wall

13 A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high
speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing.

Which state of matter is being described?

A a gas cooling
B a gas being heated
C a solid cooling
D a liquid being heated

14 Small pollen particles are suspended in water.

When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly.

What causes this movement?

A The pollen particles are being bombarded by the heavier particles of the water.
B The pollen particles are being bombarded by the lighter particles of the water.
C The temperature of the water is higher than that of the pollen particles.
D The temperature of the water is lower than that of the pollen particles.

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15 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Which physical property of the thermometer is used to measure temperature?

A expansion of glass
B expansion of liquid
C mass of glass
D mass of liquid

16 An engineer investigates the increase in temperature of the oil in a car engine when it is first
switched on.

Which row is correct?

change in
explanation
internal energy

A increase The random kinetic energy of the particles increases.


B increase The oil evaporates when it is heated.
C decrease The potential energy of the particles increases.
D decrease The oil changes state to a gas when it is heated.

17 A glass contains an iced drink on a warm and humid day. Water starts to form on the outside of
the glass.

What is the name of the effect by which the water forms?

A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D evaporation

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18 The diagram shows solar water panels on the roof of a house. The panels absorb energy from
the Sun to heat up the water in the metal pipes.

metal pipes

Which row describes how energy is transferred from the Sun and through the metal of the pipes?

through the
from the Sun
metal of the pipes

A conduction conduction
B conduction convection
C radiation conduction
D radiation convection

19 Four beakers containing equal volumes of water at 10 C are placed outside in full sunshine on a
hot day.

The four beakers are identical except for their surface colour and texture.

Which beaker will heat up the quickest?

A B C D

dull black shiny black dull white shiny white

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20 The diagram shows a wave.

2.0
displacement / cm
1.0

0
0 4.0 8.0 12.0 16.0 20.0 24.0 28.0
–1.0 distance / cm

–2.0

Which row is correct?

amplitude of wavelength of
the wave / cm the wave / cm

A 1.0 4.0
B 1.0 8.0
C 2.0 4.0
D 2.0 8.0

21 A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete
wavelengths pass her in 20 s.

What is the frequency of this wave?

A 0.25 Hz B 4.0 Hz C 15 Hz D 100 Hz

22 A student uses one eye to look at images in a plane mirror.

plane mirror

P Q R E S T U
X Y

Objects are placed on the line XY.

Which objects give rise to images that can be seen by the eye at E?

A P, Q, R, S, T and U

B Q, R, S and T only
C P and U only
D R and S only
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10

23 An object is placed in front of a converging lens. The lens has a focal length f.

In which labelled position should the object be placed in order to produce a real image that is
smaller than the object?

lens
A B C D

f
2f

24 Microwaves, green light and infrared are three types of electromagnetic radiation.

What is their order when listed by wavelength from the shortest wavelength to the longest?

A green light  infrared  microwaves

B green light  microwaves  infrared

C infrared  green light  microwaves

D microwaves  infrared  green light

25 Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?

A Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.


B Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.
C Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.
D Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.

26 The three diagrams each show two magnets.

1 2

S N N S S N S N

N S S N

In which diagrams do the two magnets attract each other?

A 1 only B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 2 and 3


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11

27 The diagram shows the magnetic fields around three objects, P, Q and R, placed close to each
other.

P Q R

Which row shows the nature of each of the objects?

P Q R

permanent magnet permanent magnet


A copper rod
N S N S

permanent magnet permanent magnet


B copper rod
N S S N

permanent magnet permanent magnet


C iron rod
N S N S

permanent magnet permanent magnet


D iron rod
N S S N

28 Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet.

The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench.

A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings.

Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb.

Which statement correctly explains the last observation?

A The comb has been electrically charged by rubbing with the cloth.
B The comb has been magnetised by rubbing with the cloth.
C The filings have been electrically charged by the electromagnet.
D The filings have been magnetised by the electromagnet.

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12

29 Four circuits are set up.

In which circuit does the meter measure the potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor?

A B C D

V A

A V

30 A resistor has a potential difference (p.d.) of 12 V across it and a current of 0.60 A in it.

What is the resistance of the resistor?

A 0.050  B 2.0  C 7.2  D 20 

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13

31 Which circuit is correctly labelled?

A B
battery ammeter cell galvanometer
A

light-dependent resistor relay

A
V
ammeter
voltmeter

C D
cell battery
heater
switch

thermistor
ammeter fixed resistor
A

galvanometer

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14

32 The diagram shows an electric circuit.

X IX

Y IY

IX is the current in resistor X. IY is the current in resistor Y.

Which statement describes the current from the power supply?

A greater than IX and greater than IY

B greater than IX and less than IY

C less than IX and greater than IY

D less than IX and less than IY

33 The diagram shows a battery connected to a potential divider and to two lamps, P and Q.

X Y

The slider on the potential divider is moved from end X to end Y of the resistor.

Which row shows the effect on the brightness of each lamp?

brightness of P brightness of Q

A brighter brighter
B brighter dimmer
C unchanged brighter
D unchanged dimmer

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15

34 Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?

A so that the current can have only one value


B to prevent the current becoming too large
C to provide a path to earth if a fault occurs
D to save electrical energy

35 Electrical power is transmitted from power stations to homes using the National Grid.

In which part of the National Grid is the voltage highest?

A step-up step-down C step-down D


transformer transformer transformer
power houses
station

36 Which transformer can change a 240 V a.c. input into a 15 V a.c. output?

A B

800 turns 40 turns 1000 turns 25 turns

C D

2400 turns 15 turns 1200 turns 75 turns

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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16

37 The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly
than motor 2.

Three suggestions are made to explain this observation.

1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2.
2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2.
3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2.

Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation?

A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

38 Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element?

A two atoms with the same nucleon number but different proton number
B two atoms with a different nucleon number but the same proton number
C two atoms with the same nucleon number and the same proton number
D two atoms with a different nucleon number and different proton number

39 A radioactive source has a half-life of 0.5 hours.

A detector near the source shows a reading of 6000 counts per second.

Background radiation can be ignored.

What is the reading on the detector 1.5 hours later?

A 750 counts per second


B 1500 counts per second
C 2000 counts per second
D 3000 counts per second

40 Some nuclei are unstable. They emit radiation and change into nuclei of a different element.

What is this process called?

A convection
B electromagnetic induction
C radioactive decay
D the motor effect

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2022
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 B 1

3 D 1

4 C 1

5 C 1

6 D 1

7 D 1

8 A 1

9 B 1

10 A 1

11 B 1

12 A 1

13 A 1

14 B 1

15 B 1

16 A 1

17 A 1

18 C 1

19 A 1

20 B 1

21 A 1

22 B 1

23 A 1

24 A 1

25 B 1

26 C 1

27 B 1

28 A 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2022
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 D 1

30 D 1

31 A 1

32 A 1

33 C 1

34 B 1

35 B 1

36 D 1

37 D 1

38 B 1

39 A 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*7310705122*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 06_0625_13/4RP
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1 A lump of modelling clay is moved from a small measuring cylinder to a large measuring cylinder
that has twice the diameter.

water

modelling
clay

small cylinder large cylinder

The reading on the small measuring cylinder goes down by 20 cm3.

By how much does the reading on the large cylinder go up?

A 10 cm3 B 20 cm3 C 40 cm3 D 80 cm3

2 The graph shows the motion of a car.

15
speed
m / s 10

0
0 10 20
time / s

Which row correctly describes this motion?

acceleration distance travelled / m

A constant 200
B constant 300
C increasing at a constant rate 200
D increasing at a constant rate 300

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3 A man stands next to a railway track.

A train travelling at 40 m / s takes 2.0 s to pass the man.

What is the length of the train?

A 20 m B 38 m C 40 m D 80 m

4 Four students are given two different objects, P and Q.

Each student measures the mass of P and the weight of Q.

The results are shown in the table.

Which row gives a possible result?

mass of weight of
object P object Q

A 10 kg 10 kg
B 10 kg 10 N
C 10 N 10 kg
D 10 N 10 N

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5 A measuring cylinder contains 30 cm3 of a liquid.

cm3

50

40

30

20

10

balance

Some more of the liquid is added until the liquid level reaches the 50 cm3 mark.

The reading on the balance increases by 30 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.60 g / cm3 B 0.67 g / cm3 C 1.5 g / cm3 D 1.7 g / cm3

6 A beam is pivoted at one end, as shown.

40 cm beam
X
pivot

6.0 N

The beam weighs 6.0 N and its weight acts at a point X 40 cm from the pivot.

A force of 4.0 N is applied to the beam causing it to balance horizontally.

In which direction and where is the 4.0 N force applied?

A vertically downwards at 20 cm to the left of X


B vertically downwards at 20 cm to the right of X
C vertically upwards at 20 cm to the left of X
D vertically upwards at 20 cm to the right of X

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7 The diagram shows two identical bars of negligible weight. All the forces acting on each bar are
marked.

bar 1 bar 2

2N 2N 2N

4N 2N

Which bars are in equilibrium?

A bar 1 and bar 2


B bar 1 only
C bar 2 only
D neither bar 1 nor bar 2

8 Four objects have different base areas and their centres of mass are in different positions.

Which object is most stable?

position of
base area
centre of mass

A large high
B large low
C small high
D small low

9 In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring?

A chemical energy
B elastic potential energy
C gravitational potential energy
D thermal energy

10 What is meant by the power of an engine?

A the energy that the engine transfers per unit time


B the maximum force that the engine can exert
C the maximum weight that the engine can lift
D the total energy that the engine transfers
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11 A force of 14 N is applied to the head of a nail. This causes a pressure of 25 N / mm2 at the tip of
the nail.

What is the cross-sectional area of the tip of the nail?

A 0.56 mm2 B 11 mm2 C 39 mm2 D 350 mm2

12 The diagram shows a deep reservoir formed by a dam.

water
dam
X

On what does the pressure at X depend?

A the depth of the water at X


B the length of the reservoir
C the surface area of the water
D the thickness of the dam wall

13 The properties of two states of matter are listed.

state 1 The molecules move quickly and randomly. There is a large distance between
the molecules.
state 2 The molecules vibrate about fixed positions. The molecules are closely packed
together.

What are states 1 and 2?

state 1 state 2

A gas liquid
B liquid solid
C solid liquid
D gas solid

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14 A gas in a container is cooled but the volume of the gas does not change.

Which row describes the changes in the pressure of the gas and the average kinetic energy of
the gas particles?

average
pressure of gas kinetic energy of
gas particles

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

15 The iron cylinder of an engine is to be fitted into a piece of aluminium.

The outside diameter M of the iron cylinder is slightly larger than the diameter N of the hole in the
aluminium.

iron cylinder

aluminium
N

What is the best action to fit the cylinder into the aluminium?

A Cool the aluminium and cool the iron.


B Cool the aluminium and heat the iron.
C Heat the aluminium and cool the iron.
D Heat the aluminium and heat the iron.

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16 A solid in a closed container is heated until it completely melts.

Which diagram shows the shape and the volume of the solid before and after heating.

A B

before after before after

C D

before after before after

17 A glass contains an iced drink on a warm and humid day. Water starts to form on the outside of
the glass.

What is the name of the effect by which the water forms?

A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D evaporation

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18 In which situation is the main transfer of thermal energy by convection?

A B
food cooked under a grill a cold drink stored in a vacuum flask

stopper
grill

air
cold drink
food
vacuum

transfer from grill to food transfer from air to drink

C D
food cooled in a freezer cool water in a tank

freezing
compartment
metal tank Sun
air

food water

transfer from food transfer from the Sun to water


to freezing compartment

19 A metal container is the shape of a hollow cube.

The four sides of the container have different surface finishes.

Which side is the best emitter of radiation?

D A
dull black shiny black

C B
dull white shiny white

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10

20 The diagram shows a wave.

2.0
displacement / cm
1.0

0
0 4.0 8.0 12.0 16.0 20.0 24.0 28.0
–1.0 distance / cm

–2.0

Which row is correct?

amplitude of wavelength of
the wave / cm the wave / cm

A 1.0 4.0
B 1.0 8.0
C 2.0 4.0
D 2.0 8.0

21 A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete
wavelengths pass her in 20 s.

What is the frequency of this wave?

A 0.25 Hz B 4.0 Hz C 15 Hz D 100 Hz

22 A ray of light passes from air through a sheet of glass and out the other side, as shown.

air
boundary 1
glass
boundary 2
air

Which two angles are equal to each other?

A angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of incidence at boundary 2


B angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 1
C angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2
D angle of refraction at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2

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11

23 An object is placed in front of a converging lens. The lens has a focal length f.

In which labelled position should the object be placed in order to produce a real image that is
smaller than the object?

lens
A B C D

f
2f

24 Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?

A Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.


B Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.
C Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.
D Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.

25 Student 1 and student 2 stand 170 m apart as shown.

Student 1 fires a starting pistol. Student 2 hears the sound twice, once by the direct route and
once from the reflection from the wall.

wall

170 m 170 m

170 m

student 1 student 2

The speed of sound in air is 340 m / s.

What is the interval between hearing the two sounds?

A 0.25 s B 0.50 s C 1.0 s D 2.0 s

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12

26 A student attempts to make a permanent magnet by hammering metal bars of the same size in
the same magnetic field.

In which case is the strongest permanent magnet produced?

A B
magnetic magnetic
field lines field lines

iron bar
iron bar

C D
magnetic magnetic
field lines field lines

steel bar
steel bar

27 A student places object X on a balance. The student first brings magnet Y and then magnet Z
close to object X and observes the readings on the balance. The distance between Y and X is the
same as the distance between Z and X.

The diagram shows the results of the experiment.

N S
magnet Y magnet Z

S N

object X

49.3 g 48.7 g 48.1 g

Which statement explains the results?

A Object X is an iron block and magnet Y is stronger than magnet Z.


B Object X is an iron block and magnet Y is weaker than magnet Z.
C Object X is a permanent magnet and magnet Y is stronger than magnet Z.
D Object X is a permanent magnet and magnet Y is weaker than magnet Z.

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13

28 A girl rubs a plastic rod with a cloth. The plastic rod then repels a positively charged object.

Which row is correct?

the state of what happened when


the plastic rod the rod was rubbed

A negatively charged it gained some electrons


B negatively charged it lost some protons
C positively charged it lost some electrons
D positively charged it gained some protons

29 Which circuit shows a meter being used correctly to measure the current in a resistor?

A B C D

A V

A V

30 A resistor and a battery are connected in series.

The value of the resistor is 20 .

The potential difference (p.d.) of the battery is 4.0 V.

What is the current in the resistor?

A 0.20 A B 4.0 A C 5.0 A D 80 A

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14

31 The circuit shown includes a cell.

Which other components does the circuit contain?

A lamp, voltmeter and switch


B resistor, thermistor and bell
C switch, variable resistor and heater
D switch, heater and fuse

32 Two 4  resistors are connected in parallel.

4Ω

X Y
4Ω

What is the combined resistance between X and Y?

A less than 4 

B 4

C 8

D more than 8 

33 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct?

A If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on.


B The current in each lamp is different.
C The lamps can be switched on and off separately.
D The lamps have the same voltage across each of them.

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15

34 Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?

A so that the current can have only one value


B to prevent the current becoming too large
C to provide a path to earth if a fault occurs
D to save electrical energy

35 The information describes the currents in three different circuits.

Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52 A in one direction.

Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25 A and 0.35 A but is always in the
same one direction.

Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52 A that changes direction periodically.

Which circuits contain a direct current?

A P only B P and Q C Q and R D R only

36 Which transformer can change a 240 V a.c. input into a 15 V a.c. output?

A B

800 turns 40 turns 1000 turns 25 turns

C D

2400 turns 15 turns 1200 turns 75 turns

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16

37 The diagram shows a wire hanging from a metal loop P and dipping into a bath of mercury.

N S

mercury

The wire is hanging vertically between the N and S poles of a magnet.

The loop P is then connected to the positive terminal of a battery and the mercury is connected to
the negative terminal.

The wire swings out of the page.

In which direction does the wire move when P is connected to the negative terminal of the battery
and the mercury is connected to the positive terminal?

A The wire swings into the page.


B The wire swings out of the page.
C The wire swings to the left.
D The wire swings to the right.

38 The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes.

What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element?

A They have different numbers of electrons.


B They have different numbers of protons and different numbers of neutrons.
C They have different numbers of protons only.
D They have different numbers of neutrons only.

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17

39 A radioactive source has a half-life of 0.5 hours.

A detector near the source shows a reading of 6000 counts per second.

Background radiation can be ignored.

What is the reading on the detector 1.5 hours later?

A 750 counts per second


B 1500 counts per second
C 2000 counts per second
D 3000 counts per second

40 Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully?

A -rays are part of the electromagnetic spectrum.


B Radioactive decay is a random process.
C Radioactive materials have a half-life.
D The radiation given out is ionising.

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20

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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2022
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1

2 A 1

3 D 1

4 B 1

5 C 1

6 D 1

7 B 1

8 B 1

9 B 1

10 A 1

11 A 1

12 A 1

13 D 1

14 A 1

15 C 1

16 D 1

17 A 1

18 C 1

19 D 1

20 B 1

21 A 1

22 C 1

23 A 1

24 B 1

25 B 1

26 C 1

27 B 1

28 C 1

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2022
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 A 1

30 A 1

31 C 1

32 A 1

33 B 1

34 B 1

35 B 1

36 D 1

37 A 1

38 D 1

39 A 1

40 D 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*3743838224*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 11_0625_11/6RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
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1 The times for 10 swings of a pendulum are measured.

time for 10
measurement
swings / s

1 10.12
2 10.48
3 10.24

What is the average time for one swing?

A 1.028 s B 1.036 s C 1.042 s D 10.28 s

2 A car starts from rest.

The table shows the readings from its speedometer every 10 s.

time / s 0 10 20 30 40 50 60
speed
0 4 8 12 12 12 12
m/ s

Which row describes the car’s motion in the first 30 seconds and in the last 30 seconds?

motion during first 30 s motion during last 30 s

A non-zero acceleration at rest


B zero acceleration constant speed
C zero acceleration at rest
D non-zero acceleration constant speed

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3 A stone is placed on a balance as shown.

stone

120 g balance

Which row gives the mass and weight of the stone?

mass weight

A 120 g 1.2 N
B 120 g 1200 N
C 1.2 N 120 g
D 1200 N 120 g

4 The diagram shows the dimensions of a solid rectangular block of metal of mass m.

q
p

Which expression is used to calculate the density of the metal?

A m
(p  q)

B m
(p  q  r )
C mpq

D mpqr

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5 A force F acts on an object at a distance x from a pivot.

Which two changes both increase the moment of the force about the pivot?

change 1 change 2

A decrease F decrease x
B decrease F increase x
C increase F decrease x
D increase F increase x

6 The diagrams represent the only two forces acting on an object.

Which object could be moving to the right at constant speed?

A B

1.0 N 1.0 N 1.0 N 1.0 N

C D

1.0 N 2.0 N 2.0 N 1.0 N

7 The diagram shows a uniform rod with its midpoint on a pivot. Two weights X and Y are hung
from the rod. The rod is in equilibrium.

rod

X pivot Y

Which statement is correct?

A The forces at X and Y have different values.


B There is a resultant turning effect on the rod.
C The resultant force on the rod is zero.
D The rod does not have a centre of mass.

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8 Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.

Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car slows down?

A chemical
B elastic
C thermal
D sound

9 What is a disadvantage of nuclear fission as a source of energy?

A Nuclear power stations are expensive to build.


B Nuclear power stations are unreliable.
C Nuclear power stations can only provide small quantities of energy.
D Nuclear power stations release large quantities of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

10 The statements describe what happens when the power of a machine is increased.

1 The work done in a given time decreases.


2 The work done in a given time increases.
3 The time taken to do a given quantity of work decreases.
4 The time taken to do a given quantity of work increases.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

11 Which quantities, in addition to the acceleration of free fall g, affect the pressure at the bottom of
a pond of water?

A the density of the water and the depth of the pond only
B the density of the water and the surface area of the pond only
C the depth of the pond and the surface area of the pond only
D the depth of the pond, the density of the water and the surface area of the pond

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12 A fixed mass of gas is trapped in a container. The temperature of the gas is increased but the
volume of the gas is kept constant.

fixed
mass
of gas

How does this change affect the average kinetic energy of the molecules and the pressure on the
walls of the container?

average
pressure
kinetic energy

A increases increases
B stays the same increases
C increases decreases
D decreases increases

13 Which row correctly describes the arrangement and the motion of particles in a solid?

arrangement
motion of particles
of particles

A far apart moving randomly from place to place


B far apart vibrating about one position
C tightly packed moving randomly from place to place
D tightly packed vibrating about one position

14 What is the temperature difference between the fixed points on the C temperature scale?

A 10 C B 100 C C 110 C D 120 C

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15 In the diagram, each box represents a state of matter and each arrow represents a change of
state.

P Q

solid liquid gas

R S

Which row correctly identifies the changes of state?

P Q R S

A freezing condensation boiling melting


B boiling melting condensation freezing
C freezing condensation melting boiling
D condensation freezing melting boiling

16 Four thermometers, with their bulbs painted different colours, are placed at equal distances from
a radiant heater.

Which thermometer shows the slowest temperature rise when the heater is first switched on?

A dull black
B dull white
C shiny black
D shiny white

17 Which method of transfer of thermal energy is caused by changes in density?

A conduction
B convection
C evaporation
D radiation

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18 The diagrams show two sets of wavefronts in a ripple tank.

wave wave
direction direction

barrier shallow water

A student makes two statements about the waves.

1 When the waves reflect from the barrier the direction changes but the wavelength
remains the same.
2 When the waves refract as they enter the shallow water the direction remains the
same, but the wavelength changes.

Which statements are correct?

A statement 1 and statement 2


B statement 1 only
C statement 2 only
D neither statement 1 nor statement 2

19 What is the correct order of the colours in a spectrum of white light?

A blue  green  yellow

B blue  yellow  green

C yellow  blue  green

D green  blue  yellow

20 An object is placed 30 cm in front of a plane mirror.

Which statement describes the image of the object?

A The image is the same size and 30 cm from the object.


B The image is the same size and 60 cm from the object.
C The image is smaller and 30 cm from the object.
D The image is smaller and 60 cm from the object.

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21 A ray of light is shone onto the surface of a mirror.

2 3
1 4

Which two angles represent the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

22 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum. The numbers indicate the approximate
wavelength at the boundaries between the various regions of the spectrum.

For a device to be able to make use of electromagnetic radiation, it needs an aerial of


approximately the same size as the wavelength of the radiation it is designed to work with.

P Q R S T U V
1m 10–3 m 7  10–7 m 4  10–7 m 10–8 m 10–11 m

Which statement is correct?

A A mobile phone uses radiation from region P.


B A television satellite dish uses radiation from region Q.
C The receptor cells in an eye use radiation from region R.
D The remote controller for a television uses radiation from region U.

23 Microwaves and X-rays are regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Which statement about microwaves and X-rays is correct?

A Microwaves and X-rays have the same frequency.


B Microwaves and X-rays travel at the same speed in a vacuum.
C Microwaves have a shorter wavelength than X-rays.
D Microwaves travel at a lower speed than X-rays in a vacuum.

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10

24 An observer stands at the finish line of a 100 m race. He wants to time the winner’s run. He starts
his stop-watch as soon as he sees the smoke from the starting gun instead of when he hears the
bang.

What is the reason for doing this?

A Light travels much faster than sound.


B There is a risk he might respond to an echo from a wall.
C Humans react slower to sound than to light.
D Humans react more quickly to sound than to light.

25 Which description of a current in a metal is correct?

A a flow of electrons
B a flow of molecules
C a flow of positive atoms
D a flow of protons

26 The diagram shows a circuit containing a variable resistor connected to a variable power supply.

power
supply

The table shows the currents for different values of the potential difference (p.d.) and the
resistance.

p.d. / V resistance /  current

3.6 12 I1
1.2 12 I2
3.6 6 I3

What is the order of the currents from smallest to largest?

A I1  I2  I3 B I1  I3  I2 C I2  I1  I3 D I3  I1  I2

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11

27 The e.m.f. of the cell in this circuit is 1.5 V.

What does e.m.f. stand for?

A electromagnetic field
B electromagnetic force
C electromotive field
D electromotive force

28 A negatively charged plastic rod P is placed above a positively charged plastic rod Q.

P
– – – – –

Q
+ + + + +

What are the directions of the electrostatic forces on rod P and on rod Q?

electrostatic force electrostatic force


on rod P on rod Q

A downwards downwards
B downwards upwards
C upwards downwards
D upwards upwards

29 A student finds the resistance of a resistor.

Which circuit is used to measure the potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor and the current
in it?

A B C D

V A V A A

A V V
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12

30 The circuit diagram shows a variable potential divider.

P Q

slider

The slider is moved from P towards Q.

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter and to the brightness of the lamp?

reading on brightness
voltmeter of lamp

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

31 The diagram shows a circuit containing a cell, a variable resistor and two bulbs, P and Q.

The resistance of the variable resistor is increased.

What happens to the brightness of each bulb?

brightness of bulb P brightness of bulb Q

A dimmer dimmer
B dimmer remains the same
C remains the same dimmer
D remains the same remains the same

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13

32 Which diagram shows a circuit containing a battery, a fuse and a buzzer?

A B

C D

33 Why is a fuse used in an electric circuit?

A to increase the circuit resistance


B to prevent short circuits
C to reduce the power loss
D to stop the cables from overheating

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14

34 The diagram represents a transformer.

core

primary coil

Which row shows materials suitable for making the core and the primary coil?

core primary coil

A iron copper
B iron plastic
C steel copper
D steel plastic

35 The diagrams show the magnetic field lines around a wire carrying a current, I.

1 2

I I

3 4

I I

Which diagrams are correct?

A 1 only B 2 and 3 C 4 only D 1 and 3

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15

36 A wire is placed between the poles of a magnet.

wire

N
S
magnet

Which statements are correct?

1 An a.c. current in the wire causes a changing force on it.


2 A downward d.c. current in the wire causes a constant force on it.
3 An upward d.c. current in the wire causes a constant force on it.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

7
37 The nuclide notation for the isotope lithium-7 is 3Li .

How many neutrons are there in an atom of lithium-7?

A 3 B 4 C 7 D 10

38 A radioactive material is emitting -particles. The radioactive material is used in a demonstration


in a school laboratory experiment.

Which safety precaution must be taken by the person carrying out the experiment?

A Handle the source with tongs.


B Place the source on a heat-proof mat.
C Surround the experiment with a lead screen.
D Wear goggles.

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16

39 The graph shows how the count rate from a radioactive isotope changes with time.

60

count rate 50
counts / s
40

30

20

10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
time / s

What is the half-life of this isotope?

A 2.0 s B 6.0 s C 12 s D 53 s

40 A student measures the count rate near a radioactive source using a detector of ionising
radiation. The diagram shows the arrangement.

radioactive
source counter
detector
75

The counter reads 75 counts per minute.

When the source is taken away, the reading on the counter decreases to 5 counts per minute.

What was the rate of emission from the radioactive source when the counter reading is corrected
for background radiation?

A 5 counts per minute


B 15 counts per minute
C 70 counts per minute
D 80 counts per minute

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2022

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 D 1

3 A 1

4 B 1

5 D 1

6 A 1

7 C 1

8 C 1

9 A 1

10 C 1

11 A 1

12 A 1

13 D 1

14 B 1

15 C 1

16 D 1

17 B 1

18 B 1

19 A 1

20 B 1

21 C 1

22 B 1

23 B 1

24 A 1

25 A 1

26 C 1

27 D 1

28 B 1
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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2022

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 D 1

31 B 1

32 D 1

33 D 1

34 A 1

35 D 1

36 D 1

37 B 1

38 A 1

39 A 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*2354292637*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 11_0625_12/3RP
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1 Which measuring instrument can be used to find the volume of a small stone?

A measuring cylinder partly filled with water


B measuring tape
C metre rule
D protractor

2 The diagrams show speed–time graphs for four different bodies moving for 6.0 s.

Which body travelled the least distance?

A B
8.0 8.0
speed speed
m/s m/s
6.0 6.0

4.0 4.0

2.0 2.0

0 0
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 0 2.0 4.0 6.0
time / s time / s

C D
8.0 8.0
speed speed
m/s m/s
6.0 6.0

4.0 4.0

2.0 2.0

0 0
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 0 2.0 4.0 6.0
time / s time / s

3 Which row shows the mass and the weight of an object near the Earth’s surface?

mass / kg weight / N

A 0.2 0.2
B 2 0.2
C 2 20
D 20 10

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4 The diagram shows four pieces of laboratory apparatus.

100
100
90
90
80
80
70
70
60
60
50
50
40
40
30
30
0.0g 20
20
10
10

balance measuring ruler stop-watch


cylinder

Which pieces of apparatus are used to find the density of a liquid?

A balance and stop-watch


B balance and measuring cylinder
C measuring cylinder and ruler
D stop-watch and ruler

5 What is the unit for the moment of a force about a point?

A W B Ns C N/m D Nm

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6 On which ball is a non-zero resultant force acting?

A B
a ball moving at constant a ball at rest on a bench
speed on a smooth surface

direction of
movement

C D
a free-falling ball which a ball floating on water
has just been released

direction of water
movement

7 Which statements must be correct for an object to be in equilibrium?

1 The object is moving in a straight line.


2 There is no resultant force on the object.
3 There is no resultant moment on the object.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

8 An object falls towards the Earth’s surface.

What happens to the gravitational potential energy and to the kinetic energy of the object?

gravitational potential
kinetic energy
energy

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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9 Which source of energy is not currently used to generate electrical energy?

A nuclear fusion
B solar
C tidal
D waves

10 A mass is lifted from rest on the ground to Y. There is no air resistance.

P is the increase in gravitational energy of the mass.

Q is the kinetic energy of the mass at Y.

Which expression is equal to the mechanical work done on the mass?

A P+Q B P–Q C Q–P D P×Q

11 A pressure gauge is lowered into the sea. Measurements of the pressure and depth are taken as
the pressure gauge is lowered.

Which statement describes how and why the pressure changes as the gauge is lowered?

A The density of the sea water decreases so the pressure increases.


B The depth of the gauge below the surface of the sea increases so the pressure increases.
C The height of the gauge above the sea bed decreases so the pressure decreases.
D The temperature of the sea water decreases so the pressure decreases.

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12 The pressure of a fixed mass of gas in a cylinder is measured. The volume of the gas in the
cylinder is slowly decreased. The temperature of the gas does not change.

Which graph shows how the pressure of the gas changes during this process?

A B

pressure pressure

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

pressure pressure

0 0
0 time 0 time

13 Which statement about the motion of molecules describes the process of evaporation?

A Molecules break free from their fixed positions.


B Freely moving molecules collide and join together.
C Molecules escape from the surface of a liquid.
D Freely moving molecules gain energy and move further apart.

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14 The diagram shows a thermometer calibrated in degrees Celsius.

qC
110
100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
–10

What are the values of the lower fixed point and of the upper fixed point on the Celsius scale?

lower fixed upper fixed


point / °C point / °C

A –10 110
B 0 20
C 0 100
D 20 100

15 What happens to a solid when its temperature increases?

A It contracts.
B Its density increases.
C Its internal energy increases.
D Its molecules move freely.

16 Which piece of equipment is designed to produce a type of electromagnetic wave?

A electric fire
B electric generator
C electric motor
D electromagnet

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17 Particles can move, transferring thermal energy, as shown.

heater

In which states of matter does this movement occur?

A gas and liquid only


B gas and solid only
C gas, liquid and solid
D liquid and solid only

18 The diagram shows plane water waves in a ripple tank passing through a gap between two
barriers and spreading out.

barrier

plane
water
waves

barrier

Which name is given to this effect?

A diffraction
B reflection
C refraction
D total internal reflection

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19 What are the correct labels for the ray diagram?

W
Y
X
Z

principal
object image
focus

A W X Y
B W Z Y
C X Y Z
D X Z W

20 The diagram shows an object in front of a plane mirror.

At which labelled position is the image of the object formed?

B C

A D
plane
mirror

eye
object

21 The angle between an incident ray and the surface of a plane mirror reflecting the ray is 70°.

What is the angle of incidence?

A 20° B 40° C 70° D 140°

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10

22 Visible light has a frequency of approximately 5.0 × 1014 Hz.

M and N are two other types of electromagnetic radiation.

The frequency of M is 5.0 × 106 Hz.

The frequency of N is 5.0 × 1015 Hz.

Which types of radiation are M and N?

M N

A radio waves infrared


B radio waves ultraviolet
C ultraviolet X-rays
D X-rays infrared

23 Two students are describing different types of electromagnetic radiation.

student 1 This radiation is used in communications.


student 2 This radiation is used in remote controllers.

Which row shows the possible type of radiation that each student is describing?

student 1 student 2

A microwave infrared
B radio ultraviolet
C sound waves visible light
D X-rays gamma rays

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11

24 A 100 m race is started by firing a gun. The gun makes a bang and a puff of smoke at the same
time.

starter finishing
judge

100 m

When does the finishing judge see the smoke and when does he hear the bang?

sees the smoke hears the bang

A almost immediately almost immediately


B almost immediately after about 0.3 s
C after about 0.3 s almost immediately
D after about 0.3 s after about 0.3 s

25 An electric hairdryer is rated 230 V, 2 A.

Which circuit could be used to check that these ratings are correct?

A B
power power
supply supply

V A

hairdryer A hairdryer

C D
power power
supply supply

V A

hairdryer hairdryer

A V

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12

26 The diagram shows a circuit used to control the potential difference (p.d.) across a lamp.

The variable resistor is adjusted until the p.d. across the lamp is 6.0 V.

The current in the lamp is 0.5 A.

What is the resistance of the lamp?

A 0.083 Ω B 3.0 Ω C 6.5 Ω D 12.0 Ω

27 What are the units of electromotive force (e.m.f.)?

A amperes
B watts
C ohms
D volts

28 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry woollen cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Which statement is correct?

A Electrons move from the cloth to the rod.


B Electrons move from the rod to the cloth.
C Protons move from the cloth to the rod.
D Protons move from the rod to the cloth.

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13

29 A circuit containing a cell, a resistor and a lamp is set up as shown.

A student connects a voltmeter to the circuit in one of the positions shown.

In which position does the voltmeter measure the potential difference (p.d.) across the lamp?

A
V

B V

V
D
V
C

30 The diagram shows a potential divider circuit.

The temperature of the thermistor increases.

What happens to the resistance of the thermistor, and what happens to the reading on the
voltmeter?

resistance of voltmeter
thermistor reading

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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14

31 A student sets up four circuits using identical batteries and three identical lamps.

In which circuit will all the lamps be the brightest?

A B

C D

32 Which diagram shows the circuit symbol for a fuse?

A B C D

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15

33 If the insulation within a mains cable becomes damaged, two of the wires in it may touch and
cause a short circuit.

Which row is correct?

safety device which


the danger when this happens
avoids this danger
A a large current will overheat a fuse
the wiring and lead to a fire
B a large current will overheat a relay
the wiring and lead to a fire
C the appliance at the end a fuse
of the cable will be damaged
D the appliance at the end a relay
of the cable will be damaged

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16

34 Four small compasses are placed around a solenoid.

solenoid

A current is now switched on in the solenoid.

Which diagram shows possible new directions of the compass needles?

A B

C D

35 Transformers are used in the transmission of electrical power to houses.

Which type of transformer is used at the power station prior to connection to the power lines and
which type is used prior to delivery to the houses?

power station before houses

A step-down step-down
B step-down step-up
C step-up step-down
D step-up step-up

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17

36 The diagrams show the coils of two simple direct current (d.c.) motors. Coil P has three turns of
wire and coil Q has two turns. Coil P has the same dimensions as coil Q. The coils are in identical
magnet fields.

coil P coil Q

What produces the greatest turning effect?

coil current / A

A P 2
B P 4
C Q 2
D Q 4

37 A nuclide of cobalt contains 27 protons and 32 neutrons.

Which symbol represents this nuclide?


27 32 32 59
A 59 Co B 27 Co C 59 Co D 27 Co

38 Everyone is exposed to background radiation.

What are sources of background radiation?

A food and drink only


B rocks only
C cosmic rays only
D food and drink, rocks and cosmic rays

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18

39 The diagram shows a piece of apparatus used to determine the nature of the emissions from a
radioactive source. The absorbers can be raised out of or lowered into the path of the radiation
from the source to the detector. The apparatus is evacuated.

different
absorbers

detector radioactive
source

vacuum

The table gives a set of results for a particular radioactive source.

count rate on detector


absorber in use
(counts per second)

none 350
thin paper 350
1.0 mm aluminium 180
1.0 cm lead 23

Which types of radiation are being emitted by the radioactive source?

A α-particles and β-particles

B α-particles only

C β-particles and γ-rays

D β-particles only

40 The half-life of a sample of radioactive material is 400 years.

How long will it take until only 1 of this sample remains undecayed?
4

A 100 years
B 400 years
C 800 years
D 1600 years

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19

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20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2022

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 B 1

3 C 1

4 B 1

5 D 1

6 C 1

7 C 1

8 B 1

9 A 1

10 A 1

11 B 1

12 C 1

13 C 1

14 C 1

15 C 1

16 A 1

17 A 1

18 A 1

19 B 1

20 B 1

21 A 1

22 B 1

23 A 1

24 B 1

25 D 1

26 D 1

27 D 1

28 B 1
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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2022

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 A 1

31 D 1

32 D 1

33 A 1

34 D 1

35 C 1

36 B 1

37 D 1

38 D 1

39 C 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2022
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*7042420382*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 11_0625_13/RP
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1 A student uses a ruler to measure the length of a spring.

His results are shown.

14.9 cm 14.8 cm 14.8 cm 14.7 cm

What is the average length of the spring to three significant figures?

A 14.8 cm B 14.9 cm C 15.0 cm D 15 cm

2 The velocity–time graph for a car is shown.

25
velocity
m/s 20

15

10

0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35
time / s

What is the distance travelled by the car in 35 s?

A 250 m B 350 m C 450 m D 700 m

3 Which statements about weight are correct?

1 Weight is the quantity of matter in an object.


2 Weight is the force due to gravity acting on an object.
3 Weight is measured in kilograms.
4 Weight is measured in newtons.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

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4 The diagram shows four pieces of laboratory apparatus.

100
100
90
90
80
80
70
70
60
60
50
50
40
40
30
30
0.0g 20
20
10
10

balance measuring ruler stop-watch


cylinder

Which pieces of apparatus are used to find the density of a liquid?

A balance and stop-watch


B balance and measuring cylinder
C measuring cylinder and ruler
D stop-watch and ruler

5 A spanner is used to tighten a nut on a bicycle wheel. A force F is needed.

nut

handle of spanner

How can the force F be reduced?

A Use a longer handle.


B Use a shorter handle.
C Use a thinner handle.
D Use a thicker handle.

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6 On which ball is a non-zero resultant force acting?

A B
a ball moving at constant a ball at rest on a bench
speed on a smooth surface

direction of
movement

C D
a free-falling ball which a ball floating on water
has just been released

direction of water
movement

7 The diagram shows a bus with an upper floor and a lower floor.

upper floor

lower floor

Passengers on the upper floor are not allowed to stand while the bus is moving. Standing
passengers make the bus less stable.

Why is this?

A The total weight is greater when they stand.


B There is too much pressure on the floor.
C The centre of mass is higher up.
D The density is greater.

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8 An object falls towards the Earth’s surface.

What happens to the gravitational potential energy and to the kinetic energy of the object?

gravitational potential
kinetic energy
energy

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

9 What is the unit of work?

A J B N C N / kg D W

10 In some situations, a force does work.

Which set of conditions increases the quantity of work done by the force?

magnitude distance moved


of force by the force

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C increases increases
D stays the same decreases

11 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

Which labelled distance decreases when atmospheric pressure increases?

D
A
B

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12 The pressure of a fixed mass of gas in a cylinder is measured. The volume of the gas in the
cylinder is slowly decreased. The temperature of the gas does not change.

Which graph shows how the pressure of the gas changes during this process?

A B

pressure pressure

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

pressure pressure

0 0
0 time 0 time

13 A liquid is evaporating.

What does it lose from its surface?

A less energetic ions


B less energetic molecules
C more energetic ions
D more energetic molecules

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14 The diagram shows a thermometer calibrated in degrees Celsius.

qC
110
100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
–10

What are the values of the lower fixed point and of the upper fixed point on the Celsius scale?

lower fixed upper fixed


point / C point / C

A –10 110
B 0 20
C 0 100
D 20 100

15 Which statements does the term ‘melting point’ refer to?

1 the temperature at which a liquid changes to solid without a change in temperature


2 the temperature at which a solid changes to liquid without a change in temperature
3 the temperature at which a liquid changes to vapour without a change in
temperature
4 the temperature at which a vapour changes to liquid without a change in
temperature

A 1 and 2 B 2 only C 3 and 4 D 4 only

16 Which piece of equipment is designed to produce a type of electromagnetic wave?

A electric fire
B electric generator
C electric motor
D electromagnet

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17 How is energy transferred from the Sun to the Earth?

A by -particles
B by conduction
C by convection
D by radiation

18 Wavefronts are incident on a boundary.

What is needed for the wave to refract at the boundary?

A a shiny surface at the boundary


B a small gap in the boundary
C different mediums either side of the boundary in which the frequency of the wave is different
D different mediums either side of the boundary in which the speed of the wave is different

19 A 60 glass prism disperses white light as shown.

red
spectrum

white violet
light glass prism

The spectrum can be seen emerging from the prism.

Which spectrum shows the colours in the correct order?

A violet, green, blue, yellow, orange, red


B violet, blue, green, orange, yellow, red
C violet, blue, green, yellow, orange, red
D violet, green, blue, orange, yellow, red

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20 The diagram shows an object in front of a plane mirror.

At which labelled position is the image of the object formed?

B C

A D
plane
mirror

eye
object

21 The diagram shows the action of a thin converging lens on two rays of light. The rays are from
the top of an object O. An inverted image I is formed.

lens

I
O R S

Which name is given to the distance RS?

A principal axis
B principal focus
C focal length
D real length

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10

22 Visible light has a frequency of approximately 5.0  1014 Hz.

M and N are two other types of electromagnetic radiation.

The frequency of M is 5.0  106 Hz.

The frequency of N is 5.0  1015 Hz.

Which types of radiation are M and N?

M N

A radio waves infrared


B radio waves ultraviolet
C ultraviolet X-rays
D X-rays infrared

23 Which wave is not an electromagnetic wave?

A microwaves
B radio
C sound
D ultraviolet

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11

24 A 100 m race is started by firing a gun. The gun makes a bang and a puff of smoke at the same
time.

starter finishing
judge

100 m

When does the finishing judge see the smoke and when does he hear the bang?

sees the smoke hears the bang

A almost immediately almost immediately


B almost immediately after about 0.3 s
C after about 0.3 s almost immediately
D after about 0.3 s after about 0.3 s

25 Copper wires are used to connect an electric circuit.

Which particles flow in the wires when the circuit is switched on?

A atoms
B electrons
C ions
D neutrons

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12

26 A student is investigating a resistance wire.

She measures the current in a 50 cm length of resistance wire.

resistance wire

The student repeats the experiment using a 100 cm length of the same resistance wire.

What is the effect of this change on the current in the circuit and on the resistance of the wire?

effect on effect on
current resistance

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

27 What is the full name of the term e.m.f.?

A electromotive field
B electromotive force
C electromotive frequency
D electromotive friction

28 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry woollen cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Which statement is correct?

A Electrons move from the cloth to the rod.


B Electrons move from the rod to the cloth.
C Protons move from the cloth to the rod.
D Protons move from the rod to the cloth.

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13

29 The diagram shows the circuit that a student uses to determine the resistance of resistor R.

meter 1

meter 2

Which row describes meter 1 and meter 2?

meter 1 meter 2

A ammeter ammeter
B ammeter voltmeter
C voltmeter ammeter
D voltmeter voltmeter

30 The diagram shows a potential divider circuit.

The temperature of the thermistor increases.

What happens to the resistance of the thermistor, and what happens to the reading on the
voltmeter?

resistance of voltmeter
thermistor reading

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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14

31 The diagram shows a series circuit containing a fixed voltage power supply, a thermistor, a
light-dependent resistor (LDR) and a lamp.

Which set of conditions makes the lamp brightest?

light intensity temperature


shining on LDR of thermistor

A bright high
B bright low
C dim high
D dim low

32 The diagram shows a circuit containing a cell, a lamp and two ammeters.

ammeter 1 A A ammeter 2

The current reading on ammeter 2 is 0.20 A.

What is the name for this type of circuit and what is the reading on ammeter 1?

type of circuit reading on ammeter 1

A series 0.20 A
B series greater than 0.20 A
C parallel 0.20 A
D parallel greater than 0.20 A

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15

33 The circuit connecting a room heater to the mains electricity supply has a fuse in it.

The fuse melts and switches off the circuit.

Why does the wire in the fuse melt?

A The air in the room becomes too damp.


B The air in the room reaches its required temperature.
C The insulation around the circuit wire becomes damaged.
D The current in the circuit becomes too large.

34 Four small compasses are placed around a solenoid.

solenoid

A current is now switched on in the solenoid.

Which diagram shows possible new directions of the compass needles?

A B

C D

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16

35 Which metal is used for the core of a transformer?

A aluminium
B copper
C soft iron
D steel

36 The diagram shows the design of a type of relay.

pivot spring

P terminals
for external
circuit

Two parts are labelled N and P.

From which metal is N made and from which metal is P made?

N P

A soft iron soft iron


B soft iron steel
C steel soft iron
D steel steel

37 A nuclide of cobalt contains 27 protons and 32 neutrons.

Which symbol represents this nuclide?


27 32 32 59
A 59 Co B 27 Co C 59 Co D 27 Co

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17

38 In the processes shown, X and Y are elements.

Which process describes -decay?

A Atoms of X collide with atoms of Y.


B Atoms of X emit atoms of Y.
C Atoms of X change into ions of Y.

D Atoms of X absorb -particles.

39 A high-voltage power supply is connected to a metal grid and a wire, as shown.

radioactive source
emitting D-particles
metal grid

wire
high
voltage sparks
observed

When the radioactive source is placed close to the grid, sparks are observed in the position
indicated.

Which statement explains why the sparks are formed?

A -particles have a long range.

B -particles have no charge.

C -particles have no mass.

D -particles are strongly ionising.

40 A radioactive substance has a half-life of 6 hours.

It has an initial rate of emission of 120 counts per second.

How long will it take for this rate of emission to fall to 30 counts per second?

A 1.5 hours B 12 hours C 30 hours D 240 hours

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18

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
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publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) October/November 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2022

Question Answer Marks

1 A 1

2 B 1

3 D 1

4 B 1

5 A 1

6 C 1

7 C 1

8 B 1

9 A 1

10 C 1

11 C 1

12 C 1

13 D 1

14 C 1

15 A 1

16 A 1

17 D 1

18 D 1

19 C 1

20 B 1

21 C 1

22 B 1

23 C 1

24 B 1

25 B 1

26 B 1

27 B 1

28 B 1
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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2022

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 A 1

31 A 1

32 A 1

33 D 1

34 D 1

35 C 1

36 A 1

37 D 1

38 C 1

39 D 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) February/March 2023
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*1287925071*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 9.8 N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

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1 A measuring cylinder contains water.

The diagrams show the measuring cylinder before and after some of the water is poured into a
beaker.

cm3 cm3
250 250
225 225
200 200
175 175
150 150
125 125
100 100
75 75
50 50
25 25

before after

How much water has been poured into the beaker?

A 51 cm3 B 52 cm3 C 55 cm3 D 63 cm3

2 The diagram shows the speed–time graph for a car.

speed Y

0
0 time

Which row describes the motion of the car at point X and at point Y?

point X point Y

A at rest moving with constant speed


B moving with constant speed at rest
C moving with changing speed at rest
D moving with changing speed moving with constant speed

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3 A ball is dropped in a vacuum from a height of 4.0 m above the surface of Mars. The acceleration
of the ball at a height of 2.0 m is 3.8 m / s2.

What is the acceleration of the ball at a height of 1.0 m above the surface of Mars?

A 1.9 m / s2 B 3.8 m / s2 C 5.7 m / s2 D 7.6 m / s2

4 Two objects are placed on a balance, one on each side, as shown.

Which properties of the objects can be compared using the balance?

A weight, mass and volume


B weight and mass only
C volume and density
D density only

5 A rectangular swimming pool is 50 m long and 25 m wide.

It contains water at a depth of 2 m.

The density of the water is 1000 kg / m3.

What is the mass of the water in the pool?

A 2.5 kg B 2500 kg C 77 000 kg D 2 500 000 kg

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6 An object is rising vertically at constant speed through water. There are three vertical forces
acting on it: the weight W, the drag force D, and the upward force U.

Which diagram shows the magnitude and direction of the vertical forces acting on the object?

A B C D

U = 3.0 N U = 3.0 N
U = 2.0 N D = 2.0 N U = 2.0 N
D = 1.0 N

W = 1.0 N D = 1.0 N D = 1.0 N

W = 2.0 N
W = 3.0 N W = 3.0 N

7 Which force produces heating during contact with a moving object?

A weight
B friction
C electrostatic force
D magnetic force

8 A metre rule is balanced at its midpoint.

It remains balanced when a 3.0 N load is hung from the 40 cm mark and a second load is hung
from the 80 cm mark.

What is the weight of the second load?

A 1.0 N B 1.5 N C 3.0 N D 9.0 N

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9 A student measures the length of a spring. She then attaches different weights to the spring. She
measures the length of the spring for each weight.

The table shows her results.

weight / N length / mm

0 520
1.0 524
2.0 528
3.0 533
4.0 537
5.0 540

What is the extension of the spring with a weight of 3.0 N attached to it?

A 4 mm B 5 mm C 12 mm D 13 mm

10 Which power station produces the greatest atmospheric pollution for each unit of energy
generated?

A a gas fired power station


B a hydroelectric power station
C a nuclear power station
D a wind farm

11 A 500 N weight is raised through a height of 5 cm.

How much work is done by the force?

A 25 J B 100 J C 2500 J D 10 000 J

12 What is the unit of power?

A joule
B newton
C volt
D watt

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13 The diagram shows a rectangular block of weight 16 N. It is resting on a flat surface.

4.0 cm
5.0 cm

9.0 cm

What is the pressure at the base of the block due to its weight?

A 0.089 N / cm2
B 0.36 N / cm2
C 0.80 N / cm2
D 320 N / cm2

14 A piston traps a mass of gas inside a cylinder. Initially, the piston is halfway along the length of
the cylinder.

The piston is now moved towards the open end of the cylinder. The temperature of the gas
remains constant.

initial position

cylinder piston

final position

How are the density and the pressure of the gas affected by moving the piston?

density pressure

A decreases decreases
B decreases unchanged
C increases decreases
D increases unchanged

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15 Which statement describes what happens to air particles when the air is heated?

A The particles move more slowly.


B The particles move more quickly.
C The particles move closer together.
D The particles vibrate faster.

16 What happens when the temperature of a liquid increases?

A The mass of the liquid increases, making the liquid less dense.
B The mass of the liquid increases, making the liquid more dense.
C The volume of the liquid increases, making the liquid less dense.
D The volume of the liquid increases, making the liquid more dense.

17 In which states of matter can thermal energy be transferred by convection?

A in gases, liquids and solids


B in gases and liquids only
C in gases and solids only
D in liquids only

18 A transverse wave moves along a rope.

The diagram shows the position of the rope at one particular time.

rope

W X Y Z

Which two labelled points are one wavelength apart?

A W and X B W and Z C X and Z D Y and Z

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19 The diagram shows a ray of light being reflected from a plane mirror.

X Y
plane mirror W
Z

Which row identifies the angles of incidence and reflection?

angle of angle of
incidence reflection

A W Y
B W Z
C X Y
D X Z

20 Blue light has a typical wavelength of 5.0 × 10–7 m and frequency of 0.60 × 1015 Hz.

Which row gives a typical wavelength and frequency for red light?

wavelength frequency

A 2.4 × 10–7 m 0.40 × 1015 Hz


B 2.4 × 10–7 m 1.3 × 1015 Hz
C 6.9 × 10–7 m 0.40 × 1015 Hz
D 6.9 × 10–7 m 1.3 × 1015 Hz

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21 Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?

A B

spectrum
white white
light light
spectrum

C D
spectrum

white white
light light spectrum

22 A television (TV) station transmits a signal to a television receiving dish.

The television has an on / off indicator light.

The television is switched on by a remote control which changes the indicator light from red to
green.

Which electromagnetic wave used in these actions has the longest wavelength?

satellite

A receiving
dish

TV
station B remote
TV
control
indicator light

red green

C D

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10

23 A sound wave has a wavelength of 0.024 m.

What is the frequency of this sound wave and is it audible to humans?

frequency audible
/ Hz to humans

A 140 yes
B 140 no
C 14 000 yes
D 14 000 no

24 The diagram shows a bar magnet at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. A length of soft-iron
wire is held parallel to the magnet.

soft-iron wire
magnet
S

The wire is released.

What happens?

A The wire moves away from the magnet.


B The wire moves towards the magnet.

C The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in a clockwise
direction.

D The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in an
anticlockwise direction.

25 A man walks across a carpet. He becomes negatively charged by friction with the carpet.

What happens as he touches a metal object connected to the Earth?

A The man gains electrons.


B The man loses electrons.
C The man gains protons.
D The man loses protons.

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11

26 A laboratory has a standard wire of known resistance. It also has other wires, made from the
same material as the standard wire, but of different lengths and diameters.

Which wire would definitely have a resistance of less than the standard wire?

wire length wire diameter

A longer larger
B longer smaller
C shorter larger
D shorter smaller

27 The diagram shows a circuit.

Which energy transfers occur?

A battery → lamp → surrounding air

B battery → surrounding air → battery

C lamp → surrounding air → battery

D surrounding air → lamp → battery

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12

28 X, Y and Z are lamps.

+ – + – + –

Y Z
X

In which lamps is there a current?

X Y Z

A    key
B    = current in lamp
C    = no current in lamp
D   

29 The diagram shows a circuit.

Which change causes the bulb in the circuit to become brighter?

A a decrease in light intensity


B a decrease in temperature
C an increase in light intensity
D an increase in temperature

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13

30 The current in a kettle is 10 A and the kettle is protected by a 13 A fuse.

The owner of the kettle replaces the 13 A fuse with a 3 A fuse.

What happens when the kettle is switched on?

A The fuse melts and the kettle might be damaged.


B The fuse melts and the kettle is undamaged.
C The fuse does not melt and the kettle works correctly.
D The fuse does not melt but the kettle fails to work.

31 A wire is moved down in a direction perpendicular to the magnetic field.

N
S

Three changes are suggested.

1 The speed of the movement of the wire is increased.


2 The magnetic field strength is decreased.
3 The direction of the magnetic field is reversed.

Which changes increase the electromotive force (e.m.f.) induced in the wire?

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only

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14

32 In an experiment, a wire is held above a compass needle as shown.

N S

An electric current is switched on in the wire and the compass needle is deflected.

Which row explains why this happens and then describes what happens when the current is
reversed?

what happens when


why this happens
the current is reversed
A there is a magnetic the compass needle deflects
field inside the wire in the opposite direction
B there is a magnetic the compass needle remains
field inside the wire deflected in the same direction
C there is a magnetic the compass needle deflects
field around the wire in the opposite direction
D there is a magnetic the compass needle remains
field around the wire deflected in the same direction

33 Over time, the strength of the magnets in an electric motor decreases.

Which row describes two ways to keep the motor running at its original speed?

current in number of turns


the coil on the coil

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

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15

34 A rechargeable battery contains lithium.

The lithium exists as positive lithium ions.

How does an ion of lithium differ from an atom of lithium?

A The ion has fewer electrons orbiting the nucleus.


B The ion has more electrons orbiting the nucleus.
C The nucleus of the ion has less charge.
D The nucleus of the ion is more positively charged.

35 An iron nuclide is represented by the symbol shown.

56
26Fe

Which statements about a nucleus of this iron nuclide are correct?

1 The nucleus contains 56 neutrons.


2 The nucleon number is 30.
3 The proton number is 26.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

36 What is an artificial source of background radiation?

A X-ray machines in hospitals


B radon gas from rocks
C cosmic rays from the Sun
D plants and other living things

37 A sample of a radioactive isotope has an initial rate of emission of 128 counts per minute and a
half-life of 4 days.

How long will it take for the rate of emission to fall to 32 counts per minute?

A 2 days B 4 days C 8 days D 12 days

38 Approximately how long does it take for the Moon to make one complete orbit of the Earth?

A 24 hours
B 1 month
C 1 season
D 1 year

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16

39 The Sun has a mass of 2.0 × 1030 kg.

Which element accounts for most of this mass?

A carbon
B hydrogen
C oxygen
D uranium

40 The nearest star to the Sun is Proxima Centauri at a distance of 4.2 light years.

Which statements are correct?

1 Telescope images of Proxima Centauri show it as it was 4.2 years ago.


2 If a spacecraft near Proxima Centauri sent a radio message to the Earth, it would
take 4.2 years to arrive.
3 Proxima Centauri is outside the Milky Way galaxy.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2023 0625/12/F/M/23

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) February/March 2023
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the February/March 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.

S-RECOURSE_03234567800
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme February/March 2023
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 D 1

3 B 1

4 B 1

5 D 1

6 D 1

7 B 1

8 A 1

9 D 1

10 A 1

11 A 1

12 D 1

13 C 1

14 A 1

15 B 1

16 C 1

17 B 1

18 C 1

19 C 1

20 C 1

21 D 1

22 A 1

23 C 1

24 B 1

25 B 1

26 C 1

27 A 1

28 C 1
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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme February/March 2023
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 D 1

30 B 1

31 B 1

32 C 1

33 D 1

34 A 1

35 D 1

36 A 1

37 C 1

38 B 1

39 B 1

40 B 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2023
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*3215050704*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 9.8 N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

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1 Which unit is a unit of weight?

A kilogram
B kilojoule
C kilometre
D kilonewton

2 The graph represents the motion of a vehicle.

20
speed
m/s

0
0 400
time / s

What is the distance travelled by the vehicle in 400 s?

A 20 m B 400 m C 4000 m D 8000 m

3 The diagram shows a distance–time graph for an object moving in a straight line.

Y
12
distance / m

X
6

0
0 10 30
time / s

What is the average speed between X and Y?

A 0.20 m / s B 0.30 m / s C 0.40 m / s D 0.60 m / s

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4 A space rocket travels to the Moon.

The acceleration of free fall is greater on the Earth than it is on the Moon.

How do the mass and weight of the space rocket on the Moon compare with their values on the
Earth?

mass on the Moon weight on the Moon

A less than on the Earth same as on the Earth


B less than on the Earth more than on the Earth
C same as on the Earth less than on the Earth
D same as on the Earth more than on the Earth

5 A shopkeeper pours rice into a dish that hangs from a spring balance. He records the reading.

0 1 spring balance
6
5 2
4 3

rice

dish

A customer buys some pasta. The shopkeeper notices that the reading on the spring balance,
with just pasta in the dish, is the same as it was with just rice in the dish.

Which quantity must be the same for the rice and for the pasta?

A density
B temperature
C volume
D weight

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6 A student determines the density of an irregularly shaped stone. The stone is slowly lowered into
a measuring cylinder partly filled with water.

measuring
cylinder

stone

Which other apparatus does the student need to calculate the density of the irregularly shaped
stone?

A a balance
B a thermometer
C a metre rule
D a stop-watch

7 Four objects are moving.

Which object has a zero resultant force acting on it?

A the object moving at a decreasing speed


B the object moving at an increasing speed
C the object moving at a constant speed in a circle
D the object moving at a constant speed in a straight line

8 The diagram shows a uniform metre rule. The rule is pivoted at its mid-point. A weight of 4.0 N is
suspended from the rule at the 5 cm mark. The rule is held by a string at the 30 cm mark. The rule
is in equilibrium.

string metre rule


0 cm mark 100 cm mark
5 50

30
pivot
4.0 N

What is the upward force that the string exerts on the rule?

A 0.67 N B 4.0 N C 6.0 N D 9.0 N

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9 An irregularly shaped metal plate is freely suspended from a point P and is in equilibrium, as
shown. Point Q is vertically below P.

Which statement about the position of the centre of gravity of the metal plate is correct?

A It is at P.
B It is at Q.
C It is halfway between P and Q.
D Further investigation is needed to determine its position.

10 Which row about the change of energy in the energy store must be correct?

change of
process energy store
energy in store
A water pumped up to a gravitational potential increases
high-altitude dam energy of water
B water pumped up to a kinetic energy decreases
high-altitude dam of water
C air passes through gravitational potential increases
a wind turbine energy of air
D air passes through kinetic energy increases
a wind turbine of air

11 A rock of weight 50 N falls a vertical distance of 7.0 m from rest.

What is the change in the gravitational potential energy store of the rock?

A decrease of 7.1 J
B decrease of 350 J
C increase of 7.1 J
D increase of 350 J

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12 A child runs up a set of stairs four times. The time taken for each run is recorded.

Which time is measured when the child’s useful power is greatest?

A 10 s B 20 s C 30 s D 40 s

13 A woman has a weight of 600 N. She stands on a horizontal floor. The area of her feet in contact
with the floor is 0.050 m2.

What is the pressure she exerts on the floor?

A 1.2 × 103 N / m2

B 2.4 × 103 N / m2

C 1.2 × 104 N / m2

D 2.4 × 104 N / m2

14 Gases, liquids and solids are made up of small particles.

Which row gives the relative separation of the particles?

gas liquid solid

A far apart far apart far apart


B far apart far apart close together
C far apart close together close together
D close together close together far apart

15 Which statements about evaporation of water are correct?

1 Evaporation causes the remaining liquid to cool.


2 During evaporation, the more energetic particles escape from the surface of the
liquid.

3 Evaporation only happens at 100 °C.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

16 Which surface is the worst absorber of infrared radiation?

A dull black
B dull white
C shiny black
D shiny white

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17 The diagrams show graphs of displacement against time for four waves. All the graphs are drawn
to the same scale.

Which wave has the largest amplitude and the highest frequency?

A B
displacement displacement

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D
displacement displacement

0 0
0 time 0 time

18 A student draws a diagram to show the directions of a light ray reflecting off a plane mirror.

1 2 3

mirror

What are the correct terms for the lines drawn?

incident reflected
normal
ray ray

A 1 2 3
B 1 3 2
C 2 1 3
D 2 3 1

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19 An object O is placed at point P near to a thin converging lens. The diagram shows three rays
from the top of O passing through the lens. Each point F is one focal length from the centre of the
lens. Each point 2F is two focal lengths from the centre of the lens.

P 2F Q F F 2F
image

The object O is moved to point Q on the diagram.

Which type of image is produced when the object O is at point Q?

A inverted and the same size as the object


B inverted and enlarged
C upright and the same size as the object
D upright and enlarged

20 Which diagram shows the dispersion of white light by a glass prism?

A B

red
red red
white white violet violet
violet

C D

red red
red red
white violet violet white violet violet

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21 Which statement is correct?

A A remote controller emits microwave radiation.


B A remote controller emits infrared radiation.
C A remote controller emits ultrasound.
D A remote controller emits ultraviolet radiation.

22 Student X fires a starting pistol which produces smoke and sound. Student Y is standing 100 m
away and sees the smoke the instant it is produced. The speed of sound in air is 340 m / s.

What is the time delay between student Y seeing the smoke and hearing the sound?

A 0.29 s B 0.59 s C 1.7 s D 3.4 s

23 An unmagnetised piece of soft iron is placed close to a strong permanent magnet, as shown.

S N X
permanent soft iron
magnet

What is the induced polarity of end X of the soft iron and in which direction does the magnetic
force act on the soft iron?

direction of force
polarity of end X
on the soft iron

A N to the left
B N to the right
C S to the left
D S to the right

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10

24 A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth.

plastic rod

cloth

The rod and the cloth both become charged as electrons move between them.

The rod becomes negatively charged.

Which diagram shows how the rod becomes negatively charged and shows the final charge on
the cloth?

A B
electron electron
– – movement – movement
– – –
– –
– – + + + – –– + + +
– – – + + + – – +
+ + + ++
+ + final charge + final charge
on the cloth on the cloth

C D
electron electron
– movement – movement
– – – –
– –
– –– – – – – –– – – –
– – – – – –
– – –– – – ––
– final charge – final charge
on the cloth on the cloth

25 Which particles move to cause a current in a copper wire?

A copper atoms
B electrons from the copper atoms
C protons from the copper nuclei
D neutrons from the copper nuclei

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11

26 Four students draw a circuit diagram of the apparatus used to measure the resistance of
resistor R.

Which circuit is correct?

A B

V A
R R

A V

C D

V A
R R

A V

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12

27 The battery on a bicycle is connected in parallel to its lamp and bell.

The circuit includes two switches, S1 and S2.

S1

bell S2

The cyclist closes S1 to light the lamp.

She then also closes S2 to sound the bell.

What happens to the current in the battery and the power output from the battery when the cyclist
closes S2?

current in power output


the battery from the battery

A increases increases
B increases stays the same
C stays the same increases
D stays the same stays the same

28 Which symbol represents an electric heater?

A B C D

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13

29 A student connects the circuit shown.

bell 2

Which switches must be closed for the bell to ring without lighting the lamp?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

30 A double-insulated electrical appliance must be connected safely to the electricity supply.

Which statement is correct?

A It must be connected with a fuse and an earth wire.


B It can be connected with a fuse only.
C It can be connected with an earth wire only.
D It does not need a fuse or an earth wire.

31 A simple electric generator induces an electromotive force (e.m.f.).

Which modification would increase the induced e.m.f.?

A Increase the number of turns in the coil of the generator.


B Increase the distance between the magnetic poles.
C Reduce the strength of the magnetic field around the coil.
D Reverse the direction of the magnetic field.

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14

32 The diagram shows a vertical wire carrying a current I placed between the poles of a magnet.

N
S

What is the direction of the force on the wire exerted by the magnetic field?

A from N to S
B from S to N
C horizontal and at right angles to the direction from N to S
D parallel to the wire

33 What is an advantage of transmitting electricity at a high voltage?

A It is faster.
B It is safer.
C Less energy is wasted.
D Less equipment is needed.

34 How are positive and negative ions formed from atoms?

positive ion negative ion

A add positive charge to the nucleus add an electron to the atom


B add positive charge to the nucleus remove positive charge from the nucleus
C remove an electron from the atom add an electron to the atom
D remove an electron from the atom remove positive charge from the nucleus

35 A nucleus of element X is represented as 56 X.


26

Which is an isotope of element X?

A 26 X B 54 X C 56 X D 54 X
56 26 24 28

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15

36 Which statement about the random decay of the nuclei in a sample of uranium-238 is correct?

A The probabilities of an alpha-particle, a beta-particle or a gamma ray being emitted from a


nucleus in the sample are equal.
B The probability of a nucleus in the sample decaying decreases as time passes.
C The probability of a nucleus decaying in any ten minute interval is the same for all the nuclei
in the sample.
D The probability of a nucleus in the sample decaying increases as time passes.

37 The count rate due to a sample of a radioactive isotope is measured for 80 minutes.

time count rate


/ minutes counts / second

0 480
20 380
40 300
60 240
80 190

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A 20 minutes B 40 minutes C 60 minutes D 80 minutes

38 Which planet in our Solar System is nearest to the Sun and what is the nature of the planet?

planet nature

A Mercury rocky
B Mercury gaseous
C Venus rocky
D Venus gaseous

39 The Sun consists mostly of two elements.

What are these two elements?

A helium and nitrogen


B hydrogen and helium
C hydrogen and oxygen
D oxygen and nitrogen

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16

40 Which statement about the Milky Way is correct?

A It is a galaxy.
B It is a group of galaxies.
C It is a group of stars outside our own galaxy.
D It is a group of stars which are part of our galaxy.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2023
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.


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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2023
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 D 1

2 C 1

3 B 1

4 C 1

5 D 1

6 A 1

7 D 1

8 D 1

9 D 1

10 A 1

11 B 1

12 A 1

13 C 1

14 C 1

15 B 1

16 D 1

17 A 1

18 C 1

19 B 1

20 B 1

21 B 1

22 A 1

23 C 1

24 B 1

25 B 1

26 D 1

27 A 1

28 D 1

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0625/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2023
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 B 1

30 B 1

31 A 1

32 C 1

33 C 1

34 C 1

35 B 1

36 C 1

37 C 1

38 A 1

39 B 1

40 A 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2023
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*8707796133*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 9.8 N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 06_0625_12/4RP
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1 Which single apparatus is used to find the volume of a solid cube and which single apparatus is
used to find the volume of a quantity of liquid?

volume of solid cube volume of liquid

A balance balance
B balance measuring cylinder
C ruler balance
D ruler measuring cylinder

2 The speed–time graph represents a short journey.

speed

0
0 time

Which distance–time graph represents the same journey?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

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3 The graph represents the motion of a car.

10
speed
m/s 8

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / s

How far has the car moved between 0 and 5 s?

A 2m B 10 m C 25 m D 50 m

4 Which statement about mass or weight is not correct?

A Masses can be compared using a balance.


B Mass is a force.
C Weights can be compared using a balance.
D Weight is a force.

5 Which two quantities must be known to determine the density of a material?

A mass and area


B mass and volume
C weight and area
D weight and volume

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6 Two boys are sitting on a see-saw. The see-saw is in equilibrium and remains horizontal.

pivot

What affects the moment of each boy about the pivot?

A his distance from the pivot only


B his height above the ground and his weight
C his weight only
D his weight and distance from the pivot

7 A uniform metre rule is pivoted in equilibrium at the 50 cm mark. A mass of 25 g is placed at the
30 cm mark on the rule.

What is the smallest mass that can be placed on the rule to restore equilibrium?

A 5g B 10 g C 15 g D 25 g

8 A uniform beam XY is 100 cm long and weighs 4.0 N.

80 cm

60 cm

10 cm

X Y
centre
pivot
of beam F
8.0 N

The beam rests on a pivot 60 cm from end X.

A load of 8.0 N hangs from the beam 10 cm from end X.

The beam is kept balanced by a force F acting on the beam 80 cm from end X.

What is the magnitude of force F ?

A 8.0 N B 18 N C 22 N D 44 N

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9 Three children’s toys, X, Y and Z, are the same size and shape. They have weights at different
positions inside so that the position of the centre of gravity of each toy is different. Each toy’s
centre of gravity is marked P.

X Y Z
P

P
P

Which toy is the most stable and which toy is the least stable when balanced in the positions
shown?

most least
stable stable

A X Y
B X Z
C Y X
D Y Z

10 The diagram shows the energy stores for a mobile (cell) phone and how the energy is transferred
between stores.

internal
heating
energy
chemical
?
energy kinetic
sound
energy

What describes how the chemical energy is transferred?

A electrical work done


B mechanical work done
C electromagnetic waves
D sound waves

11 A moving object is brought to rest by a resistive force of 50 N over a distance of 5.0 m.

What is the work done by the force?

A 0.10 J B 10 J C 55 J D 250 J

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12 Which two physical quantities must be used to calculate the power developed by a student
running up a flight of steps?

A force exerted and the vertical height of the steps only


B force exerted and the time taken only
C work done and the vertical height of the steps only
D work done and the time taken only

13 A rectangular marble block has dimensions 1 m by 1 m by 5 m and weighs 125 000 N.

The marble block is stored with the long side resting on the ground, as in diagram 1.

diagram 1 diagram 2

What is the change in the pressure on the ground due to the block when the block is stored as in
diagram 2 rather than diagram 1?

A a decrease of 25 000 N / m2
B an increase of 100 000 N / m2
C an increase of 125 000 N / m2
D no change

14 Four students describe the phrase ‘absolute zero’ during a lesson on the particle model.

Which student is correct?

A This is the lowest possible temperature.


B Particles in a solid start vibrating.
C Particles do not have any weight.
D Particles have the least gravitational potential energy.

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15 At the surface of a liquid, the more energetic molecules can escape from the liquid into the
atmosphere.

Which name is given to this process?

A boiling
B condensation
C evaporation
D melting

16 A teacher puts some cold water in a test-tube.

She holds the bottom of the test-tube while heating the top.

boiling water

cold water

heat

The water at the top boils but she continues to hold the test-tube as the bottom remains cold.

Which conclusion about water is made from this experiment?

A Water is a bad conductor.


B Water is a bad convector.
C Water is a good conductor.
D Water is a good convector.

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17 The diagram shows a wave.

8 cm

3 cm

6 cm

4 cm

What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?

amplitude / cm wavelength / cm

A 3 4
B 3 8
C 6 4
D 6 8

18 A light ray strikes a plane mirror and is reflected.

Which angle is always equal in size to the angle of reflection?

A the angle between the incident ray and the mirror


B the angle between the incident ray and the normal to the mirror
C the angle between the reflected ray and the mirror
D the angle between the reflected ray and the incident ray

19 The diagram shows two diverging rays of light passing through a lens and emerging parallel to
each other.

Which labelled distance is the focal length of the lens?

thin lens

A D C

B
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20 A beam of light consists of yellow and blue light.

The beam of light is incident on a glass prism.

Which diagram is correct?

A B
yellow blue
blue yellow
glass prism glass prism

C D

glass prism glass prism


blue yellow

yellow blue

21 The two devices shown use different types of electromagnetic waves.

medical scanning remote controller

Which types of waves are used in these devices?

medical remote
scanning controller

A ultraviolet infrared
B ultraviolet microwaves
C X-rays infrared
D X-rays microwaves

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10

22 A boy shouts and hears the echo from a tall building 2.2 s later.

The speed of sound in air is 330 m / s.

How far away from the boy is the building?

A 150 m B 300 m C 360 m D 730 m

23 The magnetic field of a bar magnet can be represented by magnetic field lines.

Which diagram shows two magnetic field lines correctly?

A B C D

N S N S N S N S

24 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Why has the rod become positively charged?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained neutrons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost neutrons.

25 Which statement about electric current in a conductor is correct?

A In a d.c. circuit, the electric current gradually decreases along the conductor.
B In a d.c. circuit, the free electrons flow back and forth.
C In an a.c. circuit, the electric current remains exactly the same all the time.
D In an a.c. circuit, the flow of charge changes direction continually.

26 Which circuit can be used to measure the resistance of a resistor?

A B C D

V
V V

A
A
A
A

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11

27 A lamp rated 12 V, 2.0 A is switched on for 60 s.

How much energy is transferred?

A 0.40 J B 10 J C 360 J D 1400 J

28 The circuit diagram shows a battery connected to two resistors. Four labelled ammeters are
connected into the circuit.

Which ammeter shows the largest reading?

A D
A 2.0 :
A

B A
1.0 :
A
C

29 Two lamps are connected in parallel.

S1 S2

S3

Which switches must be closed so that both lamps light?

A S1 and S2 only
B S1 and S3 only
C S2 and S3 only
D S1, S2 and S3

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12

30 Which statement about electrical safety is correct?

A If a device is double insulated, it does not need a fuse.


B A device that has a normal operating current of 3.0 A must be protected by a 3.0 A fuse.
C Switches must always be connected into the live supply wire.
D The metal casing of an electrical device must be connected to the neutral wire.

31 A student investigates the output voltage induced across a coil of wire by a bar magnet.

When will the induced voltage have the greatest value?

A The student slowly moves the bar magnet into the coil of wire.
B The student leaves the bar magnet stationary in the coil of wire.
C The student quickly removes the bar magnet from the coil of wire.
D The student places the bar magnet at rest outside the coil of wire.

32 In which device is the magnetic effect of a current not used?

A electromagnet
B loudspeaker
C potential divider
D relay

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13

33 The diagram represents the transmission of electricity from a power station to homes that are
many kilometres away. Two transformers are labelled X and Y.

transmission
pylon cables pylon

cables

large houses
power ground
station X distance Y

What type of transformers are X and Y?

X Y

A step-down transformer step-down transformer


B step-down transformer step-up transformer
C step-up transformer step-down transformer
D step-up transformer step-up transformer

34 Which diagram represents the positions of the charged particles of an atom?

A B C D

– + +
+ –
+ – –
+ – + – +

– + –

35 The table shows the composition of three different nuclei.

number of number of
nucleus
protons neutrons

X 3 3
Y 3 4
Z 4 3

Which nuclei are isotopes of the same element?

A X, Y and Z B X and Y only C X and Z only D Y and Z only

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14

36 A sample of a radioactive isotope emits 9600 -particles per second.

After 40 hours the rate of emission has fallen to 600 -particles per second.

What is the half-life of this isotope?

A 4.0 hours B 8.0 hours C 10 hours D 20 hours

37 Which row states a harmful effect and a beneficial effect of ionising radiation on living things?

harmful effect beneficial effect

A kills cancer cells kills cancer cells


B kills cancer cells mutates living cells
C mutates living cells kills cancer cells
D mutates living cells mutates living cells

38 Which statement about the Solar System is correct?

A All the planets are rocky.


B Only the Earth has a moon.
C Pluto is a dwarf planet.
D There are many stars in the Solar System.

39 The graph shows the energy radiated by the Sun at different wavelengths. Most of the energy is
radiated in just three parts of the electromagnetic spectrum, labelled P, Q and R.

energy
radiated

0
0 P Q R wavelength

Which parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are P and R?

P R

A gamma ray radio


B infrared ultraviolet
C radio gamma ray
D ultraviolet infrared
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40 An astronomer observes redshift in the light from a distant galaxy.

Which statement about redshift is correct?

A It is the decrease in the observed wavelength of red light emitted from receding galaxies.
B It is evidence that the Universe is contracting and supports the Big Bang Theory.
C It is evidence that the Universe is expanding and supports the Big Bang Theory.
D Redshift is when light from receding galaxies appears blue.

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16

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
S-RECOURSE_03234567800
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2023
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.


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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2023
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 D 1

2 B 1

3 C 1

4 B 1

5 B 1

6 D 1

7 B 1

8 C 1

9 B 1

10 A 1

11 D 1

12 D 1

13 B 1

14 A 1

15 C 1

16 A 1

17 B 1

18 B 1

19 B 1

20 D 1

21 C 1

22 C 1

23 A 1

24 C 1

25 D 1

26 B 1

27 D 1

28 D 1

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0625/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2023
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 D 1

30 C 1

31 C 1

32 C 1

33 C 1

34 A 1

35 B 1

36 C 1

37 C 1

38 C 1

39 D 1

40 C 1

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2023
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*6761905998*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 9.8 N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 06_0625_13/5RP
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1 Which piece of apparatus is used to measure the length of a copper rod of length approximately
2 cm?

A digital timer
B measuring cylinder
C ruler
D balance

2 The speed–time graph shows the motion of an object.

5
speed
m/s

0
0 5 10 15 20 25
time / s

How far does the object travel at constant speed?

A 25 m B 50 m C 75 m D 125 m

3 A rock falls off a cliff onto a beach. The effect of air resistance on the rock is negligible.

Which row describes the acceleration and speed of the rock as it falls?

acceleration speed

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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4 Two rectangular blocks consist of different materials.

Four different methods are suggested to compare the two masses.

1 Compare the accelerations with which they fall freely.

2 Compare the values of their lengths  breadths  heights.


3 Hang each in turn from the same spring. Compare the extensions.
4 Place one in the right-hand pan of a beam balance and the other in the left-hand
pan.

Which methods give a comparison of the two masses?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 3 and 4 only D 4 only

5 A measuring cylinder containing 50 cm3 of water is put on a balance.

water object

150 g 210 g

A solid object is put in the cylinder and the water level rises to 75 cm3.

What is the density of the object?

A 0.80 g / cm3 B 2.4 g / cm3 C 2.8 g / cm3 D 8.4 g / cm3

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6 A cyclist is travelling in a straight line along a horizontal road at a constant speed.

A constant driving force F acts on the cyclist in the forward direction shown.

Which statement about the magnitude of the frictional forces acting on the cyclist is correct?

A The magnitude is equal to F.


B The magnitude is smaller than F, but greater than zero.
C The magnitude is greater than F.
D The magnitude is zero.

7 A beam is pivoted at P. A force is applied to the beam.

Which distance is multiplied by the force to give the moment of the force about P?

D
C
P

beam
B
A
force

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8 The diagram shows an unbalanced rod. Two loads X and Y can be moved along the rod.

X Y
rod
movement movement
of rod of rod
pivot

The rod turns in a clockwise direction, as shown.

Which action could make the rod balance?

A moving X to the left


B moving X to the right
C moving Y to the right
D moving the pivot to the left

9 It is important that an electric table lamp with a lamp shade does not get knocked over easily.

shade

base

Which statement is correct?

A The centre of mass must be as low as possible.


B The lamp must have a shade which is heavier than the base.
C The lamp must have a narrow base.
D The lamp shade must be wide.

10 A bicycle braking system transfers energy from a kinetic energy store to an internal energy store.

A motor converts energy from a chemical energy store (battery) to a kinetic energy store.

What enables these energy transfers?

braking system motor

A electrical work mechanical work


B electrical work electrical work
C mechanical work mechanical work
D mechanical work electrical work

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11 A toy car is pushed a distance of 2.4 m with a force equal to 460 N.

How much energy is transferred?

A 190 J B 190 W C 1100 J D 1100 W

12 The engine of a motor vehicle develops a large power.

Which statement is correct?

A The driving force acting on the vehicle must be large.


B The engine must have a very large volume.
C The engine must transfer large amounts of energy each second.
D The vehicle must be very fast.

13 A solid cube has sides 0.50 m long and a mass of 120 kg. It stands on the ground on one face.

Which pressure does the cube exert on the ground?

A 480 kg / m3 B 960 kg / m3 C 4700 N / m2 D 9400 N / m2

14 What is the lowest possible temperature (absolute zero) and what happens to the energy of
particles at this temperature?

lowest possible
particle energy
temperature / C

A –273 particles have least kinetic energy


B –273 particles have zero gravitational potential energy
C 0 particles have least kinetic energy
D 0 particles have zero gravitational potential energy

15 Which statement about the particles of a substance after condensation is correct?

A They are close to each other and slide over each other.
B They are close to each other and vibrate about fixed points.
C They are far apart from each other and vibrate about fixed points.
D They are far apart from each other and move freely within the container.

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16 The diagram shows a flask designed to reduce the loss of thermal energy from a hot liquid.

plastic stopper

vacuum
thin silvered
walls of glass

hot liquid

plastic supports

Which methods of thermal energy transfer are the silvered walls designed to reduce?

A conduction, convection and radiation


B conduction and convection only
C conduction only
D radiation only

17 A drop of water from a tap falls onto the surface of some water of constant depth.

view from above

Water waves spread out on the surface of the water.

Which statement is correct?

A The waves are longitudinal and travel at the same speed in all directions.
B The waves are longitudinal and travel more quickly in one direction than in others.
C The waves are transverse and travel at the same speed in all directions.
D The waves are transverse and travel more quickly in one direction than in others.

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18 The optical image formed by a plane mirror is the same size as the object.

Which row describes the other characteristics of the optical image formed?

distance from
real or virtual
the mirror

A same as object virtual


B smaller than object virtual
C larger than object real
D same as object real

19 The diagram shows a partly completed scale drawing of an upright object placed 3 cm in front of a
thin converging lens of focal length 2 cm.

F F

What is the nature of the image formed by this lens?

A diminished, inverted and closer to the lens than the object


B diminished, upright and further from the lens than the object
C enlarged, inverted and closer to the lens than the object
D enlarged, inverted and further from the lens than the object

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20 A narrow beam of white light passes through a prism and is dispersed into a spectrum.

1
white 2
light 3

Which row is correct?

colour 1 colour 2 colour 3

A blue yellow red


B red blue yellow
C red yellow blue
D yellow blue red

21 Which row matches a region of the electromagnetic spectrum to one of its uses?

region use

A gamma rays intruder alarms


B infrared satellite television
C microwaves mobile (cell) phones
D radio waves sterilising food

22 A ship sounds its horn when it is 790 m from a cliff. A passenger on the ship hears the echo 4.8 s
later.

What is the speed of the sound?

A 165 m / s B 330 m / s C 340 m / s D 1896 m / s

23 Which row gives the metal used to make the core of an electromagnet and one property of the
electromagnet?

metal property

A iron permanent magnet


B iron temporary magnet
C steel permanent magnet
D steel temporary magnet

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10

24 A plastic rod and a dry cloth are uncharged.

The rod is now rubbed with the cloth and they both become charged. The rod becomes
negatively charged because some charged particles move from the cloth to the rod.

What is the charge on the cloth and which particles moved in the charging process?

charge particles
on cloth that moved

A negative electrons
B negative neutrons
C positive electrons
D positive neutrons

25 A power supply of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 12 V is connected across a 3  resistor.

Which ammeter is most suitable to measure the current in the resistor?

A an ammeter with a range 0–0.5 A


B an ammeter with a range 0–1 A
C an ammeter with a range 0–5 A
D an ammeter with a range 0–50 A

26 The cost of electrical energy is $0.25 for each unit of 1 kW h. A 2200 W heater is switched on for
48 minutes.

What is the cost of this use?

A $0.44 B $0.55 C $26 D $440

27 The diagram shows six different electrical circuit components.

G A V M

Which circuit symbol is not present in the diagram?

A resistor
B voltmeter
C generator
D thermistor

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28 The circuit shown contains three switches and four lamps P, Q, R and S.

switch 1
lamp P

lamp Q
switch 2

lamp R

switch 3
lamp S

Which switches must be closed to light only lamps P and R?

A switch 1 only
B switch 1 and switch 2
C switch 1 and switch 3
D switch 2 and switch 3

29 An electric heater has a metal frame.

The heating element is connected to the live and neutral wires of an a.c. supply. The metal frame
is connected to the earth wire.

Which row gives the correct connections for the fuse and the switch?

fuse switch

A in the earth in the live


B in the earth in the neutral
C in the live in the live
D in the live in the neutral

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12

30 Which electrical device uses the turning effect produced by a current-carrying coil in a magnetic
field?

A a.c. generator
B d.c. motor
C relay
D transformer

31 Four appliances all use an electric current to operate.

Which appliance uses the magnetic effect of the current?

A a heater
B a light bulb
C a relay
D a remote controller

32 A student makes four different types of transformer. She counts the number of turns on the
primary and secondary coils. She labels each transformer as either step-up or step-down.

Which row shows the correct labels?

number of number of step-up or


turns on the turns on the step-down
primary coil secondary coil transformer

A 5 5 step-up
B 10 5 step-up
C 10 20 step-down
D 20 10 step-down

33 How is electricity transmitted over large distances and why is it transmitted in this way?

how why

A at high voltage for safety


B at high voltage to reduce energy loss
C at low voltage for safety
D at low voltage to reduce energy loss

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34 An atom of an element contains electrons, neutrons and protons.

Which particles are found in the nucleus?

A electrons and neutrons only


B electrons and protons only
C neutrons and protons only
D electrons, neutrons and protons

35 A nuclide of chlorine has the symbol shown.

35
17 Cl

What is the nucleon number of this nuclide of chlorine?

A 17 B 18 C 35 D 52

36 What is a major source of background radiation?

A cosmic rays
B microwaves from mobile (cell) phones
C nuclear power stations
D visible light from the Sun

37 The graph shows the radioactive decay curve of a substance.

1000
count rate
counts / s
750

500

250

0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
time / years

What is the half-life of this substance?

A 0.5 years B 5 years C 15 years D 30 years

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38 Which row about the orbits of the Earth and the Moon is correct?

approximate time approximate time


for the Earth for the Moon
to orbit the Sun to orbit the Earth

A 1 day 30 days
B 30 days 1 day
C 365 days 1 day
D 365 days 30 days

39 Which description of a galaxy is correct?

A a collection of billions of stars


B a collection of gaseous planets orbiting a star
C a collection of rocky planets orbiting a star
D all of the stars that exist

40 Light from distant stars is redshifted.

What is redshift?

A a decrease in observed wavelength caused by a star moving away from the Earth
B a decrease in observed wavelength caused by a star moving towards the Earth
C an increase in observed wavelength caused by a star moving away from the Earth
D an increase in observed wavelength caused by a star moving towards the Earth

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15

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To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core) May/June 2023
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 3 printed pages.


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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2023
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1

2 B 1

3 B 1

4 C 1

5 B 1

6 A 1

7 A 1

8 A 1

9 A 1

10 D 1

11 C 1

12 C 1

13 C 1

14 A 1

15 A 1

16 D 1

17 C 1

18 A 1

19 D 1

20 C 1

21 C 1

22 B 1

23 B 1

24 C 1

25 C 1

26 A 1

27 D 1

28 A 1

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0625/13 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2023
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

29 C 1

30 B 1

31 C 1

32 D 1

33 B 1

34 C 1

35 C 1

36 A 1

37 B 1

38 D 1

39 A 1

40 C 1

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